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Students can Download Chapter 5 Introduction to C++ Programming Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Introduction to C++ Programming

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
IDE means _____________
Answer:
Integrated Development Environment

Question 2.
We know that C++ is a high level language. From the following which statement is true.
(a) C++ contains English like statements.
(b) C++ contains mnemonics
(c) C++ contains only 0 and 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) C++ contains English like statements.

Question 3.
C++ is a ______ language.
(a) High level
(b) Low level
(c) Middle level
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) High level

Question 4.
C++ was developed at ___________
(a) AT & T Bell Laboratory
(b) Sanjose Laboratory
(c) Kansas University Lab
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) AT & T Bell Laboratory

Question 5.
C++ is a successor of ___________ language
(a) C#
(b) C
(c) java
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) C

Question 6.
The most adopted and popular approach to write programs is __________
Answer:
Structured programming

Question 7.
From the following which uses OOP concept
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Pascal
(d) Fortran
Answer:
(b) C++

Question 8.
______________ is the smallest individual unit
Answer:
Token

Question 9
Pick the odd one out
(a) float
(b) void
(c) break
(d) Alvis
Answer:
(d) Alvis, the others are keywords.

Question 10.
Reserved words for the compiler is ____________
(a) Literals
(b) Identifier
(c) Keywords
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Keywords

Question 11.
Pick an identifier from the following
(а) auto
(b) age
(c) float
(d) double
Answer:
(b) age

Question 12.
Pick the invalid identifier
(a) name
(b) Date of birth
(c) age
(d) joining time
Answer:
(b) Date of birth, because it contains space.

Question 13.
Pick the octal integer from the following
(a) 217
(b) 0 X 217
(c) 0217
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 0217, an octal integer precedes 0

Question 14.
Pick the hexadecimal integer from the following
(a) 217
(b) 0 × 217
(c) 0217
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 0 × 217, a hexadecimal integer precedes 0×

Question 15.
From the following pick a character constant
(a) ‘A’
(b) ‘ALL’
(c) ‘AIM’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) ‘A’, a character enclosed between single quote

Question 16.
Non graphic symbol can be represented by using ___________
Answer:
Escape Sequence

Question 17.
Manish wants to write a program to produce a beep sound. Which escape sequence is used to get an alert (sound)
(a) \a
(b) \d
(c) Vs
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) \a.

Question 18.
Ajo wants to print a matter in a new line. Which escape sequence is used for this?
(a) \a
(b) \n
(c) \s
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) \n

Question 19.
To represent null character is used ______
(a) \n
(b) \0
(c) \f
(d) As
Answer:
(b) \0

Question 20.
State True/ False a string is automatically appended by a null character.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
From the following pick a string constant
(a) ‘a’
(b) “abc”
(c) ‘abc’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) “abc”, a character constant must be enclosed between double quotes.

Question 22.
C++ was developed by __________
(a) Bjarne Stroustrup
(b) James Gosling
(c) Pascal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Bjarne stroustrup

Question 23.
From the following which is not a character constant.
(а) ‘c’
(b) ‘e’
(c) ‘d’
(d) “c”
Answer:
(d) “c”, It is a string constant the others are character constant.

Question 24.
From the following which is a valid declaration.
(a) int 91;
(b) int x;
(c) int 9x;
(d) int “x”;
Answer:
(b) int x;

Question 25.
Symbols used to perform an operation is called ____________
(a) Operand
(b) Operator
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Operator

Question 26.
Consider the following
C = A + B. Here A and B are called
(a) Operand
(b) Operator
(c) Variable
(d) None of these,
Answer:
(b) Operand

Question 27.
The execution of a program starts at ________ function
Answer:
main()

Question 28.
The execution of a program ends with ________ function
Answer:
main()

Question 29.
______ is used to write single line comment
(a) //
(b) /*
(c) */
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) //

Question 30.
const k = 100 means
(a) const float k = 100
(b) const double k = 100
(c) const int k = 100
(d) const char k = 100
Answer:
(c) const int k = 100

Question 31.
Each and every statement in C++ must be end with ________
(а) Semicolon
(b) Colon
(c) full stop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Semicolon

Question 32.
From the following select the input operator
(а) >>
(b) <<
(c) >
(d) <
Answer:
(a) >>

Question 33.
From the following select the output operator
(a) >>
(b) <<
(c) >
(d) <
Answer:
(b) <<

Question 34.
From the following which is known as a string terminator.
(а) ‘\0’
(b) ‘\a’
(c) ‘As’
(d) ‘\t’
Answer:
(a) ‘\0’

Question 35.
Adeline wrote a C++ program namely sum.cpp and she compiled the program successfully with no error. Some files are generated. From the following which file is a must to run the program
(a) sum.exe
(b) sum.obj
(c) sum.vbp
(d) sum.htm
Answer:
(a) sum.exe

Question 36.
Adeline wrote a C++ program namely sum.cpp and she compiled the program successfully with no error. Some files are generated namely sum.obj and sum.exe. From this which file is not needed to run the program
Answer:
sum.obj is not needed and can be deleted.

Question 37.
From the following which is ignored by the compiler
(a) statement
(b) comments
(c) loops
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) comments

Question 38.
To write a C++ program, from the following which statement is a must
(a) sum()
(b) main()
(c) #include<iostream>
(d) #include<iomanip>
Answer:
(b) main(). A C++ program must contains at least one main() function

Question 39.
State True / False
Comment statements are ignored by the compiler
Answer:
True

Question 40.
More than one input/output operator in a single statement is called _______
Answer:
Cascading of I/O operator

Question 41.
Is 0X85B a valid integer constant in C++? If yes why?
Answer:
Yes. It is a hexadecimal number.

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Dixon declared a variable as follows
int 9age. Is it a valid identifier. If not briefly explain. the rules for naming an identifier.
Answer:
It is not a valid identifier because it violates the rule
The rules for naming an identifier is as follows:

1. It must be start with a letter(alphabet)
2. Under score can be considered as a letter
3. White spaces and special characters cannot be used.
4. Key words cannot be considered as an identifier

Question 2.
How many bytes used to store ‘\a’.
Answer:
To store ‘\a’ one byte is used because it is an escape sequence. An escape sequence is treated as one character. To store one character one byte is used.

Question 3.
How many bytes used to store “\abc”.
Answer:
A string is automatically appended by a null character.

• Here one byte for \a (escape sequence).
• One byte for character b.
• One byte for character c.
• And one byte for null character.
• So a total of 4 bytes needed to store this string.

Question 4.
How many bytes used to store “abc”.
Answer:
A string is automatically appended by a null character.

• Here one byte for a.
• One byte for character b.
• One byte for character c.
• And one byte for null character.
• So a total of 4 bytes needed to store this string.

Question 5.
Consider the following code
int main()
{
cout<<“welcome to C++”;
}
After you compile this program there is an error called prototype error. Why it is happened? Explain.
Answer:
Here we used the output operator cout<<. It is used to display a message “welcome to C++” to use this operator the corresponding header file <iostream> must be included. We didn’t included the header file hence the error.

Question 6.
In C++ the size of the string “book” is 5 and that of “book\n” is 6. Check the validity of the above statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
A string is automatically added by a null character(\0). The null character is treated as one character. So the size of string “book” is 5. Similarly, a null character (\0) is also added to “book\n”. \n and \0 is treated as single characters. Hence the size of the string “book\n” is 6.

Question 7.
Pick the odd man out. Justify
TOTSAL, TOT_SAL, totsal5, Tot5_sal, SALTOT, tot.sal
Answer:
tot.sal. Because it contains a special character dot(.). An identifier cannot contain a special character. So it is not an identifier. The remaining satisfies the rules of naming identifier. So they are valid identifiers.

Question 8.
Write a C++ statement to print the following sentence. Justify.
“\ is a special character”
answer:
cout<<“\\ is a special character”
\\ is treated as an escape sequence.

Question 9.
A student type a C++ program and saves it in his personal folder as Sample.cpp. After getting the output of the program, he checks the folder and finds three files namely Sample.cpp, Sample.obj and Sample.exe. Write the reasons for the generation of the two files in the folder.
Answer:
After the compilation of the program sample.cpp, the operating system creates two files if there is no error. The files are one object file (sample.obj) and one executable file(sample.exe). Now the source file(sample.cpp) and object file(sample.obj) are not needed and can be deleted. To run the program sample.exe is only needed.

Question 10.
Mention the purpose of tokens in C++. Write names of any four tokens in C++. (2)
Answer:
Token: It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens.

1. Keywords
2. Identifier
3. Literals (Constants)
4. Punctuators
5. Operators

Question 11.
The following are some invalid identifiers. Specify its reason.

1. Sum of digits
2. 1 year
3. First jan
4. For

Answer:

1. Sum of digits → space not allowed hence it is invalid
2. 1 year → First character must be an alphabet hence it is invalid
3. First.jan → special characters such as dot (.) not allowed hence it is invalid.
4. For → It is valid. That is it is not the keyword for

Question 12.
Some of the literals in C++ are given below. How do they differ?(5, ‘5’, 5.0, “5”)
Answer:

• 5 – integer literal
• ‘5’ – Character literal
• 5.0 – floating point literal
• “5”- string literal

Question 13.
Identify the invalid literals from the following and write reason for each:

1. 2E3.5
2. “9”
3. ‘hello’
4. 55450 (2)

Answer:
1. 2E3.5 → The mantissa part (3.5) will not be a floating point number. Hence it is invalid

3. ‘hello’ → It is a string hence it must be enclosed in double quotes instead of single quotes. It is invalid.

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a user defined name?
(a) Keyword
(b) Identifier
(c) Escape sequences
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Identifier

Question 15.
Identify whether the following are valid identifiers or not? If not give the reason.

1. Break
2. Simple.interest (2)

Answer:

1. Break – It is valid( break is the keyword, not Break);
2. Simple.interest – It is not valid, because dot(.) is used.

Question 16.
Identify the invalid literals from the following and write a reason for each:

1. 2E3.5
2. “9”
3. ‘hello’
4. 55450 (2)

Answer:
1. Invalid, because exponent part should not be a floating point number

2. valid

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rose wants to print as follows
\n is used for New Line. Write down the C++ statement for the same.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<“\\n is used for New Line”;
}

Question 2.
Alvis wants to give some space using escape sequence as follows
Welcome to C++. Write down the C++ statement for the same
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<“Welcome to \t C++”;
}

Question 3.
We know that the value of pi = 3.14157, a constant (literal). What is a. constant? Explain it.
Answer:
A constant or a literal is a data item its value doe not change during execution.
1. Integer literals:
Whole numbers without fractional parts are known as integer literals, its value does not change during execution. There are 3 types decimal, octal and hexadecimal.
Eg. For decimal “100, 150, etc

• For octal 0100, 0240, etc
• For hexadecimal 0 × 100, 0x1 A, etc

2. Float literals:
A number with fractional parts and its value does not change during execution is called floating point literals.
eg: 3.14157,79.78, etc

3. Character literal:
A valid C++ character enclosed in single

Question 4.
Write a program to print the message “TOBACCO CAUSES CANCER” on screen.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<” TOBACCO CAUSES CANCER”;
}

Question 5.
You are supplied with a list of tokens in C++ program, Classify and Categorise them under proper headings.
Explain each category with its features. tot_mark, age, M5, break, (), int, _pay, ;, cin.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write a program to print the message “SMOKING IS INJURIOUS TO HEALTH” on screen.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int mainO
{
cout<<” SMOKING IS INJURIOUS TO HEALTH”;
}

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following code
The new line character is \n. The output of the following code does not contain the \n. Why it is happened? Explain.
Answer:
\n is a character constant and it is also known as escape sequence. This is used to represent the non graphic symbols such as carriage return key(enter key), tab key, backspace, space bar, etc. It consists of a backslash symbol and one more characters.

Question 2.
You are about to study the fundamentals of C++ programming Language. Do a comparative study of the basics of the new language with that of a formal language like English or Malayalam to familiarize C++? Provide sufficient explanations for the compared items in C++ Language.
Answer:
1. Character set:
To study a language first we have to familiarize the character set. For example, to study English language first we have to study the alphabets. Similarly here the character set includes letters(A to Z & a to z), digits(0 to 9), special characters(+, -, ?, *, /, …..) white spaces(non printable), etc.

2. Token:
It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens

• Keywords: These are reserved words for the compiler. We can’t use for any other purposes.
  Eg: float is used to declare variable to store numbers with decimal point. We can’t use this for any other purpose
• Identifier: These are user defined words. Eg: variable name, function name, class name, object name, etc…
• Literals (Constants): Its value does not change during execution
  eg: In maths % = 3.14157 and boiling point of water is 100.
• Punctuators: In English or Malayalam language punctuation mark are used to increase the readability but here it is used to separate the tokens.
  eg:{,}, (,), ……..
• Operators: These are symbols used to perform an operation(Arithmetic, relational, logical, etc…).

Students can Download Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement

Plus One Locomotion and Movement One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ribs are attached to
(a) Scapula
(b) Sternum
(c) Clavicle
(d) llium
Answer:
(d) llium

Question 2.
What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?
(a) Pivot
(b) Saddle
(c) Hinge
(d) Gliding
Answer:
(a) Pivot

Question 3.
ATPase of the muscle is located in
(a) Actinin
(b) Troponin
(c) Myosin
(d) Actin
Answer:
(c) Myosin

Question 4.
Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit
(a) Ciliary movement
(b) Flagellar movement
(c) Amoeboid movement
(d) Gliding movement
Answer:
(c) Amoeboid movement

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?
(a) Arthritis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets
(d) Atherosclerosis
Answer:
(d) Atherosclerosis

Question 6.
Suggest a suitable word for the fourth place

1. thin filament : Actin :: Thick filament : ___________
2. Pelvic girdle : humerus :: Pelvic girdle : ___________

Answer:

1. myosin
2. Femur

Question 7.
Copy the paragraph below about the structure of a striated muscle. Choose the words from the following list & fill up the gaps.

Under lightmicroscope, the striated muscle shows ________ (a) band & _______ (b) band. The distance between 2 adjacent Z lines is known as __________ (c).
(sarcomere, lightband, A band, H-zone, M line, darkband)
Answer:
(a) Ligthband
(b) Darkband
(c) Sarcomere

Question 8.
A person is suffering from joint pain. His blood test shown increased amount of Uric acid. What will be the diagnosis?
Answer:
Gout

Question 9.
The infants have 33 vertebrae in the vertebral column. But an adult has only 26 vertebrae. What will happen to the remaining vertebrae.
Answer:
Ulna

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The axial skeleton contains 80 bones. Make a table according to where it is seen and number of bones present in each section.
Answer:

Skull	29
Vertebral column	26
Ribs	24
Sternum	1
Total	80

Question 2.
One of the following statements is incorrect. Find and correct it.

1. The number of cervical vertebrae is seven in all mammals except human beings.
2. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together make ribcage.
3. Accumulation of uric acid in joints leads to gout.

Answer:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The number of cervical vertebrae is seven in all mammals including human beings.

Question 3.

1. Name the process shown here, which theory explain this process ?
2. Draw and complete the process.

Answer:
1. Muscle contraction, Sliding – filament theory

2.

Question 4.
Red muscle fibers have greater capacity to do work for a prolonged period where as white muscles suffer from fatigue after a short time. Give reason.
Answer:
Red muscle fibers are red in colour due to the presence of large amount of myoglobin. Myoglobin is an oxygen storing pigment. These muscle also contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production.

So red muscle fibers have greater capacity to do work for a prolonged period. White muscle fibers possess very less quantity of myoglobin and mitochondria.

Question 5.
Shoulder joints are not very stable. But they are freely movable. Give reason?
Answer:
Shoulder joints are freely movable joint or synovial joint. In this type of joint there is presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement allows considerable movement.

Question 6.
Name the types of joint between the following.

1. Atlas/axis
2. Between Cranial bones
3. Carpal/Meta carpel of thumb
4. Between Humerus and pectoral girdle

Answer:

1. Pivot joint
2. Fibrous joint
3. Saddle joint
4. Ball and socket joint

Question 7.
Analyse the table & fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

Radium	Forearm
(a)	Femur
Atlas	(b)
Frontal bone	(c)
Humerus	Upper arm

Answer:

Radium	Fore arm
Thigh bone	Femur
Atlas	First vertebrae
Frontal bone	Cranium
Humerus	Upper arm

Question 8.
The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

1. What do you meant by the term floating ribs?
2. What are true ribs?

Answer:

1. Last 2 pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally to the sternum. There ribs are called floating ribs.
2. First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they pre attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

Question 9.
Some joints in the body are characterized by pressure of a fluid filled cavity between articulating surfaces of two bones. Mention the peculiarity of these types of joint and give examples?
Answer:
This type of joint in called synovial joint or freely movable joint and allows considerable movement.
eg:

1. Ball and socket joint (between humerus and pectoral girdle)
2. Hinge joint (knee joint)

Question 10.
A muscle cell viewed under a microscope shown the following characters.

• Sarcolemma – Present
• Shape – Cylindrical
• Nucleus – Multinuclear
• Striation – Present

1. Identify the muscle cell.
2. Calcium ions are necessary for muscle contraction.

Answer:

If a muscle is placed in a solution containing calcium ions. Does the muscle contracts? Substantiate.
Answer:

1. Skeletal muscle
2. No. For muscle contraction to occur, presence of Ca⁺⁺ ions intracellularly is needed.

Question 11.
Pictorial representation of tissue is given in a lab diary with only one labelling – intercalated discusing your knowledge about tissue.

1. Identify the tissue.
2. Draw the structure of tissue and label the parts.

Answer:
1. Cardiac muscle

2.

Question 12.
You can move your hands at your will. But you can’t move your heart at your will. Comment.
Answer:
Muscles of the hand are skeletal muscles and they are voluntary muscle. Muscles of the heart are cardiac muscles and they are involuntary muscles.

Question 13.

1. Identify the muscle cell
2. Mention its function.

Answer:

1. Non-striated muscle (smooth muscle)
2. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles located in the inner visceral organs like alimentary canal, reproductive tract etc. So they help the transportation of food through digestive tract and gamete through the genital tract.

Question 14.
An investigation was arrived out to find the effect of the temperature on muscle contraction. The results are shown in the graph.

1. Describe and suggest an explanation for one effect of temperature on muscle contraction.
2. Name the filaments involved in muscle contraction.

Answer:

1. When temperature increases muscle contraction increases, but when temperature decreases the extend of muscle contraction decreases, but the time remain in the contracted state increases,
2. Actin and myosin

Question 15.
The red colour of the blood is due to the presence of hemoglobin in it. Certain skeletal muscles are red in colour even though they lack hemoglobin. Now explain how the red muscles have that particular colour.
Answer:
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin. Myoglobin content is high in some skeletal muscles which gives a reddish appearance.

Question 16.
Actin, Troponin, Biceps, Muscles of blood vessels, Muscles of heart, Myosin, Muscles of reproductive tract, Tropomyosin, Muscles of Alimentary canal, Triceps.
Rearrange the terms in four columns on the basis of their similarity and give appropriate headings for each columns.
Answer:

Question 17.
Identify the myofibril and label the parts given below.

Answer:

Question 18.
Length of A band remains unchanged during muscular contraction. Is this statement true or false? Justify.
Answer:
True. A band or anisotropic band is the region where both thick filaments and thin filaments are present. During muscular contraction, the length of thick filament or thin filament does not change.

Question 19.
Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Red muscle	1. Pelvic girdle
2. Suture	2. Globular protein
3. Ischium	3. Immovablejoint
4. Troponin	4. Mybglobin
	5. Sternum

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Red muscle	4. Mybglobin
2. Suture	3. Immovable joint
3. Ischium	1. Pelvic girdle
4. Troponin	2. Globular protein

Question 20.
Complete the division of human skeletal system by filling the blanks.

Answer:
(a) Axial
(b) Vertebral column
(c) 12
(d) One

Question 21.
Arrange the following bones into two columns and give proper heading to each columns.
Scapula, Carpals, Femur, Fibula, Tibia, Tarsals, Acetabulum, Metatarsals, Radius, Humerus, Glenoid cavity, Clavicle, Metal Carpals, Phalanges, Patella, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis.
Answer:

Pectoral girdle and bones of forelimb	Pelvic girdle and Bones of Hind Limb
Clavicle	Ilium
Scapula	Ischium
Humerus	Pelvis
Radius	Femur
Ulna	Patella
Carpals	Tibia
Metacarpals	Fibula
Phalanges	Metatarsal
	phalanges

Question 22.
Your lungs and Heart are well protected in a cage. Which bone contributes to it?
Answer:
In an infant, there are 33 vertebrae in the vertebral column. Five of these bones fuse to form the sacrum and four of other join to become the coccyx. As a result, an adult vertebral column has 26 vertebrae.

Question 23.
There are joints at your shoulders and elbows. But their movement is different. Give reason.
Answer:

• Shoulder joint – Ball and socket joint
• Elbow joint – Hinge joint

Question 24.
What are the different type of movement shown by human cells?
Answer:
Amoeboid, ciliary and muscular and flagellar movement.

Question 25.
Fill the gaps.

Answer:

Question 26.
Draw a flow chart showing the flow of stimulus that results in muscle contraction. (Start from Neuromuscular junction)
Answer:

Question 27.
Match the following.

A	B
a. Fixed joint	Shoulder joint
b. Ball and socket joints	Wrist and ankle
c. Hinge joints	Phalanges of hind limbs
d. Pivot joints	Bones of skull
e. Gliding joints	Elbow and joints of phalanges
f. Ellipsoid joints	Skull and vertebral column.

Answer:

A	B
a. Fixed joint	Bones of skull
b. Ball and socket joints	Shoulder joint
c. Hinge joint	Elbow and joints of Phalanges
d. Pivot joint	Skull and vertebral column
e. Gliding joint	Wrist and ankle
f. Ellipsoid joint	Phalanges of hind limbs

Question 28.
Write the odd one out and give the reason for your answer.

1. Fibrous joints, Ball and socket joints, hinge joints, pivot joints
2. Humerus, Femur, Radius, Ulna.

Answer:

1. Fibrous joints: They are immovable joints of the bones of skull whereas all others are freely movable joints.
2. Femur: It is the thigh bone whereas all other are the bones of the forelimb

Question 29.
Bones of the older people turn brittle and break quickly.

1. Name the bone disorder stated above.
2. List any two reasons for the above disorder.

Answer:

1. Osteoporosis
2. reasons for the above disorder
   • Imbalance of hormones like thyrocalcitonin, parathyroid and sex hormones.
   • Deficiency of calcium and Vitamin D.

Question 30.
When you ride a bicycle two majorjointsofyourleg should perform properly.

1. Name the joints.
2. To which type of synovial joints these belong?

Answer:

1. Knee joint, Hip Joint
2. Hinge joint, Ball and Socket joint

Question 31.
In human body different type of movement shown by some cells.

1. Name the type of movement shown by human sperm.
2. Which is the part of sperm help this movement?

Answer:

1. Flagellar movement
2. Whip like movement of the tail and the middle piece of the sperm

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State one difference in each of the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in brackets.

1. Glenoid cavity and acetabulum (location and function)
2. Osteoarthritis and Gout (cause)

Answer:
1. Glenoid cavity:
It is a cap like depression in the pectoral girdle to which the head of the humerus fits in.

Acetabulum:
It is a cap like depression present in the pelvic girdle to which head of the femur bone fits in.

2. Osteoarthritis:
It is caused by the degeneration of the articular cartilage.

Gout:
It is caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Question 2.

1. Observe the diagram and identify the type of joint.
2. Where can you find this type of joints in your body?
3. Comment on its ability to move.

Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint
2. Shoulder joints and Hip joints
3. In ball and socket joint, one of the bones forms a ball like head while the other forms a cup like socket into which head fits in. It allows the free movement of the bone with the ball like head.

Question 3.
X-ray photography of forelimb of a person is given here. One of the bones found to be fractured. Name the bone with fracture.

Answer:
a. (i) Across:
1. Hyoid
3. Cranium
4. Pelvic girdle

(ii) Down:
2. Coccyx
5. Ulna

b. Hyoid and cranium

Question 4.
According to colour, muscles are of two types.

1. Name the two muscles.
2. Why are they called so?
3. Give examples.

Answer:

1. Red muscle and white muscle.
2. Red muscles contain large amount of mitochondria and myoglobin whereas the white muscles contain only less amount of mitochondria and myoglobin.
3. Examples
   • Red muscles – Extensor muscles on the back.
   • White muscles – muscles of the eye ball.

Question 5.

1. Observe the above graph and find out the region of graph where muscle show maximum contraction. Justify your answer.
2. Name the different types of muscle proteins present in thick and thin filaments.
3. Ca²⁺ is necessary for muscle contraction. Why?

Answer:
1. Region 2 During Muscular contraction amount of Ca²⁺ released from ER is very high.

2. Thick filament – Muscle protein – myosin
Thin filament – Muscle protein – actin, troponin, tropomyosin.

3. Muscle contraction is regulated by a regulator protein troponin. Troponin mask the active site of actin molecule from myosin head, Action potential reaching a muscle cause the ER to release Ca²⁺.

This Ca²⁺ bind with the specific site of troponin. It causes a conformational change by which the active site of actin molecule is exposed and it results in cross bridge activity and muscle contraction.

Question 6.
Will muscle contraction occur in the following conditions. Justify your answer.

1. Troponin is removed from the thin filament.
2. No ATP is supplied to the muscle.
3. All endoplasmic reticulum are removed from muscle cells.

Answer:

1. Muscle contraction occur.
2. Muscle contraction does not occur. Attachment and detachment of myosin head to actin molecule requires ATP.
3. No muscle contraction. Ca²⁺ necessary for muscular contraction is released from endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 7.
The given statements are about the structure of muscles. Categorise them into a table giving appropriate headings.

1. These muscles have striation.
2. These are found inside the wall of hollow internal organs.
3. These muscles have no striations.
4. They are voluntary muscles.
5. They are muscles of the arms and legs.
6. They are involuntary muscles

Answer:

Skeletal Muscle	Smooth muscle
1. These muscles have striation	2. These muscles are found inside the wall of hollow internal organs.
4. They are voluntary muscles.	3. These muscles have no striation
5. They are muscles of the arms and legs	6. They are involuntary muscles

Question 8.
Observe the following diagram.

1. Identify A, B, C, D.
2. What is Sarcomere?
3. List out the changes takes place during muscle contraction to ABC and D.

Answer:

1. Identification
   • A – Sarcomere
   • B – Hzone
   • C – Aband
   • D – Iband
2. A sarcomere is the region between two adjacent Z line. It is formed of a complete A band in the middle and halves of two I bands present on either side.
3. the changes takes place during muscle contraction to ABC and D:
   • A – Two Z lines of the sarcomere come close together resulting in the shortening of the sarcomere.
   • B – H – Zone completely disappears.
   • C – No change in the length of A band
   • D – I – band get reduced

Question 9.
Give any example of synovial joint.
Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint (between humerus and pectoral girdle)
2. Hinge joint – knee joint

Question 10.
Suppose a person is suffering from calcium deficiency for a prolonged time. How does it affect muscular contraction? (Note: Description necessary)
Answer:
Muscle contraction begins when a nerve impulse reaches at the neuromuscular junction. During this time the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca²⁺. The Ca²⁺ binds with the specific site of the troponin of the actin filament.

This causes a conformational change in the troponin molecule and expose the active site on the actin molecule. Myosin filament binds with the active site of actin and there is formation a cross bridge. By the movement of cross bridge contraction occurs.

The contraction is followed by relaxation and it occurs when Ca²⁺ in pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. As a result, the troponin molecules became free to mask the active site of the myosin head.

Question 11.
Identify the following diseases noting the symptoms given below

1. The liver is affected, skin and eyes turn yellow due to the deposit of bile pigments.
2. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to the inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
3. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged mainly due to cigarette smoking.
4. Auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
5. Inflammation of joints due to deposition of uric and crystals.
6. Age related disorder due to decreased level of estrogen, characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.

Answer:

1. Jaundice
2. Asthma
3. Emphysema
4. Myasthenia gravis
5. Gout
6. Osteoporosis

Question 12.
Identify the following tissues and write down their location.

1. Loose connective tissue which stores fat.
2. Dense connective tissue which connect bone to bone.
3. A contractile tissue which possess intercalatory disc.

Answer:

1. Adipose tissue – beneath the skin
2. Ligament – attach one bone to another
3. Cardiac muscle – heart

Plus One Locomotion and Movement NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
Answer:
Sliding Filament Theory of Muscle Contraction Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.

Question 2.
Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.
Answer:
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate.

1. A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

2. Increase in Ca²⁺ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.

3. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band.

4. The 7’ line attached to these actions are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction.

5. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the T bands get reduced, whereas the A’ bands retain the length.

6. The myosin, releasing the ADP and PI goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydroysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.

7. The process continues till the Ca²⁺ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae resulting in the masking of actin filaments. This causes the return of 7 lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation.

Question 3.
Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.

1. Actin present in thin filament
2. H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments
3. The human skeleton has 206 bones
4. There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.
5. Stenum is present on the ventral side of the body.

Answer:

1. True
2. False, H-zone represents thick filaments
3. True
4. False, There are 12 pairs of ribs in man
5. True

Question 4.
Match column I with column II

Column I	Column II
(a) Smooth muscle	(i) Myogobin
(b) Tropomyosin	(ii) Thin filament
(c) Red muscle	(iii) Sutures
(d) Skull	(iv) Involuntary

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (ii)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 5.
Name the type of joint between the following

1. Atlas/axis
2. Carpal/metacarpal of thumb
3. Between phalanges
4. Femur/acetabulum
5. Between carnival bones
6. Between public bones in the pelvic girdle

Answer:

1. Pivot joint
2. Saddle joint
3. Gliding joint
4. Ball and socket joint
5. Fibrous joint
6. Cartilaginous

Question 6.
Fill in the blank spaces:

1. All mamnals (expect a few) have __________ cervical vertebra.
2. The number of phalanges in each limb of human is __________
3. Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely __________ and _________
4. In a muscle fibre Ca²⁺ is stored in __________
5. _______and ________ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
6. The human cranium is made of _________ bones.

Answer:

1. 7
2. 14
3. tropomyosin, troponin
4. sarcoplasmic reticulum
5. 11^th, 12^th
6. 8

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The muscle band that remains unchanged during contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is
(a) I
(b) H
(c) A
(d) A-line
Answer:
(d) A-line

Question 2.
Intervertebral disc consists of a shock absorber connective tissue known as
(a) hyaline cartilage
(b) elastic cartilage
(c) fibrocartilage
(d) reticulo cartilage
Answer:
(c) fibrocartilage

Question 3.
Common among all mammals is
(a) ventral nerve cord
(b) seven cervical vertebrae
(c) all are carnivores
(d) all are producers
Answer:
(b) seven cervical vertebrae

Question 4.
The lactic acid generated during muscle contraction is converted to glycogen in
(a) muscles
(b) kidney
(c) pancreas
(d) liver
Answer:
(d) liver

Question 5.
Folding and unfolding of actin and myosin leads to amoeboid movement. This is hypothesised by
(a) Allen
(b) Goldacre and Lasch
(c) Berthold
(d) Jennigs
Answer:
(b) Goldacre and Lasch

Question 6.
Muscle fatigue is due to
(a) lactic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) Na
(d) K
Answer:
(a) lactic acid

Question 7.
Which of the following is not syncytial?
(a) Cardiac muscle
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Smooth muscle
(d) Interstitial muscle
Answer:
(c) Smooth muscle

Question 8.
Humerus fits into glenoid cavity is example of
(a) ball and socket joint
(b) pivot joint
(c) peg and socket joint
(d) condyloid join
Answer:
(a) ball and socket joint

Question 9.
Human vertebral column is formed by
(a) 21 vertebrae
(b) 30 vertebrae
(c) 26 vertebrae
(d) 33 vertebrae
Answer:
(d) 33 vertebrae

Question 10.
When body part moves towards the median axis is called
(a) abductor
(b) adductor
(c) supinator
(d) pronator
Answer:
(b) adductor

Question 11.
The thin filaments of a muscle fibre are made up of
(a) actin, troponin, tropomyosin
(b) actin, troponin
(c) niyosin, troponin
(d) actin, tropomyosin
Answer:
(a) actin, troponin, tropomyosin

Question 12.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Cartilaginous joint Skull bones
(b) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
(c) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
(d) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
Answer:
(d) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae

Question 13.
Nucleus purposes is found in
(a) brain
(b) nucleus
(c) intervertebral disc
(d) liver
Answer:
(c) intervertebral disc

Question 14.
Total number of bones found in right upper limb is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 60
Answer:
(c) 30

Question 15.
In a vertebrate, which germ layer forms the skeletor muscles?
(a) Ectoderm
(b)Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Mesoderm

Question 16.
Where did an epidemic bone softening disease itai- itai occurred first in?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Burma
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 17.
Muscle pump is
(a) beating of heart
(b) squeezing effect of muscles upon veins running through them
(c) peristaltic wave that travel along the alimentar canal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) squeezing effect of muscles upon veins running through them

Question 18.
Slow muscle fibres are found in
(a) eye
(b) leg
(c) stomach
(d) heart
Answer:
(b) leg

Question 19.
The gliding joints are important for gliding movements. One example of such a joint is between the
(a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
(b) humerous and glenoid cavity
(c) occipital condyle and odontoid process
(d) femur and tibio fibula
Answer:
(a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae

Question 20.
Aqueduct of Sylvius (iter) connects
(a) 1^st and 2^nd ventricles
(b) 3^rd and 4^th ventricles
(c) 2^nd and 3^rd ventricles
(d) 4^th and 1^st ventricles
Answer:
(b) 3^rd and 4^th ventricles

Question 21.
Volkmann’s canals occur in
(a) internal ear
(b) liver
(c) cartilage
(d) bone
Answer:
(d) bone

Question 22.
For muscle contraction, in myofibrils the formation, of a protein is essential, such protein discovered by
(a) Jean Hanson
(b) Con and Con
(c) lbert Szent Gyorgyi
(d) Hugh Huxley
Answer:
(c) lbert Szent Gyorgyi

Students can Download Chapter 9 Uses of Statistical Methods Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Uses of Statistical Methods

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An essential part of a project report is
(i) Objectives
(ii) Methodology
(iii) Analysis
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 2.
Data collection is covered under which part of a project works?
(i) Statement of the problem
(ii) Methodology
(iii) Analysis
(iv) Conclusion
Answer:
(ii) Methodology

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List the statistical tools you use for the analysis of data collected.
Answer:
The following statistical tools can generally be used for the analysis of data collected

• Measure of central tendency
• Standard deviation
• Coefficient of variation
• Regression
• Correlation

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the steps towards making a project report.
Answer:
The following are the steps towards making a project report

1. Identifying a problem or area of study
2. Choice of target group
3. Collection of data
4. Organization and presentation of data
5. Analysis and interpretation 0 Conclusion
6. Bibliography

Question 2.
Write down the features of a good questionnaire.
Answer:
The features of a gdb questionnaire are mentioned
below.

1. The questionnaire should not be too long.
2. The number of questions should be as minimum as possible.
3. The series of questions should move from general to specific.
4. The questions should be precise and clear.
5. The questions should not be ambiguous, to enable the respondents to answer quickly, correctly and clearly.
6. If possible ask ‘yes’ or ‘no’ questions.
7. The question should not be a leading question, which gives a clue about how the respondent should answer.
8. The question should not indicate alternatives to the answer.

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a questionnaire to study the socio-economic conditions of students in your class.
Answer:
Questionnaire to study the socio-economic conditions

1. Name
2. Sex
3. Age
4. Class
5. The community to which you belong to
6. Details of family members:

7. Monthly income of the family

• below 1000
• between 1000 and 5000
• between 5000 and 10000
• above 10000

8. Do you live in the
a) rental house b) own house

9. Is your house electrified
a) yes b) no

10. Do you subscribe to the newspaper at home
a) yes b) no

11. Details of amenities at home:

• cooking gas
• television
• bicycle
• washing machine
• motorcar
• scooter
• refrigerator
• others

Students can Download Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organelle is not a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) lysosome
(b) vacuole
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer:
(c) mitochondria

Question 2.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesise
(a) steroids
(b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) steroids

Question 3.
The type of ribosome found in prokaryotes is
(a) 70 S
(b) 80 S
(c) 60 S
(d) 50 S
Answer:
(a) 70 S

Question 4.
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane in 1972?
(a) Singer and Nicolson
(b) Rober Hooke
(c) Rrobertsons model
(d) Camilo golgi
Answer:
(a) Singer and Nicolson

Question 5.
An organelle with internal cross section showing the characteristic 9 + 2 arrays is
(a) microtubule
(b) microfilament
(c) cilia and flagellum
(d) tubulin
Answer:
(c) cilia and flagellum

Question 6.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules named as ____________
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 7.
Name the cell organelle rich in acid hydrolase.
Answer:
Lysosome

Question 8.
Name the stacked particle present on the inner sur¬face of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
Oxysomes

Question 9.
Give the chemical nature of ribosomes.
Answer:
rRNAs and proteins

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Mitochondria: Cristae
   Chloroplast: ……….
2. Moss: Capsule
   Fern: ………….

Answer:

1. Grana
2. Sporangium

Question 11.
Mark the odd one out.

1. Nucleus; Nucleoli; Centriole; Chromosome
2. Family, class, taxon, phylum

Answer:

1. Centriole
2. Taxon

Question 12.
Name the protein associated with chromosomes.
Answer:
Histones

Question 13.
The cell wall of Bacterium is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Hemi cellulose
(c) Lignin
(d) Peptidoglycan
Answer:
(d) Peptidoglycan.

Question 14.
ETS is associated with F0-F1 particles and many respiratory enzymes. What is the role of F0-F1 particles in mitochondria?
Answer:
ATP synthesis

Question 15.
Why is nucleus called the director of the cell?
Answer:
It controls and coordinates all the cellular functions.

Question 16.
What will you call a cell not having ER, Golgi body, mitochondria, nuclear membrane, etc.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell

Question 17.
Which organelles are called ribonucleoprotein particles of the cell?
Answer:
Ribosome

Question 18.
Name which cell organelle is associated with secretory activity.
Answer:
Golgi body

Question 19.
Identify the powerhouse of a cell. Give justification.
Answer:
Mitochondria – synthesis of ATP

Question 20.
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
(a) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(d) Membrane-bound organelles are present
Answer:
(a) lt has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
Answer:
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Question 22.
Name the compound which gives fluidity and functional specificity to biomembranes.
Answer:
Fluidy by lipids and functional specificity by proteins

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct?

1. Cells of all living organisms have a definite nucleus
2. Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.

Answer:

1. false
2. false

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While studying the stages of meiosis following features observed at one stage.

1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
2. Formation of synaptonemal complex. Identify the stage.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene

Question 2.
Make a list of organelles that function as the cytoskeleton.
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate fibers.

Question 3.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane-bound. Write the main functions of each.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
2. Mitochondria – cellular respiration

Question 4.
Name the cell organelles in the cell which act as the following.

1. Protein factories
2. Powerhouse
3. Disposal unit
4. Control centres

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosomes
4. Nucleus

Question 5.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:
1) Ribosome – 70S
2) Porin – Protein
3) Lignin – Secondary wall
4) Nucleus – Chromosome

Question 6.
Bacterial cell envelope is a complex structure. It is made up of various layers. Name the different layers in the Bacterial cell envelope.
Answer:
Glycocalyx, cell wall, and plasma membrane.

Question 7.
Pick up the odd one and state reason for your answer.
Golgi bodies, Nucteolus, Nucleus, Lysosome.
Answer:
Nucleolus. Remaining three are major cell organells seen in cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. Comment.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the centres of production, storage, and distribution of energy for various metabolic activities of cell.

Question 9.
Table which shows a comparison of cell organisation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams of two different phases of mitosis given below and write their names..

Answer:

• A- Metaphase
• B – Anaphase

Question 11.
Interphase in cell cycle is referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No. Synthesis of DNA, RNA & Protein occurs hence it is active stage.

Question 12.
Some statements related to certain cell organelles are given in column A. Identify the organelles and give their names correctly against each statement in column B.

Answer:

Question 13.
How RER is different from SER?
Answer:

1. RER – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
   Contains ribosomes – protein synthesis
2. SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
   Devoid of ribosome – lipid synthesis & storage

Question 14.
Most accepted model of Biomembrance is best referred as ‘Protein Icebergs in the sea of Lipid”.

1. Name the most accepted structural model for the Biomembrane.
2. Who proposed it?

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic model
2. Singer & Nicholson

Question 15.
Functions and names of organells are given below arrange them into a table.
Mitochondria, Endoplasic reticulum, Ribosome, Chloroplast, protein synthesis, storage of energy, cytoskeleton, photosynthesis.
Answer:

• Mitochondria – Storage of energy
• Endoplasmic reticulum – Cytoskeleton
• Ribosome – Protein synthesis
• Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

Question 16.
Identify the given diagram. Copy and label the parts.

Answer:

• 1 – Stroma
• 4 – Fret channels

Question 17.
Match the following.

A	B
Cristae	Chloroplast
Zygotene	Golgi apparatus
Mesosome	Synapsis
Thylakoid	Mitochondria
Cisternae	Plasma membrane

Answer:

Cristae	Mitochondria
Zygotene	Synapsis
Mesosome	Plasma membrane
Thylakoid	Chloroplast
Cisternae	Golgi apparatus

Question 18.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below.

1. Classify them with necessary explanation.
2. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “C”?

Answer:
1.

• A – Acrocentric chromosome – The centromere is near the end of the chromosome.
• B – Sub-metacentric chromosome – the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome.
• C – Metacentric chromosome – The centromere is at the middle of the chromosome,

2. It has both secondary constriction and a satellite.

Question 19.
Name the organelles which act as the following.

1. cell’s circulatory system
2. protein factories
3. powerhouse
4. disposal units
5. control centres

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosomes
5. Nucleus

Question 20.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below. Classify them with necessary explanation. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “D”?

Answer:

1. A- metacen trie – media nee centromere/Satel I ite chromosome.
2. B – sub metacentric – centromere just away from median position
3. C – acrocentric
4. D – Telocentric – Centromere close to the end or terminal

Question 21.
Membrane-bound distinct structures are called organelle. An organelle that is not bounded by membrane is seen in the chloroplast and mitochondria.

1. Identify cell organelle.
2. Write down its functions.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Protein synthesis

Question 22.
Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size. Choose the correct option among the following.
i. Mycoplasma
ii. Ostrich eggs
iii. Human RBC
iv. Bacteria
Answer:
i – iv – iii – ii

Question 23.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
It is present in cytoplasm of prokaryotes called plasmids

Question 24.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extrachromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:

• Transfer of hereditary characters from one generation to next takes place with the help of nucleus. But
• extrachromosomal DNA is not under the control of nuclear DNA its copy number varies in different organism.

Question 25.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory.

1. Robert Virchow
2. Schielden and Schwann

Answer:

1. Omnis cellula-e-cellular means new cells arise from pre-existing cells. It is the contribution of Rudolf Virchow.
2. They have independently formulated the concept of cell theory i.e all cells are composed of cells and their products.

Schielden and Schwann-botanist and zoologist respectively.

Question 26.
Since the functions of certain membranous organelles are coordinated they are considered together as endomembrane system. Name the organelles included in this group.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosome, and vacuole.

Question 27.
An organelle is called “The powerhouse of the cell”

1. Name the organelle.
2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

1. Mitochondria
2. Here the Energy (ATP) production, storage, and distribution takes place. So it is called a powerhouse of the cell.

Question 28.
The fluid mosaic model is a widely accepted model of cell membrance. Why?. Who proposed this model?
Answer:
It is the model of the plasma membrane consists of proteins and phospholipid bilayer. It is otherwise known as protein and iceberg in a sea of lipids. Singer and Nicolson

Question 29.
Match the column A, B & C Appropriately

Answer:

Question 30.
A non-membrane cell organelles is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

1. Which is that cell organelle?
2. What is its function?

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. It helps in protein synthesis. Ribosome is the protein synthesising machinery in both prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

Question 31.
While looking through the microscope Ramesh saw few organisms. Help him to distinguish these organisms into Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:

• Prokaryotic organisms are single celled but without definite nucleus.
• Eukaryotic organisms are many celled with definite nucleus.

Question 32.
Cancer cells have numerous ribosomes’ Comment.
Answer:
Cancer cells undergoes uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication. It requires protein in large amounts. Hence numerous ribosomes are found in cancer cells.

Question 33.

A	B
a. Ribosomes	photosynthesis
b. Golgi Apparatus	hydrolytic enzymes
c. Lysosomes	protein synthesis
d. Plastids	glycolipids

Answer:

A	B
Ribosomes	protein synthesis
Gogi apparatus	Glycolipids
Lysosome	Hydrolytic enzyme
Plastids	Photosynthesis

Question 34.
What is a tonoplast?
Answer:

1. Outer membrane of mitochondria
2. Inner membrane of chloroplast
3. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
4. Cell membrane of a plant cell
5. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

Question 35.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
Living cell must possess cell membrane and protoplasm (cytoplasm and nucleus)

Question 36.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention its function?
Answer:

• Mesosome is the infoldings of plasma membrane of gram +bacteria.
• Respiration, wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

Question 37.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour Explain.
Answer:
In multicellular organisms .different cells become specialized in their structure to perform a specialized function by coordinating to form different types of tissues that coordinate to form different organs. Each organ is specialized to perform a specific function.

Question 38.
Give the significance of osmosis.
Answer:
It helps in the absorption of water by roots, opening, and closing of stomata, seed germination, etc.

Question 39.
Why is ER called cell circulatory system?
Answer:
Because it helps in transportation of materials between cytoplasm and nuclueus.

Question 40.
What are thylakoids? Why are these called structural and funcional unit of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• They are oval shaped sacs which lie superimposed in the stroma of chloroplast to form grana.
• These have enzymes for photochemical reactions of photosynthesis as have chlorophyll-containing quatasomes.

Question 41.
Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane-bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions.
Answer:
Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
1. Golgi body:

• It perform the function of packaging materials.
• The site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2. Endoplasmic reticulum:

• RER type involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
• SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids.

Question 42.
In some bacteria cell envelope consists of loose layer but in others, it appears as thick and tough layer. Name the two types of layers.
Answer:

• Loose layer – slime layer
• Thick and tough layer – Capsule

Question 43.
Phospho lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins are arranged and forms quasifluid nature is found in almost all organisms.

1. Which is the best method explains the above statement?
2. Give its function.

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic concept
2. Transport of molecules

Question 44.
The cross-section of cilia/flagella shows 9 + 2 arrangement and 9 + 0 in centriole.

1. What is the difference between the above two arrangements?
2. What is the function of cilia and centriole?

Answer:

1. In first case 9 doublet fibrils with 2 singlet fibrils and in the second case 9 triplet fibrils but no central fibrils
2. cilia helps in locomotion and centriole helps in assembly of spindle apparatus.

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do neutral solutes move to cross the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecule also move across it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
1. Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by diffusion along the concentration gradient.

2. Polar molecule cannot move across it in the same way. Polar molecules require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

3. Some ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, which is an energy-dependent process. It is called active transport.

Question 2.
When a 5% glucose solution and an 8%glucose solution are separated by a semipermeable membrane, explain

1. Which solution has a greater osmotic pressure
2. In which direction osmosis occurs
3. Which solution will increase in volume

Answer:

1. 8% glucose solution
2. 5 – 8% glucose solution
3. 8% glucose solution

Question 3.
Structure of a chloroplast is given below. Write the parts in the place of numbers.

Answer:

1. Stroma
2. Lamella
3. Granum
4. Fret
5. Periplastidial space

Question 4.
Differentiate the following terms:

1. Polysome and Mesosome
2. Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
3. RER and SER

Answer:
1. Polysome contains ribosome – Protein synthesis
Mesosome – cellular respiration

2. Aleuroplast-store Protein
Amyloplast – store Starch

3. RER- Rough endo plasmic reticulum
SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5.
Match the terms in column A & B.

A	B
1. Polyribosome	1. Peroxisomes
2. Oxysomes	2. Lysosomes
3. Photorespiration	3. Centiole
4. Grana	4. Protein synthesis
5. Acid hydrolysis	5. Thylakoids
6. Spindle fibres	6. Cristae

Answer:

A	B
Polyribosome	protein synthesis
Oxysomes	cristae
Photorespiration	peroxisomes
Grana	thylakoids
Acid hydrolases	lysosomes
Spindle fibers	centriole

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
Identify the statement given below is true /false.

1. Robert Brown discovered cell.
2. Schleiden and 9chwann formulated cell theory.
3. Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True

Question 8.
Some cell organells are given below Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, chloroplast, vacuole, lysosome, microbodies, and centriole

1. Identify the cell organelles belongs to the endomembrane system.
2. Differentiate the cell organelles into membrane-bound and non-membrane bound.
3. which is the cell organelle only found in animal cell but not in a plant cells.

Answer:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex .vacuole, lysosome
2.

Membrane-bound	non-membrane-bound
Endoplasmic reticulum Golgi complex Mitochondria Chloroplast Vacuole Lysosome	Centriole

3. centriole

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Column I	Column II
a) Cristae	i) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma
b) Cistenae	ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
c) Thylakoids	iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

Answer:

Column I	Column II
a) Cristae.	i) Infoldings in mitochondria
b) Cristina	ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
c) Thylakoids	iii) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma

Question 3.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
In prokaryotes, the extension of plasma membrane into cell makes a membranous structure called mesosoma. They help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.

Question 4.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand, polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them to move across the membrane. Such transport requires energy and is called active transport.

Question 5.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cellls. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.

Question 7.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) Pre-existing cells

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(c) Lysosomes

Question 2.
The main function of lysosome is
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) extracellular digestion
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 3.
Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
(a) Golgi body
(b) nuclear wall
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(b) nuclear wall

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in plant cell?
(a) Storage
(b) Waste disposal
(c) Cell elongation and protection
(d) Production of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(c) Cell elongation and protection

Question 5.
The ATP synthase of chloroplasts is like that of
(a) peroxisomes
(b) Golgi body
(c) microsomes
(d) mitochondria
Answer:
(d) mitochondria

Question 6.
Fat is stored in the plant cell in
(a) lysosome
(b) spherosome
(c) microsome
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(b) spherosome

Question 7.
F1 -particles comprise of
(a) head and base
(b) base and stalk
(c) head and stalk
(d) head, base, and stalk
Answer:
(a) head and base

Question 8.
Term basal body is associated with the development of
(a) cilia and flagella
(b) cell plate
(c) phragmoplast
(d) kinetochore
Answer:
(a) cilia and flagella

Question 9.
Golgi body receives materials from
(a) lysosome
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
(b) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 10.
Quantasomes are found in
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) lysosome
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 11.
The term mitochondria was given by
(a) Benda
(b) Altmann
(c) Palade
(d) de Duve
Answer:
(a) Benda

Question 12.
The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(a) chromosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) plasma membrane
(d) ribosome
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 13.
Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
(a) Golgi body
(b) chloroplast
(c) centriole
(d) mitochondrion
Answer:
(c) centriole

Question 14.
The surface of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered with
(a) ribosome
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) glucose
Answer:
(a) ribosome

Question 15.
Spindles are formed by
(a) microtubules
(b) golgi body
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(a) microtubules

Question 16.
In plants, vacuole contains
(a) soil
(b) water and dissolved substance
(c) cytoplasm
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) water and dissolved substance

Question 17.
Which cell organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Ribosome

Question 18.
Cilia are
(a) short (5-10 pm) hair-like narrow protoplasmic process
(b) with sweeping or bendular movements
(c) more numerous
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chioroplasts and mitochondria is based on
(a) proton gradient
(b) accumulation of K ions
(c) accumulation of Na ions
(d) membrane potential
Answer:
(a) proton gradient

Question 20.
An organism exclusively with 70S type of ribosomes contains one of the following
(a) DNA enclosed within the nuclear membrane
(b) circular naked DNA
(c) double-stranded DNA with protein coat
(d) single-stranded DNA with protein coat
Answer:
(b) circular naked DNA

 

Students can Download Chapter 2 Relations and Functions Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Relations and Functions

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}. Let R be the relation on A defined by R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ A, b is exactly divisible by a}

1. Write R in roster form. (1)
2. Find the domain of R. (1)
3. Find the range of R. (1)

Answer:

1. R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 2), (4,4), (6,6), (3,3), (3,6)}
2. Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}
3. Range of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}

Question 2.
Determine the domain and range of the relation R defined by R = {(x, x + 5) : x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}
Answer:
R = {(0, 5), (1, 6), (2, 7), (3, 8), (4, 9),(5, 10)}
Domain of R = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range of R = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

Question 3.
A function f is defined as f(x) = 2x – 5, Write down the values of f(0), f(7), f(-3).
Answer:
Given; f(x) = 2x – 5
f(0) = -5;
f(7) = 2(7) – 5 = 14 – 5 = 9
f(-3) = 2(-3) – 5 = -6 – 5 = -11

Question 4.
Find the range of the following functions.

1. f(x) = 2 – 3x, x ∈ R, x>0 (1)
2. f(x) = x² + 2, x is a real number. (1)
3. f(x) = x, x is a real number. (1)

Answer:

1. Given; f(x) = 2 – 3x is a first degree polynomial function, therefore the range is R.
2. Given; f(x) = x² + 2, The range of x2 is [0, ∞) , then the range of f(x) = x² + 2 is [2, ∞)
3. Given; f(x) = x is the identity function, therefore the range is R.

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8}. Verify that

1. A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C) (2)
2. A × C is a subset of B × D (2)

Answer:
1. A × (B ∩ C) ={1, 2} × Φ = Φ
A × B = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
(A × B) ∩ (A × C) = Φ
Hence; A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)

2. A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B × D = {1, 2, 3, 4} × {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {(1, 5), (1, 6), (1, 7), (1, 8), (2, 5), (2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3,6), (3, 7), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7), (4, 8)}
Hence A × C is a subset of B × D.

Question 2.
The arrow diagram given below shows a relation R from P to Q. Write the relation in roster form, set-builder form. Find its domain and range.

Answer:
R – {(9, -3), (9, 3), (4, -2), (4, 2), (25, -5), (25, 5)}
R = {{x, y) : y² = x}
Domain of R = {9, 4, 25}
Range of R = {5, 3, 2, -2, -3, -5}

Question 3.
Find the domain of the following.

1. f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\) (2)
2. f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\) (2)

Answer:
1. Given; f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
The function is not defined at points where the denominator becomes zero.
x² – 8x +12 = 0 ⇒ (x – 6)(x – 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 2, 6
Therefore domain of fis R – {2, 6}.

2. Given; f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\)
The function is not defined at points where the denominator becomes zero.
x² – 5x + 4 = 0 ⇒ (x – 4)(x -1) = 0 ⇒ x = 1, 4
Therefore domain of f is R – {1, 4}.

Question 4.
Let f(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) and g(x) = x be two functions defined over the set of nonnegative real numbers. Find (f + g)(x), (f – g)(x), (fg)(x) and \(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\).
Answer:
(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) + x
(f – g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) – x
(fg)(x) = f(x) × g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) × x = \(x^{\frac{3}{2}}\)

Question 5.
Let f(x) = x² and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two functions defined over the set of nonnegative real numbers. Find (f + g)(x), (f – g)(x), (fg)(x) and \(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\).
Answer:
(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) = x² + 2x + 1
(f – g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) = x² – 2x – 1
f(fg)(x) = f(x) × g(x)
= x²(2x +1) = 2x³ + x²

Question 6.
A = {1, 2}, B = {3, 4}

1. Write A × B
2. Write relation from A to B in roster form. (1)
3. Represent all possible functions from A to B (Arrow diagram may be used) (2)

Answer:
1. A × B = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}

2. Any Subset of A × B (say R={(1, 3),(2, 4)})

3.

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4} and C = {4, 5, 6}. Find

1. A × (B ∩ C) (1)
2. (A × B) ∩ (A × C) (2)
3. A × (B ∪ C) (1)
4. (A × B) ∪ (A × C) (2)

Answer:
1. A × (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 3} × {4}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

2. (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)} ∩ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5) , (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

3. A × (B ∪ C) = {1, 2, 3} × {3, 4, 5, 6}
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}

4. (A × B) ∪ (A × C)
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)} ∪ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}

Question 2.
Find the domain and range of the following

Answer:
i) Given; f(x) = -|x|
D(f) = R, R(f) = (-∞, 0]

ii) Given; f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)
x can take values where 9 – x² > 0
⇒ x² ≤ 9 ⇒ -3 ≤ x ≤ 3 ⇒ x ∈ [-3, 3]
Therefore domain of f is [-3, 3]
Put \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\) = y, where y ≥ 0
⇒ 9 – x² = y²⇒ x² = 9 – y²
⇒ x = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)
⇒ 9 – y² ≥ 0 ⇒ y² ≤ 9 ⇒ -3 ≤ y ≤ 3
Therefore range of fis [0, 3].

iii) Given; f(x) = |x – 1|
Domain of f is R
The range of |x| is [0, ∞) , then the range of
f(x) = |x -1| is [0, ∞)

iv) Given; f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
x can take values where x – 1 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ 1 ⇒ x ∈ [1, ∞]
Therefore domain of fis [1, ∞]
The range of \(\sqrt{x}\) is [0, ∞), then the range of
f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\) is [0, ∞).

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If (x + 1, y – 2) = (3, 1), find the values of x and y.
Answer:
(x + 1, y – 2) = (3, 1) ⇒ x + 1 = 3, y – 2 = 1 ⇒ x = 2, y = 3.

Question 2.
If \(\left(\frac{x}{3}+1, y-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{1}{3}\right)\), find the values of x and y.
Answer:

Question 3.
If G = {7, 8}; H = {2, 4, 5}, find G × H and H × G.
Answer:

• G × H ={(7, 2), (7, 4), (7, 5), (8, 2), (8, 4), (8, 5)}
• H × G ={(2, 7), (2, 8), (4, 7), (4, 8), (5, 7), (5, 8)}

Question 4.
if A = {-1, 1} find A × A × A
Answer:
A × A ={-1, 1} × {-1, 1}
= {(-1, -1), (-1, 1), (1, -1), (1, -1)}
A × A × A
= {(-1, -1), (-1, -1), (1,-1), (1, -1)} × {-1, 1}
= {(-1, -1, -1), (-1, 1, -1), (1, -1, -1), (-1, 1, -1), (-1, -1, 1), (-1, 1, 1), (1, -1, 1), (-1, 1, 1)}.

Question 5.
Write the relation R = {(x, x³): x is a prime number less than 10} in roster form.
Answer:
2, 3, 5, 7 are the prime number less than 10.
R = {(2, 8),(3, 27),(5, 125),(7, 343)}

Question 6.
If f(x) = x², find \(\frac{f(1.1)-f(1)}{(1.1-1)}\)?
Answer:

Question 7.
Let \(\left\{\left(x, \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right), x \in R\right\}\) be a real function from R to R. Determine the domain and range of f.
Answer:
Domain of f is R.
Let \(\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\) = y ⇒ x² = y(1 + x²)
⇒ x² = y + yx² ⇒ x² – yx² = y
⇒ x²(1 – y) = y

⇒ y ≥ 0, 1 – y > 0
⇒ y ≥ 0, y < 1 ⇒ 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
Therefore range of f is [0, 1).

Question 8.
Graph the following real functions. (each carries 2 scores)

1. f(x) = |x – 2|
2. f(x) = x²
3. f(x) = x³
4. f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
5. f(x) = (x – 1)²
6. f(x) = 3x² – 1
7. f(x) = |x| – 2

Answer:
1. f(x) = |x – 2| = \(\left\{\begin{aligned}x-2, & x \geq 2 \\-x+2, & x<2 \end{aligned}\right.\)

2. f(x) = x²

3. f(x) = x³

4. f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)

5. f(x) = (x – 1)²

6. f(x) = 3x² – 1

7. f(x) = |x| – 2

Question 9.
Consider the relation, R = {(x, 2x – 1)/x ∈ A) where A = (2, -1, 3}

1. Write R in roster form. (1)
2. Write the range of R. (1)

Answer:
1. x = 2 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(2) – 1 = 3
x = -1 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(-1) – 1 = -3
x = 3 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(3) – 1 = 5
R = {(2, 3), (-1, -3), (3, 5)}

2. Range of R = {3, -3, 5}

Question 10.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6} and R be a relation on A defined by R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ A, b is exactly divisible by a}

1. Write R in the roster form. (1)
2. Find the domain and range of R. (1)

Answer:

1. R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
2. Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}; Range = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}

Question 11.
Consider the real function

1. \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+2 x+3}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
2. Find the value of x if /(x) = 1
3. Find the domain of f.

Answer:
1. Given; f(x) = 1 ⇒ 1 = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+3}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
⇒ x² – 8x + 12 = x² + 2x + 3
⇒ 10x = 9 ⇒ x = \(\frac{9}{10}\)

2. Find the value for which denominator is zero.
⇒ x² – 8x + 12 = 0
⇒ (x – 6)(x – 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 6, 2
Therefore domain of f is R – {2, 6).

Question 12.
If f(x) = x³ + 5x and g(x) = 2x +1, find (f + g)(2) and {fg)(1).
Answer:
(f + g)(2) = f(2) + g(2) = (2)³ + 5(2) + 2(2) + 1
= 8 + 10 + 4 + 1 = 23
(fg)(1) = f(1)g(1) = (1 + 5)(2 + 1) = 6 × 3 = 18.

Question 13.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and R be a relation on A defined by R = {(a, b):b = a²}

1. Write R in the roster form.
2. Find the range of R.

Answer:

1. R ={(1, 1), (2, 4)}
2. Range = {1, 4}

Question 14.
Draw the graph of the function
f(x) – |x| + 1, x ∈ R
Answer:

Question 15.
Draw the graph of the function.
f(x) = x³, x ∈ R
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 8 Binomial Theorem Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Binomial Theorem

Plus One Maths Binomial Theorem Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the middle term in the expansion of the following; (3 score each)

Answer:
i) Here 7 is an odd number. Therefore there are two middle terms \(\left(\frac{7+1}{2}=4\right)^{t h}\) and \(\left(\frac{7+1}{2}+1=5\right)^{t h}\), ie; 4^th and 5^th terms in the above expansion.

ii) Here 10 is an even number. Therefore middle terms \(\left(\frac{10}{2}+1=6\right)^{t h}\) term in the above expansion.

iii) Here 17 is an odd number. Therefore there are two middle terms \(\left(\frac{17+1}{2}=9\right)^{t h}\), ie; 9^th and 10^th terms in the above expansion. \(\left(x+\frac{2}{\sqrt{x}}\right)^{17}\).

Question 2.
Find the term independent of x in the following expansion. (3 score each)

Answer:
i) General term = t_r+1 = (-1)^r12C_r(x)^12-r \(\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^{r}\)
=(-1)^r12C_r(x)^12-r-r = (-1)^r12C_r(x)^12-2r
Term independent of x in the expansion will be the term in which the power of x is zero, ie; 12 – 2r = 0 ⇒ 12 = 2r
⇒ r = 6
t₇ = (-1)⁶12C⁶x^12-2(6)
= \(\frac{12 \times 11 \times 10 \times 9 \times 8 \times 7}{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times 5 \times 6}\) = 924.

ii) General term = t_r+1 =(-1)^r9C_r(x²)^9-r\(\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^{r}\)
= (-1)^r9C_r(x)^18-2r-r = (-1)^r9C_r(x)^18-3r
Term independent of x in the expansion will be the term in which the power of x is zero.
ie; 18 – 3r = 0 ⇒ 18 = 3r ⇒ r = 6
t₇ = (-1)⁶9C₆x^18-3(6)
= \(\frac{9 \times 8 \times 7}{1 \times 2 \times 3}\) = 84.

iii) General term = t_r+1


Term independent of x in the expansion will be the term in which the power of x is zero.

iv) General term = t_r+1


Term independent of x in the expansion will be the term in which the power of x is zero.

Question 3.
Find the coefficient of x¹⁰ in the expansion of \(\left(2 x^{2}-\frac{3}{x}\right)^{11}\).
Answer:
General term = t_r+1

Given; 22 – 3r = 10 ⇒ 12 = 3r ⇒ r = 4
t₅ = (-1)⁴11C₄2^11-4 x^22-3(4) 3⁴
= 11C₄2⁷3⁴x¹⁰
Therefore the coefficient of x¹⁰ is 11C₄2⁷3⁴.

Question 4.
Find the coefficient of a⁵b⁷ in the expansion of (a – 2b)¹².
Answer:
General term = t_r+1 = (-1)^r12C_r(a)^12-r(2b)^r
= (-1)^r12C_r(a)^12-r2^rb^r
The term containing a⁵b⁷ is obtained by putting r = 7
⇒ t₈ = (-1)⁷12C₇(a)^12-72⁷b⁷
Therefore the coefficient of a⁵b⁷ is
(-1)⁷12C₇2⁷ = -12C₇2⁷.

Question 5.
Find the coefficient of (3 score each)

1. x¹¹ in the expansion of \(\left(x-\frac{2}{x^{2}}\right)^{17}\)
2. x⁹ in the expansion of \(\left(3 x^{2}+\frac{5}{x^{3}}\right)^{12}\)
3. x²⁰ in the expansion of \(\left(3 x^{3}-\frac{2}{x^{2}}\right)^{40}\)

Answer:
1. General term

The term containing x¹¹ is obtained by
17 – 3r = 11 ⇒ 6 = 3r ⇒ r = 2
⇒ t₃ = (-1)²17C₂ (x)^17-3(2) 2² = 17C₂(x)¹¹ × 4
Therefore the coefficient of x¹¹ is 17C₂ × 4
= \(\frac{17 \times 16}{1 \times 2}\) × 4 = 544

2. General term

The term containing x⁹ is obtained by
24 – 5r = 9 ⇒ 15 = 5r ⇒ r = 3
⇒ t₄ = 12C₃(3)^12-3(x)^24-5(3)5³
= 12C₃(3)⁹(x)⁹5³
Therefore the coefficient of x⁹ is 12C₃(3)⁹5³.

3. General term = t_r+1
= (-1)^r40C_r(3x³)^40-r (\(\frac{2}{x^{2}}\))^r
= (-1)^r40C_r(3)^40-rx^120-3r (2)^r x^-2r
= (-1)^r40C_r(3)^40-rx^120-5r(2)^r
The term containing x²⁰ is obtained by
120 – 5r = 20 ⇒ 100 = 5r ⇒ r = 20
⇒ t₂₁ = (-1)²⁰40C₂₀(3)^40-20(x) ^120-5(20) 2²⁰
= 40C₂₀(3)²⁰(x)²⁰2²⁰
Therefore the coefficient of x²⁰ is 40C₂₀(3) ²⁰ 2²⁰.

Question 6.

1. Find the term independent of x in the expansion of \(\left(x^{2}+\frac{2}{x}\right)^{6}\) (3)
2. If the middle term in the expansion of \(\left(x^{m}+\frac{2}{x}\right)^{6}\) is independent of x, find the value of m.

Answer:
1. t_r+1 = ⁿC_ra^n-rb^r = ⁶C_r(x²)^6-r\(\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)^{r}\)
= ⁶C_rx^12-2rx^-r(2)^r = ⁶C_rx^12-3r(2)^r
For term independent of x;
12 – 3r = 0 r = 4
t₅ = ⁶C₄(2)⁴ = ⁶C₂ × 16 = \(\frac{6 \times 5}{1 \times 2}\) × 16 = 240

2. m = 1

Plus One Maths Binomial Theorem Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Write the general term in the expansion \(\left(\frac{3 x^{2}}{2}-\frac{1}{3 x}\right)^{6}\) (2)
2. Find the term independent of x in the above expansion. (2)

Answer:
1. General term = t_r+1

2. Term independent of x in the expansion will be the term in which the power of x is zero.
ie; 12 – 3r = 0 ⇒ 12 = 3r ⇒ r = 4

Plus One Maths Binomial Theorem Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the following. (2 score each)

1. (3a² – 2b)⁴
2. (3 – 4x²)⁵
3. \(\left(\frac{x}{2}-2 y\right)^{6}\)
4. \(\left(\frac{x}{2}-2 y\right)^{6}\)

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question 2.
Write the general term in the expansion of the following; (2 score each)

Answer:
i) General term = t_r+1
= (-1)^r6C_r(x²)^6-r(y)^r
= (-1)^r6C_rx^12-ry^r.

ii) General term = t_r+1

iii) General term = t_r+1

iv) General term = t_r+1

Question 3.
If the coefficient of x² in the expansion of (1 + x)ⁿ is 6 then the positive value of n.
Answer:
t_r+1 = nC_rx^r, the term containing x² is obtained by putting r= 2.
nC₂ = 6 ⇒ \(\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\) = 6 ⇒ n(n -1) = 12
⇒ n(n -1) = 4 × 3 ⇒ n = 3.

Question 4.
Find the 13^th term in the expansion of \(\left(9 x-\frac{1}{3 \sqrt{x}}\right)^{18}\).
Answer:

= 18C₆(3)^12-12 = 18C₆ = 18564

Students can Download Chapter 11 Conic Sections Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Conic Sections

Plus One Maths Conic Sections Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the coordinate of the foci, the vertices, the length of major axis, the minor axis, the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse. (3 score each)

1. \(\frac{x^{2}}{4}+\frac{y^{2}}{25}\) = 1
2. \(\frac{x^{2}}{16}+\frac{y^{2}}{9}\) = 1

Answer:
1. Since 25 > 4 the standard equation of the ellipse is \(\frac{x^{2}}{b^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{a^{2}}\) = 1 ⇒ a² = 25; b² = 4
c² = a² – b² = 25 – 4 = 21 ⇒ c = \(\sqrt{21}\)
Coordinate of foci are (0, ±\(\sqrt{21}\))
Coordinate of vertex are (0, ±5)
Length of major axis = 2a = 2 × 5 = 10
Length of minor axis = 2b = 2 × 2 = 4
Eccentricity = e = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{\sqrt{21}}{5}\)
Length of latus rectum = \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}=\frac{2 \times 4}{5}=\frac{8}{5}\).

2. Since 16 > 9 the standard equation of the ellipse is \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1 ⇒ a² = 16; b² = 9
c² = a² – b² = 16 – 9 = 7 ⇒ c = \(\sqrt{7}\)
Coordinate of foci are (±\(\sqrt{7}\), 0)
Coordinate of vertex are (±4, 0)
Length of major axis = 2a = 2 × 4 = 8
Length of minor axis = 2b = 2 × 3 = 6
Eccentricity = e = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{\sqrt{7}}{4}\)
Length of latus rectum = \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}=\frac{2 \times 9}{4}=\frac{9}{2}\).

Question 2.
Find the ellipse satisfying the following conditions: (3 score each)

1. Vertex (±5, 0); foci (±4, 0)
2. Ends of the major axis (±3, 0), ends of minor axis (0, ±2)
3. Length of the major axis 26, foci (±5, 0)
4. b = 3, c = 4, centre at origin; foci on the x-axis

Answer:
1. Foci (±4, 0) lie on the x-axis. So the equation of the ellipse is of the form \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1
Given; Vertex (±5, 0) ⇒ a = 5
Given; Foci(±4, 0) Foci ⇒ c = 4 = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-b^{2}}\)
⇒ 4 = \(\sqrt{25-b^{2}}\) ⇒ 16 = 25 – b² ⇒ b² = 9
Therefore the equation of the ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{9}=1\).

2. The ends of major axis lie on the x-axis. So the equation of the ellipse is of the form
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1
Given; Ends of the major
axis (±3, 0) ⇒ a = 3, ends of minor axis
(0, ±2) ⇒ b = 2
Therefore the equation of the ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{9}+\frac{y^{2}}{4}=1\).

3. Since foci (±5, 0) lie on x-axis, the standard form of ellipse is \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1
Given; 2a = 26 ⇒ a = 13
Given; c = 5 = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-b^{2}}\)
⇒ 25 = 169 – b² ⇒ b² = 144
Therefore the equation of the ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{169}+\frac{y^{2}}{144}=1\).

4. The standard form of ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1
Given; c = 4 = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-b^{2}}\)
⇒ 16 = a² – 9 ⇒ a² =25
Therefore the equation of the ellipse is
\(\frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{9}=1\).

Question 3.
Find the coordinates of foci, the vertices, eccentricity and the length of latus rectum of the following hyperbolas. (3 score each)

1. \(\frac{y^{2}}{9}-\frac{x^{2}}{27}=1\)
2. 5y² – 9x² = 36

Answer:
1. The equation of the hyperbola is of the form
\(\frac{y^{2}}{a^{2}}-\frac{x^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\) ⇒ a² = 9; b² = 27
⇒ c² = a² + b² ⇒ c² = 9 + 27 = 36 ⇒ c = 6
Coordinate of foci are (0, ±6)
Coordinate of vertices are (0, ±a) ⇒ (0, ±3)
Eccentricity = \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{6}{3}=2\)
Length of latus rectum = \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}=\frac{2 \times 27}{3}=18\).

2. Given; 5y² – 9x² = 36


The equation of the hyperbola is of the form

Coordinate of vertices are

Question 4.
Find the hyperbola satisfying the following conditions: (3 score each)

1. Vertices (+2, 0), foci (±3, 0)
2. Foci (±5, 0), the transverse axis is of length 8.
3. Foci(0, ±13), the conjugate axis is of length 24.
4. Foci (±3\(\sqrt{5}\), 0), the latus rectum is of length 8.
5. Vertices (±7, 0) , e = \(\frac{4}{3}\).

Answer:
1. Since Vertices are (±2, 0) the standard form of hyperbola is

⇒ a = 2
Given; foci (±3, 0) ⇒ c = 3
⇒ c² = a² + b² ⇒ 9 = 4 + b² ⇒ b² = 5
The equation of the hyperbola;

2. Since Foci are (±5,0) the standard form of hyperbola is

⇒ c = 5
Given; the transverse axis is of length 8.
⇒ 2a = 8 ⇒ a = 4
⇒ c² = a² + b² ⇒ 25 = 16 + b² ⇒ b² = 9
The equation of the hyperbola;

3. Since Foci are(0, ±13)the standard form of hyperbola is

⇒ c = 13
Given; the conjugate axis is of length 24.
⇒ 2b = 24 ⇒ b = 12
⇒ c² = a² + b² ⇒ 169 = a² + 144 ⇒ a² = 25.
The equation of the hyperbola;

4. Since Foci are(±3\(\sqrt{5}\), 0) the standard form of hyperbola is

⇒ c = 3\(\sqrt{5}\)
Given; the latus rectum is of length 8.
⇒ \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}\) = 8 ⇒ b² = 4a
⇒ c² = a² + b²
⇒ 45 = a² + 4a ⇒ a² + 4a – 45 = 0
⇒ (a + 9)(a – 5) = 0 ⇒ a = -9, 5
a = -9 is not possible
⇒ a = 5 ⇒ b² = 20
The equation of the hyperbola;

5. Since Vertices are (±7, 0) the standard form of hyperbola is

⇒ a = 7
Given;

⇒ c² = a² + b²

The equation of the hyperbola;

Question 5.
The line x – 1 = 0 is the directrix of a parabola, y² = kx then

1. Find the value of k. (1)
2. Find the vertex, focus, axis of parabola and length of latus rectum of the parabola. (3)

Answer:
1. Given directrix x – 1 = 0, so a = 1, then the equation of the parabola is
y² = -4ax ⇒ y² = -4x
Hence k = – 4

2. Vertex is (0, 0)
Focus of SS’ = (-1, 0)
Length of latus rectum = 4 × 1 = 4.

Question 6.
In the figure S and S’ are foci of the ellipse, \(\frac{x^{2}}{25}+\frac{y^{2}}{16}=1\) and P is a viable point on the ellipse.

1. Find the co-ordinate of foci. (2)
2. Find the distance between S and S1. (1)
3. What is the maximum area of the triangle PSS’. (1)

Answer:
1. Since 25 > 16 the standard equation of the ellipse is \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}\) = 1
⇒ a² = 25; b² = 16
c² = a² – b² = 25 – 16 = 9 ⇒ c = 3
Coordinate of foci are (±3, 0).

2. Distance between the two focus is 3 + 3 = 6.

3. Maximum area is attained when the point P reaches the point the ellipse meet the y
axis. Then area is = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 6 × 4 = 12.

Plus One Maths Conic Sections Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (4, 1) and (6, 5) and whose centre is on the line 4x + y = 16.
Answer:
Let the equation of the circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 ______(1)
Since (1) passes through (4, 1)
16 + 1 + 8g + 2f + c = 0
⇒ 8g + 2f + c = -17 ______(2)
Since (1) passes through (6, 5)
36 + 25 + 12g + 10f + c = 0
⇒ 12 g + 10f + c = -61 _______(3)
(1) – (2) ⇒ -4g – 8f = 16
⇒ -g – 2f = 4 ______(4)
Since centre is on the line 4x + y = 16, we have;
⇒ -4g – f = 16 ______(5)
Solving (4) and (5) We get; g = -3; f = -4
(2) ⇒ 8(-3) + 2(-4) + c = -17
⇒ -24 – 8 + c = -17 ⇒ c = 15
Then the equation of the circle is
x² + y² – 6x – 8y + 15 = 0.

Question 2.
Find the equation of the circle with radius 5 whose centre lies on x-axis and passes through the point (2, 3).
Answer:
Let the equation of the circle be
(x – h)² + (y – k)² = r²
centre lies on x axis so let the centre be (h, 0),
then (x – h)² + y² = 25
Since circle pass through (2, 3) we have;
(2 – h)² + 3² = 25
⇒ (2 – h)² = 16 ⇒ 2 – h = ±4
⇒ h = 6, -2
When h = 6 ; equation of circle is
(x – 6)² + (y – 0)² = 25
⇒ x² + 36 – 12x + y² = 25
⇒ x² + y² – 12x + 11 = 0
When h = -2; equation of circle is
(x + 2)² + (y – 0)² = 25
⇒ x² + 4 + 4x + y² = 25
⇒ x² + y² + 4x – 21 = 0.

Question 3.
Centre at (0, 0), major axis on the y-axis and passes through the points (3, 2) and (1, 6).
Answer:
Major axis lie on the y-axis so the standard equation of the ellipse is of the form

Since the ellipse passes through (3, 2)

Since the ellipse passes through (1, 6)

Solving (1) and (2), we have Since the ellipse passes through (3, 2)
a² = 40; b² = 10
Thus the equation of the ellipse is

Plus One Maths Conic Sections Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the point A (0, 0), B (4, 2) and C (8, 0)

1. Find the mid-point of AB. (1)
2. Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of AB. (2)
3. Find the equation of the circum circle (Circle passing through the point A, B, and C) of triangle ABC. (3)

Answer:
1. Mid-point of AB is (2, 1).

2. Slope of line through AB
\(=\frac{2-0}{4-0}=\frac{1}{2}\)
Slope of perpendicular line is – 2
Equation of the perpendicular line to AB is
y – 1 = -2(x – 2) ⇒ 2x + y = 5.

3. The meeting point of perpendicular bisector of AB and AC will be the centre of the circum circle.
The line perpendicular to AC is x = 4
Solving and x = 4
We get y = 5 – 8 = -3 and x = 4
Hence centre is (4, -3) and radius is

Equation of the circle is
(x – 4)² + (y + 3)² = 5.

Plus One Maths Conic Sections Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the equation of the circle In each of the following cases. (2 score each)

1. Centre (0, 2) and radius 2.
2. Centre (-2, 3) and radius 4.
3. Center \(\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}\right)\) and radius \(\frac{1}{12}\).

Answer:
1. The equation of the circle is
(x – 0)² + (y – 2)² = 2²
⇒ x² + y² – 4y + 4 = 4
⇒ x² + y² – 4y = 0.

2. The equation of the circle is
(x + 2)² + (y – 3)² = 4²
⇒ x² + 4x + 4 + y² – 6y + 9 = 16
⇒ x² + y² + 4x – 6y – 3 = 0.

3. The equation of the circle is

⇒ 144x² + 36 – 144x + 144y² + 9 – 72y = 1
⇒ 144x² + 144y² – 144x – 72y + 44 = 0
⇒ 36x² + 36y² – 36x – 18y + 11 = 0.

Question 2.
Find the centre and radius of the following circles. (2 score each)

1. x² + y² – 4x – 8y – 45 = 0
2. x² + y² – 8x – 10y -22 = 0
3. 2x² + 2y² – x = 0

Answer:
1. Comparing with the general equation we have
g = -2; f = -4; c = -45
Centre – (-g, -f) ⇒ (2, 4)
Radius – \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}\)

2. Comparing with the general equation we have
g = -4; f = -5; c = -22
Centre – (-g, -f) ⇒ (4, 5)
Radius – \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}\)

3. Convert the equation into standard form

Question 3.
Find the coordinate of the focus, axis of the parabola, the equation of the directrix and the length of the latus rectum. (2 score each)

1. y² = 20x
2. x² = 8
3. 3x² = -15

Answer:
1. Comparing the equation with the general form we get; 4a = 20 ⇒ a = 5
Coordinate of focus are (5, 0)
Axis of the parabola is y = 0
Equation of the directrix is x = -5
Length of latus rectum = 4 × 5 = 20.

2. Comparing the equation with the general form we get; 4a = 8 ⇒ a = 2
Coordinate of focus are (0, 2)
Axis of the parabola is x = 0
Equation of the directrix is y = – 2
Length of latus rectum = 4 × 2 = 8.

3. Convert the equation into general form, we get x² = -5y. Comparing the equation with the general form we get;
4a = 5 ⇒ a = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Coordinate of focus are (0, \(-\frac{5}{4}\))
Axis of the parabola is x = 0
Equation of the directrix is y = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Length of latus rectum = \(\frac{4 \times 5}{4}\) = 5.

Question 4.
Find the equation of the parabola satisfying the following conditions; (2 score each)

1. Focus(6, 0); directrix x = – 6
2. Vertex (0, 0); Focus (3, 0)
3. Vertex (0, 0) passing through (2, 3) and axis along x-axis

Answer:
1. Since the focus (6, 0) lies on the x-axis, therefore x-axis is the axis of parabola.
Also the directrix is x = – 6, ie; x = – a And focus (6, 0), ie; (a, 0)
Therefore the equation of the parabola is
y² = 4ax ⇒ y² = 24x.

2. The vertex of the parabola is at (0, 0) and focus is at (3, 0). Then axis of parabola is along x-axis. So the parabola is of the form y² = 4ax . The equation of the parabola is y² = 12x.

3. The vertex of the parabola is at (0, 0) and the axis is along x-axis. So the equation of parabola is of the torn y² = 4ax .
Since the parabola passes through point (2, 3)
Therefore, 3² = 4a × 2 ⇒ a = \(\frac{9}{8}\)
The required equation of the parabola is
y² = 4 × \(\frac{9}{8}\) x ⇒ y² = \(\frac{9}{2}\)x.

Question 5.
Find the Focus, vertex and latus rectum of the parabola y² = 8x.
Answer:
Given; y² = 8x, we have 4a = 8 ⇒ a = 2
Focus = (2, 0); Vertex = (0, 0)
Latus rectum = 4a = 8

Students can Download Chapter 2 Theory Base of Accounting Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Theory Base of Accounting

Plus One Accountancy Theory Base of Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The rules and guidelines used in preparing accounting reports are called
(a) Accounting rules
(b) Basic rules
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.

Question 2.
An accounting entity is an
(a) Accounting concept
(b) Accounting convention
(c) Modify Principle
Answer:
(a) Accounting concept

Question 3.
The Policy of ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ arises due to convention of
(a) Matching
(b) Conservatism
(c) Consistency
Answer:
(b) Conservatism.

Question 4.
A business unit is assumed to have an indefinite life comes under
(a) Going concern concept
(b) Business entity concept
(c) Money Measurment Concept
Answer:
(a) Going concern concept

Question 5.
Contingent liabilities are usually shown as a footnote in the balance sheet as per the following accounting principles.
(a) Consistency
(b) Disclosure
(c) Materiality
Answer:
(b) Disclosure

Question 6.
During the lifetime of an entity, accounting produce financial statements in accordance with which basic accounting concept.
(a) Conservation
(b) Matching
(c) Accounting period
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Accounting period.

Question 7.
Revenue is generally recognised at the point of sale denote the concept of ……….
(a) Consistency
(b) Objectivity
(c) Revenue Realisation
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Revenue Realisation

Question 8.
Revenue recognition is an /a
(a) Assumption
(b) Principle
(c) Accounting standard
Answer:
(b) Principle.

Question 9.
Accounting standard deals with depreciation accounting is
(a) As-5
(b) As-16
(c) As-6
(d) As-9
Answer:
(c) As-6

Question 10.
The ……….. Principle requires that the same accounting method should be used from one accounting period to the next.
Answer:
Consistency.

Question 11.
Companies must prepare financial statement at least yearly due to the ………….. assumption.
Answer:
Accounting Period.

Question 12.
Accounting standards are issued by ………… in India.
Answer:
Institute of Chartered Accounts of India.

Question 13.
Accounting standards in India are formulated and governed by …………. which was set up in ………
Answer:
Accounting Standard Board (ASB), 1977.

Question 14.
SEBI stands for
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India.

Question 15.
ICAI stands for
Answer:
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.

Question 16.
………….. and ………….. generally referred to as the essence of financial accounting.
Answer:
The accounting concepts and accounting standards.

Question 17.
Find the odd one and give a reason,
(a) Dual aspect
(b) Historical cost
(c) Accounting period
(d) Verifiability and objectivity.
Answer:
(c) Accounting period, it is ah accounting assumption, But all others are accounting principles.

Question 18.
Revenue from sale of products is realized when
(a) the sale is made
(b) the cash is collected
(c) the production is completed
(d) the order placed to supply goods.
Answer:
(a) The sale is made.

Question 19.
Accounting principles are generally based on
(a) Practicability
(b) Subjectivity
(c) Convenience in recording
Answer:
(a) Practicability

Question 20.
Normally assets are recorded at cost price. This because
(a) Assets can be realized at the lime of winding up.
(b) Historical cost concept.
(c) Going concern concept
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain cash system of accounting and Mercantile system of accounting.
Answer:
Cash system or Receipt Basis:- Under this system, only actual cash receipts and payments are considered. Non-cash items such as outstandings, advances, and credit transactions are ignored. Mercantile system or Accrual Basis. Under this system, all items of income and expenditure, both cash items as well as non-cash items, such as outstanding and accrued incomes and expenses are taken into account.

Question 2.
1. Dual aspect concept – Two aspects of a transaction are recorded.
________________- Expected loss should be taken in to account.
2. Accounting Principles – Principles followed by accountants
___________________- Norms to be observed by the accountant
Answer:

1. Principle of prudence or conservatism.
2. Accounting Standards.

Question 3.
Explain IFRS.
Answer:
International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) are globally accepted accounting standards developed by the International Accounting Standard Board (IASB). IFRS is a set of accounting standards for reporting different types of business transactions and events in the financial statements. The objective is to facilitate international comparison for the true and fair valuation of a business enterprise.

Question 4.
Complete the following circle.

Answer:

Question 5.
What is GAAP?
Answer:
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and Practices (GAAP), is a set of rules and practices that are followed while recording transactions and in preparing the financial statements.

The accounting assumptions, principles and modifying principles, as well as accounting standards, form the foundation upon which GAAP is built.

Question 6.
“Information delayed is information denied ”. State the principle applicable behind this statement.
Answer:
‘Timeliness principle’:
Timeliness implies that the financial statements are to be prepared and published in time. The relevance, dependability, and utility of the financial information depends on the timely publication of financial statements. The users of financial statements needs timely information.

Question 7.
Fixed Assets are depreciated over their useful life rather than over a shorter period. State the relevant accounting assumption. Explain.
Answer:
‘Going Concern Assumption’:
According to this concept, business will continue its operation long enough to allocate the cost of fixed assets over their useful lives against the income.

Question 8.
Financial Information should be neutral and free from bias. Comment on this statement with reference to the relevant accounting Principle.
Answer:
‘Verifiability and objectivity principle’:
This principle states that the accounting data provided in the books of accounts should be verifiable and dependable.

Question 9.
The sales achieved by a salesman and the commission payable to him is recorded in the books of accounts. But efficiency and intelligence of salesman is not recorded. Explain the reason with reference to the relevant accounting principle.
‘Money Measurement Concept’:
According to this concept, transactions that can be measured in terms of money only are recorded in the books of accounts. “The skill and intelligence of the salesman is not measurable in money terms.

Question 10.
Timely information, even if it is not cent percent reliable is better than reliable information which is late. Comment on this statement by quoting the accounting principle.
Answer:
‘Timeliness principle’:
Timeliness implies that the financial statements are to be prepared and published in time. The relevance, dependability, and utility of the financial information depends on the timely publication of financial statements. The users of financial statements need timely information.

Question 11.
‘Akash’ places an order on 1.1.2005 with Bino for the supply of machinery for Rs. 5,00,000/-. On receipt of the order, Bino purchases raw materials employs workers, produces machinery and delivers it to Akash on 1.2.2005. Akash makes the payment on 10.02.2005. On which date, the revenue is recognized? Substantiate your answer by quoting the relevant accounting concept. ‘Revenue Recognition Concept’.
Answer:
Revenue is recognized on 1.2.2005, i.e. when the title of goods passes from the seller to the buyer.

Question 12.
Star trading Co.Ltd. buys a piece of land for Rs. 50,00,000. After 2 years the value of land came to Rs. 70,00,000. But the accountant does not consider the increase in the value of Rs. 20,00,000 in the books of accounts and the land remains at Rs. 50,00,000 in the books. Do you agree with the accountant? If so, on what ground?.
Answer:
The accountant’s viewpoint is correct. This is based on the principle ‘Historical cost’. According to this principle, assets are to be recorded at their cost price and this cost is the basis for all subsequent accounting for those assets.

Question 13.
Mr. Muhammed, a sole trader, purchased a TV for Rs. 12,000/- for his domestic use and asks his accountant to record this as a business expense. But the accountant, argues that it is the violation of the accounting principle. Is he right? If so, prove your answer by highlighting the relevant accounting principle.
Answer:
The accountant’s viewpoint is correct because the business is separate from the businessmen as per the ‘‘Accounting Entity Concept”.

Question 14.
Provision for discount on debtors is accounted and provision for discount on creditors is not accounted. Why? State the relevant accounting principle.
Answer:
Accountant anticipates no profit but provide for all possible losses while recording business transaction. Conservatism principle or prudence.

Question 15
Name the systems of recording transactions in the book of accounts.
Answer:

1. Double Entry System.
2. Single Entry System.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When a Proprietor purchased furniture at Rs. 10,000 for business purposes, he paid transportation and load¬ing charges of Rs. 1000 for bringing the furniture to the location of business premises. State whether it is possible to add the transportation and loading charges to the purchased price of furniture? What is the underlying principle behind it?
Answer:
1. Yes, it is possible to add transportation and loading charges to the purchased price of furniture.

2. “Historical cost principle” – This principle requires that all transactions should be recorded at their acquisition cost. The cost of acquisition refers to the cost of purchasing the asset and expenses incurred in bringing the assets to the intended condition and location of use.

Question 2.
Mr. Rajan Thomas invested Rs. 5,00,000 in his business. He is treated as a creditor to the extent of Rs. 5,00,000 by the business. Write the relevant accounting assumption and explain it.
Answer:
Accounting Entity Assumption:
This concept assumes that the entity of business is different from its owners. According to this concept, all the transactions of the business are recorded in the books of the business from the point of view of the business as an entity and even the owner is treated as a creditor to the extent of his capital.

Question 3.
An accountant followed a particular method of accounting in one year and in the next year he changes the method. Is it possible to get a better idea about the operation of the business?
Answer:
According to the Principle of “Consistency”, the frequent change in the accounting policies will adversely affect the reliability and comparability of financial information. The users of the financial statements assume that the business unit follows the same accounting principles and practices in preparing the financial statement.

If a change is adopted the business enterprises is required to record the fact as footnotes and to show the impact of such changes on financial affairs.

Question 4.
Classify the following into accounting assumptions, principles and modifying principles Accounting entity concept, dual concept, Money Measurement, Matching Principles, going concern concept, Accounting period concept, cost-benefit principle, consistency principle, Full disclosure principle, Timeliness, Historical cost principle.
Answer:

Question 5.
“Proprietor is treated as creditor to the extent of his capital.”

1. Write the relevent accounting assumption
2. Explain the concerned accounting assumption in relation to the statement given.

Answer:
Accounting Entity Assumption:
This concept assumes that the entity of business is different from its owners. According to this concept all the transactions of the business are recorded in the books of the business from the point of view of the business as an entity and even the owner is treated as a creditors to the extent of his capital.

Question 6.
“For every debit, there is an equal and corresponding Credit”.

1. Explain the statement by citing an example.
2. State the relevant accounting principle.

Answer:
1. “Every transaction has dual aspect i.e. debit and credit”.
For example Anish started business with Rs. 20,000. The effect of this transaction is that

• It increases cash (asset) Rs. 20,000.
• It increases capital Rs. 20,000.

The above transaction can be shown in the form of an accounting equation as follows Assets = Liabilities = Capital 20,000 = 0 + 20,000.

2. Duality Principle.

Question 7.
When should revenue be recognised? Are there exceptions to the general rule?
Answer:
Revenue is assumed to be realised when a legal right to receive it arises in the point of time when goods have been sold or services has been rendered. There are certain exceptions to the general rule of revenue realisation.

1. In the case of construction projects, revenue is realised before the contract is complete.
2. When the goods are sold on hire purchase, the amount collected in instalments is treated as realised.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Damodar has confusion about the basic accounting assumptions. Can you help him to solve his confusion?

OR

Basic accounting assumption provides a foundation for the accounting process. Explain the Various accounting assumptions.
Answer:
Assumptions constitute the foundation of accounting. It lays down the general principles to be followed while preparing financial statements. There are four accounting assumptions. They are

1. Accounting Entity Assumption.
2. Money MeasurementAssumption
3. Going Concern Assumption
4. Accounting Period Assumption

1. Accounting Entity Assumption:
This concept assumes that the entity of business is different from its owners. The business is treated as a unit or entity separate from the person who control it. The proprietor is treated as a creditor to the extent of the amount invested by him on the assumption that he has given money and the business has received it.

2. Money MeasurementAssumption:
According to this concept, transaction that can be measured in terms of money only are recorded in the books of accounts. This helps to record different kinds of economic activities on a uniform basis. A business may have certain events that actually influence its working but is not capable of being expressed in monetary terms and hence, not record in the books of accounts. For eg: quality of products, sales policy, efficiency of M.D., etc.

3. Going Concern Assumption:
According to this concept, the business unit is assumed to have an indefinite life. There is no intention to wind up or end the business in the near future. Thus, considering the business as a perpetual one, its records are separately kept and maintained.

4. Accounting Period Assumption:
Under this concept, the accountings are done on a day-to-day basis are analysed for a particular period to find out the net results of the business as well as the financial position on a specific date.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As an Accountant, explain the accounting principles you followed while preparing accounting records. Accounting principles are the general rules which govern the accounting techniques. The following are the major principles used in the accounting procedure.

1. Duality Principle:
According to this concept, each and every business transaction has two aspects- a giving aspect and a receiving aspect. The giving aspect of a transaction is called ‘credit’ and the receiving aspect of a transaction is called ‘debt’. Based on the duality principle, accounting equation is developed, ie; Asset = Liabilities + Capital.

2. Historical Cost Principle:
This principle requires that all transactions should be recorded at their acquisition cost. This principle is called historical, because the balance of assets and liabilities is carried forward from year to year to its acquisition cost, irrespective of increase or decrease in the market value of assets.

3. Matching Principle:
Under this concept, all the expenses, as well as the revenues of a particular period, should be accounted or otherwise it should be matched. In other words, it is the process of matching the revenue recognised during the period and the costs should be allocated to the period to obtain the revenue.

4. Full disclosure Principle:
This principle states that all information significant to the users of financial statements should be disclosed. It requires that all facts necessary to make financial statements not misleading must be disclosed.

5. Revenue Recognition Principle:
Revenue is the amount that a business earns through sale of goods or services. This principle helps in ascertaining the amount of revenue and the point of time at which it was realized. This principle is also called revenue realisation principle.

6. Verifiability and Objectivity Principle:
This principle states that the accounting data provided in the books of accounts should be verifiable and dependable. The figures exhibited in the financial statements should have supportive evidence such as bills, vouchers, etc. The evidence substantiating the business transaction should be objective, i.e., free from the bias of the accountants or others.

Question 2.
Explain modifying principles of accounting?
Answer:
There are certain general conventions or principles which supplement the basic principles for the preparation of accounting records and financial statements. They are called modifying conventions or principles. The important modifying principles are:

1. Cost-Benefit
2. Materiality
3. Consistency
4. Prudence or conservatism
5. Timeliness
6. Substance over legal form
7. Variation in accounting practices.

1. Cost-Benefit Principle:
This principle is a generally accepted norm that the cost of doing anything must not exceed the possible benefit that may be derived. This is applicable in the case of accounting also. Money spent for undertaking accounting work should definitely provide more benefit than the cost incurred.

2. Materiality Principle:
Materiality means relevance or importance or significance. As per this principle all material facts should be disclosed in the financial statements, but insignificant and immaterial facts need not be disclosed in details. For example, purchase of items like pen, pencil, scissors etc. are to be recorded as assets but practically these items are treated as expenses under the head stationery.

3. Consistency Principle:
Consistency means steadiness or unchanging nature. Accounting policies and practices adopted must be consistent for relatively reasonable period of time. The comparison of the financial statements of one year with that of another year will be effective and meaningful only if accounting practices and methods remain unchanged over year.

4. Conservatism or Prudence Principle This principle:
calls for losses while recording accounting information but at the same time does not permit anticipation of profits. This principle implies that while preparing financial statements all possible losses are to be provided for but incomes can be recognized only when there is certainty. It is base on the principle of prudence that stock is valued at market price or cost price whichever is les and provision is provided for doubtful debts.

5. Timeliness principle:
Timeliness implies that the financial statements are to be prepared and published in time. The relevance, dependability, and utility of the financial information depends on the timely publication of financial statements. The users of financial statements need timely information.

6. Principle of Substance over legal form:
This principle states that transactions and financial events are accounted for and presented in accordance with their substance and economic reality and not merely their legal form.

7. Variation in Accounting practices:
For the preparation of financial statements, the business enterprises are following certain specific guidelines and practices which are called generally accepted accounting principles and practices (GAAP). Certain industries may sometimes deviate from GAAP because of the peculiarity of its operation and practices.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Accounting standards? Name the accounting standards issued by ASB.
Answer:
An Accounting standard is a selected set of accounting policies or broad guidelines regarding the principles and methods to be chosen out of several alternatives. Standard conforms to applicable laws, customs, usage and business environment. In India, the Accounting standard Board (ASB) has the authority of issuing Accounting standards.

The sole objective of Accounting standards is to harmonise the diversified policies to make the system more useful and effective. They lay down the norms of accounting policies and practices byway of codes or guidelines to direct as to how the items appearing in the financial statements should be dealt with in the books of account and shown in the financial statements and annual reports.

The ASB has issued 29 accounting standards. They are as follows:

1. AS 1 – Accounting Standard 1 – Disclosure of Accounting Policies.
2. AS 2 – Accounting Standard 2 – Valuation of Inventories
3. AS 3 – Accounting Standard 3 – Cash Flow Statements
4. AS 4 – Accounting Standard 4 – Contingencies and Events occurring after the Balance sheet date.
5. AS 5 – Accounting Standard 5 – Net Profit or Loss for the period, prior period items and changes in accounting policies
6. AS 6 – Accounting Standard 6 – Depreciation Accounting.
7. AS 3 – Accounting Standard 7 – Accounting for Construction Contracts
8. AS 8 – Accounting Standard 9 – Accounting for Research and Development
9. AS 9 – Accounting Standard 9 – Revenue Recognition
10. AS 10-Accounting Standard 10-Accounting for Fixed Assets
11. AS 11 -Accounting Standard 11 -Accounting for the effects of changes in Foreign exchange rates
12. AS 12 – Accounting Standard 12 -Accounting for Government grants
13. AS 13-Accounting Standard 13-Accounting for Investments
14. AS 14 – Accounting Standard 14 – Accounting for Amalgamations
15. AS 15-Accounting Standard 15-Accounting for Retirement Benefit in the Financial statements of Employers
16. AS 16 – Accounting Standard 16 – Borrowing costs
17. AS 17 – Accounting Standard 17 – Segment Reporting
18. AS 18 – Accounting Standard 18 – Related party Disclosures
19. AS 19 – Accounting Standard 19 – Leases
20. AS 20 – Accounting Standard 20 – Earning per share
21. AS 21 – Accounting Standard 21 – Consolidated financial statements
22. AS 22 – Accounting Standard 22 – Accounting for taxes on income
23. AS 23 – Accounting Standard 23 – Accounting for investments in associates in consolidated financial statements
24. AS 24 – Accounting Standard 24 – Accounting for discontinued operations
25. AS 25 – Accounting Standard 25 – Interim Financial Reporting
26. AS 26 – Accounting Standard 26 – Intangible Assets
27. AS 27 – Accounting Standard 27 – Financial Reporting of interests in joint ventures.
28. AS 28 – Accounting Standard 28 – Impairment of assets
29. AS 29 – Accounting Standard 29 – Provisions, contingent liabilities, and contingent assets

Students can Download Chapter 11 Computer Networks Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Computer Networks

Plus One Computer Networks One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An interconnected collection of autonomous computers is called _________
Answer:
Computer Networks

Question 2.
State true/false
A computer connected to a network is called work station.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
A work station is also called
Answer:
Node

Question 4.
Which hardware is used to connect a work station to a network?
Answer:
Network Interface Card (NIC)

Question 5.
Rules and convention to transmit data on a network is called _________
Answer:
Protocol

Question 6
In your computer lab sometimes you can see that cable from some computers are connected to a small box. What is it?
Answer:
It is a Hub/Switch

Question 7.
The computers connected in your school lab is a _________ type network.
Answer:
Local Area Network

Question 8.
A Cable TV Network that spread over the city is a _________ type network.
Answer:
Metropolitan Area Network

Question 9.
Internet is a __________type network.
Answer:
Wide Area Network

Question 10.
The school management is decided to connect computers in your HSS lab and high school lab located adjacent buildings. Which type of network is this?
Answer:
Local Area Network

Question 11.
A company decided to connect the computers of their branch located in another city away from 10 km. Name this network.
Answer:
Metropolitan Area Network

Question 12.
Geometrical arrangement of computers in a network is called _________
Answer:
Topology

Question 13.
From the following select an ISP.
(a) KSEB
(b) KSRTC
(c) BSNL
(d) PWD
Answer:
(c) BSNL

Question 14.
ISP means
Answer:
Internet service provider

Question 15.
ISDN means
Answer:
Integrated services digital network

Question 16.
State true/false.
In peer to peer configuration all the computers are with equal configuration.
Answer:
True

Question 17.
State true/false.
In client server configuration, a computer is powerful than others.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Consider the following address.
http://www.nic.kerala.gov.in, “in” is used to represent what?
Answer:
“in” is used to represent the country “India”.

Question 19.
Which top level domain is used for non commercial organisation?
Answer:
org

Question 20.
Which geographical top level domain is used for the country “France”?
Answer:
Fr

Question 21.
DNS stands for.
Answer:
Domain Name System

Question 22.
An IP address consists of bits long.
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 32 bits

Question 23.
An IP address consists of bytes long.
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 4 Bytes

Question 24.
From the following which media is using light rays for data transfer.
(a) Twisted pair cable
(b) Optical fibre
(c) Coanial cable
(d) Microwave station
Answer:
(b) Optical fibre

Question 25.
The wiring is not shared in a topology. Which is that topology?
Answer:
Star

Question 26.
________ is a combination of any two or more network topologies.
Answer:
Hybrid Topology

Question 27.
The nodes in a topology with two or more paths. Which topology is this?
Answer:
Mesh topology

Question 28.
Copying the signals from the earth to satellite is called __________
Answer:
Uplink

Question 29.
Copying the signals from the satellite to earth is called ____________
Answer:
Downlink, Mesh topology

Question 30.
In very short distance networks, which communication media is used?
Answer:
Twisted pair cables or coaxial cables.

Question 31.
In long distance networks, which communication medias are used?
Answer:
microwave station, satellites, etc.

Question 32.
From the following which connector is used to connect UTP/STP twisted pair cable to a computer.
(a) RJ – 45
(b) RS – 1
(c) CG – 1
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) RJ – 45

Question 33.
The cable media that use light to transmit data signals to very long distance is ________.
Answer:
Optical fibre cable

Question 34.
AM and FM radio broadcast and mobile phones make use of _________ medium for transmission.
Answer:
Radio waves

Question 35.
A short range communication technology that does not require line of sight between communicating device is __________.
Answer:
Wi-Fi

Question 36.
A communication system that is very expensive, but has a large coverage area when compared to other wireless communication system is ______
Answer:
Satellite link

Question 37.
In which topology is every node connected to other nodes?
Answer:
Mesh topology

Question 38.
Any device which is directly connected to a network is generally known as ___________
Answer:
Node or Work station or Client or Terminal

Question 39.
In ____________ topology all the nodes are connected to a main cable. (1)
Answer:
Bus topology

Question 40.
Write the full from of FTTH.
Answer:
Fibre To The Home

Question 41.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE in relation with Wi-MAX Internet connectivity?
(a) make use of satellite connection
(b) Uses cable connection
(c) Uses laser beam for connection
(d) Microwave is used for connectivity
Answer:
(d) Microwave is used for connectivity

Question 42.
Identify the type of LAN topology in which there are more than one path between nodes,
(a) Star
(b) Ring
(c) Mesh
(d) Bus
Answer:
(c) Mesh topology

Question 43.

1. To make data transfer faster, a switch stores two different addresses of all the devices connected to it. Which are they?
2. Name the device that can interconnect two different networks having different protocols.

Answer:

1. IP and MAC address
2. Gateway

Question 44.

1. Different networks with different protocols are connected by a device called ________
   • Router
   • Bridge
   • Switch
   • Gateway
2. Define Protocol

Answer:

1. Gateway
2. Protocol: The rules and conventions for transmitting data.

Plus One Computer Networks Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Is it possible to connect all the computers to a network? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. It is not possible to connect all the computers to a network. A computer, with a hardware called Network Interface Card (NIC), can only connect to a network.

Question 2.
Define Computer Networks?
Answer:
Two or more computers connected through a communication media that allows exchange of information between computers is called a Computer Network.
eg: LAN, MAN, WAN

Question 3.
Do you heard about work station/Node. What is it?
Answer:
A personal computer connected to a network is called work station/Node.

Question 4.
Define a protocol.
Answer:
A protocol is the collection of rules and conventions used to exchange information between computers as a network.

Question 5.
Is the following a valid IP address? 258.1001.10.1. Justify your answer?
Answer:
No. It is not a valid IP address. An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255. Here 258 and 1001 are greater than 255. So it is not valid.

Question 6.
Mr. Dixon purchased a Laptop with bluetooth technology. What is bluetooth?
Answer:
It is a specification that allows mobile phones, computers and PDAS to be connected wirelessly over short distance.

Question 7.
Some Airport or college campus offers Wi-Fi facility. What is Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi means Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless technology. Some organisation offers Wi-Fi facility. Here we can connect internet wirelessly over short distance, using Wi-Fi enabled devices.

Question 8.
What is a protocol?
Answer:
A protocol is a collection of rules and regulations to transmit data from one computer to another on a network.
eg: Http, FTP, TCP/IP, etc.

Question 9.
Explain Infrared waves in detail?
Answer:
These waves are used for transmitting data in short distance and its frequency range is 300 GHz to 400 GHz. Tv’s remote control, wireless mouse and intrusion detectors etc are the devices that used infrared.

Question 10.
Define resource sharing.
Answer:
Resource sharing means the computers on a network can share resources like software (programs, data) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).

Question 11.
Name two classification of communication channels between computers in a network.
Answer:
The two classification of communication channels are guided media and unguided media.

Question 12.
What is the use of a Repeater ?
Answer:
A Repeater is a device used to strengthen weak signals on the network and retransmits them to the destination.

Question 13.
Differentiate between router and Bridge.
Answer:
Bridge is a device used to link same type of networks while Router is similar to a bridge, but it can connect two networks with different protocols.

Question 14.
Categorise and classify the different types of network given below.
ATM network, Cable television network, Network within the school, Network at home using Bluetooth, Telephone network, Railway network ,
Answer:

• PAN: Network at home using Bluetooth
• LAN: Network within the school
• MAN: Cable television network
• WAN: ATM network, Telephone network, Railway network

Question 15.
What is PAN?
Answer:
PAN means Personal Area Network. It is used to connect devices situated in a small radius by using guided media(USB cable)or unguided media (Bluetooth, infrared,etc).

Plus One Computer Networks Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of Networks?

OR

In a school lab all the 10 computers are connected to a network. We know that there is no need of 10 printers or 10 scanners why? Explain the advantages of Networks?
Answer:
The advantages of Networks are given below:
1. Resource sharing:
All the computers in a network can share software (programs, data) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).

2. Reliability:
If one computer fails, the other computer can perform the work without any delay. This is very important for banking air traffic control and other application.

3. Price Vs Performance:
A main frame computer can be 10 times faster than a PC but it costs thousand times a PC. Therefore instead of a main frame 10 personal computers are used with less cost and same performance.

4. Communication Medium:
It is a powerful communication medium. We can exchange information between computers in a network.

5. Scalable:
This means, System performance can be increased by adding computers to a network.

Question 2.
Match the following,

(1) Protocol	a. edu
(2) Top level Domain	b. Microwave Tower
(3) Communication Medium	c. HTTP
(4) Network	d. Mesh
(5) Topology	e. in
(6) Geographical Top level domain	f. WAN

Answer:
(1) c
(2) a
(3) b
(4) f
(5) d
(6) e

Question 3.
Your friend told you that a workstation and server are same. What is your opinion? Is it true?
Answer:
No it is not true. A work station is a ordinary computer connected to a network. But a server is a powerful computer connected to a network. Its main aim is to serve the needs of a workstation. Server is the master and workstations are the slaves.

Question 4.
Your friend told you that there are different types of servers. Do you agree with that ? Justify your answer?
Answer:
Yes, there are different types of servers, dedicated and non dedicated servers.
1. Dedicated Server:
In large networks, a computer is reserved only for doing server function like sharing software and hardware resources and it is unavailable for running user applications and therefore increases system cost.
eg: File server, Printer server etc.

2. Non dedicated Server:
In smaller networks, a computer is doing the function of a server as well as it also act as a workstation.

Question 5.
Your friend asked you that a Hub or switch is better. What is your opinion?
Answer:
A Hub is a device that receives data from a PC and transmit it to all other PC’s on the network. If two or more PC’s transmit data at the same time, there is a chance for collision.

Hub is a cheap device and data transfer through a Hub is slow. A switch is also a device and it transmits data to the right recipient. Therefore collision rate is low. A switch is faster but it is expensive.

Question 6.
A LAN is classified by their configuration. What are they?
Answer:
They are, peer to peer or client-server.
1. Peer to peer:
In this configuration all the computers have equal priority. That means each computer can function as both a workstation and a server. There is no dedicated server.

2. Client-Server:
In this configuration a computer is powerful which acts as a dedicated server and all others are clients (work stations). Server is the master and others are slaves.

Question 7.
Your friend told you that internet and intranet are same. Do you agree with that. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. Internet and intranet are not same. They are different.
1. Internet:
It is a network of networks. It means that international network. We can transfer information between computers within nations very cheaply and speedily.
2. Intranet:
A private network inside a company or organisation is called intranet.

Question 8.
Your friend decides to start an internet cafe in his shop. What are the requirements forthis? Help him.
Answer:
The following are the requirements.

1. Computer with a built in Modem or a facility to connect an external modem.
2. A telephone connection
3. An account with an ISP
4. Install respective software
   • eg: Internet explorer or mozilla or netscape Navigator etc.

Question 9.
Consider the following URL and explain each parts.
http://www.nic.kerala.gov.in / results.html.
Answer:
1. http:
http means hyper text transfer protocol. It is a protocol used to transfer hyper text.

2. www:
World Wide Web. With an email address we can open our mail box from anywhere in the world.

3. nic.kerala:
It is a unique name. It is the official website name of National Informatic Centre

4. gov:
It is the top level domain. It means that it is a government organisation’s website,

5. in:
It is the geographical top level domain. It represents the country, in is used for India,

6. results.html:
It represents the file name.

Question 10.
Write any valid email and explain the working of an email.
Answer:
An example of an email id is jobi_cg@rediffmail. com. Here jobi_cg is the user name, rediffmail is the website address and .com is the top level domain which identifies the types of the organisation. To send an email we require an email address.

Some websites provide free email facility. To send an email first type the recipients address and type the message then click the send button. The website’s server first check the email address is valid, if it is valid it will be sent otherwise the message will not be sent and the sender will get an email that it could not deliver the message.

This message will be received by the recipient’s server and will be delivered to recipient’s mail box. He can read it and it will remain in his mail box as ong as he will be deleted.

Question 11.
Is it possible to give numeric address (IP address) to URL instead of string address of a website just like the following, http://210.212.239.70/
Answer:
Our Post Office has two addresses one string ad¬dress (Irinjalakuda) and one numeric code (680121). Just like this the website has also two addresses a string address www.agker.cag.gov.in and a numeric address (http://210.212.239.70/).

Numeric Address (IP address):
It has 4 parts one byte (8 bits) each separated by dots. One byte can represent a number in between 0 to 255. So we can use a number in between 0 to 255 separated by dots. It is the fastest method to access a website. To remember this number is not easy to humans. So a string address is used by humans, eg:- http://203.-127.54.1/

String Address:
It uses a string to represent a website, it is familiar to the humans. The string address is mapped back to the numeric address using a Domain Name System (DNS). It may consists of 3 or 4 parts. The first part is www., the second part is website name, the third top level domain and the fourth geographical top level domain,
eg: www.kerala.gov.in

Question 12.
Arun is in charge of networking the computers in your newly built computer lab.

1. Suggest any two options for communication media that can be usedfor connecting computers in your school lab.
2. Explain the structure and features of both. (3)

Answer:
1. Twisted pair cables and coaxial cables.

2. Twisted Pair Wire :
Two copper wires individually insulated, twisted around each other and covered by a PVC. There are two types of twisted pair wire. They are UTP and STP. It is very cheap and easy to install.

Coaxial Cable:
A sturdy copper wire(conductor) is insulated by plastic. This is covered just like a mesh by a conductor , which in turn is enclosed in an protective plastic coating. Compared to twisted pair wire it is more expensive, less flexible and more difficult to install. But it is more reliable and carry for higher data rates.

Question 13.
The computer uses digital signals and this signal is transmitted through telephone lines to computers at distant locations. Discuss how this is made possible.
Answer:
1. Modem

2. A Modem is a two in one device. That is it performs two functions. It is used to convert Digital signals to Analog, the process is Modulation(DAM) and the reverse process is converting Analog to Digital known as Demodulation (ADD).

Question 14.
Explain the structure of the television cable in your house.
Answer:
Coaxial Cable:
A sturdy copper wire(conductor) is insulated by plastic. This is covered just like a mesh by a conductor, which in turn is enclosed in an protective plastic coating. Compared to twisted pair wire it is more expensive, less flexible and more difficult to install. But it is more reliable and carry far higher data rates. The various coaxial cables are RG – 8, RG – 9, RG – 11,…………

Question 15.
Answer the following questions from the list given below.
[Router, Modem, Bridge, Gateway]
Answer:

1. Device used to connect a network using TCP/IP protocol and a network using IPX/SPX protocol.
2. Device that can convert a message from one code to another and transfer from one network to a network of another type.
3. Device used to link two networks of the same type.

Question 16.
Find the most suitable match.

A	B
i. Web site	1. file with extension .htm
ii. Home page	2. www.yahoo.com
iii. Web page	3. first page of a web site
iv. Portal	4. www.keralapsc.org.

Answer:
i. www.keralapsc.org
ii. first page of a web site
iii. file with extension.htm
iv. www.yahoo.com

Question 17.
What do you mean by line of sight method of propagation.

OR

Why Microwave station use tall towers instead of short one?
Answer:
MicroWave signals can travel only in straight line. It cannot bend when the obstacles in between. There fore it uses tall towers instead of short one. The dish like antenna mounted on the top of the tower. Hence the two antennas must be in a straight line, able to look at each other without any obstacle in between.

Question 18.
Mr. Alvis took a photograph by using his mobile phone and he sends that photograph to his friend by using blue tooth. What is Bluetooth? Explain.
Answer:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

By using Bluetooth Dongle(a small device that can be buy from the shop) we can convert non Bluetooth PC into Bluetooth enabled and transmits data with data transmission rate of 3 Mbs onwards.

Question 19.
Differentiate Wi-Fi and Wi-Max in detail.
Answer:
WI Fi(Wireless Fidelity) uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, Tablets, Mobile phones etc. But Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access) uses microwaves to transmit information across a network in a range 2 GHz to 11 GHz over very long distance.

Question 20.
What is MAC address? What is the difference between a MAC address and an IP address?
Answer:
MAC means Media Access Control address. It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address and it is permanent. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS.

The first MM:MM:MM contains the ID number of the adapter company and the second SS:SS:SS represents the serial number assigned to the adapter by the company.

IP address means Internet Protocol address. It has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(28=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4 × 8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

Question 21.
What is the limitation of microwave transmission? How is it eliminated?
Answer:
MicroWave signals can travel only in straight line. It cannot bend when the obstacles in between. Therefore it uses tall towers instead of short one. The dish like antenna mounted on the top of the tower. Hence the two antennas must be in a straight line, able to look at each other without any obstacle in between.

Question 22.
Explain the different types of networks.
Answer:
The networks are classified into the following.
1. Local Area Network (LAN):
This is used to connect computers in a single room, rooms within a building or buildings of one location by usin(j twisted pair wire or coaxial cable. Here the computers can share Hardware and software. Data transferrate is high and error rate is less,
eg: The computers connected in a school lab.

2. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
A Metropolitan Area Network is a network spread over a city. For example a Cable TV network. MAN have lesser speed than LAN and the error rate is less. Here opticalfibre cable is used.

3. Wide Area Network (WAN):
This is used to connect computers over a large geographical area. It is a network of networks. Here the computers are connected using telephone lines or Micro Wave station or Satellites. Internet is an example for this. LAN and MAN are owned by a single organisation but WAN is owned by multiple organisation. The error rate in data transmission is high.

Question 23.

1. To make data transfer faster, a switch stores two different addresses of all the devices connected to it. What are they?
2. There are 5 computers in your computer lab. Write short notes on any three possible methods to interconnect these computers. Draw the diagram of each method.

Answer:
1. Identification of computers over a network:
A computer gets a data packet on a network, it can identify the senders address easily. It is similarto oursnails mail, each letter is stamped in sender’s post office as well as receiver’s post office.

(1) Media Access Control(MAC) address:
It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address and its permanent. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS. The first MM:MM:MM contains the ID number of the adapter company and the second SS:SS:SS represents the serial number assigned to the adapter by the company.

(2) Internet Protocol (IP) address:
An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(2°=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4*8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

2. Network topologies:
Physical or logical arrangement of computers on a network is called structure or topology. It is the geometrical arrangement of computers in a network. The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.

(1) Star Topology:
A star topology has a server all other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmit the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B.

That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network is easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.

(2) Bus Topology:
Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantages are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.

(3) Ring Topology:
Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address.

The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. If not, it passes to the next node. It requires only short cable length. If a single node fails, at least a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.

(4) Hybrid Topology:
It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology and mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.
(a) Tree Topology:
The structure of a tree topology is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmission takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.

(b) Mesh Topology:
In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.

Question 24.
ABC Ltd. required to connect their computers in their company without using wires. Suggest suitable medium to connect the computers. Explain. (3)
Answer:
Unguided Media

1. Radio waves: It transmits data at different frequencies ranging from 3 kHz. to 300 GHz.
2. Microwaves: Microwave signals can travel in straight line if there is any obstacle in its path, it can’t bend. So it uses tall towers instead of short one.
3. Infrared waves: These waves are used for transmitting data in short distance and its frequency range is 300 GHz to 400 GHz.

Question 25.
It is needed to set up a PAN, interconnecting one tablet, two mobile phones and one laptop. Suggest a suitable communication technology and list its features for the following situations:

1. the devices are in a room at distance of 5 to 10 meters.
2. the devices are in different rooms at a distance of 25 to 50 meters.

Answer:
1. Wireless communication technologies using radio waves
Bluetooth:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

2. Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity):
It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets. Mobile phones etc.

Question 26.
Computers and other communication devices can be connected a network using wireless technology.

1. A song is transferred from mobile phone to a laptop using this technology. Name the transmission medium used here.
2. Explain any other three communication media which use this technology

Answer:

1. Blue tooth or Radio waves
2. Wireless communication technologies using radio waves

(1) Bluetooth:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

(2) Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity):
It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets, Mobile phones etc.

(3) Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access):
It uses micro waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2 GHz to 11 GHz over very long distance.

(4) Satellites:
By using satellite we can communicate from any part of the world to any other. The ground stations are connected via the satellite. The data signals transmitted from earth to satellite (uplink) and from the satellite to the earth (downlink).

Question 27.
Find the correct match for each item in column A from columns B and C.

A	B	C
(a) QR code	(i) Secondary memory	1. Reduces the amount of traffic on a network
(b) USB flash drives	(ii) Internet connectivity	2. Dish antenna is required
(c) Bridge	(iii) Bar code reader	3. Two dimensional way of storing data
(d) FTTH	(vi) Mobile service	4. Uses EEPROM chip for data storage
	(v) Network device	5. Transmits data packets to all devices
		Uses optical fibre for data tranmission

Answer:
(a) QR code – (iii) – 3
(b) USB flash drives – (i) – 4
(c) Bridge – (V) – 1
(d) FTTH – (ii) – 6

Question 28.
Write notes on the following:

1. IP address
2. MAC address
3. Modem

Answer:
1. IP address:
An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(2⁸=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4 × 8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

2. Media Access Control(MAC) address:
It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS.

3. Modem:
It is a device used to connect the computer to the internet. It converts digital signal into analog signal (modulation) and vice versa (De modulation)

Question 29.
Compare any three types of networks based on span of geographical area.
Answer:
Types of networks:
The networks are classified into the following based upon the amount of geographical area that covers.
1. Personal Area Ne,twork(PAN):
It is used to connect devices situated in a small radius by using guided media or unguided media

2. Local Area Network (LAN):
This is used to connect computers in a single room, rooms within a building or buildings of one location by using twisted pair wire or coaxial cable. Here the computers can share Hardware and software. Data transfer rate is high and error rate is less,
eg:The computers connected in a school lab.

3. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
A Metropolitan Area Network is a network spread over a city. For example a Cable TV network. MAN have lesser speed than LAN and the error rate is less. Here optical fiber cable is used.

4. Wide Area Network (WAN):
This is used to connect computers over a large geographical area. It is a network of networks. Here the computers are connected using telephone lines or Micro Wave station or Satellites.

Internet is an example for this. LAN and MAN are owned by a single organization but WAN is owned by multiple organization. The error rate in data transmission is high.
In short

Plus One Computer Networks Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the different network topologies.
Answer:
physical or logical arrangement of computers of a network is called structure or topology. It is the geometrical arrangement of computers in a network. The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.
1. Star Topology:
A star topology has a server all other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmits the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B.

That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network is easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.

2. Bus Topology:
Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantages are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.

3. Ring Topology:
Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address.

The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. IF not, it passes to the next node. It require only short cable length. If a single node fails, atleast a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.

4. Hybrid Topology:
It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology and mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.

(a) Tree Topology:
The structure of a tree topol-ogy is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmis-sion takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.

(b) Mesh Topology:
In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.

Question 2.
What are the different data communication equipments?
Answer:
1. Modem:
A Modem is a two in one device. That is it performs two functions. It is used to convert Digital signals to Analog, the process is Modulation (DAM) and the reverse process is converting Analog to Digital known as Demodulation (ADD).

2. Multiplexer(Many to One):
A multiplexer is a device that combines the inputs from different sources and produces one output. A demultiplexer does the reverse process.

3. Bridge:
It is a device used to link two same type of networks.

4. Router:
It is a device used to link two networks with different protocols.

5. Gateway:
It is a device used to link two networks of different types.lt can convert a message from one code to another.

Question 3.
Explain the protocol TCP/IP.
Answer:
1. TCP:
(Transmission Control Protocol) is a connection oriented protocol. It is responsible for sending the data from one PC to another and also verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server. Data can be lost in the intermediate network. TCP adds support to detect errors or lost data and to trigger retransmission until the data is correctly and completely received.

2. IP:
is responsible for moving packet of data from node to node. IP forwards each packet based on a four byte destination address (the IP number). The Internet authorities assign ranges of numbers to different organizations.

The organizations assign groups of their numbers to departments. IP operates on gateway machines that move data from department to organization to region and then around the world. In short TCP handle the flow control and error free packet delivery and IP provides basic addressing and data packets forwarding services.
eg: 101.65.105.255

Question 4.
What is a protocol. Explain any four.

OR

Why protocol is necessary for communication? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
A protocol is a collection of rules and regulations to transfer data from one location to another. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which uses a set of rules to exchange messages with other Internet points at the information packet level. Internet Protocol (IP), which uses a set of rules to send and receive messages at the Internet address level.
1. FTP:
File Transfer Protocol which is used for transferring files between computers connected to local network or internet.

2. HTTP:
HTTP is a protocol used for WWW for enabling the web browse to access web server and request HTML documents.

Students can Download Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Neural Control and Coordination

Plus One Neural Control and Coordination One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Resting membrane potential is maintained by
(a) Hormones
(b) Neurotransmitters
(c) Ion pumps
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ion pumps

Question 2.
The function of our visceral organs is controlled by
(a) Sympathetic and somatic neural system
(b) Sympathetic and para sympathetic neural system
(c) Central and somatic nervous system
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sympathetic and para sympathetic neural system

Question 3.
Which of the following is not involved in Knee-jerk reflex?
(a) Muscle spindle
(b) Motor neuron
(c) Brain
(d) Inter neurons
Answer:
(c) Brain

Question 4.
Mark the vitamin present in Rhodopsin
(a) Vit A
(b) Vit B
(c) Vit C
(d) Vit D
Answer:
(a) Vit A

Question 5.
Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses
(a) Lens, iris, optic nerve
(b) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor
(c) Cornea, lens, iris
(d) Cornea, lens, optic nerve
Answer:
(b) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor

Question 6.
Name the structure which connects two cerebral hemisphere
Answer:
Corpus callosum

Question 7.
Name the region of keenest vision in our eye.
Answer:
Fovea or yellow spot

Question 8.
After playing on a giant wheel, we lost our balance. Why?
Answer:
Change in position of Otolith in ear gives mal information to the brain.

Question 9.
Arrange the ear ossicles in order from inner ear to the tympanum.
Incus Stapes Malleus
Answer:
Stapes → Incus → Malleus

Question 10.
Name the receptors respond to irritants such as ammonia, vinegar or hot chilly pepper.
Answer:
Pain receptors

Question 11.
The tissues of eye and ear contain photoreceptors and the auditory receptors. Likewise, some are found as film of liquid coating in the membranes of the receptor cells. Name it.
Answer:
Chemoreceptors

Plus One Neural Control and Coordination Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Light ray → Lens → retina → pupil → cornea → brain → Vitreous chamber → Aqueous chamber → Optic nerve.
Correct the sequence.
Answer:
Light ray → Cornea → Aqueous chamber → Pupil → Lens → Vitreous chamber → Optic nerve → brain.

Question 2.
Classify the following into 3 groups and give appropriate headings.
Thalamus, Corporaquadrigerhina, Pons, hypothalamus, Cerebrum, Medulla Oblongata.
Answer:

Question 3.

1. Identify the above stages of nerve impulse conduction
2. Name the ions involved in this process

Answer:

1. Identification of above stages
   • I – Resting membrane potential
   • II – Action potential
2. Na⁺, K⁺

Question 4.
Differentiate Blindspot and Yellow spot.
Answer:
1. Blind spot:
The spot at the back of the eye where the optic nerve originates is known as blind spot. Rods and canes are absent here. So the image falling at this spot cannot be carried to the brain.

2. Yellow spot:
Lateral to the blind spot is a depressed area called yellow spot which contains only canes. It is the area of sharpest vision.

Question 5.
‘Sudden death may occur due to the damage of Medulla oblongata’. Why?
Answer:
The medulla oblongata contains several centres which regulate heartbeat, respiration, gastric, secretion, vomiting etc. It carries the nerve fibres which connect spinal cord and cerebrum.

Question 6.
Observe the figure given below.

1. Identify A & B
2. Write the main function of part A.

Answer:

1. Identification of A & B
   • A – Cochlea
   • B – Semicircular canals
2. Maintenance of balance of the body and posture.

Question 7.
Where do you find bipolar and multipolar neurons in our body?
Answer:

• Bipolar neuron – Retina of eye
• Multipolar neuron – Cerebral cortex

Question 8.
While playing cricket, the ball hit a boy’s head. He immediately vomited and felt difficulty to breath.

1. Identify the part of brain affected.
2. Give the function of the affected part.

Answer:

1. Medulla oblongata
2. The medulla oblongata contains several centres which regulate heartbeat, respiration salivation, vomiting, etc. It carries the nerve fibers which connect the spinal cord and cerebrum.

Question 9.
Nocturnal animals like bats and owls have vision during night. Give reason.
Answer:
Nocturnal animals like owls have only rods in the retina. The rods are sensitive to dim light and enable to see dim light and at night.

Question 10.
Observe the flow diagram of the pathway of a light ray entering the eye.
Lightray → lens retina →pupil → aqueous chamber → vitreous chamber → cornea → optic nerve → brain

1. Correct the sequence.
2. If the light ray falls on the blindspot, what will happen?

Answer:

1. Light ray → cornea → pupil → aqueous chamber → lens → vitreous chamber → retina → optic nerve → brain
2. Rods and cones’are absent in blind spot and so the image falling at this spot cannot be carried to the brain.

Question 11.
Arrange the following in the order of reception and transmission of the sound wave from the external auditory canal.
Answer:
Cochlear nerve, eardrum, stapes, incus, malleus, cochlea
Ear drum → malleus → incus → stapes → cochlea → cochlear nerve

Question 12.
Observe the given diagram.

1. Write any one difference between A and B.
2. Through which neurone the impulse conduction is faster. Justify.

Answer:

1. The difference between A and B
   • A – non-myelinated neuron
   • B – Myelinated neuron
2. Impulse conduction is faster through myelinated neuron.

Question 13.
The given diagram is a part of myelinated nerve fibre.

1. Identify the part where there is no myelin sheath.
2. Name the type of conduction going on in that type of nerve fibre.

Answer:

1. Nodes of Ranvier
2. Saltatory conduction

Question 14.
Observe the diagram.

Identify A, B, C and D.
Answer:

1. A – Nissl’s granule
2. B – Myelin sheath
3. C – NodeofRanvier
4. D – Synaptic knob

Question 15.

1. Identify the picture.
2. Write the peculiarity of the picture.

Answer:

1. Bipolar neuron
2. Bipolar neurons are the neurons with one axon and one dendrite

Question 16.
A patient approaches a doctor with a problem that he was not able to sleep for the last 6 months. The doctor said that it may be due to the defect in the relay centre of his brain and advised him to take sedative pills.

1. Which part of brain is described here as ‘relay centre’?
2. What are the actions of sedative pills in body?

Answer:

1. Thalamus
2. Sedative pills work in the Thalamus and prevent the transmission of impulses to cerebrum. Depress brain activity produce feelings of calmness, relaxation, drowsiness and deep sleep.

Question 17.
It is said that the number and pattern of convolutions are associated with the degree of intelligence.

1. Is it true?
2. If yes, give the scientific reason for it.

Answer:

1. True
2. More intelligent forms like mammals especially primates have more convolutions than lower forms.

Question 18.
Diagram below represents a neuron at resting membrane potential (RMP).

(a) How RMP is maintained?
(b) Draw the changes at the time of depolarization and explain how it happens.
Answer:
(a) RMP is maintained by
1. A resting membrane is poorly permeable to Na⁺ ions and Cl^– ions. But more permeable to K⁺ ions. The extra cellular fluid has a high concentration of Na⁺ ion and low concentration of K⁺ ions. But the intracellular medium has a reverse condition due to the permeability.

2. Sodium-Potassium pump maintain higher concentration of Na⁺ ions outside the membrane compared to the concentration of Na⁺ inside

(b)

When a neuron is stimulated, there is a momentary reversal of the resting potential. The reversal of polarity is known as depolarisation. When stimulated a resting membrane, sodium pump suddenly stops and sodium ions begin to enter the cells.

The presence of higher concentration of Na⁺ inside the cell cause the inside membrane +ve and outside become -ve. This condition is called depolarisation.

Question 19.
Copy the diagram and label A, B, C, D.

Answer:

1. A – Synaptic vesicles
2. B – Synaptic cleft
3. C – Presynaptic neuron
4. D – Post synaptic neuron

Question 20.
A diagram showing the chemical synaptic transmission is given below. Based on the diagram prepare a flow chart showing the process of synaptic transmission.

Answer:

Question 21.
While playing cricket the ball hit a boy’s head. He immediately vomited and felt difficulty to breath.

1. Identify the part of brain which may be affected by the incident.
2. Give functions of this particular part of brain.

Answer:

1. Medulla oblongata
2. Control heart beat, regulate respiration, control circulation, control digestion, control peristalsis etc.

Question 22.
Observe the schematic representation related to maintaining resting membrane potential of an axon.

1. What are the conditions exhibited in the figure for maintaining resting membrane potential?
2. What are the other conditions of resting membrane potential (not exhibited in the diagram)

Answer:

1. High permeability of axon wall for K⁺, Highly negative charge protein in axoplasm, Na⁺ – K⁺ pump.
2. High K⁺ concentration inside the axon, High Na⁺ concentration outside the axon, Low Na⁺ permeability the axon wall, 3Na⁺ ions for 2K⁺ ions.

Question 23.
Observe the portion of Brain and answer the following questions.

1. Name the covering of brain.
2. Identify A, B and C.

Answer:

1. Meninges
2. Identification of A, B, and C
   • A – Dura mater
   • B – Arachnoid mater
   • C – Pia mater

Question 24.
Identify the following figure and label the parts.

Answer:
Reflex arc

Question 25.
When we step on a thorn, we withdraw our legs suddenly, if we are taking this thorn out, we will not withdraw our legs. Comment on these two statements.
Answer:
1^st statement is a reflex action and 2^nd statement is a process controlled by Brain.

Question 26.
Observe the picture.

1. Identify the part labelled as (x).
2. In our retina there are more rod cells than cones. But our vision in darkness is poor. Give scientific explanation to this fact.

Answer:

1. Yellow spot or fovea
2. Image forms normally on yellow spot. In yellow spot rods are less and cones are more. So low dim light vision.

Question 27.
Find out the relationships and write the suitable word in the IVth place.

1. Cornea: Sclera; Yellow spot: _________
2. Incus: Middle ear; Cochlea: __________
3. Scala vestibuli Perilymph; Scala media: __________
4. Rods: Rhodopsin; Cones: ____________

Answer:

1. Retina
2. Inner ear
3. Endolymph
4. lodopsin

Question 28.
Arrange the organs according to the mechanism of hearing.
Oval window, Perilymph, Organ of Corti, Ear Ossicles, Pinna, Tectorial membrane, Endolymph, Auditory canal, auditory nerve, brain
Answer:
Pinna → Auditory canal → Ear ossicles → oval window → Perilymph → Endolymph → Organ of Corti → Auditory nerve → Brain

Question 29.
Copy the diagram and mark Tectorial membrane and sensory hair cell.

Answer:

Question 30.
Analyse the table and fill in the blanks given in the table with appropriate words.

Rods	_______________
No ability to detect colour	_______________
______________	Cone pigments
_______________	Cone shaped
Only one type	___________________
___________________	Photopic vision

Answer:

Rods	Cones
No ability to detect	Ability to detect
colour	colour
Rhodopsin	Cone pigments
Rod shaped	Cone shaped
Only one type	Three type
Scotopic	Photopic vision

Question 31.
In animals like bats and owls photoreceptor cells of the retina have mainly rods.

1. What can you infer from this?
2. Write down the function of rods and cons.

Answer:

1. Rod cells bring about vision in night or dim light vision.
2. The function of rods and cons:
   • Cones are cone shaped sensory cells of retina that bring about vision in day light and also distinguish colours. There are three types of cone cells for sensing primary colours red, green and blue.
   • Rods are rod shaped sensory cells of the retina that bring about vision in night, but cannot distinguish colours.

Question 32.
Ear converts sound waves into neural impulses which are sensed and processed by the brain that enable to recognise sound. Construct a schematic diagram showing the mechanism of hearing the sound of a bell.
Answer:

Question 33.
Arrange the structures found in the retina from inside to outside.
Cone cells, optic nerve, Ganglion cells, Bipolar neuron.
Answer:
Optic nerve → ganglion cells → Bipolar neuron → Cone cells

Question 34.

1. Name the receptors of smell found as mucous coated thin, yellowish patch of modified pseudo stratified epithelium.
2. Where is these receptors located?

Answer:

1. Olfactory epithelium
2. It is located at the roof of the nasal cavity on either sides of the nasal septum.

Question 35.
The diagram shows a section through a part of the human ear.

1. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.
2. Which parts are involved in the equilibrium of the body.

Answer:

1. Identification of A, B and C.
   • A – Semicircular canal
   • B – Vestibule
   • C – Cochlea
2. Semicircular canal and vestibule.

Question 36.
Why does red flower look black in dim light?
Answer:
Stimulation of cone cells require high intensity of light. In dim light the cone cells are not stimulated. That is why the red flower looks black in dim light.

Question 37.
The taste buds of Humans are located in pockets around the papillae on the surface and sides of the tongue, but some on the surface of the pharynx and the larynx.

1. What are the four basic taste senses?
2. Find out their location in tongue

Answer:

1. sweet, sour, salt, and bitter
2. sweet and salty on the front, bitter on the back, and sour on the sides.

Question 38.
The touch receptors are either free dendritic endings or encapsulated dendritic endings present in the skin.

1. What are the main functions of receptors of free dendritic endings?
2. Name the main receptors of encapsulated dendritic endings. Give its functions.

Answer:

1. They respond to pain and temperature
2. Meissner’s corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles
   • Meissner’s corpuscles:
     These are found just beneath the skin epidermis in dermal papillae and abundant in fingertips and soles of the feet. These are light pressure receptors.
   • Pacinian corpuscles:
     These are scattered deep in the dermis and in the subcutaneous tissue of the skin .These are stimulated by deep pressure.

Plus One Neural Control and Coordination Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following steps are involved during synaptic transmission. Rearrange them in correct order.

1. Release of neurotransmitter at synaptic cleft.
2. Generation of a new potential at post synaptic neuron
3. Arrival of impulse at the axon terminal
4. Binding of neurotransmitter with specific receptor
5. Movement of synaptic vesicle towards the membrane.

Answer:

1. Arrival of impulse at the axon terminal
2. Movement of synaptic vesicle towards the membrane
3. Release of neurotransmitter at synaptic cleft.
4. Binding of neurotransmitter with specific receptor.
5. Generation of a new potential at post synaptic neuron.

Question 2.
A sharp tap is given at your knee cap with rubber hammer. You suddenly stretch your leg.

1. Give name of this response.
2. Which nerve centre is involved in this action?
3. Construct a flow chart of the pathway of impulses in this action.

Answer:

1. Reflex action
2. Spinal cord
3. Receptors in knee ® Sensory fibres ® Interneuron effector organs response → Motor fibres

Question 3.

1. Identify the organ and label A and B.
2. Gait of a drunkard is not normal. Why?
3. The death sentence given by the court is always by “hanging” in our country. Why this is preferred to other ways?

Answer:

1. Organ-Brain
   • A – Gray matter
   • B- White matter
2. Alcohol effects the cerebellum which control and co-ordinate voluntary muscular action.
3. Because death is less painful and fast as atlas pierces the medulla oblongata and it is smashed. Medullar oblongata is the control centre of respiratory and cardiac action. Stoppage of which cause death.

Question 4.
Make necessary correction in the flow chart given.

Answer:

Question 5.
Match the following.

A	B
Cerebrum	Respiration, Salivation, Vomiting
Cerebellum	Relay centre
Medulla oblongata	Seat of mind and intelligence
Limbic system	Posture and equilibrium
Hypothalamus	Master gland
Pituitary	Emotional experiences and expressions.

Answer:

A	B
Cerebrum	Seat of mind and intelligence
Cerebellum	Posture and Equilibrium
Medulla oblongata	Respiration, Salivation, Vomiting
Limbic system	Relay centre
Hypothalamus	Emotional experiences and expressions
Pituitary	Master gland

Question 6.
Suppose you dramatically escaped from a motor accident. Your heart beat and rate of respiration was increased at that moment.

1. Name the hormone involved in this change.
2. Which part of nervous system control these action?
3. Enlist other physiological changes that you may feel at that time.

Answer:

1. Adrenalin and Non-adrenaline.
2. Medulla oblongata.
3. High metabolic rate, High BP, High body temperature, High level of glucose in blood, Pupil diabetes.

Question 7.
Observe the figure below show two ion channels.

1. This pump does not work on part of the axon. Why?
2. Which are the ions participated in the process?
3. Suggest the use of this process in nerve impulse conduction?

Answer:

1. Myelin sheath: Myelin sheath act as insulator for axon and it increases the speed of nerve impulse conduction by saltatory conduction.
2. Na⁺ and K⁺
3. It creates action potential when stimulated by allowing the inward movement of Na⁺ ions through the Na channel and outward movement of K⁺ through K⁺ channel.

Question 8.
Neurons are the structural and functional unit of nervous system.

1. Based on the number of axon and dendrites, how the neurons are classified.
2. Give examples for each.
3. Which neuron receives signal from a sensory organ and transmit the impulse to CNS.

Answer:

1. Multipolar, bipolar and unipolar
2. Examples
   • Multipolar – found in cerebral cortex
   • bipolar – found in the retina of eye
   • unipolar-found in embryonic state
3. afferent neurons or sensory neuron.

Question 9.
Observe the figures a and b.

1. Mention the structural difference between the two neurons.
2. Name the type of impulse transmission through fig B.
3. Mention the functional difference between the two neutrons.

Answer:

1. Fig a is non-myelinated neuron and Fig B is myelinated neuron.
2. Saltatory conduction.
3. In myelinated impulse transmission is very fast.

Question 10.

1. Identify the diagrammatic representation
2. Name P & Q.
3. Mention the function of P & Q.

Answer:

1. Reflex action (knee jerk reflex)
2. Name P & Q
   • P – Afferent pathway
   • Q – Efferent pathway
3. The afferent pathway receives signal from a sensory organ and transmits the impulse into CNS. The efficient pathway carries signals from CNS to the effector.

Question 11.
A diagram of brain is given below.

1. Identify P Q R S
2. Which part is responsible forthinking, memory and reasoning
3. Name the nerve band which connects the two hemispheres of brain.

Answer:

1. Identification of P Q R S
   • P – Cerebrum
   • Q – Thalamus
   • R – Pons
   • S – Corpus callosum
2. Cerebrum
3. Corpus callosum

Plus One Neural Control and Coordination NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the following:

1. Central neural system (CNS) and Peripheral neural system (PNS)
2. Resting potential and action potenial
3. Choroid and retina

Answer:
1. Central Neural System and Peripheral Neural System:
The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord and is the site of information processing and control. The PNS comprises of all the nerves of the body associated with the CNS (brain and spinal cord).

2. Resting Potential and Action Potential:
The electrical difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as the resting potential. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, the membrane at the site becomes freely permeable to Na⁺⁺.

The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site of stimulus is called the action potential, which is in fact termed as a nerve impulse.

3. Choroid and Retina.
The middle layer, choroid, contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour. The choroid layer is thin over the posterior two-third of the eye ball, but it becomes thick in the anterior part to form the ciliary body.

The inner layer is the retina and it contains three layers of cells – from inside to outside – ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells.

Question 2.
Answer briefly:

1. How do you preceivethe colour of an object?
2. Which part of our body helps us in maintaining the body balance?
3. How does the eye regulate the amount of light that falls on the retina.

Answer:
1. Cones are responsible for color vision. They require brighter light to function than rods require. There are three types of cones, maximally sensitive to long wavelength, medium-wavelength, and short-wavelength light (often referred to as red, green, and blue, repectively, though the sensitivity peaks are not actually at these colors).

2. The inner ear has three semi-circular canals forming cochlea. Cochlea is responsible for maintaining the body balance.

3. The pupil in the eye functions like an aperture. This dilates in case of low light and constricts in case of intense light thereby regulating the amount of light falling on the retina.

Question 3.
The region of the vertebrate eye, where the nerve passes out of the retina is called the
(a) fovea
(b) iris
(c) blind spot
(d) optic chiasma
Answer:
(c) Blind spot

Plus One Neural Control and Coordination Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not related to the autonomic nervous system?
(a) Peristalsis
(b) Digestion
(c) Excretion
(d) Memory and learning
Answer:
(d) Memory and learning

Question 2.
Comprehension of spoken and written words take place in the region of
(a) association area
(b) motor area
(c) Wernicke’s area
(d) Broca’s area
Answer:
(c) Wernicke’s area

Question 3.
How many laminae are present in the grey matter of spinal cord?
(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Answer:
(d) Ten

Question 4.
Animals possess nerve or nervous systems to respond to their environment. But the single celled Amoeba does not possesses any nerve cell. so, how it come to know whether a particle it encounters is a grain of sand and not its dinner by?
(a) thermotaxis
(b) skin
(c) hormones
(d) chemotaxis
Answer:
(d) chemotaxis

Question 5.
Thermoregulatory centre of human body is associate with
(a) cerebrum
(b) cerebellum
(c) hypothalamus
(d) medulla oblongata
Answer:
(c) hypothalamus

Question 6.
Sensation of stomach pain is due to
(a) interoceptors
(b) exteroceptors
(c) proprioceptors
(d) chemotactors
Answer:
(a) interoceptors

Question 7.
Bipolar neurons occur in
(a) vertebrate embryos
(b) retina of eye
(c) brain and spinal cord
(d) skeletal muscles
Answer:
(b) retina of eye

Question 8.
Which foramen is paired in mammalian brain?
(a) Foramen of Luschka
(b) Foramen of Magendie
(c) Foramen of Monro
(d) Inter-ventricular foramen
Answer:
(a) Foramen of Luschka

Question 9.
Which is thickened to form organ of Corti?
(a) Reissner’s membrane
(b) Basilar membrane
(c) Tectorial membrane
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Basilar membrane

Question 10.
Skeletal muscles are controlled by
(a) sympathetic nerves
(b) parasympathetic nerves
(c) somatic nerves
(d) autonomic nerves
Answer:
(c) somatic nerves

Question 11.
Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) Hypothalamus

Question 12.
Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of
(a) dopamine
(b) glutamic acid
(c) acetyleholine
(d) Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA)
Answer:
(c) acetyleholine

Question 13.
The posterior part of the retina, which is just opposite to the lens is
(a) cornea
(b) yellow spot
(c) fovea centralis
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) yellow spot

Question 14.
In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the ______ while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the _________
(a) grey matter, white matter
(b) white matter, grey matter
(c) ependymal cells, neurosecretory cells
(d) neurosecretory cells, ependymal cells
Answer:
(b) white matter, grey matter

Question 15.
The potential difference across the membrane of nerve fibre when it does not shown any physiological activity is called resting potential. It is about
(a) -60mV
(b) -80mV
(c) +60mV
(d) +90mV
(e) -36mV
Answer:
(b) -80mV

Question 16.
Vomiting centre is located in the
(a) stomach and sometimes in duodenum
(b) gastro-intestinal tract
(c) hypothalamus
(d) medulla oblongata
Answer:
(d) medulla oblongata

Question 17.
The function of vagus nerve innervating the heart
(a) initiate the heart beat.
(b) reduce the heart beat
(c) accelerate the heart beat
(d) maintain constant heart heat
Answer:
(b) reduce the heart beat

Question 18.
The size of pupil is controlled by the
(a) ciliary muscles
(b) suspensory
(c) cornea
(d) iris muscles
Answer:
(d) iris muscles

Question 19.
An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed because
(a) more potassium ions enter the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(b) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it
(c) all potassium ions leave the axon
(d) all sodium ions enter the axon
Answer:
(b) more sodium ions enter the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it

Question 20.
A 22 years student goes to his ophthalmologist. He has problem in reading books because he is not able to contract his
(a) suspensory ligament
(b) pupil
(c) iris
(d) ciliary muscles
Answer:
(d) ciliary muscles