Bhagya

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

I. Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
In man, the first part of the small intestine is ‘C’ shaped and is called
Answer:
Duodenum

Question 2.
Hypersecretion ofGH : Gigantism ::
Hyposecretion of GH : _______
Answer:
Dwarfism

Question 3.
In a polysaccharide the individual mono-saccharide
are linked by _______
Answer:
Glycosidic bond

Peptide bond, disulphide bond, Glycosidic bond, diester bond

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin as
Answer:
Carbamino haemoglobin

II. Answer any nine questions from 5 to 17. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 5.
a) Differentiate between heterodont dentition and thecodont dentition, b) Write down dental formula of man.
Answer:
a) fleterodont: Different types of teeth present in
ThecodonUlentition : Each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone.
b) Dental formula of man

Question 6.
Observe the figure.

a) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
Answer:
A – Nerve cord
B – Notochord
C – Gill slits
D – Post anal tail

Question 7.
Complete the flow chart

Answer:
A – Central Nervous system
B – Autonomous Neural system
C – Mid Brain
D – Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 8.
Vassopressin is also called antidiuretic hormone. Justify.
Answer:
It helps in the reabsorption of water & electrolyte from the DCT of kidney and reduces diuresis (loss of water through urine).

Question 9.
Observe the figure.

a) Identify the tissues A, B and C.
b) Name the tissue in which intercalated disc is present.
Answer:
a) A. Skeletal Muscle
B. Smooth Muscle
C. Cardiac Muscle
b) Cardiac Muscle

Question 10.
Taxonomic aids and their explanations given in two columns, Match them correctly.
Answer:

Taxonomic aids	Explanation
Key	Have collection of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and reference.
Museum	Contain information on any one taxon
Zoological park	Taxonomic aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
Monograph	The places where wild animals are kept in protected environments under human care.

Answer:

Taxonomic aids	Explanation
Key	Taxonomic aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and difference.
Museum	Have a collection of preserved plant and animal specimen s for study and reference
Zoological park	The places where wild animals are kept in protected environments under human care.
Monograph	Contain information on any one taxon

Question 11.
Observe the figure

a) Identify the diagrammatic representation.
b) What does the QRS complex indicates?
Answer:
a) Electro Cardio Gram – ECG
b) QRS – indicates electrical depolarization of ventricles

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks using appropriate words given below.
Ommatidium, Respiration,
Answer:

A _____	Mosaic vision
Spiracle	B _____
Malpighian tubules	C _____
D _____	Grinding food particles

Answer:

A- Ommatidium	Mosaic vision
Spiracles	B-Respiration
Malpighian tubules	C-Excretory organ
D-Gizzard	Grinding food particles

Question 13.
Observe the figure

b) Write the function of organ of corti.
Answer:
a) A-Scala vestibule
B – Tectorial membrane
C – Scala intermedia
b) transduction of auditory signals or Recepter organ for hearing

Question 14.
List out the following as oviparous and viviparous
Corvus, Testudo, Canis, Felis
Answer:
Oviparous-Corvus and Testudo Viviparous – Canis and Felis

Question 15.
Compare the following
a) Adipose tissue and areolar tissue
b) Tendons and ligarfents
Answer:
(a)

Adipose Tissue	Areolar tissue
Seen beneath the skin	Seen beneath the skin
Stores fat	Support frame work for epithelial tissue, contain fibroblast, Macrophage and mast cells

(b)

Tendon	Ligament
Helps to connect muscles to the bone	Helps in bone to bone connection

Question 16.
With the help of an example, explain meta-genesis.
Answer:
Metagenesis is referred to the phenomenon of alternation of generation shown by cnidarians which exhibit both forms- polyps and medusae . Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form the polyps sexually e.g., Obelia.

Question 17.
Oxygen dissociation curve is given below.

Answer:
a) Oxyhaemoglobin forms in Lungs alveoli.
b)PO₂ becOmes low
PCO₂ becomes high

Answer any three questions from 18 to 22. Each carries 3 scoers. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 18.
Observe the diagram

a) Identify the diagram.
b) Label the parts marked as A and B
c) What is glomerulus?
Answer:
a) Malpighian body
b) A-Afferent arteriole
B – Bowman’s capsule
c) Glomerulus -It is an tuft of capillaries formed by afferent arteriole found inside Bowman’s capsule.

Question 19.
a) Name three major categories of joints.
b) What do you mean by a joint?
c) Give an example for Ball and socket joint.
Answer:
a) Fibrous joints, Cartilaginous joints and Synovial joints
b) Joint – it is the point where two or more bones intersect each other.
c) Joint between pectoral girdle and humerus.

Question 20.
Observe the diagrams A and B

a) Name the symmetry exhibits by animals given in A and B.
b) Differentiate the symmetry of A with symmetry of B.
c) Write an example for animal showing asymmetry. U
Answer:
a) A-Radial symmetry
B- Bilateral symmetry

b) Radial symmetry: Body can be divided into 2 similar halves by any plane along central axis of body.
Bilateral symmetry: Body can be divided into 2 right and left halves through a single plane along the longitudinal axis.

c) Phylum Porifera -eg spongilla

Question 21.
a) Mention any three types of co-factors associated with enzyme.
b) Name the co-enzyme present in vitamin niacine.
c) What happens when co-factor is removed from an enzyme?
Answer:
a) Prosthetic group, Co-enzyme and Metal ions
b) NADP contain niacin
c) If a cofactor is removed from an enzyme it cant function as a catalyst.

Question 22.
Schematic plan of blood circulation of man is given below.

a) Name two circulatory pathways.
b) Explain its significance.
c) Comment on hepatic portal system.
Answer:
a) Pulmonary circulation and Systemic circulation.

b) Pulmonary circulation helps in the Oxygenation of blood and removal of CO₂ from blood occurs. Systemic circulation helps to provide nutrients, O₂ and other substances to the tissues and removes CO₂ and other harmful substances.

c) Hepatic portal system: The hepatic portal system is the venous system that returns blood from the digestive tract and spleen to the liver.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2022

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 11. Each carries 2 scores: (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 1.
Write any two properties of cathode rays. (1)
Answer:

• They contain materjal particle.
• They move in straight line.

Question 2.
i) Mention the principle which restricts the number of electrons in an orbital as two. (1)
Answer:
Pauli’s Exclusion principle

ii) Define orbital (1)
Answer:
Orbitals are the region where the probability of finding an electron is maximum.

Question 3.
Explain sp³ hybridisation. Give an example of a molecule in which the central atom is in sp³ hybridisation.
Answer:
One s-orbital and three p-orbital hybridises to form four sp3 hybrid orbitals of same shape and energy, eg: CH₄, NH₃, H₂O.

Question 4.
Explain the structure of H₂O molecule on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Answer:
In H₂O, sp³ hybridisation occurs and the geometry is tetrahedral with bond angle 109°. 281 but due to the presence of two lone pair of electrons repulsion occurs and bond angle is reduced to 104.5°. Shape changes to bent shape. .

Question 5.
i) Define oxidation and reduction in terms of oxidation number.
Answer:
Oxidation – increase in oxidation number
Reduction – decrease in oxidation number.

ii) Identify the oxidising and reducing agent in the following redox reaction.
Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu (1)

Reducing agent – Zn- undergoes oxidation Oxidising agent -Cu²⁺ undergoes reduction.

Question 6.
i) Which one of the following is an electron precise covalent hydride? (1)
(a) CH₄
(b) B₂H₆
(c) H₂O
(d) NH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₄

ii) What is Calgon? (1)
Answer:
Sodium hexa metaphosphate – calgon

Question 7.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 8.
Discuss the structure and bonding in diborane (B₂H₆) molecule.
Answer:


Four terminal B-H bond – 2 centered -2 electron bond. Two B-H-B-3 centred 2 electron bond or bridge bond.

Question 9.
i) Write the IUPAC name of

Answer:
3-chloropropanal

ii) Draw the structure of pent-3-en-2-ol. (1)
Answer:

Question 10.
i) Arrange the following carbocations in the increasing order of their stability. (1)

Answer:

ii) Name the factors which influence the stability of carbocations. (1)
Answer:
Inductive effect, hyper conjugation

Question 11.
Mention any two applications of green chemistry in day to day life.
Answer:
1. biodegradable polymers
2. for bleaching purpose H₂O₂ is used.

Answer any 8 questions from 12 to 23. Each carries 3 scores: (8×3 = 24)

Question 12.
A compound contains 4.07% hydrogen, 24.27% carbon and 71.65% chlorine. Its molar mass is 98.96 g. What are its empirical and molecular formulas?
Answer:

Empirical formula CH₂Cl
Empirical formula mass = 12 + 2 + 35.5 = 49. 5
Molecular mass = 98.96
n = \(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}\) = \(\frac{98.96}{49.5}\) = 2
Molecular formula = Empirical formula × n
= (CH₂Cl₂)₂
MF = C₂H₄Cl₂

Question 13.
i) Distinguish molarity and molality of solution. (2)
Answer
Molarity (M) is defined as the number of moles of solute in one litre’of the solution.
M = \(\frac{W_B}{M_B}\) × \(\frac{1000}{V in ml}\)

W_B → weight of. solute
M_B → Molecular mass of solute
V → Volume of solution

Molality (m): Molality is defined as the no. of moles of solute in one kilogram of the solvent.
m = \(\frac{W_B}{M_B}\) × \(\frac{1000}{W_A in g}\)
W_B → Weight of solute
M_B → Molecular-mass of solute
W_A → Weight pf solvent in gram.

ii) Among molarity and molality which one is tem-perature dependent? (1)
Answer:
Molarity is temperature dependent.

Question 14.
i) What are representative elements? (1)
Answer:
Representative elements: s block elements and p block elements together known as representa¬tive elements.

ii) What are isoelectronic species? Give suitable examples. (2)
Answer:
Isoelectronic species: Species which contains same number of electrons.
N^3-, O^2-, F^–, Na⁺, Mg²⁺, Al³⁺ – All contains 10 electrons.

Question 15.
i) Define electron gain enthalpy. (1)
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change when an electron is 20 added to an isolated gaseous atom

ii) Chlorine has more negative electron-gain enthalpy than flourine. Explain. (2)
Answer:
In flourine new electron is added to 2p orbital, the repulsion is more. In chlorine the new electron is added to 3p orbital due to large size of 3p orbital repulsion is less.

Question 16.
Write the postulates of kinetic molecular theory of gases.
Answer:
The important postulates of Kinetic molecular theory are:

• All gases contains small, minute, large no.of particles called mblecules.
• Molecules are in random motion.
• During their motion they collide with each other and also with the walls of the container. This creat pressure.
• The volume of the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the total volume of the gas.
• There is no force of attraction between the gas molecules.
• Average kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.

Question 17.
i) A vessel of 120 ml capacity contains a certain amount of gas at 35°C and 1.2 bar pressure. The gas is transferred to another vessel of volume 180 ml at 35°C. What would be its pressure? (2)
Answer:
\(\frac{P_1 V_1}{T_1}\) = \(\frac{P_2 V_2}{T_2}\) , \(\frac{1.2 \times 120}{308}\) = \(\frac{P_2 \times 180}{308}\)
P₂ = \(\frac{1.2 \times 120}{180}\) = 0.8 bar

ii) What is the effect of temperature on viscosity of liquids? (1)
Answer:
Viscosity decreases with increase in temperature.

Question 18.
i) An example for intensive property is
(a) Mass
(b) Volume
(c) Density
(d) Heat capacity
Answer:
(c) Density

ii) Calculate standard enthalpy of formation (AH°_r) of CO from the following data using Hess’s law. (2)

Answer:

Question 19.
Account for the following:
i) AlCl₃ can act as Lewis acid. (1)
Answer:
AlCl₃ is an electron deficient compound ie. it behaves as Lewis acid.

ii) pH of NH₄Cl in water is less than 7. (1)
Answer:
NH₄Cl + H₂O → NH₄OH + HCl
ie. NH₄CI is a salt of weak base and strong acid hence the pH is less than 7 indicating acidic nature.

iii) Addition of acetate ions to acetic acid decreases the concentration of hydrogen ions [H⁺] (1)
Answer:
Due to common ion effect.

Question 20.
i) Name the different types of redox reactions. (2)
Answer:
i) Disproportionation reaction, Combination reaction Displacement reaction, Decomposition reaction.

ii) Write the chemical reaction takes place when Zn rod is dipped in dil HCl. (1)
Answer:
Zn_(s) + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

Question 21.
i) What is temporary hardness? (1)
Answer:
i) Temporary hardness can be removed easily.

ii) Suggest two methods for the removal of temporary hardness. (2)
Answer:
a) Boiling: On boiling bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium are precipitated as carbonates and is filtered off.
b) Clarks process: By adding lime water (Ca(OH)₂) corresponding carbonates are precipitated and is filtered off.

Question 22.
i) Write the major and minor products formed in the following reaction:
CH₃ – CH = CH₂ + H – Br → (2)
Answer:

ii) Write the rule which governs the formation of major product. (1)
Answer:
Markonikovs rule

Question 23.
Define the following terms:
i) Green house effect. (1)
Answer:
Due to the lack of plants and trees, the CO₂ level of earth’s atmosphere increases and it keeps the ultraviolet radiations in the earths atmosphere. So the temperature increases and ice bergs melts.

ii) Biological Oxygen Demand(BOD) (1)
Answer:
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD): It is the amount of oxygen needed to degrade organic matter.

iii) Eutrophication. (1)
Answer:
Eutrophication: Due to the presence of phosphates and nitrates the algae and unwanted plants grow easily and it absorbs the dissolved oxyg6n in the water. It affects the aquatic life. This is known as eutrophication.

Answer any 5 questions from 24 to 31. Each carries 4 scores: (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 24.
i) Discuss the postulates of Bohr model of hydrogen atom. (3)
Answer:

• The electrons in an atom are revolving around the nucleus in circular path called orbits.
• As the electrons remain in a particular orbit, it does not lose or gain energy.
• Energy is emitted or absorbed by an atom only when an electron in it moves from the orbital to higher or lower levels.
  ∆E = E₂ – E₁ = hv
• Only those orbits are permitted in which the angular momentum of the electron is a whole no. multiple of \(\frac{h}{2π}\).

ii) Using s, p, d, f notations describe the orbital with the following quantum
a) n = 2, l = 1 (1A)
b) n = 3, l = 2 (1A)
Answer:
a) 2p
b) 3d

Question 25.
i) Represent the MO configuration of N₂ molecule. (2)
Answer:
M.O configuration of N₂ is:

ii) Differentiate intermolecular and intramolecular hydrogen bonding using suitable example. (2)
Answer:
Intermolecular H-bonding: If the hydrogen bond is between the two molecules it is called inter-molecular-H-bonding.
eg: H₂O, HF

Intramolecular H-bonding: If the hydorgen bond is within the molecule. It is called inttramolecular -H-bonding.
eg. Ortho-nitrophenol.

Question 26.
i) State the first law of thermodynamics and write its mathematical expression. (2)
Answer:
“Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed” ’Au=q+w

ii) Define Gibb’s energy. (1)
Answer:
Gibbs free energy: The amount of energy which can be converted to useful work.

iii) Give the relationship between the Gibbs energy change (∆G) and entropy change (∆S) of a reaction.
Answer:
∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Question 27.
i) State Le-Chatelier’s principle. (1)
Answer:
If a system in equilibrium is subjected to change in concentration temperature or pressure the equillibrium shifts in the direction that tends to reduce the effect of the change.

ii) Di hydrogen gas is obtained from natural gas by partial oxidation with steam as per following endothermic reaction.
CH_4(g) + H₂O_(g) → CO_(g) + 3H_2(g)
Write an expression for K_p for the above reaction (1)
Answer:

iii) Describe the effect ofthe following in the equilibrium
CH_4(g) + H₂O_(g) → CO_(g) + 3H_2(g)
a) Increasing the pressure. (1)
b) Increasing the temperature. (1)
Answer:
In forward reaction the number of moles increases.
(a) So increasing pressure favours backward reaction
(b) forward reaction is endothermic so it favours high temperature

Question 28.
i) Describe the solvay process for the manufacture of sodium carbonate. (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O). (2)
Answer:
Solvay process: By passing C02 through
ammonical brine solution sodiumbicarbonate is obtained. It is filtered and heated to get sodium carbonate.

ii) Beryllium shows anomalous properties. Given reason. (2)
Answer:
Small size, high ionisation energy and absence of vacant d orbitals.

Question 29.
i) What is borax bead test? (2)
Answer:
When borax is heated with transition metals beads with characteristic colours are obtained.

ii) CCl₄ cannot be hydrolysed by water. Why?
Answer:
In CCl₄ there is absence of vacant d orbitals.

iiii) CO₂ is a gas but SiO₂ is a solid. Explain. (1)
Answer:
In CO₂ the force between the each molecule is weak vander walls force and the hybridisation is sp which gives linear shape. So it is gas.
In SiO₂ the hybridisation is sp² each Si atom is tetrahedrally connected to oxygen atom.So it has three dimenstional network. So SiO₂ is solid.

Question 30.
i) Name a method used for the estimation of nitro-gen in an organic compound.
Answer:
Kjeldahl’s Method or Dumas Method

ii) How will you detect the presence of chlorine in an organic compound?
Answer:
To the sodium fusion extract add one or two drops of nitric acid and add 1 ml of AgNO₃ solution curdy white precipitate is obtained. This indicates presence of chlorine.

iii) Suggest a method used for the separation of chlo¬roform and aniline. (1)
Answer:
Distillation.

Question 31.
i) Discuss the Huckel rule for aromaticity. (2)
Answer:
For a compound to be aromatic
It should be cyclic, conjugated, planar and should contain (4n +2) no. of pi electrons in the ring.

ii) Draw the Sawhorse projection formula for the eclipsed and staggered conformations of ethane. (2)
Answer:

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1-5. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Which among the following is secreted by pineal gland?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Melatonin
(c) Gastrin
(d) Secretin
Answer:
Melatonin

Question 2.
_______ is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
Answer:
Asthma

Question 3.
Name the most abundant protein in the animal world.
Answer:
Collagen

Question 4.
Man : Homo sapiens;
Housefly: _________
Answer:
Musca domestica

Question 5.
Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is
Answer:
Glomerulonephritis

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6-16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Name the following:
(a) Plasma without clotting factor.
(b) Blood group known as ‘Universal recepients’.
(c) Protective double walled membranous bag covering human heart.
(d) Pacemaker of human heart
Answer:
(a) Serum
(b) AB group
(c) Pericardium
(d) Sino-atrial node I SAN

Question 7.
Diagram of an ivertebrate organism is given below:

(a) Identify the organism.
(b) Name the phylum to which it belongs.
(c) Write any two characteristics of the phylum
Answer:
a) Pleurobrachia

(b) Ctenophora

(c)
1. Comb plates present
2. Bioluminescence present

Question 8.
Observe the graph given below regarding the concept of activation energy.

(a) What is ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(b) Mention the role of enzyme in the progress of biochemical reaction.
Answer:
(a) A – Activation energy without enzyme.
B – Activation energy with enzyme.

(b) Enzymes bring down the activation energy making the transition of substrate to product more easily.

Question 9.
Expand the folllowing:
(a) ACTH
(b) FSH
(c) TSH
(d) ADH
Answer:
(a) ACTH – Adrenocorticotrophic hormone.
(b) FSH – Follicle stimulating hormone.
(c) TSH – Thyroid stimulating hormone.
(d) ADH – Anti-diuretic hormone.

Question 10.
Figure showing fundamental characteristics of phylum chordata is given below. Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D

Answer:
A-Nerve cord
B – Notochord
C – Post anal tail
D – Gill slits

Question 11.
Distinguish between: enjdralrala^’Pjrojca.
(a) IRV and ERV
(b) TV and RV
Answer:
(a) IRV – Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.
ERV – Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.

(b) TV (Tidal Volume) -Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration.
RV (Residual Volume) – Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible Expiration.

Question 12.
Arrange the following animals under suitable headings in the table given below base on their mode of nitrogenous waste excretion.
Bony fishes, Birds, Terrestrial, Amphibians, Mammals

Ammonotelic	Ureotelic	Uricotelic

Answer:

Ammonotelic	Ureotelic	Uricotelic
Bony fishes	Birds	• Terrestrial amphibians • Mammals

Question 13.
Match Column ‘A’ with ‘B’

A	B
Proboscis	Pila
Malpighian tubules	Balanoglossus
Radula	Sycon
Choanocytes	Silkworm

Answer:

A	B
Proboscis	Balanoglossus
Malpighian tubules	Silkworm
Radula	Pila
Choanocytes	Sycon

Question 14.
Details regarding the disorders of human muscular and skeletal system is given below. Name the disorder.
(a) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.
(b) Inflammation of joints.
(c) Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca⁺⁺ in body , fluids.
(d) Age related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.
Answer:
(a) Gout
(b) Arthritis
(c) Tetany
(d) Osteoporosis

Question 15.
Complete the flow that showing the parts of human brain.

Answer:
A – Hindbrain
B – Corpora quadrigemina
C – Thalamus
D – Cerebellum

Question 16.
Molecular structure of some organic compounds found in living tissues are given below. Identify and write its name.

Answer:
(a) Glucose
(b) Alanine
(c) Fatty acid / Palmitic acid
(d) Glycerol.

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scoers. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
Diagrammatic presentation of a standard ECG is given below:

(a) Expand ECG.
(b) What does QRS complex wave denotes?
(c) Mention the clinical significance of ECG.
Answer:
(a) Electrocardiogram
(b) QRS – complex -Depolarization of Ventricle
(c) Any deviation in ECG indicates the abnormality of heart.

Question 18.
Based on the characteristics given below, identify and write the phylum with one example for each.
(i) Presence of cnidoblasts or enidocytes on the tentacles and the body.
(ii) Body consists of a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.
(iii) Presence of jointed appendages.
(iv) Presence of flame cells.
Answer:
(i) Coelentrata
eg :- Hydra

(ii) Mollusca eg Pila

(iii) Arthropoda eg Honey bee

(iv) Platyhelminthes eg Ascaris

Question 19.
(a) Give reason for the following:
(i) Pituitary dwarfism
(ii) Diabetes mellitus
(iii) Acromegaly
(iv) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Name the hormones known as “Emergency Hor-mones’ and the gland secreting it.
Answer:
(a)

1. 1. Hyposecretion of Growth Hormone
   2. Prolonged hyperglycemia due to low level of insulin.
   3. Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults.
   4. Less secretion of ADH.

(b)

1. Adrenaline and noradrenaline.
2. Adrenal gland

Question 20.
(a) Structure of a neuron is given below. Label the , parts marked A, B, C and D

Answer:
(a)
A – Nucleus
B – Schwann cells C – Axon
D – Synaptic knob

(b)

1. Unipolar – cell body with one axon only.
2. Bipolar – with one axon and one dendrite.
3. Multipolar -with one axon and two or more dendrites.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2019 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019

Answer all questions from question numbers 1 to 3. Each carry 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Binomial nomenclature was proposed by
Answer:
Carolus Linneaus

Question 2.
Tendons and Ligaments are example of…… tissue
a) Areolar
b) Adipose
c) Dense regular
d) Dense irregular
Answer:
Dense regular

Question 3.
______ is the most abundant protein in the animal world.
Answer:
Collagen

Answer any nine questions from 4 to 14. Each carries two score. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
“All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates”. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes
The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult.

Question 5.
Distinguish between:
a) Identify the organism
b) Name the calss in which it belongs
Answer:
a) Residual Volume (RV): Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages 1100 mL to 1200 mL.
Tidal Volume (TV): Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration. It isapprox. 500 mL

b) Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration.
Total Lung Capacity: Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration.

Question 6.
Observe the figure of the organism given below

a) Identify the organism
b) Name the calas In which it belongs
c) Mention any two salient features fo the class
Answer:
a) Hippocampus
b) Osteichthyes
c) 1. They have four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum on each side.
2. Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy

Question 7.
a) Name the following:
i) The carbohydrate splitting enzyme preent in human saliva.
ii) The anti bacterial enzyme present in human saliva
Answer:
a) 1. Salivary amylase
2. Lysosyme

b) 1. Intestine
2. Stomach

b) In which region of the alimentary canal does the following reactions occur?

Question 8.
a) Person with ‘AB’ blood group is called ‘universal recepient’. Give a reason.
b) List out any two disorders of human criculatory system.
Answer:
a) Persons with ‘AB’ group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood. Therefore, such persons are called ‘universal recipients’.

b) 1. High Blood Pressure (Hypertension): Hypertension is the term for blood pressure that is higher than normal (120/80).
2. Coronary Artery Disease (CAD): Coronary Artery Disease, often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle.

Question 9.
Complete the flowchart given below.

Answer:
a) Gnathostomata
b) Cyclostomata
C) Tetrapoda
d) Osteichthyes

Question 10.
a) Give one word for the following:
i) Presence of Glucose in Urine
ii) Presence of Ketone bodies in Urine
Answer:
a) 1.Glycosuria
2. Ketonuria
b) Diabetes mellitus

b) Which human disorder is having the above mentioned two symptoms?

Question 11.
Observe the figures given below.

a) Identify figure ‘A’ and ‘B’.
b) Name the subunits of ‘A’ and ‘B’
Answer:
a) 1. Actin
2. Myosin

b)

1. Each actin,(thin) filament is made of two ‘F’ (filamentous) actins helically wound to each other. Each ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (Globular) actins.
2. Myosin consists of monomeric proteins called Meromyosins.
3. Each meromyosin has two important parts, a globular head with a short arm and a tail, the former being called the heavy merotnyosin (HMM) and the latter, the light meromyosin (LMM).

Question 12.
Note the relationship in the first pair and then complete the second pail
a) Insulin : Hypglycemic hormone :
_______ : Hyperglycemic hormone

b) Over secretion of Growth hormone : Gigantism
Low secretion of Growth hormone : _______
Answer:
a) glucagon
b) dwarfism

Question 13.
Observe the diagram A and B given below.

a) What is ‘A’ and ‘B’?
b) Mention the other two levels of protein structure.
Answer:
a) A- Secondary structure of protein
B- tertiary structure of proteins

b) primary structure of proteins and quarternary structure of proteins

Question 14.
Classify the following animals on the basis of the mode of nitrogenous waste excretion in the table given below.
Mammals, Birds, Bony fishes, Reptiles,
Terrestrial amphibians, Aquatic amphibians

Ammanotehc	Ureotehc	Uricotelic

Answer:

Amonotelic	Ureotelic	Urecotehc
Bony fishes	mammals	repti
Aquatic amphibians	Terrestrial amphibians	Birds

Answer any three questions from 15 to 18. Each carries three scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Find the odd one from each group. Justify your answer.
a) Starfish, Devilfish, Dogfish, Jellyfish
b) Flying fish, Angel fish, Saw fish, Fighting fish
c) Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Sea hare, Sea urchin
Answer:
a) Dog fish-belongs to chordates while others are nonchordates
b) Saw fish-belongs to chodricthyes while others are osteichthyes
c) Sea hare-belongs to phylum mollusca while others are phylum Echinodermata

Question 16.
Prepare a flow chart showing the parts to human brain, by using the details given below.
Cerebrum, Medulla, Mid brain, Thalamus, Pons,
Corpora quadrigemina, Hypothalamus, Forebrain,
Cerebellu, Hypothalamus, Hind brain, Brain.
Answer:

Question 17.
Diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG is given below.

a) Exapnd ECG
b) What dows the ‘P’, T waves denote?
c) Mention the clinical significance of ECG.
Answer:
a) ECG – electrocardiogram

b) P wave – atrial depolarization
T wave- ventricular repolarisation

c) It helps in the diagnosis of heart diseases

Question 18.
Match column ‘A’ with those in columns ‘B’ and ‘C’.

A	B	C
Type of simple Epithelum	Location	Function
Squamous Epithelum	(a)    ________	Diffusion
(b)   ________	Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys	(c)    ________
Columnar Epithelium	(d)  ________	Secretion and Absorption
(d)   ________	Inner suface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes	(e)   ________

Answer:
a) found in the wall of blood vessels
b) cuboidal epithelium
c) secretion /absorption
d) lining of stomach or intestine
e) ciliated epithehum
f) movement/transport

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Answer any 3 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Select the enzyme that facilitate the following reaction:

a) Succinic dehydrogenase
b) RuBiScO
b) Carbonic anhydrase
d) Lipase
Answer:
b) Carbonic anhydrase

Question 2.
Which among the following is a primary metabolite?
Answer:
Amino acids

Question 3.
Name the portion of the myofibril between two successive Z-Hne.
a) H-zone
b) Sarcomere
c) l-band
d) M-line
Answer:
b) Sarcomere

Question 4.
Identify the word pair applicable to phylum ctenophora.
a) Nephridia, Parapodia
b) Comb plates, Bioluminescence
c) Polyp, Metagenesis
c) Radula, Visceral hump
Answer:
b) Comb plates, Bioluminescence

Question 5.
Unit of classification is ______.
a) Taxon
b) Species
c) Genus
d) Cell
Answer:
a) Taxon

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Cells of human body perform different types of . movement.
Write any two types of movement and the parts that exhibit the movement.
Answer:
Amoeboid movement – It is shown by macrophages and leucocytes in blood
Muscular movement – It is shown by limbs, jaws and tongue

Question 7.
Find out the suitable term from the box for the disorders stated.
a) Accumulation of Urea in blood.
b) Insoluble mass of crystallised salts in the kidney.
c) Surgical method for the correction of Renal failures.
d) inflammation of golmeruli of kidney.
Answer:
a) Uremia
b) RenaI Calculi
c) Kidney Transplantation
d) Glomerulonephntis

Question 8.
Characteristics of certain animals are given. Arrange them under the ‘Class’ to which these animals belong.
i) Skin is moist without scales.
ii) Body is covered by dry and corn ified skin.
iii) Shed the scales as skin cast.
iv) Can live in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats.
Answer:

Class Amphibia	Class Reptilia
Skin is moist without scales	Body is covered by dry and cornified skin
Can Hve in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats	Shed the scales as skin cast

Question 9.
When substrate concentration increases, the velocity of enzymatic reaction increases at first. After attaining a mzximum velocity, it cannot be exceeded by further addition of substrates. Why?
Answer:
Enzyme molecules are fewer than substrate molecules. After saturation of substrate molecules; there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with additional substrate molecules.

Question 10.
“The products of digestion like glucose and amino acids are absorbed to the blood by active transport, where as electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple’diffusion.”
How will you differentative active transport from simple diffusion?
Answer:

1. In active transport, passage of substance into the blood takesplace against the concentration gradient by using energy.
2. In simple diffusion, substances are moved from higher concentration to lower concentration without using energy.

Question 11.
Distinguish between the following terms :
a) IRV, ERV
b) Tidal volume, Residual volume
Answer:
a) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV): Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.

b) Residual Volume (RV): Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration
Tidal Volume (TV): Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration

Question 12.
Enzymes present in Saliva, gastric juice and intestinal juice are given in the box.
a) Identify the enzyme present in gastric juice and intestinal juice one each.
b) Write their digestive function :
Pepsin, Lysozyme, Trypsinogen, Rennin, Lipases Salivary amylase
Answer:
a) Gastric juice : Pepsin, Rennin Intestinal juice: Lipase

b) Pepsin – Proteolytic enzyme
Rennin – Proteolytic enzyme of infants Lipase – Lipolytic enzyme

Question 13.
Complete the flow chart showing the regulation of kidney functioning by Juxta Glomerukar Apparatus and Adrenal Cortex.

Answer:
A) Renin
B) Angiotensin-l
C) Aldosterone
D) Increase in blood pressure and GFR

Question 14.
‘Adrenal medulla is the centrally located tissue in the adrenal gland, where as adrenal cortex is located outside.’
How do adrenal and medulla differ in their function?
Answer:

Adrenal Cortex	Adrenal Medulla
They secrete Glucocorticoids, Mineralo? corticoids & Sex corticoids	They secrete Epinephrine and nor epinephrine (Catecholamine)
Gluco corticoids involved in carbohydrate metabolism	It is produced during emergency situations. Hence called emergency hormone

Question 15.
‘Cockroach is said to be Uricotelic.
a) What do you understand about the nature of excretion of Cockroach from this statement?
b) Name two excretory organs of Cockroach.
Answer:
a) Cockroach excrete uric acid
b) Malpighian tubule and Nephrocytes

Question 16.
Rewrite the given sentences if there is any mistake in the underlined part.
• Cartilage cells are called osteocvcles.
• Bones are rich in Calcium salts.
• Intercalated discs are seen in skeletal muscle.
• Skeletal muscles are striated.
Answer:
Cartilage cells are called Chondrocytes
Intercalated discs are seen in Cardiac muscle

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 17.
Observe the diagram

a) What does it denote?
b) What do P, QRS, T represent?
c) What is its clinical significance?
Answer:
a) ECG
b) P-Wave: Electrical Excitation (Depolarisation) of atria
QRS-Wave-Depolarisation of ventricle T-Wave- Return of the ventricle from excited to normal state (Replarisation)

c) ECG: It gives electrical activity of heart during a cardiac cycle, ECGs obtained from different individuals have the same shape any deviation from this shape indicates abnormality or disease

Question 18.
Complete the given table appropariately?

Gland	Hormones	Function
i) (A) ___	Androgens	Development of male accessory sex organs
ii) Thymus	(B) ___	(C) ___
iii) (D) ___	Glucogen	Maintains normal blood glucose levels
iv) Pineal	(E) ___	(F) ___

Answer:
A – Testis
B – Thymosin
C – Provide CMI and Humoral immunity or differentiation of Tlymphocyes
D – Pancreas
E – Melatonin
F – Regulate 24 hour rhythm of our body

Question 19.
Observe the figures.

a) Identify the organisms A, B & C.
b) Name the phylum to which each of them belong,
Answer:
A – Balanoglossus – Phylum Hemichordata
B – Nereis-Phylum Annelida
C – Liver Fluke-Phylum Platy helminthes (Flat worms)

Question 20.
Observe the diagram.

a) Name the parts A & B.
b) Write the characteristics features of ‘C’.
c) Arrange the given parts of eye in the sequence that light travels from the external environment into the eye. (Vitreous, chamber, lens, retina, Aqueous chamber)
Answer:
a) A-lens B-Optic nerve

b) Fovea- yellowish pigmented spot on retina .Here the. cones are densely packed. It is the point where the visual acuity (resolution) is the greatest

c) Cornea → aqueous chamber → lens → vitreous chamber → Retina

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September
2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper September
2021

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Complete the following table.

Heat Sound	Caused due to
Lub
Dub

Answer:

Heat Sound	Caused due to
Lub	Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
Dub	Closure of Semilunar valves

Question 2.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.
(a) Identify the picture.
(b) How does this structure help the organism?

Answer:
(a) Cnidoblast
(b) Functions: act as defence organ

Question 3.
Name the following:
(a) Structure which connects two cerebral hemispheres.
(b) Four rounded swellings in midbrain.
Answer:
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Corpora quadrigemina

Question 4.
Respiratory disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged, due to which respiratory surface is decreased.
Answer:
Emphysema

Question 5.
Prepare two correctly matched pairs from the given terms.
(Ommatidia, Cardiac tissue, Intercalated disc, Malpighian-tubules, Sense organ, Goblet cell)
Answer:
Ommatidia : Sense Organs Cardiac tissue : Intercalated disc

Question 6.
Observe the graph and comment.

Answer:
It’s a graph showing the relationship between . temperature and Enzymatic action. In this low temperature preserves the enzymes in inactive state whereas high temperature destroy enzyme activity because proteins are denatured by heat.

II. Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 24. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Which hormonal deficiency is responsible for the following conditions?
(a) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Grave’s disease
(c) Cretinism
(d) Diabetes mellitus
Answer:
(a) Antidiuretic hormone or ADH
(b) Grave’s disease due to hyperthyroidism.
(c) Thyroid Hormones
(d) Insulin

Question 8.
Give two examples for each of the following:
(a) Synovial joints
(b) Muscle proteins
Answer:
(a) Ball and socket joint
(b) Actin and Myosin

Question 9.
Human dentition is said to be diphyodont and heterodont. What do you mean by these terms?
Answer:

1. Diphyodont: Human beings forms two sets of teeth during their life, a set of deciduous teeth is replaced by a set of permanent teeth
2. Heterodont: Humans have four different types of teeth like incisor, canines, premolar and molar

Question 10.
Male cockroach can be easily differentiated from female, in their morphological features.
(a) Name this phenomenon.
(b) Give one external difference between male and female cockroach.
Answer:
(a) Sexual dimorphism

Male Cockroach	Female cockroach
Wings extend beyond the tip of the abdomen	Wings extend upto abdomen
Anal style present	Anal style absent

Question 11.
Complete the representation by filing a, b, c and d.

Answer:
(a) Decrease Reabsorption of water
(b) Adrenal cortex
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Increases Reabsorption of water

Question 12.
Mention a single word/term for the following:
(a) File like rasping organ in molluscans.
(b) Property of a living organism to emit light.
(c) Alternation of generation in Cnidarians.
(d) Hollow bones with air cavities.
Answer:
(a) Radula
(b) Bioluminescence
(c) Metagenesis
(d) Pneumatic bone

Question 13.
Match the hexagons with stars correctly.

Answer:

1. Index to plant species found in an area – Flora
2. Specialised garden with collection of living plants – Botanical Garden
3. Collection of preserved plants and animals – Museum
4. Information of any one taxon – Monograph

Question 14.
Label the parts marked (A) and (B). Write their functions.

Answer:
A – Hepatic caeca
Function: It’s a digestive gland secrete digestive juice

B – Malpighian Tubule
Function: Excretory organ of cockroach

Question 15.
Pick out the parts of a nephron from the given pool and arrange them in sequential order from Bowman’s capsule.
Collecting duct, Distal Convoluted Tubule, Henle’s loop, Proximal Convoluted Tubule
Answer:
Bowman’s capsule – Proximal convoluted tubule- Henle’s loop-Distal Convoluted Tubule-Collecting duct

Question 16.
Label the parts (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the given picture

Answer:
(a) Mucosa
(b) Sub mucosa
(c) Lumen
(d) Serosa

Question 17.
The name of different bones, seen in forelimb and hindlimb are given below. Arrange them in two columns.
(Humerus, Tibia, Carpals, Fibula)
Answer:

Bones in Forelimb	Bones in Hind limb
Humerus	Tibia
carpals	Fibula

Question 18.
A boy was trapped in a lift and his heart rate as well as breathing rate increased.
(a) Name the hormone responsible for this.
(b) What is the collective name for these hormones?
(c) Which gland produce these hormones?
(d) Where is this gland located?
Answer:
(a) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(b) Fight or flight hormone or emergency hormones
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Anterior part of each kidney

Question 19.
(a) Name the tissue marked A and B
(b) Among these, which one is referred to as pacemaker and why?

Answer:
(a) A- Sino-atrial node or SAN
B-Atrio-ventricular node or AVN

(b) SAN is called pace maker because SAN can generate 70-75 min-1 action potential and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.

Question 20.
A student of Class XI, collected some specimens during the field trip conducted by the Science club. Help him to classify these animals to their respective phylum/class.
(Spongilla, Ctenoplasa, Laccifer, Calotes)
Answer:

• Spongilla – Phylum Porifera
• Ctenoplana – Phylum Ctenophora
• Laccifer – Phylum Arthropoda
• Calotes – Class Reptilia

Question 21.
Write the structure of
(a) Alanine
(b) Glycine
Answer:

Question 22.
Draw a flow chart, showing the physiological processes involved in the formation of cross bridges during muscle contraction.
Answer:

Question 23.
Figure (A) and (B) shows the fishes of two different classes. Identify the differentiate between them.

Answer:
A – Shark
B – Catla

Class Chondrichthyes	Class Osteichthyes
They have cartilaginous endoskeleton	They have bony Endoskeleton
Gill slits are separate and without operculum	They have four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum on each side
The skin minute placoid scales	Skin is covered with cycloid/ctenoid scales
Air bladder absent	Air bladder is present

Question 24.
Observe the table given below and replace (a), (b),
(c) and (d) from those animals given in brackets. (Hydra, Shark, Spongilla, Starfish)

Asymmetry	Radial Symmetry	Bilateral Symmetry
Sycon	(a)	(b)
(c)	(d)	Cockroach

Answer:

Asymmetry	Radial Symmetry	Bilateral Symmetry
Sycon	Hydra/Star fish	Shark
Spongilla	Star fish/ Hydra	Cockroach

III. Answer any 3 questions from 25 to 30. Each carries 3scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 25.
(a) What is ECG?
(b) Draw a standard EGG and explain the different waves in it.
Answer:
a) ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle

P-wave represents the electrical excitation or depolarisation of the atria. which leads to the contraction of both the atria QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles which initiates the ventricular contraction. The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarisation)

Question 26.
Non-protein constituents called co-factors are bound to the enzyme, to make it catalytically acve.
(a) Name the protein part of the enzyme.
(b) Mention any two kinds of co-factors with examples.
(c) What happens to the catalytic activity of enzyme, when the co-factor is removed?
Answer:
a) Apoenyme
(b) i) Prosthetic group – They are cofactors tightly bound to the apoenzyme.
Example: In peroxidase and catalase-haem is the prosthetic group

ii) Co-enzymes-They are loosely bound to the apoenzyme
Examples: Coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP

(c) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme.

Question 27.
Name the distinctive character (responsible for the group names) of the following animal:
(a) Ctenophora
(b) Echinodermatä
(c) Mammalia
(d) Chordata
(e) Annelida
(l) Arthropoda
Answer:
(a) Presence, of ciliated comb plate
(b) These animals have an endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles
(c) Presence of milk producing mammary gland
(d) Presence of notochord
(e) Their body surface is distinctly marked out into segments
(f) They have jointed appendages

Question 28.

(a) What is depicted by this graph?
(b) Write any 3 factors which can alter this graph.
(c) What is its significance?
Answer:
(a) The graph shows the relation between pO₂ and percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
(b) Temperature or pH or H⁺
(c) It is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO₂, H⁺ concentration, etc., on binding of O₂ with haemoglobin.

Question 29.
(a) Prepare a pathway of an action, using the following hints: (Hints: Receptor, Interneuron in spinalcord. Motor neutron, Effector organ, Afferent neuron)
(b) Give one example for such action.
Answer:
(a) Receptor-Afferent neuron-lnterneuron in spinal cord-Motor neuron- Effector organ.
(b) Knee jerk reflex.

Question 30.
Cell junctions provide both structural and functional links between its individual cells. Name and comment on the different types of cell functions.
Answer:

1. Tight junctions: Tight junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
2. Adhering junctions : It perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
3. Gap junctions : It facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

I. Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Pick out the proenzyme present in gastric juice from the following:
(Trypsinogen, Procarboxypeptidase, Pepsi-nogen, Amylase)
Answer:
Pepsinogen

Question 2.
After ovulation, the ruptured follicle in ovary is converted to a structure called
Answer:
Corpus luteum

Question 3.
Name the most abundant protein in animal world.
Answer:
Collagen

Question 4.
Identify the graph.

Answer:
Oxygen dissociation curve

II. Answer any 9 questions from 5 to 17. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 5.
Mention two functions of the following:
(a) Gills in Mollusca
(b) Flame cells in Platyhelminthes.
Answer:
a) It helps in Respiration
b) It helps in Excretion

Question 6.
How does glands differ from endocrine glands? Name two secretions of exocrine glands.
Answer:

Endocrine glands	Exocrine glands
Endocrine glands do not have ducts	Exocrine glands have ducts
Their products called hormones are secreted directly into blood	Their products are released through ducts or tubes

1. secretions are hormones
2. Secretions are enkymes
   Secretions of exocrine glands : Mucus and Saliva.

Question 7.
Match the following:

(a) Blood cells	Function
(b) Neutrophils	i) Transport of respiratory gases
(c) Basophils	ii) Immune
(d) Eosinophils	iii) Secrete histamine
(e) Lymphocytes	iv) Allergic reactions
	v) Phagocytic destruction of foreign organisms

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Neutrophils	Phagocytic destruction of foreign organism
Basophi	Secrete Histamine
Eosinophil	Allergic reactions
Lymphocytes	Immune response of the body

Question 8.
The given diagram represents a section of small intestinal mucosa.

Answer:
a) A – Villi,
B – Lacteal

b) A-Villus helps in the absorption of food andi increase the surface area B-Lacteal helps in transport of fat globules

Question 9.
Name the different respiratory centres situated in brain. Explain their role in maintaining and moderating the respiratory rhythm.
Answer:
Respiratory rhythm centre: Maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues.

pneumotaxic centre: It can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate.

Chemosensitive area: It is highly sensitive to CO₂ and hydrogen ions. Increase in these substances can activate this centre, which in turn can signal the rhythm centre to make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process.

Question 10.
Musca domestica is the binomial nomenclature of housefly.
(a) Identify the Generic name and specific epithet.
(b) Mention the phylum and class of Musca domestica.
Answer:
a) Generic name : Musca
Specific epithet: domestica

b) Phylum : Arthropoda
Class : Insecta

Question 11.
(a) Identify the tissue and state its main function.

(b) Write two regions in human body where you can find this tissue.
Answer:
a) Compound epithelium Function: Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses,
b) They cover the dry surface of the skin and the moist surface of buccal cavity.

Question 12.
The flowing is the pathway of sound waves in the process of hearing. Fill in the blanks with appropriate terms given in the box.

Basilar membrane	Ear Ossicles
Tympanum	Utricle	Tectorial membrane

Answer:
A – Tympanum
B – Ear Ossicles
C – Basilar membrane
D – Tectorial membrane

Question 13.
If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week. Justyfy.
Answer:
In the head region, the brain is represented by supra – oesophageal ganglion which supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes, the head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body. That is why if the head of a cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.

Question 14.
Diagrammatic representation of impulse through and axon is given.

Answer:
When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, the membrane at that site becomes freely permeable to Na⁺.
This leads to a rapid influx of Na⁺ that result outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged and the inner side becomes positively charged. The polarity of the membrane at that is thus reversed . ie, Action potential developed.

Question 15.
Complete the following table:

Genus name	Common name
Wuchereria	A
B	Silk-worm
Pheretima	C
D	Honey-bee

Answer:
A – Filariaworm
B – Bombyx
C – Earthworm
D – Apis

Question 16.
Distinguish between diabetes insipidus and diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Diabetes insipidus	Diabetes mellitus
Due to low secretion of ADH	insulin deficiency result in a disease called diabetes mellitus
Diabetes insipidus results Excess loss of water through urine	Presence of glucose (Glycosuria) and ketone bodies (Ketonuria) in urine

Question 17.
Comment on the symmetry of phylum Porifera and phylum Echinodermata. Name the system of transport of food in the members of these phylums.
Answer:

Symmetry	System of transport of food
• Phylum porifera : asymmetrical	• Phylum porifera : water canal system
• Phylum Echinodermata : In this Larva shows bilateral symmetry and adult shows radial symmetry.	• Phylum Echinodermata: water vascular system

III. Answer any 3 questions from 18 to 22. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 18.
Graphical representation of electrical activity of the heart while it is working is given.

Write down the different activities of the heart represented by the peaks from ‘P’ to T.
Answer:

1. PWave: contraction of both the atria
2. QRS Wave: depolarisation of the ventricles or ventricular contraction
3. T Wave: It represent repolarisation of ventricle

Question 19.
Enlist three differences between Red muscle fibre and White muscle fibres.
Answer:

Red musle fibre	White muscle fibre
1. They have high amount of mitochondria and myoglobin.	1. They have lesser amount of mitochondria and myoglobin.
2. These muscle fibres undergo aerobic respiration	2. These muscleifibres undergo anaerobic respiration
3. Thave a lesser amount of Sarcoplasmic Reticulum	3. They have a higher amount of Sarco-plasmic Reticulum

Question 20.
(a) Identify the level of protein structure in the given diagram.

(b) Name two levels of protein structure which are not three dimensional.
(c) Give an example for protein having quaternary structure and justify your answer.
Answer:
a) A tertiary structure of proteins
b) Primary structure and Secondary structure
c) Adult human haemoglobin It consists of two subunits of beta type and two subunits of alpha type together constitute the human haemoglobin (Hb).So it consist of more than one polypeptide

Question 21.
Write any three differences between chordates and non-chordates.
Answer:

Chordates	Non chordates
1. Notocord present.	1. Notochord Absent.
2. Central nervous system is hollow and dorsal.	2. Central nervous system is solid and vental.
3. Post anal tail is present.	3. Post anal tail is absent.

Question 22.
By selecting appropriate terms from the bracket complete the given table which is related with excretory system.
(Urea, Mammals, Uricotelic, Bony fish, Ammonotelic, Uric acid, Snails)

Types of excretion	Nitrogeneous waste	Example
A	Ammonia	E
Ureotelic	C	F
B	D	Birds

Answer:
A – Ammonotelic
B – uricotelic
C – Urea
D – Uric acid
E – Many bony fishes
F – many terrestrial amphibians

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2023

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The prefix for 10¹⁵ is ______
(a) peta
(b) nano
(c) pico
(d) femto
Answer:
(d) femto

Question 2.
What would be the lUPAC name for the element with atomic number 120?
Answer:
Unbinilium

Question 3.
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is ‘x’ for the forward direction. The equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction at the same temperature would be ______
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{x}\)

Question 4.
Write the IUPAC name of the compound given below.

Answer:
Hexane – 2, 5 – dione

Question 5.
The alkane which cannot be prepared by kolbe’s electrolytic method is ______
Answer:
Methane

Answer any 8 questions from 6 to 15. Each carries 2 marks.

Question 6.
(i) ‘Molarity of a solution depends upon temperature’. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Molarity depends on total volume of solution.
Volume depends on temperature

(ii) 4g of NaOH was dissolved in sufficient water to form 250 mL of the solution. Calculate the molarity of this solution. (1)
(Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
Answer:
Molarity(M) = \(\frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{mL}}}\)
= \(\frac{4}{40}\) × \(\frac{1000}{250}\) = 0.4 mol/L

Question 7.
(i) What is photoelectric effect? (1)
Answer:
It is the ejection of electrons from the surface of a metal when radiations of suitable frequency strikes on it.

(ii) How is kinetic energy of the ejected electron in photoelectric effect related to the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation? (1)
Answer:
K.E = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv² =h(v – v₀)
Kinetic energy proportional to frequency of light.

Question 8.
State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Give its mathematical representation.
Answer:
It is impossible to measure both the position and momentum of a moving microscopic particle simultaneously and accurately.
∆x × ∆p >

Question 9.
What are isoelectronic species? Give two ions that are isoelectronic with Mg²⁺.
Answer:
Species which contains same number of electrons.
Al³⁺, Na+, Ne, F~, O₂ , N₃

Question 10.
Give two demerits of Mendeleev’s periodic table,
Answer:
1. Position of hydrogen was not clearly explained.
2. Increasing order of atomic weight was not followed every where eg. K & Ar

Question 11.
State the first law of thermodynamics and give its mathematical form.
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed
∆U = w + q
∆U – change in internal energy
q – quantity of heat absorbed
w – work done

Question 12.
Differentiate homogeneous equilibrium from heterogeneous equilibrium. Give an example for each.
Answer:
If the reactant and product are in same phase at equilibrium it is known as homogenous equilibrium.
eg. N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) → 2 NH_3(g)
If the reactant and product are in different phase at equillibrium it is known as heterogeneous equilibrium.
CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)

Question 13.
Identify the oxidation sate of chlorine in each of the following.
(a) ClO₃
(b) HCl
Answer:

Question 14.
Explain Carius method for the estimation of halogens in an organic compound.
Answer:
Carius Method: Organic compound is treated with dil. HNO₃ and silver nitrate. White precipitate is formed. It is filtered and weighed.
Percentage of halogen
= \(\frac{\text { Atomic mass of halogenxm × 100 }}{\text { Molecular mass of silverhalide × w }}\)

Question 15.
Draw the cis and trans isomers of the compound given below and label them correctly.
C₆H₅CH = CH-CH₃
Answer:

Answer any 8 questions from 16 to 26. Each : carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 16.
(i) How many volumes of water vapour would be produced if 12 volumes of dihydrogen gas reacts with 6 volumes of dioxygen gas? (1)
(ii) An organic compound is made up of 67.9% C, 5.70% H and 26.4% N. Calculate its empirical formula. (2)
Answer:

Question 17.
Calculate the frequency and wavelength of a photon emitted during a transition from n = 5 state to n = 2 state in the hydrogen atom.
Answer:

Question 18.
Define ionisation enthalpy. How does it vary in a period and in a group? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Ionisation energy: It is the amount of energy needed to remove most loosely bound electron from a gaseous neutral atom.
Across the period ionisation enthalpy increases due to the decrease in size and increase in force of attraction.
Down the group Ionisation energy decreases due to the increase in size and decrease in force of attraction.

Question 19.
Explain intermolecular and interamolecular hydrogen bonding with an example.
Answer:
H bond is a bond formed by a H atom which is already attached to an electro negative atom again bonds with another electro-negative atom.
If the H-bond is between the two molecules it is known as intermolecular H-bonding. eg.H₂O, HF, NH₃.
If the H bond is within the same molecule it is known as intramoldecular H-bonding
eg. O-nitro phenol.

Question 20.
Discuss the hybridisation of phosphorous in PCl₅ molecule. Based on this, predict the shape and bond angles in it.
Answer:

axial Cl atom forms 90° bond angle and equatorial Cl atom forms with 120° bond angle.

Question 21.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of benzene. Given

Answer:

Question 22.
(i) Consider the reaction 2A(g) ⇔ 2B(g) + C(g). Write the expression for K_c for this reaction.
(ii) If K_p for this reaction is 3.8 × 10^-6 at 1070 K, calculate K_p at this temperature. (2)
Answer:

Question 23.
Balance following redox reaction taking place in basic medium using oxidation number method.

Answer:

Balance all atoms other than hydrogen and oxygen
2MnO^–₄ + Br^– → 2MnO₂ + BrO^–₃
Balance the no.of oxygen atom
2MnO^–₄ + Br^– → 2MnO₂ + BrO^–₃ + H₂O
Add OH” to the deficient side since it is basic medium
2MnO^–₄ + Br^– + 2H₂O → 2MnO₂ + BrO^–₃ + H₂O
2MnO^–₄ + Br^– + H₂O → 2MnO₂ + BrO^–₃ + 2HO^–

Question 24.
(i) What are nucleophiles and electrophiles? (2)
Answer:
Electophiles: Electron loving species
eg: Cl⁺, BF₃, AlCl₃

(ii) Give an example each for charged and neutral nucleophiles. (1)
Answer:
Nucleophiles : Nucleus loving species,
eg: CN^–, NH₃

Question 25.
(i) State and illustrate Markovnikov rule with an example. (2)
Answer:
Markonikov’s rule:When an unsymmetric reagent is added to an unsymmetric alkene the negative part of the addentum gets attached to the carbon containing lesser number of hydrogen atom.

(ii) What are the products obtained when propene undergoes ozonolysis? (1)
Answer:

Question 26.
Identify the major products A, B and C in the following reactions.

Answer:

Answer nay 4 questions from 27 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 27.
(i) What are quantum numbers? Explain any two quantum numbers. (3)
Answer:
Address of an electron.
1. Principal quantum no. (n): gives idea about energy and size of the orbital.
Values on n =1, 2, 3, 4 …. etc.
2. Azimuthal quantum number (l) – gives us shape of the subshell.
l can have values l = 0 to (n – 1) values. n = 2l = 0, 1 → s & p orbital.
n = 3 l, = 0, 1,2 → s, p and d orbital.
magnetic quantum no. (m) gives orientation of orbitals, m can have value -l to +l
l = 1 m = -1, 0, +1
spin quantum no. (s) gives us idea about spin of electrons. It can have values +½ or -½ .

(ii) Arrange 3d, 4s, and 3p in the increasing order of their energies. (1)
Answer:
3p < 4s < 3d < 4p

Question 28.
(i) Write the MO electronic configuration of N₂. (2)
Answer:
σ 1s² σ * 1s² σ 2s² σ * 2s² π2px² = π2py² σ2pz²

(ii) Calculate its bond order and predict the magnetic behaviour. (2)
Answer:
Bond order = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(N_b – N_a)

Question 29.
(i) What is Gibb’s free energy? (1)
Answer:
The ampount of enery which can be converted to be useful work is knows as Gibb’s free energy

(ii) Give the relation between Gibb’s free energy and enthalpy. (1)
Answer:
G = H – TS

(iii) Predict the spontaneity of a reaction in the following cases.
(a) ∆H and ∆S + v (high T) (1)
(b) ∆H = +ve; ∆S =-ve (1)
Answer:

Question 30.
(i) What are buffer solution? Given an example each for acidic and basic buffers. (2)
Answer:
Solution which resist the change in pH on addition of small amount of acid or alkali.

Acidic buffer – Mixture of weak acid + salt formed by weakacid with strong base, acetic acid + sodium acetate

Basic buffer – Mixture of weak base + salt formed by weak base with strong acid.
NH₄OH + NH₄Cl

(ii) What is the effect of dilution on the pH value of a buffer solution? Give reason. (1)
Answer:
pH of a buffer solution does not change on dilution. On dilution, due to buffer action the ratio of concentration of salt and acid or base remains unchanged.

(iii) Explain common ion effect. (1)
Answer:
The suppression of degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte by the addition of a strong electrolyte containing a common ion.
Application of Common ion effect:
1. Purification of impure NaCl by using HCl
2. Salting out of soap from glycerol by using NaCl.

Question 31.
(i) Define resonance effect. (1)
Answer:
The polarity induced in a molecule by the interaction of a lone pair of electrons with a pi bond or the interaction of two pi bonds.

(ii) Explain the two types of resonance effect with suitable examples. (2)
Answer:
+ R Effect
Resonance effect which increases the electron density in a conjugated system with activating group.
eg:-OH, -OR, -NH₂, -F, – Cl etc.

-R Effect
Resonance effect which decreases the electron density in a conjugated system with deactivating group.
-NO₂, -CN, -COOH etc.

(iii) Which among the following is a group showing +R effect?
-CN, – OH, -NO₂, -COOH (1)
Answer:
+ R Effect: – OH

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1-5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Name the enzyme that accelerate the following re-action:

Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase

Question 2.
The double walled membrane that protects the heart is _____.
Answer:
Pericardium

Question 3.
Scientific name of lion is given below. Which one is correctly written?
(a) Panthera leo
(b) panthera leo
(c) Panthera Leo
(d) panthera Leo
Answer:
Panthera leo

Question 4.
The disorder in which stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts formed within the kidney.
Answer:
Renal calculi

Question 5.
Name the fluid filled space that separate the membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons at a chemical synapse.
Answer:
Synaptic cleft

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6 -16. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
(a) Name the tissue that acts as pacemaker in human heart.
(b) What is the significance of pacemaker in the . functioning of heart?
Answer:
(a) Sino-atrial node / SAN

(b) SAN can generate the action potentials, and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

Question 7.
Certain hormones that regulate Kidney function are
given in Column-A. Their specific functions are given in the Column-B. Match them suitably

A	B
ADH	Water reabsorption
Angiotensin II	Powerfull Vaso Constrictor
ANF	Cause dilation of blood vessels
Aldosterone	Reabsorption of Na+

Answer:

A	B
ADH	Powerfull Vaso Constrictor
Angiotensin II	Water reabsorption
ANF	Reabsorption of Na+
Aldosterone	Cause dilation of blood vessels

Question 8.
The processes involved in muscle contraction are given below. Arrange them in correct sequential order. (The first step is given correct).
• A signal sent out by CNS.
• Binding of Ca⁺⁺ with troponin.
• Release of a neurotransmitter.
• Remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
• Release of Ca⁺⁺ into Sarcoplasm.
Answer:

• A signal sent out by CNS.
• Release of a neurotransmitter.
• Release of Ca⁺⁺ into sarcoplasm.
• Binding of Ca⁺⁺ with troponin.
• Remove the masking of active sites for myosin.

Question 9.
Select Poiokilothermous animals from the list:
Corvus, Felis, Rana, Calotes, Scoliodon, Macaca, Hippocampus, Pavo.
Answer:
Poikilothermous Animals – Rana, Calotes, Scoliodon, Hippocampus

Question 10.
General structure of am.ino acid is given:
Draw the structure of the amino acids.
(a) glycine and
(b) Serine.

Answer:

Question 11.
(a) Write any two types of synovial joints.
(b) Identify its location.
Answer:
(a) Ball and Socket, Hinge joint, Pivot Joint, Gliding Joint, Saddle Joint
(b) Ball and Socket- Between humerus and pectoral girdle / Hip join
Hinge joint – Knee Joint
Pivot Joint – Between atlas and axis
Gliding Joint – Between carpals
Saddle Joint – Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

Question 12.
Observe the illustration :
(a) Identify A & B and fill the blanks.
(b) What happens when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme ?

Answer:
(a) A-Apoenzyme.
B – Prosthetic group.

(b) Catalytic activity of enzyme is lost.

Question 13.
Observe the diagrammatic presentation of ECG.

(a) What is the expansion of ECG?
(b) What do P and QRS complex indicate?
Answer:
(a) Electrocardiogram

(b) P-wave represents the electrical excitation or depolarisationof the atria. QRS complex represents the electrical excitation or depolarisation of the ventricles.

Question 14.
Identify each phylum from the characteristics given :
(a) Comb plates are the locomotory organs.
(b) Show alternation of generation.
(c) Presence of Water Vascular System.
(d) Body consists of proboscis, collar and trunk.
Answer:
(a) Ctenophora
(b) Coelenterata/Cnidaria.
(c) Echinodermata.
(d) Hemichordata.

Question 15.
Observe the graph :

(a) What does the graph represent?
(b) Write any three conditions in the alveoli that favour the formation of oxy-haemoglobin.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen Dissociation Curve
(b) High pO₂, Low pCO₂, Lesser H+ ion concentration, Lower temperature

Question 16.
Write any two differences between Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes.
Answer:

Chondrichthyes	Osteichthyes
• All are marine fishes	• It includes both marine and fresh water fishes
• They have cartilaginous endoskeleton	• They have bony endoskeleton
• Mouth is ventral	• Mouth is terminal
• Gill slits separate without operculum	• Four pair of gills convered by operculum
• Skin contains placoid scales	• Skin is covered with
• Air bladder absent	• Air bladder absent

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scoers. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
Distinguish between :
(a) Nucleosides and Nucleotides
(b) Primary metabolites and Secondary metabolites
(c) Ligases and Lyases
Answer:
(a) Nucleosides-Pentose sugar + Nitrogenous base.
Nucleotides – Pentose sugar + Nitrogenous base + Phosphate group.

(b) Primary metabolites – The biomolecule directly involved in physiological activity.

Secondary metabolites – The biomolecule not directly involved in growth and development.

(c) Ligases – Catalyses the linking of two compounds.
Lyases – Catalyse the removal of group from substrate

Question 18.
Explain any two groups of organisms based on Coelom. Give one example for each group.
Answer:

1. Acoelomates-Animals without coelom.
   e.g:- Platyhelminthes.
2. Coelomates – Animals possessing true coelom. Eg :-Mollusca

Question 19.
Complete the illustration appropriately.

Name 3 layers of Cranial meninges that protects brain.
Outer layer (d) ________
Middle layer (e) _______
Inner layer (f) ________
Answer:
(a) Mid brain
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Dura mater
(e) Arachnoid
(f) Pia mater

Question 20.
(a) Name two types of cells in Islets of Langerhans.
(b) Write any one function of each type of cell.
(c) Name the gland where Islets of Langerhans found.
Answer:
(a) Alpha cells and Beta cells.

(b) Alpha cells – Produce Glucagon or Hyperglycemic hormone
Beta cells – Produce Insulin or Hypo-glycemic hormone

(c) Pancreas

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Botany Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1 – 5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Which among the following produce biogas from the dung of ruminant animals?
a) Thermiacidophiles
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Methanogens
d) Halophiles
Answer:
c) Methanogens

Question 2.
The stage between Meiosis I and Meiosis II is called
a) Diakinesis
b) Interkinesis
c) Pachytene
d) Diplotene
Answer:
b) Interkinesis

Question 3.
Choose the only growth inhibiting plant hormone among the following options:
a) ABA
b) NAA
c) IAA
d) 2,4-D
Answer:
a) ABA

Question 4.
The process of conversion of molecular nitrogen to ammonia is termed as _____.
Answer:
Nitrogen Fixation

Question 5.
Observe the relation, and fill up the blank Trypanosoma: Flagellated Protozoan : Ciliated protozoan
Answer:
Paramecium

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Write any two economic uses of bryophytes.
Answer:
1) They Provide food for herbaceous mammals, birds and other animals
2) Peat moss(spagnum) is used as fuel and Packing material for trans-shipment of living materials

Question 7.
Observe the diagram and label the parts noted as A, B, C and D.

Answer:
A) Region of Maturation
B) Region of Elongation
C) Region of meristematic activity
D) Root cap’

Question 8.
What is the role of fungus in mycorrhiza?
Answer:
1) Fungal hyphae have large surface area, so it helps to absorb mineral ions and water from soil.
2) Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish without the presence of micorrhizae.

Question 9.
Column A represents chromosomal behaviour during different sub-stages of Propose I of Meiosis I. Fill up the blanks in Column B.

Chromosomal behaviour (A)	Sub-stages (B)
a) Crossing over occurs	i)
b) Formation of Chiasmata	ii)
c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes	iii)
d) Chromosoems visible under light microscope	iv) Leptotene
e) Terminalisation of Chiasmata	v)

Answer:

Chromosomal behaviour (A)	Sub-stages (B)
a) Crossing over occurs	i) Pachytene
b) Formation of Chiasmata	ii) Diplotene
c) Pairing of homologous chromosomes	iii) Zygotene
d) Chromosoems visible under light microscope	iv) Leptotene
e) Terminalisation of Chiasmata	v) Diakinesis

Question 10.
The behaviour of plant cells with regard to water movement depends on the surrounding solution. Explain the changes occur in cells A and B.

Answer:
A) In hypotonic solution water diffuses into the cell causing the cytoplasm to build up turgor pressure against the cell wall and Cell become turgid

B) In hypertonic solution water moves out of the cell and protoplast withdraws from cell wall and shrinks. Due to this the Cell become Plasmolysed.

Question 11.
Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have the C4 pathway. Write any two advantages of C4 plants :
Answer:
1) They lacks Photorespiration
2) Photosynthetic yield or Productivity is high

Question 12.
Differentiate lactic acid fermentation from alcohol fermentation.
Answer:

Lactic acid fermentation	Alcohol fermentation.
The product is Lactic acid	The products are Ethanol and CO2
Lactate dehydrogenase is the enzyme involved	Pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase are the enzymes involved

Question 13.
Ethylene is one of the most widely used Plant Growth Regulator in Agriculture. Write any two agricultural applications of ethylene.
Answer:

1. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone promotes senescence and ripening of fruits.
2. It promotes horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings

Question 14.
In glycolysis, ATP is utilized at two steps only. Write down these two steps.
Answer:

1. Glucose → Glucose 6 phosphate
2. Fructose 6 phosphate  → Fructose 1,6 biphosphate

Question 15.
Define, “The law of limiting factors”. Write any two external factors which directly affect the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Blackman’s Law of Limiting Factors If a chemical process is affected by more than one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to its minimal value

1. Light
2. Temperature

Question 16.
What is the difference between nitrification and denitrification in Nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Nitrification is the formation of Nitrates from Ammonia by Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
Denitrification is conversion of Nitrate in the soil to Nitrogen by Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus.

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
C₄ plants have large cells around the vascular bundles of leaves called bundle sheath cells.
a) What is this anatomy called?
b) Write any two features of bundle sheath cells.
Answer:
a) Kranz anatomy
b) They are Large cells
They are arranged in several layers around vascular tissue

Question 18.
A and B are floral diagrams of two angiosperm families.
Answer:
a) A)Solanaceae
B) Liliaceae

b) A) Ovary is bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior, bilocular with axile placentation.
B) Ovary is tricarpellary, Syncarpous, Superior with axile placentation.

Question 19.
Following are the diagrams showing primary structure of dicot stem (A) and monocot stem (B). Write any three differences between them.

Answer:

A) Dicot Stem	B) Monocot Stem
Ground tissue is differentiated into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith	Undifferentiated Ground tissue
Collenchymatous hypodermis	Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
Vascular bundle is conjoint, open and endarch	Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed

Question 20.
Given below is the diagram of a cell organelle.
a) Identify the organelle.
b) Write any two functions of this organelle.

Answer:
a) Golgi apparatus

b) It helps in the Packaging of materials.
It is the site of synthesis of Glycoproteins and Glycolipids