Prasanna

Students can read Kerala SSLC Chemistry Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Chemistry Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answers.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I

A. Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Identify the compound which contains a carbon-carbon triple bond. (1)
(C₅H₁₂, C₂H₂, C₃H₆, CH₄)
Answer:
C₂H₂

Question 2.
Which one of the following subshells has the highest energy? (1)
(1s, 3d, 4s, 3p)
Answer:
3d

Question 3.
Find the relation and fill up suitably.
(a) Tin Stone: Magnetic separation
(b) Bauxite: _____________
Answer:
Leaching

Question 4.
Which gas is produced when metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid? (1)
Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 5.
1 GMM of a substance contains _____________ several molecules. (1)
Answer:
6.022 × 10²³

Question 6.
What happens to the rates of forward and backward reaction at the equilibrium point? (1)
Answer:
The rate of forward and backward reactions becomes equal.

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Which metal is deposited at the cathode, when molten sodium chloride is electrolyzed? (1)
(Sodium, Hydrogen, Chlorine, Calcium)
Answer:
Sodium

Question 8.
How many electrons are donated by first-group elements generally in chemical reactions? (1)
(1, 2, 3, 4)
Answer:
1

Question 9.
In which electrode aluminium metal is produced during the electrolysis of Alumina? (1)
Answer:
Cathode

Part – II

A. Answer the following question. Carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
(a) Which are the two compounds formed when Ammonium Chloride (NH₄Cl) is strongly heated? (1)
(b) Write the chemical equation for this reaction. (1)
Answer:
(a) Ammonia (NH₃) and Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
(b) NH₄Cl → NH₃ + HCl

B. Answer any one question from 11 to 12. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
Find the mass of 44.8 L of NH₃ kept at STP. (2)
(Hint: Atomic mass N = 14, H = 1)
Answer:
Molecular Mass of NH₃ = 14 + (3 × 1)
= 14 + 3
= 17
Mass of 22.4 L NH₃ = 17 g
∴ Mass of 44.8 L NH₃ = 17 × 2 = 34 g

Question 12.
(a) What is electroplating? (1)
(b) Which is the electrolyte used in the electroplating of copper on an iron bangle? (1)
Answer:
(a) Electroplating is the process of coating one metal over another using the method of electrolysis.
(b) Copper Sulphate Solution (CuSO₄)

Part – III

Answer any three questions from 13 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
(a) Atomic number of an element is 17. Write its subshell electronic configuration. (1)
(b) Find the group number and period number of this element in the periodic table. (2)
Answer:
(a) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
(b) Group Number = 17
Period Number = 3

Question 14.
(a) Molten iron obtained from the blast furnace contains 4% carbon and other impurities. What is this known as? (1)
(b) Which alloy steel is used for making permanent magnets? (1)
(c) Some alloy steels contain the same component. Then how do they possess different properties? (1)
Answer:
(a) Pig iron
(b) Alnico
(c) The percentage of component elements are different.

Question 15.
N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NH₃ (g) + Heat
How do the following changes influence the amount of the product?
(a) Temperature decreases. (1)
(b) Pressure increases. (1)
(c) Ammonia produced is removed continuously from the system. (1)
Answer:
(a) The amount of the product increases because the forward reaction is exothermic.
(b) The amount of the products increases because due to forward reaction number of molecules decreases.
(c) The amount of the product increases because the concentration of the reactants increases.

Question 16.
(X) CH₄ + 2O₂ → _______ + 2H₂O + Heat
(Y) nCF₂ = CF₂ → [-CF₂ – CF₂-] (Teflon)
(a) Complete the chemical equation X. (1)
(b) Name the reaction Y. (1)
(c) Write any one use of Teflon. (1)
Answer:
(a) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O + Heat
(b) Polymerisation
(c) Used to coat the inner surface of nonstick cookware.

B. Answer the following questions carries 3 scores. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
(iii) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
(iv) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃
(a) Identify the isomer pair in the given compounds. (1)
(b) Name the isomerism. (1)
(c) How many isomers are possible for compound (i)? (1)
Answer:
(a) (ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
(iii) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₃
(b) Functional Group Isomerism
(c) Two

Part – IV

A. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.

A and B represent two gas cylinders. The gas in cylinder A is completely transferred to cylinder B, keeping the temperature constant.
(a) Compare the gas pressure in cylinder A and Cylinder B. (1)
(b) Which gas law is related to this? (1)
(c) 10 L of gas is kept in a cylinder at 2 atm pressure.
Keeping the temperature constant, the gas is completely transferred to a 20 L cylinder. What is the new pressure of the gas? (2)
Answer:
(a) Pressure in cylinder ‘B’ is greater than that of ‘A’. (Because the volume of B is less than that of A)
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) 1 atm
P₁ = 2 atm, V₁ = 10 L
P₂ = x, V₂ = 20 L
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
⇒ 2 × 10 = x × 20
⇒ x = \(\frac{2 \times 10}{20}\) = 1

Question 19.
Haematite is converted into iron by reactions taking place in a blast furnace.
(a) Write the molecular formula of Haematite. (1)
(b) Which substance acts as the reducing agent in this process? (1)
(c) Molten iron is produced along with slag from the furnace. What is meant by slag? (1)
(d) Write the chemical equation that shows the formation of slag. (1)
Answer:
(a) Fe₂O₃
(b) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
(c) Slag is the substance formed when the flux reacts with the gangue.
Gangue + Flux → Slag
(d) CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

Question 20.

(a) How many carbon atoms are there in the longest chain of this hydrocarbon? (1)
(b) Give the name of the branch. (1)
(c) What is the position number of the branch? (1)
(d) Write the IUPAC name of the compound. (1)
Answer:
(a) 5
(b) Methyl
(c) 2
(d) 2-Methyl Pentane

B. Answer any one question from 21 to 22. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
(a) The industrial preparation of sulphuric acid is known as _____________ (1)
(b) Which is the catalyst used in this process? (1)
(c) Take some sugar in a watch glass and add a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid to it. What is your observation? Which chemical property of sulphuric acid is shown here? (2)
Answer:
(a) Contact process
(b) Vanadium pentoxide (V₂O₅)
(c) Sugar gets charred. Carbon dioxide and water vapour evolve. Carbon is left behind.
Dehydrating nature.

Question 22.
Choose the compounds from the box and answer the following questions.
CH₃COOH, CH₃ – COO – CH₂ – CH₃, CH₃ – CH₂ – OH, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
(a) Which is a Carboxylic acid? (1)
(b) Which compound is an ester? (1)
(c) Identify ethanol. (1)
(d) Which substance is used in the industrial preparation of ethanol? (1)
Answer:
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CH₃-COO-CH₂-CH₃
(c) CH₃-CH₂-OH
(d) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

Part – V

A. Answer anyone from 23 to 24. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
The atomic number of Manganese (Mn) is 25.
(a) Write the subshell electronic configuration of Mn. (1)
(b) Find the block of Mn in the periodic table. (1)
(c) Which category of elements does Mn belong? (1)
(Transition element, Halogens, Noble gases, Alkaline earth metals)
(d) What is the oxidation number of Mn in MnO₂? (1)
(Oxidation number of oxygen is -2)
(e) Write the subshell electronic configuration of Mn²⁺. (1)
Answer:
(a) ₂₅Mn = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶, 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵, 4s²
(b) d-block
(c) Transition Element
(d) +4
(e) Mn²⁺ = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵

Question 24.
A picture of a galvanic cell is given below:

(a) What is the energy change taking place in a galvanic cell? (1)
(b) Identify the anode in the given cell. (1)
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the anode. (1)
(d) In which electrode does oxidation take place? (1)
(e) Write the chemical equation of the redox reaction in the cell. (1)
Answer:
(a) Chemical energy changes into electrical energy.
(b) Zn rod
(c) Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e^–
(d) Anode (Zn)
(e) Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu

Students can read Kerala SSLC Chemistry Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Chemistry Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Section – A

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The monomer of Polyvinyl Chloride is ____________ (1)
Answer:
Vinyl Chloride

Question 2.
In an atom, four electrons are present in the p sub-shell of its M shell. How is it represented? (1)
[2p⁴, 4p⁴, 3p⁴, 5p⁴]
Answer:
3p4

Question 3.
Find the relation and fill up: (1)
C_nH_2n+2: Alkane
C_nH_2n-2: ______________
Answer:
C_nH_2n-2: Alkyne

Question 4.
Phenolphthalein is pink in colour in the solution of ammonia in water. This shows that ammonia is ____________ in nature. (1)
Answer:
Basic

Question 5.
Which is the electrolyte used in electroplating copper on an iron ring? (1)
[FeSO₄, AgNO₃, ZnSO₄, CuSO₄]
Answer:
CuSO₄

Section – B

Answer any four questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
Choose the suitable method used in each of the following processes from the bracket.
[Liquation, Leaching, Froth floatation, Distillation]
(a) Concentration of sulphide ores. (1)
(b) Refining of metals with low boiling points. (1)
Answer:
(a) Froth Floatation
(b) Distillation

Question 7.
(a) How much GMM is present in 90 g water [H₂O]? (1)
(b) Find the number of molecules present in it. (1)
[Hint: Molecular mass of water = 18]
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{90}{18}\) = 5
(b) 5 × 6.022 × 10²³

Question 8.
Ethanol is an alcohol which is extensively used for industrial purposes.
(a) What is rectified spirit? (1)
(b) How does rectified spirit differ from absolute alcohol? (1)
Answer:
(a) Rectified spirit is 95.6% pure ethanol. It is obtained by the fractional distillation of wash.
(b) Absolute alcohol is 99.5% pure ethanol. It is obtained by the fractional distillation of rectified spirit.

Question 9.
Concentrated ores are converted into their oxides by two processes.
(a) Name of the process carried out in the presence of air is ____________ (1)
(b) Which process is used in the case of carbonate ore? (1)
Answer:
(a) Roasting
(b) Calcination

Question 10.
Concentrated sulphuric acid forms nitric acid in reaction with nitrates. The chemical equation of this reaction is given below.
NaNO₃ + H₂SO₄ → NaHSO₄ + HNO₃
(a) Which sodium salt is used to get hydrochloric acid [HCl] in the same manner? (1)
(b) Write down the chemical equation of this reaction. (1)
Answer:
(a) NaCl
(b) 2NaCl + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2HCl

Section – C

Answer any four questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
Subshell electronic configurations of a few elements are given. One of them is a noble gas. [Symbols are not real]
P – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
Q – 1s² 2s² 2p⁵
R – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d² 4s²
S – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²
Answer the following questions.
(a) Which element has the highest Ionisation Energy? (1)
(b) Which element belongs to s-block? (1)
(c) Which element shows a variable oxidation state? (1)
Answer:
(a) P = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
(b) S = 1s² 2s² 2p² 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²
(c) R = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d² 4s²

Question 12.
Observe the figure.
Metals rods are dipped in salt solutions taken in three beakers.

(a) In which beaker does the displacement reaction take place? Give reason. (2)
(b) Write down the chemical equation of the oxidation reaction taking place in this beaker. (1)
[Hint: Order of reactivity Zn > Cu > Ag]
Answer:
(a) Beaker A.
Zn is more reactive than Cu. So Zn will displace Cu from the CuSO₄ solution.
(b) Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e^–

Question 13.
Chemical equations of the reactions taking place in blast furnaces during the industrial production of iron are given below.
(i) C + O₂ → CO₂ + Heat
(ii) CO₂ + C + Heat → 2CO
(iii) Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
(iv) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
(v) CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃
Answer the following questions.
(a) Which compound acts as the reducing agent? (1)
(b) What is the function of CaO in the production of iron? (1)
(c) Which is the slag formed here? (1)
Answer:
(a) CO
(b) CaO acts as a flux in the manufacture of iron.
(c) CaSiO₃

Question 14.
The structural formula of an organic compound is given.
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH₂
(a) Write down the IUPAC name of this compound. (1)
(b) What is its molecular formula? (1)
(c) What is the molecular formula of the adjacent homologue coming after it? (1)
Answer:
(a) But-1-ene
(b) C₄H₈
(c) C₅H₁₀

Question 15.
Complete the table using the names of reactions given in the box. (3)

Answer:
(a) Addition Reaction
(b) Substitution Reaction
(c) Combustion

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores.

Question 16.
The atomic number of element X is 8.
(a) Write the subshell electronic configuration of X. (1)
(b) Find its group number and period number. (1)
(c) Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when element X reacts with Aluminium (Al). (2)
[Hint: Valency of Al = 3]
Answer:
(a) ₈X = 1s² 2s² 2p⁴
(b) Group = 16, Period = 2

Question 17.
The data given in the table shows the relation between the volume and temperature of a definite mass of gas. [Pressure is kept constant]

(a) Find ‘x’ and ‘y’. (2)
(b) Which gas law is applied here? (1)
(c) If An inflated balloon is kept in Sunlight, it will burst. Given reason. (1)
Answer:
(a) x = \(\frac{600}{300}\) = 2
y = \(\frac{800}{400}\) = 2
(b) Charle’s Law
(c) When temperature increases the volume of air inside the balloon increases. So it bursts.

Question 18.
The given diagram represents a galvanic cell.
[Hint: Order of reactivity: Mg > Cu]

(a) What is the energy change taking place in galvanic cells? (1)
(b) At which electrode does oxidation take place in galvanic cells? (1)
(c) Identify the cathode in the given cell. (1)
(d) Write down the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the cathode in the given cell.
Answer:
(a) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.
(b) At anode. Here Mg rod
(c) Cu rod
(d) Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu

Question 19.
The reversible reaction at equilibrium is given.
2NO (g) + O₂ (g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NO₂ (g) + Heat
Answer the following:
(a) How does an increase in temperature influence the amount of product formed? (1)
(b) What change is to be made in pressure to get more product? (1)
(c) How does an increase in concentration of oxygen influence the rate of forward reaction? (1)
(d) What is the function of a catalyst in reversible reactions? (1)
Answer:
(a) When temperature increases the amount of product decreases. Because the forward reaction is exothermic.
(b) Due to forward reaction number of molecules decreases. So to get more product pressure should be increased.
(c) When the concentration of oxygen increases the amount of product increases.
(d) Catalyst speeds up both forward and backward reactions. So equilibrium is attained earlier.

Question 20.
Examine the organic compounds given below.
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
(iii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – Cl
(iv) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₃

(a) Identify the isomeric pairs. (3)
(b) Which is the functional isomer pair? (2)
Answer:

Students can read Kerala SSLC Chemistry Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Chemistry Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Section – A

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
f-block elements which belong to 7th period are known as _______________
(Transition elements, Lanthanoids, Halogens, Actinoids)
Answer:
Actinoids

Question 2.
Write the name of the byproduct obtained in the industrial production of Soap.
Answer:
Glycerol

Question 3.
The ore of a metal is lighter than the impurities. Which method is suitable for its concentration?
(Levigation, Froth Floatation, Magnetic Separation, Leaching)
Answer:
Froth Floatation

Question 4.
When ammonium chloride is heated, a gas with a basic nature is obtained. Write the name of the gas.
Answer:
Ammonia

Question 5.
Which product is obtained at the cathode when sodium chloride solution is electrolyzed?
(Na, Cl₂, O₂, H₂)
Answer:
H₂

Section – B

Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
Stainless steel, Nichrome, and Alnico are alloy steels.
(a) Which alloy steel is used to produce heating coils?
(b) Identify the alloy steels having the same components among these.
Answer:
(a) Nichrome
(b) Stainless Steel and Nichrome

Question 7.
(a) The oxidation state of Mn in MnO₂ is 4. Find out the oxidation state of Mn in Mn₂O₃.
(Hint: Oxidation state of oxygen = -2)
(b) Transition elements show variable oxidation state. Why?
Answer:
(a) Mn₂O₃
2x – 6 = 0 ⇒ x = +3
(b) In the case of transition elements, along with outermost s electrons, the d electrons from the penultimate shell are also lost, as the energies of these subshells are almost equal.

Question 8.
The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon is C₄H₈.
(a) To which category does this hydrocarbon belong?
[Alkane, Alkene, Alkyne]
(b) Draw the structure of an alicyclic hydrocarbon with the same molecular formula.
Answer:
(a) Alkene

Question 9.
Analyze the picture and answer the following questions.

(a) What will be the pressure when the volume of this gas is increased to 4L at 300K?
(b) What is the gas law related to this?
Answer:
(a) P₁ = 2 atm; V₁ = 2L; V₂ = 4L
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂
P₂ = \(\frac{2 \times 2}{4}\) = 1 atm
(b) Boyle’s Law

Question 10.
Choose the right compounds from the given box to answer the following questions.
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – OH
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – COOH
(iii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CO – CH₃
(iv) CH₃ – COOH
(v) CH₃ – OH
(vi) CH₃ – CH₂ – COO – CH₃
(a) Which among these is an ester?
(b) Which are the compounds required to prepare this ester?
Answer:
(a) (vi) CH₃ – CH₂ – COO – CH₃
(b) (ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – COOH
(v) CH₃ – OH

Section – C

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
Sulphuric acid is called the king of chemicals.
(a) Industrial preparation of sulphuric acid is known as _______________
(b) Which is the catalyst used in this process?
(c) A black substance is formed When concentrated sulphuric acid is added to sugar. Explain the reason for this observation.
Answer:
(a) Contact Process
(b) Vanadium Pentoxide (V₂O₅)
(c) Dehydrating nature of sulphuric acid.
Sulphuric acid absorbs hydrogen and oxygen in the form of water from sugar (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁).

Question 12.
Silver is coated on a copper bangle by electroplating.
(a) Which metal is connected to the negative terminal of the battery in this process?
(b) Which is the electrolyte used here?
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place at the positive electrode.
Answer:
(a) Copper
(b) Silver Nitrate (AgNO₃) / Sodium Cyanide + Silver Cyanide Solution
(c) Ag → Ag⁺ + 1e^–

Question 13.
The structural formula of a hydrocarbon is given below.

(a) How many carbon atoms are there in the main chain?
(b) Name the branch present in the compound.
(c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound.
Answer:
(a) 6 Carbons
(b) Methyl (-CH₃) group
(c) 3-Methylhexane

Question 14.
Aluminium is the most abundant metal on the earth’s crust.
(a) Which is the ore of aluminium?
(b) Describe the different steps in the concentration of this ore.
Answer:
(a) Bauxite (Al₂O₃.2H₂O)
(b) Concentration by Leaching

Question 15.
Complete the following equations.
(a) X + Cl₂ → CH₃ – CH₂Cl + HCl
(b) CH₃ – CH = CH₂ + Cl₂ → Y
(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃ \(\rightarrow{\text { Heat }}\) CH₄ + Z
Answer:
(a) X : CH₃ – CH₃
CH₃ – CH₃ + Cl₂ → CH₃ – CH₂Cl + HCl
(b) Y : CH₃ – CHCl – CH₂Cl
CH₃ – CH = CH₂ + Cl₂ → CH₃ – CHCl – CH₂Cl
(c) Z : CH₂ = CH₂
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃ \(\rightarrow{\text { Heat }}\) CH₄ + CH₂ = CH₂

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores: (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
The subshell electronic configuration of an element is given:
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁶ 4s²
(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) Which subshell among these has the highest energy?
(c) Find out the period number and group number of this element.
Answer:
(a) 26
(b) 3d has the highest energy
(c) Period Number = 4
Group Number = 2 + 6 = 8

Question 17.
The structural formula of an organic compound is given:
CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₃
(a) The compounds having – O – R as the functional group are called _______________
(b) Write the molecular formula of this compound.
(c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound.
(d) Write the structural formula of the functional isomer of this compound.
Answer:
(a) Ether
(b) C₃H₈O
(c) Methoxyethane
(d) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
or

Question 18.
(a) What is the volume of 1 mol ammonia gas (NH₃) at STP?
(b) Find the volume of 68 g ammonia gas at STP.
[Hint: Molecular Mass of NH₃ = 17]
(c) Find the number of molecules present in 68 g ammonia gas.
Answer:
(a) 22.4 L
(b) No. of moles \(=\frac{\text { Given mass }}{\text { GMM }}\)
= \(\frac{68}{17}\)
= 4 mole
Volume = Mole × 22.4
= 4 × 22.4
= 89.6 E
(c) No. of molecules = Mole × N_A
= 4N_A (4 × 6.022 × 10²³)

Question 19.
2NO (g) + O₂ (g) = 2NO₂ (g) + Heat
(a) When does a reversible reaction attain equilibrium?
(b) How do the following changes influence the amount of the product?
(i) Increase in temperature
(ii) Increase in pressure
(iii) NO₂ is removed from the system.
Answer:
(a) The system attains equilibrium when the rate of forward reaction becomes equal to the rate of backward reaction.
(b) (i) The amount of product decreases.
(ii) the amount of product increases.
(iii) amount of product increases.

Question 20.
The order of reactivity of some elements is given. Analyze it and answer the following questions.
Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag
(a) Name any one metal that cannot displace hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid.
(b) Which are the metals that can displace Fe from the FeSO₄ solution?
(c) A galvanic cell is constructed using Zn and Fe as electrodes.
(i) Which is the anode of this cell?
(ii) Write the equation of the chemical reaction taking place at the cathode.
Answer:
(a) Copper (Cu) or Silver (Ag)
(b) Mg and Zn
(c) (i) Zn
(ii) Fe²⁺ + 2e^– → Fe

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time. Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I

A. Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Name the arrangement in a DC motor to sustain the rotation of the armature in one direction. (1)
Answer:
Split Ring Commutator

Question 2.
In the figure, a beam of light is incident on a surface and its reflection is depicted.

If the angle between them is 60° what will be the angle of incidence? (1)
Answer:
30°

Question 3.
If the intensity of the electric current in a circuit is doubled the heat energy developed in this circuit increases _________ times. (1)
(2, \(\frac{1}{2}\), 4, \(\frac{1}{4}\))
Answer:
4

Question 4.
Which among the following is the graphical representation of the output emf in a DC generator? (1)

Answer:

Question 5.
Which of the mirrors forms an image larger than the object? (1)
(Plane Mirror, Concave Mirror, Convex Mirror)
Answer:
Concave Mirror

Question 6.
In which condition do all the component colors of white light undergo the same scattering? (1)
Answer:
If the size of the particles is greater than the wavelength of light, the scattering is the same for all colours.

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Which of the following light sources does not contain mercury in it? (1)
(Fluorescent Lamp, LED, CFL)
Answer:
LED

Question 8.
Which rule gives the direction of current produced in a conductor when it moves perpendicular to a magnetic field? (1)
Answer:
Fleming’s Right Hand Rule

Question 9.
If two plane mirrors are placed at an angle of 60° between them what will be the number of images formed by them? (1)
Answer:
5

Part – II

A. Answer the following question carries a 2 score. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
Write any two characteristic properties of the material used as a heating coil in heating devices. (2)
Answer:
High Resistance, High Melting Point

B. Answer any one question from 11 to 12. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
How many units of energy will be consumed by a 100 W bulb in 30 days, if it works 10 hours every day? (2)
Answer:
Electrical Energy = \(\frac{\text { Power } \times \text { time in hour }}{1000}\)
= \(\frac{100 \times 10 \times 30}{1000}\)
= 30 kWh
= 30 unit

Question 12.
Explain how light energy is produced in discharge lamps. (2)
Answer:
When high potential difference is applied, the gas molecules get excited. Excited atoms come back to their orginal states for attaining stability. During this process, the energy stored in them will be radiated as light.

Part – III

A. Answer any three questions from 13 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
A real image is formed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror when an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror.
(a) Calculate the focal length of the mirror using the New Cartesian sign convention. (2)
(b) What will be the magnification of the image? (1)
Answer:

Question 14.
Solenoids are used to make electromagnets.
(a) If the direction of the DC through the solenoid at the end facing us is clockwise, which magnetic pole is developed at this end? (1)
(b) Suggest two methods to increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid. (2)
Answer:
(a) South Pole
(b) Increase the number of turns.
Increase the intensity of the electric current.

Question 15.
Observe the figure of the microphone.

(a) Write the names of Part A and B of the moving coil microphone. (1)
A = ____________
B = ____________
(b) How do electrical signals by the sound are generated in the microphone? (2)
Answer:
(a) A = Diaphragm
B = Voice Coil
(b) The diaphragm vibrates when sound waves fall on it. Voice coil connected with the diaphragm. Vibrates in a strong magnetic field. As a result, electrical signals corresponding to the sound waves are generated in the voice coil.

Question 16.
Observe the given diagram.

(a) When a light ray enters the air from water the light ray ___________ (1)
[moves towards the normal/moves away from the normal]
(b) Name the phenomenon that caused the deviation of the light rays when entered into air from the water. (1)
(c) What happens to the speed of light when it enters from water to air? (1)
[Increase, Decrease, No change]
Answer:
(a) Bends away from the normal
(b) Refraction
(c) Increases

B. Answer the following question carries a 3 score. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
Observe the given figure.

(a) Bulb in which circuit will glow with low intensity? (1)
(b) Explain the reason for the decrease in the intensity of light in this bulb. (2)
Answer:
(a) b
(b) While AC passes through the coil, magnetic flux changes. So a back emf is induced in the same coil. Thus due to self-induction, effective, voltage decreases.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
Coal is divided into four categories, peat and lignite are two of them.
(a) Which are the other two? (1)
(b) On what basis does coal is categorized like this? (1)
(c) Which are the products obtained when coal is distilled in the absence of air? (2)
Answer:
(a) Anthracite, Bituminous Coal
(b) Based on Carbon Content
(c) Coke, Coal Tar, Coal Gas, Ammonia

Question 19.
Observe the position of the object OB placed in front of a convex lens.

(a) Draw the ray diagram of image formation and find the position of the image. (2)
(b) Write any two features of the image formed. (1)
(c) Calculate the power of a convex lens with a focal length of 50 cm. (1)
Answer:

Question 20.
Observe the figure in which image formation in an eye is given.

(a) Name the defect of this eye. (1)
(b) What is the reason for this defect? (2)
(c) Suggest a remedy for this. (1)
Answer:
(a) Near-sightedness or myopia
(b) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
Elongation of eyeball.
(c) Use a concave lens of suitable focal length.

B. Answer any one question from 21 to 22 (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
(a) Which material is used as filament in incandescent lamps? (1)
(b) What are the characteristic properties of the material used as a filament? (2)
(c) Why these lamps are filled with Nitrogen? (1)
Answer:
(a) Tungsten
(b) High Resistance.
High Melting Point.
Can be drawn into thin wires/with high ductility.
Can emit white light.
(c) To decrease vaporization.

Question 22.
(a) When a beam of light entered into glass from the air it was found the angle of incidence was ‘i’ and the angle of refraction as ‘r’ state Snells’ law which relates these angles. (2)
(b) Calculate the refractive index when the light enters into glass from the air, if the velocity of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s and the velocity of light in glass is 2 × 10⁸ m/s. (2)
Answer:
(a) The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction \(\left(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}\right)\) will always be a constant.
(b) Refractive index \(=\frac{\text { speed of light in air }}{\text { speed of high in the medium }}\)
= \(\frac{c}{v}\)
= \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{2 \times 10^8}\)
= 1.5

Part – V

A. Answer anyone from 23 to 24. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
The following figure represents a transformer with no power loss.

(a) What type of transformer is shown in the figure? (1)
(b) Name the principle based on which this trans-former works. (1)
(c) If the output from the secondary of this transformer is 50 V, 10 W electric power.
(i) What will be the input voltage? (2)
(ii) What is the current in the primary? (1)
Answer:
(a) Step Down Transformer
(b) Mutual Induction
(c) (i) 200 V
(ii) P = I × V
∴ I = \(\frac{P}{V}\)
= \(\frac{10}{200}\)
= 0.05 A

Question 24.
Usually, we connect resistors in series and parallel.
(a) In which type of connection does the resultant resistance of the circuit decreases? (1)
(b) Two resistors of 100 Ω are connected in series with a 250 V supply. Calculate the heat energy produced when current flows through it for 2 seconds. (2)
(c) State whether the quantity of heat produced increases or decreases, if these resistors are connected in parallel in the same circuit with a 250 V supply. Justify your answer. (2)
Answer:
(a) Series Connection
(b) R = R₁ + R₂
= 100 + 100
= 200 Ω
V = 250 V, t = 2s
H = \(\frac{V^2 t}{R}\)
= \(\frac{250 \times 250 \times 2}{200}\)
= 625 J
(c) Increases, effective resistance decreases in parallel connection, so current increases, heat increases. (H = I²Rt)

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Identify the relation from the first pair and complete the second pair suitably. (1)
Moving Coil Microphone: Sound Energy → Electrical Energy.
Power Generator: __________ → __________
Answer:
Power Generator: Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy

Question 2.
Which of the following is related to green energy sources? (1)
(Atomic Reactor, Diesel Engine, Wind Mill, Thermal Power Station)
Answer:
Wind Mill

Question 3.
Which of the given statements is true? (1)
(a) Long-sightedness can be rectified by using the concave lens of suitable power.
(b) The near point of a person with Long-sightedness is more than 25 cm.
(c) The far point of a person with Near-sightedness is at infinity.
(d) Short-sightedness can be rectified by using a convex lens of suitable power.
Answer:
(b) The near point of a person with Long-sightedness is more than 25 cm.

Question 4.
Identify the mirror which always forms a virtual and diminished image. (1)
(Plane Mirror, Convex Mirror, Concave Mirror)
Answer:
Convex Mirror

Question 5.
According to New Cartesian Sign Conventions, a sign of the focal length of a concave lens is __________ (1)
Answer:
Negative

Section – B

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
Calculate the power of a heating appliance having 230 Ω resistance when 2 A current flows through it. (2)
Answer:
R = 230 Ω, I = 2 A
p = I²R
= 2² × 230
= 4 × 230
= 920 W

Question 7.
Observe the figure.

(a) Which part of this device converts electric energy into sound energy? (1)
(b) What is the working principle of this device? (1)
Answer:
(a) Voice Coil and Diaphragm.
(Voice coil converts electrical signal into mechanical energy, diaphragm converts it into sound energy)
(b) Motor Principle

Question 8.
A ray of light traveling from glass to air graces through the surface of the glass is shown in the figure.

(a) Name the angle of incidence (i) in the figure. (1)
(b) Can we reflect the incident ray into the glass? Justify your answer. (1)
Answer:
(a) Critical Angle
(b) Yes. Increase the angle of incidence, then the ray will undergo total internal reflection, i.e., the ray will be reflected to the same medium.

Question 9.
The angle between the reflecting surfaces of two plane mirrors is 30°.
(a) How many images are formed when an object is placed in between them? (1)
(b) Write any two characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror. (1)
Answer:
(a) n = \(\frac{360}{\theta}\) – 1
= \(\frac{360}{30}\) – 1
= 12 – 1
= 11 images
(b) Virtual, Erect

Question 10.
The primary and secondary currents of a transformer are 2 A and 4 A respectively. The output voltage of this transformer is 100 V.
(a) Identify the transformer. (1)
(b) Calculate the primary voltage of the transformer. (1)
Answer:
(a) Step Down Transformer
(b) V_p × I_p = V_s × I_s
∴ V_p = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{S}} \times \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{P}}}\)
= \(\frac{100 \times 4}{2}\)
= 200 V

Section – C

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
The figure shows the dispersion of a ray of light passing through a water drop in the atmosphere.

(a) What are the phenomena of light that the ray undergoes inside the drop? (1)
(b) Identify and write down the colours P and Q. (1)
(c) What are the colours seen in the inner and outer edges of the primary rainbow? (1)
Answer:
(a) Dispersion, Internal Reflection and Refraction
(b) P – Violet, Q – Red
(c) Inner Edge – Violet and Outer Edge – Red

Question 12.
Fuse, MCB, ELCB, and RCCB are used to ensure safety in household electric circuits.
(a) What is the difference between the functioning of Fuse and MCB? (1)
(b) What is the advantage of MCB over Fuse? (1)
(c) What is the function of ELCB and RCCB in electric circuits? (1)
Answer:
(a) Fuse – In fuse, fuse wire melts due to excess current. It works based on the heating effect of electric current.
MCB – It has an internal switch that gets tripped when there is excess current. It works based on the magnetic effect and the heating effect of electrical energy.

(b) In MCB, after solving the problem, the switch can be turned on. But in the fuse, the melted fuse wire is to be replaced by another suitable wire. Moreover, MCB is more sensitive than fuse. MCB is simple to resume the supply.

(c) ELCB helps to break the circuit automatically when there is leakage of current due to insulation failure or short circuit, It protects the user from electric shock. RCCB also breaks the circuit, so that there is no harm due to electric shock. RCCB ensures more safety.

Question 13.
The conductor AB which is connected to a battery is placed between the poles of a U-shaped magnet perpendicular to the magnetic field lines.

(a) In which direction the conductor deflects when the circuit is switched on? (1)
(b) Which law helps to detect the direction of the conductor? State the law. (2)
Answer:
(a) P
(b) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule: Stretch the forefinger, middle finger, and thumb of the left hand in mutually perpendicular directions. The fore finger indicates the direction of the magnetic field, the middle finger indicates the direction of the current, then the thumb indicates the direction of motion of the conductor.

Question 14.
A branch circuit of a household electric circuit is shown in the figure.

(a) Find out any two mistakes in the circuit. (1)
(b) Draw the circuit correctly. (2)
Answer:
(a) (1) In the figure, the fuse is wrongly connected to the neutral wire. The fuse should be connected to the phase line.
(2) The large pin of the pin plug is wrongly connected to P in the figure. It should be connected to E, earth.
(b)

Question 15.
A lighted candle is placed 20 cm away in front of a spherical mirror. A real and inverted image is formed at the same distance.
(a) Identify the mirror used for the experiment. (1)
(b) What is the focal length of the mirror? (1)
(c) Calculate the magnification. (1)
Answer:
(a) Concave Mirror
(b) 10 cm
(c) -1

Section – D

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 4 scores.

Question 16.
Observe the electric circuit in which 40 Ω and 60 Ω resistors are connected in parallel.

(a) Calculate the effective resistance. (1)
(b) What is the current flowing through a 40 Ω resistor? (1)
(c) What is the heat generated in a 60 Ω resistor if current flows through it in 2 minutes? (2)
Answer:

Question 17.
The cooking gas that we get in cylinders is LPG.
(a) What indicates the label ‘B 23′ in the LPG cylinder? (1)
(b) Which is the main constituent of LPG? (1)
(c) Which substance is added in LPG to detect the leakage of the cylinder? (1)
(d) What precautions are to be taken to avoid accidents due to LPG leakage? (1)
Answer:
(a) It means that the cylinder expires in June 2023.
(b) Butane
(c) 1. Turn off the main switch.
2. Close the regulator
3. Isolate the cylinder into an open space and cover it with a wet cloth.

Question 18.
The figure shows the image formation in the eye of a person. Observe the figure and answer the following.

(a) Where is the image formed? (1)
(in front of the retina, at the retina, behind the retina)
(b) Identify the defect of the eye shown in the figure. (1)
(c) What are the reasons for this defect? (1)
(d) How can we rectify this defect? (1)
Answer:
(a) Behind the retina
(b) Long-sightedness or hypermetropia
(c) Eyeball is shorter than normal, decreased power of the eye lens.
(d) Use a convex lens of suitable power.

Question 19.
A ray diagram related to image formation is given below.

(a) Copy and complete the diagram to show the image formation. (2)
(b) Write the characteristics of the image formed. (1)
(c) Magnification of the image is _________ (1)
(Greater than 1, 1, Less than 1)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Inverted, Real, Enlarged.
(c) Greater than 1.

Question 20.
Nowadays natural disasters occur frequently in Kerala. If the walls of our house are wet due to flooding the chance of getting electric shock is more.
(a) What are the precautions to be taken to avoid electric shock during these situations? (1)
(b) What is to be done at first when a person is getting electric shock? (1)
(c) What are the First aids to be given in the case of electric shock? (2)
Answer:
(a) 1. Do not operate electric switches with wet hands.
2. Wear rubber slippers while handling electric appliances.
(b) Disconnect the source of electricity.
(c) Increase the body temperature by massaging. Give artificial respiration, and shift to the hospital immediately.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Find the relation in the first pair and complete the second. (1)
(i) Electric iron: Heating effect
(ii) Electric motor: ______________
Answer:
(i) Electric iron: Heating effect
(ii) Electric motor: Magnetic effect

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of a moving coil loudspeaker? (1)
(Voice Coil, Diaphragm, Permanent Magnet, Slip Rings)
Answer:
Slip Rings

Question 3.
Find the angle of incidence in the following figure. (1)

Answer:
50°
The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 100°.
Since ∠i = ∠r
∠i = \(\frac{100}{2}\) = 50°

Question 4.
What is the energy conversion taking place in a windmill? (1)
Answer:
Wind Energy → Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy

Question 5.
How long does an electrical device of power 500 W work to consume 1 unit of electrical energy? (1)
Answer:
Energy in kilowatt hour = \(\frac{\text { Power in watt } \times \text { time in hour }}{1000}\)
Energy = 1 unit
Power = 500 W
Time = \(\frac{\text { Energy } \times 1000}{\text { Power }}=\frac{1 \times 1000}{500}\)
Time = 2 hours

Section – B

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
Write any four methods to minimize the energy crisis. (2)
Answer:

• Use energy judiciously.
• Use renewable sources of energy like solar energy maximum as possible.
• Construct houses to get sufficient sunlight and air circulation.
• Use machines haying high efficiency.

Question 7.
A soldering iron of resistance 1250 Ω works with a supply of 200 V.
(a) Find the power of the soldering iron. (1)
(b) Calculate the amount of heat energy produced in 10s. (1)
Answer:
(a) Power, P = V²/R
= 200²/1250
= 32 W
(b) Heat energy, H = Pt
= 32 × 10
= 320 J

Question 8.
Classify the energy produced from the following sources as green energy and brown energy. (2)
(Solar Power Plant, Atomic Reactor, Diesel Engine, Hydroelectric Power Station)
Answer:

Green Energy	Brown Energy
Solar Power Plant	Atomic Reactor
Hydroelectric Power Station	Diesel Engine

Question 9.
Analyze the following figure and answer the questions.

(a) Which medium has more optical density? (1)
(b) Calculate the speed of light in water if the refractive index of water is 1.33. (Speed of light in air = 3 × 10⁸ m/s) (1)
Answer:
(a) Water
(b) Speed of light in water = \(\frac{\text { speed of light in air }}{\text { refractive index of water }}=\frac{3 \times 10^8}{1.33}\) = 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s

Question 10.
Analyze the following statements and correct the mistakes if any:
(a) According to the new Cartesian sign convention the distance of the object from a mirror is always positive. (1)
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule helps to identify the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor. (1)
Answer:
(a) False.
According to the New Cartesian Sign convention, the distance of the object from a mirror is always negative.
(b) False.
The Right-hand thumb rule is used to identify the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.
OR
Fleming’s left-hand rule is used to identify the direction of magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.

Section – C

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
Analyze the following circuits:

(a) In which circuit the bulbs are connected in parallel? (1)
(b) The bulbs in which the circuit glows brighter when all the switches are put on? (1)
(c) Justify your answer. (1)
Answer:
(a) Circuit A
(b) Circuit A
(c) In a parallel connection, the source voltage is fully available at both lamps whereas in a series connection, the applied voltage is split between the lamps.

Question 12.
Match the following.

A	B	C
Plane Mirror	Rear View Mirror	Magnification is more
Convex Mirror	Shaving Mirror	The size of the image is the same as that of the object.
Concave Mirror	Periscope	Larger field of view

Answer:

A	B	C
Plane Mirror	Periscope	The size of the image is the same as that of the size of the object.
Convex Mirror	Rearview Mirror	Larger field of view
Concave Mirror	Shaving Mirror	Magnification is more

Question 13.
A ray diagram of the image formation in the human eye is depicted. Analyze the figure and answer the questions.

(a) Which figure indicates an eye with short-sightedness? (1)
(b) What are the reasons for this defect? (1)
(c) How is it rectified? (1)
Answer:
(a) Figure B
(b) Reasons for the defect:

• The eyeball is larger than the normal size.
• The focal length of the eye lens is shorter than the required focal length.

(c) By using the concave lens of suitable power.

Question 14.
Two magnets and a current-carrying conductor AB are placed on the top of a table as shown in the figure.

(a) In which direction should the current flow through the conductor to move it in a direction upwards from the table? (1)
(b) Which rule helps you to find the answer? (1)
(c) Write any two devices that work on this principle. (1)
Answer:
(a) From A to B.
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
(c) Electric motor, moving coil loudspeaker.

Question 15.
Analyze the following figure and answer the questions.

(a) Find the angle of refraction. (1)
(b) Write any angle of incidence that produces total internal reflection. (1)
(c) Write any two practical applications of total internal reflection. (1)
Answer:
(a) 90°
(b) 50° (Any angle larger than 42°)
(c) Optic fiber, Endoscope.

Section – D

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
An electric circuit consisting of two incandescent lamps is depicted below. Analyze the circuit and answer the questions.

(a) Which material is used as filament in incandescent lamps? (1)
(b) Calculate the current through the circuit when S₁ and S₂ are put on. (2)
(c) What happens to the circuit when all the switches are put on? (1)
Answer:
(a) Tungsten
(b) When S₁ and S₂ are ON, the circuit becomes short-circuited, and the fuse wire will be burned out. (Question is wrong)
If S₂ and S₃ are on the current in the circuit
I = \(\frac{100}{200}+\frac{100}{200}\) = 1 A
(c) A short circuit will happen, and the fuse wire will be burned out.

Question 17.
A transformer without power loss works at an input of 250 V. A current of 1 A flows through the secondary coil when an electrical device of power 50 W is connected to the secondary.
(a) Which type of transformer is used here? (1)
(b) What is the working principle of a transformer? ( 1)
(c) Calculate the current through the primary. (1)
Answer:
(a) P_s = V_s × I_s
50 = V_s × 1
V_s = 50 V
Since V_s is less than V_p, it is a step-down transformer.
(b) Mutual Induction
(c) \(\frac{V_s}{V_p}=\frac{I_p}{I_s}\)
V_p = 250 V
I_s = 1 A
I_p = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{s}} \times \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{s}}}{\mathrm{~V}_{\mathrm{p}}}=\frac{50 \times 1}{250}\) = 0.2 A

Question 18.
Analyze the following schematic diagram and answer the questions.

(a) Name the device. (1)
(b) Which are the main parts of this device? (2)
(c) Illustrate the graphic representation of the output when the field magnet is rotated by keeping the armature stationary. (1)
Answer:
(a) DC Generator.
(b) Armature, field magnet, split ring commutator, and brushes.
(c)

Question 19.
The following diagram represents the passage of light from an object through a lens MN.

(a) Which type of lens is MN? (1)
(b) Copy and redraw the diagram to get the image of the object. (2)
(c) Write any two characteristics of this image. (1)
Answer:
(a) Concave Lens
(b)

(c) Erect, Virtual, Smaller than the object.

Question 20.
Analyze the following figure and answer the questions.

(a) Which are the colours obtained on the screen? (1)
(b) Which among these has the longest wavelength? (1)
(c) Name the process by which light splits up into its constituent colours. (1)
(d) What difference is observed when red laser light is used instead of sunlight? (1)
Answer:
(a) Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red. [All visible colours]
(b) Red
(c) Dispersion
(d) There is no dispersion. That is only red colour is obtained on the screen as it is composed of only one colour.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ hrs
Score: 40

Instructions:

• 20 minutes is given as cool-off time.
• Use cool-off time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Attempt the questions according to the instructions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 34 will be 40.

Each question from 1 to 8 carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Choose the least scattered colour in sunlight from the following. (1)
[Violet, Green, Blue, Red]
Answer:
Red

Question 2.
The non-rotating part in a dc motor is _________ (1)
[Armature, Split ring, Graphite Brush]
Answer:
Graphite Brush

Question 3.
Select the odd one from the group. (1)
[Reflection, Dispersion, Refraction, Persistence of Vision]
Answer:
Persistence of Vision

Question 4.
If the object distance and image distance in a concave mirror is 40 cm, what is its focal length? (1)
Answer:

Question 5.
Observe the relations between terms in the first pair and complete the second pair. (1)
CNG: Compressed Natural Gas
LNG: ________________
Answer:
LNG: Liquified Natural Gas

Question 6.
Pick out the one that is not a source of Green Energy. (1)
[Solar Cell, Wind Mill, Biogas, LPG]
Answer:
LPG

Question 7.
Which phenomenon of light is utilized in optical fiber technology? (1)
[Refraction, Total Internal Reflection, Dispersion, Scattering]
Answer:
Total Internal Reflection

Question 8.
The image formed by a convex lens is inverted and diminished. Then the object must be placed: (1)
[At 2F, Beyond 2F, Between F and 2F, At F]
Answer:
Beyond 2F

Each question from 9 to 20 carries 2 scores.

Question 9.
Write the energy change taking place in the given devices.
(a) Incandescent Lamp (1)
(b) Electric Mixie (1)
Answer:
(a) Incandescent lamp: Electrical energy → light energy
(b) Electric mixie: Electrical energy → Mechanical energy

Question 10.
(a) Name the part of a heating equipment in which the electric energy is converted into heat energy. (1)
(b) Name the substance used to make this part. (1)
Answer:
(a) Heating Coil
(b) Nichrome

Question 11.
Explain the difference between short circuits and overloading. (2)
Answer:
Short Circuit:
If the positive and negative terminals of a battery or the two wires from the mains come into contact without the presence of resistance in between, they are said to be in a short circuit.

Overloading:
A circuit is said to be overloaded if the total power of all the appliances connected to it is more than what the circuit can withstand.

Question 12.
Write any two methods to increase the magnetic strength of a current-carrying solenoid. (2)
Answer:

• By increasing the number of turns of the coil.
• By increasing the intensity of the electric current.
• By increasing the area of the cross-section of the core.

Question 13.
Observe the figure of a moving coil loudspeaker.

(a) Name the parts labeled as A and B. (1)
(b) Write the function of the diaphragm in this device. (1)
Answer:
(a) A – Voice Coil
B – Field Magnet
(b) The voice coil, which is placed in the magnetic field, moves to and fro rapidly when electrical pulses pass through it. These movements make the diaphragm vibrate thereby reproducing sound. The diaphragm helps to convert electrical energy into mechanical energy or sound energy.

Question 14.
Write any two relevant first aids to be given in the case of electric shock. (2)
Answer:
After removing the electric connection,

• Raise the temperature of the body by massaging.
• Give artificial respiration.

Question 15.
Explain the following.
(a) Electromagnetic Induction (1)
(b) Induced emf (1)
Answer:
Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a coil, an emf is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction. The emf induced due to electromagnetic induction is called induced emf.

Question 16.
Observe the figure.

(a) Write the angle of incidence. (1)
(b) Write the relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection. (1)
Answer:
(a) Angle of incidence, i = 90 – 40 = 50°
(b) Angle of incidence = angle of reflection
i = r (by the law of reflection)

Question 17.
When an object is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of the mirror, an image is obtained at 15 cm on the same side.
(a) Write the values of u and v according to the new cartesian sign convention. (1)
(b) Calculate the focal length of the given mirror. (1)
Answer:
(a) Distance of object, u = -30 cm
Distance of image, v = -15 cm
(b) Focal length of the mirror,

Question 18.
Light falls obliquely from one medium to another as shown in the figure.
[MN is the normal at the point of incidence]

Which of the given medium is the fastest medium for light? Justify your answer. (2)
Answer:
Medium A
Reason: From the figure, the angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction as optical density decreases light rays will move away from the normal. So medium A has low optical density. As optical density decreases, the speed of light through the medium increases.

Question 19.
DC is flowing through a solenoid AB. The direction of the current at the end A is anticlockwise.
(a) Write the polarity at the end A. (1)
(b) The solenoid is replaced by a current-carrying conductor. Give the name of the law that helps to determine the direction of the magnetic field produced. (1)
Answer:
(a) North Pole
(b) Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule/Screw rule.

Question 20.
‘Green energy is the energy of the future’.
Explain the above statement based on the energy crisis. (2)
Answer:
The energy crisis is the consequence of increasing demand and decreasing availability of energy sources. So far future generations, green energy should be maximized since it is eco-friendly and created from nature, we can reduce pollution as well as reduce the use of fossil fuels.

Each question from 21 to 28 carries 3 scores.

Question 21.
2 A current flows through an electric heating device connected to a 230 V supply.
(a) The quantity of charge that flows through the circuit in 5 minutes is: (1)
(i) 10 C
(ii) 60 C
(iii) 600 C
(iv) 6 C
(b) What is the resistance of the device? (1)
(c) Calculate the power of the heating device. (1)
Answer:
(a) Charge Q = I × t
I = 2A
t = 5 m = 5 × 60 s
∴ Q = 2 × 5 × 60 = 600 C
Option (iii) is correct.

(b) R = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
= \(\frac{230}{2}\)
= 115 Ω

(c) P = I²R
= 2² × 115
= 460 W

Question 22.
Three resistances of 4 Ω, 6 Ω, and 12 Ω are given to you.
(a) What is the highest resistance that you can get using all of them? (1)
(b) What is the lowest resistance that can be obtained by using the 6 Ω and 12 Ω resistances? (2)
Answer:
(a) Resistors are connected in series,
R₁ = 4 Ω, R₂ = 6 Ω, R₃ = 12 Ω
R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 4 + 6 + 12
= 22 Ω
(b) The lowest resistance can be made by connecting them parallel.
R₁ = \(\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}=\frac{6 \times 12}{6+12}=\frac{72}{18}\) = 4 Ω

Question 23.
The voltage of electric power generated is increased from 11 kV to 220 kV in power transmission. But the household supply is provided at 230 V.
(a) Write the type of transformer used at the first phase of power transmission. (1)
(b) Write the type of transformer used at the distribution line. (1)
(c) Write any two structural differences between the step-up and step-down transformer. (1)
Answer:
(a) Step up transformer (11 kV to 220 kV)
(b) Step down transformer (11 kV to 230 V)
(c) In step-up transformers, several turns in the primary are less than that in the secondary, and thick wires are used in the primary.
In step-down transformers, several turns in the primary are more than that in the secondary, and thin wires are used in the primary.

Question 24.
The graphical representation of EMF obtained from three electrical sources is given below.

(a) Identify any two sources. (1)
(b) Write any two peculiarities of each of the emf shown in the graph (A) and (B). (2)
Answer:
(a) A – AC generator
B – Battery
C – DC generator

(b) A: Direction changes continuously, emf increases and decreases.
B: Direction does not change, emf is constant.

Question 25.
(a) How fossil fuels are formed? (1)
(b) What are the products obtained by fractional distillation of coal? (2)
Answer:
(a) Fossil fuels are formed by the transformation of plants and animals that went under the earth’s crust millions of years ago. The transformation took place in the absence of air under high pressure and high temperature. Coal, petroleum, and natural gas are fossil fuels. They are not replenished.
(b) Ammonia, coal gas, coal tar, and coke are obtained.

Question 26.
A Rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of sunlight.
(a) What is dispersion? (1)
(b) Write down the changes in the sunlight in the water droplet as the rainbow forms. Explain. (2)
Answer:
(a) It is the splitting up of composite light into its constituent colors.
(b) When sunlight passes through water droplets, it undergoes refraction twice and internal reflection. The light ray emerging from the water droplets which makes the same angle with the line of vision have the same colour. These droplets appear in the form of an arch of a particular color. Thus there is a red colour in the upper edge and violet at the lower edge. All other colors are seen in between depending on their wavelengths.

Question 27.
The critical angle of water with air is shown in the figure.

(a) Define critical angle. (1)
(b) What change in the path of light will be observed if the angle of incidence Is increased from a critical angle? (1)
Answer:
(a) Critical Angle: When a ray of light passes from a medium of greater optical density to that of lower optical density, the angle of incidence at which the angle of refraction becomes 90° is the critical angle.
(b) All the incident rays will be reflected to the same medium without refraction.

Question 28.
The magnification of an image formed in a mirror is -1.
(a) What is the negative sign indicated with the value of magnification? (1)
(b) What is magnification? (1)
(c) Identify the mirror used. (1)
Answer:
(a) If magnification is negative, it means the image formed by the mirror is real and inverted.
(b) Magnification is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.

(c) Concave mirror

Each question from 29 to 34 carries 4 scores.

Question 29.
Observe the figure.

(a) Identify the Generator. (1)
(b) Write the working principle of this generator. (1)
(c) Which type of emf is induced in the armature? (1)
(d) Write the function of the split ring commutator used in this generator. (1)
Answer:
(a) DC generator
(b) Electromagnetic induction
(c) AC
(d) Split rings are used to convert AC into DC.

Question 30.
Analyze the figure to answer the questions.

(a) In which circuit is a varying magnetic field developed around the solenoid? (1)
(b) Which bulb in the circuit glows when the switch is kept on? (1)
(c) Explain whether there is a difference in the intensity of the light of the bulb. (2)
Answer:
(a) Figure B
(b) Both bulbs will glow, but the intensity of bulb B decreases.
(c) When both the switches are getting ON, a varying magnetic field is developed around the coil in fig (B) because of AC, a back emf is induced in it due to self-induction, and the effective voltage across the bulb decreases hence brightness of the bulb decreases.

Question 31.
(a) If the image obtained from a convex lens is erect and enlarged:
(i) Image is formed at: (1)
[Same side of the object/Opposite side of the object]
(ii) Write any one application of this type of image formation. (1)
(b) Write any two characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at the following positions.
(i) At infinity. (1)
(ii) Between F and 2F. (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Same side of the object.
(ii) Used in simple microscope/telescope/compound microscope/magnifier/reading lens etc.

Question 32.
Observe the circuit diagram and answer the questions.

(a) Find the effective resistance of the given circuit. (1)
(b) Calculate the current flowing through this circuit. (1)
(c) What is the heat produced in the 100 Ω resistance if the current flows for 10 minutes? (2)
Answer:
(a) R = R₁ + R₂
= 100 + 15
= 115 Ω
(b) I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
= \(\frac{230}{115}\)
= 2 A
(c) H = I²Rt
= 2² × 100 × 10 × 60
= 240000 J

Question 33.
(a) Write the function of a safety fuse in an electric circuit. (1)
(b) Write any two characteristics of fuse wire. (1)
(c) Write any two precautions to be taken while including fuse wire in a circuit. (2)
Answer:
(a) When excess current flows through the circuit, the heat generated in the fuse wire becomes excessive and the fuse wire will melt, and the circuit will break hence it will protect the device from overcurrent.
(b) Low melting point, high ductility, correct amperage.
(c) The ends of the fuse wire must be connected firmly at appropriate points.
The fuse wire should not project out of the carrier base.

Question 34.
Observe the ray diagram given below.

(a) Redraw the diagram and complete it to get the image. (2)
(b) Write any two characteristics of the image obtained. (2)
Answer:
(a) Object beyond 2F.

(b) Inverted, real, diminished, between F and 2F.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ hours
Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I

A. Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Find the relation between the terms in the first pair and complete the second pair. (1)
Incandescent lamp: Tungsten
Heating coil of heating appliances: ____________
Answer:
Nichrome

Question 2.
The secondary coil of a transformer has double turns than its primary coil. If the voltage applied in the primary coil is 25 V, what will the voltage be in the secondary? (1)
(25 V, 50 V, 2 V, 12.5 V)
Answer:
50 V

Question 3.
The midpoint of a lens is known as ___________ (1)
(Optic center, Principal focus, Centre of curvature, Principal axis)
Answer:
Optic Centre

Question 4.
If one Joule of work is done to move one coulomb of charge from one point to another. What will be the potential difference between these points? (1)
(2V, 3V, 1V, 4V)
Answer:
1 V

Question 5.
Which arrangement converts the AC induced in the armature of the DC generator into DC? (1)
Answer:
Splitting Commutator

Question 6.
When light passes through a medium it suffers partial and irregular reflection by hitting the particles of the medium. Name this phenomenon. (1)
Answer:
Scattering

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Which is the commercial unit of electrical energy? (1)
(ampere, kilowatt, kilowatt hour, volt)
Answer:
Kilowatt-hour

Question 8.
Which rule helps us to find the direction of motion of a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field? (1)
(Joule’s law, Maxwell’s right-hand thumb rule, Fleming’s left-hand rule, Fleming’s right-hand rule)
Answer:
Fleming’s left-hand rule

Question 9.
The figure shows a beam of light falling on two different surfaces. (1)

Which type of reflection is represented by Figure 1?
Answer:
Regular Reflection

Part – II

A. Answer the following question carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
When an object is placed in front of a concave mirror at a distance of 60 cm. An image is obtained on a screen at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror. (2)
Answer:

B. Answer any one question from 11 to 12. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
Write any two precautions to be taken to avoid electric shock. (2)
Answer:

• Never handle electric equipment or operate switches when the hands are wet.
• Do not fly kites near electric lines.

Question 12.
Why does Newton’s colour disc appear to be white, when it is rotated at high speed? Explain. (2)
Answer:
Due to the persistence of vision, the disc appears white. All the rays of light from the seven colors reach the retina of the eye within 1/16th of a second.

Part – III

A. Answer any three questions from 13 to 16. Each’ carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
The figure given below shows the dispersion of white light when it passes through a prism.

(a) Which colour deviates more? (1)
(b) Which colour of visible light has the longest wavelength? (1)
(c) During dispersion each colour has got different deviations. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) Violet/V
(b) Red/R
(c) Colours differ in their wavelength. The extent of deviation depends on the wavelength.

Question 14.
(a) What is the energy transformation taking place in a moving coil loudspeaker? (1)
(b) Explain the working of a moving coil loudspeaker. (2)
Answer:
(a) Electrical Energy → Sound Energy/Mechanical Energy
(b) The electrical pulses from a microphone are strengthened using an amplifier and sent through the voice coil of a loudspeaker. The voice coil, which is placed in the magnetic field, moves to and fro rapidly, by the electrical pulses. These movements make the diaphragm vibrate, thereby reproducing sound.

Question 15.
Some characteristics of step-up transformers and step-down transformers are given below. Select the statements suitable for step-up transformers. (3)
(a) Primary voltage is greater than secondary voltage.
(b) Secondary voltage is greater than primary voltage.
(c) The current in the primary coil is greater than that in the secondary coil.
(d) The current in the secondary coil is greater than that in the secondary toil.
(e) Thick wires are used in the primary.
(f) Thick wires are used in the secondary.
Answer:
(b) Secondary voltage is greater than primary voltage.
(c) The current in the primary coil is greater than that in the secondary coil.
(e) Thick wires are used in the primary.

Question 16.
When an object of height 5 cm is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a concave mirror, a real image is formed at a distance of 24 cm.
(a) Calculate magnification (Use New Cartesian Sign Convention) (1)
(b) Find the height of the image. (1)
(c) Based on magnification how can we predict whether the image formed is erect or inverted? (1)
Answer:


(c) Since magnification is -ve, the image is inverted.

B. Answer the following question carries a 3 score. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
(a) Which among the following is not a discharge lamp? (1)
(Sodium Vapour lamp, Arc lamp, Fluorescent lamp, LED lamp)
(b) Explain the working of the discharge lamp. (2)
Answer:
(a) LED lamp.
(b) When a high potential difference is applied the gas molecules get excited. Excited atoms come back to their original states to attain stability. During this process, the energy stored in them will be radiated as light.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
A schematic diagram of a generator is given:

(a) Which type of generator is this? (AC/DC) (1)
(b) Name the parts of this generator marked as 1, 2, 3, 4. (2)
1. __________________
2. __________________
3. __________________
4. __________________
(c) State the working principle of this device.
Answer:
(a) AC
(b) 1. Field magnet
2. Armature
3. Slip rings
4. Brush
(c) Electromagnetic induction: Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a coil, an emf is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is electromagnetic induction.

Question 19.
Analyze the figure.

An object is placed between F and 2F of a convex lens.
(a) Copy the diagram and complete to show the image formation. (2)
(b) Where must the object be placed to get a real image of the same size as that of the object? (1)
Answer:

(b) Inverted, Real
(c) At 2F

Question 20.
(a) What is meant by the term ‘energy crisis? (2)
(b) Write any two reasons for the energy crisis. Suggest two methods to minimize it. (2)
Answer:
(a) The energy crisis is the consequence of increasing demand but decreasing availability.
(b) Reasons for energy crisis:

• Increased population.
• Industrialization.

Methods to minimize energy crisis:

• Judicious utilization of energy.
• Making use of public transportation as far as possible.

B. Answer any one question from 21 to 22. Each question carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
An incandescent lamp bears the marking 200V, 100W.
(a) What does 100 W indicate? (1)
(b) What is the resistance of its filament? (2)
(c) Write an advantage of LED lamps over incandescent lamps. (1)
Answer:
(a) When 200 V potential difference is applied, then the power will be 100 W.

(c) As there is no filament, there is no loss of energy in the form of heat.

Question 22.
Observe the circuit of household electrification.

(a) Which device is used to measure the electrical energy consumed in household circuits? (1)
(b) Write any two advantages of connecting the devices in parallel in a household circuit. (2)
(c) Write the function of ELCB. (1)
Answer:
(a) Watt-hour meter.
(b) Devices work according to the marked power.
Devices can be controlled using switches as needed.
(c) ELCB helps to break the circuit automatically whenever there is a current leak due to insulation failure or other reasons.

Part – V

A. Answer any one question from 23 to 24. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
Light rays entering into the air from glass are depicted below. Observe the figures and answer the given questions.

(a) What is the critical angle of glass here? (1)
(b) Which figure represents total internal reflection? (1)
(c) Explain total internal reflection. (2)
(d) Write any two instances that make use of total internal reflection. (1)
Answer:
(a) 42°
(b) c
(c) When a ray of light passes from a medium of higher optical density to a medium of lower optical density at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, the ray is reflected to the same medium without undergoing refraction. This phenomenon is known as total internal reflection.
(d) Medical field – Endoscope
In the field of telecommunications – optical fiber cables.

Question 24.
Observe the given circuits.

(a) Calculate the resultant resistance in Circuit (A) and Circuit (B). (2)
(b) What is the intensity of electric current in Circuit (A)? (1)
(c) Calculate the heat energy produced in Circuit (B) if current flows for 30 minutes. (2)
Answer:

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ hours
Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
The prominent effect produced when a current passes through a solenoid is _________ (1)
[chemical effect, mechanical effect, magnetic effect, light effect]
Answer:
Magnetic Effect

Question 2.
When there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a conductor, an emf is induced in it. Name the phenomenon. (1)
Answer:
Electro Magnetic Induction

Question 3.
In mirrors which’ point is considered as the origin while measuring distances according to the New Cartesian Sign Convention? (1)
Answer:
Pole

Question 4.
Which phenomenon of light is used in optical fibers that are used for communication? (1)
Answer:
Total Internal Reflection

Question 5.
What is the distance to the near point from an eye with healthy vision? (1)
Answer:
25 cm/0.25 m

Section – B

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
(a) What is the main disadvantage of an incandescent lamp? (1)
(b) Write any two properties of tungsten that make it suitable for being used as a filament. (1)
Answer:
(a) A major part of the electrical energy supplied to an incandescent lamp is lost as heat.
(b) High resistivity
High melting point

Question 7.
Observe the diagram. Two 16 Ω resistors are connected in series and a potential difference of 24 V is applied.

(a) Calculate the effective resistance in the circuit. (1)
(b) If the resistors were connected in parallel without changing the voltage source what would be the current in the circuit? (1)
Answer:
(a) R = R1 + R2
= 16 + 16
= 32 Ω

Question 8.
A conductor kept in a magnetic field experiences a force when current passes through it.
(a) Name the rule that helps us to find the direction of the force. (1)
(b) Name any two devices that work based on this principle. (1)
Answer:
(a) Fleming Left Hand Rule
(b) Moving Coil Loudspeaker, Electric Motor.

Question 9.
Observe the diagram. (2)

Redraw the ray diagram and complete it to show the image.
Answer:

Question 10.
Match the following appropriately. (2)

A	B
(a) Fuel Cell	(i) Carbon
(b) L.P.G.	(ii) Methane
(c) Coal	(iii) Hydrogen
(d) CNG	(iv) Butane

Answer:

A	B
(a) Fuel Cell	(iii) Hydrogen
(b) L.P.G.	(iv) Butane
(c) Coal	(i) Carbon
(d) CNG	(ii) Methane

Section – C

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
A DC passes through an insulated copper coil wound over a soft iron core as shown in the figure.

(a) By just observing the experimental setup how will you identify the south pole of the electromagnet? (1)
(b) Compare the properties of an electromagnet and a permanent bar magnet. (2)
Answer:
(a) The end of the solenoid at which current flows in the clockwise direction will be the south pole.
(b)

Electromagnet	Bar magnet
The magnetism is temporary.	The magnetism is permanent.
Polarity can be changed.	Polarity cannot be changed.
The strength of the magnet can be changed.	The strength of the magnet cannot be changed.

Question 12.
The current in the secondary coil of a transformer with no power loss is 5 A and that is the primary is 0.5 A.
(a) What type of transformer is this? (1)
(b) If the input voltage of this transformer is 240V calculate the output voltage. (2)
Answer:
(a) Step down transformer

Question 13.
A doctor’s prescription for a person with defective vision has the figures -1 D and -1.25 D.
(a) What do these figures indicate? (1)
(b) Identify the defect of the eye. (1)
(c) Write the reason for this defect. (1)
Answer:
(a) Power of lens
(b) Short-sightedness/Nearsightedness/Myopia
(c) The size of the eyeball is larger/Power of the eye lens is high.

Question 14.
An object of height 6 cm is placed 10 cm away in front of a concave mirror. A real inverted image of a height of 3 cm is formed.
(a) Find the magnification of the image. (1)
(b) Calculate the distance of the image from the mirror. (2)
Answer:

Question 15.
Observe the figure. A ray of light enters from medium-1 to medium-2.

(a) Find out which medium has greater optical density. (1)
(b) Explain the terms: (2)
(i) relative refractive index
(ii) absolute refractive index
Answer:
(a) Medium-1
(b) (i) Relative refractive index: The refractive index of one medium for another medium is called relative refractive index.
(ii) Absolute refractive index: The refractive index of a medium for vacuum is called the absolute refractive index.

Section – D

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 4 scores.

Question 16.
A heating coil with 60 Ω resistance is connected to a 240 V supply.
(a) Calculate the power of the appliance. (1)
(b) Calculate the amount of heat generated by this heating coil in 5 minutes. (1)
(c) If this appliance continuously works for 10 hours, calculate the energy consumed in commercial units. (2)
Answer:

Question 17.
AC generators are used in power stations in our Country.
(a) What is the voltage produced by the generators in our power stations? (1)
(b) What do you mean by transmission loss? (1)
(c) Explain how it is minimized. (2)
Answer:
(a) 11000 V (11 kV)
(b) When electrical energy is transmitted through conducting wires, energy is wasted in the form of heat.
As H = I²Rt, for reducing H, I and R are to be decreased.
As P = VI, For decreasing I without affecting the power, voltage V is to be increased before transmission.

Question 18.
An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a lens of focal length +10 cm.
(a) Which type of lens is used here? (1)
(b) Calculate the image distance. (2)
(c) What is the nature of the image formed? (1)
Answer:
(a) Convex lens
(b) u = -15 cm
f = +10 cm

∴ V = 30 cm
(c) Inverted, Real

Question 19.
The red colour during sunset and the beautiful rainbow make nature colourful.
(a) Name the phenomenon that creates a rainbow. (1)
(b) What is the colour seen at the upper edge of the primary rainbow? (1)
(c) Suring sunset sun seems to be in red. Explain why? (2)
Answer:
(a) Dispersion
(b) Red
(c) During sunset, sunlight reaching us from the horizon has to travel a long distance through the atmosphere. Colours of shorter wavelength would be at most fully lost due to scattering. Red light which has a longer wavelength undergoes less scattering. That decides the colour of the horizon.

Question 20.
Kalpakkam, Moolamattom, and Neyveli are some places where power stations are located.
(a) Which among the above is a nuclear power station? (1)
(b) Explain the energy changes taking place in a nuclear power station. (2)
(c) What type of pollution is caused by such power stations? (1)
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Nuclear Energy → Heat Energy → Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy.
(c) Nuclear Pollution

Students can read Kerala SSLC Physics Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Physics Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Physics Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Identify the relation in the first word pair and complete the second.
(i) Brown Energy: Coal
(ii) Green Energy: __________
Answer:
Solar energy/wind energy/energy from waves/Biomass (Write anyone)

Question 2.
If the near point of a person is 25 cm, and the far point is not infinity then his eye has ___________
(No defect, Myopia, Hypermetropia, Presbyopia)
Answer:
Myopia

Question 3.
Name the process in which the nuclei of greater mass are split into lighter nuclei.
Answer:
Nuclear fission

Question 4.
The power of a lens is +2D. Find its focal length.
Answer:
Power is given P = +2D
f = \(\frac{1}{P}\)
f = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
f = 0.5 m Or f = 50 cm

Question 5.
The work done to move a charge of 3 coulomb between the points X and Y is 12J. Then the potential difference between these points is ________
Answer:
Charge = 3C
Work done to move charge between the points X and Y = 12J
The potential difference between these points
V = \(\frac{W}{Q}\)
= \(\frac{12}{3}\)
= 4V

Section – B

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
A conductor AB suspended freely between the poles of a U magnet is depicted. DC source is connected to the circuit.

(a) State the rule to find the direction of motion of the conductor AB when a current is switched on. (1)
(b) Write two methods to reverse the direction of motion of the conductor. (1)
Answer:
(a) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
(b) Reverse the direction of current.
Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 7.
A magnetic field is formed around a current-carrying conductor.
(a) Write the law to find the direction of this magnetic field. (1)
(b) Write two methods to increase the strength of the magnetic field by current-carrying conductors. (1)
Answer:
(a) Right Hand Thumb rule: If you imagine holding a current-carrying conductor in your right hand with your thumb pointing towards the direction of current, then the direction in which your fingers curl, gives the direction of the magnetic field.
(b) Increase current.
Increase the number of turns.

Question 8.
Various stages in the working of a moving coil microphone are given.

(a) Write them in the correct order. (1)
(b) What is the working principle of this microphone? (1)
Answer:
(a)

(b) Electromagnetic induction

Question 9.
The figure shows sunlight falling obliquely on a glass prism.

Copy the diagram and complete it. Mark the colors seen on the screen.
Answer:

The colors Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red will be obtained on the screen as marked here.

Question 10.
Which material is used to make the filament of an incandescent lamp? What properties make this material suitable for this purpose?
Answer:
Tungsten.
Properties of tungsten are

• High resistivity.
• Ability to emit white light on heating.
• High melting point.

Section – C

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
A student has a large number of identical 2 Ω resistors. He requires a circuit having an effective resistance of 9 Ω.
(a) What will be the minimum number of 2 Ω resistors used for this? (1)
(b) Draw the circuit diagram of this arrangement. (2)
Answer:
(a) The minimum number of 2 Ω resistors used = 6
For this Four resistors should be connected in series and two in parallel.
(Effective resistance of four resistance in series Rs = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8 Ω)
The effective resistance of two resistors in parallel = RP = 1 Ω
Effective resistance of the combination = Rs + Rs = 9 Ω)
(b)

Question 12.
Analyze the circuits and answer the following questions.

(a) “A magnetic field is developed around the solenoid only in the second circuit.” Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (1)
(b) In which circuit, a continuous emf is induced? Name and explain this phenomenon. (2)
Answer:
(a) No.
The magnetic field is developed around both solenoids. But in the first circuit, the field is steady, and that in the second circuit is varying because AC is applied in the second circuit.
(b) Circuit 2.
Self-induction: Self-induction is the phenomenon where an EMF is induced in a coil when a varying current passes through the same coil.

Question 13.
Match the following statements associated with mirrors in columns A, B, and C in the correct order.

A	B	C
Mirror	Characteristics of the virtual image	Use
Concave mirror	Always forms a diminished image	To see the face
Convex mirror	The size of the image and the size of the object will be equal	Used by dentists.
Plane mirror	Always forms enlarged images	Used as a rear view mirror in vehicles

Answer:

A	B	C
Mirror	Characteristics of the Virtual Image	Use
Concave Mirror	Always forms an enlarged image	Used by dentist
Convex Mirror	Always forms a diminished image	Used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles
Plane Mirror	The size of the image and the size of the object will be equal.	To see the face

Question 14.
Observe the diagram of an object placed on the principal axis of a convex lens.

(a) Copy down the ray diagram and complete it to show the position of the image. (2)
(b) Write the characteristics of the image obtained.
Answer:
(a)

(b) Characteristics of the image formed: Enlarged, Inverted and Real.

Question 15.
The calorific value should be considered when choosing a good fuel.
(a) What is the calorific value of a fuel? (1)
(b) What are the essential factors for the complete combustion of a fuel? (1)
(c) What are the characteristics of a good fuel? (1)
Answer:
(a) It is the heat energy liberated by the complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel.
(b) (i) Availability of sufficient oxygen.
(ii) Must be dry (for solid fuels)
(iii) Liquid fuels must evaporate easily.
(c) (i) High calorific value
(ii) Should be of low cost
(iii) Should be easily storable
(iv) Should cause minimum atmospheric pollution

Section – D

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
The resistance of an electrical device designed to work at 230 V is 460 Ω.
(a) Calculate the current drawn by this device when operated at 230 V. (1)
(b) Find the rated power of the device. (1)
(c) Calculate the heat produced if this device works for 10 minutes. (2)
Answer:
(a) Current, I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
R = 460 Ω
V = 230 V
I = \(\frac{230}{460}\) = 0.5 A

(b) Power, P = VI
= 230 × 0.5
= 115 W

(c) t = 10 minutes
= 10 × 60s
= 600 s
H = I2Rt
= 0.5 × 0.5 × 460 × 600
= 69000J

Question 17.
A transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 1000 turns in the secondary.
(a) Which coil of this transformer is made using thick wire? Give reason. (2)
(b) Explain how electrical energy is transferred from the primary to the secondary of the transformer. (2)
Answer:
(a) Primary coil is made using thick wire.
(Hint: Number oftums is less in the Primary here. So it is a step-up transformer. So thick wire is used in the primary coil)
When the thick wire is used, the resistance of the coil can be minimized. There are two benefits to this.
(i) Overheating of the coil can be prevented.
(ii) Energy loss can be minimized.

(b) It is through mutual induction power is transferred from the primary coil to the secondary coil.
When the strength or direction of the current in one of the two adjacent coils changes, the magnetic flux around it changes. As a result, an emf is induced in the secondary coil. This phenomenon is mutual induction.

Question 18.
An object is located on the principal axis of a spherical mirror at a distance of 40 cm from the pole. The magnification of the image is -4.
(a) What does the negative sign indicate? (1)
(b) How far from the pole of the mirror is the image formed? (1)
(c) Calculate the focal length of the mirror by considering the New Cartesian sign convention. (2)
Answer:
(a) The negative sign indicates that the image is inverted and real.

(b) u = -40 cm
m = -4
we know m = \(\frac{-v}{u}\)
⇒ -4 = \(\frac{-v}{-40}\)
⇒ v = 40 × (-4) =-160 cm

(c) f = \(\frac{u v}{u+v}\)
= \(\frac{-40 \times-160}{-40-160}\)
= \(\frac{6400}{-200}\)
= -32 cm

Question 19.
The critical angle of glass for air is 42°. Observe the figure and answer the questions.

(a) What do you mean by critical angle? (1)
(b) What happens to the given incident ray as it continues its path? (1)
(c) Explain the phenomenon of light that occurs here. (2)
Answer:
(a) When light travels from a medium of higher optical density to a medium of lower optical density, the angle of incidence at which the angle of refraction is 90° is called Critical angle.
(b) The ray will be reflected back to the glass.
(c) When light travels from a medium of higher optical density to a medium of lower optical density, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, the light will be reflected back into the same medium instead of undergoing refraction. This is known as total internal reflection.

Question 20.
Give reason for each of the following.
(a) A rapidly rotating Newton’s colour disc appears white. (1)
(b) Sun appears red during sunrise and sunset. (1)
(c) A clear sky appears blue. (1)
(d) On frosty mornings the path of sunlight passing through the woods is clearly visible. (1)
Answer:
(a) It is due to persistence of vision.
(When the disc is rotated rapidly, all the rays of light from seven colours reach the retina within \(\frac{1}{16}\) s. So the disc appears white.)
(b) Red undergoes least scattering as it has higher wavelength.
(All other short wavelength colours get scattered off as it has to travel a greater distance during sunset and sunrise time and red reaches our eye.)
(c) Blue is a colour having shorter wave-length.
(So it undergoes more scattering in the atmosphere and spreads in all direction. Therefore clear sky appears blue.)
(d) It is due to tyndal effect.