## Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Units and Measurement

Students can Download Chapter 2 Units and Measurement Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Units and Measurement

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How many seconds are there in a light fermi?
(a) 10-15
(b) 3.0 × 108
(c) 3.33 × 10-24
(d) 3.3 × 10-7
(c) 3.33 × 10-24
One light fermi is time taken by light to travel a distance of 1 fermi ie. 10-15m
1 light fermi = $$\frac{10^{-15}}{3 \times 10^{8}}$$ = 3.33 × 10-24s.

Question 2.
Which of the following pairs have same dimensional formula for both the quantities?

1. Kinetic energy and torque
2. Resistance and Inductance
3. Young’s modulus and pressure

(a) (1)only
(b) (2) only
(c) (1) and (3) only
(d) All of three
(c) (1) and (3) only

Question 3.
Give four dimensionless physical quantities.
Angle, Poisson’s ratio, strain, specific gravity.

Question 4.
The dimensions of plank constant are the same as those of______.
Angular momentum

Question 5.
A physical quantity P = $$\frac{\sqrt{a b c^{2}}}{d^{3}}$$ measuring a, b, c and d separately with the percentage error of 2% , 3%, 2% and 1% respectively. Minimum amount of error is contributed by the measurement of
(a) b
(b) a
(c) d
(d) c
(b) a
P = $$\frac{\sqrt{a b c^{2}}}{d^{3}}$$

The minimum amount of error is contributed by the measurement of a.

Question 6.
The number of significant figures in 11.118 × 10-6 is
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 4
As per rules, number of significant figures in 11.118 × 10-6 is 5.

Question 7.
What is the number of significant figures in 0.06070?
4.

Question 8.
If f = x2, What is the relative error in f?
$$\frac{2 \Delta x}{x}$$.

Question 9.
Which of the following measurement is more accu¬rate?
(i) 7000m
(ii) 7 × 102m
(iii) 7 × 103m
(i) 7000 m

Question 10.
Which of the following measurements is most, accurate?
(a) 5.0 cm
(b) 0.005 cm
(c) 5.00 cm
(c) Is most accurate because it has three significant figures. Greater is number of significant figures, more accurate is the measurement.
(a) has 2 significant figures
(b) has 1 significant figure.

Question 11.
Name three physical quantities having same dimension.
Work, Energy, and Torque.

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement Tw0 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Using dimensional analysis derive the relation F = ma. Where the symbols have the usual meaning.
Force on a body depends on mass(m), acceleration (a) an
F α maabtc
M1L1T-2 = Ma(LT-2)bTc
M1L1T-2 = MaLbT-2a+c
Equating the powers, we get a = 1 ,b = 1, -2b + c = -2, c = 0
F = m1a1t0 = ma.

Question 2.
Use your definition to explain how simple harmonic motion can be represented by the equation y = a sin ωt
(a) Show that the above equation is dimensionally correct
Y = a sin ωt
sin ωt has no dimensions. Hence we get L = L
Hence this equation is dimensionaly correct.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks.

1. The curved surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2 cm and height 20 cm is_____m2 (Write answer in 3 significant digits)
2. Im = ______ ly

1. Curved area = 2πl
= 2 × 3.14 (2 × 102) × 20 × 102
= 2.51 × 10-6m2

2. l ly= 9.46 × 1015 m
lm = $$\frac{l \mathrm{ly}}{9.46 \times 10^{15}}$$ ≈ 10-6ly.

Question 4.

1. Give a physical quantity with a unit and no dimension.
2. Arrange the following in the descending order.
1 light year, 1 parsec, 1 astronomical unit

1. Angle has no dimension. But it has unit.
2. 1 parsec, 1 light year, 1 astronomical unit.

Question 5.
Magnitude of force F experienced by a certain object moving with speed V is given by F = KV2. Where K is a constant. Find the dimensions of K.
F = KV2

Question 6.
What is the maximum percentage error in the measurement of kinetic energy if percentage errors in mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively?
E = $$\frac{1}{2}$$v2

% error in KE = % error in mass + 2 × % error in speed
= 2% + 2 × 3% = 8%.

Question 7.
Solve the following with regard to significant figures.

1. 5.8 + 0.125
2. 3.9 × 105 – 2.5 × 104

1. 5.8 + 0.125 = 5.925
Rounding to first decimal point, we get 5.9

2. 3.9 × 105 – 2.5 × 104
= 3.5 × 105 – 0.25 × 104
= 3.65 × 105
Rounding to first decimal place, we get 3.6 × 105.

Question 8.
What is maximum fractional error in
i) (a + b)
ii) a – b
iii) ab
iv) $$\frac{a}{b}$$
Given ∆ a and ∆ b are absolute errors in measurements a and b.

Question 9.

1. What is the fractional error in an? (Given absolute error in a is ∆ a)
2. What is absolute error in the measurements according to least count?
• 3.0 kg
• 25 s
• 5.62 cm

1. n$$\frac{\Delta a}{a}$$

2. The measurements according to least count:

• 0.1 kg
• 1 s
• 0.01 cm

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A stone is thrown upwards from the ground with a velocity ‘u’.

1. What is the maximum height attained by the stone?
2. Check the correctness of the equation obtained in (a) using the method of dimensional analysis.

1. H = $$\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}$$ ___(1)
u = u, v = o, a = -g, h = ?
We can find maximum height using the equation
u2 = u2 + 2as
0 = u2 + 2 × -g × H
2gh = u2
H = $$\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}$$

2. Dimension of H = L
Dimension of u = (LT-1)
Dimensions of time (t) = T
Dimension of g = (LT-2)
substituting these values in eq(1) we get
L = $$\frac{\left(L T^{-1}\right)^{2}}{\left(L T^{-2}\right)}$$
L = L.

Question 2.
Derive an empirical relationship for the force experienced on the car in terms of mass of the car m, velocity v, and radius of the track r using dimensional analysis.
Centripetal force may depends on mass (m),radius(r) and velocity(v)
F α marbvc
M1L1T-2 = MaLb(LT-1)c
M1L1T-2 = MaLbLcT-c
M1L1T-2 = MaLb+cT-c
Equating we get a = 1, b + c = 1, c = 2, b = -1
Substituting these values in eq(1),we get
F = $$\frac{M V^{2}}{r}$$.

Question 3.
Dimensional formula of a physical quantity indicate how many times fundamental quantity is involved in the measurement of the quantity.

1. What is the dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity?
2. Write any two drawbacks of dimensional analysis.

1. F = ηA$$\frac{d V}{d x}$$

2. The method of dimensional analysis has the following drawbacks:

• It gives no information about the dimensionless constant involved in the equation.
• The method is not applicable to equations involv¬ing trigonometric and exponential functions.
• This method cannot be employed to derive the • exact form of the relationship if it contains sum
of two, or more terms.
• If the given physical quantity depends on more than three unknown quantities, the method fails.

Question 4.
Principle of homogeneity is based on the fact that two quantities of same nature can be added.

1. What do you mean by principle of homogeneity?
2. Velocity V depends on the time t as V = at2 + bt + c. Find dimension of constants a, b, and c.

1. For the correctness of an equation, the dimensions on either side must be the same. This is known as the principle of homogeneity of dimensions.

2. V = at2 + bt + c
M0L1T-1 = aT2 + bT + c
According to principle of homogenity, we get
aT2 = M0L1T-1
a = $$\frac{\mathrm{M}^{0} \mathrm{L}^{1} \mathrm{T}^{-1}}{\mathrm{T}^{2}}$$
= M0L1T-3.

Question 5.
If x = a + bt + ct2 where x is in meter and t in second.

1. Find the dimensional formula of ‘b’.
2. If error in the measurement of time is 2%. What will be the error in x?

1. According to principle of homogeneity, the dimensions of both sides must be same.
ie. L = a + bT + cT2
ie : L = bT, b = L/T

2.

% error in x = 3 × %. error in ‘t’ = 3 × 2% = 6%.

Question 6.
A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c as P = $$\frac{a^{3} b^{2}}{\sqrt{c d}}$$. The % error in the measurement of a, b, c, and d are 1%, 3%, 4%, 2% are respectively.

1. What do you mean by error in a measurement?
2. What is the % error in the measurement of P?

1. The result of every measurement by any measuring instrument contains some uncertainty. This uncertainty is called error.

2.

% error in
P = 3 × 1 + 2 × 3 + 1/2 × 4 + 1/2 × 2
= 3 + 6 + 2+ 1
P = 12%

Question 7.
Rahul measured the height of Ramesh in different trials as 1.67m, 1.65m 1.64m, and 1.63m.

1. Find the mean absolute error?
2. Find the percentage error?

1. Arithametic mean,

amean = 1.645m = 1.65
absolute error,
∆a1 = amean – a1
∆a1 = 1.65 – 1.67 = -0.02
∆a2 = 1.65 – 1.65 = 0
∆a3 = 1.65 – 1.64 = 0.01
∆a4 = 1.65 – 1.63 = 0.02
Mean absolute error

= 0.012

2. percentage error = $$\frac{\Delta \mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{a}_{\text {mean }}}$$ × 100
= $$\frac{0.012}{1.65}$$ × 100
= 0.75%.

Question 8.
In a particular experiment Ramu used the relation F = AB + (P + Q) Y to calculate force.

1. Which principle is used to check the correctness of the equation (1)
2. If the dimensional formula of Y is M0L1T-1, then find the dimensional formula of P

1. Principle of homogenity

2. F = AB + (P+Q)Y
F = AB + PY + QY
MLT-2 = AB + PY+ QY
According to principle of homogeneity
MLT-2 = PY
M1L1T-2 = P M0L1T-1
ie. P = $$\frac{M^{\prime} L^{1} T^{-2}}{M^{0} L^{1} T^{-1}}$$ = M1T-3

Question 9.

1. Which of the following is precise
• A vernier calliperse with 40 divisions on sliding scale
• An optical instrument that can measure length of the order of wavelength of light.
2. Is it possible to increase the accuracy of screw gauge by increasing the number of divisions on the head scale?

1. (i) L.C of vernier caliperse = $$\frac{1}{40}$$ = 0.025mm
= 0.025 × 10-3m
= 2.5 × 10-5m.

(ii) L.C of optical instrument = 6000A°
= 6000 × 10-10m
(Taking λ of visible light = 6000°A)= 6 × 10-7m

2. Yes. Because L.C proportional to number of division on the headscale. So with the increase in number of divisions, the least count will increase. This leads to increase the accuracy of above screw guage.

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an experiment with common balance the mass of a body is found to 2.52g, 2.53g, 2,51g, 2.49g and 2.54g in successive measurements. Calculate

1. The mean value of the body
2. Mean absolute error
3. Percentage error

1. Mean value, Mmean
= $$\frac{2.52+2.53+2.51+2.49+2.54}{5}$$
= 2.5g

2. Absolute error,
Absolute error ∆m1 = |2.52 – 2.52| = 0
∆m2 = |2.52 – 2.53| = 0.01
∆m3 = |2.52 – 2.51| = 0.01
∆m4 = |2.52 – 2.49| = 0.03
∆m5 = |2.52 – 2.54| = 0.02
∴ Mean absolute error
$$\frac{0+0.01+0.01+0.03+0.02}{5}$$
∆mmean = 0.014g

3. Percentage error = $$\frac{\Delta \mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}}$$ × 100
= $$\frac{0.014}{2.52}$$ × 100 = 0.556.

Question 2.
While discussing the period of a pendulam, one of the student argued that period depends on the mass of the bob.

2. How will you prove your argument dimensionally?

1. Period is independent of mass of the bob
2. The principle of homogeneity of dimensions also helps to derive a relationship between the different physical quantities involved; This method is known as dimensional analysis.

The period of the simple pendulum may possibly depend upon:

• The mass of the bob, m
• The length of the pendulum, I
• Acceleration due to gravity, g
• The angle of swing, q

Let us write the equation for the time period as t = k ma lb gc qd
where, k is a constant having no dimensions; a, b, care to be found out.
The dimensions of, t = T1
Dimensions of. m = M1
Dimensions of, l = L1
Dimensions of, g = L1T-2
Angle q has no dimensions (since, q = arc/radius = L/L)
Equating the dimensions of both sides of the equation, we get,
T1 = MaLb (L1T-2)c
ie. T1 = MaLb+c+ T-2c.
The dimensions of the terms on both sides must be the same. Equating the powers of M, L and T.

a = 0; b + c = 0; -2c = 1
∴ c = $$\frac{1}{2}$$, b = c = $$\frac{1}{2}$$
Hence, the equation becomes,
t = kl1/2g-1/2
ie, t = k$$\sqrt{1 / g}$$
Experimentally, the value of k is found to be 2p.

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an experiment with a common balance the mass of a ring found to be 2.52g, 2.5g, 2,51g, 2.49g and 2.54g in successive measurements. Calculate

1. The mean value of the mass of the ring
2. The absolute error in each measurement
3. Mean absolute error
4. Relative error
5. Percentage error

1. The mean value of the mass of the ring.
Mmean = $$\frac{2.52+2.53+2.51+2.49+2.54}{5}$$ = 2.52g.

2. The absolute error in each measurement.
∆m1 = Mmean – m1 = 2.52 – 2.52 = 0.00
∆m2 = Mmean – m2 = 2.52 – 2.53 = -0.01
∆m5 = Mmean – m5 = 2.52 – 2.54 = -0.02

3. mean absolute error = |∆m1| + |∆m2|………..+|∆m5|
= 0.014

4. Relative error = δm = $$\frac{\Delta \mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}}{\mathrm{m}_{\text {mean }}}=\frac{.014}{2.52}$$ = 0.00555

5. Percentage error δm × 100 = 0.555%.

### Plus One Physics Units and Measurement NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:

1. The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to______m3.
2. The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0cm is equal to____(mm)2.
3. A vehicle moving with a speed of 18km h-1 covers_____m in 1s.
4. The relative density of lead is 11.3.Its density is_____g cm-3or_____kgm-3.

1. V = (1 cm)3
= (10-2m)3
= 10-6m3

2. Surface area = 2 πrh + 2 × πr2
= 2πr(h + r)
= 2 × $$\frac{22}{7}$$ × 2 × 10(10 × 10 + 2 × 10)mm2
= 1 .5 × 104mm2
So, answer is 1.5 × 104

3. 18kmh-1 = $$\frac{18 \times 1000}{3600}$$ms-1
= 5ms-1

4. 11.3, 11.3 × 103 or 1.13 × 104.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units:

1. 1 kgm2s-2 = _____g cm2s-2
2. 1 m =_____1 y
3. 3.0 ms2 =______kmh-2
4. G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 (kg)-2 =_____(cm)3s-2g-1

1. 107
2. 10-16
3. 3.888 × 104
4. 6.67 × 10-8

Question 3.
A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals about 4.2 J, where 1 J = 1 kgm2S-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length equals β metere, the unit of time is second, show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α-1 β-2 γ2 in terms of the new units.
1 cal = 4.2kg m2s-2

 SI New system n1 = 4.2 n2 = ? M1 = 1 kg M2 = α kg L1 = 1m L2 = β meter T1 = 1s T2 = γ second

Dimensional formula of energy is [ML2T-2]. Comparing with [MaLbTc], we find that
a = 1, b = 2, c = -2

Question 4.
Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length?

1. A vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale.
2. A screw guage of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
3. An optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light?

The most precise device is one whose least count is the least.
1. Least count = 1SD – 1 VD = 1 SD – $$\frac{19}{20}$$ SD

2. Least count

3. Wavelength = 10-5 cm = 0.00001 cm
Clearly, the optical instrument is the most precise.

Question 5.
State the number of significant figures in the following:

1. 0.007m2
2. 2.64 × 1024kg
3. 0.2370gcm3
4. 6.320 J
5. 6.032 Nm-2
6. 0.0006032 m2

1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 4
5. 4
6. 4

Question 6.
The length, breadth, and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234m, 1.005m and 2.01cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.
Area of the sheet = 2(l × b + b × t + t × l)
= 2(4.234 × 1.005 + 1.005 × 0.0201 + 0.0201 × 4.234)m2
= 2 (4.255 + 0.0202 + 0.0851)m2
= 2 × 4.3603m2
= 8.7206m2
= 8.72m2
Volume = lbt
4.234 × 1.005 × 0.0201m3
= 0.0855m3

Question 7.
A Physical qunatity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows:
P = $$\frac{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{b}^{2}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{c}} \mathrm{d}}$$. The percentage errors of measurement in a, b,c, and d are 1 %, 3%, 4% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity P? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result?
P = $$\frac{\mathrm{a}^{3} \mathrm{b}^{2}}{\sqrt{\mathrm{c}} \mathrm{d}}$$

% error in P = 3% + 6% + 2%+2% = 13%
3.763 should be rounded off to 3.8.

Question 8.
A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle in terms of its speed v and the speed of light c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity due to Albert Einstein). Boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets where to put the constant c. He writes:
$$\frac{m_{0}}{\left(1-v^{2}\right)^{1 / 2}}$$
Guess where to put the missing e.
From the given equation, $$\frac{m_{0}}{m}=\sqrt{1-v^{2}}$$
Since left hand side is dimensionless therefore right hand side should be also dimensionless.

The correct formula is m = m0 $$(\sqrt{1-\frac{v^{2}}{c^{2}}})^{-1 / 2}$$.

## Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Data Types and Operators

Students can Download Chapter 6 Data Types and Operators Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Data Types and Operators

### Plus One Data Types and Operators One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
___________ is the main activity carried out in computers.
Data processing

Question 2.
The data used in computers are different. To differentiate the nature and size of data ___________ is used.
Data types

Question 3.
Classify the following data types,
int, array, function, char, pointer, void, float, double, structure

 Fundamental data types Derived data types int array float function double pointer void structure char

Question 4.
Sheela wants to store her age. From the following which is the exact data type.
(a) void
(b) char
(c) int
(d) double
(c) int

Question 5
Integer data type uses ________ bytes of memory.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(d) 4

Question 6.
char data type ________uses bytes of memory.
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 8
(a) 1

Question 7.
From the following which data type uses 4 bytes of memory.
(a) float
(b) short
(c) char
(d) double
(a) float

Question 8.
Full form of ASCII is ___________
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 9.
Ramu wants to store the value of From the following which is correct declaration.
(a) char pi = 3.14157
(b) int pi = 3.14157
(c) float pi = 3.14157
(d) long pi = 3.14157
(c) float pi = 3.14157

Question 10.
From the following which is not true, to give a variable name.
(a) Starting letter must be an alphabet
(b) contains digits
(c) Cannot be a keyword
(d) special characters can be used
(d) special characters can be used

Question 11.
Pick a valid variable name from the following.
(а) 9a
(b) float
(c) age
(d) date of birth
(c) age.

Question 12.
To perform a unary operation how many number of operands needed?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) None of these.
(c) 1 (Unary means one)

Question 13.
To perform a binary operation how many number of operands needed?
(а) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) None of these.
(a) 2 (binary means two)

Question 14.
To perform a ternary operation how many number of operands needed?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) None of these.
(b) 3 (eg: ternary means three)

Question 15.
In C++ 13 % 26 =
(a) 26
(b) 13
(c) 0
(d) None of these
(b) % is a mod operator i.e. it gives the remainder. Here the remainder is 13.

Question 16.
In C++ 41/2 =
(a) 20.5
(b) 20
(c) 1
(d) None of these
(b) 20. (The actual result is 20.5 but both 41 and 2 are integers so .5 must be truncated)

Question 17.
++ is a __________ operator.
(a) Unary
(b) Binary
(c) Ternary
(d) None of these
(a) Unary.

Question 18.
Conditional operator is _________ operator.
(a) Unary
(b) Binary
(c) Ternary
(d) None of these
(c) Ternary

Question 19.
% is a _______ operator
(a) Unary
(b) Binary
(c) Ternary
(d) None of these
(b) Binary

Question 20.
State True/False

1. Multiplication, division, modulus have equal priority
2. Logical and (&&) has less priority than logical or ()

1. True
2. False

Question 21.
_______is composed of operators and operands.
(a) expression
(b) Keywords
(c) Identifier
(d) Punctuators
(a) expression

Question 22.
Supply value to a variable at the time of declaration is known as __________.
Initialisation

Question 23.
From the following which is initialisation.
(a) int k;
(b) int k = 100;
(c) int k[10];
(d) None of these
(b) int k = 100;

Question 24.
State True/False
In an expression all the operands having lower size are converted(promoted) to the data type of the highest sized operand.
True

Question 25.
Classify the following as arithmetic/Logical expression.
(a) x + y * z
(b) x < y && y > z
(c) x / y
(d) x > 89 || y < 80
(a) and (c) are Arithmetic, (b) and (d) are Logical

Question 26.
Suppose x = 5 and y = 2 then what will be cout<<(float)x/y
2.5 The integer x is converted to float hence the result.

Question 27.
Consider the following.
a = 10;
a* =10;
Then a =
(a) a = 100
(b) a = 50
(c) a = 10
(d) a = 20
(a) a = 100. This short hand means a = a*10

Question 28.
Consider the following.
a = 10;
a+ = 10;
Then a =
(a) a = 30
(b) a = 50
(c) a = 10
(d) a = 20
(d) a = 20. This short hand means a = a + 10

Question 29.
Pick the odd one out
(a) structure
(b) Array
(c) Pointer
(d) int
(d) int, it is fundamental data type the others are derived data types

Question 30.
From the following select not a character of C++ language
(a) A
(b) 9
(c) \
(d) @
(d) @

Question 31.
Consider the following
float x = 25.56;
cout<<(int)x;
Here the data type of the variable is converted. What type of conversion is this?
(a) type promotion
(b) type casting
(c) implicit conversion
(d) None of these
(b) type casting (explicit conversion);

Question 32.
Identify the error in the following C++ statement and correct it.
short population = 68000;
The maximum number that can store in short type is less than 32767. So to store 68000 we have to use long data type.

Question 33.
Consider the following statements in C++ if(mark>=18)
cout<<“Passed”;
else
cout<<“Failed”;
Suggest an operator in C++ using which the same output can be produced.
Conditional operator (?:)

### Plus One Data Types and Operators Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Analyses the following statements and write True or False. Justify

1. There is an Operator in C++ having no special character in it
2. An operator cannot have more than 2 operands
3. Comma operator has the lowest precedence
4. All logical operators are binary in nature
5. It is not possible to assign the constant 5 to 10 different variables using a single C++ expression
6. In type promotion the operands with lower data type will be converted to the highest data type in expression.

1. True (sizeof operator)
2. False(conditional operator can have 3 operands)
3. True
4. False
5. False(Multiple assignment is possible)
eg: a = b = c ==5
6. True

Question 2.
Consider the following declaration.
const int bp;
bp = 100;
Is it valid? Explain it?
This is not valid. This is an error. A constant variable cannot be modified. That is the error and a constant variable must be initialised. So the correct declaration is as follows, const int bp = 100;

Question 3.
Consider the following statements in C++

1. cout<<41/2;
2. cout<<41/2.0;

Are this two statements give same result? Explain?
This two statements do not give same results. The first statement 41/2 gives 20 instead of 20.5. The reason is 41 and 2 are integers. If two operands are integers the result must be integer, the real part must be truncated.

To get floating result either one of the operand must be float. So the second statement gives 20.5. The reason 41 is integer but 2.0 is a float.

Question 4.
If mark = 70 then what will be the value of variable result in the following
result = mark > 50? ’P’: ’F’;
The syntax of the conditional operator is given below
Condition ? Value if true : Value if false;
Here the conditional operator first checks the condition i.e., 70 > 50 it is true. So ’P’ is assigned to the variable result.
So the result is ’P’;

Question 5.
Is it possible to initialise a variable at the time of execution. What kind of initialisation is this? Give an example
Yes it is possible. This is known as Dynamic initialisation. The example is given below
eg: int a = 10, b = 5; int c = a*b; here the variable c is declared and initialised with the value 10*5.

Question 6.
Boolean data type is used to store True/False in C++. Is it true? Is there any data type called Boolean in C++?
No there is no data type for storing boolean value true/false. But in C++ non -zero (either negative or positive) is treated as true and zero is treated as false

Question 7.
Consider the following
n=-15;
if (n)
cout<<“Hello”;
else
cout<<“hai”;
What will be the output of the above code?
The output is Hello, because n = -15 a non zero number and it is treated as true hence the result.

Question 8.
Is it possible to declare a variable in between the program as and when the need arise? Then what is it?
Yes it is possible to declare a variable in between the program as and when the need arise. It is known as dynamic initialisation.
eg. int x = 10, y = 20;
int z = x*y;

Question 9.
char ch;
cout<<“Enter a character”;
cin>>ch;
Consider the above code, a user gives 9 to the variable ‘ch’. Is there any problem? Is it valid?
There is no problem and it is valid since 9 is a character. Any symbol from the key board is treated as a character.

Question 10.
“With the same size we can change the sign and range of data”. Comment on this statement.
With the help of type modifiers we can change the sign and range of data with same size. The important modifiers are signed, unsigned, long and short.

Question 11.
Write short notes about C++ short hands?
x = x + 10 can be represented as x + = 10, It is called shorthands in C++. It is faster. This is used with all the arithmetic operators as follows.

 Arithmetic Assignment Expression Equivalent Arithmetic Expression x+ = 10 x = x + 10 x- = 10 x = x -10 X* = 10 x = x * 10 x/ = 10 x = x /10 x% = 10 x = x % 10

Question 12.
What is the role of ‘const’ modifier?
This ‘const’ keyword is used to declare a constant.
eg: const int bp=100;
By this the variable bp is treated as constant and cannot be possible to change its value during execution.

Question 13.
Specify the most appropriate data type for handling the following data.

1. Roll no. of a student.
2. Name of an employee.
3. Price of an article.
4. Marks of 12 subjects

1. short Roll no;
2. char name[20];
3. float price;
4. short marks[12];

Question 14.
Write C++ statement for the following,

1. The result obtained when 5 is divided by 2.
2. The remainder obtained when 5 is divided by 2.

1. 5/2
2. 5 % 2

Question 15.
Predict the output of the following code. Justify.
int k = 5;
b = 0;
b = k++ + ++k;
cout<<b;
Output is 12. In this statement first it take the value of k in 5 then increment it K++. So first operand for + is 5. Then it becomes 6. Then ++k makes it 7. This is the second operand. Hence the result is 12.

Question 16.
Predict the output.
1. int sum = 10, ctr = 5;
sum = sum + ctr–;
cout<<sum;

2. int sum = 10, ctr = 5;
sum = sum + ++ctr;
cout<<sum;

1. 15
2. 16

Question 17.
Predict the output.
int a;
float b;
a = 5;
cout<<sizeof(a + b/2);
Output is 4. Result will be the memory size of floating point number

Question 18.
Predict the output.
int a, b, c;
a = 5;
b = 2;
c = a/b;
cout<<c;
Output is 2. Both operands are integers. So the result will be an integer

Question 19.
The multiple use of input or output operators in a single statement is called cascading of i/o operators.
eg: To take three numbers by using one statement is as follows
cin>>x>y>>z;
To print three numbers by using one statement is as follows
cout<<x<<y<<z;

Question 20.
Trace out and correct the errors in the following code fragments

1. cout<<“Mark =”45;
2. cin<<“Hellow World!”;
3. cout>>”X + Y;
4. Cout<<‘Good,<<‘Morning’

1. cout<<“Mark = 45”;
2. cout<<“Hellow World!”;
3. cout<<X + Y;
4. Cout<<“Good Morning”;

Question 21.
Raju wants to add value 1 to the variable ‘p’ and store the new value in ‘p’ itself. Write four different statements in C++ to do the task.

1. P=P+1;
2. p++;(post increment)
3. ++p;(pre increment)
4. p+=1;(short hand in C++)

Question 22.
char str [30];
cin>>str;
cout<<str;
If we give the input “Green Computing”, we get the output “Green”. Why is it so? How can you correct that? (2)
The input statement cin>> cannot read the space. It reads the text up to the space, i.e. the delimiter is space. To read the text up to the enter key gets() or getline() is used.

Question 23.

 Name Symbol (a) Modulus operator (i) ++ (b) Logical Operator (ii) == (c) Relational Operator (iii) = (d) Assignment operator (iv) ?: (e) Increment operator (v) && (f) Conditional Operator (vi) %

 Name Symbol (a) Modulus operator (vi) % (b) Logical Operator (v) && (c) Relational Operator (ii) == (d) Assignment operator (iii) = (e) Increment operator (i) ++ (f) Conditional Operator (iv) ?:

Question 24.
Write a C++ expression to. calculate the value of the following equation.

x = (-b + sqrt(b*b – 4*a*c)/(2*a)

Question 25.
A student wants to insert his name and school address in the C++ program that he has written. But this should not affect the compilation or execution of the program. How is it possible? Give an example.
He can use comments to write this information. In C++ comments are used to write information such as programmer’s name, address, objective of the codes etc. in between the actual codes. This is not the part of the programme. There are two types of comments

1. Single line (//) and
2. Multi-line (/* and *f)

1. Single line (if):
Comment is used to make a single line as a comment. It starts with //.
eg: /./programme starts here.

2. Multi-line (/* and */):
To make multiple lines as a comment. It starts with /* and ends with */.
Eg: /* this programme is used to find sum of two numbers */

Question 26.
Consider the following C++ statements:
char word [20];
cin>>word;
cout<<word;
gets(word);
puts(word);
If the string entered is “HAPPY NEW YEAR”, predict the output and jsutify your answer.
cin>>word;
cout<<word;
It displays “HAPPY” because cin takes characters upto the space. That is space is the delimiter for cin. The string after space is truncated. To resolve this use gets () function. Because gets () function reads character upto the enter key.
Hence
gets(word);
puts(word);
Displays “HAPPY NEW YEAR”

Question 27.
Write the difference between x = 5 and x == 5 in C++.
x = 5 means the value 5 of the RHS is assigned to the LHS variable x . Here = is the assignment operator. But x == 5, == this is the relational (comparison) operator. Here it checks whether the value of RHS is equal to the value of LHS and this expression returns a boolean value as a result. It is the equality operation.

Question 28.
1. What is the output of the following program?
# include <iostream.h>
void main ()
{
int a;
a = 5 + 3*5;
cout << a;
}

2. How do 9, ‘9’ and “9” differ in C++ program?
Here multiplication operation has more priority than addition.
hence
1. a = 5 + 15 = 20

2. Here 9 is an interger
‘9’ is a character
“9” is a string

Question 29.
Read the following C++ program and predict the output by explaining the operations performed.
#include<iostream.h>
void main ()
{
int a = 5, b = 3;
cout<<a++ /–b;
cout<<a/ (float) b;
}
Here a = 5 and b = 3
a++ /– b = 5/2 = 2
That is a++ uses the value 5 and next it changes its value to 6
So a/(float) b = 6/(float)2
= 6/2.0
= 3
So the output is 2 and 3

Question 30.
What is the preprocessor directive statement? Explain with an example.
A C++ program starts with the preprocessor directive i.e., # include, #define, #undef, etc, are such a preprocessor directives. By using #include we can link the header files that are needed to use the functions. By using #define we can define some constants.
eg. #define x 100. Here the value of x becomes 100 and cannot be changed in the program. No semicolon is needed.

Question 31.
The following C++ code segment is a part of a program written by Smitha to find the average of 3 numbers.
int a, b, c;
float avg;
cin>>a>>b>>c;
avg = (a + b + c)/3;
cout<<avg; .
What will be the output if she inputs 1, 4 and 5? How can you correct it?
= (1 + 4 + 5)/3
= 10/3
= 3.3333
Instead of this 3.3333 the output will be 3. This is because if both operands are integers an integer division will be occurred, that is the fractional part will be truncated. To get the correct output do as follows
case 1: int a,b,c; is replaced by float a,b,c;

OR

case 2: Replace (a + b + c)/3 by (a + b + c)/3.0;

OR

case 3: Type casting.
Replace avg = (a + b + c)/3;
by avg = (float)(a + b + c)/3;

### Plus One Data Types and Operators Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a panchayath or municipality all the houses have a house number, house name and members. Similar situation is in the case of memory. Explain
The named memory locations are called variable. A variable has three important things

1. variable name: A variable should have a name
2. Memory address: Each and every byte of memory has an address. It is also called location (L) value
3. Content: The value stored in a variable is called content.lt is also called Read(R) value.

Question 2.
Briefly explain constants.
A constant or a literal is a data item its value doe not change during execution. The keyword const is used to declare a constant. Its declaration is as follows
const data type variable name = value;
eg.const int bp = 100;
\const float pi = 3.14157;
const char ch = ‘a’;
const char[]=”Alvis”;

1. Integer literals:
Whole numbers without fractional parts are known as integer literals, its value does not change during execution. There are 3 types decimal, octal and hexadecimal.
eg: For decimal 100, 150, etc.
For octal 0100, 0240, etc.

2. Float literals:
A number with fractional parts and its value does not change during execution is called floating point literals.
eg: 3.14157, 79.78, etc

3. Character literal:
A valid C++ character enclosed in single quotes, its value does not change during execution.
eg: ‘m’, ‘f, etc.

4. String literal:
One or more characters enclosed in double quotes is called string constant. A string is automatically appended by a null character(‘\0’)
eg: “Mary’s”, “India”, etc.

Question 3.
Consider the following statements
int a = 10, x = 20;
float b = 45000.34, y = 56.78;
1. a = b;
2. y = x;
Is there any problem for the above statements? What do you mean by type compatibility?
Assignment operator is used to assign the value of RHS to LHS. Following are the two chances
(a) The size of RHS is less than LHS. So there is no problem and RHS data type is promoted to LHS. Here it is compatible.

(b) The size of RHS is higher than LHS. Here comes the problem sometimes LHS cannot possible to assign RHS. There may be a chance of wrong answer. Here it is not compatible.
Here
1. a = b; There is an error since the size of LHS is 2 but the size of RHS is 4.
2. y = x; There is no problem because the size of LHS is 4 and RHS is 2.

Question 4.
A company has decided to give incentives to their salesman as perthe sales. The criteria is given below.
If the total sales exceeds 10,000 the incentive is 10%

1. If the total sales >= 5,000 and total sales <10,000, the incentive is 6 %
2. If the total sales >= 1,000 and total sales <5,000, the incentive is 3 %

Write a C++ program to solve the above problem and print the incentive after accepting the total sales of a salesman. The program code should not make use of ‘if’ statement.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int mainO
{
float sales,incentive;
cout<<“enter the sales”;
cin>>sales;
incentive = (sales>10000 ? sales*.10: (sales > =5000 ? sales * .06 : (sales >= 1000 ? sales * -03: 0)));
cout<<“\nThe incentive is ” << incentive;
}

Question 5.
A C++ program code is given below to find the value of X using the expression
$$x=\frac{a^{2}+b^{2}}{2 a}$$
where a and b are variables

#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int a;b;
float x
cout<<“Enter the values of a and b;
cin>a>b;
x = a*a + b*b/2*a;
cout>>x;
}
Predict the type of errors during compilation, execution and verification of the output. Also write the output of two sets of input values

1. a = 4, b = 8
2. a = 0, b = 2

This program contains some errors and the correct program is as follows.
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int a,b;
float x; .
cout<<“Enterthe values of a and b”;
cin>>ab;
x=(a*a + b*b)/(2*a);
cout<<x;
}
The output is as follows

1. a = 4 and b = 8 then the output is 10
2. a = 0 and b = 2 then the output is an error divide by zero error(run time error)

Question 6.
A list of data items are given below
45, 8.432, M, 0.124,8 , 0, 8.1 × 1031, 1010, a, 0.00025, 9.2 × 10120, 0471,-846, 342.123E03

1. Categorise the given data under proper headings of fundamental data types in C++.
2. Explain the specific features of each data type. Also mention any other fundamental data type for which sample

data is not given
1.

2. The specific features of each data type.
(i) int data type:
It is used to store whole numbers without fractional (decimal point) part. It can be either negative or positive. It con¬sumes 4 bytes (32 bits) of memory.i.e. 232 . numbers. That is 231 negative numbers and 231 positive numbers (0 is considered as +ve ) So a total of 232 numbers. We can store a number in between -231 to + 231-1.

(ii) char data type:
Any symbol from the keyboard, eg. ‘A’ , ‘?’, ‘9’,…. It consumes one byte( 8 bits) of memory. It is internally treated as integers, i.e. 28 = 256 characters. Each character is having a ASCII code, ‘a’ is having ASCII code 97 and zero is having ASCII code 48.

3. float data type:
It is used to store real numbers i.e. the numbers with decimal point. It uses 4 bytes(32 bits) of memory.
eg: 67.89, 89.9 E-15.

4. double data type:
It is used to store very large real numbers. It uses 8 bytes(64 bits) of memory.

5. void data type:
void means nothing. It is used to represent a function returns nothing.

Question 7.
Write valid reasons after reading the following statements in C++ and comment on their correctness by give reasons.

1. char num = 66;
char num = B’;
2. 35 and 35L are different
3. The number 14, 016 and OxE are one and the same
4. Char data type is often said to be an integer type
5. To store the value 4.15 float data type is preferred over double

1. The ASCII number of B is 66. So it is equivalent.
2. 35 is of integer type but 35L is Long
3. The decimal number 14 is represented in octal is 016 and in hexadecimal is OXE.
4. Internally char data type stores ASCII numbers.
5. To store the value 4.15 float data type is better because float requires only 4 bytes while double needs 8 bytes hence we can save the memory.

Question 8.
Suggest most suitable derived data types in C++ for storing the following data items or statements

1. Age of 50 students in a class
2. Address of a memory variable
3. A set of instructions to find out the factorial of a number
4. An alternate name of a previously defined variable.
5. Price of 100 products in a consumer store
6. Name of a student

1. Integer array of size 50
2. Pointer variable
3. Function
4. Reference
5. Float array of size 100
6. Character array

Question 9.
Considering the following C++ statements. Fill up the blanks

1. If p = 5 and q = 3 then q%p is _______
2. If E1 is true and E2 is False then E1 && E2 will be _______
3. If k = 8, ++k < = 8 will be ________
4. If x = 2 then (10* ++x) % 7 will be ________
5. If t = 8 and m = (n=3,t-n), the value of m will be ______
6. If i = 12 the value i after execution of the expres¬sion i+ = i- – + – -i will be ______

1. 3
2. False
3. False(++k makes k = 9. So 9<=8 is false)
4. 2(++x becomes 3 ,so 10 * 3 = 30%7 = 2)
5. 5( here m = (n = 3,8-3) = (n = 3,5), so m = 5, The maximum value will take)
6. Here i = 12

i + = i- – + – -i
here post decrement has more priority than pre decrement. So “i- -” will be evaluated first. Here first uses the value then change so it uses the value 12 and i becomes 11
i + = 12 + – -i
now i = 11.
Here the value of i will be changed and used so “i- -” becomes 10
i + = 12 + 10 = 22
So, i = 22 +10
i = 32
So the result is 32.

Question 10.
The Maths teacher gives the following problem to Riya and Raju.
x = 5 + 3 * 6.
Riya got x = 48 and Raju got x = 23. Who is right and why it is happened? Write down the operator precedence in detail?
Here the answer is x = 23. It is because of precedence of operators. The order of precedence of operators are given below.

Here multiplication has more priority than addition

Question 11.
Explain the data types’ in C++. (3)
Fundamental data types:
It is also called built-in data type. They are int, char, float, double and void
1. int data type:
It is used to store whole numbers without fractional (decimal point) part. It can be either negative or positive. It consumes 4 bytes (32 bits) of memory. i.e. 232 numbers. That is 231 negative numbers and 231 positive numbers (0 is considered as +ve) So a total of 232 numbers. We can store a number in between -231 to + 2311.

2. char data type Any symbol from the keyboard, eg. ‘A’,‘9’, …. It consumes one byte( 8 bits) of memory. It is internally treated as integers, i.e. 28 = 256 characters. Each character is having an ASCII code, ‘a’ is having ASCII code 97 and zero is having ASCII code 48.

3. float data type:
It is used to store real numbers i.e. the numbers with decimal point. It uses 4 bytes(32 bits) of memory.
eg: 67.89, 89.9 E-15.

4. double data type:
It is used to store very large real numbers. It uses 8 bytes(64 bits) of memory.

5. void data type:
Void means nothing. It is used to represent a function returns nothing.

• User defined Data types: C++ allows programmers to define their own data type. They are Structure(struct), enumeration (enum), union, class, etc.
• Derived data types: The data types derived from fundamental data types are called Derived data types. They are Arrays, pointers, functions, etc

Question 12.
Predict the output of the following C++ statements.
int a = -5, b = 3, c = 4;
C+ = a++ + –b;
cout<<a<<b<<c;
a = -4, b = 2 and c = 1.

Question 13.
Match the following

Question 14.
Write any five unary operators of C++. Why are they called so?
A unary operator is an operator that need only one operand to perform the operation. The five unary operators of C++ are given below.
Unary +, Unary -, ++, – – and ! (not)

Question 15.
Write C++ examples for the following:

1. Declaration statement
2. Assignment statement
3. Type casting

1. int age;
2. age = 16;
3. avg = (float)a + b + c/3;

### Plus One Data Types and Operators Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

• Name: Jose
• Roil no: 20
• Age: 17
• Weight: 45.650

Consider the above data, we know that there are different types of data are used in the computer. Explain different data types used in C++.
1. int data type:
It is used to store whole numbers without fractional (decimal point) part. It can be either negative or positive. It consumes 4 bytes (32 bits) of memory, i.e. 232 numbers. That is 231 negative numbers and 231 positive numbers (0 is considered as +ve) So a total of 232 numbers. We can store a number in between -231 to + 2311.

2. char data type:
Any symbol from the keyboard, eg. A’,’9′,…. It consumes one byte( 8 bits) of memory. It is internally treated as integers, i.e. 28 = 256 characters. Each character is having a ASCII code, ‘a’ is having ASCII code 97 and zero is having ASCII code 48.

3. float data type:
It is used to store real numbers i.e, the numbers with decimal point. It uses 4 bytes(32 bits) of memory.
eg: 67.89, 89.9 E-15.

4. double data type:
It is used to store very large real numbers. It uses 8 bytes(64 bits) of memory.

5. void data type:
void means nothing. It is used to represent a function returns nothing.

Question 2.
Define an operator and explain operator in detail.
An operator is a symbol that performs an operation. The data on which operations are carried out are called operands. Following are the operators
1. lnput(>>) and output(<<):
These operators are used to perform input and output operation.
eg: cin>>n;
cout<<n;

2. Arithmetic operators:
It is a binary operator. It is used to perform addition(+), subtraction(-), division (/), multiplication (*) and modulus (%- gives the remainder) operations.
eg: If x = 10 and y = 3 then

x/y = 3, because both operands are integer. To get the floating point result one of the operand must be float.

3. Relational operator:
It is also a binary operator. It is used to perform comparison or relational operation between two values and it gives either true(1) or false(O). The operators are <,<=,>,>=,== (equality)and !=(not equal to)
eg: If x = 10 and y = 3 then

4. Logical operators:
Here AND(&&), OR(||) are binary operators and NOT(!) is a unary operator. It is used to combine relational operations and it gives either true(1) or false(O). If x=True and y=False then

Both operands must be true to get a true value in the case of AND(&&) operation If x = True and y = False then

Either one of the operands must be true to get a true value in the case of OR(||) operation If x = True and y = False then

5. Conditional operator:
It is a ternary operator hence it needs three operands. The operator is ?:
Syntax: expression ? value if true : value if false. First evaluates the expression if it is true the second part will be executed otherwise the third part will be executed.
eg: If x = 10 and y = 3 then x>y ? cout<<x : cout<<y;. Here the output is 10

6. sizeof():
This operator is used to find the size used by each data type.
eg. sizeof(int) gives 2.

7. Increment and decrement operator:
These are unary operators.
(a) Increment operator (++): It is used to incre¬ment the value of a variable by one i.e., x++ is equivalent to x = x + 1;
(b) Decrement operator (–): It is used to decre¬ment the value of a variable by one i.e., x-is equivalent to x = x – 1.

8. Assignment operator (=):
lt is used to assign the value of a right side to the left side variable.
eg: x = 5; Here the value 5 is assigned to the variable x.

## Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Applications of Computers in Accounting

Students can Download Chapter 10 Applications of Computers in Accounting Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Applications of Computers in Accounting

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The physical components of computer is called as …………..
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Liveware
(b) Hardware

Question 2.
Set of programs which governs the operation of a computer system is termed …………..
(a) System software
(b) Software
(c) Application of window
(b) Software

Question 3.
A centrally controlled integrated collection of data is called ……………
(a) DBMS
(b) Information
(c) Database
(c) Database

Question 4.
Tally is a
(a) Utility software
(b) Application software
(c) Operating system
(d) Connecting software
(b) Application software

Question 5.
…………… is a software system that manages the creation of use of database.
(a) Database
(b) DBMS
(c) Management system
(b) DBMS

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an output device of a computer?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(c) Monitor

Question 7.

…………. is the storehouse of a computer.
Memory

Question 8.
…………… are set of program designed to carry out operations for a specified application.
Application software.

Question 9.
The output obtained from VDU (Visual Display Unit) is termed ………..
Hard copy.

Question 10.
The part.of the computer which controls the various operations of a computer is called ………..
Control unit.

Question 11.
………….. is temporary memory and anything stored in it will remain there a long as the system is on.
RAM (Random Access Memory)

Question 12.
Modern computerised accounting systems are based on the concept of ………..
Database.

Question 13.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision-useful information is called ………..
Data processing

Question 14.
The joystick is a …….. device of a computer.
Input.

Question 15.
VDU is also called ……….
Monitor.

Question 16.
Complete the series using the hint given.
Hint: System analyst → Human beings → liveware
a. Windows → Operating system → ?
Software.

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following.

1-b
2-e
3-d
4-c
5-a

Question 2.
What is a computer?
Sp A computer is an electronic device that accepts data and instruction as input, stores them, process the data according to the instructions and communicate the results as output.

Question 3.
Hardware includes different devices. Name any four devices.
Keyboard, Mouse, Monitor, Processor.

Question 4.
Redraw the given block diagram of a computer correctly:

Question 5.
List out any four features of a computer.

1. Highspeed
2. Large volume of data can be stored.
3. Accuracy is very high.
4. Computers are multipurpose information machine ie. versatility.

Question 6.
List out any four limitations of a computer.

1. Computers lacks common sense.
2. Lack of decision-making skills
3. Computers have no intelligence.
4. Computers cannot make judgments based on feelings.

Question 7.
What is Accounting Information System?
Accounting Information System (AIS) is a collection of resources (people and equipment), designed to transform financial and other data into information. Such information is organised in a manner that correct decisions can be based on it.

Question 8.
What are the basic requirements of a computerised accounting system?
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.

1. Accounting Framework: It consists of a set of principles, coding and grouping structure of accounting.
2. Operating procedure: It is a well defined operating procedure blended suitably with the operating environment of the organisation.

Question 9.
State the various essential features of an accounting report.
The accounting report must have the following features it.

1. Relevance
2. Timelines
3. Accuracy
4. Completeness
5. Summarisation

Question 10.
Give examples of the relationship between a Human Resource Information System and MIS.
There is a relationship between the Human Resource Information System and Management Information System, the following are the example of it.

1. Hiring employees as per the requirement.
2. Evaluating the performance of the workers.
3. Enrolling employees in benefit.

Question 11.
Give examples of two types of Operating System.

• DOS – Disk Operating System
• Windows – Windows Operating System

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘Liveware’.
People interacting with computers are called Live-ware of the computer system. It consists of the following three groups.
1. System analysts:
System analysts are the people who design data. processing systems.

2. Programmers:
Programmers are the people who write programs for processing data.

3. Operators:
Operators are the people who participate in operating the computer.

Question 2.
What is the Transaction processing system? Name three components of a Transaction processing system.
Transaction processing systems (TPS) are among the earliest computerised systems catering to the requirements of large business enterprises. The purpose of a TPS is to record, process, validate and store transactions that occur in the various functional areas of business for subsequent retrieval and usage.
TPS system has three components:

• Input-Processing-Output
• ATM facility.
• Telephone Account and Airline Seat Reservation System are examples of TPS.

Question 3.
Discuss the different types of accounting packages. The accounting packages are classified into the following categories.
1. Ready to use accounting software:
It is relatively easier to learn and people adaptability is very high. It is suited to small/ conventional organisations. The level of secrecy is relatively low. This software offers little scope of linking to other information systems.

2. Customised Accounting software:
Helps to meet the special requirement of the user. It is suited to large and medium organisations and can be linked to the other information system.

3. Tailored:
The accounting software is generally tailored in large business organisations with multi-users and geographically scattered locations. This software requires specialised training for users. The level of secrecy is relatively high and they offer high flexibility in terms of number of users.

Question 4.
“Computers are the servants or masters of human beings.” Elucidate.
A computer system have certain special features or advantages which in comparison to human beings become its capabilities.
The advantages of computers are as follows:

1. High speed
2. Accuracy
3. Storage of huge data
4. Versatility
5. Deligence

Even though computers possess the above-mentioned features, it suffers from the following limitations:

1. Computers lack common sense.
2. Lack of IQ
3. Lack of decision making skill
4. No feeling

Question 5.
Find out the odd one and state reasons.

1. Mouse, Monitor, Programmers, Processor.
2. DACEASY, FORTRAN, ALU, LINUX
3. Monitor, Barcode reader, Printer, Plotter

1. Programmers, others are hardware components.
2. ALU, others are software
3. Barcode reader, others are output devices.

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one and state reason.

1. Keyboard, Mouse, Light pen, Printer
2. System Analysts, Language Processors, System software, Utility Programmes.
3. RAM, Floppy disk, Compact disk, Hard disk
4. COBOL, C++, DOS, BASIC

1. A printer is an output unit, all others are input units.
2. System Analyst is a human ware.
3. RAM is the Internal memory unit, all others are. external memory unit.
4. DOS is an operating system, all others are computer languages.

Question 2.
Classify the following into input unit and output unit devices.
Keyboard, Mouse, VDU (Visual Display Unit), Printer, Magnetic tape, Magnetic disk, Light pen, Optical scanner, Plotter, Speech synthesiser, MICR, OCR, Barcode reader, Smart card reader, Speaker, LCD projector.

 Input devices Output devices Keyboard VDU Mouse Printer Magnetic tape Magnetic Plotter disk Light Pen Optical Speech Synthesiser scanner MICR OCR Speaker Barcode reader Smart LCD projector card reader

Question 3.
What are the generic consideration before sourcing accounting software?
The following factors are considered before sourcing accounting software:

1. Flexibility
2. Cost of installation and maintenance
3. Size of organisation
4. Ease of adaptation and training needs
5. Utilities / MIS reports
6. Expected level of secrecy (Software and data)
7. Exporting/importing data facility
8. Vendors reputation and capability

Question 4.
Classify the following components as Hardware, soft-ware and liveware.

1. Programmers
2. Keyboard
3. Windows or Linux
4. COBOL or C++
5. Mouse
6. Assembler or Compiler
7. Operators
8. Virus/Antivirus/ Scanners
9. Monitor
10. Processor
11. System Analysts
12. MS-Excel or MS Office

a. Hardware:

• Keyboard
• Mouse
• Monitor
• Processor

b. Software:

• Windows or Linux (Operating System)
• COBOL or C++ (Computer Language)
• Assembler or Compilers (Language processor)
• Virus/Antivirus and Scanner (Utility programs)
• MS Excel or MS Office

c. Liveware:

• System analyst
• Programmers
• Operators

Question 5.
Complete the following diagrams showing the functional relationship of the various components of computers.

a. Input devices:

1. Keyboard
2. Mouse
3. Light pen

b. Output devices:

1. Monitor
2. Printers
3. Plotters

c. CPU:

1. Memory unit
2. ALU
3. Control unit

d. Secondary storage devices:

1. Floppy disk
2. Hard disk
3. Optical disk

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Computerised Accounting is different from Manual accounting. Explain.
Computerised accounting is different from manual accounting, the following are the main difference between these two:

 Computerised Accounting Manual Accounting 1. In computerised accounting data can be easily processed and statements can be prepared with high speed and accuracy. 1. In manual accounting financial statements cannot be prepared with such speed and accuracy. 2. Mass data can be stored in very small space and brought back very easily. 2. Data are stored in large number of books and retrieval of data is a very tedious job. 3. Coding is essential in computerised accounting. 3. Coding is not essential. 4. Closing entries are not necessary. 4. Closing entries are necessary. 5. The possibility of errors are less in computerised accounting. 5. The possibility of errors are more.

### Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the elements of a computer system?
A computer system is a combination of six elements. They are as follows:
1. Hardware:
The physical components of a computer system is termed as Hardware. Eg: Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor, Processor, etc.

2. Software:
Set of programs that govern the operations of a computer system is termed as soft-ware. There are six types of software as follows.

1. Application software
2. Operating system
3. Utility programs
4. Language processors
5. System software
6. Connectivity software

3. People:
People interacting with computers are also called the “live-wave” of the computer system. It consists of the following three groups.

1. System analysis
2. Programmers
3. Operators

4. Procedures:
The procedure means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desired results. There are three types of procedures which constitute part of computer system

1. Hardware oriented
2. Software oriented
3. Internal procedure

5. Data:
These are facts and may consist of numbers, text, etc. These are gathered and entered into a computer system.

6. Connectivity:
Tie manner in which a particular computer system is connected to others says through telephone lines, microwave transmission, satellite, etc. is the element of connectivity.

Question 2.
Define computerised accounting. List out various advantages and limitations of computerised accounting system.
A computerised accounting system is an accounting information system that processes financial transactions and events to produce reports as per user requirements.

1. Speed
2. Accuracy
3. Reliability
4. Efficiency
5. Storage and Retrieval
6. Automated document production
7. Quality reports
8. Real-time user interface

b. Limitations:

1. Huge training costs
2. Staff opposition
3. System failure
4. Breaches of security
5. Inability to check unanticipated errors

## Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Physical World

Students can Download Chapter 1 Physical World Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Physical World

### Plus One Physics Physical World One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The word ‘Science’ originated from a Latin verb. Which is that verb?
‘Scientia’ means ‘to know’.

Question 2.
The word physics comes from a Greek word______.
‘Fusis’ means ‘nature’.

Question 3.
Name the branch of science that deals with

1. Study of stars
2. Study of earth

1. Astronomy
2. Geology

### Plus One Physics Physical World Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks

## Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II

Students can Download Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Closing stock is valued at
(a) Market Price
(b) Cost Price
(c) Market Price or Cost Price whichever is less.
(c) Market Price or Cost Price whichever is less.

Question 2.
Carriage inward is debited to …………… account.
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Cash Account

Question 3.
Balance Sheet is prepared to find out ……………
(a) Capital
(b) Net Profit
(c) Financial position
(c) Financial Position

Question 4.
Gross profit is the difference between ……………..
(a) Sales and Purchases
(b) Sales and total cost
(c) Sales and cost of goods sold
(c) Sales and cost of goods sold

Question 5.
Interest on capital is ……………… to the business.
(a) Income
(b) Expenses
(c) Asset
(b) Expenses

Question 6.
Wages paid before it has become due is shown in the balance sheet as ……………..
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Expenses
(a) Asset

Question 7.
Ameer’s trial balance contains the following information.

• Provision for bad debts Rs. 1600

It is desired to maintain a provision for bad debts at Rs. 1500. The amount to be debited to profit and loss a/c is ………….
(a) Rs. 3500
(b) Rs. 100
(c) Rs. 300
(c) Rs. 300

Question 8.
Profit from Profit and Loss account is transferred to …………… account.
(a) Asset account
(b) Capital account
(c) Liability account
(b) Capital Account

Question9.
The Financial statements consist of:
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Both b and c
(d) Both b and c

Question 10.
Choose the correct order of ascertainment of the fol¬lowing profits from the profit and loss account:
(a) Operating profit. Net Profit, Gross profit
(b) Operating profit, Gross Profit, Net Profit
(c) Gross Profit, Operating Profit, Net Profit
(d) Gross Profit, Net Profit, Operating Profit
(c) Gross profit, Operating profit, Net Profit

Question 11.
Which of the following are not taken into account at the time of calculation of operating profit?
(a) Normal transactions
(b) Abnormal items
(c) Expenses of a purely financial nature
(d) Both a and c
(c) Expenses of a purely financial nature

Question 12.
If the insurance premium paid Rs. 1,000 and prepaid insurance of Rs. 400. The amount of insurance premium shown in profit and loss a/c will be:
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 600
(d) Rs. 600

Question 13.
When the Manager is entitled to a commission of 10% on profits after charging such commission, it is calculated on profits before charging commission by the formula ………….
(a) 10/90
(b) 10/100
(c) 10/110
(d) 90/100
(c) 10/110

Question 14.
Profit and Loss Account is an account prepared to find out ………………
Net Profit or Net Loss.

Question 15
Income tax paid for the trader from the business is treated as …………..
Drawings.

Question 16.
Adjustments are made in the final accounts to satisfy ………. principle of accounting
Matching Principle.

Question 17.
Free samples distributed among customer’s will be credited to ……….. account.

Question 18.
…………….. is an expenditure of the revenue nature in the current year, the benefit of which accrues gradually or lasts for more than one accounting year.
Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Question 19.
EBIT stands for …………………
Earnings Before Interest and Tax

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one and state the reason.

1. Wages, carriage, Trade expenses, Freight
2. Income tax paid, Salary paid, Rent paid, Wages paid

1. Trade expense – It is an indirect expense, all others are direct expenses.
2. Income tax paid – It is a personal expense of the Proprietor, all others are business expenses.

Question 2.
The sales and cost of goods sold by John Brothers are Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 28,000 respectively. What is the amount of his gross profit?
Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold
= 40,000 – 28,000 = Rs. 12,000

Question 3.
What are the financial statements?
The term Financial Statements generally refers to two statements prepared at the end of an accounting period for an enterprise. These are Trading and Profit and Loss Account, showing profitability of the business operations and Balance sheet, showing the financial position of the enterprises.

Question 4.
A new manufacturer incurred huge expenditure in advertisement. Explain the nature of expenditure.
Deferred Revenue Expenditure:
“Expenses incurred today, and the benefit of which accrue gradually in subsequent year is called Deferred Revenue Expenditure. For example Expenses like advertisement, which may be incurred in one lump sum but the benefit of which will be received only within a series of years. The proportionate amount due the current year must be arrived at and debited to the P/L account. The balance must be shown on the assets side of the Balance sheet.

Question 5.
Calculate the value of cost of goods sold.

• Opening stock – 10,000
• Net purchases – 5,000
• Direct expenses – 2,000
• Closing stock – 10,500

Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net Purchases + Direct Expenses – Closing stock
= (10,000 + 5000 + 2000) – 10500 = Rs. 6,500

Question 6.
What is Operating profit?
Operating profit is the profit earned through the normal operations and activities of the business. Operating profit can be calculated as follows:
Operating profit = (Gross profit – Operating expense) + Operating income.

Or

= Net Profit + Non-operating expenses – Non-operating income.
Examples of non-operating expenses are loss on sale of assets, interest paid etc. Non-operating incomes are dividend received, Profit on sale of assets.

Question 7.
Operating profit earned by M/s. Asoka & Sons in 2010-11 was Rs. 17,00,000. Its non-operating incomes were Rs. 1,50,000 and non-operating expenses were Rs.3,75,000. Calculate the amount of net profit earned by the firm.
Net profit = Operating profit – Non-operating expenses + Non operating income = 1700000 – 375000 + 150000 Net Profit =Rs. 1475000

Question 8 .
Explain the treatment of goods distributed as sample to customers.
In order to increase sales, goods may be distributed among customers free of cost. Such free goods are in the form of samples for test use. It is in the form of advertisement expense. The amount is to be deducted from the purchases in the trading account. The cost of the sample is to be shown as an expenses in the profit and loss account.

Question 9.
To tally a balance sheet, one has to strictly adhere to the basic accounting equation ‘Asset = Liabilities + Captial’. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate.
Every transaction has two aspects which are equal in value but opposite in nature. One of the aspects will form part of liability and the other one asset. Be¬cause of this feature of accounting equation, a balance sheet is always tallied.

Question 10.

• Closing stock – Rs. 30,000
• Sales – Rs. 1,00,000

Gross Profit 20% on sale

• Purchases – Rs. 60,000
• Direct Wages – Rs. 7000

Find out opening stock.
Opening stock = Sales + Closing stock – (Purchases + Direct Expense + Gross Profit)
= 1,00,000 + 30,000 – (60,000 + 7,000 + 20,000)
= 1,30,000 – 87,000 = 43,000

Question 11.
Provide provision for bad debt @ 10% on debtors from the particulars given below.

• Good Debts Rs. 10,000
• Doubtful debts Rs. 50,000

Provision for doubtful debts = Doubtful debts × % of provision for bad debt
= 50000 × 10/100 = Rs. 5000

Question 12.
Payment received from debtors does not result a change in the total assets. Comment.
When the payment is received from debtors the asset, cash is increased and also a corresponding decrease happens on the asset, Debtors. Therefore, there won’t be any change in the value of total assets in effect.

Question 13.
What is meant by provision for discount on debtors?
This is a discount which is being allowed by an enterprise to its debtors to encourage prompt payments. Discount likely to be allowed to customers in an accounting year can be estimated and provided for by creating a provision for discount on debtors. Here, it is to be remembered that provision for discount made on good debtors which are arrived at by deducting further bad debts and the provision for doubtful debts.

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between capital and revenue expenditure.
1. Capital expenditure increases earning capacity of business whereas revenue expenditure is incurred to maintain the earning capacity.

2. Capital expenditure is incurred to acquire fixed assets for operation of business whereas revenue expenditure is incurred on the day-to-day conduct of business.

3. Revenue Expenditure is recurring expenditure but capital expenditure is non-recurring by nature.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Direct and Indirect Expenses.
1. Direct Expenses:
Means all expenses directly connected with the manufacture, purchase of goods and bringing them to the point of sale. Direct expenses include carriage inward, freight inwards, octroi, clearing charges, wages, factory lighting, coal, water, gas, fuel, import duty, cotton waste, royalty on production, heating, dock dues, customs duty etc.

2. Indirect expenses:
Are those expenses which are incurred after the manufacturing of goods. In other words, Indirect expenses are those expenses that are incurred to operate a business as a whole. Indirect expense include – carriage outward, rent, rates and tax, office expenses, selling and distribution expenses.

Question 3.
Mention the difference between a Balance Sheet and a Trial Balance. (Any two points).

 Trial Balance Balance Sheet 1. It is a list of all account balances 1. It is prepared with the balances of real and personal accounts only. 2. It is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts. 2. It is prepared to ascertain the financial position of the firm. 3. It is prepared frequently. 3. It is usually prepared annually.

Question 4.
Calculate closing stock from the following

• Sales – 20,000
• Purchases – 12,300
• Return inwards – 500
• Carriage inwards – 400
• Return outwards – 1,000
• Gross Profit – 8000

Question 5.
On 1st January 2008, a firm had a stock of goods valued at Rs. 10,000. During the year the following transactions took place.

• Sales – 2,00,000
• Purchases – 1,20,000
• Carriage inwards – 500
• Sales returns – 2,000
• Purchase returns – 1,000
• Find out the amount of Gross Profit.

1. Gross Profit = Net Sales – Cost of goods sold
2. Net sales = 2,00,000 – 2,000 = 1,98,000
3. Net Purchase = 1,20,000 -1000 = 1,19,000.
4. Cost of goods sold = 10,000 + 1,19,000 + 500 = 1,29,500
5. Gross Profit = 1,98,000 – 1,29,500 = Rs. 68,500

Question 6.
What do you mean by Profit and Loss Account.
Profit and Loss a/c is an account prepared to find out the net profit earned or net loss incurred by a business during an accounting period. It is debited with all operating expenses and losses and credited with incomes and profit. This account begins with the Gross Profit or Gross Loss brought down from Trading A/c.

If the total of the credit side of this account is more than the total of the debit side, the difference is net profit. If the total of the debit side exceeds the total of the credit side, the difference is net loss. The amount of net profit or net loss transferred to capital account.

Question 7.
From the following information calculate operating profit.

• Cost of goods sold – Rs. 5,00,000
• Selling & Distribution expenses – 35,000
• Net sales – 7,50,000

• Operating Profit = Gross Profit – (Operating expenses + Operating income)
• Gross Profit = Net sales – Cos of goods sold = 7,50,000-5,00,000 = 2,50,000
• Operating Expenses = Administration expense + Selling and Distribution exp.
• Operating Profit = 2,50,000 – (25,000+ 35,000) = Rs. 1,90,000

Question 8.
What do you mean by Deferred Revenue Expenditure? Can you present it with a suitable example?
“Deferred Revenue Expenditure is an expenditure of the revenue nature in the current year, the benefit of which accrues gradually or lasts for more than one accounting year.”

Examples are advertisements of usually high amounts, cost of shifting business to a more convenient location, etc. The amounts spend on such expenses would be spread over the period for which the benefit arises. Suppose if a concern spends Rs. 5 lakh for advertisement and it is expected that the benefit of its lasts for 5 years, the amount to be treated as current year’s expenditure is only one fifth (1/5) of Rs. 5 lakhs ie. Rs. 1 lakh. The balance Rs. 4 lakhs would be treated as an asset.

Question 9.
State the reasons why the following items appear or not in the Profit and Loss A/c.

2. Drawings

1. Bad debts is an indirect expenditure and hence it appears in the Profit and Loss A/c.
2. Drawings will reduce the capital a/c. Therefore, it cannot be shown in the P/L a/c.
3. Provision for bad debt is a charge against profit. Hence it will appear in the P/LA/c.

Question 10.
Mr. Narayanan, an accountant of Samay Ltd wrote off Rs. 2000 as bad debts in the year 2004. The total
Sundry debtors for the year 2005 is Rs. 26,000. During this year half of the bad debts written off in the last year were recovered. Give Journal Entry for the recovery of bad debts and also show how it will be dealt in the financial statement for the year 2005.

Question 11.
What are adjusting entries? Why are they necessary for preparing final accounts?
Entries which are given outside the trial balance are called adjustment entries, to record those entries a proper treatment is required according to the double-entry system. Here it is to be remembered that all the adjustments given outside the Trial Balance are posted at two places.

Adjustment is generally done for those items which are omitted or entered with the wrong amount and/or recorded under wrong heads. The following are reasons for recording or. incorporating these adjustment entries in preparation of final account.

1. Through these adjustment entries, we come to know the actual figure of profit or loss.
2. Because of these adjusting entries, we can assess the true financial position of an organisation based on accrual basis of accounting.
3. These adjustment entries enable us to records the omitted entries and help in rectifying all those errors.
4. These adjusting entries help in providing depreciation and making different provisions, such as Bad Debts and Depreciation.

Question 12.
What is meant by provision for doubtful debts? How are ‘the relevant accounts prepared and what journal entries are recorded in final accounts? How is the amount for provision for doubtful debts calculated?
Provision for doubtful debts is a kind of arrangement about the expect bad debts from the debtors. Generally it is provided after deducting the amount of bad debts from the debtors. As provision for doubtful debts is made after preparing the trial balance, to record it we need a kind of adjustment entry in this regard we prepare debtors account and provision for doubtful debts account. For recording bad debts, the following journal entry is passed.

• Profit and Loss A/c Dr
To Provision for Doubtful Debts A/c (Being provision for doubtful debts is created out of current year profits)

Computation of the Amount of Provision for Doubtful Debts As it is given at the end of a trial balance as an adjustment, little another related adjustment may be there for instance bad debts and discount on debtors. In this case provision for doubtful debt will be created after deducting the figure for bad debts out of the debtor figure.

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Trading Account? Explain its purpose.
The trading account is an account which shows the results of buying and selling of goods or services. It contains summarized form of all the transactions occurring during a trading period. This account is credited with direct incomes and debited with direct expenses.

Trading account is prepared to ascertain the gross result of the business. The gross result of the business is either gross profit or gross loss. If the net sales exceeds cost of goods sold then there is gross profit and if the opposite takes place, there is a gross loss.

Gross profit = Net sales – Cost of goods sold Gross Loss = Cost of goods sold – Net Sales Purposes of a trading account are:

1. To ascertain the gross profit or gross loss.
2. To enable the management to make a comparison of gross profit or gross loss with that of the previous year.
3. To ascertain different ratios such as gross profit ratio, ratio of cost of goods sold to sales etc.

Question2.
From the following details, prepare Trading Account.

• Opening stock – Rs. 12500
• Purchases – Rs. 22,000
• Purchase returns – Rs.2000
• Wages – Rs. 2000
• Carriage inwards – Rs. 500
• Sales – Rs. 57,000
• Sales returns – Rs. 3,000
• Closing stock – Rs. 15,000

Trading Account for the year ended ………..

Question 3.
What is a Balance Sheet? Explain the needs for preparing Balance Sheet.
A Balance Sheet is a statement prepared to ascertain the true position of assets and liabilities as on a particular date. It is prepared at the end of the accounting period, after the preparation of Trading and Profit and Loss account. It is called Balance sheet, as it is a statement prepared with the balance of accounts left after the preparation of Trading and Profit and Loss account.

It gives clear picture of the financial position of the concern. Accounts of Assets, liabilities and Owner’s equity are shown in the Balance Sheet. Items of liabilities and capital are shown on the left side, known as “liabilities” side and the item of assets are shown on the right-hand side, known as “Assets” side of the balance sheet. Balance sheet is prepared with the following objectives.

1. To ascertain the financial position of the concern.
2. To ascertain the nature of assets and liabilities of the firm.
3. To know about the source and application of funds.
4. To ascertain working capital as on the date of Balance sheet.
5. To ascertain the excess of assets over external liabilities.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Grouping and Marshalling of assets and liabilities?
1. Grouping:
The term grouping means putting together items of similar nature under a common heading in the Balance sheet.

2. Marshaling:
Marshaling denotes the order in which the assets and liabilities are shown in the Balance sheet. They are arranged in the following two different ways.

a. In the order of liquidity:
Liquidity means the capacity to raise cash, Under these approach assets are presented in the order of their liquidity. ‘Cash’ being the most liquid item, it is shown as the first item whereas the least liquid item such as ‘Goodwill’ is shown as the last one. The most urgent liability is shown first and the least urgent to pay is shown last.

b. In the order of permanence:
Linder this approach, permanent assets, and liabilities are shown first followed by current assets and liabilities. Joint Stock Companies have to prepare their Balance sheet in the order of permanence. This is just the reverse of the order of liquidity.

Question 5.
Show the treatment in financial statements in respect of the following:

1. Outstanding expenses
2. Managers commission
3. Interest on capital

1. Outstanding expenses:
Expenses that have been incurred during the current year, but the payment has not been made is called outstanding expenses. It must be added to respective expense account in the Trading and Profit and Loss account. It will be shown on the ‘liability’ side of the Balance sheet.

2. Managers Commission:
Commission on net profit, at a specific percentage, may be allowed to the manager of a business concern. The commission as a percentage of the net profit may be ‘before’ or ‘after’ charging such commission. In the absence of any special instructions, it is assumed that commission is allowed as a percentage of the net profit before charging such commission.

• If the commission is on the net profit before charging such commission, the formula is
Profit before commission × $$\frac{\text { rate of commission }}{100}$$
• If the commission is on the net profit after charging such commission the formula is
Profit × rate/(100 + rate)
• The amount of commission must be debited to Profit and Loss account and it must be shown as a liability in the Balance sheet.

3. Interest on capital:
Sometimes interest is paid on the Proprietor’s capital. Interest is allowed at a certain rate on the capital at the beginning of the year. Such interest is an expense to the business and is debited to Profit and Loss Account. It is shown in the liability side by adding the same to capital.

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From the following figures, prepare profit and loss account of M/s. Thomas and Sons for the year ended 31.03.2008.

• Gross Profit – 15000
• Printing charges – 750
• Salaries – 5000
• Carriage outwards – 500
• Insurance charges – 400
• Discount allowed 650

Profit and Loss Account of M/s. Thomas & Sons for the year ended 31.03.08

Question 2.
Arrange the following assets and liabilities in the order of liquidity and in the order of permanence.

Question 3.
Write the adjustment entries for the following:-
a) Salary outstanding Rs. 5000.
b) Insurance prepaid Rs. 5100.
c) Depreciation of Machinery Rs. 4000
e) Interest on drawing Rs. 400

Question 4.
What are the closing entries? Give examples.
The preparation of trading and profit and loss account requires that the balances of accounts of all concerned items are transferred to it for its compilation. For transferring the balance of all the ledger account to concerned head is done through closing entries.
For examples:
1. Opening stock account, purchase account, wages account, carriage inward account, and direct expense account are closed by transferring to the debit side of the trading and profit and loss account.
The journal entry is:

• To opening stock A/c
• To Purchase A/c
• To Wages A/c
• To Carriage inward A/c
• To Direct Expense A/c

2. The purchase return account is closed by transferring its balance to the purchase account. The journal entry is:

• Purchase Return A/c Dr
• To Purchase A/c

3. The sales return account is closed by transferring its balance to the sales account as:

• Sales A/c Dr
• To Sales Return A/c

4. The Sales account is closed by transferring its balance to the credit side of the trading and profit and loss account.
The Journal entry is:

• Sales A/c Dr

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following are the extracts from Trial Balance of a business.

• Sundry Debtors = 40,000
• Provision for bad debts = 5,000

1. Provide further bad debts Rs. 2000
2. Create 10% provision for bad debts.

Pass Journal entries and show how these items will appear in the final accounts.
Journal

Question 2.
Show the treatment of prepaid expenses,
depreciation, closing stock at the time of preparation of final accounts.

1. When given inside the trial balance.
2. When given outside the trial balance.

Treatment of prepaid expenses, depreciation and closing stock at the time of preparing the final account.
1. When Given Inside the Trial Balance Prepaid Expenses:
When prepaid expenses are given in the trial balance itself it will be treated as current assets only and will be posted in the Assets Side of the balance sheet. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

Depreciation:
When depreciation is given in the trial balance it will be treated as an expenditure and will be shown in the debit side of the Profit and Loss Account. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

Closing Stock:
When closing stock is given in the trial balance it will purely be treated as assets and will be shown only in the Assets Side of the Balance sheet. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

2. When Given Outside the Trial Balance Prepaid Expenses:
When prepaid expenses are given outside the trial balance it will be treated as an Adjustment and will be posted at two places, first of all, it will be deducted from the concerned expenses in the debit side of Profit and Loss Account and after that, it will be treated as current assets and will be posted in the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

Depreciation:
When depreciation is given outside the trial balance be treated as an adjustment and will be posted at two places to comply with the rules of the double-entry bookkeeping system. First of all the amount of depreciation will be shown in the debit side of Profit and Loss account as an expenditure and the amount of depreciation will be deducted from the concerned assets in the assets side of Balance Sheet.

Closing Stock:
When closing stock is given outside the trial balance it will purely be treated as an adjustment and will be posted at two places first of all the amount of closing stock will be shown at the credit side of Trading Account and after that it will be shown as an assets in the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

### Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following is the extract takes from the Trial Balance of Vimal.
Trial Balance as on 31.03.2008

1. Salary outstanding has not been recorded – Rs.8000
2. Prepaid insurance was meant for Proprietor’s son.
3. Write off further Rs. 200 as bad debts and make a provision for doubtful debts @ 5%.
4. Depreciate furniture @ 10%.

You are required to prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31.03.2008 and Balance Sheet as on the date.
Trading and Profit and Loss a/c for the year ended 31.03.2008

Balance sheet as on 31.03.2008

Question 2.
Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss a/c for the year ended 31.03.05 and Balance sheet as on that date from the following balance.

Trading and Profit and Loss A/c of Mr. Babu for the year ended 31.03.05

Balance Sheet of Mr. Babu as on 31.03.05

Question 3.
The following is the Trial Balance of Vineeth as on 30.06.2008.

1. Closing stock is valued at Rs. 8750.
2. Provide 5% of debtors for bad debts and 2% of debtors and creditors for discount.
3. Provide interest on capital at 10% and charge interest on drawings at 5%.
4. Depreciate delivery van by 20%.
5. Only one-fifth of advertisement is to be treated as expenses of current year.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 30.06.2008 and also a Balance Sheet as on that date.
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 30.06.08

Balance Sheet as on 30.06.2008

Note: Discount on Debtors
= (20000-1000) × 2/100 = 380
Discount on Creditors = 10500 × 2/100 = 210

Question 4.
Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31.03.2005 and a Balance Sheet as on that date from the following balances.

1. Stock on 31.03.05 Rs. 72,600.
2. Depreciate Plant and Machinery by 33 1/3%, Furniture by 10% and Freehold property by 5%.
3. Loose tools valued at Rs. 1,760 on 31.3.05.
4. Of the Sundry debtors Rs. 660 are bad and should be written off.
5. Maintain a provision of 5% debtors for doubtful debts.
6. The Manager is entitled to a commission of 10% of the net profits after charging such commission.

1. Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31.03.2005

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2005

Note: Manager’s Commission:
Net Profit before commission = 49280 (111870-62590)
Therefore, Managers commission @ 10% of Net Profit after charging commission = 49280 × 1°/110 = 4480

Question 5.
The following is the Trial Balance of Balu as on 31/12/2011.

1. Closing stock Rs. 9,500
2. Depreciate plant and machinery at 10% p.a
3. Interest on loan at 12% is due for the whole year.
4. Write off further Rs.400 as bad debts and provision for bad debts is to be made equal to 5% on debtors.
5. Provide 2% for discount on debtors.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended and Balance sheet as on 31/12/2011.
Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31/12/2011

Balance sheet as on 31/12/2011

Question 6.
The following is the Trial Balance of Mahesh as on 31/3/11.

1. Closing stock Rs. 65,000
2. Insurance prepaid Rs. 400
3. Commission earned but not received amounts to Rs. 300
4. Write off 1/5 of leasehold premises and provide a depreciation of 10% on plant and machinery.
5. Debtors include goods of the cost of Rs. 4,000 sent on sale or return basis at an invoice price of Rs. 5,000. The goods are likely to be returned.
6. Transfer 10% of net profit to reserve. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet.

Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31/3/2011.

Balance Sheet as on 31/03/2011

Note:
Reserve = 10% of net profit
79,500 -16,800 = 62,700 x 10% = 6,270

Question 7.
From the following balance extracted from the books of M/s. Hariharan Brother, you are required to prepare the trading and profit and loss account and a balance sheet as on December 31, 2005.

1. Closing stock Rs. 14000
2. Wages outstanding Rs.600, Salaries outstandings Rs. 1,000, Rent outstanding Rs. 200.
3. Fire Insurance premium includes Rs.1200 paid in July 01, 2005, to run for one year from July 01, 2005, to June 30, 2006.
4. Apprenticeship Premium is for three years paid in advance on January 01, 2005.
5. Stationery bill for Rs. 60 remain unpaid.
6. Depreciation on Premises @ 5%, furniture @ 10%, Machinery @ 10%.
7. Interest on loan given accrued for one year @ 7%.
8. Interest on investment @ 5% for half year to December 31, 2005, has accrued.
9. Interest on capital to be allowed at 5% for one year.
10. Interest on drawings to be charged to him ascertained for the year Rs. 160.

Books of Hariharan Bros.
Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended December 31, 2005

Balance Sheet as at December 31, 2005

Question 8.
Prepare the trading and profit and loss account of M/s.Roni Plastic Ltd. from the following trial balance and a balance sheet as at March 31,2006.

1. Depreciation on land and building at 5% and Motor vehicle at @ 15%.
2. Interest on loan is @ 5% taken on April 01, 2005
3. Goods costing Rs. 1200 were sent to a customer on sale on return basis for Rs.1400 on March 30, 2006, and has been recorded in the books as actual sales.
4. Salaries amounting to Rs. 1400 and Rates amounting to Rs. 800 are due.
5. The bad debts provision is to be brought up to @ 5% on Sundry debtors.
6. The closing stock was Rs. 13,700.
7. Goods costing Rs. 1,000 were taken away by the proprietor for his personal use but not entry has been made in the books of account.
8. Insurance prepaid Rs. 350.
9. Provide the Manager’s commission at @ 5% on Net profit after charging such commission.

Books of Roni’s Plastic Ltd.
Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended December 31, 2006

Note: New provision for bad debt = (38200 -1400) 5/100 = 1840
Balance Sheet as on 31.3.2006

Question 9.
From the following balances extracted from the books of Raga Ltd. prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended December 31, 2011, and a balance sheet as on that date.

The additional information is as under

1. The closing stock was valued at the end of the year 20,000.
2. Depreciation on plant and machinery charged @ 5% and land and building @ 10%.
3. Discount on debtors @ 3%.
4. Make a provision @ 5% on debtors for bad debts.
5. Salary outstanding was? 100 and wages prepaid was? 40.
6. The manager is entitled a commission of 5% on net profit after charging such commission.

Trading and Profit and Loss Account as on 31st December 2011

Balance Sheet as on 31st December 2011

## Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter

Students can Download Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter

### Plus One Physics Thermal Properties of Matter One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which of the following processes, convection does nottake place primarily?
(a) Sea and land breeze
(b) Boiling of water
(c) Warming of glass of bulb due to filament
(d) Heating air around a furnace
(c) Warming of glass of bulb due to filament
In convection process, the heat is transferred by the bodily motion of the heated particles. It is not so in case of warming of glass bulb due to filament heating. In fact, warming of glass bulb is due to radiation.

Question 2.
$$\frac{\text { Watt }}{\text { Kelvin }}$$ a unit of
(a) Stefan’s constant
(b) Wien’s constant
(c) Cooling’s constant
(d) Thermal conductance
(d) Thermal resistance

Question 3.
For measuring temperatures in the range of 2000°C, we should employ
(a) gas thermometer
(b) platinum-rhodium thermometer
(c) barometer
(d) pyrometer
(d) pyrometer

Question 4.
There is a hole in metal disc. What happens to the size of metal disc if the metal disc is heated?
The size of hole increases.

Question 5.
Which has more specific heat capacity, water, and sand?
Water.

Question 6.
Two solid spheres of the same material have the same radius but one is hollow while the other is solid. Both spheres are heated to same temperature. Then
(a) the solid sphere expands more
(b) the hollow sphere expands more
(c) expansion is same for both
(d) nothing can be solid about their relative expansion if their masses are not given
(c) expansion is same for both

Question 7.
The sprinkling of water reduces slightly the temperature of a closed room because
(a) temperature of water is less than that of the room.
(b) specific heat of water is high
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation
When water is sprinkled over a large area, evaporation takes place. As the latent heat of vaporisation is large cooling takes place.

Question 8.
Why specific heat of gas at constant pressure (Cp) is greater than specific heat at constant volume?
More heat is required to raise the temperature of gas at constant pressure than at constant volume.

Question 9.
A body is heated. But there is no change in its temperature. Is it possible?
Yes. During change of state, there will be no increase in temperature even when heat is supplied.

Question 10.
When boiling water is put in glass tumbler, the tumbler cracks. Why?
Glass is poor conductor of heat. So inner and outer surfaces of tumbler suffer uneven expension. Hence it breaks.

Question 11.
A small space is left between two rails on railway track. Why?
If no space is left, the rails would bend due to thermal expansion in summer. So small space is left between two rails to allow thermal expansion.

Question 12.
The pendulum of clock is made of invar, Why?
Invar has low value of coefficient of linear expansion. So length of pendulum remains almost same in all seasons. (The change in length affects time period of pendulum).

Question 13.
Tea gets cooled, when sugar is added to it. Why?
When sugar is added, heat content of tea gets shared with sugar & hence’ temperature decreases.

Question 14.
Ice covered in gunny bag does not melt for a long time. Why?
A gunny bag is poor conduct of heat & hence it does not allow external heat to enter.

Question 15.
Why two layers of cloth of equal thickness provide warmer covering than a single layer of cloth of double the thickness?
Because air between two layers of clothes is a bad ‘ conductor of heat.

Question 16.
On winter nights, we feel warmer when clouds cover the sky than the sky is clear. Why?
The clouds are bad conductor of heat. So heat of earth’s atmosphere is not conducted out.

### Plus One Physics Thermal Properties of Matter Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Two bodies at different temperatures T1K and T2K are brought in contact with each other

• Is the resultant temperature be necessarily (T1 + T2)/2? If not, Why?
• Should the resultant temperature be between T1 and T1 only? If not, Why?

1. Two bodies at different temperatures:

• The resultant temperature may not be necessarily $$\left(\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{2}\right)$$. Because specific heat capacity is different for all substances.
• If heat is not lost to the surroundings, resultant temperature must lie in between T1 and T2.

Question 2.
A Patient is admitted to hospital. The temperature of the patient is measured by nurse and is found to be 97.6°F

1. What is meant by temperature?
2. Convert the temperature (97.6°F) is to centigrade

1. Temperature is the degree of hotness.

2.

Question 3.
Why iron rims are heated red hot before being put on the cart wheels?
The radius of iron rim is smaller than radius of cart wheel. When iron rim is heated, its radius increases due to thermal expansion. After rim has planted on the wheel, iron rim is allowed to cool. Then it fits tightly on the wheel due to thermal contraction.

Question 4.
How woolen clothes helps us in winter against cold?
Wool is a heat insulator. Moreover, it contains a layer of dry air in it. This air, which is bad conductor of heat does not allow the body heat to escape & it also does not allow external cold to come in. The rough surface of woollen clothes absorbs more and reflects less heat falling on it.

### Plus One Physics Thermal Properties of Matter Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A Solid material is supplied with heat at constant rate. The temperature of the material is changing with the heat input as shown in figure.

1. What do the horizontal region AB and CD represent?
2. What does the slope of DE represent?
3. The slope of OA is greater than the slope of BC. What does this indicate?

1. Latent heat of fusion, Latent heat of vaporization
2. It indicates that, the material is in vapour state
3. It indicates that latent heat of vaporization of the material is greater than the latent heat of fusion.

### Plus One Physics Thermal Properties of Matter Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A copper block of mass 2.5kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature of 500°C and then placed on a large ice block. What is the maximum amount of ice that can melt? (Specific heat of copper = 0.39Jg-1 K-1; latent heat of fusion of water = 335 Jg-1).
Mass, m = 2.5kg
= 2.5 × 103 g;
Change in temperature, ∆T = 500°C
Specific heat, c = 0.39 Jg-1K-1;
Latent heat of fusion, L = 335Jg-1
If m’ be the mass of ice melted, then m’L = mc ∆T
or m’ × 335 = 2.5 × 103 × 0.39 × 500 2.5 × 103 × 0.39 × 500
or m’ = $$\frac{2.5 \times 10^{3} \times 0.39 \times 500}{335} \mathrm{g}$$
= 1.5 kg.

Question 2.
Heat from the sun reaches the earth.

1. Write the method of transmission of heat.
2. Thermal conductivity of Aluminium is 205 Jm-1s-1deg-1. What do you mean by this?
3. Birds swell feathers in winter. Why?

2. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a substance is defind as the quauitity of heat conducted normally persecond through unit area of the substance per unit temperature gradient when the substance attains steady state.

3. By doing so the birds enclose air between the feathers. Air being a poor conductor, prevents the loss of heat from the body of the bird to the cold surroundings.

Question 3.
Two accidents are happened. The first one with water at 100°C and the second one with steam at 100°C.

1. Which is dangerous burn due to water at 100°C, and bum due to steam at 100°C? Why?
2. Latent heat of vapourisation of water to 536 cal/g. Explain the idea of latent heat of vopourisation.
3. Find the heat required to convert 1g of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C is

1. Burn due to steam is more dangerous, because heat content in steam is very high compared to 100°C water.

2. Latent heat of vapourisation is the amount of heat required to change the state of 1 kg water in to vapour.

3. Q = ML + MC∆Q + ML1

= 716 cal.

Question 4.
When a fluid is heated, the particle rises up.

1. Name the phenomonon behind it.
2. Explain the formation of land breeze and sea breeze.

1. Convection

2. During the day, land heats up more quickly than, water in lake (due to high specific heat capacity of water). The air on the surface of earth gets heated, expands, becomes less dense and rises up. The colder air (wind) replaces the space created by hot air.

It creates a sea breeze. At night the land loses its heat very quickly than water. So water remains more warmer at night.

### Plus One Physics Thermal Properties of Matter NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 10kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8.0kg. How much is the rise in temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes, assuming 50% of power is used up in heating the machine itself or lost to the surroundings? Specific heat of aluminium = 0.19Jg-1 K-1.
Power, P = 10 kW
= 10 × 103W
= 104W
Mass, m = 8 kg; Time, t = 2.5min = 150s
Specific heat, c = 0.91Jg-1K-1
= 0.91 × 103Jkg-1K-1
Energy, Q = pt = 104 × 150J = 1.5 × 106J
It is given that 50% of energy is lost to the. surroundings. So, energy absorbed by the block is given by
Q = $$\frac{1}{2}$$ × 1.5 × 106J = 0.75 × 106J
But Q = mc∆T
∴ ∆T

Question 2.
A brass boiler has a base area of 0.15m2 and thickness 1.0cm. It boils water at the rate of 6.0 kg/min when placed on a gas stove. Estimate the temperature of the part of the flame in contact with the boiler. Thermal conductivity of brass = 109 J s-1 m-1K-1;
Heat of vaporisation of water = 2256 × 103 J kg-1.
A = 0.15m2, d = 10-2m,
$$\frac{m}{t}=\frac{6}{60}$$ kgs-1 = 0.1kgs-1,
K = 109J s-1 m-1 K-1, L = 2256 × 103 Jkg-1,
θ1 = ?,
θ2 = 100°C

Question 3.
Explain why?
(a) A body with large reflectivity is a poor emitter.
(b) A brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilly day.
(c) An optical pyrometer (for measuring high temperature) calibrated for an ideal black body radiation gives too low a value for the temperature of a red hot iron piece in the open, but gives a correct value for the temperature when the same piece is in the furnace.
(d) The earth without its. atmosphere would be inhospitably cold?
(e) Heating systems based on circulation of steam are more efficient in warming a building than heating system based on circulation of hot water.
(a) a body whose reflectivity is large would naturally absorb less heat. So, a body with large reflectivity is a poor.

(b) The thermal conductivity of brass is high i.e., brass „ is a good conductor of heat. So, when a brass tumbler is touched, heat quickly flows from human body to tumbler. Consequently, the tumbler appears colder. On the other hand, wood is a bad conductor, so, heat does not flow from the human body to the wooden tray in this case. Thus, it appears comparatively hotter.

(c) Let T the temperature of the hot iron in the furnace. Heat radiated per second per unit area, E = σT4

## Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Effects of Electric Current

You can Download Effects of Electric Current Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Effects of Electric Current

### Effects of Electric Current Text Book Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 7

SSLC Physics Chapter 1 Question 1.
Some electrical devices are shown in the house of the child. What are they?

• Electric bulb
• Electric fan
• Mixi
• Induction cooker
• Microwave oven
• Storage batten,
• Inverter

Textbook Page No. 8

HssLive Physics Chapter 1 Question 2.
Write down the energy changes in them with respect to their use.

Heating Effect of Electric Current Class 10 Question 3.
which are the devices that give heating effect of electric current?

• Electric iron
• Electric stove
• Microwave oven
• Heating coil
• Induction cooker

Textbook Page No. 9

Heat Chapter Class 10 Questions and Answers Question 4.

→ How does the ni-chrome wire become red hot while passing electricity through the circuit?
Due to the resistance of Ni-chrome wire.

→ In this case which form of energy was converted into heat energy?
Electrical energy

→ How does this energy change occur?
This based on the concept that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only be converted from one form to another (Law of Conservation of Energy) As the resistance of Ni-chrome is higher it produced more heat.

Lighting Effect of Electric Current Question 5.

If the ammeter shows a current I ampere on applying a potential difference V across the resistor of resistance R Ω
Current $$I=\frac{Q}{t}$$
Then, the charge that flows through the conductor in t second,
Q = ……………coulomb.
Q = I × t coulomb

Heat Chapter Class 10 Question 6.
factors influencing the heat developed when a current passes through a conductor.

• Electric current
• Resistance of the conductor
• Time of current flow

Textbook Page No. 11

Question 7.
Complete the following table on the basis of Joule’s Law. (Page no.11).

Question 8.
Analyse the table and find out the factor that influences heat the most.
Intensity of current

Question 9.
Experiment (Textbook Page no. 11)

→ Of the water in beakers A and B which one got heated more? Why?
since nichrome has high resistance, more heat is produced. Hence temperature of water is increased.

→ What change is observed in the temperature of water in both the beakers when the current is increased using the rheostat?
As the current increases, the heat produced is increases.

→ What was the change that happened to the temperature of water in both the beakers on increasing the time?
Temperature is increased more

Textbook Page No. 12

Question 10.
Heat generated = 2400 J
If 4.2 J is one calorie then H = ……… calorie
H = 2400 J = $$\frac{2400}{4.2}$$ = 571.42 calorie

Question 11.
Let’s find out the heat developed in 3 minutes by a device of resistance 920 Ω working under 230 V.
V = 230V,
R = 920W,
t = 3 × 60 sec
I = $$\frac { V }{ R }$$ = $$\frac { 230 }{ 920 }$$ = 0.25
H = I2Rt = 0.252 × 920 × 3 × 60 = 10350 J

→ Is there any difference in the amount of heat energy thus obtained?
No

Textbook Page No. 13

→ How this problem can be solved using the relation, H = VIt.
V = 230 V,
R=920 W,
t = 3 × 60 sec
I = $$\frac { V }{ R }$$ = $$\frac { 230 }{ 920 }$$ = 0.25
H = VIt = 230 × 0.25 × 3 × 60 = 10350 J

Question 12.
Let’s calculate the heat developed when 3 A current flows through an electric iron box designed to work under 230 V.
V=230 V,
I = 3 A
t = 30 m = 30 × 60 = 1800 s
H = VIt =230 × 3 × 1800 = 1242000 J = 1242 kJ

Question 13.
Table 1.3

→ Why does the heater having low resistance get heated more?
Intensity of electric current is high.

→ In which way does the change in resistance influence the heat developed?
As resistance increases heat decreases.

→ Find out the current in the heaters A and B and compare the heat developed.
I = $$\frac{V}{R}$$
Heater A: I = $$\frac { 230 }{ 1150 }$$ = 0.2
Heater B: I = $$\frac { 230 }{ 460 }$$ = 0.5
In heater A and B, I increase H increases.

→ How do the resistors bring about a change in the current in the circuit?
As resistance increases, I decrease.

Textbook Page No. 14

Question 14.
Consider the fig 1.4(a) and 1.4(b).

→ In which circuit does the bulb glow with high intensity?
Circuit A [figure 1.4(a)]

→ Remove one bulb from each circuit. What do you observe?
In figl.4 (a)
In figl.4 (b)
In fig 1.4 (a) : bulb glows
In figl .4 (a) : bulb does not glow

→ Why do the bulbs in Fig 1.4 (a) glow with maximum brightness?
Ans: Low resistance

Textbook Page No. 15

Question 15.
Table 1.4.

Question 16.
Analyse the table and tick (✓) the best suited

Textbook Page No. 17

Question 17.
Complete Table 1.6 by analysing Tables 1.4 and 1.5.

 Resistors in series Resistors in parallel 1. Effective resistance increases 1. Effective resistance decreases 2. The current through each resistor is same as the main current. 2. The current through each resistor is different. It gets divided as per the value of resistors 3. The potential difference across each resistor is different. It gets divided as per the value of resistors. 3. The potential difference across each resistor will be the same 4. Each resistor cannot be controlled by separate switch, because the circuit is broken 4. Each resistor can be controlled by using separate switches.

Textbook Page No. 18

Question 18.
10 resistors of 2 Ω each are connected in parallel. Calculate the effective resistance.
R = $$\frac { 2Ω }{ 10 }$$ = 0.2 Ω

Textbook Page No. 19

Question 19.
A few heating appliances are shown in the figure(1.8). Examine any one of them and answer the following questions. Record the answers in the science diary.

→ Name the part in which electrical energy changes into heat energy.
Heatingcoil

→ Which material is used to make this part?
Nichrome:
Heating coils are made of nichrome. It is an alloy of nickel, chromium and iron.

→ What are the peculiarities of such substances?

• High resistivity
• High melting points
• Ability to remain in red hot condition for a long time without getting oxidized.
• Thermal expansion is negligible.

Textbook Page No. 20

Question 20.
Which are the circumstances that cause high electric current, leading to the melting of fuse wire?

Question 21.
How is the fuse wire connected to a circuit? In series/ parallel?
in series

Question 22.
You know that according to Joule’s Law, more heat will be produced when electric current is increased. What happens to the fuse wire due to this?
Fuse wire melts

Question 23.
When heat is generated, why does the fuse wire melt?
The melting point of fuse wire is lower than that of other metals

Question 24.
When the fuse wire melts, the circuit is broken. What happens to the current in the circuit?
The flow of current in the circuit stops simultaneously with the melting of fuse wire.

Question 25.
Why is the? fuse used in a circuit called safety fuse? Explain.
The current in the circuit may increase due to reasons such as short circuit, overload, excess flow of current or any problems in the insulation. As the higher temperature produced in the circuit due to these reasons makes the fuse wire to melt and the flow of current stops. Thus the circuit and the appliances are protected.

Question 26.
When a fuse wire is included in a household wiring. What are the precautions to be taken?

• The ends of the fuse wire must be connected firmly at appropriate points.
• The fuse wire should not project out of the carrier base.
• Use the fuse wire of proper amperage.

Question 27.
You might have noticed the marking of 500 W on an electrical appliance. What does it indicate?
It indicates the power of the instrument. The amount of energy consumed by an electrical appliance in unit time is its power.

Question 28.
What is the unit of power?
Watt (W)

Textbook Page No. 22

Question 29.
If R= V/I What will be P ?
P = IR = I × ……… = ……….
P = I2R = I2 × $$\frac { V }{ I }$$ = VI

Question 30.
A current of 0.4 A flows through an electric bulb working at 230 V. What is the power of the bulb?
V = 230 V
I = 4 A
P = VI
P = 230 × 4 = 92 W

Textbook Page No. 23

Question 31.
What happens if the interior of the bulb is not evacuated?
The interior of the bulb is evacuated to pr-event the oxidation of filament. When the tungsten comes in contact with the air in the heated condition
then it undergoes oxidation.

Question 32.
Why is the bulb filled with an inert gas or nitrogen?
To prevent the vaporization of filament.

Question 33.
What are the advantages of using tungsten as a filament?

• High resistivity
• High melting point
• High ductility
• Ability to emit white light in the white-hot conditions

Textbook Page No. 24

Question 34.
Nichrome is not used as filament in incandescent lamps. Why?
It can remain only in red hot condition but it can’t give light.

Question 35.
A filament lamp is lit for a short period of time. Touch it. What do you feel?
Heat is experienced.

Question 36.
What are the other types of lamps working on electricity? List them.

• Discharge lamp
• Fluorescent lamp
• Arc lamp
• CFL
• LED

Textbook Page No. 25

Question 37.
What are the advantages of using discharge lamps instead of incandescent lamps?
Loss of electricity in the form of heat is less, more life span, no shadow formation, more light is obtained, less consumption of electricity.

Question 38.
What are the factors to be considered when you select a bulb?
Efficiency, energy consumption, low energy loss, less environmental pollution.

Question 39.
Which are the lamps that are mostly used? Why?
LED: Low energy consumption, low energy 1 loss, less environmental pollution.

Question 40.
LED.

• LED’s are Light Emitting Diodes.
• As there is no filament, there is no loss j of energy in the form of heat.
• Since there is no mercury in it, it is not harmful to environment
• Very small
• It requires only small amount of power.
• No filaments

### Effects of Electric Current Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Fuse wire is to be used by understanding the amperage correctly. Write down the amperage of the fuse wires that are currently available in the market.
Fuse wire of suitable amperage should be selected. Amperage is the ratio of the power of an equipment to the voltage applied. Amperage increases with the thickness of the conductor. Thick wire takes more time to melt. Due to high current flow, the circuit may be damaged. If thin wire is used resistance is increased and hence current is reduced.
Amperage of available fuse : 0.1 A, 0.2 A, 0.5 A, 1.5 A, 3 A, 5 A.

Question 2.
0.5 A current flows through an electric heating device connected to 230 V supply.
a. the quantity of charge that flows through the circuit in 5 minutes is
i. 5 C
ii. 15 C
iii. 150 C
iv. 1500 C
b. How much is the resistance of the circuit?
c. Calculate the quantity of heat generated when current flows in the circuit for 5 minutes.
d. How much is the power of the heating device connected to the circuit if we ignore the resistance of the circuit wire?

Question 3.
According to Joule’s Law the heat generated due to the flow of current is H = I2 Rt. Will the heat developed increase on increasing the resistance without changing the voltage? Explain.
Heat decreases.
Reason H α $$\frac { 1 }{ R }$$

Question 4.
The table shows details of an electric heating device designed to work in 230 V. Complete the table by calculating the change in the heat and power on changing the voltage and resistance of the device. Analyze the table and answer the following questions.

a How does the voltage under which a device works affect its functioning?
b.What change happens to power on increasing the resistance without changing the voltage?
c. What change is to be brought about in the construction of household heating devices in order to increase their power?
a. As voltage increases, power increases
b. Power decreases
c. Use thick wire, use conductor of suitable material, use conductor of small length.

Question 5.
a. Complete the table based on the amperage of the fuse wire.

b. The amperage of the fuse wire used in a circuit that works on 230 V is 2.2 A. If so the power of the device is
i. less than 300 W
ii. 300 W to 500 W
iii. between 500 Wand 510 W
iv. more than 510 W
iii. between 500 W and 510 W

Question 6.
A 230 V, 115 W filament lamp works in a circuit for 10 minutes,
a. What is the current flowing through the bulb?
b. How much is the quantity of charge that flows through the bulb in 10 minutes?
a. I = $$\frac { P }{ V }$$ = $$\frac { 115 }{ 230 }$$ = 0.5 A

b.  Q = I × t = 0.5 × 10 × 60 = 300 c
Question 7.
An electric heater conducts 4 A current when 60 V is applied across its terminals. What will be the current if the potential difference is 120 V?
R = $$\frac{V}{I}=\frac{60}{4}=15 Ω If the voltage is changed to 120 V I = [latex]\frac{V}{R}=\frac{120}{15}$$ = 8 A

Question 8.
Three resistors of 2 Ω,3 Ω and 6 Ω are given in the class.
a. What is the highest resistance that you can get using all of them?
b. What is the least resistance that you can get using all of them?
c. Can you make a resistance 4.5 Ω using these three? Draw the circuit.
a. Highest resistance
R = R + R + R = 2 + 3 + 6 = 11 Ω

b. Least resistance

c. Yes

Question 9.
A girl has many resistors of 2 Q each. She needs a circuit of 9 Q resistance. For this draw a circuit with the minimum number of resistors.

Question 10.

If a bulb is lit after rejoining the parts of a broken filament, what change will occur in the intensity of the light from the lamp? What will be the change in the power of the bulb?

• Intensity of bulb
• Power increases.

Question 11.
Which of the following does not indicate the power of a circuit?
a. I28
b. VI
c. 1R2
d. V2/R
c. 1R2

Question 12.
How much will be the power of a 220 V, 100 W electric bulb working at 110 V?
a. 100 W
b. 75 W
c. 50 W
d. 25 W
d. 25 W

Question 13.
Which of the following should be connected in parallel to a device in a circuit?
a. voltmeter
b. ammeter
c. galvanometer
a. voltmeter

Question 14.
When a 12 V battery is connected to resistor, 2.5 mA current flows through the circuit. If so what is the resistance of the resistor?

Question 15.
If 0.2Ω, 0.3Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω, and 12Ω resistors are connected to a 9 V battery in parallel, what will be the current through the 12 Ω resistor?
I = $$\frac{V}{R}=\frac{9}{12}$$ = 0.75 A

Question 16.
How many resistors of 176 Ω should be connected in parallel to get 5A current from 220 V supply?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
4

Question 17.
Depict a figure showing the arrangement of three resistors in a circuit to get an effective resistance of
(i) 9 Ω
(ii) 4 Ω
i.

ii.

### Effects of Electric Current Extended Activities

Question 1.
Analyse and describe the working of a microwave oven.
Microwave oven is a device which is used for heating effect of electric current. It produces heat without a heating coil. Eddy current is used in the working of microwave oven. The heat is generated as a result of microwave radiations. The water molecules are stimulated using ‘magnet one’ and thus attains high temperature. Metal utensils are avoided and the substances without water content are not heated by this.

Question 2.
How does an arc lamp help in rescue operations?
The intense light of arc lamps are used in search lights and rescue operations during night time. It is used to rescue the victims of natural calamities, boat accidents.

Question 3.
With the help of teachers and the Internet find out the following
a. What is the percentage of nickel, chromium and iron in Nichrome?
b. How much is the melting point of nichrome in degree Celsius?
c. How much is the resistivity of Nichrome?
d Does the result of your observation justify the use of nichrome as a heating element?
a. 61 % Ni, 15% Cr, 24% Fe
b. 1350°C
c. (1.0 – 1.5)x 10 – 6 Ωm
d. 1. High resistivity
2. High melting points
3. Ability to remain in red hot condition for a long time without getting oxidized. :
4. Thermal expansion is negligible.

Question 4.
Analyse the merits and demerits of the following lamps and find out which is best in the group. Justify your answers.
a. filament lamp
b. fluorescent lamp
c. arc lamp dCFL
e. LED bulb
a. Filament lamp:
Demerits: Loss of energy as heat, low light, low light.
Merits: Work in both DC and AC.

b. Fluorescent lamp:
Demerits: Cause environmental pollution,
Merit: Produce more light

c. Arc lamp:
Demerits: Carbon rods are to be changed frequently.
Merit: Intense light is produced.

d. CFL:
Merit: Produce more light at low power.
Demerits: Cause environmental pollution,

e. LED Bulb :
Merit: No environmental pollution, low energy consumption, long life. The best lamp is LED.

### Effects of Electric Current Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the table based on the effects of electric current and energy change.

a. Light energy
b. Mechanical effect
c. Heat energy
d. Chemical effect

→ Given below questions are related with heating of an electric iron box. Answer them.
a. Which is the part that produces heat in an electric iron?
b. Which nature of this part is made use in the above situation?
c. What is the relation between intensity of electric current and heat energy generated?
d. What are the factors that affect the heat generated in such heating appliances?
e. What is the relation connecting these factors with the heat generated?
f. What is this law known as?
g. Name a device that works on this law used for ensuring safety in electric circuits?
a. Heating coil
b. High resistivity, High melting point
c. As electric current increases, Heat energy increases.
d. Electric current, Resistance, time
e. H = I2 Rt
f. Joules law
g. Safety fuse

Question 2.
Incandescent lamp, discharge lamp, C.F.L, LED lamp, arc lamp are given for observation (Otherwise, make use of their pictures)
Answer the following questions after observing them.
a. Which metal is used to make filament of an incandescent lamp? What are the advantages of using this metal as a filament?
b. Name the lamps which belong to the group of discharge lamp.
c. The color of the light depends on the gas inside the discharge lamp. Which gases are to be filled for getting white light and yellow light?
d. Which lamps are harmful to environment because of the presence of mercury in it?
e. Which lamp is used in rescue work during night time and used in searchlights?
a. Tungsten. Advantages of tungsten are high ductility, high resistivity, high melting point
b. Fluorescent lamp, CFL, LED, Arc lamp.
c. For white light – Mercury
For yellow light- Sodium Vapour
d. Fluorescent lamps
e. Arc Lamp

### Effects of Electric Current SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the circuit diagram given below and answer the following questions.

a. Which are the instruments labeled as P and Q in the diagram?
b. If you replace the copper wire AB with a Nichrome wire of same length and area of cross-section.
i. What change would you notice in the reading on the device Q? Why?
ii. What will happen to the heat produced in the conductor? Explain with reference to Joule’s Law.
a. P- Rheostat.
Q- Ammeter.

b. i. Reading will decrease. Due to higher resistance current decreases
ii. Because of Nichrome’s high resistivity, the current in the circuit will decrease. According to Joules law H= I2 Rt, decrease in the amount of current will reduce the amount of heat.

Question 2.
Write down the names of four types of lamps working on the lighting effects of electricity.
Discharge lamp, Fluorescent lamp, LED, Arc lamp.

Question 3.
Two types of lamps are given below.
1. Discharge lamp
2. Filament lamp.
a. If nitrogen gas is filled in each lamp, what change will happen to their working?
b. Why is it said that the use of filament lamp must be controlled?
a. Nitrogen filled discharge lamp will give red light, but in a filament lamp nitrogen is filled to reduce the evaporation of the filament.

b. In a filament lamp, major part of the electrical energy we supply is converted into heat energy.

Question 4.

a. Identify the device shown in the picture.
b. How are such devices used in rescue ope-rations?
a. Arc lamp

b. Light intensity in an Arc lamp is very high compared to other lamps, so Arc lamps are helpful in rescue operations even in adverse climatic conditions.

Question 5.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions below.

a. Which bulbs will glow when S1 switched on?
b. Which bulbs will low when S1 and S1 are switched on?
c. What change will happen to the circuit when S3 is switched on?
d. Calculate the amperage of the fuse to be used in the circuit,
e. Describe short circuit and overloading with the help of the given circuit
a. B1
c. The circuit breaks as fuse burns out due to short circuit.
d. Amperage
$$\frac{200}{100}=2 A(\text { more than } 2 \mathrm{A})$$
e. Short circuit happens when two wires in the mains in contact without the presen-ce of a resistance in between. Over loading is connecting appliances with more power in the circuit, that it can bear.

Question 6.
A 800W electrical device is designed to work in 200V. What will be its power if the device is working in 100 V?
Resistance of the appliance

Question 7.
Bulbs marked 200V and 500W are shown in the picture.

a. Calculate the resistance of each bulb in the circuit.
b. What is the power with which the bulb in circuit 1 glows?
c. What is the power of the bulb in circuit 2? Why?
d. How is the power and resistance of an electrical device related to each other when the voltage is the same?
Resistance of B1 = $$\frac { V2 }{ P }$$ = $$\frac { 200 × 200 }{ 50 }$$ = 800 Ω
Resistance of B2=800 Ω

b. Will work in 50 W

c. Since the 50 W bulbs are in series current will be equal and voltage will behalf. Since P=VI, Power also will become half.

d. P = $$\frac { V2 }{ R }$$ (No change in resistance, Power will change)

Question 8.
Electric bulbs are connected in a 240V supply line are shown in the figure.

a. What is the total wattage of appliances used in the circuit?
b. Calculate the amperage of the fuse to be used in the circuit.
a. P = 20 W+ 20 W + 20 W = 60W

Question 9.
Given below are the steps in the working of a fluorescent lamp. Arrange them in the proper order.
a. Ultraviolet rays are produced
b. Visible light is emitted.
c. Fastly moving electrons collide with the unionized molecules of mercury.
d. Due to electric current thorium oxide coated heating element becomes red hot.
(d),
(c),
(a),
(b)

Question 10.
Correct the mistakes, if any:
a. Amperage decreases in proportion to the decrease in the area of cross-section of the conductor.
b. Connecting appliances in a circuit beyond its power capacity is short circuit.
c. It is to reduce the heat loss that electric lamps are filled with inert gases.
b. Overloading is connecting appliances with more power in the circuit, than it can bear.
c. Inert gases are filled in filament lamps to reduce the rate of evaporation.

Question 11.
Power of an electric heater working in 230 V is 1000 W. Calculate the heat produced if the current passes for 5 minutes through the circuit.
Heat = P × t
= 1000 × 5 × 60
= 300000 J

Question 12.
An electric bulb has marking 110 V, 100 W on it.
a. How much energy is used per second by the circuit?
b. What is the resistance of electric bulb?

Question 13.
Fill up the blanks by finding the suitable relationship.

A= Fuse wire
B= High melting point

Question 14.
If the resistance of two soldering irons working in 250 V are 500 Ω and 750 Ω.
a. Calculate which one of these will carry more current.
b. Find out which soldering iron has more power.
c. Calculate the heat produced in 5 minutes in the soldering iron having resistance 750 Ω.

b. Soldering iron has less resistance

Question 15.
Two bulbs of 500 W and 100 W are connected parallel in a circuit of 250 V.
a. Which bulb will have more brightness?
b. Through which bulb is current greater?
c. Find out the resistance of filaments in each bulb.
d. Which of these two bulbs will glow with more brightness if they are connected in series? Explain the reason.
a. 500 W Bulb

b. Bulb which has power 500 W (P = VI).

c. 500 W bulb
R = $$\frac { V2 }{ P }$$ = $$\frac { 250 × 250 }{ 500 }$$ = 125 Ω
100 W Bulb
R = $$\frac { V2 }{ P }$$ = $$\frac { 100 × 100 }{ 250 }$$ = 40 Ω

d. 100 W bulb — Current will be the same in series, High resistance bulb will shine more brightly.

Question 16.
Fill in the blanks suitably using the relationship in the first pair,
a. Filament: High melting point
Fuse : ………………
b. Nitrogen filled discharge lamp : Red
………………………… : Blue
a. Low melting point

b. Hydrogen used in discharge lamp

Question 17.
Choose and write the facts related to LED lamps from the given list.
a. Require only a small quantity of power.
b. UV rays are produced due to electric discharge.
c. Not harmful to environment since there is no mercury.
d. Intense light is produced when high voltage is applied.
a, c

### Effects of Electric Current Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 1)

Question 1.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
Filament: Tungsten Heating coil:
Nichrome

Question 2.
Which of the given material has the highest resistivity?
a. Nichrome
b.Copper
c. Aluminium
d. Silver
Nichrome

Question 3.
What is the color of the light emitted by discharge lamp filled with nitrogen when it works ?
Red

Question 4.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
Fuse wire : low melting point
Tungsten: …………..
High melting point

Question 5.
Which among the following is the special characteristics of a material to be used as a heating coil in a electric heating device?
a. Low melting point
b. High resistivity
c. Large area of cross section
d. Low resistance
High resistivity

Question 6.
Which material is used as filament of bulb?
Tungsten

Question 7.
Find out the odd one from the following also write the reason.
[long glass tube, Mercury vapor, Fluorescent coating, Thin tungsten filament]
Thin tungsten filament. Others are parts of a fluorescent lamp.

Question 8.
If we apply 230 V for a device having 230 V and 400 W, what will happen the power of the device ?
(increases, decreases, doesn’t change)
decreases

Question 9.
In incandescent lamp nichrome is not used as filament. Choose the reason from the following
a. Glows brightly
b. It emit white light when it is in hot condition. ,
c. It can remain only in red hot condition but it can’t give light.
c

Question 10.
Find out the odd one which is not suitable for the advantages of LED.
a. It requires only a small quantity of power.
b. It is not harmful to environment.
c. Ultraviolet fays are formed due to discharge.
c

Short Answer Type Questions (Score 2)

Question 11.
A 400 W electrical device is designed to work in 100 V. What will be its power if the device is working in 100 V?
Resistance of the appliance
R = $$\frac { V2 }{ P }$$ = $$\frac { 100 × 100 }{ 400 }$$ = 25 Ω
Power when connected in 100 V
P = $$\frac { V2 }{ R }$$ = $$\frac { 100 × 100 }{ 25 }$$ = 400 Ω
b,
d,

Question 12.
An electric bulb marked 500 W, 250 V is connected to a 250 V supply.
a. Find the electric current through the circuit.
b. Calculate the resistance of the bulb.

Question 13.
What are the advantages of fluorescent lamps over incandescent lamps.

1. Saves electrical energy to a greater extent.
2. The inconvenience caused by shadow is minimized.
3. The life of fluorescent lamp is about 5 times that of incandescent lamps.

Question 14.
Complete the table suitably.

 Gas-filled in the discharge lamp Colour Hydrogen (a) (b) Orange-red Nitrogen (c) (d) Green

a. Blue
b. Neon
c. Red
d. Chlorine

Short Answer Type Questions (Score 3)

Question 15.
In figure, Beakers A and B contain 100 ml water. PQ is a nichrome wire and RS is a copper wire of same length and diameter.

a. Water in which beaker will be at higher temperatures? What is the reason?
b. If the current is doubled using the rheostat, what happens to the quantity of heat produced in the wire PQ?
a. Beaker A, since the combination is series, the current remain same. As nichrome has high resistance, more heat is produced in it. (H = I2 Rt)

b. Heat produced becomes 4 times.
Heat H = I2 Rt, Heat increases as current is squared.

Question 16.
Classify the following as those suitable for fluorescent lamps and for arc lamps.
a. The main part is carbon rods.
b. The heating coil is coated with thorium oxide.
c. used in searchlights.
d. more harmful for the environment.
e. more intense light.
f. ultraviolet rays are produced.
Arc lamps: a, c, e
Fluorescent lamps : b, d, f

Question 17.
Find out the relation and complete the missing parts.
i. tungsten: ………….. (A) ……………. : high melting point
ii. alloy of suitable : fuse wire: ……….(B)……….. metals
iii (C)…….. heating coils: high melting point
A. Filament
B. Low melting point
C. Nichrome

Question 18.
The filament of a filament lamp is broken. It is rejoined and is lit again.
a. What happens to the intensity of light from it? Describe the reason behind.
b. Incandescent lamps are filled with nitrogen at low pressure. What is the advantage of doing so?
c. You are given two filament lamps of resistance 75012 and 100012. Of these, which has more power?
a. Increases. Because resistance decreases and current increases when length decreasing.

b. Nitrogen doesn’t expand over less change in temperature. At normal temperature it behave as a inert gas. It is plenty in atmosphere.

c. 750 Ω

Questions 19.
Choose the appropriate items from the box.
Nichrome, Tungsten, Fuse Wire, Nitrogen
a. Which is used as heating coil ?
b. Which is an alloy of tin and lead?
c. Which is used as filament ?
a. Nichrome
b. Fuse wire
c. Tungsten

Short Answer Type Questions (Score 4)

Question 20.
a. What is meant by amperage ?
b. An appliance of power 690 W is used in a branch circuit. If the voltage is 230 V,what is its amperage?
a. Amperage is the ratio of the power of an equipment to the voltage applied.
b. A = $$\frac { P }{ V }$$ = $$\frac { 690 }{ 230 }$$ = 3 A

Question 21.
Analyse the table and fill it suitably.

(1) 9 times,
(2) Series,
(3) 1/16 times

Question 22.
An electric heater working at 230 V produces 1000 J energy in one second.
a. What is the power of the lamp ?
b. Calculate the resistance of the heating coil used in it.
c. Calculate the heat generated by it when it works for 5 minute.

Question 23.
Write down the reasons for the following statements.
a. Don’t throw unwanted fluorescent tubes.
b. Nichrome is not used as filament in incandescent lamps.
c. Fuse wire is melt when electric current increased.
d. Why is the incandescent filled with an inert gas or nitrogen?
a. It contains mercury which causes several environmental problems.
b. It can remain only in red hot condition but it can’t give light.
c. When current flows as the higher temperature produced in the circuit. Fuse wire has low melting point compared to other, so it melts.
d. To prevent the vaporization of filament.

Memory Map:

## Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis

You can Download Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis

### Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Textual Questions and Answers

Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Question 1.
How can make our external environment garbage-free?
We can made our external environment garbage free by processing reusing or recycling waste material.

Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Question 2.
Different by-products are formed as a result of many …. in the cells.
Metabolic activities

The Main Excretory Product in Human Beings is Question 3.
What are the main excretory products in human beings?
Carbon dioxide, water, and nitrogenous compounds.

Homeostasis Bodybuilding Question 4.
………. carries excretory products to excretory compounds.
Blood

Synthesis of Urea in Liver Takes Place by Question 5.
Complete the flow chart of the waste materials formed inside the cells reach excretory organs?

a) Tissue fluid
b) Blood

Excretory Organs

Biology Class 9 Chapter 5 Question 6.
Name the organs that help to remove waste materials from blood and maintain homeostasis?
Liver, Lungs, skin, and kidney

HSSlive in Class 9 Question 7.
Complete the illustration.

Liver – The Waste Processing Unit

Question 8.
What is the function of liver?
Liver converts harmful substances entering the body and those produced inside the body into harmless substances. Synthesis of urea from ammonia is an example for this.

Question 9.
…………….. are formed by the breakdown of protein.
Amino acids

Question 10.
What are the uses of amino acids?
Amino acids are used for the synthesis of various substances like proteins, enzymes etc. which are used for bodybuilding.

Question 11.
What is the most harmful by-product formed by the metabolism of amino acid?
Ammonia

Question 12.
Prepare a note on the synthesis of urea.
Amino acids are formed by the breakdown of proteins. As a result of the metabolic activities of amino acids, several nitrogenous by-products are formed. The most harmful among these is ammonia. The ammonia formed in tissues diffuses into blood through tissue fluids and blood transports it to the liver. In liver with the help of certain enzymes, ammonia combines with carbon dioxide and water to form urea.

Question 13.
Write down the chemical equation of the synthesis of urea.
Ammonia + carbon dioxide + water → urea

Formation Of Sweat

Question 14.
How is sweat formed from blood?
Blood passes through the capillaries excess water and minerals enter the sweat glands. This is eliminated as sweat through the body surface.

Question 15.
What are the components of sweat?
Urea, salt, and water

Question 16.
Which is the largest organ in our body?
Skin

Question 17.
What do you mean by sweat gland?
Sweat gland is a long coiled tube that opens to the surface of the skin.

Question 18.
The lower portion of the sweat gland is rich in
Capillaries

Question 19.
……… helps in regulating our body temperature.
Sweating

Kidneys

Question 20.
What are the main functions of kidney?
Kidneys are vital organs which help in maintaining homeostasis by filtering waste products like urea, salts, vitamins, other harmful substances, etc. from blood. When blood passes through the kidneys, the waste materials present in it are filtered.

Question 21.
Prepare a short note on the position and size of the kidney?
Human beings possess a pair of kidneys, situated on both sides of the vertebral column adjoining the muscles in the abdominal cavity. They are bean-shaped and are about 11 cm long, 5 cm broad and 3 cm thick. Each kidney is covered by a strong but soft membrane.

Question 22.
Illustrate kidney and its parts.

Question 23.
Complete the illustration of kidneys and associated parts.

a) bean-shaped and are located in the abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebral column.
b) Renal artery
c) Renal vein
d) Ureters

Internal Structure of Kidney

Question 24.
Internal structure of kidney

Question 25.
Analyze illustration given below and prepare table including the parts and peculiarities of nephron.

 Parts Peculiarities Bowman’s capsule The double-walled cup­shaped structure at one end of the nephron. The space between the two walls is called capsular space. Afferent vessel The branch of renal artery which enters the Bow­mann’s capsule. Glomerulus The region where afferent vessel enters the Bow­mann’s capsule and splits into minute capillaries. Efferent vessel The blood vessel that comes out of Bowman’s capsule. Peritubular capillaries Blood capillaries seen around the renal tubules as the continuation of the efferent vessel. Renal tubule The long tubule which connects the Bowman’s capsule and the collecting duct. Collecting duct The part where renal tubules enter. Absorption of water takes place. Urine is collected and is carried to the pelvis.

Question 26.
……… are the structural and functional units of kidneys.
Nephrons

Question 27.
Where is Bowmann’s Capsule of nephrons distributed?
Cortex

Question 28.
What is capsular space?
It is the space between the double walls of the Bowman’s capsule.

Question 29.
Blood capillaries seen around the renal tubules as continuation of the efferent vessel are ………..
Peritubular capillaries

Question 30.
………… helps the ultrafiltration.
Glomerulus

Formation of urine

Question 31.
List out the process of formation of urine.

• Ultrafiltration
• Reabsorption and secretion
• Absorption of water

Question 32.
What are the characteristic that help in ultrafiltration?
This process is supported by the high pressure developed in the glomerulus, due to the difference in the diameter of afferent vessel and efferent vessel

Question 33.
How is urine formed?
When blood flows through the glomerulus, ultrafiltration takes place through its small pores. The glomerular filtrate formed as a result of this is collected in the capsular space. When glomerular filtrate flows through renal tubeless to the collecting duct, essential components are reabsorbed to the peritubular capillaries. The absorption of excess water from the glomerular filtrate takes place in the collecting duct. What is left behind is urine.

Question 34.
Prepare a table relating to the different components of the glomerular filtrate and urine.

 Components of glomerular filtrate Components of urine Water Water-96% Glucose Urea-2% Amino acids Sodium chloride Sodium, potassium Potassium chloride calcium ions, vitamins Calcium salts Urea, uric acid creatinine, etc Phosphate, Uric acid Creatinine etc. – 2%

Question 35.
Urine is temporarily stored in the

Question 36.
State whether true or false
Washing out of germs inside the urinary tract also
takes place during the process of micturition.
True

Question 37.
How does avoiding timely urination affect our body and list out the healthy habits to be followed?
Avoiding urination for a long time prevents the expulsion of bacteria that may be present in the urinary tract and urinary bladder. This causes infection in the inner membrane of the urinary bladder.
Females are more susceptible to urinary tract infections when compared to males.
1) Frequent urination
2) Drink plenty of water
3) Keep the personal hygiene

Question 38.
Prepare a flow chart on the role of kidneys in maintaining homeostasis

Kidney Diseases

 Disease Reason Symptoms Nephritis inflammation of kidneys due to infection or intoxication. Turbid and dark-colored mine, back pain, fever, oedema on face and ankle Kidney stone Deposition of crystals of calcium salts in kidney or urinary tract. Pain in the lower abdomen, blockage of mine, dizziness, vomiting Uremia Different types of kidney diseases, nephritis. diabetes. Irigli’s blood pressure. Anemia, loss ol body weight, dizziness suffocation, dianitoea production of urine stops gradually.

Haemodialysis

Question 39.
What do you mean by hemodialysis?
Haemodialysis is the process proposed by modern medicine for the removal of wastes from the blood when both the kidneys become non-functional. In this process, blood is pumped into an artificial kidney called haemodialyser and is purified.

Question 40.
Who designed the first artificial kidney?
William Johann Kolff in 1944.

Kidney Transplantation

When both kidneys of an individual get damaged completely a fully functioning kidney should be received from a donor to save life. Kidney of a healthy person who died in an accident or of a completely healthy person can be transplanted after considering the matching of blood groups and tissues.

Excretion In Other Organisms

Diversity in Excretion:

Question 41.
Prepare a table about the excretory organs and excretory products of different organisms?

 Organism Excretory product Excretory organ Amoeba Ammonia, excess water in the body No special excretory organ, contractile vacuoles function as excretory organs. Earthworm Urea, ammonia, water Special structures called nephridia collect excretory products from body cavity and eliminate through pores in the body surface. Insects Uric acid Malpighian tubules seen along with digestive tract. They separate excretory products and eliminates along with digestive wastes. Fishes Ammonia Kidneys filter the wastes and eliminate directly to water Frog Urea Nitrogenous wastes filtered by kidneys are excreted in the form of urine. Reptiles and birds Uric acid Kidneys filter waste products and eliminate along with digestive wastes.

Question 42.
What are the methods of the excretion in plants?
Stomata, hydathodes, formation of heartwood, abscision of leaves.

Question 43.
Illustration related to the excretion in plants.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Glucose, amino acids, etc. found in the glomerular filtrate are absent in urine. Why?
When glomerular filtrate flows through renal tubules to the collecting duct, essential components are reabsorbed to the peritubular capillaries. So glucose and amino acids are absent in urine.

Question 2.
The steps involved in the formation of urine are given below. Arrange them in the correct sequence.
1. Collects urine
2. Ultrafiltration takes place
3. Reabsorption of ions takes place towards this part from renal tubules.
4. Collects glomerular filtrate
5. Excess urea is secreted here from peritubular capillaries.

Question 3.
Alcoholism is a bad habit which should be avoided. Analyze this statement relating it to the health of liver.
The detoxification of alcohol in our body is done by liver cells. As a result liver cell become damaged.

Question 4.
Based on the similarities in major excretory materials, arrange the following organisms properly in the table given below
Frog, Amoeba, Human beings, Fish, Birds, Insects

 Ammonia Urea Uric acid Amoeba Frog Birds Fish Human Insects

Question 5.
Observe the figure and answer the questions.

a) A) Afferent vessel
B) Efferent vessel
b) When blood flows through the glomerulus, ultrafiltration takes place through its small pores. This process is supported by the high pressure developed.in the glomerulus, due to the difference in the diameters of afferent versel and efferent vessel.

## Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India

You can download Resource Wealth of India Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India

### Resource Wealth of India TextBook Questions and Answers

Resource wealth of India Question 1.
Name the different sectors that are the basis of Indian economy

• Agriculture
• Transport
• Communication
• Energy production
• Mining

Zaid Crops Examples Question 2.
Observe the map and identify major rice producing states in India.

1. West Bengal
2. Assam
3. Odisha
4. UP
5. Bihar
7. Telangana

Universal Fiber Crop Question 3.
What are the favorable conditions for the cultivation of diverse agricultural crops in India?

• Suitable agricultural climate that extends throughout the year
• Fertile soil
• Suitable physiography
• Irrigation facilities

Which Crop is Known as Universal Fiber Question 4.
…………. is called golden fiber
Jute

Question 5.
Complete the following chart.

1. Cash crops
2. Fibre crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Beverages

Universal Fibre Crop Question 6.
Match the following.

 A B Food crop Rubber Cash crop Jute Fiber crop Cotton Plantation crop Wheat

 A B Food crop Wheat Cash crop Cotton Fibre crop Jute Plantation crop Rubber

Coffee Raw Material Question 7.
Distinguish between Kharif crops, Rabi crops and Zaid crops. Give examples for each
Kharif crops: Crops that are cultivated at the beginning of monsoon and harvested by the end of monsoon.
Eg. rice, cotton.
Rabi crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of winter season and harvested by the beginning of summer.
Eg. wheat
Zaid crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of summer and harvested by the beginning of monsoon.
Eg. fruits, vegetables.

Electroplating Plant Question 8.
Which crop is called universal fibre? Why?
Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Rubber Industry Question 9.
Categories the following crops into food crops and cash crops
Rice, wheat, cotton, tea, coffee, pulses, tobacco, maize, ragi, rubber

 Food crops Cash crops 1. Rice 1. Cotton 2. wheat 2. Tea 3. Pulses 3. Coffee 4. Maiza 4. Tobacco 5. Ragi 5. Rubber

Question 10.
Observe the map of India and name the major wheat-producing states in India.

• Punjab
• U.P.
• Hariyana
• Utterakhand
• M.P
• Rajastan
• Bihar

Question 11.
What are the geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation?
The geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation are:

• Fertile plain lands.
• Temperate regions conducive for wheat cultivation
• Availability of porous or well-drained fertile soil with content of lime.
• Average temperatures of 10°C during planting and 15°C to 26°C during harvesting period and 75 cm of rainfall are needed for wheat cultivation. These conditions are available in these states.
• Rainfall received from western disturbance is suitable for the cultivation of rabi crops like wheat.

Question 12.
Wheat is not cultivated in Kerala. Why?
Wheat cultivation is not possible in Kerala because,

• Scarcity of alluvial soil
• High temperature
• Poor irrigation facilities

Question 13.
Which are the soils ideal for cotton cultivation?

• Black soil of Deccan plateau
• Alluvial soil of North Indian Plain.

Question 14.
What are the raw materials for iron and steel industry?

• Irone ore
• Manganese
• Coal
• Limestone

Question 15.
Distinguish between metallic minerals and non- metallic minerals.

• Minerals with metallic content are called metallic minerals. Eg. iron ore.
• Minerals without metallic content are called non-metallic minerals. Eg. Mica.

Question 16.
Iron is considered as the basis of all industries. Why?

• Machines and tools made of iron are used widely.
• The amount of iron used in a country determines its standard of living.

Question 17.
Which are the four varieties of iron ore?

• Magnetite
• Hematite
• Limonite
• Siderite

Question 18.
Name the non-metallic minerals.

• Limestone
• Mica
• Gypsum
• Coal
• Petroleum

Question 19.
Is there any metro project in Kerala?
Yes, Kochi metro

Question 20.
How many international airports are there in Kerala? Which are they?
4 airports.

1. Thiruvananthapuram
2. Nedumpasseri
3. Kozhikode (Karipur)
4. Kannur

Question 21.
Which are the major iron and steel industries in India?

• Tata Iron and Steel factor (TISCO)
• Visvesvaraya Iron and steel factory limited (VISL)
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant
• Indian Iron and Steel Company
• Visakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Question 22.
Describe the two agro-based industries in India. Agro-based industries are those that use agricultural products as raw material. The two major agro-based industries of India are cotton textile industry and sugar industry.

Cotton textile industry: This is the biggest agro-based industry in India. India has been renowned for cotton clothes since very old times. The first cotton mill in India was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818. The large scale cotton textile industry began to function at Mumbai in 1854. Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing centre in India. Though cotton textile mills function in various parts of the country, the majority of them are located in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Sugar industry: Among agro-based industries, sugar holds the second place. If sugarcane is kept for a longer period after their cropping, the content of sugar (sucrose) in it decreases. Therefore all sugar factories have been located near sugar fields. About 60% of the sugar being manufactured in India is from the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Maharashtra. Uttar Pradesh leads both in the production of sugarcane and sugar. The majority of the sugar industries in India are concentrated in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. So these states are known as the sugar belt of India.

Question 23.
Compared to road transport, what are the advantage of rail, water, and air transport?
Each means of transport has its own advantage. Road transport is the best for short distances. But the other means of transport have certain advantages over road transport.
Rail transport:

• Suitable for long-distance travel and cargo.
• Can rest while traveling.

Water transport:

• Less air pollution.
• Less sound pollution.
• Less cost for construction and maintenance of water transport route.
• Transportation of heavy cargo.

Air transport:

• Suitable for rugged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways.
• Most speedy form of transport.

Question 24.
Which are the Indian states leading in spice production?

Question 25.
The states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are known as the ‘Sugar Belt of India’. Why?
Among the sugar industries in India, majority of them are set up in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Question 26.
Complete the chart

 Cash crops Agro-based industries 1. Cotton 2. Jute 3. Rubber 4. Oilseeds

 Cash crops Agro-based industries 1. Cotton 1. Cotton textile industry 2. Jute 2. Jute industry 3. Rubber 3. Footwear, Sports goods, Cables, Cushions 4. Oilseeds 4. Paint, Varnish, Soap, Lubricants, Spices

Question 27.
All sugar industries have been located near sugar fields, Why?
The juice is to be extracted immediately after the harvest of sugarcane. Otherwise, the quantity of juice and the amount of sucrose in the juice will be less. That is why sugar industries are located near sugar fields.

Question 28.
What are the raw materials for agro-based industries?
Sugarcane, cotton, jute, rubber, oil seeds

Question 29.
Which are the major agro-based industries in In-dia?
Sugar industry, cotton textile industry, jute industry, paper industry, woollen industry, silk industry, paint industry, varnish industry, soap industry, rubber industry, etc.

Question 30.
Identify the Indian states where sugar factories are located.

Question 31.
Name major tea producing states in India.

• Assam
• West Bengal
• Kerala

Question 32.
Complete the flow chart of industries in India.

Question 33.
Match the following.}

 A B Cottonopolis Sugarcane Universal fibre Mumbai Arabica Rubber Kerala Cotton U.P. Coffee

 A B Cottonopolis Mumbai Universal fibre Cotton Arabica Coffee Kerala Rubber U.P. Sugarcane

Question 34.
Rail and road transports are not developed in north-east states of India and in the regions lying close to the Himalayas. Why?
Idukki and Wayanad districts in Kerala have no railway lines. Why?
The construction of road and railway network is difficult in mountainous regions, hilly areas, valleys, and slopes. The above-said regions belong to such places.

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based industries?
These industries contribute substantially to India’s national income.
They are a base for huge employment potential

Question 36.
What are the conclusions to be drawn on the analysis of the location of the agro-based industries in relation to agricultural regions?
All the agro-based industries of India are located near to places where the raw materials for them are cultivated. This enables to get raw materials cheaply and in plenty. For eg: Mumbai and Ahmedabad, the centers of cotton textile industry in India are located near to places where cotton is cultivated on a large scale.

Question 37.
Which are the fossil fuels?

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas

Question 38.
Point-out conditions required for rubber cultivation.
Temperature raging from 25°C to 35°C and annual rainfall of over 150 cm are ideal. Laterite soil is ideal.

Question 39.
Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing center in India. What are the reasons for this?

• Availability of abundant raw materials
• Humid climate
• Availability of electricity at cheaper rate
• Availability of freshwater
• Nearness to harbor

Question 40.

Question 41.
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called basic industry?
Iron and steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India. The measuring rode of the industrial progress of any nation is calculated on the basis of the production and consumption of iron. The present progress in the country is due to the growth of iron and steel industry. Many other industries depend on this industry. It laid the foundation for rapid industrialization in India. So it is called the basic industry.

Question 42.
Consider the map showing parts of India

Name the important ports

1. Kandla
2. Mumbai
3. Goa
4. Mangalore
5. Kochi
6. Thoothukudi
7. Chennai
8. Vishakhapatnam
9. Vishakhapatnam
11. Kolkatta

Let Us Assess

Question 43.
Starting cultivation by the end of winter season and take harvest before rainy season’. Which agricultural season is mentioned here? Which are the main crops of this season?
Zaid season
Main crops: Fruits and vegetables

Question 44.
Prepare short notes
ii) Universal fibre
Golden quadrangle: Golden quadrangle is the Express Highway that links the four metropolitan cities of India. In addition to this, the Government of India has planned under the category of Expressways, a North-South (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and east-West (Silcharto Porbandar) corridor.

Universal fibre: Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Question 45.
Identify the following ports.
i) Port at southern end
ii) Main port of Karnataka
iii) Important port in West Bengal other than Kolkotta
i) Thoothukudi
ii) Mangalore
iii) Haldia

Question 46.
During which season are crops like Maize, Cotton and Jute are cultivated.
Kharif

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a winter crop?
a. Wheat
b. Sugarcane
c. Groundnut
d. Millet
a. Wheat

Question 48.
Name the agricultural season that starts in June and ends in June.
Zaid

Question 49.
Differentiate food crops and cash crops.
The crops which can directly be consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 50.
Explain the geographical factors required for rice cultivation.
Alluvial soil is most suitable for rice cultivation. Rice requires high temperature (24°C) and a good amount of Rainfall (more than 150cm) Rice is being cultivated on regions with less rainfall with the aid of irrigation.

Question 51.
Why is it said that maize is a suitable crop for In-dia?

1. In India Maize is cultivated in both summer and winter.
2. Cultivated in regions receiving an annual average rainfall of 75cm.
3. Well drained fertile soil is ideal.

Question 52.
How are roads classified in India?
Roads in India are classified based on the con-struction and management.

Question 53.
The six lane superhighways connecting the metropolitan cities in India such as Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata are together named as the golden quadrangle superhighway.

Question 54.
Which type of waterways are used for inland navigation?
Rivers, Backwaters, Canals, etc.

Question 55.
Which are the major inland waterways in India?

1. Godavari – Krishna rivers and itstributories
2. Buckingham canal of Andhra-Tamilnadu Region
3. Mandovi and Zuvari rivers of Goa
4. Back water of Kerala.

Question 56.
Through which mineral, the following places are known
i) Neyveli
ii) Jharia
iii) Digboy
i) Lingnite
ii) Coal
iii) Petroleum

Question 57. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Prepare a note on any three cash crops cultivated in India, its geographical requirements and the states where it is cultivated.
Cotton: Forest free growing seasons, 200 to 30°C temperature small amount of rainfall. Black soil in the best soil. Jute: Hot and humid conditions. High temperature and rainfall above 150cm is essential well-drained alluvial soil is suitable.
Sugareane: 4 tropical crop, requires hot and humid climate. Black soil and alluvial soil are ideal.

Question 58. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Presence of mineral resources has made some regions industrial centers. Substantiate this statement based on two industrial centers and the factors responsible for it.
Iron and steel industry, Aluminium industry availability of raw materials, transport facilities.

Question 59. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write the favorable geographical factors required for the cultivation of major cash crops – cotton and jute and the states in which they are cultivated.
Cotton — Jute
1. Frost-free growing season — Hot and humid conditions
2. 20°C to 30°C temperature — High temperature
3. Black soil — Rainfall above 150cm
4. GujratMaharastra — Well drained alluvial soil

Question 60.
(Qn. Pool-2017)
Write any two mineral-based industries in India. Find out the favorable factors for their development and prepares short note.
Iron and steel industries, Aluminium industries. Availability of new materials, transport facilities, cheap power, availability of water.

Question 61. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following flow chart about the major Minerals in India.

a) Ferrous metals
b) Non-ferrous metals
c) Other minerals
d) Iron ore manganese
e) Gold silver copper
f) Coal, Petroleum
g) Mica

Question 62. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following table of Major Iron and Steel Industry in India.

 Iron and steel Industry Location Characteristics Tata Iron and Steel Industry Jamshedpur First public sector iron and steel company Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Ltd. Bhadravati First iron and steel plant in south India Bhilai Steel Plant Durgapur Established in collaborations with Russia in 1959 Rourkela Steel Plant Sundargarh Established in Collaboration with Germany in 1954 Durgapur Steel Plan Durgapur Established in collaboration with the UK in 1962 Bokaro steel plant Bokaro Established in collaboration with Russia in 1964

Question 63. (Orukkam- 2017)
Complete the table about the major Minerals in India, Uses, and the major state that produce these minerals.

 Minerals Uses Major producing States Gold For making jewelry Karnataka Silver For making jewelry in electroplating, photographs Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Karnataka Copper Used conductor in electrical industries Jharkhand, Rajasthan Madhyapradesh- Bauxite Ore of Aluminium used for making aircraft, electrical equipment, domestic utensils Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Andrapradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Bihar

Question 64. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify and write the Characteristics of Mineral
Fuels
Coal:
1. The major Thermal energy source in India
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
Petroleum and Natural gas:
1. Main energy source of Bus, Rail and Air transport
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ……………….
Non – Conventional energy source:
1. Comparatively cheap
2. …………………
3. …………………
Coal:

1. Coal is a major industrial fuel
2. Most of coal of fund in India is of medium grade of bituminous type.
3. West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh are the major states producing coal.
4. The largest coalfield in India is Jharia in Jharkhand.
5. The less energy-efficient coal is lignite.

Petroleum and Natural gas:

1. Other than petrol and diesel etc. numerous by-products are also obtained.
2. Petroleum mining in India started at Digboi in Assam.
3. Petroleum producing states in India are Assam Gujrat and Maharashtra.
4. Natural gas is the fuel obtained along with petroleum.

Non – Conventional energy source:

1. Environment-friendly
2. Renewable

Question 65. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify Roads in India and list down the features. National Highways
1. Major roads of the country
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
State Highways
1. ……………..
2. …………….
3. …………….
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
National Highways:

1. Major roads of the country
2. Maintained and constructed by the central government
3. Links the state capitals, major cites, etc.

State Highways:

1. Major roads of the state.
3. Construction and maintenance by the government

1. Major roads in the district.

1. Built and maintained by the district panchayath
2. Ensures the domestic movements both in the state
3. Construction and maintenance by local self-government

Question 66. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the characteristics of Water Transport.
1. Cheapest mode of transport
2. …………………
3. …………………
4. …………………
5. …………………
2. Suitable for large scale cargo transport
3. Does not cause environmental pollution.
4. Does not cause environmental pollution.
5. Most suitable for international trade.

Question 67. (Orukkam-2017)
List down the areas where inland navigation is more
1. The rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, and its tributaries.
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ………………..
5. ………………..
2. Godavari – Krishna and their tributaries.
3. Buckingham canal of Andhra – Tamilnadu region
4. Mandovi and Zuari rivers of Goa
5. Backwaters of Kerala

Question 68. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the major National Waterways in India

 National waterways Area through which it passes National waterway 1 Allahabad to Haldia National waterway Sadia to Dubri in the river Brahmaputra National waterway 3 The west coastal canal in. Kerala from Kollam to Kottapuram National waterway 4 Canal from Kakinada to Pondicherry linking Godavari and Krishna National waterway 5 Brahmini – Mahanadi delta river system

## Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 3 अंदर के और बाहर के

You can Download अंदर के और बाहर के Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

## Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 3 अंदर के और बाहर के (व्यंग्य लेख)

### अंदर के और बाहर के Summary in Malayalam and Translation

अंदर के और बाहर के शब्दार्थ

error: Content is protected !!