Class 8

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf and Class 8 Social Science Chapter 10 Europe on the World Map Notes Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 10 Europe on the World Map Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science Europe on the World Map Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 10 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Look at the world map and answer the following questions.

(a) Which continent is located to the east of Europe?
Answer:
Asia

(b) Which ocean is located to the west of Europe?
Answer:
Atlantic Ocean

(c) Which ocean is located to the north of Europe?
Answer:
Arctic Ocean

(d) Which sea is located to the south of Europe?
Answer:
Mediterranean Sea

Question 2.
Find the latitudinal and longitudinal extension of Europe w ith the help of an atlas.
Answer:
Latitude: Generally, it is taken to be 36°O’ north to 71° 11’ north latitude.
Longitude: 25° W to 65° E

Question 3.
Find the location of the Black Sea with the help of an atlas. Observe the political map of Europe and identify the major countries.
Answer:
The Black Sea is located:

• To the southeast of Europe
• Between Eastern Europe and Western Asia

It is bordered by:

• Ukraine (north)
• Russia (northeast)
• Georgia (east)
• Turkey (south)
• Bulgaria (west)
• Romania (west/northwest)

Question 4.
With the help of an atlas, identify and list the countries that belong to the Scandinavian region.
Answer:
The countries that belong to the Scandinavian region are Denmark, Norway, and Sweden. While Finland and Iceland are often associated with them, they are technically part of the broader Nordic countries group due to historical, cultural, and linguistic differences.

Question 5.
With the help of an atlas find out the country through which the Volga River flows.
Answer:

• The Volga flows from Valdai Hills in western Russia
• Passes through cities like Volgograd, Kazan, and Nizhny Novgorod
• Finally empties into the Caspian Sea

Question 6.
Find out which countries have plateaus that are part of the Central Uplands and write down them.
Answer:
France, Germany, Belgium, Luxembourg

Question 7.
Identify the Caucasus Mountains from the topographic map of Europe given below. The highest peak in Europe is indicated by a triangle (A). Find and write the name of this peak.

Answer:
The highest peak in Europe is indicated by a triangle (A) within the Caucasus Mountain Ranges on the map. The highest peak in Europe, indicated by the triangle (A) in the Caucasus Mountains, is Mount Elbrus.

Question 8.
Complete the chart below regarding the topography of Europe.
Answer:

Question 9.
Discuss and present in the class what changes will occur in your daily life if you have to live in conditions similar to the Arctic climate.
Hints: Diet, clothing, agriculture
Answer:
(Hints)
If I have to live in conditions similar to the Arctic climate, many changes will occur in my daily life. Since the Arctic is extremely cold and covered with snow for most of the year, I will have to eat more high-energy and fatty foods such as fish, meat, and soups to keep my body warm. Fresh vegetables and Suits will be limited because farming is difficult in such cold regions.

My clothing will also change completely. I will need to wear thick woollen jackets, fur-lined coats, gloves, boots, caps, and layers of thermal clothes to protect myself from freezing temperatures and icy winds. Regular cotton clothes will not be useful there.

There will be big changes in agriculture too. Because the land remains frozen and there is very little sunlight in winter, crops cannot be grown easily. People mostly depend on hunting, fishing, and food brought from other places.
Overall, living in the Arctic climate would require changes in my food, clothes, daily activities, and the way I adjust to the harsh cold environment.

Question 10.
Complete the given list based on the subarctic climate.
Answer:

Countries	Plants	Animals
Norway, Sweden, Finland, Russia	Pine, Cedar	Lynx, Ermine, Silver fox

Question 11.
Identify the countries that experience the Eastern European Climate, such as Russia, Ukraine, Romania, Hungary, Bulgaria using Marble software.
Answer:
Countries with Eastern European Climate

• Russia (Western part)
• Ukraine
• Romania
• Hungary
• Bulgaria
• Belarus
• Poland (Eastern region)
• Moldova
• Slovakia
• Czech Republic (parts)

Question 12.
Complete the given table by examining the climatic features of Europe

Answer:

Climatic Region	Features
Arctic climate	Very short, cold summers (around 10°C) and long, harsh winters. No sunlight for 5-6 months in winter.
Subarctic/Taiga Climate	Mild, short summers; very cold winters. Temperature stays below 0°C for 5-7 months.
Eastern European Climate	Winter temperature falls below 0°C. Light rainfall in summer.
Western European Climate	Severe winters, moderate heat. Rainfall throughout the year.
Mediterranean Climate	Hot, dry summers and cold, rainy winters. Found around the Mediterranean Sea – Portugal, Spain, Italy, Greece, Croatia, etc.

Question 13.
With the help of an atlas, mark the areas of Europe that experience a Mediterranean climate on the given map.

Answer:

Question 14.
Prepare a note on how the topography and climate of countries like Norway, Sweden, and Finland influence population density.
Answer:
How Topography and Climate Affect Population in Norway, Sweden & Finland

• These countries are in Northern Europe, where the land is mostly mountains, forests, and lakes.
• Because of this rough land, it is hard to build houses, roads, or farms in many places.
• The climate is very cold, especially in the northern parts, with long winters and very little sunlight.
• Cold climate and difficult land make people avoid living in the northern and interior areas.
• Most people live in the southern parts of these countries, where the land is flatter, the weather is milder, and it is easier to grow food and find jobs.
• So, the population density is low in the north and higher in the south.

Question 15.
Complete the table of crops based on the farming methods in Europe.
Answer:

REGION	CROPS
Central and western Europe	Cereals and vegetables; livestock is also raised (Mixed farming)
Mediterranean region	Oranges, olives, grapes (Intensive farming in Mediterranean climate)
Steppes grasslands	Wheat, barley, com, oats (Extensive farming)

Question 16.
Look at the industrial map of Europe and find out which countries have the major industries given below and complete the table.


Answer:

INDUSTRIES	COUNTRIES
Iron	Germany Austria
Ship Building	Belgium, Netherlands and Croatia
Textiles	United Kingdom, Switzerland, Italy
Automobiles	England, Germany, France, and Sweden

Question 17.
Some of the major rivers in Europe are given below. Find out which cities are located on their banks and complete the table.

Answer:

RIVER	CITY
Thames	London
Tiber	Rome
Moskva	Moscow
Seine	Paris
Spree	Berlin ‘

Question 18.
Look at the atlas and find out which countries are neighbouring to Finland and complete the table.

Answer:

East	Russia
South	Estonia
North East	Norway
North	Sweden

Class 8 Europe on the World Map Questions and Answers Extended Activities

Question 1.
Mark the main topographical features on the outline map of Europe and display them in different colours in the class.
Answer:
(Hints)
When marking a physical (topographical) map of Europe, you should show the major mountain ranges, plains, rivers, plateaus, and seas. Use different colours for each feature to make the map neat and easy to understand.
1. Mountain Ranges (Use BROWN)

• Alps – Central Europe (France-Switzerland-Italy-Austria region)
• Pyrenees – Between Spain and France
• Carpathian Mountains – Central & Eastern Europe (Romania area)
• Ural Mountains – Boundary between Europe and Asia (Russia)

2. Plains (Use GREEN)
Great European Plain – Stretches from France through Germany, Poland to Russia

3. Plateaus (Use YELLOW)

• Central Uplands – Germany and surrounding areas
• Iberian Plateau – In Spain

4. Rivers (Use BLUE)

• Danube River – Flows through Central & Eastern Europe
• Rhine River – Flows through Switzerland, Germany, Netherlands
• Volga River In Russia (longest river in Europe)

5. Seas and Important Water Bodies (Use LIGHT BLUE)

• Mediterranean Sea – South of Europe
• North Sea – Between UK and Norway
• Black Sea – Southeast Europe ‘
• Baltic Sea – Near Sweden, Finland, and Poland

Question 2.
Collect pictures of the main flora and fauna of Europe and prepare a digital album.
Answer:
(Hints)

Question 3.
Prepare a project on ‘The influence of the topography and climate of Europe on the natural flora and fauna.’
Answer:
Project: Influence of Topography and Climate on the Flora and Fauna of Europe.
Europe has many different physical features like mountains, plains, plateaus and rivers. It also has different climates such as Mediterranean, temperate, continental and tundra.

These differences affect the plants and animals found in each region.
1. Influence of Topography Mountains: Very cold, steep slopes

• Plants: pine, fir
• Animals: snow fox, mountain goat
• Plains: Flat land, fertile soil
• Plants: oak, beech, grasslands
• Animals: deer, bison, wolves Plateaus: Moderate climate
• Plants: shrubs, mixed forests
• Animals: wild boar, fox

2. Influence of Climate Mediterranean Climate (South Europe)

• Hot, dry summers
• Plants: olive, lavender
• Animals: goats, rabbits Temperate Climate (West & Central Europe)
• Mild climate
• Plants: deciduous forests
• Animals: deer, bear, fox Tundra Climate (North Europe)
• Very cold
• Plants: moss, lichen
• Animals: reindeer, Arctic fox

Conclusion: Topography and climate together decide which plants and animals can live in Europe.

Question 4.
Prepare a brochure of the main tourist attractions of Europe.
Answer:

Europe on the World Map Class 8 Notes Pdf

Std 8 Social Science Europe on the World Map Notes

• Europe is the sixth largest continent. While the other six continents are separate landmasses, Europe is seen as a western extension of Asia.
• The vast landmass that includes Asia and Europe is called Eurasia.
• The Ural Mountains, the Black Sea, and the Caspian Sea to the east separate Europe from Asia.
• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe.
• The Central Uplands are located to the south of the North European Plain.
• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• Europe is the only continent in the world without desert.
• Antarctica is considered a cold desert.
• Arctic parts of Europe experience a tundra climate.
• The Taiga climate is experienced in the subarctic regions that lie south of the tundra region.
• The Western European Climate is characterised by severe winter, moderate heat, and rainfall throughout the year.
• A major reason for the population growth in Europe is immigration.
• Regional diversity exists in agriculture, intensive farming, extensive farming, and mixed farming are mostly
• practised depending on the availability of land and population density.
• Europe is a hub of diverse cultures, beliefs, and celebrations.
• Arctic and subarctic climates are generally experienced in Finland.
• Two-thirds of Finland is forested. Low quality coal (peat) is mainly found in Finland, which has relatively a few natural resources.

Introduction
This chapter, “Europe on the world map”, introduces Europe as a small but important continent located in the Northern Hemisphere. It has a variety of geographical features, such as high mountain ranges like the Alps, wide plains, green plateaus, and major rivers, including the Rhine and Danube. These landforms influence Europe’s climate, which includes Mediterranean, temperate, continental, and tundra types. Because of these climates, Europe has a variety of natural vegetation such as coniferous forests, deciduous forests, and grasslands along with wildlife such as deer, bears, bison, and reindeer. The society and people of Europe enjoy a high standard of living and follow different languages, customs, and traditions. The continent is also famous for its festivals and cultural centres, as well as museums, theatres, and historical monuments. The climate affects the social life of Europeans by influencing their food, clothing, houses, and occupations. Through these features, the chapter helps us understand Europe’s geography, culture, and way of life.

EUROPE

• Europe is the sixth largest continent. While the other six continents are separate landmasses, Europe is seen as a western extension of Asia.
• The vast landmass that includes Asia and Europe is called Eurasia. Europe was considered as the centre of the world by the Greek and the Roman scholars.
• Europe was recorded as a continent on world maps made by the Greeks and the Romans 2000 years ago. That is why Europe has been considered as a continent since ancient times.
• The area of Europe is approximately 1,03,55,000 square kilometres. This is only 7% of the world’s area.

Location Of Europe

• Europe is bordered by the Arctic Ocean to the north, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the south.
• The Ural Mountains, the Black Sea, and the Caspian Sea to the east separate Europe from Asia

The largest country in Europe is Russia. Only 25% of Russia’s land area is in Europe. The rest is in Asia. Europe includes the Russian region west of the Ural Mountains. This region’is known as European Russia. Nearly 75% of the Russian population lives in European Russia. The largest cities of Russia, Moscow and St. Petersburg, are also located in European Russia. Other large European countries include Ukraine, France, Spain, and Sweden.

GEOGRAPHICAL FEATURES
Europe has a diverse topography. The topography of Europe can be classified as follows:

• North Western Highlands
• Central Uplands
• North European Plains
• Alpine Mountain system

North Western Highlands

• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long¬term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places.
• Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

Fjords
‘IT-shaped valleys are valleys formed in a ‘U’ shape by the process of glacial erosion. Fjords are glacial valleys formed in this way on the coasts of high latitudes. Planktons grow abundantly in fjords where warm and cold-water currents meet. These areas are rich in fish as they come to feed on the planktons. Therefore, the Scandinavian region is famous for fishing.

North European Plains

• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there.
• The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

Glaciation And Weathering
Glaciers are moving mass of ice. As a result of their movement, different landforms are created and the
surface is changed. This process is called glaciation. Weathering is the physical, chemical, or biological
decomposition or disintegration of rocks on the Earth’s surface.

Central Uplands

• The Central Uplands are located to the south of the North European Plain.
• This area of land, filled with small hills, valleys, and plateaus, stretches from Ireland in the west to Russia in the east. The Rhine and Rhone rivers enrich this area with water.
• The different landforms that make up the Central Uplands are listed below:

Major Landforms Of The Cenj Rral Uplands

MAJOR LANDFORMS OF THE CENJ	RURAL UPLANDS
Landforms	Country
Rhine Valley, Vosges Mountains, Jura Mountains, Central Massif Plateau	France
Ardennes Mountains	Belgium
Black Forest Mountains, Harz Mountains	Germany
Maseta Plateau	Spain
Bohemian Plateau	Czech Republic

Alpine Mountain System

• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians.
• Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

FOLD MOUNTAINS:
The lithosphere, the outermost layer of the Earth composed of the crust, and the upper part of the mantle, is generally solid. The lithosphere is made up of irregularly shaped plates. These plates are several thousand kilometers wide and have an average thickness of 100 kilometres. Fold Mountains are mountains formed by the folding of rock layers at plate boundaries where plates collide with each other. Example: The Himalayas.

CLIMATE, NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE

• The general climate of Europe is characterised by mild summers and relatively severe winters. However, there is regional variation in climate.
• Latitude, topography, and the closeness of the ocean influence the climate. High latitude and the influence of mountains cause dry winter climate in the north and east.
• The influence of the ocean in the south and west leads to a moderate climate.
• Europe is the only continent in the world without desert. Most of Europe receives different forms of precipitation, such as rain and snow.
• Any area that does not receive more than 25 centimetres of annual rainfall is considered a desert. Antarctica, which is covered in snow all year round, is also a desert. Antarctica is considered a cold desert.

PRECIPITATION
Precipitation is the process by which water particles are released from clouds through continuous condensation and fall to the ground in solid, liquid form. The various forms of precipitation are rain, snow, sleet, and hailstones.

Arctic/Tundra Climate

• Arctic parts of Europe experience a tundra climate. The Arctic/Tundra climate is characterised by short, cold summers and long, harsh winters.
• While summer temperature rises to 10°C, winter temperatures drop from -25°C to -40°C.
• There is no sunlight here for 5 to 6 months in winter.

Long nights, harsh winters, and precipitation in the form of ice prevent the growth of plants. Due to this, only shrubs, lichens, and mosses that can withstand the cold generally grow in this climate. The lack of vegetation in the tundra climate also affects the animal life here. Only a few animals such as wolf, reindeer, polar bear, and Arctic hare with thick fur that can survive the cold, can be seen here.

Subarctic/Taiga Climate

• The Taiga climate is experienced in the subarctic regions that lie south of the tundra region.
  Although the short summers are mild and warm, winters are as harsh as those in the Arctic climate.
• Temperature is below 0°C for five to seven months of the year.
• Precipitation in the taiga climate is generally in the form of snow. The main vegetation of the taiga climate, is evergreen forests with coniferous trees. The main trees are pine and cedar. Lynx, ermine, and silver fox are the prominent animals in the region.

Eastern European Climate

• The eastern parts of Europe experience severe summers and extreme winters. This climate is known as the Eastern European Climate.
• Winter temperature often drops below 0°C. Light rain fall is common in summer.
• Due to the scanty rainfall and intense heat, large trees do not grow in areas experiencing this climate.
• The steppes experience the Eastern European Climate. The animals that are mainly found are antelope, wolf, and horse.

Western European Climate

• The Western European Climate is characterised by severe winter, moderate heat, and rainfall throughout the year.
• The Western European Climate is experienced in the northwestern European countries of Britain, the Netherlands, Belgium, southern Norway, Denmark, western France, and northern Spain.
• The presence of the Atlantic Ocean influences the climate here.
• The Western European Climate is suitable for plant growth. Deciduous trees with strong wood and broad leaves are found here. Examples of these are beech, elm, oak, birch, and ash. Animals like squirrel, fox, hare, deer, and wolf are also found here.

Mediterranean Climate

• Mediterranean climate is the climate experienced in the regions around the Mediterranean Sea.
  Portugal, Spain, Italy, Greece, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, and southern France experience Mediterranean climate.
• Mediterranean climate is characterised by hot, dry summers and cold, rainy winters.
  This is a climate where trees and shrubs grow well. Rosemary, lavender, olive, pine, orange, grape, and fig are the main plants. Rare species of animals such, as the Iberian lynx, Barbary macaque, Mouflon goat, Spanish imperial eagle, nuthatch are found in the Mediterranean region.

VITICULTURE
Grape cultivation in the Mediterranean region is very famous. Grape cultivation which is scientifically practiced, is called viticulture. Along with this, winemaking is also an important economic activity here.

SOCIETY AND PEOPLE
It is believed that humans migrated to many parts of the world from Africa. The human race, which arrived in Europe between 40000 and 50000 years ago, later spoke a variety of languages and followed different cultures. Overseas voyages and explorations paved way for the social, economic, political and linguistic developments of Europe.

Population:

• It is the sixth largest in size, Europe is the third most populous continent, behind Asia and Africa. . Russia is the most populous European country.
• Germany, the United Kingdom, France, and Italy are the countries behind Russia in terms of population

The population is not the same in all parts of Europe. The population is higher in the countries in the west, south, and east of the continent. Due to the geographical characteristics, the population and population density in the Scandinavian countries such as Norway, Sweden, and Finland are very low. The majority of the population in these countries lives in the coastal cities in the South.

• Due to the influence of different topography, culture, and immigration, different languages are spoken in Europe.
• Russian language is spoken by most of the people in Europe. In addition to this, German, French, Italian, English, and Spanish are also widely spoken.
• A major reason for the population growth in Europe is immigration. A large number of people from Africa, Central Asia, and South Asia migrate to the European Union countries.

Europe is one of the most developed regions in the world. The excellent climate, abundant natural resources, and technology make Europe industrially and agriculturally rich. This is one of the main reasons for immigration to Europe.

European Union: Initiated in 1957 by six countries – Belgium, Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg, and the Netherlands – the European Union was formed in 1993. The union, which began with the aim of economic unity and an internal market between countries, later focused on social, cultural, and political areas. The European Union was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2012 for its contribution to peace, reconciliation, democracy, and human rights.

Agriculture
Regional diversity exists in agriculture, intensive farming, extensive farming, and mixed farming

INTENSIVE FARMING	EXTENSIVE FARMING	MIXED FARMING
A farming method that increases production using advanced technology in densely populated areas.	A mechanised grain farming method that is carried out on a commercial basis over very large areas of land.	A method of raising livestock along with crops.
Cultivated in countries with a Mediterranean climate.	This type of fanning is practised in the steppes of northern Europe.	This type of farming is mainly found in central and western Eu­rope.
Oranges, olives, and grapes are mainly cultivated.	The main crop is wheat. Cereals such as barley, com, and oats are also grown	In addition to the production of cereals and vegetables, livestock are also raised.

Fishing
Fishing is a major occupation in the countries of Norway, Denmark, and Poland, which are bordered by the North Sea, the North Atlantic Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean. Cod, herring, salmon, halibut, and sea trout are abundant in these areas.

Great Fisher Bank
The Great Fisher Bank and Dogger Bank, on the coast of Denmark and Norway, are the most abundant fishing areas in Europe. In addition to these, the Mediterranean Sea, the Black Sea, and the inland lakes support a thriving fishing industry.

Industry
The Industrial Revolution led Europe to development. Europe’s iron and steel industry, textile industry, and manufacturing sector gained world attention.
Automobile Manufacturing Industry in Europe: European countries are at the forefront of vehicle manufacturing. Many companies that built fighter planes, trucks, and tankers for their country’s military during the world wars later turned to the automotive sector. Audi, Ferrari, Bugatti, Volkswagen, Mercedes-Benz, BMW, Rolls-Royce, Scania, Volvo, and Porsche are all European automobile companies that have admirers all over the world.

FESTIVALS AND CULTURAL CENTRES

• Europe is a hub of diverse cultures, beliefs, and celebrations. Europe’s diverse Christmas and New ‘ Year celebrations, Germany’s Oktoberfest, Spain’s La Tomatina, Bullfighting, the Netherlands’ King’s Day Carnival, and the Venice Carnival are some of the notable festivals.
• Famous landmarks such as the Eiffel Tower, the Leaning Tower of Pisa, and London Bridge, as well as cities that are famous for art, culture, and history, are major tourist attractions in Europe. Important Cities
• Paris: Paris is the most visited tourist place in Europe every year. Located on the banks of the Seine River, Paris is the capital of France. The Eiffel Tower and the Louvre Museum attract tourists to this city.
• London: Located on the banks of the Thames River, London is the capital and largest city of England and the United Kingdom.
• Berlin: Berlin is the capital and largest city of Germany. This city is located on the banks of the Spree River.
• Moscow: Moscow is the capital of Russia. It is the largest city in Europe, located on the banks of the Moskva River.
• Rome: Rome, the capital of Italy, is located on the banks of the Tiber River. Many monuments of the Roman Empire and Christianity are located here. The Colosseum in Rome is one of the ancient wonders of the world. In addition to these, Madrid, Athens, Amsterdam, Vienna, Barcelona, Lisbon, and Dublin are other major cities in Europe.

Land of a Thousand lakes

• The northern European country of Finland is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes.
  Although it is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes, Finland is actually home to more than 100,000 lakes, numerous rivers, and vast wetlands.
• The Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland lie to the south of Finland, and the Gulf of Bothnia lies to the southwest. The landscape, climate, and culture here attract many tourists.

CLIMATE AND SOCIAL LIFE

• Arctic and subarctic climates are generally experienced in Finland. Extreme cold and snowfall make life difficult for people in the northern parts of Finland. For this reason, the major populated areas are adjacent to the sea.
• One fifth of the Finnish population, called Finns, live in the capital, Helsinki. Many of the world’s major population areas are located in coastal areas. The reason for this includes: Easy Transportation and trade, Availability of food, Economic opportunities and favourable climate.
• Two-thirds of Finland is forested. Low quality coal (peat) is mainly found In Finland, which has relatively a few natural resources.

Due to the harsh winters, energy consumption is very high. The country’s main source of energy is hydroelectricity. However, winter hinders electricity generation. Severe winters and constant snowfall hinder construction work and transportation, and increase construction costs.

Land Of Happiness

• Finland topped the United Nations World Happiness Index in 2024. This is the seventh consecutive time that Finland has achieved this feat.
• Countries such as Norway, Sweden, Denmark and Iceland which experience Scandinavian topography and Arctic climate, are all in the top ten of the World Happiness Index, behind Finland.
• In addition, these countries also ranked highly on the Human Development Index prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of countries in the world. Many countries with favourable climate, topography, and natural resources are behind Finland in the happiness index. The will and hard work of the Finnish people to overcome adverse climate and topography and leap towards development can be set as an example to the world.

How Is The Happiness Index Prepared?
The happiness index is prepared based on six factors: Per Capita Income, social support, healthy life. expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption.

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf and Class 8 Social Science Chapter 9 Democracy: Meaning and Scope Notes Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 9 Democracy: Meaning and Scope Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science Democracy: Meaning and Scope Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 9 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
The below is a dialogue that highlights the importance of elections in a democratic system. What are the points that emerge from the dialogue?

Answer:

• Every citizen who is 18 years of age has the right to vote.
• Those who registered their names in the voters’ list can vote.
• People choose the government by voting.

Question 2.
Organise a panel discussion on the factors that hinder the Direct Democratic System in the modern world.
Answer:
(Hints: Conduct a panel discussion by using the given factors)

• Select the Topic (Factors that hinder the Direct Democratic System in the modem world)
• Choose the Panel Members
• Appoint a Moderator
• Start the Discussion with an introduction
• Key Factors (Large Population, Lack of Political Awareness, Slow Decision-Making, Influence of Wealthy Groups, etc)

Question 3.
Complete the table by comparing Direct Democracy with Indirect Democracy.

Answer:

Direct Democracy	Indirect Democracy
• The people rule directly	• The people rule through representatives
• All decisions concerning the state were made directly by the citizens.	• Council of ministers are responsible to the Parliament

Question 4.
Discuss and prepare a note on the merits and demerits of the Parliamentary System and the Presidential System.
Answer:

	Parliamentary System	Presidential System
Merits	Close relationship between the Executive and the Legislature Quick decision-making and easy law-making Flexible and adaptable	Stable executive Clear separation of powers Effective leadership
Demerits	Unstable government Possibility of executive domination Less separation of powers	Less accountability High cost of elections Possibility of domination

Question 5.
What are the different ways that individuals use to express their ideas?
Answer:

• Conversation
• Pictures
• Cinema
• Books / Writing

Question 6.
Organise a discussion and prepare a note on “Absolute Equality and Special Recognition of Talents.”
Answer:
Absolute equality means giving every person equal rights, respect, and opportunities without any discrimination. At the same time, individuals have different abilities, and society must give special recognition to talents in fields like studies, sports, art, and leadership. When everyone is treated equally and talented individuals are encouraged, both fairness and progress are ensured. Thus, equality and recognition of talents should go together for the overall development of society.

Question 7.
Find out from the surroundings what special considerations have been adopted to ensure equal justice and write them down.
Answer:

• Separate seats are reserved for the differently-abled on the bus.
• Reservation in education and jobs is provided for backward communities.
• Special coaches are arranged in trains for differently-abled passenger.

Question 8.
Prepare slogans, placards, posters and pamphlets to raise awareness in the society of various rights.
Answer:
(Hints)
Slogans:

• “Rights for all, justice for all!”
• “Equal rights make a strong society.”

Placard Ideas:

• “Right to Freedom: Speak, think, and express.”
• “Right to Life: Safety and protection for all citizens.”

Poster Message:
Right to Education “Open the doors of knowledge -Education is every child s right. ”

Pamphlets Content:
Every citizen has the right to Freedom: to speak, express, travel, and practice any religion.

Question 9.
Organise a debate on ‘The importance of the rule of law in a democratic system of governance.’
Answer:
(Hints: Conduct a debate by including the given points)

Points FOR the Topic:

• Ensures equality- no one is above the law.
• Protects citizens’ rights and freedoms.
• Prevents abuse of power by leaders.
• Helps maintain peace, order, and justice in society.

Points AGAINST the Topic:

• Sometimes laws may be misused by authorities.
• Strict laws without flexibility can cause delays injustice.
• Bureaucratic procedures may slow down government action.

Question 10.
Organise a seminar on “The Role of Political Parties in Strengthening Democracy.”
Answer:
Political Parties play an important role in creating political awareness and shaping public opinion in a democracy. Political parties facilitate the functioning of a democracy. The conferences, marches and speeches they hold are the most powerful political education programmes in a democracy. The aim of political parties is to win elections and gain political power by turning public opinion in their favour.

Question 11.
What are the factors that make the opposition essential in a democratic system?
Answer:

• Criticising and evaluating the government
• Gathering public opinion and suggesting alternative policies
• Examining and checking all activities of the administration
• Making democracy active through marches, conferences, and demonstrations.

Question 12.
Find and list out the reasons why India adopted a democratic system.
Answer:

• Democratic values influenced India’s freedom struggle and its leadership.
• All the movements in the freedom struggle adopted democratic methods.
• The leaders believed that only a democratic system could politically unify a region with such cultural and geographical diversify.
• Democracy provides a platform for different ideas to interact. j
• A democratic system can ensure a peaceful transfer of power between governments.
• It gives an opportunity for people to register their grievances and protests.

Question 13.
Organise a discussion on “The Importance of Universal Adult Franchise in Representative Democracy.”
Answer:
According to Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, all citizens of India have the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or class. When the Constitution came into existence, the voting age was 21 years. However, according to the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the voting age was reduced to 18 years from the 1989 election onwards. Many people opposed the implementation of universal adult franchise in India, where illiteracy was high. However, Jawaharlal Nehru took the stance that all citizens of India should have the right to vote. Even in European countries, where the rise of modem democracy occurred, workers and women did not have the right to vote in its early days. It is in this context that the universal adult franchise adopted by the framers of the Indian Constitution becomes increasingly relevant.

Question 14.
Organise a seminar on the features of the Indian democratic system.
Answer:
(Hints: Conduct a seminar by using the given keypoints)
Key Points to be Discussed (Features of Indian democracy)

• Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
• Universal Adult Franchise
• Parliamentary System
• Free and Fair Elections
• Independent Judiciary
• Multi-party System
• Federal System

Class 8 National Movement and Kerala Questions and Answers Extended Activities

Question 1.
Conduct an interview with a representative of the people about the features of the parliamentary system.
Answer:
(Questions for an Interview)

• What is your understanding of the parliamentary system?
• How does the parliamentary system ensure people’s participation in government?
• What is the role of the Legislature in this system?
• How is the Executive formed in a parliamentary system?
• Why is the Prime Minister considered the real head of the government?
• How does the parliamentary system help in protecting the rights of citizens?

Question 2.
Find examples of non-democratic governments from the governance systems of different countries around the world and prepare a digital presentation.
Answer:

• Country Type of Government
• North Korea Authoritarian / Single-party rule
• China One-party Communist state
• Saudi Arabia Absolute Monarchy
• Qatar Monarchy
• Monarchy Single-party Communist state

Question 3.
Find and write the names of the major political parties in different countries around the world.
Answer:
India – Indian National Congress (INC), Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP), Communist Party of India (CPI)
United States – Democratic Party, Republican Party )
China – Communist Party of China (CPC)
Russia – United Russia, Communist Party of the Russian Federation

Question 4.
Organise an awareness programme on various Rights Day using placards and pamphlets prepared in the class.
Answer:
(Hints)
Step 1: Select the Rights Days

• Human Rights Day (Dec 10)
• Child Rights Day (Nov 20)
• Consumer Rights Day (Mar 15)

Step 2: Form a Student Committee

Step 3: Collect Information

• What does the right mean?
• Why is the day observed?
• How can people protect these rights?

Step 4: Prepare Placards and Pamphlets

Step 5: Arrange the Venue and Conduct the Programme

National Movement and Kerala Class 8 Notes Pdf

Std 8 Social Science National Movement and Kerala Notes

• Direct Democracy. Switzerland is a country where direct democratic devices exist.
• Representative Democracy or Indirect Democracy is a system in which the people elect their representatives to govern.
• In democratic governance, there are two models in practice Parliamentary System and Presidential System.
• Freedom is defined as the absence of restrictions.
• The important freedoms are freedom to move, freedom to organise, freedom to assemble and freedom to express.
• Equality is the view that all people in the world are unique and valuable, regardless of discrimination based on religion, colour, gender, race, language, or nationality.
• In the modem view, justice means giving equal and due consideration to all individuals as human beings.
• Rights are the conditions necessary to lead a dignified and meaningful life as human beings.
• The right to freedom, the right to property, and the right to life are important Natural Rights. »
• The essence of the rule of law is that everyone is equal before the law and everyone will receive equal legal protection.
• The separation of powers among the branches of government, namely the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary, is very important in a democratic system.
• An election is the system adopted to elect the representatives of the people.
• The basis of the concept of secularism is a clear separation between the state and religion.
• India is the largest democratic country in the world. India has adopted a parliamentary system.
• The Parliament of India has two houses. The upper house is the Rajva Sabha. and the lower house is the LokSabha.
• No-confidence motion is a motion presented in the Lok Sabha expressing the lack of confidence in the current council of ministers.
• According to Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, all citizens of India have the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or class.
• In India, the government is formed by representatives elected by the people at the national and state levels.
• The judicial system of India consists of the Supreme Court at the top, the High Court next, and the lower courts below it.
• A political system in which many political parties exist and compete in elections is called a multi-party system.
• After the elections, when no party gets a majority in the Parliament, more than one party join together to form a coalition and form the government. Such governments are called coalition governments.
• Federalism is a system in which there is a constitutional division of powers between the central and state governments.

Introduction
The chapter “Democracy: Meaning and Scope” helps us understand what democracy means and why it is considered the most people-friendly form of government. It explains the basic factors of a democratic system, such as equality, freedom, justice, and active participation of citizens in decision-making. The chapter also describes how governments that do not follow democratic principles often restrict freedoms and deny people their rights. By comparing these systems, students can understand the value of democratic practices. Finally, the chapter highlights the major features of Indian democracy and explains how our Constitution protects the rights of every citizen, ensuring fairness, representation, and overall development of the nation.

DEMOCRACY
Democracy is built on the foundation of ideas such as Liberty, Equality, Justice, and Rights.
Democracy consists of governments that respect these values and do not intrude upon them. This means that there are limits to the activities of the government. These limits are set by the Constitution. Therefore, we can also call modem democracy a Constitutionalism; The democracy we see today has been formed through a prolonged process.

Development And Evolution Of Democracy
Greece: The Birthplace of Democracy
The origin of the democratic system can be traced to the city-states of ancient Greece. Among these city-states, Athens was the most prominent. The word ‘democracy,’ meaning the power of the people, is derived from the Greek words ‘Demos’ meaning people, and ‘Kratos’ meaning power. Athens had a culture that valued individual freedom and individual ability. All decisions concerning the state were made directly by the citizens. Similarly, the military leaders and judges were directly elected by the people. In this way, the democratic system in which the people directly participate in governance and law-making is called Direct Democracy. However, its greatest limitation was that slaves and women did not participate in the democratic system that existed in Athens.

Direct Democracy: In the Contemporary World
Direct democracy in its complete form cannot be seen anywhere in the world today. However, some of its devices still exist in many democratic systems.

• Switzerland is a country where direct democratic devices exist.
• As the size of the states and population increased, direct democracy in the Greek model became impractical. That is how, indirect democracy, or representative democracy, in which the people elect their representatives to govern, came into being.

Indirect Democracy or Representative Democracy
Representative Democracy or Indirect Democracy is a system in which the people elect their representatives to govern.

The representative democracy began in Europe in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. The growth of the British parliament led to the rise of the representative democracy. British parliamentary democracy gained strength through constant confrontation with the monarchy. In a parliamentary democratic system, the government is governed by a council of ministers that is collectively responsible to the parliament. Adult franchise and civil rights are milestones in the history of British parliamentary democracy. The French Revolutionary ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity have also made great contributions to the values of representative democracy.

Parliamentary System and Presidential System
In democratic governance, there are two models in practice Parliamentary System and Presidential System. Democratic systems are classified in this way based on the relationship between the executive branch and the legislature.

Features of the Parliamentary System	Features of the Presidential System
The executive branch is controlled by the legislature The powers of the head of the state are nominal The head of state is the King/Queen/President The head of government is the Prime Minister The Prime Minister is the leader of the party that has the majority in the legislature The council of ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the legislature	The executive branch and the legislature are separate The President serves both as the head of state and the head of government All executive powers are vested in the President The President is directly elected by the people The President is not accountable to the legislature

Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers
In the Parliamentary System, the council of ministers, led by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the legislature. The Council of ministers is collectively responsible for the decisions taken by each minister concerning their respective departments.

BASIC FACTORS OF A DEMOCRATIC SYSTEM
Several factors need to come together for the existence of a democratic system.

Freedom (Liberty)
Freedom is defined as the absence of restrictions.
That is, a state devoid of any external restrictions on individuals. Freedom also has a creative dimension. In this sense, an opportunity to develop the capabilities of individuals can also be defined as freedom. The important freedoms are freedom to move, freedom to organise, freedom to assemble and freedom to express. Of these, freedom to express serves as the foundation of democracy.

Freedom of Expression
“I disagree with what you say. But I will defend to the death for your right to say it. ” – Voltaire The above words indicate the importance of freedom of opinion and freedom of expression. Humans express their ideas in various ways. As you know, conversation is the primary means used by individuals to express ideas. For a Film Director, cinema is the medium to express ideas. A writer presents his views through books. If they are banned, the people’s right to know is denied. Sharing and evaluation of ideas and opinions is the most important thing in democracy.
According to J.S. Mill, no idea is completely wrong. There may be elements of truth in what we think is wrong. When we prohibit an idea that we think is wrong, we lose even the truth contained in it.

Freedom is not complete in the absence of restrictions. Therefore, some instructions and rules that individuals should and should not do are necessary for social life. It restricts the intrusion upon another person’s freedom. The value of freedom becomes meaningful only in a system where each individual respects the freedom of others. The thought that one’s own opinions and beliefs are more powerful than those of others leads to conflicts. In such cases, legal and political restrictions are needed.

Equality

• Equality is the view that all people in the world are unique and valuable, regardless of discrimination based on religion, colour, gender, race, language, or nationality.
• Equality is also the essence behind the concept of universal human rights.

However, equality does not mean that everyone should be treated the same way in all situations. It cannot be said that giving different considerations to different persons according to their ability is a violation of the concept of equality. For example, an award given for literature or a medal given for excellent performance in sports cannot be seen as inequality.

Political Equality	Social Equality	Economic Equality
Right to vote Right to contest elections Right to hold public office	Non-discrimination Equal status Equal opportunities	Right to work Equal pay for equal work Right to leisure

Justice
The concept of justice changes over time. In the modem view, justice means giving equal and due consideration to all individuals as human beings.

Equal Treatment for Equals	Proportionate Justice	Recognition of Special Needs
As human beings, all individuals deserve equal rights and equal consideration No discrimination on the basis of class, caste, religion, gender, or race	Justice  should  be proportionate to the ability and contribution of each person There    is no injustice in treating each person separately according to their ability	In a society where inequality exists, the weaker section and the backward can enjoy equality only if special rights are granted Methods such as reservation can be adopted to ensure equality

Rights
Rights are essential for the existence and growth of democracy. Rights are the conditions necessary to lead a dignified and meaningful life as human beings. What we desire or wish for is not necessarily a right. It is merely a claim. Only legally recognised claims are considered rights. Many prominent political thinkers are of the opinion that rights originated before the formation of the state and are natural in character.

• The right to freedom, the right to property, and the right to life are important Natural Rights.
• A bill of rights is included in the constitution of most countries as part of giving legal recognition to rights.
• The fundamental rights given in Part III of the Indian Constitution is an example of this.

Different Types of Rights

Political Rights	Civil Rights
Right to vote Right to contest elections Right to hold public office Right to criticise the government	Equality before the law Right to a free and fair trial Right to assemble and organise Freedom of expression
Economic Rights	Cultural Rights
Right to work Right to receive minimum wages Equal rights over the resources and property of the states	Right to preserve language and script Right to educate in the mother tongue Right of indigenous people to preserve their cultural heritage

Rule Of Law
The essence of the rule of law is that everyone is equal before the law and everyone will receive equal legal protection. The general laws of the country will apply equally to everyone. There will be no special laws for any group. Similarly, the government can fulfil its duties only through the process and principles prescribed by the legal system.

Separation Of Powers
The separation of powers among the branches of government, namely the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary, is very important in a democratic system. These three branches, while remaining independent in their respective areas, also check the activities of the other branches. If all these powers are concentrated in a single branch, it will lead to tyranny and endanger the freedom and rights of the people.

Election And Representation
Modem democratic countries generally follow an indirect democratic system. In indirect democracy, the rule of the people means that the representatives of the people rule for the people. Election is the system adopted to elect the representatives of the people. Elections should be free, fair, and held at regular intervals. For this, basic provisions regarding the right to vote and the conduct of elections should be included in the constitution of the country.

Secularism
The basis of the concept of secularism is a clear separation between the state and religion. The state will not have an official religion. At the same time, citizens will have the freedom to believe in any religion they wish. The state will treat all religions equally. In a democratic system, secularism is relevant in two ways. First, it treats all religions equally, regardless of minority or majority. Since the state does not have an official religion, it does not discriminate against any community on the basis of religion. Further, it provides citizens with equal justice and rights along with freedom of belief.

Political Parties
They play an important role in creating political awareness and shaping public opinion in a democracy. Political parties facilitate the functioning of a democracy. The conferences, marches and Speeches they hold are the most powerful political education programmes in a democracy. The aim of political parties is to win elections and gain political power by turning public opinion in their favour.

Opposition

• The opposition should have the freedom to criticise and evaluate the government.
• The freedom of the opposition to act is a sign of a healthy democracy.

A constructive opposition carefully examines and evaluates all the activities of the government. Along with criticising the wrong policies of the administration, it gathers public opinion and suggests alternative policies to correct them. The opposition is what makes democracy more dynamic. The marches, conferences, and demonstrations they organise make the political system more active. A political system that bans or restricts the opposition or imprisons opposition leaders is not good for democracy.

Constitutionalism
All modem democratic systems work according to the constitution. The constitution is the fundamental document that sets out the laws on which the authority of the state is based and the rights of its citizens. Along with the powers of the state, the fundamental rights of its citizens are also enshrined in the constitution. However, the government has certain limits to interfere with the fundamental rights of its citizens.

GOVERNMENTS THAT DO NOT ADHERE TO DEMOCRACY

Monarchy	The oldest form of government Power is transferred by inheritance All the power of the state is vested in the king/queen
Dictatorship	All the powers of the state will be concentrated in one person No one has the right to question or criticise the person who becomes the supreme leader of the state All forms of democracy, including elections, will be banned
Military Dictatorship	The military will rule directly There will be no democratic rights or other forms of democracy Protests and criticism will be suppressed by military force
Party Dictatorship	Only one political party governs All the powers of the state are concentrated in the party Democratic values, including freedom of expression, are completely prohibited
Theocratic State	Clergy will directly rule the state according to religious laws The official religion of the state shall be the basis of the legal system Everyone shall be obliged to believe in and follow the official religion

INDIAN DEMOCRACY
India is the largest democratic country in the world. There is perhaps, no other democratic process in the world where so many people participate. Elections are an essential factor in a democratic system.

Reasons Why India Adopted A Democratic System

• Democratic values influenced India’s freedom struggle and its leadership. .
• All the movements in the freedom struggle adopted democratic methods.
• The leaders believed that only a democratic system could politically unify a region with such cultural and geographical diversity.
• Democracy provides a platform for different ideas to interact.
• A democratic system can ensure a peaceful transfer of power between governments.
• It gives an opportunity for people to register their grievances and protests.

Features Of Indian Democracy
(a) Parliamentary System In India

• India has adopted a parliamentary system.
• The Parliament of India has two houses. The upper house is the Rajya Sabha, and the lower house is the Lok Sabha.

The party or coalition that wins the majority in the Lok Sabha forms the council of ministers. Although the head of state is the President, his powers are nominal. The real powers will be exercised by the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister. The council of ministers has collective responsibility to Parliament. The council of ministers can be removed from power by passing a no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha. No-confidence motion is a motion presented in the Lok Sabha expressing the lack of confidence in the current council of ministers. In a parliamentary system, the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister can continue in power only if it retains the confidence Of the legislature.

The Parliament can control the Council of Ministers through:

• Adjournment Motion
• Question Hour
• Calling-Attention Motion
• Zero Hour

(b) Universal Adult Franchise in India
According to Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, all citizens of India have the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or class.

When the Constitution came into existence, the voting age was 21 years. However, according to the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the voting age was reduced to 18 years from the 1989 election onwards. Many people opposed the implementation of universal adult franchise in India, where illiteracy was high. However, Jawaharlal Nehru took the stance that all citizens of India should have the right to vote. Even in European countries, where the rise of modem democracy occurred, workers and women did not have the right to vote in its early days. It is in this context that the universal adult franchise adopted by the framers of the Indian Constitution becomes increasingly relevant. Developed countries like Britain and the United States granted women the right to vote long after the implementation of democracy. In many states in the United States, the right to vote was granted to the Afro-American people only in the 1960s.

(c) Elected Government
In India, the government is formed by representatives elected by the people at the national and state levels.

The term of the government is five years. After the expiration of five years, new elections are held and a new government comes to power. Governing bodies in local self-government institutions are also formed through elections. All Indian citizens have the right to contest elections and hold public office, regardless of caste, religion, gender, and economic status. An Election Commission exists to conduct free and fair elections in India.

National Election Commission
The Election Commission is a constitutional institution in India for conducting free and fair elections. The Election Commission conducts elections to the office of President and Vice President, as well as to Parliament and state legislatures. The Election Commission is composed of a Chief Election Commissioner and two other Commissioners.

(d) Independent Judiciary and Judicial Review
The judicial system of India consists of the Supreme Court at the top, the High Court next, and the lower courts below it.

The judiciary is independent of the executive branch and the legislature. To ensure the independence of the judiciary, judges have a fixed tenure of service. The Constitution has set limits on the executive and legislative branches from interfering in the service and salary conditions of judges. The court is the guardian of the Constitution. In this sense, the court has the power to declare the unconstitutional acts of the executive and the legislature invalid through judicial review.

(e) Party System in India
Political parties play a vital role in the democratic system. Since independence, a multi-party system has existed in India. A political system in which many political parties exist and compete in elections is called a multi¬party system. From the first elections until 1967, the Indian National Congress dominated the general elections. After that, although the Congress retained power at the national level, it lost power in many states. Since the 1989 elections, the coalition system, in which more than one party joins to form the government, has been introduced in India.

Coalition Government
After the elections, when no party gets a majority in the Parliament, more than one party join together to form a coalition and form the government. Such governments are called coalition governments.

(f) Pluralism
As a nation, India is different from the nation-states of Europe. Nation-states in Europe were formed on the basis of the idea ‘one culture, one nation’. However, unlike Europe, the nation of India came into existence by giving equal rights and importance to diverse religious, ethnic groups and cultural streams. We have adopted a federal system to politically accommodate these differences. The rights of religious and linguistic minorities are included in the fundamental rights and are given special protection. 22 languages have been included in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Similarly, special provisions for the protection of tribal groups have been included in the 5th and 6th schedules. Some states have been given special status considering their cultural and social characteristics.

• India is a secular state. This is clearly stated in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution itself.
• The nation does not have an official religion. All religions are treated equally. Citizens have the freedom to believe in any religion they want.
• The Indian Parliament is the forum that represents all these diversities of India.

Federal System
A system in which there is a constitutional division of powers between the central and state governments. In this system, there will be an independent judiciary to resolve disputes between the centre and the states.

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf and Class 8 Social Science Chapter 8 National Movement and Kerala Notes Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 8 National Movement and Kerala Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science National Movement and Kerala Notes Questions and Answers

Class 8 Social Science Chapter 8 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Discuss in class and prepare a note on the defensive measures adopted by Pazhassi against the British by ensuring the support of the locals, and the steps taken by the British against him.
Answer:
Kerala Varma Pazhassi Raja organised strong resistance against the British with the help of the local people in Wayanad. He used the forest and hilly terrain to adopt guerrilla warfare tactics, making it difficult for the British to attack. The people of Wayanad supported him by providing shelter, food, and information. To crush his resistance, the British took several steps – they set up military camps at important places, built new roads to reach the interior areas, stopped the rice supply to Wayanad, and announced rewards for those who captured the rebels. Thomas Harvey Baber, the Sub-Collector of Thalassery, killed Pazhassi’s commanders and discovered his hideouts. Finally, Pazhassi Raja was killed bravely in an encounter at Mavilamthode in 1805.

Question 2.
What was the situation that prompted Paliath Achan and Velu Thampi Dalawa to fight together against the British? Discuss and present it in the class.
Answer:
Velu Thampi Dalawa, the Prime Minister of Travancore, and Paliath Achan, the Prime Minister of Kochi, were both angered by the growing interference of the British Resident, Macaulay, in their kingdoms’ internal affairs. Macaulay took control of Travancore’s administration, cancelled Velu Thainpi’s orders, and demanded immediate payment of tax arrears, which led to a conflict between him and Velu Thampi. In Kochi, Macaulay supported the enemies of Paliath Achan and interfered in state matters, which worsened relations there too. As both leaders realised that British control was destroying the independence of their kingdoms, they secretly joined hands and decided to fight together against British domination. Their united struggle became a symbol of courage and resistance against colonial rule.

Question 3.
‘ Examine the circumstances that led the tribal people of Wayanad to revolt and prepare a note.
Answer:
The tribal people of Wayanad, mainly the Kurichyar and Kurumbrar, revolted against the British due to their harsh and unjust policies. After these tribes supported Pazhassi Raja in his fight against the British, they were treated as enemies. The British seized their lands, stopped them from following their traditional farming methods, and forced them to pay taxes in money instead of goods, which created great hardship. Losing their land and freedom pushed them to rise in revolt. In 1812, under the leadership of Rama Nambi (Rama Mooppan), the Kurichyar started an armed rebellion. They captured important routes in Wayanad and attacked British troops at Sultan Bathery and Mananthavady with local support. Though the British later suppressed the rebellion, it showed the courage and determination of the tribal people to protect their land and rights.

Question 4.
Why did the farmers protest against the landlords and the British government? Prepare a note and present it to the class.
Answer:
The farmers of Malabar protested against the landlords and the British government because of their unjust and exploitative policies. After the British established control, they introduced high taxes and supported landlords who forced the farmers to pay large rents. Many fanners lost their land and were evicted when they could not pay these heavy taxes. The British also ignored the struggles of poor peasants and protected the interests of the rich landlords. This caused widespread poverty, suffering, and anger among the farmers. As a result, the peasants rose in protest against both the landlords and the British authorities. Most of these uprisings took place in South Malabar and were led mainly by Mappila farmers, and the British called them the ‘Mappila Riots.’ These revolts showed the farmers’ determination to resist exploitation and fight for justice.

Question 5.
Complete the table given below.
Answer:

Resistance	Area Where It Took Place	Situation
Pazhassi Revolt	Kottayam, Wayanad	British denial of tax collection rights and people’s support to Pazhassi.
Velu Thampi Revolt	Travancore	British intervention in internal affairs.
Paliath Achan’s Revolt	Kochi	British interference and support to his enemies.
Kurichyar Riot	Wayanad	Tax hike, eviction, and suppression of tribal rights.
Mappila Riots	South Malabar	Tax hike and eviction.

Question 6.
What are the social evils have you heard of?
Answer:

• Ban on ‘Panthibhojanam
• Child marriage
• Denial of education – Lower-caste people and women were not allowed to get education.
• Slavery – People from lower castes were treated as property and forced to work for landlords.
• Oppression of women – Women had very few rights and were often not treated equally in society.

Question 7.
Organise a seminar on ‘The role of the ideas of social reformers in the Kerala Renaissance.’
Answer:
(Hints)
The Role of the Ideas of Social Reformers in the Kerala Renaissance
1. Introduction: Begin the seminar by explaining the social conditions in Kerala before the Renaissance – caste discrimination, untouchability, denial of education, and inequality. Explain that Kerala Renaissance was a period of great social awakening that changed these unjust practices.

2. Objective of the Seminar:

• To understand the contributions of social reformers.
• To discuss how their ideas helped build an equal and modem Kerala.
• To learn the importance of social reform in bringing justice and equality.

3. Main Speakers

• Student 1: Sri Narayana Gum – Fought against caste system and promoted “One Caste, One Religion, One God for Man.”
• Student 2: Ayyankali -Worked for the rights and education of Dalits.
• Student 3: Chattampi Swamikal – Spoke against caste discrimination and promoted the idea of social equality.
• Student 4: Vakkom Moulavi – Led reforms among Muslims and promoted modem education.
• Student 5: Dr. Palpu – Worked with Narayana Gum for social justice and equality.

4. Discussion Points:

• How their ideas challenged social evils.
• The role of education in social reform.
• The impact of these movements on modem Kerala society.
• How their teachings remain relevant today.

5. Conclusion: Summarise that the Kerala Renaissance was a result of the tireless efforts of reformers who stood for human dignity, equality, and education. Their vision laid the foundation for the socially advanced Kerala we see today.

Question 8.
Prepare a note discussing the social situation that led to the struggle for the right to wear upper cloth.
Answer:
During the 19th century, Kerala society was strictly divided by caste, and people of lower castes faced severe discrimination in daily life. One example of this injustice was that Channar (Nadar) women of South Travancore were not allowed to wear upper cloth like the women of higher castes. This rule was meant to show their lower social status. When Channar women, with the support of Christian missionaries, began to wear upper cloth to protect their dignity, they were attacked and humiliated by upper-caste groups who tore off their clothes. This led to violent riots and protests in many parts of South Travancore. The situation reflected the deep inequality and lack of respect for human rights that existed at that time. Finally, after continuous struggle, on July 26, 1859, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a royal decree granting Channar women the right to wear upper cloth, marking a major victory against caste-based discrimination.

Question 9.
Prepare a newspaper report related to the Vaikom Satyagraha.
Answer:
(Hints)
The Vaikom Satyagraha: A Historic Struggle for Social Equality Vaikom, Travancore -1924
A powerful movement for social justice is taking place at Vaikom in Travancore. The Vaikom Satyagraha, which began in March 1924, is a peaceful protest against the ban that prevented people of lower castes from using the roads around the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple. Leaders like T.K. Madhavan, K. Kelappan, and K. P. Kesava Menon are guiding the struggle, while Mahatma Gandhi has also expressed his support for the movement. Protesters are courageously facing arrests and harassment by the police but continue their fight with great discipline and non-violence. The movement has gained widespread public attention and support from people across Kerala and India. After a long and determined struggle, the Travancore government has agreed to open three of the four temple roads to all castes. The Vaikom Satyagraha has become a symbol of equality and human dignity, inspiring future movements against caste discrimination in Kerala.

Question 10.
Organise a panel discussion on ‘Struggles for Civil Rights and their Achievements.’
Answer:
Panel Discussion: Struggles for Civil Rights and Their Achievements
Moderator: Today, we are discussing the important struggles that helped people in Kerala get equal rights and freedom.

Speaker 1 – Upper Cloth Agitation:
In old Travancore, Channar women were not allowed to wear upper cloth. When they started wearing it with the help of missionaries, upper-caste people attacked them. After many protests, in 1859, the Maharaja allowed them to wear upper cloth.

Speaker 2 – Vaikom Satyagraha:
In 1924, people of lower castes were not allowed to walk on the roads near the Vaikom temple. Leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K. Kelappan started a peaceful protest. With Gandhiji’s support, by 1925, three temple roads were opened to everyone.

Speaker 3 – Guruvayur Satyagraha:
In 1931, K. Kelappan and Mannath Padmanabhan led a protest asking that all Hindus be allowed into the Guruvayur temple. Many were beaten and arrested, but the movement helped people support temple entry for all castes.

Speaker 4 – Paliyam Satyagraha:
In 1947-48, people protested because lower castes were not allowed to walk,on the road near Paliath Achan’s house in Kochi. The movement, led by C. Kesavan, succeeded, and in 1948 all temples and roads were opened to everyone.
Moderator (Conclusion):

These struggles taught us the importance of equality, courage, and unity. They helped make Kerala a place where everyone enjoys civil rights and respect.

Question 11.
Complete the table given below.
Answer:

Struggles for Civil Rights	Situation
Upper Cloth Agitation	Ban on wearing clothes.
Vaikom Satyagraha	Ban on lower- caste people walking on temple roads.
Guruvayur Satyagraha	Ban on temple entry for lower- caste Hindus.
Paliyam Satyagraha	Ban on lower- caste people walking on Paliyam Road near Paliath Achan’s house.

Question 12.
What were the action programmes of the Civil Disobedience Movement in Malabar? Discuss and prepare a note.
Answer:
In Malabar, the Civil Disobedience Movement included various programmes to oppose British rule. People refused to pay taxes and boycotted foreign clothes and goods. Many public meetings and processions were organised to spread the message of independence. Students, farmers, and workers participated actively. Volunteers made salt in defiance of the salt law, showing their unity with Gandhiji’s call for freedom. Many leaders and participants were arrested, but the people of Malabar continued their struggle with courage and determination. These actions made the movement strong and helped to spread national awakening in the region.

Question 13.
Prepare a note discussing how the Malabar Rebellion became an important event in the Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
The Malabar Rebellion of 1921 was an important event in the Indian freedom struggle. It began as part of the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movements started by Mahatma Gandhi. In Malabar, these movements joined with the local tenant farmers’ struggles against the British and the landlords: The rebellion soon spread to areas like Eranad, Valluvanad, and Ponnani. Many poor farmers and tribal people took part, showing their anger against injustice and foreign mle. Although the British suppressed the rebellion with force, it revealed the deep discontent of the people and their willingness to fight for freedom. The Malabar Rebellion inspired later struggles and became a symbol of resistance against both colonial rule and social oppression.

Question 14.
Create a flip album including the popular protests and important events that took place in Malabar, Kochi and Travancore as part of the national movement.
Answer:
(Hints)
Malabar
Malabar Rebellion (1921)

• Anti-British and anti-landlord uprising.
• Led by Mappila peasants in Eranad, Valluvanad. and Ponnani.
• Showed people’s courage against British oppression.
  Add: Photo of freedom fighters or Malabar map.

Kochi
Paliyam Satyagraha (1947-48)

• Protest against untouchability and road restrictions near Paliath Achan’s residence.
• Led by C. Kesavan and other leaders.
• Resulted in temples being opened to all castes in 1948.
  Add: Image of protesters or Kochi temple.

Travancore
Upper Cloth Agitation (1859)

• Channar women fought for the right to wear upper cloth.
• Faced attacks from upper-caste people.
• Maharaja of Travancore granted them the right on 26 July 1859.
  Add: Drawing of Channar women.

Question 15.
Organise a seminar on ‘National Movement and Participation of Women in Kerala.’
Answer:
National Movement and Participation of Women in Kerala
Introduction: The freedom struggle in Kerala saw active participation from women who fought bravely against British rule. Their courage and contributions inspired many to join the national movement.

Main Points to Discuss:
Women Freedom Fighters:

• V. Kuttimalu Amma – Led processions and faced imprisonment during the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Accamma Cherian – Known as the “Jhansi Rani of Travancore,” she led protests against the British government.
• Parvathi Nenmenimangalam – Participated in the Vaikom and Guruvayur Satyagrahas.
• Annie Mascarene – Played a key role in the Travancore State Congress and later became a Member of Parliament.

Role in Protests and Movements:

• Women joined picketing, boycotts, and public demonstrations.
• They spread awareness and motivated others to join the struggle.
• Many women were jailed but remained determined.

Conclusion: Women in Kerala played a heroic role in India’s freedom struggle. Their bravery, leadership, and sacrifice remain an inspiration for generations.

Question 16.
Prepare a script for a digital presentation, including the activities of the Aikya Kerala Movement, with the aim of a state for the Malayalam speakers and the formation of the state of Kerala.
Answer:
(Hints)
Title: Aikya Kerala Movement and the Formation of Kerala

Slide 1 – Introduction:
Before 1956, Malayalam-speaking people lived in Travancore, Cochin, and Malabar. They wanted one state for all Malayalis.

Slide 2 -Aikya Kerala Movement:
The Aikya Kerala Movement started to unite all Malayalam-speaking regions. Leaders, writers, and> reformers supported this idea.

Slide 3 – Main Activities:
Meetings, articles, and cultural programmes were organised to spread the message of “One Kerala.”

Slide 4 – Important Leaders:
K. Kelappan, K. P. Kesava Menon, Pattom A. Thanu Pillai, and T. K. Madhavan worked actively for this cause.

Slide 5 – Formation of Kerala:
On November 1, 1956, Travancore, Cochin, and Malabar were merged to form Kerala, with Thiruvananthapuram as the capital.

Slide 6 – Conclusion:
The Aikya Kerala Movement united Malayalis and created a strong identity for Kerala — truly “God’s Own Country.”

Class 8 National Movement and Kerala Questions and Answers Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a project on the topic ‘Role of local resistance in fostering national consciousness.’
Answer:
Project: Role of Local Resistance in Fostering National Consciousness
Introduction: Before India became independent, many local struggles took place across the country. These local revolts, though small in scale, played a major role in awakening people’s awareness about foreign domination and the need for unity.

Local Resistance Movements

• Paika Rebellion (1817) – In Odisha, the Paikas revolted against the British due to unfair land policies and loss of traditional rights.
• Vellore Mutiny (1806) – One of the earliest soldier revolts in Tamil Nadu, it showed the growing resentment among Indian soldiers against British control.
• Santhal Rebellion (1855-56) – The Santhal tribes of Jharkhand rose against British exploitation and oppressive landlords.
• Malabar Rebellion (1921) – Peasants in Malabar (Kerala) revolted against the British and local landlords, combining religious and nationalist sentiments.
• Velu Thampi’s Revolt (1809) – The Diwan of Travancore fought against British interference in local administration.

Impact on National Consciousness

• These uprisings inspired later freedom movements.
• They revealed the cruelty of colonial rule and united people from different regions.
• They created heroes who became symbols of resistance.
• Local struggles helped develop the idea of a shared national identity and the dream of independence.

Conclusion: The local resistance movements laid the foundation for India’s national movement. Though they began as regional protests, their spirit of courage and defiance inspired the entire nation to fight for freedom.

Question 2.
Prepare a short biographical book based on the lives of the reformers who worked for social renaissance in Kerala in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries. Make it attractive by including pictures and messages.
Answer:
(Hints)
1. Sree Narayana Guru (1856-1928)

• Preached equality: “One caste, one religion, one God for mankind.”
• Built temples open to all and promoted education.

2. Chattampi Swamikal (1853-1924)

• Opposed caste system and superstitions.
• Promoted women’s education and social freedom.

3. Ayyankali (1863-1941)

• Worked for Dalit rights and education.
• Fought for the right to walk on public roads and attend schools.

4. Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi (1873-1932)

• Spread modem education among Muslims.
• Published Swadeshabhimani newspaper for social awareness.

5. Pandit Karuppan (1885-1938)

• Known as Lincoln of Kerala.
• Worked for the upliftment of backward communities.

Question 3.
Find out more struggles for civil rights in Kerala and prepare inquiry note.
Answer:
Inquiry Note: Struggles for Civil Rights in Kerala
Topic: Struggles for Civil Rights in Kerala Period: 19th – 20th Century
Objective: To understand the major movements in Kerala that aimed to secure equality, justice, and basic rights for all sections of society.

Main Civil Rights Struggles
Vaikom Satyagraha (1924-25)

• Aim: To secure the right for all castes to use the roads around the Vaikom temple.
• Leaders: T.K. Madhavan, K. Kelappan, and supported by Mahatma Gandhi.
• Result: Marked a major victory against untouchability.

Temple Entry Proclamation (1936)

• Issued by: Maharaja Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma of Travancore.
• Impact: Allowed all castes to enter Hindu temples – a big step toward social equality.

Guruvayur Satyagraha (1931-32)

• Aim: To allow entry of all Hindus into the Guruvayur temple.
• Leaders: K. Kelappan, A.K. Gopalan.
• Outcome: Strengthened the temple entry movement and equality reforms.

Ayyankali’s Movements

• Aim: To gain educational and public rights for Dalits.
• Action: Started schools for lower castes; organised protests for road and school entry.

Conclusion: These struggles helped Kerala move towards a just and equal society, ensuring civil rights and human dignity for all people, regardless of caste or community.

Question 4.
Prepare a digital magazine including the Aikya Kerala Movement and the formation of the Kerala state.
Answer:
(Hints)
“The Birth of Kerala – From Unity to Statehood”
1. Introduction: Before 1956, Kerala was divided into Travancore, Cochin, and Malabar regions. The idea of uniting all Malayalam-speaking people led to the Aikya Kerala Movement, which finally resulted in the formation of the state of Kerala.

2. The Aikya Kerala Movement

• Meaning: “Aikya” means unity — it was a movement to unite all Malayalis under one state.
• Started: In the early 20th century.
• Leaders: K. Kelappan, EMS Namboodiripad, K.P. Kesava Menon, and others.

Objectives:

• To unite Malayalam-speaking regions.
• To promote cultural and linguistic identity.
• To demand administrative efficiency and social development.
  (Add picture: map showing Travancore, Cochin, Malabar)

3. Formation of Kerala State

• Date: November 1, 1956
• Event: The State Reorganisation Act merged Travancore-Cochin with Malabar.
• First Chief Minister: E. M. S. Namboodiripad.
• Significance: Marked the realization of the Aikya Kerala dream.
  (Add picture: First Kerala Assembly or EMS Namboodiripad)

4. Achievements After Formation

• Development in education and health.
• Growth of Malayalam literature and media.
• Strong sense of unity and cultural pride among Malayalis.

5. Conclusion: The Aikya Kerala Movement was not just about redrawing boundaries – it was about unity, identity, and progress. The formation of Kerala on 1 November 1956 remains a proud milestone in our history.

National Movement and Kerala Class 8 Notes Pdf

Std 8 Social Science National Movement and Kerala Notes

• Kerala Varma Pazhassi Raja was a member of the Kottayam royal family in Northern Malabar.
• Thomas Harvey Baber, who came as the Sub-Collector of Thalassery, killed the commanders who were the strength of Pazhassi, and found out his military bases, forcing Pazhassi into a more defensive position.
• Velu Thampi was the Dalawa, or Prime Minister of Balarama Varma Maharaja, who ruled Travancore.
• The Prime Minister of Kochi, Paliath Achan, also faced problems with Macaulay.
• On 11 January 1809, Velu Thampi issued the “Kundara Proclamation” at Kundara in Travancore.
• Paliath Achan had opposed the interference of the British Resident Macaulay in the internal affairs of Kochi.
• The Kurichyar and Kurumbrar are tribal groups in Wayanad.
• The Kurichyar rebellion began in 1812.
• The equality and equity that we see today were not seen in the social life of that time. It was a society where superstitions and customs were widespread.
• A person’s social status was determined by the caste in which he was bom.
• Social reformers are those who fought against irrational customs.
• The women of the Channar community of South Travancore did not have the right to wear upper cloth like the women who were considered to be the upper caste.
• On July 26, 1859, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a decree removing restrictions on Channar women to wear upper cloth.
• The Guruvayur Satyagraha began on 1 November 1931 with the formation of a committee under the leadership of K. Kelappan and Mannath Padmanabhan.
• The Paliyam Satyagraha of 1947-48 was another protest in Kerala for the abolition of untouchability.
• The Malabar Rebellion was an anti-British and anti-landlord movement in Malabar.
• The Quit India Movement, which began across India on August 9, 1942.
• The 1932 ‘Nivarthanam’ or Abstention Movement was a powerful political agitation that took place in Travancore.
• In 1934, Congress workers who were interested in socialist ideas, met at Kozhikode under the presidency of K. Kelappan.
• On 1 July 1949, Travancore and Kochi merged to form Thiru-Kochi, an important step towards creating the Kerala state.

Introduction
This chapter “National Movement and Kerala” explains how Kerala took part in India’s national movement and how people fought for freedom and equality. It begins with “The Trumpet Sounds for the Preparation of War,” which describes the early signs of resistance against British rule. We learn about “The Dalawa Who Raised the Proclamation” and his brave actions, and the “Kurichyar Rebellion,” a heroic fight for justice. The chapter also discusses social reform movements that worked to end caste discrimination and the struggles for civil rights that brought equality to all. The flame of protest and national consciousness spread across Kerala, leading to the growth of political groups like the Congress Socialist Party. Finally, the chapter ends with the formation of the state of Kerala, marking the success of unity and progress.

THE TRUMPET SOUNDS FOR THE PREPARATION OF WAR

• Kerala Varma Pazhassi Raja was a member of the Kottayam royal family in Northern Malabar.
• In the early days, he helped the British in Malabar against the Mysore rulers. In return, an agreement was made that Pazhassi would be given the power to collect taxes in the Kottayam area.
• However, the situation changed when Malabar came under the control of the English East India Company through the Treaty of Srirangapatnam.
• The British handed over the power to collect taxes in Kottayam to Pazhassi’s uncle, the Kurumbranadu king Veera Varma, who was loyal to them. Protesting against this neglect, Pazhassi Raja appealed to the people not to pay taxes to the new rulers. This led to the conflict between Pazhassi and the British.

Defensive strategies Pazhassi adopted against the English East India Company:

The British realised that it would not be easy to defeat Pazhassi, who had put up a strong defence with the support of the people in Wayanad, which was full of forests and ravines. They took various measures against him.

• Military camps set up at strategic places
• New roads were built
• Rice supply to Wayanad was cut off
• A reward was announced for those who nab the participants in the rebellion

Thomas Harvey Baber, who came as the Sub-Collector of Thalassery, killed the commanders who were the strength of Pazhassi, and found out his military bases, forcing Pazhassi into a more defensive position. He attained a valiant death in an encounter with the Company’s army at Mavilamthode in Wayanad on November 30, 1805.

SRIRANGAPATNAM TREATY
This is a treaty signed on 18 March 1792 between Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore, and the English East India Company, following the defeat of Mysore in the Third Anglo-Mysore War. According to the treaty, the British received the regions of Malabar and Coorg, which were under Tipu’s control.

THE DALAWA WHO RAISED THE PROCLAMATION

• Velu Thampi was the Dalawa, or Prime Minister of Balarama Varma Maharaja, who ruled Travancore.
• In 1805, through an agreement signed between the English East India Company and the King of Travancore marked the end of the political freedom of Travancore.
• The British Resident Macaulay took control of the administration of Travancore.
• He cancelled the orders issued by Velu Thampi, the Dalawa (Prime Minister) of Travancore.
• Macaulay demanded immediate payment of tax arrears to the British company.
• This led to a conflict between Velu Thampi and the British.
• The Prime Minister of Kochi, Paliath Achan, also faced problems with Macaulay’
• Velu Thampi and Paliath Achan made a secret agreement to fight against the British.
• The joint forces of Travancore and Kochi attacked Macaulay’s camp in Kochi, but Macaulay escaped.
• On 11 January 1809, Velu Thampi issued the “Kundara Proclamation” at Kundara in Travancore.
• In this proclamation, he called on the people to fight against British rule.
• The Kundara Proclamation became a symbol of the people’s resistance against the British.

KUNDARA PROCLAMATION
Through this proclamation, Velu Thampi, the Dalawa of Travancore called upon the royalists and patriots to take up arms and prepare for a fight against the British who claimed to be protecting Travancore, but in reality, they were plundering our land and if they continued, the kingdom would be destroved.

Kochi And Paliath Achan
Paliath Achan had opposed the interference of the British Resident Macaulay in the internal affairs of Kochi. Besides, Macaulay gave shelter to an enemy of Paliath Achan which worsened the situation. Then Paliath Achan joined hands with Velu Thampi and launched a struggle against the British. Although he strongly resisted the British, he was eventually exiled to Madras by them.

Paliath Achan: The heads of the Nair family called Paliyam in the Kochi kingdom were called Paliath Achan. The Paliath Achans held the position of being the Chief of Ministers or the Prime Minister of the Kochi kingdom.

KURICHYAR REBELLION: A HEROIC STORY OF RESISTANCE

• The Kurichyar and Kurumbrar are tribal groups in Wayanad.
• The British considered them enemies after they supported Pazhassi in this rebellion.

Measures the British took against the Kurichyar and Kurumbrar:

• The tribal people’s tracts of land were seized
• They were not allowed to continue their traditional methods of farming
• The British demanded money instead of goods as tax

The Kurichyar rebellion began in 1812. The tribal people fought against the British by taking control of the routes to Wayanad and by gaining local support. Rama Nambi or Rama Mooppan was their leader. They directly attacked the British army stationed at Sultan Bathery and Mananthavady. But the British suppressed the Kurichyar rebellion by bringing in more soldiers from other places.

Peasant Discontent – Leads to Rebellion
A series of rebellions broke out in various parts of Malabar in the nineteenth century. William Logan, the Malabar District Collector, recorded in his investigation report that the British government’s tax policies, exploitation and eviction of landlords were the causes of these riots. There was protest and violence by farmers against the exploitative landlords and the British government. Since most of the participants were Mappila farmers of South Malabar, the British authorities and imperial historians referred to these uprisings as the ‘Mappila riots.’,

SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENTS

• The equality and equity that we see today were not seen in the social life of that time. It was a society where superstitions and customs were widespread.
• A person’s social status was determined by the caste in which he was born.
• As part of caste discrimination, many social evils such as untouchabilitv, unapproachability and travel bans existed in Kerala.
• Social reformers are those who fought against such irrational customs. The spread of modem education and the Renaissance thought supported their activities. Our land has given birth to many social reformers.

Social Reformers And Their Main Activities

STRUGGLES FOR CIVIL LIBERTY

Upper Cloth Agitation

• The women of the Channar community of South Travancore did not have the right to wear upper cloth like the women who were considered to be the upper caste.
• The Channar women, who appeared in public places wearing upper cloth with the support of Christian missionaries, were attacked by those who were considered to be the upper caste and their upper cloth was tom off.
• Subsequently, riots broke out in many places in Southern Travancore.
• On July 26, 1859, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a decree removing restrictions on Channar women to wear upper cloth.

Vaikom Satyagraha

• The Vaikom Satyagraha was a major struggle for the freedom of travelling that took place in Kerala when the national movement was gaining strength.
• The people who were considered inferior were not allowed to walk on the approach roads of Vaikom temple. The satyagraha began on March 30, 1924, in protest against this discrimination. This satyagraha was led by T. K. Madhavan, K. Kelappan, K. P. Kesava Menon and others.
• The Vaikom Satyagraha, which attracted national attention, ended with the mediation of Mahatma Gandhi. On November 23, 1925, all the roads on all three sides of the temple (except two lanes leading to the Eastern Gate) were opened to all Hindus.

Guruvayursatyagraha

• The Guruvayur Satyagraha was a movement that demanded all sections of Hindus be allowed to enter the Guruvayur temple.
• The Satyagraha began on 1 November 1931 with the formation of a committee under the leadership of K. Kelappan and Mannath Padmanabhan.
• When the protest intensified, the authorities were forced to close the temple for approximately a month. The volunteer captains of the movement, A. K. Gopalan and P. Krishna Pillai, were brutally beaten by opponents of the Satyagraha.
• When K. Kelappan began a ‘fast unto death’ in front of the temple, many people came from different places to support it. Finally, the fast was ended on the instructions of Gandhiji.
• When the Congress held a plebiscite in Ponnani taluk to ascertain public opinion about the temple entry,
  the majority of the people supported it. ‘
• In this way, the Guruvayur Satyagraha helped to create a favourable atmosphere for the entry of all sections of Hindus to the temple.

SAVARNA JATHA
To express solidarity with the Vaikom Satyagraha, a procession was organised from Vaikom to Thiruvananthapuram under the leadership of Mannath Padmanabhan. This is known as the ‘Savama Jatha.’

Pali Yam Satyagraha

• The Paliyam Satyagraha of 1947-48 was another protest in Kerala for the abolition of untouchability.
• The marginalised sections of the people were prohibited from walking on the road in front of the residence of Paliath Achan at Chennamangalam in Kochi.
• The Palyiam Satyagraha was organised by political parties and community organisations in protest against this injustice.
• The government responded with arrests and torture to suppress the satyagraha led by C. Kesavan and others.
• In 1948, when all the temples in Kochi were opened to everyone regardless of caste, restrictions on walking along Paliyam Road were lifted.

MIRACLE OF MODERN TIMES
On November 12, 1936, Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma, the ruler of Travancore, issued the Temple Entry Proclamation. Through this, the temples of Travancore were opened to all sections of Hindus. Gandhiji described this proclamation as a ‘miracle of modem times.’

THE FLAME OF PROTEST OF NATIONAL CONSCIOUSNESS
Malabar
The national movement was more active in Malabar than in other parts of Kerala. The formation of the Malabar District Congress Committee and the activities of the Home Rule League propelled the national movement forward. The Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movements received strong support throughout Malabar.

• As part of the struggle, people boycotted foreign-made goods, courts, schools and other government institutions. The strike witnessed active participation of women and students.
• The prominent leaders during the time were C. Kunhirama Menon, K. Kelappan, U. Gopala Menon, K. P. Kesava Menon, Muhammed Abdur Rahiman Sahib, E. Moidu Moulavi and Moyarath Sankaran.
• When the Salt Satyagraha gathered momentum all over India under the leadership of Gandhiji as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement, its impact was also felt in Kerala.
• The centre of the Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was Payyannur in Malabar.
• The satyagraha was led by K. Kelappan.

Satyagrahis from various parts of Kerala reached the Payyannur beach and participated. Also, under the leadership of Muhammad Abdur Rahman, the Satyagrahis violated the law and made salt on the beach at Kozhikode. The people who gathered there had to suffer the brutal thrashings of the police. The boycott of foreign clothes, picketing of liquor shops and the Khadi campaign were all part of the struggle.

Malabar Rebellion

• The Malabar Rebellion was an anti-British and anti-landlord movement in Malabar.
• It began when the tenant movement joined with the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movements.
• The rebellion took place in 1921 and spread to Eranad, Valluvanad, and Ponnani taluks.
• Many people, including landlords, officials, and peasants, lost their lives during the rebellion.
• The British used the Malabar Special Police and the army to stop the revolt.
• Leaders: Ali Musliyar, Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji, and M. P. Narayana Menon.

THIRURANGADI, POOKOTTOOR PANDIKKAD CLASHES
The British police attempted to arrest Vadakke Veetil Muhammad, the secretary of the Khilafat Committee in Pookottoor, on charges of theft. This led to clashes between the British police and the people, first in Tirurangadi and later in Pookottoor and Pandikkad. These were the major incidents that took place during the Malabar Rebellion.

Quit India Movement
The Quit India Movement, which began across India on August 9,1942, resulted in the arrest of prominent leaders, including Gandhiji. As a result, it became a violent movement unlike other Gandhian movements. The people of Kerala-including women and students-actively participated in the movement in Malabar, Kochi and Travancore regions. The Keezhariyur bomb case is a-major incident that took place as part of this.

Kochi
Since the establishment of the British sovereignty in Kochi, which was a princely state, there had been popular protests against it. The initial protests were aimed at establishing good governance. Later, protests began to gain political rights.

Electricity Strike: The Diwan of Kochi, R. K. Shanmukham Chetty, decided to hand over the electricity supply of Thrissur to a private company. In 1936, there was a popular uprising against the decision. Although the government suppressed the protest, this strike helped mobilise people to the forefront of protest.

Kochi Rajya Praja Mandal: An organisation named Kochi Rajya Praja Mandal was formed in 1941 with the aim of achieving responsible government. Ikkanda Warrier, Panampilly Govinda Menon and V. R. Krishnan Ezhuthachan led the activities of the Praja Mandal. It was decided to hold a nationwide protest to achieve responsible government and 29 July 1946 was observed as “Responsible Government Day.” Later, the Praja Mandal merged with the Indian National Congress. Ikkanda Warrier became the Prime Minister, and the first Congress ministry came to power in Kochi.

Travancore
The Malayali Memorial and the Ezhava Memorial were the early movements that awakened the political consciousness of the people in Travancore.

Malayali Memorial	Ezhaoa Memorial
Demand for adequate representation of people of Travancore in government jobs in Travancore On 1 January 1891, a petition signed by the people was submitted to the Maharaja, stating this demand Leadership – G. P. Pillai	Demand for adequate representation of Ezhava community in government service On 3 September 1896, a petition signed by members of the Ezhava community was submitted to the Maharaja. Leadership – Dr. P. Palpu

Abstention Movement

• The 1932 ‘Nivarthanam’ or Abstention Movement was a powerful political agitation that took place in Travancore.
• The Christian, Muslim, and Ezhava communities formed a political committee and led the movement jointly. They demanded proportional representation in government jobs and in the Legislative Assembly.
• C. Kesavan, N. V. Joseph and P. K. Kunju led the movement. The activities for responsible government in Travancore were carried out under the auspices of the Travancore State Congress. Pattom Thanu Pillai was the first president of the Travancore State Congress.
• They organised the agitation through petitions and direct-action protests.

THE CONGRESS SOCIALIST PARTY

• In 1934, Congress workers who were interested in socialist ideas, met at Kozhikode under the presidency of K. Kelappan. They decided to form a ‘Congress Socialist Party’ within the Indian National Congress.
• P. Krishna Pillai, E. M. Sankaran Namboothiripad and A. K. Gopalan led this faction.
• Several peasant struggles took place in Kerala under the leadership of the Congress Socialist Party. When the national movement gained strength in India through protests such as Non-Cooperation and Civil Disobedience, women in Kerala actively participated in the struggles. Embracing Gandhiji’s message, women were active in salt production, boycotting foreign clothes, and weaving and wearing khadi clothes. During the struggle period, there was also notable participation of women in the activities of eradicating untouchability and uplifting Harijans. Many women were imprisoned as part of the struggles. During this period A. V. Kuttimalu Amma and Ammu Swaminathan in Malabar and Akkamma Cheriyan and Annie Mascarene in Travancore led the national movement.

FORMATION OF THE STATE

• In 1921, the All Kerala Provincial Conference was held at Ottapalam with representatives from Malabar, Kochi, and Travancore.
• In 1928, the Payyannur Congress Conference led by Jawaharlal Nehru demanded a separate Kerala state in the future.
• After this, a committee was formed to work for Aikya Kerala (United Kerala).
• Aikya Kerala conventions were held in various places.
• On 1 July 1949, Travancore and Kochi merged to form Thiru-Kochi, an important step towards creating Kerala state.
• After the independence of India, the Fazal Ali Commission was formed to reorganise the states of India based on language. As per the recommendations of the commission, the state of Kerala came into existence on 1 November 1956 by merging Malabar and Thiru-Kochi. The taluks of Thovala, Agastheeswaram, Kalkulam and Vilavancode, which were part of Travancore, were added to the Madras State (present-day Tamil Nadu). The taluk of Kasaragod, which was part of south Karnataka, was added to Kerala.
• The general election in Kerala was held in February and March 1957, and on 5 April, the first ministry under the leadership of E. M. S. Namboodiripad assumed power in Kerala.

Students often refer to Kerala State Syllabus SCERT Class 8 Maths Solutions and Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Statistics Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SCERT Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Solutions Statistics

Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Chapter 13 Statistics Questions and Answers

Statistics Class 8 Questions and Answers Kerala Syllabus

Tabulation (Pages 203-204)

Question 1.
The number of members in 50 households of a village is listed below.

Make a frequency table and answer these questions:
(i) How many households have just two members?
(ii) How many households have four or fewer?
(iii) How many households have ten or more?
(iv) What size household occurs the most?
Answer:

(i) 5
(ii) 5 + 11 + 9 = 25
(iii) 1 + 1 = 2
(iv) 3

Question 2.
There are 44 children in class 8B. The list shows how far they come from, in kilometres.

Make a frequency table and answer these questions:
(i) How many children are from exactly 1 kilometre away?
(ii) How many are from more than 5 kilometres?
(iii) How many are between 5 and 10 kilometres?
(v) How many are from more than 10 kilometres?
Answer:

(i) 3
(ii) 21
(iii) 23
(iv) 4

Question 3.
The scores of 35 children in a test are given below:

Make a frequency table and answer these questions:
(i) How many children scored 20?
(ii) How many children got scores between 10 and 20?
(iii) How many scored less than 10?
(iv) What is the score most children got?
Answer:

(i) 1
(ii) 32
(iii) 0
(iv) 15

Another Form (Page 208)

Question 1.
Given below are the highest temperatures (in degrees Celsius) for one day in 40 towns. Make a frequency table.

Answer:

Question 2.
The heights (in centimeters) of 45 people who participated in a physical fitness test are given below. Make a frequency table.

Answer:

A New Picture (Pages 210-212)

Question 1.
The table shows the times 30 children took to complete a long-distance race. Draw a histogram of this.

Answer:

Question 2.
The table shows the daily incomes of 60 households in a locality.

Draw a histogram.
Answer:

Question 3.
Details of rainfall in June and July are given in the table below. Draw a histogram.

Answer:

Question 4.
The time taken by 25 women and 23 men to complete a race is given in the table below. Draw separate histograms for men and women.

Answer:

Question 5.
The weights of 45 children in a class are listed below.

Make a frequency table and draw a histogram.
Answer:

Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Kerala Syllabus Statistics Questions and Answers

Class 8 Maths Statistics Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a frequency table, the number of times a particular score occurs is called its:
(A) Tally
(B) Frequency
(C) Class
(D) Range
Answer:
(B) Frequency

Question 2.
Which of the following is used to represent grouped data pictorially?
(A) Bar chart
(B) Pie diagram
(C) Histogram
(D) Tally mark
Answer:
(C) Histogram

Question 3.
In a histogram, the width of each rectangle represents:
(A) Frequency
(B) Total number of items
(C) Class interval length
(D) Average score
Answer:
(C) Class interval length

Question 4.
If the classes in a frequency table are 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, etc., into which class would the number 20 usually be put?
(A) 10-20
(B) 20-30
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Answer:
(B) 20-30

Question 5.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: Tabulating data leads to some loss of specific information.
Statement II: A frequency table provides a concise presentation to draw general conclusions.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are true

Question 6.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: The height of a rectangle in a histogram shows the frequency of that class.
Statement II: Tally marks are used to count the number of occurrences of a score.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are true

Question 7.
Consider the following data set:
2, 3, 3, 4, 2, 5, 3, 2, 2
What is the frequency of the score 2?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 2
Answer:
(B) 4
The number 2 appears 4 times in the list.

Question 8.
In a frequency table for weights, a class is given as 30-35. Which of the following weights would likely be included in this class?
(A) 35
(B) 29.5
(C) 32.5
(D) 36
Answer:
(C) 32.5

Question 9.
If a class interval is 10-20, what is the length (width) of this class?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 30
Answer:
(B) 10

Question 10.
Why do we group data into classes (like 0-10, 10-20) instead of listing every single value?
(A) To make the calculation harder.
(B) To increase the number of rows in the table.
(C) To handle a large range of data concisely.
(D) To find the exact value of every individual score.
Answer:
(C) To handle a large range of data concisely.

Question 11.
Complete the table below based on the histogram.

Answer:

Question 12.
The teacher conducted a test in her class of 45 students. Their scores out of a total of 10 are given below.

(a) Construct a frequency table representing these details.
(b) Construct a bar graph?
Answer:

Question 13.
The list below gives the daily wages earned by 30 labourers. Prepare a frequency table of these.

(a) What are the daily wages of most labourers?
(b) How many get 250 rupees a day?
(c) How many get the least amount of wages?
Answer:

(a) 225
(b) 6
(c) 5

Question 14.
The table shows the daily expenditure of 60 households in a locality. Draw histrogram.

Answer:

Question 15.
Given below are the amounts of rainfall (in mm) for one day in 61 towns. Make a frequency table.
71, 74, 81, 73, 72, 71, 84, 92, 87, 11,
31, 21, 25, 37, 32, 41, 43, 42, 51, 43,
53, 26, 18, 15, 28, 36, 44, 33, 44, 50,
57, 58, 35, 13, 22, 51, 27, 52, 39, 61,
31, 34, 42, 53, 44, 45, 43, 47, 53, 62,
42, 67, 63, 41, 55, 62, 43, 63, 43, 64, 65
Answer:

Question 16.
The runs that a batsman got in 40 One-Day cricket matches are given below. Make a frequency table and answer these questions.

(a) How many centuries did he get?
(b) How many half-centuries?
(c) In how many games did he score less than 50?
Answer:


(a) 4
(b) 13
(c) 27

Question 17.
The heights of 30 children in a class are listed below. Mark a frequency table and draw a histogram.
42, 31, 48, 34, 75, 39, 69,
57, 57, 53, 52, 47, 41, 59,
46, 67, 45, 64, 53, 64, 59,
43, 50, 62, 52, 40, 57, 43, 61, 56
Answer:

Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Notes Kerala Syllabus Statistics

Statistics
Statistics is a broad mathematical discipline that studies ways to collect, summerize and draw conclusions from data.
It applies to a wide variety of academic fields from physical and social sciences to the humanities, as well as to business, governmental, and industry.
Data collected in its original form is called raw data.
Frequency: The number of times a certain value or class of value occurs.
Class: Several numbers are grouped in the frequency distribution.
Frequency distributions are portrayed as frequency tables, histograms, or polygons.
A frequency table can be used for both categorical and numeric variables.
Continuous variables should only be used with class intervals.

A frequency table can be represented in various ways.
1. If a small data set is given, we divide the table into three, they are number or name of the item, the tally mark, and frequency.
e.g., The scores children in a class got in a test are listed below:

The frequency table is given by,

2. If a variable take large number of values, the frequency table can be represented by using class intervals.
The table is divided into class intervals, tally mark and frequency.
e.g., The runs that a batsman got in 50 one-day cricket matches are given below.

The frequency table is given by,


For classes 35-40 and 40-45, we usually put 40 in the class 40-45.

Histogram
A histogram represents a frequency distribution by means of rectangles, whose width represents class intervals and whose height shows corresponding frequencies.
e.g., The graph below shows the amount of water 50 households use.

Students often refer to Kerala State Syllabus SCERT Class 8 Maths Solutions and Class 8 Maths Chapter 12 Trapeziums Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SCERT Class 8 Maths Chapter 12 Solutions Trapeziums

Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Trapeziums Questions and Answers

Trapeziums Class 8 Questions and Answers Kerala Syllabus

Sides and Angles (Page 194)

Question 1.
Draw the trapeziums below:

Answer:
(i) Construction Steps:
Draw AB = 6 cm
Mark E on AB, (EB = 2 cm)
Find D by drawing arcs of radius 3 cm with centre A and E.
Find C by drawing an arc of radius 3 cm with centre B and another arc of radius 2 cm with centre D.

(ii) Construction steps
Draw AB = 5 cm
Mark E on AB, (EB = 3 cm)
Locate point D by drawing a line of 60° from A and a perpendicular from E.
The point where they meet is D.
Locate point C by drawing a perpendicular from B and an arc of radius 3 cm from D.
The point where they meet is C.
Draw the line segments AD, DC, and CB to complete the trapezium ABCD.

(iii) Construction Steps:
Draw AB = 6 cm
Mark E on AB, (EB = 4 cm)
Locate point D by drawing a line of 3cm arc from A and a perpendicular line from E.
The point where they meet is D.
Locate point C by drawing a perpendicular from B and an arc of radius 4 cm from D.
The point where they meet is C.
Draw the line segments AD, DC, and CB to complete the trapezium ABCD.

Question 2.
The picture below shows four equal trapeziums joined together:

Draw this picture.
Answer:
Draw a rectangle with a length of 8 cm and a breadth of 4 cm.
Divide this rectangle into two squares with a side of 4 cm.
Consider one square and half a second.
Mark the midpoint of the sides.
Join as in the figure.

Isosceles trapeziums (Page 197)

Question 1.
The picture shows an isosceles trapezium with the midpoint of one base joined to the endpoints of the other base:

Prove that these lines are of the same length.
Answer:
An isosceles trapezium ABCD where AB || CD and the non-parallel sides are equal (AD = BC).
Let M be the midpoint of the base AB.
Consider the two triangles, ∆AMD and ∆BMC.

AD = BC (This is given because it is an isosceles trapezium.)
∠A = ∠B (The base angles of an isosceles trapezium are equal)
AM = BM
Since M is the midpoint of AB.
By the SAS (Side-Angle-Side) congruence rule,
∆AMD ≅ ∆BMC
Therefore, corresponding sides are equal:
DM = CM

Question 2.
Prove that the line joining the midpoints of the bases of an isosceles trapezium is perpendicular to both bases.
Answer:
An isosceles trapezium ABCD with AB || CD.
Let M be the midpoint of AB and N be the midpoint of CD.
Join M and N.

Join DM and CM to form a ∆MDC.
From the proof in Question 1, we know that DM = CM
This makes ∆MDC an isosceles triangle with CD as the base.
N is the midpoint of the base CD.
In an isosceles triangle, the line joining the vertex (M) to the midpoint of the base (N) is perpendicular to the base.
Therefore, MN ⊥ CD.
Since the bases of a trapezium are parallel (AB || CD), a line perpendicular to one base is automatically perpendicular to the other.
Therefore, MN ⊥ AB.

Question 3.
Draw the pictures below:
(i) Three equal isosceles trapeziums:

(ii) Three ether equal isosceles trapeziums:

(iii) Six equal isosceles trapeziums:

Answer:
(i) Three equal isosceles trapeziums:
Usually, this pattern forms a larger equilateral triangle (with a triangular hole in the center) or a linear strip.
Construct one trapezium, then construct the second one sharing a non-parallel side, and the third one sharing the next non-parallel side.

(ii) Three other equal isosceles trapeziums:
Draw an equilateral triangle, ABC. Find its centroid O.
From the centroid, draw a line to side AC parallel to side AB and mark the point as R.
Then, from the center, measure angles of 120° from OR, to mark point P on side AB and point Q on side BC.

(iii) Six equal isosceles trapeziums:
Draw two circles of radius 1 cm and 3 cm with the same centre.
Divide the circumference of both circles into 6 equal parts.
And join them to obtain six equal isosceles trapeziums.

Area (Page 200)

Question 1.
Calculate the area of the trapeziums shown below:

Answer:
(i) Parallel sides (a and b) = 5 cm and 3 cm
Distance between them (h) = 2 cm
Area of the trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(a + b)h
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (3 + 5) × 2
= 8 cm²

(ii) Parallel sides (a and b) = 5 cm and 3 cm
Distance between them (h) = 2 cm
Area of the trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(a + b)h
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (3 + 5) × 2
= 8 cm²

Question 2.
The picture shows four equal trapeziums joined to form a large trapezium:

Calculate the area of the large trapezium.
Answer:

Area of the trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(a + b)h
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (8 + 4) × 4
= 24 cm²

Question 3.
The picture shows a line drawn through the point of intersection of the diagonals of a parallelogram:

Prove that this line splits the parallelogram into two trapeziums of the same area.
Answer:
Let the parallelogram be ABCD.
Let the diagonals intersect at O.
Draw a line passing through O, cutting the side AB at P and the side CD at Q.

We need to prove that the area of trapezium APQD is equal to the area of trapezium PBCQ.
Consider ΔOAP and ΔOCQ:
∠AOP = ∠COQ (Vertically opposite angles).
OA = OC (Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other).
∠PAO = ∠QCO (Alternate interior angles, since AB || CD).
By the ASA Congruence Rule,
ΔOAP ≅ ΔOCQ
Therefore, Area(ΔOAP) = Area(ΔOCQ)
Area of Trapezium APQD:
Area(APQD) = Area(ΔADO) + Area(ΔOAP) + Area(ΔODQ)
Area(APQD) = Area(ΔAOD) + Area(ΔPOQ)
Actually, let’s use the half-area property.
The diagonal AC divides the parallelogram into two equal triangles,
so Area(ΔADC) = Area(ΔABC) = \(\frac {1}{2}\) Area(ABCD)
Compare Areas:
Area (APQD) = Area(ADQO) + Area(ΔOAP)
Substitute Area(ΔOCQ) for Area(ΔOAP)
Area(APQD) = Area(ADQO) + Area(ΔOCQ) = Area(ΔADC)
Since Area(ΔADC) is exactly half the area of the parallelogram, the trapezium APQD occupies exactly half the area.
Consequently, the remaining part (Trapezium PBCQ) must also occupy the other half.
The line splits the parallelogram into two trapeziums of equal area.

Class 8 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus Trapeziums Questions and Answers

Class 8 Maths Trapeziums Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A trapezium has parallel sides of length 8 cm and 12 cm. The distance between them is 5 cm. What is its area?
(A) 100 sq. cm
(B) 50 sq. cm
(C) 25 sq. cm
(D) 40 sq. cm
Answer:
(B) 50 sq. cm
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (8 + 12) × 5 = 50

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is true for an Isosceles Trapezium?
(A) All sides are equal.
(B) Diagonals are perpendicular.
(C) Non-parallel sides are equal.
(D) Opposite angles are equal.
Answer:
(C) Non-parallel sides are equal.
This is the definition of an isosceles trapezium.

Question 3.
In a trapezium, the sum of parallel sides is 10 cm and the area is 30 sq. cm. What is the height?
(A) 3 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 10 cm
Answer:
(B) 6 cm
30 = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 10h
⇒ 30 = 5h
⇒ h = 6

Question 4.
If a non-parallel side of a trapezium is perpendicular to the parallel sides, the figure is called a:
(A) Isosceles Trapezium
(B) Right Trapezium
(C) Rhombus
(D) Parallelogram
Answer:
(B) Right Trapezium

Question 5.
The area of a trapezium is calculated as half the product of the distance between parallel sides and the
(A) Product of parallel sides
(B) Difference of parallel sides
(C) Sum of parallel sides
(D) Sum of non-parallel sides
Answer:
(C) Sum of parallel sides

Question 6.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: The base angles of an isosceles trapezium are equal.
Statement II: The diagonals of an isosceles trapezium are of equal length.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are true.

Question 7.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: Any trapezium can be split into a parallelogram and a triangle.
Statement II: A trapezium is a quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
Reason:
Statement I is a standard construction method.
Statement II is false because a trapezium has only one pair of parallel sides.

Question 8.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, it is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Statement II: The opposite angles of an isosceles trapezium sum to 180°.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Both statements are true and II explains I.
(B) Both statements are true, but II does not explain I.
(C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(A) Both statements are true, and II explains I.
Isosceles trapezoids are always cyclic because their opposite angles are supplementary.

Question 9.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: To calculate the area of a trapezium, we need the lengths of all four sides.
Statement II: The area formula requires the lengths of parallel sides and the height.
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true.
(B) Statement II is true.
(C) Both are true.
(D) Both are false.
Answer:
(B) Statement II is true.
We don’t need all four sides, just the parallel ones and the height.

Question 10.
A line drawn through the intersection of the diagonals of a parallelogram divides it into two shapes. These shapes are:
(A) Triangles of equal area
(B) Trapeziums of equal area
(C) Rectangles of equal area
(D) Rhombuses of equal area
Answer:
(B) Trapeziums of equal area

Question 11.
If you cut an isosceles triangle parallel to its base, the bottom part formed is a:
(A) Parallelogram
(B) Isosceles Trapezium
(C) Rhombus
(D) Square
Answer:
(B) Isosceles Trapezium

Question 12.
Which property distinguishes a parallelogram from a general trapezium?
(A) It has four sides.
(B) It has parallel sides.
(C) Both pairs of opposite sides are parallel.
(D) Sum of angles is 360°.
Answer:
(C) Both pairs of opposite sides are parallel.

Question 13.
In an isosceles trapezium, if one base angle is 60°, what is the other base angle on the same parallel side?
(A) 120°
(B) 90°
(C) 60°
(D) 30°
Answer:
(C) 60°
Base angles of an isosceles trapezium are equal.

Question 14.
In an isosceles trapezium, if one base angle is 70°, what is the angle adjacent to the other parallel side (the angle on the same leg)?
(A) 70°
(B) 110°
(C) 90°
(D) 20°
Answer:
(B) 110°
Angles between parallel lines on the same side of a transversal sum to 180°.

Question 15.
To construct a trapezium when four sides are given, we usually first construct a:
(A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Triangle
(D) Rectangle
Answer:
(C) Triangle
We split the trapezium into a parallelogram and a triangle to find the third vertex.

Question 16.
A line joining the midpoints of the non-parallel sides of a trapezium is:
(A) Perpendicular to the bases
(B) Equal to the sum of the bases
(C) Parallel to the bases
(D) Equal to the difference of the bases
Answer:
(C) Parallel to the bases

Question 17.
Can a trapezium have three right angles?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only if it’s a square
(D) Only if it’s a rectangle
Answer:
(D) Only if it’s a rectangle
If three are 90°, the fourth must be 90° (360° – 270°), making it a rectangle, which is a special parallelogram, not a general trapezium.
So technically “No” for a strict trapezium definition, but usually considered a rectangle.

Question 18.
If the parallel sides are 4 cm and 8 cm, and the height is 4 cm, the area is:
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer:
(A) 24
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (4 + 8) × 4
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × 4
= 24

Question 19.
Draw the figure below.
Four equal isosceles trapeziums.

Answer:
Draw two parallel sides AB = 8 cm, CD = 4 cm.
AE = FB = 2 cm
EF = 4 cm
Also, GD = HC = 2 cm.
∠B + ∠BCD = 180°.
The angles at C are equal.
They are equal to B.
So ∠B = 60°, ∠A = 60°.
Now draw the pattern.

Question 20.
Area of a trapezium is 128 sq. cm, and the distance between its parallel sides is 8 cm. Length of one parallel side is 28 cm. Find the length of the other parallel side.
Answer:
Area of trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\)h(a + b)
This is given as 128 sq.cm
⇒ 128 = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × (28 + b)
⇒ 128 = 4(28 + b)
⇒ 28 + b = 32
⇒ b = 32 – 28
⇒ b = 4
Length of the other Parallel side = 4 cm

Question 21.
Compute the area of the trapezium shown below.

Answer:
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × DE × (AB + CD)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 4 × (8 + 10)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 4 × 18
= 4 × 9
= 36 cm²

Question 22.
Compute the area of the quadrilateral ABCD.

Answer:
Area of the quadrilateral ABCD = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × AC × (PD + BQ)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 5.5 × (2.5 + 1.5)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 5.5 × 4
= 11 cm²

Question 23.
In the figure AB || CD. AD = BC = 13 cm. The distance between the parallel sides is 12 cm. If CD = 20 cm. Find the area of ABCD.

Answer:
To compute AB

APD is a right-angled triangle
13² = AP² + 12²
169 = AP² + 144
AP² = 169 – 144 = 25
AP = 5 cm
Similarly QB = 5 cm
PQ = CD = 20 cm
AB = 20 + 5 + 5 = 30 cm
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × (30 + 20)
= 6 × 50
= 300 cm²

Question 24.
In the figure ABCD, AB is parallel to CD, and the distance between them is 8 cm.

AB = 12 cm, CD = 10 cm. Compute the area of the quadrilateral (trapezium) ABCD?
Answer:
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × DE × (AB + CD)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × (10 + 12)
= 4 × 22
= 88 cm²

Question 25.
Compute the area of the quadrilateral ABCD in the figure.

Answer:
Area of the quadrilateral ABCD = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × AC × (BX + DY)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × (4.5 + 3.5)
= 4 × 8
= 32 cm²

Question 26.
Calculate the area of the isosceles trapezium drawn below:

Answer:
Area of isoceless trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × h × (a + b)
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 4 × (7 + 3)
= 2 × 10
= 20 cm²

Question 27.
The parallel sides of an isosceles trapezium are 8 centimetres and 4 centimetres long; and non-parallel sides are 5 centimetre long. What is its area?
Answer:
Divide the isosceles trapezium into a rectangle and two triangles.

In ΔAPD,
PD² = AD² – AP² (by Pythagoras’ theorem)
= 5² – 3²
= 16
PD = 4 cm
Area of an isosceles trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × distance between parallel sides × Sum of parallel sides.
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 4 × (14 + 8)
= 2 × 22
= 44 cm²

Question 28.
The lengths of the parallel sides of a trapezoid are 30 centimeters and 10 centimeters, and the distance between them is 20 centimeters. What is its area?
Answer:
Area of the trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(a + b)d
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (30 + 10) × 20
= 400 sq.cm

Question 29.
Compute the area of the trapezium shown below:

Answer:
Consider the ∆PQS, which is a right-angled triangle

PS² = QS² – PQ²
= 13² – 12²
= 169 – 144
= 25
PS = 5 cm
Area of a trapezium = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (a + b)d
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × (12 + 4) × 5
= 40 sq.cm

Class 8 Maths Chapter 12 Notes Kerala Syllabus Trapeziums

Trapezium
A trapezium is a quadrilateral with only one pair of opposite sides parallel.
The parallel sides are called bases.
The non-parallel sides are called the other two sides.

Isosceles Trapeziums
A trapezium where the non-parallel sides are equal in length is called an isosceles trapezium.
Base Angles: The base angles (angles on the same parallel side) are equal.
Diagonals: The diagonals of an isosceles trapezium are equal in length.

Consider the isosceles trapezium ABCD.
Only one pair of sides is parallel.
AB || CD
Non-parallel sides (legs) are equal in measure.
AD = BC
The diagonals are equal in measure.
AC = BD
The base angles are equal in measure.
∠D = ∠C
The opposite angles are supplementary.
∠D + ∠B = 180° and ∠C + ∠A = 180°

Drawing a Trapezium
1. Lengths of four sides are given.

Draw AB = 6 cm.
Mark E on AB such that EB = 4.5 cm
Mark D by drawing arcs of radius 4 cm with centre A and 3 cm with centre E
Find C by drawing an arc of radius 3 cm with B and another arc of 4.5 cm with D.
Complete the figure.

2. Three sides and an angle between any two of these sides are given.

Draw a right-angled triangle PST as shown in the figure.
Also, draw a rectangle of TQRS, TQ = 5 cm, and one side is equal to the attitude of the PST.
Complete the trapezium.

3. Two adjacent sides and two angles at the end of any one of these sides are given.

AB and CD are parallel then D = 180° – A = 120°
Draw AB = 5 cm.
Draw an angle of 60° at A and mark D on it, 3 cm away from A.
Mark C by drawing D = 120° & B = 50°

4. Two parallel sides and two angles at the end of any of these sides.

Divide the trapezium into a triangle and a parallelogram.
In PTS, P = 40°, PTS = 60°. You draw it.

Isosceles trapezium
An isosceles trapezium can be drawn if the following measures are given.
1. Two parallel sides and another side
Draw AB = 7 cm
Mark E on AB, (EB = 4 cm)
Find D by drawing arcs of radius 3 cm with centre A and E.
Find C by drawing an arc of radius 3 cm with centre B and another arc of radius 4 cm with centre D.

2. Two adjacent sides and the angle between them are given.
Draw PQ = 6 cm long.
On both ends draw angles ot 55°.
Mark S and R on these lines after taking a distance of 5 cm from P & Q respectively.
Draw SR.

Area of a Trapezium
The area of a trapezium is half the product of the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides and the distance between them.
A = \(\frac {1}{2}\)(a + b)h

The comprehensive approach in SCERT Class 8 Basic Science Textbook Solutions Chapter 18 Cells that Become Daughter Cells Important Questions ensure conceptual clarity.

Cells that Become Daughter Cells Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 18 Kerala Syllabus

Cells that Become Daughter Cells Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Regarding Mitosis, choose the correct statements.
i. It helps in the formation of gametes.
ii. The chromosome number in daughter cells is the same as in the parent cell.
iii. It involves two main stages: Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis.
iv. Four daughter cells are produced from one parent Cell.
(a) i, iv correct
(b) ii, iii correct
(c) i, iii correct
(d) ii, iv correct
Answer:
(b) ii, iii correct

Question 2.
Characteristics of human gametes are given. Choose the correct option.
i. Sperm has three parts: head, body, and tail.
ii. Ovum is larger in size than sperm.
iii. Sperm has no ability to move.
iv. Ovum is motile.
a) i, ii correct
b) iii, iv correct
c) i, iii correct
d) ii, iv correct
Answer:
(a) i, ii correct

Question 3.
Select the correct statements about twins.
i. Identical twins are formed from two eggs fertilized by two different sperm.
ii. Fraternal twins will always be of the same sex.
iii. Identical twins have the same genetic material and hereditary traits.
iv. Conjoined twins result from the incomplete division of a single zygote.
a) i, ii correct
b) iii, iv correct
c) i, iv correct
d) ii, iii correct
Answer:
(b) iii, iv correct

Question 4.
Complete the flowchart related to events after ovulation if fertilization does not occur.
Ovulation → Ovum released → Fertilization does not occur (a) __________ disintegrates → Endometrium breaks down → (b) ___________
Answer:
(a) Ovum
(b) Menstruation

Question 5.
Complete the sequence of development from a zygote to a child.
Zygote → (a) ________ → Embryo → (b) ______ → Baby → Child
Answer:
(a) Cell division / Cell growth
(b) Foetus

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks in the summary of Mitosis stages.
(a) ________ → Chromosomes align at the center (Metaphase) → (b) ________ → Daughter nuclei are formed (Telophase).
Answer:
(a) Prophase (Chromosomes form)
(b) Anaphase (Chromatids separate)

Question 7.
Define the following terms:
(a) Pollination
(b) Fertilization (in humans)
Answer:
(a) Pollination: The process of pollen grains settling on the stigma of the pistil.
(b) Fertilization: The process of the sperm uniting with the egg (ovum), typically in the fallopian tube.

Question 8.
Give one example for each of the following modes of asexual reproduction:
(a) Budding
(b) Regeneration
Answer:
(a) Budding: Yeast
(b) Regeneration: Planaria or Hydra

Question 9.
What are the male and female gametes called in humans? Where are they produced?
Answer:
Male gamete: Sperm, produced in the Testis.
Female gamete: Ovum (egg), produced in the Ovary.

Question 10.
Illustration 18.2 shows the Stamen.

(a) Identify the part labelled as producing pollen grains.
(b) What is the function of pollen grains?
Answer:
(a) Anther.
(b) Pollen grains contain the male gam¬etes required for fertilization in plants.

Question 11.
Observe Figure.

(a) Which part contains the nucleus?
(b) Which part helps the sperm to move?
Answer:
(a) The Head.
(b) The Tail.

Question 12.
List any two physical changes of adolescence.
Answer:
Two physical changes are:
Sudden increase in height and body weight.
The growth of reproductive organs accelerates.
(Other acceptable answer: The activity of the glands in the skin increases).

Question 13.
Explain the significance of Meiosis in sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Meiosis is significant because it produces gametes (sperm and egg) with half the number of chromosomes (haploid, 23 in humans) compared to the parent germ cell (diploid, 46). When these gametes fuse during fertilization, the resulting zygote gets the correct diploid number of chromosomes (46). This process ensures the chromosome number remains constant across generations.

Question 14.
Why is the temperature in the scrotal sac maintained slightly lower than the normal body temperature?
Answer:
A temperature 2 to 2.5 degrees Celsius lower than normal body temperature is required for the proper production and development of sperm in the testes, which are located in the scrotal sac.

Question 15.
What happens during menstruation, and why does it occur?
Answer:
Menstruation occurs if fertilization does not happen after ovulation. The thickened inner lining of the uterus (endometrium), which had prepared to receive a fertilized egg with extra tissues and blood capillaries, is no longer needed. This lining breaks down and is discharged through the vagina along with blood and mucus.

Question 16.
Evaluate the statement: “Mitosis and Meiosis are essentially the same process.” Is this correct? Explain the key difference in outcome.
Answer:
No, the statement is incorrect. While both are types of cell division, they have different outcomes.

Mitosis produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell and have the same number of chromosomes. It’s primarily for growth and repair.

Meiosis produces four daughter cells (gametes) that are genetically different from the parent cell and have half the number of chromosomes. It’s essential for sexual reproduction.

Question 17.
Explain the importance of providing proper nutrition during adolescence.
Answer:
Adolescence is a period of rapid growth and development, including a sudden increase in height and weight, maturation of reproductive organs, and brain development. A balanced diet providing the right nutrients (proteins, vitamins, minerals, energy) is crucial to support this rapid physical growth and the significant hormonal and metabolic changes occurring. Both lack of essential nutrients and over-nutrition can negatively affect the body and overall health during this critical stage.

Question 18.
“Identical twins share the same hereditary factors, while fraternal twins do not.” Explain the biological reason for this difference based on their formation.
Answer:
Identical twins develop from a single zygote (one egg fertilized by one sperm) that splits into two early in development. Since they originate from the exact same genetic material, they share the same hereditary factors.

Fraternal twins develop from two separate eggs, each fertilized by a different sperm. They are essentially siblings conceived at the same time and share only about 50% of their genes on average, hence their hereditary factors are different.

Question 19.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions

(a) Identify the cell.
(b) In which human reproductive part, does it form?
(c) Temperature is a factor that influences the formation of these cells. How is it maintained?
Answer:
a) Sperm
b) Testis
c) Temperature less than body temperature (35 – 360C) is favourable for the formation of sperms. The scrotal sac helps to maintain this temperature.

Question 20.
Observe the following figure and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the part labelled as A.
(b) To which part does it grow?
Answer:
a) Pollen tube
b) It grows towards the ovary

Question 21.
Complete the illustration of physical changes during adolescence using indicators given in the box.
u Menstruation starts
u Shoulder bones expand
u Hair grows in various parts of body
u Ejaculation starts
u Hip bones widen
u Fast growth of sex organs Girls Boys

Answer:
B. Hip bones widen
C. Hair grows in various parts of the body
D. Fast growth of sex organs
E. Shoulder bones expand.
F. Ejaculation starts.

Question 22.
Correct the mistake if any in the underlined part of the given statements.
a) The ovum is produced by the oviduct.
b) Amniotic fluid protects the foetus from dehydration.
c) Fertilization takes place in the uterus.
Answer:
a) Ovary
c) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

Question 23.
Observe the figure of Pollen grain given below and answer the questions.
a) Identify the part indicated as ‘X’
b) Write the change that takes place in ‘X’ after pollination

Answer:
a) X: Generative nucleus
b) Generative nucleus divides to form two male gametes.

Question 24.
Analyse the following statement and give reason.
‘Changes related to adolescence are more rapid in girls than in boys’
Answer:
The parts of brain that control physical and mental changesdevelop rapidly in girls.

Question 25.
Adolescence is the period of rapid physical growth. Write any four food habits that ensures the availability of nutrients during that period.
Answer:

• Eat the right type of food at regular intervals.
• Never avoid breakfast.
• Take the right quantity of food during the right time.
• Include fruits and vegetables lentils etc. in the diet.

Question 26.
Fill in the blank:
The male reproductive organ in a flower is called the __________ .
Answer:
Stamen

Question 27.
Statement Analysis:
Read the following statements regarding cell division and choose the correct option:
Statement I: Mitosis helps in the growth of the body and repair of tissues.
Statement II: Meiosis helps to maintain a constant number of chromosomes across generations.
a) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
b) Statement I is incorrect and It is correct.
c) Both statements are correct.
d) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer:
c) Both statements are correct.

Question 28.
Find the odd one out:
Planaria, Hydra, Amoeba, Rose.
Answer:
Rose (Rose reproduces vegetatively/sexually, while the others are simple organisms/microorganisms listed under asexual modes like fission/regeneration in the text context).

Question 29.
Identify the relation:
Male Gamete : Sperm:: Female Gamete: _____________
Answer:
Ovum

Question 30.
The scrotal sac in males is capable of contracting and relaxing. How does this help in sperm production?
Answer:
Sperm production requires a temperature 2 to 2.5°C lower than body temperature. The contraction and relaxation of the scrotal sac help regulate and maintain this temperature.

Question 31.
Write two differences between pperm and Ovum based on their motility (ability to move) and size.
Answer:
Sperm: Motile (can move), Smaller size.
Ovum:Non-motile (cannot move), Larger size.

Question 32.
“In the first phase of Meiosis, the germ cell divides into two daughter cells.”
How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have if the parent cell has 46 chromosomes? What happens in the second phase of Meiosis?
Answer:
Each daughter cell will have 23 chromosomes (half of 46). In the second phase, these cells divide again like mitosis (chromosome number remains unchanged).

Question 33.
Explain the formation of the Endosperm in plants and state its function.
Answer:
Endosperm: Formed by the fusion of the second male gamete with the polar nuclei. Its function is to **store food** needed for the growth of the embryo.

Question 34.
Match the following:

A (Part)	B (Function)
1. Prostate gland	a) Production of Ovum
2. Fallopian tube	b) Site of Fertilization
3. Ovary	c) Produces fluid for sperm nourishment
	d) Carries sperm to urethra

Answer:
1 – c (Produces fluid for nourishment)
2 – b (Site of Fertilization)
3 – a (Production of Ovum)

Question 35.
Adolescence is a period of rapid growth.
a) Why do pimples (acne) commonly occur during this period?
b) Why is it important to include essential nutrients in the diet during this stage?
Answer:
a) Increased production of sex hormones
stimulates sebaceous glands to produce more sebum, which accumulates with dead cells to cause acne.
b) Rapid growth occurs during adolescence, so essential nutrients are required to support this development; lack of nutrients can negatively affect the body.

Question 36.
Observe the process of fertilization in plants:
a) Which part of the flower develops into the seed after fertilization?
b) What is the function of the Pollen tube?
c) How is the Zygote formed?
Answer:
a) Ovule
b) To transport male gametes (nuclei) into the ovary/ovule.
c) The fusion of one male gamete with the egg cell forms the Zygote.

Students often refer to Kerala State Syllabus SCERT Class 8 Maths Solutions and Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Parallelograms Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SCERT Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Solutions Parallelograms

Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Chapter 11 Parallelograms Questions and Answers

Parallelograms Class 8 Questions and Answers Kerala Syllabus

Sides and Angles (Page 178)

Question 1.
The figures below are combinations of three, four, and five equal rhombuses. Draw each and colour it.

Answer:
1. Draw a circle of radius 2 cm (if any).
Divide the centre of the circle into angles of 60° each.
These lines meet the circle at the points A, B, C, D, E, and F.

Draw arcs of 2 cm (equal to radius) from A and B to get G.
Similarly, find H and I.
Draw the required parts and rub off unwanted parts.

2. Draw a circle of radius 2 cm (if any).
Mark the points A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H on the circle by making 45° angles at the centre.
Draw an arc of 2 cm (if any), A and B to get I.
Similarly, find J, K, and L.
We get the required figure.

3. Draw AC, 4 cm long, and mark its midpoint B.
Since all are rhombuses, ABI is a equilateral triangle.
Its angles are 60° each.

In the rhombus BCDJ,
JBC = JDC = 60°
BCD = BJD = 120°
In the rhombus BJFI,
IBJ = IFJ = 60°
BJF = FIB =120°.
Draw each rhombus and complete the pattern.

Question 2.
This picture is made up of three equal parallelograms and an equilateral triangle. Draw and colour it.

Answer:
The figure is an optical illusion of a 3D cube or hexagon composed of three equal parallelograms and one equilateral triangle.

• Draw an equilateral triangle (all sides equal, all angles 60°).
• On each of the three sides of the triangle, draw a parallelogram.
• To make the figure symmetrical, the angles of the parallelograms meeting at the triangle’s vertices should be calculated such that they fit perfectly.
• Usually, the parallelograms are identical to the triangle in terms of side length.

Question 3.
Draw and colour this picture made up of four equal parallelograms and four equal right triangles:

Answer:
Construction:

• Draw a central square or rectangle (formed by the space or the meeting points).
• Attach right-angled triangles to the sides.
• Extend the pattern by attaching the parallelograms to the hypotenuse or legs of the triangles, depending on the specific pattern shown in your textbook.
• Without seeing the exact visual pattern in the book, the key is to ensure the right angles are exactly 90° and opposite sides of the parallelograms are equal.

Diagonals (Pages 182-183)

Question 1.
Draw a parallelogram with lengths of diagonals 8 centimetres and 6 centimetres and the angle between them 60°.
Answer:
Construction Steps:
Draw a line segment AC = 8 cm.
Mark the midpoint O of AC (so AO = 4 cm).
Through O, draw a line XY making an angle of 60° with AC.
On this line XY, mark points B and D on opposite sides of 0 such that OB = 3 cm and OD = 3 cm.
(since the second diagonal is 6 cm and diagonals bisect each other).
Join the points A, B, C, and D to form the parallelogram ABCD.

Question 2.
Prove that in a parallelogram, the line joining the midpoints of two opposite sides is parallel to the other two sides:

Answer:
(i) Let ABCD be a parallelogram.

Let P be the midpoint of side AB, and Q be the midpoint of side CD.
Since ABCD is a parallelogram, AB || CD and AB = CD.
Since P and Q are midpoints,
AP = \(\frac {1}{2}\)AB and DQ = \(\frac {1}{2}\)CD.
Therefore, AP = DQ and AP || DQ.
A quadrilateral with one pair of opposite sides equal and parallel is a parallelogram.
So, APQD is a parallelogram.
This implies PQ || AD.
Thus, the line joining the midpoints is parallel to the other two sides.

(ii) Let ABCD be a parallelogram.

Let P be the midpoint of side AD and Q be the midpoint of side BC.
Since ABCD is a parallelogram, AD || BC and AD = BC.
Since P and Q are midpoints,
AP = \(\frac {1}{2}\)AD and BQ = \(\frac {1}{2}\)BC.
Therefore, AP = BQ and AP || BQ.
A quadrilateral with one pair of opposite sides equal and parallel is a parallelogram.
So, ABQP is a parallelogram.
This implies PQ || AB.
Thus, the line joining the midpoints is parallel to the other two sides.

Question 3.
The picture shows a parallelogram and the lines joining the midpoint of opposite sides:

(i) Prove that these lines bisect each other.
(ii) Prove that an angle between these lines is equal to an angle between the sides of the parallelogram.
Answer:
(i) Let the parallelogram be ABCD.
EF: joining midpoints of AB and CD
GH: joining midpoints of BC and AD

In parallelogram ABCD:
Opposite sides are parallel and equal:
AB || CD, BC || AD
E and F are midpoints,
AE = EB, CF = FD
Because AB || CD, the segment EF is a mid-segment between two parallel lines.
Similarly, GH is a mid-segment of the pair AD || BC.
The segment joining midpoints of one pair of opposite sides is parallel to the other pair of opposite sides.
Thus EF || AD || BC; GH || AB || CD
Because EF is parallel to BC and AD, and GH is parallel to AB and CD, the shape EFGH is a parallelogram (by opposite sides being parallel).
In every parallelogram, the diagonals bisect each other.
Therefore, X is the midpoint of both EF and GH.

(ii) We already saw:
EF || AD || BC
GH || AB || CD
So the angle between the lines EF and GH is equal to the angle between the pairs of parallel sides:
∠FXG = ∠HAE
Because corresponding angles between parallel lines are equal.
Thus, the angle between the mid-point joining lines equals an interior angle of the parallelogram.
Hence proved.

Question 4.
Draw a parallelogram with lengths of diagonals 6.5 centimetres and 4.5 centimetres and the angle between them 70°.
Answer:

Draw a line segment AC = 6.5 cm.
Mark its midpoint O (at 3.25 cm).
Through O, draw a line making an angle of 70° with AC.
On this new line, mark points B and D such that OB = 2.25 cm and OD = 2.25 cm (half of 4.5 cm).
Join A, B, C, and D.

Question 5.
Prove that if the diagonals of a parallelogram are of the same length, then it is a rectangle.
Answer:

Let ABCD be a parallelogram where diagonals AC = BD.
Consider the triangles ∆ABC and ∆BAD.
AB = AB (Common side).
BC = AD (Opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal).
AC = BD (Given).
By the SSS congruence rule,
∆ABC ≅ ∆BAD.
Therefore, their corresponding angles are equal:
∠ABC = ∠BAD
Since ABCD is a parallelogram, adjacent angles sum to 180° (∠ABC + ∠BAD = 180°).
Since they are equal,
2∠ABC = 180°
∴ ∠ABC = 90°.
A parallelogram with a right angle is a rectangle.

Question 6.
Draw a rectangle with a length of the diagonals of 6 centimetres and the angle between them 60°.
Answer:
Construction Steps:
Draw a line segment AC = 6 cm, and mark its midpoint O.
Through O, draw a line making an angle of 60° with AC.
On this line, mark points B and D such that OB = 3 cm and OD = 3 cm
Since the diagonals of a rectangle are equal and bisect each other, half of 6 cm is 3 cm.
Join A, B, C, and D.
You will get the required rectangle.

Area (Pages 187-188)

Question 1.
Draw a parallelogram with lengths of sides 5 centimetres and 6 centimetres, and an area of 25 square centimetres.
Answer:
Area of a parallelogram = one side × distance to the opposite side.
Since 5 × distance to the opposite side is 25 sq.cm.
Distance to the opposite side is 5 cm.
Draw a square ABCD of side 5 cm.
Draw an arc of radius 6 cm with centre A to cut DC at E.
Length of radius 6cm with centre B and arc of radius 5 cm with centre E meet at F.
Draw BC and FC.
ABFE is the required parallelogram.

Question 2.
Draw a parallelogram with area 25 square centimetres and perimeter 24 centimetres.
Answer:
Area of the parallelogram is to be 25 cm².
The product of one side and the distance to the opposite side is 25 cm².
One side and the distance to the opposite side can be 5 cm each.
The other side is 12 – 5 = 7 cm.
Draw a square with a side of 5cm and draw an arc of radius 7 cm with A as centre, such that it intersects the side CD.
Mark the point E and join AE.
Draw an arc of radius 7 cm with B as centre, and draw another arc of radius 5 cm with E as centre. Two arcs meet at the point P.
Join BF and CF.

Question 3.
The picture shows the parallelogram formed by the intersection of two pairs of parallel lines:

What is the area of the parallelogram? And the perimeter?
Answer:
One side of the parallelogram = 4 cm
Distance to the opposite side = 3 cm
Area of the parallelogram = 4 × 3 = 12 sq.cm

BC × DE = 12
BC × 2 = 12
BC = 6, AD = 6
Perimeter = 4 + 6 + 4 + 6 = 20 cm.

Question 4.
Two sides of a parallelogram are 12 centimetres and 10 centimetres, and the distance between the shorter sides is 6 centimetres.
(i) What is the area of the parallelogram?
(ii) What is the distance between the longer sides?
Answer:
Let the parallelogram have:
Longer side = 12 cm
Shorter side = 10 cm
Distance (height) between shorter sides = 6 cm
(i) Area of the parallelogram
Area = base × height
(If we take the shorter side (10 cm) as the base, its height is 6 cm)
Area = 10 × 6 = 60 cm²

(ii) Let the distance between the 12 cm sides be (h).
Since area = base × height for any pair of opposite sides:
60 = 12 × h
⇒ h = \(\frac {60}{12}\)
⇒ h = 5 cm

Rhombuses (Page 190)

Question 1.
Draw a square of area 4\(\frac {1}{2}\) square centimetres.
Answer:
\(\frac {1}{2}\)d² = 4\(\frac {1}{2}\)
⇒ d² = 2 × 4\(\frac {1}{2}\) = 9
⇒ d = 3 cm

Draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
Draw the diameter AC and construct the perpendicular bisector of AC, which meets the circle at B and D.
Join AC, AD, CD, and BD to get the square ABCD.

Question 2.
Draw a rhombus of area 9 square centimetres, which is not a square.
Answer:

Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂ = 9
d₁ × d₂ = 18
So, 1 × 18 = 18
2 × 9 = 18
3 × 6 = 18
Let d₁ = 1 and d₂ = 18
The product of the diagonals of the rhombus should be 18.
There are three pairs of natural numbers: 18, 1; 9, 2, and 6, 3 as the lengths of the diagonals.
You can find more pairs of fractions.
A rhombus with diagonals 6 cm and 3 cm is drawn here.
You draw the other two.

Draw AC, 6 cm long.
Draw its perpendicular bisector and mark points B and D on it such that the distance from AC is 1.5 cm each.
Join AB, BC, CD, and AD to complete the rhombus.

Question 3.
The picture shows a quadrilateral drawn by joining the midpoints of the diagonals of a rhombus:

(i) Is this quadrilateral also a rhombus? Why?
(ii) The area of the small quadrilateral is 3 square centimetres. What is the area of the large rhombus?
Answer:
(i) The diagonals of the rhombus intersect at O, and they bisect each other at right angles.

OA = OC
\(\frac{\mathrm{OA}}{2}=\frac{\mathrm{OC}}{2}\)
OQ = OS
Similarly, since OB = OD
i.e., OR = OP
The diagonals of PQRS bisect each other.
(Since OQ = OS and OR = OP)
Since the diagonal AC is perpendicular to BD, the diagonals of PQRS are also mutually perpendicular bisectors.
Therefore, PQRS is a rhombus.

(ii) Area of quadrilateral PQRS = 3 sq.cm
\(\frac {1}{2}\)d₁d₂ = 3 sq. cm
Area of rhombus ABCD = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 2d₁ × 2d₂
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 4d₁d₂
= 4 × \(\frac {1}{2}\)d₁d₂
= 4 × 3
= 12 sq. cm

Question 4.
The sides of a rhombus are 10 centimetres long, and one of its diagonals is 16 centimetres long
(i) What is the length of the other diagonal?
(ii) What is the area of the rhombus?
(iii) What is the distance between the opposite sides?
Answer:
(i) d₁ = 16 cm

We have a rhombus with a side of 10 cm and a diagonal BD = 16 cm
We know that the diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at 90°.
BO = OD = 8 cm
In ∆AOB, by Pythagoras theorem,
AO² + BO² = AB²
⇒ AO² + 8² = 10²
⇒ AO² = 100 – 64 = 36
⇒ AO = 6 cm [By above property]
Hence, AC = 6 + 6 = 12 cm

(ii) Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\)d1d2
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 16 × 12
= 96 cm²

(iii) The distance between opposite sides is the height.
Area = Base × Height (∵ Base is the side length)
96 = 10 × Height
Height = \(\frac {96}{10}\)
Height = 9.6 cm

Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Kerala Syllabus Parallelograms Questions and Answers

Class 8 Maths Parallelograms Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is a defining property of every parallelogram?
(A) Diagonals are equal
(B) All sides are equal
(C) Opposite sides are parallel
(D) All angles are 90°
Answer:
(C) Opposite sides are parallel
This is the basic definition of a parallelogram.

Question 2.
If the adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 8 cm and 6 cm, what is its perimeter?
(A) 14 cm
(B) 28 cm
(C) 48 cm
(D) 24 cm
Answer:
(B) 28 cm
Perimeter = 2(8 + 6)
= 2 × 14
= 28 cm

Question 3.
A parallelogram has a base of 10 cm, and the distance to the opposite side (height) is 6 cm. What is its area?
(A) 60 sq.cm
(B) 30 sq.cm
(C) 16 sq.cm
(D) 32 sq.cm
Answer:
(A) 60 sq. cm
Area = Base × Height
= 10 × 6
= 60

Question 4.
In a parallelogram, the diagonals:
(A) Are always equal
(B) Bisect each other
(C) Are always perpendicular
(D) Bisect the angles
Answer:
(B) Bisect each other
A key property of parallelogram diagonals.

Question 5.
If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal in length, the figure is a:
(A) Rhombus
(B) Trapezium
(C) Rectangle
(D) Kite
Answer:
(C) Rectangle
If diagonals bisect each other and are equal, it’s a rectangle.

Question 6.
Calculate the area of a rhombus whose diagonals are 10 cm and 12 cm.
(A) 120 sq.cm
(B) 60 sq. cm
(C) 100 sq. cm
(D) 22 sq. cm
Answer:
(B) 60 sq. cm
Area of Rhombus = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 10 × 12
= 60

Question 7.
A square has a diagonal of length 8 cm. What is its area?
(A) 64 sq.cm
(B) 16 sq.cm
(C) 32 sq.cm
(D) 48 sq.cm
Answer:
(C) 32 sq.cm
Area of Square = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × diagonal²
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8²
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 64
= 32

Question 8.
If one angle of a parallelogram is 70°, what is the measure of the angle opposite to it?
(A) 110°
(B) 70°
(C) 90°
(D) 20°
Answer:
(B) 70°
Opposite angles in a parallelogram are equal.

Question 9.
If one angle of a parallelogram is 60°, what is the measure of an adjacent angle?
(A) 60°
(B) 30°
(C) 120°
(D) 90°
Answer:
(C) 120°
Adjacent angles sum to 180°.
180° – 60° = 120°

Question 10.
A diagonal divides a parallelogram into two triangles. If the area of the parallelogram is 50 sq. cm, what is the area of one of these triangles?
(A) 50 sq.cm
(B) 100 sq.cm
(C) 25 sq.cm
(D) 10 sq.cm
Answer:
(C) 25 sq.cm
A diagonal splits a parallelogram into two equal triangles.
\(\frac {50}{2}\) = 25

Question 11.
Which quadrilateral has diagonals that are perpendicular bisectors of each other?
(A) Rectangle
(B) Parallelogram
(C) Rhombus
(D) Trapezium
Answer:
(C) Rhombus
Diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular bisectors.

Question 12.
The area of a parallelogram is given by:
(A) Base × Height
(B) \(\frac {1}{2}\) × Base × Height
(C) Product of adjacent sides
(D) Product of diagonals
Answer:
(A) Base × Height

Question 13.
Read the following statements:
Statement I: All squares are rhombuses.
Statement II: All rhombuses are squares.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(A) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
A square has all the properties of a rhombus (equal sides), but a rhombus doesn’t necessarily have 90° angles like a square.

Question 14.
Read the following statements:
Statement I: The area of a square is half the square of its diagonal \(\frac {1}{2}\)d².
Statement II: A square is a rhombus with equal diagonals.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Only I is true.
(B) Only II is true.
(C) Both are true, and II explains I.
(D) Both are true, but II does not explain I.
Answer:
(C) Both are true, and II explains I
Since a square is a rhombus with equal diagonals, we can use the rhombus formula \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂, which becomes \(\frac {1}{2}\)d².

Question 15.
A quadrilateral where only one pair of opposite sides is parallel is called a:
(A) Parallelogram
(B) Rhombus
(C) Trapezium
(D) Rectangle
Answer:
(C) Trapezium

Question 16.
To construct a unique parallelogram, which of the following sets of measurements is sufficient?
(A) Lengths of two adjacent sides
(B) Lengths of two adjacent sides and the included angle
(C) Length of one side
(D) Measure of one angle
Answer:
(B) Lengths of two adjacent sides and the included angle
Just sides aren’t enough; the angle determines the shape/area.

Question 17.
The perimeter of a rhombus is 40 cm. What is the length of one side?
(A) 20 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer:
(C) 10 cm
A rhombus has 4 equal sides.
\(\frac {40}{4}\) = 10

Question 18.
In the figure of a parallelogram, if the distance between the longer sides (10 cm) is 4 cm, what is the area?
(A) 14 sq. cm
(B) 20 sq. cm
(C) 40 sq. cm
(D) 80 sq. cm
Answer:
(C) 40 sq. cm
Area = Side × Distance
= 10 × 4
= 40

Question 19.
Read the following statements about a Rhombus:
Statement I: The diagonals are of equal length.
Statement II: The area is half the product of the diagonals.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(C) Both are true.
(D) Both are false.
Answer:
(B) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
Diagonals of a rhombus are usually unequal (unless it’s a square).
The area formula is correct.

Question 20.
A parallelogram has sides 12 cm and 8 cm. The distance between the 12 cm sides is 4 cm. What is the distance between the 8 cm sides?
(A) 6 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 12 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer:
(A) 6 cm
Area is constant.
12 × 4 = 48.
So, 8 × h = 48
∴ h = 6

Question 21.
Draw a rhombus of diagonals 5.5 cm and 3 cm in your notebook.
Answer:
Draw a line of length 5.5 cm, and find its midpoint by drawing the perpendicular bisector.
Mark the points on the upper and lower parts of the bisector line at a distance of 1.5 cm from the intersecting point of the first line and the perpendicular bisector.
Join these points to the end of the first line.

Question 22.
Draw these figures
1. Two equal rhombuses

2. Parallelograms on two sides of a square

Answer:
1. From the figure two sides of ∆BCD are equal, angles opposite these sides are also equal.
We can calculate them as 50° each.
In the same way, find other angles in the figure.

Draw a line BD vertically, 3 cm long.
At D, draw angles of 50° on both sides.
At B, also draw angles of 50° on both sides.
Then we get a rhombus ABCD.
Extend BC to G such that BC = CG, and extend DC to E such that DC = CE.
Draw GE. Draw an angle of 50° at G and E to find F.

2. Draw a square of side 3 cm.
And draw two parallelograms with sides 3 cm, 2 cm, and an angle between them of 45°, on the sides of the square.

Question 23.
In rhombus PQRS, PR = 7 cm and QS = 5 cm. Construct a rhombus PQRS.
Answer:

Question 24.
In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. D = 80°. Find all other angles?

Answer:
ABCD is a parallelogram
Opposite angles are equal.
B = 80°.
The sum of the angles on the same side is 180°.
∠A + ∠B = 180°.
∠A = 180° – 80° = 100°
And ∠C = 100° (opposite angles are equal).

Question 25.
In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. Find x, y, z.

Answer:
∠Y = 112° (opposite angles are equal)
In ADC, ∠x + ∠y + 40 = 180° (sum of angles in a triangle)
∠x + 112° + 40° = 180°
∠x = 180° – 152° = 28°
∠z = 28° (transversal alternate interior angles are equal).

Question 26.
In parallelogram ABCD, the diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. AC = 6.5 cm, BD = 7 cm, and ∠AOB = 100°. Construct the parallelogram.
Answer:

Question 27.
The diagonals of a rhombus are of lengths 16 cm and 12 cm. What is its perimeter?
Answer:

In right-angled AOB,
AO = 8 cm, BO = 6 cm, AOB = 90°
AB² = AO² + BO²
= 8² + 6²
= 64 + 36
= 100
Side, AB = 10 cm
Perimeter = 4 × 10 = 40 cm.

Question 28.
Draw the following patterns.
(a) 6 equal rhombuses

(b) 3 equal rhombuses

(c) Two equal rhombuses on the sides of a square

(d) 4 equal rhombuses

(e) Parallelograms on two sides of a rectangle of sides 6 cm and 3 cm.

Answer:
(a) Draw a circle of radius 2 cm with centre O.
Divide the centre of the circle into angles of 60° each.
These lines meet the circle at the points A, B, C, D, E, and F.
Draw an arc of 2 cm from A and B to get G.
In the same way, find H, I, J, K, L.
Draw needed part.

(b) Draw a square of side 4 cm.
Draw rhombuses with a side of 4 cm and an angle of 30° on the top and bottom sides of the square.
Complete the figure.

(c) Angles around the point at which three rhombuses joined together are 120° each.
Since one angle of the rhombus is 120°, another angle is 60°.
Draw three rhombuses with a side of 4 cm and an angle of 60°.
Complete the figure.

(d) Draw a semicircle of radius 2 cm with centre O.
Divide the centre of the circle into angles of 45° each.
These lines meet the circle at the points A, B, C, D, and E.
Draw an arc of 2 cm from A and B to get F.
In the same way, find G, H, and I.
Complete the figure.

(e) Draw a rectangle of length 6 cm and breadth 3 cm.
Draw two rhombuses on both sides of the rectangle, which makes angle 45° and 135° with length and breadth, respectively.

Question 29.
In a parallelogram ABCD, find x, y, z from the adjoining figure.

Answer:
ABCD is a parallelogram,
∠C = 45° (Opposite angles are equal)
∠C + Z = 180° (linear pair)
Z = 180° – 45° = 135°
45° + Y = 180° (Sum of the angles on the same side is 180°)
Y = 180° – 45° = 135°
Since Y = 135°
X = 135° (Opposite angles are equal)

Question 30.
Which of the following has a greater area: a parallelogram with one side 12 cm and a distance between parallel sides of 6 cm, or a square with diagonals of 12 cm each?
Answer:
Area of parallelogram = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × b × h
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 × 12
= 72 cm²
Area of square = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d²
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12²
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 144
= 72 cm²
Area of both are equal.

Question 31.
Find the area of a rhombus with one side of 6 cm and one diagonal of 6 cm.
Answer:
The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other perpendicularly.

In ∆AOB, AO² = AB² – BO²
= 6² – 3²
= 36 – 9
= 25
AO = √25 = 5 cm
AC = 10 cm
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 6 × 10
= 30 sq. cm

Question 32.
In the pictures given below, which one has more area?

Answer:
A rectangle has the maximum area among the parallelograms with the same sides.

Question 33.
The ratio of the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram is 3 : 2. The distance between the longer sides is 10 cm. If the area is 900 cm², find the sides of the parallelogram.
Answer:
Let the sides be 3x and 2x

3x × 10 = 900
⇒ 30x = 900
⇒ x = 30 cm
Sides are: 3 × 30 = 90 cm; 2 × 30 = 60 cm

Question 34.
If one side of a parallelogram is ‘a’ and the height of that side is h, prove that the area = ah.
Answer:
In the figure, ABCD is a parallelogram.
AB = a

The perpendicular distance from D to AB = h
By drawing the diagonal BD, we can divide the parallelogram into two equal triangles.
∆ABD and ∆BCD are equal triangles; their areas are equal.
i.e, the area of the parallelogram is two times of the area of ∆ABD.
Area of ∆ABD = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × a × h
Area of the parallelogram ABCD = 2 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) × ah = ah

Question 35.
PQRS is a rhombus. If the diagonals are 8 cm and 9 cm each, compute the area.

Answer:
Let the diagonals of the rhombus be d₁ and d₂
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 8 × 9
= 36 cm²

Question 36.
The perimeter of a rhombus is 40 cm. If the length of one diagonal is 16 cm. What is the length of the other diagonal? Find the area?
Answer:
Perimeter = 40 cm
One side = 10 cm
∆POQ is a right-angled triangle
Since d₁ = 16 cm, OP = 8 cm
8² + OQ² = 10²
OQ² = 100 – 64 = 36

OQ = 6 cm
QS = 12 cm
d₁ = 16, d₂ = 12 cm
Area = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂
= \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 16 × 12
= 8 × 12
= 96 sq.cm

Question 37.
What is the maximum area of a parallelogram with sides 8 cm and 5 cm? What is the speciality of the parallelogram of maximum area?
Answer:
The area will be maximum for a rectangle, and the maximum area is 40 cm².

Question 38.
The area of a rhombus is 112 sq. cm, and one of its diagonals is 16 cm long. Find the length of the other diagonal.
Answer:
Area of the rhombus = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂ = 112 sq. cm
⇒ \(\frac {1}{2}\) × d₂ × 16 = 112
⇒ d₂ = 14 cm

Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Notes Kerala Syllabus Parallelograms

Parallelograms
A parallelogram is a quadrilateral where both pairs of opposite sides are parallel.
In any parallelogram, opposite sides are equal in length.

For example, ABCD is a parallelogram. Therefore, we can say,
AB and CD are parallel and equal
AD and BC are parallel and equal

Diagonals
The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other. This means they cut each other into two equal parts.
If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal in length, the figure is a rectangle.

In the general parallelogram ABCD, we can relate the following properties:

• Two pairs of parallel sides: AB || DC and AD || BC
• Opposite sides are equal: AB = DC and AD = BC
• Equal opposite angles: ∠A = ∠C and ∠B = ∠D
• Diagonals bisect each other: AO = CO and DO = BO

In any parallelogram, the diagonals bisect each other; on the other hand, any quadrilateral in which the diagonals bisect each other is a parallelogram.

Drawing a Parallelogram
1. Sides and angles between them are given
Example:
Draw AB = 6 cm.
Draw lines of length 4 cm, 45° slanted at both ends of AB.
Join the ends of these lines.

2. Diagonals and the angle between them are given
Example:
Draw AC = 6 cm.
Mark the midpoint of AC.
Through the midpoint of AC, draw a line that makes an angle of 70° with the first line.
Mark B and D are on either side of the midpoint, which is 3 cm from it.
Complete the figure.

3. One diagonal and two sides are given.
Example:
Make a triangle with sides 7 cm, 4 cm, and 8 cm
Taking the 8 cm long side as one side, and the other two sides 7 cm and 4 cm, draw another triangle.
Complete the figure.

4. Two diagonals and one side are given.
Example:
Draw AB = 6 cm, mark ‘O’ which is 4 cm away from A and 3 cm away from B.
Complete AOB, extend line AO and BO at C and D respectively, OC = 4 cm and OD = 3 cm.
Complete the figure.

Area of a Parallelogram

The area of a parallelogram is the product of the length of one side and its distance to the opposite side.
Area = base × height = b × h

Rhombuses
A rhombus is a special parallelogram where all four sides are equal.

Area of Rhombuses
The area of any rhombus is half the product of the diagonals

The area of any square is half the square of its diagonal.

Reviewing SCERT Class 8 Basic Science Solutions and Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 18 Cells that Become Daughter Cells Question Answer Notes Pdf can uncover gaps in understanding.

Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 18 Cells that Become Daughter Cells Question Answer Notes

Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 18 Notes Kerala Syllabus Cells that Become Daughter Cells Question Answer

Cells that Become Daughter Cells Class 8 Questions and Answers Notes

Let’s Assess

Question 1.
Complete the table by selecting the appropriate human reproductive organs and associated parts from the box.

Answer:

Details	Male reproductive system	Female reproductive system
1. Function	1. Produces sperm and sex hormones	5. Produces eggs and female sex hormones
2. Important parts	2. Testes, scrotum, penis	6. Ovary, fallopian tube, uterus, vagina
3. Where gamete production occurs	3. In the testes	4. In the ovary

Question 2.
Find the incorrect statements given below and rewrite them correctly.
a) The number of chromosomes in germ cells is 46.
b) The number of chromosomes in a human zygote is 92.
c) Budding is an example of asexual reproduction.
d) Four eggs are produced from a single germ cell of an ovary.
Answer:
a) Correct. (Germ cells in the reproductive organs, before meiosis, are diploid and have 46 chromosomes).

b) Incorrect.
Correction: The number of chromosomes in a human zygote is 46. (It is formed by the fusion of a sperm with 23 chromosomes and an egg with 23 chromosomes).

c) Correct. (As seen in Yeast).

d) Incorrect.
Correction: One egg (ovum) and three polar bodies are produced from a single germ cell of an ovary during meiosis.

Question 3.
Complete the flowchart and give an appropriate title.

Answer:

Basic Science Class 8 Chapter 18 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Textbook Page No : 288

Question 1.
Analyse the illustration and completethe given Table 18.1.?


Answer:

Number	Modes of reproduction	Examples
1	New plants grow from the leaf (Vegetative propagation from leaf)	Bryophyllum Sansevieria
2	New plants grow from the root	Curry leaf plant
3	New plants grow from the stem (Vegetative propagation from stem cutting)	Tapioca, Rose, Hibiscus, Sugarcane
4	Under favourable conditions, the cell divides and becomes two organisms.	Amoeba, Paramecium, Euglena
5	In unfavourable conditions, cells in organisms like plasmodium develop a thick outer covering.The cytoplasm and nuclear materials inside the cell divide into several parts. When the conditions become favourable, the outer covering of the cell breaks, open, releasing many tiny cells, each of which grows into a new organism.	Plasmodium
6	Regeneration: Body parts break off and regenerate into new organisms.	Planaria, Hydra
7	Budding: A small outgrowth (bud) forms on the parent cell, develops, and separates to form a new organism.	Yeast

Textbook Page No : 289

Question 2.
What is the fundamental difference between the reproductive methods we have discussed so far and the method of reproduction shown in the illustration below?

Answer:
Illustration 18.1 shows plants growing from seeds. This method is fundamentally different from the asexual methods discussed above because it involves the formation of seeds through sexual reproduction.

Question 3.
Observe the structure of flowers, which are the reproductive organs of plants and complete the illustration 18.2.

Answer:

Textbook Page No : 290

Question 4.
How do pollen grains from the anther reach the stigma?
Answer:
The process by which pollen grains are transferred from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) is called pollination. Since pollen grains cannot move on their own, they rely on external “agents” to carry them. Animals like insects and birds as well as wind and water, help in pollination

Question 5.
What happens to the pollen grain after pollination?
Answer:
After pollination, the pollen grain starts a journey to fertilize the egg inside the ovary. This process is called fertilization.

Question 6.
Shall we try a simple experiment with the help of the teacher? Prepare a note with diagram based on the experiment you conducted. [Illustration 18.3]

Answer:
Collect mature pollen grains from a flower’s anther.
Place them on a slide with a drop or two of sugar solution.
Observe under a microscope after 3 – 4 hours.
Observation: The pollen tube grows from the deposited pollen grain down towards the ovary. This tube carries the male gametes to fertilize the ovule inside the ovary.

Textbook Page No : 292
Indicators

Question 7.
Function of the tube nucleus …………………

Answer:

Controls the formation and growth of the pollen tube, then disintegrates.

Question 8.
Function of the pollen tube
Answer:
The pollen tube grows down through the style and enters the ovule, transporting the two male gametes into the ovary.

Question 9.
Formation of male gametes
Answer:
Generative nucleus divides to form two male gametes

Question 10.
Fertilization
Answer:
One of the male gametes that reaches the ovule through the pollen tube fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote. This process is known as fertilization.

Question 11.
Formation of endosperm
Answer:
The zygote grows and becomes an embryo. The embryo then grows into a seedling. The second male gamete fuses with the polar nuclei to form the endosperm. The endosperm stores the food needed for the growth of the embryo.

Textbook Page No : 294

Question 12.
Parts and functions of the reproductive system in human being.
Answer:

Parts	Functions
Male reproductive System
Vas Deferens	Transports male gametes from the testes to the urethra.
Prostate gland	It produces a fluid that contains the substances needed for the nourishment and movement of the sperms.
Testis	It produce sperm and male sex hormones (testosterone)
Penis	Through this duct, both urine and sperm are discharged. It helps to deliver the sperm into the vagina.
Female reproductive system
Uterus	The part that completes the growth of the embryo
Fallopian tube	It carries the ovum to the uterus. Fertilization takes place here.
Ovary	Ovary produces the ovum and female sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone.
Vagina	The part that opens the uterus to the outside. It is where the semen is deposited. During childbirth, the baby comes out through this part.
	The part that completes the growth of the embryo

Question 13.
Production of gametes
Answer:
Testis produces sperm in male. Ovary produces the ovum in females.

Question 14.
Sexual hormones
Answer:
Testis produces male sex hormones (testosterone). Ovary produces the female sex hormones, estrogen and progesterone.

Textbook Page No : 295

Question 15.
Complete the table 18.2

Answer:

Characteristics	Sperm	Ovum
Shape	Head, body, and tail	Spherical
Size	Smaller	Larger
Motility	Motile (using tail)	Non-motile

Textbook Page No : 297
Indicators

Question 16.
Site of fertilization.
Answer:
Fallopian Tube (specifically the ampulla region). This is where the sperm meets and fuses with the egg.

Question 17.
Embryo formation.
Answer:
Uterus (Womb). The fertilized egg divides to form an embryo while traveling, but it implants and develops into a baby in the wall of the uterus.

Question 18.
Menstruation.
Answer:
Uterus.Menstruation is the shedding of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium), which flows out through the vagina.

Textbook Page No : 298
Let’s Find

Question 19.
What happens when cell division occurs in unicellular organisms?
Answer:
When a unicellular organism divides, it is reproducing, creating exact copies of itself, and the original parent cell ceases to exist as a single entity.

Textbook Page No : 299

Question 20.
Formation of chromosomes.
Answer:
Occurs during Prophase as the chromatin network condenses.

Question 21.
Stages of cell division
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase.

Question 22.
Number of chromosomes in the parent cell and daughter nuclei.
Answer:
The number of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei is the same as the number in the parent cell, (e.g., If the parent human cell had 46 chromosomes, each daughter nucleus will also have 46 chromosomes). Karyokinesis maintains the chromosome number.

Question 23.
Number of daughter nuclei formed in one division.
Answer:
Two daughter nuclei are formed in one division.

Textbook Page No : 301

Question 24.
Complete the illustration 18.13.

Answer:

Textbook Page No : 303
Indicators

Question 25.
Number of chromosomes in human germ cells
Answer:
23 chromosomes.
Germ cells (sperm and egg) are haploid (n). This is exactly half the number found in normal body cells (which have 46).

Question 26.
Characteristic of Meiosis Stage I
Answer:
It is a Reductional Division. The homologous chromosome pairs separate. This reduces the chromosome number by half (e.g., from 46 to 23), which is why the resulting cells are haploid.

Question 27.
Similarity between Meiosis Stage II and Mitosis
Answer:
Both involve the separation of sister chromatids. In both processes, the centromeres split and the individual chromatids are pulled to opposite poles. Because the chromosome number does not drop further, both are considered “equational divisions.”

Question 28.
Difference observed in the process of gamete formation in males and females
Answer:
The process is called Spermatogenesis in males and Oogenesis in females.

Spermatogenesis	Oogenesis
The cytoplasm is shared equally among daughter cells.	Most cytoplasm goes to one big egg; the others become tiny “polar bodies.”
One parent cell produces 4 active sperm.	One parent cell produces only 1 active egg.
Starts at puberty and is continuous.	Starts before birth (fetus stage), pauses, and resumes at puberty.

Question 29.
Complete the table 18.3.

Answer:

Details	Mitosis	Meiosis
In which cells does it occur?	In the normal cells of the body	In the germinal cells of the reproductive organs
Changes in chromosome number	No change (Remains the same)	Reduced to half
Number of daughter cells	2	4
Significance	Helps in the growth of the body and repair of tissues.	Germ cells are formed. In organisms that undergo sexual reproduction helps to maintain a constant number of chromosomes across generations.

Textbook Page No : 305

Question 30.
Complete the table 18.4.

Answer:

Details	Fraternal twins	Identical twins	Siamese twins
Formation method	Two eggs fertilized by two different sperm.	Single zygote divides completely into two.	Incomplete division of zygote OR fusion of separated cells.
Structural similarity	Will not be the same.	Will be the same.	Will be the same; bodies are joined.
Hereditary factors	Will not be the same.	Will be the same.	Will be the same.
Sexual characteristics	May be the same or different gender.	Will always be the same sex.	Will always be the same sex.

Textbook Page No : 305

Question 31.
Analyse illustrations 18.16, 18.17, and their descriptions, and write down your conclusions.


Answer:
Humans grow through distinct stages from birth to o|d age, including infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and old age. A particularly significant stage is adolescence. Adolescence (known as Kaurmaram in Malayalam) is the transitional phase leading from childhood to full maturity, generally spanning from ages 10 to 19. This period is characterized by rapid physical, mental, and emotional changes. Physically, individuals experience a growth spurt with a sudden increase in height and weight, alongside accelerated growth of the reproductive organs and increased activity of glands in the skin. Simultaneous with these physical changes, the brain continues to develop, resulting in significant shifts in thinking, emotions, and social interactions. It is also observed that the parts of the brain controlling these changes develop earlier in girls, leading to faster growth during puberty compared to boys.

Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 18 Question Answer Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare suitable questions about the human reproductive system and sexual hygiene, conduct an interview with a doctor and prepare a report.

Question 2.
Prepare a chart/slide presentation about diseases related to the reproductive organs.

Cells that Become Daughter Cells Class 8 Notes

Class 8 Basic Science Cells that Become Daughter Cells Notes Kerala Syllabus

Reproduction

• The biological process of producing new individual organisms (offspring), ensuring the continuation of a species.
• Types:
  1. Asexual Reproduction: From a single parent, offspring are genetically identical (e.g., Binary Fission, Budding, Regeneration, Spore Formation, Vegetative Propagation).
  2. Sexual Reproduction: Involves the fusion of male and female gametes (formed by meiosis) through fertilization to form a zygote. Offspring are genetically diverse.

ഒരു ജീവിയിൽ നിന്ന് പുതിയ തലമുറ ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് പ്രത്യുത്പാദനം. ഇത് വർഗ്ഗത്തിന്റെ (species) തുടർച്ച ഉറപ്പാക്കുന്നു. ഒരൊറ്റ ജീവിയിൽ നിന്ന് പുതിയ ജീവികളു ണ്ടാകുന്ന രീതിയാണ് അലൈംഗിക പ്രത്യുത്പാദ നം (Asexual Reproduction). ഉദാഹരണങ്ങൾ: ഇലമുളച്ചിയിൽ ഇലയിൽ നിന്നും, കപ്പയിൽ തണ്ടിൽ നിന്നും പുതിയ ചെടികളുണ്ടാകുന്നത് (കായിക പ്രജനനം / Vegetative Propagation); ബാക്ടീരിയ രണ്ടായി വിഭജിക്കുന്നത് (Binary Fission); പ്ലാനേറിയ മുറിഞ്ഞ ഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ നിന്ന് വളരുന്നത് (Regeneration); യീസ്റ്റിൽ മുകുള ങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുന്നത് (Budding).

Sexual Reproduction in Plants: Seeds
□ Plants growing from seeds. This method is fundamentally different from the asexual methods discussed above because it involves the formation of seeds through sexual reproduction.

Structure of a Flower
Main Parts:

• Petals (ദളങ്ങൾ): Often brightly coloured to attract pollinators.
• Sepals (വിതളങ്ങൾ): Usually green, leaf-like structures that protect the bud.
• Pedicel (പൂഞ്ഞട്ട്): The stalk of the flower.
• Thalamus: The part of the stalk where the floral organs are attached.

Reproductive Organs:

• Stamen (കേസരം): The Male reproductive organ.
• Anther (പരാഗി): The part that produces pollen grains.
• Filament: The stalk that holds the anther.
• Pistil / Carpel: The Female reproductive organ.
• Stigma: The receptive tip where pollen lands.
• Style: The stalk connecting the stigma to the ovary.
• Ovary: Contains the ovules, which develop into seeds after fertilization.

Pollination
Pollen grains containing the male gametes are formed in the anther (part of the stamen). The process of these pollen grains settling on the stigma (part of the pistil) is called pollination.

• Pollinating Agents: Animals like insects and birds, as well as wind and water, help in pollination.
• The polien tube grows from the deposited pollen grain down towards the ovary. This tube carries the male gametes to fertilize the ovule inside the ovary.
• After pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma and the pollen tube grows towards the ovule inside the ovary.

Fertilization
One of the male gametes that reaches the ovule through the pollen tube fuses with the egg cell to form a zygote. This process is known as fertilization.

• The zygote grows and becomes an embryo. The embryo then grows into a seedling.
• The second male gamete fuses with the polar nuclei to form the endosperm. The endosperm stores the food needed for the growth of the embryo.

Endosperm vs. Cotyledons:

• In monocot plants (like paddy, maize, coconut), the endosperm itself is the primary stored food used during germination, and it’s often the edible part.
• In dicot plants, the food required for the embryo is stored in the cotyledon.

പരാഗണത്തിനുശേഷം (Pollination) പരാഗരേണു (pollen grain) മുളച്ച് പരാഗനാളി (pollen tube) അണ്ഡാശയത്തിലെ (Ovary) അണ്ഡത്തിലേക്ക് (Ovule) വളരുന്നു. പരാഗനാളിയിലൂടെ എത്തുന്ന രണ്ട് പുരുഷബീജങ്ങളിൽ (male gametes) ഒന്ന് അണ്ഡവുമായി (Ovum) ചേർന്ന് സിക്താണ്ഡം (Zygote) ഉണ്ടാകുന്നു. ഇതാണ് ബീജസങ്കലനം (Fertilization). സിക്താണ്ഡം വളർന്ന് ഭ്രൂണം (Embryo) ആകുന്നു. രണ്ടാമത്തെ പുരുഷബീജം അണ്ഡത്തിലെ പോളാർ ന്യൂക്ലിയസുമായി ചേർന്ന് എൻഡോസ്പേം (Endosperm) ഉണ്ടാകുന്നു. എൻഡോസ്പേം ആണ് ഭ്രൂണത്തിന്റെ വളർച്ചക്കാവ ശ്യമായ ആഹാരം സംഭരിക്കുന്നത്.

Fertilization
Like plants, animals also have specialized organ systems for reproduction. Reproduction in humans is sexual reproduction.
Hormones: Chemical substances produced by endocrine glands that control and coordinate various life activities, including reproduction.

Male reproductive System
In males, the testes are located in the scrotal sac just below the penis. For sperm production, a temperature 2 to 2.5 degrees Celsius lower than the normal body temperature is to be maintained. The contraction and relaxation of the scrotal sac helps in maintaining this temperature.

Female reproductive System

Gametes in Human Beings

Fertilization in Human Beings

• Semen: A combination of sperm cells formed in the testes and secretions from glands like the prostate.
• Ejaculation: The process by which semen is expelled through the penis.
• Sperm Transport: Sperm cells reach the vagina, pass through the uterus, and enter the fallopian tube.
• Fertilization: In the fallopian tube, one sperm unites with the egg (ovum) that has arrived there from the ovary. The process of the sperm uniting with the egg is called fertilization.
• Zygote Formation: Fertilization results in the formation of a zygote.
• Embryo Development: The zygote begins to divide and develops into an embryo. The embryo travels to the uterus and implants in the uterine wall (endometrium) to continue its growth.

പുരുഷബീജവും (Sperm) അണ്ഡവും (Ovum) സംയോജിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് ബീജസങ്കലനം (Fertilization). ഇത് സാധാരണയായി അണ്ഡവാ ഹിയിൽ (Fallopian tube) വെച്ചാണ് നടക്കുന്നത്. ബീജസങ്കലനത്തിന്റെ ഫലമായി സിക്താണ്ഡം (Zygote) രൂപപ്പെടുന്നു, അത് പിന്നീട് വളർന്ന് ഭ്രൂണമായി (Embryo) മാറുന്നു.

Ovulation & Menstruation

Illustration shows what happens after the ovary releases an egg.

• Ovulation: The process in which a fully matured ovum is released from the ovary.
• Preparation for Pregnancy: Along with ovulation, the thickness of the endometrium (inner lining of the uterus) increases, and more tissues and blood capillaries are formed in it, preparing to receive a fertilized egg.

Two Possibilities After Ovulation:

1. If Fertilization Occurs:

• A zygote is formed in the fallopian tube.
• The zygote develops into an embryo.
• The embryo implants in the thickened endometrium of the uterus and continues to grow. Pregnancy begins.

2. If Fertilization Does Not Occur:

• The released ovum disintegrates.
• The thickened endometrium (newly formed tissues and blood capillaries) is no longer needed.
• These tissues break down and are discharged through the vagina along with blood and mucus. This process is called Menstruation.

അണ്ഡാശയത്തിൽ നിന്ന് പൂർണ്ണവളർച്ചയെത്തിയ അണ്ഡം (Ovum) പുറത്തുവരുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് അണ്ഡവിസർജനം (Ovulation). ഇതോടൊപ്പം ഗർഭാശയത്തിന്റെ (Uterus) ആന്തരഭിത്തിയായ എൻഡോമെട്രിയം (Endometrium) കട്ടിയുള്ളതാ യി മാറുന്നു. ബീജസങ്കലനം (Fertilization) നടന്നാൽ, ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന ഭ്രൂണം (Embryo) ഈ ഭിത്തി യിൽ പറ്റിപ്പിടിച്ച് വളരും. ബീജസങ്കലനം നടന്നില്ലെ ങ്കിൽ, അണ്ഡം നശിച്ചുപോകുകയും, കട്ടിയുള്ള എൻഡോമെട്രിയം പാളി രക്തത്തോടൊപ്പം യോനി യിലൂടെ (Vagina) പുറന്തള്ളപ്പെടുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു. ഇതാണ് ആർത്തവം (Menstruation).

Growth & Reproduction
Growth: From zygote to organism involves Cell Division, Cell Growth, and Cell Differentiation.

Cell Division Types:
1. Mitosis: For growth, repair, asexual reproduction. Produces two identical daughter cells with the same chromosome number as the parent. Stages: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase. Cytokinesis differs in plant (cell plate) and animal (furrowing) cells.

• Mitosis takes place in two stages:
• Karyokinesis (division of the nucleus)
• Cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm)

Karyokinesis: Each organism has a specific number of chromosomes. In human cells, the chromosome number is 46.

2. Meiosis: For gamete formation in sexual reproduction. Produces four daughter cells with half the chromosome number of the parent germ cell (e.g,, 46 → 23). In females, produces 1 ovum + 3 polar bodies. Maintains constant chromosome number across generations.

ശരീര വളർച്ചയ്ക്കും കേടുപാടുകൾ തീർക്കുന്നതി നും സഹായിക്കുന്ന കോശവിഭജനമാണ് ക്രമഭംഗം (Mitosis). ഇതിൽ ക്രോമസോം സംഖ്യയ്ക്ക് മാറ്റം വരുന്നില്ല. എന്നാൽ ലൈംഗിക പ്രത്യുത് പാദനത്തിനാവശ്യമായ ബീജകോശങ്ങൾ (Gametes) രൂപപ്പെടുന്നത് ഊനഭംഗം (Meiosis) വഴി യാണ്. ഇതിൽ ക്രോമസോം സംഖ്യ പകുതിയായി കുറയുന്നു (ഉദാ: 46 → 23).

Twins

• Identical Twins: Single zygote splits into two; genetically identical, same sex.
• Fraternal Twins: Two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm; genetically like siblings, can be different sexes.
• Conjoined Twins: Incomplete splitting of a zygote; bodies joined, genetically identical, same sex.

Adolescence

• Age: ~10 to 19 years; transition from childhood to maturity.
• Changes: Growth spurt, reproductive organ growth, brain development, skin changes (acne due to sebum), mental/ emotional changes.
• Puberty: Physical changes for reproductive capability.
• Health: Importance of balanced nutrition, avoiding harmful influences (drugs, abuse), wise use of media.

The comprehensive approach in SCERT Class 8 Basic Science Textbook Solutions Chapter 17 The Beauty of Diversity Important Questions ensure conceptual clarity.

The Beauty of Diversity Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Basic Science Chapter 17 Kerala Syllabus

The Beauty of Diversity Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Regarding the levels of biodiversity, choose the correct statements.
i. Genetic diversity refers to the diversity at the ecosystem level.
ii. Species diversity refers to the variation within a species.
iii. Ecosystem diversity refers to the variety of different habitats in a region.
iv. Different varieties of mangoes in India represent genetic diversity.
(a) i, ii correct
(b) iii, iv correct
(c) i, iii correct
(d) ii, iv correct
Answer:
(b) iii, iv correct

Question 2.
Choose the correct statements about decomposers.
i. Green plants are examples of decomposers.
ii. Decomposers break down complex molecules in dead remains into simpler ones.
iii. Bacteria and Fungi are examples of decomposers.
iv. Decomposers are placed at the top of the food chain.
a) i, iv correct
b) ii, iii correct
c) i, iii correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) ii, iii correct

Question 3.
Select the correct statements regarding ecological interactions.
i. In mutualism, both organisms benefit.
ii. In parasitism, both organisms are harmed.
iii. In commensalism, one benefits, and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
iv. Predation is beneficial to both the predator and the prey.
a) i, iii correct
b) ii, iv correct
c) i, ii, iii correct
d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) i, iii correct

Question 4.
Complete the food chain by placing the organisms in the correct sequence: Snake, Eagle, Paddy, Rat.
a) _________ → (b) _________ → (c) _________ → (d) _________
Answer:
a) Paddy
b) Rat
c) Snake
d) Eagle

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks representing the trophic levels in the energy pyramid shown in Illustration 17.4.

Trophic level 4: (a) _________Consumers
Trophic level 3: Secondary Consumers
Trophic level 2: (b) _________Consumers
Trophic level 1: (c) _________
Answer:
(a) Tertiary
(b) Primary
(c) Producers

Question 6.
Complete the diagram illustrating the Carbon Cycle by filling in the processes (A), (B), and (C) based on Illustration 17.7.

Atmospheric CO₂ → (A) Plants → (B) Animals → (C) Atmospheric CO₂
Answer:
A) Photosynthesis
B) Consumption / Eating
C) Respiration

Question 7.
Define the following terms:
a) Habitat
b) Ecosystem
Answer:
a) Habitat: The natural surroundings where each living being lives.
b) Ecosystem: The community of plants, animals, and microorganisms in an area interacting with each other and with abiotic factors.

Question 8.
Give one example for each of the following ecological interactions:
a) Mutualism
b) Parasitism
Answer:
a) Mutualism: Flower and Butterfly (pollination for nectar) OR Lichens (Algae and Fungus).
b) Parasitism: Flea on a Dog OR Lice on humans.

Question 9.
What is the Red Data Book, and which organisation publishes it?
Answer:
The Red Data Book is a document containing information about rare and endangered animals and plants. It is published by the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature).

Question 10.
Observe Figure 17.3 showing different habitats. List two abiotic (non-living) factors essential for the survival of organisms in the Desert habitat shown.

Answer:
Two abiotic factors essential in a desert are:
Sunlight (provides energy, but also contributes to high temperature).
Water (scarce, crucial for survival). (Other possible answers: Air, Soil type/ Sand).

Question 11.
Illustration 17.5 shows a Vanda plant growing on a tree.

a) Identify this type of ecological interaction.
b) Explain how each organism is affected.
Answer:
a) Commensalism.
b) The Vanda (orchid) benefits by getting support and access to sunlight without harming the tree. The Tree is neither benefited nor harmed.

Question 12.
Figure 17.7 shows deforestation. List two negative impacts of deforestation on biodiversity shown or implied in the comparison with Figure 17.6.


Answer:
Two negative impacts are:
Habitat Loss: The removal of trees destroys the homes and living spaces for many animals and plants seen in Fig 17.6.
Loss of Food Sources: Animals that depend on the trees or other forest plants for food lose their sustenance.
(Other possible answers: Soil erosion, disruption of food webs).

Question 13.
Explain why decomposers like bacteria and fungi are essential for the balance of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Decomposers break down dead organisms and waste products. This process is crucial because it returns essential nutrients (like carbon, nitrogen) back into the soil, water, and air, making them available for producers (plants) to use again. Without decomposers, nutrients would remain locked in dead matter, and the ecosystem would eventually run out of usable nutrients.

Question 14.
Why does the amount of energy available decrease at each higher trophic level in a food chain?
Answer:
Energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient. When one organism consumes another, a large portion of the energy obtained is used by the consumer for its own life processes (like respiration, movement, maintaining body temperature) and is ultimately lost as heat to the environment. Only a small fraction of the energy is stored in the consumer’s body and becomes available to the next trophic level.

Question 15.
Explain the importance of biodiversity in pollination and seed dispersal.
Answer:
Pollination: Many plants rely on animals (like bees, butterflies, birds – part of biodiversity) to transfer pollen, which is necessary for fertilization and fruit/seed production. Without these pollinators, many plant species, including important food crops, could not reproduce.
Seed Dispersal: Animals (like birds, mammals – part of biodiversity) often eat fruits and disperse the seeds in their droppings far from the parent plant. This helps plants colonize new areas, increasing their chances of survival and maintaining genetic diversity across landscapes.

Question 16.
Evaluate the statement: “Protecting only the top predators like tigers is enough for biodiversity conservation.” Is this sufficient? Explain why or why not.
Answer:
No, protecting only top predators is not sufficient. While important, they are just one part of the complex ecosystem. Biodiversity conservation requires protecting all levels of the food web and their habitats. Producers (plants) form the base, herbivores control plant populations, and decomposers recycle nutrients. Protecting the entire ecosystem, including lower trophic levels and habitats, ensures the long-term survival of top predators and maintains overall ecological balance.

Question 17.
Explain the difference between In-situ and Ex-situ conservation methods, giving one example for each.
Answer:
In-situ conservation: Involves protecting species within their natural habitats. Example: National Parks (like Eravikulam) or Wildlife Sanctuaries (like Periyar).

Ex-situ conservation: Involves protecting species outside their natural habitats, often in controlled environments. Example: Zoological gardens (Zoos) or Botanical gardens.

Question 18.
Evaluate the importance of the People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR) in conservation efforts.
Answer:
The PBR is important because it is a local-level documentation of the biodiversity (microorganisms, plants, animals) present in a specific area, prepared with community participation. This detailed, localized information helps:
Understand the unique characteristics and availability of local species.
Identify species that may need conservation focus.
Involve the local community, making conservation efforts more effective and sustainable.
Provide baseline data for monitoring changes in biodiversity over time.

Question 19.
Classify the following as producers and consumers.
Lizard, Planktons, Paddy, Calotes, Carrot, Grasshopper, Tortoise, Algae, Snake
Answer:

Producers	Consumers
Paddy	Lizard
Carrot	Calotes
Planktons	Grasshopper
Algae	Tortoise
	Snake

Question 20.
Find out suitable example for the animal relations mentioned.
i. Parasitism ___________
ii. Mutualism ___________
iii. Commensalism ___________
Crops × Weeds
Mango tree × Vanda
Mango tree × Loranthus
Fish × Heron
Hermit crab × sea anemone
Answer:
i. Mango tree and Loranthus
ii. Hermit Crab – Sea anemone
iii. Mango tree and Vanda.

Question 21.
Which are the different types of conservation of biodiversity?
Answer:
These are mainly two types.

1. In-situ conservation in which organisms are conserved within their natural environment
2. Ex-situ conservation in which animals are protected out their natural environment.

Question 22.
Complete the illustration Suitably

Answer:
a. Environmental/Ecological services
b. Cultural services
c. Food, Medicine
d. Nutrient Cycle, Pollination

Question 23.
Classify the following into Exsitu and In-situ.
(Zoological Gardens, Sacred Groves, Gene banks, Biosphere Reserves, Botanical Gardens, National parks)
Answer:

In-situ	Ex-situ
National parks	Zoological Gardens
Sacred Groves	Gene Banks
Biosphere Reserves	Botanical Gardens.

Question 24.
Expand the following terms.
Answer:
JNTBGRI – Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute.
MBG – Malabar Botanical Garden
RGCB – Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology.

Question 25.
Why do all the food chains start from green plants?
Answer:
The basis of all food chain is the plants. They are the producers. These are eaten by the herbivores which in turn are eaten by the carnivores.

Question 26.
The members at the successive higher levels are lesser in number and larger in size in a food chain. What about their body weight? What would be the reason for that?
Answer:
In the successive higher levels in the food chain the number of consumers decreases and the size of their body increases. The number of producers will be very large. The number of animals which feed on them is less in number. But their body size increases.

Question 27.
Hay → Horse
Paddy → FowlFox
Phytoplankton → Tadpole → Fish → Man
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Vulture
Examine the food chain given above and classify them as primary consumers, secondary and tertiary consumers.
Answer:
Producers
Hay, Paddy, Phytoplankton, Grass

Primary consumer
Horse, Fowl, Tadpole, Grass hopper

Secondary consumers
Fox, Fish, Frog, Snake

Tertiary consumers
Vulture, Man

Question 28.
What will happen if the number of herbivores increase?
Answer:
If the number of herbivores increase they will eat away all the grass and shrubs and they will have to face shortage of food. The destruction of grass and shrubs will cause soil erosion and the top fertile soil will be washed away.

Question 29.
Animals which are facing extinction.
Answer:

• Wild goat
• Musk deer
• Indian wild Ass
• Lion tailed Monkey
• Lion
• Rhinoceros
• The large Indian Bustard
• Tiger
• Kashmir deer
• Himalayan Tiger
• Silver owl
• Panda

Question 30.
Write down the name of any two organisations that work for the protection of nature
Answer:
IUCN (International Union for
Conservation of Nature)
WWF (World Wide Fund For Nature)

Question 31.
Choose the appropriate ones from the box and complete the table

(a) Nilgiris	i) Wild life Sanctuary
(b) Periyar	ii) National Parks
(c) Silent Valley	iii) Biosphere Reserves
(d) Kadalundi	iv) Community Reserve
(e) Malabar Botanical Garden

Answer:
i. Wildlife Sanctuaries – b) Periyar
ii. National Parks – c) Silent Valley
iii. Biosphere reserves – a) Nilgiris
iv. Community reserves – d) Kadalundi

Question 32.
Ecological interactions and their examples are given in the boxes. Make pairs according to the model given below.
Model – Predation: Deer and tiger

Ecological interactions	Examples
Predation	Mango tree and loranthus
Mutualism	Deer and tiger
Parasitism	Flower and butterfly
Commensalism	Mango tree and vanda

Answer:
Predation – Deer and tiger
Mutualism – Flower and butterfly
Parasitism – Mango tree and loranthus
Commensalism – Mango tree and vanda

Question 33.
Observe the pictures
i) Identify and name the organisms given above.
ii) Mention their specific importance related to biodiversity conservation.


Answer:
(i) A. Lion – tailed macaque
(Scientic name: Macaca silenus)
B. i. Nilgiri tahr (Scientific name: Nilgiritragushylocrius)
ii) These organisms on the verge of extinction due to several reasons.

Question 34.
Analyse the given statement and answer the questions.
There exist diverse ecosystems in earth, each differs in richness of biodiversity.
i. Is it necessary to conserve all kinds of ecosystems? Why?
ii. Write any four services of biodiversity.
Answer:
a) Yes
Ecosystems are places where there is rich biodiversity. Destruction of an ecosystem means destruction of many living organisms. So, in order to protect living organisms, we have to protect natural ecosystems.

b) Availability of essential materials

• Food
• Medicine
• Fuels
• Construction materials
  Cultural Services
• Aesthetics
• Recreation
• Study Practice of rituals
• Ecological services
• Soil Formation
• Prevention of soil erosion.
  O₂, CO₂ balance
• Availability of freshwater
• Flood control
• Climate control
  Auxiliary services
• Nutrient cycling, Pollination, Biological Control. Seed dispersal

Question 35.
Give reason.
It is not possible to illustrate a food chain using the following organisms
Snake, Rat, Eagle
Answer:
Eagle feed on both rats and snakes. So we cannot illustrate food chain

Question 36.
Complete the table given below:

A	B	C
Rat	Primary consumer	(a)  ………………….
Paddy	(b) ………………….	first trophic level
snake	(c) …………………….	Third trophic level
Eagle	Tertiary consumer	(c)  ………………….

Answer:
a) Second trophic level
b) Producers
c) Secondary consumers
d) Fourth trophic level

Question 37.
Pickout the organisms that are related to commensalism from the following and write as a pair.
Mango tree, Loranthus, Vanda, Butterfly, Snail, Flower
Answer:
Mango tree – Vanda

Question 38.
Correct mistakes if any, in the underlined part of the following statements.
• Dodo is an extinct organism.
• Palode Tropical Botanical Garden is an example for In-Situ conservation.
• Indo-Burma Region is an Ecological hotspot.
Answer:
Palode Tropical Botanical Garden is an example for Ex-situ conservation

Question 39.
Analyse the given food chain and an-swer the following.
A: Paddy → Hen → Fox → Lion
B: Grass → Deer → Tiger
a) In these food chains A and Lion and Tiger belong to which trophic levels.
b) What is the role of these organisms in maintaining ecological balance?
c) Write two messages for the conservation of these organisms, for preparing a poster.
Answer:
a) Lion – Fourth trophical level
Tiger – Third trophical level

b)They control the number of organisms that they eat. If they become extinct, the number of organism in
the lower trophic levels will be increasing in number beyond a certain limit. It will cause imbalance to the environment.

c) Earth without wild life is life without beautiful things.
If you like to shoot animals, do it with a camera, not a gun.

Question 40.
Identify the examples of given ecological interactions and answer the questions.
(i) Mango tree and Loranthus
(ii) Mango tree and Vanda
a. Name the ecological interactions (i) and (ii)
b. Write the name and peculiarity of another ecological interaction.
Answer:
a. i) Parasitism
ii) Commensalism
b. Predators – Eg: Tiger and deer

The Beauty of Diversity Class 8 Questions and Answers Notes Basic Science Chapter 16 Kerala Syllabus

Question 41.
Which trophic level has the maximum amount of energy available?
a) Primary Consumers
b) Producers
c) Secondary Consumers
d) Decomposers
Answer:
(b) Producers

Question 42.
Which interaction is characterized by the relationship where one organism benefits and the other is harmed?
(a) Mutualism
(b) Commensalism
(c) Predation
(d) Parasitism
Answer:
(d) Parasitism (Note: Predation also involves harm, but parasitism is a longterm, dependent relationship, e.g., Flea and Cat).

Question 43.
The organization responsible for publishing the Red Data Book is:
(a) WWF
(b) BMC
(c) IUCN
(d) PBR
Answer:
(c) IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature)

Question 44.
A Purple Frog (Mahabali Frog) is often called a ‘living fossil’ primarily because:
(a) It is found only in the Himalayas.
(b) It comes out only once a year to mate.
(c) It has undergone very little evolutionary change over millions of years.
(d) It lives underground.
Answer:
(c) It has undergone very little evolutionary change over millions of years.

Question 45.
Define Biodiversity Hotspot
Answer:
Biodiversity Hotspot: A geographically rich area that harbors a large number of endemic species and is under threat from human activities.

Question 46.
Differentiate between In-situ and Ex-situ conservation.
Answer:
In-situ Conservation: Protecting organisms within their natural habitats (e.g., National Park). Ex-situ Conservation: Protecting organisms outside their natural habitats in controlled conditions (e.g., Zoological Garden).

Question 47.
What is the main role of the Fungus component in the symbiotic relationship of a Lichen?
Answer:
The Fungus provides structure, protection, and helps in the absorption of water for the lichen organism.

Question 48.
Why is the amount of available energy found to decrease at successive trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy is lost as heat at each transfer step between trophic levels as organisms use energy for respiration and metabolic processes.

Question 49.
Explain the concept of Ecosystem Diversity with an example.
Answer:
Ecosystem Diversity: This refers to the variety of different habitats, ecosystems, and ecological processes found in an area.
Example: The diversity of hills, rivers, mangrove forests, and paddy fields found within a single region.

Question 50.
Differentiate between Genetic Diversity and Species Diversity. (2 points each)
Answer:
Genetic Diversity:
Variations within the individuals of a single species.
Example: Different varieties of rice or mango. Species Diversity:
Species Diversity.
The variety and number of different species in a particular area.
Example: The difference between a forest containing elephants, tigers, and bamboo plants.

Students often refer to Kerala State Syllabus SCERT Class 8 Maths Solutions and Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Decimal Forms Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SCERT Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Solutions Decimal Forms

Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Chapter 10 Decimal Forms Questions and Answers

Decimal Forms Class 8 Questions and Answers Kerala Syllabus

Earlier Forms (Page 164)

Question 1.
Write in fractional form, the numbers given in decimal form below:
(i) 0.1
(ii) 0.01
(iii) 0.11
(iv) 0.101
(v) 0.0101
Answer:
(i) 0.1 = \(\frac {1}{10}\)
(ii) 0.01 = \(\frac {1}{100}\)
(iii) 0.11 = \(\frac {11}{100}\)
(iv) 0.101 = \(\frac {101}{1000}\)
(v) 0.0101 = \(\frac {101}{10000}\)

Some Other Fractions (Page 166)

Question 1.
Write the fractions below in decimal form:
(i) \(\frac {3}{20}\)
(ii) \(\frac {3}{40}\)
(iii) \(\frac {13}{40}\)
(iv) \(\frac {7}{80}\)
(v) \(\frac {5}{16}\)
Answer:
(i) \(\frac{3}{20}=\frac{3 \times 5}{20 \times 5}=\frac{15}{100}\) = 0.15

(ii) 40 = 2 × 2 × (2 × 5)
Multiplied by 5 × 5
(2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{3}{40}=\frac{3 \times 5 \times 5}{40 \times 5 \times 5}=\frac{75}{1000}\) = 0.075

(iii) 40 = 2 × 2 × (2 × 5)
Multiplied by 5 × 5
(2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{13}{40}=\frac{13 \times 5 \times 5}{40 \times 5 \times 5}=\frac{325}{1000}\) = 0.325

(iv) 80 = 2 × 2 × 2 × (2 × 5)
Multiplied by 5 × 5 × 5
(2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) = 10000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{7}{80}=\frac{7 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5}{80 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5}=\frac{875}{10000}\) = 0.0875

(v) 16 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2
Multiplied by 5 × 5 × 5 × 5
(2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) × (2 × 5) = 10000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{5}{16}=\frac{5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5}{16 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 5}=\frac{3125}{10000}\) = 0.3125

Question 2.
Find the decimal form of the sums below:
(i) \(\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{25}+\frac{1}{125}\)
(ii) \(\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5^2}+\frac{1}{5^3}+\frac{1}{5^4}\)
(iii) \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{2^3}\)
Answer:

Question 3.
A two-digit number divided by another two-digit number gives 5.875. What are the numbers?
Answer:
5.875 = \(\frac {5875}{1000}\)
5875 = 5 × 5 × 5 × 47
1000 = 5 × 5 × 5 × 8

5.875 = \(\frac{5875}{1000}=\frac{5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 47}{5 \times 5 \times 5 \times 8}=\frac{47}{8}\)
But 8 is not a two-digit number.
So we multiplied both numerator and denominator by 2, and we get
\(\frac{47}{8}=\frac{94}{16}\)
5.875 = \(\frac {94}{16}\)

New forms (Page 172)

Question 1.
Find fractions with powers of 10 as denominators that get closer and closer to each of the fractions below, and write the decimal form of each:
(i) \(\frac {5}{6}\)
(ii) \(\frac {1}{9}\)
(iii) \(\frac {1}{11}\)
Answer:

Question 2.
Prove that the numbers \(\frac{1}{10}, \frac{11}{100}, \frac{111}{1000}, \ldots\) get closer and closer to \(\frac {1}{9}\).
(ii) Find the decimal forms of \(\frac{1}{9}, \frac{2}{9}, \frac{3}{9}, \frac{4}{9}, \frac{5}{9}, \frac{6}{9}, \frac{7}{9}, \frac{8}{9}\)
(iii) What are the decimal forms of \(\frac {2}{3}\)?
Answer:

Question 3.
Compute the following and write answers in decimal form:
(i) 0.111… + 0.222…
(ii) 0.333… + 0.777…
(iii) 0.333… × 0.666…
Answer:
(i) 0.111 = \(\frac {1}{9}\)

Question 4.
For each of the fractions below, write the decimal form of a fraction with a difference less than \(\frac {1}{1000}\)
(i) \(\frac {1}{3}\)
(ii) \(\frac {1}{6}\)
(iii) \(\frac {2}{3}\)
(iv) \(\frac {5}{6}\)
(v) \(\frac {1}{7}\)
Answer:
(i) \(\frac {1}{3}\) = 0.333
(ii) \(\frac {1}{6}\) = 0.166 (or 0.167)
(iii) \(\frac {2}{3}\) = 0.666 (or 0.667)
(iv) \(\frac {5}{6}\) = 0.833
(v) \(\frac {1}{7}\) = 0.142

Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Kerala Syllabus Decimal Forms Questions and Answers

Class 8 Maths Decimal Forms Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the decimal form of the fraction \(\frac {1}{8}\)?
(A) 0.18
(B) 0.125
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.0125
Answer:
(B) 0.125

Question 2.
Which of the following fractions has the decimal form 0.04?
(A) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(B) \(\frac {4}{10}\)
(C) \(\frac {1}{25}\)
(D) \(\frac {2}{5}\)
Answer:
(C) \(\frac {1}{25}\)

Question 3.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: The fraction \(\frac {1}{3}\) cannot be written as a fraction with a denominator that is a power of 10 (like 10, 100, 1000).
Statement II: The decimal form of \(\frac {1}{3}\) is the recurring decimal 0.333….
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are true

Question 4.
Read the given statements.
Statement I: 0.03 = \(\frac {3}{100}\)
Statement II: 0.03 can be split as \(\frac {0}{10}\) + \(\frac {3}{100}\).
Choose the correct answer:
(A) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(B) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
(C) Both statements are true, and II explains I.
(D) Both statements are false.
Answer:
(C) Both statements are true, and II explains I.

Question 5.
If \(\frac {1}{9}\) = 0.111…, then what is the decimal form of \(\frac {5}{9}\)?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.0505…
(C) 0.555…
(D) 0.9595…
Answer:
(C) 0.555…

Question 6.
What is the missing number in the expansion of 0.72?
0.72 = \(\frac{7}{10}+\frac{\cdots .}{100}\)
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 72
(D) 0
Answer:
(B) 2

Question 7.
Write in decimals
(a) \(\frac {1}{9}\)
(b) \(\frac {2}{9}\)
(c) \(\frac {1}{7}\)
(d) \(\frac {1}{11}\)
(e) \(\frac {2}{11}\)
(f) \(\frac {1}{12}\)
Answer:
(a) 0.111…
(b) 0.222…
(c) 0.14285…
(d) 0.090909…
(e) 0.181818…
(f) 0.08333…

Question 8.
Find the fraction of the denominator that is a power of 10 equal to each of the fractions below, and then write their decimal forms:
(i) \(\frac {1}{50}\)
(ii) \(\frac {3}{40}\)
(iii) \(\frac {5}{16}\)
(iv) \(\frac {12}{625}\)
Answer:

Question 9.
Find the fraction of the denominator that is a power of 10, getting closer and closer to each of the fractions below, and then write their decimal forms.
(i) \(\frac {5}{6}\)
(ii) \(\frac {3}{11}\)
(iii) \(\frac {23}{11}\)
(iv) \(\frac {1}{13}\)
Answer:

Question 10.
(i) Explain using algebra that the fractions \(\frac{1}{10}, \frac{11}{100}, \frac{111}{1000}, \ldots\) get closer and closer to \(\frac {1}{9}\).
(ii) Using the general principle above on single digit numbers, find the decimal forms of \(\frac{2}{9}, \frac{4}{9}, \frac{5}{9}, \frac{7}{9}, \frac{8}{9}\) (Why \(\frac {3}{9}\) and \(\frac {6}{9}\) left out in this?)
(iii) What can we say in general about those decimal forms in which a single digit repeats?
Answer:
(i) Let x be the number
\(\frac{x}{9}-\frac{x}{10}=\frac{x}{90}=\frac{x}{9}-\frac{11 x}{100}=\frac{x}{900}\)



(\(\frac {3}{9}\), \(\frac {6}{9}\). These fractions having common factor in the numerator and the denominator.
(iii) Repeated decimals.

Question 11.
(a) Find the decimal form of \(\frac {1}{4}\).
(b) Write the decimal form of \(\frac{7}{10}+\frac{3}{100}+\frac{4}{1000}\).
Answer:

Question 12.
(a) Write the decimal forms of \(\frac {1}{3}\) and \(\frac {1}{9}\).
(b) What is the decimal form of (0.33333….)²?
Answer:

Question 13.
Write the decimal forms of \(\frac {3}{25}\) and \(\frac {1}{8}\).
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{25}=\frac{3 \times 4}{25 \times 4}=\frac{12}{100}\) = 0.12
\(\frac{1}{8}=\frac{1 \times 125}{8 \times 125}=\frac{125}{1000}\) = 0.125

Question 14.
(a) Write the decimal form of the fractions \(\frac {1}{2}\) and \(\frac {2}{5}\).
(b) If \(\frac {4}{k}\) is a fraction between \(\frac {1}{2}\) and \(\frac {2}{5}\). What is k?
(c) Write the decimal form of the fraction \(\frac {4}{k}\).
Answer:

If \(\frac {4}{k}\) is between \(\frac {1}{2}\) and \(\frac {2}{5}\), then \(\frac {4}{k}\) is between \(\frac {4}{8}\) and \(\frac {4}{10}\).
Then the number is \(\frac {4}{9}\)
∴ k = 9
(c) \(\frac {4}{9}\) = 0.444…

Question 15.
(i) Find the decimal form of \(\frac {1}{11}\).
(ii) Find the decimal forms of \(\frac {2}{11}\), \(\frac {3}{11}\).
(iii) What is the decimal form of \(\frac {10}{11}\)?
Answer:

Question 16.
Write the results of the operations below as decimals:
(i) (0.333….)²
(ii) \(\sqrt{0.444 \ldots \ldots}\)
Answer:

Question 17.
Write the decimal form of \(\frac {1}{6}\)
Answer:
\(\frac {1}{6}\) = 0.1666…..

Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Decimal Forms

Fractions with Powers of 10 as Denominators
Fractions with powers of 10 as denominators can be written in decimal form.
\(\frac {3}{10}\) = 0.3
\(\frac {54}{10}\) = 5.4
\(\frac {29}{100}\) = 0.29
\(\frac {54}{100}\) = 0.54
\(\frac {347}{1000}\) = 0.347
\(\frac {54}{1000}\) = 0.054

Any number in decimal form can be written using fractions with powers of 10 as denominators.
0.7 = \(\frac {7}{10}\)
0.91 = \(\frac {91}{100}\)
0.673 = \(\frac {673}{1000}\)

Decimal numbers can be splitted according to place value.

Some Other Fractions
Convention of some fractions, whose denominators are not powers of 10.

New forms
Conversion of some fractions, whose denominators were not powers of 10.