Plus Two

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 2 Gauli Janmam Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 2 Gauli Janmam

Gauli Janmam Questions and Answers

Gauli Janmam Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 1 Chapter 2 Prakasam Jalam Pole Anu Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 1 Chapter 2 Prakasam Jalam Pole Anu

Prakasam Jalam Pole Anu Questions and Answers

Prakasam Jalam Pole Anu Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Tanatita Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Tanatita

Tanatita Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Chapter 3 Padathinte Pathathil Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Chapter 3 Padathinte Pathathil

Padathinte Pathathil Questions and Answers

Padathinte Pathathil Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 4 Chapter 2 Madhyamavicharam Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 4 Chapter 2 Madhyamavicharam

Madhyamavicharam Questions and Answers

Madhyamavicharam Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 1 Kollivakkallathonnum Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 1 Kollivakkallathonnum

Kollivakkallathonnum Questions and Answers

Kollivakkallathonnum Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 1 Chapter 4 Avakasangalude Prasnam Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 1 Chapter 4 Avakasangalude Prasnam

Avakasangalude Prasnam Questions and Answers

Avakasangalude Prasnam Summary

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Botany
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

(Questions 1 to 3) : Answer all the questions. Each question carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Identify the freshwater fish from the following:
a) Sardine
b) Mackerel
c) Rohu
d) Hilsa
Answer:
c) Rohu

Question 2.
In Gel electrophoresis the separated DNA fragments can be visualized after staining. Name the stain used for it.
Answer:
Ethidium bromide

Question 3.
In a forest ecosystem different plant species are occupied in different vertical levels. Name such vertical arrangement.
Answer:
Stratification

(Questions 4 to 14. Answer any 9 questions. Each question carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
Primate and non-primate female mammals exhibit cyclic changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive phase. Name the cyclic changes in these groups.
Answer:
Primates – menstrual cycle
Nonprimate – oestrous cycle

Question 5.
Bamboo species and Strobilanthus Kunthiana exhibit usual flowering phenomena. Explain their flowering characteristics.
Answer:
Bamboo – flower only after 50- 100 years
Strobilanthus kunthiana – flower once in 12 years

Question 6.
A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not. What are they?
Answer:

• Natality
• Mortality
• Sex ratio
• Population density

Question 7.
Multiple copies of gene of interest can be synthesised in vitro. Name the technique and its requirements.
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction
2 set of Primers and DNA Polymerase enzyme

Question 8.
Catalytic converters are used in automobiles to control air pollution. Briefly comment on its role.
Answer:
Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide and water.
Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas respectively.

Question 9.
Your friend wishes to start a poultry farm. What are the important suggestions given to him for the successful management of the farm?
Answer:

1. Selection of disease-free breeds
2. Proper and safe farm conditions
3. Proper feed and water and hygiene and health care are components of poultry farm management.

Question 10.
Pollination by water is seen in Zostera and Vallisneria. Enumerate its adaptations.
Answer:

• In Vallisneria, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water. Stigma collects pollen grains and reached the water inside.
• In zostera female flowers are found inside the water and pollen grains are released in the water.
• In some species pollen grains are prevented from wetting by mucilaginous covering.

Question 11.
Parasites evolved special adaptations to live on host. What are they?
Answer:

• Loss of unnecessary sense organs
• Presence of suckers to cling on to the host
• Loss of digestive system and
• High reproductive capacity.

Question 12.
Domestic sewage and industrial effluents contain large amount of nutrients. What are the probable effects of these nutrients on water bodies?
Answer:

1. It causes excessive growth of planktonic (free-floating) algae, called an algal bloom which gives colour to the water bodies.
2. Algal blooms cause lose of water quality and fish mortality.

Question 13.
Match the Column A with Column B :

Column A	Column B
a) Human Alpha lactalbumin	1) Elisa
b) Antigen-Antibody Interaction	2) Eli Lily
c) Genetically engineered Insulin	3) Corn Borer
d) Cry I Ab	4) Rosie
	5) Boll Worm

Answer:

Column A	Column B
a) Human Alpha lactalbumin	Rosie
b) Antigen-Antibody Interaction	Elisa
c) Genetically engineered Insulin	Eli lily
d) Cry I Ab	Corn Borer

Question 14.
Humification leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance. Identify the substance and its peculiarities.
Answer:
The substance is humus.
It is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. It serves as the reservoir of nutrients.

(Questions 15 to 18): Answer any 3 questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Bt cotton is a transgenic pest resistant plant.
a) How this was achieved?
b) How do this plant survive on pest attack?
Answer:
a) Cry genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and inserted into cotton by gene manipulation technique.

b) Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxins. It is converted into an active form in the presence of the alkaline pH of insect gut.

The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that causes cell swelling and lysis and results in the death of insect.

Question 16.
Depending on the source of pollen, pollination can be divided into three types. What are they? Explain each.
Answer:
i) Autogamy:
It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
ii) Geitonogamy:
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
iii) Xenogamy:
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant.

Question 17.
Hydrach succession takes place in wetter areas and the successional series progress from ‘hydric’ to ‘mesic’ condition. List out the stages in correct sequence.
Answer:

• Phytoplankton stage.
• Submerged plant stage.
• Submerged free-floating plant stage
• Reed swamp stage
• Marsh – meadow stage.
• Scrub stage.
• Forest stage.

Question 18.
Restriction endonuclease enzymes are used to cut the DNA at specific sequence.
a) Write the name of first isolated one.
b) Write the convention for naming these enzymes.
Answer:
a) Hind II

b) First capital letter – genus name
Second two letters – species name
Next letter – the strain of bacterium from which the restriction enzyme is isolated
Last roman letter – order of isolation of enzyme.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Botany
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer All questions from 1 to 3. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
What is the function of Restriction Endonuclease in recombinant DNA technology?
a) Linktogetherfragmentof DNA
b) Make millions of copies of DNA
c) Cut DNA into many fragments
d) Separate fragments of DNA
Answer:
Cut the DNA into many fragments

Question 2.
The government of India has introduced the concept of ……….., so as to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests.
Answer:
Joint forest management (JFM)

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a greenhouse gas?
a) N₂O
b) Methane
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Ozone
Answer:
d) Ozone

Answer any 9 questions from 4 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
Many countries encourage the cultivation of Genetically Modified Crops (G.M. Plants). Write any two advantages of GM plants.
Answer:
Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat)
2 Reduce reliance on chemical pesticides (pest resistant crop)

Question 5.
Match the columns (A) and (B)

A	B
i) Mutualism	a) An orchid growing on a tree trunk
ii) Predation	b) Gauss’s Exclusion Principle
iii) Commensalism	c) Biological control
iv) Competition	d) Derives nutrition from the host organism
	e) Mycorrhiza

Answer:

A	B
i) mutualism	mycorrhiza
ii) predation	biological control
iii) commensalism	an orchid growing on a tree trunk
iv) competition	Gauses exclusion principle

Question 6.
Write the asexual reproductive structure given in the diagrams (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer:
a) zoospore
b) conidia
c) bud
d) gemmule

Question 7.
PCR and ELISA are two molecular diagnostic techniques.
a) How is PCR useful in molecular diagnosis?
b) What is the principle of ELISA?
Answer:
Early detection of disease is possible by these methods
a) PCR
i) used in the amplification of pathogenic nucleic acid.
ii) Find out cancer and other genetic diseases

b) ELISA – Antigen – antibody interaction

Question 8.
a) Identify the type of ecological pyramid given below.
b) Pyramid of energy is always upright. WHy?

Answer:
a) pyramid of biomass
b) energy decreases from one trophic level to the next or energy transfer from one trophic level to the next is 10%.

Question 9.
Deforestation is a serious issue in the present scenario. Write any two major consequences of deforestation.
Answer:

1. Leads to global warming due to excess carbon dioxide
2. Loss of biodiversity

Question 10.
Observe the flow chart given below:
a) Name the processes represented as A and B.
b) If ‘N_t’ is the population density at time t, then write down the population density equation at time t + 1.

Answer:
a) Mortality, Emigration
b) Nt + 1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]

Question 11.
The early stages of embryo development are similar in both dicots and monocots. However, mature embryos have differences. Write two major differences between dicot embryo and monocot embryo.
Answer:

Dicot Embryo	Monocot Embryo
1. Two cotyledon present	1. Single cotyledon present
2. Coleorhiza absent	2. Coleorhiza present

Question 12.
Given below is a flow chart showing the accumulation of DDT in different trophic levels:
a) Name the phenomenon.
b) How does it affect bird population?

Answer:
a) Biomagnification.
b) High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes the thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, causing decrease in bird populations.

Question 13.
Detritivores play a major role in decomposition.
a) What are detritivores?
b) Write an example for a detritivore.
Answer:
a) Organism which breaks up detritus into smaller particles
b) Earthworm and termite

Question 14.
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
a) Which are the events in double fertilization?
b) Name the triploid nucleus formed as a result of double fertilization.
Answer:
a) syngamy and triple fusion
b) PEN (Primary endosperm nucleus)

Answer any 3 questions from 15 to 18. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Recombinant DNA technology is a complex process which involves several steps. Write down the major steps in recombinant DNA technology.
Answer:

• Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)
• Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations
• Amplification of Gene of Interest by using PCR
• Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell/Organism
• Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product
• Downstream Processing

Question 16.
The discovery of Restriction Endonuclease is considered as “milestone” in the history of genetic engineering.
a) Which is the first discovered restriction endonuclease?
b) What are the criteria for naming of restriction endonuclease?
Answer:
a) Hind II

b) first capital letter – genus name
second two letters – species name
next letter – the strain of bacterium from which the restriction enzyme is isolated
last roman letter – order of isolation of enzyme

Question 17.
Observe the diagram of young anther given below.
a) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D
b) Which layer nourishes the developing pollen grains?

Answer:
a) A – Epidermis
B- Endothecium
C – Middle layer
D – tapetum

b) tapetum

Question 18.
Outbreeding in animals may be outcrossing, cross- creeding and interspecific hybridisation.
a) Give an example for a progeny obtained by interspecific hybridisation.
b) How does outcrossing differs from crossbreeding?
Answer:
a) Mule

b) Out-crossing:
It is mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations. The offspring produced called as out-cross.

Cross-breeding:
It is the method of mating superior males of one breed with superior females of another breed.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Zoology
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to Candidates :

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further, there is ‘5 minutes’ ‘Preparatory Time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of Zoology Examination.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’ and ‘Preparatory time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all questions from 1 to 3. Each question carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Number of spermatids produced from 25 primary spermatocyte are ………….
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 250
Answer:
c) 100

Question 2.
Study the relationship between the first two words and fill the blank space with a suitable word.
Sterilization in male: Vasectomy
Sterilization in female: ……….
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 3.
Identify the bacterial disease from the following:
a) Typhoid
b) Amoebiasis
c) Malaria
d) Filariasis
Answer:
a) Typhoid

Answer any 9 questions 4 – 14. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
The incidence of STDs are reported more among the age group between 15 – 24 years.
a) What are STDs?
b) Suggest methods to prevent STDs.
Answer:
a) Sexually transmitted disease
b) i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
ii) Always use condoms during coitus.

Question 5.
Observe the following cross between heterozygous dominant progeny and homozygous recessive parent. Answer the following questions.

a) Identify the cross.
b) Mention the significance of this cross.
Answer:
a) Test cross
b) In a testcross genotype of F1 can be determined when it is crossed with recessive parent.

Question 6.
Following diagram shows amino acid sequences of a part of β chain of Haemoglobin of two individuals. Observe the amino acid sequence and answer the following questions:

a) Which among the above indicates sickle cell anaemic condition?
b) Justify your answer.
c) Describe what is single base substitution.
Answer:
a) Second amino acid chain.
b) The defect is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid by Valine at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
c) It is due to the single base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta globin gene from GAG to GUG.

Question 7.
“Human genome project is a mega project”. Give two reasons to explain this.
Answer:

1. Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs.
2. Store this information in database.
3. Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs.

Question 8.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:

a) Identify the diagram.
b) Name the enzymes A, B and C.
Answer:
a) Lacoperon
b) A – beta galactosidase
B – Permease
C – Tranacetylase

Question 9.
In sewage treatment plants microbes play a significant role. Distinguish between primary and secondary treatment in sewage plants.
Answer:
Primary treatment: It is the removal of large and small particles from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation.

Secondary treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks that is agitated and air is pumped into it. It results the vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into floes.

Question 10.
Human beings can conserve and protect our eco-system and biodiversity. Prepare a handout to show different methods of Biodiversity conservation.
Answer:
In situ conservation:
Some areas are considered as ‘biodiversity hotspots’ that shows high species richness and high degree of endemism. So organisms are conserved in their natural habitat.

Ex situ Conservation:
It is the conservation of threatened animals and plants outside their natural habitat.

Question 11.
“Genetic code is universal in nature”.
a) Substantiate this statement.
b) Mention any two other salient features of genetic code.
Answer:
a) From bacteria to human being triplet codon code for the same amino acid.

b) i) The codon is triplet.
ii) One codon codes for only one amino acid, it is unambiguous.
iii) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, It is degenerate.
iv) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion. There are no punctuations.

Question 12.
p² + 2pq + q² = 1 is the gene frequency of a popula¬tion showing an evolutionary priciple.
a) Name the principle
b) Enlist any three factors affecting this principle.
Answer:
a) Hardy weinberg principle.
b) Gene migration, Genetic drif, Mutation and Natural selection.

Question 13.
The blood group of a child is ‘O’. His father is with ‘A’ blood group and mother with ‘B’ blood group. Write down the genotype of the child and genotypes of parents.
Answer:
The genotype of child is O group
Father I^A i
Mother I^B i

Question 14.

Above homologous organs provide evidence for a particular type of evolution.
a) Identify the type of evolution.
b) What do you mean by homologous organs?
Answer:
a) Divergent evolution
b) Homologous organ – same structure but different function.

(Q. 15 to 18). Answer any three. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Match the columns B & C with column A.

A	B	C
Ovulation	Endometrium	LH
Implantation	Uterus	Progesterone
Gestation	Graafian follicle	HCG

Answer:

A	B	C
Ovulation	Graafian follicle	LH
Implantation	Endometrium	progesterone
Gestation	Uterus	HCG

Question 16.
Prepare a flowchart of evolution of man in descending order by choosing the names given below:
Homo sapiens, Homo erectus, Homo habilis, Australopithecines, Ramapithicus, Neanderthal
Answer:
Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → homo habilus → homo erectus → neanderthal man → Homo sapiens.

Question 17.
Classify the following barriers of innate immunity under three suitable headings:
Skin, Saliva, WBC, Monocyte, Mucus, Acid of stomach
Answer:
Physical barrier – skin and mucus
Physiological barrier – acid in stomach and saliva
Cellular barrier – WBC, Monocyte

Question 18.
Expand the following:
1) SNP
2) BAC
3) YAC
Answer:
1) SNP Single nucleotide polymorphism
2) BAC Bacterial artificial chromosome
3) YAC Yeast artificial chromosome