Plus One

Students can Download Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Environmental protection can be best done by the efforts of the
(a) Business people
(b) Government
(c) Scientists
(d) All the people
Answer:
(d) All the people

Question 2.
Reconstruction of a sick public sector unit is taken up by
(a) MOFA
(b) MoU
(c) BIFR
(d) NRF
Answer:
(c) BIFR

Question 3.
Disinvestment of PSE’s implies
Answer:
Sale of equity shares to private sector

Question 4.
Enterprises owned and managed by private individuals is known as_________
Answer:
Private enterprises.

Question 5.
The enterprises which are wholly owned and controlled by Government are known as
Answer:
Public enterprises

Question 6.
Enterprises which are partly in the private sector and partly in the public sector are known as__________
Answer:
Joint sector enterprises

Question 7.
Which among the following type of organization is not a public sector enterprise?
(a) Indian Railways
(b) IFCI
(c) SBI
(d) MRF Tyres Ltd.
Answer:
(d)MRF Tyres Ltd.

Question 8.
Which among the following type of organization has no separate legal entity?
(a) Public corporation
(b) Government company
(c) Departmental organization
(d) Private company
Answer:
(c) Departmental organization.

Question 9.
Indian Railway is an example of__________
Answer:
Departmental undertaking

Question 10.
Which of the following is formed by a special Act of parliament?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd
(b) L.G. Electronics India
(c) The East India Company
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

Question 11.
LlC is an example of one type of govt, organization. Identify its name and give another example.
Answer:
Public corporation. Another example of public corporation is SBI.

Question 12.
_________are the organisations, which are incorporated
under the special Acts of the Parliament/State Legislative Assemblies.
Answer:
Statutory Corporations

Question 13.
A government company is any company in which the paid up capital held by the government is not less than
(a) 49 percent
(b) 51 percent
(c) 50 percent
(d) 25 percent
Answer:
(b) 51 percent

Question 14.
The company which operates in more than one country.
Answer:
MNC

Question 15.
Coco Cola is an example of_________companies
Answer:
MNC

Question 16.
Outright sale of public enterprises is called _________
Answer:
Didinvestment

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by public sector and private sector? (2)
Answer:
The economy may be classified into two sectors viz., private sector and public sector.
1. Private Sector:
The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals. The various forms of organization are sole proprietorship, partnership, joint Hindu family, cooperative and company.

2. Public Sector:
The business units owned, managed and controlled by the central, state or local government are termed as public sector enterprises or public enterprises. These are also known as public sector undertakings.

Question 2.
What is a Multinational Company? (2)
Answer:
Global enterprises are huge industrial organizations which extend their industrial and marketing operations through a network of their branches in several countries. Their branches are also called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA).

They are characterized by their huge size, large number of products, advanced technology, marketing strategies and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Susuki etc.

Question 3.
What is Joint venture? (2)
Answer:
When two or more independent firms together establish a new enterprise by pooling their capital, technology and expertise, it is known as a joint venture. The risks and rewards of the business are also shared. The aim of the joint venture is business expansion, development of new products or moving into new markets, particularly in another country. Benefits

1. Increased resources and capacity:
Since two or more firms join together to form a joint venture, there is the availability of increased capital and other resources, able to face market challenges and take advantage of new opportunities.

2. Access to new markets and distribution networks:
A foreign company gains access to the vast Indian market by entering into a joint venture with an Indian Company. They can also take advantage of the established distribution channels.

3. Access to technology:
It provides access to advanced techniques of production which increases efficiency and then helps in a reduction in cost and improvement in the quality of a product.

4. Innovation:
Foreign partners can come up with innovative products because of new ideas and technology.

5. Low cost of production:
Low cost of raw materials, technically qualified workforce, management professionals, excellent manpower etc. helps to reduce the cost of production and it results increased productivity.

Established brand name :
When one party has well established brands and goodwill, the other party gets its benefits.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Disinvestment? (2)
Answer:
The outright sale of Government shares in public sector undertaking is called disinvestment. Eg. Maruthi Udyog Ltd, Indian Petro Chemicals Ltd., etc. Government company

Question 5.
What is meant by Public sector? (2)
Answer:
Business units owned, managed and controlled by the central, state or local government are termed as public sector enterprises or public enterprises. These are also known as public sector undertakings.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various types of organizations in the private sector? (3)
Answer:
The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals. The various forms of organization are sole proprietorship, partnership, joint Hindu family, cooperative and company.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the following public sector enterprises. (4)

1.  Business Organisation established by the government and controlled by the Ministry concerned.
2.  Organizations incorporated under a special Act of Parliament or state legislatur
3.  1t is managed by the government and is subject to budgetary, accounting and audit control
4.  Organisation established by the government and registered under the Companies Act

Answer:

1.  Departmental undertaking
2.  Statutory corporation
3.  Government company

Question 2.
Some organizations are directly attached to a particular ministry of the Central or State Government and are under the direct control of concerned Minister. The business decisions are, thus, influenced by political consideration. (4)

1. (a) State the type of enterprise coming under this category.
2. (b) give four examples of such enterprises.

Answer:

1. Departmental undertaking
2. (b) Railways, Communications, Post & Harbours, Electricity etc.

 

Question 3.
Match the column ‘A’ with column ‘B’ and ‘C’. (4)

A	B	C
Departmental Undertaking	Minimum 51% of paid up capital held by govt.	TISCO
Public corporation	Spread Operation All Over The World	Maruthi Udyog Ltd
Govt Companies	Special Act Of Parliament	Ponds
MNC	Direct Controll Of Ministry	FACT
Joint Sector enterprises	Owned And Managed by private individuals	LIC
Private sector enterprises	Owned and  controlled jointly by Govt. and private individuals	Indian railway

Answer:

A	B	C
Departmental Undertaking	Direct Controll Of Ministry	Indian railway
Public corporation	Special Act Of Parliament	LIC
Govt Companies	Minimum 51% of paid up capital held by govt.	FACT
MNC	Spread Operation All Over The World	Ponds
Joint Sector enterprises	Owned and  controlled jointly by Govt. and private individuals	Maruthi Udyog Ltd
Private sector enterprises	Owned And Managed by private individuals	TISCO

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Public sector enterprises have been chosen as a means for having a socialistic pattern of society”. Do you think so? If yes, state the reasons. (6)
Answer:
1. Development of infrastructure:
It is the responsibility of the Government to provide infrastructural facilities to the core sector which requires huge capital investment, complex and upgraded technology etc.

2. Regional balance:
The government is responsible for developing all regions and states in a balanced way and removing regional disparities.

3. Economies of scale:
Public sector enterprises are large in size and are, able to avail the advantages of large scale operations.

4. Check over concentration of economic power:
The development of public enterprises prevents concentration of economic power and wealth in the hands of private sector.

5. Employment opportunities:
Public sector enterprises helps to generate a large number of employment opportunities.

6. Import substitution:
It is also necessary for the economic progress of the country that industries which can decrease imports and increase exports are only promoted. Public enterprises also ensure promotion of such industries.

Question 2.
Some organisations are directly attached to a particular ministry of the Central or State Government.
State the type of enterprise comming under this category.
Explain its merits and demerits. (6)
Answer:
This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. Eg. Railways, Post & Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.

Features:

1.  The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
2.  The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control.
3.  It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4.  Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
5.  They are accountable to the concerned ministry.

Merits:

1. These undertakings facilitate the Parliament to exercise effective control overtheiroperations;..
2.  These ensure a high degree of public accountability.
3.  The revenue earned by the enterprise goes directly to the treasury and hence is a source of income for the Government.
4.  Where national security is concerned, this form is most suitable since it is under the direct control and supervision of the concerned Ministry.

Limitations:

1.  Departmental undertakings lack flexibility because its policies cannot be changed instantly.
2.  The employees are not allowed to take independent decisions, without the approval of the ministry concerned. This leads to delay in decision making.
3.  These enterprises are unable to take advantage of business opportunities.
4.  There is red tapism in day-to-day operations.
5.  There is a lot of political interference throughthe ministry. .
6.  These organisations are usually insensitive to consumer needs and do not provide adequate services to them.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Kerala Pharmaceuticals Ltd. registered under the Companies Act of 1956, was started with a paid-up capital of 15 lakhs. 40% of paid-up capital is in the hands of private individuals and the balance is held by the Govt, of Kerala.
(a) Identify the type of enterprise.
(b) Explain its merits and demerits. (8)
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 1956. According to the Indian. Companies Act 1956, a government company
means any company in which not less than 51percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly
by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

Features:

• It is registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
• It has a separate legal entity. It can sue and be sued, and can acquire property in its own name.
• The management of the company is regulated by the provisions of the Companies Act.
• Employees are recruited and appointed as per the rules and regulations contained in Memorandum and Articles of association.
• These companies are exempted from the accounting and audit rules and procedures.
• The government company obtains its funds from government shareholdings and other private shareholders.

Merits

• It has a separate legal entity, apart from the Govt.
• It enjoys flexibility and autonomy in all management decisions
• These companies by providing goods and services at reasonable prices are able to control the market.
• The formation of a Government company is easy as compared to other forms of Government enterprises.
• It can appoint professional managers on high salaries.

Limitations

• It evades constitutional responsibility as it is not directly answerable to parliament.
• They are autonomous only in name. Company is operated by the controlling ministry.
• The law relating to the companies, in general is meaningless for the government companies, as it requires fulfillment of various formalities.

Question 2.
It is an organisation which is formed by a special Act of Parliament.
(a) Identify the type of organisation.
(b) Explain its merits and demerits. (8)
Answer:
Statutory corporations are public enterprises brought into existence by a Special Act of the Parliament. The Act defines its powers and functions, rules and regulations governing its employees and its relationship with government departments. Eg. LIC, IFCI, RBI, SBI, ONGC, UTI, Air India etc.

Features:

1.  Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
2.  It is wholly owned by the state.
3.  It has a separate legal entity, i.e it can sue and be sued, enter into contract and acquire property in its own name.
4.  It is usually independently financed.
5.  It is not subject to budget, accounting, and audit laws.
6.  The employees of these enterprises are not government or civil servants.

Merits:

1. They enjoy independence in their functioning and a high degree of operational flexibility
2. It enjoys administrative and financial autonomy
3. Since they are autonomous organizations, they can frame their own policies and procedures
4. A statutory corporation is a valuable instrument for economic development

Limitations:

1. A statutory corporation does not enjoy as much operational flexibility
2. Government and political interference has always been there in major decisions
3. Where there is dealing with public, rampant corruption exists
4. Commercial principles are ignored in the operation of public corporations which leads to inefficiency.

Question 3.
Cyclone Ltd. is a software company established in India, during the year 2002. They extended its operations to UK and USA in May 2005, by establishing corporate offices in these countries.(8)

(a) What type of company is this?
(b) Explain the features of these type of companies?
Answer:
(a)MNC

(b) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their industrial and marketing operations through a network of their branches in several countries. Their branches are also called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, large number of products, advanced technology, marketing strategies and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Susuki etc.

Features of MNCs:
1. Huge capital resources:
Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds, etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.

2. Foreign collaboration:
Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name, etc. with local firms in the host countries.\

3. Advanced technology:
Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology so that they can provide quality products.

4. Product innovation:
Multinational companies are able to conduct sophisticated research so that they can develop new products.

5. Marketing strategies:
They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.

6. International Market:
They operate through a network of subsidiaries, branches and affiliates in host countries. Due to their giant size, they occupy a dominant position in the market.

7. Centralized control:
They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control over all branches and subsidiaries.

Question 4.
What are the benefits of entering into Joint ventures? (8)
Answer:
When two or more independent firms together establish a new enterprise by pooling their capital, technology and expertise, it is known as a joint venture. The risks and rewards of the business are also shared. The aim of joint venture is business expansion, development of new products or moving into new markets, particularly in another country.

Benefits:
1. Increased resources and capacity:
Since two or more firms join together to form a joint venture, there is availability of increased capital and other resources, able to face market challenges and take advantage of new opportunities.

2. Access to new markets and distribution networks:
A foreign company gain access to the vast Indian market by entering into a joint venture with Indian Company. They can also take advantage of the established distribution channels.

3. Access to technology:
It provides access to advanced techniques of production which increases efficiency and then helps in reduction in cost and improvement in quality of product.

4. Innovation:
Foreign partners can come up with innovative products because of new ideas and technology.

5. Low cost of production:
Low cost of raw materials, technically qualified workforce, management professionals, excellent manpower, etc. helps to reduce cost of production and it results increased productivity.

Established brand name :
When one party has well-established brands and goodwill, the other party gets its benefits.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance

Plus One Sources of Business Finance One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executive of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 2.
Fund required for purchasing current assets is an example of __________
Answer:
Working capital

Question 3.
Under the lease agreement, the lessee get the rights to __________
Answer:
Use the asset for a specified period.

Question 4.
Under the factoring agreement, the factor
Answer:
Collects the client’s debt or account receivables.

Question 5.
Internal sources of capital are those that are
Answer:
generated within the business.

Question 6.
Preference shares abd equity shares are called ____________ securities.
Answer:
Ownership Securities

Question 7.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executives of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 8.
Equity share capital is called ________ capital
Answer:
Risk

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of equity shares?
(a) Voting rights
(b) Ownership security
(c) Fixed rate of return
(d) Residual owners
Answer:
(c) Fixed rate of return

Question 10.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 11.
__________ shareholders have the right to control the company.
Answer:
Equity Shareholders

Question 12.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 13.
Sumesh an NRI is interested to invest in companies, but he is not ready to take up more risk. Which type of security he should buy?
Answer:
Preference shares.

Question 14.
_________ shareholders have the right to get dividend at a fixed rate .
Answer:
Preference shareholders

Question 15.
This source of finance is called ‘internal source of financing’ and ‘self financing’. Identify the source of finance and mention its three merits.
Answer:
Ploughing back of profit

Question 16.
Retained earnings are parts of __________ capital.
Answer:
Ownership Capital

Question 17.
Employment of corporate savings use of accumulated saving in the business in the form of reserves is called
Answer:
Ploughing back of profits

Question 18.
___________ are the cheapest source of finance.
Answer:
Retained earnings

Question 19.
___________ are called creditorship securities
Answer:
Debentures

Question 20.
Debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company are called _________
Answer:
Secured debentures

Question 21.
Debentures which can be converted in equity shares are called _________
Answer:
Convertable debentures

Question 22.
Debenture issued without the name of owner is __________ debenture.
Answer:
Unregistered or naked

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a characterstics features of debentures?
(a) Ownership security
(b) Generally secured
(c) Participate in the surplus profit
(d) Guarantee of returms
Answer:
(c) Participate in the surplus profit

Question 24.
An Indian Company can now raise funds not only from India but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible?
Answer:

1. GDRs
2. ADRs
3. FDI

Question 25.
Expand the term GDR
Answer:
Global Depositors Receipts.

Question 26.
Expand the term ADR
Answer:
American Depository Receipt

Question 27.
ADRs are issued in
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 28.
Identify the type of financial services belonged to each cash explain its features.

1. Acquired a machinery for monthly rental basis from an outside agency.
2. Gives the right for collecting their accounts receivable to a specialised agency.
3. An organization which collects and pools funds from public and invests in securities.

Answer:

1. Leasing
2. Factoring
3. Mutual fund

Question 29.
A company decided to raise its funds by selling its account receivables to an agency. Which type of financial service is maintaining here.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 30.
I render specialized services to companies in the collection of their accounts receivables.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 31.
State the appropriate term to denote the arrangement of acquiring the right to use an asset without actually owning it.
Answer:
Leasing

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is business finance? Why do businesses need funds? Explain. (2)
Answer:
Nature of Business Finance:

1. Fixed capital requirements:
In order to start a business funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery. This is called fixed capital requirement.

2. Working Capital requirements:
A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working Capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes.

Question 2.
These are shares which carry preferential rights over the equity shares. Being a commerce student, identify this type of share. And state its 2 preferential rights. (2)
Answer:
Preference shares.
Their preferential rights are:

1. The right to get a fixed rate of divided
2. The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 3.
Match the following

1. Equity share – Fixed percentage of interest
2. Debenture – International source of finance
3. Preference share – Real owner
4. American depository – No voting right receipt

Answer:

1. Equity share – Real owner
2. Debenture – Fixed percentage of interest
3. Preference share – No voting right
4. American depository receipt – International source of finance

Question 4.
An Indian company can expand not only through the fund in India but also from foreign equity participation. How is it possible? (2)
Answer:
FDI. It refers to direct subscription to the equity capital of an Indian company by a multinational corporation. It includes Establishment of a new enterprise in a foreign.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An Indian company can now raise funds not only from India, but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible? Explain
Answer:
GDR: Global Depository Receipts are issued by an Indian company to an intermediary abroad called an Overseas Depository Bank. They are issued and traded in European capital market.

ADR: American Depository receipts are issued and traded in U.S.A.

Question 2.
List sources of raising long-term and short-term finance. (3)
Answer:
Long Term Sources:
The amount of funds required by a business for more than five years is called long-term finance. Generally this type
of finance is required for the purchase of fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery furniture, etc. It include sources such as shares and debentures, long-term borrowings and loans from financial institutions.

Short Term Sources:
Short-term funds are those which are required for a period not exceeding one year. These sources include Trade credit, loans from commercial banks and commercial papers etc. Short-term finance is used for financing of current assets such as accounts receivable and inventories.

Question 3.
Name any three special financial institutions and state their objectives. (3)
Answer:
Financial Institutions:
The state and central government have established many financial institutions to provide finance to companies. These institutions aim at promoting the industrial development of a country, these are also called ‘development Bank’. These are IFCI, ICICI, IDBI and LIC, UTI.

This source of financing is considered suitable when large funds for longer duration are required for expansion, reorganisation and modernisation of an enterprise.
Merits:

1. Financial Institution provide long term finance which is not provided by Commercial Bank
2. These institutions provide financial, managerial and technical advice and consultancy to business firms.
3. It increases the goodwill of the borrowing company in the capital market.
4. As repayment of loan can be made in easy installments, it does not prove to be much of a burden on the business.
5. The funds are made available even during periods of depression, when other sources of finance are not available.

Limitations:

1. The procedure for granting loan is time consuming due to rigid criteria and many formalities.
2. Financial Institution place restrictions on the powers of the borrowing company.
3. Financial institutions may have their nominees on the Board of Directors of the borrowing company thereby restricting the autonomy of the company.

Question 4.
While presenting a seminar paper on different sources of business finance, your friend Vineeth, pointed out that “ownership capital is the risk capital of the business”. Can you explain why it is called risk capital? (3)
Answer:
Equity shareholders are the real owners of the company. Equity shareholders will get their dividend only after dividend is paid to preference shareholders. They can claim back their capital only on winding up after discharging all other liabilities of the company. So we can say that ownership capital is the risk capital of the business.

Question 5.
“ADR & GDR serves the same purpose whenever shares are issued abroad by Indian companies”. Then why can’t we call them by the same name? (3)
Answer:
The important differences between ADR and GDR are:

ADR	GDR
They are issued and traded in USA	They are issued and traded in European capital market
Both individual and institutional investors can make investment	Only institutional investors can invest
It can be converted into shares and shares into ADR	Once converted into shares, it cannot be converted back.
Legal and accounting costs are high	Legal and accounting costs are comparatively less

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between internal and external sources of raising funds?
Answer:

Internal sources	External Sources
Funds are generated from within the organisation	Funds are generated from outside the organization
Fulfill limited needs of the business	Fulfill long term needs f the business
It is not costly	It is costly as compared to internal sources of fund
No need to mortgage the assets of the company to obtain fund from internal sources	Need to mortgage the assets of the company to obtain fund from internal sources

Question 2.
What is the difference between GDR and ADR? (4)
Answer:

ADR	GDR
They issued and traded in USA	They issued and traded in European capital market
Both individual and institutional investors can make investment	Only institutional investors can make investment
It can be converted into shares and shares into ADR	Once converted into shares, it cannot be converted back
Legal and accounting costs are high	Legal and accounting costs are less

Question 3.
Discuss the financial instruments used in international financing. (4)
Answer:
International Financing:

1. Commercial Banks:
Commercial banks all over the world extend foreign currency loans for business purposes. Standard chartered is a major source of foreign currency loan to the Indian industry.

2. International Agencies and Development Banks:
A number of international agencies and development banks provide long and medium term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. Eg. International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank and Asian Development Bank.

3. International Capital Markets:

a. Global Depository Receipts (GDR’s):
Under GDR, shares of the company are first converted into depository receipts by international banks. These depository receipts are denominated in US dollars. Then these depository receipts are offered for sale globally through foreign stock exchanges. GDR is a negotiable instrument and can be traded freely like any other security.

The holder of GDRs are entitled for dividend just like shareholders. But they do not enjoy the voting rights. Many Indian companies like ICICI, Wipro etc. have raised foreign capital through issue of GDRs.
Feature of GDR:

• GDR can be listed and traded on a stock exchange of any foreign country other than America.
• It is negotiable instrument.
• A holder of GDR can convert it into the shares.
• Holder gets dividends
• Holder does not have voting rights.
• Many Indian companies such as Reliance, Wipro and ICICI have issue GDR.

b. American Depository Receipts (ADR’s):
The depository receipts issued by a company in the USA are known as American Depository Receipts.
Feature of ADR:

• It can be issued only to American Citizens.
• It can be listed and traded is American stock exchange.
• Indian companies such as Infosys, Reliance issued ADR

Question 4.
Explain different types of Preference shares. (4)
Answer:
Types of Preference Shares:

a. Cumulative and Non-cumulative Preference Share:
in cumulative preference shares, the unpaid dividends are accumulated and carried forward for payment in future years. On the other hand, in non- cumulative preference share, the dividend is not accumulated if it is not paid out of the current year’s profit.

b. Participating and Non-participating Preference Share:
Participating preference shares have a right to share the profit after making payment to the equity shares. The non-participating preference shares do not enjoy such a right.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Preference Share:
The preference shares which can be converted into equity shares after a specified period of time are known as convertible preference share. Non-convertible shares cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. Redeemable and Irredeemable Preference Share:
Redeemable preference shares are those where the company undertakes to repay it after a specified period. Where the amount of the preference shares is refunded only at the time of liquidation, are known an irredeemable preference shares.

Merits:

1. Preference shares provide reasonably steady income in the form of fixed rate of return and safety of investment.
2. Preference shares are useful for those investors who want fixed rate of return with comparatively low risk

Limitations:

1. Preference shareholders have no voting right.
2. The dividend paid is not deductible from profit for income tax.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a commercial paper? What are its advantages and limitations. (5)
Answer:
Commercial Paper (CP):
It is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period. The maturity period of commercial paper usually ranges from 90 days to 364 days. Being unsecured, only firms having good credit rating can issue the CP and its regulation comes under the purview of the Reserve Bank of India.
Merits:

1. A commercial paper does not contain any restrictive conditions.
2. As it is a freely transferable instrument, it has high liquidity.
3. A commercial paper provides a continuous source of funds.
4. They are cheaper than a bank loan.

Limitations:

1. Only financially sound and highly rated firms can raise money through commercial papers
2. The size of money that can be raised through commercial paper is limited
3. Commercial paper is an impersonal method of financing. Extending the maturity of a CP is not possible.
4. Issue of commercial paper is very closely regulated by the RBI guidelines.

Question 2.
Mr. Ganesh, a sole trader, acquired a machinery on a monthly rental basis from an outside agency. Identify the type of financial service in which he entered into. Explain it. (5)
Answer:
Lease Financing:
A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the other party (lessee). The lessor charges a periodic payment for renting of an asset for some specified period called lease rent.
Merits:

1. It enables the lessee to acquire the asset with a lower investment;
2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are deductible for computing taxable profits;
3. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business
4. The lease agreement does not affect the debt raising capacity of an enterprise;
5. Simple documentation makes it easier to finance assets.

Limitations:

1. A lease arrangement may impose certain restrictions on the use of assets.
2. The normal business operations may be affected in case the lease is not renewed.
3. The lessee never becomes the owner of the
   asset.

Question 3.
Both Equity shares and Preference shares are ownership funds of a company. But there is significant difference between these two funds. Can you identify the same. (5)
Answer:

Equity Shares	Preference Shares
It is compulsory to issue these shares.	It is not compulsory to issue these shares
Rate of dividend varies according to the profits of the company	Rate of dividend is fixed
Face value is lower	Face value is higher
No priority in dividend and repayment of capital	Priority in dividend and repayment of capital
It cannot be redeemed	It can be redeemed
Risk is high	Risk is low
They have voting rights	They do not have voting rights
They can participate in the management	They can not participate in the management

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The issue of debentures provides wide options to the company as well as investors in terms of its features”. Can you substantiate the statement from the point of view of its classification? (8)
Answer:
Debentures:
A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.
Types of Debentures:

a. Secured and Unsecured Debentures:
Secured (Mortgaged) debentures are debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company. Unsecured (Simple or naked) debentures do not carry any charge or security on the assets of the company.

b. Registered and Bearer Debentures:
In the case registered debentures, the name, address and other details of the debenture holders are entitled in the books of the company. The debentures which are transferable by mere delivery are called bearer (Unsecured) debentures.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Debentures:
Convertible debentures are those debentures that can be converted into equity shares after the expiry of a specified period. On the other hand, non¬convertible debentures are those which cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. First and Second:
Debentures that are repaid before other debentures are repaid are known as first debentures. The second debentures are those which are paid after the first debentures have been paid back.

Merits:

1. It. is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
4. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management
5. Debentures are less costly as compared to cost of preference shares.
6. They guarantee a fixed rate of interest
7. It enables the company to take the advantage of trading on equity.
8. The issue of debentures is suitable when the sales and earnings are relatively stable

Limitations:

1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.
4. In case of redeemable debentures, the company has to make provisions for repayment on the specified date, even during periods of financial difficulty.
5. With the new issue of debentures, the company’s capability to further borrow funds reduces.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Shares and Debentures. (8)
Answer:

Shares	Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company	Debenture holders are the creditors of the company
Shareholders get dividends	Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right	Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares	Generally debentures are secured
Shares are not redeemable	Debentures are redeemable
Share capital is payable after paying all outside liabilities	Debenture holders have the priority of repayment over shareholders

Students can Download Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The system in which people collectively cultivated land in China is known as.
Answer:
Commune System.

Question 2.
Which of the following countries has the highest population growth rate?
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) Pakistan
Answer:
(iii) Pakistan

Question 3.
In which year, China announced its first five-year plan?
(i) 1950
(ii) 1951
(iii) 1952
(iv) 1953
Answer:
(iv) 1953

Question 4.
India introduced economic reforms in _______ .
(i) 1990
(ii) 1991
(iii) 1993
(iv) 1995
Answer:
(ii) 1991

Question 5.
Chinas great leap forward was in the year ______ .
(i) 1953
(ii) 1958
(iii) 1978
(iv) 1991
Answer:
(ii) 1958

Question 6.
Commune system is the feature of
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) Pakistan
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(ii) China

Question 7.
Reforms in ……………… were introduced in 1978. (China, Pakistan, India)
Answer:
China

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The table shows the growth of crops domestic product of India China and Pakistan.

State two reasons why Pakistan’s growth rate declined compared to two other countries.
Answer:
Political instability, over-dependence on remittance and foreign aid along with volatile performance of agricultural sector are the reasons for Pakistan’s decline in economic growth.

Question 2.
Write full form of the following.

1. SAARC
2. ASEAN

Answer:

1. SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
2. ASEAN – Association of Southeast Asian Nations.

Question 3.
Evaluate the various factors that led to rapid economic development in China.
Answer:
Great leap forward, commune system, privalisation, reforms, foreign direct investment, etc were the factors that led to rapid economic development of China.

Question 4.
Name the SAARC nations.
Answer:

• India
• Pakistan
• Napal
• Bhutan
• Bangladesh
• Maldives
• Srilank

Question 5.
Mention some examples of regional and economic grouping.
Answer:
Some regional and economic grouping are:

1. SAARC
2. European Union
3. ASEAN
4. G-8
5. G-20

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the basic feature of an underdeveloped economy.
Answer:
Over-dependence on agriculture, large population growth and low income, large poverty and unemployment are the basic features of underdeveloped economies.

Question 2.
State whether true or false

1. in India, agriculture is the largest contributor to GDP
2. in china, industry is the largest contributor to GDP
3. compared to India and Pakistan, China has the highest rank in HDI.

Answer:

1. False. In India, services sector is the larges contributor to GDP
2. True
3. True

Question 3.
Mention the various indicators of Human Development Index.
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Adult literacy
3. Life expectancy

Question 4.
Mention the years when first five-year plan was initiated in India, China, and Pakistan.
Answer:

• China – 1978
• Pakistan – 1989
• India – 1991

Question 5.
Prepare a table showing demographic indicators of India, China and Pakistan.
Answer:

Question 6.
Group the following features pertaining to the economies of India, China, and Pakistan under three heads One child norm, low fertility, high degree of urbanization, mixed economy, very high fertility rate, large population, high density of population, growth due to manufacturing sector, growth due to service.
Answer:
1. Economy of India:

• High density of population
• Growth due to service sector

2. Economy of Pakistan:

• Mixed economy
• Very high fertility rate

3. Economy of China:

• One child norm
• Low fertility
• High degree of urbanization’
• Large population
• Growth due to manufacturing sector

Question 7.
Prepare a note on ‘Great Leap Forward’ of China.
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrializing the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, communes were started. Under the Commune system, people collectively cultivated lands.

In1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population. GLF campaign met with many problems. A severe drought caused havoc in China killing about 30 million people. When Russia had conflicts with China, it withdrew its professionals who had earlier been sent to China to help in the industrialization process.

Question 8.
Mention the salient demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India.
Answer:
The population of Pakistan is very small and is about one-tenth of China and India:
Though China is the largest nation among the three, its density is the lowest. Population growth is highest in Pakistan, followed by India and China. Sex ratio is low and biased against females in all the three countries.

The fertility rate is also low in China and very high in Pakistan. Urbanization is high in both Pakistan and China with India having 28 percent of its population living in urban areas.

Question 9.
Give the similarities of the development path India, China and Pakistan.
Answer:
India, China and Pakistan had adopted economic reforms for economic development. Five Year Plans were initiated in these countries as development strategy. Agriculture plays an important role in the economic development in these nations.

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match column A with column B

A	B
Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution	1978
Great Leap Forward (GLF)	1991
Economic reforms in India	1953
Economic reforms in Pakistan	1965
Economic reforms in china	1951
China’s first five-year plan	1958
India’s first five-year plan	1988

Answer:

A	B
Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution	1965
Great Leap Forward (GLF)	1958
Economic reforms in India	1991
Economic reforms in Pakistan	1988
Economic reforms in china	1978
China’s first five-year plan	1953
India’s first five-year plan	1951

Question 2.
China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. Do you agree? Elucidate.
Answer:
Yes, China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. this is because reforms in agriculture and establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health, land reforms, etc. had been taking place with the introduction of reforms.

In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade, and investment sectors. In the later phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. Private sector firms and township and village enterprises were allowed to produce goods.

The reform process also involves dual pricing:
It was found that establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health, land reforms, long existence of decentralized planning and existence of small enterprises had helped positively in improving the social and income indicators in the post-reform period. In short, it can be concluded that China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978.

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare and contrast India, China and Pakistan’s sectoral contribution towards GDP in 2003. Draw inferences.

Answer:
The table given above shows the sectoral contribution of India, China, and Pakistan towards GDP. It can be seen from the table that in both India and Pakistan, the contribution of agriculture to GDP is the same, at 23 percent, but the proportion of workforce that works in this sector is more in India. In Pakistan, about 49 percent of people work in agriculture whereas in India it is 60 percent.

The sectoral share of output and employment also shows that in all the three economies, the industry and service sectors have less proportion of workforce but contribute more in terms of output. In China, manufacturing contributes the highest to GDP at 53 percent whereas in India and Pakistan; it is the service sector that contributes the highest. In both these countries, service sector accounts for more than 50 percent of GDP.

In the normal course of development, countries first shift their employment and output from agriculture to manufacturing and then to services. This is what is happening in China as can be seen from Table. In both India and Pakistan, the service sector is emerging as a major player of development. It contributes more to GDP and, at the same time, emerges as a prospective employer.

Question 2.
Compare the development of China, India, and Pakistan with respect to some salient human development indicators.
Answer:
The following table shows some of the salient features of China, India, and Pakistan with respect to human development indicators.

It can be found that the HDI index and value are much better in China compared to India and Pakistan. That is China is ahead of India and Pakistan on many human development indicators. Similarly, the life expectancy rate is higher in China compared to India and Pakistan.

In India and Pakistan, the life expectancy rate is almost similar that is 63 years. Adult literacy rate is very high in China and the infant mortality rate is comparatively lower. Thus China has made a better development in respect of HDI compared to India and Pakistan.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Carrying business activity through internet is popularly known as _______
Answer:
E-commerce

Question 2.
____________ refers to illegal entry into the web site of an enterprise and thereby damaging data input there.
Answer:
Hacking

Question 3.
____________ are programmes designed to corrupt data in a system.
Answer:
Viruses

Question 4.
Mr. Arun, a retailer pays tax online. Identify this E-Commerce Transaction
Answer:
C2G

Question 5.
Which of the following helps to purchase goods and services without making spot payments and zero balance in the account?

1. ATM card
2. credit card
3. debit card
4. Kisan card

Answer:
2. credit card

Question 6.
The advancement of technology helps people for shopping goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposits with banks. How is it possible explain the identified term?
Answer:
Credit card

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by cryptography? (2)
Answer:
It refers to the art of protecting information by transforming it into an unreadable format called ‘cyphertext’. Only those who processes a secret key can decrypt the message into plaintext.

Question 2.
What are the ethical concerns involved in outsourcing? (2)
Answer:
In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination, etc. may be encouraged in other countries.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anish, an NRI businessman, sends money to his wife, Nisha. She in turn deposits all this money in her bank account. She is very thankful to the technology and can withdraw money whenever she is in need of money even after banking hours. What type of technology she might be using? Explain. (3)
Answer:
ATM. From the ATM, customers can withdraw cash from the account by using ATM card. ATM card is a plastic card bearing a number for each customer. The card is to be entered into the machine and enter the PIN. This opens the account and we can deposit cash into it or withdraw from it at any time.

Question 2.
The advancement of technology facilitates shopping -goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposit with banks. How is it possible? (3)
Answer:
It is possible through credit card. A credit card is an instrument issued by a bank in the name of the customer providing for credit up to a specified amount. The sellers get cash from the bank and the buyers have to pay for the purchase within the credit period.

Question 3.
Majority of people in India, even internet users, hesitate shopping through internet. Can you cite a few reasons for their hesitation for buying online? (3)
Answer:
The important reasons forthe hesitation of shopping through internet are:

1. Time to deliver goods is too long.
2. Disclosure of credit card details is not safe.
3. Choices are not very interesting.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elaborate the steps involved in online trading. (4)
Answer:
Online Transactions:
Online transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:
1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.

2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an online record of what has been picked up while browsing the Online store.

3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Question 2.
Name the resources required for E-commerce. (4)
Answer:
Resources Required for Successful e-Business Implementation:

1. Computer system
2. Internet connection and technically qualified workforce
3. A well developed web page
4. Effective telecommunication system
5. A good system for making payment using credit instruments.

Question 3.
Explain any 4 types of outsourcing services. (4)
Answer:

1. Financial services.
2. Advertising services
3. Courier services
4. Customer support services

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List two examples each for B2B, B2C, B2G and B2E transactions (5)
Answer:
B2B:

• Transactions between businessmen
• Collaboration
• Placing order with suppliers
• Forming joint ventures
• Transfer of goods between branches
• Transfer of goods between suppliers

B2C:

• Business offering services to customers
• Consumer placing order online
• Electronic payment
• Consumers seeking clarification on price, terms etc. (any two)

B2G:

• Payment of taxes
• Application for licence
• Seeking government clearance

B2E:

• Employees salary payments
• Operation of welfare schemes
• Information to employees on business process
• Seeking employees suggestions online

Question 2.
Sankar and Co is a leading can manufacturing company. They are not concentrating on their advertisement due to lack of time. In orderto boost up the sales they made a contract with an advertising agency to make an advertisement which can be released through the media. Analyze this situation. Do you favour this activity of the company? Can you identify the concept and brings out its merit? (5)
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:

Traditional business	e-business
Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
Investment is very high	Investment is low
Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
Location is important	Location is not important
Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low
Contact with suppliers and customers is through intermediaries	Direct contact with the suppliers and customers
Business process cycle is long	Business process cycle is shorter
Inter personal touch is high	Personal touch is less
Limited market coverage	Access to the global market
Communication is in hierarchical order	Communication is in non hierarchical order
Transaction risk is less	Transaction risk is high

Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 2.
Evaluate the need for outsourcing and discuss its limitations. (6)
Answer:
Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 3.
What is online transactions? Explain its steps. (6)
Answer:
On line Transactions:
On line transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:

1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.
2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an on-line record of what has been picked up while browsing the On-line store.
3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Presentation of Data Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Presentation of Data

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following comes under geometric diagram?
(a) Histogram
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Ogives
(d) Frequency polygon
Answer:
(b) Bar diagram

Question 2.
Which of the following comes under frequency diagrams?
(a) Bar diagram
(b) Histogram
(c) Pie diagram
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Histogram

Question 3.
To draw time-series graph, time is presented on:
(a) X-axis
(b) Y-axis
(c) any of two
Answer:
(a) X-axis

Question 4.
Name the types of graphs.
Answer:

1. One dimensional graph
2. Two-dimensional graph
3. Three-dimensional graph
4. Pictograms

Question 5.
State whether true or false.

1. The width of bars in a bar diagram need not be equal.
2. The width of rectangles in a histogram should essentially be equal.
3. Histograms can only be formed with continuous classification of data.
4. Histogram and column diagram are the same method of presentation of data.
5. Mode of a frequency distribution can be drawn graphically with the help of histogram,
6. The median of a frequency distribution cannot be drawn from the Ogive.

Answer:

1. true
2. false
3. true
4. true
5. true
6. true

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is a cumulative frequency curve?
Answer:
(a) Bar diagram
(b) Histogram
(c) Ogive
(d) Pie diagram
Answer:
(c) Ogive

Question 2.
Distinguish between captions and stubs.
Answer:
Captions refers to the column headings and stubs refers to the row heading.

Question 3.
Match the following.

A	B
Source note	Row headings
Captions	Gives origin of data
Stubs	Explains the specific feature
Footnote	Column Headings

Answer:

A	B
Source note	Gives origin of data
Captions	Column Headings
Stubs	Row Headings
Footnote	Explains the specific feature

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What kind of diagrams are more effective in representing the following?

1. Monthly rainfall in a year
2. Composition of the population of Delhi by religion
3. Components of cost in a factory

Answer:

1. Simple bar diagram
2. Sub-divided or component bar diagram
3. Pie diagram

Question 2.
Name different types of diagrams.
Answer:
The different types of diagrams are:
1. Geometric diagram

• Bar diagrams
• Pie diagram

2. Frequency diagram

• Histogram
• Frequency polygon
• Frequency curve -Ogive

3. Arithmetic line graph

Question 3.
“Diagrams and graphs help us visualize the whole meaning of numerical complex data at a single glance”. Comment.
Answer:
One of the most convincing and appealing ways in which statistical results may be presented is through diagrams and graphs. The special feature of graphs and diagrams is that they do away with figures altogether. Diagrams and graph is a statistical method which can be used for simplifying the complexity of quantitative data and t make them easily intelligible.

It presents dry and uninteresting statistical facts in the shape of attractive and appealing pictures and charts. They are important methods of visual aids and are appealing t the eye and mind of the observer.

Question 4.
“There are generally three forms of diagrammatic presentation of data” explain.
Answer:
There are various methods to present data. But generally, three forms of presentation of data are there
which are noted below:

1. Geometric diagram
2. Frequency diagram
3. Arithmetic line graph

1. Geometric Diagram:
Bar diagram and pie diagram come in the category of geometric diagram for presentation of data. The bar diagrams are of three types-simple, multiple and component bar diagrams.

2. Frequency Diagram:
Data in the form of grouped frequency distributions are generally represented by frequency diagrams like histogram, frequency polygon, frequency curve, and ogive

3. Arithmetic Line Graph:
An arithmetic line graph is also called time-series graph and is a method of diagrammatic presentation of data. A line graph by joining these plotted points, thus, obtained is called arithmetic line graph or time-series graph.

Question 5.
Explain Ogive?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency of any class is equal to the sum of the frequencies of all the classes preceding that class and its own frequency e.g., frequencies are 10, 7, 12, 17 and 22. Cumulative frequencies are 10, 10 + 7 = 17, 17 + 12 = 29, 29 + 17 = 46 and 46 + 22 = 68.
Cumulative frequency of the last class = Total frequency.

For drawing an Ogive, cumulative frequency (i.e. number of values) is taken on the Y-axis and limits of class intervals on the X-axis.
Ogive is of two types:

1. less than
2. more than

In a “less than” type Ogive, we plot the upper limit of each class along the X-axis and in a “more than” type Ogive, we plot the lower limit of each class along the X-axis. Along the Y-axis, we plot the cumulative frequencies at the end of each class. Ogive can be drawn even if the class interval are unequal or open end. Ogives are performed over frequency curves for comparative study.

Question 6.
Illustrate how classes can be formed while presenting the data?
Answer:
Classes can be formed in two ways:

1. Exclusive type
2. Inclusive type

1. Exclusive Type:
When the class intervals are so fixed that the upper limit of one class is the lower limit of the new class, it is known as exclusive method of classification.

Marks (Percentage)	No. of students
0-10	15
10-20	17
20-30	22
30-40	30
40-50	39
50-60	45

In this method, higher value of the variable in the class is not included in that class i.e.,

Marks (Percentage)	No. of students
0 and more but less than 10	15
10 and more but less than 20	17
20 and more but less than 30	22
30 and more but less than 40	30
40 and more but less than 50	39
50 and more but less than 60	45

2. Inclusive Type:
In this method, the students getting say 39% marks will be included in class 30 – 39 itself i.e.,

Marks (Percentage)	No. of students
0-9	5
10-19	8
20-29	7
30-39	13
40-49	25

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer
a. Bar diagram is a

1. one-dimensional diagram
2. two-dimensional diagram
3. diagram with no dimension
4. none of the above

b. Data represented through a histogram can help in finding graphically the

1. mean
2. mode
3. median
4. all the above

c. Ogives can be helpful in locating graphically the

1. mode
2. mean
3. median
4. none of the above

d. Data represented through arithmetic line graph help in understanding

1. long term trend
2. cyclicity in data
3. seasonality in data
4. all the above

Answer:
a. 1. one-dimensional diagram
b. 3. mode
c. 3. median
d. 1. long term trend

Question 2.
Point out major parts of a statistical table.
Answer:

1. Table number
2. Title
3. Headnote
4. Stub
5. Box head or caption
6. Body or field
7. Footnote
8. Source note

Question 3.
Give the rules for constructing tables.
Answer:
The rules of constructing diagrams are:

• Every diagram should be titled.
• It should suit the size of the paper
• It should be neat and attractive
• It should be neatly indexed
• It should contain footnotes
• The details in diagram should be self-explanatory

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the advantages of diagrammatic presentation.
Answer:
The advantages of diagrammatic presentation are given below.

1. Diagram give a clear picture of data
2. Comparison can be made easy
3. Diagrams can be used university at any place
4. It saves time and energy
5. The data can be remembered easily

Question 2.
Show how pie diagram is drawn for the following data?

Items	Production in K.G.
Tea	3260
Coffee	1850
Cocoa	900
Total	6010

Answer:

Question 3.
Give steps in the preparation of pie diagram.
Answer:
A pie diagram is also a component diagram, but unlike a component bar diagram, a circle whose area is proportionally divided among the components it represents. It is also called a pie chart. The circle is divided into as many parts as there are components by drawing straight lines from the centre to the circumference.

The following steps in the preparation of pie diagram are given below:

• Convert each component as percentage of the total.
• Multiply the percentage by 360/100 = 3.6 to convert into degree.
• Starting with the twelve o’clock position on the circle draw the largest component circle
• Draw other components in clockwise succession in descending order of magnitude except for each all components

Like all others and miscellaneous which are shown last:

• Use different columns or shades to distinguish between different components
• Explain briefly the different components either within the components in the figure or outside by arrow.

Plus One Economics Presentation of Data Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write short notes on the following

1. pie diagrams
2. frequency curves
3. frequency polygon
4. ogive
5. arithmetic line graph

Answer:
1. Pie Diagram:
A pie diagram is also a component diagram, but unlike a component bar diagram, a circle whose area is proportionally divided among the components it represents. It is also called a pie chart. The circle is divided into as many parts as there are components by drawing straight lines from the centre to the circumference. Pie charts usually are not drawn with absolute values of a category.

The values of each category are first expressed as percentage of the total value of all the categories. A circle in a pie chart, irrespective of its value of radius, is thought of having 100 equal parts of 3.6° (3607100) each. To find out the angle, the component shall subtend at the centre of the circle, each percentage figure of every component is multiplied by 3.6°.

2. Frequency Polygon:
A frequency polygon is a plane bounded by straight lines, usually four or more lines. Frequency polygon is an alternative to histogram and is also derived from histogram itself. A frequency polygon can be fitted to a histogram for studying the shape of the curve. The simplest method of drawing a frequency polygon is to join the midpoints of the topside of the consecutive rectangles of the histogram.

3. Frequency Curve:
The frequency curve is obtained by drawing a smooth freehand curve passing through the points of the frequency polygon as closely as possible. It may not necessarily pass through all the points of the frequency polygon but it passes through them as closely as possible

4. Ogive:
Ogive is also called cumulative frequency curve. As there are two types of cumulative frequencies, for example, less than type and more than type, accordingly there are two ogives for any grouped frequency distribution data. Here in place of simple frequencies as in the case of frequency polygon, cumulative frequencies are plotted along y-axis against class limits of the frequency distribution.

For less than give the cumulative frequencies are plotted against the respective upper limits of the class intervals whereas for more than ogives the cumulative frequencies are plotted against the respective lower limits of the class interval. An interesting feature of the two ogives together is that their intersection point gives the median

5. Arithmetic Line Graph:
An arithmetic line graph is also called time-series graph and is a method of diagrammatic presentation of data. Init, time (hour, day/date, week, month, year, etc.) is plotted along x-axis and the value of the variable (time series data) along y-axis. A line graph by joining these plotted points, thus, obtained is called arithmetic line graph (time series graph). It helps in understanding the trend, periodicity, etc. in a long term time series data.

Question 2.
3 Forms of presentation of data

1. Textual
2. Tabular
3. Diagrams & graphs Prepare a flow chart.

Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 10 Respiration in Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Respiration in Plants

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under the aerobic condition, it forms
(a) Lactic acid
(b) CO₂+H₂O
(c) Acetyl CoA + CO₂
(d) Ethanol + CO₂
Answer:
(b) CO₂+ H₂O

Question 2.
Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial
(a) Outer membrane
(b) Inter membrane space
(c) Inner membrane
(d) Matrix
Answer:
(c) Inner membrane

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of ATP is synthesized.
(b) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of hydrogen.
(c) Pyruvate is formed in the mitochondrial matrix.
(d) There is complete breakdown of glucose in fermentation.
Answer:
(a) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of ATP is synthesized.

Question 4.
Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. Which of the following observations support this statement?
(a) Mitochondria have a double membrane
(b) The enzymes of the Krebs cycle and the cytochromes are found in mitochondria.
(c) Mitochondria synthesise ATP
(d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plants and animal cells.
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria synthesise ATP.

Question 5.
The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
(a) NADH
(b) Oxygen
(c) ADP
(d) ATP+H₂O
Answer:
(d) ATP+H₂O

Question 6.
Fo-F1 particles participate in the synthesis of
Answer:
ATP molecules

Question 7.
The product of aerobic glycolysis in skeletal muscle and anaerobic fermentation in yeast are respectively ……… and …….
Answer:
Lactic acid and Ethyl alcohol.

Question 8.
How many NADH₂ molecules are produced from molecule of acetyl co A in TCA cycle?
Answer:
Three.

Question 9.
Name the final acceptor of electrons in ETC.
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 10.
Give the number of ATP molecules produced from 1 glucose molecule in aerobic respiration.
Answer:
38.

Question 11.
The process of oxidation in microorganisms are referred as
(a) Cellular respiration
(b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Fermentation
Answer:
(c) Fermentation

Question 12.
Calculate the RQ of tripalmitin with the help of equation given below.
2(C₅H₉₈O₆) + 145O₂ -»102 CO₂ + 98H₂O + energy
Answer:
\(\mathrm{RQ}=\frac{102 \mathrm{CO}_{2}}{145 \mathrm{O}_{2}}=0.7\)

Question 13.
In the respiration process both in aerobic and anaerobic, the first phase of reactions is the same. Write the name of reaction Answer:
Glycolysis.

Question 14.
A germinating seed released 120 CO₂ by utilizing 180 O₂ stage. Calculate the RQ. Name the respiratory substrate.
Answer:
The substrate is fat.

Question 15.
Respiratory pathway is an amphibhotic pathway. Comment.
Answer:
It involves both anabolic & catabolic pathways.

Question 16.
Name the unit of oxidative phosphorylation.
Answer:
Oxysomes or Elementary particles.

Question 17.
How many calories are produced by aerobic oxidation of 1 gm mole of glucose?
Answer:
686000 calories.

Question 18.
We commonly call ATP as the energy currency of the cell. Can you think of some other energy carriers present in a cell? Name any two.
Answer:
NADH₂ and FADH₂.

Question 19.
RQ value changes for wheat and castor oil seeds. Justify.
Answer:
R Q = 1 carbohydrate (wheat)
R Q < 1 fat(castor)

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.

1. Where does it occur?
2. Who first elucidate this?

Answer:

1. Cristae of mitochondria
2. Hans Kreb

Question 2.
Glycolysis is the first stage in the break down of glucose in all organisms. Do you agree with this statement? Where does it take place? Give the net. gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis?
Answer:
Yes, Cytoplasm, 8ATPs

Question 3
Observe the relation of the first pair and fill up the blanks

1. Symport: Molecules cross the membrance in the same direction
   …………..: Molecules move in the opposite direction
2. RQ = 1 : Carbohydrate
   RQ > 1: ………..

Answer:

1. Antiport
2. Organic acids

Question 4.
‘‘Photorespiration is called a wasteful process.” Comment on it.
Answer:
ATP is utilized. There is no production of ATP during this process. It does not produce any beneficial product.

Question 5
Respirometer is an apparatus used to measure R.Q.

1. What is R.Q?
2. R.Q. of glucose is equal to one. Give the reason.

Answer:

1. Amount of CO₂ released during respiration / Amount of O₂ absorbed during respiration,
2. Amount of CO₂ released= Amount O₂ absorbed

Question 6.
Plant physiologists observed a relationship between respiration and salt absorption. Is absorption of salt increased due to respiration? Explain.
Answer:
Yes. As a result of respiration, the energy is released in the form of ATP. This energy is used for the active absorption of salt.

Question 7.
Glycolysis is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. During this process glucose undergoes partial oxidation.

1. What is the final product of glycolysis?
2. What is the total yield of ATP molecules during glycolysis?

Answer:

1. Pyruvic acid
2. 8 ATP

Question 8.
The RQ value of a respiratory substrate is 1. Find the type of substrate and comment on RQ.
Answer:
Carbohydrate RQ:
It is the ratio of volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed. The value of RQ is different for respiratory substrates eg fat(0.7), protein (0.9)etc.

Question 9.
Oxidative phosphorylation is an important process in cellular respiration. Explain it?
Answer:
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the inner membrane of mitochondria. In the F1 head the inorganic phosphate combined with ADP to form ATP. It occurs due to the entry of proton pair from intermembrane space to the matrix through proton channel.

Question 10.
Why does anaerobic respiration produce less energy than aerobic respiration?
Answer:

1. The regeneration of NAD fails to produce ATP as the electrons are not shifted to oxygen
2. The end product of anaerobic respiration can be further oxidized to release energy.

Question 11.
What is fermentation Name any two organic compounds produced in this process?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration also called fermentation involves the production of energy from food nutrients in the absence of oxygen.

Question 12.
“Respiration is an amphibolic pathway”. Justify the statement with reason.
Answer:
Respiration involves both the catabolic and anabolic process. Fatty acid undergoes breackdown to form acetyl. co-A.
Acetyl Co-A is again used for the synthesis of Fat. In respiration cycle the two process are involved.i.e catabolism and anabolism. So it is called a Amphibolic Pathway”.

Question 13.
ADP is converted to ATP as a result of phosphorylation which takes place in photosynthesis and respiration during electron transport system. What is the difference between these two?
Answer:
photophosphorylation, inorganic phosphate combines with ADP to form ATP This process takes place in chloroplast in the presence light. But in oxidative phosphorylation inorganic phosphate combines with ADP to form ATP. It takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 14.
When does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Answer:
In man during streneous exercise O_2, inedequecy is experience in Skeletal tissues. In such a case the respiration is anaerobic. In yeast, during fermentation the respiration takes place is anaerobic.

Question 15.
Mention the important series of events of aerobic respiration that occur in the matrix of the mitochondrion as well as ones that take place in inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Answer:
Citric acid cycle,Terminal oxidation and electron transport system.

Question 16.
Name the end products aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis. List the two ways by which molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis during aerobic respiration in a cell.
Answer:
2 Pyruvic acid, 2ATP and 2 NADH₂ Two ways of ATP formation in glycolysis are:

1. During dephosphorylation of 1, 3, DPGA called substrate-level phosphorylation
2. Reduced NADH₂ releases ATP molecules in electron transport chain

Question 17.
Define RQ What is its significance?
Answer:
It is the ratio of volume of CO₂ released to volume of O₂ taken during respiration. Value of R Q gives the indication of nature of substrate respired by a particular tissue.

Question 18.
Different substrates get oxidized during respiration. How does Respiratory Quotient (RQ) indicate which type of substrate, i.e., carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting oxidized?
R Q=A/B
What do A and B stand for?
What type of substrates have R.Q. of 1, < 1 or> 1?
Answer:
A-Volume CO₂ evolved B- Volume O₂ consumed RQ=1 (Carbohydrate) RQ=< 1 Fat/protein RQ=> 1 (Organic acids).

Question 19.
Which of the following will release more energy on oxidation? Arrange them in ascending order,
a. Moffat
b. 1 gm of protein
c. 1 gm of glucose
d. 0.5 g of protein + 0.5g glucose
Answer:
c → d → b → a

Question 20.
What is the importance of F0-F, particle in ATP production during aerobic respiration?
Answer:
F0 is an integral membrane protein complex and has a proton channel while F1 has enzyme ATP synthase to form ATP. One molecule of NADH produces 3 ATP molecules in ETS.

Question 21.
What is Respiratory Quotient? What is its value for fats?
Answer:
It is the ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂consumed.
\(So, RQ =\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { Evolved }}{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{O}_{2} \text { consumed }}\)

Question 22.
Give two example for anaerobic respiration occurs in organisms and products.
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation and Lactic acid fermentation Ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.

Question 23.
The complete oxidation of pyruvic acid that occurs in mitochondria undergoes both oxidation and decarboxylation.

1. Which is the first step of oxidative-decarboxylation occurs?
2. Where does substrate-level phosphorylation occurs?

Answer:

1. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
2. Conversion of succinyl CoA to Succinic acid.

Question 24.
Give the name of intermediate compounds having carbon atoms 6,5,4 and 2 of mitochondrial oxidation.
Answer:

• 6C – Citric acid, 5C- Alpha keto glutaric acid,
• 4C- Succinic acid/succinyl coAl malic acid/ OAA,
• 2C- Acetyl CoA.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Incomplete oxidation of food material in the absence of oxygen is anaerobic respiration.
(a) Give an example of a microorganism which carry out anaerobic respiration.
(b) Where does anaerobic respiration take place in human beings?
(c) What is the net gain of ATP during this process? Spa) Yeast
(b) Muscle cells
Answer:
(c) 2 ATP

Question 2.
ETS operated in the inner mitochondrial membrane, it involves terminal oxidation and oxidative phosphorylation

1. Who discovered chemiosmotic hypothesis in mitochondria
2. Name the elementary particle promotes ATP synthesis
3. What is chemiosmotic hypothesis

Answer:

1. Peter Mitchel
2. Fg-F, particle
3. Proton gradient leads to ATP production

Question 3.
Yeast cells can respire in the absence of O₂

1. Name the process
2. Write the end product of the process
3. Write the net production of ATP during process.

Answer:

1. Anaerobic respiration
2. CO₂ + C₂H₅OH (Carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol)
3. 2 ATPs

Question 4.
Respiration is a breakdown process it involves various steps

1. Where does the common step of aerobic and anaerobic process occurs
2. Find out the number of carbon atoms of a compound as end product of the above reaction
3. Name the 6 C intermedite compound splits and forms another 3 C intermediates.

Answer:

1. Cytoplasm
2. 3 Carbon (Pyruvic acid)
3. Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate

Question 5.
ATP and NADPH₂ molecules synthesised in light reaction of photosynthesis are used for the synthesis of glucose in dark reaction.

1. Who proposed the dark reaction?
2. List out three phases in dark reaction.
3. Location of dark reaction in the chloroplast?
4. Expense of ATP and NADPH₂ for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose in dark reaction?

Answer:

1. Melvin Calvin
   • Carboxylation
   • Reduction
   • Regeneration of RUBP
2. Stroma
3. 12 NADPH₂ and 18 ATP molecules.

Question 6.
In the last step of aerobic respiration oxidation of reduced co-enzymes produced in glycolysis and Krebs cycle occur.

1. What are the important reduced coenzymes?
2. Why is this process called as terminal oxidation?
3. Where does terminal oxidation takes place?

Answer:

1. FADH₂, NADH₂.
2. It is the formation of metabolic water at the end of electron transport chain by combining protons, electrons, and O₂.
3. The inner mitochondrial membrane of mitochondria.

Question 7.
An athlete felt muscular pain after a race.

1. Explain this in terms of anaerobic respiration?
2. Name any two microorganisms in which anaerobic respiration occurs
3. Glycolysis is common for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In glycolysis, there is a net gain of 8 ATP. But in anaerobic repiration the net gain is only 2 ATP. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Athletes felt muscular pain is due to the inadequecy of 02. In the absence of 02 partial oxidation takes place. It involves the formation of pyruvic acid followed by lactic acid.

2. Yeast & Lactobacillus.

3. After the formation of pyruvic acid, 2 NADPH molecules are utilised for the formation of Lactic acid. So the net gain of ATP in Anaerobic respiration is 2 ATPs.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called the “Power House’’ of the cell.

1. Is the statement correct?
2. Write down reasons.

Answer:

1. Yes
   • Synthesis of ATP takes place in mitochondria,
   • Inner membrance acts as electron transport chain.
   • Presence of ATP – synthetase enzyme.
   • Enzymes for aerobic respiration in mitochondrial matrix

Question 9.
Analyse the diagram and answer the questions.

1. What does the diagram represent?
2. Write the role of F0-F., unit in the process?
3. What is oxidative phosphorylation?
4. Where does it take place?

Answer:

1. ATP synthesis
2. Flow of proton
3. In the presenceC₂, oxidation takes place and ADP combines with inorganic phosphate to form ATP
4. Crystal

Question 10.
Respirometer is an apparatus used to measure R.Q.

1. What is R.Q?
2. R.Q. of glucose is equal to one. Give reason.
3. Name the respiratory substrate for which R.Q. is more than one?

Answer:

1. Amount of C0₂ released/Amount of O₂ absorbed
2. In glucose amount of CO₂ released = amount of O₂ absorbed
3. Organic acids

Question 11.
RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, Pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase. Select/choose enzymes from the list above which are involved in

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Both in photosynthesis and respiration

Answer:

1. RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, ATPase,
2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase
3. ATPase

Question 12.
The following statements are about an important event of cellular respiration. Read them carefully and answer the questions.
It is the last step of cellular respiration It synthesise ATP Water is the end product It accepts oxygen.

1. Name the process
2. Where does it occur?
3. Name any 4 components of ‘it’

Answer:

1. Electron transport system/oxidative phosphorylation
2. Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. NADP, FAD, Ubiquinone (Co-Q)
   Cyt. b, cyt – a, cty a₃ etc.

Question 13.
Respiration is viewed most simply as the oxidative production of ATR Justify the statement.
Answer:
The energy-releasing process by oxidation of organic food materials in the living cell is respiration. During this process, the energy contained in the food is released and is trapped in the ATP molecules. NADH+H+ and FADH₂ formed during various steps of respiration are oxidised, and protons (H+) and electrons (e ) are released.

These electrons are transported to the oxygen through a series of electron carries in the electron transport system (ETS), and their energy is stored in ATP molecules. So, respiration is process of oxidative production of ATP. 45% of energy released during the oxidation of 1 glucose molecule is stored in 38 ATP molecules.

Question 14.
The second phase of aerobic respiration takes place within mitochondria. This phase is called TCA cycle. The different steps of this reaction were found out by a British Biochemist who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1953.

1. Identify the scientist and name the first product of the reaction.
2. Write the first step of this reaction, why it is called TCA cycle?
3. From where Acetyl Co. A comes into mitochondria?
4. In which step FADHJs formed.

Answer:

1. Hans Krebs, citric acid(Tricarboxylic acid)
2. oaa+acetylcoA citric acid .since it has three -COOH group
3. Cytoplasm
4. 5^th step (Succinic acid to malic acid)

Question 15.
Glycolysis is common and first phase of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

1. Who discovered this process?
2. What are the substrate and end products in this reaction?

Answer:

1. Embeden, Mayerhof & Parnas
2. Glucose – Substrate.
   The end product – Pyruvic acid.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss “The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway.”
Answer:
Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration. All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are used for respiration. Other substrates can also be respired but then they do not enter the respiratory pathway at the first step.

Since respiration involves breakdown as well as synthesis of substrates, the respiratory process involves both catabolism. That is why respiratory pathway is considered to be an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.

Question 2.
What is the significance of step wise release of energy in respiration?
Answer:
If energy will be released at one go then most of it will be most in the form of heat. Cells should be in a position to utilize all the energy to synthesize something. To facilitate proper usage of energy, it is released in a stepwise manner during respiration.

Question 3.
Define RQ. What is its value for fats?
Answer:
The ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration is called the respiratory quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the following:

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Glycolysis and Fermentation
3. Glycolysis and Citric acid Cycle

Answer:
1. There is incomplete oxidation of glucose during anaerobic respiration, while there is complete oxi¬dation during aerobic respiration.

2. The pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis is first converted to Acetyl coenzyme A, which undergoes citric acid cycle to produce critic acid. At the end of citric acid cycle NADH+H+ is released.

3. In both (b) and (c) glycolysis is the first step cellular respiration. The product of glycolysis is further utilized by either fermentation or critic acid cycle.

Question 5.
What are the assumptions made during the calculation of net gain of ATP?
Answer:
It is possible to make calculations of the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised, but in reality this can remain only a theoretical exercise. These calculations can be made only on certain assumptions that:

1. There is a acquential, orderly pathway functioning, with one substrate forming the next and with glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS pathway following one after another.

2. The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.

3. None of the intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise any other compound.

4. Only glucose is being respired – no other alternative substrates are entering in the pathway at any of the intermediary stages.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Common phase between aerobic and anaerobic modes of respiration is
(a) Krebs cycle
(b) EMP/glycolysis
(c) oxidative phosphorylation
(d) PPP
Answer:
(b) EMP/glycolysis

Question 2.
Complete oxidation of one gram mol. of Glucose give rise to
(a) 6860,000 cal
(b) 686,000 cal
(c) 68,600 cal
(d) 6860 cal
Answer:
(b) 686,000 cal

Question 3.
When a molecule of pyruvic acid is subjected to anaerobic oxidation and forms Lactic acid there is
(a) loss of 3 ATP molecules
(b) loss of 6ATP molecules
(c) loss of 2 ATP molecules
(d) loss of 4 ATP molecules
Answer:
(b) loss of 6ATP molecules

Question 4.
When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes
(a) 36 ADP mole into 36 ATP molecules
(b) 32 ADP mole into 32 ATP molecules
(c) 38 ADP mole into 38 ATP molecules
(d) 30 ADP mole into 30 ATP molecules
Answer:
(c) 38 ADP mole into 38 ATP molecules

Question 5.
Substrate phosphorylation occurs during
(a) Fumaric acid → malic acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid → alpha-ketoglutaric acid
(c) Succinic acid – fumaric acid
(d) a Ketoglutaric acid – Succinic acid
Answer:
(d) a Ketoglutaric acid – Succinic acid

Question 6.
Glycolysis is significant for energy production in
(a) RBC
(b) fungi
(c) plants
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) RBC

Question 7.
In aerobic respiration
(a) 2 PGAL are formed in Glycolysis and none in kerbs cycle
(b) 6 PGAL in glycolysis, 3 PGAL in kerbs cycle
(c) PGAL formation does not occur in respiration
(d) 8 PGAL in glycolysis, 3 PGAL in krebs cycle
Answer:
(a) 2 PGAL are formed in Glycolysis and none in kerbs cycle

Question 8.
Two enzymes common to EMP pathway and C₃ cycle are
(a) Aldolase & triosephosphate isomerase
(b) Aldolase & enolase
(c) Cytochrome oxidase & enolase
(d) phosphoglyceromutase & triosephosphate isomerase
Answer:
(a) Aldolase & triosephosphate isomerase

Question 9.
The RQ value of fat is 0.7, it indicates
(a) volume of CO₂ is greater than O₂
(b) volume of O₂ is greater than CO₂
(c) volume of CO₂ is greater than volume of O₂
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) volume of O₂ is greater than CO₂

Question 10.
The net gain of ATP in aerobic respiration is
(a) 18
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 36

Question 11.
Three carboxylic group occurs in
(a) pyruvic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) malic acid
(d) Aspartic acid
Answer:
(b) citric acid

Question 12.
Which is the first 5C carbon compound formed in TCA cycle
(a) succinic acid
(b) oxaloacetic acid
(c) alpha-ketoglutaric acid
(d) fumaric acid
Answer:
(c) alpha-ketoglutaric acid

Question 13.
The concentration of alcohol in fermentation influence the
(a) death of cells
(b) growth of cells
(c) production of succinic acid
(d) production of lactic acid
Answer:
(a) death of cells

Question 14.
Acetyl coA is called
(a) 5C compound
(b) 2C compound
(c) 3C compound
(d) 4C compound
Answer:
(b) 2C compound

Question 15.
Wine and beer are produced directly by fermentation. Brandy and whisky require both fermentation and distillation because
(a) fermendation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%
(b) distillation prolongs storage
(c) distillation improves quality
(d) distillation purifies the beverage.
Answer:
(a) fermendation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%

Question 16.
The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment to the outer, as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.
(a) Chemiosmosis
(b) Phosphorylation
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(a) Chemiosmosis

Question 17.
In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the substrate?
(a) Fructose – 6 – phosphate → Fructose -1, 6 – bisphosphate
(b) 3 – phosphate – glyceraldehyde → 1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid
(c) PEP → Pyruvic acid
(d) 2 – phosphoglycerate → PEP
Answer:
(d) 2 – phosphoglycerate → PEP

Students can Download Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Both apical and intercalary meristems are meristems
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) lateral
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) primary

Question 2.
Sclerieds present in
(a) fruit wall of nuts
(b) pulp of guava
(c) seed coat of legumes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which of the following condition of xylem is present in both monocot and dicot stems
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) polyarch
(d) mesarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 4.
Bark does not include
(a) secondary xylem
(b) secondary phloem
(c) periderm
(d) primary phloem
Answer:
(a) secondary xylem

Question 5.
…………… is the living mechanical tissue
(a) collenchyma
(b) parenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) collenchyma

Question 6.
What are the cells that make the leaves curl in plants during water stress?
Answer:
Bulliform cells/motor cells

Question 7.
What part of the plant would show the following:
(a) Radial vascular bundle
(b) Polyarch xylem
(c) Well developed pith
Answer:
(a) Radial vascular bundle

Question 8.
Apical meristem for elongation of Stem, Lateral meristem for ………..
Answer:
Increase in thickness.

Question 9.
While analysing the anatomy of a given slide, phloem, cambium & xylem are present. Identify the material.
Answer:
Dicot stem.

Question 10.
Tissues are specialised to perform mechanical function have thickening at corners, living and cellulosic. Name it.
Answer:
Collenchyma

Question 11.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following features under microscope there are many vascular bundles scattered in the parenchymatous tissue, xylem is endarch. What kind of plant part shows the above anatomy.
Answer:
Monocot stem

Question 12.
Name tissue which provides mechanical strength to the plant’s organs.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma and xylem

Question 13.
What does the fascicular cambium gives rise to?
Answer:
Secondary vascular tissues and medullary rays

Question 14.
From where do the secondary cambium appear?
Answer:
From permanent tissues

Question 15.
Which type of meristems can be classified on the basis of positions in the plant body.
Answer:
Apical, intercalary and lateral

Question 16.
Find the odd one and give reason:
Phellem, Phellogen, Phloem, Phelloderm
Answer:
Phloem. The other components are part of periderm

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks:
Stem: Endarch:: Root: ……….
interfascicular cambium: secondary xylem:: cork cambium: …………
Answer:
Exarch, phelloderm

Question 18.
Activity of cambium is different in two seasons and xylem vessels formed have narrow and wider lumens. Give the type of wood formed during the different seasons.
Answer:
Springwood and autumn wood.

Question 19.
What use are phloem fibres put to
Answer:
Phloem fibers of plants like jute are used for making ropes.

Question 20.
Identify the plant group from the data given below.
(a) Habit-Tree
(b) Xylem vessels present
(c) Absence of companion cells in phloem
(d) No fruits
Answer:
Gymnosperm

Question 21.
Ramu observed the growth of a plant in his garden. He realised that the plant grow both in length and width. Name the tissue responsible for the growth of the plant.
Answer:
Meristems

Question 22.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following anatomical features under microscope.

1. Vascular bundles are radially arranged
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of the protoxylem. To which organ should it be assigned?

Answer:
Dicot root

Question 23.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features.

1. vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. Phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
The plant is a monocotyledon.

Question 24.
The cross-section of a plant material showed the following features when viewed under the microscope.

1. The vascular bundles were radially arranged.
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of protoxylem.

To which organ should it be assigned?
Answer:
Dicot root

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During the secondary thickening of a dicot stem, from the outer cotical region, a meristematic tissue is developed. Name this tissue and write the function of it.
Answer:
Phellogen/cork cambium – It produces phellum towards the outer sides & phelloderm towards the inner side. These 3 layers are known as periderm

Question 2.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate the following characters of dicot stem and monocot stem.
Differentiated cortex, Protoxylem lacuna present, open bundle, bundle sheath, starch sheath, sclerenchymatous hypodermis, scattered bundles, V.Bs. arranged in a ring, closed bundles, phloem parenchyma absent, presence of pith, collenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Dicot stem	Monocot stem
Differentiated cortex Open bundle Starch sheath V.Bs arranged in ring Presence of pith collenchymatous hypoderms	Protoxylem lacuna present Bundle sheath Closed bundle Phloem parenchyma absent Sclerenchymatous hypoderms

Question 4.
Xylem is the complex tissue that transports water in plants.

1. Name the main components of xylem.
2. Which of these is most likely suitable for conducting water?

Answer:

1. Xylem parenchyma, vessels, tracheid, xylem fibers.
2. Vessels

Question 5.
Examine the anatomy of two plants

1. Xylem vessels and tracheids are seen
2. Xylem vessels absent and tracheids present

Answer:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gymnosperm

Question 6.
Identify the figure ‘A’ and ‘B’ and differentiate between ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Answer:

A	B
Dicotstem	Dicot root
Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring, limited no., conjoint, endarch & open	Vascular bundles are radial, exarch

Question 7.
Secondary growth occurs in dicots and no such growth in monocots. Justify.
Answer:
In dicots, cambium is present in their vascular bundle. In monocot, cambium is absent in the vascular bundles. So secondary growth occurs in dicotyledons and not in monocotyledons.

Question 8.
Phloem is called the complex tissue while parenchyma is a simple tissue. Make the differences
Answer:
Phloem is made up of more than one type of cells namely, sieve tube, companion cell, phloem parenchyma & phloem fiber. Parenchyma consists of same types of cells.

Question 9.
When the cross-section of a stem was examined, a student could notice collenchymatous hypodermis, Limited number of open vascular bundles, cortex, endodermis, and pith.

1. Identify the material.
2. Draw the diagram of the material showing these parts and label.

Answer:
1. Dicot stem
2.

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams and identify the tissue types.

Answer:
a. Collenchyma
b. Sclerenchyma

Question 11.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 12.
While doing anatomy practical, students observe ten following characters:

• Undifferentiated ground tissue.
• Numerous vascular bundles and are scattered.
• Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
• Presence of bundle sheath

1. Identify the material.
2. Write any one example of a plant having such characters.
Answer:

1. Monocot stem.
2. Grass/Bamboo

Question 13.
What is the function of phloem parenchyma?
Answer:
The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances like resins, latex, and mucilage.

Question14.
How do you correlate the activity of cambium with changing seasons?
Answer:
During winter season the cambium stops its activity. In spring season cambium becomes more active and produce large quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during spring season is called springwood. During autumn season and summer season the cambium becomes less active and produces small quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during this period is called autumn wood.

Question 15.
Mention the characteristic features of sieve-tube members.
Answer:
Sieve tubes are cylindrical have endplates called sieve plates. They are dead elements of phloem.

Question 16.
It is difficult to open and close wooden doors and windows during the rainy season. What is the reason?
Answer:
Imbibition It is the absorption of water by water-loving particles without forming a solution

Question 17.
Heartwood is resistant to microorganisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Contains alkalloids , tannins & resins

Question 18.
The microscopic observation is given below.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Write any two distinguishing characters of the above diagram.

Answer:

1. A dicot stem B monocot stem
2. In dicot stem vascular budles open, limited no.&arranged in the form of a ring. In monocot stem, vascular bundles closed, numerous & scattered

Question 19.
Simple tissues that perform mechanical support in plants are usually dead tissues’
Name the living simple tissue that provides mechanical support to plant organs. In which category of plants (dicots/monocots) do they found?
Answer:
Sclerenchyma tissues Monocots

Question 20.
What is present on the surface of the leaves which helps the plant prevent loss of water but is absent in roots?
Answer:
The cuticle is the waxy substance prevents the excessive water loss.

Question 21.
What is the epidermal cell modification in plants which prevents water loss?
Answer:
The presence of bulliform cells in the leaves of monocot plants, which helps in rolling and unrolling of lamina and prevents water loss.

Question 22.
Arrange the following in the sequence you would find them in a plant starting from the periphery – phellem. phellogen. phelloderm.
Answer:
phellem, phellogen, phelloderm.

Question 23.
A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as growth rings. How are these rings formed? What is the significance of these rings?
Answer:
It is formed due to the activity of vascular ambium. The growth ring comprises springwood and autumn wood that is formed in spring season and winter season respectively. These are used to determine the age of tree by counting the number of concentric rings.

Question 24.
While eating peach or pear it is usually seen that some stone-like structures get entangled in the teeth, what are these stone-like structures called?
Answer:
USB Non-elongated sclerenchyma(sclereids)

Question 25.
When your teacher asked to collect different types of seeds. One of the students collected some seeds from a tree. These seeds have no covering or naked.

1. In which group of plants does this tree belong?
2. Which portion of the plant develops into the seed?

Answer:

1. Gymnosperms
2. Ovule

Question 26.
We cannot find the woody trunk in monocot plants. Why?
Answer:
Monocots do not possess cambium Hence, the secondary tissues are not formed.

Question 27.
Identify the following materials under microscope.

1. Xylem polyarch, Round vessels, homogenous cortex with xylem & phloem in radial manner.
2. Endarch xylem, conjoint bundle, surrounded by bundle sheath, palisade and spongy tissues distinguished and kidney-shaped guard cells

Answer:

1. Monocot root
2. Dicot leaf

Question 28.
The product of photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to various parts of the plants and stored in some cells before being utilised. What are the cells/ tissues that store them?
Answer:
parenchyma tissue

Question 29.
Name the kind of vascular bundle in Fig. a and b.

Answer:
a. Closed bundle
b. Open bundle

Question 30.
Heartwood is resistant to micro-organisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
The deposition of substances like Tannin, resin, oil, gum, aromatic substances and essential oil in the central part of wood helps to resist the attack of microorganisms.

Question 31.
Cambial ring is responsible for the formation of secondary vascular tissues both in Dicot stem and Dicot root. Differentiate the origin of cambial ring in Dicot stem and Dicot root.
Answer:
1. In Dicot stem, the conjuctive tissues in between the vascular bundles become meristematic and form. interfascicular cambium, it joins with intrafascicular cambium to form a cambial ring.

2. In Dicot root, the tissue just below phloem and part of pericycle tissue above the protoxylem join together to form a wavy ring. Later it becomes circular.

Question 32.
Give reason

1. Grittiness nature of sapota fruit pulp
2. Increase thickness of stem intake and not in coconut

Answer:

1. Due to the presence of nonelogated sclerenchyma tissues (sclereids)
2. In Teak, cambium is present (dicot plant) In coconut, cambium is absent because it is a monocot plant.
   Cambial activity causes an increase in thickness

Question 33.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 34.
You may have observed droplets of water at the tip of leaves of grasses during early morning. Your sister told it is a dewdrop.
As a science student do you agree with her? Explain. Compare this process with transpiration.
Answer:
No.

1. The droplets of water are found in the tip of grass leaves. This is called Guttation. It occurs in early morning.
2. Water drops come out from Hydathode seen in the vien endings of leaf.
3. Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from stomata of leaves.

Question 35.
How can we correlate the activity of cambium with changing season?
Answer:
In spring season the activity of cambium is more and produces large no. of xylem vessels with wide lumen. But in Autumn season the activity of cambium is less and produces fewer no.of xylem vessels with narrow lumen.

Question 36.
Classify the following characters under dicot and monocot stem?
Bundle sheath is present, open bundle, bundle cap is present, closed bundle, arranged in a broken ring, scattered bundle, collenchymatous hypodermis, sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Dicot stem	Monocot stem
Open bundle Bundle cap is present Arranged in a broken ring collenchymatous Hypodermis	Bundle sheath is present Closed bundle Scattered bundle Sclerenchymatous Hypodermis

Question 37.
Distinguish between cork cambium and vascular cambium.
Answer:
1. Cork cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called phellem and inside phelloderm.

2. Vascular cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called secondary phloem and inside secondary xylem.

Question 38.
Identify the following diagram and write its function.

Answer:
Hydathode. It is the pore found in the vein ending of the grass leaf through which water loss occurs in the form of droplets.

Question 39.
Which one out of the root or stem shows endarch arrangement of xylem? What is meant by endarch arrangement?
Answer:
Stem, In edarch xylem protoxylem, is present towards the centre (pith) and metaxylem is faced towards outside.

Question 40.
Observe the diagram and identify the tissue types. Justify your answer.

Answer:

• The first figure is the Sclerenchymatus tissue.
• The second figure is the collenchymatous tissue.
• In sclerenchyma tissue, the cell walls are lignified and dead.
• In collenchymatous tissue, the cell walls are thick and living.

Question 41.
What are bulliform cells? Mention its significance
Answer:
These are the specialised cells found in the epidermis of monocot leaf. They are otherwise called as motor cells.
It helps in the rolling and unrollong of lamina

Question 42.
Where are the companion cells located in the flowering plants? What are their functions?
Answer:
Companion cells are located in the phloem cells of vascular tissue. They support the sieve tubes.

Question 43.
What category of permanent plant cell is a companion cell?
Answer:
Companion cells are specialised thin-walled parenchymatous cells found to be associated with sieve tubes.

Question 44.
Sieve tubes in angiosperms are associated with specialised parenchyma cells. Name those cells. How do they help sieve-tube members?
Answer:
Companion cells, help in physiological working of sieve-tube members.

Question 45.

1. Name the various components of xylem.
2. Which of them does not have a nucleus?

Answer:

1. Tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.
2. Tracheids, vessels, and xylem fibers

Question 46.
How are exarch and endarch conditions different anatomically in stem and root?
Answer:
1. The anatomical condition is endarch in dicot as well as monocot stem.

2. In endarch condition protoxylem lie towards inner side of vascular budle However, in anatomy of root.the condition is exarch.i.e protoxylem is towards outer side and metaxylem is towards centre.

Question 47.
Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
Cork cambium develops in cortex region during secondary growth in stem. Cork cambium cut off cork (phellum) towards the outside and secondary cortex or phellodem towards the inner-side.

Question 48.
If one debarks a tree, what parts of the plant is being removed?
Answer:
Phloem is removed and food translocation becomes difficult.

Question 49.
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in the dicot stems?
Answer:
Phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm are together known as periderm. Due to secondary growth of the stem, the outer cortical and epidermis layer broken and replaced by another meristematic issue called phellogen. Phellogen or cork cambium cuts off cells on both sides the outer cells are called cork or phellem and the inner cells are phelloderm or secondary cortex.

Question 50.
Some anatomical details of material are given below vascular bumdles are conjoint and open, medullary rays are present, hypodermis collenchymatous, cortex heterogenous

1. Identify the material
2. Name the tissue given above from which interfascicular cambium develops during secondary growth.

Answer:

1. Dicot stem
2. Medullary ray

Question 51.
Three type of tissues formed during secondary growth together have protective functions.

1. Name the three types
2. Name the opening found in outer part of mature woody dicot stem and give its function

Answer:

1. phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm
2. lenticel, gaseous exchange

Question 52.

1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood.
2. Heartwood is durable why?

Answer:
1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood
Heartwood

• found in the central part
• nonfunctional
• dark coloured

Sapwood

• found in peripheral part
• functional
• light coloured

2. Heartwood is resistant to microbial attack and it is filled with resin, gum, essential oil, aromatic oil, and tannins. Hence heartwood is durable.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A portion of the transverse section of maize stem is shown in the diagram.
Label a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h and i.

Answer:

1. a – Cuticle
2. b – Epidermis
3. c – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
4. d – Sclerenchymatous sheath
5. e – Parentchymatous sheath
6. f – Phloem
7. g – Metaxylem
8. h – Protoxylem
9. i – Water cavity.

Question 2.
Differentiate the following

1. Bark & Periderm
2. Heartwood &Sapwood
3. Endarch & Exarch

Answer:
1. Bark – It is the tissue outside vascular cambium.
Periderm – It is the outer protective tissue It includes phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm.

2. Heartwood – It is the dark coloured, nonfunctional central part of wood resistant to the attack of microorganisms.
Sap wood – It is the light coloured, functional and peripheral part of wood.

3. Endarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which protoxylem facing towards cente and metaxylem towards the periphery, eg. stem.
Exarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which Metaxylem facing towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery.eg: Root.

Question 3.
Match column A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 4.
Match the Following.

A	B
Nostoc	Protonema
Gonyaulax	respiratory root
Chlorella	red tide
Cycas	Space travelers
Rhizophora	heterocyst
Funaria	Coralloid root

Answer:

A	B
Nostoc	heterocyst
Gonyaulax	red tide
Chlorella	Space travelers
Cycas	Coral loid root
Rhizophora	Respiratory root
Funaria	Protonema

Question 5.
The following are the characters of Dicot stem and Monocot stem. Identify the character and write in appropriate column.

1. collenchymatous hypodermis
2. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
3. Open bundle
4. Closed bundle
5. Bundle cap present
6. Bundle sheath present
7. Xylem polygonal
8. Xylem circular

Dicot stem	Monocot stem

Answer:

DICOTSTEM	MONOCOT STEM
a	b
c	d
e	f
g	h

Question 6.
Plant growth is indeterminate in most plants it can go on indefinitely at the tips of roots and shoots. Special types of tissues are located at these regions

1. Name those tissues
2. Classify these tissues based on the position and origin.

Answer:

1. Meristematic tissues
2. Based on the position they are classified into three types,
   • apical meristem
   • intercalary meristem and
   • lateral meristem

Based on the origin, they are classified into 2.

1. primary meristem and
2. Secondary Meristem

Question 7.
1. Choose from among the following key terms and
complete the chart given below.
conjoint, closed, exarch open, …………. large, ……………. small endarch, radial ……….. few in a ring, ……….. many xylem and phloem bundles
few.

2. Comment on the utility of this chart.
Answer:

Question 8.
The following schematic representation shows the classification of complex tissues. Complete it.

Answer:

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
Answer:
On the basis of their structure and location, there are three types of tissue systems:

1. Epidermal Tissue System. Epidermis, Stomata.
2. Ground or Fundamental Tissue System Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma.
3. Vascular or conducting Tissue System. Phloem and Xylem.

Question 2.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features

1. the vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
As is clear from above TS of monocot stem vascular bundles are scattered in monocot stems and phloem parenchyma is absent.

Question 3.
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are composed of several types of cells and they work as a unit. Hence they are called complex tissues.

Question 4.
What is the stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cells. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Interfascicular cambium is a
(a) primary meristematic tissue
(b) primordial meristem
(c) type of proto deny
(d) secondary meristematic tissue
Answer:
(d) secondary meristematic tissue

Question 2.
In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as
(a) earlywood
(b) late wood
(c) heartwood
(d) sapwood
Answer:
(a) earlywood

Question 3.
The layer of cells outside the phloem meant for giving rise to the root branches is called
(a) cambium
(b) cork
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(d) pericycle

Question 4.
Cork cambium of dicot originates from
(a) epiblema
(b) pericycle
(c) the cambium of vascular bundles
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(b) pericycle

Question 5.
Alburnum is otherwise known as
(a) periderm
(b) sapwood
(c) heartwood
(d) cork
Answer:
(b) sapwood

Question 6.
Duramen is present in
(a) inner region of secondary wood
(b) part of sapwood
(c) outer region of secondary wood
(d) region of pericycle
Answer:
(a) inner region of secondary wood

Question 7.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of tissues present in dicot stem during secondary growth
(a) Phellogen, cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex
(b) Cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen
(c) Primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen, cork
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex
Answer:
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex

Question 8.
The meristem responsible for extra stelar secondary growth in dicot stem is
(a) interfascicular cambium
(b) intrafascicular cambium
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) phellogen
Answer:
(d) phellogen

Question 9.
Tracheids
(a) are the dominant cell types of xylem in angiosperms
(b) are primarily found in mosses and liverworts
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.
(d) first appeared during Palaeozoic era
Answer:
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.

Question 10.
In the following, how the sapwood is converted into heartwood?
(a) By degeneration of protoplast of living cells
(b) Tyloses formation
(c) By deposition of resins, oils, gums, etc
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
As secondary growth proceeds in a dicot stem, the thickness of
(a) sapwood increases
(b) heartwood increases
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase
(d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the same
Answer:
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase

Question 12.
Which is not a characteristic of plant cell walls?
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle
(b) Among other compounds contains compounds built of simple sugars
(c) May contain enzymes that are biologically active
(d) Often contain strengthening polymers
Answer:
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle

Question 13.
Identify the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stern.

1. Secondary cortex
2. Autumn wood
3. Secondary phloem
4. Phellem

(a) 2,3, 1,4
(b) 3,4,2,1
(c) 4, 1,3,2
(d) 1,2,4,3
Answer:
(c) 4, 1,3,2

Question 14.
Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because
(a) water cannot move up
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved
(c) shoot become starved
(d) annual rings are not produced
Answer:
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved

Question 15.
Which tissue gives rise to secondary growth?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Adventitious roots
(c) Germinating seed
(d) Vascular cambium
Answer:
(d) Vascular cambium

Question 16.
Growth rings are formed due to activity of
(a) extrastelar cambium
(b) intrastelar cambium
(c) interstelar cambium
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 17.
A nail is driven into the trunk of a 30 years old tree at a point l in above the soil level. The tree grows in height at the rate of 0.5m a year. After three years, the nail will be
(a) 1m above the soil
(b) 1.5 m above the soil
(c) 2 in above the soil
(d) 2.5 m above the soil
Answer:
(a) 1m above the soil

Question 18.
In which of the following, there is no differentiation of bark, sapwood, and heartwood?
(a) Ashok
(b) Neem
(c) Mango
(d) Datepalm
Answer:
(d) Datepalm

Question 19.
A tree grows at a rate of 0.5 m per year. What will be the height of the board fixed at 1.5 m above the base five years ago?
(a) 4.0 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 1.5 m
(d) 4.5 m
Answer:
(c) 1.5 m

Question 20.
Secondary phloem remains functional generally
(a) for one year
(b) for less than one year
(c) for many years
(d) as long as the plant is alive
Answer:
(d) as long as the plant is alive

Students can Download Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) Introduction of variation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Metaphase II
(d) Anaphase I
Answer:
(d) Anaphase I

Question 3.
Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction

Question 4.
During anaphase-l of meiosis
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate
(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids separate
(d) non-sister chromatids separate
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate

Question 5.
Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Equal division
(c) Both reduction and equal division
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Equal division

Question 6.
A bivalent of meiosis-l consists of
(a) Two chromatids and one centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromere
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere
(d) Four chromatids and four centromere
Answer:
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere

Question 7.
Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) Go
(d) S phase
Answer:
(c) Go

Question 8.
Which type cell divisions occur in meristematic cell of root apex?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 9.
In which stage the actual reduction of chromosome number occurs in meiosis.
Answer:
Anaphase 1

Question 10.
Give the term for the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Non-disjunction

Question 11.
Name the cell divisions which help in growth and recombination of genes.
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis

Question 12.
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit ____ phase to enter an inactive stage called ____ of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
G₁ and G₀

Question 13.
In the case of plant cells, the formation of new cell wall begins with a simple precursor. What is this precursor?
Answer:
Middle lamella

Question 14.
It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Answer:
Interphase.

Question 15.
At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Answer:
substage of Interphase

Question 16.
If the failure of division of cytoplasm occurs after nuclear division, What will happen to the cell?
Answer:
Free nucleii are formed

Question 17.
An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?
Answer:
300 pollen mother cells

Question 18.
What is the peculiarity of zygotene?
Answer:
The pairing of the homologous chromosome called synapsis

Question 19.
It is the inactive stage of cell division but cell differentiation occurs. Name it.
Answer:
G₀ Phase /Quiscent stage.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintain the race. Discuss.
Answer:
Reduces the chromosome number to half, so that chromosome number is maintained in the next generation.

Question 2.
Interphase in cell cycle is sometimes referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No.

1. Nucleus and cytoplasm are metabolically very active.
2. Amount of DNA becomes doubled.

Question 3.
A diagram of typical cell cycle of a higher plant is shown here. Identify each stage of the cycle and explain what happens during these stages.

Answer:

• G₁ – pre mitotic gap -synthesis of RNA &Proteins
• S – phase of synthesis – DNA replication
• G₂ – Post mitotic Gap phase synthesis of RNA &Proteins continues
• M – Mitotic phase
• G₀ – Inactive phase

Question 4.
Cytokinesis differs in plant and animal cell. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:

• Plant cell – formation of cell plate.
• Animal cell – Invagination of cell membrane.

Question 5.
Analyse the column A and B arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

A	B
1)  Pachytene 2)  S phase 3) Dyad 4) M phase	a) Interphase b) Telophase I c)  Mitotic phase d) Prophase I

Answer:

A	B
1)  Pachytene 2)  S phase 3)  Dyad 4)  M phase	Prophase I Interphase Telophase I Mitotic phase

Question 6.
Identify the stages of Mitosis in which the following events take place:

1. Synapsis
2. Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Diakinesis

Question 7.
Different stages of Prophase I of Meiosis are given in column A, arrange them in correct order and match them with the events in column B.

A	B
i) Diplotene	a) Chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope
ii) Pachytene	b) The pairing of Homologous chromosomes
iii) Leptotene	c) The appearance of recombination nodules and crossing over takes place
iv) Zygotene	d) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex and separation of bivalents.
	e) Terminalisation of Chiasmata

Answer:

1. (i) – d
2. (ii) – c
3. (iii) – a
4. (iv) – b

Question 8.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis.

1. Name each pair of homologous chromosomes.
2. Name the stage of prophase at which it takes place.

Answer:

1. Bivalent
2. Zygotene

Question 9.
Specific chromosome number of each species is conserved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. What is the reason for this? Write the different steps of this process.
Answer:

1. Meiosis (meiosis I & II)
2. Prophase Meta phase Ana phase Telophase

Question 10.
The life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. It consists of four stages such as Gv S, G2, and M.

1. Construct a pie diagram showing the different stages indicated above.
2. State the major events occurring in G, S, and G2 phases.

Answer:
1. Pie diagram of cell cycle.

2. G1 Phase -1, Cell grows in size and prepares the machinery needed for the DNA replication. RNA and proteins are synthesized. S phase – DNA replication. G2 phase – Synthesis of RNA and proteins.

Question 11.
Arrange the following stages of cell cycle in correct sequence S, G2, G1, M.
Answer:
S, M, G1, S, G2

Question 12.
X’ shaped structure called ‘chiasmata occurs during a particular stage of cell division.

1. Name the stage?
2. What is the significance of this type of cell division?

Answer:

1. Pachytene
2. The exchange of genes takes place between homologous chromosomes.

Question 13.
Given below are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I. Arrange them in correct order.
Zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene
Answer:
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis

Question 14.
Give the scientific term of the following.

1. Interchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of the homologues chromosomes
2. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase

Answer:

1. Crossing over
2. Equatorial

Question 15.
Identify the diagram and label a, b,c and write the events during this.

Answer:
(a)G1
(b) S
(c)G2

• G1 – Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
• S – DNA synthesis or replication of DNA occurs.
• G2 – In this phase proteins are synthesised for mitosis.

Question 16.
You have supplied I set of glass slides showing gametogenesis or garnets formation in an animal In one of the slide you observed the following features. Four cells with haploid number of chromosomes. Your friend told you that this is a meiotic division. (Hint: The diploid number of chromosome is 16.)
Are you agree with this statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Meiosis takes place in diploid cell or meiocyte to form four haploid cells. These cells contain 8 chromosomes each.

Question 17.
Differentiate reduction division from equational division.
Answer:
1. Reduction division:
It occurs in diploid cells to form 4 haploid cells, ie, the Chromosome number reduced to half in Meiosis I and results 2 daughter cells, which again divides to form 4 daughter cells. All cells formed in meiosis are haploid.

2. Equational division:
It is the mitotic division results 2 daughter cells carrying same set of chromosomes as that of parent cell. No genetic variation occurs.

Question 18.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in S phase?
Answer:
There cannot be mitosis without DNA replication in 5 phase of interphase because the trigger for mitosis is disturbance of nucleocytoplasmic ratio caused by DNA replication in S phase. Mitosis restores the quantity of genetic material to the species-specific level.

Question 19.
How does anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis differ from each other?
Answer:
In anaphase of mitosis chromatids separate while in anaphase 1 of meiosis homologous chromosomes separate.

Question 20.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Answer:
1. In an animal cell a furrow in the plasma membrane.lt joins in the centre and dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

2. In-plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls. Then Cell division occurs.

Question 21.
How cytokinesis is different in an animal and a plant cell?
Answer:
In-plant cell cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation while in the animal cell it occurs by cell furrow formation.

Question 22.
Why mitosis is called equational division ? Give the occurrence of mitosis.
Answer:
It keeps the chromosome number constant. It occurs in somatic cells.

Question 23.
What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has a centromere in the middle region with two equal arms of the chromosome.

Question 24.
What is kinetochore? Give its function.
Answer:
It is a disc-like area in each chromatid and is site of attachment of spindle microtubule.

Question 25.
Why is meiosis essentially in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half as it is followed by fertilization which restores diploidy.

Question 26.
Name the stage of cells cycle at which one of the following events occurs.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes. takes place
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Zygotene
4. Pachytene

Question 27.
Downs syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to mistake in cell division. What does it indicate?
Answer:
It is due to the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Question 28.
The events occur in prophase and telophase are one opposite to other,

1. Name the cell structures shown the above events
2. How many daughter nuclei are formed at the end of mitotic and meiotic prophase?

Answer:

1. Nuclear membrane, nucleolus and spindle fibres
2. Two

Question 29.
Mangolism or Trisomy is due to the failure of one event in cell division.

1. Which is the improperly functioning stage?
2. What is the event that not occurs?

Answer:

1. Anaphase I of meiosis
2. Separation of homologous chromosomes

Question 30.

1. What will be the ploidy level of dyad and tetrad of cells in meiosis?
2. How is it occurs?

Answer:

1. Dyad – haploid, Tetrad – Haploid
2. It occurs in meiosis due to separation of homologous chromosomes and chromosome number reduced to half.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which phase of meiosis is the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.

1. Synaptonemal complex ______
2. Recombination nodules ______
3. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase _____
4. Termination of chiasmata _______
5. Interkinesis ________
6. Formation of dyad of cells ________

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. pachytene
3. pachytene
4. diakinesis
5. After Meiosis-I before meiosis II
6. after first cytokinesis

Question 2.
The interphase stage is significant in mitotic and meiotic cell division

1. Give one specific event
2. Name the stage of interphase this event occurs
3. How will you differentiate interphase from interkinesis?

Answer:

1. DNA replication
2. S – phase
3. Interphase – cell prepares for cell division Interkinesis – short interval between meiosis I and meiosis II

Question 3.
The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Write the phase against each of the events.

1. Appearance of nucleolus
2. Division of centromere
3. Replication of DNA

Answer:

1. Telophase
2. Anaphase
3. Interphase

Question 4.
Life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. ‘S’ phase is an important phase of cell cycle.

1. Justify your answer.
2. Name the stages of cell cycle at which the following events occur.
   • Crossing over of homologous chromosome.
   • Pairingof homologous chromosomes.
   • Chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plane.

Answer:

1. phase of DNA synthesis
2. stages of the cell cycle
   • Pachytene
   • Zygotene
   • Metaphase

Question 5.
Name the stages of cell division in which the following events occur?

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Pachytene

Question 6.
Match the words listed in column I with suitable words from column II.

Column I	Column II
a) Diplontic cycle b) Karyokinesis c) Haplontic cycle d) Cytokinesis e) Meiosis f)  Cell plate	i)  Meiocytes ii) Gametic meiosis iii)  Plant cells iv) Nuclear division v) Zygotic meiosis vi) Cytoplasmic division

Answer:

1. a) – Gametic meiosis
2. b) – Nuclear division
3. c) – Zygotic meiosis
4. d) – Cytoplasmic division
5. e) – Meiocytes
6. f) – Plant cells

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish cytokinesis from karyokinesis.
Answer:
The division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis, while the division of the nucleus is called Karyokinesis.

Question 2.
What is G0 (quiescent phase) of cell cycle?
Answer:
Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to exhibit division (e.g., heart cells and many other cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace cells that have been lost because of injury or cell death.

These cells do not divide further exit G₁ phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

Question 3.
Describe the event taking place during interphase.
Answer:
The interphase is divided into three further phases:
1. G₁ phase (Gap 1). G₁ phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis initiation of DNA replication. During G, phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.

2. S phase (Synthesis). S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

3. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number, if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G₁, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.

4. G₂ phase (Gap 2). In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm during the G₂ phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis White cell growth continues.

Question 4.
Why is mitosis called equational division?
Answer:
Since the number of chromosomes remains same in parent and daughter cells so mitosis is also called a equational division.

Question 5.
Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Metaphase I of meiosis
4. Prophase I of meiosis

Question 6.
What is the significance of meiosis?
Answer:
Significance of Meiosis:

1. Maintaining genetic identity by maintaining number of chromosomes.
2. Bringing variations to ensure better species.
3. Facilitates sexual reproduction.

Question 7.
Discuss with your teacher about.

1. haploid insects and lower plants where cell division occurs, and
2. Some haploid cells in higher plants where cell division does not occur.

Answer:

1. Male bees, wasps and ants are haploid organisms because they are produced from unfertilized eggs.
2. Synergids and antipodal cells in the ovule don’t undergo cell division.

Question 8.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in ‘S’ phase?
Answer:
DNA replication is necessary for cell division, and cell division cannot happen without DNA replication.

Question 9.
Can there be DNA replication without cell division?
Answer:
DNA replication takes place in order to prepare for cell division. Cell division is the next logical step after DNA replication.

Question 10.
Analyse the events during every stage of cell cycle and notice how the following two parameters change

1. number of chromosomes (N) per cell
2. amount of DNA content (C) per cell

Answer:

1. Number of chromosomes remains same after mitotic cell division and becomes half after meiotic cell division.
2. During S phase the DNA content doubles, but number of chromosomes remains the same.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in which
(a) there is no growth of cells
(b) the nucleus does not participate
(c) no spindle develops to guide the cells
(d) the plasma membranes of daughter cells do not separate.
Answer:
(a) there is no growth of cells

Question 2.
In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes
Answer:
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament

Question 3.
During mitosis, the number of chromosomes gets
(a) change
(b) no change
(c) maybe change if cell is mature
(d) maybe change if cell is immature
Answer:
(b) no change

Question 4.
A diploid living organism develops from zygote by which type of the following repeated cell divisions?
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) fragmentation
(d) Mitosis
Answer:
(d) Mitosis

Question 5.
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase
Answer:
(a) Metaphase

Question 6.
At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separated and passes to different poles
(a) prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(c) anaphase

Question 7.
The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome represent
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
(b) homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
(c) non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
(d) maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Answer:
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase

Question 8.
The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
(a) nucleus
(b) chromosomes
(c) cytoplasm
(d) nucleus and cytoplasm
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 9.
Which of the following serves as mitotic spindle poison?
(a) Ca2
(b) azide
(c) Tubulin
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 10.
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs at which stage?
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Metaphase
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(a) Zygotene

Question 11.
In meiosis, division is
(a) I reductional and II equational
(b) I equational and II reductional
(c) Both reductional
(d) Both equational
Answer:
(a) I reductional and II equational

Question 12.
Which type of chromosomes segregate when a cell undergoes meiosis?
(a) Homologous chromosomes
(b) Non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) centric and acentric chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes

Question 13.
Chiasmata are most appropriately observed in meiosis during
(a) diakinesis
(b) diplotene
(c) metaphase-ll
(d) pachytene
Answer:
(b) diplotene

Question 14.
During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of homologous chromosomes. This event is called
(a) interference
(b) complementation
(c) non-disjunction
(d) coincidence
Answer:
(c) non-disjunction

Question 15.
The second meiotic division leads to
(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) fresh DNA synthesis
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere
(d) separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere

Question 16.
Term meiosis was proposed by
(a) Farmer and Moore
(b) Flemming
(c) Strasburger
(d) Darlington
Answer:
(a) Farmer and Moore

Question 17.
Synapsis occurs in the phase of meiosis.
(a) zygotene
(b) diplotene
(c) pachytene
(d) leptotene
Answer:
(a) zygotene

Question 18.
When the number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the necessity of second meiotic division
(a) The division is required for the formation of four gametes
(b) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid chromosomes
(c) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes
Answer:
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes

Students can Download Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1
Which one of the following is also known as an antidiuretic hormone?
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Calcitonin
Answer:
(b) Vasopressin

Question 2.
A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs.
(a) CO₂ only
(b) H₂O only
(c) CO₂ and H₂O
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(c) CO₂ and H₂O

Question 3.
The pH of human urine is approximately
(a) 6.5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 7.5
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Uricotelic ________ Birds
(b) Ureotelic _________ Insects
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole
(d) Ureotelic _________ Elephant
Answer:
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole

Question 5.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces.
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tabule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.
Answer:
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.

Question 6.
Take the odd one justify?
GFR, JGA, ANF, ADH, TSH
Answer:
TSH: all others are the hormones regulate urine formation.

Question 7.
Identify the ammonotelic animal from the following and give reason. (Man, Crow, Lizard, Tadpole)
Answer:
Tadpole

Question 8.
While studying the excretory system in man, a student noticed some words.
RAAS and JGA. Can you help him to expand these terms.
Answer:
RAAS – Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone System
JGA – Juxta glomerular apparatus

Question 9.
In ureotelic animals, urea is produced in
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Flame cells
(d) Malpighian tubules
Answer;
(b) Liver

Question 10.
State whether true or false and correct the false statements if any:

1. Flame cells are the excretory structures in round worms.
2. Fat is absorbed in the form of chylomicrons through the intestinal villi.
3. Blood is absent in cockroach.
4. Joint between atlas and axis vertebrae is a pivot joint.

Answer:

1. False – Flame cells are the excretory structures in flat worms.
2. True
3. False – Blood is present in cockroach. It is colourless.
4. True

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the schematic diagram of the urine formation. (Hint: Show all the three process involved)
Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences.

1. Reabsorption of water from DCT is facilitated by the hormone __________
2. Kidney failure can cause a bone disorder called _________
3. Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to release __________
4. In cases of Kidney failure, urea can be removed by the process called __________

Answer:

1. ADH
2. Gout
3. Aldosterone
4. Hemodialysis

Question 3.
Pick out the correct word from list provided (Myasthenia gravis, Uremia, Angina, diuresis)

1. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction is __________
2. Reduce loss of water through urine is _________
3. A system of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle is _________
4. Accumulation of urea in blood is __________

Answer:

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Diuresis
3. Angina
4. Uremia

Question 4.
Classify the following animals according to their type of excretion.
Frog, Tadpole, birds, man, Turtle, shark, insect, camel
Answer:

Question 5.
Tadpole is ammonotelic while the frog is ureotelic. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
Tadpole larvae’s habitat is aquatic whereas the frog lives in the terrestrial habitat. So in the aquatic habitat due to the presence of water, ammonia can be excreted easily.

But in frog the water must be conserved. So ammonia is changed into urea which needs only small quantity of water for excretion.

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. Label the parts (1) and (2).
2. Name the functional unit of the kidney.

Answer:

1. The parts are:
   • (1) – Renal cortex
   • (2) – Ureter
2. Nephron

Question 7.
Rearrange the following parts in their correct way.
Glomerulus → Capsular space → loop of Henle → PCT → DCT → Collecting duct → Collecting tubule → Ureter → Renal pelvis → Urethra → Urinary bladder.
Answer:
Glomerulus → Capsular space → PCT → Loop of Henle → DCT →Collecting tubule → Collecting duct → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra.

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ____(1)____ to water. Whereas the descending limb is _____(2)_____ to it.
2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone __________
3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ________
4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _______ gm of urea/day.

Answer:

1. (1) – Impermeable, (2) -Permeable
2. ADH
3. Nitrogenous wastes
4. 25-30 gm of urea/day

Question 9.
Brain controls the kidney action.

1. Name the hormones involved in this.
2. How do they act on kidney?

Answer:

1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
2. The pituitary gland release the hypothalamic hormone ADH and its is transported to the kidney. The presence of ADH makes the tubules permeable to water. Thus the water is conserved or excreted according to the presence of fluid level in the body.

Question 10.
A patient approaches a doctor having symptoms like excretion of large amount of urine, excessive thirst and dehydration.

1. Identify the disease.
2. Which hormone deficiency causes this disease?

Answer:

1. Diabetes insipidus
2. ADH

Question 11.
A table showing the average quantity of urine in a person in two different seasons are given.

1. Compare it. Do you agree with this table? State the reason for producing different Quantity in different season.
2. Name the hormone responsible for that.

Answer:

1. Amount of water in the body is low in summer season and increase its quantity in winter season. In summer season water lose is very high due to various reasons like evaporation. So body eliminate less amount of waterthrough urine to conserve water in the body
2. ADH or vasopressin

Question 12.
Teacher asks one of the student to name the excretory organs in man. He names three organs beside kidney. Teacher appreciates him for the correct answer.

1. What was his answer?
2. Give the excretory role of the above organs

Answer:

1. Liver, skin, lungs
2. the excretory role of the above organs
   • Liver – Excretes cholesterol, bile pigments, etc.
   • Skin – Sweat gland- Excretes excess sodium chloride, small amount of urea lactic acid etc. Sebaceous gland excretes lipids such as waxes, steroles, fatty acid etc.
   • Lungs – Excretes CO₂ and water

Question 13.
Observe the diagram

1. Copy the diagram and fill the gaps.
2. Write the concentration of glomerular filtrate (Isotonic, Hypotonic, Hypertonic) in the given regions of the nephron.
   • Proximal convoluted tubule
   • Descending limb
   • Ascending limb
   • Distal convoluted tubule

Answer:
1.

2. Concentration of glomerular filtrate

• Proximal convoluted tubule – isotonic
• Descending limb – hypertonic
• Ascending limb – hypotonic
• Distal convoluted tubule – Hypertonic

Question 14.
A patient with renal failure in waiting for a kidney donor for a transplantation operation. The urea level is high and the patient is developing symptoms of uremia. What method you can suggest to keep the patient live till a donor can be found. Explain the principle behind it.
Answer:
Haemodialysis. The haemodialyser has a cellophane tube bathed in a fluid with ionic concentration similarto that of plasma. The process of separation of small solutes from macromolecular colloids is done hereby the process of diffusion. So the blood will be free from urea, uric acid and creatinine.

Question 15.
About 125ml of glomerular filtrate is produced per minute in our kidney. However 1ml of urine is produced each minute. What happens to the other 124ml of the filtrate.
Answer:
In man about 125ml of glomerular filtrate is formed per minute. But most of the substances are reabsorbed into tubular network of capillaries. This process is known as selective reabsorption. High threshold substances reabsorbed by active transport and low threshold substances reabsorbed by diffusion.

Question 16.
Consumption of alcohol tends to frequent urination.

1. Name the hormone that control it.
2. Draw a flow chart showing the action of ethanol present in alcohol and its consequences on urinary system.

Answer:
1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

2.

Question 17.
Prepare a flow chart showing hormonal control by Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) in regulation of kidney function.
Answer:

Question 18.
Flow of blood in vasa recta is known as counter current system. Give reason.
Answer:
The vasa recta is thin walled capillaries lying parallel to the loop of Henle. The blood entering the descending limb of each vasarecta come in close contact with the outgoing blood in ascending limb. This system is called counter current system.

The two limbs of the loop of Henle form another counter current system. These two systems are concentrating the urine in mammalian kidney by diffusion and osmosis.

Question 19.
‘Micturition is an involuntary as well as a voluntary process.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:
The elimination of urine from the urinary bladder is called micturition. The gradual filling of the urinary bladder causes stretching. When the bladder is filled to its limit, the stretch receptors send impulses to the brain to excrete the urine.

The initiation and inhibition of micturition is voluntary in adult but involuntary in children. Due to lack of nervous control the micturition in some humans become involuntary causing bed wetting.

Question 20.
In alcoholic drinkers the urine is dilute. Why?
Answer:
The process of reabsorption of water by the distal parts ofthe kidney tubules become low efficient. This occurs due to the deficiency of ADH. lt leads to diabetes insipedus.

Question 21.
Distinguish between diabetis mellitus and diabetis insipedus.
Answer:
Insulin deficiency causes large amounts of blood sugar to be lost in the urine. It leads to diabetis melitus while the deficiency of ADH leads to diabetes insipedus i.e dilute urine disease.

Question 22.
The failure of removing toxic substances from the blood ultimately leads kidney failure.

1. How is it temporarily solved.
2. Name the machine is used.

Answer:

1. Hemodialysis is an artificial process of removing toxic substances from the blood
2. Artificial kidney or Hemodialysis machine.

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the differences between the following.

1. Tubular reabsorption and Tubular secretion.
2. ADH and RAAS.

Answer:
1. Tubular reabsorption:
The process of selective reabsorption of most of the useful substances from the glomerular filtrate in the renal tubule.

Tubular secretion:
It is the process of active secretion of certain substances such as Hydrogen ions, ammonia etc. from the blood into the lumen of the urinary tubules by the tubular epithelium during urine formation.

2. ADH:
ADH is the hormone from posterior pituitary gland, makes the wall of the distal convoluted tube and collecting tubule permeable to water so that more water is reabsorbed.

RAAS:
Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone system increases the blood pressure by constricting arterioles and increases the blood volume by stimulating proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 2.

1. What does the diagram represent?
2. Name the parts A, B, C, D.
3. What is the physiological function taking place in part ‘B.

Answer:

1. Nephron
2. The parts are
   • A – Bowman’s capsule
   • B – Henle’s loop
   • C – Proximal convoluted tubule
   • D – Collecting duct

3. Henle’s loop is the site of osmoregulation in human kidney. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolyte actively or passively.

Therefore, as the concentrated filtrate pass upward, it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions.

1. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C, D.
2. What does the diagram represents?

Answer:

1. The labelled parts are
   • A – Afferent arteriole
   • B – Efferent arteriole
   • C – Glomerulus
   • D – Bowman’s capsule
2. Glomerular Filtration

Question 4.
Observe the diagram given below which represents the counter current system in nephron and vasa recta. This mechanism helps in maintaining concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. Substantiate.

Answer:
The flow of Glomerular filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a counter current. The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter current pattern.

The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium i.e, from 300 mOsmolL1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NACI and urea. NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta.

Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which in transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule. This counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Question 5.
The steps involved in the treatment of a uremic patient is given below.

1. Complete the missing steps (a) and (b)
2. Diagonise the treatment
3. Name the organ which is under failure

Answer:

1. The missing steps are
   • (a) – Anticoagulant like heparin
   • (b) – Anti – heparin
2. Hemodialysis
3. Kidney

Question 6.

1. Name the mechanism by which JGA plays a complex regulatory role.
2. Draw a flow chart showing the mechanism.
3. Mention the feed back which act as a check on the above mechanism,

Answer:
1. Renin-Angiotensin mechanism

2.

3. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure. ANF mechanism act as a check on the renin-Angiotensin mechanism.

Question 7.
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest a suitable word in the missing place.

1. Cockroach – Malpighian Tubule : Flatworm – _________
2. Man – Kidney : Earthworm – _________
3. Prawn – Greengland : Amphioxus – __________

Answer:

1. Flame cells
2. Nephridia
3. Protonephridia

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate(GFR)
Answer:
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute is called glomercular filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day. On an average, 1100 -1200 ml of blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.

Question 2.
Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Answer:
Regulation of GFR. The kidney have built-in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate. One such efficient mechanism is carried out by juxta glomerular apparatus(JGA).

JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the glomercular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

Question 3.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false:

1. Micturition is carried out by a reflex
2. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic.
3. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule.
4. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine.
5. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tublue.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

Question 4.
Give a brief account of the counter mechanism.
Answer:
Counter current Mechanism. The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a countercurrent.

The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a countercurrent pattern. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary in terstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmolL^-1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL^-1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NaCI and urea. NaCI is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta. NaCI is returned to the intestitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.

Question 5.
What is meant by the term osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the regulation of blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic concentration

Question 6.
Match the items of column I with those of column II.
Column I Column II

Column I	Column II
(a) Ammonotelism	(i) Birds
(b) Bowman’s capsule	(ii) Water reabsorption
(c) Micturition	(iii) Bony fish
(d) Uricotelism	(iv) Urinary bladder
(e) ADH	(v) Renal tubule

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (i)
(e) – (ii)

Question 7.
Name the following.

1. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures.
2. Cortical portions projecting between the medullary pyramids in the human kidney.
3. A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle’s loop.

Answer:

1. Cephalochordata
2. Columns of Bertini
3. Vasa Recta

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ________ to water whereas the descending limb is __________ to it.
2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone ___________
3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ___________
4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _________gm of urea/day.

Answer:

1. impermeable, permeable
2. ADH
3. nitrogenous waste
4. 25 to 30

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed’?
(a) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(b) Micturition will continue
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(d) There will be no micturition
Answer:
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

Question 2.
Green glands present in some arthropods help in
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) reproduction
Answer:
(b) excretion

Question 3.
Excretory product of spider is
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) guanine
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) guanine

Question 4.
Which one is the component of ornithine cycle
(a) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
(c) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
(d) Amino acids are not used
Answer:
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

Question 5.
Urea synthesis occurs in
(a) kidney
(b) liver
(c) brain
(d) muscles
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 6.
Renin is secreted from
(a) juxtaglomerular cells
(b) podocytes
(c) nephridia
(d) stomach
Answer:
(a) juxtaglomerular cells

Question 7.
Loop of Henle is associated with
(a) excretory system
(b) respiratory system
(c) reproductive system
(d) digestive system
Answer:
(a) excretory system

Question 8.
If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then
(a) BMR increases
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases
(c) RBC collapses and urine production decreases
(d) BMR decreases
Answer:
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases

Question 9.
The urine is
(a) hypotonic to blood and isotonic in medullary fluid
(b) hypotonic to bloodand isotonic to medullary fluid
(c) isotonic to blood and hypotonic to medullary fluid
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
Answer:
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid

Question 10.
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate’?
(a) Water
(b) Glucose
(c) Urea
(d) Plasma proteins
Answer:
(d) Plasma proteins

Question 11.
A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate
(a) gets coiected in the renal pelvis
(b) is lost as sweat
(c) is stored in the urinary bladder
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood
Answer:
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood

Question 12.
The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are
I. They are nitrogenous wastes.
II. They all need very large amount of water for excretion.
III. They are all equally toxic.
IV. They are produced in the kidneys.
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I only
Answer:
(d) I only

Question 13.
A bird excretes nitrogenous waste materials in the form of?
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) urea
(d) amino acids
Answer:
(a) uric acid

Question 14.
Which of the following is correct with reference to haemodialysis?
(a) Absorbs and resends excess of ions
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube
(c) Blood is pumped back through a suitable artery after haemodialysis
(d) Anti-heparin is added priorto haemodialysis
Answer:
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube

Question 15.
Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man.
(a) the glomerular filtration rate is about 125 mL/min
(b) the ultra filtration is opposed by the colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT
(d) aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium
Answer:
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT

Question 16.
The excretory material of bony fish is
(a) urea
(b) protein
(c) ammonia
(d) amino acid
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 17.
The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of
(a) urea
(b) uric acid
(c) urochrome
(d) bilirubin
Answer:
(c) urochrome

Question 18.
Malpighian tubules are
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of frog
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) endocrine glands of insects
Answer:
(a) excretory organs of insects

Question 19.
The size of filtration slits of glomerulus
(a) 10wn
(b) 15nm
(c) 20nm
(d) 25nm
Answer:
(d) 25nm

Question 20.
The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous waste into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in man in the
(a) blood
(b) liver
(c) kidney
(d) skin
Answer:
(b) liver

Students can Download Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Trigonometric Functions

Plus One Maths Trigonometric Functions Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prove the following

Answer:
i) LHS

ii) LHS

iii) LHS = sin 2x + 2 sin 4x + sin 6x
= 2 sin 4xcos2x + 2sin 4x
= 2 sin 4x(cos2x + 1) = 4 cos² x sin 4x

iv) LHS

v) LHS

vi) LHS

vii) LHS = sin² 6x – sin² 4x

= 2 sin 10x sin(-2x)
= 2 sin 10x sin2x

viii) LHS

Question 2.
Find the general solution of the following equations.

1. cos4x = cos2x
2. sin 2x +cosx = 0
3. cos3x + cosx – cos2x = 0

Answer:
1. Given; cos 4x = cos 2x
⇒ cos4x – cos 2x = 0
⇒ -2 sin 3x sin x = 0
General solution is
⇒ sin3x = 0; ⇒ 3x = nπ ⇒ x = \(\frac{n \pi}{3}\), ∈ Z
Again we have;
⇒ sinx = 0; ⇒ x = nπ; n ∈ Z

2. Given; sin 2x + cosx = 0
⇒ 2sin xcosx + cosx = 0
⇒ cosx(2sin x + 1) = 0
General solution is
⇒ cosx = 0 ⇒ x = (2n + 1) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), n ∈ Z
Again we have; 2sin x + 1 = 0

3. Given; cos3x +cosx – cos2x = 0
⇒ 2 cos2x cosx – cos2x = 0
⇒ cos2x(2cosx – 1) = 0
General solution is

Again we have; 2cosx -1 = 0

Question 3.
In Triangle ABC, if a = 25, b = 52 and c = 63, find cos A and sin A.
Answer:

Question 4.
For any ΔABC, prove that a(b cosC – c cosB) = b² – c²
Answer:
LHS = ab cos C – ac cos B

Question 5.
For any ΔABC, prove that, \(\frac{\sin (B-C)}{\sin (B+C)}=\frac{b^{2}-c^{2}}{a^{2}}\).
Answer:

Question 6.

1. Convert \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) radian measure into degree measure. (1)
2. Prove that \(\frac{\sin 5 x+\sin 3 x}{\cos 5 x+\cos 3 x}=\tan 4 x\) (2)

Answer:
1. \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}=\frac{2 \pi}{3} \times \frac{180}{\pi}=120^{\circ}\)

2. LHS

Plus One Maths Trigonometric Functions Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For any ΔABC, prove that

Answer:

Question 2.
For any ΔABC, prove that \(\sin \frac{B-C}{2}=\frac{b-c}{a} \cos \frac{A}{2}\).
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) Which of the following is not possible. (1)
(a) sin x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) cos x = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(c) cosec x = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(d) tan x = 8
(ii) Find the value of sin 15°. (2)
(iii) Hence write the value of cos 75° (1)
Answer:
(i) (c) cosec x = \(\frac{1}{3}\)

(ii) sin 15° = sin(45° – 30°)
= sin45°cos30°- cos45°sin30°

(iii) sin 15° = sin(90° – 75°) = cos 75°

Plus One Maths Trigonometric Functions Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The angle of elevation of the top point P of the vertical tower PQ of height h from a point A is 45° and from a point B, the angle of elevation is 60°, where B is a point at a distance d from the point A measured along the line AB which makes angle 30° with AQ. Prove that d = h(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1).
Answer:

From the figure we have ∠PAQ = 45°, ∠BAQ = 30°and ∠PBH = 60°
in right ∆AQP
Clearly ∠APQ = 45°, ∠BPH = 30° , giving ∠APB = 15° ⇒ ∠PAB = 15°
In ∆APQ ,PQ = AQ = h
AP² = h² + h² = 2h² ⇒ AP = \(\sqrt{2}\)h
From ∆ABP,

Question 2.
A tree stands vertically on a hill side which makes an angle of 15° with the horizontal. From a point on the ground 35m down the hill from the base of the tree, the angle of elevation of the top of the tree is 60°. Find the height of the tree.
Answer:

Let BC represent the tree, A be the point 35m down the hill from the base of the tree and h be the height of the tree.
Clearly in ∆ABC
∠BAC = 60°- 15° =45°;
∠ACB = 30°; ∠ABC = 105°

Question 3.
(i) If sin x = cos x, x ∈ [0, π] then is
(a) 0
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(d) π
(ii) Write the following in ascending order of tits values, sin 100°, sin 0°, sin 50°, sin 200°
(iii) Solve: sin2x – sin4x + sin6x = 0
Answer:
(i) (b) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

(ii) sin 100° = sin(l 80 – 80) = sin 80°
sin 200° = sin(l 80° + 20°) = -sin 20°
The ascending order is
sin 200°, sin 0°, sin 50°, sin 100°

(iii) sin2x + sin6x – sin4x = 0
⇒ 2sin 4x cos2x – sin 4x = 0
⇒ sin 4x(2 cos 2x – 1) = 0
⇒ sin4x = 0 or (2cos2x – 1) = 0
⇒ 4x = nπ or cos2x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Plus One Maths Trigonometric Functions Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Convert the following degree measure into radian measure.
i)  45°
ii) 25°
iii) 240°
iv) 40°20′
v) -47°30′
Answer:

Question 2.
Convert the following radian measure into degree measure,
i)   6
ii) -4
iii) \(\frac{5 \pi}{3}\)
iv) \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\)
v) \(\frac{11}{16}\)
Answer:

Question 3.
The minute hand of a watch is 1.5 cm long. How far does its tip move in 40 minutes? (Use π = 3.14)
Answer:
60 minutes = 360 degrees.
1 minutes = 6 degrees.
40 minutes = 240 degrees.
240° = 240 × \(\frac{\pi}{180}=\frac{4 \pi}{3}\)
The required distance travelled = l = rθ
= 1.5 × \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\) = 2 × 3.14 = 6.28 cm

Question 4.
In a circle of diameter 40 cm, the length of a cord is 20 cm. Find the length of minor arc of the chord.
Answer:
The radius and chord join to form a equilateral triangle. Therefore
l = rθ = 20 × \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
= 20 × \(\frac{3.14}{3}\) = 20.933.

Question 5.
If the arcs of the same lengths in the two circles subtend angles 65° and 110° at the centre, find the ratio of their radii.
Answer:
We have l = rθ, the radius and angle are inversely proportional. Therefore;

Question 6.
Find the values of the other five trigonometric functions in the following; (2 score each)

1. cos x = \(-\frac{3}{5}\), x lies in the third quadrant.
2. cot x = \(-\frac{5}{12}\), x lies in the second quadrant.
3. sin x = \(\frac{1}{4}\), x lies in the second quadrant.

Answer:
1. Given;
cos x = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)

2. Given;
cot x = \(-\frac{5}{12}\)

3. Given;
sin x = \(\frac{1}{4}\); cosecx = 4

Question 7.
Find the value of the trigonometric functions. (2 score each)

Answer:

Question 8.
Find the value of the following.

iv) sin 75°
v) tan 15°
Answer:

iv) sin 75° = sin(45° + 35°)
= sin 45° cos30° + cos45° sin 30°

v) tan 15° = tan(45° – 30°) = \(\frac{\tan 45^{\circ}-\tan 30^{\circ}}{1+\tan 45^{\circ} \tan 30^{\circ}}\)

Question 9.
Find the principal and general solution of the following.

1. sin x = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
2. cosx = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
3. tan x = \(\sqrt{3}\)
4. cos ecx = -2

Answer:
1. Given; sin x = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = sin \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
General solution is; x = nπ + (-1)ⁿ\(\frac{\pi}{3}\),
n ∈ Z
Put n = 0, 1 we get principal solution; x = \(\frac{\pi}{3} ; \frac{2 \pi}{3}\).

2. Given; cosx = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = cos \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
General solution is; x = 2nπ ± \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), n ∈ Z
Put n = 0, 1 we get principal solution;
n = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\); n = 1 ⇒ x = 2π – \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = \(\frac{5\pi}{3}\).

3. Given; tan x = \(\sqrt{3}\) = tan\(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
General solution is; ⇒ x = nπ + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), n ∈ Z
Put n = 0, 1 we get principal solution;
n = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\); n = 1 ⇒ x = π + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = \(4\frac{\pi}{3}\).

4. Given; cosecx = -2
⇒ sin x = \(-\frac{1}{2}\) = – sin \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = sin(-\(\frac{\pi}{6}\) )
General solution is; x = nπ – (-1)ⁿ \(\frac{\pi}{6}\), n ∈ Z
Put n = 1, 2 we get principal solution;