Class 10

Students often refer to SSLC Maths Textbook Solutions and Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Polynomials and Equations Important Extra Questions and Answers Kerala State Syllabus to clear their doubts.

SSLC Maths Chapter 9 Polynomials and Equations Important Questions and Answers

Polynomials and Equations Class 10 Extra Questions Kerala Syllabus

Polynomials and Equations Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Extra Questions

Question 1.
At what points does the graph of the polynomial 4x² – 8x + 3 cross the x-axis?
(a) \(\left(\frac{3}{4}, 0\right),\left(\frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
(b) \(\left(\frac{3}{2}, 0\right),\left(\frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
(c) \(\left(\frac{3}{4}, 0\right),\left(\frac{1}{6}, 0\right)\)
(d) \(\left(\frac{7}{2}, 0\right),\left(\frac{3}{2}, 0\right)\)
Answer:
(b) \(\left(\frac{3}{2}, 0\right),\left(\frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
4x² – 8x + 3 = 0
a = 4, b = -8, c = 3

So, the points at which the graph of the polynomial 4x² – 8x + 3 crosses the x-axis are \(\left(\frac{3}{2}, 0\right),\left(\frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)

Question 2.
The sum and product of the solutions of a second-degree polynomial are -10 and \(\frac {5}{2}\) respectively. Then the polynomial is:
(a) 2x² – 20x + 10
(b) 2x² – x + 5
(c) 2x² – 20x + 5
(d) x² – 20x + 5
Answer:
(c) 2x² – 20x + 5
Sum of the solutions is -10, and its product is \(\frac {5}{2}\)
a + b = -10, ab = \(\frac {5}{2}\)
Polynomial = x² + (a + b)x + ab
= x² – 10x + \(\frac {5}{2}\)
= 2x² – 20x + 5

Question 3.
Consider the following statements.
Statement (A): x² + 20x + 96 is the polynomial with the sum of solutions 8 and their product 12.
Statement (B): If a, b are the solutions of a polynomial, then the polynomial is x² + (a + b)x + ab.
(a) Statement A is true, Statement B is false.
(b) Statement B is true, Statement A is false.
(c) Both statements are true. Statement B is the reason for Statement A.
(d) Both statements are true. Statement B is not the reason for Statement A.
Answer:
(b) Statement B is true, Statement A is false.
Statement B is true.
The sum of solutions 8 and their product 12.
⇒ a + b = 8, ab = 12
Polynomial = x² + (a + b)x + ab = x² + 8x + 12
∴ Statement A is false.

Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
Statement (A): The area of a rectangle with sides (x + 5) and (x – 3) is a second-degree polynomial.
Statement (B): A second-degree polynomial can be written as the product of two first-degree polynomials.
(a) Statement A is true, Statement B is false.
(b) Statement B is true, Statement A is false.
(c) Both statements are true. Statement B is the reason for Statement A.
(d) Both statements are true. Statement B is not the reason for Statement A.
Answer:
(d) Both statements are true. Statement B is not the reason for Statement A.
Statement B is true.
The area of a rectangle with sides (x + 5) and (x – 3)
(x + 5)(x – 3) = x² + 5x – 3x – 15 = x² + 2x – 15
A second-degree polynomial Statement A is true.

Question 5.
Write the polynomial x2 + 5x – 84 as the product of two first-degree polynomials.
Answer:
x² + 5x – 84 = (x + a)(x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab
⇒ a + b = 5, ab = -84
⇒ (a – b)² = (a + b)² – 4ab
⇒ (a – b)² = 5² – 4 × (-84)
⇒ (a – b)² = 25 + 336
⇒ (a – b)² = 361
⇒ a – b = ±19
Take a – b = 19
a + b = 5, a – b = 19
⇒ a = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(5 + 19) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 24 = 12
⇒ b = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(5 – 19) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (-14) = -7
Take a – b = -19
a + b = 5, a – b = -19
⇒ a = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(5 + (-19) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (-14) = -7
⇒ b = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(5 – (-19)) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (5 + 19) = 12
∴ x² + 5x – 84 = (x + 12)(x – 7)

Question 6.
If each side of a square is decreased by 1 metre, its area becomes 49 square metres. What is the side of the original square?
Answer:
Let the side of the original square be x.
(x – 2)² = 49
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 = 49
⇒ x² – 4x – 45 = 0
a = 1, b = -4, c = -45

x is the length of the side of the square, so it cannot be negative.
∴ x = 9

Question 7.
The product of the first term and the third term of an arithmetic sequence with a common difference of 1 is 143. Find the first three terms of the sequence.
Answer:
If first term be x, then third term = x + 2
x(x + 2) = 143
⇒ x² + 2x = 143
⇒ x² + 2x – 143 = 0
a = 1, b = 2, c = -143
x = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4 a c}}{2 a}\)

If the first term x = 11, then the first three terms of the sequence are 11, 12, 13.
If the first term x = -13, then the first three terms of the sequence are -13, -12, -11.

Question 8.
1 added to the product of two consecutive even numbers gives 289. What are the numbers?
Answer:
If one number is x, then the next even number is x + 2.
x(x + 2) + 1 = 289
⇒ x² + 2x + 1 = 289
⇒ x² + 2x + 1 – 289 = 0
⇒ x² + 2x – 288 = 0
a = 1, b = 2, c = -288

If x = 16, then next number x + 2 = 18
If x = -18, then next number x + 2 = -16

Question 9.
The length of the rectangular sheet shown in the figure is 13 centimetres. From this sheet, cut off two square sheets of maximum size. The area of the remaining sheet is 15 square metres.

(a) If the breadth of the sheet is x, then what is the length of the remaining sheet?
(b) Form a second-degree equation and find the length and breadth of the remaining sheet.
Answer:
(a) Length of the remaining sheet = 13 – 2x
(b) Area of the remaining sheet = 15 square metres
x(13 – 2x) = 15
⇒ 13x – 2x² = 15
⇒ 2x² – 13x + 15 = 0
a = 2, b = -13, c = 15

If the breadth of the sheet is x = 5,
then length = 13 – 2x = 13 – 2 × 5 = 3
If breadth of the sheet is x = \(\frac {3}{2}\),
then length = 13 – 2x = 13 – 2 × \(\frac {3}{2}\) = 10

Question 10.
The sum of n natural numbers starting from 1 is \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\). Then, the sum of the consecutive natural numbers from 1 up to what number is 325?
Answer:
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = 325
⇒ \(\frac{n^2+n}{2}\) = 325
⇒ n² + n = 650
⇒ n² + n – 650 = 0
n² + n – 650 = (n + a)(n + b) = n² + (a + b)n + ab
⇒ a + b = 1, ab = -650
(a – b)² = (a + b)² – 4ab
⇒ (a – b)² = 1² – 4 × (-650)
⇒ (a – b)² = 1 + 2600 = 2601
⇒ a – b = ±51
Take a – b = 51,
a + b = 1, a – b = 51
⇒ a = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(1 + 51) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 52 = 26
⇒ b = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(1 – 51) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (-50) = -25
Take a – b = -51,
a + b = 1, a – b = -51
⇒ a = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(1 – 51) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (-50) = -25
⇒ b = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(1 – (-51)) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (1 + 51) = 26
Using this, n² + n – 650 = (n + 26)(n – 25)
n² + n – 650 = 0
⇒ (n + 26)(n – 25) = 0
⇒ n = -26 or n = 25
n is the number of terms, so it cannot be negative.
∴ n = 25
The sum of the consecutive natural numbers from 1 up to 25 is 325.

Question 11.
In the figure, chord AB and CD are extended to meet at P. PB = 14 centimetres, AB = 5 centimetres, and CD = 15 centimetres. Find the length of PC.

Answer:
Let the length of PC be x,
PD = x + 15
PB = 14,
AB = 5
⇒ PA = 14 – 5 = 9
PA × PB = PC × PD
⇒ 9 × 14 = x(x + 15)
⇒ x² + 15x = 126
⇒ x² + 15x – 126 = 0
⇒ a = 1, b = 15, c = -126

Since x is the length of PC, and hence not negative.
So, x = 6
∴ The length of PC = 6 centimetres.

Question 12.
The difference between the perpendicular sides of a right triangle is 10 centimetres, and its area is 72 square centimetres. Then find the length of the perpendicular sides of the triangle.
Answer:
Let the length of one perpendicular side be x,
Then the other side is x + 10
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × x(x + 10) = 72
⇒ x(x + 10) = 144
⇒ x² + 10x = 144
⇒ x² + 10x – 144 = 0
⇒ a = 1, b = 10, c = -144

Since x is the length of a side, it cannot be negative.
∴ x = 8
So, length of perpendicular sides = 8, 18

Question 13.
A rectangle is to be made by bending a 70-centimeter-long rod. The length of the diagonal is 25 centimetres. Then, find the length and breadth of the rectangle.
Answer:
Perimeter of the rectangle = 70 centimetres
Let the length of the rectangle be x,
⇒ 2(length + breadth) = 72
⇒ length + breadth = 36
⇒ x + breadth = 36
⇒ breadth = 36 – x
If the length of the diagonal is 25 centimetres,
x² + (36 – x)² = 25²
⇒ x² + 36² – 72x + x² = 252
⇒ 2x² – 72x + 1296 = 625
⇒ 2x² – 72x + 671 = 0
a = 2, b = -72, c = 671
Hence,

A rectangle diagonal of 25 cm cannot be made.

Question 14.
The terms of an arithmetic sequence with a common difference of 4 are positive numbers. The product of two consecutive terms of the sequence is equal to its sum.
(a) If one term is x, then what is the next term?
(b) Find the terms.
Answer:
(a) Common difference = 4
If one term is x, next term = x + 4
(b) x(x + 4) = x + x + 4
⇒ x² + 4x = 2x + 4
⇒ x² + 4x – 2x – 4 = 0
⇒ x² + 2x – 4 = 0
a = 1, b = 2, c = -4
Hence,

If x = -1 + √5, then next term = x + 4
= -1 + √5 + 4
= 3 + √5
Sequence: -1 + √5, 3 + √5, 7 + √5,…
If x = -1 – √5, then next term = x + 4
= -1 – √5 + 4
= 3 – √5
Sequence: -1 – √5, 3 – √5, 7 – √5,….

Question 15.
When 16 is added to the sum of several terms of the arithmetic sequence 9, 11, 13…, we get 256. How many terms are added?
Answer:
When 16 is added to the sum of several terms of the arithmetic sequence 9, 11, 13,…, we get 256.
That is, the sum of terms of the arithmetic sequence = 256 – 16 = 240
First term (a) = 9
Common difference (d) = 2
x_n = dn + (f – d)
= 2n + (9 – 2)
= 2n + 7
If the algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is an + b,
then the sum of first n terms of the sequence = a\(\frac {n}{2}\)(n + 1) + nb
= 2\(\frac {n}{2}\)(n + 1) + n × 7
= n(n + 1) + 7n
= n² + n + 7n
= n² + 8n
⇒ n² + 8n = 240
⇒ n² + 8n – 240 = 0
a = 1, b = 8, c = -240

n is the number of terms, so it cannot be negative.
Thus, n = 12
12 terms are added.

Students often refer to SSLC Maths Textbook Solutions and Class 10 Maths Chapter 8 Tangents Important Extra Questions and Answers Kerala State Syllabus to clear their doubts.

SSLC Maths Chapter 8 Tangents Important Questions and Answers

Tangents Class 10 Extra Questions Kerala Syllabus

Tangents Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Extra Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(i) The distance between two parallel tangents on a circle is 8 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
(a) 4 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 8 cm
Answer:
(a) 4 cm
Since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius, the distance between the parallel tangents is the diameter of the circle.

(ii) The length of the tangent to a circle from an outer point and the radius of the circle are equal to 12 cm. What is the distance from the center to the outer point?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 12√3 cm
(c) 12√2 cm
(d) 6 cm
Answer:
(c) 12√2 cm
Use the property of a 45° – 45° – 90° triangle.

(iii) PA, PB are the tangents from P to the circle. If ∠APB = 40°, then what is the measure of ∠AOB?

(a) 140°
(b) 120°
(c) 150°
(d) 110°
Answer:
(a) 140°
Tangents from the outer point to the circle and radii form a cyclic quadrilateral.

(iv) PA, PB are the tangents from P to the circle. If ∠APB = 40°, then what is the measure of angle ACB?

(a) 50°
(b) 60°
(c) 70°
(d) 40°
Answer:
(c) 70°
\(\frac {1}{2}\) × ∠AOB = ∠ACB

(v) P is a point at a distance of 13 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. What is the length of the tangents drawn from P to the circle?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 16 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 610 cm
Answer:
(a) 12 cm

(vi) In the figure AB = AC = 12 cm. If AP = 4 cm, then what is the length of BC?

(a) 14 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 16 cm
Answer:
(d) 16 cm
BP = CQ = 8
BR = CR = 8
BC = 16 cm

(vii) In the circumcircle of triangle PQR, the tangent at P makes 40° with PQ. What is x?

(a) 40°
(b) 50°
(c) 80°
(d) 20°
Answer:
(a) 40°

(viii) The vertices of a square are on a circle. BP is the tangent to the circle at P. What is the measure of ∠PBC?

(a) 50°
(b) 40°
(c) 45°
(d) 30°
Ans:
(c) 45°

(ix) What is the radius of the incircle of an equilateral triangle with a side of 6 cm?
(a) √3
(b) √2
(c) 1
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) √3

(x) The number of tangents that can be drawn from a point outside a circle to the circle.
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 2

(xi) From a point, the angle between the tangents drawn to a circle is 90°. Find the angle between the lines joining this point to the points of contact.
(a) 90°
(b) 60°
(c) 100°
(d) 80°
Answer:
(a) 90°

Question 2.
Read the two statements given below.
Statement 1: If the angle between the tangents from an outer point is 90 + x, then the angle between the radii to the point where the tangents touch the circle is 90 – x.
Statement 2: Tangents from the outer point and radii to the points where they touch the circle make a cyclic quadrilateral.
Choose the correct answer from those given below.
(a) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.
(d) Both statements are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct reason for Statement 1.
Answer:
(c) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.

Question 3.
Read the two statements given below.
Statement 1: If the area and perimeter of a triangle are numerically equal, that is, both are the same number, then its inradius is 2 units.
Statement 2: If A is the area, s is half of the perimeter, then the inradius r = \(\frac {A}{s}\)
Choose the correct answer from those given below.
(a) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.
(d) Both statements are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct reason for Statement 1.
Answer:
(c) Both statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.

Question 4.
In the figure, PA is the tangent from P to A on the circle, and OA is the radius. If OP = 18 and ∠OPA = 40° then
[sin 40° = 0.64, cos 40° = 0.76, tan 40° = 0.83]

(a) What is the length of the tangent?
(b) What is the radius of the circle?
Answer:
(a) cos 40° = \(\frac{A P}{O P}\)
⇒ 0.76 = \(\frac{A P}{18}\)
⇒ AP = 0.76 × 18 = 13.68 cm
(b) sin 40° = \(\frac{O A}{O P}=\frac{O A}{18}\)
⇒ OA = 11.52 cm

Question 5.
Angles of triangle OAP are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, O is the center of the circle, and PA is the tangent from P. ∠P is the smallest angle, and OP = 12 cm.

(a) What is the ratio of the sides of this triangle?
(b) Find the other two sides of the triangle?
Answer:
(a) Angles are x, 2x, 3x
6x = 180°
x = 30°
Angles are 30°, 60°, 90.
Ratio of the sides is 1 : √3 : 2
(b) OA = 6, PA = 6√3

Question 6.
In the figure, O is the centre of the circle, PA is the tangent, and OP = 24 cm.

(a) What are the angles of a triangle?
(b) What is the radius of the circle?
(c) Find the length of the tangent.
Answer:
(a) ∠POA = 180 – 120 = 60°
∠PAO = 90°
∠OPA = 30°
(b) 12 cm
(c) 12√3 cm

Question 7.
In the figure, a circle touches the sides of a triangle. If AP = 1, BQ = 2 and CR = 3 then

(a) What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(b) What is the area of the triangle?
Answer:
(a) AR = 1, CQ = 3, BP = 2
Perimeter of triangle ABC = 12 cm
(b) The perpendicular sides of the right-angled triangle ABC are 3 and 4 cm.
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 3 × 4 = 6 sq.cm

Question 8.
In the figure, PA = 12 cm, O is the center of the circle, radius of the circle is 5 cm.

(a) What is the length PB?
(b) Find the area of APBO.
Answer:
(a) PB = 12
(b) Area of APBO = 2 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × 5 = 60 sq. unit

Question 9.
In the figure, PA and QB are parallel tangents. Another line PQ touches the circle at R and cuts the parallel tangents.

(a) Draw a rough diagram and join OA, OR, and OB.
(b) Name the equal triangles in the figure.
(c) Find the measure of ∠POQ.
Answer:
(a) Draw the diagram yourself.
(b) PA = PR, OA = OR and OP is common.
Triangle PAO and triangle PRO are equal.
Similarly, ∆QRO and ∆QBO are equal.
(c) If ∠POA = ∠POR = x and ∠QOR = ∠QOB = y then 2x + 2y = 180
⇒ x + y = 90
∴ ∠POQ = 90°

Question 10.
In the figure, AB is a common tangent to the circle. The line PC joins the common point of the circle to the point P. It is also a tangent to the circle.

(a) Name the lines of equal length shown in the figure.
(b) If ∠PAC = x and ∠PBC = y then what is ∠ACB?
(c) Prove that ∆ABC is a right triangle.
Answer:
(a) PA = PC, PB = PC
(b) ∠ACB = x + y
(c) In triangle ABC,
2x + 2y = 180
⇒ x + y = 90
Triangle ABC is a right triangle.

Question 11.
In triangle ABC. O is the centre of the circumcircle. ∠BOC = 140°.

(a) What is the measure of ∠BAC?
(b) If PC is the tangent at C, then what is the measure of ∠BCP?
Answer:
(a) ∠BAC = 70°
(b) 70°

Question 12.
ABCDE is a regular pentagon. AD and BD are its diagonals. The tangents intersect at a point P.

(a) What is the angle measure of ∠E and ∠C?
(b) Find ∠ADE, ∠BDC?
(c) What is ∠PAB, ∠PBA?
(d) What is the angle measure of APB?
Answer:
(a) ∠E = ∠C = \(\frac {540}{5}\) = 108°
(b) ∠ADE = 36°
∠BDC = 36°
(c) ∠ADB = 108 – 72 = 36°
∠PAB = ∠PBA = 36°
(d) ∠P = 180 – 72 = 108°

Question 13.
In the figure, the circle touches the sides of the quadrilateral.
If AB = 12, CD = 8, AD = 7.

(a) What is the relation between the length of its sides?
(b) Find BC?
Answer:
(a) AB + CD = AD + BC
(b) 12 + 8 = 7 + BC
⇒ BC = 13

Question 14.
A circle touches two sides of the triangle ABC. The sides AB and AC are equal.

(a) Which lengths shown in the figure are equal?
(b) Prove that BR = CR.
Answer:
(a) AP = AQ, BP = BR, CQ = CR
(b) AB = AC
AB – PA = AC – AQ
⇒ BP = CQ
BP = CQ
⇒ BR = CR

Question 15.
In the figure, O is the center of the triangle ABC.
∠OBC = 20° and ∠OCB = 30°

(a) What is ∠BOC?
(b) Find ∠A.
Answer:
(a) ∠BOC = 180 – (20 + 30) = 130°
(b) This is the incircle of the triangle.
To draw it, the angles must be bisected.
Given that ∠B = 40° and ∠C = 60°
Therefore ∠A = 80°

Question 16.
AD and BC are the common tangents to two circles. The centres of the circles are M and N, respectively. ∠APB = 40°.

(a) Which lines shown in the figure are of equal length?
(b) Prove that AD = BC.
(c) Calculate ∠APB and ∠CPD.
Answer:
(a) PA = PB, PD = PC
(b) By adding the equalities,
PA + PD = PB + PC
AD = BC
(c) ∠AMB = 180 – 40 = 140°
∠CND = 180 – 40 = 140°

Question 17.
In the first figure, the line PA is the tangent from point P to the circle.
In the second figure, OP is the diameter of the semicircle, and A is a point on the semicircle.

(a) In both figures, what is the value of ∠OAP?
(b) Draw a circle with radius 3 cm. Mark a point 7 cm away from the centre. Draw tangents from point P to the circle.
(c) Measure the length of the tangent.
Answer:
(a) 90°
(b) Draw a circle with centre O.
Mark a point P at a distance of 7 cm from the centre.
Draw the diameter OP.
The circle is intersected at points A and B.
Draw the lines PA and PB; these are tangents.
(c) Measure and write the length of the tangents.

Students often refer to Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Statistics Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SSLC Maths Chapter 13 Statistics Questions and Answers

Statistics Class 10 Questions and Answers Kerala State Syllabus

SCERT Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Statistics Solutions

Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Kerala Syllabus – Not a Correct Average & Another Average

(Textbook Page No. 279)

Question 1.
The distances covered by Ahirath in long jump practice are 6.10, 6.20, 6.18, 6.20, 6.25, 6.21, 6.15, 6.10 in metres. Find the mean and median. Why is it that there is not much difference between these?
Answer:
Mean = \(\frac{6.10+6.20+6.18+6.20+6.25+6.21+6.15+6.10}{8}\) = 6.17
Arranging them in ascending order,
6.10, 6.10, 6.15, 6.18, 6.20, 6.20, 6.21, 6.25
Median = \(\frac{6.18+6.2}{2}\) = 6.19
The numbers on either side of the middle value are arranged roughly in equal amounts above and below it.
Therefore, the mean and the median are approximately equal to each other.
Also, there are no extremely large or extremely small numbers in the group.

Question 2.
The table below gives the rainfall during the first week of June 2025 in various districts of Kerala.

Calculate the mean and median rainfall in Kerala during this week. Why is the mean less than the median?
Answer:
Mean = \(\frac{108.7+89.4+74.8+72+42.6+35.7+66.4+73.5+69.1+50.5+43.6+93.1+39+37.5}{14}\) = 63.99
Arranging them in ascending order,
35.7, 37.5, 39, 42.6, 43.6, 50.5, 66.4, 69.1, 72.0, 73.5, 74.8, 89.4, 93.1, 108.7
Median = \(\frac{66.4+69.1}{2}\) = 67.75
The mean is the average calculated considering all the numbers.
The sum of the values less than the middle number is smaller, and the sum of the values greater than the middle number is larger.
Therefore, the mean is less than the median.

Question 3.
Prove that for a set of numbers in an arithmetic sequence, the mean and median are equal.
Answer:
When the number of terms is odd, there will be one middle term.
The mean obtained by dividing the sum of all the terms by their number is the same as this middle term.
This is a special property of an arithmetic sequence – that is, the mean and the median are the same.
When the number of terms is even, the terms can be paired from the ends so that each pair has the same sum.
The median is half the sum of the two middle terms, and this value is also equal to the mean.

SCERT Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Solutions – Frequency and Median

(Textbook Page No. 282)

Question 1.
35 households in a neighbourhood are sorted according to their monthly income in the table below.

Calculate the median income.
Answer:

Total number of families = 35 (odd number)
Median = \(\frac{35+1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}\) = 18th term
Therefore the median = Rs. 2000

Question 2.
The table below shows the workers in a factory sorted according to their daily wages:

Calculate the median daily wage.
Answer:

Total number of workers = 30 (even number)
The terms in the middle are the 15th and 16th terms.
From the table, it is clear that the monthly income of both the 15th and 16th workers is 1000.
Therefore the median = Rs. 1000

Question 3.
The table below gives the number of babies born in a hospital during a week, sorted according to their birth weight.

Calculate the median birth-weight.
Answer:

Total number of babies = 70 (even number)
The terms in the middle are the 35th and 36th terms.
From the table, it is clear that the weight of the babies of both the 35th and 36th babies is 3.000 kg.
Therefore the median = 3.000 Kg

Class 10 Maths Kerala Syllabus Chapter 13 Solutions – Classes and Median

(Textbook Page No. 287-288)

Question 1.
The table shows some households sorted according to their usage of electricity:

Calculate the median usage of electricity.
Answer:

Total number of houses = 39
The 20th house lies in the middle, and the median class is 280 – 300.
If 20 units is equally distributed to 10 houses, then one part equals \(\frac {20}{10}\) = 2
It is assumed that the electricity consumption within the median class is in an arithmetic sequence.
The consumption of 17th house is 280 + 1 = 281 units
f = 281, d = 2
Then the 20th house represents the fourth term.
Hence the median = f + 3d = 281 + 6 = 287 units

Question 2.
The table below shows the children in a class sorted according to their marks in the math exam:

Calculate the median mark of the class.
Answer:

The total number of children = 36
The 18th and 19th marks lie in the middle.
Median class = 20 – 30
If the 10 marks are equally distributed among 10 students, then one part = 1 mark.
The 13th mark is = 20 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 20\(\frac {1}{2}\)
f = 20.5 and d = 1
x₆ = f + 5d = 20.5 + 5 = 25.5
x₇ = 26.5
∴ Median = 26

Question 3.
The table below gives the details of the income tax paid by the employees in an office in a year:

Calculate the median income tax paid.
Answer:

Here, n = 92
The 46th and 47th incomes lie in the middle, and the median class is Rs. 4000 – 5000
If Rs. 1000 is distributed equally among 20 people, then one part = Rs. 50
The 34th income is 4000 + 25 = 4025
f = 4025, d = 50
x₁₃ = f + 12d
= 4025 + 12 × 50
= 4025 + 600
= 4625
x₁₀ = 4625 + 50 = 4675
Median = \(\frac{4625+4675}{2}\) = 4650

Statistics Class 10 Notes Pdf

Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Statistics Notes Kerala Syllabus

Introduction
In this unit, we discuss certain measures that are based on numerical data collected from a group. These measures reflect the general characteristics of the group. In your previous classes, you have already learned about the measure called the mean. The mean of a group of numbers is obtained by dividing the sum of the numbers by the total number of values in the group.
The marks obtained by a student in seven examinations are given below.
10, 18, 14, 11, 17, 11, 15
Mean = \(\frac{10+18+14+11+17+11+15}{7}\) = 13.7
Therefore, the mean of the marks is 13.7.
When the marks are arranged in order, the number that comes in the middle is called the median. Since there are seven numbers here, there will definitely be one number exactly in the middle. The order is 10,11, 11,14, 15, 17, 18. The fourth number comes in the middle, so the median is 14. One important thing to note is that when the numbers are arranged in order and form an arithmetic sequence, the mean and the median will be equal.

Median is the middlemost number when the given set of values is arranged in ascending or descending order.

Steps to calculate the median of a given set of values.

• Step 1: Arrange the given set of values in ascending order
• Step 2: Find the total number of values in the set. This is denoted by “n”.
• Step 3: Identify the middle position(s).
• Step 4: Calculate the middle value (That is, the median)

If n is odd, then there will be only one middle value, and it is the median.

If n is even, then there will be two middle values, and the average of these two values is the median.

In statistics, frequency simply means how many times something shows up in a set of data.

How to write a cumulative frequency column in a frequency table?

• In the first row, write the first frequency.
• In the second row, write the sum of the first and second frequencies.
• In the third row, write the sum of the first, second, and third frequencies, and so on.

Steps to calculate the median from a frequency table.

• Step 1: Write the cumulative frequency table.
• Step 2: Find the total number of values in the set. This is denoted by “n”.
• Step 3: Identify the middle position (s).
• Step 4: Calculate the middle value (That is the median!)

Steps to calculate the median from a frequency table with classes.

• Step 1: Write the cumulative frequency table.
• Step 2: Find the total number of values in the set. This is denoted by “n”.
• Step 3: Identify the middle position(s).
• Step 4: Identify the class where the middle value(s) belong. (This class is known as the median class.)
• Step 5: Find out the class width and number of values in this class.
• Step 6:Divide the class width by the number of values in this class and find its half.
• Step 7: Calculate the value corresponding to the first observation in the median class.
• Step 8: Calculate the median value.

Not A Correct Average & Another Average
The purpose of calculating the mean is to reduce a whole collection of numbers to a single number, which gives a general understanding of a situation. But numbers in the collection that are very much less or very much more than others affect the mean a lot.

Median: The median is the middlemost number when the given set of values is arranged in ascending or descending order.

Question 1.
The median of the first n odd numbers?
(a) 2n
(b) n²
(c) 3n
(d) n
Answer:
Sum of the first n odd numbers = n²
It is an arithmetic sequence.
Mean = \(\frac{n^2}{n}\) = n
Median = n

Question 2.
The median of the first n even numbers
(a) n + 1
(b) n
(c) n – 1
(d) 2n + 1
Answer:
Sum = n(n + 1)
Median = \(\frac{n(n+1)}{n}\) = n + 1

Question 3.
The algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is 3n + 2.
(a) What is the 11th term?
(b) What is the median of the first 21 terms?
Answer:
(a) x₁₁ = 3 × 11 + 2 = 33 + 2 = 35
(b) The median of 21 terms is the 11th term.
Median = 35

Question 4.
A company has 10 workers. Among them, three earn a daily wage of Rs. 500 each, and the remaining workers earn Rs. 800 each.
(a) What is the median daily wage?
(b) How many workers earn less than the median wage?
Answer:
(a) When arranged in ascending order, the middle numbers are the 5th and 6th terms, both of which are 800.
Hence the median = Rs. 800
(b) 3 workers earn less than the median wage.

Question 5.
25 numbers are written in a sequence. They form an arithmetic progression, and the median of the numbers is 36.
(a) What is the 13th number?
(b) What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(c) When written in order, what is the sum of the numbers on either side of the middle number?
Answer:
(a) The 25 terms are in an arithmetic progression.
Its middle term is its median.
The middle term = 13th term
Therefore median = 36
(b) The sum of the smallest and the largest number = 2 × 13th term
= 2 × 36
= 72
(c) The sum of the numbers on either side of the middle number is 12th term + 14th term = 2 × 13th term
= 2 x 36
= 72

Question 6.
The temperatures recorded in a town over seven consecutive days are as follows:
26°C, 28°C, 25°C, 30°C, 27°C, 26°C, 25°C
(a) What is the median temperature?
(b) How many days have temperatures higher than the median temperature, and how many have lower temperatures?
(c) How many temperatures are lower than the median temperature?
Answer:
(a) Arrange the temperatures in ascending order.
25, 25, 26, 26, 27, 28, 30
There are 7 terms, and the middle term is the 4th term.
Therefore the median = 4th term = 26° C
(b) Higher temperature = 3 days
Lower temperature = 2 days
(c) Temperature lower than the median = 2 temperatures

Frequency and Median
In statistics, frequency simply means how many times something shows up in a set of data.
The marks obtained by 40 students of a class in a test are shown in the table below.
9 students scored 7 marks.
Similarly, 10 students scored 11 marks, 4 students scored 13 marks, 13 students scored 15 marks, and 4 students scored 19 marks.
This table is already arranged in ascending order of scores.
up to 7 marks, there are 9 students
up to 11 marks, 9 + 10 = 19 students
up to 13 marks, 19 + 4 = 23 students
up to 15 marks, 23 + 13 = 36 students
and up to 19 marks, all 40 students.
Let’s now represent this in a table.

Total score = 40
Here, the middle terms are 20 and 21, and the scores of both are 13.
Therefore the median = 13

Question 1.
The scores obtained by 40 students of a class in a quiz competition are given below.

(a) Using a suitable table, calculate the total marks obtained by the class.
(b) What is the mean of the marks?
(c) Find the median mark.
(d) Calculate the number of students who scored higher than the median mark.
Answer:
(a) Total Score = 4 × 5 + 6 × 10 + 9 × 10 + 10 × 7 + 15 × 8
= 20 + 60 + 90 + 70 + 120
= 360
(b) Mean = \(\frac {360}{40}\) = 9
(c) Consider the table

The total number of students is 40.
Therefore, the 20th and 21st terms lie in the middle.
From the 16th student up to the 25th student, the score is 9.
Hence, the median = 9.
(d) The number of students who scored above the median is 15.

Question 2.
The weights of 12 members of a team are given below:

(a) Prepare a table for calculating the median.
(b) What is the median of the weights?
(c) How many members have having median weight and below?
(d) How many members are there above the median weight?
Answer:
(a)

n = 12 (even)
Therefore 6th and 7th members come in the middle.
From the table, it is clear that a member weighs 70.
Median weight is 70.
(c) 7 members are weighing the median weight.
(d) There are 5 members with a median.

Question 3.
The daily wages of 200 workers in a factory are given below.

(a) Prepare the table for calculating the median.
(b) Find the median wage.
(c) How many workers are getting a median wage and below?
(d) How many workers are getting above the median wage?
Answer:
(a)

(b) n = 200 (even)
So the 100th and 101st wage comes in the middle.
From the table, it is clear that the wages of both workers are 500.
Median is 500.
(c) 134 workers have having daily wage below 500.
(d) There are 66 workers having wages above 500.

Classes and Median
The given data can be divided into different groups, and the number of items in each group can be counted and arranged in a table. Such a table is called a frequency table. A frequency table has two columns – the first column shows the groups, and the second column shows the frequency.

Let us calculate the median from the table given below:
The table shows the ages of employees and the number of people working in an organization.

First, we prepare a table by arranging the given data in ascending order.

There are a total of 46 workers.
The 23rd and 24th workers’ ages fall in the middle, and they belong to the 40 – 45 group.
The 40 – 45 group is called the median class.
It is assumed that the ages in the median class are in arithmetic sequence.
If the 5-year interval of the median class is divided equally for 10 workers, that is, 29 – 19 = 10
Then the share for one person is 5 ÷ 10 = \(\frac {1}{2}\) year.
The age of the 20th worker is 40 + (\(\frac {1}{2}\)) ÷ 2 = 40\(\frac {1}{4}\) years.
If we take the 20th worker’s age as the first term and the common difference as \(\frac {1}{2}\), then the age of the 23rd worker will be the fourth term of that arithmetic sequence.
f = 40\(\frac {1}{4}\), d = \(\frac {1}{2}\),
x₄ = f + 3d
= 40\(\frac {1}{4}\) + 3 × \(\frac {1}{2}\)
= 41\(\frac {3}{4}\)
The age of the 24th worker = \(41 \frac{3}{4}+\frac{1}{2}=42 \frac{1}{4}\) years.
The median is the average of the ages of the 23rd and 24th workers.
Median = \(\left(41 \frac{3}{4}+42 \frac{1}{4}\right) \div 2\) = 42

Students often refer to Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Maths Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Solids Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SSLC Maths Chapter 12 Solids Questions and Answers

Solids Class 10 Questions and Answers Kerala State Syllabus

SCERT Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Solids Solutions

Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus – Pyramids and Area

(Textbook Page No. 259-260)

Question 1.
A square of side 5 centimetres, and four isosceles triangles of base 5 centimetres and height 8 centimetres, are to be put together to make a square pyramid. How many square centimetres of paper are needed?
Answer:
Area of one lateral face = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × 5 = 20 sq.cm
Lateral surface area = 4 × 20 = 80 sq.cm
Base area = 5² = 25 sq.cm
Area of the paper required to make the square pyramid = 80 + 25 = 105 sq.cm

Question 2.
A toy is in the shape of a square pyramid of base edge 16 centimetres and slant height 10 centimetres. What is the total cost of painting 500 such toys, at 80 rupees per square metre?
Answer:
Area of one lateral face = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 16 × 10 = 80 sq.cm
Lateral surface area = 4 × 80 = 320 sq. cm
Base area = 16² = 256 sq. cm
Total surface area = 320 + 256 = 576 sq. cm
Area of 500 such toys = 500 × 576
= 288000 sq. cm
= 28.8 sq. cm
(1 metre = 100 cm, 1 sq.m = 100 × 100 = 10000 sq.cm)
Total cost of paining 500 toys = 80 × 28.8 = 2,304 rupees

Question 3.
The lateral faces of a square pyramid are equilateral triangles and the length of a base edge is 30 centimetres. What is its surface area?
Answer:
Length of all edges are 30 cm.
Lateral faces are equilateral triangles.
Height of the triangle = 15√3 cm
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 30 × 15√3 = 225√3 sq.cm
Lateral surface area = 4 × 225√3 = 900√3 sq.cm
Base area = 30² = 900 sq.cm
Total surface area = 900√3 + 900 sq.cm

Question 4.
The perimeter of the base of a square pyramid is 40 centimetres, and the total length of all its edges is 92 centimetres. Calculate its surface area.
Answer:
Length of base edge = \(\frac {40}{4}\) = 10 cm
Total length of all edges is the sum of the lengths of the 4 base edges and the 4 lateral edges.
40 + 4 × lateral edge = 92
⇒ 4 × lateral edge = 92 – 40 = 52 cm
⇒ Lateral edge = \(\frac {52}{4}\) = 13 cm

Slant height = \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\) = 12 cm
Total surface area of the pyramid = 10² + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 10 × 12
= 100 + 240
= 340 sq. cm

Question 5.
Can we make a square pyramid with the lateral surface area equal to the base area?
Answer:
Assume that the lateral surface area is equal to the base area.
Then the area of each triangle formed by drawing diagonals of the base is equal to the area of each lateral face.
In such cases, no square pyramids can be formed.

SCERT Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Solutions – Height and Slant Height

(Textbook Page No. 261-262)

Question 1.
Using a square and four triangles with dimensions as specified in the picture, a pyramid is made. What is the height of this pyramid?

What if the squares and triangles are like this?

Answer:
(a) Height = \(\sqrt{18^2-12^2}\)
= √180
= \(\sqrt{36 \times 5}\)
= 6√5 cm

(b) Base edge = 24 cm
So, base diagonal = 24√2 cm
Half of the base diagonal = 12√2 cm
Height = \(\sqrt{30^2-(12 \sqrt{2})^2}\) = √612 cm

Question 2.
A square pyramid of base edge 10 centimetres and height 12 centimetres is to be made of paper. What should be the dimensions of the triangles?
Answer:
Slant height = \(\sqrt{5^2+12^2}\) = 13
Lateral faces are isosceles triangles. There are 4 triangles.
The base side of each triangle is 10 cm, and the height to that side is 13 cm.
The other two sides are equal.
So, the other sides = \(\sqrt{13^2+\left(\frac{10}{2}\right)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{13^2+5^2}\)
= √194 cm

Question 3.
Prove that in any square pyramid, the squares of the height, slant height, and lateral edge are in arithmetic sequence.
Answer:
If we subtract the square of height from the square of slant height, we get the square of half of the base edge.
slant height² – height² = \(\left(\frac{\text { base edge }}{2}\right)^2\)
Also, if we subtract the square of the height from the square of the lateral edge, we get the square of half of the base edge.
lateral edge² – height² = \(\left(\frac{\text { base edge }}{2}\right)^2\)
These square differences are the common difference of the arithmetic sequence.
∴ The squares of the height, slant height, and lateral edge are in an arithmetic sequence.

Question 4
A square pyramid is to be made with the triangle shown here as a lateral face. What would be its height? What if the base edge is 40 centimetres instead of 30 centimetres?

Answer:
Half of the base edge = 15 cm
Lateral edge = 25 cm
Slant height = \(\sqrt{25^2-15^2}\)
= √400
= 20 cm
Height of the pyramid = \(\sqrt{20^2-15^2}\)
= √175
= \(\sqrt{25 \times 7}\)
= 5√7 cm

Class 10 Maths Kerala Syllabus Chapter 12 Solutions – Volume of a Pyramid

(Textbook Page No. 263)

Question 1.
What is the volume of a square pyramid of base edge 10 centimetres and slant height 15 centimetres?
Answer:
Form a right triangle joining half of the base edge and the slant height.
Height = \(\sqrt{15^2-5^2}\)
= √200
= 10√2 cm
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × Base area × Height
= \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 10² × 10√2
= \(\frac{1000 \sqrt{2}}{3}\) cm³

Question 2.
Two square pyramids have the same volume. The base edge of one is half that of the other. How many times is the height of the second pyramid the height of the first?
Answer:
Let the base edge of the first pyramid be a and its height be h.
Then, volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × Base area × height
= \(\frac {1}{3}\) × a² × h
Let the base edge of the second pyramid be \(\frac {a}{2}\) and its height be x.
Then, volume = \(\frac{1}{3} \times\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^2 \times x\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{3} \times a^2 \times h=\frac{1}{3} \times\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^2 \times x\)
⇒ a²h = \(\frac{a^2 x}{4}\)
⇒ h = \(\frac {x}{4}\)
⇒ x = 4h
∴ The height of the second pyramid is 4 times the height of the first.
OR
One-third of the square of the base edge multiplied by the height gives the volume.
If the base edge becomes half, then its square becomes one-fourth.
Then, to get the same volume, the height must become 4 times.

Question 3.
The base edges of two square pyramids are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their heights in the ratio 1 : 3. The volume of the first is 180 cubic centimetres. What is the volume of the second?
Answer:
Let base edges be a, 2a, and heights be h, 3h
Volume of the first pyramid = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × a² × h = 180
⇒ a²h = 540
Volume of the second pyramid = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × (2a)² × 3h
= 4a²h
= 4 × 540
= 2160 cm³
OR
The ratio of base edges is 1 : 2.
Therefore, the ratio of the base areas is 1:4.
The ratio of heights is 1 : 3.
Therefore, the ratio between the product of base area and height is 1:12.
That is, the ratio between their volumes is 1 : 12.
The volume of the second pyramid is 12 times the volume of the first pyramid.
∴ Volume of the second pyramid = 12 × 180 = 2160 cm³

Question 4.
All edges of a square pyramid are 18 centimetres. What is its volume?
Answer:
Form a right triangle joining half of the base edge = 9 cm, lateral edge = 18 cm, and slant height.
It is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle.
Slant height = 9√3 cm
Form a right triangle joining the slant height, half of the base edge, and the height.
Height = \(\sqrt{(9 \sqrt{3})^2-9^2}\) = 9√2 cm
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 18² × 9√2 = 972√2 cm³

Question 5.
The slant height of a square pyramid is 25 centimetres, and its surface area is 896 square centimetres. What is its volume?
Answer:
If base edge be x, then x² + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × x × 25 = 896
⇒ x² + 50x – 896 = 0
x² + 50x – 896 = x² + (a + b)x + ab
⇒ a + b = 50, ab = -896
(a – b)² = (a + b)² – 4ab
⇒ (a – b)² = 50² – 4 × -896 = 6084
⇒ a – b = 78
a + b = 50, a – b = 78
⇒ 2a = 128
⇒ a = 64, b = -14
x² + 50x – 896 = (x + 64)(x – 14) = 0
∴ x = 14 is the base edge.
Height = \(\sqrt{25^2-7^2}\) = 24 cm
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 14² × 24 = 1568 cm³

Question 6.
All edges of a square pyramid are of the same length, and its height is 12 centimetres. What is its volume?
Answer:
Let a be the length of all edges.
Then, base edge = lateral edge = a
Form a right triangle joining half of the base edge, the lateral edge, and the slant height.
It is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle.
Slant height = \(\frac{a \sqrt{3}}{2}\) cm
Form a right triangle joining the slant height, half of the base edge, and the height.
Height = \(\sqrt{\left(\frac{a \sqrt{3}}{2}\right)^2-\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^2}\) = 12 cm
⇒ \(\sqrt{\frac{2 a^2}{4}}\) = 12
⇒ \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 12
⇒ a = 12√2 cm
∴ Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × (12√2)² × 12 = 1152 cm³

Question 7.
What is the surface area of a square pyramid of base perimeter 64 centimetres and volume 1280 cubic centimetres?
Answer:
Base edge = \(\frac {64}{4}\) = 16 cm
Base area =16² = 256 cm²
Let h be the height.
\(\frac {1}{3}\) × 256 × h = 1280
⇒ h = \(\frac{1280 \times 3}{256}\)
⇒ h = 15 cm
Slant height = \(\sqrt{15^2+8^2}\) = 17 cm
Total surface area = 16² + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 16 × 17 = 800 cm²

SSLC Maths Chapter 12 Questions and Answers – Cone

(Textbook Page No. 265)

Question 1.
What are the radius of the base and slant height of a cone made by rolling up a sector of central angle 60° cut out from a circle of radius 10 centimetres?
Answer:
\(\frac{60}{360}=\frac{1}{6}\)
Base radius = 10 × \(\frac {1}{6}\) = \(\frac {10}{6}\) = \(\frac {5}{3}\) cm
Slant height = 10 cm

Question 2.
What is the central angle of the sector to be used to make a cone of base radius 10 centimetres and slant height 25 centimetres?
Answer:
Slant height of the cone is the radius of the sector, which is the radius of the circle from which the sector is cut off.
So, radius of the cone = 10 cm
\(\frac{10}{25}=\frac{2}{5}\)
Central angle is \(\frac {2}{5}\) part of 360°.
So, central angle = 360 × \(\frac {2}{5}\) = 144°

Question 3.
What is the ratio of the base radius and slant height of a cone made by rolling up a semicircle?
Answer:
Central angle of the semicircle = 180°, which is \(\frac {1}{2}\) part of 360°.
The radius of the sector (semicircle) is the slant height.
Its \(\frac {1}{2}\) part is the radius of the cone.
The ratio of base radius and slant height is 1 : 2.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Solutions – Curved Surface Area

(Textbook Page No. 267)

Question 1.
What is the area of the curved surface of a cone of base radius 12 centimetres and slant height 25 centimetres?
Answer:
Curved surface area = πrl
= π × 12 × 25
= 300π cm²

Question 2.
What is the surface area of a cone of base diameter 30 centimetres and height 20 centimetres?
Answer:
Base radius = 15 cm
Height = 20 cm
Slant height = \(\sqrt{15^2+20^2}\)
= √625
= 25 cm
Surface area = Base area + Curved surface area
= π × 15² + π × 15 × 25
= 600π cm²

Question 3.
A conical firework is of base diameter 10 centimetres and height 12 centimetres. 10000 such fireworks are to be wrapped in coloured paper. The price of the coloured paper is 2 rupees per square metre. What is the total cost?
Answer:
Slant height = \(\sqrt{12^2+5^2}\) = 13 cm
Surface area of a cone = π × 5² + π × 5 × 13 = 90π cm²
Total surface area of 10000 fireworks = 90π × 10000 = 90π m²
Total cost = 90π × 2
= 180π
= 180 × 3.14
= 565.2 rupees

Question 4.
Prove that for a cone made by rolling up a semicircle, the area of the curved surface is twice the base area.
Answer:
If the radius of the semicircle is r, then the slant height of the cone is r.
Base radius = \(\frac {r}{2}\)
Curved surface area = π × r × \(\frac {r}{2}\) = \(\frac{\pi r^2}{2}\)
Base area = \(\pi \times\left(\frac{r}{2}\right)^2=\frac{\pi r^2}{4}\)
The curved surface area \(\frac{\pi r^2}{2}\) is twice the base area \(\frac{\pi r^2}{4}\).

Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus – Volume of a Cone

(Textbook Page No. 268)

Question 1.
The base radius and height of a cylindrical block of wood are 15 centimetres and 40 centimetres. What is the volume of the largest cone that can be carved out of this?
Answer:
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × 15² × 40 = 3000π cm³

Question 2.
The base radius and height of a solid metal cylinder are 12 centimetres and 20 centimetres. By melting it and recasting, how many cones of base radius 4 centimetres and height 5 centimetres can be made?
Answer:
The number of cones that can be made = Volume of the melted solid metal cylinder ÷ Volume of the cone made by recasting
= \(\frac{\pi \times 12^2 \times 20}{\frac{1}{3} \times \pi \times 4^2 \times 5}\)
= 108

Question 3.
A sector of central angle 216° is cut out from a circle of radius 25 centimetres and is rolled up into a cone. What are the base radius and height of the cone? What is its volume?
Answer:
\(\frac{216}{360}=\frac{3}{5}\)
Central angle of the sector is \(\frac {3}{5}\) part of 360°.
The radius of the cone is \(\frac {3}{5}\) part of the radius of the sector.
Radius of the cone = \(\frac {3}{5}\) × 25 = 15 cm
Slant height = 25 cm
Height of the cone = \(\sqrt{25^2-15^2}\) = 20 cm
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × 15² × 20 = 1500π cm³

Question 4.
The base radii of two cones are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their volumes?
Answer:
Radii are 3r, 5r, and heights 2h, 3h
Ratio of their volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × (3r)² × 2h : \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × (5r)² × 3h
= 18 : 75
= 6 : 25

Question 5.
Two cones have the same volume, and their base radii are in the ratio 4 : 5. What is the ratio of their heights?
Answer:
Let their heights be h₁, h₂
\(\frac{1}{3} \times(4 r)^2 \times h_1=\frac{1}{3} \times(5 r)^2 \times h_2\)
⇒ 16h1 = 25h2
⇒ \(\frac{h_1}{h_2}=\frac{25}{16}\)
∴ Ratio of height = 25 : 16

SCERT Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Solutions – Sphere

(Textbook Page No. 270)

Question 1.
The surface area of a solid sphere is 120 square centimetres. If it is cut into two halves, what would be the surface area of each hemisphere?
Answer:
4πr² = 120
⇒ πr² = 30
Surface area of hemisphere = 3 × πr²
= 3 × 30
= 90 cm²

Question 2.
The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 27 : 64. What is the ratio of their radii? And the ratio of their surface areas?
Answer:
Volume of a sphere = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\)
In volume radius is in the third degree.
27 = 3³, 64 = 4³
So, the ratio of their radii = 3 : 4
Surface area of a sphere is 4πr².
In surface area, radius is in the second degree.
So, ratio of their surface area = 3² : 4² = 9 : 16

Question 3.
The base radius and length of a metal cylinder are 4 centimetres and 10 centimetres. If it is melted and recast into spheres of radius 2 centimetres each, how many spheres can be made?
Answer:
Number of spheres = \(\frac{\text { Volume of cylinder melted }}{\text { Volume of sphere formed by recasting }}\)
= \(\frac{\pi \times 4^2 \times 10}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times 2^3}\)
= 15

Question 4.
A metal sphere of radius 12 centimetres is melted and recast into 27 small spheres of equal size. What is the radius of each small sphere?
Answer:
Volume of the small sphere = \(\frac{\text { Volume of melted sphere }}{27}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times 12^3}{27}\)
= \(\frac {4}{3}\) × π × 64
= \(\frac {4}{3}\) × π × 4³
So, the radius of the small sphere is 4 cm.

Question 5.
From a solid sphere of radius 10 centimetres, the largest cone of height 16 centimetres is carved out. What fraction of the volume of the sphere is the volume of the cone?
Answer:

From the figure,
10² = 6² + r²
⇒ r = 8 cm
Volume of the cone = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × 8² × 16
Volume of the sphere = \(\frac {4}{3}\) × π × 10³
∴ Ratio of Volumes = \(\frac{\frac{1}{3} \pi \times 8^2 \times 16}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times 10^3}=\frac{32}{125}\)

Question 6.
A solid sphere is cut into two hemispheres. From one, a square pyramid, and from the other a cone, each of maximum possible size, are carved out. What is the ratio of their volumes?
Answer:
Consider the figure,

The figure shows the base of a square pyramid and a cone.
From the figure,
Base edge of the square pyramid = √2r
Base radius of the cone is r.
The height of both the square pyramid and the cone is equal to the radius r.
Volume of the square pyramid = \(\frac{1}{3} \times(\sqrt{2} r)^2 \times r\)
Volume of the cone = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × r² × r
Ratio of volumes = \(\frac{1}{3} \times(\sqrt{2} r)^2 \times r: \frac{1}{3} \pi \times r^2 \times r\) = 2 : π

Solids Class 10 Notes Pdf

Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Solids Notes Kerala Syllabus

→ Surface area of a square pyramid = base area + area of lateral faces

→ Volume of a square pyramid = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × base area × height

→ We can make a cone by rolling up a sector of a circle.

→ Radius of the sector = Slant height of the cone.

→ Curved surface area of a cone is the area of the sector used to make it.

→ Curved surface area (CSA) = πrl, where, r = base radius of the cone, l = slant height of the cone.

→ Volume of a cone = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × base area × height

→ The surface of a sphere is curved. The distance from the centre of the sphere to its surface is the radius of the sphere.

→ Surface area of a sphere = 4πr²

→ Surface area of a hemisphere = 3πr²

→ Volume of a sphere is \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\)

→ Volume of a hemisphere is \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^3\)

Introduction
Have you ever wondered how much ice cream your favourite cone can hold or how the ancient Egyptians built such massive pyramids? The answer lies in understanding solids, the three-dimensional shapes that surround us in the real world. In this chapter, we’ll embark on a journey into the fascinating world of 3D, focusing on three specific shapes: cones, square pyramids, and spheres.

Square Pyramids
Just think about the Egyptian pyramids. Each one has four triangle-shaped walls that meet at a point. We will learn how to spot square pyramids and what makes them unique, such as their height and lateral lines. We will also learn how much space they can hold (volume) and how much “skin” they have (surface area).

Cones
Think of your favourite ice cream cone. The top is pointy, and the bottom is round. We’ll learn how to recognise cones, understand their parts, like the slant and bottom, and figure out how much ice cream or juice they can hold.

Spheres
Imagine a ball – it’s perfectly round, no matter where you look at it. Spheres are cool shapes found in many things, like planets and marbles. We’ll learn all about spheres and discover how much space they hold (volume) and how much “skin” they have (surface area). We will examine the distinct characteristics of every form, mastering the skills to recognise them, compute their volume-the quantity of space they occupy and even investigate their surface area, which is the sum of their faces. Get ready to discover the mysteries behind these fascinating 3D wonders as you buckle in!

Solids with a base and a sharp apex opposite to it are called pyramids. Its base must be a polygon. The pyramid is named on the basis of the number of sides of its base. If base is a square, then it is a square pyramid. The sides of the polygon forming the base of a pyramid are called base edges, and the other sides of the triangles are called lateral edges. The topmost point of a pyramid is called its apex.

Pyramids and Area
Solids with a base and a sharp apex opposite to it are called pyramids. Its base must be a polygon. The pyramid is named on the basis of the number of sides of its base. If base is a square, then it is a square pyramid. Lateral faces of the pyramid are triangles. It can be an isosceles or an equilateral triangle. One edge of the triangle is the base edge of the pyramid. The other two edges of the triangle are the lateral edges. A solid with a square base and lateral faces is a pyramid. So, we have to calculate the perimeter and area of a square, and the perimeter and area of a triangle.

We can make square pyramids by cutting paper and pasting the edges.

The first picture shows the picture drawn on a paper to make the square pyramid. Cut and paste through the outer edges to make the square pyramid. The second picture shows the completed pyramid. In both pictures, A is the apex of the pyramid. B is the centre of the base edge, and C is the vertex of the base. The length of AB is the slant height of the pyramid. BC is the half of the base edge, and AC is the length of the lateral edge. In both pictures, ABC is a right triangle.

Question 1.
The figure shows the sketch to make a square pyramid from a square paper. The base edge of the pyramid is 10 cm, and the lateral edge is 12 cm.

(a) What is the slant height?
(b) What is the length of the side of the square paper?
Answer:
13² = 5² + (Slant height)²
Slant height = \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\)
= √144
= 12 cm
(b) Base edge = \(\frac {40}{4}\) = 10 cm

Question 2.
Divide a 96 cm long rod into 8 equal parts, join the edges to make a square pyramid.
(a) Calculate the slant height.
(b) Find the area of the paper required to cover its lateral face.
Answer:
(a) Length of an edge = \(\frac {96}{8}\) = 12 cm
Lateral faces are equilateral triangles.
Length of one side is 12 cm.
Slant height = 6√3 cm
(b) Area of one lateral face = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × 6√3 = 36√3 sq.cm
Total lateral surface area is the sum of the area of four triangles = 4 × 36√3 = 144√3 sq.cm

Question 3.
Four equal triangles are cut off from a segment of a circle with a central angle of 240° and radius 12 cm, as shown in the figure. Make a square pyramid with these triangles as lateral faces.
(a) What is the base edge of the pyramid?
(b) What is the slant height?
(c) Find the lateral surface area.
Answer:
Central angle of a segment = \(\frac {240}{4}\) = 60°
All triangles cut off are equilateral triangles.
(a) Length of base edge = 12 cm
(b) Slant height = 6√3 cm
(c) Lateral surface area = 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × 6√3 = 144√3 sq.cm

Height and Slant Height
The height of a pyramid is the perpendicular distance from the apex to the base. In the case of a square pyramid, the foot of the perpendicular is the point where the diagonals of the base meet.

Both of the shaded triangles in the picture are right triangles.
Height of the pyramid, half of the base edge, and slant height are joined to form a right triangle.
The height of the pyramid, half of the diagonal, and the lateral edge are joined to form a right triangle.
A right triangle is also formed by joining the slant height, half of the base edge, and the lateral edge.

Question 1.
Base perimeter of a square pyramid is 8 metres, length of the lateral edge is 8 metres.
(a) What is the length of the base edge?
(b) Find the base diagonal.
(c) What is the height of the pyramid?
Answer:
(a) Length of base edge = \(\frac {8}{4}\) = 2 m
(b) Base diagonal = 2√2 cm
(c) Half of base diagonal = √2 m
Height = \(\sqrt{8^2-\sqrt{2}^2}\) = √62 m

Question 2.
The base edge of a square pyramid is double the height. If the base perimeter is 40 cm, then
(a) Find slant height.
(b) Find lateral surface area.
Answer:
(a) Let the height be x, then base edge is 2x.
4 × 2x = 40
⇒ x = 5
Height = 5
⇒ Half of the base edge = 5 cm
Slant height = 5√2 cm
(b) Lateral surface area = 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 10 × 5√2 = 100√2 sq.cm

Question 3.
The base area of a square pyramid is 100 sq cm, slant height is 13 cm.
(a) What is the length of the base edge?
(b) What is the surface area?
(c) What is the height of the pyramid?
Answer:
(a) Length of base edge = √100 = 10 cm
Slant height = 13 cm
(b) Surface area = 100 + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 10 × 13 = 360 sq. cm
(c) Height of the pyramid = \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\) = √144 = 12 cm

Question 4.
The total surface area of a square pyramid is 360 sq.cm, slant height is 13 cm.
(a) If base edge is x, form the equation.
(b) What is the base edge?
(c) Find the height of the pyramid.
Answer:
(a) Lateral surface area = 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × x × 13 = 26x
⇒ x² + 26x = 360
⇒ x² + 26x – 360 = 0
(b) x = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
= \(\frac{-26 \pm \sqrt{676+1440}}{2}\)
= 10
(c) Height = 12 cm

Volume of a Pyramid
The volume of a solid is the measure of the space it occupies. The volume of any prism is equal to the product of the base area and the height. But, the volume of a square pyramid is equal to a third of the base area and the height. That is, the volume of a pyramid is a third of the volume of the prism of the same base area and height.
For example, let the base area of a prism be 100 sq cm and height 30 cm.
Then its volume is 100 × 30 = 3000 cubic centimetres.
The volume of a pyramid with the same base area and height is 1000 cubic centimetres.

Question 1.
The base area of a square pyramid is 100 sq cm, and the slant height is 13 cm.
(a) Find the height of the pyramid.
(b) Find the volume of the pyramid.
Answer:
(a) Length of base edge = √100 = 10 cm
Half of the base edge, height, and slant height together form a right triangle.
Height = \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\) = 12 cm
(b) Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × base area × height
= \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 100 × 12
= 400 cm³

Question 2.
From a wooden square prism, a square pyramid of the same base area and height is carved out. Base area 400 sq cm and height 24 cm.
(a) What is the volume of the pyramid?
(b) What is the slant height?
(c) Find the total surface area.
Answer:
(a) Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × base area × height
= \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 400 × 24
= 3200 cm³
(b) Base edge = √400 = 20 cm, Height = 24 cm
Slant height = \(\sqrt{10^2+24^2}\)
= √676
= 26 cm
(c) Total surface area = Base area + 4 × area of triangle in one lateral face
= 400 + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 20 × 26
= 400 + 1040
= 1440 cm²

Question 3.
The base perimeter and height of a square prism are 32 cm and 3 cm, respectively. From this, a square pyramid of maximum size is carved out.
(a) What is the length of the base edge of the pyramid?
(b) What is the slant height?
(c) Find the total surface area.
(d) Find the volume.
Answer:
(a) Base perimeter = 32 cm
So, base edge = \(\frac {32}{4}\) = 8 cm
(b) Slant height = \(\sqrt{4^2+3^2}\) = 5 cm
(c) Base area = 8² = 64 cm
Total surface area = Base area + 4 × Area of one isosceles triangle
= 64 + 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × 5
= 64 + 80
= 144 sq. cm
(d) Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 64 × 3 = 64 cm³

Cone
Like this, we can make a cone by rolling up a sector of a circle.

Basic measures of a sector are the central angle and the radius of the sector. Using these measures, we can calculate the length of the arc and the area. What part of 360° is the central angle of the sector? That much of the perimeter is the length of the arc. That much of the area is the area of the sector. From a circular plate, cut out a semicircle, rolling up to form a cone. Half of 360°, that is 180°, is the central angle of the sector. The base perimeter of the cone formed by rolling up a semicircle is half of the circumference of the circle.

Question 1.
A circular paper of radius 12 cm is cut into 4 equal sectors. If one of these sectors is rolling up to form a cone.
(a) What is the central angle of one sector?
(b) What is the radius and slant height of the cone?
Answer:
(a) 360 × \(\frac {1}{4}\) = 90°
(b) Slant height of the cone = 12 cm
Radius = 12 × \(\frac {1}{4}\) = 3 cm

Question 2.
From a circular plate, a sector of central angle 120° is cut off. The radius of the sector formed by rolling up the sector is 10 cm.
(a) What is the radius of the circular plate?
(b) What is the slant height of the cone?
Answer:
(a) 30 cm
(b) 30 cm

Question 3.
A circular plate of circumference 36π cm is divided into six equal sectors. One of them rolled up to form a cone.
(a) What is the radius of the plate?
(b) What is the radius of the cone?
Answer:
(a) 2πr = 36π
⇒ r = 18 cm
(b) Radius of the cone = \(\frac {18}{6}\) = 3 cm

Curved Surface Area
A sector rolling up to form a cone, the area of the sector is the lateral surface area of the cone. The arc length of the sector is the base area of the cone. The length of the perpendicular from the apex of the cone to the centre of the base is the height. We can see a right triangle with the slant height of the cone as the hypotenuse, base radius, and height as perpendicular sides.

Question 1.
A circular plate of radius 20 cm is divided into 4 sectors. One of them is rolled up to form a cone.
(a) What is the slant height?
(b) What is the radius of the cone?
(c) What is the height of the cone?
Answer:
(a) 20 cm
(b) Central angle of the sector is \(\frac {1}{4}\) part of 360°.
Radius of the cone is 5 cm.
Height = \(\sqrt{20^2-5^2}\)
= √375
= 5√15 cm

Question 2.
From a square prism of edge length 30 cm and height 20 cm, a cone of maximum size is carved out.
(a) What is the base radius of the cone?
(b) What is the slant height of the cone?
Answer:
(a) Half of the base edge is the radius of the base circle.
Radius = 15 cm
(b) Slant height = \(\sqrt{20^2+15^2}\)
= √625
= 25 cm

Question 3.
A circular plate of radius 12 cm is divided into two sectors. Its central angles are 120° and 240°. Both sectors rolled up to form cones.
(a) What is the common measure for both cones?
(b) What is the radius of the cone formed using a sector of a central angle?
(c) What is the radius of the cone formed using a sector of central angle?
(d) Which cone is highest?
Answer:
(a) Common measure is the slant height.
(b) \(\frac{120}{360}=\frac{1}{3}\)
\(\frac {1}{3}\) × 12 = 4 cm
(c) \(\frac{240}{360}=\frac{2}{3}\)
\(\frac {2}{3}\) × 12 = 8 cm
(d) Slant height of both cones is are same.
Slant height² = radius² + height²
∴ If the radius increases, the height decreases. The second cone is the shortest.

Question 4.
Find the lateral surface area of a cone of base perimeter 24π and height 5 cm.
Answer:
2π × radius = 24π
⇒ radius = 12 cm
Height = 5 cm
Slant height = \(\sqrt{12^2+5^2}\) = 13 cm
Radius of the sector used to form the cone = 13 cm
The area of the sector is \(\frac {12}{13}\) part of the area of the circle. So is the lateral surface area.
∴ Lateral surface area = π × 13² × \(\frac {12}{13}\) = 156π cm²

Question 5.
If the radius of a cone is r and the slant height is l, then prove that the lateral surface area is πrl.
Answer:
A sector rolled up to form a cone.
If the radius of the sector is l (which can be the slant height of the cone), the area of the circle is πl2.
Circumference is 2πl.
The central angle of the sector is x.
\(\frac{x}{360}=\frac{p}{2 \pi l}\)
p is the length of the arc.
Length of the arc, p = 2πl × \(\frac {x}{360}\), which is the base perimeter of the cone.
2πl × \(\frac {x}{360}\) = 2πr, r is the radius of the cone.
From this, lx = 360r
Lateral surface area is the area of the sector.
∴ Lateral surface area = πl² × \(\frac {x}{360}\)
= \(\frac{\pi \times l \times l x}{360}\)
= \(\frac{\pi \times l \times 360 r}{360}\)
= πrl sq. unit

Volume of a Cone
The volume of a cone is the product of base area and height.
The volume of a cone is \(\frac {1}{3}\) part of the volume of a prism with the same base area and height.
That is, the volume of a cone is one-third of the product of base area and height.

Question 1.
The volume of a cylinder is 144π cubic centimetres. What is the volume of a cone with the same base area and height?
Answer:
Volume must be one-third.
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 144π = 48π cubic centimetres.

Question 2.
There is a conical vessel of radius 6 cm and slant height 10 cm.
(a) What is the height of this vessel?
(b) Find the volume of the vessel.
(c) How many times is water to be poured to fill a cylindrical vessel of the same radius and twice the height?
Answer:
(a) Height of the vessel = \(\sqrt{10^2-6^2}\) = 8 cm
(b) Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × 6² × 8
= 12 × 8 × π
= 96π cubic centimetres.
(c) Volume of the cylindrical vessel with the same radius and twice the height = π × 6² × 16 = 576π cubic centimetres = 96π × 6
Hence, the water must be poured 6 times to fill the cylindrical vessel.

Question 3.
The volume of a cone is 60 cm³. Find the volume of a cone with the same height and half the radius.
Answer:
If the radius becomes half, the volume becomes \(\frac {1}{4}\)th.
Volume = \(\frac {1}{4}\) × 60 = 15 cm³

Question 4.
Radii of two cones are in the ratio 1 : 2 and the ratio of their heights is 2 : 1. Then, find the ratio of their volumes.
Answer:
Radii are r, 2r, and heights are 2h, h.
Then, volume = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^2 \times 2 h: \frac{1}{3} \pi \times(2 r)^2 \times h\)
= 2r²h : 4r²h
= 1 : 2

Sphere
The surface of a sphere is curved. The distance from the centre of the sphere to its surface is the radius of the sphere.
Consider a sphere of radius 4 cm. Four circular papers of radius 4 cm can cover the whole surface of the sphere.
If the radius is 4 cm, the surface area of a sphere is 4πr².
The surface area of a sphere is equal to the square of its radius multiplied by 4π.
A solid sphere cut into two equal halves exactly through the middle, we get two hemispheres.
It has one curved surface and one flat circular face.
Curved surface area of a solid sphere is 2πr², and its total surface area is 3πr².
Volume of a sphere is \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\) and volume of a hemisphere is \(\frac{2}{3} \pi r^3\).

Question 1.
Find the radius of a sphere with volume is equal to its surface area. What is the surface area of this sphere?
Answer:
4πr² = \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\)
⇒ r = 3
Surface area = 4π × 3² = 36π sq.unit

Question 2.
If the radius of a sphere becomes twice, what is the change in its volume?
Answer:
To calculate surface area, we have to multiply the square of its radius by 4π.
If the radius becomes twice, the surface area becomes 4 times.
Volume of a sphere is \(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\).
So, if the radius becomes twice, then the volume becomes 2³ = 8 times.

Question 3.
How many solid spheres of radius 1 cm can be formed by melting and recasting a solid metal sphere of radius 4 cm?
Answer:
Number of Spheres = \(\frac{\text { Volume of larger sphere }}{\text { Volume of smaller sphere }}\)
= \(\frac{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times 4^3}{\frac{4}{3} \pi \times 1^3}\)
= 64

Question 4.
Find the surface area of the sphere formed by joining two solid hemispheres of surface area 75π cm². What is the radius of the sphere? Find the volume.
Answer:
3πr² = 75π
⇒ r² = 25
⇒ r = 5 cm
Surface area of the sphere = 4π × 5² = 100π cm²
Volume of the sphere = \(\frac {4}{3}\) × π × 5³ = \(\frac{500 \pi}{3}\) cm³

Question 5.
What is the slant height of a cone of maximum size that can be carved out from a solid hemisphere of radius 12 cm? Find surface area and volume.
Answer:

Slant height = 12√2 cm
Surface area = π × 12² + π × 12 × 12√2 = 144π + 144√2π
Volume = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × π × 12² × 12
= 4 × 144π
= 576π cm³

Students rely on Geography Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 8 Towards Sustainability to help self-study at home.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Important Questions and Answers Towards Sustainability

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 8 Towards Sustainability Important Questions

Towards Sustainability Class 10 Important Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following best defines a resource?
a) Anything that is man-made and used for trade
b) Anything that satisfies human needs, occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and culturally acceptable
c) Anything found in nature without human use
d) Anything created only for industrial purposes
Answer:
b) Anything that satisfies human needs, occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and culturally acceptable

Question 2.
Identify the examples of Natural resources from the following.
A. Air, Water
B. Electricity. Machines
C. Soil, Sunlight
D. Vehicles, Buildings

a) A and C are correct
b) A and D are correct
c) B and D are correct
d) A and B are correct
Answer:
a) A and C are correct

Question 3.
Arrange the table suitably.

A. Biotic Resources	i. Minerals, Air
B. Abiotic Resources	ii. Humans, Plants
C. Renewable Resources	iii. It is formed over millions of years and whose reserves decrease with use.
D. Non- renewable Resources	iv. It is considered sustainable as long as they are not overused.

a) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
b) A – ii, B – i , C – iv, D – iii
c) A – iv , B – iii , C – ii, D – i
d) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
Answer:
b) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given assertion and reason.
Assertion: Based on the origin, resources are classified into two types: Biotic and Abiotic Resources.
Reason: Humans, Plants, and animals are examples of abiotic resources.
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
b) Both assertion and reason are correct
c) Both assertion and reason are wrong
d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
Answer:
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a basis for classifying resources?
a) Origin
b) Temperature
c) Renewability
d) Ownership
Answer:
b) Temperature

Question 6.
Define Stocks.
Answer:
Materials that can meet human needs but for which humans do not have the appropriate technology to utilize are called stocks.

Question 7.
What is natural resources?
Answer:
Natural resources are substances, objects, or forms of energy that are obtained from nature and are useful to humans.

Question 8.
Find the non-ferrous minerals from the following,
a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Gold
d) Nickel
Answer:
c) Gold

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Coal is widely used for generating electricity in thermal power plants.
Reason (R): Coal is rich in carbon and is a major source of heat energy when burnt.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Petroleum is called ‘black gold’.
Reason (R): Petroleum is a naturally occurring liquid mixture that is very valuable and used for various purposes like fuel, medicines, and waterproofing.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 11.
Which of the following is correct for non- conventional resources?
A. These resources get depleted and exhausted with use.
B. Eco-friendly
C. Availability is limited
D. Available in plenty

a. A and C are correct
b. A and B are correct
c. B and C are correct
d. C and D are correct
Answer:
a. A and C are correct

Question 12.
Arrange the following suitably.

A. Natural Gas	i. Non-conventional resources
B. Bio energy	ii. Mineral
C. Coal	iii. Conventional resources
D. Aluminum	iv. Fossil Fuel

A. A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
B. A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
C. A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
D. A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
Answer:
C. A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii

A. Natural Gas	iii. Conventional resources
B. Bio energy	i. Non-conventional resources
C. Coal	iv. Fossil Fuel
D. Aluminum	ii. Mineral

Question 13.
Based on their replenishment capacity or renewability, resources can be classified into two types. Which are they?
Answer:

1. Renewable Resources
2. Non-renewable Resources

Question 14.
Write examples for developed resources and Potential resources.
Answer:

1. Developed Resources: Coal mines, Petroleum wells, Irrigated agricultural land, etc.
2. Potential Resources: Rajasthan and Gujarat have a huge potential for generating energy from wind and solar power, but these sources are currently only marginally used for power generation.

Question 15.
Define Potential Resources and Developed Resources.
Answer:

1. Potential Resources are resources that are found in a region but are not yet fully utilised.
2. Developed Resources are resources whose quantity and quality have been surveyed, assessed, and adequate technology has been developed to utilise them efficiently.

Question 16.
Differentiate between Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources.
Answer:

1. Biotic Resources: Anything that is part of the biosphere and can be utilised by humans is referred to as a biotic resource.
2. Abiotic Resources: Resources that are made of non-living matter are called abiotic resources.

Question 17.
Complete the table by writing the name of the country by the leading producer of the given Mineral.

Mineral	Leading producer (Country)
Copper	…………. (a) ……………
Iron	…………….(b) ……………..

Answer:
a. Chile
b. Carajas mine (Brazil)

Question 18.
Define the terms energy source and write some examples of energy source.
Answer:
Any substance that can produce heat, move objects, or generate electricity is called an energy source. A substance that releases energy through a chemical process is known as a fuel.
Eg; Solar energy, Coal, Hydel power, petroleum.

Question 19.
a) What is meant by fossil fuel?
b) List the major fossil fuel?
Answer:
a) Fossil fuels belong to the category of non-renewable resources, but they are very important sources of energy. Fossil fuels are formed from the fossilized remains of ancient plants and animals.

b) Coal, petroleum

Question 20.
Write the year in which following report were submitted.
a. Brundtland Commission report: …………………….
b. Earth Summit: ………………………
Answer:
a. 1987
b. 1992

Question 21.
Define the term Sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. We can move forward by engaging in activities that aim to achieve the objectives of sustainable development, protect the Earth, and conserve resources for a better tomorrow.

Question 22.
Write any three examples for Man-made Natural Resources.
Answer:

1. Electricity
2. Vehicles
3. Machines

Question 23.
Write a note on Non-metallic minerals with its example.
Answer:
Non-metallic minerals generally do not have the metallic luster that is typical of metals. They are mined for various industrial purposes. These minerals are used either in their natural state, as raw materials after purification, or in combination with other minerals. Gypsum, limestone, kaolin, and graphite are some of the major non-metallic minerals.

Question 24.
Explain the importance and occurrence of minerals. How are natural resources classified based on their distribution? Give examples.
Answer:
Minerals are naturally occurring substances with definite chemical and physical properties, and they play an important role in people’s welfare, scientific progress, and a country’s economic growth.

They are typically chemical compounds, and many metallic elements can be profitably extracted from mineral-rich rocks known as ores.

Based on distribution, natural resources are classified into:

• Ubiquitous resources – found everywhere (e.g. air, solar energy, water)
• Localised resources – found only in specific areas (e.g. metal ores, fossil fuels)

Question 25.
Why is petroleum called as ‘rock oil’?
Answer:
Petroleum

• It is not known exactly when humans first began using petroleum. In ancient times, people considered the fire produced from natural gas seeping through surface pores to be sacred and worshiped it.
• Asphalt was used to waterproof boats and to regulate indoor temperatures during cold seasons.
• In ancient Egypt, it was also used in pyramid construction and for preserving mummies.
• As it originates from rocks, this fuel is called petroleum, meaning ‘rock oil’.
• The naturally occurring, complex liquid mixture called petroleum is also etymologically referred to as ‘black gold’.

With the Industrial Revolution, petroleum gained importance as it became a primary fuel for machines, replacing coal. Since petroleum became available from the Middle East at very low cost, it has significantly changed human life. Today, petroleum, which remains the primary source of energy, has a profound influence on human life.

• Naturally occurring petroleum is usually black or brown in colour, though it can also appear green or yellow.
• Crude petroleum, a mixture of various components obtained from the Earth, is sent to a refinery to be converted into fuel.
• Petrol, jet fuel, lubricants (used to reduce friction), asphalt, and many other products are extracted from crude oil.
• Thousands of products, including paints, medicines, synthetic fibers, fertilizers, and cosmetics, are produced from petroleum today.

All fossil fuels are nonrenewable energy sources – their reserves will diminish with use and eventually disappear from the Earth forever. Historical records indicate that coal was the first fossil fuel used in the world. It was commonly used as fuel in furnaces to extract metals from their ores. Petroleum began to be used for commercial purposes in the 19th century, and its usage has been rising ever since. Natural gas is another fossil fuel that is widely used today, especially in the domestic sector. If fossil fuels become scarce, all developmental activities will come to a standstill. The uncontrolled use of these non-renewable energy sources could lead to a major energy crisis in the future. It means we need to develop energy sources that can be regenerated. So we must rely bn non-conventional energy sources that are abundantly available and can last for a long time.

Question 26.
How is wind energy converted into electricity?
Answer:
The kinetic energy of the wind is used to produce electricity. The force of the wind spins the blades of a windmill, which is connected to a generator. As the windmill rotates, the generator produces electricity from the mechanical energy.

Question 27.
How is solar energy harnessed and used?
Answer:
The Sun is the primary source of energy, and various techniques are employed to convert solar rays into usable energy. Photovoltaic and solar thermal methods are the primary techniques for harnessing solar energy. The energy obtained is stored in photovoltaic cells and used for various purposes such as heating, lighting, and generating electricity.

Question 28.
Describe the distribution and importance of iron ore in the world.
Answer:
MINERAL RESOURCES

• Minerals are naturally occurring organic or inorganic substances with definite chemical and physical properties.
• They are chemical compounds in which atoms are arranged in a specific manner. Most minerals are
  formed by the combination of two or more elements, while only a few elements occur in their pure (elemental) state in nature.
• The welfare of the people, the development of science and technology, and the economic growth of a country depend, to some extent, on the availability of minerals.
  Natural resources are classified into two types based on their distribution: ubiquitous resources and localised resources. Ubiquitous resources are those found everywhere. Examples: air, solar energy, water etc. Localised resources are those found only in certain parts of the world. Examples: metal ores, fossil fuels, etc.

• The Earth is rich in rocks that contain many minerals with important metallic elements.
  Metallic elements can be extracted from these rocks at a relatively low cost. Ores are Earth materials from which one or more metals can be extracted profitably. A metal can be extracted from more than one type of ore. For example, iron can be extracted from minerals such as hematite and magnetite. Similarly, more than one metal can also be obtained from a single ore deposit. Our Earth is rich in a variety of metals.

The metals we commonly use and their important ores are given below:

When beneficial minerals found as natural occurrences in unusually high concentrations, they can be termed as mineral deposits.

Mineral Deposits
Iron

• Carajas Mine the largest iron ore mine in the world. This mine is located in Brazil, a country in South America.
• The largest reserves of iron ore are found in countries like Australia, Brazil, and Russia.
• India is also one of the major iron-producing countries in the world.
• Iron is a key component in the manufacturing of steel.
• About 98% of the iron ore mined worldwide is used to produce steel.
• Nearly 50 countries are involved in iron ore mining. Steel plays a crucial role in maintaining a strong industrial base.

Question 29.
Why is the conservation of natural resources important? Explain how it can be achieved.
Answer:
We depend on the Earth for all essential resources, but overuse due to population growth and high demand is depleting them rapidly. Natural resources are dwindling, and if this continues, future generations may face shortages. Conservation means protecting the Earth to maintain its self- regenerative capacity and using resources wisely without harming ecosystems or the global climate. To achieve this, we must develop renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, hydroelectric, and geothermal energy, while reducing the use of fossil fuels, which are limited and polluting.

Question 30.
Explain the uses and distribution of copper. Mention the importance of other useful metals.
Answer:
Early humans used copper for decoration and making tools and weapons. Today, copper is essential in the electrical industry, used for wires, motors, transformers, and generators. Chile is the world’s leading producer of copper, with major mines like Escondida and Collahuasi.
Other important metals include:

• Aluminium – used in wires, vehicles, aeroplanes, cans, and buildings.
• Manganese – important for metal processing and steel production.
• Lead – used in batteries and ceramics.
• Chromium – vital for making stainless steel.

Question 31.
Mention any four differences between conventional and non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:

Conventional (Non-renewable)	Non-Conventional (Renewable)
Limited supply, exhaustible	Available in abundance
Cause pollution	Eco-friendly, clean
Expensive to extract & maintain	Low maintenance cost
Examples: Coal, petroleum	Examples: Solar, wind, tidal

Question 32.
Explain geothermal energy and its importance as an alternative energy source.
Answer:

• Geothermal energy is produced from the heat inside the Earth.
• When magma erupts from the Earth’s interior, the released heat is stored and converted into electricity.
• Thermal energy can also be generated from hot water and steam that come out through geysers.
• It is a clean, renewable, and reliable source of energy, making it an important alternative to fossil fules.

Question 33.
Explain how the excessive use of non-renewable resources affects the environment and economy.
Answer:

• Overuse of non-renewable resources like coal and petroleum causes air, water, and soil pollution.
• It leads to climate change and the depletion of natural reserves.
• Extraction and transport are expensive, increasing economic burden.
• Their scarcity can lead to energy crises, affecting industries, transport, and daily life.
• Therefore, using renewable sources ensures sustainability and economic stability.

Question 34.
Describe coal and explain its formation, characteristics, and major uses.
Answer:
Coal

• Coal is generally the rock formations that originate from plant remains and has a high carbon content. These are carbon-rich sedimentary deposits found in black or brown colour.
• Coal is used as a fuel in metallurgy (the process of extracting metals from their ores and refining them for use).
• It is also used as a chemical raw material in the manufacturing of waxes, ointments, medicines, pesticides, and dyes.
• Coal is a major source of energy for thermal power generation.

Question 35.
Explain the various renewable energy sources and their uses.
Answer:
NON-CONVENTIONAL ENERGY SOURCES

Question 36.
How can resources be classified on the basis of their ownership?
Answer:
RESOURCES BASED ON OWNERSHIP
Resources can also be classified into different types based on their ownership.

Question 37.
How metals can be classified as Metallic and Non- metallic minerals.
Answer:
MINERAL RESOURCES

• Minerals are naturally occurring organic or inorganic substances with definite chemical and physical properties.
• They are chemical compounds in which atoms are arranged in a specific manner. Most minerals are
  formed by the combination of two or more elements, while only a few elements occur in their pure (elemental) state in nature.
• The welfare of the people, the development of science and technology, and the economic growth of a country depend, to some extent, on the availability of minerals.
  Natural resources are classified into two types based on their distribution: ubiquitous resources and localised resources. Ubiquitous resources are those found everywhere. Examples: air, solar energy, water etc. Localised resources are those found only in certain parts of the world. Examples: metal ores, fossil fuels, etc.

• The Earth is rich in rocks that contain many minerals with important metallic elements.
  Metallic elements can be extracted from these rocks at a relatively low cost. Ores are Earth materials from which one or more metals can be extracted profitably. A metal can be extracted from more than one type of ore. For example, iron can be extracted from minerals such as hematite and magnetite. Similarly, more than one metal can also be obtained from a single ore deposit. Our Earth is rich in a variety of metals.

The metals we commonly use and their important ores are given below:

When beneficial minerals found as natural occurrences in unusually high concentrations, they can be termed as mineral deposits.
Mineral Deposits
Iron

• Carajas Mine the largest iron ore mine in the world. This mine is located in Brazil, a country in South America.
• The largest reserves of iron ore are found in countries like Australia, Brazil, and Russia.
• India is also one of the major iron-producing countries in the world.
• Iron is a key component in the manufacturing of steel.
• About 98% of the iron ore mined worldwide is used to produce steel.
• Nearly 50 countries are involved in iron ore mining. Steel plays a crucial role in maintaining a strong industrial base.

Copper

• Copper was often found in a relatively pure state in nature; it was easy to extract and use.
• Early humans used copper for decorative purposes and for making tools and weapons.
• Today, copper has become an indispensable metal in the electrical industry, as it is used in making wires, electric motors, transformers, and generators.
• Chile is the world’s leading producer of copper.

In addition to iron and copper, there are many other metals that are very useful to humans. Aluminium is used for making electrical wires, motor vehicles, airplanes, cans, and buildings. Manganese is indispensable in metal processing and steel production. Lead is used in making batteries and ceramic products. Chromium is important for the production of stainless steel.

Non-metallic minerals: It is generally do not have the metallic luster that is typical of metals. They are mined for various industrial purposes. These minerals are used either in their natural state, as raw materials after purification, or in combination with other minerals. Gypsum, limestone, kaolin, and graphite are some of the major non-metallic minerals.

Students often refer to SCERT Class 10 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus and Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Towards Sustainability Notes Questions and Answers English Medium that include all exercises in the prescribed syllabus.

SSLC Geography Chapter 8 Notes Pdf English Medium Towards Sustainability

SCERT Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 8 Towards Sustainability Notes Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Notes Kerala Syllabus Towards Sustainability

Question 1.
Categorize and list the resources you are familiar with into natural and man-made resources.

Answer:

Natural Resources	Man-made Natural Resources
Air, Water, Soil, Sunlight	Electricity, Machines and tools, Vehicles, Buildings

Question 2.
Classify the resources given below into individual, community, and national resources. Add more examples to expand the list.
School, National highway, Railway, Worship places, Farms and Houses.
Expand the chart by adding additional information with the help of information technology, and display it in the classroom.
Answer:

Individual Resources	Community Resources	National Resources
Farms, Houses, Vehicles, Personal gadgets	School, Worship Places, Parks and playgrounds, Community halls, Libraries	National highway, Railway, Dams and rivers, Airports and seaports

Question 3.
a) Who is responsible for protecting community and national resources?
b) How can we protect such resources?
Answer:
a) Community Resources: Protected and managed by local communities with the help of Panchayats, Municipalities, and Local Authorities.

National Resources: Owned and protected by the Government of India (through laws, policies, and agencies such as the Forest Department, Indian Railways, National Highway Authority, etc.),

b) Community Resources:

• Participate in community awareness campaigns.
• Share resources fairly without overuse.
• Report damage or misuse to local authorities.

National Resources

• Follow rules while using public transport and highways.
• Avoid wastage of electricity, water, and fuel.
• Plant trees and protect forests and wildlife.
• Support government conservation programs

Question 4.
Is petroleum a developed resource?
Answer:
Yes

Question 5.
There are many energy sources in nature that we may be able to utilize in the future. With the help of information technology, find out what they are and prepare a note on them.
Answer:
There are many energy sources in nature that have the potential to be used more efficiently in the future. Solar energy can be harnessed using advanced technologies like solar paints, flexible solar panels, and concentrated solar power, providing large-scale electricity. Wind energy from offshore and high-altitude wind turbines can capture stronger and more consistent winds. Ocean energy, including tidal energy, wave energy, and ocean thermal energy conversion, can generate electricity from the movement and temperature differences of seawater. Geothermal energy uses heat from deep within the Earth for electricity and heating, while hydrogen fuel produced from water using renewable energy can power vehicles and industries. Biomass and biofuels, including algae-based fuels, offer renewable energy while managing waste. Future technologies like nuclear fusion could provide nearly limitless clean energy, and space-based solar power could collect sunlight in space and transmit it to Earth continuously. These energy sources, researched and developed with the help of information technology, offer sustainable solutions for meeting the growing energy demands of the future.

Question 6.
Hold a classroom discussion on the importance of minerals in our daily life. Summarise the findings and prepare a table.

Answer:

Minerals	Uses
Iron	Used in construction, machinery, tods, vehicles.
Manganese	Used in making steel and batteries.
Copper	Used in electrical wires, coins, utensils.
Aluminum	Used in aircraft, automobiles, packaging (foil, cans).
Gold & Silver	Used in jewellery, coins, electronics.

Question 7.
Are all mineral-rich areas considered deposits?
Answer:
Not all mineral-rich areas are considered deposits. A mineral-rich area becomes a deposit only when the minerals are found in sufficient concentration and quantity, can be extracted profitably, and the required technology is available. Otherwise, it is just a mineral occurrence, not a deposit.

Question 8.
a) Observe the map below and identify the distribution of iron ore across the world.
b) Using the map and an atlas, identify other countries that have iron ore deposits and list them

Answer:
a.

• North America: United States of America (USA), Canada
• South America: Brazil, Venezuela
• Europe: France, Germany, Sweden, Ukraine, Russia, United Kingdom
• Africa: South Africa, Liberia, Algeria
• Asia: India, China, Kazakhstan
• Australia: Australia

b. Other countries

• Mexico
• Spain
• Iran
• Mongolia
• Malaysia

Question 9.
Mark the distribution of iron on an outline map of the world and include it in My Own Atlas.
Answer:

Question 10.
a. Identify the distribution of copper in the world. Mark the major copper-producing regions on an outline map of the world and include it in My Own Atlas.
b. Find the location of Chile in the Atlas.
c. Prepare a list of countries that are leading in copper production. Find out the speciality of the Collahuasi Copper Mine, also.
Answer:
a.
b.

c. Leading Copper-Producing Countries

• Chile
• Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
• Peru
• China
• United States
• Russia
• Australia
• Zambia

Collahuasi Mine (Chile):

• One of the world’s largest copper mines.
• Produces copper and molybdenum concentrates.
• Located at high altitude (4,500 m) in northern Chile.
• Joint venture: Anglo American & Glencore (44% each), Mitsui (12%).
• Uses modern, sustainable mining techniques.

Question 11.
Examine the table given below and find out which is the main ore of the metal, aluminium.

Answer:
Bauxite is the main ore of Aluminium.

Question 12.
Mark the distribution of bauxite on an outline map of the world and include it in ‘My Own Atlas’.
Answer:

Question 13.
Identify the distribution of the world’s major non-metallic minerals using information technology. Mark their distribution on an outline map of the world and include it in My Own Atlas.
Answer:
a.

Mineral	Major Producing Countries
Limestone	China, USA, India, Brazil, Germany
Gypsum	USA, Iran, China, Thailand, Spain
Phosphate	Morocco, USA, China, Jordan, Russia
Potash	Canada, Russia, Belarus, China, Germany
Sulfur	USA, China, Canada, Russia, Saudi Arabia
Salt	China, USA, India, Germany, Australia

b. (Hints: Mark these given countries in the world map.)

Question 14.
List the energy sources you are familiar with.
Answer:

• Solar Energy
• Hydel (Hydroelectric) Power
• Biofuel energy
• Coal
• Petroleum

Question 15.
When do energy sources become resources?
Answer:
Energy sources become resources when they are harnessed, accessed, and utilized by humans to fulfill needs for sustenance, economic activity, or cultural requirements, provided they are technologically accessible, economically feasible, and culturally acceptable. The transformation from a mere form of energy to a usable resource depends on the application of human technology and effort to convert raw natural materials or phenomena into forms that can be consumed.

Question 16.
Complete the table by classifying the energy resources given below into two categories:
Solar energy, hydroelectricity, coal, petroleum, tidal energy, geothermal energy, wind, natural gas, nuclear energy, bioenergy

Answer:

Energy resources
Non-Renewable resources/Conventional resources	Renewable resources/Non-conventional resources
• Natural Gas	• Geothermal energy
• Coal	• Solar energy
• Petroleum	• Hydroelectricity
• Nuclear energy	• Tidal energy
	• Wind
	• Bio energy

Question 17.
The characteristics of both conventional and non- conventional energy resources are given in the table. Complete it.

Answer:

Non-Renewable resources/ Conventional resources	Renewable resources/ Non-conventional resources
■ These resources get depleted and exhausted with use.	■ Available in plenty
■ They cause pollution.	■ Eco-friendly
■ Very expensive to maintain, extract, and transport	■ Usually pollution-free
■ Availability is limited	■ Can be reused or naturally replenished.

Question 18.
List the major fossil fuels.
Answer:

1. Coal,
2. Petroleum (oil),
3. Natural gas.

Question 19.
a) Mark the distribution of coal deposits on a world outline map and include it in My Own Atlas,
b) Using information technology, find out which country has the largest coal reserves in the world.
Answer:
a)

b) The United States has the largest proven coal reserves in the world, holding the most economically extractable coal among all nations. Other countries with significant coal reserves include Russia, Australia, and China.

Question 20.
Prepare a note on the importance of petroleum based on the indicators given below.
• Domestic need
• Petrochemical industry
• Fertilizers
• Artificial fiber, drugs (Medicines)
Answer:
• Domestic Need: Used as fuel for cooking, heating, and transportation.
• Petrochemical Industry: Raw material for making plastics, synthetic rubber, and other chemicals.
• Fertilisers: Help produce chemical fertilisers to increase crop yield.
• Artificial Fibers & Drags: Used to make synthetic fabrics (like nylon) and some medicines.

Question 21.
Identify the regions where petroleum deposits are found in the world. Mark these regions on the outline map of the world and include it in My Own Atlas.
Answer:

• Gulf of Mexico (USA)
• Alaska
• Venezuela
• North Sea (near UK and Norway)
• North Africa (Libya, Algeria)
• West Africa (Nigeria)
• Middle East (Saudi Arabia, Iraq. Iran. Kuwait. UAE)
• Kazakhstan
• India’s west coast
• China (east and northeast)
• Western Canada
• Brazil (offshore)

Question 22.
Hold a classroom discussion on the topic, ‘Uncontrolled Consumption of Fossil Fuels and the Energy Crisis’, and prepare a note on it.
Answer:
Uncontrolled Use: Excessive burning of fossil fuels like coal, petroleum, and natural gas. Consequences:

• Causes air pollution and global warming.
• Non-renewable resources get exhausted quickly.
• Leads to higher energy costs and a shortage of fuels.

Energy Crisis: Occurs when the demand for energy exceeds the supply, affecting homes, transportation, and industries.

Solution:

• Use renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydro.
• Promote energy conservation and efficient use.

Conclusion: Wise use of energy and a shift to renewable sources are essential to prevent an energy crisis and protect the environment.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 8 Notes Kerala Syllabus – Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a project on the utilisation of resources in your area and present your findings in class.
Answer:
(Hints)

1. Step 1: Introduction
   • Explain about resources and why their utilisation is important.
2. Step 2: Identify Local Resources (land, water, forest, minerals)
3. Step 3: List the Utilisation of Resources Describe how each resource is used:
   • Land – for farming, houses, roads.
   • Water – for drinking, irrigation, industries.
   • Lorest/trees – for fuel, fruits.
4. • Step 4: Sustainable Use and Conservation
   • Are people using the resources wisely or ovenising them?
   • Mention conservation practices, if any (rainwater harvesting, afforestation etc.)
5. Step 5: Analyze the Problems (electricity cuts, drinking water scarcity. Pollution)
6. Step 6: Suggestions/Conclusion
   • Summarize your findings.
   • Highlight the importance of careful use of resources for future generations.

Question 2.
Deliver a speech on the topic: “The Role of Children in Sustainable Development.”
Answer:
(Model)
Good morning respected teachers and friends,

Today I am hereto speak on the topic “The Role of Children in Sustainable Development.”
Sustainable development means using the Earth’s resources carefully so that both present and future generations can live happily. Children play a crucial role in this because they are the future caretakers of our planet.

We can help by conserving water and electricity, planting trees, reducing plastic use, and maintaining a clean environment. We should also follow the 3Rs—reduce, reuse, and recycle. Small actions like these make a big difference.

If every child develops these habits, we can build a greener and safer world for tomorrow.

Thank you.

Question 3.
Visit houses or units in your locality that generate electricity from solar energy. Observe the purposes for which solar energy is used.
Answer:
(Hints: Visit houses in your locality and find the purposes for which solar energy is used)
Eg: Lighting, Fans and Small Appliances, Water Heating, Pumping Water, etc.

Towards Sustainability Class 10 Notes Pdf

• A resource is anything that satisfies human needs and occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and culturally acceptable.
• Humans can be considered as resources because they create and develop resources using their abilities, skills, and technology.
• Resources can be classified into two categories: Natural resources and Man-Made resources.
• Resources can also be classified into different categories based on their origin, renewability, ownership, and state of development.
• Based on the origin, resources are classified into two types: Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources.
• Based on their replenishment capacity or renewability, resources can be classified into two types: Renewable resources and Non-renewable resources.
• Resources can also be classified into different types based on their ownership: Personal resources, Community resources, National resources and International resources.
• Based on the state of development, resources can be classified into Potential resources and Developed resources.
• Materials that can meet human needs but for which humans do not have the appropriate technology to utilize are called stocks.
• Natural resources are substances, objects, or forms of energy that are obtained from nature and are useful to humans.
• Natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, plants, animals, fossil fuels, and more. We
  depend on these resources to meet our domestic, agricultural, industrial, and energy needs.
• Natural resources such as mineral resources and energy resources are indispensable to human life.
• Minerals are naturally occurring organic or inorganic substances with definite chemical and physical properties.
• The Earth is rich in rocks that contain many minerals with important metaliic elements.
• Any substance that can produce heat, move objects, or generate electricity is called an energy source.
• Fossil fuels are formed from the fossilized remains of ancient plants and animals.
• All fossil fuels are nonrenewable energy sources.
• Carajas Mine the largest iron ore mine in the world. This mine is located in Brazil, a country in South America.
• Copper was often found in a relatively pure state in nature; it was easy to extract and use.
• Gypsum, limestone, kaolin, and graphite are some of the major non-metallic minerals.
• Energy Conservation Day – December 14
• Resource conservation means the careful use of resources. Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• The Brundtland Report, also known as Our Common Future, was the first to propose the concept of sustainable development.

INTRODUCTION

This chapter “Towards Sustainability” focuses on the importance of using resources wisely to meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It explores the concept of resources and their various types, including natural resources like air, water, soil, minerals, forests, and wildlife, as well as man-made resources. The chapter also emphasizes the need for energy conservation and the sustainable use of both renewable and non-renewable resources. By understanding how resources are classified, utilized, and preserved, we can take practical steps towards creating a sustainable environment that supports life on Earth in a balanced and responsible way.

Resources

• A resource is anything that satisfies human needs and occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and culturally acceptable.
• Based on the origin, resources are classified into two types: Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources.
• Based on their replenishment capacity or renewability, resources can be classified into two types: Renewable resources and Nonrenewable resources.
• Resources can also be classified into different types based on their ownership: Personal resources, Community resources, National resources and International resources.
• Based on the state of development, resources can be classified into Potential resources and Developed resources.

Natural resources

• Natural resources are substances, objects, or forms of energy that are obtained from nature and are useful to humans.
• They are valuable resources available in their natural state and are not created by humans.
• Natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, plants, animals, fossil fuels, and more.
  We depend on these resources to meet our domestic, agricultural, industrial, and energy needs.
• Natural resources such as mineral resources and energy resources are indispensable to human life.
• Minerals are naturally occurring organic or inorganic substances with definite chemical and physical properties.
• The Earth is rich in rocks that contain many minerals with important metallic elements.
• When beneficial minerals found as natural occurrences in unusually high concentrations, they can be termed as mineral deposits.
• Any substance that can produce heat, move objects, or generate electricity is called an energy source.
• Fossil fuels are formed from the fossilized remains of ancient plants and animals.
• All fossil fuels are nonrenewable energy sources.

Energy conservation

• Energy Conservation Day – December 14
• The increasing population and growing demand for resources, we are alarmingly exploiting the Earth’s systems.
• Resource conservation means the careful use of resources. It refers to the sum total of all activities that ensure the availability of natural resources while minimizing excessive consumption that leads to their depletion. Herein lies the relevance of sustainable development.
• Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• The Brundtland Report, also known as Our Common Future, was the first to propose the concept of sustainable development.

RESOURCES
• A resource is anything that satisfies human needs and occurs naturally, is technologically feasible, and culturally acceptable.

The sustenance of life on Earth depends on a variety of resources. Resources are also formed as a result of human efforts. Therefore, humans are an essential element in the formation of resources. We convert the materials available in our environment into resources and use them to meet our needs. Humans can be considered as resources because they create and develop resources using their abilities, skills, and technology.

Resources can be classified into two categories: Natural resources and Man-Made resources. Resources can also be classified into different categories based on their origin, renewability, ownership, and state of development.

BIOTIC RESOURCES AND ABIOTIC RESOURCES
Based on the origin, resources are classified into two types: Biotic Resources and Abiotic Resources.

• Anything that is part of the biosphere and can be used by humans is called a biotic resource. Humans, plants, and animals are examples of biotic resources.
• Resources that are made of non-living matter are called abiotic resources. Minerals, Water, Air, Soil etc are examples of abiotic resources.

RENEWABLE RESOURCES AND NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES
Based on their replenishment capacity or renewability, resources can be classified into two types: Renewable resources and Non-renewable resources.

Renewable Resources
These are resources that are continuously produced or replenished in nature through physical or chemical processes. Many of them do not diminish after use and can be reused. These resources are considered sustainable as long as they are-not overused. Most renewable resources are readily available to humans. Eg: Sunlight, Wind, Geothermal heat, Biomass, Waves, Ocean currents

Non-renewable resources
The air we breathe and sunlight are available in unlimited quantities. Non-renewable resources are those that have been formed over millions of years and whose reserves decrease with use. Some of these, like metals, can be reused, but others, like fossil fuels, deplete with use and cannot be reused. Eg: Minerals, Fossil fuels (Coal, Petroleum), Natural gas, Nuclear fuels (uranium, thorium)

RESOURCES BASED ON OWNERSHIP
Resources can also be classified into different types based on their ownership.

POTENTIAL RESOURCES AND DEVELOPED RESOURCES
Based on the state of development, resources can be classified into Potential resources and Developed resources

• Potential Resources are resources that are found in a region but are not yet fully utilized.
  For example, Rajasthan and Gujarat have a huge potential fdr generating energy from wind and solar power, but these sources are currently only marginally used for power generation.
• Developed Resources are resources whose quantity and quality have been surveyed, assessed, and adequate technology has been developed to utilize them efficiently. Development of resources depends on technology and their potential.
  Eg: Coal mines, Petroleum wells, Irrigated agricultural land, etc.
• Materials that can meet human needs but for which humans do not have the appropriate technology to utilize are called stocks.
• Hydrogen can be utilized as a rich source of energy, but we have not yet developed the advanced technology to use it as a resource today. There are many energy sources in nature that we may be able to utilize in the future.

NATURAL RESOURCES

• Natural resources are substances, objects, or forms of energy that are obtained from nature and are useful to humans.
• They are valuable resources available in their natural state and are not created by humans.
• Natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, plants, animals, fossil fuels, and more. We depend on these resources to meet our domestic, agricultural, industrial, and energy needs.
• Natural resources such as mineral resources and energy resources are indispensable to human life.

Resources that can be exploited with the help of existing technology, but whose use has not yet begun and may be utilized later to meet future needs, are called reserves.

MINERAL RESOURCES

• Minerals are naturally occurring organic or inorganic substances with definite chemical and physical properties.
• They are chemical compounds in which atoms are arranged in a specific manner. Most minerals are
  formed by the combination of two or more elements, while only a few elements occur in their pure (elemental) state in nature.
• The welfare of the people, the development of science and technology, and the economic growth of a country depend, to some extent, on the availability of minerals.
  Natural resources are classified into two types based on their distribution: ubiquitous resources and localised resources. Ubiquitous resources are those found everywhere. Examples: air, solar energy, water etc. Localised resources are those found only in certain parts of the world. Examples: metal ores, fossil fuels, etc.

• The Earth is rich in rocks that contain many minerals with important metallic elements.
  Metallic elements can be extracted from these rocks at a relatively low cost. Ores are Earth materials from which one or more metals can be extracted profitably. A metal can be extracted from more than one type of ore. For example, iron can be extracted from minerals such as hematite and magnetite. Similarly, more than one metal can also be obtained from a single ore deposit. Our Earth is rich in a variety of metals.

The metals we commonly use and their important ores are given below:

When beneficial minerals found as natural occurrences in unusually high concentrations, they can be termed as mineral deposits.
Mineral Deposits
Iron

• Carajas Mine the largest iron ore mine in the world. This mine is located in Brazil, a country in South America.
• The largest reserves of iron ore are found in countries like Australia, Brazil, and Russia.
• India is also one of the major iron-producing countries in the world.
• Iron is a key component in the manufacturing of steel.
• About 98% of the iron ore mined worldwide is used to produce steel.
• Nearly 50 countries are involved in iron ore mining. Steel plays a crucial role in maintaining a strong industrial base.

Copper

• Copper was often found in a relatively pure state in nature; it was easy to extract and use.
• Early humans used copper for decorative purposes and for making tools and weapons.
• Today, copper has become an indispensable metal in the electrical industry, as it is used in making wires, electric motors, transformers, and generators.
• Chile is the world’s leading producer of copper.

In addition to iron and copper, there are many other metals that are very useful to humans. Aluminium is used for making electrical wires, motor vehicles, airplanes, cans, and buildings. Manganese is indispensable in metal processing and steel production. Lead is used in making batteries and ceramic products. Chromium is important for the production of stainless steel.

Non-metallic minerals: It is generally do not have the metallic luster that is typical of metals. They are mined for various industrial purposes. These minerals are used either in their natural state, as raw materials after purification, or in combination with other minerals. Gypsum, limestone, kaolin, and graphite are some of the major non-metallic minerals.

ENERGY RESOURCES

• Any substance, that can produce heat, move objects, or generate electricity is called an energy source.
• A substance that releases energy through a chemical process is known as a fuel.
• The earth has provided humankind with plenty of energy resources. Humans rely on these resources for food production, transportation, healthcare, and almost every sector of human activity.

Fossil fuels
It belongs to the category of non-renewable resources, but they are very important sources of energy. Fossil , fuels are formed from the fossilized remains of ancient plants and animals.

Coal

• Coal is generally the rock formations that originate from plant remains and has a high carbon content. These are carbon-rich sedimentary deposits found in black or brown colour.
• Coal is used as a fuel in metallurgy (the process of extracting metals from their ores and refining them for use).
• It is also used as a chemical raw material in the manufacturing of waxes, ointments, medicines, pesticides, and dyes.
• Coal is a major source of energy for thermal power generation.

Petroleum

• It is not known exactly when humans first began using petroleum. In ancient times, people considered the fire produced from natural gas seeping through surface pores to be sacred and worshiped it.
• Asphalt was used to waterproof boats and to regulate indoor temperatures during cold seasons.
• In ancient Egypt, it was also used in pyramid construction and for preserving mummies.
• As it originates from rocks, this fuel is called petroleum, meaning ‘rock oil’.
• The naturally occurring, complex liquid mixture called petroleum is also etymologically referred to as ‘black gold’.

With the Industrial Revolution, petroleum gained importance as it became a primary fuel for machines, replacing coal. Since petroleum became available from the Middle East at very low cost, it has significantly changed human life. Today, petroleum, which remains the primary source of energy, has a profound influence on human life.

• Naturally occurring petroleum is usually black or brown in colour, though it can also appear green or yellow.
• Crude petroleum, a mixture of various components obtained from the Earth, is sent to a refinery to be converted into fuel.
• Petrol, jet fuel, lubricants (used to reduce friction), asphalt, and many other products are extracted from crude oil.
• Thousands of products, including paints, medicines, synthetic fibers, fertilizers, and cosmetics, are produced from petroleum today.

All fossil fuels are nonrenewable energy sources – their reserves will diminish with use and eventually disappear from the Earth forever. Historical records indicate that coal was the first fossil fuel used in the world. It was commonly used as fuel in furnaces to extract metals from their ores. Petroleum began to be used for commercial purposes in the 19th century, and its usage has been rising ever since. Natural gas is another fossil fuel that is widely used today, especially in the domestic sector. If fossil fuels become scarce, all developmental activities will come to a standstill. The uncontrolled use of these non-renewable energy sources could lead to a major energy crisis in the future. It means we need to develop energy sources that can be regenerated. So we must rely bn non-conventional energy sources that are abundantly available and can last for a long time.

NON-CONVENTIONAL ENERGY SOURCES

ENERGY CONSERVATION

• We need to protect the Earth as a safe haven for the very existence of life.
• Energy Conservation Day – December 14
• The increasing population and growing demand for resources, we are alarmingly exploiting the Earth’s systems.

Natural resources are gradually dwindling, and a time may come when they will no longer be available to future generations. Therefore, it is essential to maintain a balance between resource consumption and development. This brings us to the idea of conserving natural resources. In a broad sense, conservation of natural resources means protecting the Earth itself so that it can retain its self-regenerative capacity.

Utilising natural resources without harming the ecosystem or affecting the global climate is essential for human survival. We must develop energy sources such as solar energy, wind energy, hydroelectricity, and geothermal energy, simultaneously reducing the use of fossil fuels, which are scarce, costly to replenish, and have adverse environmental impacts.

• Resource conservation means the careful use of resources.
• It refers to the sum total of all activities that ensure the availability of natural resources while minimizing excessive consumption that leads to their depletion. Herein lies the relevance of sustainable development.

Sustainable development
■ Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

We can move forward by engaging in activities that aim to achieve the objectives of sustainable development, protect the Earth, and conserve resources for a better tomorrow.

It was the Brundtland Commission Report of 1987 that made a significant contribution to resource conservation at the global level. The Brundtland Report, also known as Our Common Future, was the first to propose the concept of sustainable development.

Students rely on Geography Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 7 Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation to help self-study at home.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Important Questions and Answers Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation Important Questions

Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation Class 10 Important Questions

Question 1.
Assertion (A): M. Visvesvaraya is considered the Father of Indian economic planning.
Reason (R): He prepared a plan in 1934 titled “The Planned Economy of India”, which
emphasized systematic economic development through state intervention.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Who developed the Human Development Index?
a) World Bank
b) United Nations
c) NITI Aayog
d) IMF
Answer:
b) United Nations

Question 3.
Which factor is NOT included in HDI?
a) Life expectancy
b) Literacy and school enrollment
c) Per capita income
d) Infant mortality
Answer:
d) Infant mortality

Question 4.
Who developed PQLI?
a) Amartya Sen
b) Morris David Morris
c) Mahbub ul Haq
d) Gunnar Myrdal
Answer:
b) Morris David Morris

Question 5.
Which of the following is included in PQLI?
a) GDP per capita
b) Life Expectancy
c) Per capita income
d) National income
Answer:
b) Life Expectancy

Question 6.
The SDGs were adopted by the UN in the year:
a) 2010
b) 2012
c) 2015
d) 2018
Answer:
c) 2015

Question 7.
In India, SDGI is prepared by NITI Aayog in collaboration with:
a) World Bank
b) IMF
c) United Nations
d) UNESCO
Answer:
c) United Nations

Question 8.
Find out the correct pairs.

Score	Category
a. 0 – 49	Achiever
b. 50 – 64	Aspirant
c. 65 – 99	Front Runner
d. 100	Performer

a) only a is correct
b) a and b are correct
c) only c is correct
d) a and c are correct
Answer:
Only c is correct

Question 9.
Find out the correct pairs.

Change	Type
a. Increase in GDP	Economic Growth
b. Better living standards	Economic Development
c. Quantitative Change	Economic Growth
d. Qualitative Change	Economic Development

a) a and b are correct
b) a, c and d are correct
c) b, c and d are correct
d) a, b, c and d are correct
Answer:
d) a, b, c and d are correct.

Question 10.
Arrange the table connected with SDG

a. Economic goals	i. Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions (SDG 16)
b. Environmental goals	ii. Affordable and Clean Energy (SDG 7)
c. Social goals	iii. Life on land (SDG 15)

a) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
b) a – iii, b – i, c – ii
c) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
d) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
Answer:
a – ii, b – iii, c – i

a. Economic goals	ii. Affordable and Clean Energy (SDG 7)
b. Environmental goals	iii. Life on land (SDG 15)
c. Social goals	i. Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions (SDG 16)

Question 11.
Write the year in which plan belongs to:
a. Gandhian Plan: ……………………..
b. People’s plan: ………………………..
Answer:
a. 1944
b. 1945

Question 12.
What are the major objectives of planning?
Answer:
Equity, Modernisation, Growth, Self-reliance

Question 13.
Complete the table related to its category of income.

PCI in US Dollar	Category
Less than 1145	(a)
1146 To 4515	(b)

Answer:
(a) Low income
(b) Low middle income

Question 14.
Write the year in which the following initiatives were launched:
a. Kerala Startup Mission (KSUM): …………………
b. Kerala Development and Innovation Strategy Council (K-DISC): …………………….
Answer:
a. 2006
b. 2018

Question 15.
Explain any two ways in which the Knowledge Economy is transforming the agriculture and industry sectors in India.
Answer:
Agriculture: Use of Agri Tech like sensors and drones helps farmers decide when to water and – fertilize crops, improving yields, reducing costs, and increasing income.

Industry: Industry 4.0 uses computers, automation, and the Internet to make factories more efficient, produce better-quality goods, reduce wastage, and create diversified jobs.

Question 16.
How economic growth is different from economic development.
Answer:
Economic growth is the increase in a country’s Gross Domestic Product compared to the previous year.

Economic development is the process of improving the standard of living and economic well-being of people through growth in income, education, and infrastructure.

Question 17.
Write the objectives of Economic activities.
Answer:

1. Increase in infrastructure
2. Better employment opportunities
3. Increased income and purchasing power
4. Higher quality of life

Question 18.
What is the difference between Per Capita Income (PCI) and Personal Income (PI)?
Answer:
PCI is the average income of people in a country, used to compare economic growth, while PI is the actual income of an individual. The two are usually different.

Question 19.
Name the three components used to calculate the Human Development Index (HDI) and explain what the HDI measures.
Answer:

• HDI measures the level of human development and economic progress in a country.
• It is calculated using life expectancy, literacy and school enrollment rates, and per capita income.

Question 20.
Give two examples each of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) related to economic, social, and environmental goals.
Answer:

• Economic goals: Affordable and Clean Energy (SDG 7), Decent Work and Economic Growth (SDG 8)
• Social goal§: No Poverty (SDG 1), Quality Education (SDG 4)
• Environmental goals: Climate Action (SDG 13), Life on Land (SDG 15)

Question 21.
Explain the Kerala Model of Development and the objectives of the Nava Kerala Mission.
Answer:
The Kerala Model of Development focuses on high literacy, low infant mortality, and improved life expectancy through land reforms, public health and education, social security schemes, and public participation. The Nava Kerala Mission, launched in 2016, aims at holistic development through four main missions: Aardram (health), Life (housing),’ Vidhyakiranam (education), and Haritha Keralam (environment). Its main goal is to improve people’s lives by addressing key issues in these areas. Nava Kerala Mission-2, started in 2021, seeks to promote economic and social progress while tackling new challenges.

Question 22.
What is economic planning, and why did India adopt it after independence?
Answer:
Economic planning is the preparation made to achieve the main economic goals of a society by using available resources efficiently. India adopted a mixed economy after independence to rebuild and develop the economy, which was fragmented during British rule. Planning helped in outlining how the country’s resources should be used to achieve common national goals.

Question 23.
What were the main factors that led to the Economic Reforms in India in 1991?
Answer:
The Economic Reforms of 1991 were triggered by a severe economic crisis in India, including a high fiscal deficit and low foreign exchange reserves. Other factors included inefficiency in the public sector, changes in the world market, and the impact of the 1990 Gulf War. Additionally, India was influenced by the economic growth of East Asian countries and the conditions imposed by the World Bank and IMF.

Question 24.
What is privatization and disinvestment? Name the four main types of disinvestments.
Answer:
Privatization is the process of reducing the role of the public sector and giving more opportunities to the private sector. Disinvestment is the sale of the government’s investment in public sector enterprises to the private sector. The four main types of disinvestments are: Wholesale (entire sale), Share sale (partial sale of shares), Capital sale (selling government capital in non-essential sectors), and Strategic sale (selling shares to a selected – partner).

Question 25.
What is a knowledge Economy, and what are its main characteristics?
Answer:
A Knowledge Economy is an economic system that depends on knowledge, information, and innovative ideas for production, distribution, and growth. In this economy, human resources play a key role because skilled people use technology and knowledge effectively. Its main characteristics include continuous research and innovation, development of new products and services, and the use of advanced skills and technology to improve efficiency and economic progress.

Question 26.
What is the Sustainable Development Goals Index (SDGI) and how is it implemented in India?
Answer:
The Sustainable Development Goals Index (SDGI) measures the efforts of countries to achieve the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted in 2015. It is a comprehensive
index that assesses progress across economic, social, and environmental sectors. In India, the SDG India Index is prepared by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations. Launched in 2018, it evaluates the performance of all states and union territories across all 17 SDGs to track development progress and identify areas needing improvement.

Question 27.
Briefly explain the history of planning in India before independence and the role of the Planning Commission.
Answer:
Planning in India started even before independence, as thinkers and leaders realised the need for \ organised economic development. Early initiatives included the Ten-Year Plan (1934) by JRD Tata, the Gandhian Plan (1944) focusing on village-based development, and the People’s Plan (1945) proposed by MN Roy. The National Planning Committee was set up in 1938 under M. Visvesvarayya to prepare strategies for industrialization and economic growth. After independence, the Planning Commission was established in 1950 under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to design and implement national plans, ensuring efficient use of resources and achieving the country’s economic and social goals.

Question 28.
Write the major 4 objectives of economic planning.
Answer:

Question 29.
As an indicator of economic growth, per capita income has certain shortcomings, which are they?
Answer:

• It is only an average income.
• Information about the distribution and inequality of wealth is not reflected in the income index.
• Since per capita income is calculated on the basis of national income, the limitations of calculating national income also affect per capita income.
• Factors that enhance the quality of life are not included in the scope of the PCI index.

Question 30.
Explain the objectives and main features of the Nava Kerala Mission.
Answer:
The Nava Kerala Mission, launched in 2016, is an action plan aimed at holistic development in Kerala. It includes four main missions: Aardram Mission (health), Life Mission (housing), Vidhyakiranam (education), and Haritha Keralam Mission (water conservation, waste management, and organic farming). Its main objective is to improve people’s lives by addressing key issues in these areas. From 2021, Nava Kerala Mission-2 includes the Rebuild Kerala Initiative and aims to promote economic and social progress while addressing new challenges and ensuring the benefits of development reach all sections of society.

Question 31.
Write the major objectives of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

• To create a vision for India’s development priorities and plans.
• To promote sustainable development and inclusive growth.
• To promote economic growth through innovation, entrepreneurship, and job creation.
• To collaborate with international organizations and countries to leverage global diversity and resources.
• To develop and implement strategic and long-term policies and programs.

Question 32.
Write the main goals of reforms.
Answer:

• To liberalize the Indian economy and open it to the world economy
• To deregulate the private sector
• To reduce the government regulation in various sectors
• To remove the trade restrictions with foreign countries.

Question 33.
Write a note about LPG programmes.
Answer:
LIBERALIZATION: Liberalization is a policy change that gives a country’s economy more freedom by relaxing restrictions imposed on various sectors to promote economic growth and development.
The main areas where liberalisation has been implemented are as follows:

• Industrial sector reforms
• Financial sector reforms
• Tax reforms
• Foreign exchange reforms
• Foreign trade sector reforms

PRIVATIZATION: Privatization is the process of reducing the role of the public sector and providing more opportunities for the private sector.

• Disinvestment is the most important of the privatisation processes and is implemented through the sale of shares.
• Disinvestment is the sale of the government’s investment or capital in a public sector enterprise to the private sector. This is mainly done in four ways:
  • Wholesale: Entire sale of any public sector
  • Share sale: Sale of a portion of the share capital of a public sector undertaking
  • Capital sale: Selling government capital in a sector where government intervention is riot required
  • Strategic sale: Selling a portion of the capital share to a selected partner

GLOBALISATION: Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies.
• Globalization is the integration of a country’s economy with the global economy.
This will significantly reduce import duties and encourage foreign investment. This means the further globalizing of trade, capital investment, and the transfer of technology and human resources. Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies. Globalization is the result of policies that have made economies more interconnected and integrated. With this, global trade becomes regulated by the World Trade Organization and global production comes to be determined by multinational corporations.

Question 34.
Write a note on economic development indices.
Answer:
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEX (HDI)

• This is an index developed by the United Nations based on human development to measure economic development.
• The Human Development Index is calculated based on three factors:
  • Life expectancy
  • Literacy and gross school enrollment rate
  • Per capita income

The Human Development Index is prepared by calculating the value of each of these separately and finding their average. Their value will be between zero and one. Based on the value of this index, the countries of the world are divided into four groups. According to the 2023 report, India is ranked 130th out of 193 countries.

PHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI)

• The economic development of a country should be such that the standard of living of the people increases and the basic needs are met. Based on this, this is the development index developed by a renowned economist, Morris David Morris, in 1979.
• The Physical Quality of Life Index is prepared based on three indices:
  • Basic Literacy Index (BLI): Basic literacy is the percentage of the population that can read and write.
  • Infant Mortality Index (IMI): It refers to the number of deaths of infants under the age of one per 1,000 live births.
  • Life Expectancy Index (LEI): it is calculated based on the average number of years a person lives.
  • The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is the average of these three indicators.

PQLI
The drawback of this index is that it does not consider the respondent’s annual income while preparing the physical quality life index.

SUSTAINABLE DEVELEOPMENT GOAL INDEX

• Sustainable Development Goals that were adapted by the United Nations in 2015.
• The Sustainable Development Goals Index assesses the efforts taken by countries to achieve the sustainable development goals.
• In India, the Sustainable Development Goals Index is prepared by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations to measure the development progress of states and union territories.
• The SDG India index, launched in 2018, assesses India’s performance across all 17 sustainable development goals across economic, social, and environmental sectors.
• The SDGI score is calculated by averaging the values of each of the Sustainable Development Goals, which are calculated between zero and 100.

Students rely on Geography Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 The Changing Earth to help self-study at home.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions and Answers The Changing Earth

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 The Changing Earth Important Questions

The Changing Earth Class 10 Important Questions

Question 1.
A hazard is generally referred to as a situation that poses a threat to which of the following?
a) Only human health
b) Only property and wealth
c) Life, health, property, services, socioeconomic stability, or the environment
d) Only the natural environment
Answer:
c) Life, health, property, services, socioeconomic stability, or the environment

Question 2.
Identify the Causative Forces of Endogenic Movements.
A. Convection currents
B. Slope of the area
C. Primordial heat
D. Gravity

a) A and C are correct
b) B and D are correct
c) C and D are correct
d) A and B are correct
Answer:
a) A and C are correct

Question 3.
Which organization has installed DART stations to detect and monitor tsunami activity?
Answer:
National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)

Question 4.
Define Richter Scale.
Answer:
The scale devised by Charles F. Richter in 1935 to measure an earthquake’s magnitude is called the Richter scale.

Question 5.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given assertion and reason.
Assertion: The point inside the Earth from which the energy is released is called the focus or hypocentre.
Reason: The point on the Earth’s surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre.
a) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
b) Both assertion and reason are correct
c) Both assertion and reason are wrong
d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct
Answer:
b) Both assertion and reason are correct

Question 6.
Arrange the table suitably.

A. The molten rock material present in the upper mantle	i. Vent
B. A horizontal sheet of cooled lava inside the Earth’s crust.	ii. Magma
C. The passage through which magma rises to the surface.	iii. Sill

a) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
b) A – i, B – ii, C – iii
c) A – iii, B – i, C – ii
Answer:
a) A – ii, B – iii, C – i

A. The molten rock material present in the upper mantle	ii. Magma
B. A horizontal sheet of cooled lava inside the Earth’s crust.	iii. Sill
C. The passage through which magma rises to the surface.	i. Vent

Question 7.
Define Earth Movements.
Answer:
The movements that cause the ups and downs On the surface of the Earth are called the Earth movements.

Question 8.
Which of the following is the most destructive wave?
a) Primary waves
b) Secondary waves
c) Surface waves
d) All waves are equally destructive
Answer:
c) Surface Waves

Question 9.
Which instrument is used to record earthquake waves?
a) Barometer
b) Thermometer
c) Seismograph
d) Anemometer
Answer:
c) Seismograph

Question 10.
Distinguish between Ehdogenic and Exogenic Movements.
Answer:
Endogenic Movements: The processes that are caused by the forces within the Earth at varied intensities.
Exogenic Movements: The processes that are caused by external forces on the surface of the Earth at varied intensities.

Question 11.
What are the two classifications of Endogenic Movements?
Answer:
Diastrophic Movements and Sudden Movements

Question 12.
What are the differences between Epeirogenic and Orogenic Processes?
Answer:
Epeirogenic Processes: The processes that cause the upliftment of a large portion of the Earth’s crust are called epeirogenic movements.
Orogenic Processes: The processes that cause the formation of mountains are called orogenic movements.

Question 13.
Define Horst and Graben.
Answer:
The uplifted block of the Earth’s crust formed due to faulting is called a horst (block mountain). The corresponding down-dropped block of the Earth’s crust is called a graben.

Question 14.
Write any two Sudden Movements.
Answer:
Earthquakes and Volcanism

Question 15.
Differentiate between Volcanoes and Volcanic materials.
Answer:
The openings in the lithosphere through which molten rock material, gases, ash, pyroclastic materials (rock fragments), dust, and water vapour erupt to the surface of the Earth are called volcanoes. The materials that erupt in this way are known as volcanic materials.

Question 16.
How to mitigate the intensity and impact of natural hazards like debris flow and landslides?
Answer:

• Studies using tools like remote sensing and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) can help us identify areas that have a higher possibility of ‘UrulpottaV (debris flow or landslide).
• Institutions such as the Geological Survey of India and the National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) prepare maps of each district showing landslide/debris flow-prone areas.

Question 17.
On what basis are volcanoes classified, and what are the main types?
Answer:
Volcanoes are classified based on the nature of eruption and the formations created on the Earth’s surface. The main types are shield volcanoes, composite volcanoes, and calderas.

Question 18.
Define Volcanism.
Answer:
Volcanism is the process that includes the formation of magma, the movement of magma and other pyroclastic materials toward the surface, their eruption through holes and cracks in the lithosphere, explosions caused by the eruption, lava flow, solidification of magma, the formation of various igneous landforms, and all other associated processes.

Question 19.
How volcanic activities affect human life?
Answer:
Volcanic explosions near human settlements cause loss of lives and destruct properties. They disrupt economic activities and severely affect human life. The lava flow following a volcanic eruption adversely impacts both nature and human settlements. By destroying houses and land, it leaves many people homeless and jobless.

Question 20.
How are volcanic activities useful to humankind?
Answer:

• The geothermal energy released from volcanic regions is converted into electricity in certain areas and utilized for local purposes.
• Lava is rich in minerals, and many valuable minerals reach the surface of the Earth through the flow of lava.
• Volcanic regions often attract a large number of tourists.

Question 21.
What are the three types of Earthquake waves?
Answer:

1. Primary Waves
2. Secondary Waves
3. Surface Waves

Question 22.
Write the Methods to safeguard ourselves from tsunamis.
Answer:

• If the sea level suddenly goes down by several metres, consider it a tsunami warning. Run away from the shore immediately and move to higher ground.
• If you are caught in a tsunami, try to save yourself by holding onto something that can float.
• Always listen to official tsunami warnings on the radio, TV, or mobile and follow evacuation instructions immediately.

Question 23.
What are the main triggering factors for debris flow?
Answer:

1. Heavy rainfall
2. Cloudbursts
3. Earthquakes

Question 24.
Explain any causes of earthquakes other than tectonic movements?
Answer:
Earthquakes occur not only because of tectonic movements but also due to volcanic eruptions, the collapse of mine roofs in intensive mining areas, and explosions. In places where large reservoirs are situated, minor tremors are often caused by faults in the bedrock due to the pressure exerted by the water on the bedrock.

Question 25.
How to reduce the intensity of Volcanic eruption?
Answer:

1. Avoid the construction of houses in areas close to volcanoes.
2. Restrict tourism in such areas.
3. Continuously monitor volcanic regions using scientific instruments and issuing early warnings.
4. Construct buildings capable of withstanding lava flow and ash fall after an eruption.

Question 26.
Explain the Exogenic Movements and their driving forces.
Answer:
EXOGENIC MOVEMENTS
• The Exogenic forces are responsible for various processes that operate on the surface of the Earth, such as weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition, and mass wasting. These processes are collectively known as exogenic movements.
Each exogenic process derives its energy from different external forces, which are called the driving forces of exogenic movements. The nature and rate of these movements vary according to the climatic regions of the Earth.

Question 27.
What are the benefits of humans from the weathering of rocks?
Answer:

• Weathering leads to the formation of soil
• It helps to separate minerals from rocks
• It causes mineral enrichment
• It makes mining easier

Question 28.
Define KaWaCHam, and how does it help in disaster management in Kerala?
Answer:
It is a disaster warning system implemented in the state of Kerala, ensuring the use of modern technologies in disaster mitigation activities. All disaster-prone areas of Kerala are covered under this integrated warning system. Kerala is the first state in the country to implement a disaster warning system of this kind. The project aims to monitor the possibility of disasters in all areas. If any disaster is detected, the public is alerted through location- based SMS, social media updates, and by activating siren-strobe light units. Necessary precautionary measures are then taken at different levels.

Question 29.
Explain how the movement of lithospheric plates causes earthquakes.
Answer:
The reason for earthquakes is the friction between lithospheric plates. When two lithospheric plates move past each other, friction is generated along their margins. This friction in a way restricts the movement of the plates, causing high tension to build up along the margins. As a result, energy gets concentrated in these areas. When the pressure of the plates to move overcomes the friction at the plate boundaries, a sudden movement or rupture occurs at the plate boundaries. This causes energy to be released abruptly. This energy travels to the surface as seismic waves, which are experienced as earthquakes.

Question 30.
Define Weathering and explain its types.
Answer:
The Earth has different types of rocks, and they have been subjected to various changes over a long period of time. Because of certain exogenous forces, rocks are mechanically disintegrated or chemically decomposed.

• The processes that bring about these chemical and mechanical changes in rocks are called weathering.

Benefits of humans from the weathering of rocks:

• Weathering leads to the formation of soil
• It helps to separate minerals from rocks
• It causes mineral enrichment
• It makes mining easier

Question 31.
Explain the given driving forces of Exogenic Movements.
• Erosion, Transportation, Deposition
• Mass Wasting
Answer:
Erosion, Transportation, Deposition: Rock fragments formed by weathering or other processes are moved from one place to another by running water, glaciers, wind, and waves.

• Varied landforms are created by the continuous processes carried out by external agencies like running water, wind, glaciers, sea waves, etc. Hence, these agencies are often called geomorphic agents.
• The process by which running water, glaciers, wind, and waves move rock fragments from one place to another is called erosion and transportation.
• These materials will be deposited in low lying regions and this process is called deposition.

Mass Wasting: Another type of earth movement that occurs on the surface of the Earth due to exogenic forces is mass wasting. It refers to the movement or fall of rock fragments or earth materials down a slope under the direct influence of gravitational pull. It ranges from very slow movements to rapid movements. Mass wasting can vary from the sliding of a very thin layer of soil to the fall bf large quantities of earth materials.

Question 32.
What is Urulpottal and how do they occur?
Answer:
Urulpottal is a type of Mass Wasting. The landslide refers to the downward sliding of a portion of a mountain slope under the force of gravity. In the hilly regions of Kerala, intense rainfall often triggers landslides or debris flows, which may occur either separately or in combination. This phenomenon is locally known as ‘Urulpottal’ and can often be highly destructive. The possible factors that can lead to ‘Urulpottal’ in an area are the slope of the land, the depth and structure of the soil, land use, and the distribution of streams. Areas with a slope of more than 22 degrees have a higher possibility of experiencing debris flow/landslide. Debris flow and landslides are generally common in the Western Ghats and Himalayan mountains. It is estimated that the highlands of Kerala experience widespread major and minor landslides or debris flows, soil piping, and landfalls.

Question 33.
How to face Urulpottal at the time of the disaster and after the disaster?
Answer:
How To Face Urulpottal

At the time of the disaster	After the disaster
• Stay calm and do not panic • During Urulpottal, if you are inside your house, take shelter under a strong table or cot. • If you are outside, move quickly to safer and higher ground, away from slopes and loose soil.	• Allow ambulances and other rescue vehicles to pass without obstruction • Report immediately to t he authorities if you notice any fallen electric lines in LTrulpottai – affected regions. • Help people who are injured or trapped and provide first aid if possible.

KaWaCHam: Kerala Warnings, Crisis and Hazard Management System
It is a disaster warning system implemented in the state of Kerala, ensuring the use of modem technologies in disaster mitigation activities. All disaster-prone areas of Kerala are covered under this integrated warning system. Kerala is the first state in the country to implement a disaster warning system of this kind. The project aims to monitor the possibility of disasters in all areas. If any disaster is detected, the public is alerted through location-based SMS, social media updates, and by activating siren-strobe light units. Necessary precautionary measures are then taken at different levels.

Students often refer to SCERT Class 10 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus and Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation Notes Questions and Answers English Medium that include all exercises in the prescribed syllabus.

SSLC Geography Chapter 7 Notes Pdf English Medium Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation

SCERT Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation Notes Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Notes Kerala Syllabus Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation

Question 1.
How does economic growth benefit the economy?
Answer:
Economic growth means the country is producing more goods and services than before. This helps the economy because more jobs are created, people earn better incomes, and the government gets more money to provide facilities like schools, hospitals, and roads. As a result, people enjoy a higher standard of living and the overall life of the country improves.

Question 2.
Observe and analyse the graph below to see India’s economic growth rate published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) from 2012 – 13 to 2023 – 24.

a. Which year achieved the highest growth rate in GDP?
b. In which year did the lowest economic growth rate occur?
c. Has there been any period of negative growth (ie., below zero)? If so, why?
Answer:
a. 2021 – 22
b. 2020 – 2021
c. Yes, in 2020 – 2021 GDP growth was -5.8

Question 3.
Analyse the factors influencing economic growth during this period (based on the question above).
Answer:
From 2012 – 13 to 2016 – 17, India’s economy grew steadily because of good government policies, low oil prices, and strong growth in services and agriculture. But between 2017 – 18 and 2019 – 20, growth slowed down due to demonetisation, the introduction of GST, problems in banks, and weaker global demand. In 2020 – 21, the COVID-19 pandemic and lockdowns caused the economy to shrink for the first time in years. Growth bounced back strongly in 2021 – 22 as businesses reopened, exports rose, and government support increased. In the recent years 2022 – 23 and 2023 – 24, growth remained positive but slightly slower because of high inflation, rising oil prices due to the Russia-Ukraine war, and higher interest rates. Overall, India’s growth was shaped by government reforms, global events, agriculture, and the pandemic.

Question 4.
The per capita income of countries with different levels of development, Afghanistan, India, China and the USA, over different periods are given below.

Prepare an analysis report comparing India’s Per Capita Income with Afghanistan, China and the USA for each period.
Answer:
In 1991, India’s per capita income was 364 USD, slightly higher than China (318 USD) and Afghanistan (317 USD), but far below the USA (26,741 USD). By 2001, India’s income rose to 442 USD, while China had already started growing faster at 949 USD. Afghanistan, after years of conflict, had fallen behind with 169 USD, while the USA continued its strong growth at 35,892 USD. In 2011, India’s income grew significantly to 1,569 USD, but China had surged much ahead to 5,425 USD due to rapid industrialization. Afghanistan’s recovery brought it up to 606 USD, though it still lagged behind. The USA’s per capita income reached 48,303 USD, maintaining its high-income status. By 2021, India’s income had increased to 2,116 USD, indicating steady growth, but remained significantly lower than China (12,554 USD) and far below the USA (69,287 USD). Afghanistan remained very low at 369 USD, mainly due to political instability and weak economic conditions.

Question 5.
The central and state governments provide benefits like food items and medical facilities at low prices to the poor and vulnerable sections of the society. Prepare a note discussing such schemes and their objectives.
Answer:

Schemes	Objectives
Public Distribution System (PDS)	Ensure food security for the poor and prevent hunger and malnutrition.
Mid-Day Meal Scheme	Improve child nutrition, encourage school attendance, and reduce dropout rates.
Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)	Provide affordable healthcare and reduce the financial burden of medical expenses.
National Food Security Act	Guarantee food as a legal right and ensure no one goes hungry.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act	Provide livelihood security and reduce poverty in rural areas.

Question 6.
Analyse the table and identify the period when India was in low human development and medium human development. Find out the areas in which India needs to improve if it were to achieve high human development and very high human development based on the HDI value.

Year	HDI Value
1990	0.446
1995	0.469
2000	0.497
2005	0.547
2010	0.590
2015	0.633
2020	0.652
2023	0.685

Answer:
India’s HDI Status from the Table:

• 1990 (0.446) – 2000 (0.497): Low Human Development
• 2005 (0.547): Still at the edge of Low Human Development
• 2010 (0.590) – 2023 (0.685): MediumHuman Development

So:

• 1990 – 2005: India was in low human development with HDI < 0.550.
• 2010 – 2023: India moved to medium human development, showing better progress in education, health, and economy.
• The shift from low to medium HDI indicates overall social and economic development, but India still needs to cross 0.700+ to reach high human development.

Areas India Needs to Improve for Higher HDI:
HDI is based on three dimensions:

• Health (Life Expectancy at Birth) ’! Improve healthcare access, nutrition, sanitation, and reduce child/matemal mortality.
• Education (Mean Years & Expected Years of Schooling) → Improve literacy rate, reduce school dropouts, enhance higher education and skill development.
• Standard of Living (GNI per Capita) → Create

Question 7.
Identify the countries ranked 1 to 5 in the highest human development index from the 2023 – 24 UNDP HDI report and analyses the progress of these countries in areas such as education and health.
Answer:
The countries ranked 1 to 5 in the 2023 – 24 UNDP Human Development Report are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, Hong Kong (SAR), and Denmark, respectively. These countries generally lead in education and health, demonstrating high life expectancy and robust educational systems with high average and expected years of schooling. Their strong performance reflects significant public investment in universal healthcare, access to quality education, and robust economies that support these social services.

Question 8.
Find out from the UNDP’s HDI report for the current year of the countries ranked one to five in the highest human development and analyse the progress of these countries in areas such as education and health.
Answer:
Iceland ranks first with an HDI Value of 0.972, followed by Norway 0.970, Switzerland 0.970, Denmark 0.962, Germany 0.959 and Sweden 0.959.

Health: High-HDI countries, such as the top five, have long life expectancies, reflecting robust healthcare systems and public health policies that have resulted in better health outcomes for their populations.

Education: These nations also excel in education! They feature high numbers of years in schooling for adults and high expected years of schooling for children. This indicates a strong and accessible educational infrastructure, leading to a well- educated populace.

Overall Trend: While progress in education and health continues in these top countries, the global human development progress has slowed considerably, especially after the COVID-19 pandemic. The 2025 report highlights that high-HDI , countries are still advancing, but the widening gap suggests that many lower-ranked nations are struggling to reach their potential and may face decades of delayed progress.

Question 9.
Observe the graph indicating the SDG Index scores of Indian states and Union Territories for the years
2018 – 19 and 2023 – 24.


a. List the 5 top states and 5 at the bottom in the SDGI rankings for 2023 – 24.
Answer:
Top 5 States (2023 – 24):
Kerala – 79, Uttarakhand 79, Goa – 77, Himachal Pradesh – 77, Punjab – 76

Bottom 5 States (2023 – 24):
Bihar – 57, Jharkhand – 62, Nagaland – 63, Meghalaya – 63, Assam – 65

b. Find out which states have scores ranked 0 – 49, 50 – 64, 65 – 99 and 100 in the 2018 – 19 rankings.
Answer:
0 – 49 (Low performers:
Bihar (48), Assam (49), Meghalaya (31), Nagaland (32), Odisha (51 is just above 49, so not included)

50 – 64 (Medium performers):
Jharkhand (50), Uttar Pradesh (42), Arunachal Pradesh (53), Rajasthan (59), Chhattisgarh (56), Madhya Pradesh (52), Haryana (59), Maharashtra (61), Telangana (61), Gujarat (64), Andhra Pradesh (58), Karnataka (64), Punjab (60), Uttarakhand (60)

65 – 99 (High performers):
Kerala (69), Goa (64, borderline but included in mid-range, so not high), Himachal Pradesh (69), Sikkim (68), West Bengal (55, not included here), Mizoram (59, actually <65, so not included)

100 achievers): None
c. Which state is at the top of the rankings in 2018 – 19?
Answer:
Kerala (69) was the highest-ranked state in 2018 – 19.

d. Which states are at the top of the rankings in 2023 – 24?
Answer:
Kerala (79) and Uttarakhand (79) jointly top the list in 2023 – 24.

Question 10.
Find out the reasons why Kerala is ranked high on the SDG India Index as compared to other states in India.
Answer:
Kerala ranks high on the SDG India Index because:

• It has the highest literacy rate and a strong school education.
• Good healthcare system with high life expectancy and low infant mortality.
• Better gender equality and social development.
• Strong performance in poverty reduction, sanitation, and access to clean water.
• Effective welfare schemes and governance that reach most people.

Question 11.
Collect more information and prepare an edition on the history that led to planning in India.
Answer:
Before Independence:

• 1938 – National Planning Committee: Subhas Chandra Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru planned India’s economy.
• Bombay Plan (1944): Industrialists wanted more industries and higher incomes.
• Gandhian & Sarvodaya PlAnswer: Focused on villages, small industries, and self-reliance.
• People’s Plan: Suggested socialist ideas with state-owned industries.

After Independence:

• 1950 – Planning Commission: Set up by Prime Minister Nehru to plan India’s growth using Five – Year Plans.
• Five-Year Plans:
• 1st Plan: Agriculture & irrigation
• 2nd Plan: Industries
• Later PlAnswer:Poverty, employment, education, and balanced growth

2015 – NITI Aayog:

• Planning Commission replaced by NITI Aayog.
• Works with states to plan development in a cooperative way.

Question 12.
Identify the projects implemented in India, their duration, key objectives and economic growth rate and list them.
Answer:

Plan	Duration	Key Objectives	Economic Growth Rate
1st	1951 – 1956	Agriculture, irrigation, power	3.6%
2nd	1956 – 1961	Heavy industries development	4.27%
3rd	1961 – 1966	Self-sufficiency in food, industrial growth	2.84%
4th	1969 – 1974	Poverty reduction, employment, industrial growth	3.3%
5th	1974 – 1979	Poverty eradication, rural development, agriculture	4.8%
6th	1980 – 1985	Growth with social justice	5.6%
7th	1985 – 1990	Modernization, reduce poverty	5.0%
8th	1992 – 1997	Economic reforms, liberalization, growth	6.0%
9th	1997 – 2002	Employment generation, poverty reduction	5.4%
10th	2002 – 2007	Faster and more inclusive growth	7.0%
11th	2007 – 2012	Inclusive & sustainable growth, education, health	8.0%
12th	2012 – 2017	Faster, sustainable & inclusive growth	7.5%

Question 13.
Organise an open forum On the role of the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog in India’s economic growth.
Answer:
(Hints)
Open Forum Topic: “Role of the Planning Commission and NITI Aayog in India’s Economic Growth” Introduction:

• The Planning Commission (1950 – 2014) prepared Five-Year Plans to guide India’s economic development.
• It focused on agriculture, industries, poverty reduction, and employment.

Discussion Points:

• How the Planning Commission helped India grow after independence.
• Achievements of Five-Year Plans in improving economy, education, and health.
• Limitations of the Planning Commission – rigid plans, less cooperation with states.
• NITI Aayog (2015-present) – replaced Planning Commission.
• Role of NITI Aayog in cooperative federalism, policy-making, innovation, and sustainable growth.
• How NITI Aayog supports states and long-term development strategies.

Question 14.
Prepare a profile album featuring the inventions of various industrial revolutions and the changes they brought about in the field of production.
Answer:
(Hints: collect more images of the 4^th and 5^th industrial revolution as the follows)

Question 15.
Examine the Global Knowledge Index Report published by UNDP in various years. Find out the characteristics of the countries that have reached the top 5 positions and write down their special features.
Answer:
The Global Knowledge Index: Top Performers (2025):

• Switzerland
• Sweden
• United States of America

The Global Knowledge Index: Top performers (2024)

• Sweden
• Finland
• Switzerland, with European nations and the United States dominating the top rankings.

The top 5 countries in the Global Knowledge Index (like Switzerland, Finland, Sweden, USA, Netherlands, etc.) share some common features:

• Strong education systems with high-quality schools and universities.
• Heavy investment in research and innovation with high R&D spending.
• Advanced digital and ICT infrastructure with wide access.
• Good governance and stable policies that support knowledge growth
• High income and human development levels to fund education and research.
• Strong links between government, industry, and universities for knowledge sharing.

Question 16.
Find out how economic activities in the Knowledge Economy lead to economic growth.
Answer:

1. Skill development
2. Human resource utilization
3. Job creation
4. Innovation & technology use
5. Higher productivity & income

Question 17.
Organise a seminar on technology and the Knowledge Economy.
Answer:
(Hints)
Objective: To explore how technology drives growth, innovation, and skills in the knowledge economy.
Program Flow:

1. Introduction: Importance of technology in economic growth.
2. Keynote: Role of AI, ICT, Big Data, and Innovation.
3. Sessions
   • Industry 4.0: Automation, IoT, Robotics.
   • EduTech & HealthTech: Online learning, telemedicine, digital platforms.
   • Green Tech: Renewable energy, EVs, sustainability.
4. Panel Discussion: Future skills & digital literacy.
5. Q&A: Interaction with participants. ‘
6. Conclusion: Key takeaways & vote of thanks.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 7 Notes Kerala Syllabus – Extended Activities

Question 1.
Find out the development level of India and its neighbouring countries Pakistan, Bhutan and Sri Lanka based on per capita income for 2023-24 using the source, https://data.worldbank.org.
Answer:
Based on the World Bank data for the year 2023, here is an overview of the per capita income levels of India and its neighboring countries-Pakistan, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka expressed in current US dollars:
GDP Per Capita (Current US$) – 2023

Country	GDP per capita (US$)
India	2,696.7
Pakistan	1,484.7
Bhutan	3,839.4
Sri Lanka	4,515.6

Source: World Bank Open Data

Development Level Analysis

• Sri Lanka has the highest per capita income among the four countries, indicating a relatively higher standard of living and economic development.
• Bhutan follows with a per capita income higher than India’s, suggesting a moderately higher development level.
• India stands at a middle-income level, with a per capita income of approximately $2,696.7. Pakistan has the lowest per capita income among these countries, indicating a lower development level.

Question 2.
Collect and list more information about other economic development indices such as the Global Hunger Index, Gender Inequality Index, Human Happiness Index, and Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index with the help of https://www.unsdsn.org, https://www.globalhungerindex.org, https://www.undp.org.

Answer:

Index/Indicator	Year of introduction	Indices/criteria used	Determining agency/ institution
Global Hunger Index (GHI)	2006	The level of hunger among people, including children’s health.	IFPRI and partner organisations
Gender Inequality Index (GII)	2010	Differences between men and women in health, education, and jobs.	UNDP
Human Happiness Index	2012	How happy people are based on money, health, friends, freedom, generosity.	SDSN
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)	2010	How many people lack basic needs like school, health, electricity, clean water.	UNDP and Oxford Poverty Initiative

Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation Class 10 Notes Pdf

• All economies aim to provide better living conditions through different economic activities which bring about quantitative and qualitative changes in the economic system.
• Quantitative change refers to economic growth and qualitative change refers to economic development.
• Economic growth is the increase in a country’s Gross Domestic Product compared to the previous year.
• A country achieves economic development when the benefits of the increase in production and income are shared by everyone in the country.
• Economic planning is the preparation made to achieve the main economic goals of a society by utilising available resources.
• M Visvesvaraya is considered as the Father of Indian economic planning.
• The main objectives of planning are Growth, Modernisation, Self-reliance and Equity.
• Liberalization is a policy change that gives a country’s economy more freedom by relaxing restrictions imposed on various sectors to promote economic growth and development.
• Privatization is the process of reducing the role of the public sector and providing more opportunities for
  the private sector.
• Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies.
• Globalization is the integration of a country’s economy with the global economy.
• Inventions, mechanisation, the spread of technology, modernisation, etc., played an important role in accelerating economic growth.
• Knowledge Economy is an economic system that thrives by incorporating innovative ideas in the production, distribution, and use of knowledge and information.
• Knowledge is the key element in a knowledge economy. New ideas, research, and inventions are important here.
• Kerala Startup Mission, K-DISC, Digital University etc. are working to provide technical and innovative knowledge in Kerala for the growth of a knowledge-based economy.

INTRODUCTION

This chapter, “Indian Economy: Growth and Transformation”, explains how India’s economy has changed over time. It begins with the difference between economic growth (an increase in income and production) and economic development (an improvement in people’s living standards). To measure this progress, different development indices are used, like HDI and PQLI etc. The chapter also discusses economic planning in India, the shift from the Planning Commission to NITI Aayog, and the importance of the 1991 economic reforms that opened India’s economy to the world. It highlights the driving forces of growth such as investment, technology, trade, and human resources. A special focus is given to the knowledge economy, where information, education, and technology drive progress, and the example of Kerala moving towards a knowledge society shows how social development and knowledge can transform a state’s economy.

Economic growth

• All economies aim to provide better living conditions through different economic activities which bring about quantitative and qualitative changes in the economic system.
• Quantitative change refers to economic growth and qualitative change refers to economic development.
• Economic growth is the increase in a country’s Gross Domestic Product compared to the previous year.
• The economic growth rate is the rate of increase in GDP in the current year compared to the previous year. The growth rate is measured in percentage.
• Personal income is the total income earned by an individual from various sources over a given period of time.

Economic development

• A country achieves economic development when everyone shares the benefits of the increase in production and income in the country.
• It happens when there is the improvement in the standard of living of the people along with economic growth.
• Economic development is the process of improving the standard of living and economic well-being of people through growth in income, education, and infrastructure.

Economic development Indices
Human development index (HDI)

• This is an index developed by the United Nations based on human development to measure economic development.
• The Human Development Index is calculated based on three factors: Life expectancy, Literacy and gross school enrollment rate, Per capita income
• The Human Development Index is prepared by calculating the value of each of these separately and finding their average. Their value will be between zero and one.

Physical quality of life index (PQLI)

• The economic development of a country should be such that the standard of living of the people increases and the basic needs are met. Based on this, this is the development index developed by a renowned economist, Morris David Morris, in 1979.
• The PhysicalQuality of Life Index is prepared based on three indices: Basic literacy index, Infant Mortality Index, Life Expectancy Index.

Sustainable development goal index

• Sustainable Development Goals that were adopted by the United Nations in 2015.
• The Sustainable Development Goals Index assesses the efforts taken by countries to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals.
• In India, the Sustainable Development Goals Index is prepared by the NITI Aayog.

Economic planning and NITI Aayog

• Economic planning is the preparation made to achieve the main economic goals of a society by utilising available resources.
• We adopted a Mixed Economy to build the economy in India, which was fragmented during British rule.
• M Visvesvaraya is considered as the Father of Indian economic planning.
• The main objectives of planning are Growth, Modernisation, Self-reliance and Equity.
• NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India. It aims at transforming India through economic growth, social welfare, and infrastructure development.

Economic reforms 1991

• The general feature of economic reforms are commonly referred to as LPG. The basis of this reform is the shift from LPQ to LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation).
• Liberalization is a policy change that gives a country’s economy more freedom by relaxing restrictions imposed on various sectors to promote economic growth and development.
• Privatization is the process of reducing the role of the public sector and providing more opportunities for the private sector.
• Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies.
• Globalization is the integration of a country’s economy with the global economy.

Driving forces of economic growth

• Inventions, mechanisation, the spread of technology, modernisation, etc., played an important role in accelerating economic growth.
• Industrial revolution, which was triggered by the invention of the steam engine, passed through many stages. Today, the world is on the edge of a fifth industrial revolution.

Knowledge Economy

• Knowledge Economy is an economic system that thrives by incorporating innovative ideas in the production, distribution, and use of knowledge and information.
• Knowledge is the key element in a knowledge economy. New ideas, research, and inventions are important here.
• The basis of this economy is human resources capable of effectively using knowledge and technology. Therefore, research, innovation, and skill development need to be accelerated.
• Continuous efforts to develop new products and services (innovation) are a characteristic of the Knowledge Economy.

Kerala Towards a Knowledge Society

• Kerala Startup Mission, K-DISC, Digital University etc. are working to provide technical and innovative knowledge in Kerala for the growth of a knowledge-based economy.
• Digital University of Kerala was established in 2020 with the aim of transforming Kerala into a global digital education hub.
• K-DISC is a committee formed in 2018 with the aim of transforming Kerala into a knowledge economy and a hub of innovation.
• Kerala Startup Mission (KSUM) is a model agency launched in 2006 to promote the startup scene in
  Kerala, transform innovative ideas into enterprises and make the state a leading hub.

ECONOMIC GROWTH

• All economies aim to provide better living conditions through different economic activities which bring about quantitative and qualitative changes in the economic system.
• Quantitative change refers to economic growth and qualitative change refers to economic development.
• Economic growth is the increase in a country’s Gross Domestic Product compared to the previous year.
• Gross domestic product is the monetary value of all goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country in a year.

Objectives of Economic activities

• • Increase in infrastructure
  • Better employment opportunities
  • Increased income and purchasing power
  • Higher quality of life
• When the production of goods and services increases, national income increases and the economy grows.
• When economic growth occurs, a country’s capacity to meet the needs of its people increases through changes in production, employment, and income. Economic growth rate is used to measure economic growth.

Economic growth rate: The economic growth rate is the rate of increase in GDP in the current year compared to the previous year. The growth rate is measured in percentage.
Economic growth rate = \(\frac{\text { Current year’s GDP- Previous year’s GDP }}{\text { Previous year’s GDP }}\) × 100

PERCAPITAINCOME

• Per capita income is an important indicator used to measure and evaluate economic growth.
• PCI is calculated by considering the national income and population.
  PCI = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)
• The World Development Report published by the World Bank classifies economies into four categories based on per capita income.

Per capita income is used to compare the economic growth of different countries over the same period and to understand the economic growth of a country over different periods. PCI shows the average income of the people. But personal income is the actual income of a person. The per capita income of a country can be higher or lower than personal income. Hence difference between PCI and PI always exists.

Personal Income (PI) Personal income is the total income earned by an individual from various sources over a given period of time.

Shortcomings of Percapita Income:

• It is only an average income.
• Information about the distribution and inequality of wealth is not reflected in the income index.
• Since per capita income is calculated on the basis of national income, the limitations of calculating national income also affect per capita income.
• Factors that enhance the quality of life are not included in the scope of the PCI index.

When the production of goods and services in an economy increases, GDP and PCI increase. But personal income does not increase for everyone equally. This leads to socio-economic inequalities. Benefits of economic growth reach the maximum number of people through economic development.

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

• A country achieves economic development when the benefits of the increase in production and income are shared by everyone in the country.

It happens when there is the improvement in the standard of living of the people along with economic growth.

Economic development is the process of improving the standard of living and economic well-being of people through growth in income, education, and infrastructure. Todaro & Smith

• Economic development is not only about economic and social change happening at the same time but is also related to the welfare of the people. The government implements many welfare activities to make it happen.

To improve the quality of life, economic growth must be accompanied by better living conditions. Such conditions include;

• Educational facilities
• Transportation facilities
• Clean drinking water
• Social security and safety
• Nutrient availability
• Healthcare services
• Employment opportunities

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT INDICES
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEX (HDI)

• This is an index developed by the United Nations based on human development to measure economic development.
• The Human Development Index is calculated based on three factors:
  • Life expectancy
  • Literacy and gross school enrollment rate
  • Per capita income

The Human Development Index is prepared by calculating the value of each of these separately and finding their average. Their value will be between zero and one. Based on the value of this index, the countries of the world are divided into four groups. According to the 2023 report, India is ranked 130th out of 193 countries.

PHYSICAL QUALITY OF LIFE INDEX (PQLI)

• The economic development of a country should be such that the standard of living of the people increases and the basic needs are met. Based on this, this is the’ development index developed by a renowned economist, Morris David Morris, in 1979.
• The Physical Quality of Life Index is prepared based on three indices:
  • Basic Literacy Index (BLI): Basic literacy is the percentage of the population that can read and write.
  • Infant Mortality Index (IMI): It refers to the number of deaths of infants under the age of one per 1,000 live births.
  • Life Expectancy Index (LEI): It is calculated based on the average number of years a person lives.
  • The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is the average of these three indicators.
    PQLI = \(\frac{L E I+I M I+B L I}{3}\)

The drawback of this index is that it does not consider the respondent’s annual income while preparing the physical quality life index.

SUSTAINABLE DEVELEOPMENT GOAL INDEX

• Sustainable Development Goals that were adapted by the United Nations in 2015.
• The Sustainable Development Goals Index assesses the efforts taken by countries to achieve the sustainable development goals.
• In India, the Sustainable Development Goals Index is prepared by the NITI Aayog in collaboration with the United Nations to measure the development progress of states and union territories.
• The SDG India index, launched in 2018, assesses India’s performance across all 17 sustainable development goals across economic, social, and environmental sectors.

• The SDGI score is calculated by averaging the values of each of the Sustainable Development Goals, which are calculated between zero and 100.

Score	Category
0 – 49	Aspirant
50 – 64	Performer
65 – 99	Front Runner
100	Achiever

KERALA MODEL OF DEVELOPMENT

Kerala has made great strides in the areas of education, health and social justice. High literacy rates, low infant mortality rates and improved life expectancy are its key features. Kerala was able to achieve this feat through land reforms, universal public health and education systems, public distribution systems, social security schemes and public participation.

NAVA KERALA MISSION

The Nava Kerala Mission is an action plan launched in 2016 with a holistic development vision for Kerala. It includes four main missions: Aardram Mission in the health sector, Life Mission to ensure adequate housing, Vidhyakiranam to improve the education sector, and Haritha Keralam Mission to improve water conservation, waste management, and organic farming. The main objective of the mission is to improve the lives of the people by solving fundamental problems in these four areas.

In addition to strengthening the activities of the existing four missions, Nava Kerala Mission has also included the Rebuild Kerala Initiative, and is being implemented from 2021. The objective of Nava Kerala Mission – 2 is to lead Kerala towards economic and social progress by embracing the benefits of development and embracing all sections of the people, while facing new challenges and second-generation problems.

ECONOMIC PLANNING AND NITI AAYOG

• Economic planning is the preparation made to achieve the main economic goals of a society by utilising available resources.
• We adopted a Mixed Economy to build the economy in India, which was fragmented during British rule.

Planning is a scientific method for utilizing the diverse resources, human potential and skills of the country in the best and most comprehensive manner. Jawaharlala Nehru

HISTORY OF PLANNING

• Planning activities had started in India even before attaining Independence.
• M Visvesvaraya is considered as the Father of Indian economic planning.

Growth of planning in India.

OBJECTIVES OF PLANNING

• The main objectives of planning are Growth, Modernisation, Self-reliance and Equity.
• The planning process was implemented in India in 1951 through the Five-Year Plans.
• The structure of the Planning Commission is given below:
  • Chairman – Prime Minister
  • Vice Chairman
  • Nominated Members from the Central Cabinet
• At the national level, the Planning Commission, established in 1950, continued up to 2014. Now, these activities are being led by the NITI Aayog.

NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India. It aims at transforming India through economic growth, social welfare, and infrastructure development.
Present Structure of NITI Aayog.

NITI AAYOG
NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission of India. It aims at transforming India through economic growth, social welfare, and infrastructure development.

Present Structure of NITI Aayog

• Prime Minister as Chairman.
• Vice Chairman as nominated by the Prime Minister
• All Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors of Union Territories as members
• Two part-time members, four non-official members . and a Chief Executive Officer
• Four Central Ministers and non-official members as nominated by the Prime Minister

The main objectives of NITI Aayog

• To create a vision for India’s development priorities and plans
• To promote sustainable development and inclusive growth
• To promote economic growth through innovation, entrepreneurship, and job creation
• To collaborate with international organisations and countries to leverage global diversity and resources
• To develop and implement strategic and long-term policies and programs

ECONOMIC REFORMS OF 1991
The following are the important factors that led India to the Economic Reforms of 1991.

• The economic crisis in India was caused by a high fiscal deficit and a decline in foreign exchange reserves
• Inefficiency of the public sector
• Changes in the world market. Arguments in favour of the free market
• The economic crisis caused by the 1990 Gulf War
• Economic growth in East Asian countries through industrialisation and liberalisation
• The conditions imposed by the World Bank and IMF.

Main Goal of Reforms

• To liberalise the Indian economy and open it to the world economy
• To deregulate the private sector
• To reduce the government regulation in various sectors
• To remove the trade restrictions with foreign countries.

The general features of these economic reforms are commonly referred to as LPG The basis of this reform is the shift from LPQ to LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation).

LIBERALIZATION
Liberalization is a policy change that gives a country’s economy more freedom by relaxing restrictions imposed on various sectors to promote economic growth and development.

The main areas where liberalisation has been implemented are as follows:

• Industrial sector reforms
• Financial sector reforms
• Tax reforms
• Foreign exchange reforms
• Foreign trade sector reforms

PRIVATIZATION

• Privatization is the process of reducing the role of the public sector and providing more opportunities for the private sector.
• Disinvestment is the most important of the privatisation processes and is implemented through the sale of shares.
• Disinvestment is the sale of the government’s investment or capital in a public sector enterprise to the private sector. This is mainly done in four ways:
  • Wholesale: Entire sale of any public sector
  • Share sale: Sale of a portion of the share capital of a public sector undertaking
  • Capital sale: Selling government capital in a sector where government intervention is not required
  • Strategic sale: Selling a portion of the capital share to a selected partner

GLOBALISATION

• Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies.
• Globalization is the integration of a country’s economy with the global economy.

This will significantly reduce import duties and encourage foreign investment. This means the further globalizing of trade, capital investment, and the transfer of technology and human resources. Liberalization and privatization are economic policies. Globalization is a consequence of these policies.

Globalization is not a policy; it is a phenomenon. Amartya Sen

Globalization is the result of policies that have made economies more interconnected and integrated. With this, global trade becomes regulated by the World Trade Organization and global production comes to be determined by multinational corporations.

WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION (WTO)
The main objective of the WTO is to set and enforce the rules of global trade among countries. The WTO provides a forum for trade negotiations and dispute resolution by reducing tariffs and other trade barriers and promoting fair competition. Established in 1995, this international organization is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It has 166 member countries, including India.

MULTINATIONAL CORPORATIONS (MNCS)
MNCs are companies that engage in international trade and commerce and operate in multiple countries. These companies, which engage in international production, have a decentralized management structure. They take advantage of local resources, expertise, and markets.

• License – The permit from the government to start a business, develop existing ones, or manufacture new products.
• Permit – The permission to carry goods, transport and perform specific activities.
• Quota – The quantity and limit set by the Government for production, import and distribution.

DRIVING FORCES OF ECONOMIC GROWTH

• Inventions, mechanisation, the spread of technology, modernisation, etc., played an important role in accelerating economic growth.
• The Industrial Revolution, which was triggered by the invention of the steam engine, passed through many stages. Today, the world is on the edge of a fifth industrial revolution.

Various industrial revolutions and their characteristics:

Industrial Revolution	Features
1. Invention of the steam engine:	• Emergence of the factory system • Changes in production and transportation
2. Electricity	• Use of electricity in the place of steam. • Expansion into new areas of production and distribution
3. Electronics & Automation	• Use of robotics and automation in factories
4. The era of advanced technologies	• The beginning of Internet of Things (IoT) sensors and Big Data Analytics, Cloud Computing, Nanotechnology
5. Human-centric approach to digital technologies including AI	• Sustainable productivity growth and expansion of smart factories through technologies like AI, IoT and Robotics.

KNOWLEDGE ECONOMY

• Knowledge Economy is an economic system that thrives by incorporating innovative ideas in the production, distribution, and use of knowledge and information.
• Knowledge is the key element in a knowledge economy. New ideas, research, and inventions are important here.
• The basis of this economy is human resources capable of effectively using knowledge and technology. Therefore, research, innovation, and skill development need to be accelerated.
• Continuous efforts to develop new products and services (innovation) are a characteristic of Knowledge Economy.
• The new era of Knowledge Economy is bringing out changes in Indian economy.

Sector: Agriculture
Agri Tech: New technologies are transforming agriculture in India from traditional farming to a more profitable and efficient (smart) one. Things like when to water, fertilize, etc. are being done with the help of sensors and drones. This has enabled farmers to earn higher incomes through reduced costs, improved yields, and direct sales through online platforms.

Sector: Industry
Industry 4.0: Industry is a manufacturing method that uses computers, automation (machines working on their own) and the Internet to connect factories and make them more efficient. This leads to increased industrial production and also to quality products and less wastage. This change can create highly diversified jobs and lead to economic growth. India aims to lead economic growth through projects like MAKE IN INDIA.

Industrial Revolution
Edu Tech
Health Tech
Green Tech
Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, Extended Reality – Sector

Industrial Revolution	Features
Edu Tech	• Innovative ways to utilise technology in education. • Robotics, AI, IoT etc. • Virtual Classrooms • Ai based tutoring
Health Tech	• Telemedicine • Digital health platforms • Ai in diagnostics • Wearable health devices
Green Tech	• Renewable energy • Electric vehicle • Waste management and recycling technologies • Energy-efficient buildings
Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, Comics, Extended Reality – Sector	• Gaming industry • 3d animation • AR/VR applications

KERALA TOWARDS A KNOWLEDGE SOCIETY
• Kerala Startup Mission, K-DISC, Digital University etc. are working to provide technical and innovative knowledge in Kerala for the growth of a knowledge-based economy.
Kerala University of Digital Science, Innovation and Technology

1. Digital University of Kerala

• Digital University of Kerala was established in 2020 with the aim of transforming Kerala into a global digital education hub.
• The main goal is to develop high-quality human resources in technologies such as artificial intelligence, data science, cyber security, and blockchain.

2. Kerala Development and Innovation Strategy Council (K-DISC)

• K-DISC is a committee formed in 2018 with the aim of transforming Kerala into a knowledge economy and a hub of innovation.
• Its main responsibilities are to promote research in new technologies, products and processes and to organize skill development programmes.
• The Young Innovative Program (YIP) is a project run by K-DISC to foster innovation among the youth. It provides support to transform the innovative ideas of students into projects.
• The Kerala Knowledge Economy Mission (KKEM) is a project aimed at transforming Kerala into a knowledge economy and providing employment to the educated.

3. Kerala Startup Mission (KSUM)

• Kerala Startup Mission (KSUM) is a model agency launched in 2006 to promote the startup scene in Kerala, transform innovative ideas into enterprises and make the state a leading hub.
• It supports startups through innovation hubs, incubators, funding support, mentorship and international exchange programmes.

Students rely on Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Important Questions Chapter 9 Know the Indian Social System to help self-study at home.

Class 10 History Chapter 9 Important Questions and Answers Know the Indian Social System

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 9 Know the Indian Social System Important Questions

Know the Indian Social System Class 10 Important Questions

Question 1.
What is a system?
Answer:
A system is a systematic arrangement of various categories.

Question 2.
What is society?
Answer:
Society is composed of various social institutions that work together to ensure its survival.

Question 3.
Explain who G.S. Ghurya was.
Answer:
He was one of the pioneers of Indian sociology.

Question 4.
What does Article 15 of the Indian Constitution imply?
Answer:
It prohibits any discrimination on the basis of race, class, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Question 5.
What does the Indian social system reflect?
Answer:
The country’s history, values, and traditions.

Question 6.
In Hindu society, caste is determined by:
a) Education
b) Birth
c) Wealth
d) Occupation chosen later in life
Answer:
b) Birth

Question 7.
The caste system is primarily associated with which religion?
a) Buddhism
b) Hinduism
c) Islam
d) Christianity
Answer:
b) Hinduism

Question 8.
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was originally called:
a) The Caste Equality Act
b) Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
c) Social Justice Act, 1955
d) Civil Rights (Protection) Act, 1976
Answer:
b) Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955

Question 9.
Match the Following.

Religion and Indian Social System	Description
a. Article 15	i. No discrimination by religion, caste, sex, etc.
b. Kabir Das	ii. Hindu-Muslim harmony
c. Meera Bai	iii. Women’s freedom of worship

A. a – i, b – ii, c – iii
B. a – ii, b – iii, c – i
C. a – iii, b – i, c – ii
D. a – ii, b – i, c – iii
Answer:
A. a – i, b – ii, c – iii

Religion and Indian Social System	Description
a. Article 15	i. No discrimination by religion, caste, sex, etc.
b. Kabir Das	ii. Hindu-Muslim harmony
c. Meera Bai	iii. Women’s freedom of worship

Question 10.
Match the Following

Tribal Society	Description
a. Traditional Knowledge	i. Possess valuable knowledge about agriculture and medicine
b. Arts and Culture	ii. Enrich Indian culture through unique art forms and festivals
c. Sustainable Life	iii. Live in harmony with nature and use resources eco-friendly

A. a – i, b – ii, c – iii
B. a – ii, b – iii, c – i
C. a – iii, b – i, c – ii
D. a – i,b – iii, c – ii
Answer:
A. a – i, b – ii, c – iii

Tribal Society	Description
a. Traditional Knowledge	i. Possess valuable knowledge about agriculture and medicine
b. Arts and Culture	ii. Enrich Indian culture through unique art forms and festivals
c. Sustainable Life	iii. Live in harmony with nature and use resources eco-friendly

Question 11.
Choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Rural and urban societies in India are interdependent.
Reason (R): Cities depend on villages for raw materials and food, while villages depend on cities for technology and markets.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
A. Both A arid R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Write the ones from section B that match section A from the following.

A	B
Pluralism in Indian Society	i. Promotes unity and coexistence
	ii. Encourages mutual respect and understanding among diverse groups
	iii. Ensures that diversity does not lead to division

A. i
B. i and ii
C. i, ii, iii
D. ii, iii
Answer:
C. i, ii, iii

Question 13.
Prepare a note on Herbert Spencer.
Answer:
Herbert Spencer was a sociologist who compared society to a living system. He proposed the idea that society is a social organism by drawing an analogy between the human body system and the social system.

Question 14.
Compare diversity and pluralism.
Answer:

1. Pluralism:- The word pluralism means the coexistence of different things.
2. Diversity:- Diversity means differences.

Question 15.
What is Indian National Integration?
Answer:
Indian national integration is the process of uniting the culturally, linguistically, and religiously diverse Indian society into a single national identity while respecting their diversity.

Question 16.
Explain the role of religions in the socialisation process.
Answer:
Every religion teaches human values such as honesty, proportion, mutual respect, mutual love, care, social responsibility, sense of justice, and morality, thereby enriching the socialisation process.

Question 17.
List the resistances against inequality by tribal people in India.
Answer:

1. Munda revolt
2. Santal revolt
3. Kurichya revolt

Question 18.
List the factors that are detrimental to Indian pluralism.
Answer:

1. Problems of linguistic minorities
2. Problems of tribal people
3. Factors that are detrimental to secularism

Question 19.
Fill “B” and “C” by analysing the connection of A.
A. National Integration: Unity in Diversity
B. Secularism: ……………………
C. Democracy: …………………..
Answer:
B. Equality and Religious Tolerance
C. Inclusive Participation and Representation

Question 20.
What is the rural-urban continuum?
Answer:
The transformation of rural societies into urban ones is linked to the concept of the rural-urban continuum. Mac Iver opined that there is a situation in the rural-urban continuum in which there is no
clear boundary between where cities end and villages begin. We can observe that this kind of rural-urban continuum exists in Kerala.

Question 21.
What are the factors that contribute to the formation of a social system?
Answer:

1. Education
2. Transportation
3. Media
4. Communication
5. Law
6. Judicial system
7. Health care systems
8. Religious and cultural institutions

Question 22.
Explain the features of the Indian social system.
Answer:

1. Caste system
2. Religion
3. Language
4. Tribal society
5. Rural and urban societies

Question 23.
Examine the role of religions in the Indian social system.
Answer:

1. Means of social control
2. Enriches cultural diversity.
3. Accelerates social change.

Question 24.
Discuss the role of languages in the Indian social system.
Answer:

1. Organises cultural traditions.
2. Provides a sense of identity.
3. Fosters respect for and coexistence with cultural diversity.

Question 25.
Write the difference between diversity and pluralism in society.
Answer:

• Diversity in society refers to the differences that exist within society.
• But pluralism promotes the exchange of ideas, mutual respect, mutual love, and mutual harmony between different groups beyond these differences.
• While diversity exists naturally, pluralism is something that heeds to be consciously created.

Question 26.
Evaluate the role of tribal communities in preserving India’s culture.
Answer:

1. Preserving traditional knowledge.
2. Ensuring sustainable livelihoods.
3. Building resilience against inequality.

Question 27.
Explain the interdependence between rural and urban societies in India.
Answer:
Rural and urban societies in India depend on each other for resources and development. Villages provide raw materials like food to cities, while cities supply technology, markets, and modem facilities to villages. Rural-urban migration connects the two, and urban trends influence village life. While villages emphasise cooperation and social relationships, urban areas promote industrialisation, employment, and cultural exchange. This interdependence maintains balance and strengthens the Indian social system.

Question 28.
How do tribal communities contribute to environmental conservation and the nation’s knowledge economy?
Answer:
Tribal communities live in harmony with nature, using forests, water, and other natural resources in an eco-friendly way. Their sustainable practices serve as effective models for resource management and environmental preservation. Their deep knowledge of forests also supports the development of eco-tourism. By integrating their traditional knowledge into modern applications, tribal societies contribute to the nation’s knowledge economy.

Question 29.
Explain the concept of a social system and how it applies to Indian society.
Answer:
A social system is formed when various parts of society, such as family, education, economy, religion, government, and other institutions, work interdependently and complementarily to maintain stability, growth, and social order. Herbert Spencer compared society to a living organism, where each part functions together like organs in a body. In India, the social system reflects diversity in castes, religions, languages, tribes, and cultures. It has evolved over thousands of years, shaped by history, culture, and traditions, forming a complex structure that regulates interactions and maintains social harmony.

Question 30.
Explain how the caste system acted as a means of social control in ancient India and how India addresses untouchability today.
Answer:
In ancient India, the caste system served as a system of social control. Members of each caste had to follow strict norms and duties, maintaining social order based on the notions of purity and pollution. This led to strict caste distinctions, and lower castes were often required to keep social distance from higher castes. Untouchability was practiced, preventing people of different castes from sharing food or social interaction. Today, untouchability is prohibited under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, which ensures equality and the protection of civil rights in India.

Question 31.
Explain the concept of secularism in India and how it is reflected in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
India is a secular state, as stated in the Preamble of the Constitution, meaning the State does not give special status to any religion. Indian secularism ensures the harmonious existence of all religions, whether originating in India or outside. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. This protects equality and promotes social harmony among diverse religious communities in India.

Question 32.
Explain how the caste system led to social inequality and marginalisation in India, and give examples of agitations against it.
Answer:
Inequality and Marginalisation

• Even though the caste system was practised as the basis of the social structure, it developed social inequality in society.
• People who were considered lower castes were denied access to education, land and resources which in turn accelerated the marginalisation of these sections.
• The inequalities which existed then were often considered unquestionable.
• It became an obstacle for the deserving individuals to access resources and to achieve equality. Certain sections received more consideration while others were marginalised.
• Over the years, several agitations emerged against the caste-based inequalities and oppression across India.
• Kallumala agitation, Mookkuthi agitation, Panthi Bhojanam, Channar riot, etc., were examples of agitations in Kerala.

The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination and ensures equality for all its citizens. In modern India, democratic values, constitutional provisions, and social movements have challenged the rigid practices of the traditional caste system. This influenced social mobility and paved the way for building a just society, promoting equality, and eliminating caste discrimination.

Question 33.
Explain the role of religion in the Indian social system.
Answer:
RELIGION

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution states that India is a secular state.
• The unique aspect of Indian secularism is that the State does not accord special status to any religion.
• Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• One of the characteristics of the Indian social system is that there is a harmonious existence of religions that originated in India, and those that originated outside India.

ROLE OF RELIGION IN THE INDIAN SOCIAL SYSTEM
A Tool for Social control

• Each religion teaches human values such as honesty, empathy, mutual respect, love, care, social responsibility, justice, and morality and these values enrich the process of socialisation.
• Through these coexistence and social order can be ensured. Thus, religious values influence and guide individual behaviour, and there by act as a tool for social control.

Enriching Cultural Diversity

• Religion enriches our country’s cultural diversity through beliefs, arts and literature.
• The paintings and engravings found in religious institutions such as temples, churches, mosques, viharas and gurudwaras vividly point to this cultural richness.

In the idealistic contributions of many figures such as Kabir Das, who worked for Hindu-Muslim harmony, Meera Bai, who stood for women’s freedom of worship, and Guru Nanak, who opposed caste discrimination and economic inequality, one can see numerous elements that enriched India’s cultural diversity.

Accelerating Social Change

• Some religious movements evolved into social movements, that paved way for social changes. They challenged caste discrimination and encouraged equality. Brahmo Samajled by Raja Ram Mohan Roy is an example of this.
• Although religion promotes reformation and unity in society, it can at times challenge the harmony of India’s social order due to divisions and conflicts along religious lines. Such tendencies harmfully affect our social unity.

Question 34.
Explain the contributions of tribal communities to Indian society.
Answer:
LANGUAGE

• India is one of the most linguistically diverse countries in the world, with 22 official languages and numerous regional dialects.
• Language is not just a means of communication- it is a symbol of culture and identity. After Independence, India was reorganised based on linguistic lines.
• Differences in social systems and cultural practices exist among people who speak different languages.

Make Cultural Traditions Organic

• The Ballads of Northern Kerala (Vadakkan Pattukal) are examples of oral songs. These songs helped preserve traditional values, social norms and historical events.
• Languages organically embody the traditions of their respective societies through oral transmission over time and, subject to changes, through written transmission.
• The traditions, stories, and values of each society nurture its culture.

BALLADS OF THE NORTH (VADAKKAN PATTUKAL) Ballads of the North are heroic folk songs that originated in Northern Kerala. The essence of the songs is the biographies and celebration of the lives and heroic deeds of famous Kalari practitioners from tharavads like Puthuram and Thacholi, in the areas of Kadathanadu in Northern Malabar, Kolathunadu and Wayanad. These songs are transmitted through the Malayalam language.

Provides a Sense of Identity

• As the Malayalam-speaking people are known as Malayalees, people are connected to their identities through language.
• Terms like Tamils, Biharis and Punjabis are examples of how people’s language and identity are related. Thus, language plays an inclusive role in shaping people’s sense of identity.

Fosters Respect for and Coexistence with Cultural Diversity

• We can learn about different cultures and foster respect and coexistence through various languages.
• People can develop broader life perspectives and opportunities by learning and using more than one language, including their regional languages.
• To maintain equilibrium in Indian social systems, it is essential to recognise and respect linguistic diversity.

Question 35.
Explain the concept of national integration in India and the factors that promote it.
Answer:

• National integration is a process by which people from different backgrounds, regions, languages, religions, and cultures are respected for their diversity, leading to a unified and harmonious state.
• It also emphasises people’s identity, solidarity and public identity while respecting their diversity.
• India’s national integration is a process that unifies Indian society into a national identity by respecting India’s cultural, linguistic and religious diversity.

The festivals that promote unity in diversity’ inspire national integration in India. India is a democratic country that ensures inclusive participation of all marginalised groups and ensures equal participation and representation for all groups in society. The various festivals and events celebrated together across India ensure coexistence and tolerance in society. Besides, a legal system that protects religious and linguistic minorities and a visible secularism reinforce constitutional values such as equality.

Question 36.
What are features of National Integration?
Answer:

• National integration is a process by which people from different backgrounds, regions, languages, religions, and cultures are respected for their diversity, leading to a unified and harmonious state.
• It also emphasises people’s identity, solidarity and public identity while respecting their diversity.
• India’s national integration is a process that unifies Indian society into a national identity by respecting India’s cultural, linguistic and religious diversity.

The festivals that promote unity in diversity inspire national integration in India. India is a democratic country that ensures inclusive participation of all marginalised groups and ensures equal participation and representation for all groups in society. The various festivals and events celebrated together across India ensure coexistence and tolerance in society. Besides, a legal system that protects religious and linguistic minorities and a visible secularism reinforce constitutional values such as equality.