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You can Download Kings, Farmers and Towns and its Representations Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Puls Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Kings, Farmers and Towns(Early States and Economies)

Question 1.
Who read the Brahmi Script?
Answer:
James Pnnsep

Question 2.
Who was the first ruler of Magadha?
Answer:
Bimbisara

Question 3.
Which was the second capital of Magadha?
Answer:
Pataliputra.

Question 4.
Who is the author of ‘Indika’?
Answer:
Megasthenes

Question 5.
Who were the rulers that took the name ‘Devaputhran’?
Answer:
Kusharts

Question 6.
Who is the writer of ‘Prayag-Prasashti’?
Answer:
Harisenan

Question 7.
To which group did the Vellalars belong?
Answer:
Big agricultural landlords

Question 8.
Who was the first person to bring out coins with the name and picture of the ruler?
Answer:
Indo-Greeks

Question 9.
Who were the rulers that brought out the first gold coins?
Answer:
Kushans

Question 10.
Who read the Kharoshti Script?
Answer:
James Prinsep

Question 11.
Match the items in A with those of B.

A	B
Prinsep	Mahajanapada
Chanakya	Asoka
Priyadarshi	Arthasastra
Magadha	Brahmi Script

Answer:

A	B
Prinsep	Brahmi Script
Chanakya	Arthasastra
Priyadarshi	Asoka
Magadha	Mahajanapada

Question 12.
Find out the relations of the items given under a) and b) with each number and complete the blank space accordingly.

Answer:
i) Kautilya (Chanakya)
ii) Chandragupta Maurya
iii) Head of the Village
iv) Ocean Shore

Question 13.
Who was James Prinsep? What were the two ancient scripts found by him?
Answer:
James Prinsep was an official of the East India Company. He is the one who read the Brahmi Script for the first time. Most of the inscriptions were about a king called Priyadarshi, which means joyful to look at. It was Prisep who found this out. He also found the Kharoshti script.

Question 14.
What is the meaning of Mahajanapada? Which were the most important of them?
Answer:
In the 6^th century BC, many independent countries came up in North India. Amongst these there were 16 big countries that were called Mahajanapada. The most important of them were Vajji, Magagham, Kosalam, Kuru, Panchaiam, Gandharam and Avanthi. The Buddhist and Jain Books often speak about these countries. The Buddhist book ‘Anguttara nikaya’ and the Jain religious books Bhagvat Sutra’ and ‘Vakhya Prajapati’ mention the following 16 Mahajanapadas.

1.  Anga
2.  Magadha
3.  Vajji
4.  Kashi
5.  Malia
6. Koshala
7.  Ashmaka
8. Avanti
9. Vatsa
10.  Chedi
11. Panchalam
12. Shurasena
13. Matsya
14. Kuru
15.  Gandhara
16.  Kamboja

Question 15.
Which was the first capital of Magadha? What are its special features?
Answer:
The first capital of Magadha was Rajgraha. Rajgraha means the house of the king. It was situated among five hills. Fortresses were built around Rajgraha to protect it from enemies In the 4^th century BC, the capital was moved to Pataliputra, known as Patna today.

Question 16.
Discuss the responsibilities of the Second Sub-committee in the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
The 2^nd Subcommittee had extensive responsibilities. It had to prepare bullock carts for the transportation of goods, send food to soldiers and the animals and appoint servants and unskilled labourers to help the soldiers in their various activities.

Question 17.
The national leaders of the 20^th century looked at King Asoka as a model and inspiration? Why?
Answer:
They found that the messages contained in the edicts of Asoka quite different from those issued by other rulers. They showed that, compared to other rulers of the time, Asoka was efficient, hardworking, and humble. No wonder the national leaders of the 20^th century looked at him for inspiration.

Question 18.
Point out three things that lessen the importance of the Mauryan Empire.
Answer:
Some writers do not consider the Mauryan period as an important era in Indian history. The Mauryan Empire lasted for only a few decades. It was in power for only about 150 years. In the extensive history of the subcontinent, that period is not at all big. Moreover, it did not spread to the entire subcontinent. Even in the Empire itself, the control was of different kinds. Because of this loose administration, by the 2^nd century BC, there were many small kingdoms and chiefdoms.

Question 19.
Explain the strategies the Kushans used to acquire higher social status.
Answer:
The Kings and Chiefs found a short cut to acquire higher social status. They simply claimed themselves to be representatives of certain deities. Kushanstried this trick very efficiently. They were in power from 131 century BC to 1^st century AD. They were part of  Central Asian Tribe. They ruled an extensive region from Central Asia to the North-Western India. Kanishka was the most famous king in the Kushana Dynasty. Their history was recreated from the information in the inscriptions and some traditional books.

The concepts of the Kushans regarding kingship are inscribed on their coins and sculptures. Huge stat¬ues of Kushana Kings were discovered in the Mat temple near Mathura and also in Afghanistan. Some historians think that these huge statues point out that the Kushan Kings considered themselves equal to god.

Most of the Kushan Kings took the title ‘Devaputra’. They must have got their inspiration to do that from the Chinese Kings who thought themselves to be the sons of God.

Question 20.
Name the three sources that helped in recreating the history of the Gupta Dynasty.
Answer:
Coins, stone edicts and Prasashtis (literature). From all these, the history of the Gupta Kings could be re-created.

Question 21.
Describe the physical achievements of the Gupta Empire.
Answer:
The Gupta Empire made some physical gains and this increased their authority. Firstly, the centre of their activities was Central India which included Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. This was a very fertile region. Secondly, they were able to use the iron ore found in the Madhya Pradesh and Bihar.

Thirdly, since their region was close to the Silk Route, they got many benefits. All these helped the Gupta Dynasty to establish their reign over Magadha, Ayodhya (Saketham), Prayag (Allahabad), and the Plains of Central Ganges. Gradually their kingdom became an all-India Empire.

Question 22.
The relations between the kings and the village people were often bad. Comment.
Answer:
The relations between the Kings and their subjects, especially the villagers, were often not very good. The Kings taxed their subjects heavily with the only intention of filling their treasury. The farmers were the worst affected by this high taxation. To escape from this, they used one of the two techniques: a) flee into the forest, b) increase the production to pay the increased taxes.

Question 23.
Who was Prabhavati Gupta? What is her relevance in history?
Answer:
The greatest king in the Gupta Empire was Chandragupta. Prabhavati was the second daughter of this king. The rulers of Deccan were the Vakatakas. She was married into this Vakataka dynasty. According to the Sanskrit Law Books, women had no right for land or other properties. But since Prabhavati was the queen she was able to make ‘bhoodan’ (land gift). Otherwise, it would mean that the laws of the Dharmasastra were not applied equally everywhere.

Question 24.
In 6^th century BC, cities were coming up mainly along trade routes. Explain with examples.
Answer:
In the 6^th century BC, many cities came up in different parts of the subcontinent. Most of these towns were capitals of the Mahajanapadas. Many of them were situated close to the trade routes. Pataliputra was located on the banks of the river used for navigation. Ujjaini was near a trade route. Puhar was close to the sea. Many cities like Mathura were active centres in the commercial, cultural and political fields.

Question 25.
What does NBPW mean?
Answer:
Kings, nobles, administrators and the rich lived in the citadel, which was protected by fortresses. At these abodes of the elite, a lot of remains of various kinds of artefacts have been found. The most important of them are the NBPW, short form for Northern Black Polished Ware. They are highly polished black clay pots and saucers. They are notable for their expertise in their making. They must have been used by the rich. Different ornaments made of gold, silver, copper, bronze, glass and clay were found here. There were also plenty of tools, weapons, pots and pans, statues and decorative pieces.

Question 26.
What are Guilds? What were their responsibilities?
Answer:
Guilds or Shrines were organizations of trades and artisans. It is the Guilds that collected the raw materials and supplied manufactured goods to the markets. They worked like the modern banks, protecting the interests of their members. They also settled quarrels among members, issued their own coins and gave grants to educational institutions. Some Guilds became so strong that even the kings could not ignore them. To make enough different things for the use of the rich people who lived in the citadels, the artisans used iron tools.

Question 27.
What were the two methods used to increase agricultural production after the 6^th century BC?
Answer:
Villagers used many strategies or techniques to increase their agricultural production. They included use of ploughs, transplanting seedlings, weeding and irrigation. From 6^th century BC itself, farmers used ploughs in their fields. In the banks of the Ganges and Kavery, cultivation after ploughing the fields became very popular.

In the fertile silt here and the places where there was plenty of rain, they used iron ploughshares to loosen the earth. Those who lived in the central areas of the subcontinent and on hillsides, they used spades to loosen the earth. It was the best suitable thing for such places. Transplanting of seedlings to increase production was begun in the Gangetic plains.

As a result, the production of paddy increased greatly. But this system was not practised extensively, it was suitable only for places where water was plenty. Transplanting seedlings is not easy work. It needs hard work on the part of the peasants. First, the seeds are germinated and then they are transplanted in the fields where there is standing water.

This system helps the seedlings to survive better and it ensures a good harvest. Another technique was irrigation. People made use of ponds, wells and water reservoirs for this purpose. Irrigation work was carried out by individuals and the community working together. Even kings and nobles took part in such community activities.

Question 28.
The 6^th century BC was a turning point in the history of India. Describe the most important events that took place at this period.
Answer:
The 6th century BC was considered a turning in the ancient Indian history. These things took place at that period.

1. The rise of early nations. Countries known as Mahajanapadas were formed at this time.
2. The rise of cities and towns. This is the second urbanization process that took place in India.
3.  Increased use of iron. As more and more iron was used, forests were cleared it led to the expansion of agriculture. The arms made of iron increased the importance of warriors.
4. The development of coin system. The use of coins made of metals helped in the development of trade and commerce.
5. The growth of religions like Buddhism and Jainism.

Question 29.
Who was Grihapati?
Answer:
He is the owner and master of a household. He controls all the women, children, slaves and servants in the household He is also the owner of the land, animals and other household goods. This name was also used as a title for the rich traders in the city and also the elite in the society.

Question 30.
What are the sources of the history of Mauryas?
Answer:
Historians have used different sources to recreate. the history of the Maurya Empire. Archaeological evidences literary books, things like statues etc. were included.

1. An important source of the Maurya period in the contemporary writings of people like Megasthenes. His book called ‘Indika’gives valuable information regarding the Maurya society and the administration.
2. Another important source is the ‘Arthasastra’ by Kautilya. It is a contemporary book giving detailed information regarding the rule by the Mauryas.
3. The Buddhist, Jain and the Puranas literature throw light on the Maurya Empire.
4. The book ‘Mudrarakshasam’ by Visakhadatta describes how Chandragupta Maurya defeated the Nandas.
5. Statues, coins, inscriptions etc. also give valuable information about the Maurya. Empire. The inscriptions on the stones and pillars during the time of Asoka are very valuable.
6. Asoka was the first ruler who got his messages to me subjects and officials inscribed on stones and pillars. He used these inscriptions to spread his religious policies.
7. These inscriptions give great details about the life and policies of this great King.

Question 31.
Explain the main features of the Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
In most Janapadas, it was monarchy, in some Mahajanapadas, there was rule by a group of people representatives. Such groups with ruling powers were sanghas’ or ‘ganas’. In the gana-ruled places, the administration was done by a person chosen by the people’s representatives (E.g. Suddhodanan, the father of Buddha) or by a group (e.g. the ruling groups known as Lichhavis). They were called by the common name kings. Mahavira and Buddha belonged to such gana-nations.

In some countries, the entire land was owned by the king (combined ownership). Some of these countries existed for more than a thousand years. Each Mahajanapada had a capital of its own. The capital was made safe by building fortresses around it. Mahajanapadas maintained armies and also a number of officials.

Question 32.
Magadha was foremost among the Mahajanapadas. Give reasons for the rise of Magadha.
Answer:
The history of India from the 6^th century BC is also the history of various Mahajanapadas fighting for supremacy among themselves. In these fights, the final victory was obtained by Magadha. It became the first among the 16 Mahajanapadas. Magadha included the present districts of Patna and Gaya in Bihar.

There are many reasons that made Magadha overcome its enemies and become number one. They are the following:

1. Magadha was a fertile region. The fertile silt helped agriculture and increased production. They were able to produce surpluses.
2.  There were iron ore mines close to the capital and Magadha controlled them. They could make high-class weapons using iron from these mines.
3. An essential part of the Magadhan army was elephants. They were plenty in the forests of Magadha. Magadha used elephants on a large scale in battles. Elephants were used in breaking the fortresses of the enemies and get across marshlands.
4. The Ganges and its tributaries helped the Magadhans to travel quickly and cheaply and this helped them a lot.
5. Rajagraha, the first capital of Magadha, and Pataiiputra, the second capital, were situated in strategic places. They offered Magadha protection from outside attacks.

Question 33.
Point out the arrangements for administering Pataiiputra by the Mauryans.
Answer:
Each city and town has its history. For example, the history of Pataiiputra begins from the village called Pataligramam. In the 5^th century BC, the Magadhan rulers decided to move their capital from Rajagraha to Pataligramam. They changed the name to Pataiiputra. This city which became the capital of Maurya Empire grew into one of the biggest cities in Asia. But gradually the. importance of this city decreased. When in the 7^th century the Chinese traveller Hyuansang visited this place, it had become an unimportant place with just a few inhabitants.

Question 34.
Assess the historical importance of the stone edicts of Asoka.
Answer:
Most of the stone edicts of Asoka were written in the ‘Prakrit’ language. But in the north-western regions of the subcontinent, Aramaic and Greek were also used. The edicts in the ‘Prakrit’ language are in Brahmi Script. But in the north-western regions, the script is ‘Kharoshti’. In the stone edicts of Afghanistan, Aramaic and Greek scripts were used.

Question 35.
How is the Kharoshti script read?
Answer:
The inscriptions in the north-western regions of India – are in Kharoshti script. This region was ruled, in the 2^nd century BC, by Indo-Greek kings. On the coins of that time, the names of the kings were inscribed in Greek and Kharoshti script. It helped in reading the Kharoshti script.

1.  European scholars who knew Greek-Kharoshti scripts could compare the letters in the inscriptions, and they could easily read them. For example, the sign “A” was used to write names like Appolodotus in both the scripts.
2.  James Prinsep recognized that the language in the inscriptions was Prakrit. This made it possible to read the longer inscriptions.

Question 36.
What are the special features of the inscriptions?
Answer:
Inscriptions are the writings on the surfaces of stones, metals and pots. They were probably official documents issued by kings or rulers. Even private individuals used Inscriptions for different purposes.

1.  Inscriptions are found in different languages on pillars, walls of houses, copper plates and stones.
2.  They record the achievements, activities and ideas of those who get the inscriptions written. The victories of kings, the gifts people gave to religious institutions etc. can be seen in these inscriptions.
3.  Inscriptions are permanent records. In some, there are dates. In others, the date or the period is found through archaeological dating methods or through the style of writing.
4.  The early inscriptions were in Prakrit, the language used by the common people. Inscriptions were also written in Pali, Tamil and Sanskrit. Scholars have tried to read and understand the meaning of the inscriptions.

Question 37.
Point out the features of the trade beyond the subcontinent by land routes, in the 6^th century BG.
Answer:
There was considerable growth in trade and commerce in the 6th century BC. Trade and commerce relations along land, river and sea routes improved greatly. More countries were included in the trade.

1. Trade through land routes extended into Central Asia and beyond.
2.  Trade through sea-routes went beyond the Arabian Sea into Africa and West Asia, Trade through Bengal spread into South East Asia and China.
3. Kings tried to control these trade routes. It was their responsibility to protect the routes from thieves, robbers and pirates. For this protection, the Kings took special taxes from the traders.

Along these routes, there were itinerant traders, merchants and seafarers. The itinerant traders moved on foot. Merchants used bullock carts and beasts of burden, selling goods along the way they travelled. Trade by sea was risky but it was highly profitable. Those who succeeded in sea trade became very rich. They were called ‘masattuvas’ in Tamil and ‘sethis’ and ‘sathavahas’ in Prakrit.

1. Trade was done in salt, clothes, grain, metallic ores, timber, herbs and precious stones.
2. Pepper, other spices, clothes and herbs were in great demand in the Roman Empire. All these goods were taken through the Arabian to the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 38.
The evidences in the inscriptions have some limitations. Comment.
Answer:
The inscriptions have a lot of importance in the history of India. But they have some limitations.

1. They have some technical limitations. Some of the letters are very dim or in a faded state. It is not easy to read them.
2. Some letters are completely erased or damaged somehow.
3. The real meaning of some inscriptions is difficult to arrive at in context.
4.  Thousands of inscriptions have been found. They could not be read, translated or published.
5.  There were many inscriptions that could not survive. Many might have been destroyed. Only a few among the written ones are available now.
6.  Things we consider as important, like political and economic matters, are not recorded in the inscriptions. For example, we do not find anything about the agricultural practices or the joys and sorrows of daily life.
7. They give preference to only serious and strange things.
8.  In the inscriptions what we see is the interest of those who caused the inscriptions. So to know the reality, we must look at them with a critical mind.

Question 39.
Explain with examples how far numismatics (study about coins) can be helpful in the recreation of the Indian history.
Answer:
With the coming of coins, transactions became easier. The role played by the study of coins in recreating Indian archaeological history was great. On the early coins, there were no writings. There were only some signs on them. Such coins are called punch-marked coins. From many sites in the subcontinent, they have been found. Numismatists made use of these coins to learn more about the trade connections that existed among the nation in the ancient world.

The extensive use of gold coins indicates the high value of trade and transactions. It shows that trade was not limited to the bounds of a country. Although South India was not a part of the Roman Empire, there were close trade relations with them.

1. Tribal republics also issued coins. The thousands of copper coins issued by the Yadavas Of Punjab and Haryana in the 151 century AD prove this. It also shows the interest and participation shown by them in matters of trade and commerce.
2. The most beautiful gold coins were issued by the Guptas. Their gold coins were famous for their purity. These coins helped in making trade with distant countries easy.

Question 40.
What were the steps taken by the Mauryas in the administration of the Empire? Explain the important features of Maurya rule.
Answer:

1. Political centres of the Empire
2. Rule of the provinces
3. Urban rule
4. Administering the military
5. Revenue system
6. judicial system

Mauryas had an extensive administrative system. The empire was huge and extensive. It contained mountainous regions, deserts, plains, border areas and sea shores. It was not easy to establish a unified system of government in such widely different areas. Therefore there were different kinds of administration in different areas.

In the empire, there were five important political centres. They were the capital Pataliputra and four provincial centres Thoshali, Takshasila, Ujjaini and Suvarnagiri. All these are mentioned in the inscriptions of Asoka. The capital Pataliputra was under the direct control of the King.

In the capital and the provincial centres, the control of the central government was strong. These centres were chosen with care. They all had much economic importance. For example, Takshsila and Ujjaini were situated along the trade routes to distance places. Suvarnagiri was important in exploiting the gold mines in Karnataka.

1. The administration of the Mauryas was highly centralized. The supreme authority of the country and administration was the King. He also handled the military and judicial power.
2. There was an Advisory Committee called the ‘Mantri Parishat’. This helped the King in the administrative matters.
3. For carrying out the administrative work the Mauryas employed a huge number of officials.
4. The Mauryas also had a highly developed spy system. The spies continued informing the king of the various developments in the country.
5. Ruling the Provinces and Regional Administration: The Empire was divided into 4 provinces. Each province was under a governor or a viceroy.
6. Often a prince acted as the viceroy. The provinces were divided into districts. The head of the district was known as ‘Stanika’.

The smallest part in the administrative set up was the village. The village head was called ‘Gramika’.There were special arrangements for the administration of the urban centres. The administration was extensive and planned. A Council with 30 members supervised the administration of the capital, Pataliputra. The Council was divided into 6 Committees of 5 members each. Each Committee had separate responsibilities.

1. The 1^st Committee supervised matters of health and hygiene.
2. The 2^nd Committee was in charge of taking care of the foreigners:
3. The 3^rd Committee recorded births and deaths.
4. The 4^th Committee controlled weights and measures.
5. The 5^th Committee inspected the manufactured goods.
6. The 6^th Committee collected taxes.

Military Arrangement:
The army ensured the safety of the country and the people. The army was organized in an efficient manner. In the Maurya military, there were six divisions – footmen, cavalry, elephants, chariots, navy, and transport. As per the Greek sources, the Mauryan army had more than 60,000 footmen, 30,000 horses and 9000 elephants. But some historians think that these are exaggerated figures. Megasthenes says that to make the work of the army easy, there was a Committee with 6 sub-committees. Each subcommittee had the following responsibilities.

• 1 – supervised the navy.
• 2 – supervised transport and arrangements for.food.
• 3 – was in charge of the footmen.
• 4 – controlled the cavalry.
• 5 – was in charge of the chariots.
• 6 – took care of the elephants.

The 2^nd subcommittee had extensive duties. It had to prepare bullock carts for moving goods, ensure that the soldiers and animals got proper food, and employ servants and helpers to take care of the needs of soldiers.

Judicial Administration:
The Mauryas had their own judicial system. The king was the highest authority in their judicial system. He was also the supreme court. To handle the various civil and criminal cases there were courts across the country. The punishment was according to the crime. For small. offences, there were only fines. But for big offences, there could be the death penalty.

Tax System:
The country needed a lot of money to maintain a large army and a group of officials. Therefore. the government took plenty of taxes from people. Many of the economic activities were controlled by the government. The highest income was from land tax. Mining, licenses, import-export and customs also brought money into the treasury. Mining, selling of alcoholic beverages, and production of arms were the monopoly of the government. All this brought huge revenues.

Land and water transport was essential for the existence and prosperity of the country. Trade and commerce depended on these transports, Journeys from the central capital to the provinces took a long time. Therefore the government did a lot of things to improve the transport and communication system .and to ensure the safety of the travellers.

You can Download Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 12 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement (Civil Disobedience and Beyond)

Question 1.
Who was the political guru of Gandhi?
Answer:
Gokhale

Question 2.
In which Satyagraha did Gandhi intervene for the workers?
Answer:
Ahmedabad

Question 3.
The law that empowered the British to arrest and imprison without trial?
Answer:
Rowlett Act

Question 4.
Following which incident did Gandhi withdraw his Non¬Cooperation Movement?
Answer:
Chauri-chaura

Question 5.
In which Meeting did the Congress declare Poprna Swaraj?
Answer:
Lahore

Question 6.
Who is the leader known as Frontier Gandhi?
Answer:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Question 7.
The Last Plan that tried to maintain India’s Unity?
Answer:
June 3 Plan

Question 8.
Historian Chandran Devanesan says that Gandhi was made by South Africa. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
In 1893, Gandhi went to South Africa as the legal advisor of a Gujarati Business Firm. He spent two decades there. During that time he became the undisputed leader of the Indians there. He led the fight against the racial discrimination policy of theSouth African government.
Historian Devanesan says that Gandhiji was made in South Africa because of the following:

a) It was here that Gandhi formulated his non-violent method of protest was known as satyagraha.
b) It was here that Gandhi tried to encourage religious tolerance.
c) It was here that he demanded to end the discrimination against women and lower classes

Question 9.
During a classroom discussion, a student said that, the speech of Gandhi in the Banaras Hindu University pointed to his ideas and activities. Do you agree with this? Justify.
Answer:
Gandhi began his speech by severely criticizing the upper classes of India. He accused them of neglecting the poor working-class people. He praised the glorious inaugural function of the Banaras Hindu University. He then talked about the disparity between the people fortunate enough to attend the function and the millions of people who had no chance of attending such functions. He told the rich and the specially invited guests to contribute their ornaments for the welfare of the poor people in India.

He then told them that India won’t be really free when there is such a huge disparity between the rich and the poor. He added that by exploiting the work of the peasants or helping in such exploitation, autonomous government or freedom will be meaningless. Only through farmers, India can be free. Advocates, doctors, the rich and landowners won’t bring us freedom. The inauguration of the Banaras Hindu University was a time for celebration.

The University was established by using the money and efforts of Indians. Gandhi, in his speech, was trying to show the absence of farmers and workers, who formed the vast majority of Indians, on such an important occasion. His Banaras speech was to show that the Indian National Movement had become a movement of the upper-class people.

Question 10.
Which were the early Satyagrahas of Gandhiji? How did they help Gandhiji in his entry to Indian politics?
Answer:
Gandhiji’s first Satyagraha was that of Champaran in Bihar. The indigo farmers there were exploited by the European estate owners. The farmers were forced to cultivate indigo in place of other crops. Then they were forced to sell the indigo at the prices determined by the estate owners. In 1917, Gandhi went to Champaran and studied in detail about the pathetic situation of the farmers there. Authorities asked Gandhi to go away from the place but he did not obey. He continued his research. He wanted to ensure that the farmers could cultivate what they wanted and not what others wanted. Ultimately, the government appointed a Commission. The Commission approved most of the demands of the farmers. Gandhi succeeded in his first attempts at Satyagraha.

In 1918, Gandhiji led two protest movements. One was in Ahmedabad and the other was in Kheda. Gandhi interfered in a dispute between the workers and the owners of a cloth mill in Ahmedabad. In 1919, the workers embarked on a strike demanding increased wages. Gandhi took up this issue. He started a fast unto death demanding increased wages to the workers and better working conditions for them. The mill owners were ready to negotiate. The wages of the workers were increased by 35%.

In Kheda Gandhi fought for the farmers. Because of a serious draught, farmers in Kheda had a serious problem as their crops were damaged. Gandhi told the farmers not to give taxes until some reductions in the taxes were made. Finally, the government approved the demand of the farmers and Gandhi ended his satyagraha.

• The Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad satyagaha of Gandhi were a preparation for his entry into Indian National Movement. These activities helped him in understanding the problems of the people.
• They helped Gandhi to have close contacts with people. The sympathy he showed to the poor people helped him to get a place in their hearts.

All the early struggles of Gandhiji were local ones. Soon the British themselves gave him a chance to have a bigger platform for his working. Some incidents in 1919 led Gandhi to be in the forefront of the Indian National Movement.

Question 11.
The Non-Cooperation Movement was the first strong fight of Gandhi against the British. Discuss the causes, the processes, the direction and the results of the Non Cooperation Movement.
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement was the first strong moment of Gandhi against the British. It was part of Gandhi’s concept of non-violence. In the beginning he co-operated with the British. He believed in their sense of righteousness. He showed his loyalty to the British in the First. World War by asking the Indians to join the British army. But some developments in 1919 made Gandhi change his attitude. The Rowlett Acts, Jalian Wala Bagh tragedy, the Khilafat Movement etc. were some of them.

The Non-Cooperation Movement had three aims:

• Find a solution to the Punjab problem.
• Solve the Khilafat issue.
• Gain swaraj.

Non-Cooperation Movement was a political process based on non-violence. It had both constructive and destructive procedures. These were the constructive things:

1. Swadeshi propaganda
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity
4. Prohibition (of alcohol)
5. Nationalization of education
6. Encouraging the use of the spinning wheel (charkha) and khadi

The negative things were rather extreme in nature. The main thing was boycott.

1. Boycott government educational institutions, courts, assemblies, etc.
2. Boycott official functions
3. Boycott foreign clothes and goods
4. Give up government jobs, titles, positions and rewards
5. Refuse to give taxes

The exhortations of Gandhiji had great effect. Students boycotted government institutions. Thousands of workers in cities and towns went on strike. Official records show that in 1921 there were 396 strikes involving 6 lakh workers. 7 lakh working days were lost. In the Non-Cooperation Movement, women and farmers took active part. Many women came out of their purdah to take part in the protests.

The Movement spread even to villages. The forest dwellers in Andhra Pradesh broke the forest laws. Farmers of Awadh and Bihartook part in the struggle by refusing to pay taxes. The farmers of Kumaon (Uttarakhand) refused to carry the goods of the Colonial officers. Often these protests were done against the instructions of regional leaders. Instead of taking orders from higher authorities, they refused to cooperate with the Colonial administration.

The greatest success was in the boycott of foreign clothes. People went from house to house, collecting foreign clothes and burnt them in public. People encouraged the use of local goods (swadeshi). The most dramatic events of the Non-Cooperation Movement were the boycotts during the visit of the Prince of Wales to India. When he landed in India in November 1921, what he met with were hartals and protest marches. People boycotted him wherever he went.
The government tried all means to suppress the Movement. All leaders except Gandhiji were arrested. Thousands were jailed. Police often fired at the protesters. But all these repressive measures only increased the strength of the Movement.

The Chauri-Chaura incident was big jolt to the Movement. Gandhi was forced to stop the Movement. Violence in Chauri-Chaura occurred when police fired at a procession of farmers. The enraged farmers attacked the Chauri-Chaura police station and burnt it. 22 policemen were killed. This shocked Gandhiji. He realized that people were not yet ready to fight using non-violence. On 22 February 1922, he decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement. He said that no provocation would justify the killing of the 22 policemen.

1. The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant milestone. In the biography of Mahatma Gandhi, Louis Fischer (American) says that the Non-Cooperation Movement was big turning point in the history of India and also the life of Gandhi. It combined denial, sacrifice, and self-control. Fischer says it was some kind of training for autonomy.
2. After the 1857 Revolt, this was the first incident that shook the foundation of the British Raj.
3. During this Movement, thousands of Indians were imprisoned. People gained the strength to withstand persecutions and tortures.
4. In fact, it was India’s first most popular Movement. It was through this, the national struggle gained momentum and became such a huge movement. All kinds of people took part in it. Congress became a popular organization.
5. It created awareness among people against evils like untouchability and alcoholism. It encouraged national education and use of local goods.
6. It paved the way for the formation of the Swarajist Party.

Question 12.
How did the farmers see Gandhi? Why was it possible for Gandhi to become very close to people?
Answer:
By 1922, Gandhi was able to make the Indian Nationalism a highly popular Movement. Until then it was a Movement of intellectuals and professionals. But soon, with the efforts of Gandhi, thousands of farmers, artisans and workers joined the Movement. Many of them started calling Gandhi ‘Mahatma’ showing him their respect. He was not like other leaders who preferred to keep some distance from people. He sympathized with them and became one of them. He lived like them, and dressed like them. He also spoke in their language.

Question 13.
To start his Civil Disobedience Movement, why did Gandhi choose breaching the Salt Law?
Answer:
Gandhi planned a new way of struggle against the British. This was the Civil Disobedience Movement. He said he would start it by breaking the Salt Law. Salt Law was one of the laws that Indians hated most. This law made the making and selling of salt a government monopoly.

Although each household needed salt, the government did not allow anybody to make it even for personal use. People were forced to buy salt at a high price from shops. The government also doubled the salt tax. The anger of the people increased. Gandhi knew that salt tax was more harmful to people than other taxes.

Gandhi’s move to breach the salt law was a strategic one. He knew by this he could make the people fight against the government. Thus salt law became an important landmark in India’s freedom struggle.

Question 14.
Why was the spinning wheel chosen as a national symbol?
Answer:
Gandhi was very critical of machines saying that they made people their slaves and they took away employment opportunities of people. He objected to the extensive use of machines and technology. He saw the spinning wheel as a symbol of humanity. He though that the spinning wheel brought extra income to people and made them self-sufficient and self- reliant.

Question 15.
What were the contents (agenda) of the Round Table Conferences?
Answer:
The Dandi March opened the eyes of the British. They realized the need to give more representation to the Indians in the government. With this aim, the British government called for Round Table Conferences in London. The first Round Table Conference (RTC) was summoned when the Civil Disobedience Movement was going on. It was in 1930. But it was boycotted by all-important political leaders of India. Congress also boycotted it. Thus the first RTC was without any use.
In September 1931, the 2nd RTC was summoned in London, Gandhi said Congress would represent India. But this was objected by 3 groups-Muslim League, the local kings and Ambedkar.

• The Muslim League claimed that it represented the interests of the Muslims.
• The local kings said that in their kingdoms, Congress, had no support.
• B.R. Ambedkar, who was a lawyer and thinker, said that Congress did not represent the lower class people.

In November 1932, the British Government summoned the 3rd RTC. Congress representatives did not attend this Conference. This Conference formulated certain principles regarding the future Indian Constitution. It was on the basis of these that the India Act of 1935 was passed.

a) The India Act of 1935 marked the beginning of the Representative government in India. There were basic changes in the Provinces. It ended dual administration and brought in provincial autonomy.
b) This Act allowed the right to vote in a limited manner. In 1937, there were elections to the Provinces. Congress got big victories. In 8 of the 11 Provinces, Congress was able to form ministries. Even then Congress Ministers were to work under the British Governor’s supervision and control.

Question 16.
Describe the importance of the 1929 Lahore Meeting of the Congress.
Answer:
The Annual Meeting of the Congress was held in Lahore in December 1929. It was a historic meeting. Here are the reasons for its importance.

1. Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as the President of the Congress. It was an indication that the leadership of the Congress was going into young hands.
2. It passed a resolution saying that the ultimate aim of the Congress was ‘Poorna Swaraj’.
3. It decided to celebrate 26 January 1930 all over India as the Day of Independence.
4. It decided to embark on Civil Disobedience Movement under Gandhiji.

Question 17.
Evaluate the background and nature of Quit India Movement.
Answer:
After the failure of Cripps Mission, Gandhiji decided to start his third phase of struggle against British rule. This is known as Quit India Movement. It started in August 1942. The immediate cause of this Movement was the failure of the Cripps Mission. Gandhi demanded that the British should leave India peacefully and in a timely manner. Congress accepted that idea. On 8 August 1942, Congress met at Bombay and passed a resolution asking the British to quit India. The resolution made it clear that to make the British go away, a struggle would be organized under Gandhi. This struggle is known as Quit India Movement. Gandhi asked the people to come into the open with the slogan ‘Do or Die’.

1. It was a popular movement. Thousands of ordinary people came with their support. Youths were ready to quit colleges and go to jail.
2. It showed the willingness of the people to suffer for freedom and to go to any extent to achieve freedom.
3. It made the British realize that their days were numbered. It forced them to negotiate the transfer of power.
4. It brought world’s attention to the Indian struggle for freedom.

Question 18.
How far are autobiographies useful for recreating history? What are their limitations?
Answer:
Autobiographies are a great source for formulating history. They give us a description of the past. When we read and interpret autobiographies, we ought to be careful. Autobiographies talk of past things. They are written from memories. Writers of autobiography would want readers to evaluate their lives in a particular way.

• Autobiography means that a writer is presenting a picture of himself for the readers to evaluate him. Most often writers of autobiographies don’t write those things that will harm their good image. They might also exaggerate the good things.
• Therefore we have to look for things the writers have not said in their autobiography. We should also find the reason for their silence on certain issues. We should know if the silence was deliberate or accidental.
• However, the “The Story of My Experiments with Truth”, the autobiography of Gandhi, overcomes some of these limitations of common autobiographies.

Question 19.
Gandhiji did not take part in the Independence Day Celebrations. Why?
Answer:
Gandhiji did not take part in the Independence Day Celebrations that took place on August 15, 1947. He was then in Calcutta. He did not take part in any celebration or raise the Indian National Flag. Instead, he fasted for 24 hours. His was a life-or-death struggle for independence. But when freedom came, a big price had to be paid. The country was divided into two. The Hindus and Muslims murdered one another. Gandhiji did not want such freedom. B.G. Tendulkar, the biographer of Gandhiji, tells us how he was working during the Partition period. In September and October Gandhi was visiting hospitals and refugee camps comforting the suffering people there. He exhorted the Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims to let bygones be bygones, to forget and forgive, and live in peace and harmony.

You can Download An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara

Question 1.
The official who discovered the ruined remains of Vijayanagara?
Answer:
Colin Mackenzie

Question 2.
Krishnadevaraya – which dynasty did he belong to?
Answer:
Tuluva

Question 3.
The author of the book ‘Amuktamalyada’?
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Question 4.
Where are most of the temples of Vijayanagara seen?
Answer:
Holy Centre

Question 5.
Who is the builder of the Hazara Ram Temple?
Answer: Ramarayan

Question 6.
Who discovered the ruins of Hampi? How were they brought to light?
Answer:
The ruins of Hampi were discovered in 1800. They were discovered and brought to light by Colin Mackenzie. He was an engineer and a collector of antiques. He was an important official of the East India Company. He visited Hampi and made the first survey map of this site. He got the first information about Hampi from the priests in the Virupaksha Temple and the shrine of Pampadevi.

From 1836, calligraphic experts began to make their researches in Hampi. They collected a lot of inscriptions from Hampi and the temples there.

From 1856, photographers began to take pictures of the monuments there. They also took photographs of the various pictures. These pictures helped the scholars to study more about Hampi.

Historians now wanted to recreate the history of Vijayanagara. They used information from these sources to compare it with the descriptions of foreign travellers to this place. They also compared it with the information available in Telugu, Kannada, Tamil and Sanskrit books. Thus by studying things in minute detail, the historians tried to recreate the history of Vijayanagara. Further efforts were made by the Archaeological Survey India to find out more things about Hampi.

Question 7.
Cavalry was the most important feature of the army of Vijayanagara Empire. On the basis of this statement, discuss the horse-trade that existed at that time.
Answer:
Cavalry was the most important feature of the Vijayanagara army. It played a major role in battles.

Therefore countries were competing among themselves to import the best breed of horses from other countries. They got their horses from Central Asia and Arabia. The horse trade was initially controlled by the Arabs. Local traders called ‘Kudirai Chettis’ also took part in this horse trade. From 1498, Portuguese traders also came into this field. The Portuguese who reached the Western shores of the subcontinent tried to found trade centres and military establishments there. In military technologies they had the upper hand. This helped them to become a strong political power.

Question 8.
Krishnadevaraya was the most important ruler in the Vijayanagara Empire. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya ruled from 15Q9 to 1529. It was time of expansion and unification of the Empire. He was one of the best warriors. In 1512, he captured the lands between Thungabhadra and Krishna Rivers. He also defeated the rulers of Orissa in 1514. Later he also overcame the Bijapur Sultan. Thus under Krishnadevaraya, the Vijayanagara army became the best in South India the Empire reached its peak.
Although battles and military preparations were constant, Krishnadevaraya was able to bring prosperity to his country.

He took great pains in unifying the country. He subdued all his enemies. He was a good administrator and an artist. He built many palaces and temples. He was the one who built the Hazara Ramaswami Temple and the Vittalaswami Temple in Vijayanagar. He also built many gate towers in different temples of South India. He founded a township called ‘Nagalapuram’ in memory of his mother Nagaladevi.

He encouraged arts and literature. He was known as ‘Andhra Bhoja’. In his palace there were many famous poets. He was a scholar and writer. It is believed that he wrote many books. Some of his known works are Amuktamalyada in Telugu and Ushaparinayam in Sanskrit.

Amuktamalyada is a book dealing with the strategies a king has to use. In it Krishnadevaraya explains the attitude rulers should have towards trade and traders. He wrote that a king has to develop the ports and thus encourage trading. A ruler should help foreign navigators who are forced to come to his country because of bad climate or illness. A ruler must have cordial relations with traders who import good breed horses and encourage them by giving them proper prices and gifts. If these things are done the good horses will not get into enemy hands.

Question 9.
Assess the position the military commanders had in Vijayanagara.
Answer:
Military commanders had great powers. They controlled the fortresses of the country. They could keep armed guards. They often moved their residence from one place to another. Agriculturists who were interested in getting fertile fields also accompanied them. These military commanders were called ‘Nayakans’. Most of them lived obeying the Vijayanagara kings. But sometimes they also rose in revolt. The revolts of the Nayakas were suppressed by the ruler.

In Vijayanagara Empire there was the system of “Amara Nayaka”. This system had many of the features of the “Iqta system’ of the Delhi Sultans. Amara Nayakas were military commanders. Vijayanagara kings gave them some regions to govern. These regions were called ‘Amara’.

The governing of these regions was done by the Amaranayaks. They collected taxes of different kinds from the farmers. traders, artisans and big merchants. A big portion of the income was used for their personal needs. The other part was spent in maintaining horses and elephants. A small portion was also spent on maintaining temples and irrigation.

Amaranayakas rendered military help to the kings of Vijayanagara. It was by using this military might that the kings brought the Southern Peninsula under their control. Amaranayakas were to give the king tribute every year. They also had to visit the king and give him gifts to show their loyalty to him. To show that the king had power over them, he used to transfer amaranayakas to different places. Even then by the 17th century, the amaranayakas became powerful and some of them started challenging the authority of the king. Some even established independent states. This caused the slow disintegration of Vijayanagara.

Question 10.
How were the water resources protected in Vijayanagara? What arrangements were made to ensure that people got sufficient water for their use?
Answer:
Vijayanagara is a dry area. Therefore rulers took special interest in preserving the water and distributing it to the needy places. Vijayanagara is located in the Thungabhgdra River basin. This river flows into north¬eastern direction. There are beautiful rocky hills all around it. These fills surround the city. From these hills, many streams flow into Thungabhadra.

The rulers of Vijayanagara built dams across these streams. They also made provision to collect rain water and supply it to the cities. They also got many ponds dug to collect water during rains. The most important pond they made was Kamalapuram Pond. It was made in the 15th century. Water from this pond was used for irrigation in the nearby fields. It was from this pond water was taken to the royal centre through small canals.

The most important irrigation work was the making of Hiria Canal. This canal took water from the dam built across Thungabhadra to different parts of the country. It was this canal that made irrigation possible in the fields of the valley that separates the ‘Holy Centre’ and the ‘City Centre’. This canal was built by the rulers of Sangama dynasty.

Question 11.
Do you think the rituals connected with Mahanavami Dibba are important? Explain.
Answer:
Celebrations like Mahanavami are connected to Mahanavami Dibba. Mahanavami means the Great Ninth Day. Mahanavami is a Hindu festival that lasts 10 days. This festival is in the months of September or October in the Autumn season. This feast is known by different names in different regions. In North India it is ‘Dussehra’, in Bengal it is ‘Durga Pooja’ and in South India it is ‘Navaratri’. The Vijayanagara kings exhibited their glory and authority during this festival. Mahanavami is celebrated with many rituals. Idol worship, veneration to the royal horse, animal sacrifice etc. were part of the rituals. The celebrations are made more enjoyable through dance performances, wrestling, processions with adorned horses, elephants, chariots and soldiers. Nayakas and regional chiefs owing loyalty to the main King come with gifts for their king and his guests. All these rituals had their symbolic meanings.

On the last day of the festival, a huge function was conducted in an open place. In that the King examines his army and also those of the Nayaks. On this occasion, the nayaks give tribute to the king. Along with the tribute, the nayaks also gave the king plenty of expensive gifts.

Question 12.
In the Royal Centre there were many buildings. What were the most important? What are their special features?
Answer:
One of the most beautiful buildings in the Royal Centre is the “Lotus Mahal”. This name was given by the British travellers who came here in the 19th century. Historians are not very sure for what purpose this structure was used. Mackenzie feels that this was a Council Chamber in which the King met his advisors. There are many temples in the Royal Centre. Most of the temples of Vijayanagara are seen in the Holy centre. But the Royal Centre is also rich in temples. One of the important temples in tl^e Royal Centre is Hazara Rama Temple. It was built by Ramayan I. It is believed that only the king and his family members used this temple.

The important idols of the Hazara Ramaswami Temple are not yet found. But the inscriptions and sculptures on the walls are still seen there. There are scenes from the Ramayana. They have been inscribed on the inner walls of the temple. When Vijayanagara was destroyed most of the constructions there also were destroyed. Still the tradition of building palatial structures was continued by the Nayaks. Many of the buildings made by them are still standing.

Question 13.
There was much importance for the temples in the history of Vijayanagara. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.
Answer:
Temples were also centres of knowledge. For maintaining the temples, the King and others gave land gifts. As a result, the temples grew into religious, cultural and economic centres. Kings believed that constructing temples, maintaining them and protecting them would increase people’s faith in them. It was a way to get public recognition of the wealth, authority and generosity of the kings.

The main reason for choosing Vijayanagar as the capital was the presence of the Virupaksha Temple and the Shrine of Pampadevi. The Vijayanagara kings claimed that they were ruling the country in the name of Virupaksha Devan. All royal edicts in Kannada were signed “Sri Virupaksha Deva’. By receiving the title ‘Hindu Suratrana’ the kings tried to establish their close relation with gods. Suratrana is the Sanskrit equivalent of the Arabic Sultan. So Hindu Suratrana means Hindu Sultan.

The kings of Vijayanagar continued with the old temple traditions and they expanded them. They also started new things. The statues of the kings were exhibited in the temples. The visit of the King to the temple was considered a big official event. At this time the major Nayakas of the country accompanied the king.

Question 14.
Describe the architectural styles (Vastu) of the Vijayanagara temples. What were the special features that appeared at that time?
Answer:
In the temple construction, some new features appeared. The most important innovation was the construction of huge gate towers and halls. These were the symbols of royal authority. Therefore these towers were called ‘Rayagopuras’. They were very tall, like skyscrapers, and sometimes they were even bigger than the temple itself. They showed even from a far distance the presence of a temple.
The Vijayanagara kings constructed halls and corridors with tall pillars. These corridors were made in such a way that they went around the main worshipping area. The halls had many pillars with inscriptions. The temples had extensive grounds on all the sides. Two of the temples in the Holy Centre are especially important – Virupaksha Temple and Vittala Temple.

Virupaksha temple was built over centuries. Evidence shows that the first construction was done in the 9th or 10th century. With the establishing of the Vijayanagara kingdom, the temple was expanded. In front of the temple there is a huge hall. It was Krishnadevaraya who got it built. It was a mark of his coronation. This hall is decorated with pillars with inscriptions. The eastern gate tower was also made by him. Because of the halls and towers, the temple itself was confined to a small area.

In the temple complex there were many halls. They were used for different purposes! In some halls there were idols of deities. These halls were used for conducting dance performances, music concerts and such celebrations. Some halls were used for celebrating the wedding of deities. Some were for the deities to swing. On all these occasions special idols were used. They were different from the idols in the main temple.

Vittala Temple is another important one. The main idol here is Vittala, a form of Siva. Vittala is a deity that is commonly revered in Maharashtra. The Vijayanagara kings used different traditions to get acceptability. It was with this purpose that they brought Vittala to Karnataka. There are many halls here. There is a temple here made on the model of a chariot. It is a unique structure.
An important feature of the temple complex is the ‘chariot streets’. From the tempie tower it lies in a straight line. These’streets are paved with stone. There are also pillars with small halls. Traders have their stalls here.

The temple construction tradition was continued by the Nayaks. Some of the most beautiful regional towers were made by Nayaks.

Question 15.
What does Domingo Pius say about the markets of Vijayanagara?
Answer:
Domingo Pius says that the markets were working along the most beautiful and extensive streets of Vijayanagara. The traders stayed there. They had all sorts of ornaments, gems, pearls, jewels and clothes. Everything under the sun was available there. Every evening there was a market there. Not only grains, vegetables and fruits, but even horses were sold in these evening markets.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Three Dimensional Geometry.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 11 Three Dimensional Geometry

Plus Two Maths Three Dimensional Geometry 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i)Find the equation of the Plane with intercepts 2, 3, 4 on X, Y, Z axes respectively.)
(ii) Find the distance of the point (- 1, – 2,3) from the Plane \(\bar{r}\)(2i – 3 j + 4k) = 4 (March – 2011)
Answer:
(i) The equation of the plane is \(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{y}{3}+\frac{z}{4}=1\)
(ii) The equation of the plane is 2x – 3y + 4z = 4
Hence the distance \(=\frac{2(-1)-3(-2)+4(3)-4}{\sqrt{4+9+16}}\)
\(=\frac{-2+6+12-4}{\sqrt{4+9+16}}=\frac{12}{\sqrt{29}}\)

Question 2.
Consider the points A(2,2, – 1), B(3,4,2), C(7,0,6)
(i) FindAB.
(ii) Find the Cartesian and vector equation the plane passing through these points. (March – 2011)
Answer:
(i) \(A B=\sqrt{1+4+9}=\sqrt{14}\)
(ii) Cartesian Equation of the plane is

Vector equation is \(\bar{r}\)(5i + 2j – 3k) = 17

Question 3.
Consider the points A(3, – 4, – 5) and 5(2, – 3,1)
(i) Find the vector and Cartesian equation of the Line passing through the points A and B.
(ii) Find the point where the line crosses the XY Plane. (March – 2012)
Answer:
Let \(\bar{a}\) = 3i – 4j – 5k, b = 2i – 3j + k
(i) Vector Equation is \(\bar{r}\) = \(\bar{a}\) + λ(\(\bar{b}\) – \(\bar{a}\)) \(\bar{r}\) = 3i – 4j – 5k + λ( – i + j + 6k)
Cartesian Equation is \(\frac{x-3}{-1}=\frac{y+4}{1}=\frac{z+5}{6}\)

(ii) Let the point be (x, y, 0)
\(\begin{array}{l}
\Rightarrow \frac{x-3}{-1}=\frac{y+4}{1}=\frac{5}{6} \\
\Rightarrow x=\frac{13}{6}, y=\frac{-19}{6}
\end{array}\)
Then the point on the XY Plane is \(\left(\frac{13}{6}, \frac{-19}{6}, 0\right)\)

Question 4.
(i) Find the Cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (1, 2, -3) perpendicular to the vector 2i – j + 2k.
(ii) Find the angle between the above \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{3}=\frac{z}{6}\) (March – 2012)
Answer:
(i) The equation of the Plane is
2(x – 1) – 1(y, -2) + 2(z+3) = 0
⇒ 2x – 2 – y + 2 + 2z + 6 = 0
⇒ 2x – y + 2z + 6 – 0

(ii) Angle between the line and the Plane is

Question 5.
(i) Find the angle between the lines having direction ratios 1, 1, 2 and \(\sqrt{3}-1,-\sqrt{3}-1,4\)
(ii) If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-1}{2 \lambda}=\frac{z-3}{2}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{3 \lambda}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-6}{-5}\) are perpendicular, find the value of λ. (May – 2012)
Answer:

(ii) Since they are perpendicular
a₁a₂ + b₁b₂ + c₁c₂ = 0
⇒ 3 x 3λ + 2λ x 1 + 2x – 5 = 0
⇒ 9λ + 2λ – 10 = 0
⇒ 11λ + 10 ⇒ 2 = \(\frac{-10}{11}\)

Question 6.
(i) Find the equation of the Plane passing through the points (3, -1, 2), (5, 2, 4), ( -1, -1, 6)
(ii) Find the perpendicular distance from the point (6, 5, 9) to this plane. (March – 2013)
Answer:
(i) Cartesian Equation of the plane is

(ii) Perpendicular distance

Question 7.
Consider the vector equation of the planes r.(2i + j+k) – 3 and r.(i – j – k) = 4
(i) Find the vector equation of any of the plane at the intersection of the above two planes.
(ii) Find the vector equation of the planes through the intersection of the above two planes and the point (1, 2, -1). (May – 2013)
Answer:
(i) 2x + y + z – 3 + λ(x – y – z – 4) = 0
⇒ (2 + λ)x + (1 – λ)y + (1 – λ)z – 3 – 4λ = 0
Vector equation is
\(\bar{r}\).(2 + λ)i + (1 – λ)y + (1 – λ)k – (3 + 4)λ = 0

(ii) Since passing through (1,2, – 1) we have;
⇒ (2 + λ)1 + (1 – λ)2 + (1 – λ)( -1) – 3 – 4λ = 0
⇒ 2 + λ + 2 – 2λ – 1 + 1 – 3 – 4λ = 0
⇒ 0 – 4λ – 0
⇒ λ = 0

\(\bar{r}\).(2i + j + k) = 3 is required plane. Since the point (1, 2, -1) is a point on the first plane.

Question 8.
Consider the planes2x + y – 2z = 5 and 3x – 6y – 2z = 7
(a) Find their normal vectors.
(b) Find the angle between these two planes. (May – 2014)
Answer:
(a) Normal vectors are 2i + i – 2k; 3i – 6j – 2k
(b) Angle =

Question 9.
(a) If a₁, b₁, c₁ and a₂, b₂, c₂ are the direction ratios of two lines, then write the condition of its perpendicularity.
(b) Find the angle between the lines \(\frac{x+3}{3}=\frac{y-1}{5}=\frac{z+3}{4}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{1}=\frac{y-4}{1}=\frac{z-5}{2}\)
Answer:
(a) a₁a₂ + b₁b₂ + c₁c₂ = 0

Question 10.
Find the shortest distance between the lines \(\bar{r}\) = i + j + λ(2i – j + k) and \(\bar{r}\) = 2i + j – k + µ(3i – 5 j + 2k) (March – 2016)
Answer:
From the given lines we have;

Question 11.
(i) The equation of the line which passes through the point(1,2,3) and parallels to the vector 3i + 2j – 2k is
(a) \(\bar{r}\) = 3i + 2j – 2k + λ(/ + 2j + 3k)
(b) \(\bar{r}\) = 2i – 5k + λ(3/ + 2j – 2k)
(c) \(\bar{r}\) = i + 2j + 3k + λ(-2i + 4j – 2k)
(d) \(\bar{r}\) = i + 2j + 3k + λ(3i + 2j – 2k)
(ii) Find the angle between the pair lines
\(\bar{r}\) = 2i – 5j + k + λ(3i + 2j + 6k) and \(\bar{r}\) = li – 6k + µ(i + 2j + 2k) (May – 2016)
Answer:
(i) (d) \(\bar{r}\) = i + 2j + 3k + λ(3i + 2j – 2k)
(ii) \(\bar{a}\) = 3i + 2j + 6k; \(\bar{b}\) = i + 2j + 2k
\(\cos \theta=\frac{\bar{a} \cdot \bar{b}}{|\bar{a} \| \bar{b}|}=\frac{19}{7 \times 3}=\frac{19}{21}\)

Plus Two Maths Three Dimensional Geometry 4 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Consider the lines \(\frac{x-3}{2}=\frac{y-1}{5}=\frac{z+3}{4}\) and \(\frac{x+5}{1}=\frac{y+2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{2}\)
(i) Find the angle between them.
(ii) Find the shortest distance between them. (March – 2011)
Answer:

Question 2.
(i) Find the vector equation of the Plane Passing through the intersection of the Planes \(\bar{r}\).(i + j + k) = 6 and \(\bar{r}\)(2i + 3j + 4k) = – 5 and through the point (1, 1, 1).
(ii) Express the vector equation \(\bar{r}\).(5i + 3j + 4k) = 0 of a Plane in Cartesian form and hence find its perpendicular distance from the origin. (May – 2011)
Answer:
(i) The Cartesian equation of the given planes are x + y + z – 6 = 0 and 2x + 3 – y + 4z + 5 = 0
The family of such planes is x + y + z – 6 + λ(2x + 3y+ 4z + 5) = 0  …..(1)
Since it passes through (1, 1, 1)

Vector Equation is \(\bar{r}\).(20i + 23j + 26k) = 69

(ii) Cartesian Equation is ⇒ 5x + 3y + 4z = 0 Perpendicular distance from origin is
\(=\left|\frac{5 \times 0+3 \times 0+4 \times 0}{\sqrt{25+9+16}}\right|=0\)

Question 3.
Given the Plane 5x – 2y + 4z – 9 = 0
(i) Find the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the Plane.
(ii) Write the vector and Cartesian equation of this perpendicular. (May – 2011)
Answer:
(i) The equation of the perpendicular line to the given plane 5x – 2y + 4z – 9 = 0 and passing through the origin is
\(\begin{array}{l}
\frac{x-0}{5}=\frac{y-0}{-2}=\frac{z-0}{4}=\lambda \\
\Rightarrow \frac{x}{5}=\frac{y}{-2}=\frac{z}{4}=\lambda
\end{array}\)
Hence any point on this line is (5λ, – 2λ, 4λ). Let this point be on the given plane then
⇒ 5(5λ) – 2( – 2λ) + 4(4λ) – 9 = 0
⇒ λ = 1/5
Then the foot of the perpendicular is
\(\left(5 \times \frac{1}{5},-2 \times \frac{1}{5}, 4 \times \frac{1}{5}\right) \Rightarrow\left(1,-\frac{2}{5}, \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
Since the line is perpendicular to the Plane and passes through the point \(\left(1,-\frac{2}{5}, \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
The Cartesian equation is \(\frac{x}{5}=\frac{y}{-2}=\frac{z}{4}\)
The Vector equation is \(\bar{r}\) = \(\bar{0}\) + λ(5i – 2j + 4k)

Question 4.
(i) The foot of the perpendicular from the origin to a Plane is P(4, – 2,5). Write \(\overline{O P}\)
(ii) Find the equation of the Plane in vector and Cartesian form. (May – 2012)
Answer:
(i) \(\overline{O P}\) = 4i – 2j + 5k
(ii) Then is perpendicular unit vector to the required plane is \(\frac{\overline{O P}}{\overline{O P} \mid}=\frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{16+4+25}}=\frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{45}}\)

The perpendicular distance from the origin is \(\sqrt{16+4+25}=\sqrt{45}\)
Vector equation of the Plane can be written as
\(\begin{array}{l}
\vec{r} \cdot \bar{m}=d \Rightarrow \bar{r} \cdot \frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{45}}=\sqrt{45} \\
\Rightarrow \bar{r} .4 i-2 j+5 k=45
\end{array}\)
Cartesian from is 4x – 2y + 5z = 45

Question 5.
Consider the lines \(\frac{x-3}{3}=\frac{y-8}{-1}=\frac{z-3}{1}\) and \(\frac{x+3}{3}=\frac{y+7}{2}=\frac{z-6}{4}\)
(i) Express the equation to the lines into vector form.
(ii) Find the shortest distance between the lines. (March – 2013)
Answer:
(i) The vector equation;

Question 6.
Consider the Cartesian equation of a line
\(\frac{x-3}{2}=\frac{y+1}{3}=\frac{z-5}{-2}\)
(i) Find its vector equation.
(ii) Find the intersecting point with the plane 5x + 2y – 6z – 7 = 0 (May – 2013)
Answer:
(i) Vector equation of the line is
\(\bar{r}\) = (3i – 1j + 5k) + λ(2i + 3j – 2k)

(ii) Any point on the line is of the form

Question 7.
The foot of the perpendicular drawn from origin to a Plane is (4, -2, 5).
(i) How far is the plane from the origin?
(ii) Find a unit vector perpendicular to that Plane.
(iii) Obtain the equation of the Plane in a general form. (March – 2014)
Answer:
(i) \(\overline{O P}\) = 4i – 2j + 5k
(ii) Then is perpendicular unit vector to the required plane is \(\frac{\overline{O P}}{\overline{O P} \mid}=\frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{16+4+25}}=\frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{45}}\)

The perpendicular distance from the origin is \(\sqrt{16+4+25}=\sqrt{45}\)
Vector equation of the Plane can be written as
\(\begin{array}{l}
\vec{r} \cdot \bar{m}=d \Rightarrow \bar{r} \cdot \frac{4 i-2 j+5 k}{\sqrt{45}}=\sqrt{45} \\
\Rightarrow \bar{r} .4 i-2 j+5 k=45
\end{array}\)
Cartesian from is 4x – 2y + 5z = 45

Question 8.
(a) Equation of the plane with intercepts 2, 3, 4 on the x, y, z-axis respectively is
(i) 2x + 3y + 4z = 1
(ii) 2x + 3y + 4z = 12
(iii) 6x + 4y + 3z = 1
(iv) 6x + 4y + 3z = 12

(b) Find the Cartesian equation of the plane passing through the points A(2, 5, -3), B(-2, -3, 5), and C(5, 3, -3). (March – 2016)
Answer:
(a) (iv) 6x + 4y + 3z = 12
(b) Equation of the plane is

Question 9.
(i) The distance of the plane from the point(1, 1, 1)is
(a) 4 units
(b) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) units
(c) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\) units
(d) \(\frac{1}{4 \sqrt{3}}\) units

(ii) Find the equation of the plane passing through (1, 0. -2) and perpendicular to each of the planes 2x + y – z = 2 and x – y – z = 3 (May – 2016)
Answer:
(i) (c) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\) units
(ii) Equation of the plane passing through (1, 0, -2) is a(x – 1) + b(y – 0) + c(z + 2) = 0……………..(1)
Plane (1) is perpendicular to the given planes
2a + b – c = 0 ……………..(2)
a – b – c = 0 ……………..(3)
Solving (2) and (3) we get;

Question 10.
(i) The linesx – l = y = z is perpendicular to the line
\(\begin{array}{l}
\text { (a) } \frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z}{-3} \\
\text { (b) } x-2=y-2=z \\
\text { (c) } \frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z}{3} \\
\text { (d) } x=y=\frac{z}{2}
\end{array}\)

(ii) Find the shortest distance between the lines \(\bar{r}\) = i + 2j + 3k + λ(i + j + k) and \(\bar{r}\) – i + j + k + µ(i + j + k) (March – 2017)
Answer:

Plus Two Maths Three Dimensional Geometry 6 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) Find the shortest distance between the line \(\frac{x+1}{7}=\frac{y+1}{-6}=\frac{z+1}{1}\) and \(\frac{x-3}{1}=\frac{y-5}{-2}=\frac{z-7}{1}\)
(ii) Find the equation of the Plane passing through one point(-1, 3, 2) and ± r to the planes x + 2y + 3z = 5 and 3x + 3y + z = 0 (March – 2010)
Answer:

(ii) Let the equation of the plane be ax + by + cz + d = 0….(1)
Since (1) is perpendicular to 3x + 2y + 3z = 5, a + 2b + 3c = 0
Since (1) is perpendicular to 3x + 3y + z = 0
3a + 3b + c = 0
Using (2) and (3) we have;
\(\frac{a}{2-9}=\frac{-b}{1-9}=\frac{c}{3-6} \Rightarrow \frac{a}{-7}=\frac{b}{8}=\frac{c}{-3}\)
(1) = -7x + 8y – 3z + d = 0
Since (1) passes through (-1, 3, 2) we have;
⇒ -7 (-1) + 8(3) – 3(2) + d = 0
⇒ 7 + 24 – 6 + d = 0 = d = -25
Therefore the equation of the plane is
(1) ⇒ -7x + 8y – 3z – 25 = 0

Question 2.
(i) (a) A line makes equal angles with the coordinate axis. Find the direction cosines.
(b) Find the equation of the Plane Passing through (1, 1, -1),(2, 3, 5) an (1, 4, -5)
(ii) Find p and q, if the plane x + py + qz = 0 is perpendicular to the plane 3x + 2y + z = 0 and the line \(\frac{x-3}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-1}{1}\) (March – 2010)
Answer:

(ii) Since the Plane x + py + qz = 0 is perpendicular to the Line \(\frac{x-3}{2}=\frac{y-2}{3}=\frac{z-1}{1}\) we have their direction ratios proportional. Plane dr’s is 1, p, q and dr’s of Line is 2, 3, 1.
\(\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2}=\frac{p}{3}=\frac{q}{1} \Rightarrow p=\frac{3}{2}, q=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 3.
Given the straight lines
\(\bar{r}[latex] = 3i + 2j – 4k + 2(i + 2j + 2k) and [latex]\bar{r}[latex] = 5i – 2k + µ(3i + 2j + 6k)
(i) Find the angle between the lines.
(ii) Obtain the unit vector perpendicular to both the lines.
(iii) From the equation of the line perpendicular to the given lines and passing through the point (1, 1, 1). (March – 2014)
Answer:

Question 4.
(a) Write the Cartesian equation of the straight line through the points (1, 2, 3) and along the vector 3i + j +2k
(b) Write a general point on this straight line.
(c) Find the point of intersection of this straight line with the plane 2x + 3y – z + 2 = 0
(d) Find the distance from (1, 2, 3) to the plane 2x + 3y – z + 2 = 0 (March – 2015)
Answer:
(a) Cartesian equation is [latex]\frac{x-x_{1}}{a}=\frac{y-y_{1}}{b}=\frac{z-z_{1}}{c}\), \(\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{2}\)

(b) Let \(\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{2}=\lambda\)
x = 3λ + 1, y = λ + 2, z = 2λ + 3 are the general point of the line.

(c) Equation of the plane is 2x + 3y – z + 20….(1)
putting the values of x, y, z in (1) is
2(3λ + 1) – 3(λ + 2) – (2λ + 3) + 2 = 0
7λ + 7 = 0 ⇒ λ = -1
∴ Point of intersection is x = -3 + 1 = -2; y= -1 + 2 = 1, z= -2 + 3 = 1
ie; (-2, 1, 1)

(d) Distance = \(\frac{2(1)+3(2)-3+2}{\sqrt{4+9+1}}=\frac{7}{\sqrt{14}}\)

Question 5.
Consider a plane passing through the point (5, 2, -4) and perpendicular to the line
\(\bar{r}\) = (i + j) + λ(2i + 3j – k)
(a) Write the equation in cartesian form.
(b) Find its distance from the point (1, 2, -1).
(c) Find the angle made by it with line \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-2}{1}=\frac{z-3}{-2}\) (May – 2015)
Answer:
(a) The equation of a plane passing through the point (5, 2, 4) and perpendicular direction ratios 2, 3, -1 is

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Computer Science
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

• There is a ‘cool off-time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Part – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The ability of data to be processed in more than one form is called ________
Answer:
polymorphism

Question 2.
Each node in a linked list has a ________ to the next node.
Answer:
pointer

Question 3.
NORESIZE is an attribute of ________ tag.
Answer:
<frame>

Question 4.
In client-side scripting, processing is done by ________
Answer:
browser

Question 5.
VPS stands for ________
Answer:
Virtual Private Server

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
What is the self-referential structure?
Answer:
Self Referential Structures: A structure contains an element that is a pointer to the same structure.
Eg:
struct date
{
int dd, mm, yyyy;
date *ptr;
};

Question 7.
What is the difference between the two declaration statements given below:
(a) int*ptr= new int(10);
(b) int*ptr = new int[10];
Answer:
(a) Dynamic initialization with value 10.
(b) Dynamic array of size 10.

Question 8.
Differentiate static and dynamic data structures. Give an example for each.
Answer:
The main memory can be allocated in two methods.
i) Static memory allocation
ii) Dynamic memory allocation
When the amount of memory to be allocated is known in advance and memory is allocated during compilation itself, it is referred to as static memory allocation.
int x=10;

When the amount of memory to be allocated is not known in advance and it is required to allocate memory as and when required during run time, it is known as dynamic memory allocation.
‘new’ operator is used for dynamic allocation of memory syntax.
datatype *pointer variable = new datatype;
eg: int *ptr=new int;

Question 9.
Categorize the following tags in HTM L appropriately.
<br>, <hl>, <img>, <table>
Answer:

Empty tag	container tag
<br>	<h1>
<img>	<table>

Question 10.
Explain any two data types in JavaScript.
Answer:
Data types in JavaScript
Unlike C++ it uses only three basic data types
1. Number: Any number (whole or fractional) with or without a sign.
Eg: +1977, -38.0003, -100, 3.14157, etc.
2. String: It is a combination of characters enclosed within double-quotes.
Eg: “BVM”, “jobi_cg@rediffmail.com”, etc.
3. Boolean: We can store either true or false. It is case sensitive. That means can’t use TRUE OR FALSE.

Question 11.
Write the JavaScript code to display “Welcome to Kerala” inside the <hl>, tag as shown in the HTML page.
<HTML>
<Body>
<Script lang= “javascript”>
<hl> …………. </hl>
</Body>
</Script>
</HTML>
Answer:
document.write(“Welcome to Kerala”);

Question 12.
Explain any two components of DBMS.
Answer:
Components of DBMS

• Databases – It is the main component.
• Data Definition Language (DDL) – It is used to define the structure of a table.
• Data Manipulation Language (DML) – It is used to add, retrieve, modify and delete records in a database.
• Users – With the help of programs users interact with the DBMS.

Question 13.
Consider the following table:

S.No.	Name	Age	Total
1.	Albert	50	90
2.	Einstein	60	95
3.	Kalam	70	94
4.	Raman	90	98
5.	Babbage	95	99

(a) Identify the degree and cardinality of the given table.
(b) Identify a suitable primary key for the given table.
Answer:
(a) Degree 4
Cardinality 5
(b) SI. No is the primary key

Question 14.
Write the output of the following PHP code fragment.
function justA fun ($num)
{
$num = $num * 5 + ($num + 6);
return $num;
}
echo justA fun(100);
Answer:
5*100 + (100 + 6)
= 500 + 106
= 106
Hence the output is 606

Question 15.
Compare serial and parallel computing.
Answer:

Serial computing	Parallel computing
A single processor is used	Multiple processors are used with shared memory
A problem is divided into a series of instructions	A problem is divided into smaller ones that can be solved simultaneously
Instructions executed sequentially	Instructions executed simultaneously
One instruction is executed on a single processor at any moment	More than one instruction is executed on multiple processors at any moment in time.

Question 16.
How does ICT help students in learning?
Answer:
Advantages of E-Learning:

• It can offer various courses to a large number of students from distant locations.
• It saves journey time and money, instructor fees, etc.
• People can enjoy e-Learning at a lower cost.
• It enables people to do courses conducted by national or international institutions.

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
What is a Pointer in C++? Declare a pointer and initialize with the name of your country.
Answer:
Pointer is a variable which points to memory location of some other variable
Syntax:
data_type ‘variable;
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
intmain()
{
char*ptr=newchar[10]; .
ptr=”India”;
cout<<ptr;
delete ptr;
}

Question 18.
What is Procedural Oriented Programming? What are the disadvantages of Procedural Oriented Programming?
Answer:
A program in procedural language consists of a list of instructions.
Following are the disadvantages of procedural language:
a) Data is undervalued: Here the importance is on doing things rather than the data. The data has the least importance. That is, data is exposed to all and there is a chance to access or destroy this data accidentally or intentionally by many functions on a program.

b) Adding new data requires modifications to all/many functions: A program may contain many functions and these functions may access different data used in different locations. If we add new data items, we will need to modify all the functions that access the data. This is a laborious task.

c) Creating new data types is difficult: In procedural languages, some built-in data types such as int, float, double, and character are available. Extensibility is the ability to create new data types without major rewriting of codes in its basic architecture. Some programming languages are extensible but procedural languages are not extensible.

d) Provides poor real-world modeling: Procedural programming paradigm treats data and functions are different not a single unit. In this Real-life simulations are not possible.

Question 19.
Write an algorithm to add a new item into a queue.
Answer:
An algorithm is given below
Step 1: If front = 1 and rear=N or front=rear + 1
Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
Step 2: If front = Null then
Set front = 1 and rear =1
Else if rear = N then set rear = 1
Else
Set rear = rear +1
End if
Step 3: Set Queue[rear]=item
Step 4: stop

Question 20.
List and explain any three attributes of the INPUT tag in HTML.
Answer:
<Input> It is used to create input controls. Its type of attribute determines the control type.
The main values of type attributes are given below.

1. Text-To creates a text box.
2. Password – To create a password text box.
3. Checkbox – To create a check box.
4. Radio – To create a radio button.
5. Reset – To create a Reset button.
6. Submit – To create a submit button.
7. Button – To create a button

Question 21.
Consider a string “Gandhiji” Write JavaScript code fragment to do the following tasks:
(a) Convert the string to upper case.
(b) Find the length of the string.
(c) Display the 3rd letter in the string.
Answer:
(a) var x=”Gandhiji”;
alert(x.toUpperCase());

(b) var x=”Gandhiji”;
alert(“The number of characters is “+ x.length);

(c) var x=”Gandhiji”;
alert(x.charAt(2));

Question 22.
What is an FTP client software? Differentiate FTP and SFTP.
Answer:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) client software:
When a client requests a website by entering the website address. Then FTP client software helps to establish a connection between the client computer and the remote server computer. Unauthorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files for that SSH (Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. Instead of http.//, it uses ftp.//:

By using FTP client s/w we can transfer(upload)the files from our computer to the web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client software are FileZilla, CuteFTP, SmartFTP, etc.

Question 23.
List and explain different database users in DBMS.
Answer:
Users of Database

• Database Administrator – It is a person who has central control over the DBMS.
• Application Programmer – These are computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through programs.
• Naive users – He is an end-user. He does not know the details of DBMS.

Question 24.
Differentiate DELETE and DROP in SQL. Write the syntax of DELETE and DROP.
Answer:

Delete	Drop
It is a DML command	It is a DDL command
Used to delete rows in a TABLE	Used to delete the whole TABLE
Here Table exists and we can insert rows	But here Table does not exist, so not possible to insert rows

Syntax:
Delete from <Table Name> where condition;
DropTable <Table Name>;

Question 25.
Name the different types of arrays in PHP. Explain with an example.
Answer:
Arrays in PHP: In PHP array is a collection of key and value pairs. Unlike C++, in PHP we can use either nonnegative integers or strings as keys.
Different types of arrays in PHP
Indexed arrays
Associate arrays
Multidimensional arrays.

Indexed arrays: The elements in an array can be distinguished as first or second or third etc. by the indices and the index of the first element is zero. In PHP the function array() is used to creating an array.
Syntax: $array_name=array(value1, value2, …….);
OR
$array_variable[key]=value;
Eg:$mark=array(60, 70, 80);
$course=array(“Science”, “Commerce”, “Humanities”);

Associative arrays: Arrays with named keys and string indices are called associative arrays.
Syntax:
$varibale_name=array(key1=>value1, key2=>value2,etc);
Eg:
$course=array (“Computer Science”=>”05”, “Commerce”=>”39”, “Science”=>”01”);

Question 26.
Discuss any three information security laws for protecting information shared over cyberspace.
Answer:
Guidelines for using computers over the internet

• Emails may contain Viruses so do not open any unwanted emails.
• Download files from reputed sources (sites).
• Avoid clicking on pop-up Advt.
• Most of the Viruses spread due to the use of USB drives so use cautiously.
• Use a firewall on your computer
• Use anti-virus and update regularly
• Use spam blocking software
• Take backups in regular time intervals
• Use strong passwords, i.e a mixture of characters (a-z & A-Z), numbers, and special characters.
• Do not use bad or rude language in social media and emails.
• Untick ‘Remember Me’ before login.

Question 27.
Briefly explain any three applications of computational intelligence.
Answer:
Computational Intelligence is the ability to make a computer to face and solve real-life problems just like an intelligent man do it. It includes Artificial Neural Networks (ANN), Evolutionary Computation (EC), Swarm Intelligence (SI), and Fuzzy Systems (FS).

A) Artificial Neural Networks (ANN): The brain is a complex, nonlinear and parallel computer with the ability to perform tasks such as recognise the pattern, perception, and motor control. ANN is the method of simulate biological neural systems to learn, memorise, and generalize like human beings. A human brain cortex consists of 10-500 billion neurons with 60 trillion synapses(a synapse is a structure that permits a neuron to pass electrical).

B) Evolutionary Computation (EC): It is the simulation of the natural evolution, i.e. survival of the fittest. In the surrounding, we can see that the stronger must win and others will lose. EC applied for data mining, fault diagnosis, classification, scheduling, etc.

C) Swarm Intelligence (SI): Swarm Intelligence is the study of behaviour of colonies or groups of social animals, birds, insects, ants, etc. How they communicate and create and manage their own colonies beautifully.

D) Fuzzy Systems: Human beings use common sense while facing a problem, just like human beings fuzzy systems can also use common sense and behave like a human being. Fuzzy systems is used to control gear transmission and raking systems, control lifts, home appliances, controlling traffic signals, etc.

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
(a) Name and explain any two attributes of the FORM tag. (2)
(b) Check the given HTML code. Fill the missing code to generate an output as shown in the figure. (3)
<HTML>
<body>
<form name= ‘loginForm’>
username:
<input type = “text”>
password:
………………………………
<input type = “………… ” value = “Login”>
………………………………
</form>
</body>
</html>
Answer:
a) <Form> attributes
1. Action – Here we give the name of the program (including the path) stored in the Webserver.
2. Method – There are 2 types of methods get and post.
3. Target – Specifies the target window for displaying the result. Values are given below.
_blank – Opens in a new window
_self – Opens in the same frame
_parent – Opens in the parent frameset
_top – Opens in the main browser window
name – Opens in the window with the specified name.

b) <inputtype=”password”>
<inputtype=”submit”>
<inputtype=”reset”>

Question 29.
(a) What are scripts in web programming? (2)
(b) Differentiate Client-side Scripting and Server-side Scripting. (3)
Answer:
a) Scripts are small programs embedded in the HTML pages, to write scripts <SCRIPT> tag is used.
Two types of scripts
1. Client scripts: These are scripts executed by the browser(client) hence reduces network traffic and workload on the server.
2. Server scripts: These are scripts executed by the server and the results as a webpage returned to the client browser.

b)

Client-Side Scripting	Server Side Scripting
Script is copied to the client browser	Script is copied to the webserver
Executed by the client	Executed by the server and result gets back to the browser window
Used for Client level validation	Connect to the database in the server
It is possible to block by the user	Cannot possible
Client-side scripts depend on the type and version of the browser	It does not depend on the type and version of the browser

Question 30.
Write SQL queries based on the table PRODUCT given below:

PID	Name	Product	Price
P1	Lukra	Seafood	4000
P5	Exotic Liquids	Mineral water	7000
K1	Tokyo Traders	Soft drink	5000
R3	Chang	Iron	8000
W5	Tokyo Traders	Soft drink	3000

1. Set PID as a primary key.
2. Display the Name, Price of the product having the highest price.
3. Change the Name of Supplier ‘Exotic Liquids’ to ‘Singapore Foods.’
4. Delete all products of supplier ‘Tokyo Traders’.
5. Display Pname and Supplier of all products in the ascending order of price.

Answer:
create table student(name varchar(20) primarykey, roll no int, marks int);

1. Create table PRODUCT (PID varchar(2) primarykey, Name varchar(20), Product varchar(20), Price dec(8, 2));
2. Select Name, Price from PRODUCT where Price=(Select max(Price) from PRODUCT);
3. Update PRODUCT set Name=”Singapore Foods” where Name=”Exotic Liquids”;
4. Delete from PRODUCT where-Name=”Tokyo Traders”;
5. Select Name, Product from PRODUCT order by Price asc;

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Computer Science
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Part – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The wrapping up of data end functions into a single unit is called ______
Answer:
Data Encapsulation

Question 2.
In a linked list, the linked part of the last node contains ________ data.
Answer:
Null Pointer

Question 3.
Give the full form of VPS.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server

Question 4.
The number of rows in a relation is called ________
Answer:
Cardinality

Question 5.
In PHP, arrays that use string keys are called ________
Answer:
Associative array

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Define a structure named ‘Time’ with elements hour, minute, and second.
Answer:
struct time
{
int h, m, s;
};

Question 7.
Read the following C++code:
int a[5] = {10, 15, 20, 25, 30};
int *p = a;
Write the output of the following statements:
(a) cout < < * (p + 2); .
(b) cout << * p + 3;
Answer:
(a) 20(Third element)
(b) *p is 10(First element)
So *p+3 = 10 + 3 = 13.

Question 8.
List the different operations performed on data structures.
Answer:
The operations are Traversing, Searching, Inserting(Push), Deleting(Pop), Sorting and Merging

Question 9.
Write HTML tag for the following:

1. Hyperlink to the website http://WWW.dhsekerala.gov.in
2. emaillinktodhseexam@gmail.com

Answer:

1. <a href=”http://www.dhsekerala.gov.in”>
2. <a href=mailto:”dhseexam@gmail.com”>

Question 10.
Describe the use of ‘action’ and ‘method’ attributes of <FQRM> tag.
Answer:
<Form> attributes

1. Action – Here we give the name of the program (including the path) stored in the Webserver.
2. Method – There are 2 types of methods get and post.

Get method	Post method
1. Faster	1. Slower
2. To send the small volume of data	2. To send a large volume of data
3. Less secure	3. More secure
4. Data visible during submission	4. Data not visible during submission

Question 11.
Explain the two purposes of the ‘+’ operator used in JavaScript.
Answer:
‘+’ if the operands are numbers then it adds and if one of the operands is a string then it concatenates the string.
eg. 5+3=8
“BVM”+8172=”BVM8172”

Question 12.
The Javascript function given below is used to display the sum of digits of a given number. Fill in the blanks to complete the function.
<Script language = “JavaScript”>
………. sum digit( )
{var n, s;
n = document.frm.txt1. …………;
for (s = 0; ……….; n = n/10)
s = s + ………..;
document.frm.txt2.value = s;
}
</script>
Answer:
function sum digit()
n=document.frm.txt1.value;
for(s=0; n>0: n=n/10)
s=s+n%10;

Question 13.
Explain any two constraints used in SQL.
Answer:
Constraints are used to ensure database integrity.

1. Not Null – It ensures that a column can never have NULL values.
2. Unique – It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.
3. Primary key – Similar to unique but it can be used only once in a table.
4. Default – We can set a default value.
5. Auto_increment – This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That automatically generates serial numbers. Only one auto_increment column per table is allowed.

Question 14.
List the core data types in PHP.
Answer:
Data types are Integer, Float/Double, Boolean, and String.

Question 15.
What is meant by GIS? Give an example.
Answer:
Geographic Information System (GIS) technology is developed from the digital cartography and Computer-Aided Design (CAD) database management system. GIS as the name implies capturing, storing for future reference, checking, and displaying data related to various positions on the earth’s surface. GIS can be applied in many areas such as soil mapping, agricultural mapping, forest mapping, e-Governance, etc.

Question 16.
Define Infringement.
Answer:
Infringement (Violation): Unauthorized copying or use of Intellectual property rights such as Patents, Copyrights, and Trademarks are called intellectual property Infringement (violation). It is a punishable offense.

• Patent Infringement
• Trademark Infringement
• Copy right Infringement.

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
What are the different memory allocations used in C++? Explain.
Answer:
The main memory can be allocated in two methods.

1. Static memory allocation
2. Dynamic memory allocation

When the amount of memory to be allocated is known in advance and memory is allocated during compilation itself, it is referred to as static memory allocation.

When the amount of memory to be allocated is not known in advance and it is required to allocate memory as and when required during run time, it is known as dynamic memory allocation.

‘new’ operator is used for dynamic allocation of memory syntax,
datatype*pointer variable = new datatype;
eg: int *ptr = new int;

Question 18.
What is polymorphism? Give an example.
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. This is achieved by function overloading, operator overloading, and dynamic binding.
There are two types of polymorphism.

a) Compile time (early binding/static) polymorphism. It is the ability of the compiler to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during compilation time itself.
Examples are Function overloading and operator overloading.
Function overloading: Functions with the same name and different signatures (the number of parameters or data types are different).

Operator overloading: It gives new meaning to an existing C++ operator.
Eg: we know that + is used to add two numbers, Operator overloading assigns + to a new job such as it concatenates two strings into one string.

b) Run time (late binding/dynamic) polymorphism. It is the ability of the compiler to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during run time. It uses the concept of pointers and inheritance.

Question 19.
Write an algorithm to insert a new item into a Queue.
Answer:
The algorithm is given below:
Step 1: If front = 1 and rear=N or front = rear + 1.
Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
Step 2: If front = Null then
Set front = 1 and rear = 1
Else if rear = N then set rear = 1
Else
Set rear = rear+1
End if
Step 3: Set Queue[rear] = item
Step 4: stop

Question 20.
Differentiate between a static web page and a dynamic web page.
Answer:

Static web pages	Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed	Content and layout are changed frequently
Never use database	Database is used
Run by the browser	It runs on the server and the result gets back to the client(browser)
Easy to develop	Not at all easy

Question 21.
Briefly explain the different ways in which a JavaScript code can be inserted into a web page.
Answer:
Ways to add scripts to a web page.
1. Inside <BODY> section
Scripts can be placed inside the <BODY> section.

2. Inside<HEAD> section: Scripts can be placed inside the <HEAD> section. This method is a widely accepted method.

3. External (another) JavaScript file: We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhanced the speed of the page loading.

Question 22.
Distinguish between shared hosting and dedicated hosting.
Answer:
1. Shared Hosting: This type of hosting shares resources, like memory, disk space, and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space, and have a large volume of traffic.

E.g.: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment (Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources (Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, playground, etc) with everyone.

2. Dedicated Hosting: A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that has a large volume of traffic mean a large volume of requests by the visitors. Some Govt, departments, or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round a clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provides good service to the public.

E.g.: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resources.

Question 23.
Explain different levels of data abstraction in DBMS.
Answer:
Database Abstraction: Abstraction means hiding, it hides certain details of how data is stored and maintained.
Levels of Database Abstraction

1. Physical Level (Lowest Level) – It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
2. Logical Level (Next Higher Level) – It describes what data are stored in the database.
3. View Level (Highest level) – It is closest to the users. It is concerned with the way in which the individual users view the data.

Question 24.
Describe the ‘union’ and ‘intersection’ operations in relational algebra with suitable examples.
Answer:
Union Operation (∪) – All tuples appearing in either or both of two relations.
Intersection operation (∩) – All tuples appearing in both relations.

Question 25.
Write PHP code to display all even numbers below 100.
Answer:
<?php
echo”All even numbers below 100″;
echo”<br>=================”;
for($i=2; $i<=100; $i=$i+2)
{
echo”<br>”.$i; ‘
}

Question 26.
Explain the cloud service models.
Answer:
Cloud service models (3 major services)
1. Software as a Service (SaaS): A SaaS provider company provides more services on demand such as they allow to access both resources and applications.
Examples are Google Docs, Adobe creative cloud, Microsoft Office 365, Facebook.com, etc.

2. Platform as a Service (PaaS): A PaaS provider company provides subscribers access to the components that they require to develop and operate applications over the Internet.
Example: LAMP platform (Linux, Apache Server, MySQL, and PHP), ASP.NET, PHP, and Python, Google’s App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Force.com, etc.

3. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS): It provides basic storage devices and computing capabilities as standardized services over the network.
Example: Amazon Web Services, Joyent, AT&T, GoGrid, etc.

Question 27.
List and explain any three e-learning tools.
Answer:
e-Learning tools
a) Electronic books reader (eBooks): With the help of a tablet or portable computer or arty another device we can read digital files by using an s/w is called electronic books reader.

b) e-text: The electronic format of textual data is called e-Text.

c) Onlinechat: Real-time exchange of text or audio or video messages between two or more people over the Internet.

d) e-Content: The data or information such as text, audio, video, presentations, images, animations, etc, are stored in electronic format.

e) Educational TV channels: TV channels dedicated only for the e-Learning purpose.
Eg.: VICTERS (Virtual Classroom Technology on Edusat for Rural Schools OR Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Students).

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
Explain the various attributes of the <BODY> tag.
Answer:
Attributes of <body> tag
1. BGCOLOR – Specifies the background color for the document body
Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR = ”RED”>

2. BACKGROUND – Sets the image as the background for the document body
Eg. <BODY BACKGROUNG= “C:\result.jpg”>.

3. TEXT-Specifies the color of the text content of the page.
Eg. <BODY TEXT= “Red”>

4. Link – Specifies colour of the hyperlinks that are not visited by the user.

5. ALINK – Specifies the colour of hyperlinks.

6. VLINK – Specifies the color of hyperlinks which are already visited by the viewer. ‘
Eg. < BODY ALINK= “Cyan” LINK-’ Magenta”
VLINK= “Orange”>.

7. Leftmargin and Right margin-Sets margin from the left and top of the document window.

Question 29.
Write HTML code to display the following table in a web page:
Result of ABC school

Year	Students		Pass Percentage
	Registered	Passed
2014	200	130	65
2015	200	150	75
2016	200	160	80

Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>Table
</title>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<h1 align=”center”>Result of ABC school</h1>
<tableborder=”1"align=”center">
<tralign=”center”> •
<th rowspan=”2">Year</th>
<th colspan=”2">Students</th>
<th rowspan=”2">Pass<br>Percentage</th>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<th>Registered</th>
<th>Passed</th>
</tr>
<tr align="center”>
<td>2014</td>
<td>200</td>
<td> 130</td >
<td>65</td>
</tr>
<tralign=”center”>
<td>2015</td>
<td>200</td>
<td>150</td>
<td>75</td>
</tr><tralign=”center”>
<td>2016</td>
<td>200</td>
<td > 160</td >
<td>80</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 30.
A table named ‘student’ with fields Roll no, Name, Batch, Mark, Grade is given. Write SQL statements for the following:

1. To display the details of all students in the ‘Science’ batch.
2. To display the details of these students having grade A or A+.
3. To count the number of students in each batch.
4. To change the grade of the student to A+ whose Roll no. is 50.
5. Remove the details of the student whose Roll no. is 10.

Answer:

1. select * from student where Batch=”Science”;
2. select * from student where Grade in(“A”,”A+”);
3. select Batch,count(*) from student group by Batch;
4. update student set Grade =”A+”; where Roll_no=50;
5. delete from student where Roll_no =10;

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Computer Application
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Part – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Write the name of the built-in function of C++ to convert the given character into its lower case.
Answer:
tolower()

Question 2.
Which is the tag used to create a line break in an HTML page?
Answer:
<br>

Question 3.
A candidate key that is not a primary key is called the _______ key.
Answer:
alternate key

Question 4.
Which is the keyword used in the SQL SELECT command to eliminate duplicate values in the selection.
Answer:
distinct

Question 5.
Expand the term CDMA.
Answer:
Code Division Multiple Access

Part – B

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each question carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Write the function prototype for the following function:

1. A function sum( ) takes two integer arguments and returns integer value.
2. A function print() has no argements and nonreturn value.

Answer:

1. int sum(int, int);
2. void print();

Question 7.
Differentiate actual arguments and formal arguments in C++.
Answer:
The argument that present in the called function is called the formal argument and it is present in the calling function is called an actual argument. The data type of both is the same.

Question 8.
Write the output of the following HTML code:
<OL Type = “I” Start = “10”>
<LI> keyboard </LI>
<LI> mouse </LI>
<LI> light pen </LI>
Answer:
10. keyboard
11. mouse
12. light pen

Question 9.
Describe any four values of Type attributes of the <INPUT> Tag in HTML.
Answer:
<Input> It is used to create input controls. Its type of attribute determines the control type.
Main values of the type attribute are given below.

1. Text – To create a text box.
2. Password – To create a password text box.
3. Checkbox – To create a check box.
4. Radio – To create a radio button.
5. Reset – To create a Reset button.
6. Submit-To creates a submit button.
7. Button – To create a button

Question 10.
Write a short note on a virtual private server.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server (VPS): A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS. This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but fewer features than dedicated hosting.

Question 11.
Define primary key and alternate key.
Answer:
Primary key – It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row.
Alternate key – A candidate key other than the primary key.

Question 12.
Write a short note on UNION operation in Relational algebra.
Answer:
UNION operation: This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by U. duplicate tuples are eliminated. Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order.
e.g. SCIENCE U COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

Question 13.
Differentiate the data type CHAR and VARCHAR in SQL.
Answer:
Char – It is used to store a fixed number of characters. It is declared as char (size).
Varchar – It is also used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.
the char data type is fixed length. It allocates maximum memory and maybe there is a chance of memory wastage. But Varchar allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.

Question 14.
Write a short note on Supply Chain Management.
Answer:
Supply Chain Management (SCM): This deals with moving raw materials from suppliers to the company as well as finished goods from the company to customers. The activities include are inventory (raw materials, work in progress, and finished goods) management, warehouse management, transportation management, etc.

Question 15.
Write a short note on the mobile operating system.
Answer:
Mobile Operating System: It is an OS used in handheld devices such as smartphones, tablets, etc. It manages the hardware, multimedia functions, Internet connectivity, etc. Popular OSs are Android from Google, iOS from Apple, BlackBerry OS from BlackBerry, and Windows Phone from Microsoft.

Question 16.
Define the following term:

1. SIM
2. MMS

Answer:

1. The network is identified using the SIM (Subscriber Identity Module).
2. Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS): It allows sending Multi-Media (text, picture, audio, and video file) content using mobile phones. It is an extension of SMS.

Part – C

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
Rewrite the following C++ code using the if…else statement:

switch (choice)
{
Case 1:
cout<<"one";
break;
case 0:
cout<<"zero";
break;
default;
cout<<"End"
break;
}
Answer:
if(choice==1)
cout<<“One”;
else if (choice==0)
cout<<“Zero”;
else
cout<<“End”;

Question 18.
Write the output of the following C++ code. Justify your answer.

for(i=1; i<5; i++)
{
cout<<“\t”<<i;
if(i==3)
break;
}

Answer:
This prints 1 2 3. This is because the value of i becomes ‘3’ then the break statement executes, it terminates the loop and hence the output.

Question 19.
Consider the following C++ code :
a) char name [20];
cin>>name;
cout<<name;
b) char name [20];
gets (name);
cout<<name;
Write the output in both cases if the string entered value is “NEW DELHI”. Justify your answer.
Answer:
a) The output is New. This is because of cin operator reads up to the delimiter space. The characters after space will not be read.
b) The output is New Delhi. This is because of the gets() function reads characters upto the user press the enter key, including space.

Question 20.
Define array traversal with an example.
Answer:
Traversal: All the elements of an array is visited and processed is called traversal
Eg:

#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int n[10], i, sum=0;
for(i=0; i<10; i++)
{
cout<<“Enter value for number”<<i+1<<":";
cin>>n[i];
if(n[i]%5==0)
sum+=n[i];
}
cout<<"The sum of numbers which are exact multiple of 5 is "<<sum;
}

Question 21.
Consider the following function definition in C++:

void sum (int a, int b=10, int c=20)
{
int sum = a + b + c;
cout<<sum:
}

Write the output of the above code for the following function call:
(a) sum (1, 2, 3);
(b) sum (2, 3);
(c) sum (3);
Answer:
a) 6
Here a = 1, b = 2 and c = 3
So the answer is 6

b) 25
Here a = 2, b = 3 and c = 20 (The default value)
So the answer is 25

c) 33
Here a = 3, b = 10 and c = 20 (Default values for b and c)
So the answer is 33

Question 22.
Compare client-side scripting and server-side scripting.
Answer:

Client-Side Scripting	Server Side Scripting
The script is copied to the client browser	The script is copied to the webserver
Executed by the client	Executed by the server and result gets back to the browser window
Used for Client level validation	Connect to the database in the server
It is possible to block by the user	Cannot possible
Client-side scripts depends on the type and version of the browser	It does not depend on the type and version of the browser

Question 23.
Write the HTML code to generate the following table:

Roll No	Name	Class
100	Vishnu	C1
101	Anupama	C2
102	Biju	A1

Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>
Table creation
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor="red">
<table border="1">
<tr align="center">
<th>Roll No</th>
<th> Name</th>
<th> Class</th>
</tr>
<tr align="center">
<td>100</td>
<td> Vishnu</td>
<td> C1</td>
</tr>
<tralign="center">
<td>101</td>
<td> Anupama</td>
<td> C2</td>
</tr>
<tralign="center">
<td> 102</td>
<td> Biju</td>
<td> A1 </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 24.
Classify the following values in JavaScript into suitable data type:
“Hello”, False, 125.0, 148, “True”, True
Answer:
String – “Hello”, “True”
Numeric – 125.0,148
Boolean – False, True

Question 25.
What is Content Management System? Write any two popular CMS software.
Answer:
Content Management System(CMS): CMS is a collection of programs that is used to create, modify, update, and publish website contents. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are examples of CMS.

Question 26.
Define the following terms:

1. Cardinality
2. Schema
3. Tuple

Answer:

1. Cardinality – The number of rows.
2. Schema – The structure of the table is called the schema.
3. Tuple means the rows.

Question 27.
Explain any three benefits of the ERP system.
Answer:
Benefits of ERP system
1. Improved resource utilization: Resources such as Men, Money, Material, and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase productivity and profit.

2. Better customer satisfaction: Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because the customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through the Internet.

3. Provides accurate information: Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage the future cunningly. A company can increase or reduce production based upon the right information hence increase productivity and profit.

4. Decision-making capability: Right information at the right time will help the company to take a good decisions.

5. Increased flexibility: A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes flexibility.

6. Information integrity: A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence reduce the redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Part – D

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each question carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
Consider the following HTML code and answer the following:
<EM> COMPUTER </EM> <BR>
<STRONG> APPLICATION </STRONG> <BR> <HR>
(a) Name the tag used to make the text as italics and bold in the above code. (1)
(b) What is the purpose of <HR> tag? Explain its any two attributes. (2)
(c) Write the HTML statement to scroll the text given in <EM> from top to bottom. (2)
Answer:
a) for Italics <I> or <i> is used
for bold <strong> or <b> is used
b) <HR> is used to draw a horizontal line. Its attributes are size, width, shade, and color.

c) <html>
<head>
<title>
Demo of Marquee
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor="red">
<marquee direction="down">
<em>hi welcome to BVM</em>
</marquee>
</body>
</html>

Question 29.
Consider the following JavaScript code:

function print ()
{
var i,
for (i=1; i<=10; ++i)
{
document.write(i);
document.write("<<BR>");
}
}

(i) Write the output of the above code. (1)
(ii) Rewrite the above code using a while loop. (2)
(iii) Modify the above code to find the sum of first 10 counting numbers. (2)
Answer:
i) It prints 1 to 10 line by line

ii) function Print()
{
var i;
i=1;
while(i<= 10)
{
document.write(i);
document.write (" <BR> ");
i++;
}
}

iii) function Print()
{
var i, sum=0;
for(i=1; i<=10; i++)
sum=sum+i;
document.write("The sum of first 10 countimg numbers is "+sum);
}

Question 30.
Define constrain. Explain any four-column constraints.
Answer:
Constraints are used to ensure database integrity.

1. Not Null – It ensures that a column can never have NULL values.
2. Unique – It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.
3. Primary key – Similar to unique but it can be used only once in a table.
4. Default – We can set a default value.
5. Auto_increment – This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That automatically generates serial numbers. Only one auto_increment column per table is allowed.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Computer Application
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Part – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The input operator in C++ is ___________
Answer:
>> or cin >>

Question 2.
_________ character is stored at the end of the string.
Answer:
NULL or ‘\0’

Question 3.
The process of breaking large program into smaller sub-programs is called __________
Answer:
Modularization

Question 4.
Name the keyword used to declare variables in JavaScript.
Answer:
var

Question 5.
Expand MIS.
Answer:
Management Information System

Part – B

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
List the type modifiers in C++.
Answer:
Type modifiers used in C++ are signed, unsigned, short and long.

Question 7.
Rewrite the following code using for loop:

int x = 1;
start:
cout<<x;
x = x + 5;
if (x < = 50)
goto start;

Answer:

for(x=1; x<=50; x+=5)
cout<<x;

Question 8.

1. Define an Array.
2. Initialize an integer array with 5 elements.

Answer:

1. Array: An array is a collection of elements with the same data type store in contiguous memory location.
2. int mark[] = {40, 42, 44, 46, 48, 50};

Question 9.
Write the port number for the following web services:

1. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol.
2. HTTP secure (HTTPS)

Answer:

1. 25
2. 443

Question 10.
What is the use of frame tag in HTML? What is its limitation?
Answer:
frame tag helps to view multiple web pages in a single window. The main limitation is that all browsers not supporting the frame tag.

Question 11.
Write the HTML code to display the following using list tag:
i) Biology Science
ii) Commerce
iii) Humanities
Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>list demo
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor="red">
<ol type="i">
<li> Biology Science</li>
<li> Commerce</li>
<li> Humanities</li>
</ol>
</body>
</html>

Question 12.
What is the difference between isNaN() and Number() functions in JavaScript?
Answer:
isNaN() function checks the given value is a number or not. If it is not a number it returns a true value otherwise false.
Number() function converts the data into numerical type.

Question 13.
What is CMS? Give two examples.
Answer:
CMS means Content Management System. It is a collection of programs that are used to create, modify, update, and publish website content. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are examples of CMS.

Question 14.
First table containing 4 rows and 3 columns, the second table contains 5 rows and 2 columns, then the Cartesian product table contains ______ rows and ______ columns.
Answer:
The number of rows is the product of rows, i.e. 4 × 5 = 20 rows
The number of columns is the sum of columns, i.e. 3+2 = 5 columns

Question 15.
How Business Process Re-Engineering (BPR) is related to Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?
Answer:
ERP and BPR will not make much change if they are in stand-alone. To improve the efficiency of an enterprise integrate both ERP and BPR because they are the two sides of a coin. For better results conducting BPR before implementing ERP, will help an enterprise to avoid unnecessary modules from the software.

Question 16.
Define the terms:
i) Cyber Forensics
ii) Infomania
Answer:
i) Cyber Forensics: Critical evidence of a particular crime is available in electronic format with the help of computer forensics. It helps to identify the criminal with help of blood, skin or hair samples collected from the crime site. DNA, polygraph, finger prints are another effective tool to identify the accused person is a criminal or not.

ii) Infomania: Right information at the right time is considered as the key to success. The information must be gathered, stored, managed and processed well. Infomania is the excessive desire (Infatuation) for acquiring knowledge from various modern sources like Internet, Email, Social media, Instant Message Application (WhatsApp) and Smart Phones. Due to this, the person may neglect daily routine such as family, friends, food, sleep, etc. hence they get tired. They give first preference to the Internet than others. They create their own Cyber World and no interaction to the surroundings and the family.

Part – C

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
Compare the selection statements ‘if’ and ‘switch’.
Answer:
Following are the difference between the switch and if-else if ladder.

1. Switch can test only for equality but if can evaluate a relational or logical expression.
2. If else is more versatile.
3. If else can handle floating values but switch cannot
4. If the test expression contains more variable if else is used.
5. Testing a value against a set of constants switch is more efficient than if-else.

Question 18.
Write a program in C++ to accept a string with white space like “good morning” from the keyboard and display the same string.
Answer:

#include<iostream>
#include<cstdio>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
char str[80];
cout<<"Enter a string:";
gets(str);
puts(str);
}

Question 19.
Compare static webpage and dynamic webpage.
Answer:

Static web pages	Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed	Content and layout is changed frequently
Never use database	Database is used
Run by the browser	It runs on the server and the result gets back to the client(browser)
Easy to develop	Not at all easy

Question 20.
i) What is the use of reserved characters for HTML entities? (1)
ii) List any four reserved characters and their use. (2)
Answer:
(i) HTML entities are used to print reserved characters in HTML.
(ii)

Character	Entity	Description
	 	Nonbreakable space
“	"	Double quotes
‘	'	Single quote
&	&	Ampersand symbol
<	&lt;	Less than symbol
>	&gt;	Greater than symbol
©	&copy;	Copyright symbol
TM	&trade;	Trademark symbol
	&reg;	Registered symbol

Question 21.
Write the built-in JavaScript functions used for the following situation:

1. Display warning message in the screen.
2. Character at a particular position.
3. Convert uppercase to lowercase.

Answer:

1. alert()
2. charAt()
3. toLowerCase()

Question 22.
Write the merits and demerits of free Webhosting.
Answer:
The name implies it is free of cost service and the expense is met by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia (audio and video) files.

Question 23.
What is the key? Explain any two keys in a relational database management system.
Answer:
Key is used to identify or distinguish a tuple in a relation.

• Candidate key – It is used to uniquely identify the row.
• Primary key – It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row.
• Alternate key – A candidate key other than the primary key.
• Foreign key – A single attribute or a set of attributes, which is a candidate key in another table is called a foreign key.

Question 24.
Define the term Data independence. Explain different levels of data independence.
Answer:
Data Independence – It is the ability to modify the schema definition in one level without affecting the scheme definition at the next higher level.

• Physical Data Independence – It is the ability to modify the physical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.
• Logical Data Independence – It is the ability to modify the logical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.

Question 25.
Explain any three situations to modify the structure of a table with the help of alter command in SQL.
Answer:
We can alter the table in two ways.
We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax,
ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 26.
Explain the merits of ERP system.
Answer:
Benefits of ERP system
1. Improved resource utilization: Resources such as Men, Money, Material and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase productivity and profit.

2. Better customer satisfaction: Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because the customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through the Internet.

3. Provides accurate information: Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage the future cunningly. A company can increase or reduce production based upon the right information hence increase productivity and profit.

4. Decision-making capability: Right information at the right time will help the company to take a good decision.

5. Increased flexibility: A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes flexibility.

6. Information integrity: A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence reduce the redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Question 27.
Compare GPRS and EDGE.
Answer:
GPRS (General Packet Radio Services): It is a packet-oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically^fiarged based on the volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

EDGE (Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution): It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

Part – D

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
Identify the built-in C++ function for the following cases:

1. to convert -25 to 25.
2. compare ‘computer’ and ‘COMPUTER’ ignoring cases.
3. to check the given character is a digit or not.
4. to convert the character from ‘B’ to ‘b’.
5. to find the square root of 64 or a number.

Answer:

1. abs()
2. strcmpi()
3. isdigit()
4. tolower()
5. sqrt()

Question 29.
(i) Write the name of the tag used to group related data in an HTML form. (1)
(ii) Write the HTML code to display the following webpage: (4)

Answer:
(i) <fieldset> tag

(ii) <html>
<head>
<title>
login page
</title>
</head>
<BODY BGCOLOR="cyan">
<FORM NAME="frmlogin">
<center>
User Name
<input type="text" name="txtname">
<br><br>
Password
<input type="password" name="txtpass">
<br><br>
<input type="Submit" value="Submit">
<input type="Reset" value="Reset">
</center>
</FORM>
</body>
</html>

Question 30.
Consider the table student with attribute admno, Name, course, percentage. Write the SQL statements to do the following:

1. Display all the student details. (1)
2. Modify the course’Commerce1 to’Science1. (1)
3. Remove the student details with a percentage below 35. (1)
4. Create a view from the above table with a percentage greater than 90. (2)

Answer:

1. select * from student;
2. update student set course=”Science” where course=”Commerce”;
3. delete from student where percentage<35;
4. create view stud view as select * from student where percentage > 60;

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Matrices.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 3 Matrices

Plus Two Maths Matrices 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Write A as the sum of a symmetric and a skew-symmetric matrix. \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 4 & -1 \\
2 & 5 & 4 \\
-1 & -6 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) (March – 2010)
Answer:

Question 2.
Consider the matrices
\(A=\left[\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 1 & 3 \\
2 & 3 & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right] \text { and } B=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-1 & 2 & 3 \\
-2 & 3 & 1 \\
-1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A+B
(ii) Find (A + B) (A-B) (May -2010)
Answer:

Question 3.
Given \(P=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -3 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) Find the inverse of P by elementary row operation. (March 2011)
Answer:

Question 4.
Let \(A=\left[\begin{array}{lll}
3 & 6 & 5 \\
6 & 7 & 8
\end{array}\right] \text { and } C=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & -3 \\
4 & 5 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)

(i) Find 2A
(ii) Find the matrix B such that 2A + B = 3C (May 2011)
Answer:

Question 5.
Let \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 4 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Apply elementary transformation R → R R1/2 in the matrix A.
(ii) Find the inverse of A by the elementary transformation. (May 2011)
Answer:

Question 6.
Consider the matrix \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A²
(ii) Find ksothat A2 = kA – 7I (March – 2012)
Answer:

Question 7.
Consider a 2×2 matrix
\(A=\left[a_{i j}\right]$ where $a_{i j}=|2 i-3 j|\)
(i) Write A
(ii) Find A + A^T (March – 2012)
Answer:

Question 8.
If \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 1 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then
(i) Find A²
(ii) Hence show that A² – 5A + 7I = 0. (March 2013)
Answer:

Question 9.
If a matrix \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}3 x & x \\ -x & 2 x\end{array}\right]\) is a solution of the equation x² – 5x + 7 = 0, find any one value of X. (May 2013)
Answer:

Question 10.
Consider the matrices \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & -2 \\ -1 & 3\end{array}\right]$ and $B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}a & b \\ c & d\end{array}\right]$\) \(A B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}2 & 9 \\ 5 & 6\end{array}\right]\), find the values of a,b,c,d (March – 2014)
Answer:

Question 11.
Consider a 2 x 2 matrix A=[a_ij] Where \(a_{i j}=\frac{(i+2 j)^{2}}{2}\)
(i) Write A
(ii) Find A + A^T (March – 2014)
Answer:

Question 12.
If X + Y = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}7 & 0 \\ 2 & 5\end{array}\right]\) and X – Y = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}3 & 0 \\ 0 & 3\end{array}\right]\) then
(i) Find X and Y.
(ii) Find 2X + Y. (May – 2014)
Answer:

Question 13.
i) If A, B are symmetric matrices of same order then AB – BA is always a ………….
A) Skew-Symmetric matrix
B) Symmetric matrix
C) Identity matrix
D) Zero matrix
(ii) For the matrix \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}2 & 4 \\ 5 & 6\end{array}\right]\), verify that A + A^T is a symmetric matrix. (March – 2015)
Answer:

Question 14.
Consider the matrix \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}3 & -2 \\ 4 & -2\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A²
(ii) Find k so that A² = kA – 21 (May – 2015)
Answer:

Plus Two Maths Matrices 4 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) Find the value of x and y from the equations \(a\left[\begin{array}{cc}x & 5 \\ 7 & y-3\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{cc}3 & -4 \\ 1 & 2\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}7 & 6 \\ 15 & 14\end{array}\right]\)
(ii) Given \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 2 \\ 3 & -1 \\ 4 & 2\end{array}\right], B=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}-1 & 4 & -5 \\ 2 & 1 & 0\end{array}\right]\) Show that AB ≠ BA (March – 2011)
Answer:

Question 2.
(i) Find a, b matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}0 & 3 & a \\ b & 0 & -2 \\ 5 & 2 & 0\end{array}\right]\) is skew symmetric matrix.
(ii) Express \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}7 & 3 & -5 \\ 0 & 1 & 5 \\ -2 & 7 & 3\end{array}\right]\) sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix. (May – 2012)
Answer:

Question 3.
Consider the matrices \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}2 & -6 \\ 1 & 2\end{array}\right]$ and $A+3 B=\left[\begin{array}{cc}5 & -3 \\ -2 & -1\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find matrix B
(il) Find matrix AB.
(iii) Find the transpose of B. (May – 2013)
Answer:

Question 4.
(i) The value of k such that matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc} 1 & k \\ -k & 1 \end{array}\right]\) is symmetric if
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) – 1
(d) 2

(ii) If \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\) then prove that \(A^{2}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos 2 \theta & \sin 2 \theta \\
-\sin 2 \theta & \cos 2 \theta
\end{array}\right]\)
\(\text { (iii) if } A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
4 & 1
\end{array}\right], \text { then find }\left|3 A^{T}\right|\) (March – 2017)
Answer:

Plus Two Maths Matrices 6 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Let A be a matrix of order 3 x 3 whose elements are given by a_ij = 21 – j
(i) Obtain the matrix A.
(ii) Find AT Also express A as the sum of symmetric and skew-symmetric matrix. (March – 2010)
Answer:

Question 2.
Consider a 2 x 2 matrix \(A=\left[a_{\theta}\right]\) with a_ij = 2ⁱ + j
(i) Construct A.
(ii) Find A + A^T, A – A^T
(iii) Express A as sum of a symmetric and skew-symmetric matrix. (May -2015)
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 1 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right], B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) then BA = _____
\(\begin{array}{l}
\text { (a) }\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] & \text { (b) }\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{array}\right] \\
\text { (c) }\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 1 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right] & \text { (d) }\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]
\end{array}\)

(ii) Write \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 5 \\
1 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) as the sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix.
(iii) Find the inverse of \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & -6 \\
1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) (March 2016)
Answer:

Question 4.
(i) If the matrix A is both symmetric and skew-symmetric, then A is a
(a) diagonal matrix
(b) zero matrix
(c) square matrix
(d) scalar matrix

(ii) If \(A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 3 \\
-2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), then show that

(iii) Hence find A^-1 (May 2016)
Answer:

Question 5.
(i) The number of all possible 2 x 2 matrices with entries O or 1 is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 16
(d) 25

(ii) If the area of a triangle whose vertices are (k,0), (5,0), (0,1) is 10 square units the find k.
(iii) Using elementary transformations find the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 1 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) (May 2017)
Answer:

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) Find the principal value of \(\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\)
(ii) Prove that \(2 \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{24}{7}\right)\) (March – 2010)
Answer:

Question 2.
Prove \(2 \tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{2}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{7}=\tan ^{-1} \frac{31}{17}\) (March – 2015; March – 2016)
Answer:

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions 4 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) Find the principal value of \(\cos ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(ii) Show that \(\left(\frac{\cos x}{1-\sin x}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{x}{2}\) (March-2011)
Answer:

Question 2.
(i) The principal value of \(\cos ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(ii)Expresstan \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{\cos x}{1-\sin x}\right)\) in the simplest Form. (May – 2012)
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) Write the principal value of \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(ii) Show that \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)-\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{8}{17}\right)=\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{84}{85}\right)\) (March – 2013, Onam – 2017)
Answer:

Question 4.
(a) The principal value of tan’1 (-1) is \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4},-\frac{\pi}{4}, \quad \pi-\frac{\pi}{4}, \quad \pi+\frac{\pi}{4}\right]\)
(b) If \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\) then find the value of x. (May 2014)
Answer:

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions 6 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Match the following. (1 + 1 + 1 + 3 = 6) (May 2010)

Answer:

Question 2.
(i) Give an expression for tan(x + y)
(ii) Prove that xy < 1, \(\tan ^{-1} x+\tan ^{-1} y=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\right)\)
(iii) Using the above result prove that \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{2}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{3}=\frac{\pi}{4}\) (May 2011)
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) Show that \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{5}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{7}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{3}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{8}=\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(ii) Given that \(\cot 3 \theta=\frac{3 \cot ^{2} \theta-1}{\cot ^{3} \theta-3 \cot \theta}\), Show that \(\cot ^{-1} \frac{3 x^{2}-1}{x^{3}-3 x}, \quad|x|<\sqrt{3}$ is $3 \cot ^{1} x\) (May 2013 )
Answer: