Prasanna

Practicing Maths Question Paper Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Set 2 English Medium helps identify strengths and weaknesses in a subject.

Maths Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions:

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about the answers
• There are 26 questions, split into four parts A, B, C, D
• Answer all questions; but in questions of the type A or B, you need answer only one of those
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number
• Answers must be explained, whenever necessary.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, etc using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Section – A

Question 1.
The first three digit term of the arithmetic sequence 1, 6, 11, 16… is
(a) 101
(b) 102
(c) 100
(d) 103 (1 mark)
Answer:
(a) 101

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
Statement (A): A long wire of length a cut equally and ends are joined to make a square pyramid. The pyramid will have slant \(\frac{a}{2}\)√3.
Statement (B): The lateral faces are equilateral triangle and have height √3 times half of its side
(a) Statement A is true, Statement B is false.
(b) Statement B is true, Statement A is false.
(c) Both statements are true. Statement B is the reason for Statement A.
(d) Both statements are true. Statement B is not the reason for Statement A. (1 mark)
Answer:
(a) Statement A is true, Statement B is false.

Since square pyramid have 8 edges (4 base edges and 4 lateral edges), the wire of length a is cut into 8 equal pieces. Each edge = \(\frac{a}{8}\) . So, lateral faces are equilateral triangles. Thus, first part of statement (A) is true.
Height of the equilateral triangle
= \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \times \frac{a}{8}\) = √3 × \(\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{a}{8}\)
So, height of the equilateral triangle is √3 times half of its side.
Hence statement (B) is true.
Slant height = Height of the equilateral triangle
= \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \times \frac{a}{8}=\frac{a \sqrt{3}}{16} \neq \frac{a}{2} \sqrt{3}\)

Question 3.
A) In the figure a, b, c are the sides opposite to A, B and C, AP is the altitude to BC

(a) Write AP in terms of c and sin B
Answer:
sin B = \(\frac{A P}{c}\)
AP = c sin B

(b) Write the expression for the area of triangle ABC
Answer:
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × BC × AP
A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × a × c sin B sq.unit

(c) If a = 12, c = 6 and ∠B = 60° then the area of triangle ABC
Answer:
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 × 6 sin 60
= 36√3 sq.units

OR

B) In the figure ∠B =140°, AC = 12 cm

(a) What is the measure of ∠P?
Answer:
180 – 140 = 40°

(b) What is the radius of the circle?
[sin 40 = 0.64, cos 40 = 76, tan 40 = .83] (3 mark)
Answer:
sin 40° = \(\frac{12}{AP}\)
0.64 = \(\frac{12}{AP}\), AP = 18.75, r = 9.37 cm

Question 4.
P(6, 8) is a point on a circle with center at the origin. Q is a point on the circle such that OQ makes angle 30° with x axis as in the figure

(a) What is the radius of the circle?
Answer:
\(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\) = 10

(b) What are the points where the circle cut the axes?
Answer:
(10, 0), (0, 10), (-10, 0), (0, -10)

(c) Write the coordinates of Q (4 mark)
Answer:
Draw perpendicular from Q to x axis. It is QA Triangle QAO is a 30° – 60° – 90° right triangle. Q(-5√3, 5)

Question 5.
A) The vertices of a triangle are A (-3, 2), B(3, -4) and C (1, 5).
(a) Find the midpoint of the sides AB.
Answer:
Midpoint of AB = \(\left(\frac{-3+3}{2}, \frac{2 \pm 4}{2}\right)\) = (0, -1)

(b) Calculate the length of median to the side AB.
Answer:
Median is the line joining a vertex to the midpoint of opposite side.
Length of the median to the side AB
= \(\sqrt{(1-0)^2+(5–1)^2}=\sqrt{37}\)

(c) Find the centroid.
Answer:
The centroid divides the median in the ratio 1 :2
Let the point be G (x, y) then,
x = 1 – a, y = 5 – b

⇒ y = 5 – 4
= 1
Therefore the centroid = (\(\frac{1}{3}\), 0)

OR

B) Third term of an arithmetic sequence is 12 and its fifth term20
(a) What is the common difference?
Answer:
Difference between fifth term and third term is two times common difference.
2 × common difference = 20 – 12 = 8,
Common difference = 4

(b) What is the first term ?
Answer:
First term = third term – 2 common difference
= 12 – 8 = 4

(c) Write the sequence numerically (4 mark)
Answer:
4, 8, 12…

Question 6.
Numbers 1, 2, 3, … 25 are written in small paper pieces and put in a box.One is taken from it without looking into the box. (5mark)
(a) What is the probability of getting an even number?
Answer:
\(\frac{12}{25}\)

(b) What is the probability of getting an odd number?
Answer:
\(\frac{13}{25}\)

(c) What is the probability of getting a prime number?
Answer:
\(\frac{9}{25}\)

Section – B

Question 7.
A bridge of length 600 meter is built across a river. It makes 45° with the stream. The width of the river is

(a) 300√2 m
(b) 200 m
(c) 300√3 m
(d) 100√2 m (1 mark)
Answer:
(c) 300√3 m

Question 8.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
PA, PB are the tangents from P to the circle. If ∠APB = 40° then what is the measure of ∠AOB? (1 mark)

(a) 140°
(b) 150°
(c) 120°
(d) 110°
Answer:
(a) 140°

Tangents from the outer point to the circle and radii form a cyclic quadrilateral.

Question 9.
Sum of the area of two squares is 80.The sum of its perimetres is 48.
(a) If the sides are x and y then what is x + y?
Answer:
Sides are x and y.
4x + 4y = 48,
x + y = 12

(b) Form an equation representing the sum of the areas
Answer:
Sides are x and 12 – x
x² + (12 – x)² = 80
x² + 144 – 24x + x² = 80
2x² – 24x = -64
x² – 12x = -32

(c) Find the side of the the squares. (3 mark)
Answer:
x² – 12x + 36 = -32 + 36
(x – 6)² = 4, x – 6 = 2
x = 8 cm, y = 12 – 8 = 4 cm

Question 10.
Write the polynomial x² + 5x – 84 as the product of two first degree polynomials. (3 mark)
Answer:
x² + 5x – 84 = (A + a)(A + b)
= x² + (a + b)x + ab
⇒ a + b = 5 ,ab = -84
⇒ (a – b)² = (a + b)² – 4ab
⇒ (a – b)² = 5² – 4 × (-84)
= 25 + 336 = 361
⇒ a – b = ±19

Take a – b = 19
a + b = 5, a – b = ±19
⇒ a = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (5 + 19) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 24 = 12
b = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (5 – 19) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (-14) = -7
Take a – b = -19, a + b = 5, a – b = -19
⇒ a = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (5 + (-19) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (-14) = -7
b = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (5 – (-19)) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × (5 + 19) = 12
x² + 5x – 84 = (x + 12)(x – 7)

Question 11.
A man standing on the bank of a river sees the top of the tree at an angle of elevation 50°. Stepping 20 m back finds the angle to sees at an angle of elevation 30°.
(a) Draw a rough diagram.
Answer:

(b) Find the width of the river.
Answer:
tan 50° = \(\frac{B C}{A B}\)
tan 30° = \(\frac{B C}{B D}\)
1.19 = \(\frac{h}{x}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{h}{x+20}\)
h = 1.19x, h = \(\frac{x+20}{\sqrt{3}}\)
1.19x = \(\frac{x+20}{\sqrt{3}}\)
1.19 × √3x = x + 20,
1.19 × 1.73x = x + 20,
x = 18.89 m
Width of the river 18.89 metre

(c) Calculate the height of the tree. (4 mark)
Answer:
When x = 18.89, h =1.19
x = 1.19 × 18.89
= 22.47 metre.

Question 12.
A) Sum of the areas of two squares is 468sq.cm.The difference between the perimetres is 24 cm.
(a) If the small side is x then what is the length of the big side ?
Answer:
Length of the big side bey, difference between the perimeter,
4y – 4x = 24,
4 (x – y) = 24, x – y = 6, y = x + 6

(b) What is the perimetre of the big square?
Answer:
4x + 24

(c) Write the length of the sides the squares in x.
Answer:
Side of the small square is A, Side of the big square is \(\frac{4 x+24}{4}\) = x + 6

(d) Form a second degree equation and find the length of the small square.
Answer:
x² + (x + 6)² = 468,
x² + x² + 12x + 36 = 468,
2x² + 12x = 432
x² + 6x = 216,
x² + 6x + 9 = 225.
(x + 3)² = 225
(x + 3) = 15, x = 12
Side of the small square is 12 cm

(e) Find the length of the big square.
Answer:
Length of the big square is 12 + 6 = 18 cm

OR

B) AB is the diametre of the circle. CD is a chord of length equal to radius of the circle.

(a) What is the measure of ∠COD?
Answer:
Draw OC, OD, OCD is an equilateral traingle.
∠COD = 60°

(b) What is the measure of ∠CBD?
Answer:
∠CBD = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 60 = 30°

(c) What is the measure of ∠BCP?
Answer:
∠BCA = 90° (angle in the semicircle).
∴ BCP = 90°

(d) Find the measure of ∠CPD (4 mark)
Answer:
In traingle BCP,
∠CPD = ∠CPB
= 180 – (90 + 30)
= 60°

Question 13.
The chords AB and CD intersect at P.

(a) Draw, AC and BD. Establish the triangles PAC and PBD as similar triangles, and establish the relationship between PA, PB, PC and PD.
Answer:
Consider ΔPCA and ΔPBD
∠C = ∠B, ∠A = ∠D (Angles at the end of an arc are equal)
\(\frac{P A}{P D}=\frac{P C}{P B}\)
PA × PB = PC × PD

(b) PA = 3 cm PB = 5 cm. What is the area of the square with sides PC and PD?
Answer:
3 × 5 = PC × PD
PC × PD = 15
The area of the rectangle with sides PC, PD is 15 sq.cm

(c) Draw a rectangle with sides of length 5 cm and 3 cm. Draw a rectangle with length side 6 cm and area,equal to the area of the first rectangle. (5 mark)
Answer:

• Consider a rectangle with length 5 cm and width 3 cm.
• Consider another length 6 cm.
• In the square, we can draw a line extending 3 cm from the bottom edge to the left side and 6 cm from the left edge to the bottom:
• Now draw a circle through the left, right, and bottom corners. Draw a line through the rectangle where the left side intersects the circle.
• Now, let’s draw the required square by marking the length of the rectangle we have obtained.

Here ABCD is the required rectangle.

Question 14.
A) The numbers 2¹, 2², 2³ … 2⁵⁰ are written in small paper pieces and placed in a box.
(a) Write the sequence of numbers comes in the right end of these numbers ?
Answer:
2, 4, 8, 6, 2, 4, 8, 6…

(b) If one is taken from the box at random, then what is the probability of getting a number with 4 in ones place?
Answer:
Up to 2⁴⁸, the set of digits 2,4,8,6 repeats 12 times. One’s place of 2⁴⁹ is 2 and one’s place of 2⁵⁰ is 4 .
Probability of getting 4 in one’s place is = \(\frac{13}{250}\)

(c) What is the probability of getting a number with 8 in ones place?
Answer:
Probability of getting 8 in one’s place is = \(\frac{12}{50}\)

(d) What is the probability of getting a number with 2 in ones place?
Answer:
Probability of getting 2 in one’s place is = \(\frac{13}{50}\)

(e) What is the probability of not getting a number with 2 in ones place?
Answer:
Proability of not getting 2 in one’s place is = 1 – \(\frac{13}{50}=\frac{37}{50}\)

OR

B) Two digit numbers are written in small paper pieces and placed in a box.One is taken from the box at random
(a) How many multiples of 5 are there in the box?
Answer:
10, 11, 12, 99 are the two digit numbers.
Number of two digit numbers is 90
Multiples of five are 10, 15, 20. ..95
Number of numbers = 18

(b) What is the probability of getting a multiple of 5 ?
Answer:
Probability of getting a multiple of five = \(\frac{18}{90}\)

(c) What is the probability of not getting a multiple of 5 ? (5 mark)
Answer:
Probability of not getting a multiple of 5
= 1 – \(\frac{18}{90}=\frac{72}{90}=\frac{8}{10}\)

Section – C

Question 15.
a. a – 1, a – 2 ………. is an arithmetic sequence. What is its nth term?
(a) a + n + 1
(b) a + n – 1
(c) a – n – 1
(d) a – n + 1 (1 mark)
Answer:
(d) a – n + 1

Question 16.
In the given figure BC is the diameter of a circle and AB = AC. Then ∠ABC is

(a) 30°
(b) 45
(c) 60°
(d) 90° (1 mark)
Answer:
(b) 45

Question 17.
Consider the arithmetic sequence 6, 10, 14,…
(a) What is the common difference of this sequence?
Answer:
d = 4

(b) Find the sum of first n terms of this sequence
Answer:
x_n = 4n + 2
Sum = (6 + 4n + 2) × \(\frac{n}{2}\)
= 2n₂ + 4n

(c) Can sum of some terms of this sequence 1225? How do you know this?
Answer:
All terms are even numbers. Sum of even num-bers cannot be an odd number. 1225 cannot be the sum

Question 18.
ABCD is a parallelogram. A(1, 1), B(1, 1) and C(1, 4)
(a) What is the length of the side parallel to x axis ?
Answer:
AB = |7 – 1| = 6

(b) Find the length of other side
Answer:
BC = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
= 3√5

(c) Find the coordinates of the vertex D
Answer:
D(-5, 4)

(d) Calculate the area of the parallelogram.(4 mark)
Answer:
Distance between the parallel sides AB and CD is 4 – 1 = 3
Area = 6 × 3 = 18 sq. units

Question 19.
A) A person, 1.75 metres tall, standing at the foot of a tower sees the top of a hill 40 metres away at an elevation of 60°. From the top of the tower, he sees it at an elevation of 50°. Calculate the heights of the tower and the hill.
Answer:

\(\frac{D E}{\mathrm{CE}}\) = tan 50° ⇒ DE = 40 × tan 50° = 47.67 m CE
\(\frac{D F}{\mathrm{BE}}\) = tan 60° ⇒ DF = 40 × tan 60 = 69.28 m
EF = 69.28 – 47.67
= 21.61m
Height of the tower AC = 21.61 + 1.75
= 23.36 m
Height of the hill DG = 47.67 + 23.36
= 71. 03 m

OR

B) 700 rupees is used for purchasing 7 prizes . Cost of each prize is 20 rupees more than the cost of the prize just below it.
(a) What is the cost of fourth prize?
Answer:
Fourth term = \(\frac{700}{7}\) = 100

(b) What is the cost of first prize?
Answer:
First prize is 3 × 20 more than fourth term. It is 100 + 3 × 30= 16

(c) Write costs of prizes in the descending order. (5 mark)
Answer:
160, 140, 120, 100, 80, 60, 40

Section – D

Question 20.
What is the median of the following data? 21, 6, 14, 9, 5
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 11 (1 mark)
Answer:
(a) 9

Question 21.
Read the two statements given below.
Statement 1: The midpoint of the line joining (2, 3) and (4, 7) is (3, 5).
Statement 2: The midpoint of the line joining (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) is given by \(\left(\frac{x_1+x_2}{2}, \frac{y_1+y_2}{2}\right)\)
Choose the correct answer from those given below.
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both the statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.
(d) Both the statements are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct reason for Statement 1. (1 mark)
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.

Question 22.
The vertices of a quadrilateral ABCD are on a circle. ∠A = x, ∠B = 3y, ∠C = 4x, ∠D = 2y

(a) Find x, y
(b) Find the angles of ABCD (3 mark)
Answer:
a) x + 4x = 180 ⇒ 5x = 180, x = 36
Angles are 36°, 144°

b) 2y + 3y = 180 ⇒ 5y = 180, y = 36°
Angles are 72°, 108°

Question 23.
A) Algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is \(\frac{n+1}{3}\)
(a) What is its common difference ?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{3}\)

(b) At what position 15 becomes a term of the sequence?
Answer:
44th term is 15

OR

B) The numbers 2,3,4 are written in small paper pieces kept in one box. Fractions \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{4}\) are written in paper pieces and kept in another box. One is taken from each box and find the product
(a) What are the outcome pairs
Answer:

Products are 1, \(\frac{2}{3}\), \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{3}{2}\), 1, \(\frac{3}{4}\), 2, \(\frac{4}{3}\), 1

(b) What is the probability of getting an integer as the product. (3 mark)
Answer:
\(\frac{4}{9}\)

Question 24.
A) First term of an arithmetic sequence is \(\frac{1}{2}\) and common difference \(\frac{3}{4}\)
a) What is the algebra of this sequence?
Answer:
x_n = dn + (f – d)
= \(\frac{3}{4}\)n + \(\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{3}{4}\right)\)
= \(\frac{3 n-1}{4}\)

b) At what position 50 becomes a term of the sequence
Answer:
\(\frac{3 n-1}{4}\) = 50
⇒ 3n – 1 = 200
3n = 201
n = 67

c) What is the sum of first 11 terms?
Answer:
Sum = \(\frac{3(1+2+3+\cdots+11)-11}{4}=\frac{187}{4}\)

OR

B) In the figure PA is the tangent from P to A on the circle and OA is the radius. If OP = 18 and ∠OPA = 40° then
(a) If the workers are arranged on the basis of their daily wages, at what position does the median wage fall?
(b) What is the median class?
(c) Find the median of the wages. (5 mark)
[sin 40° = 0.64, cos 40° = 0.76, tan 40° = 0.83]

(a) What is the length of tangent?
Answer:
cos 40 = \(\frac{O A}{O P}=\frac{O A}{18}\)
0.76 = \(\frac{A P}{18}\)

AP = 0.76 × 18
= 13.68 cm

(b) What is the radius of the circle? (4 mark)
Answer:
sin 40 = \(\frac{O A}{O P}=\frac{O A}{18}\)
OA = 11.52 cm

Question 25.
A cone made of wax has base radius 15 cm and slant height 25 cm.
(a) What is the height of the cone?
Answer:
Height = \(\sqrt{25^2-15^2}\) = 20 cm

(b) What is the volume of the cone?
Answer:
Volume = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 15² × 20
= 1500 π cm³

(c) If it is melted to form small cones of radius 1 cm and height 4 cm, what is the volume of the small cone?
Answer:
Volume of the small cone
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 1² × 4
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) π cm³

(d) How many small cones can be made? (5 mark)
Answer:
Number of the small cone

Question 26.
The daily wages of 99 workers in a factory is shown in the table.

Daily wages	Number of Workers
500-600	8
600- 700	13
700-800	20
800 – 900	25
900- 1000	19
1000- 1100	14

(a) If the workers are arranged on the basis of their daily wages, at what position does the median wage fall?
Answer:

Daily wages	Number of Workers
Below 600	8
Below 700	21
Below 800	41
Below 900	66
Below 1000	85
Below 1100	99

Here n = 99, an odd number 99 + 1 = 100 = 50
So, 50th worker wage is the median wage That is, the median wage falls at the position.

(b) What is the median class?
Answer:
800-900 is the median class

(c) Find the median of the wages. (5 mark)
Answer:
Class width = 900 – 800 = 100
Number of workers in median class = frequency of the class = 25
Length of the subdivision = \(\frac{100}{25}\) = 4
Wage of 42nd worker = \(\frac{800+804}{2}\) = 802
Wage of 50th worker = 802 + (50 – 42) × 4
= 802 + 32
= 834

Students rely on Kerala Syllabus SSLC Social Science Notes Pdf Download Malayalam Medium and SSLC Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions Malayalam Medium മാറുന്ന ഭൂമി to help self-study at home.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions Malayalam Medium

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions Malayalam Medium

I. ശരിയായ ഉത്തരം തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്തെഴുതുക

Question 1.
ജീവജാലങ്ങളുടെ ജീവനും വസ്തുവകകൾക്കും വെല്ലുവിളിയുയർത്തുന്ന സാഹചര്യം പൊതുവേ ഏതുപേരിലാണ് അറിയപ്പെടുന്നത്?
A. ദുരന്തം (Disaster)
B. ആഘാതസാധ്യത (Vulnerability)
C. വിപത്ത് (Hazard)
D. കാര്യക്ഷമത (Capacity)
Answer:
C. വിപത്ത് (Hazard)

Question 2.
ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർഭാഗത്ത് ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന താപവ്യതി യാനം മൂലം മാഗ്മ ചാക്രികമായി ചലിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയ ഏതാണ്?.
A. സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം (Convectional Current)
B. ഭൂമിയുടെ ഭ്രമണം
C. അണുപ്രസരണം
D. സംയോജന അതിർത്തി (Convergent Boundary)
Answer:
A. സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം (Convectional Current)

Question 3.
താഴെ പറയുന്നവയിൽ ബാഹ്യജന്യ ചലനങ്ങ ൾക്ക് (Exogenic Movements) കാരണമാകുന്ന ബലം ഏത്?
A. ആദിമതാപം
B. സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം
C. ഭൗമതാപ വ്യതിയാനം
D. ഭൂഗുരുത്വാകർഷണം (Gravitational Force)
Answer:
D. ഭൂഗുരുത്വാകർഷണം (Gravitational Force)

Question 4.
അന്തർജന്യ ചലനങ്ങളിലെ (Endogenic Movements) മന്ദചലനങ്ങളുടെ (Slow Movements) വിഭാഗ ത്തിൽ ഉൾപ്പെടുന്നത് ഏതാണ്?
A. അഗ്നിപർവത പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ
B. ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ
C. പർവത രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകൾ
D. ഫലകചലനം
Answer:
C. പർവത രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകൾ

Question 5.
അഗ്നിപർവത പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങളുടെ ഫലമായി ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ഏത് പ്രവിശ്യയാണ് അതിവിശാല മായ ബസാൾട്ട് പ്രളയ സമതലമായി രൂപപ്പെട്ടത്?
A. ഉത്തര മഹാസമതലം
B. ഡക്കാൻ പ്രവിശ്യ
C. കിഴക്കൻ തീര സമതലം
D. പശ്ചിമഘട്ടം
Answer:
B. ഡക്കാൻ പ്രവിശ്യ

Question 6.
ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗം ഭ്രംശനം (Fault) എന്ന പ്രക്രിയ യുടെ ഫലമായി ഉയർത്തപ്പെട്ട് രൂപപ്പെടുന്ന പർവതങ്ങൾ ഏത്?
A. ഖണ്ഡപർവതങ്ങൾ (Block Mountains)
B. മടക്കു പർവതങ്ങൾ (Fold Mountains)
C. അവശിഷ്ട പർവതങ്ങൾ
D. അഗ്നിപർവത പർവതങ്ങൾ
Answer:
A. ഖണ്ഡപർവതങ്ങൾ (Block Mountains)

Question 7.
ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളിൽ ഏറ്റവും വിനാശകാരിക ളായവ ഏത്?
A. പ്രഥമിക തരംഗങ്ങൾ
B. പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങൾ
C. ദ്വിതീയ തരംഗങ്ങൾ
D. ഭൂഗുരുത്വാകർഷണ തരംഗങ്ങൾ
Answer:
B. പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങൾ

Question 8.
ഉപരിമാന്റിലിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിലേക്ക് എത്തുമ്പോൾ ഏത് പേരിൽ അറിയപ്പെടുന്നു?
A. മാഗ്മ ചേമ്പർ
B. അസ്തനോസ്ഫിയർ
C. മാഗ്മ (Magma)
D. ലാവ (Lava)
Answer:
D. ലാവ (Lava)

Question 9.
ഒരു ദുരന്തത്തെ നേരിടാനോ പ്രതിരോധിക്കാനോ ലഘൂകരിക്കാനോ ഉള്ള ഒരു ജനതയുടെ കഴിവ്, വിഭവങ്ങൾ, മാർഗങ്ങൾ എന്നിവയെ സൂചിപ്പി ക്കുന്ന പദം?
A. കാര്യക്ഷമത (Capacity)
B. നഷ്ടസാധ്യത (Risk)
C. ആഘാതസാധ്യത (Vulnerability)
D. വിപത്ത് (Hazard)
Answer:
A. കാര്യക്ഷമത (Capacity)

Question 10.
2004 ഡിസംബർ 26ന് സുനാമിക്ക് കാരണമായ ഭൂകമ്പം ഇന്ത്യൻ മഹാസമുദ്രത്തിൽ എത്ര തീവ്രത യിലാണ് രേഖപ്പെടുത്തിയത്?
A. 7.8
B. 9.1
C. 8.5
D. 6.9
Answer:
B. 9.1

II. പ്രസ്ഥാവനാ കാരണം ചോദ്യങ്ങൾ

നിർദ്ദേശങ്ങൾ: താഴെ നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള പ്രസ്താവന (A), കാരണം (R) എന്നിവ പരിശോധിച്ച് ശരിയായ ഓപ്ഷൻ കണ്ടെത്തുക.
ഓപ്ഷനുകൾ;
A. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമാണ്.
B. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, എന്നാൽ R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമല്ല.
C. A ശരിയാണ്, R. തെറ്റാണ്.
D. A തെറ്റാണ്, Rശരിയാണ്.

Question 11.
പ്രസ്താവന (A): ജനവാസം തീരെയില്ലാത്ത ഒരു മരുഭൂമിയിൽ ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന അതിശക്തമായ ഭൂകമ്പം ഒരു ദുരന്തമായി പരിണമിക്കുകയില്ല.
കാരണം (R): ജനങ്ങൾക്ക് തങ്ങളുടെ വിഭവങ്ങൾ ഉപയോഗിച്ച് ഒരു വിപത്തിനെ നേരിടാൻ സാധി ക്കാതെ വരികയും, വ്യാപകമായ നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങൾ സൃഷ്ടിക്കപ്പെടുകയും ചെയ്യുമ്പോഴാണ് അതൊരു ദുരന്തമായി മാറുന്നത്.
Answer:
A. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമാണ്.

Question 12.
പ്രസ്താവന (A): അഗ്നിപർവത മേഖലകളിൽ ആളുകൾ താമസിക്കുന്നതിന് പ്രധാന കാരണം അവിടുത്തെ മണ്ണാണ്.
കാരണം (R): അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങളിൽ നിന്നുള്ള ചാരം, ലാവ തണുത്തുറഞ്ഞുണ്ടാകുന്ന ശിലകൾ പൊടിഞ്ഞ് രൂപം കൊള്ളുന്ന മണ്ണ് എന്നിവ ഏറെ ഫലപുഷ്ടിയുള്ളതാണ്.
Answer:
A. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമാണ്.

Question 13.
പ്രസ്താവന (A): ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രി യകൾ ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിൽ വലിയ തോതിലുള്ള മാറ്റങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്നു.
കാരണം (R): പർവത രൂപീകരണ ചലനങ്ങൾ ഭൂവൽക്കത്തിൽ വലിയ തോതിലുള്ള മാറ്റങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്നു.
Answer:
D. A തെറ്റാണ്, R ശരിയാണ്.

Question 14.
പ്രസ്താവന (A): വലിയ ജലസംഭരണികൾ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്നയിടങ്ങളിൽ ചെറു ഭൂകമ്പ ങ്ങൾക്ക് സാധ്യതയുണ്ട്.
കാരണം (R): ജലം തടസ്സശിലകൾക്കുമേൽ ചെലു ത്തുന്ന സമ്മർദ്ദം മൂലം തടസ്സശിലകൾ ഞെരിഞ്ഞ മരുന്നതാണ് ഇതിന് കാരണം.
Answer:
A. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമാണ്.

Question 15.
പ്രസ്താവന (A): പ്രധാന അഗ്നിപർവത മേഖലകളും ഭൂകമ്പമേഖലകളും മുഖ്യമായും ഫലകങ്ങളുടെ അതിരുകളോടനുബന്ധിച്ചാണ് കാണപ്പെടുന്നത്.
കാരണം (R): അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനങ്ങൾ, ഭൂകമ്പം എന്നിവയെല്ലാം ദ്രുതചലനങ്ങളുടെ ഭാഗമാണ്.
Answer:
B. A-യും R-ഉം ശരിയാണ്, എന്നാൽ R എന്നത് A-യുടെ ശരിയായ വിശദീകരണമല്ല.

III. ചേരുംപടി ചേർക്കുക

Question 16.
ലിസ്റ്റ് I ൽ നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്നതിനെ ലിസ്റ്റ് II മായി ചേരും പടി ചേർത്ത് ശരിയായ ഓപ് ഷൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക.

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (പദം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (നിർവചനം)
A. കാര്യക്ഷമത	1. ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗം ഉയർത്തപ്പെട്ട് രൂപപ്പെടുന്ന പർവതം
B. നഷ്ടസാധ്യത	2. ദുരന്തത്തെ നേരിടാനുള്ള ഒരു ജനതയുടെ കഴിവ്
C. ആഘാതസാധ്യത	3. വിപത്ത്, നഷ്ടസാധ്യത, ശേഷി എന്നിവയുടെ അനുപാതം
D. ഖണ്ഡപർവതം	4. പ്രതീക്ഷിക്കാവുന്ന അപായങ്ങളുടെയും നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങളുടെയും തോത്

ഓപ്ഷനുകൾ:
A. A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
B. A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
C. A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
D. A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
Answer:
C. A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (പദം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (നിർവചനം)
A. കാര്യക്ഷമത	2. ദുരന്തത്തെ നേരിടാനുള്ള ഒരു ജനതയുടെ കഴിവ്
B. നഷ്ടസാധ്യത	4. പ്രതീക്ഷിക്കാവുന്ന അപായങ്ങളുടെയും നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങളുടെയും തോത്
C. ആഘാതസാധ്യത	3. വിപത്ത്, നഷ്ടസാധ്യത, ശേഷി എന്നിവയുടെ അനുപാതം
D. ഖണ്ഡപർവതം	1. ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗം ഉയർത്തപ്പെട്ട് രൂപപ്പെടുന്ന പർവതം

Question 17.
ലിസ്റ്റ് I-ലെ ഭൗമചലനങ്ങളെ ലിസ്റ്റ് II-ലെ അവ യുടെ കാരണങ്ങളുമായി ഫലങ്ങളുമായി ചേരും പടി ചേർത്ത് ശരിയായ ഓപ്ഷൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടു ക്കുക.

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (ചലനം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (കാരണം / ഫലം)
A. അന്തർജന്യ ചലനം	1. ഹിമാനികൾ, ഒഴുകുന്ന ജലം
B. ബാഹ്യജന്യ ചലനം	2. പർവത രൂപീകരണം
C. ദ്രുതചലനം	3. അണുപ്രസരണം, സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം
D. മന്ദചലനം	4 അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം

ഓപ്ഷനുകൾ:
A. A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
B. A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3
C. A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
D. A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
Answer:
D. A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (ചലനം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (കാരണം / ഫലം)
A. അന്തർജന്യ ചലനം	3. അണുപ്രസരണം, സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം
B. ബാഹ്യജന്യ ചലനം	1. ഹിമാനികൾ, ഒഴുകുന്ന ജലം
C. ദ്രുതചലനം	4 അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം
D. മന്ദചലനം	2. പർവത രൂപീകരണം

Question 18.
ലിസ്റ്റ് Iലെ പദങ്ങളെ ലിസ്റ്റ് IIലെ അവയുടെ നിർവചനങ്ങളുമായി ചേരുപടി ചേർത്ത് ശരിയായ
ഓപ്ഷൻ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക.

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (പദം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (നിർവചനം)
A. മാഗ്മ	1. ഫോക്കസിനോട് ഏറ്റവും അടുത്തുള്ള ഭൗമോപരിതല കേന്ദ്രം
B. ലാവ	2. ഉപരിമാന്റിലിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം
C. പ്രഭവ കേന്ദ്രം	3. ഭൂകമ്പം ആരംഭിക്കുന്ന, ഭൂമിക്കുള്ളിലെ ബിന്ദു
D. അധി കേന്ദ്രം	4. ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിൽ എത്തുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം

A. A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
B. A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
C. A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
D. A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
Answer:
B. A – 2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1

ലിസ്റ്റ് I (പദം)	ലിസ്റ്റ് II (നിർവചനം)
A. മാഗ്മ	2. ഉപരിമാന്റിലിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം
B. ലാവ	4. ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിൽ എത്തുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം
C. പ്രഭവ കേന്ദ്രം	3. ഭൂകമ്പം ആരംഭിക്കുന്ന, ഭൂമിക്കുള്ളിലെ ബിന്ദു
D. അധി കേന്ദ്രം	1. ഫോക്കസിനോട് ഏറ്റവും അടുത്തുള്ള ഭൗമോപരിതല കേന്ദ്രം

IV. ശരിയായ / തെറ്റായ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കൂക

Question 19.
ശരിയായ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക:
I. ഭ്രംശനം (Fault) എന്ന പ്രക്രിയയുടെ ഫലമാ യാണ് ഖണ്ഡപർവതങ്ങൾ രൂപപ്പെടുന്നത്.
II. ഹിമാലയം ഒരു ഖണ്ഡപർവതത്തിന് ഉദാഹ രണമാണ്.
III. ഖണ്ഡപർവതീകരണത്തിന്റെ ഫലമായി രൂപ പ്പെടുന്ന താഴ്വരകളാണ് ഭ്രംശ താഴ്വരകൾ (Graben).
IV. ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകൾ ഭൗമോ പരിതലത്തിൽ വലിയ തോതിലുള്ള മാറ്റ ങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്നു.
ഓപ്ഷനുകൾ:
A. I, II മാത്രം
B. I, III മാത്രം
C. II, IV മാത്രം
D. I, III, IV മാത്രം
Answer:
D. I, III, IV മാത്രം

Question 20.
തെറ്റായ പ്രസ്താവനകൾ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക:
I. ഉപരിമാന്റിലിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ശിലാ ദ്രവത്തെ ലാവ എന്ന് വിളിക്കുന്നു.
II. സാധാരണയായി പ്രാദേശികതലത്തിൽ രേഖ പ്പെടുത്തുന്ന ചെറിയ ഭൂചലനങ്ങളുടെ തീവ്രത കണക്കാക്കുന്നത് മൊമെന്റ് മാഗ്നിറ്റ്യൂഡ് യിലിലാണ്.
III. ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളിൽ പ്രഥമിക തരംഗങ്ങ ളാണ് (P-Waves) ഏറ്റവും വിനാശകാരികൾ.
IV. 1883- ലെ കാക്കതാവ് അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം ഇന്തോനേഷ്യയിലെ ജാവ യ്ക്കും സുമാത്രയ്ക്കും ഇടയിലാണ് സംഭ വിച്ചത്.

ഓപ്ഷനുകൾ:
A. I, IV മാത്രം
B. III, IV മാത്രം
C. I, II, III മാത്രം
D. II, IV മാത്രം

Question 21.
ദുരന്തം (Disaster) എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
ഒരു ജനതയ്ക്ക് അവരുടെ വിഭവങ്ങൾ ഉപയോ ഗിച്ച് ഒരു വിപത്തിനെ നേരിടാൻ സാധിക്കാതെ വരികയും, വ്യാപകമായ നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങളും ജീവഹാ നിയും സൃഷ്ടിക്കപ്പെടുകയും ചെയ്യുമ്പോൾ അതിനെ ദുരന്തം എന്ന് വിളിക്കുന്നു.

Question 22.
മാഗ്മ (Magma), ലാവ (Lava) എന്നിവ തമ്മിലുള്ള വ്യത്യാസം എന്ത്?
Answer:
ഉപരിമാന്റിലിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ശിലാദ്രവം മാഗ്മ എന്നും അത് അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടന ത്തിലൂടെ ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിലേക്ക് എത്തുമ്പോൾ ലാവ എന്നും അറിയപ്പെടുന്നു.

Question 23.
സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം (Convectional Current) എങ്ങനെയാണ് ഉണ്ടാകുന്നത്?
Answer:
ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർഭാഗത്ത് ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന താപ വ്യതിയാനം മൂലം മാഗ്മയുടെ സാന്ദ്രതയിൽ മാറ്റം വരികയും അത് മാന്റിലിനുള്ളിൽ ചാക്രികമായി ചലിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം.

Question 24.
ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകങ്ങൾ ചലിക്കുന്നതിന്റെ കാരണമെന്ത്?
Answer:
മാന്റിലിനുള്ളിലെ സംവഹന പ്രവാഹങ്ങളാണ് ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകങ്ങളെ ചലിപ്പിക്കുന്നത്.

Question 25.
ഖണ്ഡപർവതങ്ങൾ (Block Mountains) രൂപപ്പെടു ന്നതെങ്ങിനെയാണ്?
Answer:
ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ ഭ്രംശനം (Fault) എന്ന പ്രക്രിയയുടെ ഫലമായി ഭൂഭാഗം ഉയർത്തപ്പെട്ട് രൂപപ്പെടുന്നവയാണ് ഖണ്ഡപർവതങ്ങൾ.

Question 26.
ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളിൽ ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ നാശ നഷ്ടം വരുത്തുന്ന തരംഗം ഏതാണ്? അത് എങ്ങ നെയാണ് സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നത്?
Answer:
പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങൾ (Surface Waves) ആണ് ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ നാശനഷ്ടം വരുത്തുന്നത്. ഇവ ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉപരിതലത്തിലൂടെ മാത്രമാണ് സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നത്.

Question 27.
മടക്കു പർവതങ്ങൾ (Fold Mountains) എങ്ങനെ യാണ് രൂപപ്പെടുന്നത്? ഒരു ഉദാഹരണം നൽകൂക.
Answer:
ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ തിരശ്ചീനമായ സമ്മർദ്ദം ഉണ്ടാകുമ്പോൾ ശിലാപാളികൾ മടങ്ങിപ്പോകു കയും മടക്കു പർവതങ്ങൾ രൂപപ്പെടുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു. ഉദാഹരണം: ഹിമാലയം.

Question 28.
പ്രഭവകേന്ദ്രം (Focus), അധികേന്ദ്രം (Epicenter) എന്നിവയുടെ സ്ഥാനം ഭൂകമ്പവുമായി എങ്ങനെ ബന്ധപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
പ്രഭവകേന്ദ്രം ഭൂകമ്പം ആരംഭിക്കുന്ന ഭൂമിക്കു ള്ളിലെ ബിന്ദുവാണ്. ഇതിന് നേർമുകളിൽ ഭൗമോ പരിതലത്തിലുള്ളബിന്ദുവാണ് അധികേന്ദ്രം.

Question 29.
അന്തർജന്യ ചലനങ്ങളെ (Endogenic Movements) പ്രധാനമായും എങ്ങനെ തരം തിരിക്കാം?
Answer:
വേഗതയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിൽ ദ്രുതചലനങ്ങൾ (Sudden Movements), മന്ദചലനങ്ങൾ (Slow Movements) എന്നിങ്ങനെ രണ്ടായി തരം തിരിക്കാം.

Question 30.
അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനങ്ങൾ നടക്കുമ്പോൾ അന്തരീക്ഷത്തിൽ ഉണ്ടാകുന്ന രണ്ട് പ്രധാന ദോഷവശങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാമാണ്?
Answer:
അന്തരീക്ഷ മലിനീകരണം: സൾഫർ ഡയോക് സൈഡ് പോലുള്ള വിഷവാതകങ്ങൾ അന്തരീ ക്ഷത്തിൽ കലരുന്നു.
അമ്ലമഴ; പുറത്തുവരുന്ന വാതകങ്ങൾ അന്തരീക്ഷ ത്തിലെ ജലാംശവുമായി ചേർന്ന് അമ്ലമഴയ്ക്ക്
കാരണമാകുന്നു.

Question 31.
വിപത്ത് (Hazard), ദുരന്തം (Disaster) എന്നിവ തമ്മിലുള്ള വ്യത്യാസം ഉദാഹരണസഹിതം വ്യക്ത മാക്കുക.
Answer:
വിപത്ത്: ജീവജാലങ്ങൾക്കും വസ്തുവക കൾക്കും വെല്ലുവിളിയുയർത്താൻ സാധ്യതയുള്ള സാഹചര്യം. (ഉദാഹരണം: അതിശക്തമായ കൊടുങ്കാറ്റ്).

ദുരന്തം: വിപത്തിനെ നേരിടാൻ സമൂഹത്തിന് കഴിയാതെ വരികയും വ്യാപകമായ നാശനഷ്ട ങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുമ്പോഴുമുള്ള അവസ്ഥ.

ഒരു ജനവാസം ഇല്ലാത്ത സ്ഥലത്ത് കൊടുങ്കാറ്റു ണ്ടാകുന്നത് വിപത്ത് മാത്രമാണ്, എന്നാൽ ജനവാസമേഖലയിൽ നാശനഷ്ടമുണ്ടാക്കുമ്പോൾ അതൊരു ദുരന്തം ആയി മാറുന്നു.

Question 32.
അഗ്നിപർവത പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ മനുഷ്യന് പ്രയോ ജനകരമാകുന്ന മൂന്ന് മേഖലകൾ ഏതെല്ലാം?
Answer:
ഫലഭൂയിഷ്ഠമായ മണ്ണ്: അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങളിൽ നിന്നുള്ള ചാരം, ലാവ എന്നിവ പൊടിഞ്ഞുണ്ടാ കുന്ന മണ്ണ് കാർഷികമേഖലയ്ക്ക് ഉത്തമമാണ്.

ഭൗമതാപോർജ്ജം: ഭൂമിക്കടിയിലെ താപം ഉപ യോഗിച്ച് വൈദ്യുതി ഉൽപാദിപ്പിക്കാൻ സാധി
ക്കുന്നു.

ധാതുനിക്ഷേപം: അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനത്തിന്റെ ഫലമായി അമൂല്യമായ ധാതുക്കൾ ഉപരിതലത്തിൽ നിക്ഷേപിക്കപ്പെടുന്നു.

Question 33.
സംയോജക സീമകളിൽ (Convergent Boundaries) നടക്കുന്ന ടെക്ടോണിക് ചലനവും അതിന്റെ ഫല മായുണ്ടാകുന്ന ഭൂകമ്പവും എങ്ങനെ വിശദീക രിക്കാം?
Answer:
ഈ അതിർത്തികളിൽ ഫലകങ്ങൾ പരസ്പരം അടുക്കുന്നു. ഇത് പാറകളിൽ വലിയ മർദ്ദം ചെലുത്തുന്ന തിലൂടെ, ഫലകങ്ങൾ ഒന്നുകിൽ കൂട്ടിയിടിക്കുകയോ അല്ലെങ്കിൽ ഒന്ന് മറ്റൊന്നി നടിയിലേക്ക് തള്ളിക്കയറുകയോ (Subduction) ചെയ്യുമ്പോൾ അതിശക്തമായ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാക്കുന്നു.

Question 34.
ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളിലെ തരംഗങ്ങൾ, ട-തരംഗ ങ്ങൾ എന്നിവയുടെ സഞ്ചാര മാധ്യമങ്ങൾ താരതമ്യം ചെയ്യുക.
Answer:
P – തരംഗങ്ങൾ (Primary Waves): ഖരം, ദ്രാവകം, വാതകം എന്നീ എല്ലാ മാധ്യമങ്ങളിലൂടെയും സഞ്ച രിക്കും.
S – തരംഗങ്ങൾ (Secondary Waves): ഖരമാധ്യമത്തി ലൂടെ മാത്രമേ സഞ്ചരിക്കുകയുള്ളൂ. വേഗതയിൽ P തരംഗങ്ങളാണ് മുന്നിൽ.

Question 35.
അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങളെ അവയുടെ പ്രവർ ത്തന സ്വഭാവമനുസരിച്ച് എങ്ങനെ തരംതിരിക്കാം?
Answer:
സജീവ അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങൾ (Active): എപ്പോഴും സ്ഫോടനത്തിന് സാധ്യതയുള്ളവ.

നിർജീവ അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങൾ (Dormant): മുൻപ് സ്ഫോടനം നടന്നിട്ടുണ്ട്, എന്നാൽ ഭാവിയിൽ വീണ്ടും സ്ഫോടനം നടക്കാൻ സാധ്യതയുള്ളവ.

ക്ഷയിച്ച അഗ്നിപർവതങ്ങൾ (Extinct): സ്ഫോടനം നടന്നിട്ട് വളരെക്കാലമായതും ഇനി സ്ഫോടനം നടക്കാൻ സാധ്യതയില്ലാത്തവയെന്ന് കരുതുന്നവ.

Question 36.
വലിയ ജലസംഭരണികൾ എങ്ങനെയാണ് ചെറു ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്നത്?
Answer:
വലിയ അണക്കെട്ടുകളിലെ ജലം തടസ്സശിലകൾ ക്കുമേൽ അമിതമായ സമ്മർദ്ദം ചെലുത്തുന്ന തിന്റെ ഫലമായി, ആ പ്രദേശം ഞെരിഞ്ഞമരു കയും അവിടെയുള്ള ശിലാപാളികളിൽ വിള്ളലു കൾ ഉണ്ടാകുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു. ഇത് ചെറു ഭൂചലനങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകാം.

Question 37.
ഭൂകമ്പം രേഖപ്പെടുത്തുന്ന രണ്ട് പ്രധാന അളവു കാലുകൾ ഏവ? ഇവയുടെ ഉപയോഗം എന്ത്?
Answer:
റിക്ടർ സ്കെയിൽ ഭൂകമ്പത്തിന്റെ തീവ്രത (Magnitude) അളക്കുന്നു.
മൊമെന്റ് മാഗ്നിറ്റ്യൂഡ് സ്കെയിൽ: സാധാരണ യായി പ്രാദേശികതലത്തിൽ രേഖപ്പെടുത്തുന്ന ചെറിയ ഭൂചലനങ്ങളുടെ തീവ്രത കണക്കാക്കാൻ ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നു.

Question 38.
ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകചലനങ്ങൾ അഗ്നിപർവത ങ്ങളെ എങ്ങനെ സ്വാധീനിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
പ്രധാന അഗ്നിപർവത മേഖലകൾ എല്ലാം തന്നെ ഫലകങ്ങളുടെ അതിരുകളോട് അനുബന്ധിച്ചാണ് കാണപ്പെടുന്നത്. ഫലകങ്ങൾ തമ്മിൽ അകന്നു പോവുകയോ, ഒരു ഫലകം മറ്റൊന്നിനടിയിലേക്ക് തള്ളിക്കയറുകയോ ചെയ്യുമ്പോൾ മാഗ്മ ഭൗമോ പരിതലത്തിലേക്ക് എത്തുകയും അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനങ്ങൾ സംഭവിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.

Question 39.
ദുരന്ത ലഘൂകരണത്തിലെ കാര്യക്ഷമത (Capacity) എന്ന പദം നിർവചിക്കുക. ഇതിന്റെ പ്രാധാന്യം എന്ത്?
Answer:
ഒരു ദുരന്തത്തെ നേരിടാനോ, പ്രതിരോധിക്കാനോ, ലഘൂകരിക്കാനോ ഉള്ള ഒരു ജനതയുടെ കഴിവ്, വിഭവങ്ങൾ, മാർഗങ്ങൾ, ശക്തി എന്നിവയെ സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നതാണ് കാര്യക്ഷമത.

പ്രാധാന്യം: കാര്യക്ഷമത വർദ്ധിപ്പിക്കുന്നതിലൂടെ ദുരന്തമുണ്ടായാലും അതിന്റെ ആഘാതം കുറ യ്ക്കാൻ സാധിക്കുന്നു.

Question 40.
1883-ലെ കാക്കക്കോവ അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം വരുത്തിവെച്ച നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങൾ സൂചിപ്പിക്കുക.
Answer:
കാക്കതോവ സ്ഫോടനം (1883):

• സംഭവം: 1883ൽ ഇന്തോനേഷ്യയിലെ ജാവ യ്ക്കും സുമാത്രയ്ക്കും ഇടയിലാണ് ഈ ശക്തമായ അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം നടന്നത്.
• നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങൾ: സ്ഫോടനത്തിന്റെ ഫലമായി സമുദ്രോപരിതലത്തിൽ ശക്തമായ ഭൂചലനം ഉണ്ടാവുകയും അത് സുനാമിക്ക് കാരണമാ വുകയും ചെയ്തു. ഈ സുനാമിയിൽ മാത്രം ഏകദേശം 36,000 ത്തിലധികം ആളുകൾക്ക് ജീവൻ നഷ്ടമായി. സ്ഫോടനശബ്ദം 4,800 കി.മീ. അകലെ വരെ കേൾക്കുകയും അന്തരീക്ഷ ത്തിൽ മാറ്റങ്ങളുണ്ടാക്കുകയും ചെയ്തു.

Question 41.
അന്തർജന്യ ചലനങ്ങളെ (Endogenic Movements) അവയുടെ വേഗതയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാന ത്തിൽ എങ്ങനെ തരം തിരിക്കാം? ഓരോ വിഭാഗ ത്തിലും ഉൾപ്പെടുന്ന രണ്ട് ഭൗമപ്രതിഭാസങ്ങൾ എഴുതുക.
Answer:
അന്തർജന്യ ചലനങ്ങളെ വേഗതയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാ നത്തിൽ രണ്ടായി തിരിക്കാം.
I. ദ്രുതചലനങ്ങൾ (Sudden Movements): വളരെ കുറഞ്ഞ സമയം കൊണ്ട് ശക്തമായ മാറ്റങ്ങൾ സൃഷ്ടിക്കുന്നു.
ഉദാഹരണങ്ങൾ: അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനങ്ങൾ, ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ.

II. മന്ദചലനങ്ങൾ (Slow Movements): വർഷ ങ്ങൾ നീണ്ടു നിൽക്കുന്നതും സാവധാനം നടക്കുന്നതുമായ പ്രക്രിയകളാണ്.
ഉദാഹരണങ്ങൾ: പർവത രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകൾ ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകൾ.

Question 42.
മന്ദചലനങ്ങളിലെ പ്രധാന പ്രക്രിയകളായ ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകളും (Epeirogenic Processes) പർവത രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയകളും (Orogenic Processes) തമ്മിലുള്ള പ്രധാന വ്യത്യാസങ്ങൾ പട്ടികപ്പെടുത്തുക.
Answer:

പ്രക്രിയ	ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയ (Epeirogenic)	പർവത രൂപീകരണ പ്രക്രിയ (Orogenic)
ചലനത്തിന്റെ ദിശ	ലംബമായി (Vertical): ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗങ്ങൾ താഴുകയോ ഉയരുകയോ ചെയ്യുന്നു.	തിരശ്ചീനമായി (Horizontal): ഭൂവൽക്കഭാഗങ്ങൾ മടക്കുകളോ ഭ്രംശനങ്ങളോ ഉണ്ടാക്കി അടുക്കുകയോ അകലുകയോ ചെയ്യുന്നു.
ഫലം	ഭൂഖണ്ഡങ്ങളുടെയും പീഠഭൂമികളുടെയും രൂപീകരണത്തിന് കാരണമാകുന്നു.	മടക്കു പർവതങ്ങൾ, ഭ്രംശ താഴ്വരകൾ തുടങ്ങിയവ രൂപീകരിക്കുന്നു.
സ്വാധീനം	ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിൽ ചെറിയ തോതിലുള്ള മാറ്റങ്ങൾ വരുത്തുന്നു.	ഭൗമോപരിതലത്തിൽ വലിയ തോതിലുള്ള മാറ്റങ്ങൾ വരുത്തുന്നു.

Question 43.
അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനങ്ങൾ മൂലമുണ്ടാകുന്ന ദുരന്തങ്ങളുടെ ആഘാതം ലഘൂകരിക്കാൻ സ്വീകരിക്കാവുന്ന നാല് പ്രധാന മാർഗ്ഗങ്ങൾ വിശദമാക്കുക.
Answer:

1. മുന്നറിയിപ്പ് സംവിധാനങ്ങൾ സ്ഫോടന സാധ്യതയുള്ള മേഖലകളിൽ സീസ്മോഗ്രാ ഫുകൾ ഉപയോഗിച്ച് ചെറു ചലനങ്ങൾ നിരീക്ഷിച്ച് മുൻകൂട്ടി മുന്നറിയിപ്പ് നൽകുക.
2. നിയന്ത്രിത നിർമ്മാണങ്ങൾ; അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടന മേഖലകളിൽ കെട്ടിട നിർമ്മാണ ങ്ങൾ നിയന്ത്രിക്കുകയും സുരക്ഷിതമായ മേഖലകളിലേക്ക് ജനങ്ങളെ മാറ്റിപ്പാർപ്പിക്കു കയും ചെയ്യുക.
3. വിദ്യാഭ്യാസവും പരിശീലനവും; ദുരന്തമുണ്ടായാൽ സ്വീകരിക്കേണ്ട നടപടികളെക്കുറിച്ച് ജനങ്ങൾക്ക് വിദ്യാഭ്യാസവും മോക്ക് ഡ്രില്ലുകളും നൽകുക.
4. ലാവ തടയൽ ലാവ ഒഴുകിയെത്തുന്നതിന്റെ ഗതി മാറ്റാൻ തടസ്സഭിത്തികൾ നിർമ്മിക്കു കയോ ലാവയുടെ ഒഴുക്ക് തണുപ്പിക്കാൻ ജലസേചനം നടത്തുകയോ ചെയ്യുക.

Question 44.
ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകങ്ങൾ പരസ്പരം ഉരസി നീങ്ങുന്ന അതിർത്തികളിൽ (Transform Boundary) ഭൂകമ്പം എങ്ങനെ ഉണ്ടാകുന്നുവെന്ന് വിശദീകരിക്കുക. ഇത്തരം അതിർത്തികളിലെ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങളുടെ സ്വഭാവം എതു വിധമുളളതാണ്?
Answer:
ചലനം: ഈ അതിർത്തികളിൽ ഫലകങ്ങൾ പര സ്പരം ഉരസി നീങ്ങുന്നു.

ഭൂകമ്പം: ഈ ഉരസൽ കാരണം പാറക്കെട്ടുകളിൽ വലിയ അളവിൽ മർദ്ദവും ഊർജ്ജവും സംഭരിക്കപ്പെടുന്നു. ഈ ഊർജ്ജം പെട്ടെന്ന് പുറത്തുവിടുന്നത് ശക്തമായ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾക്ക്
കാരണമാകുന്നു.

സ്വഭാവം: ഈ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ പൊതുവെ ശക്തവും വിനാശകരവും ആയിരിക്കും.

Question 45.
ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളായ P, S തരംഗങ്ങൾ സഞ്ചരി ക്കുന്നതിന്റെ രീതിയും സ്വഭാവവും വിശദമാ ക്കുക. ഇവയിൽ ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ നാശനഷ്ടമു ണ്ടാക്കുന്ന പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങളുടെ സവിശേഷത എന്ത്?
Answer:
P-തരംഗങ്ങൾ: ഇവ തരംഗദിശയ്ക്ക് സമാന്ത രമായി സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നു; ഖരം, ദ്രാവകം, വാതകം എന്നീ മാധ്യമങ്ങളിലൂടെ സഞ്ചരിക്കും.

S-തരംഗങ്ങൾ: ഇവ തരംഗദിശയ്ക്ക് ലംബമായി സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നു; ഖരമാധ്യമത്തിലൂടെ മാത്രമേ സഞ്ചരിക്കൂ.

പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങൾ (Surface Waves): ഇവയ്ക്ക് വേഗത കുറവാണെങ്കിലും ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉപരിതല ത്തിൽ മാത്രം സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നതിനാൽ ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ നാശനഷ്ടം ഉണ്ടാക്കുന്നു.

Question 46.
ഒരു ദുരന്ത ലഘൂകരണ പദ്ധതിയിൽ ആഘാത സാധ്യത (Vulnerability) എങ്ങനെയാണ് നിർണ്ണയിക്കപ്പെടുന്നത്? ഇത് ദുരന്തത്തിന്റെ മൊത്തത്തിലുള്ള തീവ്രതയെ എങ്ങനെ സ്വാധീ നിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
നിർണ്ണയം: ഒരു വിപത്തിന്റെ ഫലമായി ഒരു സമൂഹത്തിനോ, കെട്ടിടങ്ങൾക്കോ, അടിസ്ഥാന സൗകര്യങ്ങൾക്കോ ഉണ്ടാകാൻ സാധ്യതയുള്ള നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങളുടെ അളവാണ് ആഘാതസാധ്യത. സാമ്പത്തികമായും സാമൂഹികമായും ദുർബല മായ സമൂഹങ്ങൾക്ക് ഇത് കൂടുതലായിരിക്കും.

സ്വാധീനം: ഒരു വിപത്ത് (ഉദാ: ഭൂകമ്പം) ഉണ്ടാകു മ്പോൾ, ആഘാതസാധ്യത കൂടുതലുള്ള പ്രദേശ ങ്ങളിലാണ് (ഉദാ: ബലമില്ലാത്ത കെട്ടിടങ്ങൾ ഉള്ള പ്രദേശം) ഏറ്റവും വലിയ നാശനഷ്ടങ്ങളും ദുരന്ത തീവ്രതയും അനുഭവപ്പെടുന്നത്.

Question 47.
സംവഹന പ്രവാഹങ്ങൾ (Convectional Currents) എന്നാൽ എന്താണ്? ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർ ഭാഗത്ത് താപവ്യതിയാനം മൂലം ഇവ എങ്ങനെ യാണ് സംഭവിക്കുന്നതെന്ന് വിശദീകരിക്കുക. ഇവ ഭൂമിയുടെ ഫലകചലനങ്ങളെ എങ്ങനെ സ്വാധീനിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം: ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർഭാഗമായ മാന്റിലിനുള്ളിൽ മാഗ്മ ചാക്രികമായി ചലിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണിത്.

സംഭവം; ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉൾഭാഗത്തുനിന്നുള്ള താപം കാരണം മാന്റിലിലെ ശിലാദ്രവം ചൂടാകുന്നു. ചൂടായ മാഗ്മയുടെ സാന്ദ്രത കുറഞ്ഞ് മുകളിലേക്ക് ഉയരുന്നു. മുകളിലെത്തുന്ന മാഗ്മ തണുക്കു മ്പോൾ സാന്ദ്രത കൂടുകയും താഴേക്ക് പതിക്കു കയും ചെയ്യുന്നു. ഈ ചാക്രിക ചലനമാണ് സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം.

സ്വാധീനം; ഈ സംവഹന പ്രവാഹങ്ങൾ കാരണ മാണ് ഭൂവൽക്കത്തിലെ ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകങ്ങൾ നിരന്തരമായി തിരശ്ചീനമായി ചലിക്കുകയും അകന്നു പോവുകയോ കൂട്ടിമുട്ടുകയോ ഉരസി നീങ്ങുകയോ ചെയ്യുകയും, അതുവഴി ഭൂകമ്പം പോലുള്ള പ്രതിഭാസങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നത്.

Question 48.
ഒരു ദുരന്തത്തെ നേരിടാനുള്ള കാര്യക്ഷമത (Capacity) വർദ്ധിപ്പിക്കാൻ ഒരു സമൂഹം ചെയ്യേണ്ട അഞ്ച് പ്രധാന കാര്യങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാമാണ്?
Answer:

1. വിഭവ സമാഹരണം: ദുരന്ത സമയത്തും ശേഷവും ഉപയോഗിക്കാൻ കഴിയുന്ന മനുഷ്യ വിഭവങ്ങൾ, ധനം, ഉപകരണങ്ങൾ എന്നിവ സമാഹരിക്കുകയും സംരക്ഷിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക.
2. മുന്നറിയിപ്പ് സംവിധാനം: കാര്യക്ഷമമായ മുന്നറിയിപ്പ് സംവിധാനങ്ങളും വിവര വിനിമയ ശൃംഖലകളും സ്ഥാപിക്കുക.
3. പരിശീലനം: ദുരന്ത നിവാരണ പ്രവർത്ത നങ്ങളെക്കുറിച്ച് ജനങ്ങൾക്ക് പരിശീലനവും ബോധവൽക്കരണവും നൽകുക (ഉദാഹരണം: മോക്ക് ഡ്രില്ലുകൾ).
4. സുരക്ഷിത നിർമ്മാണങ്ങൾ: കെട്ടിടങ്ങൾ, പാലങ്ങൾ തുടങ്ങിയ അടിസ്ഥാന സൗകര്യ ങ്ങൾ ദുരന്തങ്ങളെ അതിജീവിക്കാൻ കഴിയുന്ന രീതിയിൽ നിർമ്മിക്കുക.
5. നിയമങ്ങൾ നടപ്പിലാക്കൽ: ദുരന്ത സാധ്യത യുള്ള പ്രദേശങ്ങളിൽ നിർമ്മാണ പ്രവർത്തന ങ്ങൾ നിയന്ത്രിക്കുന്ന നിയമങ്ങൾ കർശനമായി നടപ്പിലാക്കുക.

Question 49.
ടെക്ടോണിക് ഫലകചലനങ്ങളെ അടിസ്ഥാന മാക്കി ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്ന മൂന്ന് പ്രധാന അതിർത്തികളിലെ ഫലകചലനങ്ങളും അതിന്റെ ഫലവും വിശദമാക്കുക.
Answer:

1. സംയോജക അതിർത്തി (Convergent Boundary): ഫലകങ്ങൾ പരസ്പരം അടുക്കുന്നു. ഇതിന്റെ ഫലമായി ശക്തമായ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുന്നു.
2. വിയോജക അതിർത്തി (Divergent Boundary): ഫലകങ്ങൾ പരസ്പരം അകന്നുപോകുന്നു. ഇതിന്റെ ഫലമായി ചെറിയ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങളും പുതിയ ഭൂവൽക്കവും ഉണ്ടാകുന്നു.
3. പരിവർത്തന അതിർത്തി (Transform Boundary): ഫലകങ്ങൾ പരസ്പരം ഉരസി നീങ്ങുന്നു. ഇതിന്റെ ഫലമായി ഊർജ്ജം സംഭരിച്ച് വിനാശകരമായ ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ സംഭവിക്കുന്നു.

Question 50.
അന്തർജന്യ ചലനങ്ങളെ ദ്രുതചലനങ്ങൾ, മന്ദചലനങ്ങൾ എന്നിങ്ങനെ വേർതിരിക്കുന്നത് എന്തിന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിലാണ്?
ഓരോ വിഭാഗവും സൃഷ്ടിക്കുന്ന പ്രധാന ഭൗമമാറ്റങ്ങൾ ഉദാഹരണസഹിതം വിശദീകരി ക്കുക.
Answer:
തരംതിരിവ്: ചലനം നടക്കുന്ന വേഗതയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിലാണ്.

ദ്രുതചലനങ്ങൾ:

• വേഗത: വളരെ കുറഞ്ഞ സമയം കൊണ്ട് ശക്തമായ മാറ്റങ്ങൾ സൃഷ്ടിക്കുന്നു.
• മാറ്റങ്ങൾ: കെട്ടിടങ്ങൾ തകരുക, ഭൂമി പിളരുക, അഗ്നിപർവത സ്ഫോടനം (ലാവ പുറത്തു വരിക).

മന്ദചലനങ്ങൾ;

• വേഗത. വർഷങ്ങൾ നീണ്ടുനിൽക്കുന്നതും സാവധാനം നടക്കുന്നതുമായ പ്രക്രിയകളാണ്.
• മാറ്റങ്ങൾ: പർവത രൂപീകരണം (മടക്കു പർവ തങ്ങൾ), ഭൂഖണ്ഡ രൂപീകരണം (പീഠഭൂമികൾ ഉയരുക).

Question 51.
സംവഹന പ്രവാഹങ്ങൾ (Convectional Currents) എന്നാൽ എന്താണ്? ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർ ഭാഗത്ത് താപവ്യതിയാനം മൂലം ഇവ എങ്ങനെ യാണ് സംഭവിക്കുന്നതെന്ന് വിശദീകരിക്കുക.
Answer:
സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം; ഭൂമിയുടെ അന്തർഭാഗമായ മാന്റിലിനുള്ളിൽ മാഗ്മ ചാക്രികമായി ചലിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണിത്.

സംഭവം:

1. താപവ്യതിയാനം: ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉള്ളിൽ നിന്നും പുറത്തേക്ക് വരുന്ന അമിതമായ താപം കാരണം മാന്റിലിലെ ശിലാദ്രവം (മാഗ്മ ചൂടുപിടിക്കുന്നു.
2. ചൂടായ മാഗ്മയുടെ ചലനം: ചൂടായ മാഗ്മയുടെ സാന്ദ്രത (Density) കുറയുകയും അത് മുകളിലേക്ക് ഉയരുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.
3. തണുത്ത മാഗ്മയുടെ ചലനം: മുകളിലെത്തുന്ന മാഗ്മ തണുക്കുമ്പോൾ അതിന്റെ സാന്ദ്രത കൂടുകയും അത് താഴേക്ക് പതിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.
4. ചാക്രിക ചലനം: ഈ ചാക്രികമായ താപ കൈമാറ്റത്തെയാണ് സംവഹന പ്രവാഹം എന്ന് വിളിക്കുന്നത്. ഈ പ്രവാഹങ്ങളാണ് ടെക്ടോ ണിക് ഫലകങ്ങളെ ചലിപ്പിക്കുകയും ഭൂകമ്പം പോലുള്ള പ്രതിഭാസങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാവു കയും ചെയ്യുന്നത്.

Question 52.
ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകാനുള്ള കാരണങ്ങൾ (ഫലകചലനം കൂടാതെ), ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളുടെ തരം, പ്രഭവകേന്ദ്രം (Focus), അധികേന്ദ്രം (Epicenter) എന്നിവയുടെ സ്ഥാനം എന്നിവ വിശദമാക്കുക.
Answer:
ഭൂകമ്പ കാരണങ്ങൾ (ഫലകചലനം കൂടാതെ):

1. വലിയ ജലസംഭരണികൾ: വലിയ അണക്കെട്ടു കളിലെ ജലം തടസ്സശിലകൾക്ക് മേൽ ചെലു ത്തുന്ന സമ്മർദ്ദം മൂലം ചെറു ഭൂചലനങ്ങൾക്ക് കാരണമാകുന്നു.
2. ഖനന പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ: ആഴത്തിലുള്ള ഖനന പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ പാറക്കെട്ടുകൾ ഇളകുന്നതിന് കാരണമാവുകയും അതുവഴി ഭൂകമ്പങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.

ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങൾ;
പ്രധാനമായും മൂന്ന് തരം ഭൂകമ്പ തരംഗങ്ങളാണു ള്ളത്:

1. പ്രഥമിക തരംഗങ്ങൾ (P-Waves): ആദ്യം എത്തുന്നു; എല്ലാ മാധ്യമങ്ങളിലൂടെയും (ഖരം, ദ്രാവകം, വാതകം സഞ്ചരിക്കും; നാശനഷ്ടം കുറവാണ്.
2. ദ്വിതീയ തരംഗങ്ങൾ (S-Waves): ഖരമാധ്യമത്തി ലൂടെ മാത്രം സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നു; P തരംഗങ്ങളെ ക്കാൾ വേഗത കുറവാണ്.
3. പ്രതല തരംഗങ്ങൾ (Surface Waves/L-Waves): ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉപരിതലത്തിലൂടെ മാത്രം സഞ്ചരിക്കുന്നു; ഏറ്റവും കുറഞ്ഞ വേഗത; ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ നാശനഷ്ടം ഉണ്ടാക്കുന്നു.

സ്ഥാനങ്ങൾ (Position):

• പ്രഭവകേന്ദ്രം (Focus/Hypocenter): ഭൂകമ്പം ആരംഭിക്കുകയും ഊർജ്ജം പുറത്തുവിടു കയും ചെയ്യുന്ന, ഭൂമിക്കുള്ളിലെ ബിന്ദു.
• അധികേന്ദ്രം (Epicenter): പ്രഭവകേന്ദ്ര ത്തിന് നേർ മുകളിൽ ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉപരിതലത്തിൽ സ്ഥിതി ചെയ്യുന്ന ബിന്ദു. ഇവിടെയാണ് ഭൂകമ്പത്തിന്റെ ആഘാതം ഏറ്റവും കൂടുതൽ അനുഭവപ്പെടുന്നത്.

Practicing Chemistry Question Paper Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Set 5 English Medium helps identify strengths and weaknesses in a subject.

Chemistry Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 1½ Hours
Score: 40 Marks

Instruction:

1. First fifteen minutes are cool off time. Read the questions carefully during this time:
2. Write the answers according to the instructions.
3. Consider the score while writing the answers.
4. Answer only one question for questions having choice.

I. Answer all the questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 1.
Which is the functional group present in butanol? (Hydroxyl, Alkoxy, Keto, Aldehyde)

a) P ∝ 1/V	i) Avogadro’s Law
b) V ∝ T	ii) Boyle’s Law
c) V ∝ n	iii) Charles’s Law

Answer:
Hydroxyl

Question 2.
Match the following
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (a)-ii,(b)-i,(c)-iii
B.(a)-i,(b)-ii,(c)-iii
C.(a)-ii,(b)-iii,(c)-i
D.(a)-ii,(b)-i,(c)-iii
Answer:
C.(a)-ii,(b)-iii,(c)-i

Question 3.
Statement 1: A Galvanic cell is an electrochemical cell that converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
Statement 2: A galvanic cell requires an external power source to function. Which of the following is correct regarding the above statements?
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are not correct
C. Only statement 1 is correct
D. Only statement 2 is correct
Answer:
C. Only statement 1 is correct

Question 4.
In which one of the following reversible reactions, the change in pressure does not influence the equilibrium?

Answer:

II. Two questions from 5 to 11 have a choice. Each question carries 2 scores. (7 × 2 = 14)

Question 5.
Given below are two chemical equations.
CH₂ = CH₂ + H₂A
b) Img- 1
Answer:
a) CH₃ – CH₃
b) CH₃ – CH₂ – Cl

Question 6.
Write the structural formula of the given compounds
i) 2,3,5-Trimethylhexane
ii) Ethoxyethane
Answer:
i)

ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₃ (C₄ H₁₀O)

Question 7.
Analyse the picture of an experiment.
a) What change took place on the surface of the iron nail?

b) Which among the following reactions are involved in the above change?
Fe²⁺ + 2e^– → Fe
Ag⁺ + le^– → Ag
Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e^–
Ag → Ag⁺ + le^–
Answer:
a) Ag is deposited on the nail,
b) Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e^–
Ag⁺ + le^– → Ag

Question 8.
A. a) Name a method of concentration of an ore in which impurities are heavier than the ore particles.
b) Select an ore that can be concentrated by using this method.
(Fe₃O₄, ZnCO₃, CaCO₃, ZnS)
Answer:
A) a) Froth floatation
b) ZnS

B. Concentrated Cu₂S is converted into oxide by roasting.
a) What method of concentration is suitable for these sulphide ores?
b) How are impurities like sulphur and phosphorus removed in this process?
Answer:
B) a) Froth floatation
b) Sulphur and phosphorous are removed as their oxides.

Question 9.

a) What is the total number of moles of reactants and products in the above reaction?
b) What is the effect of pressure in this reversible reaction? Explain.
Answer:
a) No. of moles of reactant = 2
No. of moles of product = 2 b) In a reversible reaction, if there is no change in the number of moles of reactants and products in the gaseous state, pressure will not affect the chemical equilibrium.

Question 10.
A) Convert the following temperature in Kelvin scale to Celsius scale
i) 500K
ii) 273K
Answer:
A. i) 500K
500 – 273 = 227°C

ii) 273K
273 – 273 = 0°C

OR
B) Atomic mass of some elements are given [Mg = 24,0= 16]
a) How many atoms are there in 120g Mg?
b) Find the mass of 4 × 6.022 × 10 ²³ oxygen atoms.
Answer:
a) Number of atoms
= \(\frac{\text { Given mass }}{\text { Gram atomic mass }}\) x Avogadro number
= \(\frac{120}{24}\) x N_A = 5 × 6.022 × 10²³

b) Mass of oxygen atoms
= \(\frac{Given number of particles}{Avogadro number}\) × Molar mass
= \(\frac{4 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\) × 16g
= 64g

Question 11.
The Outermost Subshell electron configuration of two elements X and Y is given.
X = 3s² ; Y=3s² 3p⁵ (Symbols are not real)
a) What is the valency of the element X?
b) rite the chemical formula of the compound formed by the combination of X and Y?
Answer:
a) 2
b) XY₂

III. Two questions from 12 to 17 have a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 12.
The positions of two elements A and B in the periodic table are given. (Symbols are not real)
A – 4^th period and 2nd group
B – 2^nd period and 16^th group
a) Write the subshell electron configuration of A and B?
b) Write the value of n and/electrons in the outermost subshell of A?
c) What type of chemical bond is present in this compound AB?
Answer:
a) A – ls²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²
B – 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
b) n = 4, l = 0
c) Ionic bond

Question 13.
A. Structural formulas of two organic compounds are given.
i) CH₃ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
a) Write the IUPAC name of each compound.
b) Write one similarity between these compounds.
c) What is this phenomenon known as?
Answer:
i) Methoxyethane
ii) Propan-l-ol
b) The two compounds have the same molecular formula (C₃H₈O)
c) Functional group isomerism

Or
B. A saturated hydrocarbon has 5 carbon atoms in the main chain. A methyl radical is present on the second carbon atom.
a) Write the structural formula of the compound.
b) What is the IUPAC name of the compound?
c) Write the structural formula of a chain isomer of this compound.
Answer:

Question 14.
a) Which of the following chemicals are used to prepare ammonia (NH₃) in the laboratory? [NaCl, Ca (OH)₂, CaCl₂, NH₄Cl]
b) Ammonia gas produced is passed through quick lime. Give a reason.
c) Which product is obtained when ammonia reacts with HCl?
Answer:
a) NH₄CI and Ca(OH)₂
b) To remove moisture content. Quick lime is used as a drying agent.
c) NH₃+HC1 → NH₄Cl

Question 15.
Observe the figure in which a copper plate is immersed in AgNO₃ (Silver Nitrate) solution. (Reactivity: Cu > Ag)

a) The reaction taking place here is a redox reaction. Why?
b) What change can be observed on the copper plate?
c) Write the equation of the oxidation reaction taking place here.
Answer:
a) Oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously, so this reaction is a redox reaction.
b) A layer of Ag is deposited on the Copper plate, and the silver nitrate solution turns blue.
c) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e^–

Question 16.
A. Complete the table using the names of reactions given in the box.
Polymerisation, Combustion, Addition reaction, Substitution reaction, Thermal cracking
a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Combustion

Chemical equation	Name of reaction
CH3-CH=CH2 + H2 → CH3-CH2-CH3	(a)
CH3-CH3 + Cl2 → CH3-CH2-Cl+HCl	(b)
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O	(c)

Answer:
a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Combustion

OR
B. Match the columns A, B and C suitably.

A Reactants	B Products	c Name of Reaction
CH4 + Cl2	CO2 + 2H2O	Addition
CH4 + 2O2	CH2 = CH2	Thermal Cracking
CH3 – CH2 – CH3	CH3Cl + HCl	Combustion
CH = CH + H2	CH2 = CH2 + CH4	Substitution

Answer:

A Reactants	B Products	c Name of Reaction
CH4 + C12	CH3Cl + HCl	Substitution reaction
CH4 + 2O2	CO2 + 2H2O	Combustion
CH3 – CH2 – CH3	CH2 = CH2 + CH4	Thermal Cracking
CH = CH + H2	CH2 = CH2	Addition

Question 17.
Some metals and” their refining methods are given. Find the appropriate pair.

Metal	Refining Method
Tin	Distillation
Copper	Liquation
Zinc	Electrolytic Refining

Answer:

Metal	Refining Method
Tin	Liquation
Copper	Electrolytic Refining
Zinc	Distillation

Question 18 has a choice. It carries 4 scores.

Question 18
A. Some materials are given below:

a) From the given materials, choose the appropriate ones to construct a galvanic cell and draw the diagram of the cell. (Order of reactivity: Mg > Fe > Cu > Ag)
b) Which is the anode of this cell?
c) At which electrode does reduction take place?
d) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the cathode.
Answer:
a) Mg, MgSO₄, Cu, CuSO₄, Salt bridge, connecting wire with voltmeter connected.

b) Mg/Magnesium
c) Cathode (Cu rod)
d) Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu

OR
B. Observe the pictures given below. Based on the reactivity series, predict which of these undergoes a displacement reaction. Complete the table.

Metal	Solution	Displacement
Mg	CuSO4	reaction
Ag	CuSO4	(a)
Mg	ZnSO4	(b)
Mg	AgNO3	Takes place

Answer:
a) Takes place
b) Does not take place
c) Takes place
d) Does not take place

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 13 Building New Nations Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Building New Nations Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 13 Kerala Syllabus

Building New Nations Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
In which ship did the Pilgrim Fathers arrive in America?
Answer:
Mayflower

Question 2.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
i Olive Branch Petition
ii Treaty of Paris
iii First Philadelphia Congress
iv Declaration of Independence
a) iii – i – iv – ii
b) iii – ii – i – iv
c) ii – iii – i – iv
d) iii – i – ii – iv
Answer:
a) iii – i – iv – ii

Question 3.
Who was the leader of the American army in the war against Britain?
a) Thomas Jefferson
b) George Washington
c) Benjamin Franklin
d) John Adams
Answer:
b) George Washington

Question 4.
Who drafted the American Declaration of Independence?
a) Thomas Jafferson
b) Lord North
c) Abraham Lincoln
d) Benjamin Franklin
Answer:
a) Thomas Jafferson

Question 5.
Who said “ No taxation without representation”
a) Thomas Paine
b) John Locke
c) James Otis
d) George Washington
Answer:
c) James Otis

Question 6.
First president of the United States of America
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) George Washington
c) Thomas Paine
d) John Adams
Answer:
b) George Washington

Question 7.
Statement I: In 1781, the American army under the leadership of George Washington defeated the English army.
Statement II: In accordance with the Treaty of Paris in 1783, Britain accepted the independence of the 13 American colonies.
Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Statement I only is correct .
b) Statement II only is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 8.
What is the framework of the US Constitution known as?
Answer:
Articles of Confederation

Question 9.
Who was the Russian emperor during the Russian Revolution?
a) Alexander Kerensky
b) Nicholas II
c) Leon Trotsky
d) Joseph Stalin
Answer:
b) Nicholas II

Question 10.
Which dynasty ruled China?
a) Ming dynasty
b) Manchu dynasty
c) Han dynasty
d) Yuan dynasty
Answer:
b) Manchu dynasty

Question 11.
Find the ones from ‘B’ that correspond to category ‘A’ given below.

A	B
October Revolution	i) Lenin ii) Workers’ Republic iii) Red Guar iv) Mensheviks

a) i, ii, iii are correct
b) Only i is correct
c) Only ii is correct
d) Only iii is correct
Answer:
a) i, ii, iii are correct

Question 12.
Find the ones from ‘B’ that correspond to category ‘A’ given below.

A	B
February Revolution	i) Alexander Kerensky ii) Mensheviks iii) Provisional government

a) Only i is correct
b) ii and iii are correct
c) Only ii is correct
d) i, ii, iii are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii are correct

Question 13.
Arrange the table given below.

A	B
A. Lenin	i. Long March
B. Sun Yat-sen	ii. Provisional government
C. Mao Zedong	iii. New Economic Policy
D. Alexander Kerensky	iv. Kuomintang Party

a) A -iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
b) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
d) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
Answer:
b) A -iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii

Question 14.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given assertion and reason.
Assertion: The New Economic Policy was a partial return to private trade, agriculture, and private investment.
Reason: By implementing the New Economic Policy, he developed the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) into a world superpower.
a) Both assertion and reason are correct.
b) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
c) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
Answer:
a) Both assertion and reason are correct

Question 15.
Who issued the proclamation granting freedom to the slaves? When?
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln. January 1, 1863

Question 16.
What were the two factions of the Social Democratic Workers’ Party?
Answer:

• Bolsheviks
• Mensheviks

Question 17.
Whose theories were included in the Communist Manifesto?
Answer:

• Karl Marx
• Friedrich Engels

Question 18.
Explain the New Economic Policy implemented by Lenin in the Soviet Union.
Answer:
New Economic Policy implemented in 1921. The New Economic Policy was a partial return to private trade, agriculture, and private investment. Large industries were combined with trusts. At the same time, the government encouraged the cooperative sector. But there was a strict government control to prevent the revival of capitalism.

Question 19.
Which countries were involved in the Opium War?
Answer:

• China
• Britain

Question 20.
Define Boxer Rebellion.
Answer:
The growing interference of foreign powers increased the resentment of the people against them in China. As a result, many secret agencies were formed in China. One such secret agency was the Boxers. Their symbol was the Boxers Fist. Their resistance against the European invasion is known as the ‘Boxer Rebellion’.

Question 21.
Explain the trade laws implemented by Britain in the American colonies.
Answer:

• Goods from colonies to colonies could only be transported on the British ships or on the ships of the colonies.
• Goods such as wool, tobacco, and ship’s sails could be sent to Europe via England only. Goods from Europe could only be transported via England only.
• The Stamp Act of 1765 insisted that Deeds of will, legal documents, and pamphlets be marked with a fixed value stamp. An additional tax was imposed to recoup the cost of protecting the colonies from French attacks.

Question 22.
What were the factors that motivated the colonists to fight against Britain?
Answer:

• The colonists’ fear of the French disappeared as a result of the Seven-Year War
• The military experience gained as a result of participating in the war
• Awareness of one’s own strength

Question 23.
What were the ideas put forward by Sun Yat-sen?
Answer:

• Nationalism
• Democracy
• Socialism

Question 24.
The American War of Independence made significant contributions to the world. What were they?
Answer:

• It gave energy to anti-colonial struggles around the world
• The first written constitution came into effect
• It contributed the concept of federal government to the world
• It contributed the idea of modem republican government to the world

Question 25.
Lenin put forward new ideas. What are they?
Answer:

• Power: to the workers’ councils (Soviets)
• Land: to the peasants
• Peace: for all
• Food: for the starving

Question 26.
Explain the results of the revolution in China.
Answer:

• China became the People’s Republic
• Foreign domination in China came to an end
• Agricultural land was distributed to the farmers
• It caused the spread of socialist ideas among the nations of the world

Question 27.
What were the main features of the Constitution of the United States of America?
Answer:

• The Constitution of the United States is a written one in the federal system. Accordingly, each state joining the union had certain powers of its own.
• The smallest constitution in the world ‘
• The central government has authority over foreign affairs, war, interstate trade, and currency
• The state governments had representation in the central government
• The powers of the three branches of government such as the Congress, the President, and the Judiciary are clearly specified.

Question 28.
List the differences between the North American states and the South American states in the provinces of the United States of America.
Answer:

North American States	South American States
Industry and commerce were the main sectors	Agriculture was the main sector Presence of organised plantations
Did not depend on others for industrial products	There were very few factories Had to depend on the northern states or England for industrial products
Gave importance to education Primary education was free and compulsory	Education was not given importance Far behind in literacy

Question 29.
Explain the background of the Civil War in America.
Answer:

• Slavery
• Southern states supported slavery.
• Northern states discouraged the system of slavery.
• Thirteen Southern states left the union.
• Northern states questioned the right to leave the Union.

Question 30.
Explain the causes of the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
Autocratic rule of Tsar: Agitated with the miserable working conditions, the economic depression, and the ongoing war with Japan, the people, led by Father Gapon, marched to St. Petersburg to present a petition to Tsar Nicholas II requesting economic and political reforms. The army opened fire on the protesters, killing over a hundred workers. This massacre in St. Petersburg on January 22, 1905, is known as ‘Bloody Sunday.’ In response to the popular outrage, the Tsar agreed to form a parliament called the Duma. But he rejected all the reforms proposed by the Duma and attempted to suppress political freedom.

• The main problems faced by the workers:
  • Low wages
  • Poor living conditions
  • Long working hours
  • The dominance of foreign capitalists in industries
• Problems of Peasants:
  • The peasants were socially and economically oppressed
  • Most of the agricultural land was owned by nobles
  • Only a small section of the peasants had their own land
  • The taxes that the peasants had to pay were extremely high
• Formation of Social Democratic Workers’ Party
• Influence of the writings of Leo Tolstoy, Turgenev, Maxim Gorky, etc.
• The communist theories of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.
• Russian participation in World War I.

Question 31.
List the reforms implemented by Lenin in Russia after the revolution.
Answer:

Practicing Maths Question Paper Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Set 4 English Medium helps identify strengths and weaknesses in a subject.

Maths Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions:

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about the answers
• There are 26 questions, split into four parts A, B, C, D
• Answer all questions; but in questions of the type A or B, you need answer only one of those
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number
• Answers must be explained, whenever necessary.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, etc using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Section – A

Question 1.
Sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic sequence is n2 + n. What is its 13th term?
(a) 31
(b) 26
(c) 20
(d) 50 (1 mark)
Answer:
(b) 26

Question 2.
Read the two statements given below.
Statement 1: If area and perimeter of a triangle are numerically equal, that is both are same number then its inradius is 2 unit
Statement 2: If A is the area, 5 is half of the perimeter then in radius r = \(\frac{A}{s}\)

Choose the correct answer from those given below.
(a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(b) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
(c) Both the statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.
(d) Both the statements are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct reason for Statement 1. (1 mark)
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true, and Statement 2 is the correct reason for Statement 1.

Question 3.
A) In the figure O is the centre of the circle. If angle ADC = 140°, angle AEC = 60° then

(a) What is the measeure of ∠APC and ∠AQC
Answer:
∠APC = 180 – 140 = 40°, ∠AQC = 40°

(b) What is the measure of angle AOC?
Answer:
∠AOC = 2 × 40 = 80°

(c) Find the angles of the quadrilateral PEQB
Answer:
In the quadrilateral ∠AEQ = ∠AEC = 60°,
∠EPB = 180 – 40 = 140°,
∠EOB = 140°
∠PBQ = 360 – (140 + 140 + 60) = 20.
Angles are 140°, 60°, 140°, 20°

OR

B) ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC, ∠ABC = 50°.

(a) Name two cyclic quadrilaterals in this picture.
Answer:
Quadrilateral ABEC and quadrilateral DBES are cyclic.

(b) What is the measure of angle D?
Answer:
∠ABC = ∠ACB = 50°
∴ ∠A = 180-100 = 80°
∴ ∠D = 80°

(c) What is the measure of ∠BEC? (3 mark)
Answer:
∠BEC = 180 – 80 = 100°

Question 4.
In the figure a circle touches the sides of a triangle. If AP = 1, BQ = 2 and CR = 3 then

(a) What is the perimeter of the triangle?
Answer:
AR = 1, CQ = 3, BP = 2
Perimeter of triangle ABC = 12 cm

(b) What is the area of the triangle? (4 mark)
Answer:
The perpendicular sides of the right angled triangle ABC is 3 and 4 cm.
Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 3 × 4
= 6 sq.cm

Question 5.
A) Triangle PQR is drawn by joining the midpoints of the sides of triangle ABC.

(a) How many equal triangles are there in the figure?
Answer:
4 triangles.
∆PQR, ∆APQ, ∆PCR, ∆QRB are equal triangles

(b) A fine dot is placed into the figure. What is the probability of falling the dot in triangle PQR?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4}\)

(c) How many parallelograms are there in the picture?
Answer:
3 Parallelograms.
PQRC, PQBR, PRQA are equal

(d) A fine dot is placed into the figure. What is the probability of falling the dot in the parallelogram PQRC ?
Answer:
To fall the dot in PQRC it is necessary to fall either in triangle PCR or triangle PQR
Probability is \(\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

OR

B) Sum of the first n odd numbers is k
(a) What is the sum of first n even numbers?
Answer:
k + √k

(b) What is the sum of first n natural numbers ?
Answer:
\(\frac{k+\sqrt{k}}{2}\)

(c) Find \(\frac{1+2+3+4+\cdots+15}{16+17+18+\cdots+30}\) (4 marks)
Answer:
\(\frac{8}{23}\)

Question 6.
Angles of a pentagon are in arithmetic sequence when arranged in the ascending order. First term is 42°
(a) What is its middle term?
Answer:
Angle sum of a pentagon (n – 2) × 180
= 3 × 180
= 540

(b) What is the difference between two adjacent terms?
Answer:
Difference between third term and first term is two times common difference
2x common difference = 108 – 42 = 66,
Common difference = 33

(c) Find the largest term of the pentagon (5 mark)
Answer:
Fifth term = 108 + 2 × 33 = 108 + 66 = 174
Angles are 42°, 75°, 108°, 141°, 174°

Section – B

Question 7.
Solutions of the equation (x – 1)² = 100 are
(a) 9,-10
(b) 10,-9
(c) 10,-10
(d) 11,-9 (1 mark)
Answer:
(d) 11,-9

Question 8.
O is the centre of the circle and ∠ACB = 30°. What is ∠AOB ?

(a) 30°
(b) 15°
(c) 60°
(d) 90° (1 mark)
Answer:
(c) 60°

Question 9.
Consider the arithmetic sequence 5, 9, 13, 17, 21…
(a) Write the algebraic form of this sequence.
Answer:
x_n = dn + (f – d)
= 4n + (5 -4)
= 4n + 1

(b) What is the position of the term in the sequence whose square is 625?
Answer:
(4n + 1)² = 625,
4n + 1 = 7625 = 25,
4n = 24, n = 6

(c) Is 36 a term of this sequence. How can you realize it ?
Answer:
All terms are odd numbers. The even number 36cannot be a term of this sequence

(d) What is the position of 49 in this sequence ? (3 mark)
Answer:
4n + 1 = 49. 4n = 48, n = 12.
12th term is 49

Question 10.
A rectangular plot of land has larger side 8 meter more than twice the smaller side. Area of the land is 504 sq.meter
(a) If the smaller side is x then what is the other side?
Answer:
Smaller side is x
Other side is 2x + 8

(b) Find the length of the sides.
Answer:
x(2x + 8) = 504,
2x² + 8x = 504,
x² + 4x = 25²
x² + 4x + 4 = 256m,
(x + 2)² = 162,
x + 2 =16, x = 14
Sides are 14 meter and 36meter

(c) How much money is needed to make wall along the sides at the rate of 200 rupees per meter? (3 mark)
Answer:
Perimeter = 2(14 + 36) = 2 × 50 =100 m
Amount = perimeter × 200
Expense = 100 × 200 = 20,000 rupees

Question 11.
From a point on the ground 40 metre away from the foot of the tower sees the top of the tower at an angle of evation 30° and sees the top of the water tank on the top of the tower at an angle of elevation 45°
(a) Draw a rough diagram.
Answer:

(b) Find the height of the tower.
Answer:
In triangle ABD we have tan 45° = \(\frac{BD}{AB}\)
1 = \(\frac{h+h_1}{40}\), h + h₁ = 40
tan 30° = \(\frac{B C}{A B}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{h}{40}\)
h = \(\frac{40}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 23.1 m
Height of the tower 23.1 m

(c) Find the height of the water tank. (4 mark)
Answer:
23.1 + h₁ =40, h₁ = 40 – 23.1 = 16.9meter.

Question 12.
A) nth term of an arithmetic sequence is 2n + 1
(a) Write the sequence in the numerical form
Answer:
3, 5, 7….

(b) What is its 100th term?
Answer:
(2 × 100 ) + 1 = 201

(c) Calculate the sum of first 100 terms
Answer:
2(1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 100) + 100 = 10200

(d) Find the sum of first 100 terms of the arithmetic sequence 4, 6, 8 …………..
Answer:
The terms of 4, 6, 8,… are one more than the terms of 2n + 1
Sum is 10200 + 100 = 10300

OR

B) Two dice numbered 1 to 6 are thrown at together.
(a) Write the outcomes as pairs
Answer:
(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6)
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6)
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6)
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)
(6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)

(b) What is the probability of the occurence of equal numbers?
Answer:
\(\frac{6}{36}=\frac{1}{6}\)

(c) What is the probability of the occurence of perfect squares ?
Answer:
(1, 1), (1, 4), (4, 1), (4, 4).
Probability = \(\frac{4}{36}\)

(d) What is the probability of the occurence of multiple of 2 in one die and multiple of 3 in other die ? (4 mark)
Answer:
(2,3), (4,3), (6. 3), (2, 6), (4. 6), (6, 6), (3, 2). (3,4), (3,6). (6, 2), (6, 4)
Probability = \(\frac{11}{36}\)

Question 13.
In the figure AB is a common tangent to the circle. The line PC joins the common point of the circle to the point P. it is also a tangent to the circles.

(a) Name theiines of equal length shown in the figure.
Answer:
PA = PC, PB = PC

(b) If ∠PAC = x and ∠PBC = y then what is ∠ACB ?
Answer:
∠ACB = x + y

(c) Prove that ΔABC is a right triangle. (5 mark)
Answer:
In triangle ABC,
2x + 2y = 180,
x + y = 90
Triangle ABC is a right triangle.

Question 14.
A) y axis is the tangent to the circle at the origin of coordinates. (5,0) is the center of the circle.

(a) Write the coordinates of A.
Answer:
(10, 0)

(b) If CD is the diameter perpendicular to x axis then write the coordinates of C and D.
Answer:
C(5, 5), O(5, 5)

(c) P is a point on this circle such that OP = 8. Find the length AP.
Answer:
Triangle OPA is a right triangle. AP = 6

OR

B) In triangle ABC, AB – AC . P and Q are the mid points of the side AB and AC.
(a) Draw a rough diagram and join the points P and Q.
Answer:

(b) Prove that BPQC is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Answer:
Since AB = AC, ∠B = ∠C
Line joining the mid points of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side. PQ is parallel to BC.
In PBCQ. ∠B + ∠P = 180° (co interior angles)
Since ∠C = ∠B, ∠C + ∠P =180°
PQCB is a cyclic quadrilateral

(c) I f ∠A in triangle ABC is 20°, find the angles of the trapezium BPQC (5 mark)
Answer:
∠A = 20°
∠B = ∠C = \(\frac{180-20}{2}\) = 80°
∠B + ∠P = 180°, ∠P = 100°, ∠O = 100°
Angles are ∠P = 100°, ∠Q = 100°,
∠B = 80°, ∠C = 80°

Section – C

Question 15.
Which of the following is the center of the circle
(x – 1)² + y² = 1
(a) (1, 0)
(b) (1, 1)
(c) (1, 2)
(d) (1, -1) (1 mark)
Answer:
(a) (1, 0)

Question 16.
The sum and product of the solutions of a second degree polynomial are-10 and \(\frac{5}{2}\) respectively. Then the polynomial is:
(a) 2x² – 20x + 10
(b) 2x² – x + 5
(c) 2x² – 20x + 5
(d) x² – 20x + 5 (1 mark)
Answer:
(c) 2x² – 20x + 5

Sum of the Solutions is -10 and its product is \(\frac{5}{2}\)
a + b = -10, ab = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
Polynomial = x² + (a + b)x + ab
= x² – 10x + \(\frac{5}{2}\)
= 2x² – 20x + 5

Question 17.
ABCDE is a regular pentagon. AD and BD are its diagonals. The tangents intersects at a point P.

(a) What is the measure of ∠E and ∠C?
Answer:
∠E = ∠C = \(\frac{540}{5}\) = 108°

(b) Find ∠ADE, ∠BDC?
Answer:
∠ADE = 36°
∠BDC = 36°

(c) What is ∠PAB, ∠PBA?
Answer:
∠ADB = 108 – 72 = 36°
∠PAB = ∠PBA = 36°

(d) What is the angle measure of APB? (3 mark)
Answer:
∠P = 180 – 72 = 108°

Question 18.
From a wooden cube of side 12 cm, a sphere of maximum size is carved out.
(a) What is the radius of the sphere?
Answer:
Diameter of the sphere = side of the cube = 12 cm
So, radius = 6 cm

(b) What is the surface area?
Answer:
Surface area = 4πr² = 4 × π × 6² = 144π cm²

(c) Find the volume. (4 mark)
Answer:
Volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\) π × 6³ = 288π cm³

Question 19.
A) Angles of a pentagon are in an arithmetic sequence if the angle measures are arranged in an order.
Whatever be the common difference of the sequence the middle term remains same.
(a) Find the middle term of the sequence.
Answer:
Angle sum of a pentagon is (5 – 2) × 180 = 540°
Since it has 5 angles which are in an arithmetic 540
sequence x₃ = \(\frac{540}{5}\) = 108.
The middle term is 108°

(b) If the smallest angle is 42 then what is the difference between two adjacent angles ?
Answer:
x₁ = 42, x₃ = 108
3d = 108 – 42 = 66, d = 33

(c) Find the measure of all angles.
Answer:
Terms are 42°, 75°, 108°, 141°, 174°

OR

B) A bag contains 3 black balls and 2 white balls. An-other bag contains 3 black balls and 4 white balls. One is taken from each bag without looking into the bag.
(a) What is the probability of getting both balls white ?
Answer:
Total number of Outcome pairs is 5 × 7 = 35
Probability of getting both white = \(\frac{2 \times 4}{35}=\frac{8}{35}\)

(b) What is the probability of getting both balls black?
Answer:
\(\frac{3 \times 3}{35}=\frac{9}{35}\)

(c) What is the probability of getting balls of different colours? (5 mark)
Answer:
\(\frac{3 \times 4+2 \times 3}{35}=\frac{18}{35}\)

Section – D

Question 20.
In the diagram, AB is the diameter of the semicircle, PQ = \(\sqrt{14}\) RS = \(\sqrt{18}\) are perpendicular to AB. What is the length of the line AB

(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15 (1 mark)
Answer:
(b) 9

\(\sqrt{18}=\sqrt{6 \times 3}\)
\(\sqrt{14}=\sqrt{7 \times 2}\)
AB = 9

Question 21.
Read the two statement given below.
Statement (A): x² + 20x + 96 is the polynomial with the sum of solutions 8 and their product 12.
Statement (B): If a, b are the solutions of a polynomial, then the polynomial is x² +(a + b)x + ab
(a) Statement A is true, Statement B is false.
(b) Statement B is true. Statement A is false.
(c) Both statements are true. Statement B is the reason for Statement A.
(d) Both statements are true. Statement B is not the reason for Statement A. (1 mark)
Answer:
(b) Statement B is true. Statement A is false.
Statement B is true.

The sum of solutions 8 and their product 12.
a + b = 8. ab = 12
Polynomial = x² + (a + b)x + ab
= x² + 8x + 12
∴ Statement A is false.

Question 22.
When 16 added to the sum of a number of terms of the arithmetic sequence 9, 11, 13.., we get 256. How many terms are added? (3 mark)
Answer:
When 16 added to the sum of a number of terms of the arithmetic sequence 9, 11, 13,.., we get 256.
That is, sum of terms of the arithmetic sequence = 256 – 16 = 240
First term (f) = 9
Common difference (d) = 2
x_n = dn + (f – d)
= 2n + (9 – 2)
= 2n + 1
If algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is an + b, then the sum of first n terms of the sequence
= a\(\frac{n}{2}\)(n + 1) + nb
= 2\(\frac{1}{2}\)(n + 1) + n × 7
= n(n + 1) + 7n
= n² + n + 7n
= n² + 8n
= n² + 8n = 240
= n² + 8n – 240 = 0
a = 1, b = 8, c = -240

OR

n = \(\frac{-8-32}{2}\) = -20
n is the number of terms. so cannot be negative.
Thus, n =12
12 terms are added.

Question 23.
A) In traingle ABC,AB = AC AD is the perpendicular from A to BC. This perpendicular distance from A to BC is 2 cm more than BC.
Area of the triangle is 60 sq.cm

(a) If BC = x then what is the length AD?
Answer:
BC = x, AD = x + 2

(b) Form an equation connecting the lengths BC; AD and area of the triangle.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\) x x(x + 2) = 60, x² + 2x = 120

(c) Find the length of BC.
Answer:
x² + 2x + 1 = 121, (x + 1)² = 121, x = 10 BC = 10

OR

B) The vertices of ABCD are on a circle with diameter AB. ∠BAC = 20°, AD = CD

a) What is the measure of ∠B?
b) What is the measure of ∠D?
c) Find other two angles of ABCD. (3 mark)
Answer:
(a) 180 – (20 + 90) = 180-110 = 70°
(b) ∠O = 180-70 = 110°
(c) In triangle ADC, ∠A = 35°, ∠C = 35°
In the quadrilateral
∠A = 55°, ∠B = 10°, ∠C = 90 + 35 = 125°,
∠D = 110°

Question 24.
A) Two circles intersect at B and E as in the figure. The points A – B – C are along a line. Also the points D – E – F are also on a line

(a) Prove that AD is parallel to CF
Answer:

Draw BE. ABED is a cyclic quadrilateral.
If ∠DAB = x then ∠BED = 180 – x, ∠BEF = 180 – (180 – x)=
BEFC is cyclic. ∠C = 180 – A.
In quadrilateral ADFC,
∠A + ∠C = x + 180 – x = 180°
Co interior angle sum is 180°.
AD is parallel to CF

(b) If AC = DF suggest a suitable name to the quadrilateral ADFC
Answer:
ADFC is a trapezium.
Since AC = DF is an isosceles trapezium.

(c) Prove that ADFC is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Answer:
Angles at the ends of parallel sides of an isosceles trapezium are equal.
Since ∠A = ∠D and ∠A + ∠C = 180° then ∠D + ∠C = 180°
ADFC is a cyclic quadrilateral.

OR

B) The distance between two buildings is 100 metre.The height of one building is double the height of other building.The top of the buildings can be seen at the angle of elevations 60° and 300 from a point in between the buildings.
(a) Draw a rough diagram
Answer:

(b) What is the distance from the foot of the tall tower to the point of observation.
Answer:
Let AC = h and BD = 2h

200 – 2x = 3x, 5x = 200, x = 40 m
The point of observation is at the distance 40 m from tall building.

(c) Claculate the height of the buildings. (4 mark)
Answer:
h = \(\frac{\sqrt{3} x}{2}=\frac{\sqrt{3} \times 40}{2}\) = 20√3 m
Height of the small building is 20√3 m
and height of the tall building is 40√3 m

Question 25.
The line x + y= 2 intersect x axis at A and y axis at B
(a) Write the coordinates of A and B.
Answer:
At A, y = 0, x + 0 = 2 x = 2.
The point A (2, 0)

At B, x = 0, 0 + y = 2
The point B(0, 2)

(b) Find the coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle AOB? (5 mark)
Answer:
Circumcentre is the midpoint of the hypotenuse AB.
Midpoint of A (2, 0) and B (0, 2) is:
\(\left(\frac{2+0}{2}, \frac{0+2}{2}\right)\) = (1, 1)
Therefore the circumcentre is (1, 1)

Question 26.
The table below shows, children of a class sorted according to their scores in an examination.
table-1
(a) If the children are arranged in the ascending order of their scores, then what will be the assumed score of the 14th child?
Answer:
The cumulative frequency table is,

Scores	Number of Students
0-10	5
10-20	8
20-30	10
30-40	13
40-50	9
Total	45

The total number is 45, which is odd
\(\frac{45+1}{2}=\frac{46}{2}\) = 23

So, the 23rd child has the median score.
The 14th child is in the class 20 – 30.
The class width = 30 – 20 =10.
Number of students belonging to this class = 10
So, the width of the subdivision = \(\frac{10}{10}\) = 1
Score of 14th students = \(\frac{20+21}{2}\) = 20.5

(b) Compute the median score. (5 mark)
Answer:
Median score = Score of 23rd student
= 20.5 + (23 – 14) × 1
= 20.5 + 9
= 29.5
Only one temperature below 26 is 25.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 12 Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus

Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Which is the largest unorganised sector in India?
a. Industrial sector
b. Service sector
c. Agricultural sector
d. Information technology sector
Answer:
c) Agricultural sector

Question 2.
The method of cultivating only one crop at a time on a farmland is called:
a. Multiple cropping
b. Intercropping
c. Monocropping
d. Crop rotation
Answer:
c) Monocropping

Question 3.
The farming method in which a crop grows again and gives yield after harvesting is:
a. Mixed cropping
b. Ratoon cropping
c. Continuous cropping
d. Relay cropping
Answer:
b) Ratoon cropping

Question 4.
Which cropping system helps to increase soil fertility?
a. Monocropping
b. Relay cropping
c. Crop rotation
d. Multistoried cropping
Answer:
c) Crop rotation

Question 5.
What is the aim of the National Agricultural Market (e-NAM), an online platform for buying and selling agricultural products?
a. Provide agricultural loans
b. Distribute seeds
c. Help farmers sell their products as per their preference
d. Control pesticide application
Answer:
c) Helps farmers sell their products as they prefer

Question 6.
Growing maize and groundnut together is an example of which cropping system?
a. Intercropping
b. Relay cropping
c. Mixed cropping
d. Continuous cropping
Answer:
c) Mixed cropping

Question 7.
Which of the following is a social factor?
a. Irrigation
b. Farmers’ income
c. Food habits
d. Nature of soil
Answer:
c) Food habits

Question 8.
Growing crops of different heights and different root depths at the saihe time on the same farmland is called:
a. Precision farming
b. Vertical farming
c. Multistoried cropping
d. Organic farming
Answer:
c) Multistoried cropping

Question 9.
What is the chance of pest attack higher in monocropping (monoculture)?
a. Because the farmland remains fallow
b. Because only one crop is grown at a time
c. Because it is aimed at export
d. Because planting and maintenance are easy
Answer:
b) Because only one crop is grown at a time

Question 10.
Why is mixed cropping more popular in dry regions?
a. Because it helps control pests and weeds
b. Because it ensures efficient use of resources
c. Because if one crop fails due to adverse weather, other crops may still give a yield.
d. Because it does not require specific spacing
Answer:
c) Because if one crop fails due to adverse weather, other crops may still give a yield.

Question 11.
Assertion: Multiple cropping increases total production and income.
Reason: Two or more crops are grown without affecting the natural fertility of the soil.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Assertion: Precision farming ensures efficient use of water and nutrients.
Reason: It is a technology in which crops are given only the required nutrients, in the right amount, at the right time.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
Assertion: Growing pulses after paddy is an example of crop rotation.
Reason: Crop rotation is a method of growing two or more crops at the same time in the same field without maintaining spacing.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
c) A is true, but R is false.

Question 14.
Assertion: In ratoon cropping, there is a chance of reduced yield and increased pest/disease attack.
Reason: The main advantage of ratoon cropping is that yield is obtained again from the same crop without replanting.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 15.
Assertion: Using drone technology in agriculture helps increase productivity.
Reason: Due to global population increase, climate change, and technological advancement, agricultural practices are continuously changing.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Match the Following.

Agricultural Pattern	Explanation
1. Mixed cropping	a. Another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
2. Inter- cropping	b. Cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop.
3. Relay Cropping	c. Two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintain space between them.
4. Crop Rotation	d. Growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.

A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer:
A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

Question 17.
Match the following

Cropping Pattern	Example
1. Monocropping	a. Spinach, Sugarcane
2. Sequence Cropping	b. Rubber, Tea
3. Ratoon Cropping	c. Coconut, Pepper
4. Multi- Tier Cropping	d. Pulses, Sesame

A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

Question 18.
Match the following

Factors Influencing Cropping System	Sub Factor
1. Natural Factors	a. Area of Agricultural Land held
2. Economic Factors	b. Scientific Irrigation
3. Social Factors	c. Diet
4. Technological Factors	d. Climate

A. 1-a 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
C. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
Answer:
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

Question 19.
Write two examples of the role played by the agriculture sector in the economy of a country.
Answer:

• Ensures food security of the country.
• Provides employment to the people (largest unorganized sector in India).
• Provides raw materials for industries

Question 20.
What is meant by cropping system?
Answer:
The order in which crops are cultivated on a farm during a specific period is called cropping system. Cropping system can be classified as Monocropping, Poly Cropping, Ratoon Cropping.

Question 21.
What is the main advantage of Ratoon Cropping?
Answer:

• During harvesting, the roots or lower part of the crop is left uncut. After harvesting, the crop that was cultivated grows again and produces yield.
• The advantage of this system is that the crop is harvested again from the same crop.

Question 22.
What are the Key components of Precision Farming?
Answer:
Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity. Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Question 23.
List any two technologies used in Digital Farming.
Answer:

• Big data analysis tools.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• Mobile phones / Farm advisory apps

Question 24.
What is the importance of Rain Shelter Farming?
Answer:
A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming. Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions. If every household has a rain shelter, the household’s vegetables can be cultivated year-round.

Question 25.
Write any two examples for Mono Cropping.
Answer:
Rubber, Tea, Tapioca

Question 26.
WRat are the main objectives of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)?
Answer:

• Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an approach to help farmers cope with climate change.
• The main goals are to increase productivity and income, adapt to climate change, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 27.
How is intercropping suitable for weed and pest control?
Answer:
Growing another crop in between the rows of the main crop (intercropping) can help reduce weed growth and potentially reduce the spread of pests due to crop diversity.

Question 28.
What are the basic factors that distinguish small-scale industries from cottage industries?
Answer:

Factors	Small scale industries	Cottage Industries
Investments/Turnover	Investment not exceeding ?10 crore and annual turnover less than ?50 crore.	Investment limit is low.
Labor force	Labor force can be used from outside the family members.	Only the labor force of family members is used.
Technology	Modem technology can be used.	Traditional technology can be used.

Question 29.
Write any three natural factors that influence cropping systems.
Answer:

• Soil characteristics
• Topography
• Water availability
• Climate

Question 30.
List three benefits of crop rotation to agriculture.
Answer:

• Increases soil fertility.
• Increases soil productivity.
• It is an ideal method for controlling weeds and pests.

Question 31.
What is sequence cropping? Write examples for it.
Answer:
Sequence Cropping is the method of cultivating another short-term crop in the same field immediately after harvesting the main crop. This method utilises the moisture and nutrients remaining on the field. The main advantage is that the fields do not lie fallow. Example: On paddy fields, pulses or sesame are grown after the main crop, paddy.

Question 32.
What are the three main uses of drone technology in modern agriculture?
Answer:

• To successfully sow seeds in the field in less time.
• To effectively apply pesticides.
• To effectively apply fertilizers.

Question 33.
Why is Vertical Farming important in the era of urbanization?
Answer:
Vertical farming is being used as a practical way to produce food in cities due to urbanization and the scarcity of agricultural land. It helps in achieving higher yields in less space. Hydroponic and aeroponic systems are used. It uses hydroponic, aeroponic, and aquaponic systems to produce food year-round with minimal water use.

Question 34.
Write the main differences between mixed Cropping and intercropping.
Answer:
Mixed Cropping: This is the method of cultivating two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintaining spacing between them. This cropping system is more common in dry areas. The advantage is that even if the yield of one crop is poor due to adverse weather conditions, yields from other crops can still be obtained. Example: maize-groundnut, coconut-pigeon pea

Inter cropping: Inter Cropping is a cropping system where another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern. Production can be increased through the efficient use of resources. This is a suitable method for controlling weeds and pests. Example: Groundnut cultivated as an intercrop in cotton, which grows slowly in the initial stage. Plantain cultivated as an intercrop in coconut plantations

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based small/cottage industries?
Answer:

• They are a solution to some extent to the problems faced by the agricultural sector.
• They operate locally by utilizing agricultural resources and give a boost to the local economy.
• They help increase the income of farmers by producing value-added products.

Question 36.
List any three challenges/problems facing the Indian agriculture sector.
Answer:

• Climate change and natural disasters.
• High cost of fertilizers and pesticides.
• Lack of market for agricultural produce, lack of capital

Question 37.
How do infrastructures affect the choice of cropping systems? Give three examples.
Answer:

• Irrigation: If irrigation facilities are available, crops that require irrigation can be grown even in dry weather.
• Transportation: If good transportation facilities are available, perishable fruits and vegetables can be transported to the market.
• Market access: Farmers choose commercial crops based on the availability of market access.

Question 38.
What are the four main objectives of an efficient agricultural market?
Answer:

• Enable primary producers (fanners) to earn the best possible income.
• Provide fair prices for agricultural products while maintaining their quality.
• Provide products to consumers at fair prices.
• Help agricultural progress by streamlining the marketing system.

Question 39.
Explain the concept of multi-storied cropping. What is the main advantage of this method in terms of soil, water and sunlight?
Answer:
MULTIPLE CROPPING OR POLY CROPPING
Multiple Cropping is a cropping system in which two or more crops are cultivated on a single plot of land without affecting the natural fertility of the soil.

The advantage of this is to increase the total production from the farm land and thereby the income.

Mixed Cropping

• This is the method of cultivating two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintaining spacing between them. This cropping system is more common in dry areas.
• The advantage is that even if the yield of one crop is poor due to adverse weather conditions, the yield from other crops can be obtained.
• Example: maize-groundnut, coconut-pigeon pea

Inter Cropping

• Inter Cropping Inter Cropping is a cropping system where another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
• This is a suitable method for controlling weeds and pests.
• Example: Groundnut cultivated as an intercrop in cotton, which grows slowly in the initial stage. Plantain cultivated as an intercrop in coconut plantations.

Sequence Cropping

• Sequence Cropping is the method of cultivating another short-term crop in the same field immediately after harvesting the main crop. This method utilises the moisture and nutrients remaining on the field.
• The main advantage is that the fields do not lie fallow.
• Example: On paddy fields, pulses or sesame are grown after the main crop, paddy.

Relay Cropping

• Relay cropping is the method of growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.
• Example: Cultivating vegetables before harvesting plantain.

Crop Rotation

• Crop rotation is the method of cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop. The main benefit of crop rotation is that it increases soil fertility.
• It is a suitable method for increasing soil productivity and for controlling weeds and pests.
• Example: Cultivating peas after paddy

Multi-Tier Cropping

• Multi-tier cropping is the method of cultivating crops of different heights, with different root depths and varying sunlight requirements on the same field simultaneously.
• Its advantage is that soil, water and sunlight can be used more effectively.
• Example: coconut, pepper, ginger/turmeric are cultivated simultaneously on the same farm.

Question 40.
Compare the Difference between Polyhouse Farming and Rain Shelter Farming.
Answer:
Rain Shelter Farming

• A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming.
• Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions.

Polyhouse Farming

• Polyhouse farming or Greenhouse farming is a method df artificially creating a suitable environment for plant growth by protecting the plant from heat, rain, cold and sunlight.
• This method of cultivation is done in polyhouses that are completely covered with polythene sheets.

Question 41.
Prepare a short note on the following modern agricultural trends (any four):
a. Precision Farming
b. Digital Farming
c. Organic Farming
d. Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)
Answer:
Precision Farming

• Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity.
• This method can be implemented in rain shelter and open areas.
• The advantages of this farming method are the precise use of water and nutrients, efficient use of machinery, and better management of agricultural land.
• Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Digital Farming: Digital farming is a farming method that incorporates diverse technologies. Technologies such as big data analysis tools, artificial intelligence, machine learning, digital communication technologies such as mobile phones, digital platforms, robotics, and agricultural advisory apps are used in digital farming.

Organic Farming: Organic farming is a farming method that relies on organic pesticides, compost, green manures, crop rotation, machinery, and the like. It completely avoids chemical fertilizers and synthetic chemical pesticides. Plant growth regulators and organically modified seeds are not used in this method.

Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)
Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an approach to help fanners cope with climate change. The main goals are to increase productivity and income, adapt to climate change, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 42.
Government policies play a significant role in influencing cropping patterns.” Describe four factors that support this statement?
Answer:

• Export and import of crops: A policy that encourages the export of a crop will encourage farmers to grow more of that crop.
• Taxation: Taxes imposed on certain agricultural products will affect its production.
• Credit availability: Government loans and other financial assistance for crop cultivation affect farmers’ choices.
• Subsidies: Subsidies on fertilizers, seeds, and modern equipment can help farmers choose certain cropping patterns.

Question 43.
Write the important role played by the agriculture sector in the economic, social and industrial sectors of India.
Answer:
1. Food Security: It ensures the food security of the country by providing food and fodder to the people and livestock.
2. Employment: As the largest unorganised sector in India, it provides employment to a large percentage of the people.
3. Raw materials for industries: It helps in the growth of industries by providing raw materials (cotton, sugarcane, etc.) required by industries.
4. Economic empowerment: It is the backbone of the rural economy. This sector is the source of economic empowerment of w’omen.
5. Foreign exchange: It earns foreign exchange for the country through the export of spices and agricultural products.

Question 44.
Explain five new agricultural trends and their reasons for adopting them to combat climate change and increase agricultural production.
Answer:

• Due to constant change in increasing world population, climate change, and growth of technology, the agricultural activities also change.
• The agricultural sector in India has undergone a radical transformation in the last few decades.
• The shift from traditional agricultural methods to modern agricultural methods using new technology is remarkable.
• Technology has taken on the challenges of agriculture and adopted innovative methods to increase productivity.
• The main objective of technology in the agricultural sector is to help farmers increase agricultural production.

Rain Shelter Farming

• A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming.
• Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions.

Polyhouse Farming

• Polyhouse farming or Greenhouse farming is a method df artificially creating a suitable environment for plant growth by protecting the plant from heat, rain, cold and sunlight.
• This method of cultivation is done in polyhouses that are completely covered with polythene sheets.

Precision Farming

• Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity.
• This method can be implemented in rain shelter and open areas.
• The advantages of this farming method are the precise use of water and nutrients, efficient use of machinery, and better management of agricultural land.
• Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Digital Farming: Digital farming is a farming method that incorporates diverse technologies. Technologies such as big data analysis tools, artificial intelligence, machine learning, digital communication technologies such as mobile phones, digital platforms, robotics, and agricultural advisory apps are used in digital farming.

Vertical Farming: Vertical farming is being used as a viable way to produce food in cities due to urbanisation and scarcity of agricultural land. This technology involves growing crops in vertically stacked, layered, or built-up areas. It uses hydroponic, aeroponic, and aquaponic systems to produce food year-round with minimal water use.

Organic Farming: Organic farming is a farming method that relies on organic pesticides, compost, green manures, crop rotation, machinery, and the like. It completely avoids chemical fertilizers and synthetic chemical pesticides. Plant growth regulators and organically modified seeds are not used in this method.

Question 45.
Describe the various types of agricultural markets in the country for buying and selling agricultural products.
Answer:
Agricultural Market

• An agricultural market is a system for buying and selling agricultural products.
• An efficient agricultural market is essential for the progress of agriculture.
• The main objectives of an agricultural market are to enable primary producers to earn the best possible income and to provide fair prices while maintaining the quality of agricultural products.

Farmers And Market
It is the right of the farmer to get a fair price for his products. Therefore, farmers are trying to find markets that offer the maximum price. By using online markets, marketing without intermediaries between farmers and consumers, has become possible.

Agricultural Produce Market Committee: The APMC is a board set up by the state governments of the country to protect farmers from exploitation by large-scale and retail traders. The states regulate APMC through the Agricultural Produce Marketing Regulation Act (APMR Act).

DIFFERENT TYPES OF AGRICULTURAL MARKETS

• Structured and functional markets are essential for the progress of the agricultural sector.
• Agricultural markets are classified into two categories-Organised Agricultural Market and Unorganised Agricultural Market.
• Organised agricultural markets are those that operate according to the rules and regulations of the government. They operate mainly according to the APMC rules.
• Unorganised agricultural markets are those that operate without a specific structure.
• Rural Primary Markets: Rural primary markets are markets where farmers directly sell their produce without intermediaries. They are centred in small villages and are a mechanism of exchange between individuals in the village as main sellers and consumers. Markets meet once or twice a week in open areas. For example: Village markets, Haats.
• Village Haats: Haats are markets where producers, intermediaries and consumers of a village gather to buy and sell agricultural products.
• Mandis: These are permanent wholesale markets in district headquarters and other towns for daily transactions.
• Fairs/Festivals: Fairs are markets held at pilgrimage sites and major centres only during religious festivals or local festivals.

Wholesale Markets or Secondary Wholesale Markets:
Agricultural marketing is done in the state with the support of state self-governing bodies and farmer producer organisation. This is possible through a marketing network established in urban and rural areas. Of the wholesale markets in Kerala, three function in urban areas and three in rural areas. In addition to these, five District Procurement cum Marketing Centres are also functioning. These centres, which are under the Department of Agriculture, operate as per the market rules of the Government of Kerala. Six wholesale markets have also been registered under E-Nam. Apart from these, local market outlets at various levels facilitate the marketing of agricultural produce by mobilising it directly and through farmers’ associations. Marketing is done through the marketing system of Self-help Farmers’ Committees established by VFPCK at the production centres, eliminating intermediaries.

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) is an organisation that promotes the marketing of agricultural produce and forest resources in India. Primary Agricultural Cooperative Credit Societies (PACS) strengthen rural agricultural activities by undertaking services such as integration, marketing, value addition, grading, branding and packing of agricultural products.

• Keralagro: The Department of Agriculture has started marketing of agricultural products under a unified brand ‘Keralagro’ to energise the marketing of agricultural products, thereby increasing the income of farmers and making the products available to consumers at fair prices.
• E-Nam: The National Agriculture Market is a scheme launched by the government to enable farmers to sell their products at their will. It is an online platform for agricultural products.

Practicing Chemistry Question Paper Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Set 3 English Medium helps identify strengths and weaknesses in a subject.

Chemistry Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 1 ½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instruction:

1. First fifteen minutes are cool off time. Read the questions carefully during this time:
2. Write the answers according to the instructions.
3. Consider the score while writing the answers.
4. Answer only one question for questions having choice.

Answer all the questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 1 score. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 1.
Which substance is deposited at the cathode when aqueous Sodium Chloride is electrolysed?
[Oxygen, Chlorine, Sodium, Hydrogen]

Set 1	Set 2
(a) H2C2O4	(i) Acid salts
(b) NaOH	(ii) Tribasic acid
(c) H3PO4	(iii) Alkali
(d) NH4C1	(iv) Dibasic acid

Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 2.
Match the following.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
B. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
C. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
D. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
Answer:
A. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

Question 3.
Statement 1: Roasting refers to heating the concentrated ore at a temperature below the melting point in the presence of air.
Statement 2: Calcination refers to heating the concentrated ore in limited quantities or absence of air at a temperature below the melting point. Which of the following options is true, regarding these statements?
A. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B. Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is not correct.
C. Statement 1 is not correct, but Statement 2 is correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Answer:
A. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 4.
To which category the compound CH₃ – COO – CH₃ belongs to?
a) Carboxylic acid
b) Ethene
c) alcohol
d) Ester
Answer:
d) Ester

Two questions from 5 to 11 have a choice. Each question carries 2 scores. (7 × 2 = 14)

Question 5.
Given Mass: 45 grams of water (H₂O), Molecular Mass of Water: 18 u
a) Calculate the number of moles of water molecules.
b) Calculate the number of molecules in the given mass.
Answer:
a) Number of Moles = \(\frac{45}{18}\) = 2.5moles
b) Number of Molecules = 2.5 × 6.022 × 1023
= 1.51 × 10²⁴ molecules

Question 6.
A. Which subshell is represented by each pair of the quantum number values given below?
a) n = 1, l = 0
b) n = 2, l = 1
Answer:
a) 1s
b) 2p

OR
B. Find the oxidation state of s-block elements in the following compounds.
a) Na₂O
b) KBr
Answer:
a) Sodium – +1
b) Potassium – +1

Question 7.
A student dissolves ammonium chloride (NH₄C₁) in water and finds the solution is acidic. Explain this observation by answering the following questions.
a) Identify the acid and base that react to form ammonium chloride (NH₄C₁).
b) Which is stronger, the acid or the base?
Answer:
a) The acid is Hydrochloric acid (HC1) and the base
is Ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH).
b) The acid (hydrochloric acid) is stronger.

Question 8.
Complete the table.

Metal	Method of refining	Reason for selecting the method
Lead	(a)	Low melting point
Cadmium	Distillation	(b)

Answer:
a) Liquation
b) Low boiling point

Question 9.
A. The structure of two organic compounds is given below:
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
a) Write the molecular formula of these compounds.
b) Write the structural formula of a position isomer of compound I
Answer:
a) C₂H₁₀
b) Butan – 2 – ol

OR
B. a) Write the structural formulae and IUPAC names of any two metamers of the compound
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

b) Write the molecular formula of the given compound.
Answer:

b) C₆H₁₄O

Question 10.
A student draws the arrangement of a galvanic cell as shown below. Find out if there is any mistake? If so, draw the correct picture of the galvanic cell.

Answer:
Each metal should be placed in its own salt solution; that is, the Zn rod should be dipped in ZnS04, and the Cu rod should be dipped in CuS04.If the arrangement is correct, electron flow is from Zinc to copper.

Question 11.
a) Which among the following is a condensation polymer?
(Polyvinyl chloride, nylon 66, Teflon)
b) What are the monomers of nylon 66?
Answer:
a) Nylon 66
b) Adipic acid, Hexamethylenediamine.

Two questions from 12 to 17 have a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 12.
The volume of 2 mol of hydrogen gas at 1 atm pressure and 273 K is 44.8 L.
a) Name the scientist who established the relationship between the volume and pressure of a gas through experiment.
b) What will be the new pressure if the volume of hydrogen gas is changed to 22.4 L?
c) Suggest a method to increase the volume of this gas without changing the pressure and mass.
Answer:
a) Robert Boyle
b) P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
P₁ = 1 atm
V₁ = 44.8L
V₂ = 22.4L
p₂ = p₁ V₁ /V₂
p₂ = \(frac{1 \times 44.8}{22.4}\) = 2 atm

c) Increase the temperature

Question 13.
A. The following are two facts related to the manufacture of an industrially important metal.
• The ore is treated with a hot NaOH solution.
• Electricity is used as the reducing agent to extract the metal.
(i) These facts are related to the production of which metal?
(ii) What is the reason for using electricity as the reducing agent?
(iii) Which substance is used as the electrolyte here?
Answer:
(i) Aluminium
(ii) Aluminium is a highly reactive and electropositive metal.
(iii) Molten cryolite (Na₃AlF₆)

OR
B. Corrosion is a process by which iron is converted into its oxide. This is an oxidation reaction.
(i) What is oxidation?
(ii) Complete the following chemical equation.
…. Fe + ….. Oz → …Fe₂O₃
(iii) Suggest two methods for preventing the corrosion of iron.
Answer:
(i) The process involving loss of electrons in a chemical reaction is called oxidation.

(ii) 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃

(iii)
• Painting or coating
• Galvanization

Question 14.
Analyse the equation and answer the following questions.

a) What is the name of this chemical reaction?
b) What is the name of the ester formed?
c) Write any two uses of esters.
Answer:
a) Esterification
b) Methyl ethanoate
c) Used to make artificial perfumes Used-to make juices.

Question 15.
Write the structural formula of the compounds given below.
a) Propan-l-ol
b) Propanal
c) Propanone
Answer:
a) CH₃CH₂CH₂OH
b) CH₃-CH₂-CHO
c) CH₃-CO-CH;

Question 16
(A)
a) Draw a diagram of the setup for electroplating gold onto a copper bangle and label its parts
b) What are the advantages of electroplating?
c) A picture of the arrangement of copper plating on an iron bangle is given below. What are the mistakes in this?

Answer:
a)

b) It enhances the beauty of metal Prevents corrosion

c) Copper should be connected to the positive terminal of the battery.
The iron bangle should be connected to the negative terminal of the battery.
Copper sulfate solution should be used as the electrolyte.

B. Analyse the pictur of an experiment.

a) What is the reason for the decrease in the green colour of the FeS04 solution?
b) The equation for this reaction is given below. Complete it.
Zn + FeSO₄  ____ + ZnSO₄
c) If Pb is used instead of Zn, no reaction takes place. From this, what inference regarding the reactivity of lead can be obtained?
Answer:
a) Zn displaces iron from the FeS0₄ solution.
b) Zn + FeS0₄ → Fe + ZnS0₄
c) Pb is less reactive than Zn.

Question 17.
Which of the following is’not correct in the subshell electron configuration?
a) 1s² 2s² 2p⁷
b) 1s² 2s² 2p²
c) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶3s¹
d) 1s²2s²⁶3s²3p⁶3d²4¹
e) 1s²2s²⁶3s²3p⁶3d²4²
Answer:
The incorrect subshell electron configuration is
a) ls²2s²2p⁷
c) ls²2s²2p⁵3s¹
d) ls²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d²4s¹

Question 18 has a choice. It carries 4. scores.

a) How many hydrogen molecules are required to convert CH = CH (ethyne) into C₂H₆ (ethane)?
b) Write the chemical equation of the reaction.
c) To which category does this chemical reaction belong?
d) Complete the chemical equation,
CH ≡ CH + HCl → A
Answer:
a) 2 Flydrogen molecules (4 Hydrogen atoms)
b) CH = CH + H₂ → CH₂ = CH₂ + H₂ → CH₃ – CH₃
Or (C₂H₆)
c) Addition reaction
d) CH = CH + HC1 → CH₂ = CHC1

OR
B. a) Identify A, B, C and D in the given chemical reactions.

b) What is wash?
c) How is rectified spirit obtained from the wash?
d) What is the purpose of denaturing rectified spirit?
Answer:
a) A – Invertase,
B – Fructose (C₆H₁₂O₆),
C – Zymase,
D – Carbon dioxide (2CO₂)

b) 8-10% ethanol obtained by the conversion of glucose and fructose by the action of the enzyme zymase is known as ‘wash’.

c) When wash is subjected to fractional distillation, 95.6% of ethanol is obtained. This is known as rectified spirit.

d) Ethanol is an organic compound used in the manufacture of various other organic compounds.

In such situations, toxic substances like methanol/ pyridine/rubber distillate, etc., are added to ethanol in order to prevent its misuse as a beverage. Ethanol thus obtained is called denatured spirit.

Students rely on Kerala Syllabus 10th Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium and SSLC History Chapter 9 Important Questions Malayalam Medium ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹികവ്യവസ്ഥയെ അറിയാം to help self-study at home.

Class 10 History Chapter 9 Important Questions Malayalam Medium

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 9 Important Questions Malayalam Medium

Question 1.
വ്യവസ്ഥ എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
വിവിധ വിഭാഗങ്ങളുടെ ചിട്ടയായ ക്രമീകരണമാണ് വ്യവസ്ഥ.

Question 2.
സമൂഹം എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
സാമൂഹിക നിലനിൽപ്പിനായി പരസ്പരപൂരകമായി പ്രവർത്തിക്കുന്ന വിവിധ സാമൂഹിക സ്ഥാപന ങ്ങൾ ചേർന്നതാണ് സമൂഹം.

Question 3.
ജി.എസ്. പുര ആരെന്ന് വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:
ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹശാസ്ത്രത്തിന്റെ തുടക്കക്കാരിൽ പ്രധാനി.

Question 4.
ഒരു വ്യക്തിയുടെ ജാതി നിശ്ചയിക്കപ്പെടുന്നത് എന്തിന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിലാണ് വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:
ജനനത്തിന്റെ

Question 5.
സാമൂഹിക ശ്രേണീകരണം എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
ജാതിയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിൽ സമൂഹത്തിലെ അംഗങ്ങളെ പലതട്ടുകളിലായി സ്ഥാനപ്പെടുത്തി യിരുന്നു. ഇത് സാമൂഹിക ശ്രേണീകരണം എന്ന റിയപ്പെടുന്നു.

Question 6.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥ എന്തെല്ലാം പ്രതി ഫലിപ്പിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
രാജ്യത്തിന്റെ ചരിത്രം, മൂല്യങ്ങൾ, പാരമ്പര്യങ്ങൾ

Question 7.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയിൽ ജാതിവ്യ വസ്ഥയെക്കുറിച്ച് ഉൾക്കാഴ്ച നൽകുന്ന നിരവധി പഠനങ്ങൾ നടത്തിയ ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹശാസ്ത്ര ജ്ഞൻ.
Answer:
എം.എൻ. ശ്രീനിവാസ്

Question 8.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹത്തെ ഗോത്രസമൂഹം, ഗ്രാമസമൂ ഹം, നഗര സമൂഹം എന്നിങ്ങനെ തരം തിരി ക്കുന്നതിന്റെ മാനദണ്ഡം വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:
സാമൂഹികവും സാംസ്കാരികവും ഭൂമിശാസ്ത്ര പരവുമായ സവിശേഷതകളുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തി ലാണ് ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹത്തെ തരംതിരിക്കുന്നത്.

Question 9.
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ഭാഷാവൈവിധ്യം പരിശോധിക്കുക.
Answer:
സ്വാതന്ത്ര്യം ലഭിച്ചതിനു ശേഷം ഇന്ത്യയിൽ സംസ്ഥാനങ്ങളെ പുനസംഘടിപ്പിച്ചത് ഭാഷയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിലാണ്. വ്യത്യസ്ത ഭാഷകൾ സംസാരിക്കുന്ന ജനങ്ങൾ തമ്മിൽ വ്യത്യാസങ്ങൾ നിലനിൽക്കുന്നു.

Question 10.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയിലെ ജാതിവ്യവ സ്ഥയെക്കുറിച്ച് പഠനങ്ങൾ നടത്തിയ സമൂഹശാ സ്ത്രജ്ഞർ.
Answer:
എം.എൻ. ശ്രീനിവാസ്

Question 11.
ഇന്ത്യൻ ഭരണ ഘടനയിലെ ആർട്ടിക്കിൾ 15 എന്താണ് സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്നത്?
Answer:
മതം, വർഗം, ജാതി, ലിംഗം, ജനനസ്ഥലം എന്നി വയുടെ അടിസ്ഥാനത്തിലുള്ള ഏതൊരു വിവേ ചനത്തെയും നിരോധിക്കുന്നു.

Question 12.
സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥ എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
വിവിധ സാമൂഹിക സ്ഥാപനങ്ങളെ പരസ്പരം ബന്ധിപ്പിച്ച് സമൂഹത്തിലെ ബന്ധങ്ങൾക്കും ഇട പെടലുകൾക്കും ക്രമമുണ്ടാകുന്ന വ്യവസ്ഥയാണ് സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥ. സാമൂഹിക പാരമ്പര്യങ്ങ ളുടെ ചിട്ടയായ ക്രമീകരണമായി സാമൂഹിക വ്യവ സ്ഥയെ കാണാവുന്നതാണ്.

Question 13.
ഒരു സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥ എപ്പോഴാണ് രൂപം കൊള്ളുന്നത്?
Answer:
സമൂഹത്തിന്റെ ഓരോ ഘടകങ്ങളും പരസ്പരാ ശയത്തോടെയും യോജിച്ചും പ്രവർത്തിക്കുമ്പോ ഴാണ് ഒരു സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥ രൂപപ്പെടുന്നത്.

Question 14.
ഹെർബർട്ട് പെൻസറെക്കുറിച്ച് ഒരു കുറിപ്പ് തയ്യാറാക്കുക.
Answer:
സമൂഹത്തെ ഒരു ജീവവ്യവസ്ഥയുമായി താരതമ്യം ചെയ്ത സമൂഹശാസ്ത്രജ്ഞനാണ് ഹെർബർട്ട് സ്പെൻസർ. മനുഷ്യശരീര വ്യവസ്ഥയും സാമൂ ഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയും തമ്മിലുള്ള സാമ്യം അവതരി പ്പിച്ചുകൊണ്ട് സമൂഹം ഒരു സാമൂഹിക ജീവി യാണ് എന്ന ആശയം മുന്നോട്ടുവച്ചു.

Question 15.
സ്വവിവാഹം, അന്യഗണ വിവാഹം എന്നിവ വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:

1. സ്വഗണ വിവാഹം – സ്വന്തം ജാതിയിൽ നിന്നുള്ള വിവാഹം
2. അന്യഗണ വിവാഹം – മറ്റ് ജാതിയിൽ നിന്നു ളള വിവാഹം

Question 16.
ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം എന്നതു കൊണ്ടർ ത്ഥമാ ക്കുന്നതെന്ത്?
Answer:
വ്യത്യസ്ത പശ്ചാത്തല, പ്രദേശം, ഭാഷ, മതം, സംസ്കാരം എന്നിവ പിൻതുടരുന്ന ജനങ്ങളെ അവരുടെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളെ മാനിച്ചുകൊണ്ടുതന്നെ ഏകീകൃതവും സൗഹാർദ്ദപരവുമായ ഒരു രാഷ്ട്ര ത്തിലേക്ക് കൊണ്ടു വരുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് ദേശീ യോദ്ഗ്രഥനം.

Question 17.
വൈവിധ്യം, ബഹുസ്വരത എന്നിവ താരതമ്യം ചെയ്യുക.
Answer:
ബഹുസ്വരത:- വ്യത്യസ്തയുള്ള കാര്യങ്ങൾ ഒരു മിച്ച് സഹവർത്തിക്കുന്നതിനെയാണ് ബഹുസ്വരത എന്ന് വാക്ക് അർത്ഥമാക്കുന്നത്.
വൈവിധ്യം:- വൈവിധ്യം എന്നാൽ വ്യത്യസ്തത കളാണ്.

Question 18.
സാമൂഹികരണ പ്രക്രിയയിൽ മതങ്ങൾ വഹി ക്കുന്ന പങ്ക് വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:
ഓരോ മതവും മാനവിക മൂല്യങ്ങളായ സത്യസ ന്ധത, അനുപാതം, പരസ്പര ബഹുമാനം, പര സ്പര സ്നേഹം, കരുതൽ, സാമൂഹിക ഉത്തരവാ ദിത്വം, നീതിബോധം, ധാർമ്മികത എന്നിവ പഠിപ്പി ക്കുകയും അതുവഴി സാമൂഹികരണ പ്രക്രിയയെ സമ്പുഷ്ടമാക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.

Question 19.
ഇന്ത്യൻ ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം എന്നാലെന്ത്?
Answer:
സാംസ്കാരികവും ഭാഷാപരവും മതപരവുമായി വൈവിധ്യം പുലർത്തുന്ന ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹത്തെ അവരുടെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളെ മാനിച്ചു കൊണ്ടു തന്നെ ഒരു ദേശീയസ്വത്വത്തിലേക്ക് ഒന്നിപ്പിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് ഇന്ത്യൻ ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം.

Question 20.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയുടെ സവിശേഷ തകൾ വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:

1. ജാതിവ്യവസ്ഥ
2. മതം
3. ഭാഷ
4. ഗോത്രസമൂഹം
5. ഗ്രാമനഗര സമൂഹങ്ങൾ

Question 21.
ഇന്ത്യൻ ബഹുസ്വരതയ്ക്ക് വിഘാതമാകുന്ന ഘട കങ്ങൾ പട്ടികപ്പെടുത്തുക.
Answer:

1. ഭാഷാ ന്യൂനപക്ഷങ്ങളുടെ പ്രശ്നങ്ങൾ
2. ഗോത്രജനതയുടെ പ്രശ്നങ്ങൾ
3. മതേതരത്വത്തിന് വിഘാതമാകുന്ന ഘടകങ്ങൾ

Question 22.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയിൽ മതങ്ങളുടെ പങ്ക് പരിശോധിക്കുക.
Answer:

1. സാമൂഹിക നിയന്ത്രണത്തിന്റെ ഉപാധി
2. സാംസ്കാരിക വൈവിധ്യത്തെ സമ്പുഷ്ടമാ ക്കുന്നു.
3. സാമൂഹിക മാറ്റത്തിന് ആക്കം കൂട്ടുന്നു.

Question 23.
ഇന്ത്യൻ സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയിൽ ഭാഷകൾ വഹിക്കുന്ന പങ്ക് ചർച്ച ചെയ്യുക.
Answer:

1. സാംസ്കാരിക പാരമ്പര്യങ്ങളെ ജൈവികമാ ക്കുന്നു.
2. സ്വത്വബോധം നൽകുന്നു.
3. സാംസ്കാരിക വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളോടുളള ബഹു മാനവും സഹവർത്തിത്വവും വളർത്തുന്നു.

Question 24.
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ഗോത്ര ജനത അസമത്വത്തിനെതി രായി നടത്തിയ പ്രതിരോധങ്ങൾ പട്ടികപ്പെടു ത്തുക.
Answer:

1. മുണ്ടകലാപം
2. സന്താൾ കലാപം
3. കുറിച്യ കലാപം

Question 25.
ഒരു സാമൂഹിക വ്യവസ്ഥയുടെ രൂപപ്പെടലിന് സഹായകമായ ഘടകങ്ങൾ ഏതെല്ലാം?
Answer:

1. വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം
2. ഗതാഗതം
3. മാധ്യമങ്ങൾ
4. ആശയവിനിമയം
5. നിയമം
6. നീതിന്യായവ്യവസ്ഥ
7. ആരോഗ്യസുരക്ഷ സംവിധാനങ്ങൾ
8. മത-സാംസ്കാരിക സ്ഥാപനങ്ങൾ

Question 26.
ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനത്തിന്റെ പ്രത്യേകതകൾ വ്യക്ത മാക്കുക.
Answer:

ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം

• വ്യത്യസ്ത പശ്ചാത്തലം, പ്രദേശം, ഭാഷ, മതം, സംസ്കാരം എന്നിവ പിന്തുടരുന്ന ജനങ്ങളെ അവരുടെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളെ മാനിച്ചുകൊണ്ടുതന്നെ ഏകീകൃതവും സൗഹാർദപരവുമായ ഒരു രാഷ്ട്രത്തിലേക്ക് കൊണ്ടുവരുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം (National Integration).
• വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളെ മാനിക്കുന്നതോടൊപ്പം പൗരർക്കിടയിലുള്ള സ്വത്വബോധത്തിനും ഐക്യദാർഢ്യത്തിനും പൊതുസ്വത്വത്തിനും അത് ഊന്നൽ നൽകുന്നു. സാംസ്കാരികവും ഭാഷാപരവും മതപരവുമായി വൈവിധ്യം പുലർത്തുന്ന ഇന്ത്യൻ സമൂഹത്തെ അവരുടെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളെ മാനിച്ചു കൊണ്ടു തന്നെ ഒരു ദേശീയസ്വത്വത്തിലേക്ക് ഒന്നിപ്പിക്കുന്ന പ്രക്രിയയാണ് ഇന്ത്യൻ ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനം.

നാനാത്വത്തിൽ ഏകത്വം പ്രോത്സാഹിപ്പിക്കുന്ന ആഘോഷങ്ങൾ ഇന്ത്യയുടെ ദേശീയോദ്ഗ്രഥനത്തിന് പ്രചോദനമാണ്. അരികുവൽക്കരിക്കപ്പെട്ട വിഭാഗങ്ങളെ ഉൾച്ചേർക്കുന്നതും സമൂഹത്തിലെ എല്ലാ വിഭാഗങ്ങൾക്കും തുല്യപങ്കാളിത്തവും പ്രാതിനിധ്യവും ഉറപ്പുനൽകുന്നതുമായ ഒരു ജനാധിപത്യക്രമമാണ് ഇന്ത്യയുടെത്. ഇന്ത്യയിലുടനീളം ഒരുമിച്ച് ആഘോഷിക്കുന്ന വിവിധ ഉത്സവങ്ങളും ആഘോഷപരിപാടികളുമെല്ലാം സമൂഹത്തിൽ സഹവർത്തിത്വവും സഹിഷ്ണുതയും ഉറപ്പുവരുത്തുന്നു.

അതോടൊപ്പം മതഭാഷാന്യൂനപക്ഷങ്ങളെ സംരക്ഷിക്കുന്ന നിയമവ്യവസ്ഥയും പ്രകടമായ മതനിരപേക്ഷതയും സമത്വം പോലുള്ള ഭരണഘടനാമൂല്യങ്ങളെ ശക്തിപ്പെടുത്തുകയും ചെയ്യുന്നു.

Question 27.
ഇന്ത്യയുടെ സാംസ്കാരിക സംരക്ഷണത്തിൽ ഗോത്രസമൂഹം വഹിക്കുന്ന പങ്ക് വിലയിരുത്തുക.
Answer:

1. പരമ്പരാഗത അറിവ് സംരക്ഷിക്കുന്നു.
2. സുസ്ഥിര ജീവിതം ഉറപ്പാക്കുന്നു.
3. അസമത്വത്തിനെതിരായ പ്രതിരോധം തീർക്കുന്നു.
4. കലയും സംസ്കാരവും സംരക്ഷിക്കുന്നു.

Question 28.
ഗ്രാമസമൂഹം, നഗരസമൂഹം എന്നിവ തമ്മിലുള്ള വ്യത്യാസം ചൂണ്ടി കാണിക്കുക.
Answer:
ഗ്രാമസമൂഹം

1. കൃഷി
2. പാരമ്പര്യ ജീവിതരീതികൾ
3. ചെറുകിട വ്യവസായങ്ങൾ
4. ഇഴയടുപ്പമുള്ള ബന്ധങ്ങൾ
5. കാർഷിക സമ്പദ് വ്യവസ്ഥയുടെ നട്ടെല്ല്
6. പരസ്പര ബന്ധങ്ങൾക്കും സാമൂഹിക സഹ കരണത്തിനും ഊന്നൽ

നഗരസമൂഹം

1. വിവിധ സേവനങ്ങൾ
2. ആധുനിക അടിസ്ഥാന സൗകര്യങ്ങൾ
3. വേഗതയേറിയ ജീവിതരീതികൾ
4. സാംസ്കാരിക കൈമാറ്റം
5. വൈവിധ്യമാർന്ന മനുഷ്യസമൂഹം
6. വ്യവസായവൽക്കരണത്തെ പ്രോത്സാഹിപ്പി ക്കുന്നു.
7. ആധുനിക തൊഴിലവസരങ്ങൾ

Question 29.
ഇന്ത്യയിൽ നിലനിന്ന ജാതിവ്യവസ്ഥയുടെ പ്രധാന സവിശേഷതകൾ വ്യക്തമാക്കുക.
Answer:

1. തൊഴിൽ വിഭജനം
2. സാമൂഹിക ശ്രേണീകരണം
3. സാമൂഹിക നിയന്ത്രണവും ക്രമവും
4. വിവാഹ നിയന്ത്രണങ്ങൾ
5. അസമത്വവും അരികുവൽക്കരണവും

Question 30.
സമൂഹത്തിലെ വൈവിധ്യം, ബഹുസ്വരത എന്നിവ തമ്മിലുള്ള വ്യത്യാസം എഴുതുക.
Answer:

• സമൂഹത്തിലെ വൈവിധ്യം എന്നതുകൊണ്ട് ഉദ്ദേശിക്കുന്നത് സമൂഹത്തിനുള്ളിൽ നില നിൽക്കുന്ന വ്യത്യസ്തതകളെയാണ്.
• എന്നാൽ ബഹുസ്വരത ഈ വൈവിധ്യ ങ്ങൾക്കതീതമായി വിവിധ സംഘങ്ങൾ തമ്മി ലുള്ള ആശയവിനിമയം, പരസ്പര ബഹുമാ നം, പരസ്പര സ്നേഹം, പരസ്പര സൗഹാർദ്ദം എന്നിവ പ്രോത്സാഹിപ്പിക്കുന്നു.
• വൈവിധ്യം സ്വാഭാവികമായി നിലനിൽക്കുന്നതാണെങ്കിൽ ബഹുസ്വരത ബോധപൂർവ്വമായി സൃഷ്ടി ച്ചെടുക്കേണ്ട ഒന്നാണ്.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 11 Feudalism and the Medieval World Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Feudalism and the Medieval World Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 11 Kerala Syllabus

Feudalism and the Medieval World Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from B which is suitable for A.

A	B
Feudalism	i. A piece of land
	ii. Feud
	iii. German word
	iv. Originated in France

A. ii and iii are correct
B. iii and iv are correct
C. i and iii are correct
D. i, ii, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
i, ii, iii and iv are correct

Question 2.
What are the three orders in the feudal system?
Answer:
Clergy, Nobles, Peasants

Question 3.
Define the term Frankish Empire.
Answer:
The Western Roman Empire was later conquered by the Franks, a tribe in Europe. They founded the Frankish Empire.

Question 4.
The most famous ruler Frankish Empire was
Answer:
Charlemagne

Question 5.
Complete ‘b’ by understanding the relationship in ‘a’ from the given.
a) Western Roman Empire: Rome
b) Eastern Roman Empire:
Answer:
Constantinople

Question 6.
The famous emperor of the Eastern Roman Empire was
Answer:
Justinian

Question 7.
What was the Corpus Juris Civilis, and what were its three main parts?
Answer:
The Corpus Juris Civilis was a collection of Roman laws compiled under Emperor Justinian. Its three main parts were: Digest, Code, and Institutes.

Question 8.
What is Hijra?
Answer:
In 622 CE, Prophet Muhammad and his followers fled from Mecca to Medina. This is known as the Hijra.

Question 9.
Choose the correct option from the following.
Assertion (A): Genghis Khan united the Mongol tribes and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire.
Reason (R): The Mongols were nomadic people who travelled in search of pastures.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Arrange the following Caliphs in chronological order.
i) Umar
ii) Ali
iii) Abu Bakr
iv) Uthman
A. ii – i – iii – iv
B. iii – iv – ii – ii
C. i – iv – ii – iii
D. iii – i – iv – ii
Answer:
D. iii – i – iv – ii

Question 11.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Mali Empire?
A. Genghis Khan
B. Mansa Kangan Musa
C. Abdul Abbas
D. Muawiya
Answer:
B. Mansa Kangan Musa

Question 12.
Which are the ancient civilizations held in America?
Answer:
The Aztecs, the Mayans, and the Incas were the civilisations that existed in America.

Question 13.
Match the following.

a. Karakoram	i. Postal system
b. Yam	ii. Capital of Mongol
c. Yasa	iii. Code of law

A. a-ii, b-i, c-iii
B. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
C. a-iii, b-i, c-ii
D. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
Answer:
A. a-ii, b-i, c-iii

Question 14.
What were the two categories of peasants in the feudal system?
Answer:
The third order had two divisions: Independent peasants and slaves.

Question 15.
How was the Roman Empire later divided into two?
Answer:

• Western Roman Empire
• Eastern Roman Empire

Question 16.
Explain Justinian’s Law.
Answer:
Justinian was a famous ruler of the Eastern Roman Empire. Justinian’s greatest contribution to the world was the Code of Justinian. A committee of jurists was formed to codify the laws, jurisprudence, and legal edicts that existed in the empire and to create a distinct law. The law thus compiled was the Corpus Juris Civilis. It had three parts: Digest, Code, Institute.

Question 17.
What is meant by Carolingian Renaissance?
Answer:
The Pope crowned Charlemagne as the first Holy Roman Emperor. Therefore, this empire is also known as the Holy Roman Empire. The architectural style of this period is known as the Carolingian style. The cognitive progress during the reign of Charlemagne is known as the Carolingian Renaissance.

Question 18.
Define Carolingian Style of Architecture.
Answer:
The Carolingian style was a combination of Byzantine and ancient Roman styles. Its characteristics include arched doorways, domes, and mosaic floors.

Question 19.
Define the term feudalism?
Answer:
Feudalism was an economic, social, and political system that emerged in medieval Europe following the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. The word ‘feudalism’ is derived from the German word ‘feud,’ which means ‘a piece of land.’ Feudalism, which originated in France, later spread to England and Italy.

Question 20.
What are the conditions of peasants during feudal period?
Answer:

• They did not have their own land
• They had to work on the farms and in the houses of the nobles * They did not receive wages
• They could not leave the land without the permission of the noble

Question 21.
Why Frankish empire is known as Holy Roman Empire?
Answer:
Holy Roman Empire

• The Western Roman Empire was later conquered by the Franks, a tribe in Europe. They founded the Frankish Empire. The most famous ruler of this empire was Charlemagne.
• When Pope Leo III was expelled from Rome by his enemies, Charlemagne defeated them and restored him as Pope.
• In return, the Pope crowned Charlemagne as the first Holy Roman Emperor. Therefore, this empire is also known as the Holy Roman Empire. The architectural style of this period is known as the Carolingian style. The cognitive progress during the reign of Charlemagne is known as the Carolingian Renaissance.
• Carolingian Style of Architecture: The Carolingian style was a combination of Byzantine and ancient Roman styles. Its characteristics include arched doorways, domes, and mosaic floors.

Question 22.
Explain the significance of the Eastern Roman Empire (Byzantine Empire) after the fall of the Western Roman Empire.
Answer:
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Eastern Roman Empire emerged as a powerful centre of culture and administration. Its capital was Constantinople, earlier known as Byzantium. The empire preserved Roman traditions, laws, art, and architecture, and became a bridge between the ancient and medieval worlds. It is therefore known as the Byzantine Empire.

Question 23.
By the Nth century, feudalism began to collapse. Give reasons for this.
Answer:

• Climate change
• Strengthening of monarchy
• Spread of the pandemic, known as the plague or Black Death
• Invention of gunpowder
• Crusades
• Scarcity of metal coins

Question 24.
Explain the contributions of Arabs to the world.
Answer:
Arab Contributions To The World

• The Arab people were the ones who had built a unique culture. They had an efficient government, a postal system and a tax collection system. They were able to achieve a lot of progress in the field of education. The universities in Baghdad, Damascus, Cairo, and Cordoba are examples of this.
• It was the Arabs who contributed algebra and Arabic numerals to the world. Zero, which was the contribution of India was spread to the whole world by the Arabs.
• The Arabs were also the inventors of many chemical processes in chemistry. They were also the inventors of optics.
• They had knowledge about tuberculosis, smallpox, stomach cancer, and plague. The Thousand and One Nights is a famous book in Arabic literature.

Scientists/Litterateur	Field	Books
Alrazi	Medicine	Kithab-Al-Hawi
Avicenna (Ibn Sina)	Medicine	Al-Qanun Fittib
Al-Biruni	Geology	Tahqiq ma lil-Hind
Umar Khayyam	Literature	Rubaiyyat
Firdausi	Literature	Shahnama

Question 25.
Distinguish between Umayyad and Abbasids dynasty.
Answer:
Umayyad Dynasty
Muawiya, the governor of Syria seized power following the insecurity that arose after the death of the fourth caliph, Ali. The dynasty he founded was the Umayyad Dynasty. They moved the capital to Damascus in Syria. Abd al-Malik, the caliph of the Umayyad dynasty, emphasised Arabhood.

Abbasids
The Abbasid dynasty came into pow er under the leadership of Abul Abbas by overthrowing the Umayyad dynasty. They moved the capital from Damascus to Baghdad. The most important poet and scholar among them was Harun al-Rashid.

Question 26.
Describe the lifestyle of the Mongols and explain how Genghis Khan played an important role in uniting them.
Answer:
Mongol Empire

• The Mongols were a nomadic tribe that lived in the eastern part of Central Asia.
• The capital of the Mongols was Karakoram.

This tribe travelled on horseback in search of pastures during the day and lived in tents at night. Genghis Khan united the various Mongol tribes which had been fighting each other for a long time, and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire. His real name was Temujin. The name Genghis Khan was given to him by the Mongol tribal council. Genghis Khan started a postal system to connect different parts of the country. This was known as ‘Yam.’ Horses were used for the efficient functioning of this system. He also introduced a code of law called ‘Yasa.’

Question 27.
Write a note on early civilization of America.
Answer:
Aztecs

• In the 12th century, the Aztecs migrated to the Valley of Mexico.
• Aztec society was hierarchical. Their capital was Tenochtitlan.

They built artificial islands called Chinampas in the lakes of Mexico. This is an example of their construction skills. They gave importance to agriculture and cultivated corn, beans, squash, pumpkins, cassava, and potatoes. In addition to this, they were also engaged in trade and handicrafts. They used coins made of metals such as gold, copper, and tin. They gave importance to education. Educational institutions called Calmecac were built for the children of the nobles and Tepochcalli for the children of other classes.

Mayans
The Mayan civilisation developed in Mexico between the 11th and 14th centuries.

The Mayans cleared the jungle and cultivated maize. They built palaces and temples with stones. They made gold and silver jewellery and beautiful pottery. They used pictographic alphabet. They used bark of trees and paper made from a special plant for writing. They made significant progress in mathematics and astronomy and had an almanac.

Incas

• The Inca civilisation of Peru was the largest indigenous civilisation in South America.
• A centralised imperial rule prevailed there. The king was the supreme ruler.
• The capital was Cuzco.

The city had temples, palaces, and beautiful houses made of stone. The capital was connected to different parts of the country by means of roads. Machu Picchu, located at an altitude of 3,500 metres in central Peru, is an example of their construction skills. They made jewellery using gold, silver, and copper. They used the skins of animals such as llamas and alpaca to weave woollen clothes. The government provided farmers with enough land to cultivate. The main crops were com and potatoes. They used a system of recording numbers called quipu. The Spanish colonisation of America destroyed these cultures.

Chinampas
Chinampas are artificial islands built in the lakes of Mexico. The islands were built by covering reeds with mud and planting crops on them. Palaces and pyramids were built on these islands.

Question 28.
Describe the rise of Arab civilisation from the time of Prophet Muhammad to the Caliphate, and explain the major dynasties that ruled after him.
Answer:
Caliphate Rule
The successors of Prophet Muhammad who came to power after his death were known as caliphs. Their rule is called the Caliphate. A caliph was both the religious leader of Islam and the head of the Arab state. During the period of the first four calijfhs, the capital of the Arab Empire was Medina.

Umayyad Dynasty
Muawiya, the governor of Syria seized power following the insecurity that arose after the death of the fourth caliph, Ali. The dynasty he founded was the Umayyad Dynasty. They moved the capital to Damascus in Syria. Abd al-Malik, the caliph of the Umayyad dynasty, emphasised Arabhood.

Abbasids
The Abbasid dynasty came into pow er under the leadership of Abul Abbas by overthrowing the Umayyad dynasty. They moved the capital from Damascus to Baghdad. The most important poet and scholar among them was Harun al- Rashid.

Arab Contributions To The World

• The Arab people were the ones who had built a unique culture. They had an efficient government, a postal system and a tax collection system. They were able to achieve a lot of progress in the field of education. The universities in Baghdad, Damascus, Cairo, and Cordoba are examples of this.
• It was the Arabs who contributed algebra and Arabic numerals to the world. Zero, which was the contribution of India was spread to the whole world by the Arabs.
• The Arabs were also the inventors of many chemical processes in chemistry. They were also the inventors of optics.
• They had knowledge about tuberculosis, smallpox, stomach cancer, and plague. The Thousand and One Nights is a famous book in Arabic literature.

Scientists/Litterateur	Field	Books
Alrazi	Medicine	Kithab-Al-Hawi
Avicenna (Ibn Sina)	Medicine	Al-Qanun Fittib
Al-Biruni	Geology	Tahqiq ma lil-Hind
Umar Khayyam	Literature	Rubaiyyat
Firdausi	Literature	Shahnama

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 10 Europe on the World Map Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Europe on the World Map Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 10 Kerala Syllabus

Europe on the World Map Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Who is the famous Malayalam writer who wrote the book ‘Innathe Europe’?
a. M. T. Vasudevan Nair
b. O. V. Vijayan
c. S. K. Pottekkatt
d. Vaikom Muhammed Basheer
Answer:
c. S. K. Pottekkatt

Question 2.
Which major ocean is located to the west of the continent of Europe?
a. Indian Ocean
b. Atlantic Ocean
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Arctic Ocean
Answer:
b. Atlantic Ocean

Question 3.
How many square kilometers is the approximate area of Europe?
a. 95,50,000 square kilometers
b. 1,15,00,000 square kilometers
c. 85,00,000 square kilometers
d. 1,03,55,000 square kilometers
Answer:
d. 1,03,55,000 square kilometers

Question 4.
Which continent is located to the east of Europe?
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. North America
d. Australia
Answer:
b. Asia

Question 5.
Which index is prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of the countries of the world?
a. Human Development Index
b. Happiness Index ,
c. Gender Equality Index
d. Poverty Index
Answer:
a. Human Development Index

Question 6.
What are the two main human factors that are attributed to the success of the Finnish people?
a. Natural resources and agricultural prosperity
b. Political stability and foreign aid
c. Low education and unemployment
d. Willpower and hard work
Answer:
d. Willpower and hard work

Question 7.
In which year was S. K. Pottekkat’s book ‘Innathe Europe’ published?
a. 1947
b. 1955
c. 1962
d. 1970
Answer:
b. 1955

Question 8.
Which ocean lies to the north of Europe?
a. Aleutian Sea
b. Indian Ocean
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Arctic Ocean
Answer:
d. Arctic Ocean

Question 9.
Assertion (A) Finland is very ahead in the happiness index and the human development index.
Reason (R) The Finnish people have the willpower and hard work to overcome the adverse climate and terrain and lead towards development.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A) The countries of Europe can be a model for the world in terms of development.
Reason (R) These countries have only excellent natural resources and a favourable climate for development.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): The Human Development Index (HDI) is a standard for measuring the development of countries in the world.
Reason (R): The HDI is prepared by the United Nations.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Many countries with better climate, geography and natural resources lag behind Finland in the happiness index.
Reason (R): The development and happiness of a country are largely determined by the willpower and hard work of its people.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A

Question 13.
Match the following by analyzing the borders of Europe.

A	B
1. North	(a) Mediterranean Sea
2. East	(b) Atlantic Ocean
3. West	(c) Asia
4. South	(d) Arctic Ocean

A. 1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(c), 4-(b)
B. 1 -(c), 2-(b), 3-(a), 4-(d)
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)
D. 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c)
Answer:
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)

Question 14.
Match the following

A	B
1. S.K Pottekkat	(a) World Development Index
2. Dimension of Europe	(b) Published in 1955
3. HDI	(c) 1,03,55,000 Square Kilometer
4. Innathe Europe	(d) Malavalam Travel Writer

A. 1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(c), 4-(b)
B. 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c)
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(b)
D. 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(d), 4-(a)
Answer:
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(b)

Question 15.
State the four main boundaries (direction and area bounded) of the continent of Europe.
Answer:

• North: Arctic Ocean
• West: Atlantic Ocean
• South: Mediterranean Sea
• East: Asia

Question 16.
Which international organisation prepares the Human Development Index (HDI)? What is the main objective of this index?
Answer:

• Organisation: United Nations
• Objective: The main objective is to provide a standard for assessing and comparing the development level of countries in the world by including human factors such as education and health, beyond economic factors

Question 17.
What is the area of Europe? What is its location compared to the world’s area?
Answer:
The area of Europe is approximately 1,03,55,000 square kilometres. Compared to the world’s landmass, Europe is one of the smaller continents (7% of the world’s area).

Question 18.
“Finland’s development achievements became a model for the world.” Elucidate the statement.
Answer:
Despite having a favourable climate and no natural resources, Finland has managed to overcome adverse climate and terrain to reach a high level of development (Happiness Index, HDI). This achievement makes Finland a model for the world.

Question 19.
Happiness Index and Human Development Index (HDI) – How do European countries rank in both these indices?
Answer:
European countries (such as Finland) consistently rank well in both these indices, including in the top ten. This indicates a better standard of living and development for their people.

Question 20.
What is Eurasia?
Answer:
Eurasia is a vast landmass that includes Asia and Europe. Europe is considered the western extension of Asia.

Question 21.
What are the major boundaries that separate Europe from Asia?
Answer:
The major natural boundaries that separate Europe from Asia are:

• Ural Mountains
• Black Sea
• Caspian Sea

Question 22.
“The area of Europe (1,03,55,000 sq km)”. What does it indicate?
Answer:
The area of Europe is small compared to other continents. This area indicates:

• Europe is one of the smallest continents in the world.
• In a small land area, high population density and urbanization are likely to occur.
• This area reminds us of the importance of overcoming geographical limitations with human capacity.

Question 23.
How do the Arctic Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean, which border Europe, affect European countries?
Answer:

• Arctic Ocean (north): Causes severe cold and harsh weather in northern European countries. This makes life difficult and requires hard work.
• Atlantic Ocean (west): Provides Europe with a vast coastline. It facilitates commercial shipping and fishing. In addition, factors such as the North Atlantic Current help moderate the climate in Western Europe.

Question 24.
How do Europe and Asia share an eastern border? What is the geographical significance of this region?
Answer:
Asia is located to the east of Europe, and together they form a large landmass called Eurasia. They share a continental border. This border (mainly the Ural Mountains and the Ural River) serves as a geographical and cultural transition zone. This border has a significant influence on the politics and trade of the eastern European countries.

Question 25.
Explain that ‘willpower and hard work’ are the basis of development using the example of Finland.
Answer:
Countries like Finland have an adverse climate and geography. However, their high ranking in development indices proves that development does not depend solely on natural resources or favourable conditions.

1. Strong Willpower: The determination of the people to face challenges and achieve their goals.
2. Hard Work: The hard work they put in to make this determination a reality.
   The message is that these two human factors are the real capital that leads a country to success.

Question 26.
What is the historical and geographical role of the Mediterranean Sea on the southern border of Europe?
Answer:

• Geographical: It provides the countries of southern Europe with a mild Mediterranean climate. This is favourable for shipping and agriculture.
• Historical: The Mediterranean region was the cradle of ancient Greek and Roman civilizations. This sea was a major trade route connecting Europe, North Africa, and Asia. It played a crucial role in the cultural and political growth of Europe.

Question 27.
Considering the location of Europe on the world map, can Europe be described as a ‘peninsula of peninsulas’? Why?
Answer:
Yes.

• Borders of Europe: Europe is surrounded by oceans on three sides (the Arctic in the north, the Atlantic in the west, Mediterranean in the south). Therefore, it is like a large peninsula of the Asian continent.
• Peninsulas: Within it, there are many smaller peninsulas, such as Italy, the Iberian Peninsula, Scandinavian Peninsula.
• Therefore, Europe can be described as a peninsula of peninsulas.

Question 28.
What are the underlying factors that have led European countries to rank high in indices, including the Human Development Index (HDI)?
Answer:

• Importance of education and health: Good public health systems and universal education.
• Social security schemes: A strong social safety net that ensures the well-being of citizens.
• Transparent and efficient governance: A less corrupt and efficient governance system.
• Citizen participation: The role played by the people in nation-building through high willpower and hard work.

Question 29.
What is the relationship between the Human Development Index (HDI) and the World Happiness Index?
Answer:
Relationship: Both provide a comprehensive picture of a country’s progress. Generally, countries that rank high on the HDI also rank high on the Happiness Index.

• Difference: The HDI focuses primarily on development (health, education, income). The Happiness Index measures people’s self-esteem and life satisfaction (Subjective Well-being).
• Finland Example: Finland’s high ranking suggests that basic development (HDI) and people’s subjective well-being (happiness) go hand in hand.

Question 30.
What are the major Geographical divisions of Europe?
Answer:
Geographical Features
Europe has a diverse topography. The topography of Europe can be classified as follows:

• North Western Highlands
• Central Uplands
• North European Plains
• Alpine Mountain system

Question 31.
Explain the features of north western Highlands.
Answer:
North Western Highlands

• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long¬term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places.
• Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

FJORDS
‘IT’ shaped valleys are valleys formed in a ‘U’ shape by the process of glacial erosion. Fjords are glacial valleys formed in this way on the coasts of high latitudes. Planktons grow abundantly in fjords where warm and cold-water currents meet. These areas are rich in fish as they come to feed on the planktons. Therefore, the Scandinavian region is famous for fishing.

Question 32.
Analyse the statement that “development is based on willpower and hard work rather than natural resources, using the example of Finland”.
Answer:
Land Of Happiness

• Finland topped the United Nations World Happiness Index in 2024. This is the seventh consecutive time that Finland has achieved this feat.
• Countries such as Norway, Sweden, Denmark and Iceland which experience Scandinavian topography and Arctic climate, are all in the top ten of the World Happiness Index, behind Finland.

In addition, these countries also ranked highly on the Human Development Index prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of countries in the world. Many countries with favourable climate, topography, and natural resources are behind Finland in the happiness index. The will and hard work of the Finnish people to overcome adverse climate and topography and leap towards development can be set as an example to the world.

How Is The Happiness Index Prepared?
The happiness index is prepared based on six factors: Per Capita Income, social support, healthy life. expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption.

Question 33.
What is the relevance of assessing the level of development of countries in the world using the Human Development Index (HDI)?
Answer:
HDI provides a comprehensive view of development, which is its relevance.
1. Multidimensional measure: Measures three main dimensions: income (economic status), life expectancy (health), and educational attainment (knowledge).

2. Beyond economic values: Evaluates how that growth is reflected in people’s lives, rather than just looking at economic growth (such as GDP).

3. Policy significance: It encourages countries to pay more attention to health and education in their development policies. A low HDI rank helps the government of that country shift its focus to citizen welfare.

Question 34.
“The four main borders of the European continent influence the lifestyle and culture of European countries.” Elucidate the statement.
Answer:

• North (Arctic Ocean): Due to the harsh cold, the people of Northern Europe became less dependent on nature and more focused on technology and social security systems.
• West (Atlantic Ocean): The Atlantic Ocean opened the door to new worlds for Europe. This led to colonisation and large-scale trade, and helped European culture spread around the world.
• South (Mediterranean Sea): The Mediterranean region maintained a temperate climate. This encouraged agriculture, ports, and shipping since ancient times, and laid the foundation for Western culture.
• East (Asia): Sharing a border with the Asian continent has led to cultural exchange and often political conflicts in Eastern Europe.

Question 35.
Write a note on the Alpine Mountain ranges.
Answer:
Alpine Mountain System

• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians.
• Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

FOLD MOUNTAINS: The lithosphere, the outermost layer of the Earth composed of the crust, and the upper part of the mantle, is generally solid. The lithosphere is made up of irregularly shaped plates. These plates are several thousand kilometers wide and have an average thickness of 100 kilometres. Fold Mountains are mountains formed by the folding of rock layers at plate boundaries where plates collide with each other. Example: The Himalayas.

Question 36.
Explain the formation and characteristics of the North European Plains.
Answer:
North European Plains

• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there.
• The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

Glaciation And Weathering
Glaciers are moving mass of ice. As a result of their movement, different landforms are created and the surface is changed. This process is called glaciation. Weathering is the physical, chemical, or biological decomposition or disintegration of rocks on the Earth’s surface.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence the climate of Europe? How do they contribute to the temperate climate in the south and west?
Answer:
The main factors that influence the climate of Europe are:
1. Latitude

2. Topography

3. Proximity to the Sea

• The southern and western parts of Europe experience a temperate climate mainly due to the influence of the ocean.
• However, the northern and eastern parts experience a dry winter climate due to the high latitude and the influence of mountains.

Question 38.
Describe the four major geographical divisions of Europe and give examples of each.
Answer:
North Western Highlands

• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long¬term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places.
• Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

FJORDS
‘IT shaped valleys are valleys formed in a ‘U’ shape by the process of glacial erosion. Fjords are glacial valleys formed in this way on the coasts of high latitudes. Planktons grow abundantly in fjords where warm and cold-water currents meet. These areas are rich in fish as they come to feed on the planktons. Therefore, the Scandinavian region is famous for fishing.

North European Plains

• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there.
• The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

Glaciation And Weathering
Glaciers are moving mass of ice. As a result of their movement, different landforms are created and the
surface is changed. This process is called glaciation. Weathering is the physical, chemical, or biological
decomposition or disintegration of rocks on the Earth’s surface.

Central Uplands

• The Central Uplands are located to the south of the North European Plain.
• This area of land, filled with small hills, valleys, and plateaus, stretches from Ireland in the west to Russia in the east. The Rhine and Rhone rivers enrich this area with water.

The different landforms that make up the Central Uplands are listed below:

MAJOR LANDFORMS OF THE CENTRAL UPLANDS
Landforms	Country
Rhine Valley, Vosges Mountains, Jura Mountains, Central Massif Plateau	France
Ardennes Mountains	Belgium
Black Forest Mountains, Harz Mountains	Germany
Maseta Plateau	Spain
Bohemian Plateau	Czech Republic

Alpine Mountain System

• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians.
• Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

FOLD MOUNTAINS: The lithosphere, the outermost layer of the Earth composed of the crust, and the upper part of the mantle, is generally solid. The lithosphere is made up of irregularly shaped plates. These plates are several thousand kilometers wide and have an average thickness of 100 kilometres. Fold Mountains are mountains formed by the folding of rock layers at plate boundaries where plates collide with each other. Example: The Himalayas.

Question 39.
Based on Finland’s development model, comprehensively assess whether favorable geographical conditions are essential for development.
Answer:
Favourable geographical conditions are helpful for development, but not essential.

• Importance of favourable conditions (limited): Good weather may be helpful for agriculture and abundant natural resources for industries in the beginning.
• Importance of the Finnish model (survival): Finland breaks this argument.
• Adversity: Finland had unfavourable conditions, including severe cold and limited light.
• Secret of success: It turned these challenges into opportunities with willpower and hard work. Excellent education and social security systems strengthened this willpower.
• Finland proves that the basis of development is not material resources, but human resources (Human Capital). Therefore, more important than favourable conditions are people’s knowledge, skills, and efforts.

Question 40.
Write a note on the Arctic and Sub-Arctic climate region.
Answer:
ARCTIC/TUNDRA CLIMATE

• Arctic parts of Europe experience a tundra climate. The Arctic/Tundra climate is characterised by short, cold summers and long, harsh winters.
• While summer temperature rises to 10°C, winter temperatures drop from -25°C to -40°C.
• There is no sunlight here for 5 to 6 months in winter.

Long nights, harsh winters, and precipitation in the form of ice prevent the growth of plants. Due to this, only shrubs, lichens, and mosses that can withstand the cold generally grow in this climate. The lack of vegetation in the tundra climate also affects the animal life here. Only a few animals such as wolf, reindeer, polar bear, and Arctic hare with thick fur that can survive the cold, can be seen here.

SUBARCTIC/TAIGA CLIMATE

• The Taiga climate is experienced in the subarctic regions that lie south of the tundra region.
  Although the short summers are mild and warm, winters are as harsh as those in the Arctic climate.
• Temperature is below 0°C for five to seven months of the year.
• Precipitation in the taiga climate is generally in the form of snow. The main vegetation of the taiga climate is evergreen forests with coniferous trees. The main trees are pine and cedar. Lynx, ermine, and silver fox are the prominent animals in the region.

Question 41.
How agriculture, fishing and industry influence the life of people?
Answer:
Agriculture
Regional diversity exists in agriculture, intensive farming, extensive farming, and mixed farming

Fishing
Fishing is a major occupation in the countries of Norway, Denmark, and Poland, which are bordered by the North Sea, the North Atlantic Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean. Cod, herring, salmon, halibut, and sea trout are abundant in these areas.

Great Fisher Bank
The Great Fisher Bank and Dogger Bank, on the coast of Denmark and Norway, are the most abundant fishing areas in Europe. In addition to these, the Mediterranean Sea, the Black Sea, and the inland lakes support a thriving fishing industry.

Industry
The Industrial Revolution led Europe to development. Europe’s iron and steel industry, textile industry, and manufacturing sector gained world attention.
Automobile Manufacturing Industry in Europe: European countries are at the forefront of vehicle manufacturing. Many companies that built fighter planes, trucks, and tankers for their country’s military during the world wars later turned to the automotive sector. Audi, Ferrari, Bugatti, Volkswagen, Mercedes-Benz, BMW, Rolls-Royce, Scania, Volvo, and Porsche are all European automobile companies that have admirers all over the world.

Question 42.
Write a note on the Important cities of Europe.
Answer:
celebrations, Germany’s Oktoberfest, Spain’s La Tomatina, Bullfighting, the Netherlands’ King’s Day Carnival, and the Venice Carnival are some of the notable festivals.

• Famous landmarks such as the Eiffel Tower, the Leaning Tower of Pisa, and London Bridge, as well as cities that are famous for art, culture, and history, are major tourist attractions in Europe. Important Cities
• Paris: Paris is the most visited tourist place in Europe every year. Located on the banks of the Seine River, Paris is the capital of France. The Eiffel Tower and the Louvre Museum attract tourists to this city.
• London: Located on the banks of the Thames River, London is the capital and largest city of England and the United Kingdom.
• Berlin: Berlin is the capital and largest city of Germany. This city is located on the banks of the Spree River.
• Moscow: Moscow is the capital of Russia. It is the largest city in Europe, located on the banks of the Moskva River.
• Rome: Rome, the capital of Italy, is located on the banks of the Tiber River. Many monuments of the Roman Empire and Christianity are located here. The Colosseum in Rome is one of the ancient wonders of the world. In addition to these, Madrid, Athens, Amsterdam, Vienna, Barcelona, Lisbon, and Dublin are other major cities in Europe.

Land of a Thousand lakes

• The northern European country of Finland is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes.
  Although it is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes, Finland is actually home to more than 100,000 lakes, numerous rivers, and vast wetlands.
• The Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland lie to the south of Finland, and the Gulf of Bothnia lies to the southwest. The landscape, climate, and culture here attract many tourists.