Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 2 hour
Total Score: 60

Instructions:

  1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
  2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
  3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Question 1.
Cheetah is the fastest animal on land. Its speed is given in different ways. Which among these is correct?
a) 25 metre pers
b) 25 m/s
c) 25 m/s2
d) 25 M/S
Answer:
d) 25 M/S

Question 2.
The folloing figures depict. two electro-magnets made from two iron nails of same size.
Statement 1: (a) is the strongest electromagnet as it has more number of turns of coil compared to(b)
Statement 2: (b) is the strongest electromaguet as it has less number of turns of coil compared to (a)
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 1
Options:
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
c) Only the first statement is correct

Section – B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 6 and 7 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
A person start from A, moves through B, C and reaches D in 30 s.
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 2
a) Calculate the distance.
b) Find out the speed.
Answer:
a) Distance covered from A to D
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 m

b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{30 \mathrm{~m}}{30 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 1 m/s

Question 4.
A child measures the total thickness of the papers of his science diary having 200 sheets and finds it to be 2 cm. Find the thickness of one of these papers in SI unit.
Answer:
Thickness of one paper = \( \frac{Height of the pile of papers }{No. of papers}\)
Thickness of one paper = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~cm}}{200}=\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~cm}\)
= 0. 01 cm
Thickness of paper in SI unit = \(\frac{0.01 \mathrm{~cm}}{100}\)
= 0.0001 m

Question 5.
Rahul care fully cut the bar magnet he had exactly into two pieces to observe whether it becomes a magnet with only a south pole. What is your conclusion? Why?
Answer:
No, it does not become a magnet with only a south pole. Every broken piece of a magnet, no matter how small it is, it will always have both south and north poles. A magnet with only one pole does not exist

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 6.
A. Calculate the force exerted by atmospheric pressure on a table surface of area 3 m2. Atmospheric pressure is 101325 Pascal.
Answer:
A. Force = Pressure × Area
= 1 Pa × 3 m2
= 101325 × 3
= 303975 N

OR
B. The weight of the air column over unit area of earth’s surface is atmospheric pressure.
a) What is standard atmospheric pressure?
b) Name the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
a) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is known as standard atmospheric pressure. It is defined as the weight of a mercury column that is 0.76 m high, with a unit cross sectional area, exerting a pressure of 1 atm.

b) Barometer.

Question 7.
A. When certain bodies are rubbed against one another, electron transfer takes place between them. Complet the table give below on the basis of this concept.

Pair of bodies used for rubbing Body that loses electrons Body that receives negative charge
Ebonite, Wool (a) (b)
Glass rod, Silk (c) (d)

Answer:
a) Wool
b) Ebonite
c) Glass rod
d) Silk cloth

OR
B. a) Mention the method to confirm whether bodies possess charge?
b) What is the unit of charge?
Answer:
a) From the property of repulsion.
b) coulomb

Question 8.
Correct the following statements if there are any mistakes in them.
a) The virtual image formed by convex mirror is always magnified.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called convex mirrors.
Answer:
a) The virtual image is formed by convex mirror is always diminished.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called concave mirrors.

Section – C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
A ray of light is made to fall on the pole of a concave mirror making an angle 30° with the principal axis.
a) What is the angle of reflection?
b) Justify your answer.
c) Draw the ray diagram.
Answer:
a) Angle of reflection = 30°
b) The ray falling at the pole reflects at an angle equal to that of the incident angle.
c)
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 3

Question 10.
A. a) The pole of a magnet attracts an iron nail which has no magnetic power. Describe the working behind this.
b) What are the factors that the attractive force of two magnetic poles depend on?
Answer:
a) The magnet attracts the iron nail brought near the pole of a magnet as the result of magnetic induction. If a magnetic material is bought near the magnetic field of the magnet, an unlike pole is induced at its near end. The pole of permanent magnet attracts the newly formed unlike poles. That is why the magnetic pole attracts a magnetic material near it.

b) The attractive force between the magnetic poles increases with increase in the strength of the pole and decreases with increase in the distance between the poles.

OR
B. a) What do you mean by susceptibility and retentivity?
b) Compare soft iron and steel in terms of its susceptibility and retentivity
Answer:
a) Susceptibility is the ability of magnetic materials to get magnetised due to the influence of an external magnetic field.
b) Retentivity is the ability to retain the magnetism.

Soft iron Steel
• The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is low’. • The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is very high
• Its susceptibility is very high. • Its susceptibility is very low

CHEMISTRY 

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2.1 score each. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Match the following.
Substances
i) Lemon juice
ii) Yoghurt/Buttermilk
iii) Tamarind
iv) Vinegar

Acid responsible for the sour taste
a) Lactic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Tartaric acid

Choose the correct order.
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
D) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
Answer:
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c

Question 2.
Two statements related to steam and boiling water are given below. Examine them and choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Boiling water causes more severe bums than steam since it has a higher temperature. Statement 2: Steam contains more energy than boiling water.
Options:
A) Both statements are correct
B) Only the second statement is correct.
C) Only the first statement is correct
D) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer:
B) Only the second statement is correct.

Section – B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Magnesium is taken in a test tube, and a liquid is added to it. A vigorous chemical reaction occurs, and a gas is released. If a burning splinter is shown to. the gas, it bums with a “pop” sound.
a) Identify the probable liquid added to the test tube.
b) Which gas was produced?
Answer:
a) Dilute Hydrochloric acid
b) Hydrogen

Question 4.
(A) Polymers are macromolecules formed by the combination of many monomers.
a) How are polymers classified?
b) Classify the following: Cotton, Wool, Nylon, Silk, Bakelite, Jute, PVC, Polythene
Answer:
a) Polymers are classified into natural polymers and synthetic polymers,
b) Natural polymers – Cotton, wool, Silk, Jute, Synthetic polymers – Polythene, Bakelite, PVC, Nylon

OR
(B) Identify whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the statements.
a) Thermosetting plastics cannot be reheated or melted to make new, reshaped products.
b) Monomers are macromolecules composed of many simpler molecules.
Answer:
a) True.
b) False. Polymers are macromolecules composed of many simple molecules.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 5.
Water pollution is a maj or issue we face today.
a) Write down any two situations in which water in your locality gets polluted.
b) Suggest a method to prevent water pollution.
Answer:
a) • Untreated sewage and wastewater
• Plastic and garbage dumping

b) • Reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture to prevent runoff into water bodies.
• Avoid dumping plastic, oils, and other non- biodegradable waste into water sources.
• Promote rainwater harvesting
• Raise awareness about water conservation.

Question 6.
a) What are periods and groups in the periodic table?
b) How many of these are there in the modem periodic table?
Answer:
a) The horizontal rows in the table are called periods and the vertical columns are called groups. Elements in a group show similar chemical properties.

b) Periods – 7
Groups – 18

Question 7.
Take 5 mL of sodium chloride solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of silver nitrate solution to it. Record the observations and conclusions of this experiment.
Answer:
Observation – Acurdy white precipitate is formed. Conclusion – Chloride (Cl) ion react with silver nitrate to form white precipitate of silver chloride.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 8.
(A) The modem periodic table that we use today is the result of the efforts of many scientists. Explain the
classification of elements done by the following scientists.
a) Lavoisier
b) Newlands
Answer:
(A) Antoine Lavoisier: Classified the then-known elements into metals and non-metals. Newlands: The elements were arranged based on mass number using the Law of Octaves.

OR
(B) a) How did Mendeleev classify the elements?
b) Write one advantage of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:
a) Elements were arranged in the ascending order of atomic mass using periodic law.

b) • Blank spaces were left for elements to be discovered and their properties were predicted.
• Elements with similar properties were grouped together to simplify the study of elements and their compounds.

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 has a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Two activities are given:
(i) Take a little ammonium nitrate salt solution in a test tube. Add freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution
to it. Add concentrated sulphuric acid drop by drop very slowly through the. sides of the test tube.

(ii) Take a little sodium carbonate salt solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to it. Pass the gas released from the test tube through clear lime water.
a) Write the observation of activity (i).
b) Write the observation of activity (ii).
c) Name the gas formed in activity (ii).
Answer:
a) A brown ring forms between the two liquids.
b) The lime water turns milky.
c) Carbon dioxide gas (CO2 gas)

Question 10.
(A) Two samples of water are given.
Sample 1 – Soap gives lather easily.
Sample 2 – Soap does not lather easily.
a) Which sample represents hard water?
b) Which among the following salts causes hardness of water? (Sodium carbonate, Magnesium chloride. Zinc hydroxide, Ammonium chloride)
c) Which type of hardness of water can be removed by boiling?
Answer:
(A) a) Sample 2
b) Magnesium chloride
c) Temporary hardness

OR
(B) Soap decreases the surface tension of water.
a) What is surface tension?
b) How does the decrease in surface tension benefit washing clothes?
Answer:
a) The surface of liquids acts like a stretched elastic membrane. The property responsible for this is called surface tension, b) When surface tension decreases, water can spread easily through the threads.

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7,8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Match the scientists with their contributions.

A B
1. Theophrastus A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms
2. Aristotle B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs
3. Ernst Haeckel C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms
4. Robert H. Whittaker D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood

Answer:
B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs
D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood
C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms
A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Fossil studies also show that Pakicetus, the ancestor of the whales, had the physical
characteristics of a wolf, as well as a body structure suitable tr swimming.

Statement 2: The ancestor of the Whales was an ancient mammal called Pakicetus, which lived 60 million years ago.
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statements 1 and 2 are wrong
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
Answer:
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Observe the picture and answer the questions below.
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 4
a) Which farming method is shown in the picture?
b) What is the advantage of this farming method?
Answer:
a) Pet bottle farming
b) The maximise the use of space

Question 4.
Some organisms included in a food chain are given below.
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 5
a) Make a food chain using the given organisms. Which organism comes under the third trophic level in this food chain?
b) ‘Abiotic factors are essential
for the existence of biotic factors. ’ Justify this statement.
Answer:
a) Grass → Zebra → Lion , Vulture
Lion will corne under the third trophic level.

b) Abiotic factors are essential for the existence of biotic factors because they form the non-living foundation and physical environment that directly sustains, controls, and limits all life processes. Without the proper balance of ahiotic factors. biotic organisms cannot survive, reproduce, or forn iriable ecosystems.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 5.
Complete the table.

Feature Compund microscope Electron microscope
The need for light ____(a)____ An electron beam is used instead of light
Magnification Power Up to 1000 times. ____(b)____
Lens ____(c)____ ____(d)____

Answer:
(a) Light is needed.
(b) Magnifies objects more than a million times,
(e) Using multiple lenses,
(d) Electromagnets are used.

Question 6.
A 15-year-old student is experiencing acne and is also showing signs of developing an aversion to food.
a) Identify the hormonal change responsible for the acne.
b) Suggest a necessary dietary change she should make to ensure proper development, specifically addressing her aversion to food.
Answer:
(a) The increase in sex hormones (like androgen) during adolescence. which leads to the sebaceous glands producing more sebum.

(b) She must adopt a diet that provides the right nutrients needed for rapid growth to avoid the negative effects of the lack of essential nutrients (under-nutrition).

Question 7.
A. Observe the image and answer the questions below.
Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2 - 6
a) Identify the organism?
b) What are the characteristics of this organism?
Answer:
(a) Paramecium
(b) Eukaryote, unicellular organism, hetero- troph, has mobility.

OR
B. Pair the terms given in the box appropriately.
Tiger, Canis familiaris, Panthera tigris, Coconut Tree, Panthera leo, Cocos nucifera, Dog, Lion
Answer:
• Tiger -Panthera tigris
• Coconut Tree -Cocos nucifera
• Dog – Canis familiaris
• Lion – Panthera leo

Question 8.
A. a) What are the characteristics of the following agricultural products?
Palakkadan Matta rice, Malabar pepper, Kuttiyattur mango
b) On what basis are such agricultural products special?
Answer:
(a) They have been granted geographical indication status.

(b) Depending on the characteristics of the land where it is cultivated, the taste, colour, smell, and nutritional value of the products will vary. Based on this, agricultural products produced in certain regions are given Geographical Indication status.

OR
B. Select the ones related to artificial fertilisers from the ones given below.
a) Does not harm soil structure or decomposers.
b) A much smaller amount is sufficient compared to other fertilisers.
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
e) Plants get the nutrients released from these bio residues by the decomposers.
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.
h) Microorganisms are added to the soil to help fix nitrogen and phosphorus.
Answer:
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Complete the list.

Scientists Contributions
____(a)____ They together proved that the fundamental units responsible for the origin of life can form from simple gases.
Sidney Fox ____(b)____
Joan Oro ____(c)____

Answer:
(a) Harold Urey, Stanley Miller.
(b) Proved that molecules similar to proteins can be synthesised artificially.
(c) Adenine, one of the key building blocks of nucleic acids, was artificially synthesised.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 10.
A. ‘Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus’.
Explain and differentiate the cytoplasmic division in plant and animal cell.
Answer:
Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus. Cell division is completed only when the cytoplasm also divides following nuclear division. The plasma membrane folds inwards at the centre of the cell, and these infolded regions of the plasma membrane join together, which leads to the division of the cytoplasm, thereby two daughter cells in animal cells. Unlike animal cells where the plasma membrane folds inwards at the center of the cell, plant cell has a rigid cell wall to divide. There are small, membrane- bound vesicles containing cell wall materials that gather at the centre of the dividing cell, and they join together to form a cell plate. The cell plate formed divides the cytoplasm into two, forming two daughter cells.

OR
Question 10.
B. “Cell division is a process in which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells”.
a) What is the name of the process that causes the chromosome number to change 46 to 23?
b) In which specific organs do these gamete-producing cells undergo meiosis?
c) Describe the function of‘Meiosis Phase 1’ and ‘Meiosis Phase 2’ in the formation of gametes.
Answer:
(a) Meiosis
(b) It occurs in the sexual organs (specifically the testes in males and the ovaries in females).
(c) Meiosis Phase 1 is where the chromosome number is halved (46 to 23). Meiosis Phase 2 is similar to mitosis and results in the final four sperm cells and one ovum, and three polar cells.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 5 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

  1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
  2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
  3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
  4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “A Long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Mani carried a small bedding-roll. Granny had a large cloth shopping bag and an umbrella. They decided to take rest when they were hungry. They walked steadily without much talk. A flock of parrots flew overhead. There were no other sounds except the hiss and patter of the rain. Mani picked a few blackberries from the bush. Granny was not fond of berries. Mani’s lips became purple with the juice from the berries.

Question 1.
What things did Granny have?
Answer:
Granny had a large cloth shopping bag and an umbrella.

Question 2.
The only sound they could hear was:
A. the sound made their feet as they walked.
B. the sound of the parrots.
C. the sound of the rain.
D. the from the animals in the bush
Answer:
C. the sound of the rain.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

Question 3.
Pick out the word from the passage that means ‘continuously’.
Answer:
steadily

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Jim and Della were very proud of two things which they owned. One thing was Jim’s gold watch. It had once belonged to his father. And, long ago, it had belonged to his father’s father. Though the watch was so distinctive, it did not have a fine chain. So could not wear it in the public.

The other thing was Della’s hair. Della knew her hair was more beautiful than any queen’s gold or gems. So now Della’s beautiful hair fell around her, shining like a falling stream of brown water. It reached below her knee. It almost made itself into a dress for her. And then she put it up on her head again, nervously and quickly. Once she stopped for a moment and stood still while a tear or two ran down her face.

Question 4.
What were the two precious things that Della and Jim owned?
Answer:
The two precious things that Della and Jim owned were Della’s long and beautiful hair and Jim’s watch which he got from his father.

Question 5.
“It almost made itself into a dress for her.” What was it?
Answer:
Her long and thick hair

Question 6.
Why did a tear or two run down Della’s face?
A. Because Jim was not with her.
B. Because her hair was too long.
C. Because she was sick.
D. Because she was planning to sell her hair.
Answer:
D. Because she was planning to sell her hair

Question 7.
Read the following lines from “The Seven Ages of Man” by William Shakespeare. In these lines the 5,h’ 6th and 7th ages are described. Write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines, using the hints given below. (1 × 4 = 4)
And then the justice
In fair round belly, with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe, and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws, and modem instances,
And so he plays his part. The sixth age shifts
Into the lean and slipper’d pantaloon,
With spectacles on nose, and pouch on side,
His youthful hose well sav’d, a world too wide.
For his shrunk shank, and his big manly voice,
Turning again towards childish treble, pipes
And whistles in his sound. Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
Answer:
In the fifth age, man becomes the justice, with a fair round belly as he has eaten fat chicken meat. His eyes are severe and his beard is formally cut. He is full of wise sayings and contemporary knowledge. Thus he plays his part.

In the sixth stage he shifts into lean and loose pants. He has spectacles on his nose and a bag on his side like a school teacher. His youthful skin has become loose. His legs have become small and weak and the world too wide for him. His big manly voice goes back to his childish treble, with pipes and whistles in his sound making his speech unclear.

In the last scene we see the end of his strange eventful history. He is in his second childhood and in forgetfulness. He is without teeth, eyes, taste – without everything. This is when he quits the stage as his life has ended. “The Seven Ages of Man is a beautiful description of a person’s steady movement from cradle to grave.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Riya loved visiting her grandmother’s village during the holidays. Unlike the noisy city, the village was calm and filled with fresh air. Every morning, Riya woke up to the sound of birds instead of traffic. She enjoyed walking through the fields, where farmers worked patiently from sunrise to sunset. One day, her grandmother took her to the small community library. Although the library was old, it was filled with interesting books about nature, history, and science. Riya spent hours reading and discovered many new ideas. She realized that learning could happen anywhere, not just in school. By the time she returned home, she felt thankful for the simple but meaningful experiences the village had given her.

Question 8.
How was Riya’s grandmother’s village different from the noisy city?
Answer:
Riya’s grandmother’s village different from the noisy city by being calm and filled with fresh air.

Question 9.
To what sounds did Riya wake up every morning?
A. The sounds of traffic.
B. the sounds her grandmother made.
C. The sounds the farmers made.
D. The sounds the birds made.
Answer:
D. The sounds the birds made.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

Question 10.
The community library had books about:
A. history
B. science
C. politics
D. sports

Now, choose the right option,
i) A
ii) B
iii) Both A and D
iv) Both A and B
Answer:
iv) Both A and B

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] Write the story of “Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan, using the hints given below.
(Hints: Malgudi – lottery – narrators wins a road engine in a lottery – proves a burden – the engine has to be moved – temple elephant 50 coolies and Joseph moving the engine – hitting and breaking the compound wall – police – debts -earthquake pushes the engine into a disused well – the owner of the well agrees to pay all the debts of the narrator)
Answer:
“Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan narrates the humorous misfortune of a man from Malgudi who wins a road engine in a lottery at a fair. What seems like a grand prize soon becomes a burden. The huge machine is impossible to move, and the winner has neither the space to keep it nor the money to operate it. The engine blocks the town’s public road, causing inconvenience to everyone and attracting complaints from officials. The municipality gives him a dead line to remove the engine. He gets the temple elephant, 50 coolies, and one driver named Joseph.

As the engine is dragged out, it hits a compound wall and breaks it. There are many spectators to watch the fun and there is a lot of noise. The angry elephant strained and broke the rope. The coolies fled in panic. The owner of the compound slaps the man and takes him to the police station. Finally, an earthquake gets the road engine fall into a disused well. The owner of the well is happy and agreed to pay all the debts of the narrator. The story highlights the irony of unexpected “gifts” and the humour of everyday life.

OR
[B] In the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry we see what happens between what is expected and what actually occurs. How does the unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasise the value of love over material possessions?
Answer:
Jim and Della love each other deeply. They want to give their partner an appropriate Christmas gift. Della has beautiful hair and Jim has a precious watch. Della thinks the best gift for Jim, is a golden watch chain so that he can wear it proudly in public. Jim thinks the best gift for Della is some fine combs so that she can wear her hair elegantly. Della sells her beautiful hair to get the golden watch chain. Jim sells his watch to get the combs for Della’s hair. The irony is that the gifts are currently useless for them.

The unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasises the value of love over material possessions by showing us Jim and Della going to dinner with hearts overflowing with love. They may have lost their precious possessions but they have shown each other that their love is paramount. By selling her hair Della bought the golden watch chain and he bought the combs by selling the watch. The golden watch chain and the combs are useless for them now. Material possessions are nothing before real love.

Question 12.
[A] How was the newspaper distribution in Rameshwaram before World War II started and why did Abdulkalam accept the job of distributing the paper?
Answer:
[A] The newspapers reached Rameswaram in a unique way. They came by morning train and were kept at the Rameswaram station. From there they had to be collected and sent to all subscribers. Samsuddin managed it effortlessly. When World War II raged, it affected the newspaper delivery business in a strange way. The British government had placed a number of sanctions and rations on goods. Something like a state of emergency prevailed in the country. Our large family felt the difficulties badly. Food, clothes and the need of the babies were difficult to get. Samsuddin came up with a proposal that delighted me. The train stop at Rameswaram was cancelled. Flow to get the papers then? Samsuddin found a way out.

The papers would be kept ready in large bundles. As the train slowed down at the Rameswaram-Dhanushkodi track, the bundles would be flung out on to the platform. Samsuddin offered me the job of collecting these bundles and then taking them around town for distribution. I was very happy. I was only 8, but I was going to contribute meaningfully to the household income. I had seen that the food on the plates of my mother and grandmother was getting smaller and smaller as the food had to be shared among all of us. So I accepted Samsuddin’s offer.

OR
[B] Imagine you were a reporter at the time of India’s Independence. You heard the speech “A Tryst with Destiny” by Jawaharlal Nehru. In about 150 words, report the speech to be published in your newspaper.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru’s “ATryst with Destiny” speech, delivered on the eve of India’s independence on 14 August 1947, celebrates the nation’s historic transition from colonial rule to freedom. Nehru describes independence as the fulfilment of a long-awaited pledge made by India’s leaders and freedom fighters. He emphasizes that political freedom is only the beginning and calls for dedicated effort to build a just, prosperous, and democratic nation.

Nehru urges citizens to end poverty, inequality, and discrimination, reminding them that the responsibility of shaping India’s future lies with every individual. He highlights unity, communal harmony, and service to humanity as essential values for the new nation. India has been suffering long under the yoke of the British. Now we are no more a colony of some foreign power, but an independent nation that has to work for self-sufficiency in everything. We should prove to the world that we are behind no one. The speech concludes with a hopeful vision of India awakening to life and freedom, ready to contribute to peace and progress in the world.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

Question 13.
[A] In “Thank you Ma’am” by Langston Hughes we find how Roger tries to snatch the purse from Mrs. Jones and how she decides to take him to her house and treat him well. Describe the incident in about 250 words.
Answer:
Mrs. Jones was a large woman with a large purse that seemed to contain everything. It had a long strap, and she carried it slung across her shoulder. It was about 11 at night, and she was walking alone, when Roger, a boy of around 15, ran up behind her and tried to snatch her purse. The strap broke with the single tug Roger gave it from behind. But he lost his balance and fell on his back on the sidewalk. Mrs. Jones kicked him in his buttocks. Then she picked the boy up by his shirt front, and shook him until his teeth rattled. She made him pick up her purse and give it to her. She then asked if he wasn’t ashamed of himself. The boy said yes and apologized to her.

She said his face was dirty and asked him if he did not have anybody home to tell him to wash his face. The boy said there was none at home. She took Roger to her house and then said to him she would treat her like her son and teach him right from wrong. He asked her to wash his face. She then sat with him and ate together. When he finished his meals, she gave him 10 dollars to buy the kind of shoes he wanted to buy. He was trying to snatch the purse from Mrs. Jones to buy a pair of blue suede shoes he desired so much.

OR
[B] Imagine you had a chance to meet Jim, the hero of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry. Write down four questions you want to ask him and his possible answers to them.
Answer:
1. What prompted you to sell your valuable possession, the watch, you got from your father?
My desire to buy my beloved Della a proper Christmas gift prompted me to sell my valuable possession, the watch.

2. When you saw Della without her hair, how did you feel?
When I saw Della without her hair, at first I was very much shocked. But when I came to know the reason why she cut and sold her hair, I felt greater love and admiration for her.

3. Did you regret your decision to sell your watch?
No, I didn’t. I sold it for a noble purpose. I love for Della is much more precious to me than the watch which is just a material possession.

4. Did Della look less beautiful to you without her hair?
No, she didn’t. In fact she looked more beautiful without her hair as she made such a great sacrifice because of her love for me.

Question 14.
Using the hints given below, prepare a brief profile of R.K. Narayan who wrote the story “Engine Trouble”. (4)
(Hints: bom in Madras in 1906 – graduated from Maharaja College in Mysore, tried a brief stint as a teacher – celebrated writer – Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan – Swami and Friends, The Guide, and Malgudi Days, The Guide, The Financial Expert, and Mr. Sampath – themes – death of his wife – died in 2001)

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

A. Ethiopian Volcanic Ash Cloud Reaches India, Affecting Flights
B. Dharmendra, Bollywood Legend Hero of Sholay, Passes Away at 89
C. Delhi Air Quality Crisis Prompts New Restrictions
D. Indian Cricket Team Worried about its Performance Against South Africa
Answer:
R. K. Narayan was bom in Madras in 1906. He graduated from Maharaja College in Mysore. He tried a brief stint as a teacher but left to become a full-time writer. He was a prominent Indian writer in English, celebrated for his novels set in the fictional town of Malgudi. He was much influenced by English literature from a young age. He is known for his simple, humorous style and insightful portrayals of everyday Indian life. Narayan was a recipient of numerous awards, including the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan. His writing is characterized by its simplicity, genial humour, and keen observation of human nature.

His works often explored the clash between tradition and modernity, the role of the individual, and family dynamics. He is most famous for creating the fictional town of Malgudi, which became a recurring setting for many of his stories. Malgudi provided a window into small-town Indian life for a global audience.

Some of his notable novels include “Swami and Friends, The Guide, and Malgudi Days, The Guide, The Financial Expert, and Mr. Sampath. He also wrote over two hundred short stories, essays, and travel books. –
The tragic and untimely death of his wife, Rajam, was a profound experience that influenced the themes of fate in his writing. Narayan died in 2001.

Question 15.
Which headline is of the greatest importance to air travellers?
Answer:
A. Ethiopian Volcanic Ash Cloud Reaches India, Affecting Flights

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

Question 16.
Which is saddest news to lovers of films?
Answer:
B. Dharmendra, Bollywood Legend Hero of Sholay, Passes Away at 89

Question 17.
If you live Delhi, which headline will get your immediate attention?
Answer:
C. Delhi Air Quality Crisis Prompts New Restrictions

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate phrases given in brackets. (1 × 3 = 3)
My friend Mark decided to a)…… his old, stressful job to pursue his dream of becoming a chef. It was tough at first, but his family helped him b) …… while he was in culinary school. He didn’t give up on his dream, and now he is a successful restaurant owner who loves to c) ……
his customers.
(get by, look up, give up. make out. speed up. look after)
Answer:
a) give up,
b) get by,
c) look after

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
Jim stopped inside the door. He was as a) quite as a hunting dog when it is near a bird. His eyes looked strangely at Della, and there was an expression in them that she could not b) understood It filled her with fear. It was not anger, nor surprise, nor anything she had been reads for. He simply looked at her with that strange expression on c) her face. Della went to him. “Jim. dear.” she cried, “don’t look at me like that. I had my hair cut off and sold it. I couldn’t live through Christmas without giving you a gift. My hair will grow again. You won’t care, d) won’t you? My hair grows very fast
Answer:
a) quiet,
b) understand,
c) his,
d) will you?

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Roger and Mrs. Jones. (3 × 1 = 3)
She said, “What is your name?”
“Roger,” answered the boy.
“Roger, go to that sink and a) ______ said the woman. She turned him looseat last. Roger looked at the door—looked at the woman— looked at the door—and went b) ______”
“Let the water run until it gets warm,” she said. “Here’s a clean towel.”
Are you going to take me to jail?” asked the boy, bending over the sink.
“Not with that face, I would not take you anywhere,” said the woman. “I was trying to get home to cook me something to eat and you snatch my pocketbook! Maybe, you haven’t eaten your supper, c) ______?”
Answer:
a) wash your face,
b) to the sink,
c) have you

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

  1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
  2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
  3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
  4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “A long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

As the bus was well away from the landslide, the passengers got out of the bus. They knew it would take days to clear the road. Most of the passengers decided to return to Nain with the bus. But some bold ones agreed to walk to Mussoorie. Mani asked Granny if they should go back. Granny said it was only 10 miles; and they did that yesterday. So they started climbing a narrow path. When they got to the top of the mountain, they were alone. Granny had brought some pakoras. and buns and peaches. He said they would eat and then proceed. She said she could walk forever. But there should be no rain as the umbrella was leaking.

Question 1.
What did the passengers know?
Answer:
The passengers knew that it would take days to clear the road because of the landslide.

Question 2.
Most of the passengers:
A. cursed their fate.
B. quarrelled with the driver.
C. wanted to protest against the Road Transport Authority.
D. decided to return to Nain with the bus.
Answer:
D. decided to return to Nain with the bus.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Question 3.
Add a question tag: The passengers got out of the bus,?
Answer:
didn’t they?

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from the script of the film “Village of the Watermills sand answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The procession approaches. Women, children and men move in rhythm. The little children pick flowers from the vases they hold and throw them out. Behind them are the bugle players. Then the girls. They dance beautifully. All are wearing hats. Six men carry a coffin in the middle of the procession. The children sing along. The Old Man, ringing his bell and holding a bunch of flowers in his hand, greets them. As the procession approaches, he joins it. All pass in front of the Young man who curiously watches the procession, smiling. As the coffin approaches, he takes off his hat to show respect.

Question 4.
What do the little children do?
Answer:
The little children pick flowers from the vases they hold and throw them out.

Question 5.
Who takes off his hat to show respect, as the coffin approaches?
Answer:
The Young man takes off his hat to show respect, as the coffin approaches.

Question 6.
As the procession approaches, joins it.
A. the Old man
B. the Young man
C. a bugle player
D. a dancing girl
Answer:
A. the Old man

Question 7.
Read the following lines from the song “Get Together” by The Young bloods and write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines. (1 × 4 = 4)

Love is but a song we sing
Fear’s the way we die
You can make the mountains ring
Or make the angels cry
Though the bird is on the wing
And you may not know why

Come on, people now
Smile on your brother
Everybody get together
Try to love one another right now

Some may come and some may go
He will surely pass
When the one that left us here
Returns for us at last
We are but a moment’s sunlight
Fading in the grass
Answer:
“Get Together” is a melodious song by The Youngbloods, an American rock band. The song says that love is but a song we sing. Fear is the way we die. You can make the mountains ring or make the angels cry, though the bird is on the wing and you may not know why. The poem asks the people to come and smile on their brothers. Everybody should get together and try to love one another right now.

Some may come and some may go. We all surely die one day. When the one that left us here returns for us at last, we are but a moment’s sunlight fading in the grass. The song is very melodious with beautiful rhythm. There is a fine metaphor when love is called a song that we sing. The song encourages us to live smilingly as our time is short and we all will die one day.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Incredible Journey of a Seed

Did you know that a tiny seed holds the complete plan for a huge tree? It’s true! Every seed is like a small, self- contained package of life. When a seed falls into the soil and finds the right amount of water, sunlight, and warmth, a magical process begins.

First, the seed absorbs water and swells up. Atiny root pushes down into the ground to anchor the plant and look for more water. Next, a tiny shoot grows upwards, reaching for the sunlight. This is called germination.

Once the shoot breaks through the soil, it becomes a seedling. The seedling uses the energy stored inside the seed until its first leaves grow and can start making its own food through photosynthesis. From this small beginning, and with continuous care, a tall, strong tree can eventually grow, ready to produce new seeds and start the cycle all over again!

Question 8.
When does the process of germination begin?
Answer:
The process of germination begins when the seed finds the right amount of water, sunlight, and warmth.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Question 9.
For a seed to germinate it will need
A. the right amount ofwater
B. warmth
C. attention by people
D. enough manure

Choose one from the following.
i) A and D
ii) B and C
iii) B and D
iv) A and B
Answer:
iv) A and B

Question 10.
In a seedling, photosynthesis is the process of
A. germination
B. making its own food,by the leaves
C. the roots getting into the soil
D. absorbing water
Answer:
B. making its own food by the leaves

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] In the story “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome, we see the narrator taking the prescription the doctor gave him to a pharmacist. The pharmacist looks at it and returns it to him saying that he was not running a cooperative store and a family hotel. Attempt the likely diary entry of the pharmacist.
Answer:
A very strange thing happened today. It was around 4 in the afternoon. I was alone in my pharmacy. Then I saw a well-dressed man coming to my pharmacy in a hurry. He looked sad and upset. He had a folded prescription in his hand. He gave it me. I unfolded it and I felt like laughing. This is what was written in the prescription: “A balanced diet, with water every 2 hours. A 10-mile walk every morning.

To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night. Don’t stuff up your mind with things you don’t understand.” I then told him I was not running a cooperative store and a family hotel. He then asked me if I were not a chemist. In reply I gave the prescription back to him and asked him to read it. When he read it, a smile came to his lips. He said “Thank you” and went away. I’d like to know if he took the doctor’s advice and became better.

OR
[B] Hot seat refers to a situation where a person is expected to answer many tough or embarrassing questions. The person in the hot seat answers questions from a group. Imagine Della, the heroine of the story “”ATale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry is on the hot seat. Ask her 4 relevant questions and her replies to them.
Answer:
• Della, why did you decide to sell your hair?
I decided to sell my hair because I wanted money to buy a golden watch chain for Jim as my Christmas present to him..

• How did you feel without your long, beautiful hair?
I looked a bit strange without my hair, but when I thought of the happiness Jim would get when he saw the watch chain, I felt quite happy.

• Has Jim’s love for you increased because of the sacrifice you made?
Definitely yes. Jim’s love for me has increased because of the sacrifice I made which showed him how much I love him.

• Do you think your decision to sell your hair was right?
I think I was hundred percent right. To me what is important is the happiness of Jim, much more than my hair which will grow again.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Question 12.
[A] In “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome, the prescription given by the doctor says, “A balanced diet, with water every two hours. A10-mile walk every morning. To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night.” Write a paragraph on the Role of Habits in Shaping Health and Well-being”.
Answer:
In Latin there is a proverb which says “Mens sana in corpore sano”. In English it means “a Healthy mind in a healthy Body”. Habits play a major role in shaping the health and wellbeing of person. There are certain do’s and don’ts that we must follow if we want to be healthy. In the list of the things we ought to the following are the most important:

Have a balanced diet, drink enough water, sleep well, exercise well, avoid spending too much time watching TV or using the computer, laptop or the mobile, read good books, magazines etc., keep your mind filled with good thoughts and be optimistic. The things we must avoid are: eating too much junk food, lack of physical activity, excessive screen time, lack of enough sleep, Using psychedelic drugs or alcohol, self-diagnosis of diseases, self-prescriptions of medicines and being pessimistic.

OR
[B] How does the unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry emphasise the value of love over material possessions?
Answer:
Jim and Della are a poor couple. But each of them has a very valuable possession. Jim has a watch that he got as a hereditary possession. But he can’t wear it as it does not a suitable chain. Della has beautiful hair. But she can’t display the beauty of her hair because she does not have the necessary combs and ribbons. So as a Christmas present Jim wants to buy combs for Della and Della wants to buy a chain for Jim’s watch.

The unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasises the value of love over material possessions by showing us Jim and Della going to dinner with hearts overflowing with love. They may have lost their precious possessions but they have shown each other that their love is paramount. By selling her hair Della bought the golden watch chain and he bought the combs by selling the watch. The golden watch chain and the combs are too nice to use now. Material possessions are nothing before real love.

Question 13.
[A] Write a character sketch of Jim, the hero of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry, using the following hints.
(22 years old, small salary, heavy responsibility’ – precious watch – very’ loving – wants to buy expensive combs for Della – sells the watch – proves his love)
Answer:
Jim, the hero of “A Tale of Two Gifts” is a 22 year old young man. He is selfless, responsible, and loving young husband who is deeply burdened by financial hardship. Despite his small salary, he is described as serious but good-natured, and his character is defined by his willingness to sacrifice his most prized possession, a gold watch, to buy his wife Della the perfect Christmas gift, showcasing his profound love and commitment to her happiness. Jim is selfless and loving. He is a responsible husband.

As the main provider, Jim feels the weight of responsibility to support his wife, even with a low salary. His hard work and dedication are evident in his being “never late” for work. He has a sacrificing mind. His action of selling his watch is a testament to his belief that their love and happiness are more valuable than material possessions. He is thoughtful and wise. Although his gift to Della becomes useless after she sells her hair, he doesn’t dwell on the irony. Instead, he sees the situation as a testament to their selfless love and quietly suggests they put their useless gifts away, appreciating th,e sentiment behind them rather than the objects themselves.

OR
[B] Using the hints below, tell the story of “Thank You, Ma’am,” by Langston Hughes, in less than 200 words.
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4
(Hints: Roger wants blue suede shoes – tries to grab the purse Mrs. Jones – strong and practical woman – kicks Roger – takes to her home – face wash – eat together -10 dollars to buy shoes – advice – Roger’s change)
Answer:
Mrs. Luella Jones, a large woman, was walking home late at night. Roger, a boy, attempts to steal her purse. Instead of handing him over to the police, the strong and practical woman hauls him into her home.

Inside her boarding-house room, Mrs. Jones insists Roger wash his face, shares her meal of lima beans and ham with him, and discovers he only wanted money for a pair of blue suede shoes. She reveals that she, too, had once wanted things she couldn’t have, though she stopped short of theft, showing empathy rather than judgment. This act of unexpected kindness and trust moves Roger deeply. He feels ashamed of his actions and a desire to be trustworthy.

At the end of the evening, Mrs. Jones gives Roger ten dollars for the shoes he wanted, and he leaves, profoundly impacted by her generosity and the life lesson she imparted. The boy is unable to express his gratitude beyond a simple “Thank you, Ma’am” as she closes the door, but the story’s focus on second chances and compassion highlights the transformative power of human connection.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Question 14.
You read the poem “The Astronomer” by Rabindranath Tagore. Using the hints given below, write a brief profile ofTagore. (4)
(Hints: 1861 -1941, poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer, and painter – Gurudev – Nobel in 1913 for Gitanjali – two national anthems – more than 2000 songs, short stories and famous novels like Gora and Ghare-Baire – Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, renounced British knighthood in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre)
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was a poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer, and painter. He reshaped Bengali literature and music, as well as Indian art. He is often referred to as Gurudev.

He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his poetry collection, Gitanjali (Song Offerings). He composed the national anthems of India {“Jana Gana Mana ”) and Bangladesh (“Amar Shonar Bangla ”). His vast body of work includes over 2,000 songs (Rabindra Sangeet), numerous poems, short stories, novels like “Gora ” and Ghare- Baire (The Home and the World), and plays.

He founded an experimental school in rural West Bengal in 1901, which later grew into the international Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, aiming to blend the best of Indian and Western educational traditions. He advocated for Indian independence from the British Raj. He renounced his British knighthood in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow.(3 × 1 = 3)
Nehru dies from a heart attack on 27 May 27, 1964, at age 74.
Subhash Chandra Bose was 48 years old when he is believed to have died in a plane crash on August 18, 1945.
Mahatma Gandhi, 78, shot dead on his way to a prayer meeting at Birla House, on 30 January 1948.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, 75, dies on 15 December 1950, due to a heart attack.

Question 15.
Of the four people, who died when he was not yet 50?
Answer:
Netaji Subhash Chdandra Bose

Question 16.
What caused the death of two leaders?
Answer:
Heart attack

Question 17.
Who among the four leaders was the victim of violence?
A. Subhash Chandra Bose
B. Mahatma Gandhi.
C. Sardar Patel
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B. Mahatma Gandhi.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using appropriate phrasal verbs taken from those given in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
After a busy week, Sarah decided to a) …… her apartment. She started by tackling the kitchen, where she had to b) …… some old food that had been sitting in the fridge for a while. After she had finished that, she decided to c) …… her work clothes and put on something more comfortable.
(throw away, hold on, get through, clean up, wind down, make out, take off)
Answer:
a) clean up,
b) throw away,
c) take off

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
The other thing was Della’s hair. Della knew her hair was more beautiful than any queen’s gold or a) jems. So now Della’s beautiful hair fell around her, shining like a falling b) streem of brown water. It c) reach below her knee. It almost made itself into a dress for her. And then she put it up on her head again, nervously and quickly. Once she stopped for a moment and stood still while a tear or two ran down her d) phase.
Answer:
a) gems,
b) dream,
c) reached,
d) face

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Mr Student and Teresa.
Mr Student : What do you want?
Teresa : I want you to a) …….
Mr. Student : b) To …….
Teresa : To Boleslav Kashput.
Mr. Student : Who is he?
Teresa : He is my c) …….
Answer:
a) write a letter for me.
b) whom do you want to write?
c) young man/lover/beloved.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 3 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

  1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
  2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
  3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
  4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “Talking of Science” and answer the questions that follow. “ Dr. Ajith Parameswaran is giving answers to some questions put to him by the interviewer. (3 × 1 = 3)

Curiosity is essential for a good scientist. It drives the quest for knowledge. Children naturally ask questions, but adults often do not bother. It is because they don’t care or they don’t want to appear ignorant. Scientists must retain the child-like curiosity and admit their ignorance. This alone can drive them to discover the truth. Creating new knowledge requires a strong understanding of what is already known. Newton said, “If I have seen farther, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants.” School education prepares us for this.

Question 1.
How does curiosity help a good scientist?
Answer:
Curiosity helps a good scientist it drives his quest for knowledge.

Question 2.
What are the two things scientists must do?
Answer:
The two things scientists must do are retaining child like curiosity and admitting their ignorance.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Question 3.
Newton said, “If I have seen farther, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants.” It means:
A. He stood on the shoulders of tall people.
B. The giants helped him to climb on to their shoulders.
C. He used the knowledge of the earlier scientists to improve.
D. He wasn’t able to see properly as the giants were standing in front of him.
Answer:
C. He used the knowledge of the earlier scientists to improve.

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

At seven, Jim’s dinner was ready for him. Jim was never late. Della held the watch chain in her hand and sat near the door where he always entered. Then she heard his step in the hall and her face lost colour for a moment. She often said little prayers quietly, about simple everyday things. And now she said: “Please God, make him think I’m still pretty.”  The door opened and Jim stepped in. He looked very thin and he was not smiling. Poor fellow, he was only twenty-two and with a family to take care of! He needed a new coat and he had nothing to cover his cold hands.

Question 4.
Was Jim always late to come home after work?
Answer:
No, he wasn’t. Jim was never late.

Question 5.
When Della heard Jim’s step in the hall, her face lost colour for a moment. What was the reason for that?
A. Jim always scolded her.
B. She had cut off and sold her hair.
C. Jim had come very late.
D. Jim did not like her.
Answer:
B. She had cut off and sold her hair.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Question 6.
How old was Jim?
Answer:
He was only 22 years old.

Question 7.
Read the following poem “The Astronomer” by Rabindranath Tagore. Write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines. (1 × 4 = 4)
I only said, “When in the evening the round full moon gets
entangled among the beaches of that Dadam tree, couldn’t somebody catch it?”
But dada laughed at me and said, “Baby, you are the silliest
child I have ever known. The moon is ever so far from us, how could anybody catch it?”
I said, “Dada, how foolish you are! When mother looks out of
her window and smiles down at us playing, would you call her far away?”
Still dada said, “You are a stupid child! But, baby where
could you find a net big enough to catch the moon with?”
I said, “Surely you could catch it with your hands.”
But dada laughed and said, “You are the silliest child I have
known. If it came nearer, you would see how big the moon is.”
I said, “Dada, what nonsense they teach at your school! When
mother bends her face down to kiss us, does her face look very big?”
But still dada says, “You are a stupid child.”
Answer:
The poem is a conversation between a small child and his dada. The child asks his dada why somebody could not catch the moon when it gets entangled among the branches of the dadam tree in the evening. Dada says the boy is foolish to ask such a question because the moon is so far away from us and no one catch it. But the boy says dada is foolish. He asks when the mother looks out of her window and smiles down at us playing, would he call her far away.

Dada wanted to know how they will find a net big enough to catch it. The boy says you could catch it with your hands. Again dada says if the moon came nearer they would see how big it was. The boy then asks his dada when mother bends her face down to kiss us, does her face look very big?” Dada Says the boy is very stupid. The poem tells us about the innocence of the children.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Importance of Trees

Trees are essential to life on Earth. They provide oxygen, which we breathe, and help maintain the balance of the atmosphere. Trees also act as carbon sinks, absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air. In addition to this, trees provide shelter and food for a variety of animals, from birds to insects. Forests, made up of many trees, are vital for maintaining the water cycle and preventing soil erosion. Without trees, the environment would become unbalanced, affecting all living things. As urbanization increases, it is important to remember the value of trees and work towards preserving and planting more to safeguard our planet’s future.

Question 8.
Why are trees important for life on Earth?
Answer:
Trees important for life on Earth because they provide oxygen, which we breathe, and help maintain the balance of the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Trees act as carbon sinks by:
A. producing carbon dioxide .
B. by maintaining the water cycle.
C. by giving leaves and fruits to people, animals and birds.
D. by absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air.
Answer:
D. by absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Question 10.
Trees are essential to life of earth because:
A. they provide oxygen.
B. they help maintain the balance of the atmosphere.
C. they are needed for cooking purposes.
D. they produce beautiful flowers.
Choose one answer from the following:
i) A and C are correct.
ii) B and D are correct,
iii) C and D are correct.
iv) A and B are correct.
Answer:
iv) A and B are correct.

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] In “A Prescription for Life” we see Jerome going to a doctor, who is his friend, and the doctor giving him a prescription. The prescription read “A balanced diet, with water every two hours. A 10-mile walk every morning. To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night. Don’t stuff up your mind with things you don’t understand”. Tell the story in your own words, using the hints given below.
(Hints: Jerome goes to British museum to learn about an illness – medical encyclopaedia – thinks he has all the diseases – goes to doctor – prescription – goes to pharmacy – read the prescription – goes home happily)
Answer:
One day Jerome wanted to learn something about hay fever and so he went to the British Museum to get the information from the books there. There he read the medical encyclopaedia which dealt with all kinds of diseases. When he read about the symptoms of hay fever he felt that he had all those symptoms. Then he looked at some other diseases and their symptoms. He felt that he had all those diseases in him. This made him worried and he decided to consult the doctor for help. The doctor was his friend.

When the doctor asked him what the disease that bothered him, he said that if he went on talking about all the diseases he had, the doctor would die before he finished his explanations. He said he had all the diseases except housemaid’s knee. The doctor examined him and gave him a prescription. Jerome took the prescription to the pharmacy. The chemist read the prescription and told him that he was not running a cooperative store or a family hotel, Jerome then took the prescription back and read it for the first time. It was some commonsense advice on proper diet, drinking plenty of water, regular exercise, and going to bed early. Jerome left the pharmacy feeling quite happy and decided to follow the doctor’s advice.

OR
[B] Irony is the contrast between what is expected and what actually occurs. How does the author O. Henry bring a touch of irony to the story “A Tale of Two Gifts”?
Answer:
Jim and Della are a young couple and they love each other deeply. ‘They are poor and therefore they can’t afford to buy expensive gifts for each other. But they want to give the partner an appropriate Christmas gift. Della has beautiful hair and Jim has a precious watch. Della thinks the best gift for Jim is a golden watch chain so that he can wear it proudly in public. Jim thinks the best gift for Della is some fine combs so that she can wear her hair elegantly. Della sells her beautiful hair to get the golden watch chain. Jim sells his watch to get the combs for Della’s hair. The irony is that the gifts are currently useless for them. But by sacrificing their most valuable possession they have shown how deeply they love each other.

Question 12.
[A] The narrator in the story “The Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan, tries to convince the municipal chairman to buy the road engine. Prepare the likely conversation between them.
Answer:
Narrator : (Enters the Office of the Chairman) Good Morning, Sir.

Chairman : Yes, Good Morning. What can I do for you?

Narrator : I’m the owner of the road engine parked in the gymkhana grounds.

Chairman : Oh, you are the owner. Didn’t you get the notice to remove it from there? We need the grounds for the upcoming cattle show.

Narrator : Sir, I had been looking for a road engine driver. But I could not find any. They say there is not a single road engine driver within 50 miles around.

Chairman : That is not my problem. I want you to remove the road engine immediately.

Narrator : Sir, I have a suggestion. The municipality has many roads to maintain. It will be good if the municipality has a road engine of its own. I will sell you the road engine at a very cheap price.

Chairman : What nonsense are you talking? Do you think the municipality wants to have a road engine of its own? It has only a few kilometres of road to maintain. For that we don’t need a road engine of our own.

Narrator : But, Sir, if you have ……

Chairman : Stop talking and don’t waste my time with your ifs and buts. I want you to remove the road engine from the gymkhana grounds in a couple of days.

Narrator : Sir, but …….

Chairman: I told you I don’t want to hear your ifs and buts. If you don’t remove that in two days’ time I will complain to the police to arrest you and charge you for blocking the use of the grounds for conducting different programmes.

Narrator : Don’t complain, Sir. I will remove it somehow.

Chairman : It is good for you to do that. Remember, in two days’ time.

Narrator : Okay, Sir!
(The Narrator goes out cursing the Chairman.)

OR
[B] Mr. Student is perplexed by the story of Teresa’s imaginary lover and her unusual letters. Later, he understands that Teresa had invented the imaginary lover because she was terribly lonely. He felt ashamed of his prejudices and misjudgements. He tells one of his close friends detailing his experiences. What does he say?
Answer:
Yuri, I want to tell you of something new I learned about human predicament. Opposite my room lives Teresa. She is tall and strong, with bushy dark brown hair and a large coarse face. She has dark eyes. She speaks with a bass voice. She also had a bad reputation. I was so prejudiced against her that I never left my door open when I knew she was in her apartment.

She once came to me and said she wanted me to write a letter to her lover Boles. She dictated it to me and I wrote it. She came back to me after some days and told me I should write another letter as a reply from Boles. I got annoyed and told her she is a liar and there is no one called Boles. She went away quite sadly. So I went to her room and had a discussion with her.

I then realised her plight. She was lonely and she invented this lover. When she makes some people read the letter written by her and the reply she supposedly gets she feels happy that there is someone to love her. I felt empathetic and I agreed to write the reply also. I continued doing that. Teresa repaid for my services by mending the holes in my socks, shirt and others items of clothing. We have become god friends now. Things are fine between Teresa and me and we are happy.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Question 13.
[A] What does Nehru mean by “noble mansion of free India” in his speech “A Tryst with Destiny? What are your dreams for our country and for the world?
Answer:
By “noble mansion of free India”, Nehru means an India where there is no gap between the rich and the poor, no intolerance, no fanaticism, and no blind love of some people for their region or language. He wants India to be a sovereign, democratic, secular nation where all the citizens live in peace, harmony and prosperity. He envisages a nation where there is unity in diversity, where there is brotherhood among the various religious, linguistic and regional groups.

My dream for the country and for the world is to have peace and harmony among people. My dream is for a world where there are no wars, no hunger, no poverty and no intolerance. I dream of world where people live like family members, loving one another without any discrimination of caste, creed, colour, language or region.

OR
[B] Nehru in his speech calls all citizens to live and work together on the path to prosperity. Imagine you share his vision with one of your friends through a letter. Write the likely letter.
Answer:
XV/24 M.G. Road
Kottayam – 686006
12 October 2025
Dearest Rosy,

I hope this letter finds you in good health and spirits.

I recently read Nehru’s speech A Tryst with Destiny” which he made on the eve of our independence in the Constituent Assembly. The words of Jawaharlal Nehru, especially his appeals for national unity and a shared commitment to building the future of India were superb. I thought of sharing this vision with you, as I know you are keen on our country’s growth.

Nehru very clearly says that India’s progress depends entirely on all of us living and working together. He wanted India to be a nation where every citizen regardless of their religion, region or language— focuses on the prosperity for all the people.

Nehru was against all kinds of communalism and provincialism which divide people. He extolled our unity in diversity. There are problems facing India – poverty, ignorance, disease and lack of modernity. As children of Mother India we should work hand in hand to overcome the problems and make India one of the best countries in the world.

There are three most important things we ought to be if we are to achieve progress and prosperity. They are working with dedication, practising tolerance and empathy, prioritizing the Nation. So let’s make a pledge in our homes, workplaces, and communities to make a democratic, secular, prosperous modem India.

With love and affection, and ebullient hope and optimism,

Yours lovingly,
Joe

Question 14.
You studied “Little Things Matter” by A.P.J. Abdulkalam, who was the 11th President of India. Using the hints given below write his brief profile. (1 × 4 = 4)
(bom 15.10.1931 in Rameshwaram – scientist, statesman and 11th President – after presidency, teaching and public service – ISRO project director – missile man of India – Pokhran II nuclear tests in 1998 – received many awards, including the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour – died while delivering a lecture at the IIM in Shillong.)
Answer:
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was bom on 15 October 1931, in a poor Tamil Muslim family in Rameswaram. He was inspired to pursue science and engineering despite humble beginnings. He was an Indian scientist, statesman, and the 11th President of India (2002-2007). After his presidency, he returned to a life of teaching and public service until his death in 2015.

As Project Director at ISRO, he was instrumental in developing India’s first indigenous Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-III). He played a crucial role in the development of India’s ballistic missile and launch vehicle technologies, earning him the title “Missile Man of India”. He was also a key figure in India’s Pokhran-II nuclear tests in 1998 and served as the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister. He was the President between 2002 and 2007.He has received many awards, including the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour. He passed away on 27 July 2015, while delivering a lecture at the Indian Institute of Management in Shillong.

Questions 15-17: Here are some headlines that appeared in the Indian Newspapers in the morning of August 15,1947, after Nehru had made the “A Tryst with Destiny” speech. Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

NATION WAKES TO NEW LIFE
INCESSANT STRIVING TASK OF THE FUTURE
WILD SCENES OF JUBILATION IN DELHI
PANDIT NEHRU TO BE PREMIER

Question 15.
Which of the headlines is the most specific?
Answer:
The headline that is the most specific is PANDIT NEHRU TO BE PREMIER.

Question 16.
Which is the headline that shows the happiness of the people?
Answer:
The headline that shows the happiness of the people is WILD SCENES OF JUBILATION IN DELHI.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3

Question 17.
“Incessant Striving Task of the Future” refers to:
A. Pandit Nehru’s work as PM.
B. The troubles the British will have to face in India.
C. The hard work of the leaders behind the Independence Movement.
D. The hard work we have to do to make India a prosperous nation.
Answer:
D. The hard work we have to do to make India a prosperous nation.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the phrasal verbs given in brackets.
After waking up early, I had to a)……. the partment b) ……. my keys. I finally c) ……. the
search and realized they were in my backpack all along.
(figure out, run round, break down, put on, look for, put up with, call oft)
Answer:
a) run round,
b) looking for,
c) called off

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. ( 4 × 1/2 = 2)
To my utter surprise she took me her house. She asked me to wash my face. She made me a) to sit down. Then she heated some lima beans and ham she had in the icebox, made the cocoa and set the table. She asked me to eat with her. She did not b) asked me anything about where I lived, or my people or anything else that would c) embarass me. She told me about her job. She made me eat as if I were his son. When we finished eating she gave me ten dollars to buy the blue suede shoes I wanted.
Answer:
a) sit down,
b) ask,
c) embarrass,
d) her

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Mrs. Jones and Roger in “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry. (3 × 1 = 3)
Della: Mrs. Sofronie, will you buy a) ______?
Mrs. Sofronie: Remove b) ______
Della: How much will you pay me?
Mrs. Sofronie: c) “______”.
Answer:
A) my hair?
b) remove your cap.
c) Twenty dollars

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

  1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
  2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
  3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
  4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

My doctor is an old friend of mine. Whenever I feel sick I go to him. He feels my pulse, looks at my tongue and talks about the weather. He does not take any fee from me. I thought I would help him by going to him now. What a doctor wants is practice. If he has me he will get more practice out of me than out of the hundreds of patients that come to him every day. Each of those patients has only one or two diseases. But in me he will get all the diseases, except one.

Question 1.
Why does not the doctor take any fee from the speaker?
Answer:
The doctor does not take any fee from the speaker because the doctor is the speaker’s friend.

Question 2.
What does the doctor to do the speaker when he goes to him?
A. He feels his pulse.
B. He looks at his tongue.
C. He talks about the weather.
D. All of the above.
Answer:
D. All of the above.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 3.
Why does the speaker say that if the doctor has him, he will get more practice out of him than out of the hundreds of patients that come to him every day?
Answer:
The speaker says that if the doctor has him, he will get more practice out of him than out of the hundreds of patients that come to him every day because the speaker has all the diseases except one. Each of the patients that come to the doctor may have only one or two diseases.

Questions 4 – 6: Read the following excerpt from “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry and answer the questions that follow.(3 × 1 = 3)

Della took the money. For the next two hours, she was going from one shop to another, to find a gift for Jim. She found it at last. It was a gold watch chain, very simply made. Its value was in its rich and pure material. Because it was so plain and simple, you knew that it was very valuable. All good things are like this. As soon as she saw it, she knew that Jim must have it. She paid twenty-one dollars for it. And she hurried home with the chain and eighty-seven cents.

Question 4.
Why was Della going from one shop to another?
Answer:
Della was going from one shop to another, to find a gift for Jim, her husband.

Question 5.
What was the gift Della found for Jim?
Answer:
The gift Della found for Jim was a beautiful golden chain for his watch.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 6.
The value of the gold watch chain was in:
A. its artful and complicated work.
B. in its rich and pure material.
C. in its cost.
D. None of these.
Answer:
B. in its rich and pure material.

Question 7.
Read the following lines from “The Seven Ages of Man” by William Shakespeare. In these lines the first 4 stages are described. Write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines, using the hints given below. (1 × 4 = 4)
All the world’s a stage,
And all the men and women merely players;
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
His acts being seven ages. At first the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms;
And then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail
Unwillingly to school. And then the lover,
Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow. Then a soldier,
Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation
Even in the cannon’s mouth.
(Hints: the world is a stage – men and women are actors – 7 stages – first infant, then school boy, third as lover, and the 4th as solider- language – simile – hyperbole – message)
Answer:
All the world’s a stage and all the people are merely actors. They come and play their role and go away. Each person in his time has seven roles to play. At first he is an infant, crying and vomiting in the arms of the nurse. The second stage is as the unwilling and weeping school-boy, with his bags going slowly like a snail to school. The third stage is that of a lover, his heart burning with love and a song for his mistress. The 4th stage is that of a soldier. He takes strange oaths, has a beard, is quick to quarrel and wants to be famous even if it means getting killed in the fight.

The language of the poem is a bit difficult with words like “mewling and puking”. The imagery is beautiful as we get a clear picture of the growth of a person. There are fine similes like “creeping like a snail”, and “sighing like a furnace”, “bearded like the pard”. “Seeking the bubble reputation” is good example of a metaphor. The poem gives a fine message telling us vividly the various roles we play in our lives.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Wonders of the Solar System

Our Solar System is a vast and fascinating place, filled with mysteries and wonders. At its centre is the Sun, a massive ball of gas that provides light and warmth to the planets. The Sun is so large that it could fit over a million Earths inside it! Around the Sun orbit eight planets, each unique in its own way. These planets are divided into two groups: the inner planets and the outer planets.

The inner planets Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are rocky and smaller. They are located closer to the Sun and have solid surfaces. Earth, our home planet, is the only one known to support life, thanks to its atmosphere and the presence of water. Mars, the “Red Planet,” has long fascinated scientists because of its similarities to Earth and the possibility of past life.

The outer planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are much’ larger and are made mostly of gases. Jupiter, the largest planet, is known for its Great Red Spot, a massive storm that has been raging for hundreds of years. Saturn is famous for its beautiful rings made of ice and rock. Uranus and Neptune are often called the “ice giants” because they are made up of water, ammonia, and methane, and have very cold temperatures.

The Solar System is a place of endless wonder, and we are still discovering new things about it. Through space exploration, we continue to learn more about our place in the universe, and each new discovery brings us closer to answering the many questions we have about the cosmos.

Question 8.
How many planets are there in our Solar System, and how are they divided?
Answer:
There are 8 planets in our Solar System, and they divided into two groups – the inner planets and the outer planets.

Question 9.
What makes Earth unique among the planets?
A. It is very big.
B. It has mountains and rivers.
C. It supports life.
D. It goes round the sun.
Answer:
C. It supports life.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 10.
Uranus and Neptune are called the “ice giants” because:
A. they are made up of water, ammonia, and methane.
B. they are inner planets.
C. they are very monstrous.
D. they have very cold temperatures.

Choose one from the following answers:
i) A and B are correct.
ii) B and C are correct,
iii) B and D are correct.
iv) A and D are correct
Answer:
iv) A and D are correct

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] In “A Long Walk with Granny we saw how the road to Mussoorie was blocked by the landslide. The passengers in the bus had to face a lot of hardships. One of the passengers writes a letter to the Road Transport Authority, Mussoorie requesting them to clear the road. Write the likely letter.
Answer:
10/Nehru Marg
Nain
1 March 2026
The Road Transport Authority
Mussoorie
Dear Sirs,

Subject: Clearing landslide debris from the Nain-Mussoorie Road
The other day I was travelling in a bus to Mussoorie with my daughter who had a serious problem with one of her eyes. We were going there to consult an eye specialist. We were only 10 kilometres away from Mussoorie when we suddenly found the bus coming to a grinding halt. A landslide had occurred and the road was blocked with earth, trees, bushes and rocks. We had to go back to Nain as there was no way get to Mussoorie except on foot. It was a traumatic for the passengers as most of them were going to Mussoorie for important jobs. The more sorrowful fact is that the road is not yet cleared for traffic even after a couple of days.

Please look into the matter and do something fast to remove the debris from the road making it once more traffic-worthy. As there are no other roads to Mussoorie the people of Nain are suffering a lot as they depend on Mussoorie for most of their important needs. Hoping that you will give your immediate attention to this matter.
Yours faithfully,

Sd/-
Riya Benoy

OR
[B] In the story “Thank You Ma’am” by Langston Hughes, we see Roger being kindly treated by Mrs. Jones. Roger realises his mistake and vows that he will never repeat such a mistake again. He decides to write down his thoughts. Write the thoughts he would have written down.
Answer:
Today is a memorable day for me. I learned the lesson of my life. I will never forget this day and Mrs. Jones who helped me to know the meaning of forgiveness and empathy.

I had this great desire for long. I needed money to buy a pair of blue suede shoes. It was 11 at night and I was walking on the street thinking how to get the money to buy the shoes. Then I saw this lady with a huge purse slung on her shoulders with the strap. I imagined the purse contained money. There was no one around. I ran up behind her and tried to snatch her purse. The strap broke. I lost my balance and fell on my back on the sidewalk. The lady turned around and kicked me in my buttocks. She asked me to pick up the purse and hand it over to her.

She grabbed me by the neck and dragged me. I thought she was taking me to the police station. She asked me if I didn’t feel ashamed to snatch somebody’s purse and why I did it. I told her 1 wanted money to buy a pair of blue suede shoes. She asked me why my face was dirty and didn’t anybody at home tell me to wash it. I told her I had nobody in my house.

To my utter surprise she took me her house. She asked me to wash my face. She made me sit down. Then she heated some lima beans and ham she had in the icebox, made the cocoa and set the table. She asked me to eat with her. She did not ask me anything about where I lived, or my people or anything else that would embarrass me. She told me about her job. She made me eat as if I were her son. When we finished eating she gave me ten dollars to buy the blue suede shoes I wanted. She then advised me not to make the mistake of snatching anybody’s purse because shoes got like that can become devilish and they will bum my feet.

I had no words to thank her. I could hardly mutter “Thank you Ma’am” when she closed the door. She has really taught me the meaning of kindness, forgiveness and empathy. I will never in my life do anything like snatching somebody’s purse.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 12.
[A] In the story “The Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan, we saw the chaos erupted when the narrator attempted to move the road engine. Write a news article reporting the chaos.
Answer:
The municipality was pressing the narrator to take away the road engine from the gymkhana ground. The narrator could not get a road engine driver although he tried his best. The only way was to push the road engine away to a convenient location. The narrator talked to the priest of the local temple and gained his sympathy. He offered the services of the temple elephant.

He also engaged 50 coolies to push the engine from behind. The coolies wanted 8 annas per head. The temple element cost him Rs. 7/- a day and he had to give it a day’s feed. His plan was to take the engine to a field owned by his friend. He also took the service of one Joseph, a dismissed bus driver. He did not know anything about road-rollers, but he could steer it if it was moving. It was a fine sight – The elephant pulling the engine, 50 coolies pushing it from behind and Joseph steering it.

A huge crowd stood around and watched the show. The engine was moving. When the engine came out of the gymkhana, instead of going straight, it began to wobble and zig-zag. The elephant dragged it one way. Joseph steered it without any idea where he was going. The men just pushed it just where they liked. The engine ran straight into the wall of the opposite compound and broke it. The crowd roared with laughter.

The angry elephant trumpeted loudly. It strained and broke the rope and kicked down a further length of the broken wall. The 50 men fled in panic. This created a pandemonium. The owner of the compound slapped the narrator in the face. The police came and took the narrator to the police station.

OR
[B] You have read the screenplay “Village of the Watermills” by Akira Kurosawa. Write a paragraph on the theme, characters and setting and other features of the film.
Answer:
[B]“Village of the Watermills” by Akira Kurosawa’s is a powerful critique of modem life. Its central theme champions a life of harmony with nature, contrasting the spiritual peace of. simplicity against the destructive convenience of technology and excessive progress. The setting is an idyllic, timeless Japanese village nestled by a clean river, powered only by numerous wooden watermills. It has no electricity or machinery.

The villagers rely on natural resources. The main characters are the Young man representing the modem city dwellers and a wise, 103-year-old man who personifies the village’s philosophy, explaining their deliberate choice to forsake modem “convenience” to protect what is “truly good.” A significant feature is the joyous, celebratory funeral procession for a 99-year-old woman, who was the first lover of the old man. It symbolizes the respect of the villagers for a full life cycle and their ultimate acceptance of death as a return to nature.

Question 13.
[A] Look at the picture below. It is related to “The Day My World Changed” by Malala Yousafzai. Malala says: Education is neither Eastern nor Western, it is human.” Why is education a universal right and how can it create a better world? Use the hints given below and write a paragraph about the statement by Malala.
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 1 - 2
(Hints: Malalabom in Pakistan – attended Khushal school – campaigned for girls’ education – was shot and injured – treated in England – Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 – at 17, the youngest winner – her ideas on education)
Answer:
attended Khushal school. She campaigned for girls’ education. She was shot by terrorists and she was badly injured. She was brought to England where she was well treated and she recovered. She became the youngest person to receive the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 when she was just 17 years old. Education is a universal right and all girls and boys in the world should be educated irrespective of caste, creed, race, sex or religion. Education teaches people to be good, tolerant human beings who will work for the welfare of mankind. They will not have narrow, discriminatory attitudes.

Education is important especially for girls because they are in no way inferior to boys. Roughly half of the population of the world is women. So if we don’t educate women, the world will not make progress. It is education that develops one’s talents and skills. Gone are the days when women were expected to sit at home, doing all the household chores and looking after the children. Men and women are equal and they should have equal opportunities to develop. Society must ensure equal opportunities for women by making them feel confident and giving them the necessary training.

OR
[B] In the story “Thank You Ma’am” by Langston Hughes, we saw how Mrs. Jones’ kindness to Roger made him become an upright person. Write a character sketch of Mrs, Jones, using the hints given below. (Hints: strong and commanding – stops Roger from snatching her purse – kindness and compassion – takes Roger home, feeds him and gives him money to buy his favourite shoes – Roger decides to become an upright person)
Answer:
Mrs. Luella Bates Washington Jones is a large, strong, and commanding woman who works in a beauty-shop. Her physical strength mirrors her inner strength: she is confident, fearless, and capable of handling difficult situations with calm authority. When the boy, Roger, attempts to snatch her purse, she easily stops him and firmly takes charge of the situation.

Despite her toughness, Mrs. Jones is characterized by her deep kindness and compassion. Instead of turning Roger over to the police or punishing him harshly, she brings him to her home, cleans him up, feeds him, and speaks to him with honesty. Her actions reveal a nurturing side she behaves like a mother figure, showing him the care and guidance he lacks.

She believes in second chances and understands that young people sometimes make mistakes out of need or ignorance. Her empathy comes partly from her own past; she hints that she too has done things she is not proud of. This makes her less judgmental and more willing to teach through love rather than fear.

Mrs. Jones is a powerful blend of strength and compassion, a woman who uses discipline, empathy, and trust to guide a misguided boy toward the right path. She is memorable for her generosity, wisdom, and ability to change a life with a simple act of kindness. Her firm but gentle behaviour helps transform Roger into an upright person.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 14.
You studied the speech “A Tryst with Destiny” by Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister. Using the
hints given below, prepare a brief profile of Jawaharlal Nehru. (1 × 4 = 4)
(bom 1889 – educated at Harrow and Cambridge – associate of Gandhiji – PM from 1947-64 – secularism and social justice – great writer – “Discovery of India” – architect of modem India – championed non¬alignment – India famous in the world community – died 1964).
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru (1889-1964) was a central figure in India’s struggle for independence and the nation’s first Prime Minister. A close associate of Mahatma Gandhi, Nehru emerged as a prominent leader of the Indian National Congress, advocating democratic ideals, secularism, and social justice. Educated at Harrow and Cambridge, he combined Western intellectual influences with a deep commitment to India’s cultural heritage.

As Prime Minister from 1947 to 1964, Nehru laid the foundations of modem India through policies emphasizing industrialization, scientific advancement, and state-led economic planning. He championed non-alignment in foreign policy, seeking peaceful cooperation during a polarized Cold War era. Nehru also promoted education, establishing institutions like the IITs and nurturing a scientific temper among citizens. He is called the architect of Modem India.

A prolific writer and visionary statesman, he remains a defining architect of India’s democratic institutions. His most famous book is the “Discovery of India”. His legacy endures in the principles of pluralism and progress that continue to shape the nation’s identity.

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

i) US-Russia Peace Plan for Ukraine Needs More Work, Say European Allies at G20 Summit
ii) Ex-Brazilian President Bolsonaro Arrested for breaching flight laws.
iii) COP30 Climate Deal Agreed, Urges Tripling of Funds but Omits Fossil Fuel Phase-Out
iv) Security Fears Rise as Over 300 School children are Kidnapped in Nigeria.

Question 15.
Which of the headlines attracts the most attention by students?
Answer:
The headline that attracts the most attention by students is: Security Fears Rise as Over 300 School children are Kidnapped in Nigeria.

Question 16.
Which is the headline that deals with Climate Change?
Answer:
The headline that deals with Climate Change is: COP30 Climate Deal Agreed, Urges Tripling of Funds but Omits Fossil Fuel Phase-Out.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2

Question 17.
Bolsonaro was arrested:
A. because he was an ex-President.
B. because he was a Brazilian.
C. because he was flying.
D. because he broke the flight regulations.
Answer:
D. because he broke the flight regulations.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the phrasal verbs given in brackets.
The weary traveller had to (i) _____ because his car had (ii) _____ on the side of the road, but he was determined
to (iii) _____ a solution to get back on track.
(figure out, taken aback, break down, put on, slow down, put up with)
Answer:
(i) slow down,
(ii) broken down,
(iii) figure out

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
Jim had not yet (i) saw his beautiful gift. She (ii) hold it out to him in her open hand. The gold seemed to shine softly as if with her own warm and loving spirit. “Isn’t it perfect, Jim? I (iii) haunted all over town to find it. You’ll have to look at your watch a hundred times a day now. Give me your watch. I want to see how they (iv) looks together.”
Answer:
(i) seen,
(ii) held,
(iii) hunted,
(iv) look

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Mrs. Jones and Roger. (3 × 1 = 3)
“If I turn you loose, will you run?” asked Mrs. Jones.
“Yes ma’am” said Roger.
“Then I won’t (i) ….. ,” she said.
“I’m very sorry, lady, I’m sorry,” whispered Roger.
“Um-hum! And your face (ii) ….. I got a great mind to wash your fac,e for you. Haven’t you got anybody
home to tell you (iii) …..”
“No ma’am,” said Roger.
Answer:
(i) let you loose,
(ii) is very dirty,
(iii) to wash your face?

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019

Question 1.
The symbol of the element with atomic number 118 is:
а) Uuu
b) Uuo
c) Ubu
d) Buo
Answer:
а) Uuu

Question 2.
The oxidation state of Cl in HClO. is
Answer:
+7

Question 3.
What is the bond order of 02 molecule?
Answer:
2

Question 4.
Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by excess of …………… in drinking water.
Answer:
NO3 (Nitrate)

Question 5.
Sodium hexa meta phosphate is commercially called:
Answer:
Calgon

Question 6.
Identify the Lewis acid among the following:
a) NH3
b) H20
c) BF3
d) Cl
Answer:
c) BF3

Question 7.
Suggest a suitable method for the separation of a mixture of aniline and chloroform.
Answer:
Steam distillation

Answer any 10 questions from question number 8 to 20. Each carries 2 score. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 8.
State and explain law of definite proportion.
Answer:
The law of definite proportion: The same compound always contains same elements in a fixed ratio by mass.
eg: Water always contains hydrogen and oxygen present in a ratio by mass as 2 :16 ie. 1 : 8

Question 9.
What are the two important defects of Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom?
Answer:
Defects of Rutherford’s nuclear model of atom are
i) It couldn’t explain the electronic structure of atom.
ii) It couldn’t explain the stability of an atom.

Question 10.
Give the reason for the deviation of real gases from the ideal gas behaviour.
Answer:
Two faulty assumptions in kinetic theory of gases.
a) There is no force of attraction between the gas molecules.
b) Volume of a gas molecule is negligible compared to the volume of the gas.

Question 11.
Differentiate between extensive and intensive properties with su itable examples.
Answer:

  • Extensive properties are those properties which depend upon mass, eg . mass, volume, internal energy, entropy, etc.
  • Intensive properties are those properties which are independent of mass, eg: pressure, temperature.

Question 12.
Justify the position of hydrogen in the periodic table.
Answer:
Hydrogen resembles both with alkali metals and halogens. Hydrogen has electronic configuration 1s1 as similar to alkali metals. It loses one electron to form unipositive ions as that of alkali. It can also gain electron to form uninegative ion as that of halogen.

Question 13.
Give the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 1
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 4

Question 14.
a) How will you prepare H2O2 in the laboratory?
b) Draw the structure of H2O2 molecule.
Answer:
a) Acidifying barium peroxide with H2S04 and removing excess water by evaporation under reduced pressure gives hydrogen peroxide.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 5
open book like structure or lap top structure.

Question 15.
Suggest a method to convert ethyne to benzene.
Answer:
By passing ethyne through a hot iron tube at 873 K
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 6

Question 16.
How will you prepare water gas and producer gas?
Answer:
Water gas is produced by passing steam over red hot coke.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 7
Producer gas (a mixture of (CO & N2) is prepared by passing air over red hot coke.

Question 17.
Account for the following:
a) H2O is a liquid while H2S is a gas at room temperature.
Answer:
Due to the presence of inter molecular hydrogen bonds H2O is a Ijquid. But in H2S there is no hydrogen bond.
(This is because, H2O has intermolecular hydrogen bond between it’s molecule (H-O-H——H-O-H) while H2S has weak Van Der Wals forces between it’s molecule. Hence the molecules of H2O are strongly packed than H2S, thus water is at liquid state at room temperature)

b) BeCl2 molecule has zero dipole moment.
Answer:
In BeCl2 the dipole moments in equal and opposite direction so it cancel each other.
Cl – Be – Cl

Question 18.
When sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia it gives a deep blue coloured solution. Explain the reason.
Answer:
The blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in the visible region of light and thus imparts blue colour to the solution.
M + (x + y)NH3 → [M(NH3)x] +[e(NH3)y]

Question 19.
Illustrate common ion effect using an example.
Answer:
Common ion effect is the suppression of dissociation of a weak electrolyte by the addition of a strong electrolyte containing a common ion.
eg. Dissociation of NH4Cl is suppressed by adding NH4OH to the solution, (identification of group III in salt analysis)

Question 20.
Illustrate Markovnikov’s rule taking the example of propene.
Answer:
Markonikov’s rule: The negative part of the addentum moves to the a carbon atom which contains less number of hydrogen.

Answer any 7 questions from question number 21 to 29. Each carries 3 score. (7×3 = 21)

Question 21.
Ah organic compound contain the elements C, H and O in the composition C = 54. 24%, H=9.05% and 0=36.71%.If the molecular mass of the compound is 88 u, What is the molecular formula of the compound? (3)
Answer:
Img 8
Empirical formula = C2H4O
Empirical formula mass = 12 × 2 + 4 × 1 + 16
= 24 + 4 + 16
= 44
Molecular mass = 88 MF = (EF) × n
\(\frac{\text { Molecular mass }}{\text { Empirical formula mass }}\) = n = \(\frac{88}{44}\) = 2
Molecular formula = (C2H4O)2 = C4H8O2

Question 22.
a) Write the general outer electronic configuration of d-block elements. (1)
Answer:
ns12 (n-1) d1-10 np1-6

b) The first ionisation enthalpy of sodium is lower than that of magnesium but it’s second ionization enthalpy is higher than that of magnesium. Explain. (2)
Answer:
11Na – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
Removing one electron requires less energy because by removing one electron it will get stable electronic configuration. Hence first IE of Na is lower. Na+ has stable electronic configuration with completed octet as
Na+ – 1 s2 2s2 2p6
Mg – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
In Na+ force of attraction is more and size is less than Mg. So IE2 of Na is more than Mg.

Question 23.
a) Give two similarities between lithium and magnesium (2)
Answer:
1. Both Li and Mg are harder
2. Both Li and Mg combine with N2 to form corresponding nitride Li3N and Mg3N2
3. Li and Mg react slowly with water.
4. LiCl & MgCl2 are deliquescent.

b) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, milkiness appears. Give equation for the above reaction. (1)
Answer:
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O

Question 24.
Complete the following reactions,
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 2
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 10

Question 25.
a) Define Dalton’s law of partial pressures. (1)
Answer:
The law states that the total pressure of a mixture of non reacting gases is equal to the sum of partial pressures of component gases.

b) Density of a gas was found to be 5.59 K at 27° C and 2 bar pressure. Calculate it’s molecular mass.
(R = 0.083 L atm / mol /K) (2)
Answer:
PV = nRT
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 11

Question 26.
Balance the following redox reaction using oxidation number or ion electron method in acidic medium.
Fe2+ + Cr2O2+7 → Fe3+ + Cr3-
a) Explain the bonding in diborane. (2)
b) How will you convert diborane to inorganic benzene? (1)
Answer:
Oxidation number method
1. Skeletal equation is
Fe2+ + Cr2O2+7 → Fe3+ + Cr3-
2. Calculate increase or decrease inn oxidation no.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 12

Question 27.
a) Explain the bonding in diborane.
Answer:
Diborane is an electron deficient compound. In this compound a special type of 3 centered 2 electron bond is formed in addition to 2 centered 2 electron bond. This 3 centered 2 electron bond is also known as bridge bond or banana bond.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 13
In this compound each Boron has 3 electron and each hydrogen atom has one electron ie., a total of 12 electrons. But with these 12 electrons 8 bonds have to be formed. So a Bridge bond is formed between twp boron atom and one hydrogen atoms using 2 electrons.

b) How will you convert diborane to inorganic benzene.
Answer:
3B2H6 + 6NH3 → 3B2H6.2NH3 → 2 B3N3H6 + 12 H2

Question 28.
Calculate the enthalpy of formation of methane from the following data: (3)
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 3
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers 14

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020

PART A

Answer any 7 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
In hydrogen spectrum, the series of lines appearing in Ultra violet region are called ……….
(a) Balmer line
(b) Lyman line
(c) Pfund line
(d) Bracket line
Answer:
(b) Lyman series

Question 2.
Conjugate base of a strong acid is
(a) a weak base
(b) a strong base
(c) neutral
(d) a weak acid
Answer:
(a) a weak base

Question 3.
Which of the elements show least value of ionization energies in each periods?
(a) Alkaline earth metals
(b) Alkali metals
(c) Noble Gases
(d) Halogens
Answer:
(b) Alkali metals

Question 4.
Which Graph does not represent Boyle’s law?
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 1
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 6

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a common component of photochemical smog?
(a) O3
(b) CO
(c) CO2
(d) CH2
Answer:
(a) O3

Question 6.
Boric acid is polymeric due to
(a) Its acidic nature
(b) The presence of H bond
(c) Its monobasic nature
(d) Geometry
Answer:
(b) The presence of H bond

Question 7.
In ………… reaction an element in one oxidation state is simultaneously oxidized and reduced.
Answer:
Disproportionation reaction

Question 8.
Delocalization of electrons involving a bond is known as …………..
Answer:
Hyperconjugation

Question 9.
The hydrocarbon which give benzene when pass¬ing through a red hot iron tube is
Answer:
Ethyne or acetylene

PART B

Answer any 10 questions from 10-22. Each carries 2 scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 10.
Development of periodic table have made the study of elements and their compounds easier.
Answer:
1. The physical and chemical properties of the elements are periodic functiond of their atomic numbers.
2. Ununquadium

Question 11.
Irrespective of the source, pure sample of CO2 always yields 27.27% mass of carbon and 72.72% mass of oxygen.
(a) Which law is illustrated here? (1)
(b) State the law. (1)
Answer:
(a) Law of Definite proportion
(b)The same compound always contains same elements in definite proportion by mass.

Question 12.
Give reason for the following:
(a) The first ionization enthalpy of oxygen is smaller compared to nitrogen. (1)

Answer:
(a) Electronic configuration of N – 1s2 2s2 2p3
Completely half filled orbitals are extra stable. So more energy is needed to remove the valence electron. IE is high.
Electronic configuration of O – 1s2 2s2 2p4

(b) Electron gain enthalpy of F is less than that of Cl. (1)
Answer:
In the case of F the electron to be added is to 2p orbital. 2p orbital is small and occurs repulsion. In Cl atom the electron to be added is to 3p orbital. 3p is larger than 2p and repulsion is less. So Cl is with more electron affinity than Flourine.

Question 13.
Density of a gas at 27°C and 1 atm is 256 g/L. Calculate its molar mass [IR = 0.081 L atm mol-1 k-1]. (2)
Answer:
M = \(\frac{dRT}{P}\). P = 1 atm, R = 0.0821, T = 27°C = 300k
d = 256 g/L
= \(\frac{256 \times 0.0821 \times 300}{1}\) = 6305.28 g

Question 14.
Classify the following properties into extensive and intensive.
(Density, Enthalpy, Specific heat capacity, Entropy)
Answer:
Tablee

Question 15.
(a) The water solutions of the ionic compounds KCl, CH3COOK and NH4Cl show different pH value.
Identify the acidic, basic and neutral solution among these. (1)
Answer:
KCl gives neutral solution with pH = 7 because it is formed from strong base KOH and strong acid HCl.
CH3COOK – basic pH > 7. Because it is formed from strong base KOH and weak acid CH3COOH.
NH4Cl → acidic pH < 7 because it is formed from weak base NH4OH and strong acid HCl.

(b) What is ionic product of water? (1)
Answer:
Ionic product of water Kw for the reaction is
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 7
It is the product of the molar concentration of H+ and OH’ ions in water.

Question 16.
H2O2 is an important chemical.
(a) Give a method to prepare H2O2. (1)
(b) Represent the structure of H2O2. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 8

Question 17.
Litium shows a diagonal relationship with magnesium.
Give any two similarity between Li and Mg. (2)
Answer:
1. They are hard
2. They do not form super oxides.

Question 18.
Calculate the wave number radiation due to transition of an electron from 4th to 2nd orbit.
(RH = 109677 cm-1).
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 9

Question 19.
Draw the Newman’s projection of the clipsed and staggered conformation of ethane.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 10

Question 20.
Diborane is an electron deficient compound.
(a) Name the special bonds that present in diborane.
(b) How will you convert diborane into inorganic benzene?
Answer:
a. Banana bond or 3 centred – 2e bond
b. By reacting Ammonia with diborane inorganic benzene is formed.
3B2H6 + 6NH3 → 2B3N3H6 + 12H2

Question 21.
What happen when
(a) Borax is heated strongly. (1)
Answer:
(a) Sodium meta borate and Boric anhydride is formed.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 11
Or
On heating Borax first loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating it.turns into a transparent liquid which solidifies into glass like material known as borax bead.

(b) Boric acid is added to water. (1)
Answer:
When boric acid is added to water it act as Lewis acid by accepting electrons from a hydroxyl ion. B(OH)3 + 2HOH [B(OH)4]’ + H30+

Question 22.
Give the structure of the following compound:
(a) 4-Chloro-2-Methyl Pentane (1)
(b) 4-hydroxy pentan – 1- oic acid. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 12

Answer any 7 questions from 23-31. Each carries 3 scores. (7 x 3 = 21)

Question 23.
(a)What is atomic mass unit (amu)? (1)
Answer:
1 amu = 1/12 th of a mass of a C-12 atom.

(b)KClO3 on heating decomposes to KCl and O2. Calculate the mass of O2 produced by heating 50 gm KClO3.
(Hint. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2)
Answer:
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
2 × 122.5g → 2 × 74.55 + 3 ×32
245.g KClO3 → 96g O2
1g KClO3 → \(\frac{96}{245}\) g O2
50g KClO3 → × 50 = 19.58g

Question 24.
(a) Classify the following molecule according to the type of hydrogen bond H2O, O-nitrophenol.
Answer:
Water – Inter molecular H – Bonding.
O – nitro phenol – Inter molecular H – bonding.

(b) NF3 and NH3 show dipole moment. But the dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3. Why? (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 13
The orbital dipole due to lone pair is in the opposite direction with the resultant dipole moment of the N-F bonds.
So dipole moment is less.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 14
The orbital dipole due to lone pair is in the same direction with the resultant dipole moment of the N- H bonds.
So net dipole moment is more.

Question 25.
(a) Give Vander Waal’s equation for ‘n’ mole of a gas. (1)
Answer:
(P – \(\frac{n^2 a}{v^2}\))(v – nb) = nRT
P – Pressure
a, b – vanderWaals constant
n – no. of moles
v – volume
T – temperature
R – Universal gas constant

(b) Write four postulates of kinetic theory of gases. (2)
Answer:
1. Gases consists of large no. of minute particles called molecules.
2. Particles are always in constant random motion.
3. During their motion they collide with each other and also with the walls of the container. These collisions results pressure.
4. Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly elastic.

Question 26.
(a) Give the criteria for spontaneity of a process in terms of free energy change (∆G). (1)
(b) How it is related to the enthalpy and entropy of a system? (1)
(c) What happens to the entropy during the following changes?
(i) A liquid crystallises into a solid.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 2
Answer:
(a) For a spontaneous process ∆G should be -ve.
(b) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
(c) 1. ∆S = -ve i.e. decreases
2. ∆S = +ve i.e. increases

Question 27.
(a) Using stock notation represent the following compounds:
(i) SnO2
(ii) Cr2O3 (1)
Answer:
(i) Sn(IV)O2
(ii) Cr2(III)O3

(b) In the reaction
2Cu2O(S) + 2CU2S(S) → 2CU(S) + SO2
(i) Subtance oxidized
(ii) Subtance reduced
(iii) Oxidising agent
(iv)Reducing agent (2)
Answer:
(i) S is oxidised
(ii) Cu is reduced
(iii) Cu2O oxidising agent
(iv) Cu2S reducing agent

Question 28.
(a) Write the name of any one salt responsible for the permanent hardness of water. (1)
Answer:
(a) MgCl2 or CaCl2 or CaSO4 or MgSO4

(b) Explain one chemical method for removing per-manent hardness of water. (1)
Answer:
(1) Calgons process
Hard water is allowed to pass through Calgon. i.e. Sodium hexametaphosphate (Na6P6018) (2) Add washing soda to hard water.

(c) Suggest a disadvantages of hard water. (1)
Answer:
Soap do not lather in hard water.
Scales are formed in the boilers.

Question 29.
(a) What is plaster of paris? (1)
(b) Write the chemical equation showing the preparation of plaster of paris from Gypsum. (1)
(c) What is dead burnt plaster? (1)
Answer:
(a) CaSO4.1/2 H2O
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 15

Question 30.
(a)Consider the reaction given below:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 3
(i) Identify the product X.
(ii) Name the reaction.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 16
(i) X= 1-Bromopropane
(ii) Anti markonikov’s addition
or
Peroxide effect
or
Kharash effect

(b) Complete the following reaction:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 4
Answer:
CaC4 + 2H20 → C2H2 + Ca(OH)2

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021

Answer any 6 questions from 1 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 1.
State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
Answer:
Pairing occurs only after all the orbitals are completely half filled.

Question 2.
Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron with velocity 2.05 × 107 ms-1.
Answer:
de-Broglie wavelength = \(\frac{h}{m v}\)
= \(\frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34}}{9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 2.05 \times 10^7}\)
= 3.55 × 10-11 = 35.5

Question 3.
Based on VSEPR theory predict the shape of H2O and NH3.
Answer:
H2O – bent or V Shape
NH3 – Tetra hedral

Question 4.
Real gases do not follow gas laws perfectly under all conditions. Why?
Answer:
Due to two faulty assumptions in kinetic theory

  • There is no force of attraction between the gas molecules.
  • The volume of a gas molecule is negligible compare to the volume of a gas.

Question 5.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed.

Question 6.
Give the relation between kp and kc for the reaction given below.
2NOCl(g) → 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
Answer:
Kp = Kc . (RT)An
(An = no of moles of gaseous pdt – no of moles of gaseous reactant)
= 3 – 2 = 1
Kp = Kc. (RT)
Kp = Kc.RT

Question 7.
Classify the following into Lewis acids and Lewis bases.
(i) H2O
(ii) NH3
(iii) BCl3
(iv) H+
Answer:
Lewis acids : – BCl,, H+
Lewis bases : NH3, H2O.

Question 8.
Write any two anomalous behaviuor of Li.
Answer:
(i) Li is very hard
(ii) Li forms monoxide

Question 9.
Givethe IUPAC name of the following
(A) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
(B)
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 1
Answer:
(A) Hex-4-en-1-oicacid
(B) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Question 10.
Write any two chain isomers of a molecule having molecular formula C5H12.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 7

Question 11.
Name the following reaction
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 2
Answer:

Question 12.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 3Cyclopenta dienyl anion is aromatic. Why?
Answer:
Because it is planar, cyclic, conjugated and contains huckels no. of electrons.

Answer any 8 questions from 13 to 28. Each carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 13.
(i) State the law of definite proportion. (2)
Answer:
The same compound always contains same elements in a fixed ratio by mass.

(ii) Define limiting reagent of a reaction. (1)
Answer:
The reactant which is completely used up in the reaction.

Question 14.
(i) What is atomic mass unit? (1)
Answer:
amu = \(\frac{1}{12}\) th of a C – 12 atom

(ii) Calculate the number of atoms in each of the following:
(A) 52 mole of Ar
(B) 52 g of He (2)
Answer:
(A) 52 mole of Ar.
= 52 × 6.022 × 1023 no.of Ar atoms 52

(B) 52 g of He = \(\frac{52}{4}\) × 6.022 × 1023 no. of atoms.

Question 15.
(i) Which of the following ion is not isoelectronic with Ne atom.
(a) O
(b) Na+
(c) Al3+
(d) Mg2+ (1)
Answer:
(a) O

(ii) Explain why Na+ ion is smaller than Na atom.(2)
Answer:
In Na+ ion 11 proton attracts 10 electron so the size contracts. In Na 11 proton attracts 10 electron. So the size is large.

Question 16.
(i) Consider the process.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 4
Which is greate IE2 or IE1? Justify. (2)
Answer:
IE2 is greater.
IE1 is the energy to remove one electron and attain stable electronic configuration. So it is low.
IE2 is the energy needed to remove one electron from stable electronic configuration. So it is high.

(ii) Electron gain enthalpy of F is less than that of Cl. Why? (1)
Answer:
In F the electron enters to 2p orbital. But in Cl the enters to 3p orbital 2p is smaller compared to 3p and the electron repulsion is more in F than Cl.

Question 17.
(i) Explain the covalent character of LiCl using Fajan’srule. (1)
Answer:
Smaller the cation, large the anion more is the covalent character.

(ii) Write any two differences between sigma (σ) bond and pi(π) bond. (2)
Answer:

σ bond π bond
Strong bond Weak bond
By axial overlap By sidewise overlap

Question 18.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 11
(i) Name of the gas low shown by the above graph.
Answer:
Boyle’s law

(ii) A vessel 120 mL capacity contains a certain amount of gas at 35°C and 1.2 bar pressure. The gas is transffed to another vessel of volume 180 mL at 35°C. What would be its pressure?
Answer:
From Boyle’s law,
P1V1 = P2V2
Here P1 = 1.2 bar, V1 = 120 mL, V2 = 180 mL,
P2 = ?
1.2 × 120 = P2 × 180
P2 = 1.2 × 120/180 = 0.8 bar

Question 19.
(i) Write the van der Waal’s equation for ‘n’ mole of a gas. (1)
Answer:
(P + \(\frac{n^2 a}{V^2}\)) (V – nb) = nRT

(ii) State any four postulates of kinetic theory of gases. (2)
Answer:
(1) Gas consists of large number of minute particles called molecules.
(2) Molecules are always in random motion.
(3) During their motion they collide with each other this creates pressure.
(4) As the temperature increase K.E. also increases.

Question 20.
(i) Which among the following is an intensive property:
(a) Mass
(b) Volume
(c) Enthalpy
(d) Temperature (1)
Answer:
(d) Temperature

(ii) State and explain Hess’s law of constant heat summation. (2)
Answer:
The total enthalpy change for a process is same whether it lakes place in single step or several step.

Question 21.
(i) Define the Lattice enthalpy. (1)
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of a compound is formed from its constituent ions.

(ii) Draw the Born-Haber cycle for the calculation of lattice enthalpy of NaCl. (2)
Answer:
Born-Haber cycle for the formation of NaCl
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 8
S – Sublimation energy
D – Dissociation energy
IE – Ionisation energy
EA- Electron gain enthalpy /electron affinity
U – Lattice energy
∆Hf – Enthalpy of formation

Question 22.
(i) The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 is …….. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 9

(ii) Identify the element undergoing disproportionation reaction in the following. (2)
2H2O2(aq) → 2H2O(6) + O2(g)
Answer:
Assign the oxidation number of each element
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 10
The element undergoing disproportionation reaction is oxygen in H2O2.

Question 23.
Balance the following equation by the half reaction method in acidic medium. (3)
Fe2+(aq) + CrO2-7(aq) → Fe3+(aq) + Cr3+(aq) (3)
Answer:
Balance the equation by half reaction
Fe2+ + Cr2O2-7 → Fe3+ + Cr3+
Step I : Fe2+ → Fe3+
Cr2O2-7 → 2Cr3+

Step II : Balancing atoms other than oxygene and hydrogen
Fe2+ → Fe3+
Cr2O2-7 → 2Cr3+

Step III : Balancing oxygen and hydrogen by adding H2O and H+.
Fe2+ → Fe3+
Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

Step IV: Adding electrons to balance charges
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e
Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ + 6e → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

Step V: Equalising the no. of electrons in both
6Fe2+ → 6Fe3+ + 6e
Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ + 6e → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

Step VI: Adding the two half reactions
6Fe2+ Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ → 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O

Question 24.
(i) Write the name of one salt responsible for the permanent hardness of water. (1)
Answer:
CaCl2, CaSO4, MgCl2, MgSO4

(ii) Explain any one method used for the removal of permanent hardness of water. (2)
Answer:
Add washing soda to hard water.

Question 25.
(i) Write the name of any two electron rich hydrides. (1)
Answer:
NH3, PH3,HCl

(ii) Explain with suitable chemical equation, why hydrogen peroxide is stored in waxlined glass or plastic vessel in dark. (2)
Answer:
H2O2 reacts with silica and decomposes easily in presence of light.
H2O2 → H2O + O2

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

I. Answer any 3 questidns from 1-5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
The taxonomic aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
a) Manuals
b) Monogrpah
c) Key
d) Flora
Answer:
c) Key

Question 2.
Identify the given word pair relationship and fill in the blanks.
Cockroach – Malpighian Tubules
Amphioxus – _______
[Nephridia, Atennal glands, Green glands, Protonephridia]
Answer:
Protonephridia

Question 3.
In a protein molecule amino acids are linked by .
a) Glycosidic bond
b) Hydrogen bond
c) Peptide bond
d) Diester bond
Answer:
c) Peptide bond

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 4.
In human being the sound is produced by
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Trachea
d) Bronchi
Answer:
b) Larynx

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out:
a) Pila
b) Nereis
c) Sepia
d) Loliga
Answer:
b) Nereis

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Observe the picture A and B.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers - 1
a) Identify the tissues A and B.
b) Write any two features of A and B.
Answer:
a) A-Skeletal muscle or striated muscle
B-Smooth muscle or Non striated muscle

(b)

Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle
They have striated in appearance They are smooth in appearance
They are voluntary muscle They are involuntary muscles

Question 7.
In an epithelium specialized junctions provide both structural and functional links between its individual cells. Identify any two types of cell junctions and their functions.
Answer:
1) Tightjunction

2) Gap junction
Tig ht junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue. Gap junction helps the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells and involved in rapid transfer of ions.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 8.
The mucus and bicarbonates present in gastric juice plays an important role in the protection of mucosal epithelium. Explain.
Answer:
The mucus and bicarbonates present in gastric juice protect the stomach wall from the action of HCI

Question 9.
Differentiate between
a) Apoenzyme and Coenzyme
b) Lyases and Ligases
Answer:
a) Apo enzyme : Protein part of the enzyme Co-enzyme : Non protein part of the enzyme

b) Lyases : Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.
Ligase: Enzymes catalysing the linking together of two compounds, e.g., enzymes which catalyse joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-0 etc. bonds.

Question 10.
Observe the picture.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers - 2
a) Name the class to which this animal belongs.
b) Write any two characteristic features of this class.
Answer:
a) Class: Reptilia

b) i) They are mostly terrestrial animals and their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales or scutes ii) They do not have external ear openings.

Question 11.
a) Write any two enzymes present in succus entericus.
b) Write the functions of these enzymes.
Answer:
a) Maltase, Lactase

b) Maltase -It is involved in the conversion of maltose into two glucose molecules.
Lactase- It is involved in the conversion of Lactose into two glucose and Galactose.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 12.
a) What is normal respiratory rate?
b) Name an instrument used for measuring volume of air.
c) Mention its clinical significance.
Answer:
a) 12-16 times/minute
b) Spirometer
c) It is used to analyse the pulmonary function

Question 13.
Identify two wrong statements among the following and correct it.
a) Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
b) RBC is multinucleated in Human.
c) Neutrophils, Lymphocytes and Basophils are granulocytes.
d) Neutrophils and Monocytes are phagocytic cells.
Answer:
b) RBCs are devoid of nucleus
c) Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are agranulocytes.

Question 14.
a) Name any two synovial joints in our body,
b) Where is it located?
Answer:
a) Ball and socket joint, hinge joint

b) Ball and socket joint- It is located between humerus and pectoral girdle. Hinge joint It is located in knee joint

Question 15.
Fill up the table using appropriate terms.

Glands Hprmones Disease
Pitutary gland a) _____ Diabetes insipidus
Pancreas Insulin b) _____
c) _____ Thyroxin Cretinism
d) _____ Growth Hormone Dwarfism

Answer:
a) Vasopressin
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Thyroid gland .
d) Pituitary gland

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 16.
ANF is a regulatory mechanism in kidney functioning,
a) Expand-ANF
b) Which part of the body secrete ANF?
c) Explain the regulatory mechanism.
Answer:
a) Atrial Natriuretic factor

b) Atrial wall of Heart

c) An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decrease the blood pressure. ANF mechanism acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
Observe the figure.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers - 3
a) Identify the picture.
b) Label the parts A, B and C.
c) Write the function of D.
Answer:
a) Neuron

b) A – Dendrite
B – Cell body
C – Axon

C) Synaptic knob contains synaptic vesicles. Neurotransmitter in the synaptic vesicles helps to transmit impulse from one neuron to another across synaptic cleft.

Question 18.
This condition can be avoided by administering anti Rh anitbodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.
a) Identify this condition.
b) Write the reason for this condition.
c) Write the symptoms of the foetus born in this condition.
Answer:
a) Erythroblastosis foetalis

b) During the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood (Rh- ve) to small amounts of the Rh + ve blood from the foetus. In such cases, the mother starts preparing antibodies (Rh antibodies ) against Rh antigen in her blood. In case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh-ve) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh + ve) and destroy the foetal RBCs . Hence anti-Rh antibodies are given to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

c) It cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby.

Question 19.
“Metagenesis” is the charcteristic Phenomeon of this phylum.
a) Identify the phylum.
b) Write any four other characteristics of this phylum.
c) Give one example of this phylum.
Answer:
a) Phylum cnidaria or Coelenterates

b) 1) Cnidoblasts present in tentacles and the body are used for anchorage, defense and for the capture of prey
2) They exhibit two basic body forms called polyp and medusa
3) They have a central gastró-vascular cavity with a single opening, hypostome
4) They ar aquatic, marine and radially symmetrical animals

C) Physalia

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
Match the following :

A B
a) Tendon i) Store fat
b) Columnar epithelium ii) Fluid connective tissue
c) Bone iii) Attach muscle to bone
d) Adipose Tissue iv) Helps in secretion
e) Ligament v) Support
f) Blood vi) Attach bond to bone
vii) Secrete hormones
viii) Conduct impulses

Answer:

A B
a) Tendon iii) Attach muscle to bone
b) Columnar epithelium iv) Helps in secretion
c) Bone v) Support
d) Adipose tissue i) Store fat
e) Ligament vi) Attach bone to bone
f) Blood ii) Fluid connective tissue

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Name the tissue which is specialized to store fat.
Answer:
Adipose tissue

Question 2.
Select the odd one out. [Lectins, Alkaloids, Amino acid, Drugs]
Answer:
Amino acids

Question 3.
Which blood group is known as ‘Universal recipients’?
Answer:
AB group

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 4.
Expand the following terms:
(a) TV
(b) RV
Answer:
(a) Tidal volume
(b) Residual Volume

Question 5.
Which one is NOT associated with the structure of eye?
[Cornea, Choroid, Cochlea, Iris]
Answer:
Cochlea

Question 6.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks:
(a) Acoelomate Phylum Platyhelminthes
Pseudocoelomate : _______

(b) Cinidoblast : Phylum Cnidaria
Radula : _______
Answer:
(a) Phylum Aschelminthes
(b) Phylum Mollusc

II. Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 24. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Distinguish between diphyodont and thecodont dentition.
Answer:
Diphvodont dentition : Organisms have two sets of teeth during their life,as temporary teeth replaced by a set of permanent teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Thecodont dentition : Here tooth is embedded in a socket of jawbone,this type of attachment is,called thecodont.

Question 8.
Match the following:

A B
Reptilia Alligator
Mammalia Pteroptus
Aves Corvus
Amphibia Salamandra

Answer:

A B
Reptilia Salamandra
Mammalia Alligator
Aves Pteroptus
Amphibia Corvus

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 9.
Differentiate between Chondrichthyes and Osteich- thyes with an example for each.
Answer:

Class – Chondrichthyes Class – Osteichthyes
They have cartilaginous endoskeleton They have bony Endoskeleton
Gill slits are separate and without operculum They have four pairs of , gills which are covered ’ by an operculum on each side
The skin with minute placoid scales Skin is covered with cycloid/ctenoid scales
Air bladder is absent Air bladder is present

Examples chondrichthyes; Scoliodon Examples Osteichthyes; Catla

Question 10.
The peculiar features of different phyla are given below:
(a) Presence of ostia, Osculum and Choanocytes.
(b) Presence of ciliated comb plates and exhibits biluminescence.
(c) Body shows metameric segmentation and nephredium is the excretory organ.
(d) Body with chitinous exoskeleton and Joined appendages.
Identify the Phyla (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer:
(a) Phylum – Poriferac
(b) Phylum – Ctenophora
(c) Phylum – Annelida
(d) Phylum – Arthropoda

Question 11.
ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle.
(a) Expand the term ECG.
(b) What does the P-wave represent?
Answer:
(a) Electrocardiogram

(b) P wave represents the electrical excitation (depolarisation) of the atria.

Question 12.
A number of bones related with our appendicular skeletal system is given below. Arrange them into two groups with appropriate headings.
[Humerus, Tibia, Tarsals, Ulna, Radis, Fibula, Carpals, Femur]
Answer:

Bones in forelimb Bones in Hindlimb
Humerus Femur
Radius Tibia
Ulna Fibula
Carpals Tarsals

Question 13.
In the given flow chart, label the missing parts:
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 1
Answer:
(a) Loose connective tissue
(b) Skin
(c) Bone/cartilage
(d) Bone/Cartilage

Question 14.
Enlist any four types of synovial joints.
Answer:
Synovial joints
(a) Ball and socket joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Pivot joint
(d) saddle joint

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 15.
Distinguish between Uricotelic and Ureotelic animals with one example each.
Answer:

Ureotelic Uricotel
The organism that excrete urea is called ureotelic The organism that excrete uric acid is called uricotelic
Eg:Mammals Eg: Birds and Insects

Question 16.
Complete the given table:

Endocrine gland Hormone Function
Pineal gland (a) Regulation of 24 hour diurnal rhythm
(b) Prolactin Growth of mammary gland and formation of milk
Pancreas (c) Increase blood glucose level
Heart (d) Dilation of blood vessel and reduces blood pressure

Answer:
(a) Melatonin
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Glucagon
(d) ANF orAtrial natri uretic factor

Question 17.
Observe the diagram given below
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 2
enterjcus on molecules given below complete each reaction with suitable terms.
(a) Identify the class in which it belongs.
(b) Write a note on its migration.
Answer:
(a) Class: Cyclostomata

(b) Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water. After spawning, within a few days, they die.Their larvae after metamorphosis, return to the ocean.

Question 18.
The description of low taxonomic aids are given below:
(a) Taxonomic aid based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet.
(b) A storehouse of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets. Name the taxonomic aids (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Key
(b) Herbarium

Question 19.
The different parts of alimentary canal of cockroach is listèd below. Arrange the in a sequential order of food passing through them.
(Crop, Colon, Qesophagus, Gizzard, Ifleum, Rectum)
Answer:
Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum.

Question 20.
The action of different enzymes present in succas enterjcus on molecules given below complete each reaction with suitable terms.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 3
Answer:
(a) Dipetidase
(b) Glucose
(c) Lactase
(d) Fructose

Question 21.
Kidneys are the main excretory organ in human body:
(a) Name the structural and functional unit of kidney.
(b) List out 3 main processes of urine formation.
Answer:
(a) Nephron

(b) i) Glomerular Filtration
ii) Tubular Reabsorption
iii) Tubular Secretion

Question 22.
In a classroom discussion a student said that “Proteins are homopolymer”.
(a) Do you agree with this statement ?
(b) Name the most abundant protein exists in the animal world.
Answer:
(a) No
(b) Collagen

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 23.
Arrange the following words in a sequential order according to transmission of sound wave.
[Eardrum, Basilar membrane, Ear ossicles, Oval window]
Answer:
Eardrum → Ear ossicles → Oval window → Basilar membrane

Question 24.
An endocrine gland which has a major role in the development of immune system and is degenerate in aged individuals.
(a) Identify the endocrine gland.
(b) Name the hormone which secreted from it.
Answer:
(a) Thymus gland
(b) Thymosin

III. Answer any 3 questions from 25 to 30. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 25.
Observe the graph and write answer for the following questions :
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 4
(a) Name of the graph.
(b) What are the four factors that affect binding of oxygen with Haemoglobin.
Answer:
(a) Oxygen dissociation curve
(b) pO2, pCO2temperature and H+

Question 26.
(a) In the following chart A, B, C and D represents:
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 5
(b) Name the tract of nerve fibres which help to connect the two cerebral hemispheres.
Answer:
(a) A – Forebrain
B – Hypothalamus
C – Corpora quadrigemina
D – Cerebellum

(b) Corpus callosum

Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 27.
(a) Identify the class enzyme which does the following type of chemical reaction.
S-reduced + S’-oxidised → S-oxidised + S’- reduced.
(b) Write any three factors whjch affect enzyme activity.
Answer:
(a) Oxidoreductase /Dehydrogenase
(b) Temperature, pH and Concentration of substrate,

Question 28.
Alimentary canal of cockroach is given.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 6
(a) Label the parts identified as A, B, C and D
(b) Write the function of ‘C’.
Answer:
(a) A-Crop
B – Gizzard
C – Hepatic caecae
D – Malpighian tubule

(b) It secrete digestive juice

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks to complete the Schematic repre-sentation.
Kerala Plus One Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers - 7
Answer:
(a) Gnathostomata
(b) Cyclostoamata
(c) Osteichthyes
(d) Tetrapoda
(e) Reptilia
(f) Mammals

Question 30.
Match the terms in Column A with those in Column B and C:

A B C
BlOOd group Antigens on RBCs Antibodies in Plasma
A A, B Anti-A, B
AB Nil Anti-B
O A Ni

Answer:

A B C
Blood group Antigens RBCs Antibodies in plasma
A A Anti- B
AB A,B Nil
O Nil Anti – A, B