To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 provide good practice.
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2
Time: 2 hour
Total Score: 60
Instructions:
- The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
- This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
- You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.
PHYSICS
Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20
Question 1.
Cheetah is the fastest animal on land. Its speed is given in different ways. Which among these is correct?
a) 25 metre pers
b) 25 m/s
c) 25 m/s2
d) 25 M/S
Answer:
d) 25 M/S
Question 2.
The folloing figures depict. two electro-magnets made from two iron nails of same size.
Statement 1: (a) is the strongest electromagnet as it has more number of turns of coil compared to(b)
Statement 2: (b) is the strongest electromaguet as it has less number of turns of coil compared to (a)
Options:
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
c) Only the first statement is correct
Section – B
Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 6 and 7 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)
Question 3.
A person start from A, moves through B, C and reaches D in 30 s.
a) Calculate the distance.
b) Find out the speed.
Answer:
a) Distance covered from A to D
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 m
b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{30 \mathrm{~m}}{30 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 1 m/s
Question 4.
A child measures the total thickness of the papers of his science diary having 200 sheets and finds it to be 2 cm. Find the thickness of one of these papers in SI unit.
Answer:
Thickness of one paper = \( \frac{Height of the pile of papers }{No. of papers}\)
Thickness of one paper = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~cm}}{200}=\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~cm}\)
= 0. 01 cm
Thickness of paper in SI unit = \(\frac{0.01 \mathrm{~cm}}{100}\)
= 0.0001 m
Question 5.
Rahul care fully cut the bar magnet he had exactly into two pieces to observe whether it becomes a magnet with only a south pole. What is your conclusion? Why?
Answer:
No, it does not become a magnet with only a south pole. Every broken piece of a magnet, no matter how small it is, it will always have both south and north poles. A magnet with only one pole does not exist
Question 6.
A. Calculate the force exerted by atmospheric pressure on a table surface of area 3 m2. Atmospheric pressure is 101325 Pascal.
Answer:
A. Force = Pressure × Area
= 1 Pa × 3 m2
= 101325 × 3
= 303975 N
OR
B. The weight of the air column over unit area of earth’s surface is atmospheric pressure.
a) What is standard atmospheric pressure?
b) Name the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
a) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is known as standard atmospheric pressure. It is defined as the weight of a mercury column that is 0.76 m high, with a unit cross sectional area, exerting a pressure of 1 atm.
b) Barometer.
Question 7.
A. When certain bodies are rubbed against one another, electron transfer takes place between them. Complet the table give below on the basis of this concept.
| Pair of bodies used for rubbing | Body that loses electrons | Body that receives negative charge |
| Ebonite, Wool | (a) | (b) |
| Glass rod, Silk | (c) | (d) |
Answer:
a) Wool
b) Ebonite
c) Glass rod
d) Silk cloth
OR
B. a) Mention the method to confirm whether bodies possess charge?
b) What is the unit of charge?
Answer:
a) From the property of repulsion.
b) coulomb
Question 8.
Correct the following statements if there are any mistakes in them.
a) The virtual image formed by convex mirror is always magnified.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called convex mirrors.
Answer:
a) The virtual image is formed by convex mirror is always diminished.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called concave mirrors.
Section – C
Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)
Question 9.
A ray of light is made to fall on the pole of a concave mirror making an angle 30° with the principal axis.
a) What is the angle of reflection?
b) Justify your answer.
c) Draw the ray diagram.
Answer:
a) Angle of reflection = 30°
b) The ray falling at the pole reflects at an angle equal to that of the incident angle.
c)
Question 10.
A. a) The pole of a magnet attracts an iron nail which has no magnetic power. Describe the working behind this.
b) What are the factors that the attractive force of two magnetic poles depend on?
Answer:
a) The magnet attracts the iron nail brought near the pole of a magnet as the result of magnetic induction. If a magnetic material is bought near the magnetic field of the magnet, an unlike pole is induced at its near end. The pole of permanent magnet attracts the newly formed unlike poles. That is why the magnetic pole attracts a magnetic material near it.
b) The attractive force between the magnetic poles increases with increase in the strength of the pole and decreases with increase in the distance between the poles.
OR
B. a) What do you mean by susceptibility and retentivity?
b) Compare soft iron and steel in terms of its susceptibility and retentivity
Answer:
a) Susceptibility is the ability of magnetic materials to get magnetised due to the influence of an external magnetic field.
b) Retentivity is the ability to retain the magnetism.
| Soft iron | Steel |
| • The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is low’. | • The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is very high |
| • Its susceptibility is very high. | • Its susceptibility is very low |
CHEMISTRY
Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20
Section – A
Answer all the questions from 1 to 2.1 score each. (2 × 1 = 2)
Question 1.
Match the following.
Substances
i) Lemon juice
ii) Yoghurt/Buttermilk
iii) Tamarind
iv) Vinegar
Acid responsible for the sour taste
a) Lactic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Tartaric acid
Choose the correct order.
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
D) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
Answer:
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
Question 2.
Two statements related to steam and boiling water are given below. Examine them and choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Boiling water causes more severe bums than steam since it has a higher temperature. Statement 2: Steam contains more energy than boiling water.
Options:
A) Both statements are correct
B) Only the second statement is correct.
C) Only the first statement is correct
D) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer:
B) Only the second statement is correct.
Section – B
Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)
Question 3.
Magnesium is taken in a test tube, and a liquid is added to it. A vigorous chemical reaction occurs, and a gas is released. If a burning splinter is shown to. the gas, it bums with a “pop” sound.
a) Identify the probable liquid added to the test tube.
b) Which gas was produced?
Answer:
a) Dilute Hydrochloric acid
b) Hydrogen
Question 4.
(A) Polymers are macromolecules formed by the combination of many monomers.
a) How are polymers classified?
b) Classify the following: Cotton, Wool, Nylon, Silk, Bakelite, Jute, PVC, Polythene
Answer:
a) Polymers are classified into natural polymers and synthetic polymers,
b) Natural polymers – Cotton, wool, Silk, Jute, Synthetic polymers – Polythene, Bakelite, PVC, Nylon
OR
(B) Identify whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the statements.
a) Thermosetting plastics cannot be reheated or melted to make new, reshaped products.
b) Monomers are macromolecules composed of many simpler molecules.
Answer:
a) True.
b) False. Polymers are macromolecules composed of many simple molecules.
Question 5.
Water pollution is a maj or issue we face today.
a) Write down any two situations in which water in your locality gets polluted.
b) Suggest a method to prevent water pollution.
Answer:
a) • Untreated sewage and wastewater
• Plastic and garbage dumping
b) • Reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture to prevent runoff into water bodies.
• Avoid dumping plastic, oils, and other non- biodegradable waste into water sources.
• Promote rainwater harvesting
• Raise awareness about water conservation.
Question 6.
a) What are periods and groups in the periodic table?
b) How many of these are there in the modem periodic table?
Answer:
a) The horizontal rows in the table are called periods and the vertical columns are called groups. Elements in a group show similar chemical properties.
b) Periods – 7
Groups – 18
Question 7.
Take 5 mL of sodium chloride solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of silver nitrate solution to it. Record the observations and conclusions of this experiment.
Answer:
Observation – Acurdy white precipitate is formed. Conclusion – Chloride (Cl–) ion react with silver nitrate to form white precipitate of silver chloride.
Question 8.
(A) The modem periodic table that we use today is the result of the efforts of many scientists. Explain the
classification of elements done by the following scientists.
a) Lavoisier
b) Newlands
Answer:
(A) Antoine Lavoisier: Classified the then-known elements into metals and non-metals. Newlands: The elements were arranged based on mass number using the Law of Octaves.
OR
(B) a) How did Mendeleev classify the elements?
b) Write one advantage of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:
a) Elements were arranged in the ascending order of atomic mass using periodic law.
b) • Blank spaces were left for elements to be discovered and their properties were predicted.
• Elements with similar properties were grouped together to simplify the study of elements and their compounds.
Section – C
One question from 9 to 10 has a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)
Question 9.
Two activities are given:
(i) Take a little ammonium nitrate salt solution in a test tube. Add freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution
to it. Add concentrated sulphuric acid drop by drop very slowly through the. sides of the test tube.
(ii) Take a little sodium carbonate salt solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to it. Pass the gas released from the test tube through clear lime water.
a) Write the observation of activity (i).
b) Write the observation of activity (ii).
c) Name the gas formed in activity (ii).
Answer:
a) A brown ring forms between the two liquids.
b) The lime water turns milky.
c) Carbon dioxide gas (CO2 gas)
Question 10.
(A) Two samples of water are given.
Sample 1 – Soap gives lather easily.
Sample 2 – Soap does not lather easily.
a) Which sample represents hard water?
b) Which among the following salts causes hardness of water? (Sodium carbonate, Magnesium chloride. Zinc hydroxide, Ammonium chloride)
c) Which type of hardness of water can be removed by boiling?
Answer:
(A) a) Sample 2
b) Magnesium chloride
c) Temporary hardness
OR
(B) Soap decreases the surface tension of water.
a) What is surface tension?
b) How does the decrease in surface tension benefit washing clothes?
Answer:
a) The surface of liquids acts like a stretched elastic membrane. The property responsible for this is called surface tension, b) When surface tension decreases, water can spread easily through the threads.
BIOLOGY
Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20
Section – A
Choices are given for questions 7,8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)
Question 1.
Match the scientists with their contributions.
| A | B |
| 1. Theophrastus | A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms |
| 2. Aristotle | B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs |
| 3. Ernst Haeckel | C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms |
| 4. Robert H. Whittaker | D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood |
Answer:
B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs
D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood
C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms
A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms
Question 2.
Choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Fossil studies also show that Pakicetus, the ancestor of the whales, had the physical
characteristics of a wolf, as well as a body structure suitable tr swimming.
Statement 2: The ancestor of the Whales was an ancient mammal called Pakicetus, which lived 60 million years ago.
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statements 1 and 2 are wrong
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
Answer:
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
Section – B
Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)
Question 3.
Observe the picture and answer the questions below.
a) Which farming method is shown in the picture?
b) What is the advantage of this farming method?
Answer:
a) Pet bottle farming
b) The maximise the use of space
Question 4.
Some organisms included in a food chain are given below.
a) Make a food chain using the given organisms. Which organism comes under the third trophic level in this food chain?
b) ‘Abiotic factors are essential
for the existence of biotic factors. ’ Justify this statement.
Answer:
a) Grass → Zebra → Lion , Vulture
Lion will corne under the third trophic level.
b) Abiotic factors are essential for the existence of biotic factors because they form the non-living foundation and physical environment that directly sustains, controls, and limits all life processes. Without the proper balance of ahiotic factors. biotic organisms cannot survive, reproduce, or forn iriable ecosystems.
Question 5.
Complete the table.
| Feature | Compund microscope | Electron microscope |
| The need for light | ____(a)____ | An electron beam is used instead of light |
| Magnification Power | Up to 1000 times. | ____(b)____ |
| Lens | ____(c)____ | ____(d)____ |
Answer:
(a) Light is needed.
(b) Magnifies objects more than a million times,
(e) Using multiple lenses,
(d) Electromagnets are used.
Question 6.
A 15-year-old student is experiencing acne and is also showing signs of developing an aversion to food.
a) Identify the hormonal change responsible for the acne.
b) Suggest a necessary dietary change she should make to ensure proper development, specifically addressing her aversion to food.
Answer:
(a) The increase in sex hormones (like androgen) during adolescence. which leads to the sebaceous glands producing more sebum.
(b) She must adopt a diet that provides the right nutrients needed for rapid growth to avoid the negative effects of the lack of essential nutrients (under-nutrition).
Question 7.
A. Observe the image and answer the questions below.
a) Identify the organism?
b) What are the characteristics of this organism?
Answer:
(a) Paramecium
(b) Eukaryote, unicellular organism, hetero- troph, has mobility.
OR
B. Pair the terms given in the box appropriately.
Tiger, Canis familiaris, Panthera tigris, Coconut Tree, Panthera leo, Cocos nucifera, Dog, Lion
Answer:
• Tiger -Panthera tigris
• Coconut Tree -Cocos nucifera
• Dog – Canis familiaris
• Lion – Panthera leo
Question 8.
A. a) What are the characteristics of the following agricultural products?
Palakkadan Matta rice, Malabar pepper, Kuttiyattur mango
b) On what basis are such agricultural products special?
Answer:
(a) They have been granted geographical indication status.
(b) Depending on the characteristics of the land where it is cultivated, the taste, colour, smell, and nutritional value of the products will vary. Based on this, agricultural products produced in certain regions are given Geographical Indication status.
OR
B. Select the ones related to artificial fertilisers from the ones given below.
a) Does not harm soil structure or decomposers.
b) A much smaller amount is sufficient compared to other fertilisers.
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
e) Plants get the nutrients released from these bio residues by the decomposers.
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.
h) Microorganisms are added to the soil to help fix nitrogen and phosphorus.
Answer:
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.
Section – C
Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)
Question 9.
Complete the list.
| Scientists | Contributions |
| ____(a)____ | They together proved that the fundamental units responsible for the origin of life can form from simple gases. |
| Sidney Fox | ____(b)____ |
| Joan Oro | ____(c)____ |
Answer:
(a) Harold Urey, Stanley Miller.
(b) Proved that molecules similar to proteins can be synthesised artificially.
(c) Adenine, one of the key building blocks of nucleic acids, was artificially synthesised.
Question 10.
A. ‘Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus’.
Explain and differentiate the cytoplasmic division in plant and animal cell.
Answer:
Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus. Cell division is completed only when the cytoplasm also divides following nuclear division. The plasma membrane folds inwards at the centre of the cell, and these infolded regions of the plasma membrane join together, which leads to the division of the cytoplasm, thereby two daughter cells in animal cells. Unlike animal cells where the plasma membrane folds inwards at the center of the cell, plant cell has a rigid cell wall to divide. There are small, membrane- bound vesicles containing cell wall materials that gather at the centre of the dividing cell, and they join together to form a cell plate. The cell plate formed divides the cytoplasm into two, forming two daughter cells.
OR
Question 10.
B. “Cell division is a process in which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells”.
a) What is the name of the process that causes the chromosome number to change 46 to 23?
b) In which specific organs do these gamete-producing cells undergo meiosis?
c) Describe the function of‘Meiosis Phase 1’ and ‘Meiosis Phase 2’ in the formation of gametes.
Answer:
(a) Meiosis
(b) It occurs in the sexual organs (specifically the testes in males and the ovaries in females).
(c) Meiosis Phase 1 is where the chromosome number is halved (46 to 23). Meiosis Phase 2 is similar to mitosis and results in the final four sperm cells and one ovum, and three polar cells.