Plus Two

Kerala Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper 2017

Time Allowed: 2 hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum Marks: 60

General Instructions to Candidates

•  There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
•  Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
•  Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
•  Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Question 1:
The ratio in which the old partners agree to sacrifice their share of profit in favor of incoming partner is (1)
a. New ratio
b. Old ratio
c. Sacrificing ratio
d. Gaining ratio

Question 2:
Sanu and Binu are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:1. They admit Jinu for 3/7 share. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio. (1)

Question 3:
Write journal .entry for recording unrecorded liability at the time of retirement of a partner. (1)

Question 4:
Anand sports clubreceived Rs. 1,75,000 as subscription for the year ended 31^st March 2016. Consider the following adjustments and mention whether we should add or deduct each items to find out subscription for the year. (2)

a. Subscription outstanding on 31^st March 2016 Rs. 15,000.

b. Subscription outstanding on 1^st April 2015 Rs. 20,000.

c. Subscription received in advance as on 1^st April 2015 Rs. 16,000.

d. Subscription received in advance as on 31^st March 2016 Rs. 12000.

Question 5:
Firoz and Shahin are partners in a firm. The firm did not have any partnership deed. Specify how the following situations are treated. (1)

a. Sharing of profit and losses

b. Interest on advance given by Firoz to the firm.

Question 6:
Priya, Priji and Viji are partners, sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 4:3:2. Priji retired and goodwill is valued at Rs. 63,000. Priya and Viji are decided to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. Record necessary journal entry, when goodwill is raised at its full value and written off immediately. (2)

Question 7:
Mention the name of account where profit or loss on realization is transferred. (1)

Question 8:
What journal entry will be passed if realization expenses are paid by a partner on behalf of the firm.? (1)

Question 9:
Partners capital account and current account are not maintained separately under —— method of maintaining capital account. (1)

Question 10:
Anoop and Johny are partners in a firm, sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3:2. The firm was decided to dissolve on 31st March 2016. Mention any four ways of dissolution of firm. (2)

Question 11:
Anwar a partner in Akbar Travels with draw money during the year ending 31st March 2016 from his capital account for his personal use . Calculate interest on drawings on the following situations if rate of interest is 9% p.a. (3)

a. If he withdrew Rs.2,500 per month at the beginning of the month.
b. If the amount withdrawn were on 1 – 6 – 2015, Rs. 7,500 on 31-8-2015 Rs. 3,000 and 30 – 9 – 2015 Rs.6,500.

Question 12:
The capital of the firm of Mohan and Rissam is Rs. 75,000 and the rate of interest is 15%. Annual salary to partners is Rs. 5,000 each. The profit for the last 3 years were Rs. 36,000, 38000 and 31,000. Goodwill is to be valued at 2 years purchase of the last 3 years average super profits. Calculate the goodwill of the firm. (3)

Question 13:
Renjith, Sumesh and Aneesh are partners in a firm. Sumesh retires from the firm.
On the date of retirement of Sumesh, Rs.45,000 become due to him. Renjith and Aneesh promise to pay the amount in installments. Prepare Sumesh’s loan account, when they agree to pay three yearly installments of Rs. 15,000 including interest at 12% p.a. on the outstanding balance during the first 3 years and the balance including interest in the fourth year.

Question 14:
A, B & C are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3: 2. Their Balance Sheet as on 31^st March 2015 was as follows:


The firm was dissolved on that date.
Prepare realization account with the following information:

a. Building realized for Rs. 120000; Bills receivables realized for Rs. 70,000; Stock realized for Rs. 40,000 and Machinery sold for Rs, 33,000 and furniture Rs.60,000.

b. Bank loan was settled for Rs. 70,000; Creditors and bills payable were settled at 10% discount.

c. Realisation expenses Rs. 1,500.

Question 15:

L is admitted on the following terms:

1. L will bring Rs. 15,000 as capital and Rs.5,000 as premium for goodwill for 1/6 share.

2. The value of stock is reduced by 10% and plant and machinery increased by 5%.

3. Investment worth Rs.1,5oo(not mentioned in the Balance Sheet) is to be taken into account.

Prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners.

Question 16:
a. From the following Receipt and Payment Account of a club, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st December 2016 and Balance Sheet as on that date:

Additional information:

a. The club has loo members each paying an annual subscription of Rs. 900. Subscripti ons outstanding on December 31, 2015 were Rs. 3,800.

b.On December 31^st, 2016, salary outstanding amounted to Rs. 1,000, salary paid included Rs. 1,000 for the year 2015.

c. On January 1, 2016 the club owned land and building Rs. 25,000, furniture Rs.2,600 and books Rs. 6,200.

b. One of your friend wish to take membership in a cricket club. He does not know anything about Not-for-profit organizations. Can you explain him what it is and what are different accounting records maintained in such organization and steps for preparing final accounts? (8)

Answers

Answer 1:
(c) Sacrificing ratio

Answer 2:
3 : 1: 3

Answer 3:
Revaluation A/c Dr.
To Unrecorded liability

Answer 4:

Answer 5:
a. Equally
b. 696 interest on loan should be given to the partner Mr.Firoz

Answer 6:
Goodwill (premium) A/c Dr. 63000
To Priya’s Capital A/c 28000
To Priji’s Capital A/c 21000
To Viji’s Capital A/c 14000
(Goodwill raised at its full value and credited to old partner’s capital account in their old ratio)
Priya’s Capital A/c Dr. 39375
Viji’s Capital A/c Dr. 23625
To Goodwill A/c 63000
(Full value of goodwill written off to continuing partners’ capital account in their new ratio)

Answer 7:
Partners’ Capital Account or Partner’s Current Account

Answer 8:
Realization A/c Dr.
To Partner’s Capital A/c

Answer 9:
Fluctuating Capital Method

Answer 10:
Dissolution by agreement
Compulsory Dissolution
Dissolution on the happening of certain contingencies – like expiry of term of firm, death etc.,
Dissolution by notice
Dissolution by court

Answer 11:
a. Calculation of interest on Drawings:
Total Drawing = 2500 x 12 = 30000
Average period = 6.5
Interest on drawing = 30000 x 6.5/12
9% = 1462.50

Interest on drawings for one month on the
sum of products = sum of products x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x \(\frac { Rate of interest }{ 100 }\) 135000 x \(\frac { 1 }{ 12 }\) x9/100 = 1012.5

Answer 12:
Calculation of goodwill-Super Profit Method
Goodwill = Super Profit No.of years purchase
Super Profit= Average Profit – Normal Profit
∴ Average Profit = 36ooo+38ooo+3iooo= 105000/3 =35000
Normal Profit = Interest on capital+Partner’s Salary
Interest on capital = 75000 x 15% =11250
Partner’s Salary = 5000 x 2 = 10000
Normal Profit = 11250 + 10000=21250
Super Profit = 35000 – 21250 = 13750
Goodwill = 13750 * 2 = 27500

Answer 13:

Answer 14:

Answer 15:

Answer 16:

b. Not-for -profit Organisation refer to the organisations that are for used for the welfare of the society and are set up as charitable institutions which function without any profit motive. Their main aims is to provide service to a specific group or the public at large. Normally, they do not manufacture, purchase of sell goods and may not have credit transactions. Hence they need not maintain many books of account (as the trading concerns do) and Trading and Profit and ^ Loss Account. The funds raised by such organisations are credited to capital fund or general fund. The major sources of their income usually are subscriptions from their members donations, grants-in-aid, income from investments, etc. The main objective of keepting records in such organisations is to meet the statutory requirement and help them in exercising control over utilization of their funds. They also have to prepare the financial statements at the end of each accounting period (usually a financial year) and ascertain their income and expenditure and the financial position, and submit them to the statutory authority called Registrar of Societies.

As stated earlier, normally such organisations are not engaged in any trading or business activities . The main sources of their income are subcriptions from members, donations, financial assistance from government and income from investments. Most of their transactions are in cash or through the bank. These institutions are required by law to keep proper accounting records and keep proper control over the utilization of their funds. This is why they usually keep a cash book in which all receipts and payments are duly recorded. They also maintain a ledger containing the accounts of all incomes, expenses, assets and liabilites which facilitates the preparation of financial statements at the end of the accounting period. In addition, they are required to maintain a stock register to keep complete record of all fixed assets and the consumables.

Final Accounts of Financial Statements: The Not-for-Profit Organisations are also required to prepare financial statements at the end of the each accounting period. Although these organisations are non-profit making entities and they are not required to make Trading and Profit & Loss Account but it is necessary to know whether the income during the year was sufficient to meet the expenses or not. Not only that they have to provide the necessary financial .information to members, donors, and contributors and also to the Registrar of Societies. For this purpose, they have to prepare their final accounts at the end of the accounting period and the general principles of accounting are fully applicable in their preparation as stated earlier, the final accounts of a ‘not-for- profit organisation’ consist of the following.

1. Receipt and Payment Account
2. Income and Expenditure Account, and
3. Balance Sheet.

The Receipt and Payment Account is the summary of cash and bank transations which helps in the preparation of Income and Expenditure Account and the , Balance Sheet. Income and Expenditure Account is akin to Profit and Loss Account. The Not-for-Profit Organisations usually prepare the Income and Expenditure Account and a Balance Sheet with the help of Receipt and Payment Account.

In fact, if an organisation has followed the double entry system they must prepare a trial balance for checking the accuracy of the ledger accounts and it will also facilitate the preparation of receipt and Payment account. Income and Expenditure Account and the Balance Sheet.
Following steps may be helpful in preparing an Income and Expenditure Account from a given Receipt and payment Account:

1. Persye the Receipt and Payment Account thoroughly
2. Exclude the opening and closing balances of cash and bank as they are not an income.
3. Exclude the capital receipts and capital payments as these are to be shown in the Balance Sheet.
4. Consider only the revenue receipts to be shown on the income side of Income and Expenditure Account. Some of these need to be adjusted by excluding the amounts relating to the preceding and the succeeding periods and including the amounts relating to the current year not yet received.
5. Take the revenue expenses to the expenditure side of the Income and Expenditure. Account with due adjustments as per the additional information provided relating to the amounts received in advance and those not yet received.
6. Consider the following items not appearing in the Receipt and Payment Account that need to be taken into account for determing the surplus/deficit for the current year:
   •  Depreciation of fixex assets.
   • Provision for doubtful debts, if required.
   • Profit or loss on sale of fixed assets.

Preparation of Balance Sheet
The following procedure is adopted to prepare the Balance Sheet:

1. Take the Capital/General Fund as per the opening balance sheet and add surplus from the Income and Expenditure Account. Further, add entrance fees, legacies, life membership fees, etc. received during the year.
2. Take all the fixed assets (not sold/discarded/or destroyed during the year) with additions (from the Receipts and Payments account) after charging depreciation (as per Income and Expenditure account) and show them on the assets side.
3. Compare items on the receipts side of the Receipts and Payments Account with income side of the Income and Expenditure Account. This is to ascertain the amounts of:
   • subscriptions due but not yet received
   •  incomes received in advance
   • sale of fixed assets made during the year;
   • items to be capitalised (i.e. taken directly to the Balance Sheet)
     e.g. legacies, interest on specific fund investment and so on.
4. Similarly compare, items on the payments side of the Receipt and Payment Account with expenditure side of the Income and Expenditure Account. This is to ascertain the amounts if:
   • outstanding expenses;
   • prepaid expenses;
   • purchase of a fixed asset during the year;
   • depreciation on fixed assets;
   • stock of consumable items like stationery in hand;
   • Closing balance of cash in hand and cash at bank as, and so on.

Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Zoology
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to Candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Question 1.
The following table shows the F₂ generation of a dihybrid cross. Identify the ‘Phenotype’ with homozygous re­cessive genotype. Find out AB: C:D.

No	Phenotype	No.of offspring (F2 gen.)
1	A</	21
2	B	7
3	e	63
4	D	21

Question 2.
values of a frugivorous bat species are given below. Which value is not applicable to continents?
1. 0.6
2. 65
3. 20
4. 0.68

Question 3.
Distinguish in-situ conservation from ex-situ conservation with one example each.

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs of STDs is completely curable?
1. HIV, Hepatitis-B
2. Hepatitis-6, Gonorrhoea
3. Syphilis, Gonorrhoea
4. Chlamydomonasgenital herpes

Question 5.
Which of the following do not have similar sex chromosomes? (Homogam­etic)
1. Human female
2. Drosophila female
3. Bird female
4. Bird male

Question 6.
Feeding…………. in the first few days is essential for preventing infections in a newly born baby.

Question 7.
L.H. and FSH are gonadotrophins. Distinguish their roles in males and females.

Question 8.
Examine the following fragment of the beta-globin chain in human hemoglobin and identify the hereditary disease with reason.

Question 9.
A population of 208 people of MN blood group was sampled and it was found that 119 were MM group, 76 MN group, and 13 NN groups. Answer the following questions:
a. Determine the gene frequencies of M and N alleles in the population.
b. How do the above frequencies af­fect evolution?
OR
Examine the pictures of Darwin’s finches given below and answer the following:
a. What phenomenon in evolution is represented in the picture?
b. Explain the phenomenon with the help of an additional example.

Question 10.
What is the advantage of   biofertiliz­ers over chemical fertilizers / Give an example for biofertilizers?

Question 11.
What is ART? Categorize the fol­lowing ARTs based on their applica­tions in male sterility and female ste­rility: GIFT, Al.

Question 12.
Which of the following sets of gases were used in Miller’s experiment?
1. CH₄, no₂, H₂0, C0₂
2. NH₃, CH₃, H₂0, H₂
3. H₂, CH₄, NH₃ , H₂O
4. H₂0, N, CH₄, H₂

Question 13.
Which of the following combinations do not apply to DNA?
a. Deoxyribose, Guanine
b. Ribose, Adenine
c. Deoxyribose, Uracil
d. Guanine, Thymine
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (d)

Question 14.
Examine the diagram of mRNA given below. Mark the 5’ and 3’ end of the mRNA by giving reasons.

Question 15.
A small fragment of the skin of a differ­ent person was extracted from the nails of a murdered person. This fragment of skin led the crime investigators to the murderer. Based on this incident answer the following questions:
a. What technique was used by the investigators?
b. What is the procedure involved in this technique?
OR
In an E. coli culture, lactose is used as food instead of glucose. If so, answer the following questions:
a. How do the bacteria respond to the above situation at the genetic level?
b. If lactose is removed from the medium what will happen?

Question 16.
Morphine is said to be an abused drug. Discriminate the terms ‘use’ and ‘abuse’ of drugs based on this example.

Question 17.
Differentiate Active immunity from Passive immunity. Give an example of Passive immunity.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

 

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Zoology
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to Candidates :

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further, there is ‘5 minutes’ ‘Preparatory Time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of Zoology Examination.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’ and ‘Preparatory time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all questions from 1 – 3. Each question carries 1 Score. (Scores: 3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Name the cells in testes which synthesize and secrete the androgens.
Answer:
Interstitial cells or Leydig cells

Question 2.
Different contraceptive methods are given below. Pick out the odd one.
a) CuT
b) Saheli
c) Multiload 375
d) Lippes loop
Answer:
b) Saheli

Question 3.
Expressed sequences in the gene are called
a) Introns
b) Mutons
c) Exons
d) Cistrons
Answer:
c) Exons

II. Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each question carries 2 Scores. (Scores: 9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
In a classroom discussion, a student said that the sex of the baby is determined by father. Analyse the statement and give reason for it.
Answer:
Chromosome pattern of human female is XX and male is xy
Haploid gametes produced by female contain only X chromosome while male produces either x or y.
Hence father determines sex of a child

Question 5.
Different contraceptive methods are used to control population explosion. Summarise the natural method and barrier method of contraception.
Answer:
a) Natural methods:
Periodic abstinence, Coitus interruptus, etc

b) Barrier method:
Use of condoms, diaphragms, etc

Question 6.
DNA is tightly packed structure and is found as units called nucleosomes.
a) Explain the concept of nucleosomes.
b) Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin
Answer:
a) Nucleosomes are histone octamer, in this negatively charged DNA wrapped around it.

b) Euchromatin:

• Here, chromatin region is loosely arranged and they are transcriptionally active Heterochromatin:
• Here, Hchromatin region is densely packed and transcriptionally inactive

Question 7.

a) Observe the above cross and name the phenomenon.
b) Write down the theoretically given explanations of the phenomenon.
Answer:
a) Incomplete dominance
b) It is the blending of characters, that lead to the production of intermediate flower colour-pink.
In this less efficient enzyme is produced.

Question 8.
Complete the boxes with the suitable words given below:
[Analogus, Homologus, Convergent evolution, Divergent evolution]

Answer:
A – Homologous organ
B – Divergent evolution
C – Analogous organs
D – Convergent evolution

Question 9.
Explain the factors affecting the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:

• Gene flow
• Genetic drift
• Mutation and
• Natural selection

Question 10.
Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense and consists of four types of barriers. Categorize the barriers and give one example for each.
Answer:
i) Physical barriers:
It includes skin or mucous coating of respiratory system

ii) Physiological barriers:
Acid in stomach or saliva

iii) Cellular barriers:
It includes natural killer cells and monocytes

iv) Cytokines barriers:
It includes interferon

Question 11.
Complete the table given below:

Answer:
A – Salmonella
B – common cold
C – plasmodium falciparum
D – elephantiasis

Question 12.
Consumption of drug and alcohol affects the persons mental and physical health very badly. List the warning signs of alcohol or drug abuse.
Answer:

• Drop in academic performance
• Lack of interest in personal hygiene
• Depression
• Withdrawal symptoms

Question 13.
Identify the disadvantages of RNA over DNA as a genetic material and explain it.
Answer:

• Hydroxyl group of RNA is reactive and easily degradable
• RNA is catalytic and highly reactive
• Mutation takes place at a faster rate
• Presence of uracil makes RNA less stable

Question 14.
Complete the table with appropriate terms.

Answer:
A – Aspergillus Niger
B – bacterium
C – cyclosporine A
D – Monascus purpureus

III. Answer any three from 15 – 18 questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (Scores: 3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions:

a) Name S, A, Z and C in the graph.
b) Name the scientists who explained Species – Area relationship.
Answer:
a) S – Species richness
A – Area
Z – Regression coefficient
C – Y Intercept

b) Alexander Von Humboldt

Question 16.
a) In lac Operon lactose act as inducer molecule. Evaluate the statement and explain it.
b) Observe the diagram of lac Operon and identify labelled parts A, B, C and D.

Answer:
a) Lactose that binds with repressor and make structural modification hence it cannot bind with operator therefore lactose switch off Lac Operon act as inducer.

b) A – Repressor mRNA
B – Bete galactosidase
C – Permease
D – Transacetylase

Question 17.
Sexually transmitted disease (STD) are mainly transmitted through sexual contact.
a) Name any two example of sexually transmitted disease.
b) Explain any two methods adopted to prevent STDs.
Answer:
a) Gonorrhea, syphilis
b)

1. Avoid sex with multiple partners
2. Always use condoms during coitus

Question 18.
Hemophilia, Sickle cell anemia, and Phenyl Ketonurea are Mendelian disorders.
a) What do you mean by Mendelian disorder?
b) Which one of the above is an example of inborn error of metabolism? Mention the cause of the disorder.
Answer:
a) Mendelian disorder is determined by a mutation in a single gene
b) Phenylketonuria.
It is an autosomal recessive trait in which lack of enzyme for the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 5

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all the questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Insects feeding on plant sap and other parts are known to be?
.

Question 2.
Name the first transgenic cow.

Question 3.
The hard outer layer of pollengrain is com-posed of
a. cellulose
b. Pectin
c. Suberin
d. Sporopollenin

Question 4.
MOET is a programme for herd improvement. Name the hormone used in it

Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 score.

Question 5.
Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement program-me. Suggest the techniques used to protect the stigma of bisexual flowers during hybridisation.

Question 6.

Observe the above figure
a. Identify i and ii
b. Distinguish i and ii

Question 7.
Bee keeping though relatively easy does require some specialised knowledge. List out the important points for its success.

Question 8.

Question 9.
List out any four changes that occur in flower after fertilisation

Question 10.
Isolation of DNA from plant cell involves many steps. Explain the different steps.

Question 11.
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to encourage cross pollination. List out such features found in plants.

Question 12.
Succession takes place on bare rock is called Xerarch succession. List out its sequential stages

Question 13.
In angiosperms during fertilization two types of fusion occurs in the embryo sac.
a. Name the types of fusion
b. Which are the nuclei involved in each fusion.

Question 14.
Match the column A with B

Question 15.
The first clinical gene therapy was given to a four year old girl child,
a. What was her genetic disorder?
b. Briefly describe the clinical procedure adopted in this case.

Question 16.
High level of noise is considered as pollution.
a. What are its effects?
b. How it can be controlled?

Answer any 2 questions. Each question carries 3

Question 17.
Identify the figure given below and explain the principles behind it.

Question 18.
For reducing the air pollution in delhi the entire fleet of public transport buses were converted to CNG
a. Exand CNG
b. List out its advantages.

Question 19.
Identify the following interactions
a. Barnacles on whale
b. Wasp on fig.
c. Ticks on dog
d. Abigdon tortoise and goats
e. Tiger and deer
f. Mycorrhiza

Answers

Answer 1.
Phytophagous

Answer 2.
Rosie

Answer 3.
Sporopollenin

Answer 4.
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormones)

Answer 5.
This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques. If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging. When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the fruits allowed to develop.

Answer 6.
a. i. Proinsulin
ii. Insulin
b. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin from an animal source, though caused some patient to develop allergy or other types of reactions to the foreign protein. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains. Chain A and chain B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone which contains an extra stretch called the C peptide.

Answer 7.

• Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
• Selection of suitable location for keeping rtthebeehives.
• Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees).
• Management of beehives during different seasons.
• Handling and collection of honey and of beewax.

Answer 8.
Inverted pyramid of biomass. Pyramid of biomass shows relationship between producers and consumers in an ecosystem terms of biomass. If can be inverted in case of pond ecosystem. If shows small standing crop of phytoplankton supports large standing crop of zooplankton

Answer 9.

1. Zygote formed changes into embryo
2. Ovule changes into seed
3. Ovary develops into fruit and
4. Sepals and petals neither away

Answer 10.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation (you cannot see pure DNA fragments in the visible light and without staining). You can see bright orange coloured bands of DNA ! in a ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to UV light. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.

Answer 11.

1. Release of pollen much before or much after the stigma is ready to accept it.
2. Placement of anther & stigma at such positions so that the pollens do not reach the stigma of the same plant or the same flower.
3. It is a chemical method in which the stigma inhibits the growth of the pollen tubes into the pistil. This process 15 known as self-incompatibility.
4. Production of flowers or plants that are uni-sexuel.

Answer 12.

• Pioneer species are the first ones to in vade a bare area, i.e., on rocks.
• These are usually lichens which secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
• This paves way for some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to grow in the small amount of soil.
• Over the time, they are succeeded by bigger plants and after several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed.
• The climax community remains stable if the environment remains unchanged.
• With time, the xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.

Answer 13.
a. Syngamy & Triple fusion
b. Syngamy: The pollen tube releases two male gametes into a cytoplasm of a synergid out of which one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote. This process is called syngamy.
Triple Fusion : The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei in the central cell to form triploid PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus). This process is called triple fusion.

Answer 14.
1 – d
2 – a
3 – c
4 – b

Answer 15.
a. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
b. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. But the problem with both of these approaches that they are not completely curative. As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes 18. from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as 19. these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

Answer 16.
a.

• It may cause sleeplessness, increased heart rate, breathing problem, feeling of stress.
• Discomfort, permanent hearing loss and other psychological and physiological disorders,

b.

1. Turn off appliances at Home & Offices
2. Use ear plugs
3. Follow the limits of noise level
4. Go Green by planning trees
5. Regularly check noise level
6. Hotify authorities about disobedience of noise rules.

Answer 17.
Gel electrophoresis The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/ matrix. Nowadays the most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds. The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.

Answer 18.
a. CNG – Compressed Natural Gas
b.

1. CNG burns most efficiently, unlike petrol, petrol or diesel
2. CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel
3. It cannot be siphoned off by thieves.

Answer 19.
a. Commensalism
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Competition
e. Predation
f. Mutualism

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 4

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

(Questions 1 to 2): Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
A unisexual flower having no andreorecium is called
a. Dithecous
b. Dioecious
c. Monoecious
d. Pistillate

Question 2.
In honey bees and some lizards female gamete undergoes development to form new oroanisms without fertilization This
phenomenon is called…………

(Questions 3 to 15): Answer any eleven quesions from the following. Each questions carries 2 scores.

Question 3.
In human beings, certain diseases are caused due to genetic disorders.
a. Name the method that allows the correction of a aene defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo.
b. How this method has been used for treatina ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency?

Question 4.
A novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation is based on ‘ RNA interference’.
a. Explain RNA interference.
b. Can you suggest, how it can be used for producing nematode resistant plant?

Question 5.
Species diversity decreases from equator towards poles. Ecologists proposed various hypothesis. Suggest two hypothesis for this phenomenon.

Question 6.
Match the following

A                         B
Zoospores      Hydra
Conidia          Sponges
Bud                Chlamydomonas
Gemmules    Penicillium

Question 7.
The gradual and fairly predictable changes in the species composition in an area is called ecological succession.
a. Name the pioneer species in the primary succession in water.
b. Give the sequence of events and climax community in the hydrarch succession.

Question 8.
Infection by nematodes cause threat to t cultivation and yield loss of tobacco plants. A strateav has been developed at RNA level to control this infestation.
a. Name the process.
b. Explain how this process works at the molecular level.

Question 9.
In maize, the chromosome number present in the meiocvte is 20. Give the number of chromosomes present in the following:
a. Maize pollen
b. Maize endosperm

Question 10.
The gradual change in the species composition of a given area leading to the formation of climax community is called ecological succession. In a rocky area,
a. What is the expected type of pioneer species?
b. How this pioneer species leads to the establishment of a stable climax community?

Question 11.
During a .study tour teacher showed the primary colonisers on the banks of the river ‘Nila’.
a. Identify the succession and justify your answer.
b. List the different stages of the identified succession.

Question 12.
Jaya read in a biotechnology book that alien DNA can be introduced into host cell by micro injection and biolistics. Explain these methods.

Question 13.
Sophie was born with a genetic disorder – ADA deficiency.
a. What is ADA deficiency?
b. Can you suggest methods to treat this ADA deficiency?

Question 14.
An article in the newspaper reports that ‘Refrigerants like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) pose threat to the environment’. How CFCs are harmful to the environment?

Question 15.
Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) is always a debatable topic among scientists, academicians and public. State any four usefulness of GMOs.

Question 16.
Interspecific interaction from the interaction of populations of two different species. If we assign + for beneficial, – for detrimental and 0 for neutral interactions, copy and complete the following chart.

Question 17.
A newspaper report read like this. “Conventional agricultural products like cereals, pulses and other seeds may not be able to meet the demand of food according to the increase in population. So focus has to be shifted to alternate food sources like SCPs.
a. What are SCPs? ”
b. Give one example of SCPs.
c. What are the advantages of SCPs?

Question 18.
Restriction endonucleases are the enzymes used to cut the DNA molecules.
a. Give the general term of the specific sequences where these enzymes cut the DNA.
b. Name the enzyme that joints the foreign DNA and vector DNA.
c. Give any two procedures to introduce the recombinant DNA into the host cell.

Answers

Answer 1.
d. Pistillate

Answer 2.
Parthenogenesis.

Answer 3.
a. Gene therapy.
b. ADA deficiency can be treated using bone marrow transplantation or by enzyme therapy. In gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA is then introduced into lymphocytes and return back to patient.

Answer 4.
a. RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting activity of a gene through production of sense RNA and anti-sense RNA
b. The nematode specific genes introduced into the host plant using vectors. The introduction of DNA, it produce both sense and anti sense RNA in the host cells. These two DNA’s it form double stranded RNA that initiated RNA which silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. Thus parasite could not survive in the host.

Answer 5.

1. Tropical regions have relatively more constant and predictable climate.
2. Tropical regions remained undisturbed for millions of years which results in greater diversification.
3. Availability of more solar energy con-tribute much productivity at tropical regions.

Answer 6.
A                     B
Zoospores     Chlamydomonas
Conidia          Penicillium
Bud                 Penicillium
Gemmules     Sponges

Answer 7.
a. Phytoplanktons
b.

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Submerged stage
3. Floating stage
4. Reed swamp stage
5. Sedge meadow stage
6. Woodland stage
7. Climax forest stage.

Answer 8.
a. RNA interference.
b. RNA interference (RNA) is the phenomenon of inhibiting activity of a gene through production of sense RNA and anti-sense RNA.

Answer 9.
a. 10
b. 30

Answer 10.
a. Lichen, ie., crustose lichen is the pioneer species.
b. Crustose lichen stage → Foliose lichen stage → moss stage → herb stage → shrub stage → forest stage.
Forest stage is a stable climax community.

Answer 11.
a. Hydarch succession.
b.

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Submerged stage
3. Floating stage
4. Reed swamp,stage
5. Sedge meadow stage
6. Woodland stage
7. Climax forest stage.

Answer 12.
Microinjection: Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animals cell. ,
Biolistics: Cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.

Answer 13.
a. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for the immune system function. Absense or decrease of this enzyme cause disorder. It is due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase enzyme.’ This is called ADA deficiency,
b. Gene therapy, Bine marrow transplantation

Answer 14.
CFC released from refrigerant to the atmosphere, is split in to chlorofluro components and combined with ozone in the ozone layer and induce its decomposition. So ozone readily become O₂ molecule. This decreases the concentration of ozone in ozone layer which cause holes in the ozone layer. Through the holes, UV rays and other harmful rays can be easily fall up on earth which cause other diseases like cancer.

Answer 15.

1. The GM props have enhanced nutritional quality and yield.
2. Transgenic crops grow well in saline soil and show salt tolerance.
3. They increase productivity of crops generally by showing resistance against plant pathogens and to some herbicides.
4. Transgenic pig organs like heart, kidney, pancreas can be transplanted into humans.

Answer 16.
Species Species Name of interaction

Answer 17.
a. Single Cell Proteins.
b. Spirullina.
c.

1. It can be grown easily on materials like waste water, straw, sewage etc.
2. It can be serve on food rich in protein, minerals,fats, carbohydrate and vitamins.
3. It reduce environmental pollution.

Answer 18.
a. Palindrome sequences
b. DNA Ligases
c. Micro-injection : Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cells.
Biolistics or gene gun: Cells are bom barded with high velocity micro par tides of gold or tungsten coated with DNA

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 3

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all questions. Each question carried 1 score.

Question 1.
Bv observinq the relationship of the first, fill in the blanks.
Unisexual male flower : Staminate
Unisexual female flower : ………………

Question 2.
Johny, a plus two student is from a tribal colony with lower level of vitamins, minerals and protein deficiency. He wishes to be a plant breeder to help the public by producing new crops with high levels of vitamins, minerals, protein etc. Identify the phenomenon.

Question 3.
After syngamy and triple fusion in embryosac, embryo will be diploid and endosperm will be…………….

Question 4.
In some seeds the nucellus may be persistent. Such nucellus is called
a. Endosperm
b. Scutellum
c. Plumule
d. Perisperm

Answer any 10 questions. Each question j carried 2 score.

Question 5.
Raju is searching blight resistant plants for his crossing experiments. Unfortunately no such varieties are available.
a. Suggest a process to create such plants.
b. Justify your suggested method.

Question 6.
Given below is a table which shows the interspecific interaction. ‘ + ’ sign indicates beneficial, sign indicates detrimental and ‘0’ indicates neutral.
a. Fill in the blanks.
Species A        Species B     Interaction
–                             –               Competition
0                            –                …………………
+                            –                …………………
b. Name the interactions where one species is benefited and the other is detrimental.

Question 7.
Given below are 3 gametes a, b and c. a and b gametes undergoes fusion.

a. Identify the fusion.
b. Give the explanation for the identification.

Question 8.
Industrial effluents and domestic sewage seriously affect fresh water bodies. For protecting aquatic life Govt, of India recently declared an animal as national aquatic animal.
a. Identify the animal.
b. Distinguish biomagnification from eutrophication.

Question 9.
Copy the picture given below and mark the following:

a. Connective tissue
b. Endothecium
c. Tapetum
d. Sporogenous tissue

Question 10.
Ram singh is a conventional wheat breeder. One of the promising wheat varieties is found to be susceptible to leaf rust. , What breeding steps will be adopt to make his original promising variety resistant to leaf rust?

Question 11.
Consider pond as an ecosystem showing the number of individuals in the following ‘ categories.
Carnivores – 2500,
Producers – 15000,
Herbivores – 5000
a. Draw the pyramid of numbers in this ecosystem.
b. Comment on the energy flow in the ecosystem.

Question 12.
Meena, an environmental activist, noticed a gradual decline in the population of birds in the open agricultural fields near her place. She has heard of the excessive use of pesticides like DDT around that area.
a. What might have led to the decline of bird population in that area?
b. Name the process that has caused this phenomenon.

Question 13.
The regeneration of whole plants from any part of the plant grown under sterile conditions is called tissue culture.
a. The general term of the part of the plant taken out for tissue culture is …………
b. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell is………….

Question 14.
In summer we use air conditioners and in winter we use heaters. Here homeostasis is accomplished by artificial means. Explain four ways by which other living organisms cope with the situation.

Question 15.
Match the Column A with B:
A                        B
1. Bulbil             a. Bulbophyllum
2. Offset            b. Sponge
3. Gemmules   c. Water hyacinth
4. Leaf buds     d. Agave

Question 16.
In a debate one of the speaker reported like this. “Continuous inbreeding leads to inbreeding depression”. If so define the following:
a. Outcross
b. Cross breeding

Answer any 2 questions. Each question carried 3 score.

Question 17.
Three different flowers are given to you in the practical class.
i. Maize
ii. Vallisneria
iii. Rose
You are asked to group them based on pollinating agents. Describe the adaptations of each flower related with the agents of pollination.

Question 18.
Population interactions may be beneficial or not. Write any three interactions in detail.

Question 19.
Resistance is the ability to prevent the pathogen from causing disease.
1. Elucidate the steps in breeding for disease resistance.
2. Cite two examples for virus resistant plants.

Answers

Answer 1.
Pistillate.

Answer 2.
Biofortification: Breeding of crops for higher levels of nutritional quality.

Answer 3.
Triploid.

Answer 4.
d. Perisperm

Answer 5.
a. Mutation breeding
b. A new character can be created by mutation through the changes in the genotype of plants.

Answer 6.
a.
–              –                  – Competition
–             0                  – Ammensalism
+            0                  – Commensalism
b. Parasitism

Answer 7.
a. Isogamy
b. Two identical gametes take place in sexual reproduction.

Answer 8.
a. Gangetic Dolphin.
b. Eutrophication : Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
Biomagnification : To the increases in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic level.

Answer 9.

Answer 10.

1. Collection of variability.
2. Evaluation & selection of parents.
3. Hybridisation among the selected pa-rents.
4. Selection and testing of superior combinants.
5. Testing, releasing and commercialization of new characters.

Answer 11.
a.

b. Energy flow is unidirectional. The . amount of energy flow decreases with successive trophic level.

Answer 12.
a. High concentration of DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in bird which causes thinning of egg shell and their . premature breaking eventually causing decline in bird population,
b. Biomagnification.

Answer 13.
a. Explant
b. Totipotency

Answer 14.

1. Migration: It is the movement of organism from one place to another region and return when the stressful period is over.
2. Suspend: Organism like bacteria and fungi produce thick walled spores and tide over unfavourable condition.
3. Hibernation (winter sleep): It is the period of dormacy during winter, eg., cold blooded animals like frog.
4. Aestivation (summer sleep): It is the period of dormancy during summer.

Answer 15.

1. Bulbil           d. Agave
2. Offset           c. Water hyacinth
3. Gemmules  b. Sponge
4. Leaf buds    a. Bulbophyllum

Answer 16.
a. The breeding of the unrelated animals of same breed is called out-crossing. The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross. It is the best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity.
b. Out-breeding is the breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4-6 generations (out¬crossing) or between different breeds (cross-breeding) or different species (interspecific hybrid i-sation).

Answer 17.
i. Maize – Anemophily – Wind pollination. Numerous pollen grains, pollen is dry and light, stigma is feathery.
ii. Vallisneria – Hydrophily – Water pollination.In vallisneria pollination by water, male flower occur in clusters when mature it detached and reach to the surface of water.
iii. Rose – Entamophily – Insect pollination. Flowers large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nactar.

Answer 18.
a. Predation : It is a kind of interaction between species in which one individual kills another for food, eg., prey is deer and predator is tiger.
Amensalism : In this, one population inhibits the arowth and development of other population.
Mutualism : In which both the species benefit, eg., Lichens (between a fungus and algae), mycorrhizae (between funai and the mots of hiaher plants).

Answer 19.
a.

1. The various sequential steps are:
   • Screening germplasm for resistance sources.
   • Hybridisation of selected parents
   • Selection and evaluation of the hybrids.
   • Testing and release of new varieties.
2. Crop – Chilli
   • Variety – Pusa Sadabahar
     Disease – Chilly mosaic virus, leaf curl
   • Crop – Tomato
     Variety – Bolseno
     Disease – Tomato mosaic virus

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 2

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

(Questions 1 to 2): Answer all questions. Each questions carries 1 score.

Question 1.
From the following, select the two having haploid chromosome number.
a. egg
b. endosperm
c. zygote
d. pollen

Question 2.
Bt Cotton is regarded as an important achievment of genetic engineering. What does Bt stands for?

(Questions 3 to 15) : Answer any eleven questions from the following. Each questions carries 2 score.

Question 3.
Ecological pyramids are usually upright. Meanwhile some, pyramid of biomass is inverted. Explain the reason.

Question 4.
Figure representing the reactions associated with Polymer Chain Reaction (PCR). Name the steps A, B, C in the process.

Question 5.
Recombinant DNA technology can be accomplished only if we have the following key tools ie., Restriction enzymes, Polymerase enzyme, Ligases and Vectors. State the functions of
a. Ligases
b. Restriction enzymes

Question 6.
Match the following

Question 7.
Given below are the components related to simplified model of mineral cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem. Construct a flow chart.
(Hint : weathering of rock)

Question 8.
Primary succession of rocks is known as Xerosere. Answer the following related with Xerosere.
a. Name the pioneer community.
b. Organic acids have important roles in this succession. Justify.

Question 9.
An aquatic ecosystem having luxurious growth of cyanobacteria (Algal bloom) leads to eutrophication.
a. What kind of pollutants cause algal bloom to colonize the aquatic ecosystem?
b. What are the consequences of eutrophication ?

Question 10.
A list of different organisms in an ecosystem are given below. Arrange them in 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th trophic level.
i. Phytoplankton
ii. Man
iii. Fish
iv. Zooplankton

Question 11.
Use of thermostable DNA polymerase from the bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, made it possible to generate billion copies of DNA in a very short time using a process.
a. Name the process.
b. Name the three important steps in volved in this process.

Question 12.
Read the statements below and identify the mode of interaction between the species.
a. Tiger eating deer.
b. Butterfly feeding pollen.
c. Human liver fluke feeding on snail.
d. Lice on humans.
e. Orchid attached to a tree.
f. Mycorrhizal association of fungi and roots of higher plants.
g. Sparrow eating seed.
h. Egrets foraging close to cattle.

Question 13.
Environmentalists usually says: “There are may causes for biodiversity losses”. Illustrate four major causes of biodiversity loss.

Question 14.
In a marine ecosystem, a population of phytoplankton (1,50,000) supports a standing crop of fishes (40,000).
a. Draw the pyramid of biomass.
b. Draw the pyramid of numbers in this ecosystem.

Question 15.
Geetha resides in a city nearby a lake. Water from this lake was used for various domestic purposes earlier. Now-a- days, this water has become turbid and is with an unpleasant odour.
a. What can be the reason for this?
b. Name the scientific term that explains this effect.

(Questions 16 to 18): Write any two from the following questions. Each questions carries 3 score.

Question 16.
Raju is a diabetic patient who takes insulin injections regularly. The insulin used by such patients is produced by genetically engineered organism. Write the different steps involved in the production of insulin by genetic engineering.

Question 17.
Raman is learning the post-fertilization changes of an angiosperm embryosac with the help of slides. He identified the egg nucleus and polar nuclei with the help of his teacher.
a. Name the other nuclei present in the embryosac.
b. Help Raman by giving the changes that takes place with egg nucleus and polar nuclei after fertilization.

Question 18.
Given below is the bar diagram showing age structure of three different populations. Observe the diagram carefully and answer the following questions.

Answers

Answer 1.
egg, pollen

Answer 2.
B – Bacillus
T – thuringiensis

Answer 3.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright, i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level.
The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level.

Answer 4.
A – Denaturation
B – Annealing,
C – Primer extension

Answer 5.
a. Ligases are enzymes that can rejoin
cut fragments of DNA by sealing the sugar-phosphate back bone,
b. These are the molecular scissors that cut long DNA at specific points, into smaller fragments.
Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.

Answer 6.
i. 4
ii. 1
iii. 2
iv. 3

Answer 7.

Answer 8.
a. Lichens are the pioneer community.
b. Lichens secrete acids to dissolve the rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.

Answer 9.
a. Due to the addition of domestic
sewage, water bodies become rich in nutrient content. Addition of nutrients stimulates profuse growth of planktonic algae (free-floating algae).
b. Luxuriant growth of algal bloom totally cover the water surface. This causes reduction in DO (dissolved oxygen content). Decomposition of algal blooms causes deficiency of 02 in water. Algal blooms also release some toxins in water. Toxins inhibit the growth of other algae in bloom infected water body. So, in this poor oxygenated water with high level of CO₂, fishes and other aquatic animals begins to die due to the toxicity.

Answer 10.

Answer 11.
a. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction).
b. Step I – Denaturation,
Step II – Annealing,
Step III – Primer extension.

Answer 12.
Predation:

1. Tiger eating deer
2. Sparrow eating seed

Commensalism:

1. Orchid attached to a tree
2. Egrets foraging close to cattle

Parasitism:

1. Human liver fluke feeds on snail
2. Lice on humans

Mutualism:

1. Butterfly feeding pollen.
2. Mycorrhizal association of fungi and roots of higher plants.

Answer 13.
Major cause of biodiversity loss are:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation: Due to the loss of natural habitat or use of natural habitat of animals or plants for other purposes will decrease the biodiversity in that area.
2. Co-extinction: Extinction of an organism or tree may cause the extinction of other organisms or plants that depends on it.
3. Over exploitation: With the over use of natural resources the biodiversity decreases in earth.
4. Alien species invasion: The species that enter in a new area when compete with the indigenous species results in the decrease in the species or extinction of indegeneous species

Answer 14.

Answer 15.
a. Domestic sewage and fertilizers add large quantities of nutrients in the lake. The rich supply of these nutrient increased productivity of water bodies i.e., algal blooming or nutrient enrichment. The decomposed water has become turbid and is with an unpleasant odour.
b. Eutrophication.

Answer 16.

1. 1st two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin are prepared.
2. They are introduced into plasmids of E-coli to produce insulin chain.
3. Chains A and B were produced separately.
4. Extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.

Answer 17.
a. Synergids and antipodals.
b. One of the two male gametes fuses with the egg to form zygote (2n).
The other male gametes fuses with the secondary nucleus to form endosperm which is triploid.

Answer 18.
a. B is stable.
b. A- Pre-reproductive: High percentage of young individual positive growth and board based age pyramid.
B- Reproductive: Growth rate is slow and stable, ie., zero growth. It is belt shaped polygon.
C- Post reproductive: Growth rate is decline, negative growth phase. An urn-shaped figure.

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Botany
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

I. Answer All questions. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Insects feeding on plant sap and other parts are known to be?
Answer:
Pest

Question 2.
Name the first transgenic cow ………..
Answer:
Rosie

Question 3.
The hard outer layer of pollen grain is composed of ………….
a) cellulose
b) pectin
c) suberin
d) sporopollenin
Answer:
d) Sporopollenin

Question 4.
MOET is a programme for herd improvement. Name the hormone used in it.
Answer:
FSH

II. Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 Scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 5.
Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme. Suggest the techniques used to protect the stigma of bisexual flowers during hybridisation.
Answer:
In artificial hybridisation bagging is used to prevent the entry of unwanted pollen grains, then pollen grains from desired plant is dusted on the stigma, after this stigma again bagged, this is called rebagging.

Question 6.

Observe the above figure
a) Identify i and ii
b) Distinguish i and ii
Answer:
a) i) it contains polypeptide chains A B and C connected together
ii) it contains polypeptide chains A and B connected together but the c-peptide chain is separated

b) i) non functional insulin
ii) functional insulin

Question 7.
Beekeeping though relatively easy does require some specialised knowledge. List out the important points for its success.
Answer:

• Knowledge of the natural habitat of bees
• Selection of suitable location for keeping beehives
• Catching and having of swarms
• Handling and collection of honey and bee wax

Question 8.

Identify the above pyramid and justify your answer.
Answer:
It is called pyramid of biomass, here biomass increases in successive trophic levels.

Question 9.
List out any four changes that occur in flower after fertilisation
Answer:

• PEN develops into endosperm
• Zygote develops into embryo
• Ovary develops into fruit
• Ovule develops into seed

Question 10.
Isolation of DNA from plant cell involves many steps. Explain the different steps.
Answer:
At first plant cell wall is removed by using cellulose and pectinase enzyme, after this other components of cell can be removed by protease, lipase, carbohydrates and RNAase.

Then fine DNA Threads are suspended in chilled alcohol, it is obtained for slicing by spooling technique. Thus genetic material is isolated.

Question 11.
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. List out such features found in plants.
Answer:

• Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not at the same time.
• The anther and stigma are placed at different positions.
• Self-incompatibility
• Production of unisexual flowers.

Question 12.
Succession takes place on bare rock is called Xerarch succession. List out its sequential stages.
Answer:
Lichen communities are first appear in the rock, after death and decay more amount of organic matter is added to the soil, in addition to this weathering process takes place and all this helps in the formation of next plant communities like bryophytes. Later, Herbs shrubs and finally climax vegetation (forest) appears in each stage one plant the community is replaced by other takes place.

Question 13.
In angiosperms during fertilization two types of fusion occurs in the embryo sac.
a) Name the types of fusion
b) Which are the nuclei involved in each fusion.
Answer:
a) Syngamy and triple fusion
b) In syngamy one male garnets and one egg cell is involved while in triple fusion one male gamete and two polar nuclei are involved.

Question 14.
Match the column A and B

A	B
1. Catalytic converter	a. Thermal Power plant
2. Electrostatic precipitator	b. Ozone depletion
3.Montreal protocol	c. Deforestation
4.Jhum cultivation	d. Platinum-Palladium
	e. Joint Forest Management

Answer:
1. Catalytic converter – Platinum Palladium
2. Electrostatic precipitator – thermal power plants
3. Montreal protocol – ozone depletion
4. Jhum cultivation – deforestation

Question 15.
The first clinical gene therapy was given to a four-year-old girl child.
a) What was her genetic disorder?
b) Briefly describe the clinical procedure adopted in this case
Answer:
a) Denosine deaminase deficiency

b) Before gene therapy the diseases was cured by bone marrow transplantation and in enzyme replacement therapy, after genetic engineering, Lymphocytes taken from the patient’s blood, it is cultured outside and into this functional ADA cDNA are introduced, then it is taken back into patients body or functional ADA cDNA are introduced into embryonic stage

Question 16.
A high level of noise is considered as pollution
a) What are its effects?
b) How it can be controlled?
Answer:
a) Noise causes sleeplessness, increased heart beating, and altered breathing patterns in humans.

b) Use sound-absorbing materials in industries. Govt, laws are there to reduce noise pollution around hospitals and schools by avoiding the use of air – horns, restricting the use of loudspeakers, etc.

III. Answer any 2 questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 17.
Identify the figure given below and explain the principles behind it.

Answer:
Gel electroforesis:
It is used to separate DNA fragments under electric field, At first the DNA fragments are loaded in well, it it moves through the gel and move towards anode according to their size and charge.

For this, DNA are stained by using ethidium bromide and it is visualised by using UV light DNA fragments are appeared as orange coloured bands. It is separated and cut out from the gel by using elusion.

Question 18.
For reducing the air pollution in Delhi the entire fleet of public transport buses were converted to CNG
a) Expand CNG
b) List out its advantages
Answer:
a) Compressed natural gas
b)

• It burns most efficiently.
• It is cheaper than petrol or diesel and
• It cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel

Question 19.
Identify the following interactions
a) Barnacles on whale
b) Wasp on fig.
c) Ticks on dog
d) Abingdon tortoise and goats
e) Tiger and deer
f) Mycorrhizae
Answer:
a) Barnacles on whale – Commensalism
b) Wasp on fig – Mutualism
c) Ticks on dog – Parasitism
d) Abingdon tortoise and goats – Competition
e) Tiger and deer – Predation
f) Mycorrhizae – Mutualism

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Botany
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to Candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Question 1.
A date palm seed discovered during archeological investigation retained viability even after 10000 years. The retention of viability is due to the state of inactivity of the embryo called…………

Question 2.
The plant in which adventitious buds along the margin of leaves give rise to new plants is
a. Water Hyacinth
b. Agave
c. Bryophyllum
d. Dahlia

Question 3.
Match the following varieties wit their respective crops:

Question 4.
Sequences of base pairs in DNA that reads the same on both the strands when the Orientation of reading is kept the same are called…………

Question 5.
When the pollen is transferred from anther to the stigma of the same flower,the pollination is called autogamy.
a. Cleistogamous flowers are Kinvara bly autogamous. Explain.
b. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination, but genetically similar to autogamy. Justify the statement.

Question 6.
The thick protective covering of the fruit is known…………

Question 7.
Match the following

Question 8.
Insulin getting assembled into a mature form was the major challenge in commercial insulin production by rDNA technology. How did Eli Nilly Company found a solution to this problem?

Question 9.
In a given habitat, the maximum number possible for a species is called ………… of that species in that habitat.

Question 10.
A common cause of deforestation is slash and bum agriculture.
a. What is the common name attributed to such type of cultivation?
b. Explain how this type of cultivation is practiced?

Question 11.
A. Different types of population interaction have been observed in a population.
Write the type of interaction observed among the following species:

OR
B. Organisms other than human beings manage or adapt to stressful conditions by adopting different mechanisms. Explain any three mechanisms adopted by them to maintain the internal environment.

Question 12.
Breeding crops with the objective of increased nutritional quality is called…………

Question 13.
A. The following photograph shows the result of a technique showing the separation of DNA.

a. Name the technique.
b. How the separated DNA is visualized?
c. DNA fragments of size 500 bp, 1600 bp and 2000 bp are separated by this process. Which fragment will migrate fast. Why?
B. Different methods have been suggested to introduce alien DNA into host cells. Give and explain any three methods adopted for this purpose.

Question 14.
The different stages of primary succession in water are represented below. Fill the gaps that are unfilled.
a. Phytoplankton
b. ……………………
c. Submerged free-floating plant stage
d. …………………….
e………………………
f. Shrub stage
g………………………

Question 15.
Particulate matter in polluted air is removed by the application of an electrostatic precipitator. Explain the working principle of the electrostatic precipitator.

Question 16.
Nature has mechanisms to promote outbreeding in plants. Explain any two mechanisms existing in plants to promote outbreeding.

Question 17.
An ecosystem consists of the following population: Phytoplankton, Man, Fish, Zooplankton Draw a food chain denoting each trophic level.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Botany
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

I. (Questions 1 to 2): Answer Alt questions. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Select the disease resistant variety of Bhindi produced by rotation breeding.
a) Himgiri
b) Parbhani Kranti
c) Pusa Gaurav
d) Pusa Komal
Answer:
b) Parbhani Kranti

Question 2.
Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter a stage of suspended development. Name that stage.
Answer:
Diapause

II. (Questions 3 to 15) : Answer any eleven questions from the following. Each question carries 2 Scores. (Scores : 11 × 2 = 22)

Question 3.
Ozone acts as a shield for absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
a) Name the region of atmosphere where ozone is seen.
b) Write the unit used to measure ozone layer
Answer:
a) Troposphere or Stratosphere
b) Dobson

Question 4.
Match the following organisms to their life span:

A		B
1	Butterfly	a.	140 years
2.	Crow	b.	100 – 150 years
3.	Parrot	c.	1 – 2 weeks
4.	Tortoise	d.	15 years
		e.	60 years

Answer:

A	B
Butterfly	1 – 2 weeks
Crow	15 years
Parrot	140 years
Tortoise	100 – 150 years

Question 5.
The DNA fragments can be separated using get electrophoresis.
a) Name the gel used in this technique.
b) Write the name of technique used to remove the DNA from the gel.
Answer:
a) Agarose
b) Elution

Question 6.
Observe the following figure:

a) Identify the figure
b) What does (i) tet^R (ii) rop (iii) ori denote?
Answer:
a) Cloning vector – pBr322
b) i) tet^R – tetracycline resistant gene
ii) rop – Gene codes for proteins involved in the replication of plasmid
iii) ori – Orgin of replication

Question 7.
Synergids have special cellular thickening at micropylar tip. Write the name and function of this structure.
Answer:

• Filiform apparatus
• It guides pollen tube into synergid

Question 8.
Controlled breeding experiments can be carried out using artificial insemination. What are the advantages of this process?
Answer:
The semen is collected from the male partner and injected into the reproductive tract of selected female. The collected semen can be stored in freezing state and used at later date.

Question 9.
Bio-fortification is a practical approach to improve the public health. Name any four such crops released by IARI.
Answer:
Vitamin A enriched carrot and spinach
Protien enriched beans – lablab

Question 10.
The products of ecosystem processes are named as ecosystem services. List out any four such services.
Answer:

1. Ecosystems purify air and water
2. Mitigate droughts and floods
3. Cycle nutrients
4. Provide wildlife habitat

Question 11.
In 1990’s Delhi ranked fourth among the most polluted cities of the world. What are the parallel steps taken to reduce vehicular pollution?
Answer:

1. Avoid the use of old vehicles
2. use of unleaded petrol
3. use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel
4. use of catalytic converters in vehicles

Question 12.
Increase in the level of green house gases leads to global warming. How can it be controlled?
Answer:
Global warming is controlled by

1. cutting down use of fossil fuel
2. improving efficiency of energy usage
3. reducing deforestation
4. planting trees

Question 13.
Genetically modified plants have been used in many ways. Give any four advantages of such plants.
Answer:

1. crops are tolerant to abiotic stresses
2. reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
3. helped to reduce post harvest losses.
4. increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants

Question 14.
In 1943 American Company Eli lilly produced human insulin artificially. Write down the method followed in this technique.
Answer:
American company Eli Lilly prepared Genetically engineered insulin. Steps are given below

1. Isolation of desired genes.
2. Insertion of desired Genes into plasmids of E. coli.
3. Introduction of plasmids into E coli cells.
4. Culture of E coli cells.
5. After this, a polypeptide chains A and B are separated and connected together by disulphide linkages.

Question 15.
Pyramid of energy is never been inverted, why?
Answer:
When energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level, energy is lost as heat. This is based on 10 % law.

III. (Questions 16 to 18) : Write any two from the following questions. Each question carries 3 Scores. (Scores : 2 × 3 = 6)

Question 16.
Meloidogyne incognitia is a nematode parasite infects the root of tobacco plants. It’s infection can be prevented by biotechnological methods.
a) Name the strategy.
b) Explain the principle behind this strategy.
Answer:
a) RNA interference

b) Nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and reduces the yield. Nematode-specific genes are introduced into the host plant by Agrobacterium vectors, it produce both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells that initiated RNAi and prevent the translation of the specific mRNA of the nematode.

Question 17.
The following graph shows two types of population growth curves:

a) Name the growth curves.
b) What does ‘K’ stand for?
Answer:
a) Exponential growth (J shaped growth curve)
Logistic growth (S shaped growth curve)

b) Carrying capacity

Question 18.
In Angiosperms female gametophyte is known as embryo sac. Explain it’s development.
Answer:
A single megaspore mother cell differentiates in the micropylar region of the nucellus. It undergoes meiotic division to form four megaspores.

Out of four, three degenerates and one megaspore is functional. The functional megaspore undergoes three repeated mitotic division to form 8 nucleate and 7 celled embryosac (female gametophyte).