Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2 hours
Score: 80

Instructions:

  • There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time. Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
  • Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
  • Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
  • Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
  • The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.
  • No need to simplify irrationality like √2, √3, π, etc, using approximations unless asked.

Part – I
Questions from 1 to 10 carry 1 score each.

A. Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Write the first three terms of the arithmetic sequence with first term 6 and common difference 4.
Answer:
6, 10, 14, 18,……

Question 2.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q2
Suppose we draw a circle with AB as diameter. Among the points C, D, E which lies on the circles?
Answer:
D is on the circle.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 3.
A line parallel to x-axis passes through the point (2, 1). Find the co-ordinates of the point on this line intersecting with y-axis.
Answer:
(0, 1)

Question 4.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q4
In the figure, AB is the diameter of the circle. Calculate the probability of a dot put inside the circle, without looking, to be within the non-shaded region.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 5.
The radii of two hemispheres are in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of their surface areas? (1)
Answer:
12 : 22 = 1 : 4

Question 6.
p(x) = x2 + 2x. Find the number to be subtracted from p(x) to get a polynomial for which x – 1 is a factor. (1)
Answer:
3

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Choose the correct answers from the bracket. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q7
From the figure, which among the following is tan x?
\(\left[\frac{3}{5} ; \frac{4}{5} ; \frac{3}{4} ; \frac{4}{3}\right]\)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 8.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q8
In the figure chord, BA extended and the tangent at C meets at P. PA = 4 centimeters and PB = 9 centimeters. What is the area of the square with a side PC?
[6, 36, 13, √6]
Answer:
36

Question 9.
The equation of a line is y = 2x. Which of the following is not a point on this line?
[(1, 2); (5, 10); (\(\frac{1}{2}\), 1); (3, 1)]
Answer:
(3, 1)

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 10.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q10
The figure shows one lateral face of a square pyramid. Its sides are 5 centimeters, 5 centimeters, and 6 centimeters. What would be the slant height of a square pyramid in centimetres?
[3; 4; 5; 6]
Answer:
4 cm

Part – II
Questions from 11 to 18 carry 2 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 11 to 15. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 11.
The sum of the first seven terms of an arithmetic sequence is 84. Find its 4th term. (2)
Answer:
x4 = \(\frac{84}{7}\) = 12

Question 12.
A box contains 3 red balls and 6 green balls.
(a) What is the probability of getting a red ball from this box? (1)
(b) How many more red balls should be added so that the probability of getting a red ball is \(\frac{1}{2}\)?
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)

(b) When 3 red balls are added the number of red balls becomes 6 and the total number of balls is 12.
Probability is \(\frac{6}{12}=\frac{1}{2}\).

Question 13.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q13
In the right triangle ABC, ∠A = 40° and AC = 20 centimeters. Calculate the length of the side BC.
(sin 40° = 0.64; cos 40° = 0.76)
Answer:
sin 40° = \(\frac{B C}{20}\)
⇒ 0.64 = \(\frac{B C}{20}\)
⇒ BC = 0.64 × 20 = 12.8 cm

Question 14.
Write the polynomial x2, \(-\frac{1}{4}\) as the product of two first degree polynomials.
Answer:
\(x^2-\frac{1}{4}=x^2-\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\left(x-\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)\)

Question 15.
The scores of 10 students in an examination are given below.
30, 28, 25, 32, 20, 36, 24, 33, 27, 38
Calculate the median score.
Answer:
Ascending order: 20, 24, 25, 27, 28, 30, 32, 33, 36, 38
5th and 6th score comes in the middle. These are 28 and 30.
Median = \(\frac{28+30}{2}\) = 29

B. Answer any two questions from 16 to 18. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
The expression for the sum of the first ‘n’ terms of an arithmetic sequence is 2n2 + 4n. Find the first term and common difference of this sequence. (2)
Answer:
x1 = 2 × 12 + 4 × 1 = 6
When n = 2
The sum of the first 2 terms is 2 × 22 + 4 × 2 = 16.
x2 = 16 – x1 = 16 – 6 = 10
d = x2 – x1 = 10 – 6 = 4

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 17.
Find the radius of the incircle of a triangle with a perimeter of 42 centimeters and an area of 84 square centimeters. (2)
Answer:
s = \(\frac{42}{2}\) = 21
r = \(\frac{A}{s}=\frac{84}{21}\) = 4 cm

Question 18.
Find the equation of the circle with the center at the origin and radius 5. (2)
Answer:
x2 + y2 = 52
⇒ x2 + y2 = 25

Part – III
Questions 19 to 25 carry 4 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 19 to 23. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Draw a rectangle of sides 4 centimeters and 3 centimeters. Draw a square of area equal to the area of this rectangle.
Answer:
Draw the rectangle ABCD with sides 4 cm and 3 cm.
AB = 4 cm and BC = 3 cm.
Produce AB to E such that BC = BE.
Draw a semicircle with diameter AE.
Produce BC which intersects the semicircle at F.
Complete the square with side BF. This is the square BFGE.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q19
The area of the rectangle and square are equal according to the relation BA × BE = BF2.

Question 20.
A rectangle is to be made with a perimeter of 60 meters and an area of 189 square meters. What should be the length of its sides?
Answer:
2(length + breadth) = 60
Therefore (length + breadth) = 30
If one side is x the other side will be 30 – x
x(30 – x) = 189
⇒ 30x – x2 = 189
⇒ -x2 + 30x = 189
⇒ x2 – 30x = -189
⇒ x2 – 30x + 225 = -189 + 225
⇒ (x – 15)2 = 36
⇒ x – 15 = 6
⇒ x = 21
The sides are 21 cm and 9 cm.

Question 21.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q21
(a) Tangents at points A and B on the circle meet at P. If PA = 5 cm, what is PB? (1)
(b) Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Mark a point P, at a distance 7 centimeters away from the center of the circle. Then construct tangents from P to the circle. (3)
Answer:
(a) PB = 5 cm

(b) Draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
Mark the center as O and point P at a distance of 7 cm away from the center of the circle.
Draw a circle with diameter OP which cut the first circle at A and B.
Draw the lines PA and PB. Then PA and PB are the required tangents.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q21.1

Question 22.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q22
(a) What are the coordinates of the fourth vertex of the parallelogram? (2)
(b) What are the coordinates of the point of intersection of its diagonals? (2)
Answer:
(a) Since it is a parallelogram opposite sides are parallel.
The shift of the x coordinates of the points (0, 0) and (4, 2) is 4.
So the shift of x coordinates of the opposite side is also 4.
The x co-ordinates of fourth vertex is 2 + 4 = 6
Similarly y co-ordinates = 8 + 2 = 10
The unknown vertex is (6, 10).

(b) The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
The intersecting point will be the midpoint of a diagonal.
It is \(\left(\frac{2+4}{2}, \frac{8+2}{2}\right)\).
The intersecting point is (3, 5).

Question 23.
From a cube of side 6 centimeters, the largest sphere is carved out.
(a) What is the volume of the sphere? (3)
(b) This sphere is cut into two halves. What is the volume of one hemisphere? (1)
Answer:
(a) Radius of the sphere is 3 cm.
(The side of the cube becomes the diameter of the sphere)
Volume = \(\frac{4}{3}\) × π × 33 = 36π cubic cm

(b) 18π cubic cm

B. Answer any one question from 24 and 25. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
Natural numbers from 1 to 10 are written on paper slips and are put in a box. Another box contains paperslips with numbers less than 10 which are multiples of 3. One slip is taken from each box.
(a) What is the probability of both being odd? (3)
(b) What is the probability of getting at least one even? (1)
Answer:
Box A: 1, 2, 3,….. 10
Box B: 3, 6, 9
The total number of output pairs is 10 × 3 = 30
(a) The number of odds in A is 5.
Number of odds in B is 2.
Probability of getting both odd is \(\frac{5 \times 2}{30}=\frac{1}{3}\).

(b) Probability of getting at least one event is 1 – \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\).

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 25.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q25
In the figure, the radius of the circle with center O is 7 centimeters.
∠BOC = 100°.
(a) Find ∠A. (1)
(b) Find the length of BC. (3)
(sin 50° = 0.76; cos 50° = 0.64; tan 50° = 1.19)
Answer:
Draw a rough diagram. In this diagram mark the perpendicular OP to BC.
The foot of perpendicular bisect BC. OP bisects the 100° angle given in the figure.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q25.1
(a) ∠A = 50°

(b) sin 50° = \(\frac{B P}{O B}\)
⇒ 0.76 = \(\frac{B P}{7}\)
⇒ BP = 7 × 0.76 = 5.32
BC = 2 × 5.32 = 10.64 cm

Part – IV
Questions from 26 to 32 carry 6 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 26 to 29. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 26.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q26
In the rectangle shown above, its sides are parallel to the axes.
(a) Find the coordinates of the remaining two vertices of the rectangle. (2)
(b) Find the length of one diagonal. (2)
(c) Find the coordinates of the center of its circumcircle. (2)
Answer:
(a) B(9, 2), D(1, 8)

(b) AB = 8, BC = 6
Using Pythagoras theorem
AC2 = 82 + 62 = 100
⇒ AC = √100 = 10

(c) Circumcenter is the midpoint of the diagonal.
O\(\left(\frac{1+9}{2}, \frac{2+8}{2}\right)\) = O(5, 5)

Question 27.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q27
(a) In Figure, A, B, C, and D are points on the circle with center O. ∠AOB = 140°. Find the measures of ∠ACB and ∠ADB. (2)
(b) Draw a triangle of circum radius 3.5 centimeters and two angles 50° and 70°. (2)
Answer:
(a) ∠ACB = 70°
∠ADB = 180° – 70° = 110°

(b) Draw a circle of radius 3.5 cm.
Divide the angle around the center as 2 × 50°, 2 × 70° by drawing radii.
Angles are 100°, 140°, 120°.
Draw a triangle by joining the ends of the radii.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q27.1

Question 28.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q28
(a) In the figure ∠A = 45°, ∠B = 90°, AB = 10 centimetres. What is the length of the AC? (1)
(b) A boy sees the top of a tower at an elevation of 60°. Stepping 20 meters back, he sees it at an elevation of 30°. Find the height of the tower. (5)
Answer:
(a) 10√2 cm

(b)
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q28.1
In triangle BDC, if BD = x then h = √3x
In triangle ADC, 20 + x = √3h
Therefore, 20 + x = √3 × √3x
⇒ 20 + x = 3x
⇒ 2x = 20
⇒ x = 10 meter
h = √3x = 10√3 meter

Question 29.
From a circular metal sheet of radius 30 centimeters, a sector of central angle 120° is cut out and made into a cone.
(a) What are the slant height and base radius of this cone? (2)
(b) Calculate the area of the curved surface of this cone. (2)
(c) What would be the radius of the cone that can be made by rolling up the remaining sector? (2)
Answer:
(a) Slant height l = 30 cm
If x is the central angle of the sector and r is the radius of the cone then lx = 360r
30 × 120 = 360 × r
r = 10 cm

(b) Curved surface area = πrl
= π × 10 × 30
= 300π sq. cm

(c) The central angle of the remaining part is 360 – 120 = 240°
lx = 360r
r = \(\frac{30 \times 240}{360}\) = 20 cm

B. Answer any two questions from 30 to 32. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 30.
(a) Find 1 + 2 + 3 +……….+ 10. (2)
(b) How many consecutive natural numbers starting from 1 should be added to get 300? (4)
Answer:
(a) Sum = \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{10 \times 11}{2}\) = 55

(b) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = 300
⇒ n(n + 1) = 600
⇒ n2 + n = 600
⇒ n2 + n – 600 = 0
⇒ n = \(\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4 a c}}{2 a}\)
⇒ n = 24

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 31.
p(x) = x2 – 5x + 6
(a) Find p(2). (2)
(b) Write p(x) as the product of two first-degree polynomials. (2)
(c) Find the solutions of the equation x2 – 5x + 6 = 0. (2)
Answer:
(a) p(2) = 22 – 5 × 2 + 6 = 0

(b) Since p(2) = 0, x – 2 is a factor.
Another factor is ax + b.
(x – 2) (ax + b) = x2 – 5x +6
a = 1, -2b = 6 ⇒ b = -3
Another factor is x – 3.
p(x) = (x – 2)(x – 3)

(c) x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
⇒ (x – 2)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = 2 and x = 3

Question 32.
The daily wages of workers in a firm are given below.

Daily Wages No. of Workers
500 – 600 5
600 – 700 7
700 – 800 10
800 – 900 8
900 – 1000 5
Total 35

(a) If workers are arranged according to their wages (lower to higher).
(i) Which position is taken as median? (1)
(ii) What will be the assumed wage of the 13th worker? (2)
(b) Calculate the median of daily wages. (3)
Answer:

Daily Wages No. of Workers
Below 600 5
Below 700 12
Below 800 22
Below 900 30
Upto 1000 35

n = 35 number of workers is odd.
\(\frac{35+1}{2}\)th worker comes in the middle.
The wage of the 18th worker is the median wage.
(a) The wage of the 18th worker is the median wage.

(b) Median wage comes in the class 700 – 800.
When 100 rupees is divided equally among 10 workers, each share is 10.
It is assumed that the distribution of wages in the median class is in an arithmetic sequence.
Wage of 13th worker is 700 + \(\frac{10}{2}\) = 705

(c) f = 705, d = 10.
The sixth term of the arithmetic sequence will be the median.
x6 = f + 5d
= 705 + 5 × 10
= 755
According to the assumption, x6 is the wage of the 18th worker. It is 755 rupees.
∴ The median is 755.

Part – V
Questions from 33 to 35 carry 8 scores each.

A. Answer any two questions from 33 to 35. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
(a) Consider the arithmetic sequence 4, 7, 10,……. what is the algebraic expression for this sequence? (2)
(b) Write the 20th term of this sequence. What is the smallest three-digit number which is a term of this sequence? (2)
(c) Find the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence. (2)
What is the difference between the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence and the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence with algebraic form 3n + 2?
Answer:
(a) xn – dn + (f – d) = 3n + 1

(b) x20 = 3 × 20 + 1 = 61
3n + 1 > 99
⇒ 3n > 98
⇒ n > = 32.6
So n = 33, x33 is the first three-digit term of this sequence.
x33 = 3 × 33 + 1 = 100

(c) Sum of first 20 terms is (x1 + x20) × \(\frac{20}{2}\)
= (4 + 61) × 10
= 650
3n + 2 = (3n + 1) + 1.
The sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence with the nth term 3n + 2 is 650 + 20 = 670
So the difference is 20.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 34.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q34
(a) In the figure, the incircle of triangles A, B, and C touches its sides at the points P, Q and R. O is the center of the circle. (4)
(i) Find ∠OQB.
(ii) Examine whether quadrilateral POQB is cyclic.
(iii) If ∠B = 50°, then ∠POQ = _____________
(b) Draw a triangle with a radius of the incircle 2.5 centimeters and two angles 50°, 60°. (4)
Answer:
(a) (i) ∠OQB = 90°
(ii) In POQB the sum of ∠P and ∠Q is 90° + 90° = 180°.
The opposite angle sum is 180°. The quadrilateral is cyclic.
(iii) ∠POQ = 180°

(b) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 cm.
Divide the angle around the center as 180° – 50° = 130° and 180° – 60° = 120° by drawing radii.
Now we can see three radii.
Draw tangents to the circle at the ends of the radii.
The tangents make the required triangle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q34.1

Question 35.
(a) Draw the x and y axis. Mark the points (1, 2) and (3, 5). (3)
(b) Find the slope of the line, passing through the points (1, 2) and (3, 5). (2)
(c) The x coordinate of a point on this line is 21. What is its y coordinate? (3)
Answer:
(a) Use the given graph paper
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q35

(b) Slope = \(\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{5-2}{3-1}=\frac{3}{2}\)

(c) Consider the point (1, 2) and (21, y).
Slope = \(\frac{3}{2}=\frac{y-2}{21-1}\)
⇒ \(\frac{y-2}{20}=\frac{3}{2}\)
⇒ 2(y – 2) = 3 × 20
⇒ 2y – 4 = 60
⇒ 2y = 64
⇒ y = 32

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ hrs
Score: 80

Instructions:

  • Read each question carefully before answering.
  • Give explanations wherever necessary.
  • The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
  • No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π, etc. using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
Write the next two terms of the arithmetic sequence 5, 12, 19,…
Answer:
d = 12 – 5 = 7
The next two terms are 26, 33

Question 2.
Natural numbers from 1 to 10 are written on paper slips and put in a box. If one slip is taken from the box, without looking, then what is the probability of the number on the slip being a multiple of 3?
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{10}\)

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 3.
ABCD is a rectangle, ∠CAB = 30°, AC = 10 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q3
(a) Find the length of BC.
(b) Find the length of AB.
Answer:
(a) 5 cm
(b) 5√3 cm

Question 4.
Find the median of the first 9 even numbers.
Answer:
Since the number of observations is 9 and these are the even numbers in the order from the beginning then the 5th even number is the median. It is 10.

Answer any four questions from 5 to 10. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 5.
The sum of the first 5 terms of an arithmetic sequence is 145.
(a) Find the third term.
(b) If the common difference of this sequence is 4, write the terms.
Answer:
(a) x3 = \(\frac{145}{5}\) = 29

(b) x1 = 29 – 2d
= 29 – 8
= 21
Terms are 21, 25, 29,…….

Question 6.
Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Draw a triangle of angles 50°, 60°, 70°, and vertices on this circle.
Answer:
Steps of Construction:

  • Draw the circle.
  • Divide the angle around the center as twice the given angles by drawing the radii.
  • Join the ends of the radii. Now we get the triangle.

Question 7.
Draw the x and y axes and mark the points A(3, 0), B(4, 1), C(2, -3).
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q7

Question 8.
A square and two rectangles of the same height are kept together as in the picture. The width of the rectangles is 2 centimeters. The total area of the picture is 96 square centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q8
(a) Taking the side of the square as x centimeters, write an equation representing the given details.
(b) Find the length of one side of the square.
Answer:
(a) (x + 4) × x = 96
⇒ x2 + 4x = 96
⇒ x2 + 4x + 4 = 100
⇒ (x + 2)2 = 100

(b) x + 2 = √100 = 10
⇒ x = 8 cm

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 9.
In triangle ABC, P(5, 0), Q(6, 1), R(3, 1) are the mid-points of sides BC, CA, and AB respectively.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q9
(a) What is the most suitable name for the quadrilateral BPQR?
(b) Find the coordinates of B and C.
Answer:
(a) Parallelogram

(b) B(3 + 5 – 6, 1 + 0 – 1) = B(2, 0)
Join PR. The quadrilateral PCQR is a parallelogram.
C(5 + 6 – 3, 0 + 1 – 1) = C(8, 0)

Question 10.
Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Mark a point 7 centimeters away from the center. Draw tangents from this point to the circle.
Answer:
Steps of Construction:

  • Draw the circle, and mark the center O.
  • Mark a point P at a distance 7 cm away from the center of the circle. Draw line OP.
  • Draw a circle with OP as the diameter. This circle cut the first circle at A and B.
  • Draw lines PA and PB.

Answer any eight questions from 11 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (8 × 4 = 32)

Question 11.
A sequence is written by adding 3 to the multiples of 4.
(a) Write the algebraic form of the sequence.
(b) Find the tenth term of the sequence.
(c) Is 100 a term of this sequence? Why?
Answer:
(a) 1 × 4 + 3, 2 × 4 + 3, 3 × 4 + 3,……
xn = 4n + 3

(b) x10 = 4 × 10 + 3 = 43

(c) All terms of this sequence are 3 more than a multiple of 4.
100 is not a term. It is a multiple of 4, not 3 more than a multiple of 4.

Question 12.
(a) In the picture, AB is the diameter of the semicircle. PC is perpendicular to AB. AP = 5 centimetres and PB = 3 centimetres. Find the length of the PC.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q12
(b) Draw a square of area 15 square centimeters.
Answer:
(a) PA × PB = PC2
⇒ 5 × 3 = PC2
⇒ PC = √15 cm

(b) Construction:
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q12.1

Question 13.
The perimeter of a rectangle is 80 centimeters. Its area is 384 square centimeters. Find the length and breadth of the rectangle.
Answer:
2(length + breadth) = 80
⇒ length + breadth = 40
If one side is x then the other side is 40 – x
x(40 – x) = 384
⇒ 40x – x2 = 384
⇒ x2 – 40x = -384
⇒ x2 – 40x + 400 = -384 + 400
⇒ (x – 20)2 = 16
⇒ x – 20 = 4, -4
If x – 20 = 4
⇒ x = 24
One side is 24 cm, other side is 40 – 24 = 16 cm

Question 14.
In class 10A, there are 25 boys and 20 girls. In 10B, there are 26 boys and 24 girls. One student is to be selected from each class.
(a) What is the probability of both being girls?
(b) What is the probability of both being boys?
(c) What is the probability of one boy and one girl?
Answer:
There are 45 students in 10A and 50 students in 10B
The total number of pairs is 45 × 50 = 2250
(a) Number of pairs in which both are girls = 20 × 24 = 480
Probability is \(\frac{480}{2250}\)

(b) Number of pairs in which both are girls = 25 × 26 = 650
Probability is \(\frac{650}{2250}\)

(c) Number of pairs in which one boy and one girl = \(\frac{25 \times 24+20 \times 26}{2250}=\frac{1120}{2250}\)

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 15.
ABCD is a parallelogram. BC = 15 centimetres; ∠B = 45°, AB = 10√2 centimetres. AM is perpendicular to BC.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q15
(a) Find the length of AM and BM.
(b) What is the length of MC?
(c) Calculate the length of diagonal AC.
Answer:
(a) ΔAMB is a 45° – 45° – 90° triangle.
AM = BM = 10 cm

(b) MC = 15 – 10 = 5 cm

(c) AC2 = AM2 + MC2 = 125
AC = √125 = 5√5 cm

Question 16.
Consider the polynomial P(x) = x2 – 11x + 21
(a) Find P(2).
(b) Find P(x) – P(2).
(c) Write P(x) – P(2) as the product of two first degree polynomials.
Answer:
(a) P(2) = 22 – 11 × 2 + 21
= 4 – 22 + 21
= 3

(b) P(x) – P(2) = x2 – 11x + 21 – 3 = x2 – 11x + 18

(c) P(x) – P(2) = (x – 2)(x – 9)

Question 17.
The sides of rectangle ABCD are parallel to the axes. The coordinates of A and C are (3, 1) and (7, 4) respectively.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q17
(a) Find the coordinates of B and D.
(b) Find the length of the diagonal of the rectangle.
Answer:
(a) B(7, 1), D(3, 4)

(b) AC = \(\sqrt{(7-3)^2+(4-1)^2}=\sqrt{4^2+3^2}\) = 5

Question 18.
A(1, 3), B(2, 5), C(3, 7) and D are points on a line such that AB = BC = CD.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q18
(a) Find the coordinates of D.
(b) Find the slope of the line.
(c) Find the equation of this line.
Answer:
(a) D(4, 9)

(b) Slope = \(\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_{2^{\prime}}-x_1}=\frac{7-5}{3-2}\) = 2

(c) Let (x, y) be a point on the line.
\(\frac{y-3}{x-1}\) = 2
⇒ y – 3 = 2(x – 1)
⇒ y – 3 = 2x – 2
⇒ y = 2x + 1
or
The equation of a line is the general linear relation between the coordinates of points on the line.
Here 3 = 2 × 1 + 1
5 = 2 × 2 + 1
7 = 2 × 3 + 1
y = 2x + 1 is the equation of the line.

Question 19.
In the figure, O is the center of the circle. AB is a chord of the circle and BT is a tangent ∠ABT = 70°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q19
Find the measures of the angles given below.
(a) ∠OBT
(b) ∠OBA
(c) ∠AOB
(d) ∠APB
Answer:
(a) ∠OBT = 90° (Tangent is perpendicular to the radius)
(b) ∠OBA = 90° – 70° = 20°
(c) ∠AOB = 140°
(d) ∠APB = 70°

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 20.
A square pyramid is made using a cardboard piece in the shape as shown in the figure. The side of the square is 10 centimeters. The equal sides of the triangles are 13 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q20
(a) Find the slant height of the square pyramid.
(b) Calculate the surface area of the square pyramid.
Answer:
(a) Half of the base edge \(\frac{a}{2}\) slant height l and lateral edge of a square pyramid make a right triangle.
132 = 52 + l2
⇒ l2 = 169 – 25 = 144
⇒ l = 12 cm

(b) Surface area of the square pyramid = Base area + lateral surface area.
Surface Area = 102 + 2 × 10 × 12
= 100 + 240
= 340 sq. cm

Question 21.
Two sectors are cut out from a circle. The central angle of the larger sector is double that of the smaller. Each sector is rolled up to make a cone.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q21
(a) The slant height of the cone made from the smaller sector is 10 centimeters. What is the slant height of the other cone?
(b) Write the ratio of the radii of the two cones.
(c) Find the ratio of the base areas of the cones.
(d) Find the ratio of their curved surface areas.
Answer:
(a) The radius of the sector becomes the slant height of the cone.
Since both sectors have the same radius then the slant height of the cones is equal. It is 10 cm.

(b) Since the ratio of central angles of the sectors is 1 : 2, the base radii of the cones are also 1 : 2 as per the relation
lx = 360r
r = \(\frac{l}{360}\) × x

(c) It is the ratio of the square of radii.
It is 1 : 4 (The area of a circle is proportional to the square of the radius)

(d) Same as the ratio of radii.
The ratio is 1 : 2.

Answer any six questions from 22 to 29. Each question carries 5 scores. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 22.
The sum of the 8th and 19th terms of an arithmetic sequence is 125.
(a) What is the sum of the 7th and 20th terms?
(b) If the 6th term is 40, then find the 21st term.
(c) Find the sum of the first 26 terms.
Answer:
(a) In an arithmetic sequence having a definite number of terms sum of the terms equidistant from both ends is equal.
So x7 + x20 = x8 + x19 = 125

(b) x6 + x21 = 125
⇒ x21 = 125 – 40 = 85

(c) 125 × 13 = 1625

Question 23.
In quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A = 95°, ∠B = 100°, ∠C = 90°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q23
(a) Find the measure of ∠D.
(b) If we draw a circle with BD as diameter, then check whether the vertices A and C are outside, on, or inside the circle.
(c) If a circle is drawn through points, A, B, and C, where would point D concerning that circle?
Answer:
(a) ∠D = 75°

(b) A is inside the circle.
C is On the circle.

(c) Outside the circle.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 24.
A body standing at the edge of a canal sees the top of a tree at the other edge at an elevation of 60°. Stepping 10 meters back, he sees the tree at an elevation of 30°. The boy is 1.5 meters tall.
(a) Draw a rough figure.
(b) Calculate the width of the canal and the height of the tree.
Answer:
(a) See diagram
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q24

(b) DE = y, FG = x
Triangle DFG is a 30°-60°-90° triangle.
x = √3y
Triangle BFG is a 30°-60°- 90° triangle.
⇒ y + 10 = √3x
⇒ y + 10 = √3 × √3 y
⇒ y + 10 = 3y
⇒ 2y =10
⇒ y = 5m
⇒ x = 5√m
The height of the boy is 5√3 + 1.5 m

Question 25.
Draw a triangle ABC in which AB = 7 centimeters, BC = 6 centimeters, AC = 5 centimeters. Draw its incircle. Measure and write the radius of the incircle.
Answer:

  • Draw a triangle with the given measurements.
  • Draw the bisectors of angles. Bisectors meet at a point O. It is the center of the incircle.
  • Draw a circle with a center at O and a radius at the perpendicular distance from O to the sides.

Question 26.
(a) A solid metallic sphere of radius 6 centimeters is cut into two halves. What is the surface area of each hemisphere?
(b) One of these hemispheres is melted and recast to make a cone of the same radius. Find the height of the cone.
Answer:
(a) Radius = 6 cm
Total surface area = 3πr2 = 108π

(b) \(\frac{2}{3} \pi \times 6^3=\frac{1}{3} \pi 6^2 \times h\)
⇒ h = 12 cm

Question 27.
Consider the circle with a center at the origin and a radius of 10 units.
(a) Find the coordinates of the points where this circle cuts the x and y axes.
(b) Check whether P(6, 8) is a point on this circle.
(c) Write the equation of this circle.
Answer:
(a) (10, 0), (0, 10), (-10, 0), (0, -10)

(b) Yes.
Radius = \(\sqrt{6^2+8^2}\) = 10

(c) x2 + y2 = 102
x2 + y2 = 100

Question 28.
The table below shows the students of a maths club sorted according to their heights.

Height (centimeter) Number of Students
120 – 130 2
130 – 140 7
140 – 150 10
150 – 160 5
160 – 170 1
Total 25

(a) When the heights are written in ascending order, the height of which student is taken as the median height?
(b) Find the median height.
Answer:
See the table

Height Number of Children
Below 130 2
Below 140 9
Below 150 19
Below 160 24
Upto 170 25

(a) Since total number of students is 25, an odd number 13th height comes in the middle. The 13th height is the median height.
(b) The 13th height comes in the class 140 – 150. This is the median class.
It is assumed that the distribution of heights in the median class is in arithmetic sequence.
By this assumption, 10 cm height is divided equally among 10 students.
Each one’s share is 1.
Height of 10th student is 140 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 140.5 cm
In the arithmetic sequence f = 140.5, d = 1,
4th term is 13th height.
It is 140.5 + 3 × 1 = 143.5 cm.
Median = 143.5

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 29.
Let’s find natural numbers which can be written as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
3 = 1 + 2
5 = 2 + 3
6 = 1 + 2 + 3
7 = 3 + 4
9 = 4 + 5
10 = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4
11 = 5 + 6
12 = 3 + 4 + 5

  • All odd numbers other than 1, can be written as the sum of two consecutive natural numbers.
  • Even numbers, which are powers of 2 (2, 4, 8, 16 …) cannot be written as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
  • The even numbers that are not powers of 2 can be written as the sum of three or more consecutive natural numbers.

(a) Write 13 as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
(b) Write 14 as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
(c) Write 101 as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
(d) Find the numbers between 20 and 100 that cannot be written as the sum of consecutive natural numbers.
Answer:
(a) 6 + 7
(b) 2 + 3 + 4 + 5
(c) 50 + 51
(d) 25 = 32, 26 = 64

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ hours
Score: 80

Instructions:

  • Read each question carefully before answering.
  • Give explanations wherever necessary.
  • The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
  • There is no need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π, etc. using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
Consider the arithmetic sequence 1, 11, 21,…….
(a) What is its common difference?
(b) Find the 10th term of this sequence.
Answer:
(a) Common difference = 11 – 1 = 10.

(b) a10 = a1 + (10 – 1) × 10
= 1 + 9 × 10
= 1 + 90
= 91

Question 2.
In the figure, O is the circle’s center, and ∠AQB = 110°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q2
(a) What is the measure of ∠APB?
(b) What is the measure of ∠AOB?
Answer:
(a) ∠AQB + ∠APB = 180°.
∠APB = 180° – ∠AQB
= 180° – 110°
= 70°

(b) Minor ∠AOB = 2 × 70° = 140°.
Major ∠AOB = 2 × 110° = 220°.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 3.
The marks of 8 students in a Maths test are given in ascending order as below.
20, 20, 24, 32, x, 40, 45, 48
If the median mark is 34, then find the value of x.
Answer:
8 marks are there. So, the median is the average of \(\left(\frac{8}{2}\right)^{t h}\) and \(\left(\frac{8}{2}+1\right)^{t h}\) marks.
The median is the average of the 4th and 5th marks.
4th mark = 32.
5th mark = x.
It is given that median = 34
So, \(\frac{32+x}{2}\) = 34
⇒ 32 + x = 68
⇒ x = 68 – 32 = 36

Question 4.
The midpoints of the sides of a square are joined to form another square. If a dot is put inside the large square find the probability that it is within the shaded portion.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q4
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q4.1
If AB = 2a, then the area of square ABCD = 4a2.
If AB = 2a, then SQ = 2a.
SQ is a diagonal of square PQRS.
So, the area of the square PQRS = \(\frac{(2 a)^2}{2}=\frac{4 a^2}{2}\) = 2a2
Thus, the area of the shaded portion = area of the square ABCD – area of the square PQRS
= 4a2 – 2a2
= 2a2
Therefore, the probability that the dot will fill within the shaded portion = \(\frac{\text { Area of the shaded portion }}{\text { Area of square } A B C D}\)
= \(\frac{2 a^2}{4 a^2}=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Answer any four questions from 5 to 10. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 5.
The algebraic expression of an Arithmetic sequence is 3n – 2.
(a) Find the first term of the sequence.
(b) Find the sum of the first 50 terms.
Answer:
(a) To get the first term of a sequence,
we have to put n = 1 in the general term.
So, the first term = 3 × 1 – 2 = 1.

(b) 50th term = 3 × 50 – 2 = 148.
The sum of first n terms = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a1 + an)
The sum of the first 50 terms = \(\frac{50}{2}\)(1 + 148)
= 25 × 149
= 3725

Question 6.
Draw a triangle of circumradius 3 centimeters and two of its angles 55° and 62½°.
Answer:
Using a compass, draw a circle of radius 3cm. Name the center of the circle as O.
If 55° is the angle on the circle, then the angle on the center is 55° × 2 = 110°.
If 62.5° is the angle on the circle, then the angle on the center is 62.5° × 2 = 125°.
Draw the radius OA.
Draw the radius OB, which makes an angle of 110° with OA.
Draw the radius OC, which makes an angle of 125° with OB:
Join AB, BC, and AC to get the required triangle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q6

Question 7.
One side of a rectangle is 12 centimeters longer than the other side and its area is 864 square centimetres.
(a) Form a second-degree equation by taking the smaller side as ‘x’.
(b) Calculate the lengths of the sides of the rectangle.
Answer:
(a) The smaller side = x
The larger side = 12 + x
Area = 864 cm2
⇒ x(12 + x) = 864
⇒ x2 + 12x = 864
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q7
x = 24 or x = -36
But x represents length. So, it cannot be negative.
Therefore, The smaller side = x = 24.
The larger side = 12 + x = 12 + 24 = 36.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 8.
A parallelogram is drawn with lengths of adjacent sides 10 centimeters, 6 centimeters and the angle between them is 60°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q8
(a) Find the distance between the top and bottom sides of the parallelogram.
(b) Calculate the area of the parallelogram.
Answer:
(a) Consider the following picture.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q8.1
We have to find the length of the DP.
ΔADP is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle.
So, if AP = x, then AD = 2x and DP = x√3
Here, AD = 2x = 6 cm.
So, x = 3 cm
Therefore, DP = x√3 = 3√3 cm.

(b) Area of the parallelogram = AB × DP
= 10 × 3√3
= 30√3 cm2

Question 9.
Two vertices of an equilateral triangle are (0, 0) and (10, 0).
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q9
(a) Find the length of one side of this triangle.
(b) Find the height of the triangle.
(c) Find the coordinates of the third vertex.
Answer:
(a) (0, 0) and (10, 0) are the coordinates of the endpoints of a side.
So, its length = |0 – 10| = |-10| = 10 units.

(b) We have to find the length of BP.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q9.1
As ΔOAB is an equilateral triangle, P is the midpoint of AB.
So, OP = 5 units.
ΔOPB is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle.
So, if OP = x, then OB = 2x and BP = x√3
Here, OP = x = 5 units.
Therefore, BP = x√3 = 5√3 units.

(c) B = (5, 5√3)

Question 10.
A circle with a center at the origin passes through the point (4, 3).
(a) What is the radius of the circle?
(b) Write the coordinates of the points where this circle cut the axis.
Answer:
(a) From the question, it is clear that (0, 0) and (4, 3) are the endpoints of the radius.
Thus, the radius = \(\sqrt{\left(4^2+3^2\right)}\)
= \(\sqrt{(16+9)}\)
= \(\sqrt{25}\)
= 5 units

(b) Let (0, y) be the point where the circle cuts the y-axis.
The distance from the origin to this point is equal to the radius, that is, 5 units.
Thus, \(\sqrt{\left(0-0^2+0-y^2\right)}\) = 5
⇒ \(\sqrt{\left(0^2+y^2\right)}\) = 5
⇒ y = ±5
Therefore, the points where the circle cuts the axis are (0, 5) and (0, -5).

Answer any eight questions from 11 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (8 × 4 = 32)

Question 11.
The 3rd term of an arithmetic sequence is 16 and its 21st term is 124.
(a) Find the common difference of the sequence.
(b) Find the first term of the sequence.
(c) What is the position of280 in this sequence?
Answer:
(a) 3rd term = 16
That is a1 + (3 – 1)d = 16
a1 + 2d = 16 …………. (1)
21st term = 124
That is a1 + (21 – 1) d = 124
a1 + 20d = 124 ………….(2)
(2) – (1) gives,
a1 – a1 + 20d – 2d = 124 – 16
18d = 108
d = 6

(b) Using (1) we have a1 + 2 × 6 = 16
That is, a1 + 12 = 16
a1 = 16 – 12
a1 = 4
Therefore, the first term is 4.

(c) a1 + (n – 1)d = an
4 + (n – 1)6 = 280
4 + 6n – 6 = 280
6n = 282
n = 47
Thus, 280 is in the 47th position of the sequence.

Question 12.
One box contains 10 paper slips numbered 1 to 10 and another box contains 20 paper slips numbered 1 to 20. One slip is taken from each box.
(a) In how many different ways can we choose a pair of slips?
(b) What is the probability of both numbers being the same?
(c) What is the probability of getting one even number and one odd number?
Answer:
(a) The number of ways in which we can select a number from the first box = 10.
The number of ways in which we can select a number from the second box = 20.
Therefore, the number of ways in which we can select a pair of slips = 10 × 20 = 200.

(b) The number of ways in which we can select a pair of slips = 10 × 20 = 200.
The number of ways in which both the numbers are the same = 10.
Thus, the probability that both the numbers are same = \(\frac{10}{200}=\frac{1}{20}\)

(c) The number of ways in which we can select an event from the 1st box and odd from the 2nd box = 5 × 10 = 50.
The number of ways in which we can select an odd from the 1st box and even from the 2nd box = 5 × 10 = 50.
Therefore, the probability of getting one even number and one odd number = \(\frac{50+50}{200}=\frac{100}{200}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 13.
10 added to the product of a natural number and the number 7 more than that is 304.
(a) If the first number is x, what will be the next number?
(b) Form a second-degree equation and find the two numbers.
Answer:
(a) x + 7

(b) x(x + 7) + 10 = 304
⇒ x2 + 7x = 304 – 10
⇒ x2 + 7x = 294
⇒ x2 + 7x – 294 = 0
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q13
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q13.1
It is given that x is a natural number. So, it cannot be negative.
Therefore, x = 14 and x + 1 = 14 + 7 = 21.
So, the two numbers are 14, 21.

Question 14.
A ladder leans against a wall with its foot 3 meters away from the wall and makes an angle of 60° with the floor.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q14
(a) Find the length of the ladder.
(b) The foot of the ladder is pulled to make an angle of 30° with the floor. How high will be its top from the ground?
Answer:
Consider the following picture.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q14.1
(a) We have to find the length of BE.
∆BCE is a 30°-60°-90° right triangle.
So, if BC = x then BE = 2x.
Here, BC = x = 3 meters.
So, BE = 2x = 2 × 3 = 6 metres.

(b) We have to find the length of DC.
∆ACD is a 30°-60°-90° right triangle.
So, if DC = y then AD = 2y.
Here, DD = 2y = 6 metres.
So, CD = y = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 metres.

Question 15.
(a) Find the distance between the points (-1, 2) and (5, 10).
(b) Prove that the line joining these points passes through the point (11, 18).
Answer:
(a) Distance = \(\sqrt{(-1-5)^2+(2-10)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{(-6)^2+(-8)^2}\)
= 10 units.

(b) Slope of the line passing through (-1, 2) and (5, 10)
Slope = \(\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{10-2}{5-(-1)}=\frac{8}{6}=\frac{4}{3}\)
The slope of the line passing through (5, 10) and (11, 18)
Slope = \(\frac{18-10}{11-5}=\frac{8}{6}=\frac{4}{3}\)
The slope is the same in both cases.
So, (11, 18) is on that line.

Question 16.
Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Mark a point 7.5 centimeters away from the centre and draw the pair of tangents to the circle from this point.
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q16

Question 17.
The incircle of a triangle touches the sides at P, Q, and R. The perimeter of the triangle is 24 centimeters and the length of AB is 7 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q17
(a) Prove that AP + BQ + CR = 12 centimetres.
(b) Find the length of QC.
Answer:
(a) In the figure, AP = AR, BP = BQ, CR = CQ.
It is given that perimeter = 24 cm.
That is, AB + BC + CA = 24 cm.
⇒ AP + BP + BQ + CQ + CR + AR = 24 cm
⇒ AP + BQ + BQ + CR + CR + AP = 24 cm
⇒ 2AP + 2BQ + 2CR = 24 cm
⇒ 2(AP + BQ + CR) = 24 cm
Therefore, AP + BQ + CR = 12 cm

(b) We have AP + BQ + CR = 12 cm
That is, AP + BQ + CQ = 12 cm
So, CQ = 12 – AP – BQ
⇒ CQ = 12 – AP – BP
⇒ CQ = 12 – (AP + BP)
⇒ CQ = 12 – 7 = 5 cm

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 18.
A cone of radius 12 centimeters is to be made by folding a sector cut from a circle of radius 20 centimeters.
(a) What should be the central angle of the sector?
(b) Calculate the curved surface area of the cone.
Answer:
(a) Radius of the cone = r = 12 cm.
The radius of the circle = l = 20 cm.
Let x be the central angle of the sector.
We have, \(\frac{x}{360^{\circ}}=\frac{12}{20}\)
So, x = 216°

(b) Curved surface area of the cone = πrl
= π × 12 × 20
= 240π cm2

Question 19.
A line is drawn by joining the points (2, 3) and (5, 9).
(a) Find the slope of the line.
(b) Find the equation of the line.
(c) Check whether (1, 5) is a point on this line.
Answer:
(a) (2, 3) and (5, 9) are the two points on the line.
Therefore, slope = \(\frac{9-3}{5-2}=\frac{6}{3}\) = 2

(b) Equation of the line is y – y1 = \(\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}\)(x – x1)
So, y – 3 = 2(x – 2)
y – 3 = 2x – 4
y – 2x = 3 – 4
y – 2x = -1

(c) The equation of the line is y – 2x = -1.
If (1, 5) is a point on this line, then it has to satisfy the equation of the line.
5 – 2 × 1 = 5 – 2 = 3.
(1, 5) does not satisfy the equation of the line.
Therefore, (1, 5) is not a point on the line.

Question 20.
Consider the polynomial P(x) = 2x2 – 7x + 9
(a) Find the value P(2).
(b) Find the solutions of the equation P(x) – P(2) = 0.
Answer:
(a) P(2) = 2 × 22 – 7 × 2 + 9
= 2 × 4 – 14 + 9
= 8 – 14 + 9
= 3

(b) P(x) – P(2) = 0
2x2 – 7x + 9 – 3 = 0
2x2 – 7x + 6 = 0
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q20

Question 21.
A solid metal hemisphere of radius 10 centimeters is melted and recast into small solid spheres of radius 1 centimeter each. How many such spheres can be made?
Answer:
The radius of the hemisphere = R = 10 cm.
The radius of the sphere = r = 1 cm.
Number of the spheres = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the hemisphere }}{\text { Volume of one sphere }}\)
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q21
Thus, 500 such spheres can be formed.

Answer any six questions from 22 to 29. Each question carries 5 scores. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 22.
The first term of an arithmetic sequence is 5 and the common difference is 4.
(a) What is the algebraic expression for this sequence?
(b) What is the algebraic expression for the sum of the first n terms of this sequence?
(c) Find the sum of the first 20 terms of this sequence.
Answer:
From the question we have, x1 and d = 4.
(a) Algebraic expression of an AP is xn = x1 +(n – 1)d
So here, xn = 5 + (n – 1)4
= 5 + 4n – 4
= 4n + 1
Therefore, the algebraic expression of the given AP is xn = 4n + 1.

(b) The algebraic expression for the sum or the first n terms of an AP = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(2x1 + (n – 1)d)
So here, the algebraic expression for the sum of the first n terms is Sn = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(2 × 5 + (n – 1)4)
= \(\frac{n}{2}\)(10 + 4n – 4)
= \(\frac{n}{2}\)(6 + 4n)
= n(3 + 2n)
= 3n + 2n2

(c) S20 = 3 × 20 + 2 × 202
= 60 + 2 × 400
= 60 + 800
= 860

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 23.
A circle passes through the origin, (-3, 0) and (0, 4).
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q23
(a) Find the length of the diameter of the circle.
(b) What are the coordinates of the center?
(c) Write the equation of the circle.
Answer:
It is given that (0, 0), (-3, 0), (0, 4) are points on the circle.
(a) Let (x, y) be the centre of the circle and r be the radius of the circle.
So, the distance from (x, y) to any of these points will be equal to the radius of the circle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q23.1
Squaring on both sides we will get,
⇒ x2 + y2 = (x + 3)2 + y2
⇒ x2 = (x + 3)2
⇒ x2 = x2 + 6x + 9
⇒ 6x + 9 = 0
⇒ 6x = -9
⇒ x = \(\frac{-9}{6}=\frac{-3}{2}\)
Also, we can write,
\(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=\sqrt{x^2+(y-4)^2}\)
Squaring on both sides we will get,
⇒ x2 + y2 = x2 + (y – 4)2
⇒ y2 = (y – 4)2
⇒ y2 = y2 – 8y + 16
⇒ -8y + 16 = 0
⇒ y = 2
Thus the coordinates of the centre of the circle
(x, y) = (\(\frac{-3}{2}\), 2)
So, the radius = \(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=\sqrt{\left(\frac{-3}{2}\right)^2+2^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{9}{4}+4}\)
= \(\frac{5}{2}\)
Therefore, the diameter = 2 × \(\frac{5}{2}\) = 5 units.

(b) The coordinates of the centre of the circle = (\(\frac{-3}{2}\), 2)

(c) The equation of the circle with center (h, k) and radius r is (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2
So, the equation of the given circle
\(\left(x-\frac{-3}{2}\right)^2+(y-2)^2=\left(\frac{5}{2}\right)^2\)
\(\left(x+\frac{3}{2}\right)^2+(y-2)^2=\frac{25}{4}\)

Question 24.
Draw a triangle of sides 4 centimeters, and 5 centimeters, and the angle between them is 70°. Draw the incircle of the triangle and measure its inradius.
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q24
Inradius = 1.3 cm.

Question 25.
A toy in the shape of a cone attached to a hemisphere. Its common radius is 3 centimetres and the total height is 17 centimetres.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q25
(a) What is the height of the cone?
(b) Find the volume of the toy.
Answer:
From the picture we have,
The radius of the cone = 3 cm
The radius of the hemisphere = 3 cm
Total height = radius of the hemisphere + height of the cone = 17 cm
(a) height of the cone = 17 – radius of the hemisphere
= 17 – 3
= 14 cm

(b) Volume of the toy = volume of the cone + volume of the hemisphere
= \(\frac{1}{3} \times \pi \times 3^2 \times 14+\frac{2}{3} \times \pi \times 3^3\)
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 32 (14 + 2 × 3)
= 3π (14 + 6)
= 3π × 20
= 60π cm3

Question 26.
The table shows the number of workers in a company sorted according to their daily wages.

Daily Wages (Rs.) Number of Workers
800 – 900 5
900 – 1000 7
1000 – 1100 6
1100 – 1200 10
1200 – 1300 15
1300 – 1400 2

(a) If the daily wages are arranged in ascending order, what will be the assumed wage of the 19th worker?
(b) Find the median wage.
Answer:
The cumulative frequency table is

Daily Wages Number of Workers
Below 900 5
Below 1000 12
Below 1100 18
Below 1200 28
Below 1300 43
Below 1400 45

(a) The 19th worker comes to the class 1100 – 1200.
So, the class width is 1200 – 1100 = 100.
This class includes 10 workers.
So, \(\frac{100}{10}\) is the length of a subclass.
Thus, the first subclass is 1100 – 1110.
Its midpoint is \(\frac{1110+1100}{2}\) = 1105 rupees
Therefore, the assumed age of the 19th worker = 1105.

(b) Total number of workers = n = 45.
45 is an odd number.
\(\frac{45+1}{2}=\frac{46}{2}\) = 23
So, the wage of the 23rd worker is the median wage.
The 23rd worker comes to the class 1100 – 1200.
Median wage = 1105 + (23 – 19) × 10
= 1105 + 4 × 10
= 1105 + 40
= 1145 rupees

Question 27.
A boy 1.5 meters tall, standing at the top of a building 8.5 meters high, sees the top of a tower at an elevation of 40° and the bottom of the tower at a depression of 50°.
(a) Draw a rough figure using the given details.
(b) How far is the building from the tower?
(c) Find the height of the tower.
(tan 40° = 0.84, tan 50° = 1.2)
Answer:
(a)
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q27

(b) We have to find the length of AF.
∠FCE = 50°. So, ∠CFA= 50°. (AF and CE are parallel).
Consider ∆CAF, tan 50° = \(\frac{A C}{A F}\)
So, AF = \(\frac{A C}{\tan 50^{\circ}}\)
= \(\frac{10}{1.2}\)
= 8.33 metre.

(c) We have to find the length of DF.
DF = DE + EF = DE + 10.
Consider ∆CED,
tan 40° = \(\frac{D E}{C E}\)
So, DE = CE × tan 40°
= 8.33 × 0.84
= 6.99
Therefore, DF = DE + 10
= 6.99 + 10
= 16.99 metre.

Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 28.
Two circles meet at point C. AB and CD are common tangents to the circles.
Kerala SSLC Maths Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q28
(a) Prove that D is the midpoint of AB.
(b) Find the measure of ∠ACB.
Answer:
It is given that AB and CD are common tangents to the circle.
(a) From the picture it is clear that D is a point outside both circles.
So, DA = DC and DB = DC.
Thus, DA = DB.
Therefore, D is the midpoint of AB.

(b) If ∠ADC = x then ∠BDC = 180° – x
So, ∠BCD = \(\frac{x}{2}\) (as DB = DC)
and ∠ACD = \(\frac{180^{\circ}-x}{2}\) (as DA = DC)
∠ACB = ∠BCD + ∠ACD
= \(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{180^{\circ}-x}{2}\)
= 90°

Question 29.
See the pattern given below.
1 + 2 + 1 = 4
1 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 9
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 16
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 25
_________________________________
_________________________________
(a) Write the 5th line of the pattern.
(b) Find the sum of the line
1 + 2 + 3 + ……. + 13 + 14 + 15 + 14 + 13 + …….. + 2 + 1
(c) Find the middle number of the line that gives the sum 400.
(d) Find the value of n if
1 + 2 + 3 + …… + (3n – 2) + (3n – 1) + (3n – 2) + ……. + 2 + 1 = 2500
Answer:
(a) 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 36

(b) 152 = 225

(c) The middle number of the line that gives the sum 400 = \(\sqrt{400}\) = 20.

(d) (3n – 1)2 = 2500
So, (3n – 1) = \(\sqrt{2500}\) = 50
⇒ (3n – 1) = 50
⇒ 3n = 50 + 1 = 51
⇒ n = 17

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ hours
Total Score: 80

Instructions:

  • 20 minutes is given as tool-off lime.
  • Use cool-off time to read the questions and plan your answers.
  • Attempt the questions according to the instructions.
  • Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
  • The maximum score for questions from 1 to 45 will be 80.
  • There is no need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π, etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

For questions from 1 to 5, choose the correct answer from the brackets. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Arithmetic sequence with common difference 2 is: (1)
[7, 10, 13,…; 7, 5, 3,…; 7, 9, 11,…; 2, 5, 8]
Answer:
7, 9, 11,………..

Question 2.
Which is always a cyclic quadrilateral? (1)
[Parallelogram; Square; Trapezium; Rhombus]
Answer:
Square

Question 3.
Which among the following is a point on the x-axis? (1)
[(2, 0); (0, 2); (1, 1); (3, 4)]
Answer:
(2, 0)

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 4.
The measure of the smallest angle of a right-angled triangle is 30°. The length of its smallest side is 6 centimeters. What is the length of its largest side? (1)
(6, 3, 18, 12)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q4
Answer:
12

Question 5.
What is the slope of the line passing through the points (2, 5) and (3, 7)? (1)
(2, 3, 4, 5)
Answer:
2

Questions from 6 to 10 carry 2 scores each. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 6.
Write the first term and common difference of the arithmetic sequence 3n + 2. (2)
Answer:
f = 5, d = 3

Question 7.
In the figure, AB is the diameter of the circle. C is a point on the circle. One of the angles ∠ACB and ∠ADB is twice the other. (2)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q7
Write the measures of the angles ∠ACB and ∠ADB.
Answer:
∠ACB = 90°, ∠ADB = 45°

Question 8.
One is asked to say a natural number less than 10.
(a) What is the probability of it being an odd number? (1)
(b) What is the probability that it will not be an even number? (1)
Answer:
Odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.
There are 5 in number.
(a) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
(b) \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Question 9.
In the figure, AB and CD are the diameters of the circle. The coordinates of B are (3, 0). Write the coordinates of O and C. (2)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q9
Answer:
O(0, 0), C(0, 3)

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 10.
Write x2 – 1 as the product of two first-degree polynomials. (2)
Answer:
x2 – 1 = (x – 1)(x + 1)

Questions from 11 to 20 carry 3 scores each. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 11.
(a) What is the tenth term of the arithmetic sequence a + 1, a + 2, a + 3, ….? (1)
(b) What is its common difference? (1)
(c) Write the algebraic form of the above sequence. (1)
Answer:
(a) x10 = a + 10
(b) d = 1
(c) xn = a + n

Question 12.
Draw a triangle of circumradius 3 centimeters and two of the angles 40° and 50°. (3)
Answer:

  • Draw a circle of radius 3 cm, center O.
  • Mark a point A on the circle.
  • Draw the radius OA.
  • Mark a point B on the circle such that ∠AOB = 2 × 40 = 80°.
  • Mark a point C on the circle such that ∠BOC = 2 × 50 = 100°.
  • Complete ΔABC.

Question 13.
(a) Write the sequence of even numbers. (1)
(b) One added to the product of two consecutive even numbers gives 289. Form a second-degree equation to solve this problem. (2)
Answer:
(a) 2, 4, 6, 8,…..
(b) Let x and x + 2 be the even numbers.
x(x + 2) + 1 = 289
⇒ x2 + 2x = 288

Question 14.
In the figure chords AB and CD intersect at P. AB = 10 centimeters, PB = 4 centimeters, and PC = 3 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q14
(a) What is the length of PA? (1)
(b) Find the length of PD. (2)
Answer:
(a) PA = AB – PB
= 10 – 4
= 6 cm
(b) PA × PB = PC × PD
⇒ 6 × 4 = 3 × PD
⇒ PD = 8 cm

Question 15.
P is at a distance of 13 centimeters from the center of a circle of radius 5 centimeters.
(a) How many tangents can be drawn from the point P to the circle? (1)
(b) Find the lengths of the tangents. (2)
Answer:
(a) Two tangents can be drawn.
(b) Length of tangent is \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\) = 12 cm

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 16.
ABCD is a square, coordinates of A are (1, -5). Diagonals of the square intersect at P(1, 0). Write the coordinates of B, C, and D. (3)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q16
Answer:
PA = 5, Therefore PB = 5
B(6, 0), C(1, 5), D(-4, 0)

Question 17.
In the figure ∠B = 90°, AB = 7 centimetres, BC = 24 centimetres, AC = 25 centimetres.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q17
(a) sin A = \(\frac{24}{K}\), what number is K? (1)
(b) Write cos C and sin C. (2)
Answer:
(a) k = 25
(b) cos C = \(\frac{24}{25}\) , sin C = \(\frac{7}{25}\)

Question 18.
A Sector with a central angle of 120° and a radius of 12 centimeters is rolled up into a cone.
(a) What is the slant height of the cone? (1)
(b) Find the radius of the cone. (2)
Answer:
(a) l = 12 cm
(b) \(\frac{x}{360}=\frac{\mathrm{r}}{l}\)
⇒ l × x = 36 × r
⇒ 12 × 120 = 360 × r
⇒ r = 4 cm

Question 19.
(a) In the figure OA is the radius of the circle. PQis the tangent through A. What is the measure of ∠OAP? (1)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q19
(b) Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters and mark a point A On it. Drawn the tangent through A. (2)
Answer:
(a) ∠OAP = 90°
(b) Draw a circle of radius 3 cm and center O.
Draw the radius OA.
Draw perpendicular to OA at A.
This perpendicular line is tangent to the circle at A.

Question 20.
ABCD is a rectangle. P is the mid-point of CD. If we put a dot in the figure without looking into it:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q20
(a) What is the probability that it would be inside triangle APB? (1)
(b) What is the probability that it would be inside triangle ADP? (2)
Answer:
Draw a line parallel to AD through P and cut the side AB at Q.
Now we get four triangles of an equal area.
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Questions from 21 to 30 carry 4 scores each. (10 × 4 = 40)

Question 21.
(a) Write the 20th term of the arithmetic sequence 5, 10, 15,………. (1)
(b) Find the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence 5, 10, 15,…… (2)
(c) What is the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence 4, 9, 14,…..? (1)
Answer:
(a) xn = 5n
x20 = 5 × 20 = 100
(b) Sum = (x1 + x20) × \(\frac{20}{2}\)
= (5 + 100) × 10
= 1050
(c) All terms of the sequence 4, 9, 14, 19,….. are 1 less than the terms of 5, 10, 15, 20,……
Taking first 20 terms.
The required sum is 1050 – 20 = 1030.

Question 22.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q22
In figure C, D, E, and G are points on the circle. ∠D = 70°. For the angles given in column I choose suitable measures from column II. (4)

Column I Column II
∠ECG 120°
∠EBG 60°
∠EAG 110°
180°

Answer:
∠ECG = 110°
∠EBG = 120°
∠EAG = 60°

Question 23.
Fill up the empty cells of the given square such that the numbers in each row, each column, and both diagonals form arithmetic sequences. (4)

3 13
7

Answer:
3, A, 13 are in an arithmetic sequence.
A = \(\frac{3+13}{2}\) = 8
3, B, 7 are in an arithmetic sequence.
B = \(\frac{3+7}{2}\) = 5
7, C, 13 are in an arithmetic sequence, C = 10
5, 10, D are in an arithmetic sequence,
D = 15, E = 12, F = 17

3 A 13
B C D
7 E F

Question 24.
In the figure ∠B = 90°. BC = 1 centimetre, sin A = \(\frac{1}{2}\).
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q24
(a) What is the length of AC? (1)
(b) Find the length of AB. (1)
(c) What is the measure of ∠A? (1)
(d) sin 60° = _______________ (1)
Answer:
(a) AC = 2 cm
(b) AB = √3
(c) ∠A = 30°
(d) sin 60° = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 25.
Draw a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Mark a point P outside the circle at a distance of 7 centimeters from the center. Draw tangents from P to the circle. Measure the length of the tangents. (4)
Answer:

  • Draw a circle of radius 3 cm and center O.
  • Mark a point P at a distance of 7 cm from the center of the circle. Draw the line OP, and find its center C.
  • With C as the center and CP as the radius, draw a circle that intersects the first circle at A and B.
  • Draw the lines PA and PB which are the tangents to the circle.

Question 26.
Scores of 10 students are given below:
11, 32, 33, 35, 39, 41, 45, 47, 48, 49
(a) Find the mean score. (2)
(b) Find the median score. (2)
Answer:
(a) Mean = \(\frac{11+32+33+35+39+41+45+47+48+49}{10}\)
= \(\frac{380}{10}\)
= 38

(b) The date is already in the ascending order.
5th and 6th come in the middle.
Median is \(\frac{39+41}{2}\) = 40

Question 27.
Draw the x and y axes. Mark the point (2, 3). Draw a circle with the origin as a center and pass through the point (2, 3). (4)
Answer:
The drawing is given below.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q27

Question 28.
(a) The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 centimeters. The length of its smaller side is 7 centimeters. What is the length of its larger side? (1)
(b) Find the sides of a rectangle with a perimeter of 40 centimeters and an area of 96 square centimeters. (3)
Answer:
(a) 20 – 7 = 13 cm
b) Sides are 10 + x, 10 – x
⇒ (10 + x) (10 – x) = 96
⇒ 102 – x2 = 96
⇒ x2 = 4
⇒ x = 2
Sides are 10 + 2 = 12 cm, 10 – 2 = 8 cm.

Question 29.
One is asked to say a two-digit number,
(a) What is the probability of both digits being the same? (2)
(b) What is the probability of the first digit being twice the second? (2)
Answer:
(a) Total number of two-digit numbers is 90.
The probability of getting both digits same is \(\frac{9}{90}\).

(b) Favourable outcomes are 21, 42, 63, 84.
The probability of getting the first digit being twice the second is \(\frac{4}{90}\).

Question 30.
(a) P(x) = x2 – 5x + 9, find P(2) and P(3). (2)
(b) Write P(x) – P(2) as the product of two first degree polynomials. (2)
Answer:
(a) p(2) = 22 – 5 × 2 + 9 = 3
p(3) = 32 – 5 × 3 + 9
= 9 – 15 + 9
= 3
(b) p(x) – p(1) = x2 – 5x + 9 – 3
= x2 – 5x + 6
= (x – 3)(x – 2)

Questions from 31 to 45 carry 5 scores each. (15 × 5 = 75)

Question 31.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q31
(a) Write the fifth line of the pattern. (1)
(b) How many numbers are there in the tenth line? (1)
(c) How many numbers are there in the first ten lines altogether? (2)
(d) What is the first number in the eleventh line? (1)
Answer:
(a) 11, 12, 13, 14, 15
(b) 10
(c) 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 +……+ 10 = \(\frac{10(10+1)}{2}\) = 55
(d) 55 + 1 = 56

Question 32.
(a) In the figure area of the rectangle ABCD is 8 square centimetres and BC = BP. What is the area of the shaded square? (1)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q32
(b) Draw a rectangle of an area of 8 square centimeters. Draw a square having the same area as the rectangle. (4)
Answer:
(a) 8 sq. cm
(b) Construction steps are given below:

  • Draw a rectangle of side AB = 5 cm and 3 cm.
  • It is marked as ABCD as in the given picture.
  • Produce AB to P such that BP = BC.
  • With AP as the diameter draw a semicircle.
  • Produce BC to intersect the semicircle at E.
  • Complete the square with side BE.

Question 33.
A man standing at the edge of a river sees the top of a tree at an elevation of 60°. Stepping 20 metres back he sees it at an elevation of 30°. Draw a rough figure and find the width of the river. (5)
Answer:
(a) The picture is given below.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q33
(b) In the figure,
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q33.1
∠ACD = 20°, ∠D = ∠CAD = 30°, CD = AC = 20 m
Width of the river BC = 10 meters.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 34.
The sides of a rectangle are parallel to the axes. One pair of its opposite vertices are A(2, 4) and C(6, 12).
(a) Write the coordinates of the other two vertices. (2)
(b) Write the coordinates of the mid-point of AC. (2)
(c) x coordinate of a point on AC is ‘a’. What is its y coordinate? (1)
Answer:
(a) Coordinates of B is (6, 4)
Coordiante of D is (2, 12)
(b) \(\left(\frac{2+6}{2}, \frac{4+12}{2}\right)\) = (4, 8)
(c) 2a

Question 35.
In figure AB, BC and AC touch the circle at the points Z, X, and Y. ∠ZXY = 60° and ∠XZY = 50°. Find the measures of ∠A, ∠B, and ∠C. (5)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q35
Answer:
(a) ∠AZY = ∠ZXY = 60°
∠A = 180° – (60° + 60°) = 60°

(b) ∠CXY = ∠XZY = 50°
∠C = 180° – (50° + 50°) = 80°

(c) ∠B = 180° – (60° + 80°) = 40°

Question 36.
(a) Radius of a solid metal cone is 5 centimeters, its slant height is 13 centimeters. Find its height. (2)
(b) Find the volume of the cone. (1)
(c) It is melted and recast into small cones of radius 1 centimeter and height one centimeter. How many cones will we get? (2)
Answer:
(a) h = \(\sqrt{13^2-5^2}\) = 12 cm.
(b) Volume = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 52 × 12 = 100π cubic cm.
(c) Volume of small cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × π × 12 = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
Number of cones = 100π ÷ \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = 300 cubic cm.

Question 37.
A circle is drawn with (1, 1) as center. (4, 5) is a point on the circle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q37
(a) Find the radius of the circle. (1)
(b) Write the equation of the circle. (2)
(c) The x coordinate of a point on the circle is 6. What is the y coordinate of that point? (2)
Answer:
(a) r = \(\sqrt{(4-1)^2+(5-1)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{3^2+4^2}\)
= 5

(b) (x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 = 52

(c) When x = 6, (6 – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 = 25
⇒ (y – 1)2 = 0
⇒ y = 1

Question 38.
The diametres of the two spheres are in the ratio 1 : 2.
(a) What is the ratio of their radii? (1)
(b) Find the ratio of their surface areas. (3)
(c) If the surface area of the first sphere is 10π square centimeters. What is the surface area of the second sphere? (1)
Answer:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) r1 = 1r, r2 = 2r
Ratio of surface area 4πr2 : 4π(2r)2 = 1 : 4
(c) The surface area of the second sphere is 4 × 10π = 40π

Question 39.
(a) What is the remainder on dividing the terms of the arithmetic sequence 100, 109, 118,….. by 9? (1)
(b) Write the sequence of three-digit numbers, which are multiple of 9. (2)
(c) What is the position of 999 in the arithmetic sequence of three-digit numbers which are multiples of 9? (2)
Answer:
(a) 1
(b) 108, 117, 126,……
(c) The algebraic form of this sequence is 9n + 99.
9n + 99 = 999
⇒ 9n = 900
⇒ n = 100
There are 100 terms in this sequence.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 40.
In the figure AB = AC = 4 centimetres, ∠A = 120°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q40
(a) ∠B = _________ (1)
(b) Find the perpendicular distance from A to BC. (2)
(c) Find the area of the triangle. (2)
Answer:
(a) 30°
(b) 2 cm
(c) BC = 4√3 cm
Area of the triangle = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4√3 × 2 = 4√3 sq.cm

Question 41.
(a) In the figure, a circle with center O touches the sides of the triangle ABC at the points P, Q, and R. If ∠B = 50°, what is ∠POR? (1)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q41
(b) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimeters. Draw a triangle of angles 50°, 60°, and 70° with all its sides touching the circle. (4)
Answer:
(a) BPOR is cyclic ∠POR = 180° – 50° = 130°.
(b) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 cm.
Divide the angle around the centre at the measures 180° – 50° = 130°, 180° – 60° = 120° and 180° – 40° = 140°.
Draw tangents at the ends of the radii to the circle.
The tangents enclose the required triangle.

Question 42.
In the figure, O is the center of the circle. A, B, C, and D are points on the circle. ∠AOB = 80°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q42
(a) Write the measures of ∠ACB, ∠ADB, and ∠ADP. (3)
(b) Find ∠CQD + ∠P. (2)
Answer:
(a) ∠ACB = 40°
∠ADB = 40°
∠ADP = 180° – 40° = 140°

(b) ∠CQD + ∠P + 2 × 140° = 360°
∠CQD + ∠P = 360° – 280° = 80°

Question 43.
A box is to be made by cutting off small squares from each corner of a square of thick paper and bending upwards. The height of the box is to be 10 centimeters and volume 1 liter.
(a) What should be the length of a side of the square cut-off? (1)
(b) What should be the length of a side of the square, thick paper sheet? (4)
Answer:
(a) 10 cm

(b) 1 litre = 1000 cubic cm3
⇒ (x – 20)2 × 10 = 1000
⇒ (x – 20)2 = 100
⇒ x – 20 = 10
⇒ x = 30 cm

Question 44.
The table below shows children of a class sorted according to their scores in an examination.

Scores Number of Children
0 – 10 5
10 – 20 8
20 – 30 10
30 – 40 13
40 – 50 9
Total 45

(a) If the children are arranged in the ascending order of their scores, then what will be the assumed score of the 14th child? (1)
(b) Compute the median score. (4)
Answer:
The cumulative frequency table is given below.

Scores Number of Children
Below 10 5
Below 20 13
Below 30 23
Below 40 36
Upto 50 45

n = 45, odd number.
23rd score is considered as the middle scorp or median.
It is in between the 20th and 30th scores.
This class contains 10 scores and 10 children.
When 10 scores are divided equally among 10 children each one’s share is 1.
Score of 14th student is assumed to be 20 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 20.5
We assume that the marks in the median class (20 – 30) are in an arithmetic sequence of f = 20.5 and common difference 1.
Its 10th term is the mark of the 23rd student.
x10 = f + 9d
= 20.5 + 9 × 1
= 29.5

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Question 45.
Read the following passage. Understand the mathematical concept in it and answer the questions that follow.
The circle passing through all the three vertices of a triangle is its circumcircle. Like this, the circle touching all three sides of a triangle is its incircle. The point of intersection of the angle bisectors is the incentre.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium Q45
The distance from the center of the circle to the touching point is the radius.
The area of triangle ABC is the sum of the areas of the triangles OBC, OAC, and OAB.
If the radius of the incircle is taken as r and the sides of the triangle as a, b, and c.
The area of triangle ABC = \(\frac{1}{2} a r+\frac{1}{2} b r+\frac{1}{2} c r\)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × r(a + b + c)
= \(\mathrm{r} \frac{(a+b+c)}{2}\)
= r × s
Here s = \(\frac{a+b+c}{2}\) (half of perimeter)
(a) A circle touching all three sides of a triangle is:
[Circumcircle, Incircle, Semicircle, Ellipse]
(b) A circle passing through all three vertices of a triangle is:
[Circumcircle, Incircle, Semicircle, Ellipse]
(c) If the radius of the incircle is taken as r and the half of the perimeter as s then the area of the triangle is:
[r + s, \(\frac{r}{s}\), r × s, r2 × s]
(d) The perimeter of a triangle is 20 centimeters and the radius of its incircle is 2 centimeters. What is the area of the triangle, (in square centimeters)
(40, 20, 10, 5)
(e) The Area of a triangle is 24 square centimeters and its perimeter is 24 centimeters. The radius of the incircle is _____________ centimeters.
(1, 2, 1.5, 2.5)
Answer:
(a) Incircle
(b) Circumcircle
(c) A = r × s
(d) 20

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80

Instructions:

  • In addition to the writing time, there is a 15-minute ‘cool-off time’. Use this time to familiarize yourself with the questions and plan your answer.
  • Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
  • Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
  • Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
  • The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.
  • There is no need to simplify irrationality like √2, √3, π, etc, using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Part – I
Questions from 1 to 10 carry 1 score each.

A. Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
What is the common difference between the arithmetic sequences 3, 7, and 11?
Answer:
d = 7 – 3 = 4

Question 2.
In the figure ∠C = 110°. Find the measure of ∠A.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q2
Answer:
∠A = 180° – 100° = 70°

Question 3.
A box contains 7 white balls and 3 black balls. If a ball is taken from it, what is the probability of it being black?
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{10}\)

Question 4.
Find the distance between the points (0, 0) and (4, 0).
Answer:
4

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 5.
From the circle of radius 12 centimeters, a sector of central angle 90° is cut out and made into a cone. What is the base radius of this cone?
Answer:
3 cm

Question 6.
If (x – 1) is a factor of the polynomial p(x), write P(1).
Answer:
0

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10, Choose the correct answers from the bracket. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
What is the value of tan x if x = 30°?
\(\left(\frac{1}{2} ; \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} ; \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} ; \sqrt{3}\right)\)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 8.
If the perimeter of a triangle is 24 centimeters and its inradius is 2 centimeters, find its area in square centimeters.
(12; 20; 24; 26)
Answer:
24 sq. cm

Question 9.
The lateral faces of a square pyramid are equilateral triangles. If the length of one base edge is 20 centimeters, what will be the measure of its slant height in centimeters?
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q9
(10; 10√2; 10√3; 20)
Answer:
10√3

Question 10.
The equation of a line is 2x + y = 5 if the x coordinate of a point on this line is 2, what is the coordinate of this point?
(0; 1; -1; 2)
Answer:
1

Part – II
Questions from, 11 to 18 carry 2 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 11 to 15. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 11.
5, 8, 11,…… is an arithmetic sequence.
(a) What is the 20th term? (1)
(b) What is the algebraic expression for this sequence? (1)
Answer:
(a) x20 = f + 19d
= 5 + 19 × 3
= 62
(b) 3n + 2

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 12.
A triangle is drawn by joining the mid-point of one side of a parallelogram and the endpoints of the opposite side. The triangle is shaded as shown in the figure.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q12
(a) What is the area of the triangle, if the area of the parallelogram is 50 square centimetres? (1)
(b) Find the probability of a dot put without looking, into the figure. (1)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{50}{2}\) = 25 cm2
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 13.
A ladder leans against a wall. The ladder makes an angle of 60° with the floor. The length of the ladder is 6 meters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q13
(a) What is the height of the top of the ladder from the ground? (1)
(b) How far is the foot of the ladder from the wall? (1)
Answer:
(a) 3√3 meter
(b) 3 meter

Question 14.
Write the second-degree polynomial x2 + x as the product of two first-degree polynomials. (2)
Answer:
x2 + x = x(x + 1)

Question 15.
The weight of 7 pupils in a class is given (in kilograms). Find the median weight. (2)
35, 43, 38, 45, 32, 44, 42
Answer:
32, 35, 38, 42, 43, 44, 45
The median is 42.

B. Answer any two questions from 16 to 18. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
The algebraic expression for the sum of n terms of an arithmetic sequence is n2 + n.
(a) Find the first term of this arithmetic sequence. (1)
(b) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of this arithmetic sequence. (1)
Answer:
(a) First term x1 = 12 + 1 = 2
(b) Sum of the first 10 terms = 102 + 10 = 110

Question 17.
In the figure PA = 4 centimetres, AB = 5 centimetres and PC is a tangent to the circle. Find the length of the PC. (2)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q17
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q17.1
PA × PB = PC2
⇒ 4 × 9 = PC2
⇒ PC = √36
⇒ PC = 6

Question 18.
Find the coordinates of the point that divides the line joining the points (1, 2) and (7, 5) in the ratio 2 : 1. (2)
Answer:
x = x1 + \(\frac{p}{p+q}\) (x2 – x1)
= 1 + \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 6
= 5
y = y1 + \(\frac{p}{p+q}\) (y2 – y1)
= 2 + \(\frac{2}{3}\) × 3
= 4

Part – III
Questions 19 to 25 carry 4 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 19 to 23. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Draw a triangle of circumradius 3 centimeters and two of its angles 50° and 60°. (4)
Answer:
Draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
Divide the angle around the center as 2 × 50 and 2 × 60 by drawing radii.
Join the ends of the radius.
This makes a triangle with angles of 50° and 60°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q19

Question 20.
A strip of width 4 centimeters is attached to one side of a square to form a rectangle. The area of the new rectangle is 77 square centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q20
(a) If we take the width of the new rectangle as x, what will be its length? (1)
(b) Find the measure of the side of the square by constructing an equation. (3)
Answer:
(a) x + 4
(b) x(x + 4) = 77
⇒ x2 + 4x + 4 = 81
⇒ (x + 2)2 = 92
⇒ x + 2 = 9
⇒ x = 7

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 21.
Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimeters and mark a point 6 centimeters away from the center of the circle. Draw tangents to the circle from this point. (4)
Answer:
Draw a circle of radius 2.5 cm and center O. Mark a point P at the distance 6 cm away from the center of the circle.
Draw a circle with a diameter OP. This circle cut the first circle at A and B. Join PA and PB. These are the tangents.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q21

Question 22.
Find the surface area of a cone having a base radius of 9 centimeters and a height of 12 centimeters. (4)
Answer:
l2 = 122 + 92 = 225
⇒ l = 15
Total Surface Area = Base Area + Curved Surface Area
= π × 92 + π × 9 × 15
= 81π + 135π
= 216π cm2

Question 23.
The coordinates of three vertices of a parallelogram are given.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q23
(a) Find the coordinates of the vertex C. (2)
(b) Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the diagonal AC. (2)
Answer:
(a) C(8 + 4 – 2, 4 + 6 – 2) = C(10, 8)
(b) Midpoint of the diagonal AC = \(\left(\frac{10+2}{2}, \frac{8+2}{2}\right)\) = (6, 5)

B. Answer any one question from 24 and 25. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
One box contains four slips numbered 1, 2, 3, and 4 and another box contains five slips numbered 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. If one slip is taken from each box.
(a) How many number pairs are possible? (1)
(b) What is the probability of both being odd? (1)
(c) What is the probability of getting the sum of the numbers 10? (2)
Answer:
(a) The number of pairs = 4 × 5 = 20
(b) Number of favourable outcomes = 2 × 3 = 6
Probability of getting both odd = \(\frac{6}{20}=\frac{3}{10}\)
(c) Favourable outcomes (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6)
Probability of getting the sum 10 is \(\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 25.
Two sides of a parallelogram are 20 centimeters and 10 centimeters. If the angle between them is 40°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q25
(a) What is the height of the parallelogram? (2)
(b) Find the area of the parallelogram. (2)
(sin 40° = 0.64; cos 40° = 0.77; tan 40° = 0.84)
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q25.1
(a) sin 40° = \(\frac{h}{10}\)
h = 10 × sin 40°
= 10 × 0.64
= 6.4 cm
(b) Area = 20 × h
= 20 × 6.4
= 128 sq. cm

Part – IV
Questions from 26 to 32 carry 6 scores each.

A. Answer any three questions from 26 to 29. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 26.
(a) In the figure AB is the diameter of the circle. Line CD is perpendicular to AB. AP = 8 centimetres and PB = 2 centimetres. Find the length of the PC. (2)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q26
(b) Draw a rectangle of sides 5 centimeters and 3 centimeters. Draw a square of the same area. (4)
Answer:
(a) PC2 = 8 × 2
PC = √16 = 4
(b) 1. Draw the rectangle ABCD. AB = 5 cm, BC = 3 cm.
2. Produce AB and mark the point E such that BC = BE.
3. Draw a semicircle of diameter AE. Produce BC, meet the semicircle at F.
4. BA × BE = BF2 can be written as AB × BC = BF2. AB × BC is the area of the rectangle.
5. Draw a square of side BF. The area of the rectangle is equal to the area of the square as per the relation AB × BC = BF2.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q26.1

Question 27.
In the figure, AC is the diameter of the circle. Given that AC = 20 centimeters. ∠BAC = 60° and ∠ACD = 45°.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q27
(a) What is the measure of ∠ADC? (1)
(b) Find the perimeter of the quadrilateral ABCD. (5)
Answer:
(a) ∠ADC = 90°
(b) ∠ABC = 90°
AB = 10
BC = 10√3
CD = 10√2
AD = 10√2
Perimeter of ABCD is 10 + 10√3 + 10√2 + 10√2.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 28.
The rectangle has sides parallel to the axes. The coordinates of one pair of opposite vertices are (2, 1) and (7, 5).
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q28
(a) Find the coordinates of the other two opposite vertices. (2)
(b) Find the length and breadth of the rectangle. (2)
(c) Find the length of the diagonal AC. (2)
Answer:
(a) Co-ordinates of B(7, 1)
Co-ordinates of D: D(2, 5)
(b) Length = 5 cm, Breadth = 4 cm
(c) AC2 = 52 + 42
AC = √41 cm

Question 29.
The radius of a solid metal sphere is 6 centimeters.
(a) Find the volume of the sphere. (3)
(b) This sphere is melted and recast into a solid cone of radius 6 centimeters. Find the height of the cone. (3)
Answer:
(a) Volume of the sphere = \(\frac{4}{3}\)πr3 = 288π
(b) The volume of the melted sphere is equal to the volume of the cone so formed.
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3}\)πr2h = 12πh
∴ 288π = 12πh
⇒ h = 24 cm

B. Answer any two questions from 30 to 32. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 30.
The product of a number and 5 more than that number gives 104.
(a) If we take the first number as ‘x’, what will be the second number? (1)
(b) Form a second-degree equation using the given details. (2)
(c) Find the number. (3)
Answer:
(a) x + 5
(b) x(x + 5) = 104
⇒ x2 + 5x – 104 = 0
(c) x = \(\frac{-5 \pm \sqrt{5^2-4 \times 1 \times-104}}{2 \times 1}\) = 8, -13

Question 31.
Consider the second-degree polynomial p(x) = x2 – 3x + 5.
(a) Find p(1). (1)
(b) Write one first-degree factor of the polynomial p(x) – p(1). (1)
(c) Write p(x) – p(1) as the product of two first-degree factors and find the solutions of the equation p(x) – p(1) = 0. (4)
Answer:
(a) p1) = 13 – 3 × 1 + 5
= 1 – 3 + 5
= 3
(b) x – 1
(c) p(x) – p(1) = x2 – 3x + 5 – 3 = x2 – 3x + 2
P(x) – P(1) = (x – 1)(x – 2)
Solutions are 1, 2.

Question 32.
The table below shows the households of an area sorted according to consumption of electricity.

Consumption (in units) Number of Households
100 – 120 4
120 – 140 8
140 – 160 7
160 – 180 10
180 – 200 6
200 – 220 4
220 – 240 6

(a) If the households are arranged according to the consumption of electricity, the consumption of which house is taken as median? (1)
(b) What is the consumption of the 20th household according to our assumption? (2)
(c) What is the median consumption? (3)
Answer:
Prepare cumulative frequency table.

Consumption Number of Households
Below 120 4
Below 140 12
Below 160 19
Below 180 29
Below 200 35
Below 220 39
Below 240 45

(a) Since the total number of houses is 45, an odd number the 23rd house comes in the middle.
The consumption of the 23rd house is considered the median.
(b) From the cumulative frequency table we can say median domes between 160-180.
When 20 units between 160 and 180 are divided into 10 equal parts each one share is \(\frac{20}{10}\) = 2.
We assume that the consumption of electricity in the median class ate in an arithmetic sequence.
Consumption of 20th house is assumed as 160 + \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 160 + 1 = 161
(c) First f = 161 and common difference 2.
The median is the consumption of the 23rd house.
It is f + 3d = 161 + 3 × 2 = 167.

Part – V
Questions from 33 to 35 carry 8 scores each.

A. Answer any two questions from 33 to 35. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
6, 10, 14,….. is an arithmetic sequence.
(a) Find the sum of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic sequence. (4)
(b) What is the difference between the first term and the 16th term? (2)
(c) Find the difference between the sum of the first 15 terms and the sum of the next 15 terms. (2)
Answer:
(a) We consider the first 15 terms.
The 8th term is the middle term.
x8 = 6 + 7 × 4 = 34
x1 + x15 = 2 × x8 = 68
Sum = (x1 + x15) × \(\frac{15}{2}\)
= 68 × \(\frac{15}{2}\)
= 510
(b) x16 – x1 = 15d
= 15 × 4
= 60
(c) x17 – x2 = 60, x18 – x3 = 60………x30 – x15 = 60
The required difference is 15 × 60 = 900

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Question 34.
(a) The two tangents AC and BC of the circle with center O meet at C. What is the measure of ∠OAC? If ∠AOB = 110°, find the measure of ∠ACB. (2)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q34
(b) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimeters. Draw a triangle with angles 50°, 60°, 70°, and all its sides are tangents to this circle. (6)
Answer:
(a) ∠OAC = 90°
∠ACB = 180° – 110° = 70°
(b) Draw a circle of radius 2.5 cm.
Divide the angle around the center as 180° – 50° = 130° and 180° – 60° = 120° by drawing the radii.
Draw tangents to the circle at the ends of the radii.
The tangents make the triangle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q34.1

Question 35.
(a) Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points (2, 1) and (4, 3). (3)
(b) Find the slope of the line joining these points. (2)
(c) The center of a circle is (3, 2) and the coordinates of one end of its diameter are (1, 2). Find the coordinates of the other end of the diameter. (3)
Answer:
(a) Draw the figure as given below.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium Q35
(b) Slope = \(\frac{3-1}{4-2}\) = 1
(c) (5, 2)

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80

Instructions:

  • Read each question carefully before answering.
  • Give explanations wherever necessary.
  • The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
  • There is no need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π, etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
7, 13, 19,…. is an arithmetic sequence.
(a) What is its common difference?
(b) Find its 11th term.
Answer:
(a) d = 6

(b) xn = 7 + 10 × 6 = 67

Question 2.
The weights of 11 players of a football team are given in kilograms:
55, 65, 56, 70, 62, 54, 64, 58, 68, 65, 60
Find the median of the weights of players.
Answer:
54, 55, 56, 58, 60, 62, 64, 65, 65, 68, 70
Median weight is the weight of the 6th player.
∴ The median is 62.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 3.
O is the center of the circle. A dot is put inside the circle without looking at it.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q3
(a) What is the probability that the dot to be within the unshaded part?
(b) What is the probability that the dot to be within the shaded part?
Answer:
120° is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of 360°
(a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 4.
AB is a chord of a circle of radius 3 centimeters. Chord AB makes a right angle at the center. What is the length of AB?
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q4
Answer:
∆OAB is a 45° – 45° – 90° triangle.
∴ AB = 3√2 cm.

Answer any four questions from 5 to 10. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 5.
A(3, 9), and C(8, 12) are the coordinates of two opposite vertices of a rectangle whose sides are parallel to the coordinate axes.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q5
(a) Find the coordinates of the other two vertices of the rectangle.
(b) Find the lengths of the sides of the rectangle.
Answer:
(a) B(8, 9), D(3, 12)
(b) AB = |8 – 3| = 5
BC = |12 – 9| = 9

Question 6.
Draw a circle of radius 4 centimeters. Draw a triangle whose vertices are on this circle and two of the angles 40° and 60°.
Answer:

  1. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
  2. Divide the angle around the center as 80° and 120° by drawing the radii.
  3. Join the ends of radii. It makes the triangle.

Question 7.
Find the lengths of the sides of the rectangle whose perimeter is 80 centimeters and area is 351 square centimeters.
Answer:
2 × (length + breadth) = 80
⇒ length + breadth = 40
Sides are 20 – x, 20 + x
(20 – x)(20 + x) = 351
⇒ 202 – x2 = 351
⇒ 400 – 351 = x2
⇒ x2 = 49
⇒ x = 7
Sides are 13 cm, 27 cm.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 8.
(4, 5) and (8, 11) are coordinates of two points on a line.
(a) Find the slope of the line.
(b) Find the equation of the line.
Answer:
(a) Slope = \(\frac{11-5}{8-4}=\frac{3}{2}\)
(b) Let(x, y) be a point on the line.
\(\frac{y-5}{x-4}=\frac{3}{2}\)
⇒ 2(y – 5) = 3(x – 4)
⇒ 2y – 3x = -2
⇒ 3x – 2y = 2
This is the equation of a line.

Question 9.
6th term of an arithmetic sequence is 46. Its common difference is 8.
(a) What is its 16th term?
(b) Find its 21st term.
Answer:
(a) x16 = x6 + 10d
= 46 + 10 × 8
= 126
(b) x21 = x16 + 5d
= 126 + 40
= 166

Question 10.
The sides of a right triangle are 9 centimeters, 12 centimeters, and 15 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q10
(a) Find the area of the triangle.
(b) Calculate the radius of the triangle.
Answer:
(a) Area = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9 × 12
= 9 × 6
= 54 cm
(b) A = rs.
where A is the area, r is the radius of the incircle, and s is the semiperimeter.
s = \(\frac{12+15+9}{2}\) = 18
r = \(\frac{A}{8}=\frac{54}{18}\) = 3 cm

Answer any eight questions from 11 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (8 × 4 = 32)

Question 11.
P(x) = x2 – 4x + 4
(a) What is P(1)?
(b) Write a first degree factor of P(x) – P(1).
(c) Write the polynomial P(x) – P(1) as the product of two first degree polynomials.
Answer:
(a) p(1) = 12 – 4 × 1 + 4 = 1
(b) x – 1 is a factor of p(x) – p(1)
(c) p(x) – p(1) = x2 – 4x + 4 – 1
= x2 – 4x + 3
= (x – 3)(x – 1)

Question 12.
A cone is made by rolling up a semicircle of radius 20 centimeters.
(a) What is the slant height of the cone?
(b) Find the radius of the cone.
(c) Calculate the curved surface area of the cone.
Answer:
(a) l = 20 cm
(b) lx = 360r
⇒ 20 × 180 = 360 × r
⇒ r = 10 cm
(c) Curved surface area = πrl = 200π

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 13.
Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimeters. Mark a point 6.5 centimeters away from the center. Draw the tangents to the circle from this point. Measure and write the lengths of the tangents.
Answer:

  1. Draw a circle of radius 2.4 cm, and mark the center as O.
  2. Draw a circle with OP as the diameter.
  3. This circle cuts the first circle at A and B.
  4. Draw PA and PB tangents to the circle from P, the outer point itemize.

Question 14.
The sum of the first 7 terms of an arithmetic sequence is 140. The sum of the first 11 terms of the same arithmetic sequence is 440.
(a) What is the 4th term of this arithmetic sequence?
(b) Find its 6th term.
(c) What is the common difference?
(d) Find the first term of this sequence.
Answer:
(a) x4 = \(\frac{140}{7}\) = 20
(b) x6 = \(\frac{440}{11}\) = 40
(c) x6 – x4 = 2d
⇒ 20 = 2d
⇒ d = 10
(d) x1 = x4 – 3d
= 20 – 30
= -10

Question 15.
A box contains 4 slips numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and another contains 5 slips numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. One slip is taken from each box without looking at it.
(a) In how many different ways we can choose the slips?
(b) What is the probability of both numbers being odd?
(c) What is the probability of both numbers being the same?
Answer:
(a) 2 × 5 = 10
(b) 2 × 3 = 6
Probability of getting odd is \(\frac{6}{20}=\frac{3}{10}\)
(c) \(\frac{4}{20}=\frac{2}{10}\)

Question 16.
In a right triangle, one of the perpendicular sides is 2 centimeters more than that of the other. The area of the triangle is 24 square centimeters. Find the lengths of the perpendicular sides of the right triangle.
Answer:
The sides are x and x + 2
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × x × (x + 2) = 24
⇒ x2 + 2x + 1 = 49
⇒ (x + 1)2 = 49
⇒ x + 1 = 7
⇒ x = 6
The sides are 6 cm and 8 cm itemized.

Question 17.
Draw the co-ordinate axes and mark the points A(0, 0), B(4, 4), C(8, 0) and D(4, -4).
(a) Write the suitable name of the quadrilateral ABCD.
(b) Find the length of the diagonal BD.
Answer:
Draw coordinate axes and mark the points.
(a) Square
(b) Diagonal 8

Question 18.
Diagonals AC and BD of the cyclic quadrilateral ABCD cuts at P.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q18
PA = 12 centimetres; PC = 2 centimetres; BD = 11 centimetres.
(a) If PB = x, then write PD in terms of x.
(b) Find the lengths of PB and PD.
Answer:
(a) PD = 11 – x
(b) PA × PC = PB × PD
⇒ 12 × 2 = x × (11 – x)
⇒ 24 = 11x – x2
⇒ x2 – 11x + 24 = 0
PB = 3 cm, PD = 8 cm

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 19.
BC is a chord of the circle centered at O. BC = 10 centimeters, ∠A = 60°. Find the radius of the circle.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q19
Answer:
Draw a rough diagram.
Mark the center O.
Draw diameter through B as BD.
Join DC.
Triangle BCD is a right triangle.
CD = \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Diameter BD = \(\frac{20}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Radius is \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 20.
In the figure, the coordinates of 3 vertices of the parallelogram ABCD are given.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q20
(a) Write the coordinates of C.
(b) Calculate the length of the diagonal AC.
(c) Find the coordinates of the point of intersection of the diagonals.
Answer:
(a) C(10 + 12 – 7, 11 + 7 – 5) = C(15, 13)
(b) AC = \(\sqrt{(15-7)^2+(13-5)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{64+64}\)
= \(\sqrt{128}\)
= 8\(\sqrt{2}\)
(c) \(\left(\frac{7+15}{2}, \frac{5+13}{2}\right)\) = (11, 9)

Question 21.
A square pyramid is made by cutting out a paper as in the figure. The side of the square is 40 centimeters. The height of the triangle is 25 centimeters.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q21
(a) What is the slant height of the square pyramid?
(b) Find the height of the pyramid.
(c) Calculate the volume of the pyramid.
Answer:
(a) 25
(b) h = \(\sqrt{25^2-20^2}\) = 15
(c) Volume = \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 402 × 15 = 8000 cm3

Answer any six questions from 22 to 29. Each question carries 5 scopes. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 22.
The daily wages of 99 workers in a factory are shown in the table.

Daily Wages Number of Workers
500 – 600 8
600 – 700 13
700 – 800 20
800 – 900 25
900 – 1000 19
1000 – 1100 14

(a) If the workers are arranged based on their daily wages, at what position does the median wage fall?
(b) What is the median class?
(c) Find the median of the wages.
Answer:

Daily Wages Number of Workers

Below 600

8
Below 700 21
Below 800 41
Below 900 66
Below 1000 85
Below 1100 99

(a) n = 99 (odd number)
The 50th wage comes in the middle.
50th wage is median.

(b) 800 – 900 is the median class.

(c) When 100 rupees is divided equally among 25 workers then each one’s wage is 4.
Wages in the median class are assumed in an arithmetic sequence with first term 800 + 2 = 802 and common difference 4.
802 is considered as the wage of the 42nd worker as per the table.
9th term of this arithmetic sequence will be median.
∴ Median = 802 + 8 × 4 = 802 + 32 = 834

Question 23.
Draw a rectangle of an area of 24 square centimeters. Draw a square of area equal to the area of this rectangle.
Answer:

  1. Draw a rectangle of area 24 sq. cm. We can draw this rectangle using sides 8 cm and 3 cm or any other.
  2. Let it be ABCD with AB on the base side and BC on the width. Procure AB to such that BC = BE.
  3. With AE as diameter draw a semicircle.
  4. Produce BC to the semicircle and mark the point on the semicircle as F. BF2 = 8 × 3
  5. Draw a square with side BF. The area of this square will be 24.

Question 24.
In the figure, (0, 6) and (8, 0) are coordinates of the points A and B. A circle of diameter AB is to be drawn.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q24
(a) Find the coordinates of the center of the circle.
(b) Find the radius of the circle.
(c) What is the equation of the circle?
Answer:
(a) AOB is a right triangle.
The circumcentre will be the midpoint of the hypotenuse. It is (4, 3).
(b) The radius of the circle is 5.
(c) (x – 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = 52
⇒ x2 + y2 – 8x – 6y = 0

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 25.
PA and PB arc two tangents to the circle centered at O.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q25
∠ACB = 105°. Find the angles given below.
(a) ∠ADB = ______________________
(b) ∠AOB = ______________________
(c) ∠APB = ______________________
(d) ∠ABP = ______________________
(e) ∠ABO = ______________________
Answer:
(a) ∠ADB = 180° – 105° = 75°
(b) ∠AOB = 2 × 75° = 150°
(c) ∠APB = 180° – 150° = 30°
(d) Draw AB.
∠ABP = ∠BDA = 75°
(e) ∠ABO = 90° – 75° = 15°

Question 26.
There are two cylindrical wooden blocks with a diameter of 60 centimeters and a height of 60 centimeters. The largest cone is carved out from one block and the largest sphere from the other.
(a) What is the volume of the cylinder?
(b) Find the volume of the cone.
(c) Find the radius of the sphere.
(d) Calculate the volume of the sphere.
(e) Find the ratio of the volumes of the cone and the sphere.
Answer:
(a) π × 302 × 60 = 54000π cm3
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 54000π = 18000π cm3
(c) 30 cm
(d) \(\frac{4}{3}\)π × 303 = 36000π
(e) 18000 : 36000 = 1 : 2

Question 27.
(a) Find the sum of the first 20 natural numbers.
(b) Write the algebraic expression of the arithmetic sequence 5, 9, 13,……….
(c) Find the sum of the first 20 terms of the arithmetic sequence 5, 9, 13,……….
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{20 \times 21}{2}\) = 210
(b) 4n + 1
(c) 4 × 210 + 20 = 860

Question 28.
A child sees the top of a telephone tower at an elevation of 80°. Stepping 20 meters back, he sees it at an elevation of 40°.
(a) Draw a rough figure.
(b) Calculate the height of the tower.
[sin 40° = 0.64; cos 40° = 0.77; tan 40° = 0.84; sin 80° = 0.98; cos 80° = 0.17; tan 80° = 5.7]
Answer:
(a)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium Q28
(b) sin 80° = \(\frac{h}{20}\)
⇒ h = 20 × 0.98 = 19.6 meter

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Question 29.
Diagonals of a quadrilateral are the lines joining its opposite vertices. What about the diagonals of a polygon?
The lines from one vertex to the adjacent two vertices are not diagonals. They are the sides of the polygon. Lines to all other vertices are diagonals.
In a quadrilateral, only one diagonal can be drawn from one vertex. If we draw from all 4 vertices, we get 4 diagonals.
But 2 among them are the same. In a pentagon, from one vertex, 2 diagonals can be drawn.
Therefore the total number of lines is 5 × 2 = 10
But 5 among them are the same.
So number of diagonals in a pentagon = \(\frac{5 \times 2}{2}\) = 5
Now complete the table given below:

Polygon Number of Sides Number of Diagonals from One Vertex Total number of Diagonals
Quadrilateral 4 1 \(\frac{4 \times 1}{2}\) = 2
Pentagon 5 2 \(\frac{5 \times 2}{2}\) = 5
Hexagon 6 3 \(\frac{6 \times 3}{2}\) = 9
Heptagon 7 ……… ………
Decagon 10 ……… ………
n Sided Polygon n n – 3 ………

Answer:
(a) Heptogon → 7 → 4 → 14
(b) Decagon → 10 → 7 → 35
(c) n sided polygon → n → n – 3 → \(\frac{\mathrm{n}(\mathrm{n}-3)}{2}\)

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Students can read Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80

Instructions:

  • Read each question carefully before answering.
  • Give explanations wherever necessary.
  • The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. You may use this time to read the questions and plan your answers.
  • There is no need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π, etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
See the figure.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q1
If a circle is drawn with AB as its diameter, what are the positions of points P and Q for this circle?
Answer:
Point P is inside the circle (since ∠APB > 90°).
Point Q is outside the circle (since ∠AQB < 90°).

Question 2.
The hemoglobin levels in grams per decilitres of seven students are given below:
12.9, 12.0, 12.6, 12.5, 14.1, 13.7, 13.4
Find the median hemoglobin level.
Answer:
Arrange the given data in increasing order:
12.0, 12.5, 12.6, 12.9, 13.4, 13.7, 14.1
Here there are 7 observations. So, the median is the 4 th observation.
Median = 12.9

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 3.
The sequence of perimeters of squares of sides 1 centimeter, 2 centimeters, 3 centimeters, and so on form an arithmetic sequence.
(a) Write the sequence.
(b) What is the common difference?
Answer:
(a) Sequence of perimeters of squares of sides 1 cm, 2 cm, 3 cm, etc.. = 4, 8, 12,…

(b) Common difference = 4.

Question 4.
A rectangular portion is shaded in a square of side 5 centimeters as shown in the figure. Adot is put inside the square without looking. Find the probability of the dot to be in the shaded region.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q4
Answer:
Total area of the square = 52 = 25 cm2
Area of the shaded rectangular region = 2 × 5 = 10 cm2
∴ Probability of dot to be in the shaded region = \(\frac{10}{25}=\frac{2}{5}\)

Answer any four questions from 5 to 10. Each question carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 5.
Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points A(0, 0), B(2, 3) and C(4, 0). What is the perpendicular distance from B to AC?
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q5
The perpendicular distance from B to AC = 3

Question 6.
Ajay is 10 years older than Renuka. The product of their ages is 144.
(a) Taking the age of Renuka as x, what is the age of Ajay in terms of x?
(b) Find their ages.
Answer:
(a) Ajay’s age = x + 10
(b) Product of their ages = 144
⇒ x(x + 10) = 144
⇒ x2 + 10x = 144
⇒ x2 + 10x + 52 = 144 + 52
⇒ (x + 5)2 = 132
⇒ x = 8
So, Renuka’s age is 8 and Ajay’s age is 18.

Question 7.
Draw a rectangle of sides 4 centimeters and 3 centimeters. Draw a square of the same area.
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q7

Question 8.
Prove that the points (3, 5), (6, 7) and (9, 9) are on the same line.
Answer:
Let A(3, 5), B(6, 7), C(9, 9).
Slope of AB = \(\frac{7-5}{6-3}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Slope of BC = \(\frac{9-7}{9-6}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Hence, A, B, and C lie on the same line.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 9.
The nth term of an arithmetic sequence is 4n + 1.
(a) Write the common difference of the sequence.
(b) Write the first term of the sequence.
(c) What is the remainder obtained when the terms of this sequence are divided by 4?
Answer:
(a) nth term = 4n + 1
1st term = 4 × 1 + 1 = 5
2nd term = 4 × 2 + 1 = 9
Common difference = 9 – 5 = 4.

(b) First term = 5

(c) Terms of the sequence are 5, 9, 13,…..
When each term is divided by 4, we get the remainder 1.

Question 10.
AB, BC, and CA are tangents to the circle centered at O, touching the circle at P, Q, and R respectively, as shown in the figure.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q10
(a) Find ∠QOR.
(b) Find the angles of triangle ABC.
Answer:
(a) ∠QOR = 360 – (110 + 100)
= 360 – 210
= 150

(b) ∠POQ + ∠B = 180
⇒ 110 + ∠B = 180
⇒ ∠B = 180 – 110 = 70
∠POR + ∠A = 180
⇒ 100 + ∠A = 180
⇒ ∠A = 180 – 100 = 80
∠ROQ + ∠C = 180
⇒ 150 + ∠C = 180
⇒ ∠C = 180 – 150 = 30

Answer any eight questions from 11 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (8 × 4 = 32)

Question 11.
Numbers from 1 to 50 are written on slips of paper and put in a box. Without looking, a slip is to be drawn from it.
(a) What is the probability that it is a multiple of 4?
(b) What is the probability that it is a multiple of 6?
(c) What is the probability that it is a multiple of 4 and 6?
Answer:
(a) Multiple of 4 from 1 to 50 are 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, 36, 40, 44, 48
∴ Probability that it is a multiple of 4 = \(\frac{12}{50}=\frac{6}{25}\)

(b) Multiple of 6 from 1 to 50 are 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48
∴ Probability that it is a multiple of 4 = \(\frac{8}{50}=\frac{4}{25}\)

(c) Multiple of 4 and 6 from 1 to 50 are 12, 24, 36, 48
∴ Probability that it is a multiple of 4 and 6 = \(\frac{4}{50}=\frac{2}{25}\)

Question 12.
Draw a circle of radius 2.5 centimeters and mark a point 6 centimeters away from the center of the circle.
(a) How many tangents can be drawn to the circle from this point?
(b) Draw the tangents to the circle from this point.
Answer:
(a) 2

(b)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q12

Question 13.
Consider the arithmetic sequence 8, 14, 20,…
(a) Is 25 a term of this sequence?
(b) Check if 144 is a term of this sequence.
(c) Prove that there are no perfect squares in this sequence.
Answer:
Given the arithmetic sequence 8, 14, 20,…..
Common difference (d) = 6
(a) No, 25 is not a term of the sequence.
Because each term is divided by the common difference 6 leaves the remainder 2.
But when 25 is divided by 6 leaves remainder is 1.

(b) No, 144 is not a term of the sequence. Because 144 leaves the remainder 0 on division by 6.

(c) Perfect squares are 1, 4, 9, 16, 25,…..
\(\frac{(6 n)^2}{6}\) remainder is 0
\(\frac{(6 n \pm 1)^2}{6}\) remainder is 1
\(\frac{(6 n \pm 2)^2}{6}\) remainder is 4
\(\frac{(6 n \pm 3)^2}{6}\) remainder is 3
Continue like this, the remainder cannot be 2.
Hence the proof.

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 14.
A(2, 3), B(8, 5), and C(4, 7) are the coordinates of the vertices of triangle ABC. P is the midpoint of AB and Q is the midpoint of BC.
(a) Find the coordinates of P and Q.
(b) Find the distance between P and Q.
Answer:
A(2, 3), B(8, 5), C(4, 7)
(a) P is the midpoint of AB. So,
P = \(\left(\frac{2+8}{2}, \frac{3+5}{2}\right)\) = (5, 4)
Q is the midpoint of BC. So,
P = \(\left(\frac{8+4}{2}, \frac{5+7}{2}\right)\) = (6, 6)

(b) Distance between P and Q = \(\sqrt{(6-5)^2+(6-4)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{1+4}\)
= \(\sqrt{5}\)

Question 15.
From a circle of radius 15 centimeters, a sector of central angle 120° is cut out and rolled up to make a cone.
(a) What is the slant height of the cone?
(b) What is the base radius of the cone?
(c) Calculate die curved surface area of the cone.
Answer:
(a) Slant height (l) = 15 cm

(b) x = 120°
\(\frac{r}{l}=\frac{x}{360}\)
\(\frac{r}{15}=\frac{120}{360}\)
r = \(\frac{15 \times 120}{360}\) = 5 cm

(c) Curved surface area of the cone = πrl
= π × 5 × 15
= 75π cm2

Question 16.
The diagonal of a rectangle is 9 centimetres and it makes an angle 49° with one side. Find the length of the sides of the rectangle.
(sin 49°= 0.75, cos 49° = 0.66)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q16
Answer:
sin 49 = \(\frac{R Q}{9}\)
0.75 = \(\frac{R Q}{9}\)
RQ = 9 × 0.75 = 6.75 cm
cos 49 = \(\frac{P Q}{9}\)
0.66 = \(\frac{P Q}{9}\)
PQ = 9 × 0.66 = 5.94 cm

Question 17.
ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with its origin as the center. The coordinates of the point A is (4, 0).
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q17
(a) What are the coordinates of the point D?
(b) Find the length of BG.
(c) Write the coordinates of the points B and E.
Answer:
(a) Coordinate of point D = (-4, 0)

(b) Since ABCDEF is a regular hexagon, each angle is 120°.
∴ ∠OAB = 60°
Also, ∠AOB = 60°
Consider ∆BOG,
∠GOB = 60°
∠BGO = 90°
∴ ∠GBO = 30°
So, the sides are in the ratio 1 : √3 : 2
∴ BG = 2√3
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q17.1
(c) B(2, 2√3)
E(-2, -2√3)

Question 18.
The square of a number is equal to 12 added to the number. Find the number.
Answer:
Let x be the number.
Given, x2 = 12 + x
⇒ x2 – x – 12 = 0
⇒ (x – 4)(x + 3) = 0
⇒ x = 4, -3

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 19.
Consider the polynomial p(x) = x2 – 5x + 6
(a) Write p(x) as the product of two first-degree polynomials.
(b) Find the solutions of the equation p(x) = 0.
Answer:
(a) Let p(x) = x2 – 5x + 6 = (x – a)(x – b)
x2 – 5x + 6 = x2 – (a + b)x + ab
⇒ a + b = 5 and ab = 6
⇒ a = 2, b = 3
∴ x2 – 5x + 6 = (x – 2)(x – 3)

(b) p(x) = 0
⇒ x2 – 5x + 6 = 0
⇒ (x – 2) (x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = 2, 3

Question 20.
The diameters of the two hemispheres are in the ratio 5 : 3.
(a) Write the ratio of their radii.
(b) Find the ratio of their surface areas.
(c) If the surface area of the first hemisphere is 100 square centimeters, what is the surface area of the other?
Answer:
(a) Ratio of their radii = 5 : 3

(b) Surface area of hemisphere = 3πr2
\(3 \pi r_1^2: 3 \pi r_2^2\)
= 3π × 52 : 3π × 32
= 25 : 9

(c) 25 : 9 = 100 : x
⇒ x = \(\frac{9 \times 100}{25}\) = 36 sq.cm

Question 21.
The central angle of the AXB is 110° and the central angle of the arc CYD is 80°. Find the angles of triangle APD.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q21
Answer:
Since the central angle of AXB is 110°, ∠ADB = 55°
Since the central angle of CYD is 80°, ∠DAC = 40°
∴ ∠APD = 180° – (55° + 40°)
= 180° – 95°
= 85°

Answer any six questions from 22 to 29. Each question carries 5 scores. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 22.
Draw a triangle of sides 5 centimeters, 6 centimeters, and 7 centimeters. Draw the incircle of the triangle. Measure the radius of the incircle.
Answer:
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q22
Radius = 1.6 cm

Question 23.
The ages of the workers of an organization are arranged as follows:

Age Number of Workers
20 – 30 9
30 – 40 10
40 – 50 8
50 – 60 5
60 – 70 1

(a) If the workers are arranged in order of their wages, the age of which worker is taken as the median age?
(b) Find the median age.
Answer:

Age Number Age Number
20 – 30 9 Below 30 9
30 – 40 10 Below 40 19
40 – 50 8 Below 50 27
50 – 60 5 Below 60 32
60 – 70 1 Below 70 33
Total 33

(a) \(\frac{33+1}{2}\) = 17
So, the age of the 17th worker is taken as the median age.

(b) d = \(\frac{40-30}{10}\) = 1
Age of 10th worker = \(\frac{30+31}{2}\) = 30.5
Age of 17th worker = 30.5 + 7 × 1 = 37.5
So, the median age = 37.5

Question 24.
From a point on the ground at a distance of 100 meters away from a tower, the top of the tower is seen at an angle of elevation 45°. From the top of the tower, a car is seen on the opposite side of the tower at an angle of depression 25°.
(a) Draw a rough figure showing the details given in the question.
(b) Find the height of the tower.
(c) What is the distance of the car from the tower?
(sin 65° = 0.91, cos 65° = 0.42, tan 65° = 2.14)
Answer:
(a)
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q24

(b) In ∆ABC, angles are 45°, 45°, 90°
So sides are in the ratio 1 : 1 : √2
So, the height of the tower AC = 100 m

(c) tan 65 = \(\frac{C D}{100}\)
CD = 100 × tan 65
= 100 × 2.14
= 214 m

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 25.
The third term of an arithmetic sequence is 26 and its eighth term is 61.
(a) Find the common difference of the sequence.
(b) What is its first term?
(c) Write the algebraic form of the sequence.
(d) Find the sum of the first 15 terms of the sequence.
Answer:
(a) 3rd term = 26
8th term = 61
Common difference (d) = \(\frac{\text { Term difference }}{\text { Position difference }}\)
= \(\frac{61-26}{8-3}\)
= 7

(b) First term = 3rd term – 2d
= 26 – 2 × 7
= 26 – 14
= 12

(c) Algebraic form = dn + (f – d)
= 7n + (12 – 7)
= 7n + 5

(d) Sum of first 15 terms = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2f + (n – 1)d]
= \(\frac{15}{2}\) [2 × 12 + (15 – 1)7]
= \(\frac{15}{2}\) [24 + 98]
= 915

Question 26.
A vessel (without lid) in the shape of a square pyramid, made from a metallic sheet with a base perimeter of 80 centimeters and a slant height of 26 centimeters.
(a) How many square centimeters of the metallic sheet was needed to make the vessel?
(b) Calculate the height of the vessel.
(c) What is the capacity of the vessel in liters?
Answer:
(a) Base perimeter = 80 cm
⇒ 4a = 80
⇒ a = 20 cm
Slant height, l = 26 cm
∴ Lateral surface area = 2al
= 2 × 20 × 26
= 1040 cm2

(b) Height h = \(\sqrt{l^2-\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{26^2-10^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{676-100}\)
= \(\sqrt{576}\)
= 24 cm

(c) Volume of the vessel = \(\frac{1}{3}\)a2h
= \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 20 × 20 × 24
= 3200 cm3
= \(\frac{3200}{1000}\) l
= 3.2 l

Question 27.
C and D are points on a semicircle with AB as diameter. ∠BDC = 125°. The CD is parallel to AB.
Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium Q27
Find the measures of:
(a) ∠BAC
(b) ∠ACB
(c) ∠ACD
(d) ∠ABD
Answer:
(a) ∠BAC = 180° – 125° = 55°

(b) ∠ACB = 90°

(c) In ΔACB, ∠BAC = 55°
∠ACB = 90°
∴ ∠ABC = 180° – (55° + 90°) = 35°
AB parallel to CD.
∴ ∠BCD = 35°
∴ ∠ACD = ∠ACB + ∠BCD
= 90° + 35°
= 125°

(d) In ΔBCD,
∠BCD = 35°
∠CDB = 125°
∴ ∠CBD = 180° – (35° + 125°) = 20°
∴ ∠ABD = ∠ABC + ∠CBD
= 35° + 20°
= 55°

Question 28.
The equation of a line is 2x – y – 2 = 0.
(a) Check whether the point (3, 4) is on this line.
(b) Find the coordinates of the points where this line cuts the x and y axes.
Answer:
(a) Equation of the line is 2x – y – 2 = 0 …………(1)
Consider the point (3, 4).
Substitute x = 3, y = 4 in (1),
2 × 3 – 4 – 2 = 6 – 4 – 2 = 0
So, (3, 4) is a point on the line 2x – y – 2 = 0.

(b) If the line cuts the x-axis its y-coordinate is 0.
2x – y – 2 = 0
⇒ 2x – 0 – 2 = 0
⇒ 2x = 2
⇒ x = 1
So, the coordinates of the point where the line cuts the x-axis is (1, 0).
If the line cuts the y-axis its x-coordinate is 0.
∴ 2x – y – 2 = 0
⇒ 2 × 0 – y – 2 = 0
⇒ -y = 2
⇒ y = -2
So, the coordinates of the point where the line cuts the y-axis is (0, -2).

Kerala SSLC Maths Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Question 29.
Consider the sequence: 2, 6, 18, 54,……
First term = 2
Second term = 2 × 3 = 6
Third term = 6 × 3 = 18
Fourth term = 18 × 3 = 54 and so on.
Sequences starting with a non-zero number, and each succeeding term got by multiplying the preceding term by a fixed number except zero, are called geometric sequences. The fixed number multiplied is the common ratio of the sequence. Thus, in the geometric sequence 2, 6, 18, 54,…. the first term is 2 and the common ratio is 3.
(a) The first term of a geometric sequence is 3 and the common ratio is 2. Find its second and third terms.
(b) Which of the following is a geometric sequence?
(i) 2, 4, 6, 8,………
(ii) 2, 4, 8, 16,…….
(iii) 1, 4, 9, 16,…….
(c) What is the common ratio of the geometric sequence 5, 20, 80, 320,…..
(d) Write the next term of the geometric sequence 3, 9, 27,……
Answer:
(a) Second term = 3 × 2 = 6
Third term = 6 × 2 = 12

(b) (ii) 2, 4, 8, 16,….. is a geometric sequence with a common ratio of 2.

(c) Common ratio = \(\frac{20}{5}\) = 4.

(d) Next term = 27 × 3 = 81.

Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations

Question 1.
The following are the names of UN Secretary Generals, Identify the first Secretary General of UNO. Hints U Thant, Kofi A. Annan, Kurt Waldhemin Trygve Lie.
Answer:
Trygve Lie

Question 2.
The following diagram shows the principal organs of UNO. Try to fill up the blank columns.
Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations 1
Answer:

  • Economic and Social Council
  • International Court of Justice
  • Secretariat
  • Trusteeship Council

Question 3.
The following are the names of some UN Secretary Generals. Identity the first person who had served as the secretary General of UNO from Asia.
Hints : Javier Perez de Cuellane, Trygve Lie, U Thant, Boutros Boutros- Ghali
Answer:
U. Thant

Question 4.
Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements below about the veto power.
a. Only the permanent members of the Security Council possess the Veto power.
b. It’s a kind of negative power.
c. The Secretary General uses this power when not satisfied with any decision.
d. One veto can stall a Security Council resolution.
Answer:
a. correct
b. correct
c. wrong
d. correct

HSSLive.Guru

Question 5.
Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements below that describe the way the UN functions.
a. All Security and peace related issues are dealt with the Security Council.
b. Humanitarian policies are implemented by the main organs and specialized agencies spread across the globe.
c. Having consensus among the five permanent members on Security issues is vital for its implementation.
Maximum Cpu Wisfters
d. The members of the General Assembly are automatically the members of all other principal organs and specialized agencies of the UN.
Answer:
a. correct
b. correct
c. correct
d. wrong

Question 6.
Which among the following would give more weight age to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the Security Council?
a. Nuclear Capability
b. It has been a member of the UN since its inception.
c. It is located in Asia.
d. India’s growing economic power and stable political system
Answer:
d. India’s growing economic power and stable political system

Question 7
The UN agency concerned with the safety and peace¬ful use of nuclear technology is.
a. The UN committee on Disarmament
b. International Atomic Energy Agency
c. UN International safeguard Committee.
d. None of the above
Answer:
b. International Atomic Energy Agency

Question 8
WTO is serving as the successor to which of the. following organizations, a General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs.
b. General Arrangement on Trade and Tariffs.
c. World Health Organisation.
d. UN Development programme
Answer:
General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs.

Question 9.
In June 1975 the Prime Minister Indira Gandhi recommended the imposition of emergency to the President of India. Who was the President at the time of declaration of Emergency in India ?
Answer:
FakrudinAli Ahmed

Question 10.
Find the odd one out.
Ban Ki Moon, Butros Butros Khali, APJ Abdul Kalam
Answer:
Abdul Kalam

HSSLive.Guru

Question 11
Trygve Lie was the first Secretary General of UNO. Name the present Secretary General of UNO.
Answer:
Ban Ki Moon

Question 12.
Identify the leader who is associated with Glasnost and Peristroika.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 13.
Write the expansion of the following term:
Answer:
International Monetary Fund

Question 14.
Identify the organisation set up in 1995 as the successor of GATT ?
Answer:
W.T.O.

Question 15.
The UN Security Council has permanent and Non permanent members.
Answer:
5, 10

Question 16.
Fill in the blanks.
a. The Prime objective of the UN is ……….
b. The highest functionary of the UN is called ……..
c. The UN Security Council has permanent and non permanent members…….
d. ……….. is the present UN Secretary General.
Answer:
a. to settle disputes and to promote mutual co-operation among nations.
b. Secretary General
c. 5,10
d. Ban Ki Moon

Question 17
Link Column A with appropriate items from B and C.
Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations 2
Answer:
Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations 3

Question 18.
Match the principal organs and agencies of the UN with their functions.

  1. Economic and social council.
  2. International Court of Justice
  3. International Atomic Energy Agency
  4. Security Council
  5. UN High Commission for Refugees.
  6. World Trade Organization.
  7. International Monetary Fund
  8. General Assembly
  9. World Health Organization
  10. Secretariat

Functions:
a. Oversees the global financial system.
b. Preservation of international peace and security
c. Looks into the economic and social welfare of the member countries
d. Safety and peaceful use of nuclear technology.
e. Resolves disputes between and among member countries.
f. provides shelter and medical help during emergencies
g. Debates and discusses global issues.
h. Administration and co-ordination of UN affairs.
i. Provides good health for all.
j. Facilitates free trade among member countries.
Answer:
1-c, 2-e, 3-d, 4-b, 5-f, 6-j, 7-a, 8-g, 9-i, 10-h.

Question 19.
According to Dag Hammarskjold, “The United Nations was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell”.
In the word of Shashi Tharoor, “Countries in the world can get together, bore each other some times with their words rather than bore holes into each others on the battle fields”. To Churchill, “Jaw-Jaw is better than war war”. These are the comments of some international personalities about the importance of international organization. Carefully examine the opinions and explain the relevance of international organization (UNO).
Answer:
After WWII, the necessity for an international organization was recognized. Its purpose was to prevent wars, to settle international disputes amicably, and to bring about cooperation among nations. Therefore the UN can assist in times of war as well as peace. By improving the standard of living it can assist nations.There are disputes and differences of opinion among nations. War is not the solution to all problems. There are problems like controlling and eradicating diseases or global warming. Although each nation can find solutions to such problems, a collective action would produce much better results. But often nations are not willing to work together. The reasons might be the following:

  1. How to share the expenses for cooperating in* a project?
  2. Can the profit from the cooperation be equitably divided?
  3. How to ensure that the other party won’t breach the contract?

An international organization can formulate new ideas, cooperate and exchange information. It can help member countries by using its expertise and its vast facilities. It can make formulas to share expenses for some cooperative projects and divide profits equitably. It can exert pressure to make the members carry out their obligations.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 20.
‘League of Nations’ was the first international organization formed to avoid war. It could not prevent the second world war. The second world war further proved the relevance of an international organization to prevent wars. This gave birth to UNO. Explain the developments through which UNO was formed?
Answer:
a. In August 1941 American President Franklin D. Roosevelt and the British Prime Minister Winston S. Churchill signed the Atlantic Chart. A,,
b. In January 1942, the nations that fought against the Axis Powers met in Washington DC and signed the “Declaration by United Nations”. This was to support the Atlantic Charter.

  • In December 1943, America, Britain, Soviet Union etc. declared the Tehran Conference.
  • In February 1945, in the Yalta Conference, 3 leaders – Roosevejt, Churchill and Stalin decided to call a United Nations Conference and agreed to put forward a suggestion fora world organization.
  • In April-May 1945, a two months-long United Nations Conference took place in San Francisco.
  • On 26 June 1945 the UN Charter was signed by 50 countries, Poland signed it 15 october .Thus there were 52 founding nations at the beginning of the UN. On 24 October 1945 the UN was officiaily founded. India joined it on 30 October 1945.

Question 21.
The end of cold war marked certain fundamental changes in the international politics. The UNO has also undergone certain changes. Carefully evaluate the reforms of the UN after the cold war.
Answer:
Recently there nave been demands to change the structure of the UN. Reforms are demanded in two spheres:
1. Changes in the structure and its functioning.
2. A rethinking of the problems that can come, should come, under the jurisdiction of the UN.A big demand is that there should be changes in the structure and functions of the Security Council. There is demand for the increase of the Permanent and Non-Permanent members in the Security Council. Then contemporary political realities will be more reflected in its working. There is a demand to increase the number of Asian, African and Latin American countries. There is also a demand from America and many Western countries to rethink about the budget and its management.

Some experts and nations say that there should be some reforms in the areas of jurisdiction of the UNO. They think the UN should play more active roles to bring about peace and security. But others say UN must pay more attention to humanitarian and welfare schemes like health, education, environment, birth control, human rights, social justice etc.

Question 22.
Veto power “is a special power granted to the permanent members of the UN. It is generally regarded as undemocratic and discriminatory. As a student in political science, can you explain the ‘veto power’ and express your opinion about granting veto power to the permanent members of UN Security Council?
Answer:
Veto Power is a special right the Permanent Members of the UN Security Council enjoy. To make decisions in the Security Council, voting is done. Each Permanent Member has one vote. Any Permanent Member can give a negative vote against any proposal. Even of all members except one vote for a particular decision, it won’t be carried out because of the one negative vote. This negative vote is the veto. There is a move to abolish veto orto amend it. But the Permanent Members do not agree for any reform in this matter. They don’t want the veto power to be abolished, even though the Cold War is over. If the Veto is removed, the big powers will lose their interest in the UN and they will do things the way they like, causing harm to the UN.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 23.
On the basis of the resolution adopted by the General Assembly in 1992 the UN secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry into how the UN should be reformed on 1st January 1997. Identify the proposals submitted for new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council.
Answer:
For the new permanent members and non-permanent members, the criteria for the membership in the Security Council are as follows:

  • It must be a big economic power.
  • it should be a big military power.
  • It should be a nation that contributes substantially to the UN Budget.
  • It should be a country with a large population.
  • It must a country that has faith in democracy and human rights.
  • It should be a nation that should be abie to show the varieties of the world in its geography, economy and culture.

Question 24.
As the UN Completed 60 years of its existence, the heads of all the member states met in September 2005 to celebrate the anniversary and review the present world situation. The leaders in this meeting proposed some proposals to make the UN more relevant in the changing context. List the proposals framed in this meeting.
Answer:
Some suggestions regarding matters that come under the jurisdiction of the UNO:

  • Appoint a commission for the establishment of peace.
  • If the people can’t be protected from persecutions by the government of a country, the UN must take the responsibility of protecting them.
  • Establish a Human Rights Commission. (It started working from 19 June 2006).
  • Agreements for the Millennium development objectives.
  • Condemn terrorism and its various aspects.
  • Form a Democracy Fund.
  • Make a decision to stop Trusteeship Council.

Question 25.
We, Indians have a desire to be a permanent member of the Security Council. For this purpose India has strongly supported the restructuring of the UN Security Council. Can you carefully analyze the logic behind this claim?
Answer:
The demand of India to be a Permanent Member of the Security Council is quite a logical and legitimate one. India fulfills all the criteria to be a permanent member. It demands permanent membership on the following grounds:

  • It has the world’s second largest population.
  • It is the largest democracy in the world.
  • India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  • It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  • India’s economic situation is improving.
  • India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others.

Question 26.
We know that India’s claim for permanent membership in the UN Security Council is just and reasonable. There are enough reasons for this. But we also know that it is not easy to materialize this claim. Identify the difficulties before us for attaining the permanent membership.
Answer:
Some nations question India’s claim for permanent membership in the UN Security Council. They have their own reasons. Pakistan, our neighbour, does not want India to have the veto power. Some say that if India is given permanent membership, many other countries like Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Africa also will come with such demands. Africa and South America are huge landmasses that deserve representation. According to the present structure, this won’t be possible. Therefore it is not easy for any country, including India, to get permanent membership.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 27
The end of cold war created a unipolar world controlled by the U.S.A. Do you think UN serves as a balance against US dominance? UNO came into existence during the period of Cold War. The disintegration of the USSR made the USA the sole Superpower in the world. Many nations feel that only if they work in cooperation with this Superpower, the restructuring of the UN will be possible. We know that it is not easy to control America. Many things make America have great influence over the UN.

The following are main reasons:

  • It is the greatest power. It has the economic and military capacity even to challenge the UN.
  • UN is located in American soil. That itself enables the US to influence it.
  • Many American citizens work in the UN bureaucracy.
  • America can stop any move against it by using its veto power.
  • America can even decide who the next UN Secretary General should be.
  • Using this power USA can make other countries divided in their views.

Because of all these the UN has not been able to counter America. Even though America is a Superpower, UN is the venue where world issues can be discussed by other countries. Although not equal to her, UN can criticise any act or activity of the USA if it goes against its interest.

Question 28.
Match the following:
Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations 4
Answer:
a – 5
b – 3
c – 4
d – 1
e – 2

Additional Questions

Question 1.
‘After the old war, the world faces drastic changes’.In your opinion what are the charges occurred in the world after cold war.
Answer:
The changes that happened in the world after the Cold War are as follows:

  • The disintegration of the Soviet Union.
  • America became the sole Superpower.
  • The relation between Russia, the heir to the USSR, and the USA became based on cooperation.
  • China grew into a big power. India too grew fast.
  • Many new countries joined the UN.
    (Most of them were members of the disintegrated USSR.)

The world faces new challenges like internal conflicts, racial conflicts, terrorism, proliferation of nuclear weapons, climate change, destruction of the eco system, contagious diseases, etc.

Question 2.
Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements about the veto power.
Answer:
a. correct
b. correct
c. wrong
d. correct

Question 3.
Which among the following would give more weightage to India’s proposal for permanent membership in the security council.
Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 International Organisations 5

Answer:
d.

Question 4.
The United Nations was established in .
Answer:
24 October, 1945

Question 5.
…………. is UN’s day.
Answer:
24th October

Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Plus Two Political Science SAY Question Paper 2013

Kerala Plus Two Political Science SAY Question Paper 2013

Question 1.
The names of certain countries are given below, pick up ASEAN countries among them and complete the table. (2)

  • China
  • Philippines
  • Indonesia
  • Singapore
  • Pakistan
  • Bangladesh
  • Malaysia
  • Sri Lanka

Answer:
Philippines, Indonesia, Singapore and Malaysia

Question 2.
“The split in the communist party of India can be traced back to the ideological rift between two countries”. Do you agree with the statement? Identify those countries and substantiate your argument.(3)
Answer:
In 1964 the Communist Party of India split as CPI and CPI(M). CPI was Pro-Russia and pro-Congress but CPI(M) was pro-China and anti-Congress.

Question 3.
Right to Information Act is considered as one of the greatest contributions of popular movements in India. Is it a pre-requisite to the success of democracy? How? You can use the following hint while answering the question.
i. Avoids corruption (3)
Answer:
Right to Information is an important landmark in Indian democracy. This Act plays a big role in making the administration transparent to a large extent. It helps in eradicating corruption in the government. It allows individuals to get information regarding various administrative matters. It removes the secrecy maintained by the earlier Administrations. It is a check against corruption. But this Act alone is not enough to remove large-scale corruption in the society.

Question 4.
In a classroom debate Nandana advanced the following argument. (6)
“The political conditions of India during 1975 forced Indira Gandhi to declare national emergency”. State your opinion on the above observation and find out whether the emergency declaration created a crisis in the democratic order.
Answer:
On 25 June 1975, the President, on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, declared Emergency in India. It affected the working of the political parties in many ways. They are as follows:
a. Many of the opposition leaders were arrested and kept in jail. This adversely affected the functioning of the parties. The controls imposed on the media also affected their working. As a result the public opinion was turned against Congress. Jay Prakash Narayan became the symbol of democracy.

b. The Emergency and things that were done to implement it made the opposition leaders feel that the autocratic rule of Indira Gandhi would make them disappear one by one. Because of that the leaders of different parties kept in touch with one another and were ready to form a new political party. The result was Janta Party.

c. With the formation of the new party, it was strongly believed that the anti-Congress votes won’t get divided. The 1977 election was a referendum on the Emergency. Congress was badly defeated.

Question 5.
India’s Nuclear Policy aims at global disarmament. Do you think that the recent Indo-US nuclear deal is a deviation from these policies. Give your reasons. (3)
Answer:
Non-Aligned policy is a specialty of India. India takes a neutral stand when there are problems between power blocs. But the Indo-American Nuclear Deal can be seen as a change from this neutral policy. It is considered a pro-American leaning on the part of India.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 6.
India and China had very good neighbourly ties with each other during post-independence, based mainly on the principles of Panchasheel. But on the Tibetan issue the friends fell out nd China invaded India. Do you think the invasion a failure of the Panchasheel diplomacy? How do you look at the issue in the context of the present relations between India and China. (4)
Answer:
Indo-China Relations: In the beginning India and China had cordial relations. It has a historical and cultural background. Nehru played a crucial role in making the relations better. India was the first country to recognize China after the Revolution. Nehru tried to help China in international matters. Because of these good relations, on the India-China border there were only paramilitary forces.

The Panchsheel Agreement as a big landmark out India-China relations. It was signed on April 29 by the PMs of both countries, Nehru of India and Chou- en-Lai of China. Nehru visited China and Chou-en- Lai visited India getting the love and respect of people. Nehru had an open-hearted approach to China. But people like Patel thought China was not a country to be believed. Nehru never expected any attack from China. But in 1962, China did attack India.

Two things spoiled the relations between India and China. One was the Tibetan Issue and the other was border disputes. Even in the 1950s when they were friends, India and China had border disputes. China was not ready to accept our suggestions regarding the border. China claimed Ladakh in Kashmir and some areas of Arunachal Pradesh to be theirs. During the period of 1957-59, they also took Aksai Chin sector and built the Karakoram Highway. The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. It was a breach of faith. In the beginning India kept quiet. But the Chinese started imposing their culture

on the Tibetans. In 1959, the Tibetan Spiritual leader, Dalai Lama, sought refuge in India. China then accused India saying that India was acting against the interest of China. In October 1962 China infiltrated into Indian territories which it claimed to be hers. The first attack lasted a week. Chinese army occupied some place in Arunachal Pradesh. The next attack came a month later. But the Indian army stopped the Chinese in the western part of Ladakh. China declared a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the places it had taken.

As a result of the war, Nehru’s close friend and the then defence minister V.K. Krishna Menon had o resign. Nehru was criticised for blinding believing China for his lack of military preparation to prevent the attack. A no-confrdence motion was brought against his government. In Lok Sabha there were a lot of discussions. In many bye-elections Congress lost. The Opposition was also affected by the war. In 1964 Communist Part was divided into two – Pro- Chinese and Pro-Russia. One was CPI (M) and the otherwasCPI.

The War awakened the nation. The North Eastern region was backward. The Chinese war prompted the nation to keep its unity and to embark upon developmental projects. Now the relations are a bit better. But China’s closeness to Pakistan and help it gives to Pakistan make us unhappy.

Question 7.
Observe the following conversation : (6)
Vrinda: Owing to globalisation, the world today is a globalised village, Nationalism has given way to internationalism.
Renjitha: I agree with you, but I feel that at a deeper level globalisation is a new form of colonialism. It is creating harmful effects on all levels of existence.
Elsa: I feel that globalisation has been affecting the developing countries most adversely.
Based on the above given pieces of conversation, formulate your views on globalisation.
Answer:
The concept of globalization is the exchange of ideas, materials and human resources. Now this exchange is possible among nations without much control. Looked at this way, it assumes different levels of political, economic and cultural meanings. In his sense it has merits and demerits. Some societies may be affected only very little, but some may be affected much more.

Let us see how it works:
Political results: Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes. Instead of social welfare, the stress is on the market. With the coming MNCs (Multi National Corporations), it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions. According to the advocates of globalization, no political power of the government is lost. The essential things will remain under the authority of the government. Since technology has advanced so much, governments can do a lot. Technology helps governments to know the details of their citizens and make the administration efficient.

Economic Results:
Globalization has influenced the economic sphere greatly. World Bank, IMF, WTO
etc. play big roies. All these are controlled mainly by America and its allies. The world economy itself has come undertheir influence. In this, are-thinking is necessary. It is high time that we found out who the beneficiaries of globalization are.
As a result of globalization, import controls are reduced or removed. The developed nations can now invest their capital in the developing nations, investing in the developing nations is more profitable.

Technologies develop without any limits of borders. But regarding the movement of people, the developed nations have made certain rules. Their countries are kept safe from foreign workers through the policy of Visa. Because of the visa rules, the jobs of their citizens are not taken away by emigrants. There are arguments in favour and against economic globalization.

Although the policy is the same, different places get different results. Those who think of social justice can look at the limitations on government only as a demerit of globalization. Those who are economically backward need some special security not to suffer from the dements of globalization. Some people believe that globalization makes the poor people poorer and so it must be stopped. But globalization brings about huge economic growth and the social welfare of many. Large scale commerce makes the economy better. It is not easy to prevent globalization in the forward march of history.

Question 8.
No change in India’s stand on climate change” says Prime Minister Man Mohan Singh . In the context of the Prime Minister’s reference, identify India’s stand on environmental security. (3)
Answer:
For the protection of environment India has taken the following steps:

  • According to the auto fuel policy of India, only purified fuel is used for vehicles.
  • The Energy Act passed in 2001, aims at the appropriate use of energy.
  • The 2003 Electricity Act requires the use of renewable energy sources.
  • In 2011-12, the Bio-diesel Mission acquired 11 million hectors of land for the production of biodiesel. Recently schemes have been worked out for the import of natural gas. It has been decided to use the latest technology for purifying coal. Thus India is doing a lot for environmental protection.

Question 9.
You may be familar with the term Syndicate’which was related to the congress party during the 60s, Analyse the role player by the Syndicate in relation to Congress party.(4)
Answer:
The biggest challenge Indira Gandhi had to face after the 1967 election was not from the Opposition but from her own party. She had to a face a powerful Syndicate in the party itself working against her. But soon she was able to take control and took strong measures. She did certain things showing her leaning towards the Left. In 1967, she formed a 10- point action plan.

Banks were controlled, insurance was nationalized, and ceiling was set for urban property. She also carried out public distribution of food grains, land reforms, village housing schemes. Although the Syndicate agreed to these changes, it was not happy. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died in 1969, there was election for the President. During this election the difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate came in the open.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 10.
‘The Green Revolution delivered only a moderate agricultural growth; but increased polarisation between classes and regions’. In the light of the above statement mention two negative and positive consequences of Green Revolution, (4)
Answer:
Green Revolution is the name given to the policies of the government which aimed at maximum production in the minimum period in the agricultural sector. In the 1960s, the agricultural sector was in a very bad shape. Between 1965 and 67 there were huge droughts in many parts of India. This reduced food production and in many areas there was famine¬like condition.

To overcome this crisis, India was forced to seek assistance from countries like America. Following the American policies, we too started some new economic policies. The government wanted self-sufficiency in food and therefore a new agricultural policy was implemented. This policy included farming all lands where irrigation was available, using high yield varieties of seeds and fertilizing the land. Subsidies were given for irrigation and insecticides. It was also decided that the government would purchase the produce at a minimum price. All these changes together paved the way for what is known as the Green Revolution.

The Green Revolution brought some positive changes in agricultural growth. Food stuff was easily available. Of course, it was the rich merchants and large farm- owners that were the prime beneficiaries. There was a polarization of the rich and poor. This helped the Left Parties to bring together the poor farmers and the masses. As a result, there arose a powerful Left-leaning lobby of middle class farmers.

Question 11.
Match the following : (5)
Plus Two Political Science SAY Question Paper 2013 1
Answer:
Agra Summit – 2001 – Vajpai, Musharaf
Tashkent agreement -1996- Sastri, Ayub Khan
Stand Still Agreement – 1947 – India Government, Hyderabad Nizam
Simla Agreement – 1972 – Indira Gandhi, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
Panchsheel principles-1954-Nehru, Chou-en-Lai

Question 12.
Name the two leaders who were known for the following two slogans.
a) jai Jawan Jai Kisan
b) Garibi Hatao (1)
Answer:
a. Lal Bahadur Satri
b. Indira Gandhi

Question 13.
The role of Non-party movements in India is significant in making our democracy more vibrant. Identify any one of such movement and analyse its importance.(3)
Answer:
Chipko Movement is considered as one of the first environmental movement in the country. This was a Movement that became famous the world over. It was started in 1973 in two or three villages of Uttarakhand. The Forest Department prevented the villagers from cutting down a certain kind of trees with which they made their working implements. But the same Forest Department gave permission to a Sports Equipment Manufacturing Company to cut down such trees for commercial purposes. This provoked the villagers. When the workers came to cut the trees, the villagers stood near the trees embracing them. (Chipko means embrace).

This protest spread to many parts of Uttarakhand. The people raised their voice against the exploitation of nature. They asked the government not to let outsiders come and exploit their resources. They wanted the power to manage them to be given to the local people. They also asked for.permission to start small scale industries, protecting Nature and the Environment. They also demanded minimum wages for the forest workers who had no land of their own.

As a result of this Movement, the government issued an order prohibiting the cutting down of trees in the Himalayan side for 15 years. The role of women was great in this Movement. They also fought against social evils like drinking alcohol. With Chipko Movement, people realized that solutions to popular problems could be found through non-political movements.

Question 14.
LTTE, the Tamil Militant outfit has been destroyed by the Sri Lankan army. Identify any two causes LTTE has been fighting for. (2)
Answer:
The civil war that was going on in Sri Lanka ended with the killing of Veluppilla Prabhakaran and some other LTTE leaders. All this time democracy was functioning there. After independence, it was the Sinhala community that had the upper hand in Sri Lanka. They were not sympathetic towards the Tamils who actually migrated from India long ago. The Sinhala nationalists were against giving any concessions to the Tamils there.

In their view Sri Lanka is the motherland only for them. It was this enmity that forced the Tamils to rise in revolt against the Sinhalese, The Tamils organised the LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eazham). From 1983, the LTTE began armed struggle against the Sinhalese. This racial problem became a headache to India as well. The Tamil people of India exerted great pressure on the Central Government to help the Tamils in Sri Lanka.

In 1987 India signed an agreement with Sri Lanka. According to that there should be cordial relations between the Tamils and the Sri Lankan government. But the Indian government had to fight against LTTE. Sri Lanka thought India was interfering in its internal affairs. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force had to come back to India without -achieving any result. Sri Lankan problem became very violent. Scandinavian countries like Nonway and Iceland tried to bring peace, but they failed. In Lankan army attacked the LTTE army and killed Veluppilla Prabhakaran and his associates.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 15.
As per Article 370 the state of Jammu and Kashmir enjoys special status. Other states are against this special consideration, while Kashmir is says that they are not getting enough recognition. Kashmir problem still remains as a headache to the central government. Identify the various problems on the issue of Kashmir Do you think that the arguments of Kashmiris are justifiable? Substantiate your arguments. (6)
Answer:
When India got independence, Jammu-Kashmirwas a Princely State. Initially, the King Raja Hari Singh refused to join either India or Pakistan as he wanted to remain independent. The Pakistani leaders believed that since Jammu-Kashmir had a lot of Muslims, it would join Pakistan. The people there were known as Kashmiris. Under the leadership of Sheikh Abdulla there was an agitation to remove the King from power. But he also did not want to join Pakistan.

National Conference was a secular organization. It was also pro-Congress. In October 1947 Pakistan encouraged some tribal groups to capture Pakistan. Then the King sought assistance from India.

The King signed the “Instrument of Accession” and so the Indian army helped the Jammu-Kashmir King. There was also a condition that when things become normal there would be a referendum. For the welfare of the people Sheikh Abdulla became the Prime Minister. India granted J&K autonomy.

External and Internal Squabbles: Because of external and internal problems, J&K is always in the midst of crises. On one side there is Pakistan claiming the Kashmir Valley. After the 1947 War, a part of Kashmir came under Pakistani control. India calls it illegal occupation. Pakistan Calls this area Azad Kashmir. Internally also the Kashmir problems is a headache for the Centre. According to Article 37Q, Kashmir is given greater autonomy than other States. This Article is applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir. The special concession causes problems. Many believe that this autonomy given to Kashmir will adversely affect the unity and indivisibility of the country. They feel that Article 370 should be removed. But the Kashmiris feel that the autonomy they got by Article 370 is not enough. Some Kashmiris put forward 3 complaints.

  • No referendum has taken place so far.
  • The status promised by Article 370 is only on paper, not in practice. They need more autonomy.
  • They also say that the kind of democracy implemented in other States of India is not found in J&K.

Politics since 1948:
After Sheikh Abdulla became the Prime Minister of Kashmir, many land reforms and other welfare measures were taken to help the masses. But there was a difference of opinion between him and the Central Government. He wanted Kashmir to be completely free. So the Central Government dismissed him and kept him in jail forsome time. His successors did not get popular support but they administered the region with Central support. The Kashmiris slowly started believing in democracy. According to the agreement between India Gandhi and Sheikh Abd,ullah, in 1974, he became the Prime Minister. He died in 1982.

Resistance And Later:
In the 1987 election the National Conference won with a huge majority. Farukh Abdulla became the Chief Minister. Many believed that he did some manipulations in the election. From 1980, there have been protests against weak governments there. Some people believed that it was the Centre which made this huge majority possible. It led to the Kashmiri crisis. There was resistance. In 1989, there was an armed struggle for making Kashmir independent.

The insurgents were assisted by Pakistan. For many years, J&K was under Presidential rule. Even as there was strong military presence there, from 1990 there have been frequent clashes between the army and the people who resisted Indian rule. Farooq Abdulla’s government also demanded greater autonomy. In 2002, there was another election. Instead of the National Conference, a PDP Coalition Government came to power.

Secession Movement And After:
The secessionist movement (1969) appeared in many shapes and it took different stances.

  • Independent Kashmir without joining either India or Pakistan.
  • A group demanding merger with Pakistan.
  • A group demanding greater autonomy.

The demand for greater autonomy attracted the people of Jammu and Ladakh in different ways. Often there were complaints against neglect and backwardness. The Central Government discussed the issue with different groups. The secessionists now say that even as they stay with India, they should be given more autonomy.

Question 16.
“The United Nations was not created to take humanity to heaven, but to save it from hell”. Dag Hammarsk Jold, The UN’s second secretary general. Based on the above quotation, Analyse the importance of UN as an indispensable world organisaton. (5)
Answer:
After WWII, the necessity for an international organization was recognized. Its purpose was to prevent wars, to settle international disputes amicably, and to bring about cooperation among nations. Therefore the UN can assist in times of war as well as peace. By improving the standard of living it can assist nations.

There are disputes and differences of opinion among nations. War is not the solution to all problems. There are problems like controlling and eradicating diseases or global warming. Although each nation can find solutions to such problems, a collective action would produce much better results. But often nations are not willing to work together.

Question 17.
In the midst of severe competition and conflicts, after the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, a consensus appears to have emerged among most of the parties. State the main ideas included in the consensus.You can use the following hints.

  1. New economic policies
  2. Political and social claims of backward castes.

Answer:
After 2004, we saw a situation where no party had majority and therefore many parties joined together on the basis of some common policies. There was some kind of political consensus in pursuing the new economic policies. Along with that the social demands of the backward classes also came up for serious consideration

HSSLive.Guru

Question 18.
Study the conversation given below:
Anagha : The contemporary US Power lies in the superiority of its military power.
Ronie : We can regard World Bank, International Monetary Fund and World Trade Organisation as the products of American hegemony.
Rani: It would be a mistake to see US hegemony in purely military and economic terms without considering the cultural dimension of US hegemony. Based on these dialogues prepare a detailed note on US hegemony. Find out two major constraints on American hegemony. (5)
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:
a. Hard Power
b. Structural Power
c. Soft Power

Hard Power:
This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

Structural Power:
This dominance is based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.Now comes another example the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree

Question 19.
After the collapse of Soviet Union the market capitalist forces of the west adopted a new strategy towards East-European countries through World Bank and IMF, Identify this strategy and prepare a brief note on it.(4)
Answer:
The failure of the Soviet Union made many of its constituent countries abandon Communism and follow democratic ways. Russia, Asian countries, Easer European countries etc were attracted towards organizations like the World Bank and IMF.

  • The main purpose was to make communist countries follow the capitalist model.
  • Private capital would be very important.
  • Cooperative farming will give way to private farming.
  • Foreign investment, open market system and currency exchange would be possible.
  • The countries of the erstwhile Soviet Union will have the facility to have contact with Western countries and trade with them.
  • Using all these, the Western countries made the member countries of the erstwhile Soviet Union come closer to them.

Results:

  • Many big industries under government control collapsed.
  • 90% industries were sold to individuals or private companies.
  • The Russian Currency Rouble was devalued.
  • Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
  • In Cooperative farming, people had food security. But now it was not there. Russia had to import food grains.
  • In Russia, the GDP in 1999 was less than that of 1989.
  • The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  • As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.
  • Educational and intellectual human resources were scattered and many people emigrated.
  • Privatization made economic inequality among people.

Question 20.
Find odd man out:
a) Parvez Mush raff
b) E.M. Ershad
c) Zia-ul-Haq
d) Ayub-Khan (1)
Answer:
a) E:M. Ershad

Question 21.
Arrange the following in chronological order. (2)
a) Establishment of OEEC (Organisation for European Economic Co-operation)
b) Establishment of EU (European Union)
c) Formation of ASEAN (Associaton for South East Asian Nations.
d) Formation of NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation)
Answer:
a) OEEC 1948
b) EU 1993
c) ASEAN 1967
d) NATO 1949

HSSLive.Guru

Question 22.
A discussion on “goals of I and II five year plans” has taken place in the class. The student omitted the following points in his discussion note.
i. Focused on land reforms
ii. Targeted socialistic pattern of society
Consider the above given hints and complete the discussion note.
Answer:
The 1st FYP gave importance to the agricultural sector. But the 2nd one stressed industrial development. This raised a question: for a country like India which is more important – agriculture or industry?

Those who supported the agricultural sector said that the 2nd FYP had no definite plan about the agricultural sector and industries might make things more difficult for the villagers. J.C. Kumarappa, a Gandhian economist, prepared a plan about industrialization. Mr. Choudhary Charan Singh wanted greater stress to be given to the agricultural sector. He said that industrialization brings progress only to business and cities by preventing farmers and villagers from making progress.

Supporters of industrialization had a different view. They claimed that only through industries and greater production the eradication of poverty would be possible. They also claimed that there was a definite agricultural policy for the development of food crops. Through land reforms, poor villagers got land. Funds were made available for social welfare and irrigation. But these policies could not be carried out as planned. The main reason was the objection from big landowners who had political and social power. They felt that even if more money is spent on agriculture, it would not improve the lot of the villagers.

Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2015

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2015

Question 1.
Write a short note on Green Revolution. How this contributed to food security in India? (3)
Answer:
Green Revolution: Green Revolution is the name given to the policies of the government which aimed at maximum production in the minimum period in the agricultural sector. In the 1960s, the agricultural sector was in very bad shape. Between 1965 and 67 there were huge droughts in many parts of India. This reduced food production and in many areas there was famine-like condition.

To overcome this crisis, India was forced to seek assistance from countries like America. Following the American policies, we too started some new economic policies. The government wanted self- sufficiency in food and therefore a new agricultural policy was implemented. This policy included fanning all lands where irrigation was available, using high yield varieties of seeds and fertilizing the land. Subsidies were given for irrigation and insecticides, it was also decided that the government would purchase the product at a minimum price. All these changes together paved the way for what is known as the Green Revolution.

The Green Revolution brought some positive changes in agricultural growth. Food stuff was easily available. Of course, it was the rich merchants and large farm- owners that were the prime beneficiaries. There was a polarization of the rich and poor. This helped the Left Parties to bring together the poor farmers and the masses. As a result, there arose a powerful Left-leaning lobby of middle-class farmers.

Question 2.
Match the following : (4)
HSSLive Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper 2015 1
Answer:

  • Shyama Prasad Mukherjee – Founder of BJS – Minister, Nehru Ministry.
  • Pattom Thanu Piliai – Socialist Leader – Chief Minister of Kerala.
  • A.K. Gopalan – Opposition Leader in the Lok Sabha – Communist Leader.
  • BR Ambedkar- Stood for Dalit Justice -Architect of Indian Constitution.

Question 3.
The failure of N. Sanjeeva Reddy, official Presidential candidate of the Congress Party, completed the split in the Congress Party. Expalin the circumstances that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969. (3)
Answer:
The biggest challenge Indira Gandhi had to face after the 1967 election was not from the Opposition but from her own party. She had to a face a powerful Syndicate in the party itself working against her But soon she was able to take control and took strong measures. She did certain things showing her leaning towards the Left. In 1967, she formed a 10- point action plan. Banks were controlled, insurance was nationalized, and ceiling was set for urban property. She also carried out public distribution of food grains, land reforms, village housing schemes. Although the Syndicate agreed to these changes, it was not happy.

When Dr. Zakir Hussain died in 1969, there was election for the President. During this election the difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate came in the open.

Question 4.
After the establishment of UN, so many new states were evolved in the international arena. There are heated discussions on the re-structuring of UN. Discuss, how the UN should be restructured catering to the present international needs. What will be the ‘ role of India in the restructured UN? (6)
Answer:
There is a need to reform UNO as per the need of the time. The circumstances today are different from those existing at the time of the formation of the UNO. There should be objective solutions to the problems of the world. No country should assume the role of world police.

There should be structural change in the UN to enable it to eradicate terrorism. There should be proper representation of the developing nations in the UN.

The demand of India to have permanent membership in the Security Council is a logical and just demand, India wants permanent membership because of the following reasons:

  • it has the world’s second-largest population.
  • It is the largest democracy in the world.
  • India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  • It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  • India’s economic situation is improving.
  • India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others,

Question 5.
‘Terrorists never respect any international laws’. Hence terrorism is considered as a new threat to security. Explain any two other new sources of threats to security. (4)
Answer:
a. Human Rights Violations: We see that throughout the world there are human right violations. There is no unified thinking in any country about how to protect human rights. Recent incidents of human right violations are the annexation of Kuwait by Iraq, the ethnic cleansing in Ruanda and the mass killings of the people of Eastern Timor by the Indonesian army. All these prompted world leaders to have a talk. The talk was about whether the UN should interfere in such matters. The matter is still unresolved.

Global Poverty: This is another factor of security threat, it is believed that the population in the underdeveloped countries will triple in 50 years. In countries where the population is low, the per capita income will be high. Therefore the economically advanced countries will prosper further whereas the poor countries will grow poorer. The gap between countries of the North and South will increase. People from the South countries immigrate to the North countries for better life and earning. This also creates a threat for the security of mankind.

Question 6.
Discuss briefly the Anti-Arrack Movement. How is this movement related to other movements in India? (3)
Answer:
In the 1990s, many women in Nellur in Andhra became literate. In the class, women spoke about the drinking habits of their men-folk. Drinking alcohol causes both physical and mental harm. It also adversely affects the economic situation of the family. Men do not go to work. The manufacturers of various kinds of alcoholic beverages make money by using all sorts of illegal means. It is the women that suffer because of the drinking habit of men. The women in Nellur protested against alcoholism and forced a wine shop to close down. This news spread like wild fire into some 5000 villages. They

held meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the Collectors. The arrack auction in Nellur had to be postponed 17 times. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the State.

Question 7.
Dravidian Movement is the oldest regional movement in India. Discuss the origin and development of the movement. ( (3)
Answer:
‘Vadakku Vaazhkirathu’Therkku Thaeikirathu”. This was the popular slogan raised by Dravidian movement. This Dravidian movement was one of the first regional movements in Indian Politics. Prepare. a short note about Dravidian movement.

Vadakku Vaazhkirathu. Thekku Thaeikirathu” was a slogan of the Dravidian Movement. This is first regional movement in India. Although the Movement wanted fo establish a Dravidian Nation, it never resorted to any armed struggle. Using the democratic methods of propaganda and election, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhakam became a strong power. Dravida Movement: Dravida Kazhakam (DK) was formed by E.V. Ramaswami, known as ‘Periyor’. This Organization was against Brahmin supremacy and the political and economic supremacy of the Northern States. It was split later and then DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhakam) came into existence, in 1953 and 54 it made 3 big agitations and they made DMK an influential party in Indian politics.

a. The first agitation was to change the name of a railway station. Kallakkudi railway station’s name was changed to Dalmiapuram. The DMK wanted to retain the name Kallakkudi.
b. The second agitation was to make Tamil Cultural history as an important part of the school curriculum.
c. The 3rd one was against the handicraft training in .the schools. The DMK said that it had a Brahmin touch. The DMK made huge agitations against the plan of making Hindi as the sole official language. The 1965 anti-Hindi protests made DMK very famous. Now there are many Dravidian parties – DMK, AIDMK, Marumalarchi DMK, Pattali Makkal Kakshi, Desiya Moorpoku Dravida Kazhakam and so on. Some of them are known even outside Tamil Nadu.

Question 8.
Corruption is the curse of contemporary India. In this context discuss the importance of Lok Pal in India. (2)
Answer:
Corruption is a curse in our modern politics. The tendency to divide the tax money between bureaucrats and politicians is increasing in India. It is essential to stop this tendency. Anna Hazare and the People’s Party are trying to get the Lok Pal Bill passed prevent corruption. It is high time that India passed Lok Pal Bill.

Question 9.
‘Demolition of the Babri Mazjid is considered as a blow to Indian Secularism.’ How the Ram Janma Bhumi-Babri Masjid issue influenced Indian politics? Discuss. (3)
Answer:
As the news of the demolition of the Masjid canieout there were heated arguments between Hindus’ and Muslims in many places. That State Gdyferhfnent was dismissed. In many States with

BJP governments, Presidential rule was imposed. A case was filed against the Chief Minister of UP in the Supreme Court. The case was for breaching the court verdict. BJP expressed its regret at the tragic incidents that took place. The Central Government appointed a Commission to study the circumstances which led to the demolition of the Mosque. Liberhan Commission submitted its report after 17 years of the incident.

Question 10.
Match the following :
Lai Danga – Aka Dal – Mizoram
Praphulla KumarMahanta- MNF – Assam
Longowal – AGP – Punjab
Answer:
Lai Denga — M.N.F. — Mizoram
Prafulia Kumar Mahantha —A, G.P. —Assam
Longoval —Akali Dal — Punjab

Question 11.
Today Environment Degradation is considered as the greatest threat to the world’s existence. (3)
Identify any three such environmental problems. How can we prevent such degradations?
Answer:
Environmental Issues:
a. Global Warming, b. Deforestation, c. Pollution of air and water.
Solutions: a Forestation
b. Disposal of plastic waste at source.
c. Controlling vehicle emissions.

Question 12.
The critics of Globalization argue that ‘Globalization is polarisation’. Do you agree with that argument? Discuss the economic consequences of globalization. (3)
Answer:
Globalization is the exchange of ideas, materials and human resources. Now this exchange is possible among nations without much control. Looked at this way, it assumes different levels of political, economic and cultural meanings. In his sense, it has merits and demerits. Some societies may be affected only very little, but some may be affected much more. Let us see how it works. Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes. Instead of social welfare, the stress is on the market. With the coming MNCs (Multi-National Corporations), it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions.

Globalization has influenced the economic sphere greatly. World Bank, IMF, WTO etc. play big roles. All these are controlled mainly by America and its allies. The world economy itself has come under their influence. In this, a re-thinking is necessary. It is high time that we found out who the beneficiaries of globalization are.

The effects of globalization are not limited to political and economic spheres. It affects our home, food, dress and even thoughts. There is a fear that it would lead to single world culture: There is the dominance of Western Culture in globalization’! There is a danger to traditional cultures. But some people say that culture is not something that stands still. Every culture accepts things from other cultures.

Question 13.
Write a brief note on Indo-China relations. How the Indo-China War of 1962 affected India domestically and internationally? (7)
Answer:
In the beginning, India and China had cordial relations. Our relations have a historical and cultural background. Nehru played a crucial role in making relations better. India was the first country to recognize China after the Revolution. Nehru tried to help China in international matters. Because of these good relations, on the India-China border, there were only paramilitary forces and not regular armymen. The Panchsheel Agreement was a big landmark out of India-China relations. It was signed on April 29 by the PMs of both countries, Nehru of India and Chou- en-Lai of China. Nehru visited China and Chou-en-Lai visited India getting the love and respect of people. Nehru had an open-hearted approach to China. But people like Patel thought China was not a country to be believed. Nehru never expected any attack from China. But in 1962, China did attack India.

Two things spoiled the relations between India and China. One was the Tibetan Issue and the other was border disputes. Even in the 1950s when they were friends, India and China had border disputes. China was not ready to accept our suggestions regarding the border. China claimed Ladakh in Kashmir and some areas of Arunachal Pradesh to be theirs. During the period of 1957-59, they also took Aksai Chin sector and built the Karakoram Highway. The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. It was a breach of faith. In the beginning India kept quiet. But the Chinese started imposing their culture on the Tibetans. In 1959, the Tibetan Spiritual leader, Dalai Lama, sought refuge in India. China then accused India saying that India was acting against the interest of China. In October 1962 China infiltrated into Indian territories which she claimed to be hers.

The first attack lasted a week. Chinese army occupied some places in Arunachal Pradesh. The next attack came a month later. But the Indian army stopped the Chinese in the western part of Ladakh. China declared a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the places it had taken.

Results of the India-China War: During the war, Russia kept her neutrality. India had to seek support from America and Britain. The war was shameful to the country. But it strengthened national feeling. Nehru’s close friend and the then defence minister V.K. Krishna Menon had to resign. Nehru was criticised for blindly believing China and for his lack of military preparation to prevent the attack. A no-confidence motion was brought against his government. In Lok Sabha there were a lot of discussions. In many bye-elections Congress lost. The Opposition was also affected by the war. In 1964 Communist Party split into two – Pro-Chinese and Pro-Russia. One was CPI (M) and the other was CPI.

The War awakened the nation. The North Eastern region was backward. The Chinese war prompted the nation to keep its unity and to embark upon developmental projects.

Question 14.
Name the chief activist associated with Narmada Bachao Andolan. (1)
Answer:
Medha Patkar

Question 15.
Discuss the circumstances which led to the declaration of emergency in India. (4)
Answer:
After the 1971 election, Indira became a popular leader with a lot of support from the people. This time there were serious problems in the Party. There were three main reasons:
a. Economic Reasons
b. Gujarat & Bihar Movement
c. Dispute with the Judiciary

The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘garibi hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was the refuge problem. Then there was the Bangladesh Crisis, followed by the Indo- Pakistan War. All these things created financial problems. Secondly, after the War, America stopped its aids to India. Thirdly, there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The 4th reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The 5m problem was negative growth in industrial output. Unemployment increased, especially in the rural sector. Sixthly, the salaries of government employees had to be reduced and even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff.

All the above things created an economic crisis in the country. There was general discontentment in the country. This gave the Opposition Parties an opportunity to organise protests.

Gujarat and Bihar Movement: The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were Congress-ruled States. The main reason was the increase in the prices of essential commodities. Shortage of food, unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these States the Opposition Parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. At this time the main opponent of Indira Gandhi and the leader of Congress (O), Morarji Desai, decided to go on an indefinite hunger strike. He did that for demanding elections in Gujarat. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted.

Congress lost the election. In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. But the Bihar government refused to resign. The entire country discussed the issue. Jay Prakash Narayan wanted to spread the protest to all parts of the country. In the meantime, the railway workers went on strike.

It would make the entire country come to a standstill. In 1975, Jay Prakash Narayan organized a march to the Parliament. It was the biggest rally the capital had ever seen. The Opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi. Both the protests were anti-Congress. Voices also rose against the leadership of Mrs. Gandhi. She believed that all this was done to take revenge on her.

Dispute with the Judiciary: Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the Judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the Constitution. Congress argued that the Supreme Court judgment was against democracy and the authority of the Parliament. The Party said that the Court was standing against some welfare measures taken to help the poor people. The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, Can the Parliament change the Fundamental Rights? The Court said no. Secondly, Can the Parliament change ownership of land? Again the Court said no. Thirdly, the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. It amended the Constitution. But the Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and the Supreme Court.

There were two more reasons. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court judged that the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the Constitution. Soon the post of the Chief Justice became vacant. Normally the senior-most judge is appointed as the Chief Justice. But keeping aside 3 eligible Judges, the government-appointed A.N. Roy as the Chief Justice. This appointment became controversial. Besides, the Uttar Pradesh High Court declared the election of Indira Gandhi as null and void. All these were the reasons for Mrs Gandhi to declare Emergency in June 1975.

Question 16.
Complete the following chart: (2)
* India
* ………………………
* Nepal
* ………………………
* Bhutan
* ………………………
* Maldives
* ………………………
Answer:
SAARC COUNTRIES: India, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Pakistan, Maldives, Sri Lanka.

Question 17.
Which are the pillars of ASEAN community? What are théir common objectives? (4)
Answer:
ASEAN. The South Eastern Asian countries had to suffer the economic and political consequences of, ‘‘ the colonialism by turope and Japan. After WW II, poverty and economic backwardness forced these countries to join one of the superpowers. Then there was the Bandung Conference and Non-Aligned Movement came into existence. Even then problems were not solved. Therefore these countries joined together and formed an organization called ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations).

It was formed in1967. Five countries – Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand – signed the Bangkok Declaration. Later Brunei Darussalam (1984), Vietnam (1985), Myanmar (1997) and Cambodia (1999) became members of ASEAN.

Aims: Quickening economic growth, bring about social and cultural development. Bring about regional peace according to the UN laws, and establish stability.

Question 18.
Give a brief note on Shock therapy. (2)
Answer:
The Communist system in the Soviet Union and East European Countries collapsed and those countries started moving along paths of change. This change from Communism to capitalism is what is known as ‘shock therapy’.

Question 19.
Cold War was not limited to power rivalry alone but it extended to ideological conflict. Explain on the basis of Cuban Missile crisis. (4)
Answer:
Most North-Western countries became capitalist, anti-communist nations. A big power like America could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of Communist Russia. As Cuba got financial and diplomatic support from Russia, it became a strong country, although it was small in size. It faced America without fear. In 1962, the Russian leader Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cube. Most American cities then would come under threat from Russia. Later this was known as the Cuban Missile Crisis.

Question 20.
Write a brief note on the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka. (2)
Answer:
The Sinhala nationalists were against giving any concessions to the Tamils there. In their view Sri Lanka is the motherland only for them. It was this enmity that forced the Tamils to rise in revolt against the Sinhalese. The Tamils organised the LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eazham). From 1983, the LTTE began armed struggle against the Sinhalese. This racial problem became a headache to India as well. The Tamil people of India exerted great pressure on the Central Government to help the Tamils in Sri Lanka. In 1987 India signed an agreement with Sri Lanka. According to that there should be cordial relations between the Tamils and the Sri Lankan government. But the Indian government had to fight against LTTE, Sri Lanka thought India was interfering in its internal affairs. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force had to come back to India without achieving any result.

Sri Lankan problem became very violent. Scandinavian countries like Norway and Iceland tried to bring peace, but they failed. In May 2009, the Sri Lankan army attacked the LTTE army and killed Veluppilla Prabhakaran and his associates. In spite of all these internal problems, Sri Lanka was making economic progress. It reduced its population and brought economic liberalization. Their per capita income increased. After the Civil War, the Sri Lankan Government announced that they would protect their Tamil population. The world hopes that democracy will further strengthen in Sri Lanka.

Question 21.
“The scars of Indian partition still exist even after sixty years of independence.” From the above statement explain the consequences of Indian partition. (4)
Answer:
The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were killed because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the bonder areas had to live in refugee camps. The governments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will. In many homes women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour. Children were separated from their parents and guardians. People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps. Not only the land, but even moveable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that between 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

Question 22.
The First Year Plan stressed agriculture and the Second Five Year Plan stressed rapid industrialization. There is always heated controversy over agriculture and industry for a nation’s development. Examine different dimensions of this controversy. (4)
Answer:
The main difference was in the styles of the Plans. The first Plan envisaged development at a slow pace whereas the second plan wanted development to be fast. The first Plan gave priority to agricultural matters whereas the 2nd Plan gave preference to large scale heavy industries.

The first Plan envisaged at eradicating poverty. Ac-cording to K.N. Raj, India needed a quick, but also gradual, development. Fast actions would jeopardise democracy itself. Therefore the first haTfliffffe Plan devoted attention to dams and irrigation. The inequality in the land distribution was harmful to agriculture. So it was thought necessary to make land reforms. The 2nd Plan stressed industrial development. It was under the leadership of P.C.

Mahalanobis. The 2nd Plan wanted to implement schemes for the quick development of the industrial base. The Resolution passed at the Avadi Conference of the Congress aimed at social justice. The 2nd Plan reflects this. By imposing import duties, Indian industries were protected from foreign competition. The savings and investments of the people increased. It made it possible to bring about development in the public sector areas like electricity, railway, steel, heavy instruments, and communication.

Question 23.
President Obama is the Chief Guest of the Republic Day celebrations of 2015. Examine India’s relation with US after the Cold War. (6)
Answer:
Barak Obama was the Chief Guest on the Republic Day celebrations and he went back after three days of visit in India. It was the first time that an American President came to India as the Chief Guest to watch the Republic Day Parade in India.

Although America is still the greatest industrial and military power in the world, it is not able to maintain the same strong position it had in the 20th century. There are many reasons for that. The main reason is that countries likp Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa are growing in population, economic power, scientific and technological achievements and America can no more keep them in her control. These countries want to form a fellowship called ‘BR1CS’, but America is against such an idea. America is trying to prevent that fellowship from being formed and so she is trying to get India on her side. The American Grbupthat came to India had a number of important Agreements in mind. In the Nuclear Liability Act, America wants India to support American companies. She wants India to be less strict with Carbon Emission Agreement. She wants to sign different Defence agreements with India and she wants to come to some understanding in trade matters. The Group discussed security, anti-terrorist schemes, and the explosive situations in India’s neighbors like Afghanistan and Iran, According to the Nuclear Liability Act, American companies can’t open plants in India. American wants this situation to change. The Indian Law says that if a nuclear accident takes place, the responsibility will lie with the company that1 Supplied the plant and nuclear material.

Both countries aim at better trade relations. After the Republic Day Parade, Modi and Obarili had a meeting with the top businessmen in India. Both 4 countries regarded this Business Summit as very important.

In the last 10 years India-America trade relation increased 5 times, reaching more than 10,000 crore dollars. In the next 5 years, the American Ambassador Richard Rahul Varma said that it would reach 50,000 crore. Richard Varma further said America would help Modi to realise his dream of full-time electricity for all Indians and to cooperate in the making of nuclear power for civil purposes. India wants to make use America’s capital, technology, pure energy, anti-terrorist power, superior knowledge, space and cyber security. India also wants American support in her quest for a permanent seat in the Security Council. Obama had included a few people whom Indians like in his group, showing the importance he gave to the visit and the discussions.

The White House thinks that there will be a ten-fold increase in the cordial relations between India and America because of Obama’s visit. The Senior Director of the National Security Council Philip Reiner said that Obama’s visit as the Chief Guest of the Republic Day Parade will strengthen the ties between the two countries. The Spokesman for the Indian Foreign Affairs Office, Mr. Said Akbaruddin, said that Obama’s visit was the most important diplomatic visit in recent times.

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