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Students can Download Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The element of the 3d series which is not regarded as a transition element is ____________ .
Answer:
Zinc

Question 2.
Say TRUE or FALSE:
Cr²⁺ compounds are strong oxidising agents
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Which of the following has the least magnetic moment?
(a) Cu²⁺
(b) Ni²⁺
(c) Co²⁺
(d) Fe²⁺
Answer:
(a) Cu²⁺

Question 4.
The oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ is _________
Answer:
+ 6

Question 5.
Lanthanoid contraction implies
(a) Decrease in density.
(b) Decrease in mass.
(c) Decrease in ionic radii.
(d) Decrease in radioactivity.
Answer:
(c) Decrease in ionic radii.

Question 6.
Which of the following species are paramagnetic?
(a) Fe²⁺
(b) Zn
(c) Hg²⁺
(d) Ti⁴⁺
Answer:
(a) Fe²⁺

Question 7.
The approximate percentage of iron in misch metal is____
Answer:
5

Question 8.
The maximum oxidation state shown by Mn in its compounds is _____
Answer:
+ 7

Question 9.
The acidic, basic or amphoteric nature of Mn₂O₇, V₂O₅ and CrO are respectively
Answer:
acidic, amphoteric and basic

Question 10.
The correct order of oxidising power of the following is
(a) Cr₂O₇^2- > MnO₄^– > VO₂⁺
(b) MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺
(c) VO₂⁺ >MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2-
(d) MnO₄^– > VO₂⁺ > Cr₂O₇^2-
(e) Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺ > MnO₄^–
Answer:
(b) MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transition metals can form complexes.

1. Is the statement true?
2. Justify.
3. Give two examples of complexes.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Transition elements form complex compounds due to the comparatively smaller size of the metal ion, their high ionic charges and the availability of d-orbital for the bond formation.
3. [Fe(CN)₆]^3-, [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

Question 2.
Consider the statement: Scandium is a transition element but zinc is not.

1. Do you agree with his statement?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Scandium has incompletely filled 3d orbitals in its ground state (3d⁰), it is regarded as a transition element. On the other hand, zinc atom has completely filled d orbitals (3d¹⁰) in its ground state as well as in its oxidised state. Hence it is not regarded as a transition element.

Question 3.
Transition elements show variable oxidation state.

1. Give reason.
2. Illustrate with an example.

Answer:

1. The variable oxidation states of transition elements is due to the participation of ns and (n-1) d electrons in bonding,
2. E.g.: The outer configuration of Mn is 3d⁵,4s² it exhibits all the oxidation states from +2 to +7.

Question 4.
Cu+ is colourless while Cu²⁺ is coloured in aqueous solution.

1. Is it true?
2. What are the reasons for this?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. In Cu+ it is 3d¹⁰,4s⁰ and there is no d-d transition. Hence no colour. But in Cu²⁺ it is 3d⁹, 4s⁰ it has d-d transition and hence it has colour.

Question 5.
The highest oxidation state of a metal is exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only.

1. Do you agree?
2. If yes, give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Due to very high electronegativity and small size oxygen and fluorine can oxidise the metal to its highest oxidation state.

Question 6.
What is misch metal? Give its use.
Answer:
‘Misch metal’ is an alloy which consists of a lanthanoid metal (~ 95%) and iron (~ 5%) and traces of S, C, Ca and Al. It is used in Mg-based alloy to produce bullets, shell and lighter flint.

Question 7.
Some ions of transition metals are given below. Categorize them into those which are coloured or not. Justify your answer.
Ti³⁺, V²⁺, Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Ti⁴⁺, Cu²⁺, Zn²⁺, Cu⁺
Answer:

Coloured ions	Colourless ions
Ti3+	Sc3+
V2+	Ti4+
Mn2+	Zn2+
Ca2+	Cu+

• In Ti³⁺, V²⁺, Mn²⁺, Ca²⁺ d-d transition is possible. Hence they have colour.
• In Sc³⁺ and Ti⁴⁺(3d⁰), Zn²⁺ and Cu⁺(3d¹⁰) d-d transition is not possible.

Question 8.
Why are Mn²⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ toward oxidation to their +3 state?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵ , which is stable due to half-filled sub-shell. Hence, Mn²⁺ is not easily oxidised to Mn³⁺. On the other hand, Fe²⁺ has electronic configuration 3d⁶ . After losing one electron it changes to Fe³⁺ which has stable 3d⁵ electronic configuration. Hence, Fe²⁺ is relatively easily oxidised to Fe³⁺

Question 9.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
Except Sc, the most common oxidation state of the first row transition elements is +2 which arises from the loss of two 4s electrons. The +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of first transition elements with increasing atomic number because 3d orbitals acquires only one electron in each of the five 3d orbitals.

Question 10.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the nontransition elements?
Answer:
Transition elements have partially filled d-dubshell belonging to penultimate energy level whereas non-transition elements do not have any partially filled d-subshell. In non-transition elements, the last electron enters the s or p-subshell whereas in transition elements the last electron enters the d-subshell of penultimate energy level.

Question 11.
Predict which of the following will be coloured aqueous solution?
Ti³⁺ , V³⁺ cu⁺, Sc³⁺ , Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and CO²⁺ and MnO₄^–. Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Any ion that has partially filled d-orbitals is coloured due to d-d transition in visible light. MnO₄^– has purpule colour due to charge-transfer. Cu⁺ (d¹⁰ ) and Sc³⁺ (d⁰) are white since there is no d-d transition.

Question 12.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce³⁺ ion and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Answer:
Ce (Z = 58) = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹5d¹6s²
Ce³⁺ = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹
It has one unpaired electron.
µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) B.M.
µ = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}=\sqrt{3}\) B.M = 1.732 B.M.

Question 13.
Among the following transition metal compounds which are coloured. Why?
TiO, TiO₂, ZnSO₄, MnCl₂, CrCl₃
Answer:

• TiO → Coloured
• MnCl₂ → Coloured
• CrCl₃ → Coloured

Question 14.
In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest. Why?
Answer:
Zinc has weaker interparticle forces due to fully filled d-subshell (3d¹⁰).

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:
i. 5

ii. 4.90 BM

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain why

1. Transition metals have higher density than alkaline earth metals?
2. Transition metals are less electropositive than alkaline earth metals?
3. Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation?

Answer:
1. Transition metals have smaller atomic size and stronger interparticle attractive forces (metallic bond) than alkaline earth metals and hence have higher density than alkaline earth metals.

2. Transition metals due to their smaller atomic size and greater effective nuclear charge, have higher ionisation energy than alkaline earth metals and hence are less electropositive.

3. Transition elements have very strong interatomic bonds due to their small size and also due to the presence of large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms. As a result, they have very high enthalpies of atomisation.

Question 2.
Two students wrote the electronic configuration of Chromium (Z = 24) as shown below:
Student A: [Ar] 4s², 3d⁴
Student B : [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

1. Pick out the correct electronic configuration and justify.
2. Calculate the spin only magnetic moments of Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and find out which is more paramagnetic.

Answer:
1. [Ar] 3d⁵4s¹ . Due to the extra stability of the half-filled 3d level.

2. Sc³⁺ – n = 0 µ = 0 BM
Mn²⁺ – n = 5 µ = \(\sqrt{5(5+2)}=\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM
Fe³⁺ – n = 5 µ = \(\sqrt{5(5+2)}=\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Some information regarding a particular compound is given below.
A deep purple black crystal which is moderately soluble in water at room temperature and it is prepared from pyrolusite.

1. Identify the compound.
2. Give the chemical reactions involved in the preparation of this compound.
3. Upon heating to 746 K, what happens to this compound? Give the equation.

Answer:

1. KMnO₄
2. 2MnO₂ + 4KOH + O₂ → 2K₂MnO₄ + 2H₂O 3MnO₄^2- + 4H⁺→ 2MnO₄^– + MnO₂ + 2H₂O
3. Potassium permanganate on strong heating gives potassium manganate, manganese dioxide and oxygen.
   2KMnO₄→ K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂

Question 2.
Consider the statement: All transition elements form coloured compounds.

1. Do you agree?
2. Name three transition elements which cannot form coloured compounds.
3. What is the reason for colour of transition metal compounds?

Answer:

1. No.
2. Zn, Cd and Hg.
3. The colour of transition compound is due to d-d transition. The colour observed corresponds to the complementary colour of the light absorbed.

Question 3.
Complete the table:

Answer:

Question 4.
The size of the atoms from Lanthanum to Lutetium, shows a steady and slow decrease in atomic size.

1. Do you agree with it?
2. What are the causes for this?
3. What are the consequences of this phenomenon?

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. It is due to Lanthanoid contraction. In Lanthanoid series the 4f electrons are being added in the antipenultimate shell. The 4f electrons have very poor shielding effect because of diffused shape of 4f orbitals and the effective nuclear charge experienced by each 4f electrons increases. Hence there is a regular decrease in radii with increase in atomic number.

3. Consequences of lanthanoid contraction are:

• Difficulty in separation of lanthanoids due to similarity in chemical properties.
• Similarity in size of elements belonging to same group of second & third transition series.

Question 5.
Zn, Cd, Hg are pseudo transition elements.

1. What do you mean by pseudo transition elements?
2. Write the outer electronic configuration of transition elements.
3. Write any four properties of transition elements,

Answer:
1. Pseudo transition elements have completely filled d orbitals and will not exhibit the characteristic properties of true transition elements.

2. The outer electronic configuration of transition elements is (n-1) d^{1 – 10} ns^{1 – 2}.

3. Four properties of transition elements.

• They form coloured compounds.
• They exhibit variable oxidation state.
• They form complex.
• They are good catalysts.

Question 6.
In a demonstration experiment, the teacher prepared the following solutions.
Solution 1: ZnSO₄ in water
Solution 2: CuSO₄ in water

1. Which of the above solutions is coloured?
2. Explain the Chemistry behind it.

Answer:
1. Solution 2: CuSO₄ in water is coloured.

2. In CuSO₄, Cu is in +2 oxidation state. Cu²⁺ has 3d⁹ electronic configuration and it can undergo d-d transition and hence has colour(blue). In ZnSO₄, zinc is in +2 oxidation state. Zn²⁺ has the 3d¹⁰ configuration. It has no d-d transition and hence it is colourless.

Question 7.

1. What is the effect of heat on KMnO₄
2. Give any two examples to show the oxidising property of KMnO₄.

Answer:
1. On heating, KMnO₄ decomposes at 513 K into potassium manganate and oxygen gas is evolved.

2. Two examples to show the oxidising property of KMnO₄

• In acid medium it oxidises iodide to iodine.
  10I^– + 2MnO₄^– + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O + 5I₂
• In neutral or faintly alkaline solutions it oxidises iodide to iodate.
  2MnO₄^– + H₂O + I^– → 2MnO₂ + 2OH^– + IO₃^–

Question 8.
(a) Hf and Zr have similar ionic radii though they belongs to the 3^rd and 4^th transition series. Explain the reason for the anomalous behaviour.
(b) MnO₄^– & MnO₄^2- are the ions of manganese. They differ in colour and magnetic nature.

1. How do this difference occured?
2. Support your answer with their structure.

Answer:
(a) This is a consequence of lanthanide contraction.

(b) Differ in colour and magnetic nature.
1. This is due to difference in number of electrons in d- subshell.
2.

Question 9.
Pyrolusite on heating with KOH in the presence of air gives a dark green compound (A). The solution of (A) on treatment with H₂SO₄ gives a purple coloured compound (B).
a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write the balanced chemical equation.
b) Write two reactions to show the oxidising nature of ‘B’.
Answer:

Question 10.
Give the method of preparation and two examples for the oxidizing property of K₂Cr₂O₇.
OR
Some d-block elements are given below:
Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni
Identify the element which shows maximum paramagnetic behaviour.
Answer:
K₂ Cr₂ O₇ is prepared from chromate ore Fe Cr₂ O₄.
Step I: The powdered ore is heated with molten alkali to form soluble sodium chromate.

4 Fe Cr₂ O₄ + 16 NaOH + 7O₂ → 8Na₂CrO₄ + 2Fe₂O₃ + 8H₂O

Step II: Sodium chromate (Na₂CrO₄) is filtered and acidified with dil.H₂SO₄ to form sodium dichromate.

2Na₂CrO₄ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂Cr₂O₇ + Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Step III: Na₂Cr₂O₇ solution is treated with KCI to form

K₂ Cr₂ O₇.
Na₂Cr₂O₇ + 2 KCI —» K₂ Cr₂ O₇ + 2NaCI

OR

Magnetic moment, µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM
Cr; n=6 µ = \(\sqrt{48}\) = 6.93 BM
Mn; n=5 µ = \(\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM
Fe; n=4 µ = \(\sqrt{24}\) = 4.90 BM
Co; n=3 µ = \(\sqrt{15}\) = 3.87BM
Ni; n=2 µ = \(\sqrt{8}\) = 2.83 BM
∴ Cr has maximum paramagnetic behaviour.

Question 11.

1. Even though usually transition elements exhibit +2 oxidation states, it changes from 0 to +8 in different compounds. What is the reason for it?
2. In the first transition series the atomic radius is decreasing from Sc to Cr and remains constant from Cr to Cu. From Cu to Zn it increases. Why?
3. The atomic radii of second and third transition series are same. Why?

Answer:
1. The variable valency is due to the following reason. The energy difference between inner ‘d’ level and outers level is so small. Therefore electrons from ‘d’ level as well as ‘s’ level can take part in reaction.

2. Sc to Cr – Atomic radius decreases due to increase in nuclear charge. Cr to Cu – Due to a balance between the increased nuclear charge and increased screening effect atomic radii become almost constant.

Cu to Zn – Repulsive interactions between the paired electrons in d-orbitals become very dominant towards the end of the period and cause the expansion of electron cloud and thus result in increased atomic size.

3. Lanthanoid, Contraction.

Question 12.
a) Calculate the magnetic moments of the following ions and predict its magnetic property.
Ti³⁺ (Z = 22)
Ni²⁺ (Z = 25)
Fe³⁺ (Z = 26)
Zn²⁺ (Z = 30)
Answer:

Question 13.
TiO, TiO₂, ZnSO₄, MnCl₂, CrCl₃
Arrange the above metal ions in the increasing order of their magnetic moment. (3)
Answer:

The increasing order of magnetic moment is TiO₂ = ZnSO₄ < TiO < CrCl₃, MnCl₂

Question 14.
How magnetic moment is calculated? How will you identify magnetism of an element from its electronic configuration?
Answer:
By using the ‘spin-only’ formula, n = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM where ‘n’ is the number of unpaired electrons and ‘µ’ is the magnetic moment in Bohr Magneton (BM). If the element contains an unpaired electron it is paramagnetic. If all the electrons are paired and

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are Mn²⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ toward oxidation to their +3 state?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵, which is stable due to half-filled sub-shell. Hence, Mn²⁺ is not easily oxidised to Mn³⁺. On the other hand, Fe²⁺ has electronic configuration 3d⁶. After losing one electron it changes to Fe³⁺ which has stable 3d⁵ electronic configuration. Hence, Fe²⁺ is relatively easily oxidised to Fe³⁺

Question 2.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
Except Sc, the most common oxidation state of the first row transition elements is +2 which arises from the loss of two 4s electrons. The +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of first row transition elements with increasing atomic number because 3d orbitals acquire only one electron in each of the five 3d orbitals (i.e., each d-orbital remains half-filled) and inter electronic repulsion is the least and nuclear charge increases.

In second half of first row transition elements, electron starts pairing up in 3d orbitals and hence there is inter electronic repulsion. (Ti²⁺ to Mn²⁺ electronic configuration changes from 3d² to 3d⁵ but in second half i.e., Fe²⁺ to Zn²⁺ it changes from 3d⁶ to 3d¹⁰.)

Question 3.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non-transition elements?
Answer:
Transition elements have partially filled d-subshell belonging to penultimate energy level whereas non-transition elements do not have any partially filled d- subshell. In non-transition elements, the last electron enters the s or p-subshell whereas in transition elements the last electron enters the d-subshell of penultimate energy level.

Question 4.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution?
Ti³⁺, V³⁺, Cu⁺, Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and CO²⁺ and MnO^4-. Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Any ion that has partially filled d-orbitals is coloured due to d-d transition in visible light. Ti³⁺ (d¹), V³⁺ (d²) Mn²⁺ (d⁵), Co²⁺ (d⁸) are coloured. MnO^4- has purpule colour due to charge-transfer. Cu⁺ (d¹⁰) and Sc³⁺ (d⁰) are white since there is no d-d transition.

Question 5.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce³⁺ ion and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Answer:
Ce (Z = 58) = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹5d¹6s²
Ce³⁺ = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹
It has one unpaired electron.
µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) B.M.
where n = number of unpaired electrons.
∴ Magnetic moment of Ce³⁺,
μ = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\) BM
= 1.732 BM

Students can Download Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Alkolic KOH is a specific reagent for
(a) dehydration
(b) dehalogenation
(c) dehydrohalogenation
(d) dehydrogenation
Answer:
(c) dehydrohalogenation

Question 2.
Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas called ………………
Answer:
carbonyl chloride/phosgene

Question 3.
Which of the following represents a gem di halide?
(a) ethylene dichloride
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane
(c) 1,3-dichloropropane
(d) 1,2-dichloropropane
Answer:
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane

Quesiton 4.
Here ‘A’ is
(a) phenol
(b) sodium phenoxide
(c) benzene
(d) cyclohexyl chloride
Answer:
(b) sodium phenoxide

Question 5.
There are _________ structural isomers of C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
Four

Question 6.
Name the insecticide prepared from chloral and chloro benzene.
Answer:
DDT

Question 7.
The reaction between arylhalide and alkylhalide in the presence of sodium and dry ether.
Answer:
Wurtz-Fittig reaction

Question 8.
Name the substance which is used as anaesthetic.
Answer:
Chloroform

Question 9.
Name an alkyl magnesium halide.
Answer:
Methyl magnesium chloride (CH₃MgCI) – Grignard reagent

Question 10.
Compounds in which the halogen atom is directly attached to an aromatic ring carbon.
Answer:
Aryl halides

Question 11.
Even though alkylhalides are polar in nature, they are insoluble in water. Comment on it.
Answer:
This is because alkylhalides can neither make or break hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

Question 12.
From the following select those compounds which are used for the preparation of alkyl halide?

NH3, SOCI2, Na, aq.KOH, HCI, alc.KOH, CH3-CH2-CI, anhyd.ZnCI2.

Answer:
SOCI₂, HCI, and ZnCI₂

Question 13.
When (-) 2methyl butan-1-ol is heated with con. HCI +1-chloro-2 methyl butane is obtained. This reaction is an example of
(a) retension
(b) invission
(c) racemisation
(d) resolution
Answer:
(a) retension

Question 14.
If alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary alkyl halide by aqeous alkali, if concentration of alkali is doubled then the reaction rate at constant temperature will be ___________
Answer:
will be tripled.

Question 15.
The organic compound used as feedstock in the synthesise of chlorofluorocarbon is ___________
Answer:
CCI₄

Question 16.
DDT is prepared from _____________
Answer:
Chlorobenzene and B.H.C

Question 17.
Chlorination of benzene in the presence of halogen is an example of ____________
Answer:
aromatic electrophilic substitution

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the preparation of extra pure alkyl halide from ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
When ethyl alcohol is heated with thionyl chloride, chloroethane is obtained. Here the byproducts are in gaseous state and hence this method is used for the preparation of extra pure alkyl halide.
CH₃-CH₂-OH + SOCI₂ → CH₃CH₂CI + HCI + SO₂

Question 2.
A student was treating iodoform with silver nitrate and he got yellow precipitation. Then he used chloroform instead of Iodoform.

1. Will he get the earlier result?
2. Why?

Answer:

1. No
2. C-I bond in iodoform is weaker than C-CI bond of chloroform. So C-I bond of iodoform is easily broken to form yellow precipitate of AgI when heated with AgNO₃ solution.

Question 3.

Choral, Sodium carbonate, Bleaching power, Iodine, Ethyl alcohol.

From the box, write the raw materials of chloroform and Iodoform.
Answer:
Chloroform – ethyl alcohol and bleaching powder Iodoform – Sodium carbonate, ethyl alcohol and iodine

Question 4.
During a class room discussion a student 1 argued: “When chlorobenzene is allowed to react with metallic sodium in the presence of dry ether medium, diphenyl is obtained”. Then student 2 countered: “This reaction will take place in the presence of ale. KOH”.

1. Whom you will support?
2. Name the reaction? Explain it.

Answer:

1. Student 1
2. Fittig reaction

When aryl halide is allowed to heat with sodium in dry ether medium, diaryl is obtained, or

Question 5.
Analyse the following statements:
Statement 1: Alkyl halides are polar compounds.
Statement 2: Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because alkyl halides are non-polar compounds. What is your opinion? Explain it.
Answer:
Even though alkylhalides are polar compounds, they are insoluble in water. Because they can neither form hydrogen bonds with water nor break the hydrogen bonds existing between water molecules.

Question 6.
Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?

1. CH₂CI₂
2. CHCI₃
3. CCI₄

Answer:
Dipole moment of CH₂CI₂ (1.60 D) is the highest. The dipole moment of CCI₄ is zero while that of CHCI₃ is 1.03 D. The dipolement of CHCI₃ is less than that of CH₂CI₂ because the bond dipole of third C-CI bond opposes the resultant of bond dipoles of the other two C-CI bonds.

Question 7.
A hydrocarbon C₅H₁₀ does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C₅H₉CI in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Since the hydrocarbon gives only one monochloro compound, it indicates that all the hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon are equivalent. Thus, the compound is cyclopentane.

Question 8.
Which of the following has the highest dipole moment? CH₂CI₂, CHCI₃, CCI₄. Justify.
Answer:
The dipole moment of CH₂CI₂ (1.6 D) is the highest. The dipole moment of CCI₄ is zero while that of CHCI₃ is 1.03 D. The dipole moment of CHCI3 is less than that of CH₂CI₂ because the bond dipole of third C-CI bond opposes the resultant of bond dipoles of the other two C-CI bonds.

Question 9.
Which alkyl halide from the following pair would you expect to react more rapidly by SN² reaction mechanism? Justify your answer. CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-Br or CH₃-CH₂-CH(Br)-CH₃
Answer:

Presence of bulky groups around carbon atoms induce an inhibitory effect. Bulky group hinders the approaching nucleophiles in SN² mechanisam.

Question 10.
Explain the stereochemical aspects of SN¹ and SN² reactions selecting suitable example.
Answer:
S_N¹ reaction:
In the case of optically active alkyl halides, S_N¹ reactions are accompanied by racemisation. This is because the attack of the nucleophile may be accomplished from either side resulting in a mixture of products, one having the same configuration and the other having opposite configuration.

S_N² reaction:
In the case of optically active alkyl halides, there is inversion of configuration. This is because the nucleophile attaches itself on the side opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present

Question 11.
Arrange the following compounds in the order of reactivity towards SN² displacement. 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane, 1-Bromopentane 2-Bromopentane
Answer:
1-Bromopentane > 2-Bromo-pentane > 2-Bromo-2- methyl butane

Question 12.
What happens when methyl bromide is treated with sodium in presence of dry ether? Write the chemical equation and name the reaction.
Answer:
Ethane is formed.

called Wurtz reaction.

Question 13.
Chloroform is stored in black coloured bottles. Why?
Answer:
In presence of sunlight chloroform undergoes oxidation to form carbonyl chloride (phosgene).

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Raju heated the test tube containing ale. KOH and primary amine with one compound. A foul smell is obtained.

1. What is the compound?
2. Name the foul smelling product obtained.
3. Name the reaction.

Answer:

1. Chloroform
2. Isocyanide/Carbyl amine
3. Carbyl amine reaction/lsocyanide test

Question 2.
Nitration is one of the ring substitution reactions.

1. How it will be carried out?
2. What are the products obtained when chloro-benzene is heated with the nitrating mixture?
3. What is the difference if the same compound is heated with fuming H₂SO₄?

Answer:
1. By heating with nitrating mixture (mixture of conc.HN0₃ and conc.H₂O₄)

2. A mixture of 1-Chloro-2-nitrobenzene (minor product) and 1-Chloro-4-nitrobenzene (major product) is obtained.

3. If chloro benzene is heated with fuming H₂So₄ sulphonation will take place resulting in the formation of a mixture of 2-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid (minor product) and 4- Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid (major product).

Question 3.
Consider the reaction: RX + Mg → RMgX

1. Identify the compound ‘RMgX’.
2. Explain the reaction.

Answer:

1. Grignard Reagent
2. When alkyl halides are treated with magnesium in the presence of dry ether, alkyl magnesium halide is obtained.

Question 4.
Chloroform kept in brown coloured bottles filled up to the neck.

1. What is the reason for this?
2. Few drops of 1% ethyl alcohol is added to chloroform to be kept for long. Give reason.

Answer:
1. In the presence of sunlight chloroform undergoes oxidation to form carbony chloride or phosgene, a highly poisonous gas.

This reaction can be avoided by storing it in dark bottles, completely filled upto brim. The use of brown bottles cuts off active light radiations and filling upto brim keeps out air. So chloroform is kept in brown bottles.

2. Addition of a little ethanol fixes the toxic COCI₂ as non-poisonous diethyl carbonate.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:

1. CH₃CH₂I
2. Ethyl Iodide
3. CH₃-CHBr-CH₃
4. 2-Bromopropane
5. Iso-butyl chloride
6. 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane

Question 6.
In a Chemistry class, teacher explained that when benzene diazonium chloride is allowed to react with cuprous chloride and HCI, Chloro benzene is obtained. Then teacher asked

1. If we use copper powder instead of cuprous chloride. What will be the product?
2. Write the name of the reaction.
3. Write the equation which shows the reaction between benzene diazonium chloride with copper powder and HCI.

Answer:
1. Chlorobenzene is obtained.

2. Gattermann reaction.

3.

Question 7.
In a Lab, one student took a compound in test tube and he added iodine and alkali. He notices a yellow precipitate.

1. Write the name of the test.
2. Which type of compounds give this test?
3. According to the above answer, ethyl alcohol or methyl alcohol, which one gives this test?

Answer:

1. Iodoform test
2. Iodoform test is given by those compounds which are having CH₃CO – group or CH₃CHOH group.
3. Ethyl alcohol gives Iodoform test becuase it has CH₃CHOH group.

Question 8.

For the preparation of chlorobenzene, Nikhil wrote the equation ‘A’ and Nishanth wrote the equation ‘B’.

1. Which of the above equation is correct? Why?
2. Write the name of the reactions ‘A’ and ‘B’
3. Explain any one reaction.

Answer:

1. 1. Both the reactions (A) and (B) are correct.
   2. (A) -Sandmeyer reaction (B) – Gattermann reaction
   3. Sandmeyer reaction – When benzene diazonium chloride is allowed to react with cuprous chloride and HCI, chlorobenzene is obtained, benzene diazonium chloride + cuprous chloride
      

Question 9.
a. In the following pairs of compounds which would undergo SN₂ reaction faster?
(CH₃)₃C-Brand CH₃-CH₂-Br
b. i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH + SOCI₂ → ……..

Answer:
a. CH₃CH₂Br. SN₂ reaction is faster in the case of primary alkyl halides since the transition state is more stable.
b. i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CI
ii) CH₃-CH₂ -CH₂ – CH₂Br (Anti-Markownikoff’s addition)

Question 10.

1. Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkane takes place through two different mechanisms, SN¹ and SN². Why do inversion of configuration take place in SN²?
2. What is racemic mixture?
3. Comment on the optical activity of recemic mixture.

Answer:

1. is because the nucleophile attaches itself on the side opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present.
2. Equimolar mixture of ‘d’ and T forms of an optically active compound is called racemic mixture.
3. Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to external compensation. A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal proportions will have zero optical rotation, as the rotation due to one isomer will be cancelled by the rotation due to the other isomer.

Question 11.
Write equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
i) 1 – butanol
ii) 1 – chlorobutane
iii) but -1- ene
Answer:
i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH+ HI → CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂I + H₂O

Question 12.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N2 reaction with – OH?

1. CH₃Br or CH₃I
2. (CH₃)₃CCI or CH₃CI

Answer:

1. CH₃I will react faster because C-I bond undergoes cleavage more easily as compared to C-Br bond.
2. CH₃CI will react faster because in it the carbon carrying halogen is sterically less hindered.

Question 13.
Identify the product X, Y, and Z in the following reaction.

Answer:

• X = CH₃CH₂CI
• Y = CH₃CH₂CN
• Z = CH₃CH₂CONH₂

Question 14.
Identify the compounds X, Y, and Z in the following.

Answer:

• X = CH₃ – CH₂Br
• Y = CH₃CH₂OH
• Z = CHI₃

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
CH₃-CH = CH₂ + HCI

1. What are the possible products?
2. Of these which one is the major product?
3. Name the rule which helps you to answer the above question.
4. Explain the rule.

Answer:
1.

2. 2-Chloropropane is major.
3. Markownikoffs rule.
4. When a hydrogen halide is added to an unsymmetrical alkenethe halogen atom of alkyl halide will go to double-bonded carbon atom containing lesser number of hydrogen atom.

Question 2.
Two compounds are given

1. What is the difference between these two compounds?
2. Write the name of reaction they undergo and explain it.

Answer:

1. 1^st compound is cyanide. 2^nd compound is isocyanide
2. Nucleophilic substitution reactions.

The reactions in which a stronger nucleophile substitutes or displaces a weaker nucleophile are called nucleophilic substitution reactions.

Question 3.

1. Name ‘A’.
2. What is the role of ‘A’?
3. Name the product obtained.
4. What is this reaction called?

Answer:

1. Dry ether
2. Dry ether is used to prevent explosion
3. Diphenyl
4. Fittig reaction

Question 4.


Answer:

Question 5.
a) Haloalkanes give β-elimination.
i) Prepare CH₂ = CH₂ from CH₃ – CH₂X and alchoholic KOH.
ii) Give the major product of the β-elimination of

Name the related rule.

b) In the following pairs of halogen compounds which would undergo SN² reaction faster? Justify.

Answer:


It is primary halide and therefore undergoes S_N² reaction faster.

An iodide is a better leaving group because of its large size. It will be released at a faster rate in the presence of attacking nucleophile.

Question 6.

1. Which among the following compounds undergo SN¹ substitution easily – 3° or 1° alkyl halide? Give reason. Justify.
2. Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions. Give reason.

Answer:

1. 3°- alkyl halide. Because the 3° carbocation is more stable than a 1° carbocation.
2. Grignard reagents react with water and get decomposed (hydrolysed). Hence they should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.

Question 7.
a. In the following pair of halogen compounds which undergo SN² reactions faster.

1. C₆H₂ – CH₂ – CI and C₆ H₃ -CI
2. CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CI and CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – I

b.

Answer:
a. Undergo SN² reactions faster

1. C₆H₅CH₂CI
2. CH₃ -CH₂ -CH₂ -I (R-I bond is weaker than R-CI bond)

b.

i) CH₃ -CH₂ -CH₂ -CH₂ Br
ii) CH₃-CH₂-CN

Question 8.

Complete the reaction.
b) R- CH₂– CI, R₂CHCI, R₃CCI. Arrange these alkylhalide in the order of reactivity towards SN¹ and SN² mechanism.

Answer:

Question 9.
Write the isomers of compound having molecular formula C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
For the molecular formula C₄H₉Br four isomers are possible.
(i) CH₃-CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃ (1-Bromobutane)

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A hydrocarbon C₅H₁₀ does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C₅H₁₀CI in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Since the hydrocarbon gives only one monochloro compound, it indicates that all the hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon are equivalent. Thus, the compound is cyclopentane.

Question 2.
Write the isomers of compound having molecular formula C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
For the molecular formula C₄H₉Br four isomers are possible.
(i) CH₃-CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃ (1-Bromobutane)

Question 3.
Write equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
i) 1 – butanol
ii) 1 – chlorobutane
iii) but – 1 – ene
Answer:
i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH+ HI → CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂I + H₂O

Question 4.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N2 reaction with OH^–?
Answer:

• CH₃I will react faster because C-I bond undergoes cleavage more easily as compared to C-Br bond.
• CH₃CI will react faster because in it the carbon carrying halogen is sterically less hindered.

Question 5.
Out of C₆H₅CH₂CI and C₆H₅CHCIC₆H₅which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?
Answer:
C₆H₅CH₂CIC₆H₅ is more easily hdrolysed because in this case the reaction proceeds through more stable intermediate carbocation.

The intermediate carbocation in this case is stabilised by resonance effect of two phenyl groups whereas in the other case it is stabilised by resonance effect of only one phenyl group.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Electro Magnetic Waves Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Electro Magnetic Waves

Plus Two Physics Electro Magnetic Waves NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10^-10, red light of wavelength 6800 Å and radio waves of wavelength 500m?
Answer:
The speed in vacuum is the same for all.
c = 3 × 10⁸ms^-1

Question 2.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are in x-y plane and are mutually perpendicular. Given v = 30 MHz = 30 × 10⁶ Hz, c = 3 × 10⁸ms^-1.
∴ \(\frac{c}{v}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{30 \times 10^{6}}\) = 10m.

Question 3.
A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the corresponding wavelength band?
Answer:
For v₁ = 7.5 MHz = 7.5 × 10⁶ Hz

For v₂ = 12 MHz = 12 × 10⁶ Hz

So the wavelength band: 40m – 25m.

Question 4.
Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E = {(3.1N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 10⁶ rad s^-1t] \(\hat{i}\)

1. What is the direction of propagation?
2. What is the wavelength X?
3. What is the frequency v?
4. What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?
5. Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.

Answer:

1. \(-\hat{j}\)
2. λ = \(\frac{2 \pi}{k}=\frac{2 \times 3.14}{1.8}\) = 3.48 = 3.5m
3. v = C/λ = 3 × 10⁸/ 3.5 = 85.7 × 10⁶ = 86 MHz.
4. B₀ = \(\frac{E_{0}}{c}=\frac{31}{3 \times 10^{8}}\) = 10 × 10^-8T = 100nT.
5. 100nT) cos (1.8 rad/m) y + (5.4 × 10⁶ rad/s)t \(\hat{k}\)

Plus Two Physics Electro Magnetic Waves One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The structure of solids is investigated by using
(a) cosmic rays
(b) X-rays
(c) y-rays
(d) infra-red radiations
Answer:
(b) X-rays

Question 2.
Wavelength of light of frequency 100Hz.
(a) 4 × 10⁶m
(b) 3 × 10⁶m
(c) 2 × 1o⁶m
(d) 5 × 10^-5m
Answer:
(b) 3 × 10⁶m
λ = \(\frac{3 \times 10^{8}}{100}\) = 3 × 10⁶m.

Question 3.
What is the biological importance of ozone layer
(a) It stops ultraviolet rays
(b) ozone layer reduces green house effect
(c) ozone layer reflects radio waves
(d) ozone layer controls O₂/H₂ ratio in atmosphere
Answer:
(a) It stops ultraviolet rays
The ozone layer absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays coming from sun.

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out from the following x-rays, visible light, matter waves, radio waves.
Answer:
Matter waves, (matter-wave is not a em wave).

Question 5.
What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10^-10, red light of wavelength 6800 Å and radio waves of wavelength 500m?
Answer:
The speed in vacuum is the same for all.
c = 3 × 10⁸ms^-1.

Plus Two Physics Electro Magnetic Waves Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State whether True or False.

1. Electromagnetic waves propagate in the direction of electric field.
2. For an electromagnetic wave the ratio of E to B is equal to speed of light.
3. In an electromagnetic wave, electric field leads by π/2.
4. Electromagnetic waves can be produced by accelerating electric charge.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True

Plus Two Physics Electro Magnetic Waves Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:

• Radiowave – accelerated motion of charges in wires – cellular phones.
• Infrared waves – Hot bodies and molecule – Green house effect.
• X-rays – High energy electrons – diagnostic purpose
• Gama-rays – Radio active nuclei – destroy cancer cells.

Plus Two Physics Electro Magnetic Waves Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an electro magnetic wave electric and magnetic field vectors are given by E = 120 sin (ωt + kz) i, B = 40 × 10^-8sin (ωt +kz)j

1. What is the direction of propagation of electro magnetic wave?
2. Determine the ratio of amplitude of electric field to magnetic field in the case of the above em wave?
3. How can you relate the above ratio with m₀ and e₀.

Answer:

1. A direction or perpendicular to the direction of variation of electric field and magnetic field, ie.z direction.
2. \(\frac{E_{0}}{B_{0}}=\frac{120}{40 \times 10^{-8}}\) = 3 × 10⁸m/s.
3. \(\frac{E_{0}}{B_{0}}=\sqrt{\frac{1}{\mu_{0} \varepsilon_{0}}}\) = C.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

• γ-ray – Radioactivity – Nucleus
• X-ray – Diagnosis- Photon emission by fast moving e’s
• uv-ray- Sunburn – Electronicde excitation
• Microwave – Remote sensing – Oscillating current.

Question 3.
The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by B = 2 × 10^-7 sin (0.5 × 10³x + 1.5 × 10¹¹t)

1. What is the maximum amplitude of this magnetic field?
2. What is wave length and frequency?
3. If this electro magnetic move in z-direction. Write the equation of it’s electric field.

Answer:
1. 2 × 10^-7.

2. Comparing with standard equation
B = B_x Sin (kx + ωt)
we get, kx = 0.5 × 10³x.

m = 12.56 × 10^-3m
ω = 1.5 × 10¹¹, 2πf = 1.5 × 10¹¹
f = 2.3 × 10¹¹hz

3. Amplitude E₀ = B₀ C
= 2 × 10^-7 × 3 × 10⁸ = 60 N/C
If magnetic field vibrate in x direction,
then E_y = 60 sin (0.5 × 10³z + 1.5 × 10¹¹t).

Question 4.
The diagram shows the main regions of the electro magnetic spectrum.

1. Write the names of the blank regions.
2. Which radiation shown in the table has the shortest wavelength?
3. Which ray among these are responsible for green house effect? Explain green house effect.

Answer:
1. Ultra violet, Infrared.

2. Gamma-ray

3. Infrared
Earth is heated by infrared radiations from the sun. At the same time earth radiates longer wavelength to the space. This radiation (outgoing) of longer wavelength is reflected back by CO₂ and other gases.

Hence radiation (from earth) can’t escape from earth’s surface. Thus the temperature at earth’s surface increases. This phenomenon is called Green house effect.

Question 5.

1. Sun is a very powerful source of ultraviolet rays. But we do not receive much ultraviolet rays on the surface of the earth. Why?
2. The electric field of an ultraviolet ray is given by E = 60 sin (0.5 × 10³ – 1.5 × 10¹¹t) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field vector in the ultraviolet ray?

Answer:
1. Ozone prevents the UV ray.

2. \(B=\frac{E}{C}=\frac{60}{3 \times 10^{8}}\)
= 2 × 10^-7wb/m².

Students can Download Chapter 1 Introduction Macroeconomics Questions and Answers, Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Introduction Macroeconomics

Plus Two Economics Introduction Macroeconomics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give two examples for macroeconomic studies.
Answer:

1. National income
2. Aggregate employment

Question 2.
The expenses which raise productive capacity is known as
Answer:
(a) Consumption expenditure
(b) Investment expenditure
(c) Export expenditure
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Investment expenditure

Question 3.

The pictures are related to the impacts of recession in 2008. Can you identify some impacts of the Great Depression of the 1930’s?
Answer:
Unemployment, Fall in Aggregate Demand, etc.

Plus Two Economics Introduction Macroeconomics Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Categorize the following into micro and macroeconomics.
GDP, study of a firm, individual consumption, price of rubber, wholesale price level, total employment, production of coconut, total imports.
Answer:

Microeconomics	Macroeconomics
Study of a firm Individual consumption Price of rubber Production of coconut	GDP Total imports Total employment Wholesale price level

Question 2.
“Macroeconomics has got some limitations” Do you agree? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree.
Macroeconomics has got some limitations as pointed out below.

1. The generalisation from individual experience may not be true for the aggregates.
2. Aggregates are not homogeneous.
3. An aggregative tendency may not influence all the sectors of the economy in the same manner.
4. A study of the aggregates may lead us to believe that no new policy is needed and there is no change in the policy.

Question 3.
Name four sectors of the economy.
Answer:
Four major sectors of the economy are:

• firms
• households
• government
• external sector

Question 4.
List out any two features of a capitalist economy.
Answer:
Private ownership of the means of production. Production takes place for selling in the market.

Question 5.
Identify the sectors of the economy from the given below sentences.

1. A subsidy is announced
2. People buy more goods

Answer:

1. Government
2. Household

Question 6.
Some variables are given below. Classify them under two branches of economics.

• Utility
• GDP
• Inflation
• Demand for pen
• Aggregate Consumption
• Taxes

Answer:
Micro Economics

• Utility
• Demand for pen

Macro Economics

• GDP
• Inflation
• Aggregate Consumption
• Taxes

Plus Two Economics Introduction Macroeconomics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a note on Macroeconomics.
Answer:
Macroeconomics deals with the aggregate economic variables of an economy. It also takes into account various interlinkages which may exist between the different sectors of an economy. This is what distinguishes it from microeconomics, which mostly examines the functioning of the particular sectors of the economy, assuming that the rest of the economy remains the same.

Macroeconomics emerged as a separate subject in the 1930s due to Keynes. The Great Depression, which dealt a blow to the economies of developed countries, had provided Keynes with the inspiration for his writings. In this book, we shall mostly deal with the working of a capitalist economy.

Hence it may not be entirely able to capture the functioning of a developing country. Macroeconomics sees an economy as a combination of four sectors, namely households, firms, government and external sector.

Question 2.
Choose the appropriate answer
a. The Greek word‘macros’ means

1. small
2. large
3. very small

b. Partial equilibrium analysis is the methodology of

1. Microeconomics
2. macroeconomics
3. both microeconomics and macroeconomics

c. The words microeconomics and macroeconomics were coined by

1. J.M. Keynes
2. Ragner Frisch
3. Adam Smith

Answer:
a. 2. large
b. 1. Microeconomics
c. 2. Ragner Frisch

Question 3.
Point out the significance of macroeconomics.
Answer:
The study of macroeconomics is important because of the following reasons

1. It helps to understand the functioning of the economy
2. It is helpful in comparison
3. It is useful in planning
4. It is helpful in studying growth and development
5. It is helpful in studying economic fluctuations 0 It is helpful in formulating economic policies.

Question 4.
Match A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 5.
Below is given a few features of a phenomenon.

• Output and employment in the countries of Europe and North AmeruSft fell by huge amounts.
• Demand for goods was low.
• Factories remain idle.

1. Identify the phenomena
2. Name the book that explained a solution for this crisis.
3. Identify the branch of economics emerged after this

Answer:

1. The great depression of 1929
2. General theory of employment, interest, and money.
3. Macro Economics

Plus Two Economics Introduction Macroeconomics Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Macroeconomics, as a separate branch of economics, emerged after the British economist ………..
2. The General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money’ was written in The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ ………….
3. ‘General Theory of Employment, Interest, and Money’ was written byThe General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money’ ………………
4. The Great Depression occurred in ……………
5. Macroeconomics finds an economy as a combination of four sectors, namely …………………

Answer:

1. John Maynard Keynes
2. 1936
3. John Maynard Keynes
4. 1929
5. Households, firms, government and external sector.

Question 2.
Find the odd one out. Justify your answer.

1. Income of a family, production of rice, gross domestic saving, profit of a firm
2. Price of rice, wholesale price index, total exports, inflation
3. Partial equilibrium analysis, Entire economy, Individual units, Worm’s eye view
4. Aggregate units, Worm’s eye view, Bird’s eye view, General equilibrium analysis.

Answer:

1. Gross domestic saving. Others are microeconomic indicators
2. Price of rice. Others are macroeconomic indicators
3. Entire economy. Others are features of microeconomics.
4. Worm’s eye view. Others are features of macroeconomics.

Question 3.
Arrange the following points as the features of microeconomics and macroeconomics and complete the table.

Answer:

Question 4.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of macroeconomics.
Answer:
Importance of macroeconomics:
1. Information about the economy:
Macroeconomics provides insight into various interrelated aspects and the functioning of the economy.

2. Formulation of economic policy:
Macroeconomics plays a critical role in the formulation of economic policies.

3. Economic planning:
The main objective of economic planning is to implement various police and programmes for the welfare of the people on priority basis. Macroeconomic helps economists to examine the interrelationship between various macroeconomic variables and choose the programmes best suited for the welfare of the people.

4. Examine Economic fluctuations:
Macroeconomics examine various fluctuations in different variables such as national income, aggregate output, trade deficit, investment, etc.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Human Reproduction Questions and Answers, Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Human Reproduction

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis
(b) rete testis to vas deferens
(c) vas deferens to epididymis
(d) epididymis to urethra
Answer:
(b) rete testis to vas deferens.

Question 2.
In human, the unpaired male reproductive structure is
(a) seminal vesicle
(b) prostate
(c) bulbourethral gland
(d) testes
Answer:
(b) prostate.

Question 3.
The semen fluid consists of sperm cells and secretion from
(a) seminal vesicle, prostate gland, Cowper’s gland
(b) seminal vesicle, testis, uterus
(c) seminal vesicle, prostate gland, testis
(d) seminal vesicle, Cowper’s gland, and testis
Answer:
(a) seminal vesicle, prostate gland, Cowper’s gland.

Question 4.
Onset of menstruation of human female is called
(a) menopause
(b) puberty
(c) gestation
(d) menarche
Answer:
(d) menarche

Question 5.
Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
(a) at the mid secretory phase
(b) just before the end of the secretory phase
(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase
Answer:
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase

Question 6.
The implanted stage during embryonic development?
(a) Gastrula
(b) Morula
(c) Zygote
(d) Blastocyst
Answer:
(d) Blastocyst

Question 7.
Find out the odd one and justify your answer. Estrogens, Androgens, Relaxin, Progestrogens.
Answer:
Androgens.
All others are female hormones.

Question 8.
Choose the correct answer from the bracket.
The implanted stage during embryonic development?
(a) Gastrula
(b) Morula
(c) Zygote
(d) Blastocyst
Answer:
(d) Blastocyst

Question 9.
Infants acquire passive immunity from mothers. Name the means of acquiring this type of immunity.
Answer:
Colostrum

Question 10.
A spermatogonial cell has 30 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in

1. the primary spermatocyte
2. the spermatid?

Answer:

1. 30
2. 15

Question 11.
Select from the following the one that is not the part of testis.
(a) Testicular lobules
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Primary follicles
(d) Leydig cells
Answer:
(c) Primary follicles

Question 12.
Complete the series.

1. Secreatory phase-progesterone,…………… Oestrogen
2. Implantation-uterus, Fertilization-……………

Answer:

1. Follicular phase
2. Fallopian tube

Question 13.
Find out the correct sequence.
(a) Fertilization —Zygote —Blastula — Morula — Clevage
(b) Clevage—Zygot—Fertilization—Morula— Blastula
(c) Fertilization—Clevage—Morula—Blastula— Zygot
(d) Fertilization—Zygot—Clevage—Morula— Blastula.
Answer:
(d) Fertilization—Zygot—Clevage—Morula— Blastula.

Question 14.
Identify the hormone produced by testis,

1. Thyroxine
2. Estrogen
3. Progesterone
4. Testosterone

Answer:
Testosterone

Question 15.
Normally, scrotum has a temperature below body temperature. Give the significance.
Answer:
Lower temperatures promote spermatogenesis.

Question 16.
Cowper’s gland is an accessory reproductive gland. Name two other glands associated with male reproductive system.
Answer:
vesicle and Prostate gland.

Question 17.
Find out the first cell which is formed as haploid during spermatogenesis.
(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Primary spermatocyte
(c) Secondary spermatocyte
(d) Sperm
Answer:
(c) Secondary spermatocyte

Question 18.
The urine sample of a lady contains HCG. As a biology student, what conclusion can you draw from the result?
Answer:
The woman is pregnant

Question 19.
In testes, the newly formed sperms are temporarily stored in……………..
(a) Rete testis
(b) Seminiferous tubule
(c) Epididymis
(d) Vas deferens
Answer:
(c) Epididymis

Question 20.
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. Identify two other hormones produced during pregnancy.
Answer:
HPL and Relaxin

Question 21.
“The trophoblast layer gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass get differentiated into embryo.” Identify the scientific term for the attachment of blastocyst to the endometrial lining of the uterus.
Answer:
Implantation

Question 22.
Foetal ejection reflex is initiated by a pituitary hormone, which is called child birth hormone. Mention the name of child birth hormone.
Answer:
Oxytocin

Question 23.
Testosterone is secreted by………….
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Follicle cells
(d) Seminiferous tissue
Answer:
(b) Leydig’s cell

Question 24.
Ovulation normally takes place at the middle of menstrual cycle. Name the part of the oviduct that collects ovum from the ovary.
Answer:
Fimbriae

Question 25.
Internal lining of fallopian tube is made up of ciliated epithelium. Justify the role of ciliated epithelium in oviduct.
Answer:
Helps the movement of non motile ovum.

Question 26.
Acrosome is a cap-like structure found in the head of sperm. Write its function.
Answer:
Breaking of egg membranes with enzymes during fertilization.

Question 27.
Read the statements and choose the correct option.
A: The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
B: Perimetrium exhibits strong contractions during delivery of the baby
C: Myometrium is outer glandular layer which produce hormones.
(a) Statement ‘A’ alone is correct.
(b) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
(c) Statements ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
(d) Statement ‘C’ alone correct
Answer:
‘A’

Question 28.
Select the correct path of sperm movement in the male reproductive system
(a) Seminiferous tubule, Vasa efferentia, Vas deferens, Epididymis, Urethra, Rete testis
(b) Rete testis, Epididymis, Vasa efferentia, vas deferens, Seminiferous tubule, Urethra
(c) Seminiferous tubule, Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Urethra
(d) Seminiferous tubule, Vas deferens, Epididymis, Rete testis, Urethra, Vasa efferentia
Answer:
(C) Seminiferous tubule, Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Urethra

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The temperature of the testis is 2.5 degree C lower than body temp. Give reason. Name the hormone produced from the testis?
Answer:
Lower temperature is necessary for sperm formation in the testis. Testis produce the hormone Androgen.

Question 2.
How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? would your answer change if the twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Answer:
Only one egg is released by human ovaries in a month. Single egg was released in case of identical twins. In case of fraternal twins, two eggs are released and get fertilized.

Question 3.
A pregnant lady has intercourse with her husband and sperms are ejaculated on the cervix which may not enter into the uterus.

1. Why the sperms cannot enter into the uterus?
2. What are the other means by which the embryo is protected?

Answer:

1. In a pregnant lady, there is no scope of entry of new sperms to uterus for fertilization. It is blocked by plug at the cervix.
2. Foetus is protected by the foetal membranes such as amnion, chorion, allantois and yolk sac.

Question 4.
The diagram of Human blastocyst is given below.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Mention the fate of A and B.

Answer:

1. A-Inner cell mass B – Trophoblast
2. Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo, Trophoblast – Foetal membranes, and placenta.

Question 5.
Give reason. ‘Corpus luteum functions as endocrine organ’.
Answer:
Corpus luteum secretes progesteron, a hormone, which helps for pregnancy.

Question 6.
Observe the flow chart showing the hormonal control of menstrual cycle.

1. Observe and name the hormones A, B, C and D.
2. Copy the flow chart and represent the feedback mechanism in that.

Answer:
1. A-FSH, B-L.H,
C – Estrogen D – Progesterone
2.

Question 7.
The relaxin secreted by placenta relaxes the public ligaments during parturition.

1. What is placenta?
2. Mention any two other hormones secreted by placenta.

Answer:

1. Placenta is the physiological connection between mother and developing young one.

2. Any two other hormones secreted by placenta:

• HCG (Human chorionic gonadotropin)
• HPL (Human Placental lactogen)

Question 8.
Redraw the following diagram and label the parts 1 to 5.

Answer:

1. – Acrosome
2. – Nucleus
3. – Neck
4. – Mitochondria
5. – Tail

Question 9.
Study the picture showing events of menstrual cycle and answer the following questions.

1. Name the major hormones responsible for the events shown in stage 1 and 2.
2. Identify the structure shown in stage 3 and comment on its fate.

Answer:

1. FSH and LH
2. Corpus Luteum. It secretes progesteron for the maintenance of pregnancy. If fertilization fails to occur, it transforms into corpus albicang and degenerates.

Question 10.
Eggs are developed and matured in the ovary. Mature ovum released from ovary by ovulation.

1. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month?
2. How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins?

Answer:

1. Normally one per month.
2. Single ovum is released, which is fertilized by a single sperm. After fertilization, the zygote cleaves to form two identical twins.

Question 11.

1. Identify the figure and label portions A and B.
2. How many chromosomes are present in human secondary spermatocyte?

Answer:

1. A – Spermatogonia ; B – Interstitial cells
2. 23 chromosomes

Question 12.
Name the structure with the following components.

1. Embryo at 16 cell stage
2. Mature ovum with follicle cells
3. Myometrium and endometrium
4. Trophoblasts, inner cell mass, blastcoel

Answer:

1. Morula
2. Graffian follicle
3. Uterus
4. Blastocyst

Question 13.
The diagram A & B show the important events in human reproduction.

1. Give the name of these two processes, A & B seen in human reproduction.
2. If there are differences in the processA& B, give details of it.

Answer:

1. A – Spermatogenesis
   B – Oogenesis
2. In spermatogenesis, meiotic division is equal leading to the formation of many functional sperms. Oogenesis division is unequal leading to the formation of a single ovum and other polar bodies degenerate.

Question 14.
Given the figure of section of ovary, label A and B. What is the significance of B if the egg fertilized.

Answer:
A – Primary follicle B – Corpus leuteum
If egg is fertilized, corpus luteum secretes more progesterone, preparing endometrium for pregnancy.

Question 15.
Identify true/false statements. Correct if it is false.

1. Sperms get nutrition from sertoli cells.
2. Leydig cells are found in ovary.
3. Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
4. The first menstruation starts at puberty is called menopause.

Answer:

1. True
2. False. Leydig cells are found in testis.
3. True
4. False. The first menstruation is called menarch.

Question 16.
Observe the diagram.

Identify the labelled part A, B, C, and D.
Answer:
(A) Chrionic villi/placenta
(B) Yolk sac
(C) Umbilical cord
(D) Amniotic fluid

Question 17.
Name the foetal membrane that provides a fluid medium to the developing embryo. Mention its two functions.
Answer:
Amnion

1. It prevents desiccation of the embryo.
2. It provides a kind of private aquarium to the embryo and protects it from shocks.

Question 18.
Milk is secreted in the alveoli of mammary glands. Make a flow chart of the movement of milk from the alveoli to the buccal cavity of new born during breast feeding.
Answer:

Question 19.

1. What is parturition?
2. Which hormones are involved in induction of parturition?

Answer:

1. The process of delivery of the foetus is called parturition.
2. Oxytocin (Birth Hormone)

Question 20.
Germinal epithelium lining seminiferous tubules of testis contains Sertoli cells and germ cells. Give the functional difference between Sertoli cells and germ cells.
Answer:
1. Sertoli cells:
Nourishment of developing sperms.

2. Germ cells:
Produce spermatozoa by gametogenesis.

Question 21.
‘Hymen is not a reliable indicator for virginity’. Do you agree with the statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, Hymen is a soft, delicate membrane and can be ruptured easily by sudden fall, strenuous exercises, stretching (sports), cycling, etc.

Question 22.
During coitus, semen is deposited in the vagina. Give the path of sperm movement in female reproductive tract.
Answer:
Vagina → uterus → fallopian tube.
Fertilisation takes place in ampullary isthmic junction of fallopian tube.

Question 23.
Gametogenesis is classified as spermatogenesis and oogenesis. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Answer:
Production of sperm in Testes-Spermatogenesis Production of ovum in ovary – Oogenesis

Question 24.
Fertilization is the fusion of male and female gamete, which takes place in the fallopian tube.

1. Discuss and point out the changes that occurs in the ovary after fertilization.
2. Describe the changes that occurs in the uterus, if the ovum is not fertilized.

Answer:

1. Ruptured follicle transforms into corpus luteum and Progesteron hormone is released.
2. Endometrialial lining of the uterus degenerates and new uterine cycle begins.

Question 25.
Milk is produced in mammary glands towards the end of pregnancy.

1. Name the first milk produced after parturition.
2. Evaluate the advantages of getting first milk to a new born boaby.

Answer:

1. Colostrum
2. It is through the colostrum that the newborn gets maternal antibodies essential to develop immunity during early stages.

Question 26.
Write the roles of pituitary hormones in uterine and ovarian cycles in females.
Answer:
1. FSH:
promote oogenesis/influence estrogen synthesis.

2. LH:
Ovulation/Maintenance of Corpus luteum

Question 27.
Illustrate the sequential order of stages of human development from the following.
(morula, gametogenesis, cleavage, fertilization, blasulation, implantation, organogenesis, gastrulation)
Answer:
Gametogenesis → Fertilization → Cleavage → Morula → Blastulation → Implantations → Gastrulation → Organogenesis.

Question 28.
Parturition starts with foetal ejection reflex. Define foetal ejection reflex.
Answer:
Parturition signals originate from fully developed foetus which initiates uterine contractions leading to child birth.

Question 29.
A hormone injection is needed to overcome delay in delivery, Name-the hormonal injection given to enhance parturition.
Answer:
Oxytocin. It Induce stronger uterine muscle contractions leading to quicker expulsion of the baby.

Question 30.
Identify and label the parts where the following events occur.

1. Fertilization
2. Implantation

Answer:

1. Ampullary isthmus region of fallopian tube
2. Endometrium

Question 31.
Placenta is a physiological connection between mother and foetus. Placenta is also an endocrine gland. Complete the given illustration with the hormones produced by the placenta.

Answer:
Progesterone, HCG, HPL, Relaxin.

Question 32.
Arrange the following terms in two columns with suitable headings. (Seminiferous tubule, Uterus, vas deferens, Cervix, vagina, Epididymis)
Answer:
Male reproductive system

• Seminiferous tubule
• Vas deferens
• Epididymis

Female reproductive system

• Vagina
• Cervix
• Uterus

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe and study the graph.

1. Find the relationship between FSH and Progesterone.
2. What is the function of FSH?
3. During pregnancy, how ovulation and menstruation prevented.

Answer:

1. When FSH decreases progesterone increases.
2. Formation and maturation of ovarian follicles.
3. Because of high levels of progesterone. Progesterone inhibits the production of FSH, which helps for ovulation.

Question 2.
Based on the given diagram, prepare a flow chart explaining the process of spermatogenesis.

Answer:

Question 3.
Diagrammatic presentation of various events during a menstrual cycle is given.

1. Identify the uterine events A, B
2. Name the ovarian hormones D&E.
3. What happens to the level of E, if the ovum gets fertilized?

Answer:

1. A – Menstrual phase
   B – Proliferative/ follicular phase
2. D – Estrogen
   E-Progesterone
3. The level of progesterone will increase after 20^th day and it maintains even after 28^th day.

Question 4.
A pregnant lady was admitted to a hospital for delivery, but delivery is delayed than the expected time. Doctor prescribed to take a hormone injection.

1. Name the hormone?
2. Which gland in the body normally secrete this hormone?
3. How this hormone helps in delivery?

Answer:

1. Oxytocin
2. Pituitary gland
3. Oxytocin helps for the contraction of uterine muscles to facilitate delivery.

Question 5.

1. When and how does placenta develop in human female?
2. How is the placenta connefcted to the embryo?
3. Placenta acts as an endocrine gland. Explain.

Answer:
1. Placenta develops after implantation. Finger-like projections (chorionic villi) appear on the tropho-blast which are surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and thus placenta is formed.

2. Through umbilical cord

3. Placenta secretes the following hormones:

• Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
• Human placental lactogen (HPL)
• Progesterons and estrogens.

Question 6.
In female ovum is released normally on the 14^th day of menstrual cycle.

1. Name the process of release of ovum from the ovary.
2. Where does the fertilization occur?
3. What will happen to the grafian follicle if the ovum is fertilized?

Answer:

1. Ovulation
2. Fallopian tube
3. It transforms into corpus luteum.

Question 7.
The following diagrams show the sequence of events in the development of mature of ovarian follicle and corpus luteum.

1. Which are the main hormones produced by the ovary at the stages C & E?
2. Which among the stages A to E would you expect is maintained by the ovary during pregnancy. Give reasons for your answer.
3. Identify C.

Answer:

1. The hormones produced are C – Estrogen E – Progesterone
2. E is maintained (Corpus luteum)
   Corpus luteum is necessary to produce progesterone which maintains pregnancy.
3. Mature graffian follicle.

Question 8.
FSH and LH are the hormones released by both female and males

1. Which gland produce these hormones?
2. Mention effects these hormones in the males and females?
3. An ideal male contraceptive might be one that would suppress release of FSH but not of LH discuss. Why?

Answer:
1. Testis and Ovary.

2. FSH in female stimulates development of follicle, LH stimulates follicular development and development of corpus luteum. FSH in male stimulates sperm production, LH stimulates interstial cells to produce testosterone.

3. It suppress sperm production but not testosterone production, so male would be infertile but would still develop male secondary sexual characteristics.

Question 9.
Give reasons to the following.

1. Newborn babies should strictly fed colostrum.
2. Sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother.
3. Doctors inject oxytocin to induce delivery.

Answer:
1. Colostrum is the first milk, which contain several antibodies absolutely essential for developing resistance for new born babies.

2. Females produce gametes with X only. Males, on the other hand, produce sperms which carry 50 percent X and 50 percent Y chromosome. Thus zygote with XX becomes female and XY chromosome becomes male.

3. Oxytocin acts on uterine muscles and causes stronger contractions, which leads to the expulsion of baby through birth canal.

Question 10.
What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Answer:

1. The secretions of seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and cowper’s glands.
2. Spermatozoa
3. About 70% of the seminal plasma is secreted by seminal vesicles. It is rich in fructose, citrate, prostaglandins and certain enzymes.

Question 11.
During Oogenesis, in human female, a primary oocyte produces four haploid cells. Out of these four haploid cells, only one is used in reproduction. Then

1. What is the fate of the haploid cells used in reproduction?
2. What happens to the other three haploid cells?
3. What is the significance of this type of meiotic division during oogenesis?

Answer:

1. Haploid cells develop into ovum/ female gamete
2. Other three haploid cells transform to polar bodies and degenerate.
3. It helps for reducing chromosome number and also restricts the number of ovum.

Question 12.
The graph shows the level of ovarian hormones in a normally menstruating woman during follicular phase.

1. Name ‘a’ and ‘b’.
2. Mention the role of pituitary hormones in maintaining this condition.
3. Reconstruct the hormonal graph for luteal phase.

Answer:

1. a. Estrogen
   b. Progesteron
2. FSH :
   Influence spermatogensis and oogenesis/ influence estrogen hormone
   LH :
   Ouvlation / Maintenance of Corpus luteum

Question 13.
Placenta facilitates the supply of O₂ and nutrients to the embryo and removal of CO₂ and excretory waste products produced by the embryo. Apart from this, placenta is considered as an endocrine tissue. Justify.
Answer:
Placenta produces a number of hormones, which are inevitable for pregnancy and parturition. They are:

1. Human chorionic gonadotropins (HCG)
2. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone
5. Relaxin etc.

Question 14.
Analyse the process of gametogenesis given below. Answer the following questions.

1. Identify and name the type of gametogenesis illustrated.
2. Identify cell ‘b’ & cell ‘c’ and explain their fate.
3. Compare the chromosome numbers of cell ‘a’ & cell ‘c’.

Answer:

1. Oogenesis

2. Identify cell ‘b’ & cell ‘c’ and explain their fate:

• Polar body degenerates
• Secondary oocyte develops into ovum

3. Cell ‘a’ has 46 chromosomes, and cell ‘c’ has 23 chromosomes

Question 15.
Look at the table, which summerises hormonal interaction that can occur in a female human. From the list of hormones given, select the one hormone which is most important in each of the eight pathways, 1 to 8, shown.

1. Progesterone
2. Oestrogen
3. LH
4. LH releasing factor
5. Oxytocin
6. Prolactin
7. FSH releasing factor
8. FSH

Answer:
Pathway

1. LH Releasing Factor
2. FSH releasing factor
3. LH
4. FSH
5. Prolactin
6. Estrogen
7. Estrogen Progesterone
8. Oxytocin

Question 16.
Name the hormone responsible for the descent of tests of into the scrotum. Why does the failure of the process result in sterility?
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Non descent of testes in scrotum causes sterility because spermatogenesis requires low temperature and inside the scrotum, the temperature is 2-2.5°C lower than the normal. This defect is usually cured by simple surgical process.

Question 17.
Match the column A with column B and Column C.

Answer:

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the major components df seminal plasma?
Answer:

1. The secretions of seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and Cowper’s glands.
2. Spermatozoa
3. About 70% of the seminal plasma is secreted by seminal vesicles. It is rich in fructose, citrate, prostaglandins and certain enzymes.

Question 2.
What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Answer:
Male accessory ducts store and transport the sperms from testis to the outside through urethra. Male accessory glands secrete seminal Plasma, Which is rich in fructose, citrate, prostaglandins and certain enzymes. The secretion of Cowper’s glands lubricate the penis.

Question 3.
Write functions of the following:

1. Corpus luteum
2. Endometrium
3. Acrosome
4. Sperm tail
5. Fimbriae

Answer:
1. Corpus Luteum. It secretes progesterone hor-mone which prepares the endometrium of uterus for implanation, placenation and normal development of foetus. So it maintains the pregnancy.

2. Endometrium. It is innermost, highly vascular and glandular lining of uterus. It undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle and prepares itself for implanation of blastocyst and placentation.

3. Acrosome of head of sperm secretes sperm lysins like hyaluroindase (which dissolves hyaluronic acid of eff locally); corona pernetrating enzyme (which dissolves corona radiated) and acrosin (which dissolves zona pellucia).

4. Sperm tail. It shows lashing movements which provide forward push to the sperm.

5. Fimbriae are finger-like processes of fallopian tube which increase the chances of trapping of ovum released from the ovary.

Question 4.
What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Answer:
The process of formation of female gametes is called oogenesis.
Process:
During embryonic stage millions of gametes mother cells are formed (oogonia). This is covered by primary follicles. At the attainment of puberty, about 60,000 + 80,000 primary follicles are left in each overy.

Now it gets surrounded by secondary follicles. Then formation of tertiary follicle takes place. Tertiary follicle matures into Graaffian follicle – Tertiary Follicle ruptures to release secondary ooclyle by the process called ovulation.

Question 5.

1. What is menstrual cycle?
2. Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?

Answer:
1. Menstrual Cycle. During the reproductive period of female primates, the ovaries produce ova at regular intervals of about 28/29 days and changes take place in the uterus in preparation for a possible pregnancy. This series of cyclic changes known as menstrual cycle. The most peculiarfeature of this cycle is the monthly vaginal bleeding called menses.

2. Hormonal control:

• Anterior Pituitary
• FSH
• LH
• Ovary
• Estrogen
• Progesterone

Question 6.
In our society, the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Answer:
Male produces two types of gametes (Sperms), 50% of sperms carry X chromosome, while the other 50% carry Y chromosome, while female produces only one type of gametes (ova), each carrying X chromosome. after fusion of the male and female gametes, the zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilized the ovum.

The zygote carrying XX would develop into a female baby and XY would form a male baby. Thus, the sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother.

Question 7.

1. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month?
2. How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins?
3. Would your answer change if the twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?

Answer:

1. Only one egg is released by human ovaries in a month.
2. Single egg was released in case of identical twins.
3. In case of fraternal twins, two eggs are released and get fertilized.

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
(a) isthmus
(b) infundibulum
(c) cervix
(d) ampulla
Answer:
(b) infundibulum

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function
Answer:
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization

Question 3.
Seminal plasma in human males in rich in
(a) fructose and calcium
(b) glucose and calcium
(c) DNA and testosterone
(d) ribose and potassium
Answer:
(a) fructose and calcium

Question 4.
Sertoli’s cells are found in
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenalin
(c) semiliferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
Answer:
(c) semiliferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells

Question 5.
Across section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show
(a) centriole, mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
(b) centriole and mitochondria
(c) mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
(d) 9+2 arrangement of microtubules only
Answer:
(c) mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules

Question 6.
Graafian follicle contains
(a) oogonial cells
(b) corpus luteum
(c) theca externa and theca intemna
(d) corpus albicans
Answer:
(c) theca externa and theca intemna

Question 7.
Synthesis of testosterone by Leydig cells is stimulated by
(a) LTH
(b) TSH
(c) FSH
(d) ICSH
Answer:
(d) ICSH

Question 8.
Which gland in female is a counterpart of Cowper’s gland in male?
(a) Bartholin’s gland
(b) Clitoris
(c) Perineal gland
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 9.
Corpus luteum is developed from
(a) Oocyte
(b) nephrostome
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Graafian follicle

Question 10.
Progesterone hormone is secreted by
(a) corpus albicans
(b) corpus callosum
(c) corpus luteum in ovaries
(d) corpus uteri
Answer:
(c) corpus luteum in ovaries

Question 11.
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
(a) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube
(b) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(c) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(d) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
Answer:
(b) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm

Question 12.
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct
(a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(c) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
Answer:
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote

Question 13.
The signals for parturition originates from
(a) placenta only
(b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(c) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(d) fully developed foetus only
Answer:
(b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus

Question 14.
The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
(a) Fourth month
(b) Fifth month
(c) Sixth month
(d) Third month
Answer:
(b) Fifth month

Question 15.
Which one of the following is the correct matching the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(a) Ovulation — LH, and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
(b) Proliferative — Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(c) Development — Secretory phase and increased secretion of corpus luteum of progesterone
(d) Menstruation — Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized
Answer:
(c) Development — Secretory phase and increased secretion of corpus luteum of progesterone

Question 16.
Sertoli cells active for providing the
(a) motility of sperm
(b) nutrition of germ cells
(c) secretion of testosterone
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) nutrition of germ cells

Question 17.
Testicular hormones called androgens are synthesized by
(a) sertoli cells
(b) germ cells
(c) Leydig cells
(d) bulbourethral glands
Answer:
(c) Leydig cells

Question 18.
The correct sequence of male sex accessory ducts is
(a) rete testis, vasa efferentia, and vas deferens
(b) epididymis, rete testis, vasa efferentia, and vas deferens
(c) rete testis, epididymis ,vasa efferentia, and vas deferens
(d) epididymis, vasa efferentia,epididymis and rete testis
Answer:
(a) rete testis, vasa efferentia, and vas deferens

Question 19.
The secretion of male accessory glands contains
(a) glucose and calcium
(b) fructose, calcium
(c) fructose and magnesium
(d) fructose, calcium, and zinc
Answer:
(b) fructose, calcium

Question 20.
Which gland responsible for the lubrication of penis at the time coitus
(a) seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbour thral glands
(b) prostate and bulbourethral glands
(c) bulbourethral glands
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) bulbourethral glands

Question 21.
The finger-like projections in female reproductive structure collects ovum
(a) infundibulum
(b) fimbriae
(c) ampulla
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(b) fimbriae

Question 22.
The correct sequence of fallopian tube is
(a) isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum, and fimbriae
(b) ampulla isthmus, infundibulum, and fimbriae
(c) infundibulum, fimbriae, isthmus, and ampulla
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum, and fimbriae

Question 23.
Which layer of uterus undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle
(a) perimetrium
(b) myometrium
(c) endometrium
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) endometrium

Question 24.
The tiny finger-like structure clitoris is located at
(a) near uterus
(b) near labia majora
(c) near labia minora
(d) near fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) near labia minora

Question 25.
Which one of the following undergoes mitosis
(a) sprmatogonia
(b) primary spermatocyte
(c) secondary spermatocyte
(d) spermatids
Answer:
(a) sprmatogonia

Plus Two Zoology Human Reproduction SCERT Sample Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transferring of Zygote/embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube is………… (1)
Answer:
ZIFT

Question 2.

1. How many sperms and ova are produced from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte respectively?
   (100 sperms and 100 eggs, 200 sperms and 100 ova, 200 sperms and 50 ova, 50 sperms and 50 ova) (1)
2. Observe the diagram carefully and identify a, b, c and d. (2)

Answer:

1. – 200 sperms & 50 ova

2. identify a, b, c, and d:

• b – a. Fallopian tube
• b. Vagina
• c. Ovary
• d. Uterus

Students can Download Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In order to be successful, an organization must change its goals according to the needs of the environment. Which characteristic of management is highlighted in the statement?
Answer:
Management is dynamic.

Question 2.
Management consists of functions like planning, organizing, directing, controlling, etc. This characteristic of management is called(Management as a group activity, Management as a process, Management as a system of authority, Management as a profession)
Answer:
Management is a process.

Question 3.
Identify the concept of management depicted in the following diagram.
Answer:

Question 4.
“Management should have systematized body of knowledge and should establish cause and effect relationship” identify the concept of management?
Answer:
Management is a science

Question 5.
“The principles of management are applied to all types of activities.” Which characteristic of management is highlighted by this statement?
Answer:
Management is universal.

Question 6.
Good Managers require continuous practice and personal skills. Identify the Management concept referred in this context
Answer:
Management is a profession

Question 7.
Amina, who is working as the Managing Director of a company, comes under which level of management?
Answer:
Top-level

Question 8.
To meet the objectives of the firm, the Management of BPL limited offers employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the organisational objective it is trying to achieve.
Answer:
It is social objective

Question 9.
Almost all universities conduct several courses on management subject. Numerous research studies are still going on this subject. Identify the concept of management referred to in this context.
Answer:
Management as a discipline.

Question 10.
Find the odd one and state the reason.
Chief Executive, Managing Director, Foreman, General Manager
Answer:
Foreman.
All others are belongs to top-level management

Question 11.
Which level of management establishes policies, plans and objectives ?
Answer:
Top-level

Question 12.
The visiting card of a person is given below. Identify the level of management in which he belongs to?
Answer:
providing employment.

Question 13.
The visiting card of a person is given below. Identify the level of management in which he belongs to ?
Answer:

Question 14.
Choose the odd one from among the following persons working at different levels of management.
Answer:
(a) Purchase manager
(b) Production manager
(c) Marketing Manager
(d) Managing director
Answer:
(d) Managing director

Question 15.
Administrative functions are mainly performed by
(a) Top management
(b) Middle management
(c) Operational management
Answer:
(a) Top management

Question 16.
Mr. Arun is working as a supervisor. Identify the level of management he is working.
Answer:
Lower level management

Question 17.
Policy formulation is the function of
(a) Top-level managers
(b) Middle-level managers
(c) Operational managers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Top-level managers

Question 18.
Which is not a function of management of the following?
(a) planning
(b) staffing
(c) co-operating
(d) controlling
Answer:
(c) co-operating

Question 19.
The following is not an objective of management
(a) earning profits
(b) growth of the organisation
(c) providing employment
(d) policymaking
Answer:
(c) providing employment

Question 20.
Identify the management function integrating the activities of different units of an organisation to achieve the organisational goals.
Answer:
Co-ordination

Question 21.
Which among the following is not an element of co-ordination?
(a) Integration
(b) balancing
(c) proper timing
(d) Direction
Answer:
(d) Direction

Question 22.
Co-ordination is
(a) Function of management
(b) The essence of management
(c) An objective of management
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The essence of management

Question 23.
Identification and grouping of activities to be undertaken and assigning them to different departments is (Planning, Directing, Organising, Co-ordinating)
Answer:
Organising

Question 24.
Which of the following is correct to the concept of the levels of management?
(a) Board of Directors come under the category of. middle-level management.
(b) Middle-level management plans day-to-day activities.
(c) Lower level management is also known as supervisory management.
(d) Top-level management is accountable to employees.
Answer:
(c) Lower level management is also known as supervisory management.

Question 25.
Which of the following is ‘not’ a function of Middle-level management?
(a) Reporting to top management.
(b) Participate in operational decisions.
(c) Lays down the objectives of the enterprise
(d) Directing the managers at lower levels.
Answer:
(c) Lays down the objectives of the enterprise

Question 26.
Mr. Goutham Krishna is the Production Manager of a joint stock company and he is always maintaining a close watch on day-to-day performance of his department. Identify the level of management he belongs to.
Answer:
Middle level management

Question 27.
Management is multidimensional. Which of the following is not a right statement?
(a) Management of machinery
(b) Management of work
(c) Management of people
(d) Management of operation’s
Answer:
(a) Management of machinery

Question 28.
The presence of management can be felt in the way the organisations’ functions. Which characteristics of management is mentioned here?
Answer:
Management is intangible

Question 29.
Which among the following is not an organisational objective of management?
(a) Existence
(b) Profit
(c) Creating employment opportunities
(d) Growth
Answer:
(d) Growth

Question 30.
Select the right pairfrom the following.
(a) Managing Director – Lower level management
(b) Production Manager-Top level management
(c) Foreman – Middle-level management
(d) Purchase Manager – Middle-level management
Answer:
(d) Purchase Manager – Middle-level management

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which level of management, the given persons are working?
(a) Supervisor
(b) Department heads
(c) General Manager
(d) Managing Director
Answer:
(a) Lower level
(b) Middle level
(c) Top-level
(d) Top-level

Question 2.
Management is a series of continuous interrelated functions. Comment.
Answer:
Management is a continuous process of planning, organising, staffing, directing and controlling. All these functions are interrelated.The success of a business organisation depends on the effective performance of all the managerial functions.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. N S. Nair has retired as the director of a company.

1. At what level of management was he working?
2. What functions do you think he was performing at that level?

Answer:

1. He was working in Top-level Management

2. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.

Functions of Top Level Management

• Lays down the objectives of the business
• Prepares strategic plans and policies
• Appoint middle level managers
• Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
• To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
• Co-ordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

Question 2.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 3.
“Management is a universal phenomenon.’

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
I agree this statement. Management is universal in character because its principles and techniques are equally applicable in all types of organisation.

Question 4.
What do you mean by efficiency & effectiveness?
Answer:
Efficiency and effectiveness are both commonly used management terms. Efficiency means whatever we produce or perform; it should be done in a perfect way. Efficiency refers to doing things in a right manner. It is defined as the output to input ratio and focuses on getting the maximum output with minimum resources.

Effectiveness has a broader approach, which means the extent to which the actual results have been achieved to fulfill the desired outcome, ie, doing accurate things. Being Effective is about doing the right things while being Efficient is about doing things right.
Difference between Efficiency and Effectiveness:

Efficiency	Effectiveness
1) Work is to be done in a correct manner	1) Doing accurate work only
2) Emphasis is on inputs and outputs	2) Emphasis on means and ends
3) Short-run objective	3) Long run objective
4) Narrow concept (Introverted)	4) Wide concept (Extroverted)
5) Aims at strategy implementation	5) Aims at strategy formulation

Question 5.
The concept of Management has been interpreted in three different ways. Comment.
Answer:

1. Management as a discipline
2. Management as a process
3. Management as group

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Based on authority and responsibility, how the management levels are classified?
2. Explain the function of various levels of management.

Answer:
1. Management levels are classified as Top Level Management, Middle-Level Management, and Lower Level Management,
2. Functions of various levels of Management.
There are three levels in the hierarchy of an organisation. They are:

1. Top-Level Management
2. Middle-Level Management
3. Lower-Level Management

1. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.
Functions of Top Level Management

• Lays down the objectives of the business
• Prepares strategic plans and policies
• Appoint middle-level managers
• Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
• To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
• Co-ordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

2. Middle Management:
All the functional epartment heads and branch managers come under the category of middle-level managers. E.g. Production Manager, Sales Manager, Finance manager, etc.,

Functions of Middle-Level Management

• Carry out the plans formulated by the top managers.
• To act as a link between Top Level Management and Lower Level Management.
• Assign necessary duties and responsibilities to the subordinates.
• Motivate them to achieve desired objectives.
• Co-operate with other departments.
• Reporting to top-level management.

3. Lower Management:
This level includes foremen, supervisors, finance and accounts officers, sales officers, etc. This level of managers have direct contact with employees.
Functions of Lower Level Management

1. Plan day-to-day production activities.
2. Assign workers to different jobs
3. Solve the problems of workers
4. Provide job training to workers
5. Looking after safety of workers.
6. Send periodical reports to middle level management.
7. Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 2.
Mr. Anand was appointed as a foreman in V. Guard Industries pump division.

1. Name the level of Management in which he was appointed.
2. What are the various functions he performed there?

Answer:
1. Lower Level Management.
2. Functions of Lower Level Management:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 3.

1. Name the level of management which has direct contact with operative employees.
2. Also mention different functions performed by managers at this level.

Answer:

1. The level of managment which has direct contact with operative employees is lower-level managers.
2. Functions of lower lever management:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 4.
Is ‘Management’ a science? Briefly explain.
Answer:
Yes. Management is a science.
Science is a systematised body of knowledge that is based on general truths. The features of science are as follows.

1. Science is a systematic body of knowledge.
2. Scientific principles are developed through experiments.
3. Universal validity and application.

Management can be treated as a science because:

1. Management has a systematized body of knowledge.
2. Management principles are developed after scientific enquiry, experimentation and observation.
3. Management principles are applicable to all types of organizations.

So management is also called science.

Question 5.
“Anything minus management is zero”. Explain the importance of management in light of this statement.
Answer:
Need and Importance of Management
1. Achieving Group Goals:
Efficient management coordinates all the activities for the achievement of organisational goals.

2. Increases Efficiency:
Management helps to reduce costs and increase productivity through better planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling the activities of the organisation.

3. Creates Dynamic Organisation:
Good management enables the business to adapt and adjust according to the changes in the business environment.

4. Achieving Personal Objectives:
Through motivation and leadership, the management helps individuals to develop team spirit, co-operation and commitment to group success.

5. Development of Society:
Management helps to provide good quality products and services, creates employment opportunities, adopts new technology, etc., for the good of the people and society.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is your opinion to the statement “management is both an art and a science”?
Answer:
Management can be rightly regarded as both a science and an art. It is a science with a systematised body of knowledge and universal application; It uses certain principles. Management principles are universal. Management is an art because it requires specific skills and experience for the attainment of organisational objectives.

Question 2.
The management function in a circular movement is shown below.

1. Re-arrange these management functions in the correct sequence.
2. Identify the concept of management depicted by the diagram.

Answer:
1.

2. Management is a continupus process.

Question 3.
All the functional departmental heads come under this category of management.

1. Identify the level of management.
2. What are the general functions performed by this level of management?

Answer:
1. Functional departmental heads are middle-level managers.
2. Functions of middle-level managers:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 4.
Draw a diagram to show management as a process.
Answer:

Question 5.
Following are the lists of managerial personnels in an organization. State in which level of management they belong to:

1. Foreman
2. Departmental management
3. General manager
4. Supervisor
5. Divisional manager
6. Chief executive
7. Managing director
8. Deputy Manager
9. Superintendent
10. Section Officer

Answer:

1. Foreman – Lower level
2. Departmental manager – Middle level
3. General manager – Top level
4. Supervisor – Lower level
5. Divisional manager – Middle level
6. Chief executive – Top level
7. Managing director – Top level
8. Deputy manager – Top level
9. Superintendent – Lower level
10. Section officer – Middle level

Question 6.
In a classroom debate you argue that management is a Profession. What are the points you will raise to substantiate your argument?
Answer:
Management as a Profession :
Profession means an occupation for which specialised knowledge and skills are required. The main features of profession are as follows.

1. Well defined body of knowledge
2. Formal education and training
3. Professional Associations Management is a profession because:

• Management is based on a systematic body of knowledge comprising well-defined principles.
• A manager acquires management skills through formal education and training.
• All professions are affiliated to a professional association which regulates entry and frame code of conduct relating to the profession.

Question 7.
“Co-ordination is the essence of management”. Do you agree? If so why?
Answer:
Co-ordination:
The process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments is known as co-ordination. Coordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management.

Importance of Coordination
1. It increases efficiency:
Co-ordination increases organisational efficiency.

2. Key to other functions:
Co-ordination is the key to other managerial functions. Co-ordination makes planning more effective, organisation more well-knit and control more regulative.

3. Functional differentiation:
The process of linking the activities of various departments is accomplished by co-ordination.

4. Unity in diversity:
In an organization, there are large numbers of employees with different ideas, cultures, etc. Coordination brings unity in diversity.

5. Specialisation:
Coordination helps to coordinate the efforts of various specialists in ah organisation.

Question 8.
Mr. Santhosh and Mr. Pradeep are associates with a company. Mr. Santhosh is doing with policy decision in the company and Mr. Pradeep is overseeing the subordinates at work.

1. Name the levels of management they engaged in.
2. List out the functions of each level?

Answer:
1. Top-level and lower-level management.
2.
a. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.
Functions of Top Level Management

1. Lays down the objectives of the business
2. Prepares strategic plans and policies
3. Appoint middle-level managers
4. Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
5. To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
6. Coordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

b. Lower / Supervisory / Operational Management:
This level includes foremen, supervisors, finance and accounts officers, sales officers, etc. This level of managers have direct contact with employees. Functions of Lower Level Management

1. Plan day-to-day production activities.
2. Assign workers to different jobs
3. Solve the problems of workers
4. Provide job training to workers
5. Looking after safety of workers.
6. Send periodical reports to middle-level management.
7. Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 9.
Read the following arguments of two students.
Anil: “Management is an ordinary job, which doesn’t require any special knowledge and skill”.
Sunil: Management is a profession, which requires specialised knowledge and skill.”

1. Whose argument do you favor?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sunil’s argument is correct.
2. Management as a Profession:
Profession means an occupation for which specialised knowledge and skills are required. The main features of profession are as follows.
a. Well defined body of knowledge
b. Formal education and training
c. Professional Associations Management is a profession because:

• Management is based on a systematic body of knowledge comprising well defined principles.
• A manager acquires management skills through formal education and training.
• All professions are affiliated to a professional association which regulates entry and frame code of conduct relating to the profession.

Question 10.
As a commerce student advice your friend about the characteristics and objectives of modern management.
Answer:
a. Characteristics/Nature of Management
1. Management is goal oriented.
2. Management is universal in character.
3. Management is multidimensional, which include

• Management of works
• Management of people
• Management of operations

4. It is a continuous process.
5. It is a group activity.
6. It is a dynamic function,
7. It is an intangible force.

b. Objectives of Management:
Management fulfills three basic objectives like organisational, social and personal.
1. Organisational Objectives:
Management is responsible for setting and achieving objectives for the organisation.
It includes:

1. Survival: Management must strive to ensure the survival of the organisation.
2. Profit: Management has to ensure that the organization makes reasonable profit.
3. Growth: management must exploit fully the growth potential of the organisation.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the functions of management.
Answer:
Functions of Management:
1. Planning:
Planning is the function of determining in advance what is to be done and who is to do it.

2. Organising:
It is the management function of assigning duties, grouping tasks, establishing authority responsibility relationship and allocating resources required to carry out a specific plan.

3. Staffing:
Staffing means finding the right people with the right qualifications to accomplish the goals of the organisation. It involves activities such as recruitment, selection, placement and training of personnel.

4. Directing:
Directing involves leading, supervising, communicating and motivating the employees to perform the tasks assigned to them.

5. Controlling:
It means monitoring organizational performance towards the attainment of organisational goals.

Question 2.
“Management is the function of getting things done, through and with people”. Explain the importance of management in light of this statement.
Answer:
Need and Importance of Management
1. Achieving Group Goals:
Efficient management co-ordinates all the activities for the achievement of organisational goals.

2. Increases Efficiency:
Management helps to reduce costs and increase productivity through better planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling the activities of the organisation.

3. Creates Dynamic Organisation:
Good management enables the business to adapt and adjust according to the changes in the business environment.

4. Achieving Personal Objectives:
Through motivation and leadership, the management helps individuals to develop team spirit, co-operation and commitment to group success.

5. Development of Society:
Management helps to provide good quality products and services, creates employment opportunities, adopts new technology, etc., for the good of the people and society.

Question 3.
“Co-ordination is the orderly arrangement of group efforts to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose”. IF\ the light of this statement explain the importance of co-ordination in a business enterprise.
Answer:
Co-ordination:
The process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments is known as co-ordination. Coordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management.
Characteristics of Coordination:

1. Co-ordination integrates group efforts of different departments
2. Co-ordination ensures unity of action
3. Co-ordination is a continuous process
4. Co-ordination is an all pervasive function
5. Co-ordination is the responsibility of all managers
6. Co-ordination is a deliberate function

Importance of Coordination:
1. It increases efficiency:
Co-ordination increases organisational efficiency.

2. Key to other functions:
Co-ordination is the key to other managerial functions. Co-ordination makes planning more effective, organisation more well-knit’ and control more regulative.

3. Functional differentiation:
The process of linking the activities of various departments is accomplished by co-ordination.

4. Unity in diversity:
In an organization, there are large numbers of employees with different ideas, culture, etc. Coordination brings unity in diversity.

5. Specialisation:
Coordination helps to coordinate the efforts of various specialists in ah organisation.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hisardale is a
(a) Good quality apple produced in Punjab
(b) Good quality sheep in Assam
(c) Good quality horse developed in Punjab by crossing Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams
(d) New breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Marino rams and Bikaneri ewes
Answer:
(d)

Question 2.
During the period 1960-2000, wheat production increased from 11 million tones to 75 million tones while rice production went up from 35 million tones to 89.5 million tones. This was due to the development of varieties of wheat & rice possess the character
(a) Small
(b) Dwarf
(c) Semi-dwarf
(d) Long
Answer:
(c) Semi-dwarf

Question 3.
Give examples of some micro organisms that are used as SCP.
Answer:
Spirulina,
Methylophilus

Question 4.
Due to inbreeding depression fertility and productivity of animals are lost. Which is the best method used to overcome these?
Answer:
Outcrossing

Question 5.
Which part of the plant best suited for making virus free plantlet by in-vitro culture.
Answer:
Meristem

Question 6.
Find the odd one among the following. Sonalika, Jaya & Ratna, Prabhat Kranti, Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
Parbhani kranti

Question 7.
Hisaradale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by cross-breeding. Name its parents.
Answer:
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams

Question 8.
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millet
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
Nonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of wheat.

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(a) Rust of wheat
(b) SmutofBajra
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane
Answer:
Black rot of crucifers is a bacterial disease

Question 10.
To isolate proteoplast, one needs
(a) Pectinase
(b) Cellulase
(c) Both pectinase and cellulas
(d) Chitinase
Answer:
(c) Both pectinase and cellulas

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a marine fish?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common Carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa

Question 12.
Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
(a) Honey
(b) Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Royal jelly
Answer:
(c)
Wax is a product of apiculture used in cosmetics and polishes.

Question 13.
More than 70 per cent of livestock population is in
(a) Denmark
(b) India
(c) China
(d) India and China
Answer:
(d)
More than 70% of the world livestock population is in India and China.

Question 14.
Male and female animals of two different related species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine the desirable features of both the parents. Name the type of hybridization?
Answer:
Interspecific hybridisation

Question 15.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks

1. IR-8: Rice
2. Atlas 66: …………

Answer:
Wheat

Question 16.
Name the disease resistant variety of wheat developed against Hill bunt disease.
Answer:
Himgiri

Question 17.
Fill in the blank……..is a wheat variety with high protein content and used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.
Answer:
Atlas 66

Question 18.
Fill in the blank The part of plant used for virus free culture is……………..
Answer:
Meristem or shoot tip

Question 19.
For successful bee-keeping
(a) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees, selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives
(b) Catching and hiving of Swarms(group of bees)
(c) Management of beehived during different season
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 20.
The main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop are

1. Evaluation and selection of parents
2. Cross hybridization among the selected Parents
3. Collection of variability
4. Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars
5. selection and testing of superior recombinants

(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 1,4,5,2,3
(c) 3,1,2,5,4
(d) 3,2,5,1,4
Answer:
(c) 3,1,2,5,4

Question 21.
What is the common to following fishes Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel, Pomfrets
(a) They are not edible
(b) Economically not viable
(c) Marine in nature
(d) All are fresh water fishes
Answer:
(c) Marine in nature

Question 22.
Give the term for the process of rearing honey bees.
Answer:
Apiculture

Question 23.
Name the varieties of cauliflowers which is resistant to black rot and curl blight black rot.
Answer:
Pusa shubhra and pusa snowball.

Question 24.
Mention the strategy used to increase homozygosity in cattle for desired traits.
Answer:
Inbreeding

Question 25.
Which part of the plant best suited for making virus free plantlet by in-vitro culture.
Answer:
Meristem

Question 26.
Find the odd one among the following and justify. Sonalika, Jaya & Ratna, Prabhat Kranti, Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
Parbhani kranti

Question 27.
When a farmer cultivated Bananas in a feild, most of banana plants were infected by virus. Can you suggest any method for propagation of virus free Banana plants.
Answer:
Meristem culture or shoot tip culture.

Question 28.
Define inbreeding depression. What is its danger?
Answer:
Continuous – Inbreeding without selection leads to loss of fertility & productivity.

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks using appropriate words: Interspecific hybrid produced by the cross between

Answer:
Mule

Question 30.
Fill in the blank________virus created a scare in the country and drastically affected egg and chicken consumption.
Answer:
Bird Flu Virus

Question 31.
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab through
(a) Out crossing
(b) Outbreeding
(c) Crossing breeding
(d) Interspecific hybridisation
Answer:
(c) Crossing breeding

Question 32.
Male and female animals of two different related species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine the desirable features of both the parents. Name the type of hybridization?
Answer:
Interspecific hybridisation

Question 33.
______is the common species of honeybee in India.
Answer:
Apis indica

Question 34.
Carefully read the statements given below related to the steps in plant breeding. Choose the correct sequence.

1. Testing and commercialization of new variety
2. Evaluation and selection of parents
3. Selecting and testing superior recombinants
4. Cross hybridization among the selected parents
5. Collection of variability

(a) 5,2,4,3,1
(b) 1,4,3,5,2
(c) 2,3,4,5,1
(d) 4,5,3,2,1
Answer:
(a) 5,2,4,3,1

Question 35.
Name the disease resistant variety of wheat developed against Hill bunt disease.
Answer:
Himgiri

Question 36.
Fill in the blank. Plants produced through micropropagation are genetically identical to the orginal plant from which they were grown are known as________
Answer:
Somaclones.

Question 37.
Fill in the blank_______is a wheat variety with high protein content and used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.
Answer:
Atlass 66

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Plant breeders mostly use apical buds as explants in rapid propagation of sugarcane and banana. Write its significance.
Answer:
The apical bud is a meristem which is free of vims. By using these meristem as ‘explants’ in tissue culture large number of virus free – healthy plants can be obtained within a short period.

Question 2.
Following are the steps in MOET programme for herd improvement in which a cow has been Administered hormones with FSH life activities. Arrange steps in their correct sequence.
(a) Transferred to a surrogate mother
(b) It is either mated with elite bull or artificially Inseminated
(c) Fertilized egg at 32 cell stage are recovered non surgically
(d) It produces 6 to 8 eggs instead of one egg which they normally yield per cycle.
Answer:
(d) It produces 6- 8 egg cells instead of one egg per cycle.
(b) It is either mated with elite bull or artificially inseminated.
(c) Fertilised eggs at 32 celled stage are recovered non surgically.
(a) Transferred to a surrogate mother.

Question 3.
Name any four hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Answer:
Jaya & Ratna variety of rice Sonalika & Kalyansona variety wheat, Pusa A4 variety of bhindi, Pusasadabahar variety of chilly.

Question 4.
Micro organisms are used to make proteins to meet the demand of food for increasing populations.

1. Name an alternate source of proteins for animal and human nutrition.
2. Is this protein harmful to the environment. Justify.

Answer:
1. SCP – Single Cell Protein eg: Spirulina.

2. In this process microbs are grown on an industrial scale as a source of good protein. Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like waste water from potato processing plant (containing starch), straw, Molases, The product is rich in protein, minerals, fat, carbohydrates & vitamin. This process reduces environmental pollution.

Question 5.
Nature of explants influence the quality of plants formed using tissue culture.

1. What is meant by explants?
2. Can you evaluate the above given statements?

Answer:

1. Any part of the plant used for micropropagation in vitro is called explants.
2. Meristems (apical and axillary) are free of virus. By using meristems as explants in tissue culture virus free healthy plants can be produced in large number within short duration.

Question 6.
Name any four hybrid varieties of crop.
Answer:

1. Himgiri – Wheat
2. Pusaswarnim – Brassica
3. Pusashubhra – Cauliflower
4. Pusakomal – Cow pea

Question 7.
When the farmercultivated Bananas in his field, most of the banana plants were infected by virus. Can you suggest any method for the propagation of healthy virus free banana plants?
Answer:
Although the plant is infected with virus, the meristem (apical bud) is free of virus. Hence remove the meritstjem and grow it into in-vitro to obtain virus free plants. Thus large number of healthy plants can be produced within short period by the method of micro propagation.

Question 8.
The idea of tissue culture originated from the concept of totipotency.

1. What is meant by it?
2. Name the chemical substance present in nutrient medium used as carbon source

Answer:

1. The inherent capacity of a cell to give rise to a whole plant is called tolipotency.
2. Sucrose

Question 9.
Biofortification is the most practical approach to improve the health of people

1. What is biofortification
2. Give four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi.

Answer:
1. It is the breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, higher protein and healthier fats.

2. four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi:

• vitamin A-enriched carrots, spinach, pumpkin;
• vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, bathua, ustard,tomato;
• Iron and calcium enriched spinach and bathua;
• Protein enriched beans – broad, lablab, French and garden peas

Question 10.
Inbreeding strategy follows mating of superior male and superior female. Write down the criteria for selection of superior in the case of cattle.
Answer:
Superior males i.e the bull which gives rise to superior progeny and superior females i.e cow or buffalo that produces more milk per lactation.

Question 11.
Nature of explants influence the quality of plants formed using tissue culture

1. What are expfSnts?
2. Evaluate the above statement.

Answer:
1. Any part of a plant taken out (Egstem, leaf, root etc.) and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.

2. It is a special mode of asexual reproduction in which all new plants formed are qualitatively and qualitatively similar to the parent(maintaining the desirable characters).

Question 12.
Beekeeping is the old age cottage industry that is very significant commercially

1. Name the useful products obtained
2. Why does a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during flowering period?

Answer:
1. Honey and Bee wax.

2. a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during flowering period:

• To increase the chances of pollination
• To increase the yield of honey.

Question 13.

1. Mention the property that enables the explants to regenerate into a new plant
2. A banana, herb is virus infected. Describe the method that will help in obtaining healthy banana plant form diseased plant.

Answer:

1. Totipotency
2. Extract the Meristem (apical and axillary) and grow it in vitro to obtain vims free banana plants.

Question 14.
Honey collection improves when beehives are kept in crop fields during flowering seasons. Explain.
Answer:
Bees are the pollination of many crops. Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination and improve the honey yield. It is beneficial both for crop yield and honey yield.

Question 15.
Jersey is an important breed of cattle

1. Define breed
2. Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding

Answer:
1. A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general appearance, feature, size, configuration etc. are called a breed.

2. Inbreeding – The mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.

3. Out breeding – Breeding of the unrelated animals of the same breed but have no common ancestors for 4 – 6 generations.

Question 16.
What is the major advantage of producing plant by micro propagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a tissue culture technique which enables us to get unlimited number of plants in a limited space and short time.

Question 17.
When inbreeding depression becomes a problem, how can we overcome the issue?
Answer:
Firstly select animals from inbreed population and mate them with unrelated superior animals of the same breed (Outcrossing)). This helps to restore fertility and yield.

Question 18.
Match the following column A column B

A	B
1. Inbreeding	a) Cross between two different related species
2. Interspecific hybridization	b) Mating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestors
3. Outcrossing	c) Superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed
4. Crossbreeding	d) Breeding between the animals of same breed

Answer:
1(d), 2(a), 3(b), 4(c)

Question 19.
To improve the chances of successful production of hybrids, MOET is employed.

1. Expand MOET
2. Explain the steps involved in MOET

Answer:

1. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
2. steps involved in MOET

• A cow is administered with FSH hormones, it induce follicular maturation and super ovulation.
• They produce 6-8 egg instead of one egg per cycle.
• Cow is mated with elite bull or artificially inseminated.
• Zygote at 8-32 cells are recovered non surgically and transferred to surrogate mother.
• The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

Question 20.
Give one example each of variety developed against white rust and bacterial blight.
Answer:

• White rust – Pusa Swarnim
• Bacterial blight – Pusa Komal

Question 21.
Observe the statements given below:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India
4. Semi-dwarf variety rice developed in Philippines Fill up column B using the above statements.

Answer:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Philippines
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
4. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India.

Question 22.
Observe the table and fill a, b, c and d.

Answer:
(a) Pusa sadabahar
(b) Brassica
(c) Black rot/curl blight black rot
(d) Pusa komal

Question 23.
Construct a table with column-A Crop, and Column – B Variety using the hints given below. Hints – Wheat, Brassica, Cow pea, Cauliflower, PusaSwamim, PusaShubhra, Himgiri, PusaKomal
Answer:

Crop	Variety
Wheat	Himgiri
Brassica	Pusa Swarnim
Cowpea	Pusa Komal
Cauliflower	Pusa Shubhra

Question 24.

1. In mung bean, two varieties are developed through mutation breeding for disease resistance. Name the disease for which the varieties are produced.
2. Name two agents that induce mutation.

Answer:

1. Resistance against yellow mosaic virus
2. Resistance to powdery mildew chemicals, gamma radiation.

Question 25.
Parbhanikranthi is a resistant variety of bhindi.

1. Which disease this breed is resistant to?
2. Name the scientific name of parbhani kranthi.

Answer:

1. Yellow mosaic virus
2. Abelmoschus esculentus

Question 26.
Observe the terms given below. Arrange then in the order of crop, variety, and insect pests in three columns. Pusa Gaurav, Aphids, Shoot and fruit borer, Brassica, PusaSem 3, Okra, PusaSawani, Pusa A-4
Answer:

Question 27.
The most practical means to improve the public health is biofortification.

1. What do you mean by biofortification.
2. List out its main objectives.

Answer:
1. It is the Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins, minerals, higher protiens and healtheir fats
2. objectives:

• protein content and quality
• oil content and quality.
• vitamin content
• micronutrient and mineral content

Question 28.

1. Indian agricultural institute, New Delhi developed vegetables with enriched vitamin and minerals.
2. Write two examples of vitamin A, iron and calcium enriched vegetables.

Answer:

1. Vitamin A enriched-Carrot, pumpkin
2. Iron and calcium enriched Spinach and bathua.

Question 29.
Explant, totipotency, micropropagation are terms very commonly used in tissue culture. Explain each terms.
Answer:
1. Explant: Any plant part taken for tissue culture
2. Totipotency: Capacity to generate whole plant from any cell
3. MicroPropaaation: Propagation of thousands of plants through tissue culture.

Question 30.
Pomato is a somatic hybrid. How this is developed?
Answer:
It is developed through following steps

• Isolation of single cell each from potato and tomato.
• Digestion of the cell wall using enzymes.
• Isolate the protoplast.
• Fuse to get hybrid protoplast. This can be grown to form a new plant.

Question 31.
Distinguish between the following. Apiculture and Pisciculture.
Answer:
Apiculture or Bee keeping is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey. Pisciculture aims to increase the production of fishes.

Question 32.
Name two semi-dwarf rice and wheat varieties developed in India.
Answer:

1. Semi-dwarf rice – Java & Ratna
2. Semi-dwarf wheat – Sonalika & Kalyansona.

Question 33.
In some animals productivity is lost due to continuous inbreeding process

1. Name the breeding strategy is used to overcome productivity loss
2. Name the breading technique used to produce heterozygous offsprings

Answer:

1. Outcrossing
2. Cross breeding

Question 34.
Healthy plants are obtained from diseased plants by an important tissue culture technique.

1. Name it.
2. Which is the nutritive substance used as carbon source?

Answer:

1. Meristem culture
2. Sucrose

Question 35.
In 2000 hybrid Maize with higher levels of amino acid developed by plant breeding method

1. Name the strategy used
2. Give an example for protein-rich variety developed

Answer:

1. biofortification
2. Atlas 66

Question 36.
In 1960 the grain production of our country has increased due to the introduction of semi dwarf rice and wheat varieties.

1. Name the world renowned scientist has worked behind the Green Revolution program
2. Give an example for two rice varieties developed in India

Answer:

1. Norman E Borlaug
2. Jaya and Ratna

Question 37.
In Ayurvedic medicine and honey is very important to treat many diseases

1. Which is the most common species of bees used?
2. What are the significance of Apiculture?

Answer:

1. Apis indica
2. It helps to increase Honey yield, pollination efficiency and crop yield.

Question 38.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India
Answer:
The five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India are:
Crop Plant Hybrid Variety

1. Wheat – Sonalika and Kalian sona
2. Rice – Jaya and Ratna
3. Cauliflower – Pusa shubra and Pusa snowball K-1
4. Cowpea – Pusa komal
5. Mustard – Pusaswarnim

Question 39.
What is the major advantage of producing plants by micropropagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a method of producing new plants in a short duration using plant tissue culture. Some major advantages of micropropagation are as follows:

1. Micropropagation helps in the propagation of a large number of plants in a short span of time.
2. The plants produced are identical to the mother plant.

Question 40.
How is a somatic hybrid different from a hybrid?
Answer:
Isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants can be fused to get hybrid protoplasts, which can be further grown to form a new hybrid plant that is called somatic hybrid.

Question 41.
What is emasculation? Why and when is it done
Answer:
Removal of anther from a bisexual flower is called emasculation. It is used to avoid self-pollination and is used in artificial hybridisation programme. It is done before the dehiscence of anther.

Question 42.
Plants raised through tissue cultures are clones of the ‘parent’ plant. Discuss the utility of these plants.
Answer:
Plant raised through tissue cultures are clones of the parent plant that means they are genetically identical to the original plant. They are utilised for maintaining a desirable trait of parent.

Question 43.

1. The shift from grain to meat diets creates more demands for cereals. Why?
2. A250 kg cow produces 200g of protein per day but 250g of Methylophillus methylotrophus can produce 25 tonnes of protein. Name this emerging area of research. Explain its benefits.

Answer:
1. It takes 3-10 kg of grain to produce 1 kg of meat using animal farming. That is why cereals demand increases.

2. Spirulina can be easily grown on starch, molasses etc. and can make food which is rich in proteins, minerals, fats, carbohydrates and vitamins. This could be a good alternative for dealing with the problem of malnutrition.

Question 44.
Observe the statements given below:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India
4. Semi-dwarf variety rice developed in Philippines

Fill up column- B using the above statements.

Answer:

1. High yielding disease resistarit wheat
2. Semi -dwarf variety of rice developed in Philippines
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
4. Semi -dwarf variety of rice developed in India

Question 45.
Observe the table and fill a, b, c and d.

Answer:
(a) Pusa sadabahar
(b) Brassica
(c) Black rot/curl blight black rot
(d) Pusa komal

Question 46.
parbhani kranthi is a resistant variety of bhindi.

1. Which disease this breed is resistant to?
2. Name the scientific name of parbhani kranthi.

Answer:

1. Yellow mosaic vims
2. Abelmoschus esculentus

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Poultry Farm Management of chicken, ducks, turkey and geese for food or their eggs

1. What are the important points to remember on poultry farming.
2. Name the causative organism of bird flu.

Answer:
1. poultry farming:

• Maintain disease free condition in farm.
• Provide proper feed and water.

2. Virus (H₅ N₁)

Question 2.
Your neighbor owned a diary farm. For better diary farm management what advise can you give for him?
Answer:
Dairy farm management includes processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of milk.

It includes selection of good breeds having high yielding potential, resistance to diseases they have to be housed well, should have adequate water, maintained disease free, feeding should be in a scientific manner(in the quality and quantity of fodder), maintaining cleanliness and hygiene during milking, storage and transport of the milk and its products, and require regular visit of a veterinary doctor.

Question 3.
Pusagaura, pusaA-4, Himagiri, pusacomal are some hybrid varieties developed through plant breeding. Sumesh get this information from a magazine. But he did not know the steps of plant breeding through which these varieties are produced. Can you help him?
Answer:
The main steps of plant breeding are

• Collection of variability
• Evaluation and selection of parents:
• Cross hybridisation among the selected parents:
• Selection and testing of superior recombinants:
• Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars.

Question 4.
Match the following.

a. Mutagen	Homozygosity
b. Crossbreeding	Ethylmethylsulphonate
c. Inbreeding	G.Haberlandt
d. Plant tissue culture	Hisardale
e. Biofortification	Methylophilusmethylotropus
f. Single cell protein	Nutrition quality

Answer:

a. Mutagen	Ethyl methyl sulphonate
b. Cross breeding	Hisardale
c. Inbreeding	Homozygosity
d. Plant tissue culture	Haberlandt
e. Biofortification	Nutrion quality
f. Single cell protein	Methylophilusmethylotrophus

Question 5.
Breeding technique that help to improve cattle population in India, some breeds are good in milk yielding and disease resistance

1. What is cross breeding?
2. What advantage does it confer?
3. Give one example.

Answer:
1. Cross breeding is the mating between animals of different breeds. It involves mating of superior males of one breed with superior females of another breed.

2. This method allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined. Thus the hybrid progeny will have desirable traits of both the breeds.

3. Eg-Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.

Question 6.
Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and disease resistance. Write’the major steps in breeding a new variety of crop.
Answer:
The steps involved in plant breeding are:
1. Collection of variability:
Collection and preservation of different wild varieties, species and relatives of cultivated species and evaluation of their characteristics.

2. Evaluation and selection of parents:
Evaluation of germplasm helps to identify plants with desirable characters and are selected as parents for hybridization.

3. Cross hybridisation among the selected plants:
The two parents selected are artificially hybridized and producing hybrid with desirable character.

4. Seletion and testing of superior recombinants:
The hybrids obtained are tested for superior character and are self pollinated for several generations till they reach a state of uniformity.

5. Testing release and commercialisation of new cultivars:
The selected lines are evaluated and the performance are recorded and is compared to the best available local cultivar and released as a new variety.

Question 7.
It is suggested to supply Atlas-66 variety of Wheat grains to the malnutrient communities.

1. Name the technology used to produce Atlas 66?
2. Explain it
3. Give four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi.

Answer:
1. Biofortification.

2. It is the breeding of crop with higher level of vitamin& Minerals or higher protein & healthier fats. It is the most practical means to improve public health.

3. IARI, New Delhi, released vitamin enriched carrots, Spinach, pumkin vitamin c enriched bitter gourd, mustard,tomato& calcium enriched spinach & protein enriched beans – Broad lablab, French beans & garden peas.

Question 8.
Somatic hybridization technique is used to raise hybrid plants with combined characters of two different plants.

1. How is it achieved?
2. Give an example
3. What are soma clones?

Answer:
1. Protoplast can’ijeHsolated from cells by digesting their walls using enzymes. Somatic hybridization is the fusion of isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants having desirable characters.

The fusion results in the formation of hybrid protoplast. These protoplast are further grown into a new plant. The plants obtained are called somatic hybrids.

2. Pomato

3. Plants got during micro propagation (tissue culture) are genetically identical to the original plant from where they are grown.

Question 9.
Inbreeding increases homozygosity and causes inbreeding depression.

1. What you meant by inbreeding depression.
2. Name the progenies obtained through this process with selection.

Answer:
1. Inbreeding is the mating of more closely related individuals of the same breed. Continued inbreeding leads to increasing homozygozity and ultimately results in the reduction of fertility and productivity.

2. Purelines.

Question 10.
‘Apiculture’ has become an established income-generating industry ______

1. What is Apiculture?
2. Which is the most commonly used species?
3. What are the matters one should know before starting apiculture?

Answer:
1. Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
2. The commonly used species of honeybee is Apis indica.
3. The following points are considered for successful bee keeping.

• Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
• Selection of suitable location for keeping the bee hives.
• Catching and hiving of swarms(group of bees).
• Management of bee hives during different seasons.

Question 11.
To improve changes of successful production of hybrids other means are also used. MOET is one such programme.

1. What is MOET?
2. Write down the steps used for herd improvement.

Answer:
1. MOET is multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology. It is the controlled breeding method. It is done to improve the chances of successful production of hybrids.

2. steps used for herd improvement:

• Cow is given hormones with FSH-like activity
• To induce follicular maturation and super ovulation
• It produce 6-8 eggs/cycle.
• This animal is then mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated.
• The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are removed and transferred to surrogate mother.

Question 12.
Pusa-gaurav, pusa A-4, Himagiri, pusa comal are some hybrid varieties developed through plant breeding. Sumesh get this information from a magazine. But he did not know the steps of plant breeding.

1. Write down the steps of plant breeding
2. Name the revolution that leads to the food production in World.

Answer:
1. The main steps of plant breeding are

• Collection of variability
• Evaluation and selection of parents
• Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
• Selection and testing of superior recombinants
• Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars

2. Green revolution

Question 13.
Bee-keeping is the maintenance of hives honey bees for the production of honey. Illustrate the important steps for successful bee keeping.
Answer:

1. Knowledge of the nature and habit of
2. Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives.
3. Catching and hiving of swarms.
4. Management of beehives during different seasons
5. Handling and collection of honey and bee wax.

Question 14.
Breeding between animals of the same breed is called inbreeding. Write the steps of inbreeding.
Answer:

1. Identifies superior male and female of the same breed.
2. Mate them in pairs.
3. Identifies the superior male and female of the progeny for further mating.
4. Select the best breed.

Question 15.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of inbreeding.
Answer:

Advantages	Disadvantages
Increase homozygpsity	Expose harmful recessive genes
Evolve pure line	Continued inbreeding reduces fertility
Accumulation of desirable gene and elimination of less desirable gene	Inbreeding depression

Question 16.
Why does a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during the flowering periods?
Answer:
Bees are available during flowering periods, as they feed on the pollen and nectar of flowers.

1. It increases pollination efficiency and crop yield.
2. It also improves honey yield.

Question 17.
Raju is working in an Agricultural Research station and is directed to provide large number of plants like banana, orchids, haploid varieties of water melon and two medicinal plants whose leaves and roots are used as medicines.

1. Write the most suitable method that Raju can adopt.
2. Give any two advantages of this method.

Answer:
1. Micro propagation
It is the tissue culture method used to produce large no. of plants within a short period.

2. advantages of this method:

• The plants are genetically identical to the original plant from which they grown (soma clones).
• The plants must be virus free as meristems are used as explants.

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If your family owned a dairy farm. What measures would you undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk production?
Answer:
To improve the quality and quantity of milk production the following steps are to be taken.

• Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential and disease resistance.
• The cattle should be housed well with adequate water and maintained disease free.
• The feeding of cattle should be in scientific manner – giving emphasis on quality and quantity of fodder.
• Cleanliness and hygiene (both of cattle and handlers) should be given paramount importance to milking, storage and transport of milk.

Question 2.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop.
Answer:

1. Himgiri – Wheat
2. Pusaswarnim – Brassica
3. Pusashubhra – Cauliflower
4. Pusakomal – Cow pea
5. PusaSadabahar-Chilli

Question 3.
Name the methods employed in a animal breeding. According to you which of the method is best. Why?
Answer:
The methods employed in animal breeding are:

1. Inbreeding
2. Outbreeding such as out crossing, cross breeding and interspecific hybridization.
3. Controlled breeding such as artificial insemination and multiple ovulation embryo transfer technique.

Artificial insemination method of controlled breeding is best because it ensures good quality progeny and it is economic also.

Question 4.
What is apiculture? How is it important is our lives?
Answer:
Apiculture:
Rearing of honey bees for the commercial production of honey and bee wax. Apiculture is a low cost investment and highly profitable. It provides honey, wax and act as pollinator of many crops.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of fishery in enhancement of food production.
Answer:
A large section of the Indian population uses fish and many other aquatic animals such as crabs, lobsters, prawns etc. as food. The fish serve as a chief source of protein, has very little fat, carries a good amount of minerals, vitamins and iodine. Thus fisheries plays significant role in enhancement of food production.

Question 6.
Explain what is meant by biofortification.
Answer:
Biofortification:
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats is called biofortification. The biofortification is done with improvement of public health as the primary goal.

Question 7.
Which part of the plant is best suited for making virus-free plants and why?
Answer:
The apical and axillary meristem are the best suited parts of plant for the production of virus-free plants. These parts are generally free from virus due to the absence of vascular tissue through which vims are transported.

Question 8.
What is the major advantage of producing plant by micro propagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a tissue culture technique which enables us to get unlimited number of plants in a limited space and short time.

Question 9.
Find out what the various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro are?
Answer:
The major components of the medium are water, inorganic salts, sucrose (source of carbon and energy), vitamins, amino acids, and growth hormones like auxins, cytokinins etc.

• Other compounds like casein, coconut milk, yeast extract etc. may be added for specific purposes.
• If required a gelling agent agar is added to the liquid medium for its solidification.

Question 10.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Answer:

1. Wheat – Himgiri
2. Rice – Jaya, Ratna
3. Brassica – PusaSwarnim
4. Cow pea – Pusa Comal
5. Chilli – PusaSadabahar

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hybrid vigour is mostly due to
(a) superiority of all the genes
(b) homozygosity of pure characters
(c) heterozygosity
(d) mixing of recessive characters only
Answer:
(c) heterozygosity

Question 2.
Breeding of crops which high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called
(a) Somatic hybridisation
(b) Biofortification
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Micropropagation
Answer:
(c) Biomagnification

Question 3.
Disease resistant crop is obtained by
(a) crossing with new varieties
(b) crossing with wild varieties
(c) injecting with organic compounds
(d) crossing with recessive varieties
Answer:
(b) crossing with wild varieties

Question 4.
In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(a) bombarding the seeds with DNA
(b) crossing of two superior desirable parental lines
(c) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
(d) inducing mutations
Answer:
(b) crossing of two superior desirable parental lines

Question 5.
Wonder wheat is new wheat variety developed by
(a) Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre
(b) Indian National Botanical Research Institute
(c) Australian Crop Improvement Centre
(d) African Crop Improvement Centre
Answer:
(a) Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre

Question 6.
The terminator gene technology causes
(a) failure of seed setting after one generation
(b) breakage of seed dormancy
(c) early flowering in plants
(d) death of microorganisms in soil
Answer:
(a) failure of seed setting after one generation

Question 7.
Study the following columns.


Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.
The high yielding hybrid crop varieties to exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers need to purchase fresh hybrid seed every year because.
(a) hybridvigour is not long-standing due to inbreeding depression
(b) they are not allowed to grow their own seed
(c) it is always associated with increased heterozygosity
(d) always associated with increased homozygosity
Answer:
(c) it is always associated with increased heterozygosity

Question 9.
In crop improvement programme, haploids are of great importance because they
(a) grow better under adverse conditions
(b) are useful in the study of meiosis
(c) requires only abgut half the amount of chemical fertilizers compared to diploids
(d) give homozygous lines
Answer:
(d) give homozygous lines

Question 10.
Match the following columns and choose the correct option.


Answer:
(b) 1 2 4 5

Question 11.
Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(c) rice, maize and Sorghum
(d) Wheat, rice and barley
Answer:
(a) Wheat, rice and maize

Question 12.
India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to
(a) hybrid seeds
(b) increased chlorophyll content
(c) mutations resulting in plant height reduction
(d) quantitative trait mutations
Answer:
(c) mutations resulting in plant height reduction

Question 13.
Mule is a product of
(a) breeding
(b) inter generic hybridisation
(c) hybridization
(d) interspecific hybridisation
Answer:
(d) interspecific hybridisation

Question 14.
Protoplasts of two different species are fused in
(a) micro-propagation
(b) somatic hybridisation
(c) clonal propagation
(d) organography
Answer:
(b) somatic hybridisation

Question 15.
Removal of anthers of some flowers during plant breeding is
(a) emasculation
(b) anthesis
(c) pollination
(d) for collection of pollen
Answer:
(a) emasculation

Question 16.
The type of hormone used for MOET is
(a) insulin
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) LTH
Answer:
(c) FSH

17. The species of insect very common in apiculture is
(a) Apisindica
(b) Apisdorsata
(c) Both a & b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Apisindica

Question 18.
The industry mainly responsible for the catching, rearing and selling of fish and its products come under
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Aquaculture
(c) Silviculture
(d) Apiculture
Answer:
(a) Pisciculture

Question 19.
Which method is used to overcome inbreeding depression
(a) Intra specific hybridization
(b) self pollination
(c) outbreeding
(d) intra varietal hybridization
Answer:
(c) outbreeding

Question 20.
Bird flu is caused by
(a) H₁N₁
(b) H₅N₁
(c) H₃N₁
(d) H₂N₁
Answer:
(b) H₅N₁

Question 21.
Disease free plants are produced by
(a) somatic hybridization
(b) meristem culture
(c) protoplast culture
(d) embryo culture
Answer:
(b) meristem culture

Question 22.
Atlas 66 is the variety of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) sorghum
Answer:
(a) wheat

Question 23.
Somaclones shows
(a) similarity with parents
(b) dissimilarity with parents
(c) similarity among offsprings but not with parents
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) similarity with parents

Question 24.
Green revolution mainly aims for growing
(a) disease resistance variety
(b) semi dwarf variety
(c) self fertilizing variety
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) semi dwarf variety

Question 25.
Hisardale is the superior breed of sheep developed by
(a) cross breeding
(b) genetic engineering
(c) somatic hybridization
(d) inbreeding
Answer:
(a) cross breeding

Students can Download Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transgenic cotton plant which is resistant to boll worm got the gene from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Spirulina
(c) Dictyostelium
(d) Trichonympha
Answer:
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 2.
A multinational company outside India tried to sell new varieties of turmeric without proper patent rights. What is such an act referred to?
Answer:
Biopiracy

Question 3.
Name the biological product that obtained from transgenic cow Rosie.
Answer:
Human Alpha Lactalbumin

Question 4.
Name the technique used to prevent the attack of nematode in root of tobacco plants
Answer:
RNA interference

Question 5.
Which is most important method used to correct the genetic defect.
Answer:
Gene therapy

Question 6.
Some times genetically modified organisms will make unpredictable results in future. Which is the organisation of Govt, of India monitor the validity of GM research
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

Question 7.
Give an example for organism that possess acidic PH in their stomach?
Answer:
Humans

Question 8.
An important food crop developed by genetic engineering technique solve the problem of it. A deficiency. Name it.
Answer:
Golden rice

Question 9.
The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Bone marrow
(b) lymphocytes
(c) Blood plasma
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(b) lymphocytes.

Question 10.
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(a) ss DNA
(b) ds DNA
(c) ds RNA
(d) ss RNA
Answer:
(c) ds RNA

Question 11.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting form deficiency of ADA)
Answer:
(d) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting form deficiency of ADA)

Question 12.
ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
(a) Adenosine deoxy aminase
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(c) Aspartate deaminase
(d) Arginine deaminase
Answer:
(b) Adenosine deaminase

Question 13.
Siliencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of
(a) Short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(b) Antisense RNA
(c) By both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) By both

Question 14.
Which among the following plants is related with the issues of biopiracy?
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Basmati Rice
(c) Atlas 66
(d) Bt Brinjal
Answer:
(b) Basmati Rice

Question 15.
What is the major disadvantage of insulin taken from slaughtered cattle and pigs?
Answer:
It causes allergy and other types of reactions

Question 16.
Disorder due to ADA deficiency can be over came by…………….
(a) RNA interference
(b) PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Gene Therapy
Answer:
(b) Gene Therapy

Question 17.
Bacillus thuringiensis produces insecticidal proteins. Why does this protein not kill the Bacillus?
Answer:
Bt toxin exist as inactive protoxins

Question 18.
Very low concentration of DNA of pathogen can be amplified and hence diagnosis becomes easy. Which method is suitable for this method?
Answer:
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

Question 19.
Which among the following plants is related with the issues of biopiracy?
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Basmati Rice
(c) Atlas 66
(d) Bt Brinjal
Answer:
(b) Basmati Rice

Question 20.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis do not kill the bacteria themselves because.
(a) Bacteria is resistant to toxin
(b) Toxins only kill animals
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Toxin is protein
Answer:
(c) Toxin is inactive

Question 21.
What is the major disadvantage of insulin taken from slaughtered cattle and pigs?
Answer:
It causes allergy and other types of reactions.

Question 22.
RNAi was first introduced in tobacco plants to restrict the infection of a nematode worm………..
Answer:
Meloidegyne incognitia

Question 23.
Manipulation of living organisms by the human race cannot go on any further, without regulations. Which committee in India makes decisions regarding GM research?
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee).

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the two uses of PCR technique.
Answer:

1. It is used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
2. It is being used to detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients.

Question 2.
Bone marrow transplantation is not permanent cure for ADA deficiency why?
Answer:
Bone marrow transplantation is not permanent cure because the differentiated cells stops the production of ADA after the definite period.

Question 3.
In 1997 American Government got patent for producing a trasgenic plant.

1. Name the plant.
2. What are the evidences to show that Basmathi rice has been grown in India from centuries?

Answer:

1. Basmathi rice.
2. There are references of Basmathi rice in ancient texts, folklores, and poetry.

Question 4.
List out the advantages of genetically modified crops.
Answer:
Advantages

1. GM crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses, Reduce post harvest loss
2. Increase efficiency of mineral usage
3. Increase nutritional value.
4. To supply alternate resources in the form of starches, fuels, and pharmaceuticals.

Question 5.
Bacillus thuringiensis produce insecticidal proteins. Called Bt toxins. Explain how Bt toxins works in insects and kill them.
Answer:
Inactive protoxin produced by Bacillus thuringinsis becomes active at the alkaline PH of the insect gut, the activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause cell swelling and lysis.

Question 6.
Bt plants are genetically engineered insect resistant plants.

1. What does ‘Bt’ stand for?
2. Cite examples for any two ‘cry’ genes which produce Bt toxin.

Answer:

1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab.

Question 7.
Serious problems are associated with conventional agriculture.

1. Identify the problems
2. How is it solved?

Answer:
1. Low crop yield

• Use of expensive agrochemicals.
• The harmful effects of agrochemicals on the environment.

2. These problems can be solved by using genetically modified crops.

Question 8.
Why the crystals of Bt toxin do not kill the bacteria themselves?
Answer:
The toxin is active only at certain alkaline pH inside the gut of the insect. The toxin is inactive inside the bacteria as it exists as protoxin.

Question 9.
Cry genes are of different types.

1. Name 3 cry genes.
2. Write the uses of proteins produced by these genes?

Answer:

1. Cry I Ac, Cry ll Ab, Cry lAb
2. Cry IAc& Cry ll Ab – Produces toxic protein to control cotton boll worm Cry lAb – Produce toxic protein to control corn borer.

Question 10.
Insulin in man is normally produced by the (3 cells of the pancreas. But now a days it is commercially produced from bacteria like E.coli and marketed as ‘humulin’.

1. Write down the procedure used
2. Insulin is not taken from pancreas of slaughtered animals. Why?

Answer:
1. Human insulin was synthesized by American company Eli Lilly by recombinant DNA technology. The 2 DNA sequence coding for A & B polypeptide chain were introduced into E coli. The 2 polypeptide chains are synthesized independently and later linked by disulphide bond to form mature insulin.

2. It causes allergy

Question 11.
Specific genes of nematode are introduced into Tobacco plant through the vector.

1. Identify the used vector in above case.
2. Explain the role of that introduced gene in the Tobacco plant.

Answer:

1. Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
2. Offers resistance to the plant by silencing mRNA by the process of RNA interference.

Question 12.
The conventional methods are used for curing ADA deficiency. Identify the conventional methods. Write its demerits.
Answer:
Conventional methods of disease diagnosis like serum and urine analysis are not able to detect low concentration of viruses and other pathogens.

Question 13.
How can PCR detect very low amounts of DNA?
Answer:
PCR is a Polymerase Chain Reaction, which amplifies low amount of DNA making multiple copies of which it helps in the diagnosis of low amount of DNA.

Question 14.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 15.
Insulin in man is normally produced by Beta cells of pancreas. But now a days it is commercially produced from bacteria like E. coli and marketed as Humulin. Explain how this method is possible.
Answer:
An American company Eli Lilly in 1983 prepared two. DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and inserted in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 16.
One of the applications of biotechnology is the corrective therapy for hereditary diseases.

1. Do you agree with this? Which technique is used to achieve this?
2. How can this be done?

Answer:

1. Yes.Gene therapy
2. In gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are cultured and functional ADA cDNA is introduced in it. Then, these cells are return back to the patient. These cells can produce adenosine deaminase enzyme.

Question 17.
A nematode is found to be infecting the root of tobacco plant and there by decreasing the yield. Mention a novel technology adopted to check the infestation.
Answer:
The best method used to prevent the attack of nematode is RNA interference (RNAi), It involves silencing of a specific mRNA of nematode.

Question 18.
GM crops prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil. Give reason.
Answer:
GM crops have the ability to resist diseases So the use of chemical pesticide can be decreased. This helps to keep the nitrogen fixing and other useful microbes in the soil as live.

Question 19.
Suppose you have produced a GM plant. Which Govt, organisation will take decisions regarding the validity of your genetic research? Why is such a body necessary?
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) They take decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM- organisms for public services.

Question 20.
Recently you heard a lot about HiNi virus from medias. PCR technique is used for proper diagnosis of the disease by our research institutes. What is the significance of PCR technique in the early diagnosis of H1N1?
Answer:
This technique is used for amplify the viral nucleic acid up to 1 billion copies. This helped in the early diagnosis of diseases.

Question 21.
Name the factors on which behavior of genetically modified organism (GMO) depends.
Answer:
The behavior of GM organism depends on the nature of genes transferred, nature of host plant and animal or bacterium.

Question 22.
What is a DNA probe?
Answer:
DNA probe is a small DNA segment that recognize complementary sequence in DNA molecule and allow identification and isolation of specific DNA sequence from an organism.

Question 23.
Write the two uses of PCR technique.
Answer:

1. It is used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients
2. It is being used to detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients.

Question 24.
How patent is given?
Answer:
Patent is given to

1. For producing new product or invention.
2. Modified and improved earlier invention.
3. Technical know how.
4. New designing concept.

Question 25.
Give example of vaccine safety in respect to transgenic animals.
Answer:
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine

Question 26.
Which three options could be thought for increasing food production?
Answer:

1. Agro – chemical based agriculture
2. Organic agriculture
3. Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture.

Question 27.
What are genetically modified organisms (GMO)?
Answer:
Organisms such as plants, bacteria, fungi, and animals whose genes have been manipulated are known as GMO.

Question 28.
What was the speciality of the milk produced by the transgenic cow Rosie?
Answer:
Contains Human alpha-lactalbumin. Nutritionally more balanced than normal cow milk.

Question 29.
Explain why Bt cotton flowers undergo pollination by butterflies and bees in spite of being insect pest resistance.
Answer:
cotton is genetically engineered to produce a toxin which kills insect pests which eat the plant and cause the damage. Bees and butterflies only forage for nectar in flowers and do not eat any part of the plant so they do not die.

Question 30.
An important food crop developed by genetic engineering technique solve the problem of vitA deficiency.
Answer:
Golden rice is genetically engineered with vitA precursor of carotenoids.

Question 31.
RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a metffod of cellular defense. What is RNA interference?
Answer:
It is the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation or protein synthesis of mRNA.

Question 32.
Pest resistant plants can be developed by genetic engineering. Explain how RNAi is successful in this area?
Answer:
In this process, nematode specific genes are introduced into the host plant through agrobacterium, it produce both sense and antisense RNA, since this two RNAs are complementary to each other, form a dsRNA, RNAi is operated and the nematode can’t produce proteins.

Question 33.
Given below is the diagram showing formation of insulin from pro-insulin. Explain how proinsulin develops to form insulin?

Answer:
Proinsulin is an immature and non functional that contains A, B and C chains, it is matured into insulin by the removal of short c peptide chain.

Question 34.
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with ADA deficiency.

1. Write the steps involved in this method of treatment.
2. What is the major disadvantage of this process?

Answer:
1. In this method Lymphocytes taken from the blood of the patient and grown in a culture outside the body, into these, functional ADA cDNA are introduced, after this modified lymphocytes are returned back into the patients body.

2. Since the lymphocytes are not immortal, patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes.

Question 35.
Given below are two laboratory methods used for molecular diagnosis PCR, ELISA.

1. Expand PCR and ELISA
2. What is the principle of ELISA

Answer:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
2. Antigen-antibody interaction.

Question 36.
Given below are some biological products, which are produced by transgenic organisms

• a -1 – antitrypsin
• a-lactalbumin
• human insulin

1. Fill in the column given below suitably using the above terms

2. ……….is the transgenic cow, which produces human milk protein.
Answer:
1. A = human insulin
B = α lactalbumin
C = α-1-antitrypsin

2. Rosie

Question 37.
Genetically modified plants have been useful in many ways. Suggest some advantages of genetically modified plants in agriculture.
Answer:

• Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stress
• Reduced the use of chemical pesticides
• Reduced post harvest loss
• Increased mineral usage efficiency

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Enzyme-Linked Immuno – Sorbent Assay (ELISA) are some of the techniques that serve the purpose of early Diagnosis of disease like AIDS.

1. Write the scientific basis of this statement.
2. Write the name of pathogen causing AIDS.

Answer:
1. PCR – By amplification of the DNA of virus or bacteria present in the patient helps to identify even the concentration of pathogen is very low in the body of the patient. A single stranded DNA or RNA is tagged with a radio active molecule (probe) is allow to hybridized to its complementary DNA in clone of cells followed by detection using auto radiography .

Thus the mutated gene can be detected as it will not hybridize with the probe. ELISA – Enzyme linked immune sorbent assay is based on the principle of antigen antibody reaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigen or by detecting antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.

2. HIV-human immuno deficiency virus.

Question 2.
For effective treatment of a disease early diagnosis and understanding its patho physiology is very important. Mention the 3 techniques which are used for the purpose of early diagnosis.
Answer:
PCR-By amplification of the DNA of vims or bacteria present in the patient helps to identify even the concentration of pathogen is very low in the body of the patient.

A single stranded DNA or RNA is tagged with a radio active molecule (probe) is allow to hybridized to its complementary DNA in clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. Thus the mutated gene can be detected as it will not hybridize with the probe.

ELISA – Enzyme linked immuno- sorbent assay is based on the principle of antigen-antibody reaction. Infection by pathogen is an antigen it can be detected by the presence of antibodies synthesized against it.

Question 3.
List out the milestones achieved in medicine by the introduction of recombinant DNA technique, citing examples.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA technology have made immense impact in the field of medicine both in diagnosis and therapeutics. Human insulin is produced by E.Coli which is engineered to produce A and B chains of polypeptide.

Gene therapy is curing of disease by delivery of a normal gene into the individual even at the embryo stage. Gene therapy is used to cure Adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Moleculardiagnosis involves PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)and ELISA. In polymerase chain reaction, the genes are amplified it helps to detect viral infection prior to the appearance of symptoms.

Question 4.
Animals that have their DNA manipulated and express foreign gene are called transgenic animals. Write any four characteristics of transgenic animals.
Answer:
1. Transgenic animal can be specifically designed to allow the study of the mechanism of gene expression, its regulation & how they effect the normal function & development.

2. It is also used to study the biological effects of certain gene product & also the biological role of these products in the body.

3. Transgenic animals serve as models for human disease. So that investigation of new treatment for disease is made possible.
Example : Alzheimer’s, cancer, Cystic, fibrosis, etc.

4. Transgenic animal are used produce medicine it is used to treat diseases like Emphysema. The transgenic cow rosie produced human protein enriched milk (alpha- lactalbumin).

5. They are also used for testing the safety of vaccines like polio. It is also used for testing toxicity of drugs.

Question 5.
ADA deficiency is permanently cured by gene therapy.

1. Expand ADA.
2. Write its normal function in human body.
3. If gene for ADA is deleted the person will become susceptible to attack of pathogens and die of ordinary diseases. By analysing the given statement can you explain the role of ADA.
4. Can you suggest alternative methods for curing the same disease?

Answer:

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. It is a crucial enzyme for the immune system to function.
3. The patients have non-functioning T- Lymphocytes. So they cannot produce immune responses against invading pathogens.
4. Yes. Gene therapy is used for permanent curing of ADA deficiency.

There are two methods for treatment of ADA deficiency.

• by bone-marrow transplantation
• and by enzyme replacement therapy.

Question 6.
Expand

1. ELISA
2. GEAC
3. RNA i

Answer:

1. Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
2. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
3. RNA interference

Question 7.
In 1990 first test of human gene therapy was performed in 4-year-old girl ‘De Silva’ with adenosine deaminase deficiency.

1. Name the method used to cure the disease
2. Explain the procedure of r DNA technology used to recover adenosine deaminase deficiency
3. Which is the best cure for this disease?

Answer:
1. Gene therapy.

2. Lymphocytes are taken from patient’s blood it is grown invitro culture. By using retroviral vector functional ADA cDNA (from WBC of normal person) is introduced into vitro cultured lymphocytes These genetically engineered lymphocytes (corrected functional lymphocytes) are reinjected into the patients.

3. If the ADA producing genes are introduced into cells at early embryonic stage it could be a permanent cure.

Question 8.
You have developed a GM plant.

1. Which govt, organization will you approach to obtain clearence for its mass production?
2. Is such a body is necessary?
3. Give two reasons.

Answer:

1. GEAC-genetic engineering approval committee
2. Yes
3. It will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research & the safety of introducing GM organism for public services. It also deals with the patenting problems.

Question 9.
In Tobacco plants pest resistance is achieved by a special technique.

1. Name the technique
2. Which is the pest killed by this way?
3. Explain the method.

Answer:

1. RNA interference
2. Meloidegyne incognitia(nematode)
3. It is the silencing of mRNA done by a double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).

In this technique the pest resistant gene (cDNA) is transferred into host plant by using agrobacterium vector, which become double stranded and silences the mRNA of the pest from expressing inside the host. Thus the plant become resistant to the pest which cannot survive inside the host.

Question 10.
Bacillus thuringienesis is a Bacteria, which produce a toxic insecticidal protein.

1. Write down the significance of this bacteria in GMO.
2. Insecticidal protein is not harmful to the body of man. Why?

Answer:
1. Bacillus thurungenesis produce a protein Cry protein coded by the cry gene. This protein kill certain insects like lepidopterarns (tobaccobud worm), boll worms, dipterans like mosquitoes.

These genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringenesis and incorporated into several crop plants like cotton. There are specific cry gene for specific toxin and each toxin controls or destroys specific insect.

2. Protein crystals solubilise only in the presence of alkaline pH but stomach of human body contains acidic pH .So it doesn’t make any harmful effect in humans.

Question 11.
Give example of vaccine safety in respect to transgenic animals.
Answer:
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine.

Question 12.
Animals that have their DNA manipulated and express foreign gene are called transgenic animals. Write down the three significance of transgenic animals used as models.
Answer:
1. Normal physiology and development:
To study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development.

2. Study of disease:
How genes contribute to the development of disease.

3. Chemical and vaccine safety testing:
Transgenic animals carry genes that sensitive to toxic substances and the effects can be studied.

Question 13.
An early diagonosis of disease can be detected by modern techniques.

1. How can PCR detect very low amounts of DNA?
2. What is Probe?

Answer:

1. PCR is a Polymerase Chain Reaction, which amplifies low amount of DNA making multiple copies of which ft helps in the diagnosis of low amount of DNA.
2. It is the single stranded radioactively labelled DNA.

Question 14.
Insecticidal protein crystal are not a solubilized in acidic PH but it is solubilized and become active in alkaline pH. Name the organism possess alkaline PH in their gut?
Answer:
Insects- lepidopterans, coleopterans and depterans.

Question 15.
RNA interference technology is used to prevent transcription process of protein synthesis. Justify the given statement
Answer:
It is used t0 silence the m RNA of nematode by using double-stranded RNA. Here nematode specific genes are introduced into host plant by using agrobacterium vectors, that produce double-stranded RNA and initiated RNA silencing process.

Question 16.
Earlier ADA deficiency can be cured by enzyme replacement therapy or bone marrow transplantation. Write down the procedure used in r-DNA technology to cure the disease.
Answer:
Lymphocytes taken from patients blood it is cultured outside, into this functional ADA cDNA are introduced, then this Lymphocytes are taken back into the patient’s blood. For permanent cure, functional ADA cDNA are introduced into embryonic stage.

Question 17.
Our country is very rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge. So we have faced many problems related to biopiracy.

1. What is biopiracy?
2. Give two examples of biopirated plants.
3. How can we control biopiracy?

Answer:

1. Un authorized use of bioresources and traditional knowledge without compensatory payment
2. Basmati rice, turmeric.
3. By developing laws and regulations or through patent Bill.

Question 18.
Transgenic animals are those animals whose DNA is manipulated and has an extra or foreign gene to possess and express.

1. How can transgenic animals help in testing for vaccine safety.
2. Name the enzyme produced by transgenic animal which is used against emphysema.
3. For which diseases transgenic models exist?
4. Name the first transgenic cow. Write its significance.

Answer:

1. Transgenic animals like mice are developed for testing of vaccine before they are used on humans.
2. An enzyme a-1-antitrypsin can be obtained from a transgenic animal which is used against emphysema.
3. Transgenic model exist for cancer, cystic fibrosis, Alzheimer’s diseases, etc.
4. Rosie is the first transgenic cow, was produced human protein enriched milk. The milk contains alpha-lactalbumin in the amount of 2.4 gram per litre and is more nutritionally balanced for

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydro carbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and chemistry of oil?
Answer:
Oil is lipid synthesized by the condensation of one molecule of glycerol with three molecules of fatty acids. Thus, the oil from the seeds can be removed by preventing the synthesis of either glycerol or the enzyme lipase which catalyses the synthesis of oil. It can be achieved by knocking out the genes coding for the enzyme required for the synthesis of glycerol.

Question 2.
What are cry proteins? Name an organism that produce it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Answer:

1. Cry proteins refer to the protein crystals contain¬ing atoxic insecticide.
2. It is produced by soil bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis.
3. The genes encoding cry proteins called Bt toxin genes were isolated from B. thuringiensis and incorporated into several crop plants such as Bt cotton, Bt corn, etc, to provide resistance against insect pests.

Question 3.
Consult internet and find out how to make orally active protein pharmaceutical. What is the major problem to be encountered?
Answer:
For making any oral drug or nutritional supplement the action of digestive enzymes has to be taken into account. Most of the antibiotic and vitamin supplements are made in capsule forms to prevent action of HCI in stomach.

For protein preparation the major source is groundnut shells. The protein extracted from the source is predigested so as to make them absorbable by the digestive system.

Question 4.
Find out from internet, what is golden rice?
Answer:
Golden ric is genetically modified and contain Carotene, which is a precursor of Vitamin A.

Question 5.
Does our blood have proteases and nucleases?
Answer:
No.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops.
Answer:
Advantage of GM Crops:

1. Genetic modification has made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, heat, salt)
2. Viral resistance can be introduced.
3. Over ripening losses can be reduced eg: Flavr Savr tomato
4. Enhanced nutritional value of food eg: Golden rice. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.

Disadvantages of GM Crops:

1. Transgenes in crop plants can endanger native species. For example, the gene for Bt toxin expressed in pollen might end natural pollinators like honey bees.
2. Weeds also become resistant.
3. Products of transgene may be allergic or toxic.
4. They cause damage to the natural environment.

Question 7.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because:
(a) Bacteria are resistant to strain
(b) Toxin is immature
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria encloses toxin a special sac.
Answer:
c) Toxin is inactive
Because Bt toxin is present in the form of protoxin in Bacillus bacterium.

Question 8.
Why does this toxin not kill the Bacillus? How it affects insect?
Answer:
The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals.

The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swell¬ing and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID?
(a) Arbovirus
(b) Retrovirus
(c) Enterovirus
(d) Parvovirus
Answer:
(b) Retrovirus

Question 2.
Find the incorrect statement.
(a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular level by replacing defective genes with normal genes.
(b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility
(c) Bt toxin is biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus
(d) Trichoderma sp.is a biocontrol agent for fungal diseases of plants
Answer:
(b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility

Question 3.
The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by
(a) lanWilmut
(b) HarGobindKhurana
(c) Jacque Monod
(d) Alex Jeffreys
Answer:
(d) Alex Jeffreys

Question 4.
Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because
(a) these are small circular DNA molecules, which can integrate with host chromosomal DNA
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site
(c) these can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(d) these often carry antibiotic resistance genes
Answer:
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site

Question 5.
Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab Produce toxins that control
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
(b) corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(c) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(d) corn borer and tobacco budworms respectively
Answer:
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively

Question 6.
Golden rice was created by transforming rice with two beta-carotene biosynthesis genes, namely.
(a) Psy and Cry 1 genes
(b) LCY-e
(c) CHY-1
(d) CHY-2
Answer:
(a) Psy and Cry 1 genes

Question 7.
Main objective of production / use herbicide resistant GM crops is to
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(d) reduce herbicides accumulation in food articles for health safety
Answer:
(d) reduce herbicides accumulation in food articles for health safety

Question 8.
Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(a) traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Bioresources

Question 9.
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(b) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(c) transgenic cow-Rosie, which produces high-fat milk for making ghee
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have superpower
Answer:
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

Question 10.
The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by
(a) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA C-DNA
(b) administering adenosine deaminase activators
(c) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embrayonic stages
(d) enzyme replacement therapy
Answer:
(c) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embrayonic stages

Question 11.
RNA interference method involves
(a) Silencing of a specific in RNA due to a complementary ssRNA
(b) Silencing of a specific tRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
(c) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary ssRNA
(d) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
Answer:
(d) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA

Question 12.
The nematods that infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield is
(a) Meloidegyneincognitia
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Rhizobium meliloti
Answer:
(a) Meloidegyneincognitia

Question 13.
RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
(a) Cellular defense
(b) DNA proof reading
(c) Transcription
(d) Translation
Answer:
(a) Cellular defense

Question 14.
The main challenge for production of insulin peptide using rDNA technique was
(a) Getting normal insulin gene
(b) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
(c) Getting insulin chains formed from bacteria
(d) Getting insulin assembled into proinsulin
Answer:
(b) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form

Question 15.
Bacillus thuriengiensis(Bt) strains have been used as biological control for plants, its application is famous in
(a) cotton
(b) tomatoes
(c) brinjal
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Question 16.
Cry endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuriengensis are effective against
(a) nematode
(b) bollworms
(c) mosquitoes
(d) flies
Answer:
(b) bollworms

Question 17.
Transgenic animal has
(a) foreign DNA
(b) recipient DNA
(c) both a& b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both a& b

Question 18.
Genetically engineered cotton plant shows resistance to boll worm insects, but their source of desired gene not induce any adverse effect in bacteria because
(a) cell wall is thick and tough
(b) cell wall is made up of special type of lipids
(c) cytosol does not contain alkaline solution
(d) both b and c.
Answer:
(c) cytosol does not contain alkaline solution

Question 19.
Humulin is prouced in large scale for the specific purpose by
(a) Tissue culture
(b) organ culture
(c) Bio-reactor
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Bio-reactor

Question 20.
Transgenic food crop which help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(a) Bt cotton
(b) golden rice
(c) flvrsavr tomatoes
(d) starlink maize
Answer:
(b) golden rice

Question 21.
In the technique RNA interferance the silencing is done to terminate the function of
(a) hn RNA
(b) m RNA
(c) sn RNA
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) m RNA

Question 22.
If the gene function is disrupted, it corrected by the technique called as
(a) gene slicing
(b) gene splicing
(c) gene therapy
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) gene therapy

Question 23.
The gene product provides good result as the protein contained in the breast milk is
(a) albumin
(b) alpha lactalbumin
(c) globulin
(d) glutelin
Answer:
(b) alpha lactalbumin

Question 24.
The processed genetically engineered insulin contains
(a) A polypeptide chain
(b) B polypeptide chain
(c) c peptide
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Students can Download Chapter 7 Directing Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Directing

Plus Two Business Studies Directing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“It is an important managerial function that initiates action” What this managerial function is called?
Answer:
Directing

Question 2.
Supervision is an element of ………………………….
(a) Staffing
(b) Directing
(c) Organizing
Answer:
(b) Directing

Question 3.
Overseeing the subordinates at work is called …………
Answer:
Supervision

Question 4.
Which among the following is an example of upward communication?
(a) Circular
(b) Complaints
(c) Memos
(d) Notices
Answer:
(b) Complaints

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Delegation
(d) Supervision
Answer:
(c) Delegation

Question 6.
Arrange the following elements in the correct sequence.
Receiver → Sender → Message → Decoding → Feedback → Encoding → Channel
Answer:
Sender → Message → Channel →Encoding → Receiver → Decoding → Feedback

Question 7.
The network of informal communication is called ………………
Answer:
Grapevine communication

Question 8.
Grapevine is
(a) Formal communication
(b) Barrier to communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Informal communication
Answer:
(d) Informal communication

Question 9.
Status comes under the following type of barriers.
(a) Semantic barrier
(b) Organisational barrier
(c) Non Semantic barrier
(d) Psychological barrier
Answer:
(b) Organisational barrier

Question 10.
Ability of a leader to look at things from others point of view is called ……………
Answer:
Empathy

Question 11.
The production manager and the marketing manager in KEL communicates directly. Identify the type of communication.
Answer:
Horizontal communication

Question 12.
“Translation of ideas into meaningful language by the sender” Identify this concept.
Answer:
Encoding

Question 13.
The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known as ……………….
Answer:
Encoding

Question 14.
The communication network in which all subordinates under a supervisor communicate through supervisor only is:
(a) Single chain
(b) Y pattern
(c) Wheel
(d) Freeflow
Answer:
(c) Wheel

Question 15.
People interpret the same message in different ways depending upon their attitude, experience, education… etc. This is an example of ……………..
(a) Status barrier
(b) Semantic barrier
(c) Channel barrier
(d) Organizational barrier
Answer:
(b) Semantic barrier

Question 16.
Horizontal and Diagonal communication reduces ………………. barrier in communication.
(a) Semantic Barrier
(b) Status Barrier
(c) Organization Barrier
(d) Overload Barrier
Answer:
(c) Organization Barrier

Question 17.
Which among the following is an example of downward communication?
a) Suggestions
b) Complaints
c) Requests
d) Orders
Answer:
(d) Orders

Question 18.
“Persons of lower status do not feel free to talk to superiors”. Identify the Communication Barrier.
(a) Semantic Barrier
(b) Status Barrier
(c) In attention Barrier
(d) Barrier in Superior
Answer:
(b) Status Barrier

Question 19.
The communication network in which all subordinates under a manager communicate through the manager only is:
(a) Wheel Pattern
(b) Chain Pattern
(c) Circular
(d) Free flow
Answer:
(a) Wheel Pattern

Question 20.
The highest level need in the need Hierarchy of Abraham Maslow:
(a) Safety needs
(b) Belongingness needs
(c) Self actualisation needs
(d) Prestige needs
Answer:
(c) Self actualisation needs

Question 21.
Two messages are given below.

1.  “You must complete the work before 2 pm tommorrow”, the Factory Manager said to the Factory Supervisor.
2.  “Increase the sales as there is huge stock in hand”, the production Manager said to the Marketing Manager.

Identify the flow of communication in the above situations.

Answer:

1. Downward communication
2. Horizontal communication

Question 22.
Correct the following diagram.

Answer:
Sender → Message → Encoding → Channel → Receiver → Decoding → Feedback

Question 23.

Identify the communication network.
Answer:
Wheel Pattern

Question 24.
Observe the following diagram.

1. Identify the type of communication depicted in the diagram.
2. If all the persons can communicate with one another, what should the pattern be called?

Answer:

1. Circle pattern
2. Free flow

Question 25.
Sometimes emotions or state of mind stand in way of effective communication. Name the type of barriers cited above.
Answer:
Psychological barriers

Question 26.
Sometimes subordinates may feel reluctant to transit correct information to the superiors. The subordinate most often held back the unpleasant facts or may not report the true facts.

1. Identify the type of communication barrier referred to this context.

Answer:
1. Status barrier

Question 27.
There are some basic needs of an individual like need for food, clothing and shelter in the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory. These needs are called:
(a) Esteem needs
(b) Social needs
(c) Physiological needs
(d) Safety needs
Answer:
(c) Physiological needs

Question 28.
The motivation theory which classifies needs in hierarchical order is developed by …………………
a) Fred Luthans
b) Scott
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Peter F. Drucker
Answer:
(c) Abraham Maslow

Question 29.
Arrange the following human desires in the hierarchy as suggested by Abraham Maslow.

1. Pension for old age
2. Feeling of self-confidence
3. Need to belong to a group
4. Need for food
5. Need for realization of goals in life

Answer:

1. Safety need
2. Esteem need
3. Social need
4. Physiological need
5. Self actualisation need

Question 30.
Arrange the following desires of a human being in the hierarchy as suggested by Abraham H Maslow.

1. Friendship
2. Life ambitious
3. Status
4. Food
5. Job security

Answer:

Question 31.
Distinguish between financial & non-financial incentives.

1. Commission
2. Bonus
3. Perquisites
4. Promotion
5. Recognition
6. Sharing of profit
7. Participation in decision making
8. Retirement benefits

Answer:

Monetary incentives	Non-monetary incentives
1. Commission	4. Promotion
2. Bonus	5. Recognition
3. Perquisites	7. Participation in decision making
6. Sharing of profit
8. Retirement benefits

Question 32.
Take his own decisions and compel others to follow it. Which type of leadership style is mentioned here?
Answer:
Autocratic style

Question 33.
Give freedom to the subordinates to take part in decision making process is …………………
Answer:
Laissez-faire style

Question 34.
A communication network which allows a subordinate to communicate with his immediate superior and superior of his immediate superior is called ………………..
(a) Free flow
(b) Inverted V
(c) Circle
(d) Wheel
Answer:
(b) Inverted V

Question 35.
Distinguish the following channels as formal & informal.

1. Gossip network
2. Circle network
3. Probability network
4. Wheel network
5. Free flow
6. Single strand network
7. Cluster network

Answer:

Formal Network	Formal Network
2.  Circle network	1. Gossip network
4.  Wheel network	3. Probability network
5. Free flow	6. Single strand network
	7. Cluster network

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the elements of direction.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is directing?
Answer:
Directing refers to the process of instructing, guiding, counselling, motivating and leading people in the organisation to achieve its objectives.

Question 3.
Enumerate any two features of directing.
Answer:
Features

1. Directing initiate action
2. Directing takes place at every level of management
3. Directing is a continuous process
4. Directing flows from top to bottom

Question 4.
Explain the term Motivation.
Answer:
Motivation:
Motivation is the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals. Motivation depends upon satisfying needs of people.

Question 5.
In Maslow’s need hierarchy identify the needs which can be satisfied with financial incentives and also those which can be satisfied with non-financial incentives?
Answer:
Needs which can be satisfied with financial incentives are physiological needs, safety needs and social needs. Needs satisfied by non-financial incentives are esteem needs and self actualization needs.

Question 6.
What is incentive?
Answer:
An incentive is something which induces an individual to respond in a desired manner.

Question 7.
Define leadership.
Answer:
Leadership:
Leadership can be defined as the process of influencing the behaviour of employees at work towards the accomplishment of organisational objectives.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The diagram of communication network system adopted by Sahara Ltd is as follows.
Answer:
1)

2)

3)

Question 2.
“Informal communication is also known as grapevine communication”. Explain.
Answer:
Informal Communication:
Communication that takes place without following the formal lines of communication is said to be informal communication. It results from the social interaction among the members.

It satisfies the social needs of members in the organisation. The network of informal communication is known as Grapevine. It is so called because the origin and direction of flow of communication cannot be easily traced out.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Managerial functions cannot be carried out without an efficient system of communication.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Give any three reasons in support of your answer.

Answer:
1. Yes. Communication is one of the most important function of management.
2. Importance of Communication:

• Acts as basis of co-ordination: Communication acts as the basis of co-ordination.
• Helps in smooth working of an enterprise: It is only communication, which makes smooth working of an enterprise possible.
• Acts as basis of decision making: Comm Plication provides needed information for decision making.
• Increases managerial efficiency: Communication lubricates the entire organisation and keeps the organisation at work with efficiency.

Question 2.
Give the communication process.
Answer:
Grapevine communication

Question 3.

1. What is grapevine communication?
2. How is both useful and a cause for disturbance in an organization?

Answer:
1. grapevine communication:
The network or pathway of Informal communication is known as grapevine communication. Because the origin and direction of flow of the informal mes-sages cannot be easily traced.

2. useful and a cause for disturbance in an organization:
a. Advantages of Informal Communication:

1. Employees can develop friendly relationship.
2. It is very flexible and faster than formal communication.
3. Employees attitudes, reactions, etc. to the plans and policies can be easily ascertained.
4. It reduces tension in employer-employee relations.
5. It can be used in conveying certain information which cannot be passed through official channel.
6. Special efforts and expenses are not necessary for informal communication.

b. Disadvantages of Informal Communication:

1. It tends to carry inaccurate information.
2. Its origin cannot be traced and responsibility cannot be fixed.
3. It is unsystematic and cannot be relied upon.
4. It leads to leakage of confidential information.
5. It often carries rumours and misunderstanding.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the ‘communication network’.
Answer:
Communication network:
It refers to the pattern through which members of work groups communicate.
The pattern through which communication flows within the organisation is generally indicated through communication network. Some of the communication networks are:

1. Single Chain:
This network exists between a supervisor and his subordinates. Here communication flows from every superior to his subordinate through single chain.

2. Wheel:
In wheel network, all subordinates under one superior communicate through him only. The subordinates are not allowed to communicate among themselves.

3. Circular:
In circular network, the communication moves in a circle. Each person can communicate with his adjoining two persons.

4. Free flow:
In this network, each person can communicate with others freely.

5. Inverted V:
In this network, a subordinate is allowed to communicate with his immediate superior as well as his superior’s superior.

Question 2.
Match the following:

A	B
Informal communication	Grapevine communication
Wheel pattern	Quality of a leader
Empathy	Stimulating people
Physiological need	Communication network
Motivation	Food, Cloth, etc.

Answer:

A	B
Informal communication	Grapevine communication
Wheel pattern	Communication network
Empathy	Quality of a leader
Physiological need	Food, Cloth, etc.
Motivation	Stimulating people

Question 3.
Discuss the steps involved in the process of communication.
Answer:
Elements of Communication Process

1. Sender: The sender is the person who sends message or idea to the receiver.
2. Message: Message is the subject matter of communication.
3. Encoding: It is converting the message into communication symbols such as words, pictures, etc.
4. Media: It is the path through which encoded message is transmitted to receiver.
5. Decoding: It is the process of converting encoded symbols of the sender.
6. Receiver: Receiver is the person who receives the message.
7. Feedback: It includes all those actions of receiver indicating that he has received and understood message of sender.
8. Noise: Noise means some obstruction or hindrance to communication.

Question 4.
Re-arrange the following needs in the order of Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Human Needs.

Answer:

Question 5.
Mr.Valsalan, a manager of Shatu Ltd, traces out the needs of the employees in the organization which are as follows.

• Security in old age, state of illness.
• Dignity, self respect
• Protection against fire and accidents
• Better clothing and shelter
• Economic security
• Self-fulfilment
• Love and affection, friendship

Arrange the needs under the framework of Abraham Maslow’s theory. Prepare a chart based on it.
Answer:

a) Physiological needs	Better clothing and shelter
b) Security needs/ Safety needs	Security in old age, state of illness Protection against fire and accidents
c) Social needs/ Love needs	Love and affection, friendship
d) Esteem needs	Dignity, self respect
e) Self actualisation needs	Self fulfilment

Question 6.

1. The function of a lower level manager by which he oversee the working of employees and control their activities is called …………………
2. What is its need?

Answer:

1. Supervision

2. Importance of supervision:

• A good supervisor acts as a guide, friend and philosopher to the workers.,
• Supervisor acts as a link between workers and management. It helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts among the management and workers.
• Supervisor provides good On the Job training to the workers and employees.
• A supervisor with good leadership qualities can build up high morale among workers.
• A good supervisor analyses the work performed and gives feedback to the workers.
• Supervisors help to maintains harmony among workers.

Question 7.
Explain Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation.
Answer:
Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation:
Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. His theory was based on human needs. Various human needs are:
1. Physiological Needs:
These are the basic needs which include food, clothes, hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex. If physiological needs are not satisfied, the higher level needs will not be emerged.

2. Safety/Security Needs:
These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. These needs include job security, stability of income, pension plans, etc.

3. Social Needs:
These needs refer to affection, sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship. Informal organisation helps to satisfy the social needs of an individual.

4. Esteem Needs:
These include factors such as self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and attention.

5. Self Actualisation Needs:
It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. Self actualisation is the need to maximise one’s potential, whatever it may be. These needs include growth, self-fulfilment and achievement of goals.

Question 8.
Explain the importance of communication in a business organisation.
Answer:
Importance of Communication:
1. Acts as basis of co-ordination: Communication acts as the basis of co-ordination.

2. Helps in smooth working of an enterprise: It is only communication, which makes smooth working of an enterprise possible.

3. Acts as basis of decision making: Comm Plication provides needed irftormation for decision making.

4. Increases managerial efficiency: Communication lubricates the entire organisation and keeps the organisation at work with efficiency.

5. Promotes co-operation and industrial peace: Communication promotes co-operation and mutual understanding between the management and workers.

6. Establishes effective leadership: Commu-nication is the basis of leadership. Effective communication helps to influence subordinates.

7. Boosts morale and provides motivation: An efficient system of communication enables management to motivate, influence and satisfy the subordinates. It helps to boost morale of employees and managers.

Question 9.
Explain various communication networks.
Answer:
Communication network:
It refers to the pattern through which members of work groups communicate.
The pattern through which communication flows within the organisation is generally indicated through communication network. Some of the communication networks are:

1. Single Chain:
This network exists between a supervisor and his subordinates. Here communication flows from every superior to his subordinate through single chain.

2. Wheel:
In wheel network, all subordinates under one superior communicate through him only. The subordinates are not allowed to communicate among themselves.

3. Circular:
In circular network, the communication moves in a circle. Each person can communicate with his adjoining two persons.

4. Free flow:
In this network, each person can communicate with others freely.

5. Inverted V:
In this network, a subordinate is allowed to communicate with his immediate superior as well as his superior’s superior.

Question 10.
Explain the forms of communication
Answer:
Communication may be classified as follows

Question 11.
“Leadership is considered as the most important element of the directing function of the management.” In the light of this statement, explain the importance of leadership.
Answer:
Importance of Leadership:

1. A leader inspires, supports and influences the behaviour of subordinates to achieve the organisational objective.
2. Effective leadership helps to achieve a harmonious relation between the management and subordinates.
3. Leadership helps to create job satisfaction among employees by providing good working condition.
4. A good leader persuades the people to accept and carry out the desired change.
5. A leader handles conflicts effectively.
6. Leader provides training to their subordinates.
7. Effective leadership helps to increase efficiency and productivity.

Question 12.
“To be successful as a manager one must be a good leader”. Outline the qualities of a good leader in the light of the above statement.
Answer:
Qualities of Good Leader:

• Physical Features: Physical features like height, weight, health, appearance determine the physical personality of a leader.
• Knowledge: A good leader should have required knowledge and competence.
• Honesty: A leader should possess high level of honesty.
• Initiative: A leader should have courage and initiative.
• Communication Skills: A leader should have the capacity to clearly explain the ideas.
• Motivation Skills: The leader should have the ability to motivate the subordinates by satisfying their needs.
• Self Confidence: A leader should have high level of self confidence.

Question 13.
What are the points to be kept in mind while communicating a message?
Answer:
Measures to overcome barriers to communication:

1. The entire problem to be communicated should be studied in depth, analysed and stated in such a manner that it is clearly conveyed to subordinates.
2. Communication must be according to the education and understanding levels of subordinates.
3. Before communicating.the message, it is better to consult with others.
4. The contents of the message, tone, language used, etc. are important aspects of effective communication.
5. While conveying message to others, it is better to know the interests and needs of the receiver.
6. Ensure proper feedback.
7. Manager should be a good listener.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Radha Krishnan, the personal manager of an organisation recently conducted a survey among the employees of his organisation to identify theirdesires and needs. The needs and desires of the employees identified by him are listed below.

• Love and affection
• Accepted by one peer’s
• Self fulfilment
• Better clothing and shelter
• Economic stability
• Security in old age
• Protection against accidents
• Dignity

1. Arrange these needs and desires under the frame-work of Maslow’s theory.
2. What are the important features of this theory?

Answer:
1. Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation:
Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. His theory was based on human needs. Various human needs are:
1. Physiological Needs:
These are the basic needs which include food, clothes, hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex. If physiological needs are not satisfied, the higher level needs will not be emerged.

2. Safety/Security Needs:
These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. These needs include job security, stability of income, pension plans, etc.

3. Social Needs:
These needs refer to affection, sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship. Informal organisation helps to satisfy the social needs of an individual.

4. Esteem Needs:
These include factors such as self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and attention.

5. Self Actualisation Needs:
It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. Self actualisation is the need to maximise one’s potential, whatever it may be. These needs include growth, self-fulfilment and achievement of goals.

2. important features of this theory:
1. Physiological needs – Better clothing and shelter Economic stability
2. Safety needs – Security in old age Protection against accidents
3. Social needs – Love and affection Accepted by one peer’s
4. Esteem needs – Dignity
5. Self actualisation – Self fulfilment needs

Question 2.
“Direction is the heart of management”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons in support of your answer.

Answer:
1. Directing:
Directing refers to the process of instructing, guiding, counselling, motivating and leading people in the organisation to achieve its objectives.

2. Importance of Directing:

• Directing helps to initiate action by people in the organisation towards attainment of desired objectives.
• Directing integrates employees’ efforts in the organisation in such a way that every individual effort , contributes to the organizational performance.
• Directing guides employees to fully realise their potential and capabilities by motivating and providing effective leadership.
• Directing facilitates introduction of needed changes in the organization.
• Effective directing helps to bring stability and balance in the organization.

Question 3.
“Supervision is needed in all organizations so as to get the best out of the employees”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Supervision:
Supervision means overseeing the subordinates at work. Supervision is instructing, guiding and controlling the workforce with a view to seethatthey are working according to plans, policies, programmes and instructions.

2. Importance of Supervision:

• A good supervisor acts as a guide, friend and philosopher to the workers.,
• Supervisor acts as a link between workers and management. It helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts among the management and workers.
• Supervisor provides good On the Job training to the workers and employees.
• A supervisor with good leadership qualities can build up high morale among workers.
• A good supervisor analyses the work performed and gives feedback to the workers.
• Supervisors help to maintains harmony among workers.

Question 4.
“Motivation means a process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals.”

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Motivation:
Motivation is the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals. Motivation depends upon satisfying needs of people.

2. Importance of Motivation:

• Motivation helps to improve performance levels of employees as well as the organisation.
• Motivation helps to change negative attitudes of employee to positive attitudes.
• Motivation helps to reduce employee turnover.
• Motivation helps to reduce absenteeism in the organisation.
• Motivation helps managers to introduce changes smoothly.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Principles of Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the job of ‘speed boss’ under Functional Foremanship?
Answer:
He supervises matter relating to the speed of work.

Question 2.
Who is the father of Modem Management?
Answer:
Henry Fayol

Question 3.
Which principle of management suggest that employees should be treated with justice and kindness?
Answer:
Equity.

Question 4.
Fayol pointed out the danger and costs of unnecessary labour turnover in one of his principles. Name the principle.
Answer:
Stability of personnel.

Question 5.
Obedience, respect for authority and observation of established rules is known as
(a) Order
(b) Discipline
(c) Equity
(d) Initiative
Answer:
(b) Discipline

Question 6.
Systematic concentration of authority at top level is known as
Answer:
Centralisation

Question 7.
Identify the management principle which states that ‘Union is Strength’.
Answer:
Esprit De Corps

Question 8.
“Have a place for everything and everything should be in its place”. Which management principle is referred here?
Answer:
Order

Question 9.
Identify the management principle which is based on an idea of “one head and one plan”.
Answer:
Unity of direction

Question 10.
Lack of this principle may lead to conflict among subordinates. Briefly explain this principle of management.
Answer:
Unity of command

Question 11.
A factory has three departments – Production, Marketing and Finance. These departments take decisions without mutual understanding and consultation. So conflicts, confusion and duplication are quite common. State which function of management is violated here?
Answer:
Unity of direction.

Question 12.
A subordinate receives orders from three senior officers in an organization. Which principle of management is violated here.
Answer:
Unity of command

Question 13.
Study the diagram and mention the shortcut used for direct communication between ‘D’ and ‘P’.

Answer:
Gangplank

Question 14.
Identify the management principle which promotes specialization.
Answer:
Division of work

Question 15.
This principle is against the policy of divide and rule. Which principle of Henry Fayol is referred to in this context?
Answer:
Esprit de corps

Question 16.
It is a chain of command from the highest level to the lowest level. It’is called
Answer:
Scalar Chain.

Question 17.
“Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for development. “Identify the principle of management formulated by Fayol.
Answer:
Initiative.

Question 18.
The father of scientific management is
Answer:
F.W. Tayor.

Question 19.
‘She/he keeps machines, materials, tools, etc., ready for operations by concerned workers’. Whose work is described by this sentence under functional foremanship?
(a) Instruction Card Clerk
(b) Repair Boss
(c) Gang Boss
(d) Route Clerk
Answer:
(c) Gang Boss

Question 20.
Management should find ‘One best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this sentence?
(a) Time Study
(b) Motion Study
(c) Fatigue Study
(d) Method Study
Answer:
(d) Method Study

Question 21.
Find the odd one.
(a) Order
(b) Equity
(c) Fatigue study
(d) Unity of direction
Answer:
(c) Fatigue study

Question 22.
The scientific technique of task setting is known as
(a) Method study
(b) Motion study
(c) Work-study
(d) Time study
Answer:
(c) Work-study

Question 23.
Which technique of scientific management gives high compensation to better performer?
Answer:
Differential piece rate system

Question 24.
Name the technique of scientific management which focuses on separation of planning and execution function.
Answer:
Functional foremanship.

Question 25.
It involves the study of movement of operations of a worker. It is
Answer:
Motion study

Question 26.
The change in attitudes of employers and employees towards each other referred to as
Answer:
Mental revolution

Question 27.
Which principle of Taylor advocates scientific enquiry as opposed to hit and trail?
Answer:
Science; not rule of thumb

Question 28.
Taylor advocated that specialization must be introduced in an organization. He developed a technique for this purpose, which consists of 8 specialist foremen. Identify technique of scientific management referred here.
Answer:
Functional foremanship

Question 29.
Complete the following circle.

Answer:

Question 30.
Name the personnel who work under the production in charge?
Answer:
Speed Boss, Gang Boss, Repair Boss, and Inspector.

Question 31.
Link column A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 32.
Mr. Syam, the Production Manager of a firm, instructs Mr. Kiran to produce 50 units of a product per day. Mr. Arun, the Assistant Production Manager, instructs Mr. Kiran to produce 75 units. Which management principle is violated here?
Answer:
Unity of command.

Question 33.
Find out the odd one and state the reason.
(a) Stability of tenure of personnel.
(b) Scientific selection and training of workers.
(c) Maximum output.
(d) Replacement of old rule of thumb method.
Answer:
(a) Stability of tenure of personnel.

Question 34.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 35.
Avoiding unnecessary efforts, expenses and tools in the factory is called in scientific management.
Answer:
Simplification of works.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Which technique of scientific management suggests that each worker should be supervised by specialists?
2. Give the names of two designations of any two types of specialist.

Answer:

1. Functional foremanship
2. Gang boss, Speed boss

Question 2.
What do you mean by managerial principles?
Answer:
Management principles are statement of fundamental truth which provide guidelines for management decision making and action.

Question 3.
Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction.
Answer:
1. Unity of Command:
The principle of unity of command state that each employee should receive orders from one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees

2. Unity of Direction:
Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

Question 4.
What is ‘fatigue study’?
Answer:
Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

Question 5.
How does ‘mental revolution’ helpful ineffective management?
Answer:
Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Management principles are dynamic”. Comment
Answer:
Management principles are dynamic – Management principles are flexible and can be utilized under different conditions of the organizations. They are influenced by the need of the given situation.

Question 2.
Which principle of management is violated in the following situations?

1. When a worker receives order from more than one boss.
2. When the employee is given responsibility to achieve target production of 1000 units with no authority to access to raw materials.
3. Where a worker is wasting time in search of tools in the organization.

Answer:

1. Unity of command
2. Authority and responsibility
3. Order

Question 3.
Mr. Dileep, a newly recruited clerk for accounts department was initially posted in the cash section. After one month he was transferred to supplies section. Again a week later, he was transferred to EDP section.

1. Which principle is violated here?
2. What is the consequence of such frequent change?

Answer:
1. Stability of tenure of personnel.

2. If employees are frequently changed from one job to another, the entire production process will be disturbed. Also, both quantity and quality of work get reduced. Frequent change in job will create job dissatisfaction in employees.

Question 4.
Fayol points out the danger and cost of unnecessary labour turnover in one of these ‘Principles’. Name & explain the principle.
Answer:
a. Principle of stability of personnel

b. Stability of Personnel:
According to Fayol, workers should not be moved from one job to another frequently. It helps to minimize labour turnover in the organization.

Question 5.
Hina and Harish are typists in a company. They have the same educational qualifications. Hina is getting Rs. 3000 per month and Harish Rs. 4000 per month as salary for the same working hours. Which principle of management is violated in this case? Name and explain the principle.
Answer:
Principle of equity:
This principle requires the managers to be kind and just to workers. Superiors should be impartial while dealing with their subordinates.

Question 6.
Group the following persons coming under Planning incharge and production incharge based on F.W. Taylor’s functional foremanship.
Gang Boss, Instruction Card Clerk, Inspector, Disciplinarian, Speed Boss, Route Clerk.
Answer:

Question 7.
Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction.
Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Briefly explain the nature or features of managerial principles.
Answer:
Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action. The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behaviour: Management principles aim at influencing behaviour of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 2.
State any 4 points highlighting the importance of principles of management.
Answer:
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 3.
If we follow the principle of scalar chain strictly, there is a possibility of unnecessary delay in communication.

1. What is the alternative proposed by Fayol to overcome this issue?
2. Explain this principle.

Answer:
Gang Plank:
According to the concept of gangplank persons of the same rank can communicate with each other especially in emergency situations. It helps to save a lot of time in communication and possibility of distortion of messages can be reduced.

Question 4.
What contradiction do you find in the principle of unity of command and the technique of functional foremanship?
Answer:
In case of unity of command, every employee receives instructions from one boss only and he is responsible and accountable to him alone. In case of functional foremanship, every worker receives instructions from eight losses, four from planning department and four from production department. In this way, unity of command stresses on centralisation and functional foremanship on decentralization.

Question 5.
“Proper understanding of management principles makes the managers more realistic in their profession.” Explain the concept.
Answer:
Significance of the Principles of Management
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 6.
Henry Fayol is of the opinion that ‘workers should not be shifted from their job position frequently’.

1. Identify the functional principle referred to here.
2. State any 3 characteristics of management principles.

Answer:
1. Stability of personnel

2. Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action. The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behavior: Management principles aim at influencing behavior of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 7.
Complete the diagram.
Answer:

1. Route Clerk
2. Time & Cost Clerk
3. Gang Boss
4. Inspector

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Arioop, a supervisor has been instructed to produce 100 units Jer day in a factory while the marketing manager instructs to produce 120 units per day in order to meet the demand.

1. Which principle of management is violated here?
2. Name any 5 adverse effects that may take place due to this violation.

Answer:
1. Unity of command
2. The violation of this principle will have the following consequences:

• It will be very difficult to maintain discipline.
• Duplication of work.
• Escaping responsibility.
• Disobeying the orders of superiors.
• Overlapping of orders and instructions

Question 2.
Explain the characteristics of Management Principles.
Answer:
Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action.
The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behavior: Management principles aim at influencing behaviour of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 3.
Give a short note on importance of management principles.
Answer:
Significance of the Principles of Management
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 4.
Discuss the techniques and methods developed by Taylor.
Answer:
Techniques of Scientific Management
1. Functional foremanship:
Functional foremanship is a technique in which planning and execution are separated. He classified 8 specialist foremen into two departments viz. Planning and Production department. Both departments have four foremen each. Functional foremanship is based on the principle of division of work.

1. Route clerk: To lay down the sequence of operations through which the raw materials have to pass in the production process.
2. Time & cost clerk: To lay down the standard time for completion of the work.
3. Instruction card clerk: He is expected to deal the instructions to be followed by workers in handling the job.
4. Disciplinarian: He maintains proper discipline in the factory.
5. Gang boss: He arranges material, machine, tool, etc. for operation.
6. Speed boss: He supervises matters relating to the speed of work.
7. Repair boss: He ensures repairs and maintenance of the tools and machines.
8. Inspector: He checksthe quality of work done.

2. Standardisation and simplification of work:
Standardisation refers to the process of setting standards for every business activity. It includes use of standard tools and equipment, methods, working conditions, etc. for the maximisation of output. Simplification aims at eliminating unnecessary diversity of products. -It results in savings of cost of labour, machines, and tools.

3. Method study:
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job. The main objective is to minimize the cost of production and maximize the.quality of the work.

4. Motion study:
Motion study involves close observation of the movements of the workers and machines to perform a particular job. It helps to eliminate unnecessary movements of men, materials, and machine.

5. Time study:
It determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job. The objective of time study is to determine the number of workers to be employed, frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour costs.

6. Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

7. Differential piece wage system:
Under this system of wage payment, two kinds of rates are laid down.

• Higher rates are offered to those workers who produce more than standard output.
• Lower rates for those who produce below standard output.

8. Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both the parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report showing all the principles of management suggested by Henry Fayol.
Answer:
Fayol’s Principles of Management:
Henry Fayol (1841-1925) is known as the ‘Father of General Management’. The 14 principles of management given by him are:
1. Division of Work:
This principle states that a complex work should be divided into small tasks, and each task should be assigned a particular employee. Division of work leads to specialization.

2. Authority and Responsibility:
Authority is the right to give orders to the subordinates and responsibility is the obligation to perform the work in the mannerdirected by authority. There should be a balance between authority and responsibility.

3. Discipline:
it is the obedience to organizational rules and employment agreement which are necessary for working of the organization.

4. Unity of Command:
The principle of unity of command statej that each employee should receive orders ffom one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees.

5. Unity of Direction:
Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

6. Subordination of Individual Interest to General Interest:
The Interest of an organization should take priority over the interests of any one individual employee.

7. Remuneration of Employees:
Remuneration should be just, equitable and fair to both employees and the organization.

8. Centralization and Decentralization:
Centralisation means concentration of authority at the top management. Decentralisation means dispersal of authority to the lower levels in the organisation. There should be a balance between Centralisation and decentralization.

9. Scalar Chain:
The formal lines of authority from highest to lowest ranks are known as scalar chain. According to this principle, communication should passthrough the established chain of command. It ensures unity of command and effective communication.

Gang Plank:
According to the concept of gang plank persons of the same rank can cprnmunicate with each other especially in emergency situations. It helps to save a lot of time in communication and possibility of distortion of messages can be reduced.

10. Order:
According to Fayol, “People and materials must be in suitable places at appropriate time for maximum efficiency.”

11. Equity:
This principle requires the managers to be kind and just to workers. Superiors should be impartial while dealing with their subordinates.

12. Stability of Personnel:
According to Fayol, workers should not be moved from one job to another frequently. It helps to minimise labour tumoverin the organization.

13. Initiative:
Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for improvements. Maximum kpuKishcrs

14. Espirit De Corps (Union is strength):
According to Fayol, Management should promote a team spirit of unity and harmony among employees.

Question 2.

1. Who formulated principles for managing an organisation scientifically.
2. Explain the principles.

Answer:
1. Taylor’s Scientific Management:
Fredrick Winslow Taylor (1856-1915) is known as the Father of Scientific Management. His book ‘Principles of Scientific Management’was published in 1911.
In the words of Taylor, “Scientific management means knowing exactly what you want men to do and seeing that they do it in the best and cheapest way”.

2. Principles:

1. Principles of Scientific Management
2. Techniques of Scientific Management

1. Principles of Scientific Management
a. Science and not the rule of thumb :
The first principle of scientific management requires scientific study and analysis of each element of job in orderto replace old rule of thumb approach.

b. Harmony, not discord:
As per this principle, there should be complete harmony between the management and workers. Taylor called for complete mental revolution on the part of both management and workers. Both the parties should realize each other’s importance and work towards the profits of the firm.

c. Co-operation not individualism:
There should be complete co-operation between the labour and the management instead of individualism. According to Taylor, there should be an almost equal division of work and responsibility between workers and management.

d. Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity:
The growth and development of an organisation depends on the efficiency and prosperity of employees. The efficiency of employees can be developed by giving propertraining and development. This ensure the growth of an organisation.

2. Techniques of Scientific Management
a. Functional foremanship:
Functional foremanship is a technique in which planning and execution are separated. He classified 8 specialist foremen into two departments viz. Planning and Production department. Both departments have four foremen each. Functional foremanship is based on the principle of division of work.

1. Route clerk: To lay down the sequence of operations through which the raw materials have to pass in the production process.
2. Time & cost clerk: To lay down the standard time for completion of the work.
3. Instruction card clerk: He is expected to deal the instructions to be followed by workers in handling the job.
4. Disciplinarian: He maintains proper discipline in the factory.
5. Gang boss: He arranges material, machine, tool, etc. for operation.
6. Speed boss: He supervises matters relating to the speed of work.
7. Repair boss: He ensures repairs and maintenance of the tools and machines.
8. Inspector: He checks the quality of work done.

b. Standardisation and simplification of work:
Standardisation refers to the process of setting standards for every business activity. It includes use of standard tools and equipment, methods, working conditions, etc. for the maximisation of output. Simplification aims at eliminating unnecessary diversity of products. -It results in savings of cost of labour, machines, and tools.

c. Method study:
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job. The main objective is to minimize the cost of production and maximize the.quality of the work.

d. Motion study:
Motion study involves close observation of the movements of the workers and machines to perform a particular job. It helps to eliminate unnecessary movements of men, materials, and machine.

e. Time study:
It determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job. The objective of time study is to determine the number of workers to be employed, frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour costs.

f. Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

g. Differential piece wage system:
Under this system of wage payment, two kinds of rates are laid down.

• Higher rates are offered to those workers who produce more than standard output.
• Lower rates for those who produce below standard output.

h. Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.