Class 7

After completing the syllabus, Class 7 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 5 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 5

Time : 2¼ hours

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the questions.
• Answer all the 6 questions. Answer all the sub questions in it.
• For questions with internal choice, answer either A or B.

Question 1.
(A) The advancement of science and technology led to a drastic change in the data collection of geographical features, analysis, illustration, presentation and making of maps.
a) What is Remote Sensing?
Answer:
Collecting information on an object, region or a phenomenon from a distance without direct contact with the help of devices is called remote sensing.

b) List out the possibilities of remote sensing.
Answer:

• For climate studies
• For studies in the agricultural sector
• To understand the availability of natural resources
• To collect information required for map making.

OR

(B) Democracy becomes meaningful when power is decentralised to all people and not simply vested with some.
a) List out the features of decentralisation of power.
Answer:

• Importance to regional development
• Development of the local economy
• Developmental needs get prioritised
• Women and the marginalised get leadership and administrative experience

b) Which are the committees for constituted to strengthen the local self-government system?
Answer:
Balwantrai Mehta Committee and Ashok Mehta Committee

Question 2.
Local history is the study of the past events in a specific geographically small area.
a) Write the sources for Local History writing.
Answer:

• Place names
• Family history
• Official documents
• Observation of the locality

b) Differentiate between History and Local history.
Answer:

Histroy	Local Histroy
Documents the history of a vast region, place or country.	A minute level of enquiry of the history of a small region, subjects or events apart from World Flistory, the history of a nation or a province.
Elistory is recorded using written documents, archaeological evidences and historical remains.	Local festivals, cuisines, customs, traditions and oral traditions become a part of the historical writing.
Assesses past events, cultures and societies with a broad perspective.	By democratising history, due representation is given to regions, peoples and events that have been left out of main stream history.

Question 3.
South Africans were oppressed because of their race for centuries.
a) Name the freedom fighter who fought for the emancipation of the South Africans.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela

b) Write a note on the methods of strike adopted by Gandhiji in South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhiji participated in the voluntary activities to extend help to the ones who underwent sufferings in the Second Boer war. It was here that Gandhiji experimented the weapons of satyagraha, non-cooperation and civil disobedience. Hence, South Africa is known as ‘Gandhiji’s Political Laboratory.’

c) Name the organisation formed to protect the rights of the people of Africa.
Answer:
The organisation, the African Native National Congress formed to protect the rights of the people of Africa was later came to be known as the African National Congress.

Question 4.
The total amount spent by a family for food consumption and non-food consumption for a particular period is called the family expenditure.
a) Family Expenditure can be categorised into two. Which are they? Explain.
Answer:
Family Expenditure can be categorised into two: Expected Expenditure and Unexpected Expenditure.

• Expected Expenditure: Expected expenditure is the expenditure that is expected in a family for particular period. This can be estimated as monthly and annually.
  E.g., food, electricity bills, etc
• Unexpected Expenditure: The expenditure that a family cannot fix in advance for a particular period and which occurs accidentally is termed unexpected expenditure.
  E.g., natural disasters, diseases, etc.

b) How can we reduce the expenditure of the Family?
Answer:

• Use locally available resources for food
• Cultivate your own food resources
• Limit Transportation costs
• Cut unnecessary spending

Question 5.
(A) Our constitution holds the position as the supreme system and source of law.
a) List out the main functions of the Constitution.
Answer:

• Establishes the rights and duties of citizens
• Defines and delimits the powers of the government
• Defines the basic values and ideals of the nation
• Acts as a safeguard against tyranny and abuse of power
• Preserving unity in diversity

b) Who is the father of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

OR

(B). At the time of Independence,the agricultural sector was facing various problems.To solve this crisis,Land Reforms and the Green Revolution were implemented in independent India.
a) Explain the role of Land Reforms in agriculture sector.
Answer:
As part of the Land Reform, a limit was set for the possession of land a person could own.The land above that limit was known as surplus land. It was taken over by the government and distributed to the landless peasants and tenants. As a result, agricultural production increased. Kerala became a model for India by becoming one of the first states to implement the Land Reforms Act.

b) Write the Benefits of Green Revolution.
Answer:

• Increase in the production of food grains
• Ensured self-sufficiency in food
• The price of food grains dropped
• Improved rural infrastructure

Question 6.
The information regarding the interior of the Earth is formed through scientific studies and inferences.
a) What are the different sources from which we get information about the interior of the Earth?
Answer:

• From the materials reaching the Earth’s surface through volcanic eruptions
• From Mines
• By analysing the motion of waves generated during an earthquake

b) Mark the interior of the Earth in the given picture.
Answer:
A) Crust
B) Mantle
C) Outer Core
D) Inner Core

After completing the syllabus, Class 7 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 4

Time : 2¼ hours

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the questions.
• Answer all the 6 questions. Answer all the sub questions in it.
• For questions with internal choice, answer either A or B.

Question 1.
(A) Local history writing helps us in retrieving our lost culture.
a) Write down the structure for writing local history.
Answer:

• Title
• Content
• Certificate
• Acknowledgement
• Introduction
• Chapters
• Conclusion
• References
• Appendices
• Bibliography

b) Write down the key points to write the local history. Explain any two key points.
Answer:
Physiographic Features, Historical monuments, Occupation/Means of Living, Survival models, Cultural institutions, Land relations, Patriotism, Local self-government bodies and development, and Bibliography theses are the things to be noted to write the local history.

• Physiographic Features: The accurate geographical boundaries and natural features (mountain, river, watershed) of a place should be there in the history writing when it is selected for writing local history.
• Historical monuments: There should be reference to the places of habitation, megaliths, stone inscriptions, forts, places of worship, and the like.

OR

(B) Warning signs erected in South Africa in connection with the Reservation of Separate Amenities Act reveal the social condition of apartheid.
a) What is apartheid?
Answer:
The Social order that discriminated the blacks racially and economically is known as Apartheid

b) Which are the laws that were introduced to execute the apartheid? Explain.
Answer:

Native Pass Law Act	The blacks needed special passes for moving from one place to another.
Group Areas and Segregation Act	People were transported to different locations based on race. This was known as the Great Apartheid.
Population Registration Act	Identity card was made compulsory for all who completed 18 years of age.
Home Land System Bantu Authorities Act	The blacks became citizens of special local self-government bodies and hence lost their South African citizenship.
Reservation of Separate Amenities Act	Signboards were installed in public places such as grounds, beaches, buses, hospitals, schools, parks, etc.
The Bantu Education Act	The blacks were restricted to undergo traditional education only.

Question 2.
The total amount spent by a family for food consumption and non-food consumption for a particular period is called the family expenditure.
a) Complete the list by giving more examples for expected and unexpected expenditure.

Expected Expenditure	Unexpected Expenditure
Education	Accident

Answer:

Expected Expenditure	Unexpected Expenditure
Education Food Electricity bills	Accident Natural disasters Diseases

b) What are the benefits of a family budget?
Answer:

• Recognising different sources of income
• Adjusting the expenditure to match the income
• Moderate expenditure is practised
• Reduces financial stress

Question 3.
Collecting information on an object, region or a phenomenon from a distance without direct contact with the help of devices is called remote sensing.

a) What is the method by which the photographs of geographical areas are copied with the help of a camera fixed on an aeroplane. ?
Answer:
Aerial Remote Sensing

b) Write any two benefits of Geographic Information System.
Answer:

• Communication
• Resource Management
• Public Health

c) Examine the given map of Kerala and find out what are the essential factors that help in map reading? (Write any 4 points)
Answer:

• Title
• Scale
• Direction
• Latitude

Question 4.
The local self-government bodies got more powers with the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution in 1992.
a) Write the difference between the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
Answer:

73rd Constitutional Amendment Panchayati Raj System	74th Constitutional Amendment Nagarpalika System
Formation of grama sabhas	Formationof ward sabhas
Tenure of adminsitration – five years	Tenure of administration – five years
Reservation for the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe	Reservation for the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe
Reservation for Women	Reservation for Women
The election charge was given to the State Election Commission	The election charge was given to the State Election Commission
Finance Commission once in five years	The election charge was given to the State Election Commission
Three-tier Panchayat System – Grama Panchayat, Block Panchayat.District Panchayat	Two types of Urban Local self Government bodies Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council (Municipality/Corporation in Kerala)

b) What is the basic unit of the Panchayati Raj System?
Answer:
Gram Panchayat or Village Panchayat

Question 5.
(A) Bhakti-Sufi movements have played a critical role in reducing conflicts, bringing people together and creating an atmosphere of peace and harmony.
a) Write the characteristics of the Bhakti Movement.
Answer:

• Access to all irrespective of caste
• Love and Submission to God
• Deep devotion to the beloved deity
• Equal participation of women

b) What were Sufi masters and their followers called?
Answer:
The Sufi masters were called Pir (Sheikh) and their followers were called Murid.

c) Write the names of any two prominent Sufi masters and their regions.
Answer:

• Sheikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi – Sylhet
• Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti-Ajmer

OR

(B) Anything that gives information useful for writing history can be called sources of history,
a) What are the main archaeological sources? Complete the Flow chart.

Answer:

• Palaces
• Lithic monuments
• Coins

b) Below are the names of some foreign travelers who have mentioned about Kerala. Complete the list.

Foreign Travellers	Country
Abdur Razzaq
Ibn Battuta
Barbosa
Megasthenes

Answer:

Foreign Travellers	Country
Abdur Razzaq	Persia
Ibn Battuta	Morocco
Barbosa	Portugal
Megasthenes	Greece

Question 6.
The Vijayanagara Kingdom existed in South India during the Mughal dynasty. It was founded in 1336 CE by the brothers Harihara and Bukka.
a) Which are the four dynasties that ruled the Vijayanagara Empire?
Answer:
Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Aravidu

b) Who was the powerful ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire?
Answer:
Krishna Deva Raya

c) Explain the Social condition of the Vijayanagara rule.
Answer:
Vijayanagara society consisted of various castes and religions. Brahmins were the dominant group in the society. They were entitled to the revenue from the land allotted to the temples. Brahmins used to lead the rituals and religious ceremonies in the temples. Other sections of the society were mainly engaged in agriculture, trade and handicrafts. Kings employed women to prepare- accounts of the royal palace and decorate gardens. Polygamy prevailed among the wealthy. Child marriage and the practice of sati were also prevalent in society.

After completing the syllabus, Class 7 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time : 2¼ hours

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the questions.
• Answer all the 6 questions. Answer all the sub questions in it.
• For questions with internal choice, answer either A or B.

Question 1.
(A) Local history is a minute study of a geographically limited area or an event.
a) Coins are an important historical source. What information do we get from coins?
Answer:

• The period in which the coin was made
• The authorities who made the coins and released them
• Evidence they provide related to the socio-economic condition of the people

b) What is Numismatics?
Answer:
Numismatics is the study of coins.

c) What are inscriptions, and where can they be found in Kerala?
Answer:
Inscriptions are messages or statements engraved on materials like stones, metal plates, or palm leaves. Important inscriptions in Kerala include Tharisappally Inscriptions (Kollam), Jewish Copper Plate (Mattancherry) and Paliyam Copper Plate (Alappuzha)

OR

(B) The African National Congress under the leadership of Nelson Mandela started agitations across the country for the emancipation of the blacks.
a) What is meant by Stay at home?
Answer:
A new mode of struggle named ‘ Stay-at-home’ was organised, demanding the right to vote, a constitution without apartheid and the retrieval of ‘Pass Laws.’ The African National Congress and the South African Indian Congress led the struggles. Native and Indian workers took part in the struggle. The factories, textile mills and schools across the country remained shut. This strike revealed the unity and strength of the anti-apartheid movement. The ‘Stay-at-home’ was a major struggle in the history of the freedom struggle of South Africa. As peaceful protests did not yield any results, Nelson Mandela called for armed rebellion. Nelson Mandela was sentenced to life imprisonment for sabotage, treason and conspiracy in 1964. He had to suffer rigorous imprisonment in the Robben Island and Paulsmoor Jail for a continuous 26 years. Countries around the world resorted to siege on South Africa. The United Nations passed a resolution stating that ‘apartheid is an offence against humanity.’ This led to the spread of riots across the country. The government declared Emergency to oppress the people’s protests in 1984.

b) What is meant by African Year?
Answer:
The year 1960 deserves special importance in the history of the freedom struggle of the African countries. This year in which seventeen African countries got freedom, has great relevance in the history of South Africa as well. The people who fought against ‘Pass Laws’ were massacred at Sharp Velle and the armed rebellion against the South African government started during the same year in 1960.

Question 2.
The government has to take loans to materialise developmental and welfare activities and to meet various administrative needs when the income is not sufficient to satisfy various needs. The loans thus availed by the government are known as the public debt.
a) What is meant by Internal and External debt?
Answer:
Internal debt: The loans availed by the government from individuals and institutions inside the country are known as domestic debt.

External debt: Foreign debt is the loan availed from other countries and international organisations. The productive use of these loans helps in materialising welfare and developmental activities, thereby increasing revenue and reducing public debt.

b) Define GST
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a unified indirect tax that came into effect on July 1,2017, after the 101 st amendment of the Constitution, to implement the principle of a unified tax for the nation.

c) Differentiate between Direct tax and Indirect tax.
Answer:
Direct tax: Direct tax is the tax remitted by the person on whom tax is levied. This means that the taxpayer himself bears the burden of the tax. Income tax and building tax are examples.
Indirect tax: the tax levied on one individual is paid partially or completely by another. Sales tax and entertainment tax are examples of indirect tax.

Question 3.
Finding or collecting information by examining maps is called map reading.
a) What are the three methods used to record the scale on a map?
Answer:

• Statement of scale
• Representative Fraction
• Linear scale

b) Match the Colours/Signs with their Features.

Answer:

Question 4.
The Indian subcontinent has unique çlimatic conditions.
a) Identi1y the given picture.

i. What is this picture showing?
Answer:
Rain Shadow Region

ii. Explain the process.
Answer:
Physiography influences climate. Moisture laden winds are obstructed by the mountains, located against their direction resulting in rainfall. Kerala experiences heavy rainfall inWestem Ghats, while Tamil Nadu experiences low rainfall in eastern slopes. Such regions with low rainfall are generally known as rain shadow regions.

b) Fill in the blanks.

Crop	Water Requirement	Sowing Months	Harvest Months
Rice	Abundant water is needed	(iii)	September
(i)	Moderate amount of water is needed	October	March
Watermelon	(ii)	April	(iv)

Answer:

Crop	Water Requirement	Sowing Months	Harvest Months
Rice	Abundant water is needed	June	September
Wheat	Moderate amount of water is needed	October	March
Watermelon	Irrigation is needed in areas with sparse rainfall	April	June

Question 5.
(A) Our Earth is composed of seven main continents and five oceans. Each continent is unique and has its own distinct features.
a) Define Subcontinent.
Answer:
Subcontinents are large continental areas with diverse physiographic divisions and climate as in continents. Pamir plateau geographically separates the southern part of Asian continent from the other parts.

b) Write the features of the North Indian Plains.
Answer:

• Fertile soil
• Abundant water supply from rivers
• Plain landscape
• Thickly.populated

c) Explain the classification of major crops.
Answer:
Food Crops: They are classified into two: Cereals and Pulses. In India, fine cereals such as riceand wheat and coarse cereals such as bajra, maize and ragi are grown. Gram and Toor dal are the major pulses cultivated in India.

Cash crops: The crops that are grown commercially on a large scale are called cash crops such as sugar cane, tobacco, cotton, jute and oil seeds.

Fibre crops: Cotton and jute are the major fibre crops in India. Fibre Crops provide us with the fibre we need to make many things like fabrics, bags and sacks.

Oil seeds: Oil seeds are cultivated to produce edible oil. These include ground nut, rapeseed, ipustard, soya bean and sunflower.
Plantation crops: Crops such as tea, coffee, rubber, spices and tubers are also cultivated in India.

OR

(B) Marginalisation is the process of being excluded or pushed to the comers of a society based on factors like race, caste, gender, sexual orientation, religion, or disability.
a) State any three reasons for which marginalisation takes place.
Answer:
Three reasons for which marginalisation takes place:

• Marginalisation takes place by the loss of assets caused due to natural disasters such as floods, earthquakes, landslides, sea erosion etc.,
• Marginalisation takes place due to manmade disasters such as war, accidents and industrial disasters.
• Marginalisation also occurs due to the intentional exclusion of people based on their caste, religion,

b) Identify the prominent personalities:
i. Education and welfare of widows were the major areas of her activity. She studied about the condition of women in Inida and led the activities to solve the problems,
ii. She became famous as the first woman to graduate in medicine from Kerala.
Answer:
i. Pandita Ramabai
ii. Dr. Poonnen Lukose

Question 6.
The Constituent Assembly worked over several years to draft and finalise the Constitution of India, which was adopted on January 26,1950, marking the commencement of the Republic of India.
a) Explain the major features of the constituent assembly.
Answer:

• Framing period – 2 years, 11 months and 17 days
• First meeting- 9th December 1946
• Chairman of the drafting committee Dr B.R Ambedkar
• Constitution adopted and signed on 26th November 1949

b) What is the difference between Fundamental rights and Fundamental duties?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights: Each individual is guaranteed certain fundamental rights by the state. Fundamental Duties: Responsibilities that every individual owes to the nation and society.

c) Match the persons with their roles.

A	Dr. B.R Ambedkar	Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
B	Dr. Rajendra Prasad	Prepared the preamble of the Constitution
C	Dr. Sachidananda Sinha	Chairman of the Drafting Committee
D	Jawaharlal Nehru	Acting Chairman of the Constituent Assembly

Answer:

A	Dr. B.R Ambedkar	Chairman of the Drafting Committee
B	Dr. Rajendra Prasad	Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
C	Dr. Sachidananda Sinha	Acting Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
D	Jawaharlal Nehru	Prepared the preamble of the Constitution

After completing the syllabus, Class 7 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time : 2¼ hours

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the questions.
• Answer all the 6 questions. Answer all the sub questions in it.
• For questions with internal choice, answer either A or B.

Question 1.
(A) Observe the South African independence struggle collage.
a) What are the people who were the original inhabitants of South Africa?
Answer:
San and Xhosa

b) Observe the above collage and write a note about any one.
Answer:

• Great Trek: The Great Trek is the exodus of the Boers to the interior areas of Soutli Africa to escape from policies introduced by the British. Following the Great Trek, the Boers established Republics in Transvaal, Orange Free State and Natal.
• The First Boer War: Towards the end of the 19th century, mines of gold and diamond were discovered in the regions under the Boer Republics. Thus, South
• Colonisation: Colonisation is the political, social, economic and cultural domination and control of one country over another region and its people.

OR

(B) Every stone we see around us has a story to tell. Our ancestors left behind remnants of many monuments built with large stones.”
a) are large clay urns used in the Megalithic period for burying dead bodies. (Kudakkallu, Muniyara, Nannangadis, Thoppikkallu)
Answer:
Nannangadis

b) Edakkal cave is located in which district?
Answer:
Wayanad

c) Explain the role of Oral history and Memories in writing local history.
Answer:
Oral history is the memories collected from a generation that has direct experiences. Collecting the
memories of the elders of the place chosen for writing local history is very important. It is essential to have oral descriptions to collect information on institutions, transport facilities, style of dressing and food culture of a locality, to write the history of that place. The memories of different persons on these matters will help in reconstmcting history. These memories help us to analyse the practices that existed in the society and the changes that were effected in due course. It is essential to verify the oral information collected, with other sources to ensure credibility.

Question 2.
The budget is a financial document of the expected income and expenditure by the government for a specific financial year.
a) When does the financial year begin and end in our country?
Answer:
In our country, the financial year is starting from April 1st to March 31 st.

b) Who is the first Finance Minister of India?
Answer:
R.K. Shanmugham Chetty

c) Identify the terms.
i. More income, less expenditure
ii. Equal income and expenditure
iii. Less income, more expenditure
Answer:
i. Surplus Budget
ii. Balanced Budget
iii. Deficit Budget

Question 3.
Maps are made by representing the whole earth or a portion of it on a plain surface.
a) What are Thematic maps?
Answer:
The maps that focus on a particular topic or specific theme are called Thematic Maps

b) Explain the classification of Maps based on Scale with examples.
Answer:
Large-scale maps – Depicts more information about a small area.
Eg: Topographical map, Village map

Small-scale maps – Depicts only less information of an area
Eg: World Map, Map of India, Map of Kerala

Question 4.
The people’s planning system has given more power and responsibilities to the local self-government system which also ensured more officials, institutions and funds to implement them.
a) Write a short note on People’s Planning.
Answer:
After the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution, the process of decentralisation of power Planning’ system has given more power and responsibilities to the local self-government system which also ensured more officials, institutions and funds to implement them. As a result of these constitutional amendments, 33% reservation is accorded to women in the local self-government systems. Further, as per the amendment of the Panchayati Raj Act 2005, the representation of women in local self-government bodies was elevated to 50%. 10% of the total plan fund of local self-government bodies has been allocated to projects exclusively meant for women. Kerala, thus, became a model for the country through the effective implementation of the decentralisation process,

b) What are the major challenges of local self-government institutions?
Answer:

• A condition in which the plan share is not available on time.
• A situation in which decentralisation is not executed completely.
• The less participation of people in grama sabhas.
• Dip in the panchayat’s own revenue in the rural sector.
• Inadequacy of infrastructure.

Question 5.
(A) The poor are those who do not have access to income or property to meet even their basic needs.
a) What are the major causes of poverty?
Answer:

• Unemployment
• Corruption
• Political instability
• Price rise
• Overpopulation
• Inequality

b) Define Multi dimensional Poverty Index.
Answer:

• The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a new method developed to measure global poverty.
• It was jointly prepared by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• Multidimensional poverty is calculated by assessing twelve indicators across three dimensions: health, education, and standard of living of the members of a household.
• Multidimensional poverty is calculated by taking into account how much each individual and family can achieve in terms of health, education, and standard of living.

OR

(B) South Africa is a country that is located at the southernmost tip of the African continent sharing its borders with the Indian Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean.
a) Briefly explain the geographical features and location of South Africa.
Answer:
South Africa is a country that is located at the southernmost tip of the African continent sharing its borders with the Indian Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean. Broad coastal lands, vast plains and plateaus, lofty mountain ranges, great rivers, waterfalls and dry deserts make this country unique. South Africa is situated approximately between Latitudes: 22°S and 35°S and Longitudes: 16°E and 33°E. South Africa has its own diverse geographical features. The wealth from inland agrarian lands and mines, weather and human resources attracted the Europeans to South Africa. South Africa shares its borders with six countries: Namibia to the northwest, Botswana to the north, Zimbabwe to the northeast, Mozambique to the northeast, Eswatini (Swaziland) to the east, and Lesotho, an enclave within South Africa, completely surrounded by South African territory.

b) Examine the oppressive laws and their consequences in South Africa during the tenure of different governments.
Answer:

Laws	Consequences
The Mines and Works Regulations Act	Skilled works were reserved only for the whites.
Natives Land Act	The blacks were allocated special areas called ‘reserves’ and were not allowed to purchase land in other areas.
The Natives [Urban Areas] Act	Blacks were restricted from entering cities.
Separate Representation of Voters Act	Blacks were removed from the general voters’ list.

Question 6.
Farming is the practice of cultivating land, growing crops, and raising animals for food, fibre and other products used to sustain and enhance human life.
a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of commercial farming?
Answer:

• Advantages: Increased income for farmers, employment opportunities, contribution to the national economy, and access to new technologies and improved farming practices.
• Disadvantages: Can lead to environmental degradation, over-reliance on a single crop (monoculture), potential displacement of small farmers, and vulnerability to market fluctuations and global trade dynamics.

b) Write a short note on agricultural crops.
Answer:
The diverse crops of India can be classified as food crops and cash crops. The crops that can be directly consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

• Food crops- Rice, wheat, maize, millets, and pulses.
• Cash crops- cotton, rubber, jute, tea, and coffee.

c) Write the geographical factors of cultivation.
Answer:

• Favourable climate
• Irrigation facility
• Fertile soil

After completing the syllabus, Class 7 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 1 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 1

Time : 2¼ hours

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the questions.
• Answer all the 6 questions. Answer all the sub questions in it.
• For questions with internal choice, answer either A or B.

Question 1.
(A) Boers are the descendants of the Dutch, French and Germans who came to south Africa from Europe.
a) Explain the following terms.
i. First Boer War
Answer:
The First Boer War: Britain captured Transvaal to extend their reign to more regions. Following this, the First Boer War started (1880-81). The Boers won the battle and formed the Republic of South Africa, merging Transvaal and the nearby regions.

ii. Second Boer War
Answer:
The Second Boer War: Disputes over the assets from the gold mines and the control over them led to the Second Boer War. The Boer administrators instituted tax on the gold mines. The British demanded the right to vote for their labourers in the mines. When this demand was denied by the Republican administrators, the armed struggle – the most destructive war in the history of South Africa, started.

b) Fill in the blanks.
i. _________ Island has as much importance in the history of South Africa.
ii. The National Party that came to power in _________
iii. Nelson Mandela was born on 8th July _________
iv. A new mode of struggle named _________ was organised, demanding the right to vote, a constitution without apartheid and the retrieval of ‘Pass Laws.’
Answer:
i. Robben
ii. 1948
iii. 1918
iv. ‘Stay-at-home’

OR

(B) Public expenditure is the amount spent by the government for developmental and non-developmental activities.
a) Categorise the following expenditure as developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.

• Interest
• Construction of roads
• Energy generation
• Construction of schools
• Defence
• War

Answer:

Developmental Expenditure	Non Developmental Expenditure
• Construction of roads	• Interest
• Energy Generation	• War
• Construction of schools	• Defence

b) What are the objectives of Fiscal policy?
Answer:

• Accelerate the economic growth
• Create job opportunities
• Regulate additional expenditure
• Eliminate the inequality in the distribution of revenues

Question 2.
Nowadays, several new technological devices are available with which we can collect, store, analyse and utilise the information of a geographical region.
a) Explain the working of GIS.
Answer:

b) What is the difference between Physical and Cultural maps?
Answer:
Physical Maps – Maps that depict natural features of a region, such as topography, soil, rivers, climate and vegetation.
Cultural Maps – Maps that depict man-made features or cultural features.

Question 3.
a) Differentiate between the recommendations of Balwantrai Mehta Committee and Ashok Mehta Committee.
Answer:

The Recommendations of Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957)	The Recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
The three-tier panchayat ssytem-Grama Panchayat, Panchayat Committee, District Parishad.	The two-tier system-Mandal Panchayat, District Parishad
The power for planning and execution to be given to Panchayat Committees and supervision and organisation for District Parishad.	The District Parishad shall have the charge over the district-level planning. Mandal panchayats are in charge of the villages.
Direct election in Grama Panchayats	Constitutional validity for panchayat institutions.
Indirect electrion in District Parishad and Panchayat Committee	Reservation for Scheduled Caste-Scheduled Tribe.

b) Choose the correct option from the following.
I. How often is the Grama Sabha convened?
i. Once a month
ii. Once in three months
iii. Once in a year
iv. Every week
Answer:
ii. Once in three months

II. Who is responsible for convening the Grama Sabha?
i. The Mayor ii. The Ward Member
ii. The Ward Members
iii. The Panchayat President
iv. The Village Chief
Answer:
ii. The Ward Members

Question 4.
The Central and State governments are implementing many poverty alleviation schemes to eradicate the poverty prevalent in our country.
a) Explain the Social Security Schemes with objectives.
Answer:

Project Section	Name of the Project	Objectives
Social Security Schemes	National Social Assistance Scheme Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bhima Yojana	Provide pension and insurance coverage to indigent senior citizens.
	Niramaya Health Insurance Scheme	Scheme to provide health insurance to differently abled persons in the State.

b) Write about Hunger-free Kerala.
Answer:
The key objective of the Hunger-Free Kerala Project is to eliminate hunger and make Kerala a hunger- free state. From 2017 to 2018, the project is being run with the help of Kudumbashree and local self-government bodies. Through such innovative projects, the aim is to achieve food security by ensuring adequate food for all.

Question 5.
(A) The Bhakti movement in South India existed between CE 7th and 12th century.
a) Complete the chart related to the impacts of Bhakti Movement in South India.

Answer:

• Women were allowed to participate in discussions in the Anubhava Mandapam.
• Their opinions gained recognition and made them think about the idea of equality between men and women.
• The Bhakti movement was also able to educate people about the greatness of the occupation.

b) What are the writings of the Alwars known as?
i. Padmavat
ii. Geetha Govind
iii. Thirumuraikal
iv. Nalayiradivya Prabandham
Answer:
iv) Nalayiradivya Prabandham

c) Name the poet of Bhakthi movement who propagated his ideas through the hymns”Dohas”.
i. Basavanna
ii. Jayadev
iii. Kabir
iv. Yarapragada
Answer:
iii. Kabir

OR

(B) a) Compare the religious policies of Akbar and Krishna Deva Raya.
Answer:

Religious policies of Akbar

Religious policies of Krishna Deva Raja

In 1575, Akbar built Ibadat Khana in his new capital, Fatehpur Sikri. Scholars and dignitaries of various religions gathered here to discuss Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance. Akbar created Din-i-Ilahi, his visionary religion by combining the good aspects of all religions. Peace to all or sulh-i-kul is the core of this vision. He aimed to clarify the idea that all visions are for the welfare of human beings. The abolition of the religious tax called ‘Jaziah’ proved that Akbar also followed tolerance in the administrative field. People from all sects were treated equally in all spheres of the Mughal rule.

Vijayanagara society consisted of various castes and religions. Brahmins were the dominant group in the society. They were entitled to the revenue from the land allotted to the temples. Brahmins used to lead the rituals and religious ceremonies in the temples. Other sections of the society were mainly engaged in agriculture, trade and handicrafts. Polygamy prevailed among the wealthy.

b) When was the first Battle of Panipat held?
i. 1526
ii. 1509
iii. 1529
iv. 1707
Answer:
i. 1526

Question 6.
The atmosphere is classified into five different layers based on temperature conditions.
a) The atmospheric layers and their features are given below. Match them correctly.

Exosphere	Temperature increases with an increase in altitude
Thermosphere	Uppermost layer of the atmosphere
Mesosphere	Zone where ozone is present
Stratosphere	Lowermost layer of the atmosphere
Troposphere	The layer where meteors burn to ash

Answer:

Exosphere	Uppermost layer of the atmosphere
Thermosphere	Temperature increases with an increase in altitude
Mesosphere	The layer where meteors burn to ash
Stratosphere	Zone where ozone is present
Troposphere	Lowermost layer of the atmosphere

b) Write any two negative impacts of ultraviolet rays.
Answer:

• Skin cancer
• Climate Change

To reduce exam fear, Class 7 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 1 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 1

Time: 2¼ hour

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
• Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
a) You may have noticed that fans and tubelights are working in the classrooms when there are no students. Prepare a poster that includes instructions to prevent electricity waste,
Answer:

b) Observe the figure and explain how electricity is generated in hydroelectric power stations.

Answer:
Generators in hydroelectric power stations work using the energy obtained when water stored in reservoirs of dams falls from a height. In dams, water, which is stored in reservoirs, is carried through pipes and made to fall forcefully onto the turbines connected to the generators. The force of falling water rotates the turbines. The generators connected to the turbines start to work and produce electricity. This electricity is transmitted to various places through electric lines.

c) Which one of the following systems convert energy from the sun to electric energy?
A. Solar cells
B. Wind farm
C. Generator
D. Electric cell
Answer:
A. Solar cells

Question 2.
a) Examine the table and find out the correct group.

1. Urea	A.Biological control
2. Tobacco decoction	B Chemical fertiliser
3. Vermi compost	C.Organic pesticide
4. Trichogramma	D.Organic fertiliser

A) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
B) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-D
C) 1-D, 2-A. 3-B, 4-C
D) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Answer:
A. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4- A

(b) Whose opinion do you agree with? Why?

Answer:
I agree with the third Farmer. Organic and chemical fertilisers have their own merits and demerits. Farmers in our state employ a mixed method, applying a greater quantity of organic fertilisers and a lesser quantity of chemical fertilisers. Farmers also use microbial fertilisers for better yield.

c) Which method of pest control is by using traps or by hand picking? Name an equipment available in the market for this
Answer:
Mechanical control. Pheromone trap.

3. Question 3 has two parts 3(A) and 3(B). Write any one 3(A) or 3(B) completely.

Question 3.
(A) a) At which place is a land breeze and sea breeze felt strongly?
A. High Land
B. Mid Land
C. Coastal areas
D. Coastal areas and highland
Answer:
C. Coastal areas

b) Wind blows from sea to land during the day. What is the reason for this?
Answer:
During the day, the land gets heated up more quickly than the sea. The air above the land gets heated and expands. The air with lower density rises up. The comparatively cooler air above the sea blows towards the land. This is called sea breeze.

c) Statements regarding sea breeze and land breeze are given below. Among them select the right ones and classify them.

• At night breeze blow from sea to land.
• At daytime breeze flow from sea to land.
• At night sea gets cooled fast.
• At night breeze blow from land to sea.
• At night land gets cooled fast.
• At daytime the air above the land rises upwards.
• At daytime the air above the sea rises upwards.

Answer:
The integrated farming of crop cultivation and animal husbandry increases their income. By integrating methods, they can avoid sector-specific expenses, save space, and generate revenue from any field, at any time.

OR

(B) The data collected by visiting the fields of two farmers practising integrated farming is given below.

a) Which farmer interrelatedly utilises the resources to the maximum?
Answer:
Farmer-1

b) Justify your opinion.
Answer:
The integrated farming of crop cultivation and aninlal husbandry increases their income. By integrating methods, they can avoid sector-specific expenses, save space, and generate revenue from any field, at any time.

c) Give two suggestions to the farmers who practice integrated farming.
Answer:
Use cow dung for paddy fields as an organic manure. The straw obtained from paddy cultivation, the bran obtained from husking paddy grains, etc can be given to cattle as fodder, and the organic wastes from homes and agricultural fields can be utilized towards the gas plant.

Question 4.
Some observations related to acids and alkalis are given below.
Solution – 1
No change in colour while adding Phenolphthalein. The colour changed into pale pink while adding Methyl orange. The colour did not change when the solution was added to the cloth rubbed with turmeric.

Solution – 2
Formed pink colour while adding Phenolphthalein. Formed pale yellow colour on adding Methyl orange. Formed red colour when the solution was added to the cloth rubbed with turmeric.
a) List out the chemical properties of solution 1 & solution 2 in the given table

Solution	Chemical Properties
Solution – 1
Solution – 2

Answer:

Solution	Chemical properties
Solution -1	Acids turn blue litmus paper red. Reacts with metals to produce hydrogen gas Reacts with bases to form salts and water
Solution -2	Bases turn red litmus paper blue Feels slippery or soapy to touch Reacts with acids to form salts and water

b) Write down any two general properties of solution 2.
Answer:

• Slippery or Soapy Feel.
• Turns Red Litmus Paper Blue

c) Find out the right pair from the following.
1. Automobile battery: hydrochloric acid
2. Manufacturing of soap: caustic soda
3. Preparation of pickle: sulphuric acid
4. Manufacture of paint: caustic soda
Answer:
2. Manufacturing of soap: caustic soda

Question 5.
Observe the picture.

a) Which among the following can be used to light the bulb in the above arrangement? Why?
[Copper wire. Glass, Aluminium wire, Refill, Iron wire, Rolled paper, Pencil graphite]
Answer:
Copper wire. Aluminium wire, Iron wire. Pencil graphite. All these are good conductors of electricity

b) The symbols used in circuit diagrams are given below. Name them.

Answer:
a-Cell,
(b is already given)
c-Wire

c) Draw the symbols of switch ‘on’ and ‘off’ positions.
Answer:

6. Question 6 has two parts 6 (A) and 6 (B). Write any one 6 (A) or 6(B) completely.

Question 6.
(A) The following are the peculiarities of two types of guava.

Variety A	High resistance to diseases	Fruits are less sweet	Fruits are small in size
Variety B	Low resistance to diseases	Fruits are more sweet	Fruits are big in size

a) Write the peculiarities of the saplings produced by the hybridization of these two varieties.

Sapling 1	Low resistance to disease, less sweet, big in size
Sapling 2
Sapling 3
Sapling 4
Sapling 5

Answer:
Sapling – 2 – High resistance, fruits are more sweet, fruits are small in size.
Sapling – 3 – Low resistance to disease, Fruits are less sweet, Fruits are small in size.
Sapling – 4 – High resistance to disease, Fruits are less sweet, Fruits are big in size.
Sapling – 5 – Low resistance to disease, Fruits are more sweet, Fruits are big.

b) Write the peculiarities of hybrid plants which have the most desirable qualities of these two varieties.
Answer:
High and Quick yield. Resistance to infections.

c) Write the names of any two hybrid paddy seeds.
Answer:
Pavitra, Annapurna, Hraswa

OR

(B) a) Examine the situations given below.
i. Changing bulb when the switch is on
ii. Using footwear while ironing clothes.
iii. Turning on the switch with wet hand
iv. Changing bulb when the switch is off Identify the situations that may cause electric shock.
A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. i and iii
D. ii and iv
Answer:
C. i and iii

b) A broken electric line is lying on the mango tree by the road side. Write a safety measure that you would take in this situation and the reason for it.
Answer:
In the event of a broken electric line, the most important safety measure is to stay away from the area and immediately report it to the local electricity board or emergency services. This is because the ground and the surrounding objects could be energised, creating a severe risk of electrocution.

c) Write any two initial steps to be taken to rescue a person experiencing an electric shock.
Answer:
The first thing to be done is to disconnect the electrical contact. You can switch off or remove the fuse for this. If it is not possible, separate the person from the electric circuit using a dry wooden stick or some other good insulator.

• In the case of heart failure, perform chest compressions. Place one hand on top of the other and apply continuous pressure on the victim’s chest. This should be done tintil the heart starts beating again.
• If breathing stops, give artificial respiration. Keep the body warm by massaging.
• Take the person immediately to a hospital if the shock is severe.

To reduce exam fear, Class 7 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 2¼ hour

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
• Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
a) A metal frame can be fixed to the wheel of the bullock cart. Explain how thermal expansion of objects is useful in this situation.
Answer:
The metal frame expands while heating. So it slips easily onto the wheel. As the frame cools, it contracts to the original size and fits tightly on the wheel.

b) Write any other two instances in which the thermal expansion of objects is useful.
Answer:

• To loosen the cap of a fountain pen that is tightened if it is heated.
• To take out a glass tumbler that got jammed into another, it is dipped in hot water.

c) Choose the correct statement from those given below, which is related to sea breeze and land breeze
A) Land gets heated sooner during the daytime.
B) The sea gets heated sooner during the daytime.
C) During the daytime, the air above the land gets heated and rises.
D) During the night land cools down sooner.
1. A and B are correct
2. A and D are correct
3. C and D are correct
4. All are correct
Answer:
2. A and D are correct

Question 2.
a) Given are some statements on the Human excretory system. Find out the correct statements from the following.
A) The primary function of the kidneys is to remove excess waste and fluid from the blood to produce urine, but they also have roles in regulating blood pressure and red blood cell production.
B) The main components of sweat are water and urea, which are the two primary waste products expelled by the skin.
C) The liver and lungs are also considered accessory excretory organs because they both play a role in eliminating waste products from the body.
1. A and C are correct.
2. B and C are correct.
3. Only A is correct.
4. Only C is correct.
Answer:
4. Only C is correct.

b) What are the functions of the skin as an excretory organ?
Answer:
The skin plays an excretory role by producing sweat through sweat glands. Sweat is a mixture of excess water and salts that are eliminated from the body. This process also helps in regulating body temperature.

c) What is the primary function of the renal artery and renal vein in relation to the kidneys?
Answer:
The renal artery carries blood containing waste products (like urea) and other substances to the kidneys for filtration, while the renal vein carries the filtered, cleaner blood away from the kidneys.

3. Question 3 has two parts 3(A) and 3(B). Write any one 3(A) or 3(B) completely.

Question 3.
(A) Observe the Sun, the Earth and the Moon in the given illustration.
a) What do pictures 1 & 5 indicate?
A. New moon day, Full moon day
B. Full moon day, New moon day
C. Waxing, Waning
D. Waning, Waxing
Answer:
A. New moon day, Full moon day

b) Write the reason for seeing them like this.
Answer:
When the moon comes to position 1, The lighted part of the moon is not facing the Earth, so the moon is not visible.
When the Moon is in position 5, the whole of the lighted part of the Moon is facing the Earth.

c) Waxing and waning happen on the moon. Why?
Answer:
From the new moon day to the full moon day, the lighted portion of the moon becomes more visible. This is called waxing. From the full moon day to the new moon day, there is a decrease in the visibility of the lighted area of the moon from the Earth. This is called waning. The difference in the visibility of the lighted and dark areas of the moon when observed from the Earth is the reason for the waxing and waning of the moon.

OR

(B) Examine the given table indicating the peculiarities of the two varieties of plants.

Variety I	Variety 2
Low yield	High yield
Active growth in our soil	Poor growth in our soil
Long life span	Short life span
Need less nurturing	Need more nurturing

a) Which variety can be selected as stock and which one as scion to produce good saplings with high yield?
Answer:
Rootstock – Variety 1, Scion – Variety 2.

b) What are the methods adopted to produce good saplings with high yields? Explain anyone.
Answer:
Hybridisation, Crop rotation, Intercropping.
Hybridization: Hybridization is the method of production of seeds by artificially pollinating two plants which have different qualities and belong to the same species. From the seeds thus produced, those with superior quality are collected. These are the hybrid seeds.

c) Group the following varieties of seeds suitably.

Annapooma, Bhagyalakshmi, Anugraha, Anamika, Jwalamukhi, Kiran, Lola, Hraswa

Answer:

Plants	Hybrid seeds
Paddy	Annapooma, Hraswa
Pea	Bhagyalakshmi
Chilli	Jwalamukhi, Anugraha
Lady’s finger	Kiran, Anamika
Cow pea	Lola

Question 4.
“Due to 30% shortage of rainfall, Kerala will be in darkness. If monsoon is not received in full, we will be facing severe power crisis. This can be overcome to some extent by using electricity judiciously and avoiding its wastage.”
Have you noticed the news report?
A) Write down two precautions to avoid the wastage of electricity.
Answer:
Turn off lights and appliances when not in use: Ensure that you switch off lights, fans, and other electrical devices when leaving a room.
Use energy-efficient appliances: Opt for appliances that consume less electricity, such as LED bulbs and energy-efficient refrigerators.

B) What first aid will be given to a person affected with electric shock?
Answer:
The first step is to disconnect the electrical contact. You can switch off or remove the fuse for this. If it is not possible, , separate the person from the electric circuit using a dry wooden stick or another suitable insulator.
In the case of heart failure, perform chest compressions. Place one hand on top of the other and apply continuous pressure on the victim’s chest. This should be done until the heart starts beating again.
If breathing stops, give artificial respiration. Keep the body warm by massaging.

Question 5.
a) Is there any relation between the distance to the object and the distance to the image from a plane mirror? Design an experiment to prove this relation.
Answer:
The distance to the object and the distance to the image from a plane mirror are the same. Fix a plane
mirror vertically on a table using double-sided tape. Place a lighted candle at a certain distance from the plane mirror (say, 3 cm). Repeat the experiment by placing the candle at different positions (say, 4 cm, 5cm, etc.,). Observe the position of the image in the mirror. We can observe that the distance from the object to the image in a plane mirror is equal to the distance from the object to the mirror

b) Write two peculiarities of the image formed in a plane mirror.
Answer:
Virtual and erect
The size of the object and the image is the same.

Question 6 has two parts 6 (A) and 6 (B). Write any one 6 (A) or 6 (B) completely.

Question 6.
(A) A) The observation result of an experiment is given below. Identify the gases formed

Acids	Substance	Gas
Vinegar	Zinc piece	i)
Vinegar	Baking soda	ii)

Answer:
i) Hydrogen
ii) Carbon dioxide

B) Write the methods to identify the gases produced in this chemical reaction.
Answer:
i) Collect a small sample of the gas in a test tube and bring a lit match or splint near the mouth of the test tube. If the gas is hydrogen, then it will bum with a pop sound,
ii) Bubble the gas through limewater. If the gas is carbon dioxide, the limewater will turn milky.

C) Name any two acids used in the laboratory instead of vinegar.
Answer:
Hydrochloric Acid, Sulphuric Acid

(B) Listen to the words of the earthworm.

A. How does the overuse of chemical pesticides and chemical fertilisers affect the soil, men, and other living things?
Answer:
Fertilisers boost crop yields, but their excessive usage has hardened the soil, reduced fertility, strengthened insecticides, polluted air and water, and emitted greenhouse gases, creating health and environmental risks.

B. Write the method of preparation of a bio-pesticide.
Answer:
Tobacco Decoction: Chop 100 grams of tobacco and soak it in one and a half litres of water for a day. Squeeze it and filter it. Dissolve 10 grams of washing soap in it. Dilute it by adding twice the quantity of water and spray it on plants.

C. Name any two bio-fertilisers.
Answer:
Cow dung, Compost.

To reduce exam fear, Class 7 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 3 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 2¼ hour

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
• Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
a) Examine the statements given below. Classify them on the basis of the properties of acids and bases.
A. Has a sour taste
B. Turns pink when phenolphthalein is added
C. Slippery
D. Turns pink when methyl orange is added
E. Turns the colour of Pathimugam water into yellow
F. Red litmus turns blue
G. Reacts with metals to produce hydrogen
H. Has an alkaline taste
Answer:

Properties of Acids	Properties of bases
Has a sour taste	Turns pink when phenolphthalein is added.
Turn the colour of the pathimugam water into yellow	Slippery
React with metal to produce hydrogen.	Red litmus turns blue
	Has an alkaline taste

b) Some acids and their uses are listed below. Find out the correct groups from them.
A. Acetic acid is used as a preservative and flavouring agent
B. Curd contains ascorbic acid. Used to make a drink
C. Sulphuric acid is used to make drinks
D. Nitric acid is used to make chemical fertilisers, paints and dyes
1. A and D are correct
2. C and D are correct
3. A and B are correct
4. All are correct
Answer:
1. A and D are correct

c) Among the liquids in the three beakers (A, B, C) placed on the table are an acid, a base and water. Suggest a method to identify them without tasting or smelling?
Answer:
Water: Neutral litmus paper will show no colour change.
Acid: Red litmus paper will stay red, but blue litmus paper will turn red.
Base: Blue litmus paper will stay blue, but red litmus paper will turn blue.

Question 2 has two parts 2 (A) and 2(B). Write any one 2(A) or 2(B) completely.

Question 2.
(A) a) Which method of purification can be adopted to separate freshwater from seawater?
a) Sifting
b) Chlorination
c) Distillation
d) Sedimentation
Answer:
c) Distillation

b) How do water bodies get polluted?
Answer:

• Disposal of plastic waste
• Spillage of a chemical substance
• Sewage from home, including human waste.
• Factory releases harmful chemicals and toxic substances directly into the river and lakes

c) What measures can we adopt to make water sources free from pollution ?

Answer:
Reducing waste, recycling materials, and reusing products can help to minimise the amount of waste. Encourage the use of organic fertilisers and natural pest control methods.

OR

(B) a) Examine the table given below and rewrite the mistakes, if any

Organism	Parts that help in respiration
Earthworm	Gills
Fish	Moist skin
Frog	Book lungs
Spider	Lungs

Answer:

Organism	Parts that help in respiration
Earthworm	Moist skin
Fish	Gills
Frog	Lungs
Spider	Book lungs

b) Observe the figure

The digestive systems of these animals share similarities with our own digestive system. What is your response to this statement?
Answer:
Yes. Like the digestive system of human beings, these animals have a mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, etc.

c) Which among the following is correct in the group of omnivores?
A. Crow, Hen, Peacock
B. Man, Monkey, Peacock
C. Lion, Tiger, Deer
D. Goat, Elephant, Rabbit
1. A and B are correct
2. C and B are correct
3. C and D are correct
4. All are correct
Answer:
1. A and B are correct

Question 3.
Consider the following situations in everyday life:

• Tightly bound electric wires get sagged in summer.
• One end of a PVC pipe is heated, and the end of another pipe of the same diameter is inserted into it to join them.

a) Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the above situations?
A. Evaporation
B. Thermal Expansion
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
Answer:
B. Thermal expansion

b) Hot tea of the same quantity is kept in an open steel tumbler and in a closed glass tumbler of the same size. Tea in which tumbler stays hot longer? Explain your findings on the basis of heat transmission.
Answer:
The tea in the closed glass tumbler stays hot longer than in the open steel tumbler. Because in an open tumbler, heat is lost quickly through convection and evaporation, cooling the tea. However, in a closed tumbler, the lid retains heat and steam, thereby reducing heat loss.

c) Observe the picture given below. What are the ways in which heat is transferred in the numbered positions?

Answer:
1 – Convection
2 – Conduction
3 – Radiation

Question 4.
a) Look at the statements below.
Statement I : The stamens of a flower in which artificial pollination is to be done are removed. Statement II: The stamens of the flower are removed to prevent self-pollination.
A. Statement I is true, and Statement II is not the correct reason.
B. Statement I is true, and Statement II is false. #
C. Statement I is false, and Statement II is wrong.
D. Statement I is true, and Statement II is the correct reason.
Answer:
D. Statement I is true, and Statement II is the correct reason.

b) Complete in the missing stages of artificial pollination.

Answer:
Stage 1: To prevent self-pollination, remove the stamen from the flower in which artificial pollination is to be done.
Stage 3: Pollen grains from the flower of a plant belonging to the same species but having different qualities are collected by using a brush.

c) Find the correct pair from the following.
A. Apiculture – Rearing Fish
B. Cuniculture – Rearing Rabbits
C. Floriculture – Rearing Honeybee
D. Pisciculture – Growing flowers
Answer:
B. Cuniculture -Rearing Rabbits

Question 5.
a) Examine the table and find out the correct group.

1) Hen	A) 4 Chamber
2) Frog	B) 13 Chamber
3) Fish	C) 2 Chamber
4) Cockroach	D) 3 Chamber

A. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
B. 1 -A, 2-C, 3-D,4-B
C. 1 -B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
D. 1 -C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Answer:
A) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

b) Whose opinion do you agree with? Why?

Answer:
I agree with the opinion of the Manu, Because Arteries are the blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to different body parts.

c) For maintaining the health of the heart, we have to follow some healthy habits. Write any two of them?
Name the device used to check the heartbeat?
Answer:

• Do Regular exercise
• Eat healthy food

Question 6 has two parts 6 (A) and 6 (B). Write any one 6 (A) or 6(B) completely.

Question 6.
(A) a) Observe the picture.

a) Which one shows the starting position of the lunar eclipse?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
Answer:
a) B

b) Some statements are given below. Find out the correct group from them.
A. A Full Moon is the day when the part of the Moon on which the sunlight falls is completely visible from the Earth.
B. The waxing crescent Moon is visible overhead at sunset.
C. Solar eclipse occurs only on New Moon Day.
D. A lunar eclipse occurs on all Full Moon days.
1. A and C are correct
2. A and D are correct
3. C and D are correct
4. All are correct
Answer:
2. A and D are correct

c) Why is the spherical Moon seen in different shapes on different days?
Answer:
The Moon appears in different shapes throughout the month because of its orbit around the Earth. As the .Moon orbits, the amount of its illuminated surface that we can see from Earth changes.

Or

(B) The picture below shows a sample of honey.
a) Write an experiment to identify the pure honey.
Answer:
Materials required: Glass, Water, Honey
Procedure: Pure honey is poured into water.

Observation:

• Honey settles down
• Honey dissolves in water

Inference:

• If honey settles down. It is not adulterated
• If the honey is adulterated, it immediately dissolves in water.

b) What is adulteration?
Answer:
Adulteration means making a good product worse by adding cheap or harmful substances to it, or by taking away something valuable, usually to make more money.

c) What are the health risks associated with consuming adulterated food?
Answer:
Adulterated food can cause various health problems, such as allergies, digestive issues and even long-term health complications.

To reduce exam fear, Class 7 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 2¼ hour

Instructions:

• 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
• Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
a) Observe the picture.

Identify and write the incident ray and reflected ray.
Answer:
OA is the incident ray. OB is the reflected ray.

b) Classify the following based on the type of reflection:

• Smooth plane mirror
• Rough wall
• Still water
• Paper
• Polished metal
• Wooden surface

Answer:

Regular Reflection	Irregular / Diffuse Reflection
Smooth plane mirror	Rough wall
Still water	Paper
Polished metal	Wooden surface

c) Peculiarities of images formed by a plane mirror are given below. Select the correct ones.
1. Image is virtual.
2. Image is erect.
3. Image is magnified.
4. Image is of the same size as the object.
Options:
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D. All are correct
Answer:
C. 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Question 2 has two parts 2 (A) and 2(B). WrIte any one 2(A) or 2(B) completely.

Question 2.
(A) Observe the picture

a) Vegetables in the fridge do not get damaged. But when the fridge is not working, vegetables start to decay. What is the reason?
A. Microorganisms die completely at low temperatures
B. Microorganisms remain inactive at low temperatures
C. Microorganisms multiply faster at low temperatures
D. Microorganisms do not exist in vegetables
Answer:
B. Microorganisms remain inactive at low temperatures

b) Food is kept in refrigerators to prevent decay. Write any two scientific reasons to justify this.
Answer:
At very low temperatures, the activity of microorganisms is slowed down or becomes inactive. This prevents food from decaying and keeps it fresh for a longer time.

c) Write a few suitable methods of food preservation.
Answer:
Putting food in a salt solution or sugar solution

• Drying food items
• Vinegar is also used as a food preservative

OR

(B) a) Examine the table given below and rewrite the mistakes, if any.

Organ	Function
Small intestine	Absorbs a major part of water
Large intestine	Digestion is completed
Stomach	Absorption of digested food
Oesophagus	Digestion of food

Answer:

Organ	Function
Small intestine	Digestion is completed, and absorption of digested food
Large intestine	Absorbs a major part of water
Stomach	Partial digestion of food
Oesophagus	Passage of food from the mouth to the stomach (no digestion)

b) Digestion is said to be completed in the small intestine. Do you agree with this statement? Write your response.
Answer:
Yes, I agree. The small intestine is the part of the digestive system where digestion is completed with the help of enzymes and bile. It also absorbs nutrients into the blood.

c) Which among the following is correct in the stages of nutrition?
Options:
A. Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Egestion
B. Absorption → Digestion → Ingestion → Absorption → Assimilation
C. Absorption → Ingestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Digestion
D. Absorption → Digestion → Assimilation → Ingestion → Egestion
Answer:
A. Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Assimilation → Egestion

Question 3.
a) You may have observed that while cooking on a gas stove, heat is transferred to the vessel and then to the food inside it.

a) Explain the different types of heat transfer that occur during this process.
Answer:
There are three types of heat transfer involved in cooking on a gas stove:

• Conduction: Heat is transferred from the flame to the metal pan through direct contact. The metal pan conducts heat to the food inside.
• Convection: Inside the pan, heat is transferred through the movement of hot liquids or gases (e.g., boiling water circulates due to convection currents).
• Radiation: Heat is also transferred directly from the flame to the pan in the form of infrared radiation.

b) Cooking vessels often have handles made of materials like plastic or wood. Give a reason for using such materials for handles.
Answer:
Handles are made of materials like plastic or wood because they are poor conductors of heat (non-conductors).
This prevents the handles from getting too hot, making them safe to hold and preventing bums while cooking,

c) How is heat mainly transferred in liquids and gases?
a) Conduction
b) Radiation
c) Convection
d) Reflection
Answer:
c) Convection

Question 4.
a) Examine the given statement and reason and write down the correct one.
Statement: Gooseberry has a sour taste.
Reason: Contains ascorbic acid.
A) Statement is correct. Reason is not suitable for the statement.
B) Statement is correct. Reason is suitable for the statement.
C) Statement is wrong. Reason is not suitable for the statement.
D) Statement and the reason are wrong.
Answer:
A) Statement is correct. Reason is not suitable for the statement.

b) Soap is made by using caustic soda, coconut oil, water, sodium silicate, stone powder, colour and perfume. The stages of soap preparation are outlined below. Complete the missing ones.

Answer:
1) Dissolve caustic soda in water and allow it to cool.
2) Add coconut oil when it has cooled and stir it.
3) Add sodium silicate and continue stirring.
4) Add stone powder, colour, and perfume. Mix thoroughly.
5) Pour the mixture into moulds.
6) Remove from the mould after solidification.

c) Name two natural indicators and write their colour change in acid and alkali.
Answer:

Natural Indicator	Colour in Acid	Colour in Alkali
a) Turmeric	Yellow	Reddish-brown
b) Red cabbage	Red/Pink	Greenish/Blue

Question 5.
a) Examine the table and find out the correct group.

Name of the organ	Function related to excretion
1. Kidney	A. Breaks down toxins
2. Skin	B.Removes carbon dioxide and water vapour
3. Lungs	C. Sweat
4. Liver	D.Removes urea, excess water, and salts in the form of urine

A) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
B) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
C) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
D) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Answer:
A) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

b) Prepare posters as part of the anti-drug awareness campaign and display them in your school?
Answer:

c) What difference is there in the amount of urea in the blood vessel that reaches the kidney and leaves the kidney?
Answer:
The blood vessel that reaches the kidney has urea in greater quantities, and the blood vessel that leaves the kidney has urea in lesser quantities.

d) Name the organs mentioned in the pictures and identify the organ that does not belong to the group.

Answer:
1 – Kidney, 2 – Skin, 3 – Lungs
The skin is an organ that does not belongs to the group because it is an external organ that covers the body.

Question 6 has two parts 6 (A) and 6 (B). Write any one 6 (A) or 6(B) completely.

Question 6.
A. Observe the news report.

A) a) Draw a circle to represent the Sun.
Draw a smaller circle to represent the Moon.
Position the Moon between the Sun and the Earth.
Draw the shadow cast by the Moon onto the Earth.
Label the Sun, Moon, Earth, and shadow in your drawing.
Answer:

b) Explain what happens during a solar eclipse based on your diagram.
Answer:
In a solar eclipse, the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth. When this happens, the Moon blocks the Sun’s light, casting a shadow onto the Earth. The area of the Earth that is covered by the shadow experiences a solar eclipse.

c) What are the risks of looking directly at a solar eclipse? Describe at least two safe ways to observe a solar eclipse.
Answer:
Direct observation of a solar eclipse can be harmful to the eyes. This is because intense sunlight can damage the retina, a sensitive part of the eye. Therefore, it is essential to use proper filters or indirect methods to observe a solar eclipse.

Safe methods for observing a solar eclipse include :

• Using solar eclipse glasses: These special glasses have a special filter that blocks harmful ultraviolet and infrared rays while allowing visible light to pass through.
• Using a solar filter for telescopes or binoculars: A solar filter should be attached to the front of the telescope or binoculars to protect your eyes.

(B) Analyse the news report

a) What are the harmful effects that cause soil pollution?
Answer:
The natural condition of the soil is ruined.

• Its capacity for holding water is reduced.
• The poisons in the pollutants reach plants and animals.
• Through food, these poisons reach man.

b) Write any two scientific methods of waste management.
Answer:
Vermi composting
Production of biogas

c) Classify and tabulate the following household waste into biodegradable, non-biodegradable and hazardous waste.

Food Wastes, Paper, Bulbs, Footwear, CFL Lamps, Paint containers, Mobile phone battery, Vegetable wastes, Cardboard packing, plastic bottles, Glass bottles

Answer:

Biodegradable	Non-biodegradable	Hazardous waste
Food Wastes	Bulbs	CFL Lamps
Paper	Footwear	Mobile Phone Battery
Cardboard packing	Glass bottles	Paint containers
Vegetable Wastes	Plastic bottles

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Std 7 English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus

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Class 7 English Question Paper with Answer Kerala Syllabus

Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard English Question Paper

• Kerala Syllabus Class 7 English Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 7 English Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus Class 7 English Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Syllabus Class 7 English Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Syllabus Class 7 English Model Question Paper Set 5

Previous year question papers & Class 7 English Question Paper with Answer Pdf Download English Medium give students a better understanding of the type of questions asked in earlier exams.

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