Class 10

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I

(A) Answer any four questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is related to mucous membranes? (1)
(a) Keratin is Present
(b) Sebum makes it Oily
(c) Cilia Cells Present
(d) Sweat Glands Present
Answer:
(c) Cilia Cells Present

Question 2.
Nitrogen bases in DNA are given below. Make them into suitable pairs.
(Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine)
Adenine: ______________
Guanine: ______________
Answer:
Adenine: Thymine
Guanine: Cytosine

Question 3.
If there is a mistake in the underlined portion, correct it.
(a) Leptospira is the pathogen that causes Diphtheria. (1)
(b) Rat fever is a bacterial disease. (1)
Answer:
(a) Leptospirosis (Rat Fever)

Question 4.
Complete the illustration according to the model given below. (1)

Answer:
Bombycol

Question 5.
Some of the stages in the production of Insulin through genetic engineering are given below. Identify the step labeled as B. (1)

Answer:
Joining human insulin gene with bacterial DNA (Plasmid).

Question 6.
Identify the word pair relation and complete the following: (1)
Rod Cells: Rhodopsin
Cone Cells: ________________
Answer:
Photopsin or Iodopsin

(B) Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Find out the odd one and write the common feature of others. (1)

Glycogen is Converted to Glucose, the Trachea Expands, the Pupil Dilates, Production of Saliva Increases.

Answer:
Production of saliva increases. Others take place under the control of the sympathetic system.

Question 8.
Write the function of the part labeled as A in the figure. (1)

Answer:
A – Semicircular Canals: Balancing of the Body.

Question 9.
Complete the illustration related to the evolution of human beings. (1)

Answer:
Hominoidea

Part – II

(A) Answer the following question. Carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
Analyze the statement and answer the questions given below.
“Treatment using genetic engineering triggered great hope in the control of genetic diseases”.
(a) What is this method of treatment called? (1)
(b) What is the specific feature of this method of treatment? (1)
Answer:
(a) Gene therapy.
(b) Gene therapy is the method of curing genetic diseases by removing disease-causing genes from the genome and inserting normal functional genes.

Answer any one question from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
Complete the table related to human chromosomes suitably. (2)

Total Number of Chromosomes	(a) ______________
(b) ______________	44
Sex Chromosomes	2

Answer:
(a) 46
(b) Somatic Chromosomes

Question 12.
“There is a common ancestor for all the different species that exist today”.
Write any two pieces of evidence which support the above statement from Biochemistry and Physiology. (2)
Answer:

• Enzymes control the chemical reactions of all organisms.
• Energy is stored in ATP molecules.
• Genes are the hereditary factors.
• Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the basic substances. (any two)

Part – III

(A) Answer any three questions from 13 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
Observe the figure of synapse and answer the following questions.

(a) Which synapse is shown in the figure? (1)
(b) What is a synapse? (1)
(c) Name the chemical substance which is secreted from the part labeled as x. (1)
Answer:
(a) Synapse in between neuron and gland cell.
(b) Synapse is the junction between two neurons or a neuron and a muscle cell or a neuron and a glandular cell.
(c) Acetylcholine/Dopamine (Neurotransmitters)

Question 14.
Analyze the part of the pamphlet and answer the questions.

The disease can be transmitted by sharing needle and syringe contaminated with HIV components

(a) Identify the disease mentioned in the pamphlet. (1)
(b) How does this disease affect the immune system of the body? (2)
Answer:
(a) AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrom)
(b) HIV enters the body and multiplies using the genetic mechanism of lymphocytes. Hence the number of lymphocytes decreases considerably and reduces the immunity of the body.

Question 15.
Analyze the statement and answer the questions.
“The normal level of glucose in the blood is 70-100 mg/100 ml. The level of glucose in the blood is maintained by the combined action of two hormones”.
(a) Which are the two hormones mentioned here? (1)
(b) How do these hormones regulate the level of glucose in the blood? (2)
Answer:
(a) Insulin and Glucagon
(b) When the level of glucose increases in blood:

• Insulin converts glucose into glycogen in the liver and muscles.
• Enhance the cellular uptake of glucose molecules.

(c) When glucose level decreases in the blood:

• Glucagon converts the glycogen stored in the liver to glucose.
• Synthesis of glucose from amino acids.

Question 16.
Some facts regarding lymphocytes are given below. Arrange them in the table giving suitable headings.

• Neutralize the toxin of the antigens.
• Destroy the cells affected by the virus.
• Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane.
• Destroy cancer cells.
• Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.

B-lymphocytes	_______________________
_______________________	_______________________
_______________________	_______________________
_______________________	Stimulate other defense cells of the body.

Answer:

B- Lymphocytes	T- Lymphocytes
Neutralize the toxins of the antigens.	Destroy the cells affected by the virus.
Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane.	Destroy Cancer Cells.
Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.	Stimulate other defense cells of the body.

(B) Answer the following question. Carries a 3 score. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
Complete the flow chart regarding sense of hearing suitably.

Answer:
(a) Auditory Canal
(b) Tympanum
(c) Ear Ossicles
(d) Cochlea
(e) Auditory Nerve
(f) Cerebrum

Part – IV

(A) Answer any two of the questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
Analyze the information given in the box and answer the questions. (1)

Artificially recreated the atmosphere of the primitive Earth. Organic molecules were formed.

(a) Which theory on the origin of life is proved through this experiment? (1)
(b) Name the scientists who conducted this experiment for the first time. (1)
(c) Briefly describe the experiment. (2)
Answer:
(a) Chemical evolution theory.
(b) Stanley Miller and Harold C. Urey
(c) Urey and Miller artificially recreated the atmosphere of primitive earth that contained methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapour, etc. with the help of a large glass flask in the laboratory, high voltage electricity was passed through the gaseous mixture in the glass flask. Then, this gaseous mixture was cooled with the help of a condenser. The sedimented substances were separated and when observed organic molecules such as amino acids were found.

Question 19.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the process illustrated here. (1)
(b) What does X and Y indicate? (2)
(c) What is the role of transfer RNA in this process? (1)
Answer:
(a) Protein Synthesis/Gene Action
(b) X = mRNA forms from DNA
Y = Based on the information in mRNA, protein is synthesized by adding amino acids.
(c) tRNA brings different kinds of amino acids to ribosomes.

Question 20.
Analyze the figure and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the disease. (1)
(b) What is the cause of this disease? (1)
(c) How does the deformity of red blood cells affect the patient’s body? (2)
Answer:
(a) Sickle Cell Anaemia.
(b) The defects in genes may also cause deformities in the sequencing of amino acids which are the building blocks of hemoglobin.
(c) The oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells decreases. The sickle-shaped RBCs aggregate in the blood vessels and block the flow of blood in them.

(B) Answer any one question from 21 to 22. Each carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
Different processes involved in inflammatory response are given below.

• White blood cells reach the wound site through the walls of the capillaries.
• Chemicals are produced.
• White blood cells engulf and destroy germs.
• Germs enter through wounds.
• Blood capillaries dilate.

(a) Arrange the processes involved in inflammatory response in sequential order. (2)
(b) Name the white blood cells involved in this process. (1)
(c) What is the advantage of dilation of the capillaries at the wound site? (1)
Answer:
(a) Germs enter through wounds, .
Chemicals are produced.
Blood capillaries dilate.
White blood cells reach the site through the walls of the capillaries.
White blood cells engulf and destroy germs.
(b) Monocytes and neutrophils.
(c) Dilate the capillaries thereby increasing the blood flow. Blood plasma and more white blood cells reach the wound site.

Question 22.
Analyze the information given in the box and answer the questions.

(A) The water-like fluid provides oxygen and nourishment to the tissues of the eye.

(B) The jelly-like fluid seen in the chamber between the retina and the lens.

(a) Identify the fluids (A) and (B). (1)
(b) How fluid (A) is formed? (1)
(c) Name the eye disease related to the fluid (A). (1)
(d) What is the function of fluid (B)? (1)
Answer:
(a) A = Aqueous humor
B = Vitreous humor
(b) Formed from blood.
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Helps in maintaining the shape of the eye.

Part – V

(A) Answer any one question from 23 to 24. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
Redraw the diagram identify and label the parts given below.

Redrawing
(a) Longest filament from the cell body. (1)
(b) Secretes neurotransmitter. (1)
(c) Part that receives impulses from adjacent neurons. (1)
(d) Carries impulses to the cell body. (1)
Answer:

Question 24.
Complete the table relates to plant hormones and their functions. (5)

(a) ______________	Auxin	(d) ______________	Ethylene
Sprouting of Leaves	(b) ______________	Falling ripened leaves and fruits	(e) ______________
	(c) ______________

Answer:
(a) Gibberellin
(b) & (c) Cell growth/cell elongation/fruit formation, promoting the growth of terminal bud. (any two)
(d) Abscisic Acid
(e) Ripening of leaves and fruits/Excess amount of ethylene causes dropping of leaves and fruits. (anyone)

Students can read Kerala SSLC Hindi Question Paper March 2023 with Answers and Kerala SSLC Hindi Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Hindi Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

सामान्य निर्देश :

• पहला पंद्रह मिनिट कूल ऑफ़ टाइम है।
• यह समय प्रश्न पढ़ने और उत्तर के आयोजन के लिए है ।
• सूचनाओं के अनुसार ही प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें ।
• उत्तर लिखते समय अंक और समय पर ध्यान रखें।

सूचना: ‘ठाकुर का कुआँ’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 1 और 2 के उत्तर लिखें।

जोखू ने आश्चर्य से उसकी ओर देखा – “पानी कहाँ से लाएगी?” “ठाकुर और साहू के दो कुएँ तो हैं। क्या एक लोटा पानी न भरने देंगे?” “हाथ-पाँच तुड़वा आएगी और कुछ न होगा। बैठ चुपके से । ब्राह्मण-देवता आशीरवाद देगे, ठाकुर लाठी मारेंगे, साहुजी एक के पाँच लेंगे। गरीबों का दर्द कौन समझता है।

प्रश्न 1.
“ठाकुर और साहू के दो कुएँ तो हैं। क्या एक लोटा पानी न भरने देंगे?” – यह किसका कथन है ? (1)
उत्तर:
गंगी ने।

प्रश्न 2.
कहानी के इस प्रसंग के आधार पर पटकथा का एक दृश्य लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:
सीन सं 3
स्थान : जोखू का कमरा
समय : शाम को 4 बजे
पात्र आयु : गंगी (45 साल) जोखू (50 साल)
वेषभूषा : गंगी – साड़ी और ब्लाऊज़ जोखू – लुंकी और बनियान ।
(जोखू बीमार है। वह लेटा हुआ है। गंगी पास खड़ी है ।)
जोखू : (गुस्से से) पानी कहाँ से लाएगी तू ?
गंगी : ( सोचती हुई ) ठाकुर या साहू के कुएँ से ।
जोखू : (आश्चर्य से ) ठाकुर के कुएँ से ?
गंगी : वे लोग एक लोटा पानी न भरने देंगे क्या?
जोखू : (गुस्से से ) हाथ-पाँव तुड़वा आएगी तू । चुपके बैठो।
गंगी : (उदास होकर) अब क्या करें ?
जोखू : ( क्रोध से ) ब्राह्मण देवता आर्शीर्वाद देंगे। ठाकुर लाठी मारेंगे, साहूजी एक के पाँच लेंगे।
गंगी : (दुखी होकर) हे भगवान …….
जोखू : (स्वगत) गरीबों का दर्द कौन समझता है ? (दृश्य समाप्त)

सूचना: ‘आई एम कलाम के बहाने’ फ़िल्मी लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें और 3 से 5 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

एक दिन रणविजय को उसके स्कूल में भाषण देने के लिए कहा जाता है । रणविजय परेशान है क्योंकि उसकी हिंदी इतनी अच्छी नहीं। कलाम यह जानता है और झट एक अच्छा-सा भाषण लिख अपने दोस्त रणविजय को दे देता है । रणविजय प्रथम पुरस्कार पाता है।

प्रश्न 3.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखें । (1)
(क) वे + के = उसके
(ख) वह + के = उसके
(ग) वह + के = उसके
(घ) ये + के = उसके
उत्तर:
(ख) वह + के = उसके

प्रश्न 4.
कलाम झट एक अच्छा-सा भाषण लिख अपने दोस्त रणविजय को दे देता है । क्यों ? (2)
उत्तर:
रणविजय की हिंदी अच्छी नहीं है। कलाम अपने मित्र को मदद करना चाहता है और वह झट एक अच्छा सा भाषण लिखकर रणविजय को देता है ।

प्रश्न 5.
एक दिन रणविदय को उसके स्कूल में भाषण देने के लिए कहा जाता है । इसपर रणविजय और कलाम के बीच बातचीत हुई। वह बातचीत कल्पना करके लिखें। (4)
अथवा
भाषण में रणविजय प्रथम पुरस्कार पाता है। इस घटना पर समाचार पत्र की रपट कल्पना करके लिखें ।
उत्तर:
कलाम : अरे यार, उदास क्यों है ?
रणविजय : क्या कहूँ यार, सर जी ने हिंदी में भाषण देने को कहा है।
कलाम : तो क्या हुआ ?
रणविजय : मेरी हिंदी उतनी अच्छी नहीं है ।
कलाम : चिंता मत करो यार ।
रणविजय : तुम मेरी मदद करोगे ?
कलाम : ज़रूर यार। मैं अभी एक भाषण लिख कर देता हूँ।
रणविजय : बहुत – बहुत शुक्रिया । कलाम : तुम मेरे सच्चे मित्र हो न ।

अथवा

रणविजय को पुरस्कार

जोधपूर : डी.ए.वी पब्लिक स्कूल में हुए हिंदी भाषण प्रतियोगिता में ढाणी के राणा का बेटा रणविजय प्रथम पुरस्कार पाया। प्रतियोगिता में कुल दस छात्र भाग लिए थे। ‘भारत देश की चुनौतियाँ’ विषय पर भाषण प्रतियोगिता हुई थी। कहा जाता है कि रणविजय के कोई मित्र ने भाषण लिखकर दिया था । वह ढाणी पर काम करने वाला है। असल में वह पढा – लिखा भी नहीं है। प्रिनसिंपल श्री राकेश चोपड़ा ने पुरस्कार वितरण किया ।

सूचनाः ‘सबसे बड़ा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें और 6 से 8 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

बहुत मुबाहिसा के बाद वह अंततः चार्ली को स्टेज पर ले गया और बचाव के कुछ शब्द कह उसे अकेला छोड़ आया । धुएँ के उड़ते हुए छल्लों के बीच चार्ली ने मशहूर गीत जैक जोन्स गाना शुरू किया।

प्रश्न 6.
‘प्रसिद्ध’ के लिए प्रयुक्त शब्द कौन-सा है ? (1)
(क) छल्ला
(ग) मशहूर
(ख) मुबाहिस
(घ) बचाव
उत्तर:
(ग) मशहूर

प्रश्न 7.
सही वाक्य चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) चार्ली गीत गाने लगा ।
(ख) चार्ली गीत गाने लगी।
(ग) चार्ली गीत गानी लगी ।
(घ) चार्ली गीत गाना लगे ।
उत्तर:
(क) चार्ली गीत गाने लगा ।

प्रश्न 8.
सही मिलान करे । (4)

उत्तर:
मैनेजर चार्ली को मंच पर लाया ।
माँ की आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में बदल गई।
चार्ली ने गीत गाना शुरु कर दिया ।
धुन के अनुसार गाना सज गया।

सूचना: ‘बीरबहूटी’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें और 9 से 11 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

गणित के माटसाब सुरेंदर जी का पीरियड खेल घंटी के बाद आता था। बच्चे उनसे काँपते थे और खेल घंटी बंद होने से दो मिनट पहले ही अपनी-अपनी जगहों पर आकर बैठ जाते थे ।

प्रश्न 9.
गणित का पीरियड कब आता था ? (1)
उत्तर:
खेल घंटी के बाद

प्रश्न 10.
बच्चे खेल घंटी बंद होने से दो मिनट पहले ही अपनी-अपनी जगहों पर आकर बैठ जाते थे। क्यों? (1)
(क) बच्चों को गणित पसंद था।
(ख) सुरेंदर जी बच्चों के प्यारे थे।
(ग) बच्चे खेलते-खेलते थक गए थे।
(घ) बच्चे सुरेंदर जी से डरते थे।
उत्तर:
(घ) बच्चे सुरेंदर जी से डरते थे।

प्रश्न 11.
वाक्य पिरमिड की पूर्ति करें । (2)
(गणित की समय पर)

उत्तर:
बच्चे गणित की कक्षा में आते हैं।
बच्चे समय पर गणित की कक्षा में आते हैं।

सूचना:’ दिशाहीन दिशा’ यात्रावृत्त का यह अंश पढ़ें 12 से 14 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें ।

‘अब लौट चलें साहब “, कुछ देर बाद उसने कहा, ‘सर्दी बढ़ रही है और मैं अपनी चादर साथ नहीं लाया ।” अविनाश ने झट से अपना कोट उतारकर उसकी तरफ़ बढ़ा दिया। कहा, “लो, तुम यह पहन लो। अभी हम लौटकर नहीं चलेंगी। तुम्हें कोई गालिब की चीज़ याद हो, तो सुनाओ।”

प्रश्न 12.
किसने कोट उतारकर मल्लाह को दिया ? (1)
उत्तर:
अविनाश ने

प्रश्न 13.
यहाँ ‘गालिब की चीज़’ से क्या तात्पर्य है ? (1)
(क) गालिब का उपन्यास
(ख) गालिब की कहानी
(ग) गालिब की गज़ल
(घ) गालिब का नाटक
उत्तर:
(ग) गालिब की गज़ल

प्रश्न 14.
भोपाल ताल की इस घटना के बारे में अविनाश डायरी लिखता है। संभावित डायरी लिखें | (4)
अथवा
भोपाल ताल के अनुभवों के बारे में मोहन राकेश अपने मित्र को पत्र लिखता है । वह पत्र कल्पना करके लिखें |
उत्तर:
दिन
दिनांक
वाह! न जाने आज कैसा दिन था! एकदम बढ़िया दिन …… यह दिन मैं कैसे भूल पाऊँ …… एक अविस्मरणीय दिन था ।

मोहन राकेश के साथ भोपाल ताल में। आधी रात का समय। बहुत ठंड था । मल्लाह अब्दुल जब्बार गज़लें सुना रहा था। बहुत सुंदर गज़लें। सर्दी बढ़ रही थी । मल्लाह अपना घर लौट जाना चाहता था । वह चादर नहीं लाया था। मैंने अपना कोट उतारकर उसको दिया । वह चुपचाप कोट पहन लिया और गालिब की एक गज़ल सुनाने लगा । सन्नाटे में उसकी आवाज़ गूंज रही थी।
बस …… आज इतना ही। बाकी कल । बहुत नींद आ रही है। सुबह उठकर राकेश को स्टेशन पर छोड़ना है ।

अथवा

स्थान
तारीख

प्रिय मित्र,
नमस्ते।

तुम कैसे हो? मैं ठीक हूँ । तुम्हें पता है मैं घूमने निकला हूँ। मुंबई की ओर जा रहा था। लेकिन मुझे भोपाल उतरना पड़ा। मेरे मित्र अविनाश के साथ आधी रात को भोपाल ताल में घूमने गया । एक गरीब मल्लाह अब्दुल जब्बार की नाम में घूम रहे थे। वह बड़ी चाव से गालिब की गज़लें सुना रहा था। उनकी आवाज़ बहुत अच्छी थी। सर्दी बढ़ रही थी। वह अपना घर वापस लौटना चाहता था । लेकिन अविनाश अपना कोट उतारकर जब्बार को दिया। वह फिर से गाने लगा । गालिब की गज़ल । हम पूरी रात तालाब बीते। बहुत मज़ा आया ।
बस . . . . अब इतना ही । बाकी अगले पत्र में । घर में सबको मेरा प्यार भरा नमस्कार । छोटू को प्यार । मैं अगले महीने वापस आऊँगा।

तुम्हारा मित्र,
मोहन राकेश
(हस्ताक्षर)

सेवा में,
नाम,
पता

सूचना: ‘बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं’ कविता की ये पंक्तियाँ पढ़ें, प्रश्न 15 और 16 के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें ।

क्या सारे मैदान, सारे बगीचे और घरों के आँगन
खत्म हो गए हैं एकाएक
तो फिर बचा ही क्या है इस दुनिया में ?
कितना भयानक होता अगर ऐसा होता
भयानक है लेकिन इससे भी ज़्यादा यह
कि है सारी चीज़ें हस्बमामूल

प्रश्न 15.
विशेषण शब्द चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) बगीचा
(ग) लेकिन
(ख) दुनिया
(घ) सारे
उत्तर:
(घ) सारे

प्रश्न 16.
कवि और कविता का परिचय देते हुए कवितांश का आशय लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:
हिंदी साहित्य के आधुनिक काल के कवि हैं- राजेश जोशी। उनकी कविताओं में गहरी सामाजिक सच्चाई हमें देखने को मिलता है। उनकी एक सुंदर कविता है ‘बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं’। यह एक समकालीन कविता है ।

कवि कहते हैं कि बच्चों को बचपन में पढ़ने और खेलने का अवसर देना चाहिए। वे पूछते हैं बच्चों के खेलने का मैदान, बगीचे, और घरों के आँगन ये सब खतम हो गए है? ऐसी बातें बड़ी भयानक और दुखदायक है। दुनिया भर में बालश्रम को रोका गया है। लेकिन यह समस्या आज भी मामूल के अनुसार चल रही है। यह एक स्वस्थ समाज के लिए हानिकारक है ।

यह एक प्रतीकात्मक कविता है। कोहरा, कोले पहाड़ आदि प्रतीक हैं। बालश्रम दुनिया भर की गंभीर समस्या है। इसे रोकना ज़रूरी है। यह कविता बिलकुल प्रासंगिक है।

सूचना: ‘गुठली तो पराई है’ कहानी का अंश पढ़ें और 17 से 19 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

तभी भैया आ गया, “गुठलिया अपने नानू को खाना नहीं दिया?” “देखो भाई साहब, आप कुल दीपक हो, यह घर, यह बगीचा और यह नानू सब आपका ही है, तो बेहतर होगा आप ही इन सबकी देखभाल करें …………. और वैसे भी मैं तो पराई अमानत हूँ ।”

प्रश्न 17.
सही वाक्य चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) गुठली भैया से कहता है।
(ख) गुठली भैया से कहती है।
(ग) गुठली भैया से कहती हूँ ।
(घ) गुठली भैया से कहते हैं।
उत्तर:
(ख) गुठली भैया से कहती है ।

प्रश्न 18.
बेहतर होगा आप ही इन सबकी देखभाल करें’ – गुठली क्यों ऐसा कहती है ? (2)
उत्तर:
गुठली के घर के लोग लड़कियों को पराड घर की अमानत समझते हैं। उनके अनुसार ससुराल ही लड़कियों का असली घर है। गुठली कहती हैं कि यदि मैं पराए घर की है तो यहाँ का सारा काम उसके भाई ही कर सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 19.
‘लड़का – लड़की का समान अधिकार है’ यह संदेश देनेवाला पोस्टर तैयार करें। (4)
अथवा
‘असमानता समाज का अभिशाप’ विषय पर एक टिप्पणी तैयार करें ।
♦ स्त्री-पुरुष की असमानता
♦ समानता की आवश्यकता
♦ समानता से लाभ
♦ समानता विकास का आधार
उत्तर:

अथवा

असमानता समाज का अभिशाप

समाज में कई प्रकार की असमानताएँ होती हैं। स्त्री- पुरुष की असमानता धार्मिक असमानता, आर्थिक अमसानता आदि। इसमें हमारे समाज में स्त्री – पुरुष की असमानता देखने को मिलता है । हमारा समाज पुरुष केंद्रित है । लोग लड़कियों को पराए घर की संपत्ति मानते हैं। इसी वजह से लड़कियों को कई बातों से वंचित रहना पड़ता है।

एक स्वस्थ समाज के लिए समानता की आवश्यकता होती है। पुरुष और स्त्री को समाज में समान अधिकार देना ज़रूरी है। स्त्रियों को तुच्छ समझना और पुरुष को श्रेष्ठ समझना बड़ा अन्याय है। दोनों की समानता होने से समाज का विकास होता है। पुरुष के समान स्त्रियों को भी समान अधिकार है तो दोनों का संबंध दृढ़ हो जाता है। दोनों को शिक्षा का अधिकार है। अपने मत प्रकट करने का अधिकार है । स्वस्थ समाज के विकास के लिए स्त्री- पुरुष की समानता होना ज़रूरी है। नहीं तो समाज में एक प्रकार का असंतुलन पैदा हो जाता है । कह जाता है कि स्त्री और एक सिक्के के दो पहलू के समान है।

Students can read Kerala SSLC Hindi Question Paper March 2024 with Answers and Kerala SSLC Hindi Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Hindi Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

सामान्य निर्देश :

• पहला पंद्रह मिर्मिट कूल ऑफ़ टाइम है। इस समय प्रश्नों का वाचन करें और उत्तर लिखने की तैयारी करें।
• वैकल्पिक प्रश्नों में से किसी एक का उत्तर लिखें ।

सूचना : ‘बीरबहूटी’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 1 और 2 के उत्तर लिखें।

“मुझे अगले साल अजमेर भेज देंगे। वहाँ एक हॉस्टल है, घर से दूर वहाँ अकेला रहूँगा।” “क्यों साहिल? “पता नहीं क्यों” “तो यानी कि अब तुम फुलेरा में ही नहीं रहोगे?” “नहीं । तुम्हारा रिपोर्ट कार्ड दिखाना ।” साहिल बेला का रिपोर्ट कार्ड देख रहा था और बेला साहिल का |

प्रश्न 1.
साहिल पाँचवीं के बाद कहाँ पढ़ने जाएगा? (1)
(क) अजमेर में
(ख) फुलेरा में
(ग) जयपुर
(घ) दिल्ली में
उत्तर:
(क) अजमेर में

प्रश्न 2.
कहानी के इस प्रसंग के आधार पर पटकथा का एक दृश्य लिखें।. (4)
उत्तर:
पटकथा (पाँचवी कक्षा के रिज़ल्ट आने पर )
स्थान : स्कूल का मैदान
समय : सुबह 11 बजे
पात्र : बेला और साहिल
आयू : ग्यारह साल
वेषभूषा : बैला – फ्रौक पहनी है। साहिल – कुर्ता और पतलून पहना है।
दृश्य का : दोनों पाँचवीं कक्षा के रिज़ल्ट जानने विवरण के बाद दुख के साथ मैदान के एक पेड़ के नीचे खड़े हैं ।

संवाद
बेला : अरे साहिल, छठी कक्षा में तुम कहाँ पढ़ोगे ?
साहिल : अजमेर में और तुम कहाँ पढ़ोगी बेला?
बेला : राजकीय कन्या पाठशाला में । अब तुम वहाँ नहीं रहोगे?
साहिल : नहीं। तुम्हारा रिपोर्ट कार्ड ज़रा दिखाना ।
बेला : ठीक है, तुम्हारा भी दिखाना । (दोनों रिपोर्ट कार्ड एक दूसरे को दिखाते हैं ।)
साहिल : अरे तू रोती क्यों ?
बेला : (हँसते हुए) कुछ नहीं । साहिल अरे तू भी रोता है न ?
साहिल : नहीं तो? अरे वर्ष की संभावना है । हम घर चलें ।
बेला : ठीक है, फिर मिलेंगे ।
साहिल : ठीक है बेला, बाई ।
(दोनों अलग-अलग दिशाओं से अपने घर चले जाते हैं।)

सूचना: ‘सबसे बड़ा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें और 3 से 5 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

कई लोगों ने माँ से हाथ मिलाकर उसके छोटे बच्चे की तारीफ़ की । चार्ली स्टेज पर पहली बार आया और माँ आखिरी बार …….. दुनिया के
सबसे बड़े शो मैन का यह पहला शो था। उसने जन्म ले लिया था ।

प्रश्न 3.
सही प्रस्ताव चुनकर लिखें । (1)
(क) पिंता की आवाज़ फट जाने से चार्ली को स्टेज पर गाना पड़ा।
(ख) माँ की आवाज़ फट जाने से चार्ली को स्टेज पर गाना पड़ा।
(ग) दोस्तों के कहने से चार्ली को स्टेज पर गाना पड़ा।
(घ) आर्केस्ट्रावालों के कहने से चार्ली को स्टेज पर गाना पड़ा।
उत्तर:
(ख) माँ की आवाज़ फट जाने से चार्ली को स्टेज पर गाना पड़ा।

प्रश्न 4.
लोगों ने छोटे बच्चे चार्ली की प्रशंसा क्यों की? (2)
उत्तर:
चार्ली ने अपनी निष्कलंकता से गीत गाकर, बातचीत करके, नृत्य करके और गायकों की नकल उतारकर सबको खुश किया। उसकी प्रस्तुति और मासूमियत से प्रभावित होकर लोगों ने उसकी प्रशंसा की। लोगों ने उसमें एक महान कलाकार को देख लिया था ।

प्रश्न 5.
चार्ली के पहले शो का जिक्र करते हुए रपट तैयार करें। (4)
अथवा
चार्ली स्टेज पर पहली बार आया और माँ आखिरी बार….। उस दिन माँ डायरी लिखती है। यह डायरी कल्पना करके लिखें ।
उत्तर:
रपट (चार्ली का पहला शो )
माँ की आवाज़ फटी: बेटा बना शो मैन
स्थान:- लंदन के प्रसिद्ध थिएटर में पहली बार कदम रखा पाँच साल का बच्चा चार्ली ने स्टेज पर चमत्कार कर दिया । गाते समय अपनी माँ की आवाज़ को फटसे देखकर मैनेजर के साथ वह स्टेज पर लाया गया। चार्ली मासूमियत से गा रहा था कि लोगो खुश होकर स्टेज पर पैसा फेंकने लगे। तब उसने गाना बंद करके पैसे बटोरने के बाद आगे गाने की घोषणा की। इस बात ने हॉल को हँसीगर में बदल दिया । इसके बाद उसने दर्शकों से बातचीत की, नृत्य किया और अपनी माँ सहित संई गायकों की नकल उतारी। दर्शकों ने खुशी से तालियाँ बजाकर चार्ली का अभिनंदन किया। लोगों ने उसमें एक महान कलाकार को देख लिया था ।

अथवा

माँ की डायरी (अपनी हालत और बेटे का पहला शो )
तारीखः
दिनः
समयः
आज का दिन मैं केसे भूलूँ ? दुख और खुशी भरा दिन । मेरा लाड़ला चार्ली आज शो मैन बन गया । उसका पहला शो हमेशा बादों में रहेगा। लगता हैं मैं आगे गा नहीं पाऊँगी । गले में खराबी है । गाते समय मेरी आवाज़ को फटते देखकर मैनेजर के साथ वह स्टेज पर लाया गया। मैं बहुत डर गयी थी। लेकिन बेटा चार्ली ने अपनी निष्कलंकता से गीत गाकर, बातचीत करके, नृत्य करके और गायकों की नकल उतारकर सबको खुश कराने लगा। खूब पैसा भी मिला। शैतान, मेरी फटी आवाज़ का भी नकल उतार दी। हे भगवान । आगे भी मेरा लाड़ला शो में कमाल करे।

सूचना: ‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता की ये पंक्तियाँ पढ़ें, प्रश्न 6 और 7 के उत्तर लिखें।

कई दिनों तक चूल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास कई दिनों
तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त कई दिनों
तक चूहों की हालत रही शिकस्त ।

प्रश्न 6.
चूल्हा और चक्की के पास कौन सोई ? (1)
उत्तर:
कानी कुतिया

प्रश्न 7.
कवि और कविता का परिचय देते हुए कवितांश का आशय लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:
कवितांश की आशय
प्रस्तुत पंक्तियाँ हिन्दी के प्रमुख कवि नागार्जुन की छोटी कविता अकाल और उसके बाद से ली गई हैं। इसमें कवि ने उनके बिंबों और प्रतीकों से सजाकर अकाल की भीषणता का वर्णन किया है।

अकाल के कारण कई दिनों तक घर में दाना नहीं था। खाना पकाने कोई न जलाने से चूल्हा रो रहा था। और दाना पीसने कोई उपयोग न करने से चक्की उदास पड़ी थी। चूल्हा और चक्की के पास घर की कानी कुतिया अनाज आने की प्रतीक्षा में सो रही थी । भूख से तडपती छिपकलियाँ भी कीड़ों की तलाश में घर की दीवारों पर घूम रही थी।

अकाल में चूहों की हालत भी अनाज के बिना बहुत बुरी थी। कवितांश के ज़रिए कवि यह बताते है कि घर में ग्रस्त अकाल का परिणाम वहाँ के मुष्यों पर ही नहीं सारे जीव-जंतुओं पर भी पड़ रहा है। कवितांश की हर पंक्तियों में कई दिनों तक का प्रयोग अकाल की तीक्षणता को दिखाने के लिए बार बार किया है। कविता में कवि ने अकाल की भीषणता को चित्रित करने में सफल हुए हैं। यह कवितांश बिलकुल प्रासंगिक और अच्छी है । कवितांश में सरल भाषा का प्रयोग किया है।

सूचना: ‘आई एम कलाम के बहाने’ फिल्मी लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें और 8 से 10 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

ढाणी पर काम करने वाले और बच्चों की तरह उसे भी सब छोटू कहकर बुलाते हैं। उसकी माँ जैसलमेर के किसी सुदूर देहात से आकर उसे भाटी सा की चाय की थड़ी पर काम करने के लिए छोड़ जाती है।

प्रश्न 8.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) वे + की = उसकी
(ख) वह + की = उसकी
(ग) यह + की = उसकी
(घ) ये + की = उसकी
उत्तर:
(ख) वह + की = उसकी

प्रश्न 9.
‘गाँव’ के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त शब्द कौन-सा है ? (1)
(क) काम
(ख) छोटू
(ग) देहात
(घ) थड़ी
उत्तर:
(ग) देहात

प्रश्न 10.
सही मिलान करें । (4)

छोटू ने स्वयं ही	कलाम की कलाकारी की प्रशंसा की
रणविजय ने भाषण में	कलाम की दिल्ली ले जाने का वादा किया।
दुकानवाले भाटी सा ने	अपना नाम कलाम रख लिया।
विदेशी टूरिस्ट लूसी भैडम ने	प्रथम पुरस्कार पाया।

उत्तर:

छोटू ने स्वयं ही	अपना नाम कलाम रख लिया।
रणविजय ने भाषण में	प्रथम पुरस्कार पाया।
दुकानवाले भाटी सा ने	कलाम की कलाकारी की प्रशंसा की
विदेशी टूरिस्ट लूसी भैडम ने	कलाम की दिल्ली ले जाने का वादा किया।

सूचना: ‘गुठली तो पराई है’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें और 11 से 13 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

माँ को बुआ का साथ देता देख गुठली गुस्से के साथ उदास भी हो गई और सीढियों पर बैठ गई। सोचती रही क्या यह घर उसका नहीं ? क्या उसके आम की कैरियाँ वह कभी नहीं खा पाएगी ?

प्रश्न 11.
माँ को बुआ का साथ देता देखकर कौन दुखी हो गई ? (1)
(क) दीदी
(ख) छोटी बहन
(ग) गुठली
(घ) ताईजी
उत्तर:
(ग) गुठली

प्रश्न 12.
सही वाक्य चुनकर लिखें। (2)
(क) गुठली सोचने लगा।
(ख) गुठली सोचनी लगी।
(ग) गुठली सोचनी लगा।
(घ) गुछली सोचने लगी।
उत्तर:
(ख) गुठली सोचनी लगी।

प्रश्न 13.
अक्तूबर 11 ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय बालिका दिवस’ हैं। इस अवसर पर ‘हर लड़की आगे बढ़े’ का संदेश देते हुए पोस्टर तैयार करें।
अथवा
अपने घर में पराई का अनुभव होने से गुठली परेशान है। घर के अनुभव बताते हुए वह सहेली के नाम पत्र लिखती है। गुठली का पत्र लिखें ।
उत्तर:

अथवा
गुठली का पत्र (बुआ की नसीहतें )

स्थानः
तारीख:

प्रिय सहेली,
तुम कैसी हो ? कुशल है न? मैं यहाँ ठीक हूँ । एक खास बात बताने के लिए मैं यह पत्र भेज रहा हूँ । अपने घर के लोग मुझे पराई घर की चीज़ मानते हैं बुआ, माँ सब यही बीज-बीच में कहती रहती है।

ससुराल ही लड़कियों का अपना घर है । घर में स्वतंत्रता से कुछ करने, चलने या बातचीत करने का भी हक लड़कियों को नहीं। क्या यह सही है ? क्या हमें अपने भाइयों की तरह अपने घर में रहने का अधिकार नहीं ? हम लड़कियों से घर में इतना भेदभाव क्यों? मेरी समझ में नहीं आती। क्या लड़की होना कोई बुरी बात है ? क्या लड़कियों के लिए हमारे संविधान में अलग नियम हैं? मैं इससे बहुत दुखी हूँ। आगे मैं ऐसी व्यवहार सह नहीं सकती। लड़की- लड़के से कभी कम नहीं है। इस रूढि के विरुद्ध मैं ज़रूर आवाज़ उठाऊँगी। क्या तुम भी मेरे साथ होगी ?

वहाँ तुम्हारी पढ़ाई कैसे हो रही हैं ? परिवारवालों से मेरा प्रणाम कहना। जवाब पत्र की प्रतीक्षा में ।
सेवा में तुम्हारी सहेली,
नाम (हस्ताक्षर )
पता। नाम

सूचनाः’ बसंत मेरे गाँव का’ लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें, और 14 से 16 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

उत्तराखंड के हिमालयी अंचल में फूदेई से बड़ा बच्चों का कोई दूसरा त्यौहार नहीं है। उधर बच्चे फूलदेई के जश्न में शामिल होते हैं और इधर बड़े ढोल-ढमाऊ की थाप पर चैती गीत गाते हैं ।

प्रश्न 14.
उत्तराखंड के हिमालयी अंचल में बच्चों का सबसे बड़ा त्यौहार कौन-सा है ? (1)
उत्तर:
फूलदेई

प्रश्न 15.
विशेषण शब्द चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) ढोल
(ख) जश्न
(ग) दूसरा
(घ) बच्चे
उत्तर:
(ग) दूसरा

प्रश्न 16.
वाक्य पिरामिड की पूत्रि करें । (2)
(बसंत में, चैती)

उत्तर:

सूचना:’ ठाकुर का कुआँ’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें और 17 और 19 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

जोखू ने लोटा मुँह से लगाया तो पानी में सक्त बदबू आई। गंगी से बोला- यह कैसा पानी है ? मारे बास के पिया नहीं जाता। गला सूखा जा रहा है और तू सड़ा पानी पिलाए देती है ।

प्रश्न 17.
‘गली सूखा जा रहा है’ का मतलब क्या है ? (1)
(क) बहुत भूख लग रही है।
(ख) बहुत प्यास लगी रही है।
(ग) बहुत पीड़ा लग रही है।
(घ) बहुत सर्दी लग रही है।
उत्तर:
(ख) बहुत प्यास लगी रही है।

प्रश्न 18.
पानी के सड़ने के क्या-क्या कारण हो सकते हैं? (2)
उत्तर:
कुए में किसी जानवर की लाश पड़कर जल सड़ गया होगा। कोई पेड़-पौधे के पत्ते गिरकर पानी सड़ गया होगा।

प्रश्न 19.
कहानी के इस प्रसंग में जोखू और गंगी के बीच की संभावित बातचीत लिखें । ? (4)
अथवा
संकेतों की सहायता से गंगी की चरित्र पर टिप्पणी लिखें।
♦ आत्मविश्वासी
♦ स्नेहशील
♦ जाति-प्रथा का विरोध करनेवाली
♦ साहसी
उत्तर:
बातचीत – जोखू और गंगी के बीच
जोखू : बहुत प्यास लग रही है। थोडा पानी लाओ ।
गंगी : अभी लाती हूँ।
जोखू : इस पानी में सख्त बदबू है न ।
गंगी : बदबू …. । (संदेह से) वह कैसे…… ज़रा देखूँ…….
जोखू : (थोडी देर बाद) प्यास सह नहीं पाता। ला, थोडा पानी, नाक बंद करके पी लूँ।
गंगी : नहीं बीमारी बढ़ जाएगी । मैं कहीं से दूसरा पानी लाकर देती हूँ।
जोखू : दूसरा पानी ! कहाँ से लाएगी?
गंगी : ठाकुर और साहू के दो कुएँ तो हैं, क्या एक लोटा पानी न भरने देंगे?
जोखू : हाथ पाँव तुडवा आएगी। बैठ चुपके से ।
गंगी : आप चिंता मत कीजिए। मुझे पता है क्या करना है।
जोखू : ठीक है। जल्दी वापस आना।

अथवा

टिप्पणी
प्रेमचंद की कहानी ‘ठाकुर का कुआँ’ का मुख्य पात्र’ गंगी। गंगी एक गरीब और अनपढ़ औरत है। लोग उसे अछूत मानते है। वह जोखू की पत्नी हैं। वह अपने बहुत प्यार करती पति के स्वास्थ्य की चिंता रखनेवाली गृहिणी है। असल में गंगी कई सामाजिक असमानताओं की शिकार हैं। उसका विद्रोही दिल पुरानी रीति रिवाजों और मज़बूरियों पर चोट करता था। लेकिन मन का रोष मन में ही सीमित रहता है। वह बहुत साहसी औरत है । वह हिम्मद के साथ रात को बीमार पति के लिए साफ पानी लाने ठाकुर के कुएँ पर जाती हैं। वह एक समझदार औरत है। उसे ठाकुर के छल-कपट मालूम है। इस प्रकार इसके चरित्र द्वारा प्रेमचंद ने सामाजिक कुरीतियों का विरोध करनेवाली एक सशक्त स्त्री पात्र का सृजन किया हैं।

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Board Model Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Answer any 5 from Qn. No. 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Find the word pair relation and fill in the blank. (1)
Treatment of Heart: Cardiology
Cancer Treatment: ______________
Answer:
Cancer Treatment: Oncology

Question 2.
Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements. (1)
(a) The eye of an insect consists of a cluster of photoreceptors called eve spot.
(b) Chemoreceptors seen in the tongue help to detect taste.
(c) When the circular muscles contract in dim light, the size of the pupil increases.
(d) Cone cells contain a pigment called Photopsin.
Answer:
(a) Ommatidia
(c) Radial Muscles

Question 3.
The technology helps to identify the location of a gene in the DNA responsible for a particular trait is: (1)
(a) Gene therapy
(b) Gene mapping
(c) Genome
(d) Human Genome Project
Answer:
(b) Gene Mapping

Question 4.
Which process is indicated in the figure? (1)

Answer:
Crossing Over

Question 5.
Find out the odd one. What is the common feature of others? (1)
Cortisol, Glucagon, Aldosterone, Adrenaline.
Answer:
Glucagon. Others are hormones of the adrenal gland.

Question 6.
Which theory of evolution is mentioned in the given statement? (1)
“New species are formed by the inheritance of the sudden changes that occur in the genes”.
Answer:
Mutation Theory

Answer any 6 from Qn. No. 7 to 13. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Analyze the illustration indicating the transmission of impulses through a neutron and answer the questions.

(a) When stimulated, what change occurs in the charges of ions inside and outside the plasma membrane? (1)
(b) Does this charge cause the transmission of impulses? Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) When stimulated, in that particular part, the outer surface of the plasma membrane becomes negatively charged while the inner surface becomes positively charged.
(b) Yes, the momentary charge difference stimulates its adjacent parts and similar changes occur there resulting in a continuous flow of the impulse.

Question 8.
A type of lymphocyte destroys pathogens by producing antibodies.
(a) Which lymphocyte is mentioned here? (1)
(b) Write any two methods by which antibodies produced by them destroy pathogens. (1)
Answer:
(a) B-lymphocytes.
(b) Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane.
Neutralize the toxin of the antigens.
Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.

Question 9.
Choose suitable ones from those given below and arrange them in the table. (2)
(a) Under the control of an autonomous nervous system.
(b) A thorn pricked the leg suddenly and the leg was withdrawn.
(c) Light suddenly flashed and eyes were blinked.
(d) Under the control of the cerebrum.
(e) Under the control of the spinal cord.

Spinal Reflex	Cerebral Reflex

Answer:

Spinal Reflex	Cerebral Reflex
(b) A thorn pricked the leg suddenly and leg was withdrawn.	(c) Light suddenly flashed and eyes were blinked.
(e) Under the control of the spinal cord.	(d) Under the control of the cerebrum.

Question 10.
Complete the missing portions is the poster given below. (2)

Answer:
(a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
(b) Fever, throat pain, inflammation in lymph glands of the throat. The mucus membrane becomes an ash-colored thick coating in the throat. (any two)

Question 11.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.

(a) Fill in (i) and (ii). (1)
(b) What are the characters of the plant in the F1? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) ttrr
(ii)

(b) Tall Plant, Round Seed.

Question 12.
Identify the disease from the hints given below and answer the questions.

• Excess blood is lost even from minor wounds.
• As it is a genetic disease, a complete cure is not possible.

(a) How does the defect of the gene cause this disease? (1)
(b) How is temporary relief brought in, in these patients? (1)
Answer:
(a) Haemophilia.
(b) Temporary relief is brought in by identifying and injecting the deficient protein helps in blood clotting.

Question 13.
Read the statement and give a reason. (2)
The structure of forelimbs in lizards, bats, whales etc. differ in their external appearance even if they are similar in their internal structure. (2)
Answer:
Differences in their external appearances are their adaptations to live in their habitats. All these organisms were evolved from a common ancestor.

Answer any 5 from Qn. No. 14 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Analyze the table given below and rearrange columns B and C by column A. (3)

A	B	C
Oval Window	Connects the middle ear and the pharynx.	Vibrates in resonance with sound waves.
Eustachian Tube	The membrane is attached to the stapes.	Carries sound waves to the auditory canal.
Tympanum	The part where small hairs and wax are present.	Balances the pressure on either side of the tympanum.
	A thin circular membrane that separates the middle ear from the external ear.	Spreads the vibration of ear ossicles to the inner ear.

Answer:

A	B	C
Oval Window	The membrane is attached to the stapes.	Spreads the vibration of ear ossicles to the inner ear.
Eustachian Tube	Connects the middle ear and pharynx.	Balance the pressure on either side of the tympanum.
Tympanum	A thin circular membrane that separates the middle ear from the external ear.	Vibrates in resonance with sound waves.

Question 15.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the part indicated as X? Which is the fluid present in this part? (1)
(b) Write the name of the parts Y and Z. (1)
(c) Is the same type of impulses pass through Y and Z. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) X = Central canal, Cerebrospinal fluid.
(b) Y = Dorsal root, Z = Ventral root.
(c) No, the Y (dorsal root) carries sensory impulses and the Z (ventral root) carries motor impulses.

Question 16.
Information regarding plant hormones is given in the box. Choose the appropriate ones and complete the illustration. (3)

Answer:
(i) Ethylene
(ii) Auxine
(iii) Gibberellin
(iv) Break down of stored food to facilitate germination.
(v) Abscicic acid.
(vi) Cell differentiation.

Question 17.
Observe the illustration related to protein synthesis and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the parts indicated as X and Y. (1)
(b) What is the role of X in this process? (1)
(c) What are the processes occur in part indicated as Y? (1)
Answer:
(a) X = mRNA, Y = Ribosome.
(b) The X, (mRNA) carries information for protein synthesis from DNA to the ribosomes.
(c) Protein Synthesis.

Question 18.
Analyze the information given in the box and answer the questions.

Fatty Liver, Malaria, Stroke, Sickle Cell Anaemia, Hepatitis

(a) Which are the lifestyle diseases? (1)
(b) Write any four healthy habits that should be adopted to prevent lifestyle diseases. (2)
Answer:
(a) Fatty liver, Stroke
(b) Avoid the use of food containing high fat & salt.
Do regular exercise.
Take steps to minimize mental stress.
Avoid bad habits like smoking, consumption of alcohol, drug abuse, etc.

Question 19.
Analyze the illustration regarding the test samples in DNA fingerprinting and answer the questions.

(a) What conclusion can be drawn from the sample examination? (1)
(b) What is the basis of the technology of DNA fingerprinting? (1)
(c) Write two other uses of this technology. (1)
Answer:
(a) The arrangement of nucleotides of suspect 2 is similar to the DNA sample collected from the scene of the crime. Suspect 2 is the real culprit.
(b) The arrangement of nucleotides in the DNA of each person differs. This finding led to DNA testing.
(c) To identify real parents in the case of parental dispute. To find out the hereditary characteristics.

Question 20.
The stages of chemical evolution are given below. Arrange them in the sequential order. (3)
(a) Formation of complex organic molecules.
(b) Formation of the atmosphere of primitive earth.
(c) Formation of a simple organic molecule.
(d) Formation of oceans.
(e) Primitive cell.
(f) Nucleic acids, lipid layer.
Answer:
(b) Formation of the atmosphere of primitive earth.
(d) Formation of oceans.
(c) Formation of a simple organic molecule.
(a) Formation of complex organic molecules.
(f) Nucleic acids, lipid layer.
(e) Primitive cell.

Answer any 2 from Qn. no. 21 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Identify the defense mechanism mentioned above. (1)
(b) Which are the white blood cells participate in this process? (1)
(c) How pathogens are destroyed by this process? (2)
Answer:
(a) Phagocytosis.
(b) Monocytes, Neutrophils.
(c) The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in the lysosome.

Question 22.
Name the hormones given below, analyze them, and answer the questions.

Oxytocin, Somatotropin, Inhibitory Hormones, Vasopressin, Prolactin, Releasing Hormones, Melatonin

(a) Which are the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland? (1)
(b) Name any one hormone that is stored in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and write its function. (1)
(c) Which are the hormones secreted by the hypothalamus that control the pituitary gland? (1)
(d) How do these hormones regulate the function of the pituitary gland? (1)
Answer:
(a) Somatotropin, Prolactin.
(b) Oxytocin – facilitates childbirth by stimulating the contraction of smooth muscles in the uterine wall and also facilitates lactation.
(b) Vasopressin, helps in the reabsorption of water in the kidney. (any 1)
(c) Releasing hormone, Inhibitory hormone.
(d) Releasing hormone stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland and secretes tropic hormones. Inhibitory hormone inhibits the production of tropic hormones.

Question 23.
Redraw the diagram and answer the questions.

For redrawing. (1)
(a) Identify and label the parts.
(i) Transmits impulses to the visual center in the brain. (1)
(ii) The point of maximum visual clarity. (1)
(b) How do the fluids labelled as X, and Y differ in their functions? (1)
Answer:

(b) X-Aqueous humor supplies nutrients and oxygen to the cornea and lens.
Y-Vitreous humor helps to maintain the shape of the eyeball.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Board Model Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Answer any 5 from questions 1-6. One score each. (5 × 1 = 1)

Question 1.
Identify the relationship in A and fill in B. (1)
(A) Dormancy of embryo: Abscisic acid
(B) Fruit formation: _________________
Answer:
(B) Fruit formation: Auxin

Question 2.
Which of the given statements is related to the sympathetic system? (1)

• Part of the autonomous nervous system.
• Part of the central nervous system.
• Production of saliva increases.
• Glycogen is converted to glucose.

Answer:

• Part of the autonomous nervous system.
• Glycogen is converted to glucose.

Question 3.
The hybridization of two contrasting traits of the character seed colour is illustrated below. Which will be the recessive trait of the F1 generation? (1)

Answer:
Green Seed Colour

Question 4.
What evidence supports the hypothesis given below? (1)
“Life originated in some other planet in the universe and accidentally reached the Earth.”
Answer:
The organic substances identified in the meteors that fell on Earth.

Question 5.
Choose the correct combination from the following: (1)
(i) Planaria: Eye spot: Taste
(ii) Shark: Jacobson’s organ: Smell
(iii) Snake: Lateral line: Body Balance
(iv) Housefly: Ommatidia: Light
(a) (i), (ii) correct.
(b) (ii) correct.
(c) (ii), (iii) correct.
(d) (iv) correct.
Answer:
(d) (iv) correct.

Question 6.
Correct the mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements.
(a) The complete genetic material present in an organism is called its genome.
(b) Gene mapping helps to identify the location of a particular gene in the DNA.
(c) The technology of testing the arrangement of nucleotides is gene therapy.
(d) Interferons are the proteins used for the treatment of viral diseases.
Answer:
(c) DNA Profiling (DNA Fingerprinting/DNA testing)

Answer any 6 from the questions 7-13. 2 scores each. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.
Organisms with variations

(a) Which theory of evolution is indicated here? (1)
(b) What is the significance of variations in the origin of new species according to this theory? (1)
Answer:
(a) Theory of Natural Selection (Darwin’s theory of evolution/Darwinism)
(b) Those with favorable variations survive in the struggle for existence. Variations that are inherited through generations and repeated differently, help to form species different from their ancestors.

Question 8.
Read the following statement and answer the question. (2)
‘The middle ear is separated from the external ear by the tympanum, air cannot pass through it’.
So how is the air pressure on either side of the tympanum regulated?
Answer:
The Eustachian tube helps to maintain a balance of air pressure on either side of the tympanum.

Question 9.
Observe the figures X and Y and answer the questions.

(a) Which neuron is present in abundance in the grey matter? What features did you consider for the selection? (1)
(b) In which neuron is the speed of impulse high? Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) Y, non-myelinated nerve cells are present in abundance is called grey matter.
(b) X, Myelinated axons transmit impulses much faster than other neurons.

Question 10.
Analyze the given condition and answer the questions:
‘Red blood cells bend like sickle’.
(a) Identify the disease. (1)
(b) In this condition, other blood cells do not undergo the same structural change as red blood cells. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Because there is no hemoglobin in other blood cells. The defect in genes can cause deformities in the sequencing of amino acids, which are the building blocks of hemoglobin in Red blood cells.

Question 11.
Observe the illustration related to the sense of vision and answer the questions.

(a) Why is this type of image formed in the retina? (1)
(b) Even though such an image is formed, how can we see the object in its true form? (1)
Answer:
(a) Because the eye lens is a convex lens (Change in the curvature of the cornea and lens).
(b) The visual area of the brain (cerebrum) forms a correct image of the object. Then we can see the object in its true form.

Question 12.
Analyze the given illustration of the diseases and answer the questions.

(a) Complete ‘i’.
(b) Complete ‘ii’ and ‘iii’ choosing the appropriate one from the given diseases. (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Viral Diseases
(b) (ii) Mosaic diseases
(iii) Hepatitis

Question 13.
Observe the poster against color discrimination and answer the questions.

(a) Name the pigment mentioned in the poster. (1)
(b) What is the reason for the rise and fall in the production of this pigment? (1)
Answer:
(a) Melanin
(b) Differences in the function of alleles of genes responsible for skin colour, is responsible for the rise and fall in the production of melanin.

Answer any 5 from questions 14-20. 3 scores each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Choose any one of the evidence given below and explain how it substantiates evolution.
(a) Palaeontology
(b) Physiology and Biochemistry
Answer:
(a) Primitive fossils have simple structures.
Recently formed fossils have complex structures.
Certain fossils are connecting links between different species.
Or
(b) Enzymes control chemical reactions
Energy is stored in ATP molecules.
Genes determine hereditary traits. / Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the basic substances.
All these give evidence that there was a common ancestor for all living organisms.

Question 15.
The opinions of three students on protein synthesis are given below. Analyze it and answer the question.

Student 1	Protein synthesis begins in the cytoplasm and ends in the nucleus.
Student 2	Protein synthesis begins in the nucleus and ends in the cytoplasm.
Student 3	The entire process of protein synthesis takes place in the nucleus.

Whose opinion is correct? Explain why? (3)
Answer:
(a) Student 2
The types of protein to be produced are determined by the gene of DNA in the nucleus. DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. So, an mRNA is formed from the DNA inside the nucleus. The functional mRNA from the nucleus is then transported to the cytoplasm of the cell for protein synthesis. Ribosomes are the protein factories that are present in the cytoplasm of the cell along with the tRNA, which contributes to protein synthesis in the cytoplasm.

Question 16.
Prepare a flow chart related to the sense of taste by selecting the appropriate information given in the box. (3)

Stimulate the olfactory receptors. Substances responsible for taste dissolve in saliva. Impulses reach the cerebrum. Aromatic particles enter the nostrils. Generate impulses. Enter in the taste buds. Experience taste. Stimulate the chemoreceptors. Aromatic particles dissolve in the mucus. Impulses reach the cerebellum.

Answer:
Substances responsible for taste dissolve in the saliva → Enter in the taste bud → Stimulate the chemoreceptors → Generate impulses → Impulses reach cerebrum → Experience taste.

Question 17.
Some of the defense mechanisms in plants are given below: (3)
(a) Callose
(b) Cuticle
(c) Bark
How do each of them help in defense?
Answer:
(a) Callose prevents germs that have crossed the cell wall from entering the cell membrane.
(b) Cuticle prevent the entry of germs through leaves.
(c) Bark protects the inner cells from direct contact with pathogens.

Question 18.
Rearrange columns B and C by column A: (3)

A. Disease	B. Pathogen	C. Spreading
Filariasis	Protozoa	Through Contact
Ringworm	Virus	Through Culex Mosquito
Malaria	Fungus	Through Air
	Bacteria	Through Female Anopheles Mosquito

Answer:

A. Disease	B. Pathogen	C. Spreading
Filariasis	Filarial Worms	Through Culex Mosquito
Ringworm	Fungus	Through Contact
Malaria	Protozoa	Female Anopheles Mosquito

Question 19.
Analyse the illustration and answer the questions:

(a) Which chemical is indicated as X?
(b) Fill in (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv).
Answer:
(a) X: Pheromones
(b) (i) Civetone
(ii) Muscone
(iii) Informing the availability of food
(iv) Determining the path of travel. (Any two)

Question 20.
Analyze the steps in the production of human insulin through genetic engineering and answer the questions.

• Step 1. Cutting of insulin gene from human DNA.
• Step 2. Joining insulin gene with plasmid.
• Step 3. A plasmid with a ligated insulin gene is inserted into the bacterial cell.
• Step 4. Bacteria multiply in the culture medium.

(a) Which are the enzymes used in steps 1 and 2? (1)
(b) What is the role of plasmid in this process? (1)
(c) Whether the succeeding generations of this bacterium can produce insulin. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) Step 1: Restriction Endonuclease (Genetic Scissors)
Step 2: Ligase (Genetic Glue)
(b) A gene from one cell is transferred to another cell.
(c) Yes. The human insulin gene becomes part of the bacterial gene.
They carry the gene responsible for insulin production in their DNA.

Answer any 2 from questions 21-23. 4 Scores each. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Analyze the table and answer the questions:

Person	Blood Group	Antigens	Antibodies
X	(i) _______	B, D	(ii) _______
Y	O-ve	(iii) _______	(iv) _______

(a) Fill in (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv). (2)
(b) Can person Y receive blood from person X? Why? (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) B +ve
(ii) a
(iii) Nil
(iv) a, b
(b) No – Blood does to match B & D antigen in the donor (X) blood and the antibodies a and b in the recipient (Y) blood will react with each other. This results in the clotting of blood. So, that person Y, can not receive blood from person X.

Question 22.
Redraw the diagram. Identify and label the parts mentioned below.

Redraw the diagram.
(a) Part that controls involuntary actions. (1)
(b) Part that evokes sensations. (1)
(c) Part that receives impulses from the vestibular nerve. (1)
Answer:
(a) Medulla Oblongata
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum

Question 23.
Observe the illustration showing hormone action in cells X and Y and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the target cell of the hormone indicated. Why? (1)
(b) How do hormones change cellular activities? (1)
(c) What is the role of the hypothalamus in regulating the production of hormones? (2)
Answer:
(a) X, The specific receptors of hormone present in X cell.
(b) The hormone molecules bind with the respective receptor to form a hormone-receptor complex on the target cell. Then, the enzymes in the cells are activated within them and create changes in cellular activities.
(c) The hypothalamus secretes both releasing hormones and inhibitory hormones.
The releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus stimulate the pituitary glands to produce tropic hormones, which in turn will stimulate the different endocrine glands to produce their corresponding hormones.
The hypothalamus produces inhibitory hormones which inhibit the secretions of tropic hormone by the combined action of these two hormones, most of the endocrine glands are properly regulated.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Question Paper March 2021 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• 20 minutes is given as cool oft time.
• Use cool-off time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Attempt the questions according to the instructions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 36 will be 40.

1 score for each question from 1 to 10.

Question 1.
Complete the illustration according to the Model. (1)

Answer:
Deoxyribose Sugar

Question 2.
The blood group without antibodies is: (1)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) O
Answer:
(c) AB

Question 3.
Identify the part of the brain which helps to maintain homeostasis. (1)
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Thalamus
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(c) Hypothalamus

Question 4.
Choose the correct pair. (1)
(a) Prolactin: Production of milk
(b) Aldosterone: Promotes growth
(c) Cortisol: Salt-water balance
(d) Melatonin: Maintains blood pressure
Answer:
(a) Prolactin: Production of Milk

Question 5.
The protein produced through genetic engineering which is used against viral diseases: (1)
(a) Insulin
(b) Interferons
(c) Endorphin
(d) Somatotropin
Answer:
(b) Interferons

Question 6.
Identify the word pair relation and fill in the blank. (1)
Genetic Scissors: Restriction Endonuclease
Genetic Glue: _____________
Answer:
Genetic Glue: Ligase

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is true about the yellow spot? (1)
(a) There is no vision at this point.
(b) Photoreceptors are absent here.
(c) The optic nerve begins from this point.
(d) This is the point of maximum visual clarity.
Answer:
(d) This is the point of maximum visual clarity.

Question 8.
Which is known as youth hormone. (1)
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thymosin
(c) Aldosterone
(d) Testosterone
Answer:
(b) Thymosin

Question 9.
Identify the protozoal disease. (1)
(a) Malaria
(b) AIDS
(c) Rat fever
(d) Nipah
Answer:
(a) Malaria

Question 10.
Which organism belongs to cercopithecoidea? (1)
(a) Gorilla
(b) Gibbon
(c) Monkey
(d) Chimpanzee
Answer:
(c) Monkey

2 scores for each question from 11 to 22.

Question 11.
Skin is considered as the safety shield of the body. Why? (2)
Answer:
The outer epidermis of the skin contains a protein called keratin, which prevents germs from entering it. Sebum, produced by the sebaceous glands, makes skin oily and waterproof. Sweat, produced by the sweat glands, contains disinfectants to destroy germs. Skin also contains useful bacteria, which indirectly prevent germs.

Question 12.
Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of given statements. (2)
(a) Substances responsible for taste should dissolve in mucus to stimulate the chemoreceptors.
(b) The cochlea contains specialized sensory hair cells concerned with hearing.
(c) Colour blindness is a condition caused by a defect in the cone cells.
(d) The cluster of photoreceptors of a housefly is the eye spot.
Answer:
(a) Saliva
(d) Ommatidia

Question 13.
What is the role of mRNA and tRNA in protein synthesis? (2)
Answer:

• mRNA carries information from DNA to ribosomes.
• tRNA carries various amino acids to ribosomes.

Question 14.
Complete the following table appropriately. (2)

Symptoms	Causes	Disease
(i)	Production of dopamine in the brain gets reduced.	(iii)
Loss of memory and inability to do routine work.	(ii)	(iv)

Answer:
(i) Loss of body balance. Tremor in muscles, flow of saliva.
(ii) Continuous degeneration of neurons due to accumulating an insoluble protein.
(iii) Parkinson’s
(iv) Alzheimer’s

Question 15.
We withdraw our hands when accidentally touch a sharp object. (2)
(a) What kind of response is mentioned here?
(b) Name two types of such responses.
Answer:
(a) Reflex Action
(b) Cerebral Reflex, Spinal Reflex

Question 16.
An illustration related to chemical evolution is given below. Complete it appropriately. (2)

Answer:
(i) Nitrogen Bases, Amino Acids, Fatty Acids
(ii) Nucleotide, Protein, Lipids
(iii) Primitive Cells

Question 17.
Name the secretions that defend pathogens in the following body parts. (2)
(a) Ear
(b) Stomach
(c) Trachea
(d) Urinary tract
Answer:
(a) Ear – Ear Wax
(b) Stomach – Hydrochloric Acid
(c) Trachea – Mucus
(d) Urinary Tract – Lysozyme

Question 18.
Complete Column B of the given table using the suitable functions given in the box. (2)

A. Plant Hormones	B. Functions
(a) Gibberellin	(i) _________________
(b) Auxin	(ii) _________________
(c) Abscisic acid	(iii) _________________
(d) Abscisic acid and Ethylene	(iv) _________________

• Dropping of leaves and fruits
• Sprouting of leaves
• Fruit Formation
• Dormancy of Embryo

Answer:

A. Plant Hormones	B. Functions
(a) Gibberellin	(i) Sprouting of Leaves
(b) Auxin	(ii) Fruit Formation
(c) Abscisic Acid	(iii) Dormancy of Embryo
(d) Abscisic Acid and Ethylene	(iv) Dropping of Leaves and Fruits

Question 19.
Write any two uses of DNA fingerprinting technology. (2)
Answer:

• To find out hereditary characteristics.
• To identify real parents in the case of parental dispute.
• To identify persons found after a long period of missing due to war or natural calamities.
• To find the real culprit to prove murder, robbery, etc.

Question 20.
Complete the table including the name of endocrine glands and their hormones responsible for the balance of Calcium levels in blood. (2)

Calcium Level in Blood	Hormone	Gland
(a) Increase	(i)	(ii)
(b) Decreases	(iii)	(iv)

Answer:

Calcium Level in Blood	Hormone	Gland
(a) Increase	(i) Calcitonin	(ii) Thyroid
(b) Decreases	(iii) Parathormone	(iv) Parathyroid

Question 21.
Observe the picture and answer the questions given below.

(a) Identify the photoreceptor.
(b) Name the pigment present in this receptor.
(c) Write the function of this pigment.
(d) Name the eye defect caused due to the deficiency of this pigment.
Answer:
(a) Rod Cell
(b) Rhodopsin
(c) Vision under dim light
(d) The deficiency of Vitamin A causes Night blindness

Question 22.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Fill up (i) and (ii). (1)
(b) The chromosome of the father determines the sex of the child. Explain. (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) XX
(ii) XY
(b) The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female. The sex chromosomes of females are XX and males are XY. If the X chromosome in a male unites with the X chromosome in a female the offspring will be female (XX) and if the Y chromosome in a male unites with the X chromosome in a female, the offspring will be male (XY).

3 scores for each question from 23 to 32.

Question 23.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the illustration. (1)
(b) What do A and B indicate? (1)
(c) Name the type of ‘B’ found only in DNA molecules. (1)
Answer:
(a) Nucleotide
(b) A: Sugar Molecule
B: Nitrogen Base
(c) Thymine

Question 24.
Read the statement and answer the questions.
‘Cancer is caused by the uncontrolled division of cells’.
(a) What is the reason for the uncontrolled division of cells? (1)
(b) Write any two factors causing cancer. (1)
(c) Suggest any two measures that reduce the chance of cancer. (1)
Answer:
(a) When the cell division mechanism fails, the normal cells get transformed into cancerous cells.
(b) Environmental factors, smoking, radiation, viruses, hereditary factors, etc.
(c) Avoid bad habits like consumption of alcohol, drug abuse; smoking, eat healthy food. Do exercise regularly, and maintain a healthy lifestyle.

Question 25.
Complete the following illustration using the appropriate statements given in the box. (2)

• Maintain equilibrium of the body Cerebellum.
• Evoke sensation.
• Centre of thought, intelligence, memory, and imagination.
• Thalamus.
• Analyses impulses from various parts of the body and sends to the cerebrum.

Answer:
(i) Cerebellum.
(ii) Maintain the equilibrium of the body.
(iii) Thalamus.
(iv) Centre of thought, intelligence, memory, and imagination.
(v) Evoke sensation.
(vi) Analyses impulses from various parts of the body and sends them to the cerebrum.

Question 26.
Analyse the given table and arrange Columns B and C according to Column A. (3)

A	B	C
Acromegaly	Increased production of somatotropin during the growth phase.	Overgrowth on the neck.
Cretinism	Excessive production of somatotropin after growth phase.	Excessive growth of the body.
Gigantism	Decreased production of thyroxine during infancy.	Overgrowth of bones on the face, jaws, and fingers.
	Excessive production of thyroxine.	Physical and mental growth retardation in children.

Answer:

A	B	C
Acromegaly	Excessive production of somatotropin after growth phase.	Overgrowth of bones on the face, jaws, and fingers.
Cretinism	Decreased production of thyroxine during infancy.	Physical and mental growth retardation in children.
Gigantism	Increased production of somatotropin during the growth phase.	Excessive growth of the body.

Question 27.
Complete the flow chart related to hearing by adding missing terms. (3)

Answer:
(i) Auditory canal
(ii) Eardrum
(iii) Ear ossicles
(iv) Cochlea
(v) Auditory nerve
(vi) Cerebrum

Question 28.
AIDS is a dreadful disease caused by HIV.
(a) Which cells in the human body are affected by HIV? (1)
(b) Write any two ways by which HIV is transmitted. (2)
Answer:
(a) Lymphocytes
(b) Through sexual contact with HIV infected person.
From HIV-infected mother to fetus.
By sharing needles and syringes contaminated with HIV components.
Through the reception of blood and organs contaminated with HIV.

Question 29.
Processes in the sense of sight are given below. Arrange them in sequential order. (3)

• Sense of sight.
• The lens focuses the light rays into the retina.
• The cornea refracts light into the eye.
• Impulse is transmitted through the optic nerve to the cerebrum.
• Photosensory cells on the retina are stimulated.
• Light enters through the pupil and falls on the lens.

Answer:

• The cornea refracts light to the eye.
• Light enters through the pupil and falls on the lens.
• The lens focuses on the light rays to the retina.
• Photosensory cells in the retina are stimulated.
• Impulse is transmitted through the optic nerve to the cerebrum.
• Sense of light.

Question 30.
Observe the News given below and answer the questions.

(a) What are vaccines? (1)
(b) Write any two components used in vaccines. (1)
(c) Name any two vaccines. (1)
Answer:
(a) Vaccines are substances, given in advance to prevent certain diseases they are used for artificial immunization.
(b) Dead, inactive, alive but neutralized germs, components of cellular parts of pathogens are used as vaccines.
(c) BCG, OPV, Pentavalent, MMR, TT.

Question 31.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Fill up (i). (1)
(b) How does Natural Selection lead to the origin of new species? (2)
Answer:
(i) Struggle for existence.
(ii) When overproduction of organisms occurs, they compete for food, space, mates, and other limited resources (struggle for existence). In this struggle, only organisms with favorable variations survive in that nature. Over a long period, favorable variations accumulate, resulting in the formation of new species. (Natural selection).

Question 32.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions given below:

(a) Identify the process illustrated here. (1)
(b) Name two white blood cells performing this function. (1)
(c) What is the importance of this process? (1)
Answer:
(a) Phagocytosis.
(b) Monocytes and neutrophils.
(c) Engulfing and destroying germs.

4 scores for each question from 33 to 36.

Question 33.
Observe the figure and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the cell. (1)
(b) Name the parts labeled A and B. (2)
(c) Write down the function of C. (1)
Answer:
(a) Neuron
(b) A: Dendron
B: Axon

(c) Secretes neurotransmitters, which stimulate the adjacent dendrite or cell and new electric impulses are generated.

Question 34.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify (i) and (ii). (1)
(b) Write two functions of (ii). (2)
(c) Name the condition resulting from the deficiency of (ii). (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) beta cells
(ii) Insulin
(b) It accelerates the process of glucose intake by the cells and the conversion of the excess glucose into glycogen.
(c) Diabetes.

Question 35.
‘BCG is the vaccine used against this disease’.
(a) Which disease is mentioned here? (1)
(b) How is this disease transmitted from one person to another? (1)
(c) Name the bacteria causing this disease. (1)
(d) Write any two organs affected by this disease. (1)
Answer:
(a) Tuberculosis.
(b) When the patient speaks, coughs, or sneezes, the pathogens spread into the air, and thereby to others.
(c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
(d) Lugs, kidneys, bones, joints, brain.

Question 36.
Redraw the figure. Identify, name, and label the following parts.

Redrawing diagram. (1)
(a) The projected transparent anterior part of the sclera. (1)
(b) The aperture is seen at the center of the iris. (1)
(c) The nerve that transmits impulses to the brain. (1)
Answer:

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Question Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I

(A) Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Identify the given photoreceptor cell.

Answer:
Cone Cell

Question 2.
If there is any mistake in the underlined part of the given statements, correct it.
(a) Chemical evolution theory was proposed bv Oparin and Haldane.
(b) Organic molecules such as Nucleic acids are formed in the Urey-Miller experiment.
Answer:
(b) Amino acids

Question 3.
Find the genetic constitution of the sperm.
(a) 44 + X
(b) 22 + XX
(c) 44 + XX
(d) 22 + Y
Answer:
(d) 22 + Y

Question 4.
Choose the correct pair.

• Dormancy of embryo: Cytokinin
• Sprouting of leaves: Abscisic acid
• Fruit formation: Gibberellin
• Ripening of leaves and fruits: Ethylene

Answer:
Ripening of Leaves and Fruits: Ethylene

(B) Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 5.
Identify the blood group that has the following peculiarities.

Antigen A	Antigen B	Antigen D
Nil	Present	Nil

Answer:
B-ve

Question 6.
The vector used in genetic engineering is:
(a) Ligase
(b) Plasmid
(c) tRNA
(d) rRNA
Answer:
(b) Plasmid

Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Identify the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks.
Housefly: Ommatidia
Planaria: ____________
Answer:
Planaria: Eye Sport

Question 8.
Choose the action of the sympathetic system from the following.
(a) Peristalsis becomes normal
(b) Heartbeat increases
(c) Gastric activities become normal
(d) Trachea contracts
Answer:
(b) Heartbeat increases

Question 9.
Based on the given model (A) complete (B).

Answer:
(i) Bacteria
(ii) Leptospira

Part – II

(A) Answer the following question. Carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
Analyze the given statement and answer the following questions.
“Genetic engineering has made a great leap in the treatment of genetic diseases”.
(a) Name the treatment method indicated. (1)
(b) What is the specific peculiarity of this treatment method? (1)
Answer:
(a) Gene therapy
(b) It is a method of treatment in which genes that are responsible for diseases are removed and normal functional genes are inserted in their place.

(B) Answer any 1 of the questions from 11 and 12. Each carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Fill (i). (1)
(b) What are the characteristics of organisms belonging to (ii)? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Cercopithecoidea.
(b) (ii) Developed brain, freely movable hands.

Question 12.
Analyze the given genetic makeup and answer the questions.

(a) Give the number of somatic chromosomes. (1)
(b) Is the individual with this genetic makeup male or female? Why?
Answer:
(a) 44
(b) Female, because XX are the sex chromosomes of females.

Part – III

(A) Answer any 3 questions from 13 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
Analyse the given table and arrange Columns B and C according to Column A.

A	B	C
Cornea	The part of the retina where. Plenty of photoreceptors are present.	Transmits impulses from photoreceptors to the visual centre in the brain.
Pupil	The projected transparent anterior part of the sclera.	Regulates the amount of light falling on the eyes.
Yellow Spot	The part of the retina from where the optic nerve begins.	Refracts light rays to focus on the retina.
	The aperture is seen at the center of the iris.	Point of maximum visual clarity.

Answer:

A	B	C
Cornea	The projected transparent anterior part of the sclera.	Refracts light rays to focus on the retina.
Pupil	The aperture is seen at the center of the iris.	Regulates the amount of light falling on the eyes.
Yellow Spot	The part of the retina where plenty of photoreceptors are present.	Point of maximum visual clarity.

Question 14.
Evaluate the statement and answer the questions.
“Ants moving in a line along a particular trail by the production of certain chemical substances”.
(a) Such chemicals are known as ____________ (1)
(b) Write two examples of these chemical substances. (1)
(c) Write the other two uses of these chemical substances. (1)
Answer:
(a) Pheromones
(b) Civetone, Muscone, Bombykol (any 2)
(c) Help in attracting mates.
To inform the availability of food
To determine the path of travel
Signalling dangers. (any 2)

Question 15.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the part indicated (i). (1)
(b) Name any two chemicals which provide rigidity to the part indicated (i). (1)
(c) How do the germs that have crossed (i) are prevented from entering the cell? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Cell Wall
(b) Lignin, Cutine, Suberin (any 2)
(c) They are prevented from entering through the cell membrane by callose, a polysaccharide formed in the cell wall.

Question 16.
Analyze the information related to Tuberculosis and Malaria. (3)

• Classify them in the given table.
• Spread through the air
• Bacteria is the pathogen
• High fever with shivering and profuse sweating
• Spread through Anopheles mosquito
• Loss of body weight, fatigue, persistent cough
• Protozoa is the pathogen

Answer:

Tuberculosis	Malaria
Spread through the air.	Spread through Anopheles mosquito.
Bacteria is the pathogen.P	rotozoa is the pathogen.
Loss of body weight, fatigue, persistent cough.	High fever with shivering and profuse sweating.

(B) Answer the following question. Carries a 3 score. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
Analyze the picture given below and answer the questions.

(a) Identify (i). (1)
(b) Write any two functions of this part. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Myelin sheath/Schwann cells.
(b) Provides nutrients and oxygen to the axon.
Accelerate impulse.
Act as an electric insulator.
Protects the axon from external shocks. (any 2)

Part – IV

(A) Answer any 2 of the questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
Change in the shape of Red blood cells in a genetic disease is given below. Analyze it an answer the questions.

(a) Name the disease indicated. (1)
(b) Why do the shape of Red Blood Cells change? (1)
(c) How does the deformity of red blood cells affect the body? (2)
Answer:
(a) Sickle Cell Anaemia
(b) Defects of genes cause deformities in the sequencing of amino acids which are the building blocks of hemoglobin.
(c) Decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells. The RBCs in the shape of sickles aggregate and block the flow of blood through the blood vessels.

Question 19.
Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions.

(a) Fill (i), (ii), (iii), (iv). (2)
(b) Which is the dominant character? (2)
(c) Why does the recessive trait in the first generation appear in the second generation? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) r
(ii) Rr
(iii) Rr
(iv) rr
(b) Round
(c) During gametic formation the factors that determine a particular character segregate without getting mixed.

Question 20.
The following are the main concepts of the theory of evolution. Analyze it and answer the following questions.
(i) Accumulation of variations inherited through generations.
(ii) Origin of new species.
(iii) Struggle for existence.
(iv) Favourable variations are transferred to the next generation.
(v) Those with no favorable variations are destroyed and the survival of others.
(vi) Overproduction.
(a) Name of the evolutionary theory. (1)
(b) Rearrange the concepts given above in sequential order. (3)
Answer:
(a) Theory of Natural Selection/Darwinism.
(b) (vi) Overproduction.
(iii) Struggle for existence.
(v) Those with no favorable variations are destroyed and the survival of others.
(iv) Favorable variations are transferred to the next generation.
(i) Accumulation of variations inherited through generations.
(ii) Origin of new species.

(B) Answer any 1 question from 21 to 22. Each carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
The feature of a fluid in the eye is given below. Analyze it and answer the following questions.

It is formed blood and is reabsorbed into blood

(a) Name the fluid. (1)
(b) What is its function? (1)
(c) Name the eye disease associated with this fluid. (1)
(d) How does this diseases can be rectified? (1)
Answer:
(a) Aqueous Humor
(b) Provides oxygen and nutrients to tissues of the eye
(c) Glaucoma
(d) By Laser Surgery

Question 22.
Analyze the illustration related to the process of blood clotting and answer the following questions.

(a) Name the enzyme indicated as “X”. (1)
(b) How does this enzyme form? (1)
(c) Write the subsequent steps involved in this process. (2)
Answer:
(a) X = Thromboplastin
(b) Tissues and platelets at the site of the wound degenerate to form thromboplastin.

(d) The red blood cells and platelets get entangled in the network of fibrin fibers to form the blood cot.

Part – V

(A) Answer any 1 question from 23 to 24. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
Redraw the diagram, and answer the following questions.

Redrawing diagram
(a) Identify and label the parts with their names. (1)
(i) Maintains equilibrium of the body. (1)
(ii) Controls voluntary movements. (1)
(iii) Acts as a relay station of impulses. (1)
(b) Name the part labeled “X” and write its function. (1)
Answer:
(a)

(b) X = Medulla Oblongata
Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, etc.

Question 24.
Analyze the process related to the regulation of blood glucose levels and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the hormones indicated as X and Y. (1)
(b) Name the gland which produces these hormones. (1)
(c) Name the disease caused due to the reduced production of the hormone X. (1)
(d) Write the symptoms of this disease. (1)
(e) Write another action of the hormone Y in regulating the level of glucose in the blood. (1)
Answer:
(a) X = Insulin, Y = Glucagon
(b) Pancreas
(c) Diabetes Mellitus
(d) Increased appetite and thirst and frequent urination
(e) Synthesizes glucose from amino acids.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Question Paper March 2023 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Answer any 5 from Qn. No. 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Identify the word pair relation and fill in the blank. (1)
Planaria: Eye spot
Housefly: _____________
Answer:
Ommatidia

Question 2.
Choose the correct pair from the following options. (1)
ENT – Treatment of Eye
Cardiology – Treatment of Heart
Opthalmology – Treatment of Cancer
Answer:
Cardiology – Treatment of Heart

Question 3.
Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements. (1)
(a) Gibberellin stimulates the breakdown of stored food to facilitate germination.
(b) Ethylene promotes the growth of terminal buds.
(c) Cytokinin maintains the dormancy of the embryo.
Answer:
(b) Auxin
(c) Abscisic Acid

Question 4.
The genetic makeup of human females is 44+XX and that of males is 44+XY. What do the XX and XY indicate? (1)
Answer:
Sex Chromosomes

Question 5.
Find out the odd one and write the common feature of others. (1)
Chimpanzee, Gorilla, Monkey, Oranguttan.
Answer:
Monkey. Others are included in hominoidea.

Question 6.
What does the illustration indicate? (1)

Answer:
Nucleotide

Answer any 6 questions from Q. No. 7 to 13. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Write the name and functions of A and B in the given figure. (2)

Answer:
(a) Axon, which carries impulses from the cell body to the outside.
(b) Synaptic knob, which secretes neurotransmitters.

Question 8.
Analyze the given illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Which process does this illustration indicate? (1)
(b) How does this process cause variation? (1)
Answer:
(a) Crossing over
(b) Part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA. They cause differences in the distribution of genes. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation they cause variation in offspring.

Question 9.
Symptoms of a viral disease are given. Analyze them and answer the questions.

• Inflammation of the liver.
• White portions of the eyes and nails become yellow-colored.

(a) Identify the disease. (1)
(b) Why do the white portions of the eyes and nails become yellow-colored? (1)
Answer:
(a) Hepatitis
(b) Because of the presence of bilirubin in blood.

Question 10.
The details of the blood groups of two persons are given in the table. Analyze them and answer the questions.

Person	Antigen	Antibody	Rh Factor
X	B	a	Present
Y	A	b	Absent

(a) Identify the blood groups of persons X and Y. (1)
(b) Can Y receive blood from X? Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) X – B+ve
Y – A-ve
(b) No. The antigen in the donor’s blood reacts with the antibody in the recipient’s blood will react to each other to form a blood clot (Coagulation).

Question 11.
Choose suitable hints from the box and complete the table. (2)

Answer:

Disease	Vector	Pathogen
Malaria	Anopheles Mosquito	Plasmodium
Filariasis	Culex Mosquito	Filarial Worm

Question 12.
Analyze the given statements and answer the questions.
(i) Sudden withdrawal of the hand while touching on a hot object unknowingly.
(ii) Blinking of eyes when light suddenly falls on them.
(a) Name the reflex actions that take place in (i) and (ii). (1)
(b) What is reflex action? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) Spinal reflex
(ii) Cerebral reflex.
(b) Reflex actions are the accidental and involuntary responses of the body, in response to stimuli.

Question 13.
The main concept of the Origin of life is given below. Analyze it and answer the questions.

Life originated in some other planet in the universe and accidentally reached the Earth.

(a) Which theory is mentioned here? (1)
(b) Which evidence supports this? (1)
Answer:
(a) Panspermia theory.
(b) The organic substances obtained from the meteors that fell on earth.

Answer any 5 from Qn. No. 14 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Arrange columns B and C according to column A.

A. Parts	B. Peculiarity	C. Function
Cerebrum	Rod shaped part.	Maintenance of homeostasis.
Cerebellum	Situated just below the thalamus.	Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, etc.
Medulla Oblongata	The second largest part of the brain.	Evokes sensations.
	The largest part of the brain.	Maintains equilibrium of the body.

Answer:

A. Parts	B. Peculiarity	C. Function
Cerebrum	The largest part of the brain	Evokes sensations
Cerebellum	The second largest part of the brain	Maintains equilibrium of the body
Medulla Oblongata	Rod-shaped part	Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, etc.

Question 15.
Hints related to a disease are given. Analyze them and answer the questions.

• It is a genetic disease.
• Excess blood is lost even through minor wounds.

(a) Identify the disease. (1)
(b) Why excess blood is lost even through minor wounds in such patients? (1)
(c) How temporary relief is brought in, for such patients? (1)
Answer:
(a) Haemophilia.
(b) Protein that enables blood coagulation is absent and no clotting occurs.
(c) Temporary relief is obtained by identifying the deficient protein and injecting it.

Question 16.
A table showing the blood glucose levels of three persons before breakfast is given below. Analyze it and answer the questions.

Individual	Blood Glucose Level
A	82 mg/100 ml
B	178 mg/100 ml
C	104 mg/100 ml

(a) Which person is Diabetic?
(b) What is the cause of this disease?
(c) What are the symptoms of this disease?
Answer:
(a) Person B.
(b) Decreased production of insulin due to the destruction of beta cells. The inability of cells to utilize the insulin produced.
(c) Increased appetite and thirst, frequent urination.

Question 17.
Stages in the process of protein synthesis are given below. Arrange them in sequential order.

• Protein is synthesized.
• mRNA reaches the ribosome.
• mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
• Amino acids are added based on the information in mRNA.
• tRNA brings different kinds of amino acids to ribosomes.
• mRNA forms from DNA.

Answer:

• mRNA forms from DNA.
• mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
• mRNA reaches ribosomes.
• tRNA brings different kinds of amino acids to ribosomes.
• Amino acids are added based on the information in mRNA.
• Protein is synthesized.

Question 18.
The flow chart and hints related to a theory of evolution are given below. Analyze them and answer the questions.

(a) Choose suitable hints from the box and fill in A and B. (1)
(b) Which theory is indicated in the flow chart? (1)
(c) What is the limitation of this theory? (1)
Answer:
(a) A – Struggle for existence.
B – Natural selection.
(b) Theory of Natural selection/Darwinism.
(c) Darwin could not explain the reason for variation.

Question 19.
Give a reason for the following.
(a) There is no vision in the Blindspot.
(b) Persons with color blindness are not selected for jobs like that of drivers, pilots, etc.
(c) The deficiency of Vitamin A results in Night blindness.
Answer:
(a) Photoreceptors are absent in blind spots.
(b) They cannot distinguish green and red colors.
(c) Retinal, the visual pigment, is formed from vitamin A.

Question 20.
Observe the illustration showing the production of insulin through Genetic engineering and answer the questions.

(a) Name enzymes X, Y. (1)
(b) What is the role of plasmid In this process? (1)
(c) Does the succeeding generations of bacteria produced in this way have the ability to produce insulin? Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) X – Restriction endonuclease (genetic scissor), Y – Ligase (genetic glue).
(b) Plasmid is used as a vector for carrying the insulin gene.
(c) Yes, because they carry the gene responsible for insulin production.

Answer any 2 from Qn. no. 21 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) What is the process indicated in this illustration? (1)
(b) Name the white blood cells involved in this process. (1)
(c) Write the steps involved in this process in sequential order. (2)
Answer:
(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Monocytes, Neutrophils.
(c) The phagocyte engulfs the pathogens in a membrane sac.
The membrane sac combines with a lysosome.
The enzyme in the lysosome degenerates and destroys the pathogens.

Question 22.
Redraw the diagram. Name and label the parts indicated below. (For drawing 1 score) (2)

(a) The transparent anterior part of the sclera. (1)
(b) The point of maximum visual clarity. (1)
(c) Transmits impulses to the visual center of the brain. (1)
Answer:

Question 23.
Analyze the illustration of hormonal disorders and answer the questions.

(a) Name the hormone indicated as X. (1)
(b) Identify the disorders A and B. (1)
(c) What are the symptoms of A and B? (2)
Answer:
(a) Somatotropin (Growth Hormone)
(b) A – Gigantism.
B – Acromegaly.
(c) A – Excessive growth of the body.
B – Growth of the bones on the face, jaws, and fingers.

Students can read Kerala SSLC Biology Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Biology Question Paper March 2024 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only based on instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Answer any 5 from questions 1-6. One score each. (5 × 1 = 1)

Question 1.
Identify the pigment present in the given photoreceptor cell. (1)

Answer:
Rhodopsin or Iodopsin

Question 2.
Which among the following is not a component of a nucleotide? (1)
(a) Phosphate
(b) Sugar
(c) Protein
(d) Nitrogen base
Answer:
(c) Protein

Question 3.
Find out the correct one from the given pairs. (1)
Monocyte: Stimulates other white blood cells.
Lymphocyte: Engulls and destroys germs.
Neutrophil: Identifies and destroys germs specifically.
Eosinophil: Synthesises chemicals required for the inflammatory responses.
Answer:
Eosinophil: Synthesizes chemicals required for inflammatory responses

Question 4.
Identify the word pair relation and fill in the blanks. (1)
Fruit formation: Auxin
Ripening of fruits: ___________
Answer:
Ethylene

Question 5.
The technology used to identify the location of a gene in the DNA responsible for a particular trait is: (1)
(a) Gene therapy
(b) Gene mapping
(c) DNA profiling
(d) DNA fingerprinting
Answer:
(b) Gene mapping

Question 6.
Correct the mistakes in the underlined part of the given statements. (1)
(a) The Panspermia argues that life originated on another planet and accidentally reached the Earth.
(b) Huso de Vries is the scientist who put forward the scientific theory on evolution called the Natural Selection theory.
(c) Organs that are similar in structure and perform different functions are called homologous organs.
Answer:
(b) Charles Darwin

Answer any 6 from the questions 7-13. 2 scores each. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Analyze the symptoms of a disease given and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the disease. (1)
(b) Write the cause of the disease. (1)
Answer:
(a) Alzheimer’s.
(b) Accumulation of an insoluble protein in the neural tissues of the brain. Neurons get destroyed.

Question 8.
Analyze the given table related to the activities of hormones and complete it properly. (2)

A (Causes)	B (Gland)	C (Disease)
(i)	(ii)	Cretinism
Reabsorption of water in the kidney decreases	(iii)	(iv)

Answer:
(i) Hypothyroidism refers to a decrease in the amount of thyroxine during the foetal stage or infancy.
(ii) Thyroid
(iii) Hypothalamus
(iv) Diabetes insipidus

Question 9.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the process. (1)
(b) What is the importance of this process? (1)
Answer:
(a) Crossing over of Chromosomes.
(b) Responsible for creating genetic variation within individuals of a species.

Question 10.
Write appropriate reasons for the given statements.
(a) An ash-colored thick coating is formed in the throat of Diphtheria diphtheria-affected person. (1)
(b) Complete cure is not possible for Haemophilia. (1)
Answer:
(a) The toxins produced by the bacteria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae) destroy the mucus membrane of the throat.
(b) It is a genetic disease.

Question 11.
Choose the activities of the Sympathetic system from the box. (2)

Production of saliva decreases, Urinary bladder contracts, Gastric activities become Normal, Production of saliva increases, Glycogen is converted to glucose

Answer:

• Production of saliva decreases.
• Glycogen is converted to glucose.

Question 12.
Analyze the given illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Which theory of evolution is proved by this experiment? (1)
(b) What are the main postulates put forward by this theory? (1)
Answer:
(a) Theory of Chemical Evolution/Oparinhaldane hypothesis.
(b) Life originated by the change that occurred in the chemical substances in water, under specific conditions of the primitive earth.

Question 13.
How does smoking harmfully affect the following organ systems? (2)
Respiratory system
Circulatory system
Answer:
(a) Lung cancer, Bronchitis, Emphysema. (Any two)
(b) Hypertension, arteries lose elasticity, and decrease in functional efficiency.

Answer any 5 from questions 14 – 20. 3 scores each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Observe the illustration of impulse transmission through synapse and answer the following questions.

(a) Which part is denoted as ‘X’ ?
(b) Which chemical is secreted from ‘X’?
(c) Why does impulse travel only from X to Y?
Answer:
(a) X: synaptic knob
(b) Neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine/dopamine/GABA)
(c) Synaptic knob (X) secret neurotransmitters which is receives an impulse from adjacent neurons by Dendrite (Y).

Question 15.
Analyze the given stages in the process of detecting smell and write in sequential order. (3)

• Experiences smell.
• Aromatic particles enter the nostrils.
• Generate impulses.
• Stimulate the Olfactory receptors.
• These aromatic particles dissolve in the mucus.
• Impulses reach the brain.

Answer:

• Aromatic particles enter the nostrils.
• Aromatic particles dissolve in the mucus.
• Stimulates the olfactory receptors.
• Generate impulses.

Question 16.
Analyse the given table and arrange columns B and C according to column A.

A. Disease	B. Symptoms	C. Transmission
Tuberculosis	Dark yellow colour to the mucus membrane, white portion of the eyes, and the nails.	Spread by culex mosquitos.
Hepatitis	High fever with shivering and profuse sweating, headache, vomiting, diarrhea, and anemia.	When the patient speaks, coughs, or sneezes, the pathogens spread into the air.
Malaria	Loss of body weight, fatigue, and persistent cough.	Contaminated food and water, blood components, and excreta of the patient.
	The appearance of red dish scaly rashes that cause itching.	Spread by female anopheles mosquito.

Answer:

A. Disease	B. Symptoms	C. Transmission
Tuberculosis	Loss of body weight, Fatigue, and persistent cough.	When the patient speaks, coughs or sneezes, the pathogens spread into the air.
Hepatitis	Dark yellow colour to the mucus membrane, white portion of the eyes, and the nails.	Contaminated food and water, blood components and excreta of the patient.
Malaria	High fever with shivering and profuse sweating, headache, vomiting, Diarrhea, and anemia.	Spread through female anopheles mosquitoes.

Question 17.
Analyze the given statement and answer the questions. (3)
“The basis of blood grouping is the presence of antigen A and antigen B in red blood cells.”
According to this, how many blood groups are there in humans?
Write the antigen and antibody of each group.
Answer:

Blood Group	Antigen	Antibodies
A	A	B
B	B	A
AB	A and B	Nil
O	Nil	A and B

Question 18.
Some of the features of nucleic acids and their constituents are given below. Arrange them on the table suitably.

Ribose sugar, Uracil, Deoxyribose sugar, Double helical model, Single strand, Thymine

Answer:

DNA	RNA
Deoxyribose sugar	Ribose sugar
Double helical model	Single stand
Thymine	Uracil

Question 19.
Observe the illustration of bacteria and answer the questions.

(a) Which part is denoted as ‘X’? (1)
(b) What is the significance of ‘X’ in the process of genetic engineering? (2)
Answer:
(a) X: Plasmid/Circular DNA of bacteria
(b) Plasmid acts as vectors to transfer genes from one cell to another.
Vectors that contain recombined genes enter target cells and the new genes become a part of the genetic constitution of target cells.

Question 20.
Write any three pieces of evidence from biochemistry and physiology to prove bacteria and humans evolved from a common ancestor. (3)
Answer:

• Enzymes control chemical reactions.
• Energy is stored in ATP molecules.
• Genes determine the hereditary traits.
• Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the basic substances.

Answer any 2 questions from 21 – 23. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 21.
The function of regulating the level of calcium in the blood is illustrated. Analyze it and answer the following questions.

(a) Which gland produces the hormone indicated as ‘X’? (1)
(b) Which hormone is indicated by ‘Y’? (1)
(c) Write down the other functions of these hormones. (2)
Answer:
(a) Thyroid Gland
(b) Parathormone
(c) Calcitonin – Lowering the calcium levels in your blood.
Parathormone – increasing the calcium level when they are too low.

Question 22.
Explain how the following strategies of defense help in immune function.
(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Fever
(c) Healing of Wounds
(d) Blood Clotting
Answer:
(a) Engulfing and destroying germs.
(b) An increase in body temperature reduces the multiplication of pathogens and increases the effect of phagocytosis.
(c) Reduces the chance of infection by the healing wounds reduction.
(d) Helps to prevent bleeding and checks the entry of pathogens through wounds.

Question 23.
Redraw the diagram, and identify and label the parts with their names.

Redraw the diagram.
(a) The part that carries impulses out of the cell body. (1)
(b) The part that receives messages from the adjacent neuron. (1)
(c) The part that carries impulses to the cell body. (1)
Answer:

Students can read Kerala SSLC Chemistry Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium and Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Answers helps you to score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus Class 10 Chemistry Board Model Paper March 2022 with Answers English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use this time to get familiar with questions and to plan your answer.
• Questions with different scores are given as distinct parts.
• Read the instructions carefully before answering the questions.
• Keep in mind, the score and time while answering the questions.
• The maximum score for questions from 1 to 24 will be 40.

Part – I
Questions from 1 to 9 carry 1 score each

A. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 6. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which Subshell is common to all shells?
Answer:
s-subshell

Question 2.
The number of molecules present in 1 GMM N₂ is _____________
Answer:
6.022 × 10²³ or Avagadro number or N_A

Question 3.
Which one of the following metals reacts with hot water?
[Au, Cu, Ag, Mg]
Answer:
Mg

Question 4.
Fill up suitably:
OH: Hydroxyl Group
-COOH: _____________
Answer:
-COOH: Carboxylic Group

Question 5.
Complete the given chemical equation.
NH₄Cl → _____________ + HCl
Answer:
NH₄Cl → NH₃ + HCl

Question 6.
Which is the method used to concentrate Sulphide ores?
Answer:
Froth Floatation

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 9. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
In f-block elements, the last electron is filled in _____________ subshell.
Answer:
Inner Penultimate ‘f’ subshell

Question 8.
Which substance is deposited at the Cathode, when molten Sodium Chloride is electrolysed?
[Oxygen, Chlorine, Sodium, Hydrogen]
Answer:
Sodium

Question 9.
In electrolytes, _____________ are responsible for the conduction of electricity.
Answer:
Charged Ions

Part – II
Questions from 10 to 12 carry 2 scores each

A. Answer the following question. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
(a) Which of the following chemicals are used to prepare ammonia (NH₃) in the laboratory? (1)
[NaCl, Ca(OH)₂, CaCl₂, NH₄Cl]
(b) Ammonia gas produced is passed through quick lime. Give reason. (1)
Answer:
(a) Ca(OH)₂, NH₄Cl
(b) To remove moisture.
Quick lime is a good drying agent.

B. Answer any one question from 11 to 12. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
The volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP is 22.4 L. What will be the volume of 34 g NH₃ at STP? (2)
[1 GMM NH₃ = 17 g]
Answer:
No. of moles in STP = \(\frac{\text { Given mass }}{\text { GMM }}=\frac{34}{17}\) = 2 moles
Volume of 2 moles = 2 × 22.4 = 44.8 L

Question 12.
Copper is electroplated on an iron ring.
(a) Which electrolyte is used here? (1)
(b) Which metal is connected to the positive terminal of the battery? (1)
Answer:
(a) Copper Sulphate (CuSO₄) Solution
(b) Pure Copper

Part – III
Questions from 13 to 17 carry 3 scores each

A. Answer any three questions from 13 to 16. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
Match columns A, B, and C suitably: (3)

A. Alloy Steel	B. Property	C. Use
Stainless Steel	High Resistance	For the manufacture of permanent magnets
Nichrome	Magnetic Nature	For the manufacture of utensils
Alnico	Hard	For making heating coils

Answer:

A. Alloy Steel	B. Property	C. Use
Stainless Steel	Hard	For the manufacture of utensils
Nichrome	High Resistance	For making heating coils
Alnico	Magnetic Nature	For the manufacture of permanent magnets

Question 14.
In element A (symbol is not real), the last two electrons are added to the 4s subshell.
(a) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of A. (1)
(b) Which period does it belong to? (1)
(c) Find its group number. (1)
Answer:
(a) 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁶, 4s²
(b) 4th Period
(c) 2nd Group

Question 15.
N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NH₃ (g) + Heat
How do the following changes affect the rate of forward reaction in the given system at equilibrium?
(a) Pressure is decreased. (1)
(b) Temperature is increased. (1)
(c) More H₂ is added. (1)
Answer:
(a) The rate of forward reaction will be decreased. Because due to forward reaction number of molecules decreases.
(b) The rate of forward reaction decreases. Because the forward reaction is exothermic.
(c) Rate of forward reaction increases. Because the concentration of reactant increases.

Question 16.
Choose the name of the reaction from the given box and complete the table.

Substitution Reaction, Thermal Cracking, Addition Reaction, Combustion, Polymerisation

Chemical Equation	Name of Reaction
CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3 – CH3	_________________________
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O	_________________________
CH3 – CH3 + Cl2 → CH3 – CH2 – Cl + HCl	_________________________

Answer:

Chemical Equation	Name of Reaction
CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3 – CH3	Addition Reaction
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O	Combustion
CH3 – CH3 + Cl2 → CH3 – CH2 – Cl + HCl	Substitution Reaction

B. Answer the following question. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
Examine the following compounds and answer the questions.
(i) CH₃ – O – CH₃
(ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH

(iv) CH₃ – CH₂ – OH
(a) Find out the isomeric pairs. (2)
(b) Which is the functional group of CH₃ – O – CH₃? (1)
Answer:

(b) -O- (Alkoxy Group)

Part – IV
Questions from 18 to 22 carry 4 scores each

A. Answer any two questions from 18 to 20. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
The relation between pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature is given in the table.

Pressure (P) Atm	Volume (V) L	P × V
1	200	200
2	(a)	200
(b)	50	(c)

(a) Find the values of a, b and c. (3)
(b) Which gas law is applied here? (1)
Answer:
(a) a = 100 L
b = 4 atm
c = 200
(b) Boyle’s Law

Question 19.
The structural formula of a hydrocarbon is given:

(a) Write the molecular formula of the given hydrocarbon. (1)
(b) How many carbon atoms are there in the longest carbon chain? (1)
(c) Name the branch present. (1)
(d) Write its IUPAC name. (1)
Answer:
(a) C₇H₁₆
(b) 6
(c) Methyl
(d) 3-Methyl Hexane

Question 20.
The following chemical equations represent the reactions taking place in the blast furnace during the manufacture of iron.

• C + O₂ → CO₂ + Heat
• CO₂ + C + Heat → 2CO
• Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
• CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
• CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

(a) Which is the ore of iron used in the blast furnace? (1)
(b) Which substance acts as the reducing agent in this process? (1)
(c) What is the role of CaO in this process? (1)
(d) Which one of the given chemical equations represents slag formation? (1)
Answer:
(a) Fe₂O₃ or Haematite
(b) CO or Carbon Monoxide
(c) Used as Flux to remove the impurity in the iron ore.
(d) CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

B. Answer any one question from 21 to 22. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
Choose the correct answer from the box.

Ethanoic Acid, Sodium Hydroxide, Methanol, Glycerol, 95.6% Ethanol

(a) Which alcohol is known as wood spirit? (1)
(b) Which substance is known as rectified spirit? (1)
(c) Name the acid present in vinegar. (1)
(d) Which is the by-product in the manufacture of soap? (1)
Answer:
(a) Methanol
(b) 95.6% Ethanol
(c) Ethanoic Acid
(d) Glycerol

Question 22.
A few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid are added to sugar.
(a) What do you observe? (1)
(b) Which property of concentrated sulphuric acid is shown here? (1)
(c) Why concentrated sulphuric acid is not used as a drying agent in the preparation of ammonia? (1)
(d) Which substance is used to identify sulphate salts? (1)
(NaCl, KCl, BaCl₂, BaSO₄)
Answer:
(a) Sugar gets charred to carbon. CO₂ gas and water vapour are liberated.
(b) Dehydrating Property.
(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with basic ammonia and forms ammonium sulphate salt.
(d) BaCl₂

Part – V
Questions from 23 to 24 carry 5 scores each

A. Answer any one question from 23 to 24. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
The atomic number of an element X is 13. (Symbol is not real)
(a) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of element X. (1)
(b) Write down its subshell electronic configuration using the symbol of the preceding noble gas. (1)
(c) Which block does it belong to? (1)
(d) Find the total number of electrons in all the p subshells of this element. (1)
(e) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of the X3+ ion. (1)
Answer:
(a) X₁₃ = 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p¹
(b) [Ne] = 3s² 3p¹
(c) P-Block
(d) 7
(e) X³⁺ = 1s², 2s², 2p⁶

Question 24.
The diagram of a galvanic cell is given.

[Hint: Order of Reactivity Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu > Ag]
(a) What is the energy change taking place in a galvanic cell? (1)
(b) At which electrode does oxidation take place? (1)
(c) Which metal does act as the cathode? (1)
(d) If Silver and Copper are used as electrodes to construct the cell, which metal acts as the anode? (1)
(e) Write down the chemical equation of the reaction taking place at the Copper electrode in this case. (1)
Answer:
(a) Chemical Energy → Electrical Energy
(b) Anode (Zn rod)
(c) Cu
(d) Copper
(e) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e^– (Oxidation)