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Students can Download Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following roles is not characteristic of an essential element?
(a) being a component of biomolecules
(b) changing the chemistry of soil
(c) being a structural component of energy-related chemical compounds
(d) activation or inhibition of enzymes
Answer:
(b) changing the chemistry of soil

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.

Question 3.
During protein synthesis subunits of ribosomes are combined due to the presence of the particular element. Name it.
Answer:
Magnesium

Question 4.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves.
It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(a) sulphur
(b) Magnesium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) sulphur

Question 5.
With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true.
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
(b) Nitrogenase is MO- Fe protein
(c) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.
(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N₂ gas into two molecules of ammonia.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

Question 6.
Name the free-living microorganisms which can fix nitrogen.
Answer:
Azotobactor and Rhodospirillum

Question 7.
In what form do plants absorb molebdenum from the soil.
Answer:
Molybdate ions M_oO₂²⁺

Question 8.
Mineral requirements of plants is explained by a method in the nutrient solution is Called ………. and it was demonstrated by ……….. for the first time.
Answer:
Hydroponics,Julius von sachs

Question 9.
Find the odd one out.
Boron, Copper, Zinc, Phosphorous
Answer:
Phosphorous

Question 10.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of the solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic Solution.

Question 11.
Plants can be cultivated in water. Name the type of cultivation.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Question 12.
Find the odd one among the following Carbon, Manganese, potassium, Nitrogen
Answer:
Manganese

Question 13.
A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to the soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 14.
In the diagram below, Label the cell Ain Nostoc

Answer:
Heterocyst

Question 15.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.

Question 16.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
Answer:
Sulphur or calcium

Question 17.
From where do plants receive hydrogen?
Answer:
Water absorbed by plants.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give example for

1. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria.
2. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.

Answer:

1. Acetobacter, Nitrococcus
2. Rhizobium

Question 2.
Crop plants cannot grow well in the nitrogen-deficient soil while plants like Drosera and Nepenthes show vigorous growth.

1. Justify the statement
2. Mention any two deficiency shown by such crop plants.

Answer:
1. These plants are insectivorous plants. They capture and feed on insects in order to maintain the N₂ content of their body.

2. Two deficiency shown by such crop plants

• Stunted growth
• Chlorosis

Question 3.
Study the relation of the given pair and fill up the blanks:

1. Potassium: Stomatal movement:………… Constituent of chlorophyll
2. ………………: pollen germination Zinc: biosynthesis of auxin.
3. Ion exchange: Passive absorption ………….: Active absorption
4. Protoplasmic streaming theory: De Vries: ………….Active absorption

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron
3. Carrier concept
4. Munch

Question 4.
Plants can be grown in defined nutrient solution in the absence of soil.

1. Name the technique.
2. Who demonstrated the technique for the first time?

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. Julius von sachs

Question 5.
How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
In leguminous plants, the enzyme nitrogenase is protected from Oxygen by the pigment leghaemoglobin.

Question 6.
The functional roles of certain essential elements are given below. Identify the element based on the function.

1. Essential for the formation of Chlorophyll.
2. Involved in the pollen germination.

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron

Question 7.
Explain the scientific reason for growing legume crops prior to cereal crops.
Answer:
Increase the fertility of the soil. Biological N₂ fixation.

Question 8.
Name the pink coloured pigment present in the root nodules? Write its role in N₂ fixation?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger. It creates anaerobic condition for the action of nitrogenase enzyme to fix N₂.

Question 9.
Give example for the following taking part in biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Free-living N₂ fixing bacteria
2. Free-living N₂ fixing cyanobacteria
3. Symbiotic N₂ fixing bacteria.
4. Symbiotic N₂ fixing cyanobacteria

Answer:

1. Azotobacter, Clostridium
2. Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatonia.
3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
4. Nostoc, Anabaena

Question 10.
Prepare a flow chart which shows the conversion of N₂ to ammonia in biological N₂ fixation.
Answer:

Question 11.
A pigment similar to hemoglobin is present in leguminous plants. Name the pigment and write its role.

OR

How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin which is the scavenger of 0₂. Nitrogenase enzyme needs oxygen-free condition.

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. Name this technique.
2. Write two uses of this technique.

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. uses
   • Used as kitchen garden,
   • Used to study jdeficiency symptoms.

Question 13.
For the normal growth of plants it requires minerals. Write two examples of micro and macro elements.
Answer:

• Macro – N, P
• Micro-Boron, copper

Question 14.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering.

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 15.
Iron is not a structural component of chlorophyll but its deficiency causes yellowing of leaves. Give reason.
Answer:
Iron activates catalise enzyme in the formation of chlorophyll.

Question 16.
Amides are derivatives of amino acids in which the hydroxyl group is replaced by the amino group (NH2)
a) How are asparagine and glutamine formed.
b) Amides contain more than amino acids.
Answer:

Question 17.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu
• Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 18.
A farmer supplies Nitrogen fertilizer to pea plants.

1. Is there any necessity to supply Nitrogen fertilizer?
2. Justify your answer with reason.

Answer:

1. No
2. Symbiotic N2 fixation

Question 19.
Name the respecive mineral nutrient element that

1. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
2. Activates carboxylases
3. Forms the components of nitrogenase
4. Synthesises middle lamella of plant cell.

Answer:

1. Magnesium
2. Manganese
3. Molybdenum and iron
4. Calcium

Question 20.
Observe the relationship between the first pair and fill in the blanks.
Posassium: Opening and closing of stomata::
Boron: …………
Answer:
Boron: Pollen germination/ pollen tube growth

Question 21.
State whether True or False.

1. Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
2. The movement of ions is usually called flux.
3. In an LHC (Light-Harvesting complex), Chlorophyll b is the reaction center.
4. The first stable product in calvin cycle is 3-PGA.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

Question 22.
A few inorganic elements are given. Match them with their specific functions.

Elements	Function
1. Potassium	a. Absorption and translocation
2. Magnesium	b. Pollen germination
3. Molybdenum	c. Opening and closing of Stomata
4. Boron	d. Maintain ribosome structure

Answer:

Elements	Function
1. Potassium	Opening and closing of stomata
2. Magnesium	Maintain ribosome structure
3. Molybdenum	Absorption and translocation
4. Boron	Pollen germination

Question 23.
Pick the suitable minerals from the list, for following processes?

1. Synthesis of auxin
2. Pollen germination
3. Photolysis of water
4. Nitrogen metabolism

Answer:

1. Zn
2. B
3. Mn
4. Mo

Question 24.
Rhizobium leguminosarum cannot do N₂ fixation outside root nodules. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rhizobium can fix atmospheric N₂ only if the symbiotic relationship with leguminose plant is established.

Question 25.
What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Answer:
It acts as 0₂ scavenger that means it helps in preventing the combining of 0₂ with nitrogenase.

Question 26.
Leguminous plants can be cultivated in between rice cultivation. Why?
Answer:
Because it increases the fertility of soil (enrich N₂ content) for next year rice cultivation.

Question 27.
Match the element with its associated functions/ roles.

A. Boron	i. Splitting of H2O to liberate o2 during photosynthesis
B. Manganese	ii. needed for the synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenum	iii. component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc	iv. Pollen germination
E. Iron	v component of ferredoxin

Answer:

1. A – iv
2. B – i
3. C – iii
4. D – ii
5. E – v

Question 28.
To get maximum yeild a farmer added exess amount of manganese-containing fertiliser. The plants showed some deficiency symptoms. Can you give the reason for this?
Answer:
Excess of the micronutrient -Mn causes Toxicity because it prevent the uptake of Iron, Magnesium, and calcium. This results in deficiency symptom.

Question 29.

1. Identify the phenomenon?
2. A pink coloured protein protects nitrogenase from oxygen. Name that protein.

Answer:

1. Ammonification
2. Leghemoglobin

Question 30.

A	B
Magnesium	Opening and closing of stomata
Calcium	Splitting of water
Potassium	Middle lamella
Chlorine	Chlorophyll

Answer:

A	B
Magnesium	Chlorophyll
Calcium	Middle lamella
Potassium	Opening and closing of stomata
Chlorine	Splitting of water

Question 31.

1. Name the oxygen-binding pigment found in the root nodule of plants like pea and bean.
2. What is the normal colour of this pigment?

Answer:

1. Leghemoglobin
2. Pink-colored

Question 32.
How the presence of magnesium fulfills the requirements of the essentiality of elements from growth and development of plants?
Answer:

1. It is a constituent of chlorophyll molecule and is essential for photosynthesis.
2. It cannot be replaced by any other element for the same function.
3. It is also required as a co-factor by many enzymes involved in cellular respiration and other metabolic pathways.

Question 33.
Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment?
Answer:
In prokaryotes, photosynthetic autotrophs (cyanobacteria) like nostoc and Anabaena have special N₂ fixing cell which helps in N₂ fixation.

Question 34.
How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.
Answer:
Sulphur, besides being present in some amino acids essential for protein synthesis, is also a constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins, and ferrodoxin which are involved in some biochemical pathways.

Question 35.
How do some bacteria carry out nitrification? What are such bacteria called?
Answer:
Such types of bacteria convert ammonia into nitrates and obtain energy for their activities. They are called chemosynthetic autotrophs.

Question 36.
Name the respective mineral nutrient elements of plants that:

1. Is needed in the synthesis of auxins
2. Is a constituent of ferredoxin
3. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
4. forms the components of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase

Answer:

1. Zinc
2. Sulphur
3. Magnesium
4. Molybdenum

Question 37.
Why do plants of legume family contain more protein than the other plants?
Answer:
Plants in legume family bears root nodules which bear symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria i.e rhizobium

Question 38.
Nepenthes carries out photosynthesis and still traps insects. Why?
Answer:
Nepenthes grow in nitrogen-deficient soils so these trap, digest and absorb amino acids from the insects supplementing their nitrogen supply.

Question 39.
Mycorrohiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this association gain from each other?
Answer:
It is an association of root and fungi in which surface area of root is increased and more minerals can be absorbed. Fungus get nutrients and sugar from the plant.

Question 40.
Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes and Venus flytrap have nutritional adaptations. Which nutrient do they especially obtain and from where?
Answer:
In these, insect body is digested and plant gets Nitrogen as nutrients.

Question 41.
How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of significance in nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus carry out denitrification process wherein the nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen thus contributing to the atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 42.
Think of a plant which lacks chlorophyll. From where will it obtain nutrition? Give an example of such a type of plant.
Answer:
This case is observed in total parasites. In such plants they absorb food, water, and minerals from host. Eg cuscuta.

Question 43.
Nitrogen is essential element for plants and is found in abundance as atmospheric nitrogen. But most plants unable to use it. Why is it so and in what form do plants utilize them?
Answer:
Most plants cannot use it because atmospheric nitrogen is inert in its nature. Nitrogen fixers in soil can convert nitrogen gas into nitrates or nitrite or ammonium forms. These compounds enter the plants as nutrients through the roots and are assimilated as organic nitrogen.

Question 44.
How insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements from insects and small animals trapped by their leaves(a pitcher).

Question 45.
All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival. Give reasons.
Answer:
The Criteria for essentiality are

1. The element must be necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction
2. In the absence of elements, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
4. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another.

Question 46.
Why is that in certain plants deficiency symptoms appear first in younger parts of the plant while in others they do so in mature organs?
Answer:

• If the elements are actively mobilized, the older part of plant show deficiency symptoms.
• If they are not mobilized, the deficiency symptoms are first observed in younger regions.

Question 47.
Mineral elements are re-exported from one place to other or some are immobile and deficiency symptoms observed

1. Which is the part of the plant show deficiency symptoms in the former?
2. Name the mineral element is immobile and which part of the plant shows deficiency symptoms?

Answer:

1. Older regions because minerals are remobilised from older regions into younger regions.
2. Ca, Deficiency symptoms are noticed in younger tissues because it forms the structural part.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the technical term for the following.

1. Leaf yellowing
2. death of tissues
3. soilless cultivation

Answer:

1. chlorosis
2. Necrosis
3. Hydroponics

Question 2.
Plants pick up nitrogen from the soil in the form of ammonia ions or nitrate ions, ammonia being the main product of biological nitrogen fixation. From the above view answer the following.
a) Which soil bacteria convert ammonia to NO₂ – and NO_3.
b) Draw a schematic diagram of progressive reduction of one molecule of nitrogen in the presentee of enzyme nitrogenase to yield two molecule of ammonia.
c) Name the enzyme for nitrogen assimilation in plants.
Answer:

Question 3.
Macro and micronutrients are required in particular amount for plants.

1. What will be the moderate increase of micronutrient affect the plants
2. Name the micronutrient helps in pollen germination
3. What is the concentration of macro and micronutrients required for plants?

Answer:

1. It cause toxicity to plants and affect the uptake and utilisation of macronutrients
2. Boron
3. Macronutrients – Excess 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter
   Micronutrients – Less than 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter

Question 4.
During formation of nitrate in plants, different steps occur.

1. Name the steps leading to the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to nitrate
2. Which is the reductive and oxidative steps?
3. Name the pigments and Enzymes that are required and the steps they act on.

Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation, Nitrification
2. Nitrogen fixation—reductive process, Nitrification—Oxidative process
3. pigment—Leghaemoglobin, Enzyme— Nirogenase Pigments and enzymes acts on Nitrogen fixation step

Question 5.

1. Name the process
2. Which enzyme catalyses the process
3. How the enzyme in the process is protected from oxygen in root nodules?

Answer:

1. N₂ fixation
2. Nitrogenase
3. Due to the presence of pigment Leghemoglobin. It acts as the scavenger of oxygen.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival’. Comment.
Answer:
The criteria for essentially of an element are given below:

1. The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. In the absence of the element, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.

2. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be met by supplying some other element.

3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant. All elements that are present in a plant do not fulfill these criteria hence cannot be essential for plant survival.

Question 2.
Why is purification of water and nutrient salts so important in studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics?
Answer:
In 1860, Julius von Sachs, a prominent German botanist, demonstrated, for the first time, that plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution in complete absence of soil. The essence of all these methods involves the culture of plants in a soil-free, defined mineral solution. These methods require purified water and mineral nutrient salts.

Purification of water and nurtient salt is important to rule out other influencing factors. The presence of pure nutrients will give clearcut scientific results. This will help in making a sound basis for the right prediction.

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the formation of a root nodule?
Answer:
Steps in the development of root nodules:
1. Rhizobium bacteria contact a susceptible root hair, divide near it.

2. Upon successful infection of the root hair cause it to curl

3. Infected thread carries the bacteria to the inner cortex. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteriods and cause inner cortical and pericycle cells to divide. Division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.

4. A mature nodule is complete with vascular tissues continuous with those of the root.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
(a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(b) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
(c) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- thchlorophenoxy acetic acid
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
Answer:
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 2.
For nitrogen fixation, useful pigment is
(a) nitrogenase
(b) hemoglobin
(c) myoglobin
(d) leghaemoglobin
Answer:
(d) leghaemoglobin

Question 3.
Plants cultivated in nutrient solution without soil is called
(a) somatic hybridization
(b) tissue culture
(c) hydroponics
(d) suspension culture
Answer:
(c) hydroponics

Question 4.
The process of decay of dead organic matter is known as
(a) denitrification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) ammonification
Answer:
(d) ammonification

Question 5.
Zn, Mo, Fe, Cu are
(a) trace elements
(b) non-essentials
(c) macronutrients
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(a) trace elements

Question 6.
An essential element is that which
(a) improves health of the plant
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants
(c) is found in plant ash
(d) is available in the soil
Answer:
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants

Question 7.
N₂ +8e +8H +16ATP → 2NH₃+2H⁺ + 16ADP + 8e^– The above equation refers to
(a) amnionification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) denitrification
Answer:
(c) nitrogen fixation

Question 8.
Micronutrients are
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount
(b) less important than macronutrients
(c) called micro as they play only a minor role in plant nutrition
(d) required greater than 10m mole/Kg of dry matter
Answer:
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount

Question 9.
Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll?
(a) Potassium
(b) Manganese
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(d) Magnesium

Question 10.
Which element is required for the germination of pollen grains?
(a) Boron
(b) Calcium
(c) Chlorine
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Boron

Question 11.
Select the correct statement.
(a) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen
(b) Legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria living fruits
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules
(d) frankia forms symbiotic association with algae
Answer:
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules

Question 12.
Chlorosis is caused due to deficiency of
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium
(c) boron
(d) manganese
Answer:
(a) magnesium

Question 13.
Enzyme nitrogenase is responsible for
(a) nitrification
(b) nitrogen fixation
(c) nitrite reduction
(d) nitrate reduction
Answer:
(b) nitrogen fixation

Question 14.
Maximum percentage of which element occurs in plant ash?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Zinc
(c) Potassium
(d) Calcium
Answer:
(d) Calcium

Question 15.
Which of the following metals causes bone cancer
(a) Lead
(b) Cobalt
(c) Uranium
(d) strontium90
Answer:
(d) strontium90

Question 16.
Premature leaf fall is due to deficiency of
(a) phosphorus
(b) nitrogen
(c) calcium
(d) potassium
Answer:
(a) phosphorus

Question 17.
The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to
(a) convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
(b) convert ammonia to nitrite
(c) transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen
Answer:
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Question 18.
Which of the following gene is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation?
(a) Nitrogenase
(b) N if gene
(c) Yeast alanine tRNA synthetase
(d) RNA synthetase
Answer:
(b) N if gene

Students can Download Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Artificial system of classification is mainly based on
(a) vegetative characters
(b) androecium structure
(c) habit and habitat
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
Fusion between morphologically alike gametes is referred to as
(a) anisogamy
(b) isogamy
(c) oogamy
(d) sygamy
Answer:
(b) isogamy

Question 3.
Gametophytic generation is dominant in
(a) bryophytes
(b) pteridophytes
(c) angiosperms
(d) gymnosperms
Answer:
(a) bryophytes

Question 4.
Mycorrhizal roots of _____ are associated with some fungal symbionts
(a) Cedrus
(b) pinus
(c) cycas
(d) lichens
Answer:
(b) pinus

Question 5.
Haplontic life cycle is generally occurs in
(a) algae
(b) pteridophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) gymnosperms
Answer:
(a) algae

Question 6.
Name the type of cell division which produce four haploid cells with new combination of characters from a diploid cell.
Answer:
Meiosis.

Question 7.
Name the dominating pigment in red algae.
Answer:
Phycoerythrin

Question 8.
Name the algae from which algin is prepared commercially.
Answer:
Laminaria (brown algae)

Question 9.
Name the filamentous structure that appears in the mosses due to the germination of spores.
Answer:
Protonema

Question 10.
Give an example of plant group which produce seed but not fruit.
Answer:
Gymnosperms

Question 11.
What is the genetic constitution of endosperm of angiosperm.
Answer:
Triploid

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Bryophytes – Haplo-diplontic
   Gymnosperms – ________
2. Algin – Brown algae
   Carrageen – _______

Answer:

1. Diplontic
2. Red algae

Question 13.
If chlorophyll b is for Chlorophyceae, chlorophyll d is for _______
Answer:
Rhodophyceae

Question 14.
Pick out the correct pairs of plant groups that bearing archegonium.
(a) gymnosperm angiosperm
(b) angiosperm Bryophyta
(c) Bryophyta Pteridophyta
(d) Pteridophyta gymnosperm
Answer:
(d) Pteridophyta gymnosperm

Question. 15
Select the odd one.
(Nitrosomonas, archaebacteria, Nitrococcus, Nitrobacteria)
Answer:
Archaebacteria

Question 16.
The majority of pteridophytes are homosporous ie. they produce similar kind of spores. Give one example of a heterosporous pteridophyte.
Answer:
Selaginella

Question 17.
Archaebacteria, special type of bacteria, which are able to survive in extreme conditions, What is the feature helping them for this?
Answer:
Structure of the cell wall.

Question 18.
Complete the following:
1. Plasmogamy: Fusion of Protoplasms
……………: Fusion of nuclei
Answer:
karyogamy

Question 19.
Laminarin is a stored food in Phaeophyceae, what is the stored food in Rhodophyceae?
Answer:
Floridean starch

Question 20.
The essential element is present in the ring structure of chlorophyll. Which is the element?
Answer:
Mg.

Question 21.
By observing the relationship of the first and fill up the second.
1. Algae and Fungi: Lichen
Roots of higher plants and Fungus:………….
Answer:
Mycorrhiza

Question 22.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blank.

1. Moss: Protonema; Fern ………….
2. Egg: Zygote; …………; PEN

Answer:

1. Prothallus
2. Secondary Nucleus

Question 23.
Pick the odd one out from the following and justify your answer.
Chlamydomonas, Volvox, laminaria, Chara.
Answer:
laminaria-brown algae

Question 24.
Choose the correct answer.

1. food materials in fungi are stored in the form of (glucose, glycogen, sucrose, starch)
2. Membrane covering the vacuole (meninges, tonoplast, pleura).

Answer:

1. Glycogen
2. Tonoplast

Question 25.
Name the organisms which are not included in any of the kingdoms,
Answer:
Viruses

Question 26.
Name the plant group in which ‘protonema’ is present.
Answer:
Bryophytes

Question 27.
Observe the relationship between the first two pairs and fill up the blanks.

1. Sac fungi: Ascomycetes
   Imperfect fungi: …………
2. Transpiration: Loss of water in the form of water vapour.
   ……………: Loss of water in the form of liquid

Answer:

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Guttation

Question 28.
Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as
(a) Oogamy
(b) Isogamy
(c) Anisogamy
(d) Zoogamy
Answer:
(c) Anisogamy

Question 29.
Holdfast, stipe, and frond constitutes the plant body in case of
(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Chlorophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Phaeophyceae

Question 30.
Food is stored as Floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. Mannitol is the reserve food material of which group of algae?
Answer:
Brown algae

Question 31.
A plant shows thallus level of organization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It needs water to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the group to which it belongs to
Answer:
Bryophytes

Question 32.
My body is a gametophyte and I grow under moist and shaded conditions. My group is commonly known as amphibians of the plant kingdom. Name my group.
Answer:
Bryophyta

Question 33.
Name the gametophyte that is free-living structure formed in pteridophytes.
Answer:
Prothallus

Question 34.
The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are the organs used for the purpose of absorption. What is the equivalent of roots in the less developed lower plants?
Answer:
Rhizoids

Question 35.
Plants are generally autotrophic. Can you think of certain plants that are partially heterotrophic?
Answer:
Loranthus – Partial stem parasite

Question 36.
Choose the correct pair.
(a) Spirogyra – Algae
(b) Sphagnum – Gymnosperm
(c) Selaginella – Bryophyte
(d) Funaria – Pteridophyte
Answer:
(a) Spirogyra – Algae

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Diagrams of three bryophytes are given below.

 

1. Observe and give the names of these bryophytes.
2. Which of the three bryophytes is the most advanced?

Answer:
1. names of these bryophytes.

• A – Riccia,
• B – Marchantia,
• C – Funaria

2. Funaria

Question 2.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Kingdom fungi – multicellular decomposer
   Kingdom Plantae – _____________
2. Gymnosperm – Cone
   Angiosperm – _____________

Answer:

1. Kingdom plantae – multicellular producers
2. Angiosperm – flower

Question 3.
Bryophytes are “amphibians of the plant kingdom”. Comment.
Answer:
The vegetative structure are well adapted to live on land but water is essential for fertilization.

Question 4.
Prothallus is the gametophytic stage of Pteridophyte What is protonema?
Answer:
Protonema is the young stage of moss gametophyte

Question 5.

A	B
Chlamydomonas Cycas Selaginella Sphagnum	Moss Pteridophytes Algae gymnosperms

Answer:

A	B
Chlamydomonas Cycas Selaginella Sphagnum	Algae Gymnosperms Pteridophytes Moss

Question 6.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 7.
Lichens are the symbiotic association between algae and fungi.

1. What is symbiosis?
2. How both the partners help each other?

Answer:
1. Relationship between 2 organisms, both are benefited.

2. Algae – prepare food
Fungus – Gives shelter to algae

Question 8.
Arrange the following plants in the table given below, (two members from each group)
Riccia, Spirogyra, Adiantum, Chlorella, Funaria, Cycas, Nephrolepis, Pinus.

Answer:

Question 9.
The following is a list of plants. Arrange them in the table given below.
Marchantia, Selaginella, Salvinia, Sunflower, Funaria, Pinus, Maize, Cycas.

Answer:

Question 10.

1. Identify the life cycle pattern?
2. Cite two examples of organisms showing the above life cycle pattern?

Answer:

1. Haplo-diplontic.
2. Bryophytes and pteridophytes

Question 11.
The classical Taxonomy of organisms is mainly based . on morphological characters. But modern taxonomy gives equal weightage to all characters.
Answer:

1. Name this new approach in modern taxonomy.
2. Mention any two branches of this taxonomy.

Answer:

1. Numerical taxonomy
2. Chemo taxonomy, cytotaxonomy

Question 12.

A	B
Sargassum Bryophyte ABA Ribosomes Anabaena	Stomatal movement Palade N2 fixation Brown alga Sphagnum

Answer:

A	B
Sargassum	Brown alga
Bryophyte	Sphagnum
ABA	Stomatal movement
Ribosomes	Palade
Anabaena	N2 fixation

Question 13.
Pick up the odd one.

1. Oscillatoria, Spirulina, Actinomycetes, Nostoc
2. Epipetalous, Epiphyllous, Monadelphous, Apocarpous.

Answer:

1. Actinomycetes
2. Apocarpous

Question 14.
Green algae are considered as the ancestors of angiosperms.

1. Is this statement correct?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Chloroplast is present

Question 15.
Red algae reach the maximum depth in sea where no other photosynthetic form grow. Justify.
Answer:
The pigment phycoerythrin absorb the blue-green part of the sunlight’s spectrum. The blue-green light has short wavelength and penetrates deep into the water.

Question 16.
During summer you cannot see the growth of Funaria. What is the reason for this?
Answer:
Water is needed for reproduction – amphibians of plant kingdom.

Question 17.
By observing the relationship between the first pair, fill up the blanks.

1. Chlorophyceae: Starch: Rhodophyceae: ……………….
2. Moss:Protonema; Nephrolepis : ………….

Answer:

1. Floridean starch
2. Prothallus

Question 18.
Match the following. (Column I with Column II)

Answer:

Column I	Column II
a) Chlamydomonas	Algae
b) Cycas	Gymnosperm
c) Selaginella	Pteridophyte
d) Sphagnum	Moss

Question 19.
Observe the relationship between first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Phycobiont: Algal partner
   ……………: Fungal partner
2. Rhizopus: Phycomycetes
   Penicillin: ………….

Answer:

1. Mycobiont
2. Ascomycetes

Question20.
When & where does reduction division takes place in the life cycle of liverwort, moss, ferns, gymnosperm, and angiosperm?
Answer:

• Liver wort – Reduction division takes place inside the capsule at the time of spore production.
• Moss – Reduction division takes place inside the capsule at the time of spore formation.
• Ferns- Reduction division takes place in sporangium in the leaves at the time of spore formation.
• Gymnosperm – Reduction divsion takes place in the sporangium born on sporophyte of cone.
• Angiosperm – reduction division takes place at the time of gamete formation in male & female gametophyte during sexual reproduction.

Question 21.
Observe the given table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 22.
Complete the table using appropriate terms.

Answer:

Question 23.
What is the basis of the classification of algae?
Answer:
Algae is classified on the basis of pigment Sreserve food.
Eg:

• Green algae(Chlorophyceae)
• Red algae(Rhodophyceae)
• Brown algae(Phaeophyceae)

Question 24.
Liverworts, mosses and ferns usually grow near water. Comment.
Answer:
External water is required for dehiscence of antheridia, liberation of antherozoids, transfer of antherozoids from antheridia to archegonia, opening of archegonial neck and the movement of antherozoids into the archegonial neck for fertilisation during sexual reproduction.

Question 25.
Both gymnosperm & Angiosperm are seed-bearing plants. Why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Gymnosperm and angiosperm are seed-producing plants. In gymnosperm ovules or seeds are not enclosed by ovary wall after fertilisation. In angiosperm, the seeds are protected by ovary wall after fertilisation.

Question 26.
Some characteristic features of the plant is given below.

• The main plant body posesses rhizoids.
• The nucleus of main plant body have haploid chromosome number.
• Zygote develops into a new plant which is dependant on main plant body.
• The sporophyte has foot, seta, and capsule.

1. Identify the plant.
2. Name the cells where reduction division (meiosis) takes place in the life cycle of the plant.
Answer:

1. Moss plant
2. Spore mother cells

Question 27.
Differentiate between the following,

1. Red algae & Brown algae
2. Liverworts & Mosses
3. Homosporous & Heterosporous
4. Sygamy & Triple fusion

Answer:
1.

Red Algae	Brown Algae
1. Rhodophycea	1. Phaeophycea
2. Predominant pigment is phycoerythrin	2. Predominant pigment is fucoxanthin
3. Stored food is laminarin and mannitol	3. Stored food is floridean starch

2.

Liver worts	Mosses
1. Dorsiventral thallus	1. The plant is upright bearing leaves, & rhizoids
2.  Asexual reproduction by fragmentation & gemma	2. Asexual reproduction by budding
3.  Protonema absent	3.  Protonema stage present

3.

Homosporous	Hetero sporous
1.  Spores are of same type	1.  Spores produce are 2 types
2.  Gametophyte is prothallus & develops male & female sex organs	2.  Female Gemetophyte is retained in the parent sporophyte

4.

Sygamy	Triple fusion
1. The fusion between egg & sperm to give rise to diploid zygote egg + sperm = zygoten           n              2n	1. The fusion between the secondary nucleus and male gamete to form the Primary endosperm nucleus. secondary nucleus + sperm =PEN                                     n                                  n           2n

Question 28.
The following is a list of plants.
Riccia, Chlorella, Selaginella, Adiantum, Chalamydomas, Sugarcane, Funaria, Gnetum, Ficus, Cycas. Categorise these plants into Algae, Bryophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms.
Answer:

• Algae – Chlorella, Chlamydomonas
• Bryophytes – Riccia, Funaria
• Pteridophytes – Selaginella, Adiantum
• Gymnosperms-Gnetum, Cycas
• Angiosperms- Sugarcane, Ficus

Question 29.
Some plants of cycas produce seeds, but not others. Justify.
Answer:
Cycas plants are dioecious. Male plants of cycas produce microsporophylls and female plants produce megasporophyll. So only female cycas produce seeds and not the males.

Question 30.
Complete the table using the following terms.

Primitive vascular plants, Sprogyra, Triploid endosperm, Marchantia, Naked seeded plants, Pteris, Aquatic autotrophs, Wolfie, Amphibians of plant Kingdom, Pinus
Answer:

Question 31.
The following is the list of plants Arrange them in the table given below.
Marchantia, Chlorella, Lycopodium, Adiantum, Clamydomonas, Sunflower, Funaria, Gnetum, Cycas, Maize.

Answer:

Question 32.
The haplodiplontic life cycle is present in fern plants. Justify your answer.
Answer:
ln fern plants, the haploid phase is alternate with diploid phase in life cycle. Haploid and diploid phases have equal weightage in life cycle.

Question 33.
What is mixotrophic mode of nutrition?
Answer:
It is the type of nutrition found in Euglena that means both autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 34.
Why seed plants are most successful of all land plants?
Answer:
They are most successful of all land plants because external supply of water is not required for fertilization.

Question 35.
How bryophytes are advanced over algae?
Answer:
In higher bryophytes plant body is differentiate into root-like,stem-like and leaf-like structures. They also shows amphibious habit.

Question 36.
Differentite between gametophyte and sporophyte.
Answer:
Gametophyte is haploid and bears gametes. Sporophyte is diploid and bears spores

Question 37.
In which plant will you look for mycorrhiza and corolloid roots? Also explain what these terms mean, pinus and cycas.
Answer:

1. Mycorrhiza – association of root and fungus
2. Corolloid root – association of root and N2 fixing cyanobacteria.

Question 38.
Why rhizoids are not called roots?
Answer:
Rhizoids are haploid and lack vascular tissue, on the other hand, roots are diploid and bear vascular tissue.

Question 39.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Because the gymnosperms are plants that bear ovules that are not covered by any ovary wall i.e the seeds of gymnosperms are not covered( naked). But in the angiosperms the seeds remain enclosed inside the fruits.

Question 40.
Why are some bryophytes called liverworts?
Answer:
Some bryophytes are called liverworts because their gametophyte resembles liver lobes.

Question 41.
Heterospory i.e., formation of two types of spores microspores and megaspores is a characteristic feature in the life cycle of a few members of pteridophytes and all spermatophytes. Do you think heterospory has some evolutionary significance in plant kingdom?
Answer:
It is considered as precursor to seed habit. The microspores of angiosperms develops into male gametophyte and megaspores develops into female gametophyte or embryosac.

Question 42.
Most algal genera show a haplontic lifestyle. Name an alga which is

1. Haplo-diplontic
2. Diplontic

Answer:

1. Ectocarpus, polysiphonia and kelps
2. Fucus

Question 43.
What is heterospory? Give its significance?
Answer:
Heterospory is the production of two kinds of spores in pteridophytes. EgfSalvina and Selaginella They produces 2 kind of spores i.e macrospores- these are large in size and microspores-these are small in size.

Question 44.
The spores and gametes produced by some members of algae are nonmotile.

1. Do you agree the above statement.
2. Give reasons.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. In members of red algae, the pear-shaped spores and gametes do not possess flagella, hence they are non-motile.

Question 45.
Nature of spore development is different in bryophytes and pteridophytes.

1. Give the common name for the structures arise from spores.
2. Identify these two.

Answer:

1. Gametophyte
2. Protonema and Prothallus

Question 46.

1. Name the diploid and triploid products formed in Embryosac after fertilisation.
2. What will be the fate of haploid structures not participate in fertilisation?

Answer:

1. Diploid – Zygote,
   Triploid – PEN
2. Synergids and antipodals degenerate after fertilisation.

Question 47.

1. Identify the types of associations in some members of gymnosperms
2. Name organisms forms in such associations

Answer:

1. Mycorrhiza and corrolloid root
   Mycorrhiza – pinus and fungus,
2. Corrolloid root – N2 fixing cyanobacteria and cycas

Question 48.

1. Differentiate the nature of plant body in Bryophytes and gymnosperms.
2. Identify the life cycle shown by the above two plant group

Answer:

1. Bryophytes – Thallus type (plant body is not differentiated)
   Gymnosperms – Plant body is differentiated into root, stem, and leaves
2. Bryophytes – Haplo-diplontic
   Gymnosperms – Diplontic

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mark the statement Ture or False,

1. Potato, ginger, turmeric are underground stems. They are modified to store food in them
2. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch
3. A flower having only stamens or carpel is bisexual.
4. Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs
5. Lamina is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets
6. In racemose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower.
7. Ovary in epigynous flower is superior
8. If the margin of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in particular direction, the aestivation is called imbricate.
9. A sterilse stamen is called staminode
10. The seed coat has two layers the outer testa and the inner tegmen.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

Question 2.
What is heterospory. Give brief account of its significance with examples.
Answer:
Hetrospory is the production of 2 types of spores, Macro (large) and Micro(Small). They give rise to female and male gametophyte respectively. The gamete fused to form zygote which retained in the female gametophyte. This event can be considered as a precursor of seed habit and is an important step in evolution.

Question 3.
Mention the ploidy of the following.

1. Protonemal cell of a moss
2. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot.
3. Leaf cell of moss.
4. Fern Prothalus
5. Meristem cell of monocot
6. Ovum cell of liverwort
7. Zygote of a fern

Answer:

1. n – Haploid
2. 3n triploid
3. n – haploid
4. n – haploid
5. 2n – diploid
6. n – haploid
7. 2n)diploid

Question 4.
Explain briefly the following term with suitable examples. Protonejjia, Antheridium, Archegonium, Diplonticand Sporophyll.
Answer:

1. Protonema – the 1st gametophytic stage developed by the germination of spores in Bryophytes
2. Antheridium – Male sex organs which produce flagellated motile male gamtes. eg: Bryophyte
3. Archegonium – Female sex organ which produce nonmotile egg it is a flask shaped. eg: pteridophyte & Gymnosperm
4. Diplontic – Diploid sporophytic generation is dominant photosynthetic independent phase of the plant and gametophytic phase is represented by haploid gametophyte eg: gymnosperm & angiosperm

Question. 5
Based on the relationship, fill in the blanks:

1. Nephrolepis:Prothallus:: Funaria: ……….
2. Penicillium: ………..:: Agaricus Basidiocarp
3. …………… Phaeophyceae::Carageen: Rhodophyceae

Answer:

1. Protonema
2. Conidia
3. Mannitol

Question. 6
A few statements regarding algae are given below. Study them carefully and state true or false. If false make them correct.

1. Algae are thallophytes.
2. Volvox is a red algae.
3. Algin is obtained from red algae.
4. Floridean starch is found in green algae.
5. Green algae are known as Rhodophyte.
6. Green algae possess chlorophyll a

Answer:

1. True
2. False. Green algae 1
3. False. Brown algae
4. False. Red algae
5. False. Chloropyta
6. True

Question.7
Write a note on the economic importance of algae & gymnosperm.
Answer:
Algae – increase the level of oxygen in enviomment. They are the chief producers in aquatic ecosystems Some species of brown algae like sargassum, laminaria & Porphyra are used as food. Red algae and brown algae produce hydrocolloids which are water-holding substances. Eg: Gracilaria & gelidium Clorella is used as food supplement by space travelers.

Gymnosperm – Produce alkaloids like terpentine from the stem. They are grown as an ornamental plant. Certain species like ephedra are medicinal.

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer:

• The easiest way is by looking at their seeds. Seeds of monocots have one cotyledon while that of dicots have two cotyledons.
• Dicots have tap root system, while monocots have fibrous root system.
• Dicots show reticulate venation, while monocots show parallel venation.

Question 2.
Match the followings (column I with column II)

Answer:

• a) – iii
• b) – iv
• c) – ii
• d) – i

Question 3.
What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples.
Answer:
Certain pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores. This phenomenon is called heterospory.

Question 4.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
The seeds of gymnosperms are naked, while that of angiosperms are covered by a membrane. That is why they are classified separately.

Question 5.
What is the basis of classification of algae?
Answer:
The main basis of classification of algae is the presence or absence of pigments, which impart an algae
its colour.
1. Chiorophyceae contains chlorophyll a and b, giving it the green colourand the name ‘green algae’.

2. Phaeophyceae contains chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin. The fucoxanthin gives it the brown colourand hence the name ‘brown algae’.

3. Rhodophyceae contains chlorophyll a and d and phycoerythrin. The phycoerythrin gives the distinct red colour and hence the name ‘red algae’.

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The major pigment present in brown algae is
(a) chlorophyll a
(b) fucoxanthin
(c) Floridian starch
(d) phycoerythrin
Answer:
(b) fucoxanthin

Question 2.
Hetrospory is first noticed in
(a) gymnosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperm
(d) ferns
Answer:
(b) pteridophytes

Question 3.
Mycorrhizal association is found in the root of
(a) ferns
(b) pinus
(c) cycas
(d) potytrichum
Answer:
(b) pinus

Question 4.
Which one of the following belongs to brown algae
(a) polysiphonia
(b) ectocarpus
(c) ulothrix
(d) volvox
Answer:
(b) ectocarpus

Question 5.
Sexual reproduction of bryophytes involves the production of
(a) sperms
(b) biflagellate antherozooids
(c) antheroids
(d) cilliate antherozooids
Answer:
(b) biflagellate antherozooids

Question 6.
The asexual reproductive structures occurs in bryophytes are
(a) zoospores
(b) gemmae
(c) fronds
(d) rhizoids
Answer:
(b) gemmae

Question 7.
Protonema stage occurs when
(a) spore of bryophytes germinate
(b) seed germinates
(c) spore of ferns germinate
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) spore of bryophytes germinate

Question 8.
PEN is formed in
(a) angiosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperm
(d) ferns
Answer:
(a) angiosperm

Question 9.
The life cycle occurs in ectocarpus is
(a) haplontic
(b) haplodiplontic
(c) diplontic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) haplodiplontic

Question 10.
Prothallus is
(a) photosynthetic gametophyte
(b) photosynthetic sporophyte
(c) non photosynthetic gametophyte
(d) non photosynthetic sporophyte
Answer:
(a) photosynthetic gametophyte

Question 11.
Phylogenetic system of classification is mainly based on
(a) embryological characters
(b) evolutionary characters
(c) morphological Characters
(d) floral characters
Answer:
(b) evolutionary characters

Question 12.
Classification based on cytological information, chromosome number etc.called
(a) chemotaxonomy
(b) cytotaxonomy
(c) numerical taxonomy
(d) cytogenetics
Answer:
(b) cytotaxonomy

Question 13.
In which of the following groups would you place plants having vascular tissue but lacking seeds
(a) pteridophytes
(b) gymnosperms
(c) angiosperms
(d) bryophytes
Answer:
(a) pteridophytes

Question 14.
Life cycle found in pteridophytes
(a) haplontic
(b) diplontic
(c) haplo-diplontic
(d) either haplontic or diplontic
Answer:
(c) haplo-diplontic

Question 15.
Fucoxanthin is the chief pigment in
(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) blue green algae
Answer:
(b) brown algae

Question 16.
Algae which grow on animals and also occur on shells of molluscs or other invertebrates are called
a) parasitic
b) epiphytic
c) epizoic
d) coenobia

Question 17.
Xylem of gymnosperm lack
(a) tracheids
(b) vessels
(c) both a and b
(d) fibres
Answer:
(b) vessels

Question 18.
Pyrenoids are present in
(a) angiosperms
(b) gymnosperms
(c) algae
(d) pteridophytes
Answer:
(c) algae

Question 19.
The first plants to appear after forest fire are the ferns this is because of the survival of their
(a) fronds
(b) rhizome
(c) spores
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(b) rhizome

Question 20.
The endosperm of gymnosperm is
(a) diploid
(b) triploid
(c) tetraploid
(d) haploid
Answer:
(d) haploid

 

Students can Download Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Plus One Digestion and Absorption One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries
(a) Bile
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

Question 2.
One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(a) Tetanus
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Jaundice
(d) Dysentery
Answer:
(a) Tetanus

Question 3.
A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal
(c) Liver
(d) Salivary gland
Answer:
(b) Adrenal

Question 4.
Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which is not correct
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Formation of bile
(d) Secretion of  hormone called gastric
Answer:
(d) Secretion of hormone called gastric

Question 5.
Mark the right statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancrease
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Answer:
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

Question 6.
The major health and nutritional problems mainly arises due to low amount of minerals and vitamins in diet. Name the two PEMs.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor, Marasmus

Question 7.
Deficiency symptoms of a disease are given below: Identify it.
Thin Limbs, retarded growth of body and brain, swelling of legs due to retention of water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly and diarrhea.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor

Question 8.
Find the set most suitable with “succus entericus”
(a) bilirubin and biliyerdin
(b) salivary amylase and lysozymes
(c) disaccharides, dipeptidases and lipases
(d) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen procarboxypep-tidases
Answer:
(c) Disaccharides, dipeptidase and lipases

Question 9.
Complete the columns a, b, c, d, e & f

1. Maltose _______a_______ + ________b_________
2. Sucrose _______c_______ + ________d_________
3. Lactose _______e_______ + ________f__________

Answer:

1. Meltose Glucose + Glucose
2. Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
3. Lactose Glucose + Galactose

Question 10.
From this which statement is correct?
(a) Human denititian is heterodont
(b) Fat is soluble in water
(c) Fructose absorbed passively
(d) Small intestine devoid of villi
Answer:
(a) Human dentitian is heterodont

Question 11.
The human intestine is long because
(a) Bacteria in food can be killed gradually
(b) It increases surface are for absorption of food
(c) It provides more space for food storage
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) It increases surface area for absorption of food.

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is most suitable for gastrin?
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
(b) It stimulates the secretion of bile.
(c) It inhibits gastric gland to produce gastric secretion.
Answer:
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.

Question 13.
Name the end product of digestion of following?

1. Starch
2. Protein

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Amino acids

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Copy the diagram and label the parts.

Answer:

Question 2.
A 15 year old boy was admitted in a hospital with severe case of stomach ulcer. At the end of various tests it is found that Mucus glands are absent. Do you agree with this? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Highly concentrated HCL is presented in gastric juice. Mucus from the mucus gland protect the epithelium lining of the stomach from the action of HCL. So the absence of mucus gland cause stomach ulcer.

Question 3.

1. Name the process (a).
2. Name the enzyme (b).
3. Name the product (c).

Answer:

1. (a) – bile salt – emulsification
2. (b) – pancreatic lipase
3. (c) – Glycerol

Question 4.
Distinguish between Renin and Rennin.
Answer:
1. Rennin: A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

2. Renin: It is an enzyme releasing from JGA, when there is a fall in glomerular filtration rate. Renin converts angiotensinogen into antigotensin II and regulate urine formation.

Question 5.
Complete the passage.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called _______ which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small _______ coated fat globules called _________ which are transported to the __________ in the villi.
Answer:
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small Protein coated fat globules called Chylomicrons which are transported to the lacteals in the villi.

Question 6.

1. It is not necessary to produce amylase in an inactive form in our body, but it is not in the case of Trypsin.
2. In certain circumstances, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Answer:

1. Proteins are body building molecules. If proteins digesting enzymes are secreted inactive forms, they would hydrolyse the cellular and extracellular proteins of the organism itself. So the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin is secreted in their inactive form.

2. Mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric and intestinal secretion protects the gut wall from the action of HCL and protein-digesting enzymes. In the absence of mucus and bicarbonates, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Question 7.
Construct a flow chart showing the passage of food through the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Serosa and Lumen.
Answer:
The outermost layer of the wall of alimentary canal is called serosa. The inner hollow space in the alimentary canal is called lumen.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out and justify your answer.
Salivary gland, milk gland, gastric gland, thyroid gland.
Answer:
Thyroid gland. Thyroid gland is an endocrine gland. All others are exocrine gland.

Question 10.
Give below in bracket are the names of some digestive enzymes group them into A – Gastric, B – Pancreatic and C – Intestinal (Trypsin, Dipeptidase, Rennin, Maltase, Pepsin, Chymotrypsin, Nuclease, Amylase)
Answer:

Question 11.
Ramu ate boiled rice, what are the changes that it undergoes before being absorbed in the small intestine.
Answer:

Question 12.
The dental formula of human is represented as \(i \frac{2}{2}\), \(\mathrm{C} \frac{1}{1}, \mathrm{Pm} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{m} \frac{3}{3}\). What do i, c, pm, m indicate?
Answer:
i – Incisors, c-Canines, pm – Pre molars, m – Molars

Question 13.
Describe the Diphyodont and Thecodont characteristics of human dentition.
Answer:
1. Thecodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth are placed in the sockets of jawbones.

2. Diphyodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth appear twice in the lifetime of man. They are milk teeth and permanent teeth.

Question 14.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. ‘x’ is a substance needed for digestion. What is the function of ‘x’?
2. Name the gastrointestinal hormone responsible for the contraction of gall bladder to release ‘x’.

Answer:

1. Bile – emulsification
2. Cholecystokinin

Question 15.
Given below are the layers of human gut. Write a flow chart from inner region.
Serosa, mucosa, muscularis, submucosa
Answer:
Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis → Serosa

Question 16.
After observing the model of the lumen of human intestine your friend said that “the villi projected into the lumen actually block the movement of food through the intestine, if the villi are absent food can easily pass through the intestine.” How will you respond to this comment?
Answer:
Villi actually decrease the movement of chyme. The function of villi is to increase the surface area of the intestine for the absorption of digested nutrients.

Question 17.
Out of the following list, pick out the enzymes that take part in carbohydrate digestion.
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Peptidase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase.
Answer:
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase

Question 18.

1. Mention the factor ‘x’ involved in the process.
2. Identify the process and write its importance.

Answer:

1. Bile salts
2. Emulsification. The conversion large fat globules into tiny fat droplets is called emulsification. Bile salt helps emulsification. Emulsification increase the surface area for lipase action.

Question 19.
Below are given the names of the enzymes and their source of secretion. Match them.

Enzymes	Source of secretion
Amylase	Stomach
Nuclease	Pancreas
Lipase	Small intestine
Protease	Salivary gland

Answer:

Enzymes	Source of secretion
Amylase	Salivary gland
Nuclease	Small intestine
Lipase	Pancreas
Protease	Stomach

Question 20.
Strong acidic food in the stomach stimulate the secretion of secretin from duodenal wall.

1. On which part of the digestive tract, secretion act?
2. What is the role of secreting in digestion?

Answer:

1. Secretin acts on exocrine part of pancreas.
2. Secretin stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas. It protects the intestinal mucosa from acid as well as provide an alkaline medium for enzymatic activity in intestine.

Question 21.
Fatty chyme in duodenum decreases the speed of peristalsis. How the fatty chyme affects the speed of peristalsis?
Answer:
Fatty chyme in duodenum stimulate the release of GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide Hormone). GIP produced by duodenum, inhibit gastric mobility.

Question 22.
Mention whether the following statements true or false. Justify your answer.

1. Chymotrypsin is a fat digesting enzyme.
2. Deglutition occurs in the intestine.
3. Intestinal juice is also known as succus entericus.
4. Function of enterokinase is to break peptide bond in proteins.

Answer:

1. False – It is prominent protein digesting enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
2. False – It is the process of swallowing of food . from the pharynx to oesophagus.
3. True – The collective secretion of intestinal gland is known as intestinal juice or succus entericus.
4. False – Enteokinase present in succus entericus activates the inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin.

Question 23.
The following diagram shows the action of protein digesting enzymes of pancreas.

(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen are proenzymes (inactive enzymes). Why do they being produced inactive?

Answer:
(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.

1. Enterokinase
2. Chymotrypsin
3. Peptides

(b) Trypsin and Chymotrypsin are protein digesting enzyme formed from their respective inactive forms at the time of digestion of the protein food. If they are available all time in active form, they would damage the intestinal wall.

Question 24.
The calorific value of respiratory substrates are different. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, The calorific values of carbohydrates, proteins and fats are 4.1 kcal /g, 5.65 kcal /g and 9.45 kcal /g, respectively.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Gastric glands are formed of three types of secretory cells. Name them and mention their function.
Answer:

1. Mucous cell – Secrete mucus
2. Chief cells – Secrete proteolytic enzyme Pepsin
3. Parietal cells – Secrete HCL

Question 2.
Observe the flow chart and answer the questions.

1. What is the purpose of micelles in fat absorption?
2. Identify ‘e’.

Answer:
1. Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa. Micelles are formed with the help of bile salts and phospholipids,

2. Chylomicrons

Question 3.
Observe and analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

1. Which region of the alimentary canal has maximum acidic pH?
2. Why different regions of alimentary canal has different pH How this is maintained?

Answer:
1. Stomach

2. pH is the buccal cavity – in between 6.5 and 7, which is maintained by HCO₃ – in the saliva. pH in the stomach is in between 1.8 and 2, which is maintained by HCL, secreted from gastric gland. The pH in the intestine is in between 8 and 9, which is maintained by HCO₃– present in the bile and pancreatic juice.

Question 4.
Observe the given diagram.

1. Identify the parts a, b, c.
2. If part ‘c’ has removed from a person due to a disease. What will be the changes in the digestive process of that person?

Answer:
1. a – Liver, b – Gall bladder, c – Pancreas

2. If the pancreas is totally removed from a person, he will die in a short period. Even if pancreas is only partially removed it will collapse the digestive process. In addition to this, the body cannot regulate the glucose level in blood.

The digestive juice secreted by pancreas contains three enzymes trypsin, amylase and lipase. Thus if pancreas is removed, the production of digestive enzyme will collapse.

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
(a) Emulsification
(b) Pancreatic lipase
(c) Fatty acids
(d) Glycerol
(e) Micelles
(f) Chylomicrons

Question 6.
Observe the diagram. Complete the boxes A, B and C appropriately.

Answer:

Question 7.
Observe the diagram.

1. Identify the ducts A and B.
2. B is guarded by a sphincter in its opening to duodenum. Name it.
3. Write any two functions of liver.

Answer:

1. Ducts A and B are
   • A – Common bile duct
   • B – Hepato – pancreatic duct
2. Sphincter of Oddi.
3. Functions of liver are:
   • Production and secretion of bile
   • Production of albumin, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, etc.
   • Detoxification.

Question 8.
Given the diagram of intestinal villus.

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure.
2. Give the function of part ‘a’.
3. What is the role of ‘b’ in digestion?

Answer:

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure
   • ‘a’ Lacteal
   • ‘b’ Crypts of Liberkuhn
2. Absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins.
3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn produce intestinal juice helps in digestion.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out from each group and justify.

1. Cardiac, Villi, Fundic, Pyloric
2. Duodenum, Jejunum, ileum, villi
3. Parotid, gastric, sublingual, submaxillary

Answer:

1. Villi:
Cardiac, fundic and pyloric are the three major parts of stomach. But villi are small finger like foldings in the intestine.

2. Villi:
Duodenum, jejunum and ileum are three regions of intestine but villi are small finger like foldings inside the intestine.

3. Gastric:
Parotid, Sublingual and submaxillary are three pairs of salivary gland produce saliva. But gastric gland is stomach gland produce gastric juice.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. pepsin, lipase and rennin
  2. trypsin, lipase and rennin
  3. trypsin, pepsin and lipase
  4. trypsin, pepsin and rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  1. a junction between ileum and large intestine
  2. intestinal juice
  3. swelling in the gut
  4. appendix

Answer:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  2. Intestinal Juice

Question 2.
Match column I with and Rennin
Column I Column II

Column I	Column II
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin	(i) Parotid
(b) Hydrolysis of starch	(ii) Bile
(c) Digestion of fat	(iii) Lipases
(d) Salivary gland	(iv) Amylases

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

Question 3.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
The major portion of absorption takes palce in small intestines. In stomach simple sugars, water and alcohol absorbed. Villi are specialized projections in small intestine with large absorbent area. This facilities better absorbtion of complex molecules as well.

As food is fit to be absorbed only after complete digestion so villi’s turn comes after all the digestive processes are complete.

Question 4.
State the role pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes – trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypetidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin which in turn activities the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is represented by a dental formula which in human is as follows:
\(\frac{2123}{2123}\)

Question 7
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile emulsifies the fat making it easier digest by enzymes. Bile juice also helps inactivation of lipase, the enzyme which digests fat. Additionally, bile converts the acidic chyme to alkaline so that other enzymes can work on food.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin digests proteins and converts it into dipeptides. Other digestive enzymes of the same category are Trypsin and Carboxypeptidase and they perform similar function.

Question 9.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
In the stomach the proenzyme pepsinogen gets converted into pepsin which acts on protein to convert it into peptone.

In small intestine enzymes Chymotrypsin, trypsin and carboxypeptdase do the rest of the digestion of protein.

Question 10.
Explain the term thecodont and diphyodont.
Answer:
Thecodont. In human beings each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the codont.

Diphyodont. Majority of mammals including human beings form two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 11.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are four different types (Heterodont dentition)

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In intestine, food materials are absorbed through
(a) villi
(b) subtentacular cells
(c) sub-mucosa
(d) gastric glands
Answer:
(a) villi

Question 2.
Diastema refers to
(a) gap between the teeth
(b) gap between tongue and teeth
(c) ciliary cells on alimentary wall
(d) cell lining along pharynx
Answer:
(a) gap between the teeth

Question 3.
Pylorus is present between
(a) small and large intestine
(b) pancreas and small intestine
(c) oesophagus and stomach
(d) stomach and duodenum
Answer:
(d) stomach and duodenum

Question 4.
Elephant tusks are
(a) molars
(b) canines
(c) incisors
(d) premolars
Answer:
(c) incisors

Question 5.
Which of the following cells produce HCL
(a) beta-cells
(b) alpha-cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Chief cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 6.
Most abundant mineral of animal body is
(a) iron
(b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) calcium
Answer:
(d) calcium

Question 7.
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsinogen
(c) Lipase
(d) Pancreatic amylase
Answer:
(c) Lipase

Question 8.
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(a) marasmus
(b) rickets
(c) kwashiorkor
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(a) marasmus

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(a) protein and starch
(b) Starch and fat
(c) fat and cellulose
(d) Starch and cellulose
Answer:
(c) fat and cellulose

Question 10.
A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk, which is white in colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. This yellow colour is due to
(a) intestinal juice
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(c) undigested milk protein casein
(d) pancreaticjuice poured into duodenum
Answer:
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice

Question 11.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(a) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
(b) Fructose and amino acids arc abosrbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries
(d) About 60°o of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
Answer:
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries

Question 12.
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in
(a) oesophagus
(b) ileum
(c) pancreas
(d) duodenum
Answer:
(d) duodenum

Question 13.
FAD is a coenzyme derived from
(a) riboflavin
(b) vitamin-B12
(c) thiamine
(d) niacin
Answer:
(b) vitamin-B12

Question 14.
The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 15.
Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into
(a) fatty acids and glycerol
(b) glycerol and amino acids
(c) glucose and fatty acids
(d) glucose and amino acids
Answer:
(a) fatty acids and glycerol

Question 16.
Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
(a) secretion of succus entericus
(b) secretion of rennin
(c) secretion of ptyalin
(d) digestion of food
Answer:
(a) secretion of succus entericus

Question 17.
Which of the following is an organic molecule needed by the body in small amounts?
(a) Protein
(b) Zinc
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Monosaccharide
Answer:
(c) Vitamin-C

Question 18.
Which one is not true about vitamins?
(a) Vitamins are organic catalysts
(b) Vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) Tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
Answer:
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy

Question 19.
The malnutrition disease in man is
(a) Cridu chat syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Potbelly syndrome
(d) Edward’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Potbelly syndrome

Question 20.
The process of resynthesis of food materials from simpler food molecules is called
(a) biosynthesis
(b) catabolism
(c) absorption
(d) assimilation
Answer:
(a) biosynthesis

Students can Download Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who among the following attempted to estimate India’s national income for the pre-independence period.
(i) Dadabhai Navoroji
(ii) V.K.R.V. Rao
(iii) R.C. Desai
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 2.
Zamindari system was introduced in India in:
(i) 1757
(ii) 1782
(iii) 1793
(iv) 1800
Answer:
(iii) 1793

Question 3.
The theory of demographic transition has ____ stages.
(i) 2
(ii) 3
(iii) 4
(iv) 5
Answer:
(iii) 4

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer.
The first all India population census was conducted in the year.
(i) 1965
(ii) 1870
(iii) 1872
(iv) 1882
Answer:
(iii) 1872

Question 5.
Occupational structure refers to:
(i) number of workers living in a country
(ii) size of working population in the industrial sector
(iii) distribution of working population among different occupations
(iv) nature of different occupations in the economy.
Answer:
(iii) distribution of working population among different occupations

Question 6.
When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?
Answer:
India’s first official census took place in 1881.

Question 7.
Per capita income means:
(i) National income / population
(ii) Population / national income
(iii) Total capital /population
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(i) National income / population

Question 8.
At the time of independence, _____ % of population in India engaged in agricultural activities.
Answer:
72%

Question 9.
How many stages are there in theory of demographic transition?
Answer:
Four Stages.

Question 10.
According to 2011 census, the total population of India is _____ crores?
Answer:
121 crores.

Question 11.
Which is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decision stage?
Answer:
1921 is considered as the dividing year. Before 1921, India was in the first stage of demographic transition. The second stage of transition started after 1921.

Question 12.
Which of the following factors are true regarding the foreign trade of India under colonial period?
(i) Large export surplus
(ii) Import of commodities like wool, sugar, and indigo to India.
(iii) Light machinery produced in the factories of India.
(iv) Indian trade was dominated with China, Ceylon, and Persia.
Answer:
(i) Large export surplus

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Comment on Indian infant mortality rate and life expectancy.
Answer:
At the time of British rule, Indian infant mortality rate was very high. It was 218 per thousand. Life expectancy was very low. It was just 44 years.

Question 2.
Mention the growing regional variation in occupational structure of India under British rule.
Answer:
70 -75 percent of Indian workforce was engaged in agriculture 10 percent in manufacturing and 15-20 percent in services. But parts of the Madras presidency witnessed a fall in the dependence of the workforce on agricultural sector and an increase in manufacturing and service sector.

Question 3.
State whether true or false.

1. Rao’s estimate of national income during the colonial period is regarded very significant
2. The policy of British government made India an exporter of finished goods and importer of primary products.

Answer:

1. True
2. False. The British policy made India an importer of finished products and exporter of primary products.

Question 4.
Name some notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the colonial period?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Finlay Shirras, William Digby, VKRV Rao, and RC Desai were the notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the colonial period.

Question 5.
Name some modern industries which were in operation in our country at the time of independence.
Answer:
The modern industries which were in operation in our country at the time of independence were:

• Cotton and jute textile mills
• The iron and steeUjompany
• Sugar industry
• Cement industry

Question 6.
What was the twofold motive behind the systematic de-industrialization effected by the British in pre-independence India?
Answer:
The primary motive of the colonial government behind the policy of systematic de-industrialization was two-fold:

1. To turn India into a market of finished products of those industries which were established in Britain.
2. To reduce India to a status of a mere exporter of important raw materials for the industries in Britain.

Question 7.
What do you mean by commercialisation of agriculture?
Answer:
Commercialisation of agriculture means the production of cash crops for the market rather than food crops for self-consumption.

Question 8.
Define economic development.
Answer:
Economic development refers to that process as a result of which, along with increase in real per capita income, there is reduction in inequality, poverty, illiteracy, and disease.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘tariff?
Answer:
Tariff is a tax or duty on imports which can be levied either on physical units.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule”. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. India’s traditional handicraft industries were ruined under British rule. There were many reasons behind this. The British adopted the strategy of systematically de-industrializing India. The main raw materials required by the handicraft industries such as cotton and silk were exported to Britain and instead imported to Indian markets the finished products which are low cost.

Thus, due to lack of raw materials, reduced markets and no government policies to protect the handicraft industry resulted in collapse of the Indian handicraft industries.

Question 2.
Highlight the salient features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of working persons across different industries and sectors is called occupational structure. The agricultural sector accounted for the largest share of workforce. About 72 percent people were engaged in agriculture, 10 percent in manufacturing and 18 percent in service sector.

Question 3.
Mention the objectives of British policies of infrastructure development in India?
Answer:
Basic infrastructure like railways, roads, telegraphs, etc. were developed during British period. The purpose behind this was to satisfy various colonial interests.

• Roads were built for the purpose of mobilising the army.
• The introduction of telegraph in India was basically to maintain law and order.
• Railways introduced to mobilise army and raw materials.

Question 4.
Name the states where the following iron and steel industries are located?

1. TISCO
2. IISCO
3. Bhila Steel Plant

Answer:

1. TISCO – (Tata Iron and Steel Co.) – Jharkhand
2. IISCO – (Indian Iron and Steel Co.) – West Bengal
3. Bhilai Steel Plant – Chattisgarh.

Question 5.
What are the major economic challenges of India today?
Answer:

• Low agricultural growth rate
• Rising prices
• Food inflation
• Rapid growth of population
• Poor infrastructure facilities
• Shortage of resources
• Poverty and unemployment

Question 6.
“During British rule land and labour were transformed into commodity”. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Land being the most important income yielding asset in the rural society became a much sought after commodity. The Zamindars, who got land in the British settlement and money lenders who acquires land against their debt, wanted to acquire more and more of it.

All artisans who lost craft and could not be accommodated on land came to town in search of employment. Some of them got employment in factories; some others became coolies and domestic servants. In their case also, labour power became a commodity Thus it can be concluded that during British rule land and labour were transformed into commodity.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the drain of Indian wealth during the colonial rule?
Answer:
The most important feature of India’s foreign trade throughout the colonial period was generation of large export surplus. But this caused scarcity in the domestic market. Further, this export surplus did not result in any flow of gold or silver into India. Rather, this was used to make payments for the expenses incurred by,

• expenses on war
• office setup of British government and
• Import of invisible items.

All these led to drain of Indian wealth during the colonial period.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the columns

A	B
Cash crop	TISCO
V.K.R.V. Rao	Land settlement
JemshedjiTata	Indigo
Zamindari system	National income estimates

Answer:

A	B
Cash crop	Indigo
V.K.R.V. Rao	National income estimates
Jemshedji Tata	TISCO
Zamindari system	Land settlement

Question 2.
The British rule made certain positive contributions. Do you agree? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Though the basic intention of the British government was not the development of Indian economy, it left some beneficial effects. The positive contribution of the British rule are noted below

1. Development of means of transport especially railways and communication
2. Political and economic unification of the country
3. Evolution of banking and monetary system
4. Stability, peace, and order
5. Emergence of market economy
6. Introduction of new system of education
7. Establishment of civil laws and courts

Question 3.
“India’s agriculture sector was stagnant during the colonial rule” Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, India’s agriculture sector was stagnant during the colonial rule. The stagnation in agriculture sector was caused mainly because of the following.

1. The various systems of land settlement in India.
2. The British government did nothing to improve the condition of agriculture
3. There was immense misery and social tension among the cultivators because of the exploitation by the zamindars
4. Low level of technology, lack of irrigational facilities and use of negligible amount so fertilizers were also responsible for low production in agriculture.

Question 4.
“Our agricultural production received a set back due to the partition of the country”. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that our agricultural production received a set back due to the partition of the country India’s agricultural production received a further set back due to the country’s partition at the time of independence. A sizeable portion of the undivided country’s highly irrigated and fertile land went to Pakistan this had an Adverse impact upon India’s output from the agriculture sector.

Particularly affected was India’s jute industry since almost the whole of the jute producing area became part of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). India’sjute goods industry (in which the country had enjoyed a world monopoly so far), thus, suffered heavily for lack of raw material.

Question 5.
Given below are certain items of export and import of India during British period. Classify them into a table. (Raw silk, Cotton, Silk, Raw cotton, Machinery, Wool, Chemicals, Edible oils, Medicines, Sugar, Woolen cloth, Indigo, Jute)
Answer:

Question 6.
Indicate the direction of trade at the time of independence.
Answer:
During the British period, the colonial government maintained monopoly over India’s trade. As a result, at the time of independence, more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain while the rest was allowed with a few other countries like China, Srilanka, and Iran.

Question 7.
Give an account of the economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India?
Answer:
Since the Britishers had their vested interests in India, that could be seen in the economic policies implimented which meant only to promote their economy at the cost of India’s economy. The impact of the policies resulted into a major change in the structure of the Indian economy:

1. Transformed the country into a net supplier of raw materials and the consumer of the finished industrial products from Britain.

2. The agricultural sector continuously faced stagnation and enormous deterioration. Agricultural productivity become incrementally low.

3. No modern industrial base was allowed to come up. The policies meant to systematically deindustrialise the country.

4. India’s world-famous and centuries old handicraft industry perished due to the policies layed by colonial rule.

5. Due to all the above factors, the level of unemployment increased.

6. India’s foreign trade was mostly restricted to Britain.

You can Download The Industrial Revolution Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 The Industrial Revolution

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Notes Question 1.
Define Industrial Revolution and describe its main features.
Answer:
The changes that took place in the industry and economy of England between 1780s and 1850s are called the first Industrial Revolution.

The Industrial Revolution was a technological revolution. It was new technology and new machines that brought the Industrial Revolution in England. The progress in technology made large scale production possible.

Industrial Revolution: Main Changes:

1. Change from physical labour to machine work.
2. Movement from the home system to the factory system.
3. Large scale mechanization.
4. Use of energy sources like steam and electricity.
5. Revolutionary changes in travel and communication (Ships, railway).

Question 2.
Make a note of the books and writers that throw light into the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
The term Industrial Revolution was first used by George Michel of France and Frederick Engels of Germany. In English language, it was used for the first time by Sir Arnold Toynbee (1889-1975) who was a great thinker and economist. He used this term to describe the changes that took place in England between 1760 and 1820. On this subject, he delivered a series of lectures in Oxford University. After his death, these lectures were published in a book form with the title Lectures on the Industrial Revolution in England: Popular Address, Notes, and other Fragments. It was this book that popularised the term Industrial Revolution.

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Questions and Answers Question 3.
Industrial Revolution started in Britain. Why?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution started in Britain. There are many factors that helped Britain to become the first industrial nation.

1. Political stability: As England, Wales and Scotland came together under a single long, there has been political stability in Britain since the 17^th century. The country had common laws and a unified currency system. The market in the country had a national character. Since regional authorities did not impose taxes on goods, there ‘ was no price increase. This kind of political stability helped Britain.

2. Wide use of money: Since the 17^th century, money had been used extensively as a means of transaction. With this, a lot of people began to get cash as wages and salaries instead of goods. By using this cash, people could buy any goods of their choice. This enlarged the market and it helped the Industrial Revolution.

3. The Influence of the Agricultural Revolution: Prior to the Industrial Revolution, there was an agricultural, revolution in Britain. Big landowners bought the small pieces around them and enclosed the fields with fences. Thus there were big estates that helped in the increased production of foodstuff. The people who earned their livelihood by grazing cattle in the open fields could not continue to do so and they became jobless. They went into big cities seeking jobs. By providing raw materials and labour, the agricultural revolution helped the Industrial Revolution.

4. Cities, trade and wealth: The growth of cities and trade and the availability of wealth helped the Industrial Revolution. From the 18^th century, cities have been growing in Europe. Out of the 19 metropolises, 11 were in Britain. London was the biggest. London became a centre of all the markets in the country.

Question 4.
Explaining the discoveries and changes in the manufacturing of coal and iron, describe how they helped the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Coal and iron ore were essential for the. manufacture of machines were plenty in England. Materials like black lead, copper and white lead which were extensively used in industries were also plenty in the country. But until the 18^th century, there was a shortage of “usable iron”. Iron was made by melting iron ore into a liquid state and then separating the pure iron from it. To melt iron ore charcoal was used. There were many problems with this. Since charcoal was brittle, it was difficult to transport charcoal to faraway places. Because of the impurities in it, the iron produced this way was not of high quality. Moreover charcoal could not produce high heat. Because of the large scale deforestation, there was a shortage of charcoal.

The solution to this problem was found by the Darby family of Shropshire. In 50 years, three generations of this family (grandfather, father, and son) brought a revolution in the refining of iron.

In 1709, Abraham Darby (1677-1717) developed the first blast furnace which could maintain a very high degree of heat. In it, coke could be used. Coke was made by removing the sulphur and other impurities from coal. With this, there was no need for charcoal. The iron that was made from the blast furnace of Darby was strong and of a higher quality.

Darby II(1711-1768) made cast iron from iron. This would not break easily. Henry Cort (1740-1823) made two important discoveries – the puddling furnace to remove impurities from pig iron and the rolling mill to produce rails. These discoveries helped in producing many different kinds of iron products.

Question 5.
The cotton industry had two special features. Write about them.
Answer:
The cotton industry had two special features.

1. Cotton had to be completely imported. The major portion of the cloth made from this was fully exported. This: helped in maintaining the colonization process. To get raw materials and to’ sell the finished goods, control over the colonies was essential.

2. The cotton industry largely depended on the work of women and children in factories. This showed the cruel face of the early industrialization.

Question 6.
In 1773, John Kay invented the flying shuttle. What were the other inventions related to the cotton industry?.
Answer:
1. In 1773, John Kay invented the flying shuttle. Using this, the speed in weaving clothes was increased. One worker Could now do the work of two. Since spinning (thread-making) was a slow process, enough thread was not available for weaving clothes. This problem was solved by Hargreaves.

2. In 1765 James Hargreaves had invented the, spinning jenny. This jenny could produce many strands of threads at the same time. But the strands were not sufficiently strong.

3. In 1769 Richard Arkwright invented a new spinning machine called water frame. This machine could produce strong threads. The production capacity of the spinners increased 7 times.

4. In 1779, Samuel Crompton invented a machine called mule. With this, a spinner could make 250 strands of thread simultaneously.

5. In 1787 Edmund Cartwright invented power loom. This machine worked with mechanical energy and it drastically increased the speed of weaving. It was easy to work with it. If the thread broke, it would stop automatically. Anything could be woven in this loom.

From the 1830s, importance was given by the cotton industry to increase the productivity of workers and not to inventions.

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Question 7.
For large scale industrialization, steam power was essential. Describe the major inventions in the area.
Answer:
In 1698, Thomas Savery invented a pump that worked on steam power. It was used to drain water from mines. It was called Miner’s Friend. It worked very slowly. Moreover when the pressure increased the boiler burst.

In 1712, Thomas Newcomen invented another steam engine. This helped in draining water from the mines in a better way. But the steaming chamber became cold too soon and thus energy was lost and this was a defect of this machine.

In 1769, James Watt developed his steam engine. Until then all the steam machines were used only in the mines. From mere pumps, James Watt changed steam engines to a driving force. His steam engines were suitable for different industries. In 1775, with the help of his friend Mathew Bouton, James Watt established a factory in Birmingham for producing steam engines. This factory-produced steam engines one after the other. By the end 18^th century, stream energy of Watt replaced water power.

History Plus One Chapter 9 Question 8.
During the period of the Industrial Revolution, There was great progress in the building of canals. Justify.
Answer:
An important thing that took place during the Industrial Revolution was the changes in the modes of travel. These changes were first visible in the construction of canals and railways.

Canals were first made to transport coal to the cities. Taking coal by road was expensive and slow. Since a lot of coal was needed, there was a great need for canals. The most famous of the early canals were Worsley Canal built by James Brindley (1716-72). Transporting coal to the city was its aim. When the canal was completed, the price of coal was reduced to half.

HssLive in History Question 9.
The most surprising change in travel was the development of the railway. Explain.
Answer:
The most surprising change in travel was definitely the development of the railway. George Stevenson started the railway age. In 1814 he built the steam engine called rocket. With this engine, a train could go as fast as 35 miles an hour and this was history. Soon railways became a new means of travel and transport. Rail travel was available throughout the year and it was cheap and fast. People and goods could be easily transported.

Railway travel connected two inventions – rails and steam engines. In the 1760s iron rails replaced wooden rails. At the beginning of the 19th century, steam engines began to be used in railways.

In 1801 Richard Trevithick developed a machine called. Puffing Devil. This machine was useful in dragging trucks around the mines.

In 1814 George Stevenson made a train with the name Blucher. It could climb hills carrying even goods weighing 30 tons. It was Stevenson that built the first rail Connecting Stockton and Darlington. In 1830, Liverpool and Manchester were linked by rail. With the opening of this railway line, the railway age dawned.

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Answers Question 10.
Prepare a seminar paper showing the Changes the Industrial Revolution brought.
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution brought many changes in the life of people. Though it brought ease and comfort to one section of the people, it brought misery and pain to some others.

Rich persons invested money in different industries to reap profits. Their income increased dramatically because of the proper use of goods, services, knowledge, and productivity. But industrialization arid urbanization adversely affected common people. Families were separated, cities became crowded and dirty, and the terrible work conditions in the factories made people suffer.

In 1750, in England, there were only two cities that had more than 50,000 people. By 1850, this increased to 29. The speed of this growth did not reflect on the life of people. They.did not have proper places to live and sanitation facilities. Not even enough drinking water was available. Persons newly coming to the cities were forced to live in the slums in, or close to, the cities. But the rich people built their second homes in villages which were free from pollution.

Workers:
A survey done in 1842 revealed that the longevity of the workers (labourers) in the city was less than those of others. The average life expectancy of workers was 15 years in Birmingham, 17 in Manchester and 21 in Derby. This was because in cities many children died at a very young age. Many died even before they reached 5. The increase in the city population was because of migration from the rural areas and not because of increased birth rates there.

Workers died prematurely mainly because of contagious diseases. Cholera and typhoid that came as the result of water pollution and tuberculosis that spread through the atmosphere killed many. In a cholera epidemic in 1832, more than 31,000 workers died.

Until the end of the 19th century, the municipal authorities ignored these dangerous circumstances. There was also no medical expertise to diagnose and treat these diseases.

Women, Children, and Industrialization:
One of the worst outcomes of industrialization was the exploitation of women and children. Children of poor parents had to work in the fields and also at home. They worked under strict supervision from their parents or relatives. The village women had to work in the field. They grew cattle and gathered wood. They also made thread using looms.

In the factories of the city, women and children were made to work. The work here was quite different from the work in villages. They had to work in factories and mines for long periods without rest and under strict supervision. They were punished severely for any little mistakes they made. The income from the women and children were needed for meeting the expenses of the family as the men earned very little as they had low wages.

Even when the use of machines became widespread, employers preferred women and children to do the work because they had to be paid much less than men. The women and children would not protest against bad working conditions.

In the cotton industries of Lancashire and Yorkshire, plenty of women and children were employed. In silk-making, brocade making and sewing, women were the main workers. In the iron industry at Birmingham also they worked along with children.

Children were made to labour hard. Machines like the spinning jenny were made in such a way that children with small bodies and fast fingers could work them. Since children could move in between the many thickly laid machines in the factory, they were preferred in the cotton mills. Even on Sundays, they had to work cleaning the machines. Thus they were denied rest and even clean air. Accidents were common in the factories. Some even died in factories as they fell on to the machines being tired and sleepy.

The work in the mines was also dangerous. Accidents were usual there. These were caused by the upper portions of the mines crumbling or because of the explosions carried out there. Mine owners employed children to draw the carts filled with coal along the underground rails. Since entrances were narrow and small, children were preferred by the cruel owners. The children carried loads of coal. Working in the mines was looked upon as training for working in the factories. Evidences from the factory records show that there were children of even less than ten years working there.

It is true that the self-confidence and economic situation of the working women were better. But the adverse circumstances in which they worked, the children they lost at birth or infancy, and the dirty slums in which they were forced to live spoiled the little satisfaction they got from the wages they earned.

Plus One History Notes in Malayalam Question 11.
Against the evils of industrialization, there were strong protests. Prepare a seminar paper based on this statement.
Answer:
Against the evils of industrialization, there were strong protests in England as well as in other industrialized societies. The slogans of the French Revolution “Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity” gave these movements impetus. The French Revolution had shown the way for fighting for organizing democratic institutions, controlling the price of essential things like bread and to reduce the sufferings caused by wars.

Political protests against the adverse conditions in the factories of England were getting stronger. Workers also demanded the right to vote. The British government first tried to suppress these movements. It brought hew laws preventing the people from protesting.

Between 1792 and 1815, there were constant wars between England and France. As a result, European trade suffered. Factories had to close down. Unemployment increased. The prices of essential things like bread and meat skyrocketed.

In 1795, the British government passed two Combination Acts. The Combination acts said that any writing or speech against the king, constitution or government is against the law. The Parliament; banned any unpermitted meeting of more than 50 persons. But the protests against government policies continued. The Parliament which included landowners, producers and professionals were against giving voting right to the workers. It also backed the anti-people Corn Laws.

The workers in the factories and cities started expressing their anger in many ways. From 1790 there were many ‘Bread Riots’ throughout Britain. The main food of the poor people was bread. The increase in its price troubled them. People captured hoarded bread and distributed it among people at reasonable prices. This was a big blow to the greedy merchants. The ‘bread riots’ continued until 1840.

The Enclosure Movement started by the rich in the early 1700s increased the misery of the common people. Rich landowners bought pieces of land from small farmers and increased the size of their farms which were protected by enclosures (walls). This also adversely affected poor people. They were forced to work in industries.

The introduction of machines in the cotton industry j destroyed the livelihood of many. Thousands of J weavers lost their jobs. They became poor. In the 1790s, the weavers began to demand the legal minimum wages. The Parliament was not ready to make such laws. Against this, the weavers started protests. The government dismissed them from their jobs by force. The desperate workers destroyed power looms. They believed that it was the machines that destroyed their means of livelihood. Workers made strong resistance against mechanization in the wool industry at Nottingham. There were also protests in Leicestershire and Derbyshire.

The workers in Yorkshire who traditionally sheared (cut) the wool from sheep destroyed the shearing frames that were brought for this purpose. In the 1830s, workers in the fields protested against the threshing, machines. They destroyed the machines that were a threat to their jobs. 9 of the protesters were hanged. 450 were deported to Australia as criminals.

Luddism was another Movement that was started against industrialization. Workers who thought that machines were the cause of all their troubles started this movement with the plan of destroying them. This Movement was begun under General Nel Ludd. England suppressed this moment by using the army. Luddism was not a movement that merely wanted to destroy machines. The members of this group demanded minimum wages. They also wanted to stop the exploitation of women and children in the factories and other workplaces. They were interested in the formation of labour organizations.

In the initial years of industrialization, workers did not have voting rights. They had no other way of expressing their anger and despair. In August 1819, there was a big meeting at St. Peters Field in which more than 80,000 people came. They demanded democratic rights like the right to call public meetings, to organize political groups and freedom . of the press. Army rushed to the scene and brutally attacked those attending the meeting. This incident is known as Peterloo Massacre. [Rejecting all the demands of the workers, that year itself the Parliament passed “Six Acts”. The Combination Acts of 1795, which prohibited workers from taking part in political activities, were strictly enforced. However, the Peterloo Massacre made some gains:

1. All the liberal political groups approved the idea of increasing the number of representatives in the House of Commons.

2. In 1824, the Combination Acts were repealed.

Question 12.
For improving the condition of workers, the government carried out some legal steps. Based on this statement, write a note on factory laws.
Answer:
In 1819 laws were passed prohibiting the employment of children below the age of 9 in factories. The working time of children between 9 and 16 was fixed as 12 hours per day. But this rule was not effectively implemented.

Workers in the northern regions of England had. carried out intense protests against the existing conditions. As a result, in 1833, the British Parliament passed a factory law. This law prohibited the employment of children below the age of 9 in silk factories and cotton mills. The time of work for the children was fixed at 8 hours per day. There was also a condition to appoint factory inspectors to ensure that the laws were kept.

Marking the end of 3 decades of protests in 1847 the “Ten Hours Bill” was passed. By this law the working time was limited. Men had to work only for 10 hours.

Plus One History Notes Question 13
“The Industrial Revolution can’t be seen as a revolution.” In a classroom discussion Abnijn. expressed this view. Do you agree with him? Justify.
Answer:
It is true that nowadays nobody sees the Industrial Revolution as a revolution. Revolution means radical and sudden changes in the existing situation. Industrialization did not happen suddenly.

In fact, industrialization was a slow process. It was a continuation of the existing situation. Things like concentration of workers in factories and extensive use of money were already in existence in England. Therefore industrialization cannot be seen as a revolution.

Industrialization in England was a regional process. Until the 19^th century, a major portion of England had no factories or mines. Industrialization was centered around a few cities like London, Manchester, Birmingham, and Newcastle. That means industrialization there was a regional affair. It did not happen throughout the country. Therefore using the term industrial revolution is quite inappropriate.

Question 14.
Adding the word ‘industrial’ to the world ‘revolution’ is inappropriate. Why?
Answer:
Adding the word ‘industrial’ to the world ‘revolution’ is quite inappropriate. It is so because the changes happened not only in the economic and industrial spheres but also in the social arena. For example, two classes came up in society – the capitalists (bourgeoisie) and the workers (labour class).

Students can Download Chapter 4 Poverty Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Poverty

Plus One Economics Poverty One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The estimated minimum calorie intake for a rural person is:
(i) 2000
(ii) 2100
(iii) 2200
(iv) 2400
Answer:
(ii) 2100

Question 2.
Who publishes the official data on poverty in India?
(i) Ministry of finance
(ii) Finance commission
(iii) Planning commission
(iv) World Bank
Answer:
(iii) Planning commission

Question 3.
Identify an anti-poverty programme in India
(i) REGP
(ii) PMRY
(iii) JRY
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 4.
Complete the following statement.
(i) Inflation is a situation of general price …………. level.
Answer:
Increasing

Question 5.
According to 2001 census, _____ % of people live.below poverty line in India.
Answer:
26.1%

Question 6.
When was NREGP started in India?
Answer:
On 2^ndFebruary 2006.

Question 7.
Give the new name of NREGP?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MNREGP).

Plus One Economics Poverty Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State an example each of self employment in rural and urban areas.
Answer:
Self employment in rural areas: Rural Employment Generation Program.
Self employment in urban areas : Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana.

Question 2.
Point out the causes of urban poverty, mm
Answer:
In India, poverty exists both in rural and urban areas. The urban poor are largely the overflow of the rural poor who migrated to urban areas in search in employment and livelihood. The modem industries does not absorb all these surplus labour as they are unskilled. Most of the urban poor are either unemployed or face irregular job opportunities.

Question 3.
What is food for work programme ?
Answer:
The ‘food for work’ programme was started in 1970’s. This programme aims at ensuring food for poor instead of money. It provides assurance to the family of the worker to get minimum food to eat and survive well. Then, this programme can solve the problem of malnutrition and poverty to a great extent.

Question 4.
Differentiate between absolute poverty and relative poverty.
Answer:
Absolute poverty is defined as the inability to achieve the minimum requirement of life, health, and efficiency as a result of very low level of income. On the other hand, relative poverty makes a comparison of relative levels of income of different people or groups of population to determine who is poor.

Plus One Economics Poverty Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one out

1. PDS, ICDS, MDMS, NREGP
2. Rice, wheat, pulses, rubber
3. RLEGP, PMRY, NREGP, NSO

Answer:

1. NREGP. Others are food security programs
2. Rubber. Others are food crops
3. NSO. Others are employment generating programs

Question 2.
Match the following columns

A	B
Planning commission	National Income estimate
Finance Ministry	Niti Ayog
CSO	Budget

Answer:

A	B
Planning commission	NITI Ayog
Finance Ministry	Budget
CSO	National Income estimate

Question 3.
Name a few women oriented poverty eradication programmes in India?
Answer:

• Panchadhara Yojana
• Kamdhenu Yojana
• Apni Beti Apni Dhan Yojana
• Kudumbasree

Question 4.
Define poverty line.
Answer:
Poverty line is defined as per capita consumption expenditure which is required to attain a minimum acceptable standard of living.

Plus One Economics Poverty Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suppose you are from a poor family and wish to get help form the government to setup petty shops. Under which scheme, you will apply for the assistance and why?
Answer:
The following are the measures to solve the problem of poverty in a village like that of mine.

1. creating more employment opportunities in rural areas
2. educating the villagers 1
3. encouraging small scale and cottage industries to generate employment
4. spreading awareness regarding health and sanitation
5.  they should be made aware of the different schemes offered to them by the government
6. the government should provide them with basic amenities such as schools, roads, hospitals communication facilities, etc.

Question 2.
List out the causes responsible for poverty in India.
Answer:
Poverty is explained by individual circumstances and/or characteristics of poor people. Some examples are:

1. low levels of education and skills
2. infirmity, ill health, sickness
3. discrimination.

These can be caused as a result of

1. Social, economic and political inequality
2. Social exclusion
3. Unemployment
4. Indebtedness
5. Unequal distribution of wealth.

Aggregate poverty is just the sum of individual poverty. Poverty is also explained by general, economy-wide problems, such as:

1. Low capital formation
2. Lack of infrastructure
3. Lack of demand
4. Pressure of population
5. Lack of social/welfare nets.

Question 3.
Give the year of starting the following programmes.
i) SGSY
ii) RLEGP
iii) NREG Act
iv) SJSRY
Answer:

Question 4.
Critically evaluate the poverty alleviation programmes in India.
Answer:
A. Critical Assessment of Poverty Alleviation Programmes:
Through the policy towards poverty alleviation has evolved in a progressive manner but over the last five and a half decades it has not undergone any radical transformation. Scholars state three major areas of concern which prevent the success implementation of the programs, they are:

1. Unequal distribution of land and other assets due to the benefits have been availed by the non-poor.

2. In comparison to the magnitude of poverty the amount of resources allocated for these programmes is not sufficient,

3. These programs depend mainly on government and bank officials for their implementation since such officials are ill-motivated, inadequately trained, corruption-prone and vulnerable to pres-sure from a variety of local elites, the resources are inefficiently used and wasted.

Plus One Economics Poverty Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Illustrate the difference between rural and urban poverty. Is it correct to say that poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
The features of rural poverty are :

• Open, under disguised unemployment, are found simultaneously in rural areas
• It is difficult to differentiate between open unemployment and underemployment in rural areas
• No or meager facility of education, employment, social welfare, etc lead to poverty among the masses
• Rural people posses few assets and many are landless

The features of urban poverty are:

• Open unemployment is generally found
• One can differentiate between open and disguised unemployment
• Good facility of education, drinking water, sanitation, etc make the standard of living of urban people high
• Urban people posses many assets Yes, poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas.

This is clear from the fact that in n1973-74 more than 80% of the poor resided in rural areas but in 1999 – 2000, this proportion has reduced to 75%. This means that poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas. In the 1990s the absolute number of the poor in the rural areas has declined whereas the number of poor in urban areas has increased.

Question 2.
Write full form of the following.

1. PMRY
2. SGRY
3. NSSO
4. SJSRY
5. JGSY

Answer:

1. PMRY – Prime Minister’s RozgarYojana.
2. SGRY – Sampoorna Grameena RozgarYojana
3. NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation
4. SJSRY – Swama Jayanthi Shahari RozgarYojana
5. JGSY – JawaharGramSamridhiYojana

Question 3.
Give the year of starting the following programmes.

1. Mid-day meals scheme
2. Aam Admi Bima Yojana
3. JLNNURM
4. Bharat Nirman
5. VAMBAY.

Answer:

1. 1995
2. 2007
3. 2005
4. 2005
5. 2001

Question 4.
Suppose you are a resident of a village. Suggest a few measures to solve the problem of poverty in your locality.
Answer:
The following are the measures to solve the problem of poverty in a village like that of mine.

1. creating more employment opportunities in rural areas
2. educating the villagers
3. encouraging small scale and cottage industries to generate employment
4. spreading awareness regarding health and sanitation
5. they should be made aware of the different schemes offered to them by the government
6. the government should provide them with basic amenities such as schools, roads, hospital communication facilities, etc.

Question 5.
Govt, of India, has introduced a number of antipoverty programmes. Do you think that these anti-poverty programmes are sufficient for reducing our country’s poverty? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The govt, implement many programmes to reduce poverty. REGP, PMRY, SJSRY, SJSY, MNREGS are few among them. The rate of poverty has been mitigated due to the implementation of these programmes. However, there are a lot of problems associated with these policies. They are given below.

1. The amount of resources allocated for these programmes is not sufficient.
2. The effectiveness of the implementation of these programmes depends mainly on government and bank officials. May such officials are ill-motivated, inadequately trained and corrupt. So the resources reach the hand of the people who do not reserve it.
3. There is non-participation of local-level institutions in programme implementation.
4. The government also failed to address the vast majority of vulnerable people who are living on or just above the poverty line.

Plus One Economics Poverty Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the various measures taken by the government to solve the problem of poverty in India.
Answer:
The poverty reduction approach of the government near of three dimensions.
a. Growth oriented approach.

b. Income and employment creation specifically for the poor.

c. Providing basic amenities to the people. Growth-oriented approach is based on the expectation that the effects of economic growth-rapid increase in Gross Domestic Income and Per Capita Income – would spread to all sections of society and will trickle down to the poor sections also.

The approach of income and employment creation specifically for the poor initiated from the third five-year plan. The programmes under the approach include food for work (1970) self-employment programmes like RLEGP, PMRY SJSRY. The Khadi and Village Commission implements these programmes. The government also started wage employment programme like national food for work programme, SGSRY, MNREGS, etc.

1. The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP):
This programme was launched on 15th August 1983 to supplement NREP. This is a centrally sponsored scheme with 100 percent fund by the union government.

2. The PMRY:
GA was launched on 1^st April 2000. The programme aims at providing the housing needs of rural people. Providing basic amenities includes Integrated Child Development Scheme, Mid-day Meal Scheme, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana, ValmikiAmbedkarAvasYojana, etc.

3. Integrated Child Development Schemes (ICDS):
A nutrition programme meant for children below 6 years of age, pregnant and lactating women.

4. Mid-day Meal at School:
Mid-day Meal at School is in operation in several states. The programme was launched in all India level on 15^th August 1995.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisa Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
India started economic reforms in:
(i) 1990
(ii) 1991
(iii) 1992
(iv) 1995
Answer:
(ii) 1991

Question 2.
In which year WTO was formed?
(i) 1990
(ii) 1992
(iii) 1995
(iv) 2000
Answer:
(iii) 1995

Question 3.
Which among the following is NOT a pillar of economic reforms
(i) Liberalisation
(ii) Privatisation
(iii) Nationalisation
(iv) Globalisation
Answer:
(iii) Nationalisation

Question 4.
Odd one out and justify.
(Privatisation, Nationalisation, Liberalisation, Globalisation)
Answer:
Nationalization. Others are parts of economic reforms.

Question 5.
How many countries are members of WTO?
Answer:
133 countries are members of WTO (subject to change)

Question 6.
Find the odd one out.
SBI, Punjab National Bank, Andhra Bank, Union Bank of India.
Answer:
Andhra Bank. Others are national banks.

Question 7.
What is BPO?
Answer:
BPO stands for Business Process Outsourcing.

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Point out major factor responsible for the high growth of service sector?
Answer:
The growth rate of service sector was very high in India compared to other sectors. After adopting new economic policy, the growth rate was 8.2%. The liberalisation and privatisation policy are responsible for the fast growth rate in service sector.

Question 2.
What does foreign direct investment mean?
Answer:
if refers to investment directly undertaken by the foreign companies and nationals in various sectors of the economy.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of disinvestment of public sector unit?
Answer:
The sale of part of government shareholding in public sector undertakings to financial institutions, mutual funds, and public is known as disinvestment of PSUs.

Question 4.
State true or false

1. WTO was found in 1995 as successor organisation of G#TT.
2. India signed NEP in 1991.

Answer:

1. True
2. True

Question 5.
Write full form of the following,

1. IBRD
2. Fll
3. IMF
4. GATT

Answer:

1. IBRD – International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
2. Fll – Foreign Institutional Investment
3. IMF – International Monetary Fund.
4. GATT – General Agreement on Tariff and Trade

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following columns

A	B
GATT	1991
Economic reforms	1995
WTO	1948

Answer:

A	B
GATT	1948
Economic reforms	1991
WTO	1995

Question 2.
Give examples for Nationalized bank, Private bank and Private Foreign Bank.
Answer:
Nationalized banks

• BankofBaroda
• Union bank of India
• Punjab National bank

Private banks

• Andhra Bank
• Oriental Bank of Commerce
• Punjab and Sindh Bank

Private Foreign Banks

• Deutsche Bank
• HSBC

Question 3.
The industrial sector has performed poorly during reform period’. Justify.
Answer:
The industrial sector has performed poorly in the re-form period due to the following reasons :

1. The shortage of electricity and raw materials affect the quality of goods produced.
2. NEP has seriously affected local industrial production.

Question 4.
Classify the following as direct tax and indirect tax. (Sales tax, Property tax, VAT, Customs duty, Income tax, Corporate tax)
Answer:

Question 5.
‘NEP has impact on poverty’. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, NEP has impact on poverty. NEP cannot solve the problem of poverty. It seems that it will increase the problem of poverty. The reason is that there will be reduction of public expenditure on projects benefiting the poor. It will also reduce subsidy on food and agricultural product. At the same time, the government will raise the prices of essential products used by the poor. Ail will lead to increase in poverty.

Question 6.
At present how many industries are reserved for public sector in India? Which are they?
Answer:
3 industries. They are:

1. Atomic energy
2. Minerals enlisted under schedule of atomic energy.
3. Rail transport.

Question 7.
Mention the monetory reforms under new economic policy?
Answer:

1. Re-constitution of banking system
2. Free determination of interest rate
3. Reduction of liquidity ratio
4. Improvement in banking system.
5. More freedom to banks
6. Abolition of direct credit program.

Question 8.
Do you think that “navaratna policy” of the government helps in improving the performance of Public Sector undertakings in India? Substantiate.
Answer:
In 1996, in order to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively in the liberalized global environment, the government chose nine PSUs and declared them as navaratnas.

They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy, in taking various decisions to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits. Greater operational, financial and managerial autonomy had also been granted to 97 other profit-making enterprises referred to as miniratnas.

The granting of navaratna status resulted in better performance of these companies. Gradually the government has decided to help these Navaratnas in becoming independent so that they can expand themselves in the global markets and raise resources by themselves from financial markets.

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State whether true or false

1. ICICI is a public sector bank
2. ONGC is a Navaratna company
3. Quota is a non-tariff barrier
4. India faced balance of payment crisis in 1991

Answer:

1. False. ICICI is a private sector bank
2. True
3. True
4. True

Question 2.
What are the causes of globalisation?
Answer:
The major causes of globalisation are given below:

1. rapid growth of research and development.
2. Improvement in communication facilities.
3. deregulation of money market.
4. removal of artificial barriers.

Question 3.
“Agricultural sector appears to be adversely affected by the reform process” do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, Agricultural sector appears to be adversely affected by the reform process. The agricultural sector has not been able to be benefited by the reform process, rather the growth rate has decelerated. Public investment in agriculture sector has been reduced during the reform period. Further, the removal of fertilizer subsidy severely affected the mall and marginal farmers

Due to commencement of WTO a lot of policies have changed which have adversely affected the Indian farmers. Moreover, because of export oriented policy in agriculture, there has been a shift from production for the domestic market towards production for export market focusing on cash crops instead of food grains. This has resulted in the price rise of food grains. In short India’s agricultural sector is badly affected by the reform process.

Question 4.
“New Economic Policy of 1991 was an inevitable phenomenon”. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, I agree.
India at the time of independence, adopted a mixed economy framework and accordingly rules and laws were framed which aimed at controlling and regulating the economy. However, in the long run, theses ended up hampering the process of growth and development.

In 1991 India faced an acute economic crisis relating to external debt. The government was not able to make repayments on its borrowings from abroad. Foreign exchange reserves dropped at such a level that it was not sufficient for even a fortnight. Prices of essential goods were rising high. All these factors led to the need for reforms to be introduced in India.

Question 5.
Prepare a note on WTO.
Answer:
The WTO was founded in 1995 as the successor organization to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT). GATT was established in 1948 with 23 countries as the global trade organization to administer all multilateral trade agreements by providing equal opportunities to all countries in the international market for trading purposes.

WTO is expected to establish a rule based trading regime in which nations cannot place arbitrary restrictions on trade. In addition, its purpose is also to enlarge production and trade of services, to ensure optimum utilization of world resources and to protect the environment.

The WTO agreements covertrade in goods as well as services to facilitate international trade (bilateral and multilateral) through removal of tariff as well as non-tariff barriers and providing greater market access to all member countries.

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you think outsourcing is good for India?
Answer:
Outsourcing is one of the important outcomes of the globalization process. In outsourcing, a company hires regular services from external sources, mostly from other countries, which was previously provided internally or from within the country (like legal advice, computer service, advertisement, security each provided by respective departments of the company).

As a form of economic activity, outsourcing has intensified, in recent times, because of the growth of fast modes of communication, particularly the growth of Information Technology (IT). Most multinational corporations, and even small companies, are outsourcing their services to India where they can be availed at a cheaper cost with reasonable degree of skill and accuracy.

The low wage rates and availability of skilled manpower in India have made it a destination for global outsourcing in the post-reform period. Thus I think in this reform period outsourcing is good for India.

Question 2.
Prepare a note on privatisation of Indian economy?
Answer:
Privatisation means removing strict control over private sector and making them free to take necessary decisions. Since independence, we accorded top priority to the public sector but the desired results could not be achieved with the encouragement of the public sector. Now the new economic policy tries to expand private sector. In order to encourage private sector following measures have been adopted.
Measures to encourage Private Sector in the economy are the following

1. Reduction in the number of reserved public sector industries. The number of Public Sector industries from 17 to 4.
2. Increasing the share of private sector investment.
3. Selling the share of public enterprises.
4. No insistance on conversion. Now the financial corporation can not insist the industries for conversion of their loans into equity shares.

The government has also made attempts to improve the efficiency of PSUs by giving them autonomy in taking managerial decisions.

Plus One Economics Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation -An Appraisal Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Assess the performance of Indian economy during reforms.
Answer:
The growth of GDP measured from 5.6 percent during 1980-91 to .8.2% during 2007-12. The foreign exchange reserve and foreign direct investment increased rapidly. FDI increased from about US $100 million in 1990 -91 to US$ 400 billion in 2010 -11.

Foreign exchange reserve increased from US$6 billion in 1990-91 to US $400 billion 2011 -12. During this period Indian exports of auto parts, engineering goods, IT software and textiles, increased rapidly. But the reform process have been widely criticized on the following grounds.

Even though there has been an increase in GDP, the reform led growth has not generated sufficient employment opportunities Growth rate in agriculture has been decelerating. Public investment in agriculture sector has been reduced in the reform period. Industrial growth also has been decelerated. Disinvestment of PSUs could not reach near the target.

The tax reduction in the reform period, aimed at yielding larger revenue and to cut tax evasion, have not resulted in increase in tax revenue. The process of globalization has produced positive as well as negative results for both India and other countries.

Globalization could be seen as an opportunity is term of greater access to global markets, high technology, etc. Some other economists argue that globalisation is a strategy of the developed countries to expand their markets in other countries.

Question 2.
Many scholars argue that globalization is a threat as it reduces the role of the state in many sectors.
Some counter argue that it is an opportunity as it opens up markets to compete in and capture. Prepare a Debate Report on “Globalization is a threat or blessing”.
Answer:
lips “Globalization is a threat or blessing”.
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a debate on the topic Globalization is a threat or blessing on 16/08/2018 at 10.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into two groups to cover the entire area of the topic. Each group presented relevant points to support their views.

1. Arguments in favors of Globalization

• As a result of globalization, the growth rate of the economy has gone up. Production of both agricultural and industrial sectors increased
• As a result of globalization, export growth rate has increased, foreign direct investment has risen and the ratio of external debt to GDP has also fallen
• Globalization will create pressures of competition which help in improving efficiency level
• The New Economic Policy has helped to tide over the immediate balance of payments crisis

2. Arguments against Globalization

• Globalization process neglected the agricultural sector compared to other sectors
• More dependence on foreign debt will put India into debt trap
• The globalization process has given more importance to foreign technology. This will hurt indigenous know-how
• The globalization has encouraged the production of comforts and luxuries.

Question 3.
Prepare a seminar report on the topic “New Economic Policy – 1991 ”
Answer:
“New Economic Policy -1991”
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic “New Economic Policy – 1991” on 16/08/2018 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into three groups to cover the entire area of the topic. Each group presented one objective each. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
LIBERALISATION:
Liberalization was introduced to put an end to these restrictions and open up various sectors of the economy. Though a few liberalization measures were introduced in 1980s in areas of industrial licensing, export-import policy, technology up-gradation, fiscal policy, and foreign investment, reform policies initiated in 1991 were more comprehensive.

Let us study some important areas such as the industrial sector, financial sector, tax reforms, foreign exchange markets and trade and investment sectors which received greater attention in and after 1991.

The features of liberalization are:

• Deregulation of Industrial Sector
• Financial Sector Reforms
• Tax Reforms
• Foreign Exchange Reforms
• Trade and Investment Policy Reforms

PRIVATISATION:
It implies shedding of the ownership or management of a government-owned enterprise. Government companies can be converted into private companies in two ways

1. by withdrawal of the government from ownership and management of public sector companies and or
2. by outright sale of public sector companies. Privatization of the public sector undertakings by selling off part of the equity of PSUs to the public is known as disinvestment.

The purpose of the sale, according to the government, was mainly to improve financial discipline and facilitate modernization. It was also envisaged that private capital and managerial capabilities could be effectively utilized to improve the performance of the PSUs.

GLOBALISATION:
Globalization is the outcome of the policies of liberalization and privatization. Although globalization is generally understood to mean integration of the economy of the country with the world economy, it is a complex phenomenon. It is an outcome of the set of various policies that are aimed at transforming the world towards greater interdependence and integration.

It involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries. Globalization attempts to establish links in such a way that the happenings in India can be influenced by events happening miles away. It is turning the world into one whole or creating a borderless world

Conclusion:
All the three groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was a question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Planning Commission was set up on
(i) 1^st January 1950
(ii) 1^st March 1950
(iii) 15^th March 1950
(iv) 1^st April 1950
Answer:
(iii) 15^th March 1950

Question 2.
Who is the architect of Indian planning?
(i) K.N. Raj
(ii) PC. Mahalanobis
(iii) R.C. Desai
(iv) Dadabhai Navoroji
Answer:
(ii) PC. Mahalanobis

Question 3.
India is ____ type of economic system.
(i) Capitalist
(ii) Socialist
(iii) Mixed economy
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(iii) Mixed economy

Question 4.
Green revolution is related to:
(i) Food grain production
(ii) Cash crop production
(iii) Milk production
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(i) Food grain production

Question 5.
Who is considered as the architect of Indian Planning?
Answer:
P C Mahalanobis is considered as the architect of Indian Planning.

Question 6.
White revolution deals with ____.
Answer:
Milk

Question 7.
How many annual plans were implemented in India?
Answer:
6 Annual Plans.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Point out the main objective of industrial licencing.
Answer:
The aim of industrial licencing was establishment, expansion, and ownership of private industries according to priorities of five year plans. It also aims to check the monopoly tendency in industries. Another objective is to remove the regional disparities of growth.

Question 2.
Define economic planning.
Answer:
Economic planning means utilisation of country’s resources into different development activities in accordance with national priorities.

Question 3.
Name the chairman and deputy chairman of NITI AYOG.
Answer:

• Chairman – Narendra Modi (Prime Minister).
• Deputy Chairman – Arvind Panagaria.

Question 4.
Analyze the following table and draw inference.

Answer:
The above table shows the contribution of agriculture, industry and service sectors to India’s GDP. It makes a comparative analysis of 1950-51 and 1990-91. From the data, it is clear that at the time of independence, agriculture was the major contributor to our GDP followed by service sector and industrial sector.

This picture has undergone change by 1990-91. The service sector is the major contributor GDP during 1990-91. The negative significance of agriculture slightly declined which is a good sign of development.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why was it necessary for a developing country like India to follow self-reliance as a planning objective?
Answer:
Our first seven five year plans gave importance to ‘self reliance’. This means averting imports of those goods which could be produced in India itself. When India becomes self reliant, we can save foreign exchange and can promote exports.

Question 2.
Do you think that Land Reforms were successfully implemented in all the States of India? Substantiate your view.
Answer:
No. Land Reforms were not successfully implemented in all the States of India. Land reforms were successful in Kerala and West Bengal because these states had governments committed to the policy of land to the tiller. Unfortunately, other states did not have the same level of commitment and vast inequality in landholding continues to this day.

Question 3.
Find the odd one out

1. Modernization, growth, equity, imports
2. Chemical fertilizers, HYV seeds, licensing, irrigation
3. Licensing, protection, abolition of intermediaries, reservation for small scale industry.

Answer:

1. Imports. Others are objectives of five year plans
2. Licensing. Others relate to green revolution
3. Abolition of intermediaries. Others relate to industrial policy

Question 4.
Given below are some names of the countries. Classify them into a fable based on the economic system they follow.
(USA, Germany, Cuba, India, China, Srilanka, UK, Venezuela, Pakistan)
Answer:

Question 5.
Match the following columns.

A	B
Capitalism	Existence of public sector and private sector
Socialism	Market mechanism
Mixed economy	Public sector

Answer:

A	B
Capitalism	Market mechanism
Socialism	Public sector
Mixed economy	Existence of public sector and private sector

Question 6.
‘Growth with equity’ is an objective of Indian planning. Justify.
Answer:
Growth means increase in the country’s capacity to produce the output of goods and services and equity means equality. Growth with equity is an important objective of our planning. By this, we mean that the government should ensure that the benefit of economic growth reaches the poor sections of the society. It also aims that every citizen should be able to meet the basic requirements such as food, shelter, education, health care, etc.

Question 7.
What is the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Answer:
Agriculture is considered as the backbone of the Indian economy. It contributes about 25% of national income. Moreover, about 2/3 of our total population depends on agriculture for their living. Therefore, agriculture plays an important role in the economic development of our country.

Question 8.
Give the main objectives of industrial policy 1956?
Answer:
The main objectives of Industrial Policy 1956 are:

• rapid industrial development.
• rapid growth of public sector.
• reduction in inequalities of income and wealth.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a good indicator of economic growth of a country”. Comment.
Answer:
A steady increase in the Gross Domestic Product is considered a good indicator of economic growth. The gross domestic product is the market value of all goods and services produced in the country during a year. If the value of GDP is more, it will be divided among the number of people. It is necessary to produce more goods and services if people of India are to enjoy a more rich and varied life.

The GDP of a country is derived from the different sectors of the economy, namely the agricultural sector, the industrial sector, and the service sector. The contribution m|de by each of these sectors makes up the sectoral composition of the economy.

Question 2.
Explain the need and type of land reforms implemented in the agricultural sector.
Answer:
independence, the land tenure system was dominated by the intermediaries who merely collected rent from the tillers without contributing towards improvements on the farm. This resulted in low production from agriculture and forced India to import food. This called for an urgent need of a land reform system.
The types of land reform implemented are:

• Abolition of intermediaries
• Making the tillers the owners of land
• Land ceiling i.e., fixing the size of landholding.

Question 3.
Prepare a table showing the plans of India and the years of their implementation?
Answer:

Plan	Period
1st F.Y.P	1951-56
2nd F.YP	1956-61
3rd F.Y.P	1961-66
3 Annual Plans	1966-69
4th F.Y.P	1969-74
5th F.Y.P	1974-79
1 Annual Plan	1979-80
6th F.Y.P	1980-85
7th F.Y.P	1985-90
2 Annual Plans	1990-92
8th F.Y.P	1992-97
9th F.Y.P	1997-02
10th F.Y.P	2002-07
11th F.Y.P	2007-12
12th F.Y.P	2012-17

Question 4.
Match the following

A	B
(i) Quota	(i) NitiAyog
(ii) HYV seeds	(ii) Improvements in agriculture
(iii) Land Reforms	(iii) Seedsgiving large output
(iv) Prime Minister	(iv) Qualrty of goods that can be importec

Answer:

A	B
(i) Quota	(iv) Quantity of goods that can be imported
(ii) HYV seeds	(iii) Seeds giving large output.
(iii) Land Reforms	(ii) Improvements in agriculture
(iv) Prime Minister	(i) Planning commission

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is green revolution? How did it benefit the farmers?
Answer:
Significant and continuous rise in agricultural production with the use of fertilizers, HYV seeds and irrigation facilities is known as Green Revolution.

In India, green revolution was executed in two phases. The first phase was from 1965-75. This phase concentrated the crop wheat and was confined to affluent states. The second phase was from 1975-85. The phase concentrated on a variety of crops and was implemented in all Indian states.
The benefits of green revolution:

1. Self-sufficiency in food grain.
2. Living standards of farmers increased
3. Large marketable surplus
4. The price of food grain fell down and consumers were benefited.

Question 2
Prepare a debate report on the topic “Is agriculture subsidy necessary”?
Answer:
Arguments in favour of giving subsidies

• Subsidies provide an incentive for adoption of the new technology by farmers in general and small scale farmers in particular
• Subsidies are needed to encourage farmers to test new technology
• Subsidies help small farmers to continue production so that food security of the nation can be ensured

Arguments against giving subsidies

• Subsidies very often do not benefit the target group
• It is a huge burden on the government’s finances
• Subsidies provide an incentive for wasteful use of resources.

Question 3.
Discuss the rationale for import substitution as a foreign trade policy measure?
Answer:
The industrial policy that we adopted was closely related to the trade policy. In the first seven plans, trade was characterized by what is commonly called an inward-looking trade strategy. Technically, this strategy is called import substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or substituting imports with domestic production.

For example, instead of importing vehicles made in a foreign country, industries would be encouraged to produce them in India itself. In this policy, the government protected the domestic industries from foreign competition. Protection from imports took two forms: tariffs and quotas.

Tariffs are a tax on imported goods; they make imported goods more expensive and discourage their use. Quotas specify the quantity of goods which can be imported. The effect of tariffs and quotas is that they restrict imports and, therefore, protect domestic firms from foreign competition.

Question 4.
Small scale industries play a vital role in Indian economy. Give reasons.
Answer:
Small-scale industry’ is defined with reference to the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a unit. This limit has changed over a period of time. In 1950 a small-scale industrial unit was one which invested a maximum of rupees five lakh; at present, the maximum investment allowed is rupees one crore.

It was believed that small-scale industries are more ‘labour intensive’ i.e., they use more labour than the large-scale industries and, therefore, generate more employment. But these industries cannot compete with the big industrial firms; it is obvious that development of small-scale industry requires them to be shielded from the large firms.

For this purpose, the production of a number of products was reserved for the small-scale industry the criterion of reservation being the ability of these units to manufacture the goods. They were also given concessions such as lower excise duty and bank loans at lower interest rates. Therefore it can be concluded that small scale industries play a vital role in an economy like India.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy 1950-1990 Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on the “Goals of five year plans pursued till 1991”. [Hint: A Seminar report should contain the title, introduction, content, and conclusion].
Answer:
“Goals of five year plans pursued till 1991”.
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic Goals of five year plans pursued till 1991 on 16/08/2018 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into four groups to cover the entire area of the topic. Each group presented one objective each. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
A plan should have some clearly specified goals. The goals of the five-year plans are growth, modernization, self-reliance, and equity.

1. Growth:
It refers to increase in the country’s capacity to produce the output of goods and services within the country. It implies either a larger stock of productive capital, or a larger size of supporting services like transport and banking, or an increase in the efficiency of productive capital and services.

A good indicator of economic growth, in the language of economics, is steady increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The GDP is the market value of all the goods and services produced in the country during a year. The GDP of a country is derived from the different sectors of the economy, namely the agricultural sector, the industrial sector, and the service sector. The contribution made by each of these sectors makes up the structural composition of the economy.

2. Modernization:
To increase the production of goods and services the producers have to adopt new technology. For example, a farmer can increase the output on the farm by using new seed varieties instead of using the old ones. Similarly, a factory can increase output by using a new type of machine. Adoption of new technology is called modernization.

However, modernization does not refer only to the use of new technology but also to changes in social outlook such as the recognition that women should have the same rights as men. In a traditional society, women are supposed to remain at home while men work. Modern society makes use of the talents of women in the workplace in banks, factories, schools, etc. and such a society will be more civilized and prosperous.

3. Self-reliance:
A nation can promote economic growth and modernization using its own resources or by using resources imported from other nations. The first seven five year plans gave importance to self-reliance which means avoiding imports of those goods which could be produced in India itself.

This policy was considered a necessity in order to reduce our dependence on foreign countries, especially for food. It is understandable that people who were recently freed from foreign domination should give importance to self-reliance.

4. Equity:
Now growth, modernization, and self-reliance, by themselves, may not improve the kind of life which people are living in A country can have high growth; the most modem technology developed in the country itself, and also has most of its people living in poverty.

It is important to ensure that the benefits of economic prosperity reach the poor sections as well instead of being enjoyed only by the rich. So, in addition to growth, modernization, and self-reliance, equity is also important every Indian should be able to meet his or her basic needs such as food, a decent house, education, and health care and inequality in the distribution of wealth should be reduced.

Conclusion:
All the four groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was the question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.

Question 2.
Prepare a note on the achievements and failures of economic planning in India?
Answer:
A. Achievements of Planning:
1. Rise in national income:
These has been significant increase in national income during the plan period. The national income increased by an average of above 4% during economic planning.

2. Increase in per capita income:
Prior to independence, rate of increase in per capita income had been almost zero. But during the period of planning, per capita income increased at the rate of 2% p.a.

3. Increase in rate of capital formation:
Capital formation plays a significant rule in the economic growth of a country. During five year plans rate of capital formation has significantly increased. As the rate of capital formation depends on the rate of saving and investment, there has been considerable increase in the rate of saving and investment.

4. Institutional reforms in agriculture and Green Revolution:
Plans have contributed to the development of agriculture in two ways:

• Land reforms have been introduced in agriculture.
• Since 1966, stress has been given another technological advancement of agriculture. It resulted into Green revolution. During the period of planning, production of food grains has trebled.

5. Development of industries:
Industrial sector has received a lot of encouragement as a result of planning. Basic and capital goods industries like iron and steel, machinery, chemical fertilizers, etc. have developed adequately. During the period of planning, growth rate of industrial production has been around 6.9% per annum industrial production during the First Five Year Plan increased by 8%.

6. Development of Economic Infrastructure :
Economic infrastructure mainly includes transport, means of communication, irrigation facilities and the generation capacity of power, etc. During the period of planning, economic infrastructure has developed considerably.

7. Development of Social Infrastructure:
During the period of planning, country’s social services like education, health, and medical facilities, family planning, etc. also developed appreciably.

8. Employment:
Serious efforts have been made during plans to increase employment opportunities.

B. Failures of Economic Planning:
The following are the main features of economic planning in India.
1. No substantial increase in the Standard of Living:
All the five-year plans of India aimed at raising the standard of living of the people.

2. Rise in Prices:
Price stability has been one of the objectives of each Five Year Plans in India. But almost all the plans witnessed considerable rise in price level. First Plan is the only exception when price level comes down, in all other plans the prices recorded a steep rise.

3. Increase in Unemployment:
Unabated rise in unemployment was witnessed during the period of planning.

4. Less Growth in Production:
In the Five Year Plans, growth rate of production was slow in many states. Priority should have been given to the development of agriculture in all the plans, but it was not done.

5. Inadequate Development of Infrastructure:
Development of infrastructure like electricity, roads, transport, education, etc. ramained inadequate during the period of planning.

6. Inequality in Distribution of Income and Wealth:
The main objective of the Five Year Plan is to minimise inequality in distribution of income and wealth but during the period of planning the problem of inequality further.

7. Inefficient Administration:
An expert team of U.N.O. observed that one of the main shortcomings of Indian planning has been with reference to its implementation.

8. Lack of Strong Foundation:
Despite completion of Nine Five Year Plans, economic base could not acquire strength. Even now use depend heavily on rainfall for agricultural production. Due to the failure of monsoon in 1965-66, 1966 – 67, 1979 – 80 and 1982 – 83, the entire economy was thrown out of gear.

You can Download Political Theory – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala one Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Political Theory: An Introduction

Political Theory: An Introduction Questions and Answers

Plus one Political Science Notes in English Question 1
What is Politics?

Answer:
The word politics was first used by Aristotle, who is the Father of Political Science. The Greek ‘polis’ means related to city. It is from this word, ‘politics’ came. It actually means the ideas regarding the administration of the City-States of ancient Greece. In the modern period, politics is a political art.

Question 2.
What do you mean political theory?

Answer:
Political theory or political vision is the ideas regarding the relations between men, the social creature, and the Nation. In Political Theory we learn the following:
a) Studies about Man.
b) Studies regarding administration and government.
c) Studies about political dynamics.
d) Studies about political philosophy.
e) Studies about International Relations.

Plus one Political Science Question .3
Who is the father of political science?

Answer:
Aristotle.

Political Science Plus one Notes Question .4
Point out the advantages of studying Political Theory.

Answer:
There is much importance in the study of Political Theory. The knowledge about politics, which controls a person’s activities even before the start of his life to even after his death is inevitable. Its importance can be given thus:
a) Political theories give a philosophical base for the political activities.
b) Political theories help in placing administration (government), rule of law, dispensation of justice, etc. which are essential features of a nation, in a definite and organized framework.
c) They help in understanding and evaluating past experiences and historical events.
d) It is through political theories that technical terms are interpreted and they are given precision and clarity.
e) Political theories support the building of a political system beyond the consideration of time and terrain to ensure a creative political life.
f) Philosophy is the highest form of human thought and wisdom. Political theories are the essence of constant searches trying to elevate human life to an ideal level of perfection.
g) All the creative and practical human activities need two essential things: the support of moral values and a theoretical base. Political theories make these available.

Question .5
In Political theory, we study several things. Prepare a flow chart showing them.

Answer:

Question 6.
Distinguish between Politics and Political Theory.

Answer:
The word politics was first used by Aristotle, who is the Father of Political Science. The Greek ‘polis’ means related to city. It is from this word, ‘politics’ came. It actually means the ideas regarding the administration of the City-States of ancient Greece. In the modern period, politics is a political art. Political theory or political vision is the ideas regarding the relations between men, the social creature, and the Nation. In Political Theory we learn the following:
f) Studies about Man.
g) Studies regarding administration and government.
h) Studies about political dynamics,
i) Studies about political philosophy.
j) Studies about International Relations.

Question 7.
Prepare a note on the origin and growth of political theory.

Answer:
Origin and Growth of Political Theory: Plato records that discussions regarding Political theories were started by Socrates. Socrates made a start seeking the meaning of justice among the Athenian citizens. Plato’s search was continued by his disciple Aristotle. It is therefore said that political theory started in the Western world with Socrates and Plato. Thinkers from Aristotle to Marx have given significant contributions to the growth of political theory.
In political science the following areas have the most important places:
a) Political theory handles ideas and principles that formulate the Constitution, government and social life.
b) It examines the importance of ideas like Rule of Law, Division of Authority and Judicial Review.
c) It explains the meaning of freedom, equality, democracy, and secularism.

Question 8.
What do we study in political theory?

Answer:
We study the following in political theory:
a) Political theory handles ideas and principles that formulate the Constitution, government and social life.
b) It examines the importance of ideas like Rule of Law, Division of Authority and Judicial Review.
c) It explains the meaning of freedom, equality, democracy, and secularism.
d) It also discusses the origin of government, development, formation, activities, the relations between people and the government and people’s rights and responsibilities.

Question 9.
Every individual is directly or indirectly involved in the politics of a country. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate.

Answer:
I agree. In our day-to-day lives, our activities are controlled by-laws made by the government. Giving taxes, obeying the law, etc. are fundamental things that each person has to do. We play our role in politics by voting in the election and through our Right to Expression.

Question 10.
Explain how political theory can be put into practice.

Answer:
Political theories are based on political concepts like liberty, equality, citizenship, justice, development, nationality and secularism. Government originated, is existing and its future working, etc. are for putting into practice these political theories. Democratic governments exist to ensure that there is liberty, equality, and fraternity in the society.

Question 11.
Why should we study political theory?

Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories, advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future. The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions.

All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives. Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Question 12.
deals with things like Liberty, Equality, and Justice which are values of political life.

Answer:
Political theory

Plus one Politics Notes Question 13.
Who is the person that contributed greatly to the growth of political theory?
a) Socrates
b) Plato
c) Rousseau
d) All of the above

Answer:
All of the above persons

HSSLive Political Science Class 11 Question 14.
Who was the first person to argue that liberty was a fundamental right of all human beings?

Answer:
Rousseau

HSSlive Political Science Notes Question 15.
Who argued that equality is as important as liberty?

Answer:
Marx

Students can Download Chapter 8 Infrastructure Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Infrastructure

Plus One Economics Infrastructure One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which among the following is an economic infrastructure?
(i) Eduction
(ii) Transport
(iii) Healthcare
(iv) Housing
Answer:
(ii) Transport

Question 2.
Who was the largest consumer of commercial energy in 1953-54 in India?
(i) Household sector
(ii) Industry sector
(iii) Agriculture sector
(iv) Transport
Answer:
(iv) Transport

Question 3.
What is the Contribution of nuclear energy of total energy consumption in India?
(i) 2%
(ii) 13%
(iii) 20%
(iv) 10%
Answer:
(i) 2%

Question 4.
Which of the following nations has lowest Health expenditure as a percentage of GDP?
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) USA
(iv) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(iv) Sri Lanka

Question 5.
Identify social infrastructure from the following.
(i) Education
(ii) Energy
(iii) Transport
(iv) Communication
Answer:
(i) Education

Question 6.
Find out conventional energy.
(i) Biogas
(ii) Wind energy
(iii) Petroleum
(iv) Solar energy
Answer:
(iii) Petroleum

Question 7.
Infant mortality rate in India in 2012 was ______ .
(i) 40
(ii) 47
(iii) 57
(iv) 60
Answer:
(ii) 47

Question 8.
Write the full form of NTPC.
Answer:
NTPC stands for National Thermal Power Corporation.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two features of Indian system of medicine.
Answer:

1. They are very effective
2. They are safe and inexpensive

Question 2
State whether true or false.

1. education comes under social infrastructure
2. solar energy is nonconventional energy
3. Ayurveda is an Indian system of medicine
4. major part power generation in India comes from hydro projects.

Answer:

1. true
2. true
3. true
4. False, major part power generation in India comes from thermal projects

Question 3.
Name some National Health Care Programme.
Answer:

• National Malaria Eradication Programme
• National Filaria Control Programme
• National Family Welfare Programme
• National Diarrhoeal Diseases Control Programme

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name three sources of non-conventional energy.
Answer:

1. Solar energy
2. Wind energy
3. Tidal power

Question 2.
Classify the following into commercial energy and non-commercial energy:
Coal, petrol, agricultural waste, dry animal dung, twig of trees, natural gas.
Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the following sources of energy into conventional sources and non-conventional sources.
(Coal, Electricity, Wind energy, Solar energy, Petroleum, Tidal energy)
Answer:
1. Conventional source files

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Electricity

2. Non-conventional sources

• Solar energy
• Tidal energy
• Wind energy

Question 4.
List various non-commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
Various non-commercial source of energy are :

• solar energy
• wind energy
• tidal energy
• energy from firewood
• energy from vegetable waste
• energy from dried dung

Question 5.
What are the three basic sources of generating power?
Answer:

1. Hydroelectricity
2. Thermal electricity
3. Nuclear electricity

Question 6.
List the six system of Indian medicine.
Answer:
Six system of Indian medicine are :

1. Ayurveda
2. Yoga
3. Siddha
4. Unani
5. Homeopathy
6. Naturopathy

Question 7.
Explain the term ‘infrastructure’.
Answer:
Infrastructure is the support system on which the sufficient working of a modern industrial economy depends. It is the physical framework which is essential for giving services to people such as roads, railways, airports, ports, dam, power stations, telecommunication educational and health facilities, etc. Infrastructure consists of services like banking, communication, transport, irrigation, power, etc. These are very essential for production of goods.

Question 8.
Name different types of energy?
Answer:
The different types of energy are:

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas
• Bioenergy
• Solar energy
• Atomic energy

Question 9.
Categorize the following as elements of economic infrastructure and social infrastructure.
[Canals, Houses, schools and colleges, railways, ships, hospitals, banks, courts, power plants, satellite stations],
Answer:

Question 10.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
There are two sources of energy namely, commercial and noncommercial. Noncommercial sources are firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung. These are noncommercial as they are found in nature. Commercial sources of energy like grass hay, twigs and small branches of a tree, sundried cow dung cakes are generally renewable.

More than 60 percent of Indian households depend on these traditional sources of energy for meeting regular cooking and heating needs. The energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the names of four atomic energy plants in India.
Answer:

1. Atomic energy power plant at Tarapur
2. Atomic energy power plant at Narora
3. Atomic energy power plant in Kalapakkam (Chennai)
4. Atomic energy power plant at Rana Pratap Sagar Dam (Kota)

Question 2.
Write a note on ISM.
Answer:
Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM):
It includes six systems: Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Naturopathy, and Homeopathy (AYUSH). At present, there are 3,004 ISM hospitals, 23,028 dispensaries and as many as 6,11,431 registered practitioners in India. But little has been done to set up a framework standardize education or to promote research.tSM has huge potential and can solve a large part of our health care problems because they are effective, safe and inexpensive.

Question 3.
Kerala is experiencing huge energy crisis. Suggest some measures for solving the problem.
Answer:
More public investment, better research and development efforts, exploration, technological innovation and use of renewable energy sources can ensure solution of energy crisis in Kerala. Though the private sector has made some progress, it is necessary to tap this sector to come forward and produce power on a large scale.

One also has to appreciate the efforts made in this regard. More efforts and encouragement should be given by the government for the widespread use of wind, solar and tidal energy production in the state. Moreover, greater reliance on renewable energy resources offers enormous economic, social and environmental benefits.

Question 4.
Analyze the state of health infrastructure in India citing facts and figures.
Answer:
India has built up a vast health infrastructure and manpower at different levels since independence. At the village level, a variety of hospitals have been set up by the government. India also has a large number of hospitals run by voluntary agencies and the private sector.

These hospitals are manned by professionals and paramedical professionals trained in medical, pharmacy and nursing colleges. Since independence, there has been a significant expansion in the physical provision of health services.

During 1951-2000, the number of hospitals and dispensaries increased from 9,300 to 43,300 and hospital beds from 1, 2 to 7.2 million during 1951 – 99, nursing personnel increased from 0.18 to 8.7 lakh and allopathic doctors from 0.62 to 5.0 lakh. Expansion of health infrastructure has resulted in the eradication of smallpox, guinea worms and the near eradication of polio and leprosy.

Question 5.
Differentiate between commercial and noncommercial sources of energy.
Answer:
Commercial sources of energy:
Commercial sources of energy include coal, petroleum, and electricity. They could be bought and sold. They are generally exhaustible in nature. More than 60 percent of Indian households depend on the traditional source of energy.

Non-commercial sources of energy include firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung. They are found in nature or forests. Lesser number of persons use these resources.

Question 6.
Point out the connection between consumption of energy and economic growth?
Answer:
The central issue has been whether economic growth stimulates consumption of energy or is energy consumption itself a stimulus for economic growth. But whatever may be the causal relationship between energy consumption and economic growth of a nation, they are both closely related.

Since energy is an essential input of all productive activities, agricultural or industrial, the process of economic development inevitable demands increasing levels of energy consumption. The higher the degree of economic growth, the higher is the consumption of energy and vice versa. Thus energy consumption is an important indicator of economic growth.

Electricity is one of the most critical infrastructures that determines economic development of a country. The growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than GDP growth rate. In order to have an 8 % GDP growth rate per annum, the power supply needs to grow around 12% annually. This shows that the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth are connected.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Infrastructure facilities boost production’ Do you agree? Substantiate your answers.
Answer:
Infrastructure facilities boost production in the following manner.
1. Infrastructure provides support services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce.

2. Infrastructure facilities include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication facilities, educational systems, health systems, monetary systems, etc. It is the support system on which depends the efficient working of a modern industrial economy.

3. Modem agriculture largely depends on infrastructure for speedy and large scale transport of seeds, pesticides, fertilizers, and the produce by making use of modem roadways, railways, and shipping facilities.

4. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

Question 2.
“Infrastrucure contribute to the economic development of a country like india” Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that infrastructure contribute to the economic development of a country like India. The reason why infrastructure is an essential precondition for economic development are pointed out below.

1. Infrastructure contributes to economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

2. Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on health. Improvements in water supply and sanitation have a large impact by reducing morbidity from major waterborne diseases and reducing the severity of disease when it occurs.

3. In addition to the obvious linkage between water and sanitation and health, the quality of transport and communication infrastructure can affect access to health care.

4. Infrastructure is in itself a source of employment for the large labour force of developing economies like India.

Question 3.
Suggest the progammes to increase the effectiveness of health care system.
Answer:
The following are the progammes to increase the effectiveness of health care system

• Public health facilities should be decentralized
• People should be educated about the nature, causes, and remedies of general diseases
• People should be made aware about sanitation facilities, cleanliness, immunization, etc.
• Efforts should be taken to develop health infrastructure
• Primary health care facilities should be strengthened
• Private-public participation in health care system should be encouraged

Question 4.
“India’s power sector faces some challenges today”. Do you agree? If yes mention the challenges.
Answer:
agree with the statement that India’s power sector faces some challenges today.
Some of the challenges that India’s power sector faces today are:

1. India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth of 7 percent. In order to meet the growing demand for electricity, between 2000 and 2012, India needs to add 1,00,000 MW of new capacity, whereas, at present, India is able to add only 20,000 MW a year. Even the installed capacity is underutilized because plants are not run properly

2. State Electricity Boards (SEBs), which distribute electricity, incur losses which exceed Rs 500billion. This is due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies. Some scholars also say that distribution of electricity to farmers is the main reason for the losses; electricity is also stolen in different areas which also adds to the woes of SEBs

3. Private sector power generators are yet to play their role in a major way same is the case with foreign investors

4. There is general public unrest due to high power tariffs and prolonged power cuts in different parts of the country
Thermal power plants which are the mainstay of. India’s power sector are facing a shortage of raw material and coal supplies.

Question 5.
There are some drawbacks in our health care system. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with these statements
The Indian constitution assign, the state, the responsibility of raising the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health. However, the National Health Policy lacks specific measures to achieve broad state goals. The government expenditure on health sector is 5% of total GDP. This is very low compared to other countries.

At present, less than 0% of the population utilises public health facilities However only 38% of the Public Health Centres (PHCs) have the required number of doctors and only 30% of the PHCs have sufficient stock of medicines. The people living in Rural areas do not have sufficient medical infrastructure.

There is shortage of beds, doctors and basic diagnostic facilities in rural areas. This has led to regional inequality in health services. Thus, it can be concluded that there are some draw-backs in our health care system.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on “energy and health infrastructure”.
Answer:
“Energy and health infrastructure”
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic “Energy and health infrastructure” on 12/09/2018 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into three groups to cover the entire area of the topic.

The first group explained the meaning and relevance of infrastructure, the second group explained the energy infrastructure and the third group presented their idea on health infrastructure. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
Infrastructure:
Infrastructure is the support system on which depends the efficient working of a modern industrial economy. Modern agriculture also largely depends on it for speedy and largescale transport of seeds, pesticides, fertilizers, and the products by making use of modern roadways, railways and shipping facilities.

Infrastructure contributes to economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

1. Energy:
Energy is a critical aspect of the development process of a nation. It is, of course, essential for industries. Now it is used on a large scale in agriculture and related areas like production and transportation of fertilizers, pesticides and farm equipment. It is required in houses for cooking, household lighting, and heating.

There are commercial and non-commercial sources of energy. Commercial sources are coal, petroleum, and electricity as they are bought and sold. They account for over 50 percent of all energy sources consumed in India. Noncommercial sources of energy are firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung.

These are noncommercial as they are found in nature/forests. Both commercial and noncommercial sources of energy are known as conventional sources of energy. There are three other sources of energy which are commonly termed as nonconventional sources solar energy, wind energy, and tidal power.

The most visible form of energy, which is often identified with progress in modern civilization, is power, commonly called electricity; it is one of the most critical components of infrastructure that determines the economic development of a country. The growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than the GDP growth rate.

Studies point that in order to have8 percent GDP growth per annum, power supply needs to grow around 12per cent annually. Electricity is a secondary form of energy produced from primary energy resources including coal, hydrocarbons, hydro energy, nuclear energy, renewable energy, etc. Primary energy consumption takes into account the direct and indirect consumption of fuels.

2. Health:
Health is not only absence of disease but also the ability to realize one’s potential. It is a yardstick of one’s wellbeing. Health is the holistic process related to the overall growth and development of the nation. Development of health infrastructure ensures a country of healthy manpower for production of goods and services.

In recent times, scholars argue that people are entitled to health care facilities. It is the responsibility of the government to ensure the right to healthy living. Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nurses and other paramedical professionals, beds, equipment required in hospitals and a well developed pharmaceutical industry.

Conclusion:
All the three groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was a question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.