Plus One Accountancy Model Question Paper 2

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Model Question Paper 2

Time Allowed: 2 hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum Marks: 60

Answer all questions from question numbers 1 to 9. Each carry one score.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2

Question 1.
Credit purchase is calculated by preparing……….
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.1
a. Total Debtors account
b. Total Creditors account
c. Bills Receivable account
d. Bills Payable account

Question 2.
Under which one of the following can the asset of ‘Debtors’ be well placed?
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.2
a. Real asset
b. Fixed asset
c. Current asset
d. Human asset.

Question 3.
The drawer of a bill of exchange is always the………
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.3
a. Debtor
b. Endorser
c. Creditor
d. Proprietor

Question 4.
Introduction of the latest technologies may be one of the causes for_________
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.4<
a. Depletion
b. Amortisation
c. Appreciation
d. Depreciation

Question 5.
What will be the effect on the trial balance if Rs 500 is received as interest and correctly entered in the cash book, but posted to the debit side of interest account?
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.5

Question 6.
A bill dated August 1, 2012, is payable two months after date. If the due date is a public holiday, what will be the date of maturity of the bill?
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.6

Question 7.
When the debit of income and expenditure is more than its credit, it leaves a………
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.7
a. profit
b. surplus
c. deficit
d. loss

Question 8.
A ____ is a person to whom business owes money.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.8
a. Debtor
b. Creditor
c. Investor
d. Borrower

Question 9.
Furniture bought on credit is wrongly re­corded in the cash book. It is an exam-pie of an error of ………..
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.9
a. Error of principle
b. Error of compensation
c. Error of commission
d. Error of omission

Answer any five from question numbers 10 to 15. Each carries two scores.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.10
Question 10.
The trial balance is a statement prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of business.
a. Name any two types of errors which can­ not be disclosed through this state­ment.
b. Rectify the following errors.

  1. Office furniture purchased for Rs. 5000 was posted to purchase acco­unt.
  2. Cash sales Rs. 2000 was posted as Rs. 200.
  3. Goods withdrew by the proprietor for personal use Rs. 1000 was not recorded in the books

Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.11
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.12

Question 11.
Every transaction has two aspects which will be recorded in the books of accounts.
a. Identify and explain the accounting concept referred to above, by giving suitable examples.
b. Narrate a transaction which affects only the asset side of an accounting equation
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.13

Question 12.
The following errors are noticed in the books of accounts of a trader at the time of prepara­tion of a Trial Balance.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.14
a. Sales book was overcast by Rs 300
b. Salary paid Rs 1500 was wrongly debited to Wages account.
c. Goods sold to Kavitha worth Rs 2000 were completely omitted to be reco­rded.
d. Rent amounting to Rs 1200 was recei­ved but debited to Rent account as Rs 120.

    1. Pass the rectification entries for the above.
    2. Identifying the compensating error from the above.

Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.15
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.16

Question 13.
Which assumption of accounting states that the capital supplied by the proprietor is a li­ability to the business? Describe it in one or two sentences.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.17

Question 14.
Jaya Brothers is a sole trader who invested Rs 10000 on 01-01-2012 in his business and the same was found at Rs 18000 at the end of the accounting year. He also withdrew Rs 6000 for his private use. Ascertain his profit for the year.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.18

Question 15.
Unni purchased goods for Rs 9818 and the trader allowed a discount of Rs 18 at the time of purchase.
a. Identify the type of discount
b. Mention the other, types of discounts available and differentiate them with the one stated above.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.19

Answer any three from question numbers 16 to 19. Each carries three scores.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.20

Question 16.
Kannan and Sona acquired a machine for Rs.1,80,000 on 10th Oct 2012 and spend Rs. 20000 for its installation. The firm write-off depre­ciation at the rate of 10% p.a. on original cost every year. Draw up machinery account for the first 3 years given that the books of accounts close on March 31 st every year.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.21

Question 17.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement on behalf of Lalu shoe mart as on 31 -03-2013.

  • Balance as per cash book as on 31­03-2013 was Rs 3000.
  • A cheque worth Rs 2000 issued for rent, so far not presented to a bank
  • Interest credited to passbook was only 1200
  • Chinnu, one of our customers, cred­ited Rs 4000 to our bank directly.
  • Bank charges of Rs 200 were not cr­edited to the cash book so far.

Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.23
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.24

Question 18.
Noel, the sole trader bought a building for Rs. 1,00,000 on01/01/2009.
Further, he constructed another building which was completed on 01 /01 /2010. He spent Rs 2,00,000 for this.
Depreciation was charged at the end of every year on 31st December on the diminishing balance method @10%. Draw the building account till 2012.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.25

Question 19.
On 1st January 2012, Rajan sold goods to Suresh for Rs 25000 and drew upon him a bill of exchange for 2 months. Suresh accepted the bill and returned it to Rajan. He then endorsed the bill to Manoj, who discounted the bill with the bank on 15-01 -2012 for cash Rs 24750. The bill was dishonored on the due date. Show the journal entries in the books of Rajan and Suresh.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.26
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.27

Answer any two from question numbers 20 to 22. Each carries four scores.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.28
Question 20.
On 1st January 2015, Arya sold goods to await for Rs. 10000 and drew a bill of exchange for 3 months. Adwaith accepted the bill. In 7th Feb 2015 Arya discounted the bill with her bank for Rs. 9800. But on the date of maturity of the bill, Adwaith was unable to make the payment. Pass the journal entries in the books of Arya.

Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.29

Question 21.
On 1st July 2012, a firm purchased a plant worth Rs 40,000. The firm writes-off depreciation @ 10% on the original cost. The accounts are closed on 31st December every year. If the plant is sold for Rs 35000 on 1st July 2013, prepare the plant account up to this date.

Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.30

Question 22.
Ali purchased goods for Rs 30000 from Stephen on 1st January 2015. A bill was drawn for three months which was accepted by the drawee and returned to Stephen. On the same day, the bill was discounted with the bank @12%. Pass the entries in the
books of the drawer and drawee.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.31
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.32

Answer question numbers 23 and 24. Each car­ries five scores.

Question 23.
Prepare a double column cash book on behalf of a cloth merchant from the information given below.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.33
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.34

Question 24.
Noel, the sole trader bought a building for Rs. 1,00,000 on01/01/2009.
Further, he constructed another building which was completed on 01 /01 /2010. He spent Rs 2,00,000 for this.
Depreciation was charged at the end of every year on 31st December on the diminishing balance method @10%. Draw the building account till 2012.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.35

Answer any one from question numbers 25 and 26 A question carries six scores.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.36
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.37
Question 25.
Mention the difference between double en­try and single entry system.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.38

Question 26.
Find the sale of Binesh from the following information provided by him for the year ending 31 st March 2013.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.39

Answer question number 27, which carries eight scores.
Question 27.
From the following Trial balance, prep­are the Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31st Dece­mber 2012 and a Balance sheet as on that date considering the adjus­tments given.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.40
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.41
Adjustments required:
(a) The closing stock was valued at Rs 18000.
(b) Insurance prepaid Rs 200.
(c) Salary outstanding Rs 3000.
(d) Rs 500 written off as further bad debts
(e) Provide 10% on debtors against bad and doubtful debts.
(f) Depreciate furniture @10%

Answer

Answer 1.
Total Creditors account

Answer 2.
Current asset

Answer 3.
Creditor

Answer 4.
Depreciation (Obsolescence)

Answer 5.
A liability

Answer 6.
The expense for the business

Answer 7.
Procedure

Answer 8.
Creditor

Answer 9.
Error of principle

Answer 10.
a. Errors of Principle, Compensating errors
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.42

Answer 11.
a. Duality concept/Double entry concept
According to the duality concept, every business transaction has two aspects

  • a debit aspect (giving aspect) and
  • a credit aspect (receiving aspect).

Eg: Purchased goods for cash
Debit aspect – Purchases
Credit aspect – Cash
b.

  • Purchased machinery for cash
  •  Sold furniture for cash etc.

Answer 12.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.43
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.44

Answer 13.
A business entity or Accounting entity. According to this concept, the business unit has a separate entity apart from its owners. Thus the proprietor and his dealings with the business should be regarded as a transaction.

Answer 14.
Statement of Profit / Loss for the year ended 31-12-2012
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.45

Answer 15.

Trade discount Cash discount
1) It is allowed by the seller to the purchaser 1) It is allowed by the creditor to the debtor
2) The purpose is to encourage bulk purchases 2) The purpose is to encourage prompt payment
3) It is not shown in the books of accounts 3) It is shown in the books of accounts

Answer 16.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.46

Answer 17.
Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31-03-2013
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.47

 

Answer 18.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.48

Answer 19.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.49
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.50
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.51

Answer 20.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.52

Answer 21.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.53

Answer 22.
In the books of Drawer (Stephen)
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.54

Answer
23.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.55

Answer 24.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.56

Answer 25.
The following are the difference between the double-entry system and single entry system.

Single Entry System Double Entry System

(1) Dual aspects of transactions are not recorded.

(2) As trial balance is not prepared, arithmetical accuracy can’t be checked.

(3) Only an estimate of profit can be made.

(4) The balance sheet cannot be prepared to ascertain the financial position

(5) This system is suitable for a sole trader who has a few transactions

(1) Dual aspects of every transaction are recorded.

(2) The trial balance is prepared to check the
arithmetical accuracy.

(3) Actual net profit can be calculated

(4) The balance sheet can be prepared to ascertain the financial position

(5) This is suitable for all types of business enterprises.

Answer 26.
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.57
Answer 27.
Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31-12-2012
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.58
Plus One Accountancy Model Question Papers Paper 2.59

Plus One Accountancy Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus Two Political Science SAY Question Paper 2016

Kerala Plus Two Political Science SAY Question Paper 2016

Maximum Score: 80 Scores
Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Cool-Off Time : 15 Minutes

Question 1.
Write a note on the consequences of the Partition of India into India and Pakistan. (4)
Answer:
The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were killed because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the border areas had to live in refugee camps.

The governments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will.

In many homes women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour. Children were separated from their parents and guardians. People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps. Not only the land, but even moveable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that between 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

Question 2.
Examine the purpose for which the State Reorganisation Commission was constituted and its major recommendations. (2)
Answer:
The State Reorganization Commission was established to determine the boundaries of 14 States 6 and 6 Union Territories.After Independence, the nation was reorganized on the basis of language. On 2 December 1953, the then Prime Minister informed the Lok Sabha about the appointment of such a Commission. The Head of this Commission was Fazal Aii. The Commission recommended that he States must be reorganized on the basis of language and culture.

Question 3.
Match Column A with B and C. (4)

A-Political Party B- Leader C – Ideology
1. Bharathiya Jana Sangh i) B.R. Ambedkar a) One Country one culture and one nation
2. Independent Labour Party ii) A.K. Gopalan b) Revolutionary Socialism
3. Swathantra Party iii) C.Rajagopalachari c) Less Control over Economy
4. Communist Party of India iv) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee d) Justice to the Dalits

Answer:

A B C
Bhartiya Sangh Shyama Prasad Mukherjee One country, one culture, one nation
independent Labour Party B.R. Ambedkar Justice for Dalits
Swatantra ‘ Party C. Rajagopalachari Less control on markets
Communist Party A.K. Gopalan Revolutionary Socialism

Question 4.
What was the thrust area of Second Five Year Plan? Narendra Modi Government also follows this thrust area but with some differences. Write these differences and similarities. (4)
Answer:
Thrust Areas of the 2nd FYP .

  • Industrialization
  • Stress to the Public Sector
  • The ideas of P.C. Mahaianobis
  • Large Scale Industries
  • The period was from 1956 to 1961

Difference: The Private sector is given preference.
Similarity : Industrialization has been stressed.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 5.
Since Independence India follows the policy of Non-Alignment as a principle of foreign policy. Write the features of this policy and evaluate its relevance in the contemporary international politics. (5)
Answer:
After the Second World War, the world was divided, into two hostile groups. Each power got into military . pacts with other countries. NATO, CEATO, CENTO, Warsaw Pact, etc. are examples. NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) is the coalition of Western countries. It was formed in 1949. It has 12 members. They declared if any of these 12 countries was attacked by another country, all the 12 countries would consider it as an attack on all of them. They are obliged to help one another. The Eastern Alliance Block is known as Warsaw Pact. It is led by Russia.

It was begun in 1955. It is main function is resisting the NATO Powers.Some countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America decided not to join any block. This led the start of the NAM (Non-Aligned Movement). In 1956 three leaders held a meeting. The leaders were Josif Bros , Tito of Yugoslavia. Jawaharlal Nehru of India and Gamal Abdul Nasser of Egypt. Sukarno of Indonesia and Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana supported these three leaders strongly. These five leaders are the Founders of NAM. It is first summit was in Belgrade in 1961.

Question 6.
Examine the factors which led to the increasing popularity of Indira Gandhi’s Government in early 1970s.
Answer:

  • Started certain poverty eradication schemes.
  • The slogan “Garibi Hatao’ became very popular.
  • Privy Purse was stopped.
  • Intensified nationalization.
  • Land-ceiling was fixed and carried out.
  • Started many schemes with the intention of making the life of the backward classes better.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 7.
Briefly narrate the significance of Presidential Election of 1969. (3)
Answer:
When Dr. Zakir Hussain died in 1969, there was election for the President. During this election the difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate came in the open. The Syndicate nominated Mr .Sanjeeva Reddy. Indira Gandhi supported the then Vice President V.V. Gir.i as an independent candidate. It was around this time that she; nationalized 14 banks and stopped the Privy Purse given to the rulers of the Princely Sates. Morarji Desai opposed both these actions.

He resigned from the Ministry. In the Presidential election, the Congress President N. Nijalingappa asked the Congress MPs and MLAs sto vote for N. Sanjeeva Reddy. Silently supporting V.V. Giri, Indira asked the MPs and MLAs to vote according to their conscience.

Ultimately V.V. Giri was elected President. The failure of the official candidate to win, split the Party. The Party ousted Indira Gandhi. But she claimed the real party was her party. The Congress Party of the Syndicate was called Congress (O) and the Congress Party of Indira was called Congress (R). (O) meant Organization and (R) meant Requisitionist. Indira Gandhi termed this division as an ideological division between Socialists and Conservatives and the poor and the rich.

Question 8.
What do you mean by National Emergency? Discuss its effect on civil liberties of citizens. Do you consider this emergency provision in the Constitution is necessary for contemporary Indian society? Justify your argument. (4)
Answer:
As the internal problems became worse, in June 1975, Indira Gandhi declared Emergency in the country. It can be said that the declaration of Emergency was an attack on the individual or personal freedom of the people.With the declaration of the Emergency, people faced many problems. Their rights and freedoms were denied. There was no use approaching the Courts for getting one’s freedom or right enforced. At this time the Government itself started doing things against democracy.The provisions related to the Emergency in the Constitution must be subjected to rethinking. Emergency is a trespass on the rights of the people. It is not a good thing in a democratic country.

Question 9.
Discuss the consequences of Anti-Arrack Movements in Andhra Pradesh. (4)
Answer:
In the 1990s, many women in Nellur in Andhra became literate. In the class, women spoke about the drinking habits of their men-folk. Drinking alcohol causes both ‘physical and mental harm. It also adversely affects the economic situation of the family. Men do not go to work. The manufacturers of various kinds of alcoholic beverages make money by using all sorts of illegal means. It is the women that suffer because of the drinking habit of men.

The women in Nellur protested against alcoholism and forced a wine shop to close down. This news spread like wild fire into some 5000 villages. They held meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the Collectors. The arrack auction in Nellur had td be postponed 17 times. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the State.In short, where government s and political parties failed, such social movements won.

Question 10.
Match Column A with B and C. (3)

A – Regional Aspirations B – States C – Leaders
(1) Socio-religious identity leading to statehood. (i) Mizoram (a) Master Thara Singh
(2) Linguistic identity and tension with Centre (ii) Punjab (b) Laldenga
(3) Secessionist demands on account of tribal identity. (iii) Tamil Nadu (c) E.V.Ramaswami Naicker

Answer:

  1. Punjab-MasterThara Singh
  2. Tamil Nadu – E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
  3. Mizoram – Laldenga

Question 11.
Identify the Constitutional provision linking Indian Constitution and the State of Jammu and Kashmir.(1)
Answer:
Article 370

HSSLive.Guru

Question 12.
In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus has emerged among most of the political parties in India. This consensus is mainly in four areas.Write these four areas and analyse how this consensus will affect Indian politics. (6)
Answer:

  1. Common agreement on new economic policy.
  2. Realization of the role of the regional parties.
  3. Recognition of the demands of the members of the Backward Classes.
  4. Comprehensive changes in politics.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Cold War? Examine the reason for its growth and decay. (4)
Answer:
The Cold War was not merely equalizing power between the two superpowers. It also meant clear ideological conflict between them. After the WW II, America and Russia emerged as the two superpowers in the world. Their ideologies were different. Russia followed Communist Socialist principles. America supported liberalism and capitalism. Both possessed highly destructive atomic and nuclear weapons. They should show their presence anywhere in the world. But their conflict remained in the Cold War. Both tried to spread their ideologies in different parts of the world without actually making a real fight. After the World War II, the two powers got polarised in opposite camps.

Question 14.
Examine the consequences of the disintegration of the Soviet Union in global politics. (4)
Answer:

  1. End of Cold War.
  2. The start of the American hegemony.
  3. The formation of new National States,
  4. The fall of socialist countries.

Question 15.
After the end of cold War, U.S.A. exercises hegemony over the world in three ways. Narrate these ways with examples. (6)
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:

  1. Hard Power
  2. Structural Power
  3. Soft Power

Hard Power:
This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

Structural Power:
This dominance is based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started ip 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power:
This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture.We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using ‘soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.

Question 16.
Match Column A with Column B and C. (3)

A – Name of State B – Name of Organisation C – Year
(1) Germany, France, Italy (i) ASEAN (a) 1985
(2) Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines (ii) E.U. (b) 1992
(3) Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh (iii) SAARC (c) 1967

Answer:

A B C
Germany, France, Italy European Union 1992
Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines ASEAN 1967
Pakistan, Nepal, Bangladesh SAARC 1985

Question 17.
Briefly narrate the reasons for the growth of Chinese economy. (3)
Answer:
There are many reasons for the growth of the Chinese economy.

  • Open economic system
  • Privatization
  • Instead of importing things, internal production was encouraged.
  • Globalization process

HSSLive.Guru

Question 18.
Evaluate the role of South Asian Trade Agreement in , – establishing peace and security in South Asia. (3)
Answer:
The idea of SAFTA was that peace and cooperation will flourish if there are cross-the-border trade and commerce. Although the Agreement was signed in 2004, it came into force only in to reduce the commercial tax rate up to 20% in 2007. Buy many neighbouring countries thought that through SAFTA India was trying to penetrate their markets and spread its influence into their politics and social life. But India thinks SAFTA will benefit all economically and they also will get cooperation in all the political issues.

Question 19.
‘Changes in the world outside have been reflected in UN General Assembly but not in Security Council.’ In the light of the above statement, narrate your views on India’s demand for a permanent seat in UN Security Council. (4)
Answer:
The demand of India to be a Permanent Member of the Security Council is quite a logical and legitimate one. India fulfills all the criteria to be a permanent member. It demands permanent membership on the following grounds:

  • It has the world’s second largest population,
  • It is the largest democracy in the world.
  • India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  • It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  • India’s economic situation is improving.
  • India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others.

Question 20.
Match the following. (2)

A B
(i) Confidence building measures (a) Giving up of certain type of weapons
(ii) Arms control (b) Exchanging information on defence matters on regular basis.
(iii) Alliance (c) A coalition of nations against military attack.
(iv) Disarmament (d) Regulate acquisition or development of weapons

Answer:

A B
(i) Confidence building measures  (b) Exchanging information on defence matters on regular basis.
(ii) Arms control  (d) Regulate acquisition or development of weapons
(iii) Alliance (c) A coalition of nations against military attack.
(iv) Disarmament  (a) Giving up of certain type of weapons

Question 21.
Narrate the concept of ‘Global Security.’ (2)
Answer:
Global security is the need of the time. Global security is as essential as individual security. By Global security it meant that the entire world should be safe from all kinds of threats it faces.

Global warming, international terrorism, AIDS, Bird- flu etc. are problems that caused the world to sit down and think of global security. This idea came in the 1990s. A single country working alone can’t solve these problems. It is in this context the necessity and relevance of the global security is felt.

Question 22.
Match the following. (2)

A B
i) Antarctic Treaty a) 1991
ii) Montreal Protocol b) 1997
iii) Antarctic Environmental Protocol c) 1959
iv) Kyoto Protocol d) 1987

Answer:

A B
i) Antarctic Treaty  b) 1997
ii) Montreal Protocol  d) 1987
iii) Antarctic Environmental Protocol c) 1959
iv) Kyoto Protocol  a) 1991

Question 23.
Write a brief note on economic and cultural consequences of globalization. (4)
Answer:
Globalization has far-reaching economic and cultural effects.
Cultural Effects :
Globalization has influenced the economic results greatly. World Bank, IMF, WTO, etc. play big roles. All these are controlled mainly by America and its allies. The world economy itself has come under their influence. In this, are thinking is necessary. It is high time we found out who the beneficiaries of globalization are. As a result of globalization, import controls are reduced or removed. He developed nations can now invest their capital in the developing countries.

Investing in the developing countries is more profitable. Technologies develop without any limits of borers. Bur regarding the movement of people, the developed nations have made certain rules. Their countries are kept safe from foreign workers through the policy of Visa. Because of the visa rules, the jobs of their citizens are not taken away by emigrants.

Cultural Results :
Globalization opens the way for the globalization of cultures. Globalization is the flow of things from one country to another. This flow is of different kinds. Ideas can floe from one country to another. It should be the flow of things. It could be flow of people from one country to another seeking better opportunities and better life.

The effects of globalization do not limit themselves to the economic and political fields alone. It affects even the house we live in, the food we eat, our drinks, our dresses and even the way we think. There are people that globalization might become so effective that there may emerge a uniform global culture. In reality this global culture is nothing but the western culture. This brings a challenge not only to the poor countries but to the entire mankind. It means the rich heritages of various, divergent and individual cultures will ultimately lose their lustre and simply be forgotten in the shine of the global culture. However, some people feel that the adverse effect of cultural globalization is an exaggerated one. To them culture is not something that stands still, but it changes with the progress of time. All cultures absorb the good things from other cultures.

Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Environment and Natural Resources

Question 1.
Which among the following best explains the reasons for growing concerns about the environment?
a) The developed countries are concerned about protecting nature.
b) Protection of the environment is vital for indigenous people and natural habitats.
c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.
d) None of the above.
Answer:
c) The environmental degradation caused by human activities has become pervasive and has reached a dangerous level.

Question 2.
Mark correct or wrong against each of the following statements below that describe the Earth Summit
a) It was attended by 170 countries, thousands of NGOs and many MNCs.
b) The summit was held under the aegis of the UN.
c) For the first time, Global environmental issues were firmly consolidated at the political level
d) It was a summit meeting.
Answer:
a. correct
b. correct
c. wrong
d. wrong

Question 3.
Which among the following are TRUE about the global commons?
a) The Earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, Ocean floor and outer space are considered as part of the global commons.
b) The global commons are outside sovereign jurisdiction.
c) The question of managing the global commons has reflected the North-South divide.
d) The countries of the north are more concerned about the protection of global commons than the countries of the South.
Answer:
a. true
b. false
c. true
d. false

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Question 4.
Fill up the following diagram with the appropriate explanations given below

1. Global South
2. Global North

a) Rich and developed countries bf the first world.
b) Poor and developing countries of the third world.
Answer:
1. b
2. a

Question 5.
The following table shows some developments about the protection of environment. Arrange them appropriately in accordance with the years given in column B.

A B
1 Earth Summit a 1997
2 Limits to growth b 1987
3 Brundtland report c 1992
4 Kyoto protocol d 1960

Answer:
1 – c 1992
2 – d 1960
3 – b 1987
4 – b 1987

Question 6.
Match the following

a) Limits to growth Rio-de-Janeiro
b) Earth Summit 1997
c) Kyoto Protocol The club of Rome
d) Rio-Summit Agenda – 21

Answer:
a. Limits to growth-The Club of Rome
b. Earth Summit – Rio-de-Janeiro
c. Kyoto Protocol -1997
d. Rio Summit-Agenda 21

HSSLive.Guru

Question 7.
In the global level there are several attempts for the protection of environment such as, Earth Summit, Kyoto protocol etc. As a student can you identify any two steps taken by Govt, of India in this regard?
Answer:

  • In 2001, the India Government passed the Energy Conservation Law. Its purpose was to ensure the most efficient use of energy.
  • In 2003 the electricity law was passed .its purpose was to make energy by renewable sources.

Question 8.
With the increase in the global issues the scope of political science is widening day by day. Recently the leaders of different countries and political scientists around the world are giving more attention towards issues connected with environment such as pollution, climate change, global warming etc. Do you think these matters are to be looked after by these personalities instead of scientists. Give your reasons.
Answer:
Truly speaking, since those things are related to geography, it is the scientists in that area that should handle them. But politically also they have significance. The repercussions of these problems will affect the social and economic spheres of people. Their results will be visible in politics also. Here are some examples:

  • Reduced agricultural lands will affect food production.
  • Drinking polluted water will bring health problems. According to the Human Development Report of the UNDP, some 1.2 billion people do not access to pure water.
  • Deforestation destroys biodiversity. Forests help in maintaining the climate, in the distribution of water and biodiversity on earth.
  • The reduction in the ozone layer adversely affects the environment and people.
  • The pollution of shores is on the increase globally. All these problems are political important. But they are not something that can be solved by the action of any single government. Therefore they are part of world politics. The biggest questions are: Who is responsible for the destruction of the environment? Who will its price? Who can set it right? Who has greater power? Thus they all are things to be thought deeply.

Question 9.
The ‘Earth Summit’ is the name given to the United Nations conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 1992. Can you identify the reason behind considering this conference as ‘Earth Summit’.
Answer:
Since 1960 itself, environmental problems and economic development have been a crucial problem. In the book “Limits of Growth” published by the Club of Rome in 1987, and in the Brundtland report titled “Our Common Future”, this problem was highlighted. This was the main topic of discussion in the Conference at Rio de Janeiro in 1992. This was the first international conference on environment. Therefore it is called “Earth Summit”.

Question 10.
The developed and developing countries are having different perceptions about the protection of environment and economic development. This is clearly manifested in the Each Summit. Carefully evaluate the result of Earth Summit.
Answer:
In the Earth Summit 170 nations and 1000s of NGOs and Multi National Corporations took part. The reactions of the North Countries and South Countries on the environmental agenda were quite different. The North Countries stressed the problems of ozone layer and global warming. But the South countries were more concerned with economic development and environmental management.The Earth Summit came out with some good suggestions regarding environment, climate change, biodiversity, forestation, etc.

These recommendations were known as Agenda-21. But because of certain differences of opinion and other difficulties, they could not be implemented. Another important thing that happened in the Earth Summit was the correlation between economic development and environment. This is known as sustainable development. Agenda-21 stressed economic development and not environmental protection.

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Question 11.
“Global Commons” is a concept developed during the recent years. Protection of global common is a major challenging factor. Try to explain the concept of ‘Global Common” and identify the difficulties for protecting the global commons.
Answer:
Some places or areas do not fall under the sover eighty of any country. In this condition, the UN had to come forward to protect them. These are collectively known as “Global Commons”. The earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the bottom of the seas, space etc. come in this category.
The responsibility to protect these is not that easy. The reasons for that:

  • There are some complex Agreements which include the Antarctic Treaty of 1959, the Montreal Protocol of 1987, and the 1991 Antarctic Environmental Protocol.
  • On the basis of not-co-clear scientific proofs, it is difficult to carry out the Environmental Agenda within a limited time. In the 1980s, some holes were discovered in the ozone layer in the Antarctic region. Such discoveries are opportunities to solve the environmental problems and, at the same time, they are also great challenges.
  • From the use of the space, we can clearly see the inequalities between Global North and Global South.
  • Technical and industrial development is the main problem when it comes to ocean floors.

Question 12.
The conflict between Global North and Global South about the solutions for environmental problems creates much difficulty in dealing with environmental is-sues. Prepare a short note about different views of Global North and Global South.
Answer:
Global North (Countries of the Northern Hemisphere) represents the developed nations. The Global South represents the developing nations. The approach of both these groups regarding environment is very different. They are:

  • The Global North says that ail countries are equally responsible for the protection of the environment.
  • But the Global South has a different view. They say that it is the industrial development of the Global North that caused and is causing the environmental damage.
  • Developing nations are on the path of progress. Therefore the restrictions placed on the developed nations should not be made binding on the developing nations.
    The developing nations say that keeping their needs in mind, there should be new laws and interpretations. This argument was approved in the Earth Summit on 1992. This new principle is called “Common but different responsibility”.

Question 13.
‘Kyoto Protocol’ can be regarded as the first major leap towards the protection of environment. Evaluate the significance of ‘Kyoto Protocol’.
Answer:
Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement controlling the industrial nations from green gas emissions. Carbon dioxide, Methane, hydrofluro carbons etc. are the main things that cause global warming. The Kyoto Protocol was put into effect on the basis of the principles of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). UNFCCC says that countries have ‘common but different responsibility’ in the matter of environmental protection.

  • Greenhouse gases are mostly emitted by the developed nations.
  • The per capita emission from the developing countries is less.
  • There should be concessions to countries like China and India. These are the principles of the Kyoto Protocol signed in 1997 in Kyoto, Japan. Recently, America has objected to this protocol. America wants India and China also to be included in this Protocol. So America hasn’t signed it.

Question 14.
Protection of environment created serious debates be-tween global North and Global South. India’s Policy as a leading figure of Global South, has vital importance in this debate. Make a brief note about the policy adopted by India in the environmental problems
Answer:
India’s stand in the environmental problems is very ‘ clear. India signed the Kyoto Protocol in 2002. India and China do not have to adhere to the restrictions made in the Kyoto Protocol as they are developing, and not developed, countries. The quantity of the greenhouse gases emitted by them is very little.

But some countries say that India and China also emit a lot of greenhouse gases. But this argument was countered in the G-8 meeting of June 2005, saying that the quantity of the greenhouses gases emitted by developing nations is comparatively less. India’s stand is that environmental protection is a “common but different responsibility” of nations.

The UNFCCC has also approved what is known as ‘historical responsibility’. India bases its stand on this principle. Because of that some of the discussions and decisions that took place recently within the UNFCCC can’t be accepted by India. India does not accept the view that the industrially growing nations should reduce their greenhouse gas emissions. It is against the principles and decisions of the UNFCCC.
Here are the main steps India took in the matter of environmental protection.

  • According to India’s auto fuel policy, only purified fuel should be used in vehicles.
  • The energy consideration law passed in 2001 aims at the correct use of energy.
  • The Electricity Act of 2003 recommends the use of renewable sources for the production of electricity.
  • In 2011-12, eleven million hectors of land was used by the Bio diesel Mission for increasing the production of bio diesel. Apart from all these, India is trying its best to import ‘ natural gas and also to use the latest technology for purifying coal.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 15.
Environmental Movements are becoming stronger day by day. These movements are acting more effectively than the Government for the conservation of environment. Can you identity the major areas in which these movements are more effective and stronger?
Answer:
As the equilibrium of the environment is lost, many more Environmental Movements have come up with the intention of working for environmental protection. They take strong steps to achieve their goal. Here are the examples of such steps.

a. There is a kit of pressure fropi,the onganiations that stand for the protection of forests in Global South countries like Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malaysia, Indonesia, African mainland and India. But in spite of all that, a lot of deforestation is going on in these places.

b. Movement against mineral industries is another example. In countries of the Global South, the new economic policies bring opportunities for mineral industries. The economic liberalization policy also helps. This will necessitate digging deeper into the earth and the use more chemicals. It also will pollute rivers and cause the extinction of many plant species. There were protests and resistance against these mindless developments. In the Philippines, there is a powerful chain of movements against the Western Mine Corporation.

c. Another move is against dams. There have been environmental movements against huge dams. They all were for protecting rivers and valleys. The first movement against dams was in Australia to save the Fratiklin River and the forests around it. There were similar movements in Turkey, Thailand, South Africa, Indonesia and China. The Narmada Bachao Andolan in India had attracted world attention.

Question 16.
The colonial and imperialist countries occupied dominance upon the rest of the world through collection of resources from various parts of the world. This gradually developed the concept of resource geopolitics. Try to expand the concept of resource geopolitics:
Answer:
Geopolitics asks questions like who is the beneficiary of the natural resources, How, Where and Why? Europe tried to extend its dominance all over the world with the intention of getting these resources. Western countries looked at the resources and their ownership in relation to war and authority. They had given a lot of priority to naval routes and oil.

During the Cold War, there was severe competition between the Soviet Union and countries of the Global North. Global North used different means to get their resources. To get them they used military power, ensured that the sea routes for travel and communication were safe, hoarded essential minerals in huge quantities and signed agreements with different international companies. After the Cold War, the safety of some minerals is giving anxiety to some countries. This is more so in the case of radioactive elements. Even now, the Global North uses resources the way they want.

Question 17.
‘Oil and Water’ are the two major resources connected with geopolitics. Most of the developed and developing countries are adopting policies to ensure access to these resources. Explain the importance of these resources in geopolitics ?
Answer:
Recently the geopolitics of resources has become a major issue in international politics. Water and oil are the most important of them. Wealth from oil can cause political turmoil. Therefore the history of oil is the history of battles and wars. The Gulf Region produces nearly 30% of world’s oil needs. 65% of the entire oil deposits is in the Gulf region. Saudi Arabia ‘ is the number one producer and Iraq is the second. Naturally, the developed countries show a lot of interest in this area. That is why there is so much of trouble in the Gulf region. It is America, Europe, Japan, China and India that need the greatest amount of oil. So each country wants to ensure that there is availability of enough oil.

Lack of pure water is becoming a big issue in geopolitics. With the advent of the 21a century, disputes started in the sharing of waters. Nations disagree on the issue of sharing river waters. Those who give water and those who take water have different needs and interests. Sometimes it is pollution, sometimes it is irrigation and sometimes it can be the construction of dams. Mankind needs water and therefore disputes for water have become dangerous issues.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 18.
‘Water’ is a major resource in geopolitical conflict. Can you identify some conflicts that arose due to the management of water resources between rivers?
Answer:
There are many examples regarding the importance of water and its availability. Here are the most important:

  • In the 1950s, there were serious and violent disputes among Israel, Syria and Jordan. They were about the sharing of waters of the Jordan and Yarmouk rivers.
  • There were disputes among Turkey Syria and Iraq, it was about building a dam in the Euphrates River.
  • India and Pakistan had disputes regarding the sharing of the waters of the Indus River.

Question 19.
The UN defines indigenous populations, “as comprising the descendants of peoples who inhabited the present territory of a country at the time when persons of a different culture or ethnic origin arrived there from other parts of the world and overcame them”. At present there are about 30 Crore indigenous peoples spread around the globe. Identify the challenges that the indigenous people are facing and the demands raised by them.
Answer:
Indigenous people are those who live in the same or similar natural environment and have similar life style. When they lose their land they also lose their livelihood. The loss of land endangers their existence itself and this is their biggest challenge.
The needs of indigenous people (Adivasis):

  • They should have their own existence and individuality.
  • They are living in their land from time immemorial.
  • They should get the land in which they live. If they have no land their livelihood will be lost. They demand equal rights in the world gatherings.

Question 20.
In many traditional societies there is a practice of protecting nature for religious reasons. The sacred groves in India is an example for this traditional practice. Prepare a brief note about the Sacred Groves.
Answer:
The sacred groves help in the forestation process. There are large sacred groves which extend for acres whereas there are smaller groves which simply have a few trees and plants. These groves have the touch of religiosity and culture. Hindus generally worship things of Nature. Many of the temples originated – because of these sacred groves. Because of the religious angle, these groves were protected for long. But now in the name of development these groves are also destroyed.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Analyse briefly about India’s stand on environmental issues.
Answer:
India recognized the Kyoto Protocol of 1997 and signed it in 2002. India fully agrees to the principle of ‘common but different responsibility’. Through different activities India has taken part in the efforts of the world for protection of the environment.

Question 2.
The Kyoto Protocol was agreed in
Answer:
1997

HSSLive.Guru

Question 3.
Which of the following countries is exempted from the requirement of the Kyoto Protocol?
Answer:
a. India

Question 4.
What were the outcomes of the Rio summit?
Answer:
The Rio Summit was in June 1992. After prolonged discussions, some decisions were taken regarding climate change, geo diversity, and protection of forests. It also prepared a schedule of development schemes known as Agenda-21′. It is known as sustainable development.

Plus Two Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper 2

Kerala Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper 2

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Scores

General Instructions to candidates

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1

QUESTIONS

Questions 1-3. Answers all questions. Each question carries 1 score.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 1

Question 1.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 2
a. Collagen fibres – connective tissue
b. Axon – Walls of blood vessels
c. Squamous epithelium – Neuron

Question 2.
From the following list, pick out the en-zyme, that takes part in carbohydrate digestion.
(Salivary amylase, peptidase, lipase, carboxypeptidase)
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 3

Question 3.
Diagram of a joint is given below :
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 4

Questions 4-14. Answers any 9 questions. Each question carries 2 score.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 5

Question 4.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 6

Question 5.
Classify the organisms below based on segmentation :
a. Ascaris
b. Taenia
c. Fasciola
d. Wuchereria
e. Neries
f. Pheretima
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 7

Question 6.
Observe the figure. No need to redraw the figure.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 8
Label A and B and write the function of A and B.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 9

Question 7.
Complete each of the following sen ten- ces using appropriate words.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 10

a. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is …. to water whereas the descending limb is …… to water.
b. An excessive loss of fluid from the body stimulates the hypothalamus to release …….. hormone from the ………….

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 11

Question 8.
“The functioning of human kidney is e f- feiciency monitored and regulated by hor-monal actions of hypothalamus is pituitary, JGAand to a certain extent by heart.”
a. Do you agree with this statement?
b. Justify your answer with suitable rea- sons.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 12

Question 9.
Answer the following in a few words.
a. Significance of pulmonary circulatior I in man.
b. Function of erythrocytes
c. Pacemaker for a human heart and its significance.
d. Normal blood pressure of human beings and its variation during hypertension.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 13

Question 10.
The output of urine increases in cold days while decreases in hot and sunny days. Can you give a reason for this phenom¬enon as realized from the graph given below?
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 14

Question 11.
Your Biology teacher exhibited a labora-tory specimen in the classroom. Based on which features will you distinguish it as a chordate or a nonchordate ?
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 15

Question 12.
Give two examples for each of the following :
a. Synovial joints
b. Muscular proteins
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 16

Question 13.
Distinguish between cofactor and coenzyme with an example for each.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 17

Question 14.
The male and female cockroaches can be identified by the difference in their mor-phological features.
a. Name this phenomenon.
b. Give one external difference between males and females.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 18

Questions 15 – 18. Answers any3 questions. Each question carries 3 scores.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 19

Question 15.
Observe the graph showing the activity of an enzyme influenced by pH.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 20
a. Name the possible enzyme involved in this reaction. [1/2]
b. Where is its site of action? [1/2]
c. Mention any other factor which affects this enzyme activity that results in a similar pattern of graph.
d. Name another Similar enzyme acting on the same substrate.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 21

Question 16.
Observe the organization chart given be¬low and fill appropriately. No need to redraw the chart.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 22

Question 17.
0bserve the structural representation of the muscle given below.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 23
a. Which among this represents the con-tracted state? [1/2 + 1/2]
b. Name the parts labelled as A, B and C.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 24

Question 18.
Longitudinal section of the human heart showing internal structure is given below. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. Redraw the diagram and label the parts marked as A, B, C.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 25

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 26

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
a

Answer 2.
Salivary amylase

Answer 3.
Hinge joint or synovial joint

Answer 4.
Cold blooded animal – Shark
Living fossil – Limulus
Egg laying mammal – Platypus
Water vascular system – Sea Cucumber

Answer 5.

True Seqmentation

False Seqmentation No Seqmentation
Neries Pheretime Taenia

Ascaris Fasciola Wucheraria

Answer 6.
A – Proximal convoluted tubule: Reab-sorb major part of electrolytes, essential nutri¬ents and water.
B – Collecting duct: Reabsorb water and urea. It also secrete H+ and K+ ions.

Answer 7.
a. Impermeable, permeable
b. ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone), ditaitary

Answer 8.
a. Yes
b. ADH fecilites water reabsorption from tubule, there by preventing diuresis. ADH can also affect the kidney function by its constrictory effect on vessel. This cause an increase in blood pressure.

Renin-Angiotensin Mechanism.

Decreased blood pressure → Kidney Renin → Liver → Anglotensiongen → Angiotensin l
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 2 27

Answer 9.
a. For purification of blood, ie., release of CO2 and intake of O2.
b. For the gas transport of O2 and CO2.
c. SA node or sinu-auricular node, the area where cardiac impulse starts.
d. 80/120 mmHg is the normal blood pressure 80mmHg is the diastolic pressure. 120 mmHg is the systolic pressure. Above normal BP is called Hypertension.

Answer 10.
When temperature increases ADH level increases ADH hormone increase re-absorption of water form urine as a re¬sult only small quantity of urine is produced.

Answer 11.
Animals with notochord are called chordates and those animals which do not form this structure are called non-chordates, e. g., porifera to echinoderms.

Answer 12.
a. Synovial joint – Hinge joint (knee joint)
b. Muscular protein – Troponin

Answer 13.
Cofacter: Non protein part of enzyme,
eg., Zinc in carboxy peptidase.
Co-enzyme : Organic compound that bound to apoenzyme loosely, eg., NAD.

Answer 14.
a. Sexual dimorphism.
b. In male, short thread like anal styles present. In females, it is absent.

Answer 15.
a. Salivary amylase
b. Buccal cavity
c. Temperature or substrate concentration
d. Pancreatic amylase or intestinal amylase

Answer 16.
a. Axial skeleton – 80
b. Vertebral column – 26
c. Ribs-12 pairs
d. Sternum – 1

Answer 17.
a. II
b. A – Z-line,
B – H-zone,
C- Myosin

Answer 18.
A – Aorta
B – Semilunar valve
C – Left ventricle

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper 1

Kerala Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper 1

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Scores

General Instructions to candidates

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provied.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1

QUESTIONS

Questions 1-3. Answers all questions. Each question carries 1 score.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 1

Question 1.
Rearrange the following flowchart in the correct sequence.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 2

Question 2.
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest words for the fourth place.
Collection of living plants: Botanical garden. Animals kept in protected environment : ……………..
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 3

Question 3.
Pick out the acoelomate organism from the folllowing.

  1. Roundworm
  2. Hookworm
  3. Filarial worm
  4. Tapeworm

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 4

Questions 4-14. Answers any 9 questions. Each question carries 2 score.

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 5

Question 4.
Identify the protein structures, (A) and (B) from the following figure.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 6

Question 5.
Arrange the following words into two groups and give appropriate heading to each group.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 7
Testes, oviduct, cloaca, Bidder’s canal, ova¬ries, urinogenital duct, vasa efferen-tia, cloaca.

Question 6.
You may have an experience of sudden withdrawal of body parts when you come in contact with objects that are extre-mely cold. This response occurs invol- untarily With out conscious efforts
a. Name the process behind this. [1/2]
b. Construct a flowchart showing the path way of impulses during this process.[1/2]
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 8

Question 7.
After diagnosing the blood of a foetus, a doctor comments that the foetus has some immunological diseases and it may be due to the malfunctioning of an endocrine gland.
a. Name the gland. [1/2]
b. Which are the hormones produced by this gland?
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 9

Question 8.
‘During the advengturous trip a plus one student got a skull and skeletal part of rare animal from the Chinnar forest.
Select the suitable location for keeping it from the list of taxonomic aids given below. (Herbarium, Museum, Zoological park, Botanical garden)
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 10
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 11

Question 9.
A schematic sketch representing the ali-mentary canal of a cockroach is given be¬low. Fill the boxes with the appropria-te organs from the list. No need to redraw the diagram.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 12

Question 10.
Observe the diagram :
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 13
a. Lable the parts A and B [1]
b. Even though concentrated HCl is stored in the stomach, it will not generally damage the stomach wall. Why? [1]
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 14

Question 11.
Hormonal abnormality is responsible for certain diseases in main. List of some diseases are given below. Write the hormone related to eash of it.

(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Gigantism
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Cretinism

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 15

Question 12.
Observe the following representation and fill up the blanks appropriately.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 16

Question 13.
Name the phyla in which the following cells/ structures/organs are present

a. Radula
b. Cnidoblast
c. Pneumatic bone
d. Proboscis gland

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 17

Question 14.
Name the distinctive character (responsible for their names) of the following animal groups.

a. Cnidaria
b. Arthropoda
c. Porifera
d. Annelida
e. Chordata
f. Ctenophora

Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 18

Questions 15 – 18. Answers any3 questions. Each question carries 3 scores.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 26

Question 15.
Fill the table appropriately
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 27

Question 16.
Observe the molecule given below and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 20
a. Identify the molecule.
b. Label 1 and 2.
c. Mention any three structural details of the molecule shown in the diagram.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 21

Question 17.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 22
a. Identify this compound. [1/2]
b. Name the bond produced when another biomolecule of the same category combines with this. [1/2]
c. If a number of such molecules are bonded together, what will be the resultant molecule? [1/2]
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 23

Question 18.
During a seashore visit, a student collected two organisms. Observing the mor-phology, it is clear that the organisms are radially symmetrical. One of them shows bioluminescence.
a. To which phylum does this organism belong? [1]
b. Identify the possible phyla to which the other organism can be included. [1]
c. Which distinctive feature of this organism will help you to categorize it into a particular phylum? [1]
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 24

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
SA Node →AV Node → Atrial contraction →AV Bundles →Ventricle contraction

Answer 2.
Zoological park

Answer 3.
Tape worm

Answer 4.
A – Protein secondary structure or Helical
B – Protein tertiary structure or 3D

Answer 5.
Plus One Zoology Model Question Papers Paper 1 25

Answer 6.
a.Reflex action
b. Receptor → Sensory (afferent) neuron → Inter neuron → Motor neuron (efferent) neuron → Effector.

Answer 7.
a. Thymus gland
b. Thymosin

Answer 8.
Herbarium, Museum

Answer 9.
a. Salivary gland
b. Crop
c. Gizzard
d. Hepatic caeca
e. Malpighian tubule
f. Rectum

Answer 10.
a. A-Cardiac stomach,
B – Pyloric stomach
b. Mucus layer in stomach and bicarbonate present in gastric juice protects stomach wall.

Answer 11.
a. Insulin
b. Growth hormone / GH / STH.
c. ADH / Vassopressin
d. Thyroxine / T4, T3

Answer 12.
A – secondary metabolites
B – amino acids
C – pigments

Answer 13.
a. Mollusca
b. Cnidaria / Coelenterata
c. Chordata / Aves – Birds
d. Hemichordata

Answer 14.
a. Cnidaria – Presence of Cnidoblast
b. Arthropoda – Joint footed animals
c. Porifera – Body contains pores
d. Annelida – Rings on body
e. Chordata – Notochord bearing animals
f. Ctenofora – Comb plates

Answer 15.
a. Secretion of pancreatic enzyme and bile juice.
b. Juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
c. Atrial natriuretic factor
d. Thyroid gland

Answer 16.
a. Structure of DNA

b. 1. Thymine
2. Hydrogen bond

c. Sugar phosphate back bone is present. Adenine pairs with thymine by 2 hydrogen bond. Guanine pairs with cytosine by 3 hydrogen bond.

Answer 17.
a. Amino acid
b. Peptide bond
c. Protein

Answer 18.
a. Phylum – Ctenophara
b. Phylum – Echinodermata
c. Bioluminescence

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper 2017

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper 2017

Time : 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Scores

General Instructions to candidates

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further there is ‘5 minutes’ ‘Preparatory Time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of Zoology Examination.
  • Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’ and ‘Preparatory time’.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read questions carefully before answering.
  • All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
  • When you select a question, all the sub questions must be answered from the same question itself.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 1

QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Select the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy.

a. Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order – Genus – Family -Species.
b. Kingdom – Phylum – Order – Class – Family- Genus – Species
c. Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order- Family – Genus – Species
d. Kingdom – Class – Phylum – Family Order- Species – Genus

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 2

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 3

Question 2.
In cockroach spiracles are present in

a. Alimentary canal
b. Tracheal system
c. Malpighian tubules
d. Reproductive system

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 4

Question 3.
Complete the given branching diagram based on connective tissue.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 23
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 5

Question 4.
Match the items in columns B and C with A.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 6
Features of different phyla / class are given below. Identify the phylum / class and give examples of each group.

a. Body is covered by scales, heart is three or four chambered. They respire through lungs.
b. They are exclusively marine, commonly called sea walnuts and show biolumi-nescence.
c. Body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk.They have open circulatory system and presence of proboscis gland.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 7
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 8

Question 5.
Among the different phyla of animals ….. have pseudocoelom
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 9

Question 6.
Categorize the following animals under ra dial symmetry and bilateral symmetry.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 10

Question 7.
Differentiate the process of inspiration and expiration.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 11

Question 8.
a. Observe the diagram and label A and B.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 12
b. Dental formula of permanent teeth in man is ………….
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 13

Question 9.
Identify the given biomolecules
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 14

Question 10.
Select the wrongly matched pair from the following :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 15
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 16

Question 11.
Complete the following chart showing struc ture of myosin filament and it’s protein based on the hints given in the brackets.(Light meromyosin, Actin, Tropomyosin, Meromy osin).
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 17

Question 12.
Answer the following :
a. Cerebral hemispheres of human brain are connected by ………………..

  1. Association area
  2. Corpus callosum
  3. Corpora quadrigemina
  4. Pons varoli

b. Observe the diagram and label A, B,CandD.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 18
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 19

Question 13.
Complete the table
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 20

Question 14.
a. Select the correct statement regard¬ing the ECG of man.

  1. P – wave represents auricular re-polarization.
  2. P- wave represents ventricular re-polarization.
  3. P- wave represents auricular de-polarization.
  4. P – wave represents ventricular de-polarization.

b. Observe the diagram and label A, B, C and D
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 21

Question 15.
Prepare two matching pairs from the given list of animals and excretory organs.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2017 22

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
c. Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus – Species.

Answer 2.
b. Tracheal system

Answer 3.
A. Specialised connective tissue
B. Adipose tissue
C. Irregular
D. Cartilage

Answer 4.
a – iv – 3
b – iii – 1
c – i – 2
OR
a. Class: Reptilia. Eg., Chelon (Turtle)
b. Phylum : Ctenophora. Eg., Ctenoplana
c. Phylum : Hemichordata. Eg., Balano glossus.

Answer 5.
Phylum : Aschelminthes

Answer 6.
Radial symmetry : Physalia , Adamsia
Bilateral symmetry : Tapeworm,Fasciola

Answer 7.

Inspiration Expiration
  • The process of intake of air into the alveoli of lungs. It is an active process
  • The breathing out of air from the lungs is called expiration.
  • Inspiration takes place when pressure within the lungs becomes less than the atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pres sure.
  • It takes place when the intra pulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure.
  • The contraction of intercostal muscle lifts up the ribs and sternum.This causes an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber.
  • Relaxation of the diaphragm and the in ter coastal muscles returns the diaphragm and sternum to the normal position.

Answer 8.
a. A – Canine
B. Molars b. ii. 2123/2123

Answer 9.
A – Serine
B – Adenylic acid
C – Cholesterol

Answer 10.
Antibody – Sensory reception

Answer 11.
A – Meromyosin
B – Light meromyosin

Answer 12.
a. Corpus callosum
b. A – Axon B – Synaptic vesicles
C – Synaptic cleft D – Neurotransmitter

Answer 13.
A – ANF
B – Decreases blood glucose level
C – Juxta gomerular cells of kidney
D – Thymosin

Answer 14.
a. P – wave represents auricular depolarization.
b. A – Aorta
B – Venacava
C – Pulmonary vein
D – Chordae tendinae.

Answer 15.
a – ii, b – , c – i

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper 2018

Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Paper 2018

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Scores

General Instructions to candidates

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Exami¬nation and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provied.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 1

QUESTIONS

Answer all questions from question numbers 1 to 3. Each carry one score. (3 × 1 = 3)
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 2

Question 1.
Rearrange the following taxonomic categories in the correct sequence.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 3

Question 2.
Note the relationship in the first pair and then complete the second pair
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 4
Osteichthyes : Cycloid scales
Chondrichthyes : ……………….

Question 3.
The innermost layer of the eyeball is ……………….
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 5
a. Choroid
b. Iris
c. Retina
d. Sclera

Answer any nine from question numbers 4 to 14. Each carries two scores.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 6

Question 4.
The molecular structure of 2 amino acids are given below.
Name them.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 7

Question 5.
Arrange the following terms under two headings based on symmetry.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 8

Question 6.
a. Expand GFR.
b. Even though GFR in a healthy person is 180 litres per day, the amount of urine released per day is only about 1.5 litres. Give a reason.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 9

Question 7.
Select the bones of the leg from the given list of bones.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 10
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 11

Question 8.
Name the following :
a. The antibacterial enzyme present in the saliva of man which helps in prevention of infection.
b. The digestive enzyme present in salvia.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 12

Question 9.
Observe the diagram showing the alimen¬tary canal of cockroach. Name the parts labelled A,B,C and D.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 13
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 14

Question 10.
Diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG is given below :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 15
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 16
a. What does the QRS complex denotes ?
b. Mention the clinical significance of ECG.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 17
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 18

Question 11.
Distinguish between the following :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 19

Question 12.
Complete the given flow chart.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 20

Question 13.
Name the hormones whose deficiency is responsible for the following :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 21

a. Dwarfism
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cretinism
d. Diuresis

Question 14.
Identify the following tissues :

a. Tissue that stores fat
b. Tissue that connects bones together
c. Tissue that connects bones to muscles
d. Tissue that conducts impulses
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 22

Answer any three from question numbers 15 to 18. Each carries three scores.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 23

Question 15.
Match the terms in column A with those in columms B and C
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 24
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 25

Question 16.
a. Complete the diagrammatic representation showing the nature of enzyme action :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 26
b. List out any two factors affecting enzyme activity.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 27
c. Based on the reaction formulae given below, identify the classes of the enzymes.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 28
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 29

Question 17.
Protein digestion by proteolytic enzymes is given below :
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 30
a. Name the enzymes marked as A and B.
b. Identify the gland which secrete these enzymes.
c. Write the inactive form of the enzymes A and B.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 31
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 32

Question 18.
a. A table showing examples of vertebrates given below. But some of the examples are wrongly given. Identify and rearrange it
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 33
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 34
b. Which of the above mentioned class is characterized by the presence of pneumatic bones?
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 35

ANSWERS

Answer 1.
Kingdom ← Phylum ← Class ← Order ← Family ← Genus ← Species

Answer 2.
Placoid scales

Answer 3.
Retina

Answer 4.
a. Serine
b. Alanine

Answer 5.
Radial symmetry – Ctenophores, Coelen- terates.
Bilateral symmetry – Arthropods, Molluscs

Answer 6.
a. Glomerular Filtration Rate
b. Due to tubular reabsorption. Nearly 99% of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.

Answer 7.
Femur, Tibia, Fibula, Tarsals

Answer 8.
a. Lysozyme
b. Salivary amylase / amylase

Answer 9.
A – Crop
B – Hepatic caecae
C – Malpighian tubules
D – Colon / Hindgut

Answer 10.
a. Depolarisation of the ventricles or ven tricular contraction.
b.Any deviation from the normal shape indicates a possible abnormality or dis-ease, heart disease, defective heart functioning and chance of heart attack.

Answer 11.
a. IRV (Respiratory Reserve Volume) :
Additional volume of air that can be inspired forcibly after a normal inspiration. This averages 2500mL – 3000mL.

ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) :
Additional volume of air that can be expired forcibly after a normal expira¬tion. This averages 1100 mL – 1200mL.

b. IC(inspiratory Capacity)
Total volume of air, a person can inspire after a normal expiration/ relevant volume. Which is equal to (TV + IRV).

EC(Expiratory Capacity):
Total volume of air, a person can expire after a normal inspiration / relevant volume. Which is equal to TV + ERV.

Answer 12.
Plus One Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018 36

Answer 13.
a. Growth hormone
b. Insulin
c. Thyroxine
d. Vasopressin

Answer 14.
a. Adipose tissue
b. Ligaments
c. Tendon
d. Neural / Nervous tissue

Answer 15.

A B C
(a) Neutrophils 60-65% Phagocytic
(b) Eosinophils 2-3% Allergic re­action
(c) Lymphocytes 20-25%

Immune response

Answer 16.
a. (a) EP / Enzyme Product Complex, (b) Product / P
b. i. Temperature
ii. pH

c. i. Oxidoreductases/dehydrogenases.
ii. Lyases

Answer 17.
a. A – Chymotrypsin
B – Carboxy peptidase
b. Pancreas
c. A – Chymotrypsinogen
B – Proarboxypeptidases

Answer 18.
a.

Pisces Amphi­bia Reptilia Aves

Mam­malia

Dog fish Frog Alliga­tor Penguin

Blue Whale

Rohu Salama­nder Tortoise Vulture

Flying fox

b. Class – Aves / Birds

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 5

Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 5

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates :

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time ‘ of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018

Qn.No.1 to 3. Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 score. (3×1=3)
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 1.

Question 1.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
a. Telocentric chromosome
– Middle centromere
b. Metacentric chromosome
-Centromere slightly away from the middle
c. Acrocentric chromosome
-Centromere close to its end
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 1

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer.
Law of limiting factors is proposed by
a. Cornelius Van Niel
b. Blackman
c. Joseph Priestley
d. Engelmann
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 2

Question 3.
Observe the figure given below and identify the blue green alga.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 3

Qn.No.4 to 11. Answer any 6 questions. Each question carries 2 scores.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 4.

Question 4.
Certain compounds formed during Krebs’ cycle are given below. Draw Krebs’cycle using the compounds.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 4

Question 5.
Water from the root hairs move deeper into the root layers by two pathways. Name the two pathways. Which pathway is blocked in the endodermis? Give reason.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 5

Question 6.
Analyse the table and fill in the blanks.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 6

Question 7.
Artificial system and natural system are two systems of classification. Who are the proponents of these classifications.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 7

Question 8.
Names of certain essential elements are given below:
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 8
Choose the macro nutrients and write one function of each of them.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 8.1
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 8.2

Question 9.
Pili and fimbriae are surface structures seen in bacterial cells. Differentiate these structures.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 9

Question 10.
Carbohydrates and fats are respiratory substrates. But their RQ is different. Define RQ. Write the RQ of these substrates.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 10

Question 11.
Certain life cycle patterns of various plant groups are given below:
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 11
Choose the life cycle pattern shown by gymnosperms and angiosperms. Write the peculiarities of the identified life cycle pattern.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 11.1

Qn. No 12 to 17. Answer any 5 questions. Each question carries 3 scores.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 12

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below:
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 12.1
a. Source of which plant hormone is indicated in the figure.
b. Write four roles of the above identified hormone.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 12.2

Question 13.
Observe the terms given below :
Vexillary, Axile, Marginal, Imbricate, Basal, Valvate.
Identify the three kinds of placentation from the above. Explain them.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 13

Question 14.
Observe the figure.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 14
a. Identify the above stage of mitosis.
b. Name the preceding stage of the above stage. Write its main events.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 14.1
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 14.2

Question 15.
Observe the flow chart given below :
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 15
a. Identify A, B, C, Write the function of B.
b. Differentiate endarch and exarch xylem.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 15.1

Question 16.
Observe the diagrammatic representation of Hatch and Slack pathway given below.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 16
Identify the cells A and B. Explain the process of formation of C4 acid specifying the enzyme involved.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 16.1

Question 17.
Periderm is constituted by three kinds of tissues. Name them. Write one peculiarity of each of them.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 17

Answers

Answer 1.
c. Acrocentric chromosome
-Centromere close to its end

Answer 2.
b. Blackman

Answer 3.
Nostoc

Answer 4.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 5 4

Answer 5.
Apoplast and Symplast pathways are two pathways.
Apoplast pathway is blocked in the endodermis.
Due to the presence of casparian strips / suberin thickenings.

Answer 6.
a. golgi apparatus
b. basal body of cilia/ flagella/ spindle fibers
c. protein synthesis
d. mitochondria

Answer 7.
Artificial system- Carl Linnaeus
Natural system – George Bentham and Joseph Hooker
Artificial system – based on external characters
Natural system – based on both external and internal characters

Answer 8.
Potassium, Magnesium
Potassium – anoin cation balance/opening and closing of stomata/maintain turgidity of cells.
Magnesium – maintain ribosome structure/ constituent of chlorophyll/activates enzymes of photosynthesis.

Answer 9.
Pilli are elongated tubular structures. Fimbriae are small bristle like structures.

Answer 10.
Ratio of volume of Co2 evolved to the ratio of oxygen absorbed is RQ.
RQ of carbohydrate is 1
RQ of fats are less than 1

Answer 11.
Diplotonic
Here diploid sporophytic phase is dominant.
In this type lifecycle the diploid sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to fewcelled haploid gametophyte. This kind of lifecycle is termed as diplontic. All seed-bearing plants i.e., gymnosperms and angiosperms, follow this pattern.

Answer 12.
a. Auxin
b. Initiate rooting in stem cuttings
Induce parthenocarpy
Control xylem differenciation
Cause apical dominance

Answer 13.
Axial, Marginal and Basal
Axial : placenta is axial and ovules attached to it.
Marginal : Ovules are at margines of car-pels
Basal : Placenta at base of ovary

Answer 14.
a. Anaphase
b. Preceding stage – Metaphase .
Main events
Chromosomes are highly condensed they are arranged at equatorial plane.

Answer 15.
a. A – Parenchyma
B – Collenchyma
C – Sclerenchyma
Function of B – Give support
b.Endarch – protoxylem pointing towards centre
Exarch – Protoxylem pointing towards periphery

Answer 16.
A-mesophyll
B – Bundle sheath cell
The primary Co2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the mesophyll cells. The enzyme responsible for this fixation is PEP carboxylase or PEPcase. It is important to register that the mesophyll cells lack Ru- BisCO enzyme. The C4 acid OAA is formed in the mesophyll cells. It then forms other 4-carbon compounds like malic acid or aspartic acid in the mesophyll cells itself, which are transported to the bundle sheath cells. In the bundle sheath cells these C4 acids are broken down to release Co2 and a 3-carbon molecule. The 3-carbon molecule is transported back to the mesophyll where it is converted to PEP again, thus, completing the cycle. The Co2 released in the bundle sheath cells enters the C3 or the Calvin pathway, a pathway common to all plants. The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO), but lack PEPcase. Thus, the basic pathway that results in the formation of the sugars, the Calvin pathway, is common to the C3 and C4 plants.

Answer 17.
Phellum, phellogen and phelloderm are the three kinds of tissue.

One type of meristematic tissue called cork cambium or phellogen develops, usually in the cortex region. Phellogen is a couple of layers thick. It is made of narrow, thin-walled and nearly rectangular Cells. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem while the inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm. The cork is impervious to water due to suberin deposition in the cell wall. The cells of secondary cortex are parenchymatous. Phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm are collectively known as periderm.

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 4

Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 4

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates :

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time ‘ of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018

Answer all questions from question numbers 1 to 4. Each carry one score.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 1.

Question 1.
The class of fungi known as imperfect fungi is ……
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 1

Question 2.
Which one of the plant growth regulators induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 2

Question 3.
By observing the relationship of the first pair, fill in the blanks of the second pair
Auxins : Apical dominance
____: Overcome apical dominance
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 3

Question 4.
The reaction center of photosystems in green plants during light reaction is ……
a. Xanthophyll
b. Carotenoids
c. Chlorophyll b
d. Chlorophyll a
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 4
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 4.1

Answer any seven from question numbers 5 to 13. Each carries two scores.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 5.

Question 5.
Match the following:
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 5

Question 6.
Complete the diagram by filling the gaps.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 6
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 6.1

Question 7.
Suggest a method for identification of stem and root in plants based on the arrangement of protoxylem.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 7

Question 8.
A cell with a chromosome number 42 undergoes mitosis and another cell with 42 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. Give the chromosome number of daughter cells after mitosis and meiosis. Give reasons for your answer.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 8

Question 9.
Observe the diagrammatic view of a cell and answer the questions.
a. Identify the phase in which DNA synthesis takes place.
b. Mention any one event that takes place in the stages marked as ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 9

Question 10.
Observe the given diagram. Analyze this diagram and explain the structure of plasma membrane.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 10

Question 11.
Write any two distinguishing features of the algal class Rhodophyceae.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 11

Question 12.
There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast. Substantiate the given statement with an explanation stating two points.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 12

Question 13.
Botany teacher brought a diseased plant in the classroom. Manoj identified the pathogen as a virus. Can you list any two symptoms of diseases, that helped him to identify the pathogen?
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 13

Answer any four from question numbers 14 to 18. Each carries 3 scores.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 14.

Question 14.
Three potato pieces of equal weight (2g) were left in three types of solutions (A, B and C) overnight. The weight change of potato pieces are as shown in the figure.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 14
a. Identify the solutions A and C.
b. Discuss the reason for not having any change in the piece put in solution B.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 14.1
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 14.2

Question 15.
C4 plants are adapted to overcome a wasteful process found in C3 plants and hence productivity and yields are better in these plants.
a. Name the wasteful process found in C3 plants.
b. Identify the cells involved in the C4 pathway.
c. Write any two differences between C3 plants and C4 plants.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 15

Question 16.
Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have a special type of Co2 fixation in addition to the C3 cycle.
a. Name this pathway.
b. Can you identify any specialty in the leaf anatomy of such plants? If so, what is this anatomy called?
c. Which is the primary Co2 acceptor in this pathway?
d. Write any one advantage of such plants over C3 plants.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 16
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 16.1

Question 17.
In most of the plants, roots are meant for absorption and fixation. But there are exceptions to these functions. Justify the statement citing at least three examples.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 17
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 17.1

Question 18.
In a dicotyledonous stem, secondary growth takes place at two regions by the activity of two lateral meristems.
a. Identify the two lateral meristems.
b. List the new tissues formed from each of these meristems.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 4 18

Answers

Answer 1.
Deuteromycetes

Answer 2.
Abscissic acid

Answer 3.
Cytokinin

Answer 4.
d. Chlorophyll a

Answer 5.
a. Synthesis and storage of energy – Mitochondria.
b. Packaging and delivery of materials – Golgi apparatus.
c. Digestion of intercellular materials – Lysosome.
d. Formation of basal body of cilia and flagella – Centriole.

Answer 6.
4C – Oxyloacetic acid
4C – Malic acid/ fumaric acid
5C – α-Ketoglutaric acid

Answer 7.
In root, the protoxylem are in exarch arrangement, while in stem, endarch.

Answer 8.
After mitosis chromosome doesn’t change. Because its division doesn’t cause any decrease in amount of chromosome. But meosis is known as reduction division. So it bring half of the chromosome number.

Answer 9.
a. DNA division occurs at S-phase.
b. X – Metaphase: During which chromosome align at metaphase plate.
Y – Anaphase: Centromere of the sister chromatids split and chromatids separate. Chromatids move to opposite poles.

Answer 10.
Fluid – mosaic model. According to this model quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer. This ability to move within the membrane is measured as its fluidity. This fluid nature of the membrane is also important from the point of view of function like cell growth.

Answer 11.
• The members of Rhodophyceae are known as red algae.
• The food is stored as floridean starch.

Answer 12.
Within the chloroplast there is the membranous system consisting of grana, the stroma lamellae, and the fluid stroma. There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast. The membrane system is respon¬sible for trapping the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

Answer 13.
In this plant, the symptoms are mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and veinclearing, dwarfing and stunted growth.

Answer 14.
a. A – Hypertonic, C – Hypotonic
b. B – Solution is isotonic. The osmotic pressure of the external solution and cell sap are same. Hence no net flow of water towards inside or outside of potato pieces.

Answer 15.
a. Photo respiration
b. Bundle sheeth cells around the vascu lar bundles.
c. C3 cycle C4 cycle
1. Co2 accepter is Co2 accepter is PEP RuBp
2. The enzyme – The enzyme involved
RUBISCO – PEP case

Answer 16.
a. C4 Pathway or Hatch and Slack pathway.
b. Yes. Kranz anatomy.
c. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP).
d. In C4 plants photorespiration is absent so the productivity is high.

Answer 17.
Roots are modified for:
Storage of food: Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious roots of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
Respiration: Roots modified for physiological function like breathing are called breathing roots or pneumato phores. eg., Mangrove rees.
For mechanical support: Prop roots/ pillar roots of banyan trees are developing from the aerial branches and it grows vertically downwards.

Answer 18.
a. Vascular cambium and cork cambium.
b. From vascular cambium: Secondary xylem, secondary phloem, secondary medullary rays dulps.
From cork cambium: Phellem, phelloderm

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 3

Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper 3

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates :

  • There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time ‘ of 1 hour each. Further there is a ‘ 5 minutes’ ‘preparatory time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of the Zoology Examination.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read the instructions carefully.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers 2018

Questions 1-3. Answers all questions. Each question carries 1 score.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 1.

Question 1.
Choose the correctly matched pair
a. Golgi apparatus – Synthesis and storage of energy
b. Lysosome – Digestion of intercellular materials
c. Mitochondria – Packaging and delivery of materials
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 1

Question 2.
Identify the statement which is applicable to cyanobacteria.
a. Important decomposers
b. Form blooms in polluted water
c. Presence of prominent nucleus
d. Completely lack of a cell wall
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 2

Question 3.
The following diagram represents five petals of a flower in a plant belonging to a major family.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 3

Identify the family.

Questions 4 -11. Answers any 6 questions. Each question carries 2 score.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 4.

Question 4.
Complete the given table of algal divisions and their main characteristics by filling ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 4

Question 5.
Transpiration has more than one purpose in plants. Write any one purpose of transpiration in plants and list any two factors that affect this process.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 5

Question 6.
Unlike a majority of the pteridophytes, genera like Selaginella and Salvinia show a unique feature in spore formation.
a. What is this feature?
b. Briefly comment on its significance.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 6

Question 7.
Even though more than, sixty elements are found in different plants, all are not essential.
Write any two criteria for the essentially of an element.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 7

Question 8.
C4 plants have special features. List out any four specialities of C4 plants compared to C3 plants.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 8

Question 9.
Glycolysis is a partial oxidation process. Justify.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 9

Question 10.
Light reaction is otherwise called photo-phosphorylation
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 10
a. Locate the site of this reaction.
b. Write any two differences between cyclic photo phosphorylation and non-cyclic photo phosphorylation.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 10.1

Question 11.
Analyse the given statements and correct them with respect to the underlined words.
a. Respiration is an anabolic pathway.
b. The site of perception of light by a plant for a photoperiodic response is a flower.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 11

Questions 12-17. Answers any 5 questions. Each question carries 3 score.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 12.

Question 12.
The diagram given below shows parts of a true fruit.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 12
a. Write the technical name of this fruit developed from a monocarpellary superior ovary.
b. Label the parts A and B.
c. Can you distinguish a parthenocarpic fruit from the given fruit.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 12.1

Question 13.
Given below are the scientific terms related to photosynthesis. Classify them in appropriate manner, in the given table.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 13

Question 14.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 14
a. This is a peculiar type of plant cultivation. Name it.
b. Aeration is necessary for the conduct of this type of cultivation. Why?
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 14.1

Question 15.
Given below is the floral diagram of a family you have studied.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 15
a. Identify the family and aestivation of corolla.
b. Describe three other floral characters from the floral diagram using technical terms.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 15.1

Question 16.
In an anatomy lab, Ramu and Salim were taking transverse sections (T.S) of two specimens, A and B respectively. Their observations are given in the table. Complete the table.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 16
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 16.1

Question 17.
Even though algae are primary producers on aquatic ecosystems, man is benefited by algae in a variety of ways. Write any four points in favour of this statement.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 17

Answers

Answer 1.
b.

Answer 2.
Form blooms in polluted water.

Answer 3.
Fabaceae.

Answer 4.
a – Starch
b – Fucoxanthin
c – Rhodophyceae
d – Floridean starch

Answer 5.
Transpiration is a mechanism for water ex-change.
Transpiration is affected by:
External temperature, humidity, light.
Wind speed
Number and distribution of stomata.
Percentage of open stomata.

Answer 6.
a. Heterosporous.
b. It produces megaspores and micros-pores. Microspore develops into male gametophyte and megaspore develops into female gametophyte. The female gametophyte retained in the parent sporophyte for a short period and it is considered to be the seed habit.

Answer 7.
The mineral should support growth and re-production. The requirement of the element should be specific and not replaceable by another element. The element should directly involved in the metabolism of plant.

Answer 8.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 8

Answer 9.
Glycolysis is a partial oxidation, glucose undergo oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic acid. And this pyruvic acid undergo many type of reaction according to the organism and form the sub-stance which our body need. Pyruvic acid, in yeast like organism undergo fermentation and form Coand ethanol. In animal cells it form lactic acid. Finally reach in Krebs cycle then undergo electron transport then it form ATP. Such a long cycle is needed to convert glucose to ATP. So we say that glycolysis is a partial oxidation.

Answer 10.
b. Grana.
c. Non-cyclic: When the two photosystems work in a series, first PS II and then the PS I, a process called non- cyclic photo-phosphorylation occurs. The two photo-systems are connected through an electron transport chain, as seen earlier -in the Z scheme. Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesised by this kind of electron flow.

Cyclic: When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the photosystem and the phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons. A possible location this could be happening is in the stroma lamellae. The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the electron transport chain. The cyclic flow hence, results only in the synthesis of ATP.

Answer 11.
a. The term anabolism means building up process. The term catabolism means break down process. Respiration involve the break down of organic molecules like glucose. But Intermediate compounds produced during the break down of glucose is used for synthesis of complex molecules like fats and proteins. Therefore respiratory pathway involve both anabolism and catabolism, hence can be considerate as amphibolic pathway.
b. The site of perception of light by a plant for a photo periodic responds is not a flower but leaves.

Answer 12.
a. Drupe.
b. A – Epicarp, B – Mesocarp
c. Parthenocarpic fruit is the fruit which formed without fertilization of the ovary. But in figure it is true fruit which formed by fertilization of monocarpellary superior ovary.

Answer 13.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 13

Answer 14.
a. Hydroponics.
b. In this system plants are cultivated under greatful nutrient medium. A plant can live only in the presence of O2. O2 supply is necessary for the growth of plants/absorption of nutrients.

Answer 15.
a. Fabaceae. The aestivation of corella is vexillary.
b. Infloroscence – Racemose Flower – Bisexual, zygomorphic.
Calyx – Sepals five, gamosepalous.

Answer 16.
Plus One Botany Model Question Papers Paper 3 16

Answer 17.
Agar is obtained from gracillaria and geledium used for the preparation of icecream and jellies.
Chorella and spirullina are abundant in protein and used as food supplement by the space travellers.
70 species of marine algae are used as food. Half of the Co2 fixation on earth is done by algae.

Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers