Class 8

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 1 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 1

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “Little Things Matter” by APJ. Abdulkalam and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The newspapers reached Rameswaram in a unique way. They came by morning train and were kept at the Rameswaram station. From there they had to be collected and sent to all subscribers. Samsuddin managed it effortlessly. When World War II raged, it affected the newspaper delivery business in a strange way. The British government had placed a number of sanctions and rations on goods. Something like a state of emergency prevailed in the country. Our large family felt the difficulties badly. Food, clothes and the need of the babies were difficult to get. Samsuddin came up with a proposal that delighted me. The train stop at Rameswaram was cancelled. How to get the papers then? Samsuddin found a way out.

Question 1.
How did the subscribers in Rameswaram get their newspapers before the World War II?
Answer:
The newspapers reached Rameswaram by the morning train and were kept at the Rameswaram station. From there they were collected and sent to all the subscribers. That was how the subscribers in Rameswaram got their newspapers before the World War II.

Question 2.
The state of emergency prevailed in the country:
A. because the World War II was raging.
B. because the British government had placed a number of sanctions and rations on goods.
C. because the large family of Abdulkalam felt the difficulties badly.
D. both A and B.
Answer:
D. both A and B.

Question 3.
Pick out the word from the passage that means ‘made happy’.
Answer:
Delighted

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from the speech “A Tryst with Destiny” by Nehru and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Many years ago we had a secret meeting with destiny and pledged something. Now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge, not in full measure, but in a good measure. At the midnight hour, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom.
A moment comes, which come only rarely in history, when we step out from the old to the new. An age ends. The soul of a nation, long suppressed, can speak openly now. It is fitting that at this solemn moment, we take the pledge of dedication to the service of India and her people and to the still larger cause of humanity.

Question 4.
When will India get freedom, according to the speech?
Answer:
According to the speech, India will get freedom at the midnight hour, when the world sleeps.

Question 5.
Are we redeeming our pledge in full measure?
Answer:
No, we are not redeeming our pledge in full measure, but in a good measure.

Question 6.
At this solemn moment we take a pledge of dedication:
A. to serve India and her people.
B. to serve the British
C. to serve the larger cause of humanity.
D. both A and C.
Answer:
D. Both A and C.

Question 7.
Read the following lines from “Caged Bird” by Maya Angelou and write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines, using the hints given below. (1 × 4 = 4)
A free bird leaps
on the back of the wind
and floats downstream
till the current ends
and dips his wing
in the orange sun rays
and dares to claim the sky.

But a bird that stalks
down his narrow cage
can seldom see through
his bars of rage
his wings are clipped and
his feet are tied
so he opens his throat to sing.
(free bird’s actions and feelings; the caged bird’s actions and feelings; their place and the way they look; the difference between freedom and bondage, personification, language used, the message)
Answer:
The free bird leaps on the back of the wind and floats and floats downstream till the current ends. Then it dips his wing in the orange sun rays. Since the bird is free he can fly as high he wants and to the places he likes. There is noting that stops him from doing what he likes,.

But the caged bird is not free. It is walkingto and fro in its narrow cage. He can hardly see through the bars of the cage. His wings are clipped and his feet are tied. He can only open his throat and sing loudly, not because he is happy but because he is angry and disappointed.

The poem neatly contrasts the situation of the two birds. One is free and happy and the other is caged and unhappy. We see personification here as the pronoun ‘he’ is used to refer to the birds, the language is simple and emotive. The message is loud and clear – freedom is far better than bondage. Everyone and every creature want freedom.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Incredible Journey of Bird Migration
Bird migration is one of the most remarkable phenomena in the natural world. Every year, billions of birds undertake long, arduous journeys between their breeding grounds and their non-breeding (wintering) areas. These migrations are essential for survival, allowing birds to escape the harsh cold and food scarcity of winter and move to warmer places where food is abundant.

The distances covered can be astonishing. The Arctic Tem, for instance, holds the record for the longest migration, flying from the Arctic to the Antarctic and back again each yeara round trip of up to 90,000 kilometres! Even small songbirds, weighing mere grams, can fly thousands of kilometres, often crossing vast oceans and mountains.

The journey is fraught with dangers. Birds face exhaustion, predation, and natural obstacles like storms and strong winds. Human activities, such as the loss of vital stopover habitats (places where they rest and feed) and light pollution that confuses night-flying migrants, also pose significant threats. Understanding and protecting these habitats is crucial for the survival of these incredible travellers.

Question 8.
What are the two main reasons why birds migrate?
Answer:
The two main reasons why birds migrate are survival and escaper from the harsh cold and food scarcity of winter.

Question 9.
Who or what are the incredible travellers mentioned in the last line?
A. Human beings
B. Animals
C. Insects
D. Migratory birds
Answer:
D. Migratory birds

Question 10.
The journey is fraught with dangers. The dangers can be:
A. Exhaustion
B. Distance
C. Size of the Bird
D. Predation
Now, choose the right options.

i) A
ii) B
iii) Both A and D
iv) None of the above
Answer:
iii) Both A and D

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] “A shoulder to rest on is a blessing indeed.” Don’t you agree? How does the story, “A Long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond highlight the bond between generations?
Answer:
I quite agree with the statement that a shoulder to rest on is a blessing indeed. In the story “A Long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond we find the bonding between Mani and his grandmother. It was she who brought him up as his mother died when he was only one year old. She loves him so much that she can’t think of keeping away from him even for a day. He also loves her deeply and that is why he takes her to Mussoorie to get her old glasses changed. We see the joy of the grandmother when she sees her grandson clearly when she got her new glasses. In the bus we see him sleeping on her shoulders one time and she sleeping on his shoulders at another time showing how much they loved and supported each other.

OR
[B] Why does O. Henry, the author of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts”, consider Della and Jim the wisest among those who exchange gifts?
Answer:
O. Henry, the author of the story “ATale of Two Gifts” considers Della and Jim the wisest among those who exchange gifts because giving gifts is a way of showing love. Della loved her beautiful hair and Jim loved his watch. As they had no money to buy an appropriate gift for the partner they sell their precious possessions and buy the things they thought were the most befitting for their partners.

When Jesus was bom, the Magi, the three wise men from the east, presented him with gold, myrrh and frankincense to acknowledge the kingship of Jesus and show their love and respect for him. Here, in the story, by selling their most precious possessions and buying the most appropriate gifts for each other, Jim and Della have shown their love for each other. Thus they are, in the opinion of O. Henry, the wisest gift givers and gift-takers.

Question 12.
[A] In “Little Things Matter” by A.P.J. Abdulkalam, Samsuddin offers young Kalamthejobof collecting and distributing newspapers from the railway station. He readily agrees to this. Write the likely conversation between them.
Answer:
Samsuddin : I have come to know that you have problems at home as your father does not get enough money to give you all your needs.

Kalam : You are quite right, brother. The World War has made life difficult for us. Food, clothes and things needed by children have become scarce.

Samsuddin : I have a suggestion for you to make some money.

Kalam : Really? I will be glad to do anything to help my family.

Samsuddin : As you know the Madras-Dhanushkodi Mail does not stop at Rameswarm anymore. So I have a problem of getting newspapers to my subscribers here.

Kalam : How can I help?

Samsuddin : I will make arrangement with one of my employees to throw the bundles of the newspapers on to the platform here as the train slows down at the station. You pick up the bundlers and distribute them to my subscribers. I will then give you a reasonably good amount.

Kalam : That sounds great. I am ready for that work. At least I can do some help to my family to overcome the present difficulties.

Samsuddin : Okay then your work starts tomorrow. The train passes this station at 8 o’ clock in the morning. Be there to collect the bundle. I will give you the names and addresses of subscribers to whom you have to deliver the newspaper.

Kalam : Okay Brother. Agreed. Thank you for giving me this job. I shall not disappoint you.

OR
[B] In the story “Thank you Ma’am” by Langton Hughes, we find how Mrs. Jones could guide a young lad like Roger on the right path. She shares her experience with one of her friends through an email. Write the likely email.
Answer:
melaniekennedy@gmail.com Hi Melanie! How are things with you?
I am writing this email just to share some great news with you. I am so happy to write about it. I was returning home after work. My large purse was slung across my shoulder as it had a large strap. It was about 11 at night, and I was walking alone, when a boy ran up behind me and tried to snatch my purse.

The strap broke with the single tug the boy gave it from behind. But the boy lost his balance and he fell on his back on the sidewalk. I turned around and kicked him in his buttocks. Then I picked the boy up by his shirt front, and shook him until his teeth rattled. He was 14 or 15.

I then asked him to pick up my purse and give it to me. I asked him if he wasn’t ashamed of himself. The boy said yes. He finally told me he was snatching the purse to get money to buy a pair of blue suede shoes. I dragged him home.

I made him wash his face. He told me he hadn’t got anybody home to tell him to wash his face. I knew he was hungry. I wanted to give him some food and drink. We sat down and ate together. I did not ask the boy anything about where he lived, or his people or anything else that would embarrass him.

I told him about my job. When we finished eating I gave him ten dollars to buy the blue suede shoes he wanted. I then advised him not to make the mistake of snatching anybody’s purse because shoes got like that can become devilish and they will bum his feet.

I then led him to the door. I knew he was overwhelmed with my kindness. I am sure he wanted to say so many things to me. He managed to say “Thank you Ma’am” before I closed the door. I could see remorse in his eyes and I am sure he will never again try to snatch anybody’s purse. Well, how are things with you there? We will meet next week during the wedding of Caroline. Until then, Bye!

Yours lovingly,
Mrs. Jones

Question 13.
[A] Look at the picture below. It is related to the story “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome. Using the hints give below, write the story in your words.

(Hints: Jerome goes to the British Museum to know more about an illness – medical encyclopaedia – thinks he has all diseases – doctor prescribes – the pharmacist – the prescription – Jerome goes home feeling happy)
Answer:
One day Jerome wanted to learn something about hay fever and so he went to the British Museum to get the information from the books there. There he read the medical encyclopaedia which deal with all kinds of diseases. When he read about the symptoms of hay fever he felt that he had all those symptoms.

Then he looked at some other diseases and their symptoms. He felt that he had all those diseases him. This made him worried and he decided to consult his doctor for help. The doctor was his friend. When the doctor asked him what was the disease that bothered him, he said that if he went on talking about the diseases he had, and the doctor would die before he finished his explanations.

He said he had all the diseases except housemaid’s knee. The doctor examined him and gave him a prescription. Jerome took the prescription to the pharmacy. The chemist read the prescription and told him that he was not running a cooperative store or a family hotel. Jerome then took the prescription back and read it for the first time. It was some commonsense advice on proper diet, drinking plenty of water, regular exercise, and going to bed early. Jerome left the pharmacy feeling quite happy and decided to follow the doctor’s advice.

OR
[B] Write a character sketch of Della, the heroine of O. Henry’s “A Tale of Two Gifts” using the hints given below.
Hints: young and selfless – love and devotion for her partner Jim – wants to give a suitable Christmas gift – sells her beautiful hair – buys a chain for the golden watch of Jim – emotional – cries when she sees the gift Jim has brought her – sacrifice)
Answer:
Della is the young, affectionate, and selfless heroine of O. Henry’s “A Tale ofTwo Gifts”. What impresses us most is her deep love and devotion to her husband, Jim. The entire story revolves around her desperate desire to buy him a worthy Christmas present, demonstrating that his happiness is the main aim of her life.

She is a poor house-wife. She has been putting aside cents with the intention of buying a Christmas present for her beloved Jim. She was saving money by buying less meat and other needs of the home. When she checked her savings on the Christmas Eve, she found that she had only $1.87. With that sum she could not buy a suitable present for Jim. She wanted to buy a golden chain for his watch which he could not wear in public as it lacked a proper chain.

Her most precious possession was her hair. It was more valuable than the gold and jewels of any queen and she was very proud of it. To buy the watch chain she sells her hair. Selling her most prized possession her long, beautiful hair—to buy Jim a suitable chain for his gold watch is her ultimate act of selflessness.

Della is a sensitive and an emotional character. She cries when she realizes how little money she has and later worrying anxiously about how Jim will react to her short hair, fearing he won’t think she’s pretty anymore. Della is an ideal wife. She was ready to sacrifice her most precious possession for her dear Jim.

Question 14.
Using the hints given below, prepare a brief profile of Ruskin Bond who wrote the story “A Long Walk with Granny”. (1 × 4 = 4)
(Hints: Indian author of British descent – bom in 1934 at Kasauli in HP – His father died when he was ten – raised by his mother and stepfather – grew up in Jamnagar, Simla and Dehru Dun – wrote 500 short stories, essays, and novels, including 64 books for children – famous works “The Room on the Roof”, ”A Flight of Pigeons ”, and ”The Blue Umbrella ” – Awards: Sahitya Akademi Award, Padma Shri, and Padma Bhushan)
Answer:
Ruskin Bond is a celebrated Indian author of British descent. He was bom in 1934 in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, and grew up in Jamnagar, Shimla, and Dehradun. His father died when he was ten, and he was raised by his mother and stepfather. He is known for his extensive work in children’s literature, short stories, novels, and essays.

His first novel, ’’The Room on the Roof’ was published in 1956, and he has since authored over a hundred books. His most notable works are “The Room on the Roof’, “A Flight of Pigeons ”, and ”The Blue Umbrella “, Many of his stories have been adapted into films. He has received major awards like the Sahitya Akademi Award, Padma Shri, and Padma Bhushan. Bond lives in Landour, Mussoorie, with his adopted family.

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Odisha Triple Train Tragedy: Coromandel Express Derailment and Collision on 2.6.2023, Leaves Over 290 Dead.
Firozabad Disaster 1995: Kalindi and Purushottam Express Collision Kills 358 Deadliest Train Accident Indore-Patna Express Derailment: 20.11.2016: At Least 150 Killed in Pukhrayan Crash.
Gaisal Train Disaster: 1999 – Collision in West Bengal Claims 285 Lives because of a Signal Failure.

Question 15.
Of the four tragedies which was the worst?
Answer:
Of the four tragedies the worst was the Firozabad Disaster in 1995. In the ‘Kalindi and Pumshottam Express’ collision 358 people died.

Question 16.
What is the cause of accidents in most the cases?
Answer:
The cause of accidents in most the cases was collision.

Question 17.
The accident of 1999 was caused because of:
A. The train was overcrowded.
B. The driver was drunk.
C. The train was going too fast.
D. The signal had failed
Answer:
D. The signal had failed.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate phrases given in brackets.
My initial plan was just to (a) ……. a few articles for my history paper, but I ended up staying much longer. The library was quiet, and I managed to (b) ……. a significant chunk of my reading list. Around four o’clock, my friend Alex stopped by to see if I was ready to leave. I had to tell him to (c) ……. for about ten more minutes while 1 finished summarizing the final chapter. (taken aback, hold on, get through, look up, make out, speed up)
Answer:
a) lookup,
b) get through,
c) hold on

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. ( 4 × 1/2 = 2)
The school was (a) found by my father before I was bom. On the wall above us Khushal school was painted proudly in red and white letters. Wc went to school six mornings a week. My classes were (b) spend chanting chemical equations or studying Urdu (c) grammer, writing stories in English with morals or drawing diagrams of blood circulation. Most ofmy(d) classmate wanted to be doctors. It’s hard to imagine that anyone would see that as a threat.
Answer:
a) founded,
b) spent,
c) grammar,
d) classmates

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Della and Jim. (3 × 1 = 3)
Della: “Jim, dear, don’t look at me like that. I had my hair cut off and sold it. I couldn’t live through Christmas without giving you a gift. My hair will (a) ……..”. “You’ve (b) …….. hair?” asked Jim slowly. He seemed to labour to understand what had happened. He seemed not to feel sure he knew.“Cut it off and sold it,” said Della. “Don’t you like me now? I’mme, Jim. I’m the same without my hair. It’s the night before Christmas, boy. Be good to me, because I sold it for you. Maybe the hairs of my head could be counted but no one could ever count (c) …….. Shall we eat dinner, Jim?”
Answer:
a) grow well soon.
b) cutoff
c) my love for you.

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• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2
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8th Standard Basic Science Question Paper (Malayalam Medium)

• Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Set 1 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Set 2 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Set 3 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Set 4 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Set 5 Malayalam Medium

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Class 8 English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus

• Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Model Question Paper Set 5

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• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Social Science Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Social Science Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Social Science Model Question Paper Set 3
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• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Social Science Model Question Paper Set 5

8th Standard Social Science Question Paper (Malayalam Medium)

• Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Set 1 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Set 2 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Set 3 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Set 4 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Set 5 Malayalam Medium

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By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 13 Building New Nations Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Building New Nations Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 13 Kerala Syllabus

Building New Nations Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
In which ship did the Pilgrim Fathers arrive in America?
Answer:
Mayflower

Question 2.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
i Olive Branch Petition
ii Treaty of Paris
iii First Philadelphia Congress
iv Declaration of Independence
a) iii – i – iv – ii
b) iii – ii – i – iv
c) ii – iii – i – iv
d) iii – i – ii – iv
Answer:
a) iii – i – iv – ii

Question 3.
Who was the leader of the American army in the war against Britain?
a) Thomas Jefferson
b) George Washington
c) Benjamin Franklin
d) John Adams
Answer:
b) George Washington

Question 4.
Who drafted the American Declaration of Independence?
a) Thomas Jafferson
b) Lord North
c) Abraham Lincoln
d) Benjamin Franklin
Answer:
a) Thomas Jafferson

Question 5.
Who said “ No taxation without representation”
a) Thomas Paine
b) John Locke
c) James Otis
d) George Washington
Answer:
c) James Otis

Question 6.
First president of the United States of America
a) Abraham Lincoln
b) George Washington
c) Thomas Paine
d) John Adams
Answer:
b) George Washington

Question 7.
Statement I: In 1781, the American army under the leadership of George Washington defeated the English army.
Statement II: In accordance with the Treaty of Paris in 1783, Britain accepted the independence of the 13 American colonies.
Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Statement I only is correct .
b) Statement II only is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 8.
What is the framework of the US Constitution known as?
Answer:
Articles of Confederation

Question 9.
Who was the Russian emperor during the Russian Revolution?
a) Alexander Kerensky
b) Nicholas II
c) Leon Trotsky
d) Joseph Stalin
Answer:
b) Nicholas II

Question 10.
Which dynasty ruled China?
a) Ming dynasty
b) Manchu dynasty
c) Han dynasty
d) Yuan dynasty
Answer:
b) Manchu dynasty

Question 11.
Find the ones from ‘B’ that correspond to category ‘A’ given below.

A	B
October Revolution	i) Lenin ii) Workers’ Republic iii) Red Guar iv) Mensheviks

a) i, ii, iii are correct
b) Only i is correct
c) Only ii is correct
d) Only iii is correct
Answer:
a) i, ii, iii are correct

Question 12.
Find the ones from ‘B’ that correspond to category ‘A’ given below.

A	B
February Revolution	i) Alexander Kerensky ii) Mensheviks iii) Provisional government

a) Only i is correct
b) ii and iii are correct
c) Only ii is correct
d) i, ii, iii are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii are correct

Question 13.
Arrange the table given below.

A	B
A. Lenin	i. Long March
B. Sun Yat-sen	ii. Provisional government
C. Mao Zedong	iii. New Economic Policy
D. Alexander Kerensky	iv. Kuomintang Party

a) A -iii, B – ii, C – i, D – iv
b) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
c) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
d) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
Answer:
b) A -iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii

Question 14.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given assertion and reason.
Assertion: The New Economic Policy was a partial return to private trade, agriculture, and private investment.
Reason: By implementing the New Economic Policy, he developed the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) into a world superpower.
a) Both assertion and reason are correct.
b) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
c) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
Answer:
a) Both assertion and reason are correct

Question 15.
Who issued the proclamation granting freedom to the slaves? When?
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln. January 1, 1863

Question 16.
What were the two factions of the Social Democratic Workers’ Party?
Answer:

• Bolsheviks
• Mensheviks

Question 17.
Whose theories were included in the Communist Manifesto?
Answer:

• Karl Marx
• Friedrich Engels

Question 18.
Explain the New Economic Policy implemented by Lenin in the Soviet Union.
Answer:
New Economic Policy implemented in 1921. The New Economic Policy was a partial return to private trade, agriculture, and private investment. Large industries were combined with trusts. At the same time, the government encouraged the cooperative sector. But there was a strict government control to prevent the revival of capitalism.

Question 19.
Which countries were involved in the Opium War?
Answer:

• China
• Britain

Question 20.
Define Boxer Rebellion.
Answer:
The growing interference of foreign powers increased the resentment of the people against them in China. As a result, many secret agencies were formed in China. One such secret agency was the Boxers. Their symbol was the Boxers Fist. Their resistance against the European invasion is known as the ‘Boxer Rebellion’.

Question 21.
Explain the trade laws implemented by Britain in the American colonies.
Answer:

• Goods from colonies to colonies could only be transported on the British ships or on the ships of the colonies.
• Goods such as wool, tobacco, and ship’s sails could be sent to Europe via England only. Goods from Europe could only be transported via England only.
• The Stamp Act of 1765 insisted that Deeds of will, legal documents, and pamphlets be marked with a fixed value stamp. An additional tax was imposed to recoup the cost of protecting the colonies from French attacks.

Question 22.
What were the factors that motivated the colonists to fight against Britain?
Answer:

• The colonists’ fear of the French disappeared as a result of the Seven-Year War
• The military experience gained as a result of participating in the war
• Awareness of one’s own strength

Question 23.
What were the ideas put forward by Sun Yat-sen?
Answer:

• Nationalism
• Democracy
• Socialism

Question 24.
The American War of Independence made significant contributions to the world. What were they?
Answer:

• It gave energy to anti-colonial struggles around the world
• The first written constitution came into effect
• It contributed the concept of federal government to the world
• It contributed the idea of modem republican government to the world

Question 25.
Lenin put forward new ideas. What are they?
Answer:

• Power: to the workers’ councils (Soviets)
• Land: to the peasants
• Peace: for all
• Food: for the starving

Question 26.
Explain the results of the revolution in China.
Answer:

• China became the People’s Republic
• Foreign domination in China came to an end
• Agricultural land was distributed to the farmers
• It caused the spread of socialist ideas among the nations of the world

Question 27.
What were the main features of the Constitution of the United States of America?
Answer:

• The Constitution of the United States is a written one in the federal system. Accordingly, each state joining the union had certain powers of its own.
• The smallest constitution in the world ‘
• The central government has authority over foreign affairs, war, interstate trade, and currency
• The state governments had representation in the central government
• The powers of the three branches of government such as the Congress, the President, and the Judiciary are clearly specified.

Question 28.
List the differences between the North American states and the South American states in the provinces of the United States of America.
Answer:

North American States	South American States
Industry and commerce were the main sectors	Agriculture was the main sector Presence of organised plantations
Did not depend on others for industrial products	There were very few factories Had to depend on the northern states or England for industrial products
Gave importance to education Primary education was free and compulsory	Education was not given importance Far behind in literacy

Question 29.
Explain the background of the Civil War in America.
Answer:

• Slavery
• Southern states supported slavery.
• Northern states discouraged the system of slavery.
• Thirteen Southern states left the union.
• Northern states questioned the right to leave the Union.

Question 30.
Explain the causes of the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
Autocratic rule of Tsar: Agitated with the miserable working conditions, the economic depression, and the ongoing war with Japan, the people, led by Father Gapon, marched to St. Petersburg to present a petition to Tsar Nicholas II requesting economic and political reforms. The army opened fire on the protesters, killing over a hundred workers. This massacre in St. Petersburg on January 22, 1905, is known as ‘Bloody Sunday.’ In response to the popular outrage, the Tsar agreed to form a parliament called the Duma. But he rejected all the reforms proposed by the Duma and attempted to suppress political freedom.

• The main problems faced by the workers:
  • Low wages
  • Poor living conditions
  • Long working hours
  • The dominance of foreign capitalists in industries
• Problems of Peasants:
  • The peasants were socially and economically oppressed
  • Most of the agricultural land was owned by nobles
  • Only a small section of the peasants had their own land
  • The taxes that the peasants had to pay were extremely high
• Formation of Social Democratic Workers’ Party
• Influence of the writings of Leo Tolstoy, Turgenev, Maxim Gorky, etc.
• The communist theories of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.
• Russian participation in World War I.

Question 31.
List the reforms implemented by Lenin in Russia after the revolution.
Answer:

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 12 Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus

Agricultural Sector and Innovative Trends Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Which is the largest unorganised sector in India?
a. Industrial sector
b. Service sector
c. Agricultural sector
d. Information technology sector
Answer:
c) Agricultural sector

Question 2.
The method of cultivating only one crop at a time on a farmland is called:
a. Multiple cropping
b. Intercropping
c. Monocropping
d. Crop rotation
Answer:
c) Monocropping

Question 3.
The farming method in which a crop grows again and gives yield after harvesting is:
a. Mixed cropping
b. Ratoon cropping
c. Continuous cropping
d. Relay cropping
Answer:
b) Ratoon cropping

Question 4.
Which cropping system helps to increase soil fertility?
a. Monocropping
b. Relay cropping
c. Crop rotation
d. Multistoried cropping
Answer:
c) Crop rotation

Question 5.
What is the aim of the National Agricultural Market (e-NAM), an online platform for buying and selling agricultural products?
a. Provide agricultural loans
b. Distribute seeds
c. Help farmers sell their products as per their preference
d. Control pesticide application
Answer:
c) Helps farmers sell their products as they prefer

Question 6.
Growing maize and groundnut together is an example of which cropping system?
a. Intercropping
b. Relay cropping
c. Mixed cropping
d. Continuous cropping
Answer:
c) Mixed cropping

Question 7.
Which of the following is a social factor?
a. Irrigation
b. Farmers’ income
c. Food habits
d. Nature of soil
Answer:
c) Food habits

Question 8.
Growing crops of different heights and different root depths at the saihe time on the same farmland is called:
a. Precision farming
b. Vertical farming
c. Multistoried cropping
d. Organic farming
Answer:
c) Multistoried cropping

Question 9.
What is the chance of pest attack higher in monocropping (monoculture)?
a. Because the farmland remains fallow
b. Because only one crop is grown at a time
c. Because it is aimed at export
d. Because planting and maintenance are easy
Answer:
b) Because only one crop is grown at a time

Question 10.
Why is mixed cropping more popular in dry regions?
a. Because it helps control pests and weeds
b. Because it ensures efficient use of resources
c. Because if one crop fails due to adverse weather, other crops may still give a yield.
d. Because it does not require specific spacing
Answer:
c) Because if one crop fails due to adverse weather, other crops may still give a yield.

Question 11.
Assertion: Multiple cropping increases total production and income.
Reason: Two or more crops are grown without affecting the natural fertility of the soil.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Assertion: Precision farming ensures efficient use of water and nutrients.
Reason: It is a technology in which crops are given only the required nutrients, in the right amount, at the right time.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 13.
Assertion: Growing pulses after paddy is an example of crop rotation.
Reason: Crop rotation is a method of growing two or more crops at the same time in the same field without maintaining spacing.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
c) A is true, but R is false.

Question 14.
Assertion: In ratoon cropping, there is a chance of reduced yield and increased pest/disease attack.
Reason: The main advantage of ratoon cropping is that yield is obtained again from the same crop without replanting.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 15.
Assertion: Using drone technology in agriculture helps increase productivity.
Reason: Due to global population increase, climate change, and technological advancement, agricultural practices are continuously changing.
Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true, but R is false.
d. A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 16.
Match the Following.

Agricultural Pattern	Explanation
1. Mixed cropping	a. Another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
2. Inter- cropping	b. Cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop.
3. Relay Cropping	c. Two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintain space between them.
4. Crop Rotation	d. Growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.

A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer:
A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

Question 17.
Match the following

Cropping Pattern	Example
1. Monocropping	a. Spinach, Sugarcane
2. Sequence Cropping	b. Rubber, Tea
3. Ratoon Cropping	c. Coconut, Pepper
4. Multi- Tier Cropping	d. Pulses, Sesame

A. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
Answer:
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

Question 18.
Match the following

Factors Influencing Cropping System	Sub Factor
1. Natural Factors	a. Area of Agricultural Land held
2. Economic Factors	b. Scientific Irrigation
3. Social Factors	c. Diet
4. Technological Factors	d. Climate

A. 1-a 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
C. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
Answer:
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

Question 19.
Write two examples of the role played by the agriculture sector in the economy of a country.
Answer:

• Ensures food security of the country.
• Provides employment to the people (largest unorganized sector in India).
• Provides raw materials for industries

Question 20.
What is meant by cropping system?
Answer:
The order in which crops are cultivated on a farm during a specific period is called cropping system. Cropping system can be classified as Monocropping, Poly Cropping, Ratoon Cropping.

Question 21.
What is the main advantage of Ratoon Cropping?
Answer:

• During harvesting, the roots or lower part of the crop is left uncut. After harvesting, the crop that was cultivated grows again and produces yield.
• The advantage of this system is that the crop is harvested again from the same crop.

Question 22.
What are the Key components of Precision Farming?
Answer:
Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity. Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Question 23.
List any two technologies used in Digital Farming.
Answer:

• Big data analysis tools.
• Artificial Intelligence (AI).
• Mobile phones / Farm advisory apps

Question 24.
What is the importance of Rain Shelter Farming?
Answer:
A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming. Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions. If every household has a rain shelter, the household’s vegetables can be cultivated year-round.

Question 25.
Write any two examples for Mono Cropping.
Answer:
Rubber, Tea, Tapioca

Question 26.
WRat are the main objectives of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)?
Answer:

• Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an approach to help farmers cope with climate change.
• The main goals are to increase productivity and income, adapt to climate change, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 27.
How is intercropping suitable for weed and pest control?
Answer:
Growing another crop in between the rows of the main crop (intercropping) can help reduce weed growth and potentially reduce the spread of pests due to crop diversity.

Question 28.
What are the basic factors that distinguish small-scale industries from cottage industries?
Answer:

Factors	Small scale industries	Cottage Industries
Investments/Turnover	Investment not exceeding ?10 crore and annual turnover less than ?50 crore.	Investment limit is low.
Labor force	Labor force can be used from outside the family members.	Only the labor force of family members is used.
Technology	Modem technology can be used.	Traditional technology can be used.

Question 29.
Write any three natural factors that influence cropping systems.
Answer:

• Soil characteristics
• Topography
• Water availability
• Climate

Question 30.
List three benefits of crop rotation to agriculture.
Answer:

• Increases soil fertility.
• Increases soil productivity.
• It is an ideal method for controlling weeds and pests.

Question 31.
What is sequence cropping? Write examples for it.
Answer:
Sequence Cropping is the method of cultivating another short-term crop in the same field immediately after harvesting the main crop. This method utilises the moisture and nutrients remaining on the field. The main advantage is that the fields do not lie fallow. Example: On paddy fields, pulses or sesame are grown after the main crop, paddy.

Question 32.
What are the three main uses of drone technology in modern agriculture?
Answer:

• To successfully sow seeds in the field in less time.
• To effectively apply pesticides.
• To effectively apply fertilizers.

Question 33.
Why is Vertical Farming important in the era of urbanization?
Answer:
Vertical farming is being used as a practical way to produce food in cities due to urbanization and the scarcity of agricultural land. It helps in achieving higher yields in less space. Hydroponic and aeroponic systems are used. It uses hydroponic, aeroponic, and aquaponic systems to produce food year-round with minimal water use.

Question 34.
Write the main differences between mixed Cropping and intercropping.
Answer:
Mixed Cropping: This is the method of cultivating two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintaining spacing between them. This cropping system is more common in dry areas. The advantage is that even if the yield of one crop is poor due to adverse weather conditions, yields from other crops can still be obtained. Example: maize-groundnut, coconut-pigeon pea

Inter cropping: Inter Cropping is a cropping system where another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern. Production can be increased through the efficient use of resources. This is a suitable method for controlling weeds and pests. Example: Groundnut cultivated as an intercrop in cotton, which grows slowly in the initial stage. Plantain cultivated as an intercrop in coconut plantations

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based small/cottage industries?
Answer:

• They are a solution to some extent to the problems faced by the agricultural sector.
• They operate locally by utilizing agricultural resources and give a boost to the local economy.
• They help increase the income of farmers by producing value-added products.

Question 36.
List any three challenges/problems facing the Indian agriculture sector.
Answer:

• Climate change and natural disasters.
• High cost of fertilizers and pesticides.
• Lack of market for agricultural produce, lack of capital

Question 37.
How do infrastructures affect the choice of cropping systems? Give three examples.
Answer:

• Irrigation: If irrigation facilities are available, crops that require irrigation can be grown even in dry weather.
• Transportation: If good transportation facilities are available, perishable fruits and vegetables can be transported to the market.
• Market access: Farmers choose commercial crops based on the availability of market access.

Question 38.
What are the four main objectives of an efficient agricultural market?
Answer:

• Enable primary producers (fanners) to earn the best possible income.
• Provide fair prices for agricultural products while maintaining their quality.
• Provide products to consumers at fair prices.
• Help agricultural progress by streamlining the marketing system.

Question 39.
Explain the concept of multi-storied cropping. What is the main advantage of this method in terms of soil, water and sunlight?
Answer:
MULTIPLE CROPPING OR POLY CROPPING
Multiple Cropping is a cropping system in which two or more crops are cultivated on a single plot of land without affecting the natural fertility of the soil.

The advantage of this is to increase the total production from the farm land and thereby the income.

Mixed Cropping

• This is the method of cultivating two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintaining spacing between them. This cropping system is more common in dry areas.
• The advantage is that even if the yield of one crop is poor due to adverse weather conditions, the yield from other crops can be obtained.
• Example: maize-groundnut, coconut-pigeon pea

Inter Cropping

• Inter Cropping Inter Cropping is a cropping system where another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
• This is a suitable method for controlling weeds and pests.
• Example: Groundnut cultivated as an intercrop in cotton, which grows slowly in the initial stage. Plantain cultivated as an intercrop in coconut plantations.

Sequence Cropping

• Sequence Cropping is the method of cultivating another short-term crop in the same field immediately after harvesting the main crop. This method utilises the moisture and nutrients remaining on the field.
• The main advantage is that the fields do not lie fallow.
• Example: On paddy fields, pulses or sesame are grown after the main crop, paddy.

Relay Cropping

• Relay cropping is the method of growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.
• Example: Cultivating vegetables before harvesting plantain.

Crop Rotation

• Crop rotation is the method of cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop. The main benefit of crop rotation is that it increases soil fertility.
• It is a suitable method for increasing soil productivity and for controlling weeds and pests.
• Example: Cultivating peas after paddy

Multi-Tier Cropping

• Multi-tier cropping is the method of cultivating crops of different heights, with different root depths and varying sunlight requirements on the same field simultaneously.
• Its advantage is that soil, water and sunlight can be used more effectively.
• Example: coconut, pepper, ginger/turmeric are cultivated simultaneously on the same farm.

Question 40.
Compare the Difference between Polyhouse Farming and Rain Shelter Farming.
Answer:
Rain Shelter Farming

• A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming.
• Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions.

Polyhouse Farming

• Polyhouse farming or Greenhouse farming is a method df artificially creating a suitable environment for plant growth by protecting the plant from heat, rain, cold and sunlight.
• This method of cultivation is done in polyhouses that are completely covered with polythene sheets.

Question 41.
Prepare a short note on the following modern agricultural trends (any four):
a. Precision Farming
b. Digital Farming
c. Organic Farming
d. Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)
Answer:
Precision Farming

• Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity.
• This method can be implemented in rain shelter and open areas.
• The advantages of this farming method are the precise use of water and nutrients, efficient use of machinery, and better management of agricultural land.
• Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Digital Farming: Digital farming is a farming method that incorporates diverse technologies. Technologies such as big data analysis tools, artificial intelligence, machine learning, digital communication technologies such as mobile phones, digital platforms, robotics, and agricultural advisory apps are used in digital farming.

Organic Farming: Organic farming is a farming method that relies on organic pesticides, compost, green manures, crop rotation, machinery, and the like. It completely avoids chemical fertilizers and synthetic chemical pesticides. Plant growth regulators and organically modified seeds are not used in this method.

Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA)
Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an approach to help fanners cope with climate change. The main goals are to increase productivity and income, adapt to climate change, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Question 42.
Government policies play a significant role in influencing cropping patterns.” Describe four factors that support this statement?
Answer:

• Export and import of crops: A policy that encourages the export of a crop will encourage farmers to grow more of that crop.
• Taxation: Taxes imposed on certain agricultural products will affect its production.
• Credit availability: Government loans and other financial assistance for crop cultivation affect farmers’ choices.
• Subsidies: Subsidies on fertilizers, seeds, and modern equipment can help farmers choose certain cropping patterns.

Question 43.
Write the important role played by the agriculture sector in the economic, social and industrial sectors of India.
Answer:
1. Food Security: It ensures the food security of the country by providing food and fodder to the people and livestock.
2. Employment: As the largest unorganised sector in India, it provides employment to a large percentage of the people.
3. Raw materials for industries: It helps in the growth of industries by providing raw materials (cotton, sugarcane, etc.) required by industries.
4. Economic empowerment: It is the backbone of the rural economy. This sector is the source of economic empowerment of w’omen.
5. Foreign exchange: It earns foreign exchange for the country through the export of spices and agricultural products.

Question 44.
Explain five new agricultural trends and their reasons for adopting them to combat climate change and increase agricultural production.
Answer:

• Due to constant change in increasing world population, climate change, and growth of technology, the agricultural activities also change.
• The agricultural sector in India has undergone a radical transformation in the last few decades.
• The shift from traditional agricultural methods to modern agricultural methods using new technology is remarkable.
• Technology has taken on the challenges of agriculture and adopted innovative methods to increase productivity.
• The main objective of technology in the agricultural sector is to help farmers increase agricultural production.

Rain Shelter Farming

• A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming.
• Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions.

Polyhouse Farming

• Polyhouse farming or Greenhouse farming is a method df artificially creating a suitable environment for plant growth by protecting the plant from heat, rain, cold and sunlight.
• This method of cultivation is done in polyhouses that are completely covered with polythene sheets.

Precision Farming

• Precision farming is a technique that enables maximum production by providing each crop with the required water, nutrients and crop protection materials at the right time and in the right quantity.
• This method can be implemented in rain shelter and open areas.
• The advantages of this farming method are the precise use of water and nutrients, efficient use of machinery, and better management of agricultural land.
• Micro-irrigation (the method of providing water required for plant growth in droplets or fine streams), fertigation, and integrated pest and disease management are the main components of precision farming.

Digital Farming: Digital farming is a farming method that incorporates diverse technologies. Technologies such as big data analysis tools, artificial intelligence, machine learning, digital communication technologies such as mobile phones, digital platforms, robotics, and agricultural advisory apps are used in digital farming.

Vertical Farming: Vertical farming is being used as a viable way to produce food in cities due to urbanisation and scarcity of agricultural land. This technology involves growing crops in vertically stacked, layered, or built-up areas. It uses hydroponic, aeroponic, and aquaponic systems to produce food year-round with minimal water use.

Organic Farming: Organic farming is a farming method that relies on organic pesticides, compost, green manures, crop rotation, machinery, and the like. It completely avoids chemical fertilizers and synthetic chemical pesticides. Plant growth regulators and organically modified seeds are not used in this method.

Question 45.
Describe the various types of agricultural markets in the country for buying and selling agricultural products.
Answer:
Agricultural Market

• An agricultural market is a system for buying and selling agricultural products.
• An efficient agricultural market is essential for the progress of agriculture.
• The main objectives of an agricultural market are to enable primary producers to earn the best possible income and to provide fair prices while maintaining the quality of agricultural products.

Farmers And Market
It is the right of the farmer to get a fair price for his products. Therefore, farmers are trying to find markets that offer the maximum price. By using online markets, marketing without intermediaries between farmers and consumers, has become possible.

Agricultural Produce Market Committee: The APMC is a board set up by the state governments of the country to protect farmers from exploitation by large-scale and retail traders. The states regulate APMC through the Agricultural Produce Marketing Regulation Act (APMR Act).

DIFFERENT TYPES OF AGRICULTURAL MARKETS

• Structured and functional markets are essential for the progress of the agricultural sector.
• Agricultural markets are classified into two categories-Organised Agricultural Market and Unorganised Agricultural Market.
• Organised agricultural markets are those that operate according to the rules and regulations of the government. They operate mainly according to the APMC rules.
• Unorganised agricultural markets are those that operate without a specific structure.
• Rural Primary Markets: Rural primary markets are markets where farmers directly sell their produce without intermediaries. They are centred in small villages and are a mechanism of exchange between individuals in the village as main sellers and consumers. Markets meet once or twice a week in open areas. For example: Village markets, Haats.
• Village Haats: Haats are markets where producers, intermediaries and consumers of a village gather to buy and sell agricultural products.
• Mandis: These are permanent wholesale markets in district headquarters and other towns for daily transactions.
• Fairs/Festivals: Fairs are markets held at pilgrimage sites and major centres only during religious festivals or local festivals.

Wholesale Markets or Secondary Wholesale Markets:
Agricultural marketing is done in the state with the support of state self-governing bodies and farmer producer organisation. This is possible through a marketing network established in urban and rural areas. Of the wholesale markets in Kerala, three function in urban areas and three in rural areas. In addition to these, five District Procurement cum Marketing Centres are also functioning. These centres, which are under the Department of Agriculture, operate as per the market rules of the Government of Kerala. Six wholesale markets have also been registered under E-Nam. Apart from these, local market outlets at various levels facilitate the marketing of agricultural produce by mobilising it directly and through farmers’ associations. Marketing is done through the marketing system of Self-help Farmers’ Committees established by VFPCK at the production centres, eliminating intermediaries.

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) is an organisation that promotes the marketing of agricultural produce and forest resources in India. Primary Agricultural Cooperative Credit Societies (PACS) strengthen rural agricultural activities by undertaking services such as integration, marketing, value addition, grading, branding and packing of agricultural products.

• Keralagro: The Department of Agriculture has started marketing of agricultural products under a unified brand ‘Keralagro’ to energise the marketing of agricultural products, thereby increasing the income of farmers and making the products available to consumers at fair prices.
• E-Nam: The National Agriculture Market is a scheme launched by the government to enable farmers to sell their products at their will. It is an online platform for agricultural products.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 11 Feudalism and the Medieval World Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Feudalism and the Medieval World Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 11 Kerala Syllabus

Feudalism and the Medieval World Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from B which is suitable for A.

A	B
Feudalism	i. A piece of land
	ii. Feud
	iii. German word
	iv. Originated in France

A. ii and iii are correct
B. iii and iv are correct
C. i and iii are correct
D. i, ii, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
i, ii, iii and iv are correct

Question 2.
What are the three orders in the feudal system?
Answer:
Clergy, Nobles, Peasants

Question 3.
Define the term Frankish Empire.
Answer:
The Western Roman Empire was later conquered by the Franks, a tribe in Europe. They founded the Frankish Empire.

Question 4.
The most famous ruler Frankish Empire was
Answer:
Charlemagne

Question 5.
Complete ‘b’ by understanding the relationship in ‘a’ from the given.
a) Western Roman Empire: Rome
b) Eastern Roman Empire:
Answer:
Constantinople

Question 6.
The famous emperor of the Eastern Roman Empire was
Answer:
Justinian

Question 7.
What was the Corpus Juris Civilis, and what were its three main parts?
Answer:
The Corpus Juris Civilis was a collection of Roman laws compiled under Emperor Justinian. Its three main parts were: Digest, Code, and Institutes.

Question 8.
What is Hijra?
Answer:
In 622 CE, Prophet Muhammad and his followers fled from Mecca to Medina. This is known as the Hijra.

Question 9.
Choose the correct option from the following.
Assertion (A): Genghis Khan united the Mongol tribes and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire.
Reason (R): The Mongols were nomadic people who travelled in search of pastures.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Arrange the following Caliphs in chronological order.
i) Umar
ii) Ali
iii) Abu Bakr
iv) Uthman
A. ii – i – iii – iv
B. iii – iv – ii – ii
C. i – iv – ii – iii
D. iii – i – iv – ii
Answer:
D. iii – i – iv – ii

Question 11.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Mali Empire?
A. Genghis Khan
B. Mansa Kangan Musa
C. Abdul Abbas
D. Muawiya
Answer:
B. Mansa Kangan Musa

Question 12.
Which are the ancient civilizations held in America?
Answer:
The Aztecs, the Mayans, and the Incas were the civilisations that existed in America.

Question 13.
Match the following.

a. Karakoram	i. Postal system
b. Yam	ii. Capital of Mongol
c. Yasa	iii. Code of law

A. a-ii, b-i, c-iii
B. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
C. a-iii, b-i, c-ii
D. a-i, b-ii, c-iii
Answer:
A. a-ii, b-i, c-iii

Question 14.
What were the two categories of peasants in the feudal system?
Answer:
The third order had two divisions: Independent peasants and slaves.

Question 15.
How was the Roman Empire later divided into two?
Answer:

• Western Roman Empire
• Eastern Roman Empire

Question 16.
Explain Justinian’s Law.
Answer:
Justinian was a famous ruler of the Eastern Roman Empire. Justinian’s greatest contribution to the world was the Code of Justinian. A committee of jurists was formed to codify the laws, jurisprudence, and legal edicts that existed in the empire and to create a distinct law. The law thus compiled was the Corpus Juris Civilis. It had three parts: Digest, Code, Institute.

Question 17.
What is meant by Carolingian Renaissance?
Answer:
The Pope crowned Charlemagne as the first Holy Roman Emperor. Therefore, this empire is also known as the Holy Roman Empire. The architectural style of this period is known as the Carolingian style. The cognitive progress during the reign of Charlemagne is known as the Carolingian Renaissance.

Question 18.
Define Carolingian Style of Architecture.
Answer:
The Carolingian style was a combination of Byzantine and ancient Roman styles. Its characteristics include arched doorways, domes, and mosaic floors.

Question 19.
Define the term feudalism?
Answer:
Feudalism was an economic, social, and political system that emerged in medieval Europe following the collapse of the Western Roman Empire. The word ‘feudalism’ is derived from the German word ‘feud,’ which means ‘a piece of land.’ Feudalism, which originated in France, later spread to England and Italy.

Question 20.
What are the conditions of peasants during feudal period?
Answer:

• They did not have their own land
• They had to work on the farms and in the houses of the nobles * They did not receive wages
• They could not leave the land without the permission of the noble

Question 21.
Why Frankish empire is known as Holy Roman Empire?
Answer:
Holy Roman Empire

• The Western Roman Empire was later conquered by the Franks, a tribe in Europe. They founded the Frankish Empire. The most famous ruler of this empire was Charlemagne.
• When Pope Leo III was expelled from Rome by his enemies, Charlemagne defeated them and restored him as Pope.
• In return, the Pope crowned Charlemagne as the first Holy Roman Emperor. Therefore, this empire is also known as the Holy Roman Empire. The architectural style of this period is known as the Carolingian style. The cognitive progress during the reign of Charlemagne is known as the Carolingian Renaissance.
• Carolingian Style of Architecture: The Carolingian style was a combination of Byzantine and ancient Roman styles. Its characteristics include arched doorways, domes, and mosaic floors.

Question 22.
Explain the significance of the Eastern Roman Empire (Byzantine Empire) after the fall of the Western Roman Empire.
Answer:
After the collapse of the Western Roman Empire, the Eastern Roman Empire emerged as a powerful centre of culture and administration. Its capital was Constantinople, earlier known as Byzantium. The empire preserved Roman traditions, laws, art, and architecture, and became a bridge between the ancient and medieval worlds. It is therefore known as the Byzantine Empire.

Question 23.
By the Nth century, feudalism began to collapse. Give reasons for this.
Answer:

• Climate change
• Strengthening of monarchy
• Spread of the pandemic, known as the plague or Black Death
• Invention of gunpowder
• Crusades
• Scarcity of metal coins

Question 24.
Explain the contributions of Arabs to the world.
Answer:
Arab Contributions To The World

• The Arab people were the ones who had built a unique culture. They had an efficient government, a postal system and a tax collection system. They were able to achieve a lot of progress in the field of education. The universities in Baghdad, Damascus, Cairo, and Cordoba are examples of this.
• It was the Arabs who contributed algebra and Arabic numerals to the world. Zero, which was the contribution of India was spread to the whole world by the Arabs.
• The Arabs were also the inventors of many chemical processes in chemistry. They were also the inventors of optics.
• They had knowledge about tuberculosis, smallpox, stomach cancer, and plague. The Thousand and One Nights is a famous book in Arabic literature.

Scientists/Litterateur	Field	Books
Alrazi	Medicine	Kithab-Al-Hawi
Avicenna (Ibn Sina)	Medicine	Al-Qanun Fittib
Al-Biruni	Geology	Tahqiq ma lil-Hind
Umar Khayyam	Literature	Rubaiyyat
Firdausi	Literature	Shahnama

Question 25.
Distinguish between Umayyad and Abbasids dynasty.
Answer:
Umayyad Dynasty
Muawiya, the governor of Syria seized power following the insecurity that arose after the death of the fourth caliph, Ali. The dynasty he founded was the Umayyad Dynasty. They moved the capital to Damascus in Syria. Abd al-Malik, the caliph of the Umayyad dynasty, emphasised Arabhood.

Abbasids
The Abbasid dynasty came into pow er under the leadership of Abul Abbas by overthrowing the Umayyad dynasty. They moved the capital from Damascus to Baghdad. The most important poet and scholar among them was Harun al-Rashid.

Question 26.
Describe the lifestyle of the Mongols and explain how Genghis Khan played an important role in uniting them.
Answer:
Mongol Empire

• The Mongols were a nomadic tribe that lived in the eastern part of Central Asia.
• The capital of the Mongols was Karakoram.

This tribe travelled on horseback in search of pastures during the day and lived in tents at night. Genghis Khan united the various Mongol tribes which had been fighting each other for a long time, and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire. His real name was Temujin. The name Genghis Khan was given to him by the Mongol tribal council. Genghis Khan started a postal system to connect different parts of the country. This was known as ‘Yam.’ Horses were used for the efficient functioning of this system. He also introduced a code of law called ‘Yasa.’

Question 27.
Write a note on early civilization of America.
Answer:
Aztecs

• In the 12th century, the Aztecs migrated to the Valley of Mexico.
• Aztec society was hierarchical. Their capital was Tenochtitlan.

They built artificial islands called Chinampas in the lakes of Mexico. This is an example of their construction skills. They gave importance to agriculture and cultivated corn, beans, squash, pumpkins, cassava, and potatoes. In addition to this, they were also engaged in trade and handicrafts. They used coins made of metals such as gold, copper, and tin. They gave importance to education. Educational institutions called Calmecac were built for the children of the nobles and Tepochcalli for the children of other classes.

Mayans
The Mayan civilisation developed in Mexico between the 11th and 14th centuries.

The Mayans cleared the jungle and cultivated maize. They built palaces and temples with stones. They made gold and silver jewellery and beautiful pottery. They used pictographic alphabet. They used bark of trees and paper made from a special plant for writing. They made significant progress in mathematics and astronomy and had an almanac.

Incas

• The Inca civilisation of Peru was the largest indigenous civilisation in South America.
• A centralised imperial rule prevailed there. The king was the supreme ruler.
• The capital was Cuzco.

The city had temples, palaces, and beautiful houses made of stone. The capital was connected to different parts of the country by means of roads. Machu Picchu, located at an altitude of 3,500 metres in central Peru, is an example of their construction skills. They made jewellery using gold, silver, and copper. They used the skins of animals such as llamas and alpaca to weave woollen clothes. The government provided farmers with enough land to cultivate. The main crops were com and potatoes. They used a system of recording numbers called quipu. The Spanish colonisation of America destroyed these cultures.

Chinampas
Chinampas are artificial islands built in the lakes of Mexico. The islands were built by covering reeds with mud and planting crops on them. Palaces and pyramids were built on these islands.

Question 28.
Describe the rise of Arab civilisation from the time of Prophet Muhammad to the Caliphate, and explain the major dynasties that ruled after him.
Answer:
Caliphate Rule
The successors of Prophet Muhammad who came to power after his death were known as caliphs. Their rule is called the Caliphate. A caliph was both the religious leader of Islam and the head of the Arab state. During the period of the first four calijfhs, the capital of the Arab Empire was Medina.

Umayyad Dynasty
Muawiya, the governor of Syria seized power following the insecurity that arose after the death of the fourth caliph, Ali. The dynasty he founded was the Umayyad Dynasty. They moved the capital to Damascus in Syria. Abd al-Malik, the caliph of the Umayyad dynasty, emphasised Arabhood.

Abbasids
The Abbasid dynasty came into pow er under the leadership of Abul Abbas by overthrowing the Umayyad dynasty. They moved the capital from Damascus to Baghdad. The most important poet and scholar among them was Harun al- Rashid.

Arab Contributions To The World

• The Arab people were the ones who had built a unique culture. They had an efficient government, a postal system and a tax collection system. They were able to achieve a lot of progress in the field of education. The universities in Baghdad, Damascus, Cairo, and Cordoba are examples of this.
• It was the Arabs who contributed algebra and Arabic numerals to the world. Zero, which was the contribution of India was spread to the whole world by the Arabs.
• The Arabs were also the inventors of many chemical processes in chemistry. They were also the inventors of optics.
• They had knowledge about tuberculosis, smallpox, stomach cancer, and plague. The Thousand and One Nights is a famous book in Arabic literature.

Scientists/Litterateur	Field	Books
Alrazi	Medicine	Kithab-Al-Hawi
Avicenna (Ibn Sina)	Medicine	Al-Qanun Fittib
Al-Biruni	Geology	Tahqiq ma lil-Hind
Umar Khayyam	Literature	Rubaiyyat
Firdausi	Literature	Shahnama

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 10 Europe on the World Map Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Europe on the World Map Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 10 Kerala Syllabus

Europe on the World Map Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Who is the famous Malayalam writer who wrote the book ‘Innathe Europe’?
a. M. T. Vasudevan Nair
b. O. V. Vijayan
c. S. K. Pottekkatt
d. Vaikom Muhammed Basheer
Answer:
c. S. K. Pottekkatt

Question 2.
Which major ocean is located to the west of the continent of Europe?
a. Indian Ocean
b. Atlantic Ocean
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Arctic Ocean
Answer:
b. Atlantic Ocean

Question 3.
How many square kilometers is the approximate area of Europe?
a. 95,50,000 square kilometers
b. 1,15,00,000 square kilometers
c. 85,00,000 square kilometers
d. 1,03,55,000 square kilometers
Answer:
d. 1,03,55,000 square kilometers

Question 4.
Which continent is located to the east of Europe?
a. Africa
b. Asia
c. North America
d. Australia
Answer:
b. Asia

Question 5.
Which index is prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of the countries of the world?
a. Human Development Index
b. Happiness Index ,
c. Gender Equality Index
d. Poverty Index
Answer:
a. Human Development Index

Question 6.
What are the two main human factors that are attributed to the success of the Finnish people?
a. Natural resources and agricultural prosperity
b. Political stability and foreign aid
c. Low education and unemployment
d. Willpower and hard work
Answer:
d. Willpower and hard work

Question 7.
In which year was S. K. Pottekkat’s book ‘Innathe Europe’ published?
a. 1947
b. 1955
c. 1962
d. 1970
Answer:
b. 1955

Question 8.
Which ocean lies to the north of Europe?
a. Aleutian Sea
b. Indian Ocean
c. Pacific Ocean
d. Arctic Ocean
Answer:
d. Arctic Ocean

Question 9.
Assertion (A) Finland is very ahead in the happiness index and the human development index.
Reason (R) The Finnish people have the willpower and hard work to overcome the adverse climate and terrain and lead towards development.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A) The countries of Europe can be a model for the world in terms of development.
Reason (R) These countries have only excellent natural resources and a favourable climate for development.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.

Question 11.
Assertion(A): The Human Development Index (HDI) is a standard for measuring the development of countries in the world.
Reason (R): The HDI is prepared by the United Nations.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Many countries with better climate, geography and natural resources lag behind Finland in the happiness index.
Reason (R): The development and happiness of a country are largely determined by the willpower and hard work of its people.
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. But R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
d. Assertion (A) is false, reason (R) is true.
Answer:
a. Assertion (A) and reason (R) are both true. And R is the correct explanation of A

Question 13.
Match the following by analyzing the borders of Europe.

A	B
1. North	(a) Mediterranean Sea
2. East	(b) Atlantic Ocean
3. West	(c) Asia
4. South	(d) Arctic Ocean

A. 1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(c), 4-(b)
B. 1 -(c), 2-(b), 3-(a), 4-(d)
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)
D. 1-(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(c)
Answer:
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(b), 4-(a)

Question 14.
Match the following

A	B
1. S.K Pottekkat	(a) World Development Index
2. Dimension of Europe	(b) Published in 1955
3. HDI	(c) 1,03,55,000 Square Kilometer
4. Innathe Europe	(d) Malavalam Travel Writer

A. 1-(a), 2-(d), 3-(c), 4-(b)
B. 1-(d), 2-(a), 3-(b), 4-(c)
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(b)
D. 1-(c), 2-(b), 3-(d), 4-(a)
Answer:
C. 1-(d), 2-(c), 3-(a), 4-(b)

Question 15.
State the four main boundaries (direction and area bounded) of the continent of Europe.
Answer:

• North: Arctic Ocean
• West: Atlantic Ocean
• South: Mediterranean Sea
• East: Asia

Question 16.
Which international organisation prepares the Human Development Index (HDI)? What is the main objective of this index?
Answer:

• Organisation: United Nations
• Objective: The main objective is to provide a standard for assessing and comparing the development level of countries in the world by including human factors such as education and health, beyond economic factors

Question 17.
What is the area of Europe? What is its location compared to the world’s area?
Answer:
The area of Europe is approximately 1,03,55,000 square kilometres. Compared to the world’s landmass, Europe is one of the smaller continents (7% of the world’s area).

Question 18.
“Finland’s development achievements became a model for the world.” Elucidate the statement.
Answer:
Despite having a favourable climate and no natural resources, Finland has managed to overcome adverse climate and terrain to reach a high level of development (Happiness Index, HDI). This achievement makes Finland a model for the world.

Question 19.
Happiness Index and Human Development Index (HDI) – How do European countries rank in both these indices?
Answer:
European countries (such as Finland) consistently rank well in both these indices, including in the top ten. This indicates a better standard of living and development for their people.

Question 20.
What is Eurasia?
Answer:
Eurasia is a vast landmass that includes Asia and Europe. Europe is considered the western extension of Asia.

Question 21.
What are the major boundaries that separate Europe from Asia?
Answer:
The major natural boundaries that separate Europe from Asia are:

• Ural Mountains
• Black Sea
• Caspian Sea

Question 22.
“The area of Europe (1,03,55,000 sq km)”. What does it indicate?
Answer:
The area of Europe is small compared to other continents. This area indicates:

• Europe is one of the smallest continents in the world.
• In a small land area, high population density and urbanization are likely to occur.
• This area reminds us of the importance of overcoming geographical limitations with human capacity.

Question 23.
How do the Arctic Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean, which border Europe, affect European countries?
Answer:

• Arctic Ocean (north): Causes severe cold and harsh weather in northern European countries. This makes life difficult and requires hard work.
• Atlantic Ocean (west): Provides Europe with a vast coastline. It facilitates commercial shipping and fishing. In addition, factors such as the North Atlantic Current help moderate the climate in Western Europe.

Question 24.
How do Europe and Asia share an eastern border? What is the geographical significance of this region?
Answer:
Asia is located to the east of Europe, and together they form a large landmass called Eurasia. They share a continental border. This border (mainly the Ural Mountains and the Ural River) serves as a geographical and cultural transition zone. This border has a significant influence on the politics and trade of the eastern European countries.

Question 25.
Explain that ‘willpower and hard work’ are the basis of development using the example of Finland.
Answer:
Countries like Finland have an adverse climate and geography. However, their high ranking in development indices proves that development does not depend solely on natural resources or favourable conditions.

1. Strong Willpower: The determination of the people to face challenges and achieve their goals.
2. Hard Work: The hard work they put in to make this determination a reality.
   The message is that these two human factors are the real capital that leads a country to success.

Question 26.
What is the historical and geographical role of the Mediterranean Sea on the southern border of Europe?
Answer:

• Geographical: It provides the countries of southern Europe with a mild Mediterranean climate. This is favourable for shipping and agriculture.
• Historical: The Mediterranean region was the cradle of ancient Greek and Roman civilizations. This sea was a major trade route connecting Europe, North Africa, and Asia. It played a crucial role in the cultural and political growth of Europe.

Question 27.
Considering the location of Europe on the world map, can Europe be described as a ‘peninsula of peninsulas’? Why?
Answer:
Yes.

• Borders of Europe: Europe is surrounded by oceans on three sides (the Arctic in the north, the Atlantic in the west, Mediterranean in the south). Therefore, it is like a large peninsula of the Asian continent.
• Peninsulas: Within it, there are many smaller peninsulas, such as Italy, the Iberian Peninsula, Scandinavian Peninsula.
• Therefore, Europe can be described as a peninsula of peninsulas.

Question 28.
What are the underlying factors that have led European countries to rank high in indices, including the Human Development Index (HDI)?
Answer:

• Importance of education and health: Good public health systems and universal education.
• Social security schemes: A strong social safety net that ensures the well-being of citizens.
• Transparent and efficient governance: A less corrupt and efficient governance system.
• Citizen participation: The role played by the people in nation-building through high willpower and hard work.

Question 29.
What is the relationship between the Human Development Index (HDI) and the World Happiness Index?
Answer:
Relationship: Both provide a comprehensive picture of a country’s progress. Generally, countries that rank high on the HDI also rank high on the Happiness Index.

• Difference: The HDI focuses primarily on development (health, education, income). The Happiness Index measures people’s self-esteem and life satisfaction (Subjective Well-being).
• Finland Example: Finland’s high ranking suggests that basic development (HDI) and people’s subjective well-being (happiness) go hand in hand.

Question 30.
What are the major Geographical divisions of Europe?
Answer:
Geographical Features
Europe has a diverse topography. The topography of Europe can be classified as follows:

• North Western Highlands
• Central Uplands
• North European Plains
• Alpine Mountain system

Question 31.
Explain the features of north western Highlands.
Answer:
North Western Highlands

• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long¬term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places.
• Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

FJORDS
‘IT’ shaped valleys are valleys formed in a ‘U’ shape by the process of glacial erosion. Fjords are glacial valleys formed in this way on the coasts of high latitudes. Planktons grow abundantly in fjords where warm and cold-water currents meet. These areas are rich in fish as they come to feed on the planktons. Therefore, the Scandinavian region is famous for fishing.

Question 32.
Analyse the statement that “development is based on willpower and hard work rather than natural resources, using the example of Finland”.
Answer:
Land Of Happiness

• Finland topped the United Nations World Happiness Index in 2024. This is the seventh consecutive time that Finland has achieved this feat.
• Countries such as Norway, Sweden, Denmark and Iceland which experience Scandinavian topography and Arctic climate, are all in the top ten of the World Happiness Index, behind Finland.

In addition, these countries also ranked highly on the Human Development Index prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of countries in the world. Many countries with favourable climate, topography, and natural resources are behind Finland in the happiness index. The will and hard work of the Finnish people to overcome adverse climate and topography and leap towards development can be set as an example to the world.

How Is The Happiness Index Prepared?
The happiness index is prepared based on six factors: Per Capita Income, social support, healthy life. expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption.

Question 33.
What is the relevance of assessing the level of development of countries in the world using the Human Development Index (HDI)?
Answer:
HDI provides a comprehensive view of development, which is its relevance.
1. Multidimensional measure: Measures three main dimensions: income (economic status), life expectancy (health), and educational attainment (knowledge).

2. Beyond economic values: Evaluates how that growth is reflected in people’s lives, rather than just looking at economic growth (such as GDP).

3. Policy significance: It encourages countries to pay more attention to health and education in their development policies. A low HDI rank helps the government of that country shift its focus to citizen welfare.

Question 34.
“The four main borders of the European continent influence the lifestyle and culture of European countries.” Elucidate the statement.
Answer:

• North (Arctic Ocean): Due to the harsh cold, the people of Northern Europe became less dependent on nature and more focused on technology and social security systems.
• West (Atlantic Ocean): The Atlantic Ocean opened the door to new worlds for Europe. This led to colonisation and large-scale trade, and helped European culture spread around the world.
• South (Mediterranean Sea): The Mediterranean region maintained a temperate climate. This encouraged agriculture, ports, and shipping since ancient times, and laid the foundation for Western culture.
• East (Asia): Sharing a border with the Asian continent has led to cultural exchange and often political conflicts in Eastern Europe.

Question 35.
Write a note on the Alpine Mountain ranges.
Answer:
Alpine Mountain System

• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians.
• Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

FOLD MOUNTAINS: The lithosphere, the outermost layer of the Earth composed of the crust, and the upper part of the mantle, is generally solid. The lithosphere is made up of irregularly shaped plates. These plates are several thousand kilometers wide and have an average thickness of 100 kilometres. Fold Mountains are mountains formed by the folding of rock layers at plate boundaries where plates collide with each other. Example: The Himalayas.

Question 36.
Explain the formation and characteristics of the North European Plains.
Answer:
North European Plains

• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there.
• The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

Glaciation And Weathering
Glaciers are moving mass of ice. As a result of their movement, different landforms are created and the surface is changed. This process is called glaciation. Weathering is the physical, chemical, or biological decomposition or disintegration of rocks on the Earth’s surface.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence the climate of Europe? How do they contribute to the temperate climate in the south and west?
Answer:
The main factors that influence the climate of Europe are:
1. Latitude

2. Topography

3. Proximity to the Sea

• The southern and western parts of Europe experience a temperate climate mainly due to the influence of the ocean.
• However, the northern and eastern parts experience a dry winter climate due to the high latitude and the influence of mountains.

Question 38.
Describe the four major geographical divisions of Europe and give examples of each.
Answer:
North Western Highlands

• The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands.
• Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long¬term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places.
• Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

FJORDS
‘IT shaped valleys are valleys formed in a ‘U’ shape by the process of glacial erosion. Fjords are glacial valleys formed in this way on the coasts of high latitudes. Planktons grow abundantly in fjords where warm and cold-water currents meet. These areas are rich in fish as they come to feed on the planktons. Therefore, the Scandinavian region is famous for fishing.

North European Plains

• The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain.
• This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there.
• The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper.
• The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

Glaciation And Weathering
Glaciers are moving mass of ice. As a result of their movement, different landforms are created and the
surface is changed. This process is called glaciation. Weathering is the physical, chemical, or biological
decomposition or disintegration of rocks on the Earth’s surface.

Central Uplands

• The Central Uplands are located to the south of the North European Plain.
• This area of land, filled with small hills, valleys, and plateaus, stretches from Ireland in the west to Russia in the east. The Rhine and Rhone rivers enrich this area with water.

The different landforms that make up the Central Uplands are listed below:

MAJOR LANDFORMS OF THE CENTRAL UPLANDS
Landforms	Country
Rhine Valley, Vosges Mountains, Jura Mountains, Central Massif Plateau	France
Ardennes Mountains	Belgium
Black Forest Mountains, Harz Mountains	Germany
Maseta Plateau	Spain
Bohemian Plateau	Czech Republic

Alpine Mountain System

• The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands.
• These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians.
• Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

FOLD MOUNTAINS: The lithosphere, the outermost layer of the Earth composed of the crust, and the upper part of the mantle, is generally solid. The lithosphere is made up of irregularly shaped plates. These plates are several thousand kilometers wide and have an average thickness of 100 kilometres. Fold Mountains are mountains formed by the folding of rock layers at plate boundaries where plates collide with each other. Example: The Himalayas.

Question 39.
Based on Finland’s development model, comprehensively assess whether favorable geographical conditions are essential for development.
Answer:
Favourable geographical conditions are helpful for development, but not essential.

• Importance of favourable conditions (limited): Good weather may be helpful for agriculture and abundant natural resources for industries in the beginning.
• Importance of the Finnish model (survival): Finland breaks this argument.
• Adversity: Finland had unfavourable conditions, including severe cold and limited light.
• Secret of success: It turned these challenges into opportunities with willpower and hard work. Excellent education and social security systems strengthened this willpower.
• Finland proves that the basis of development is not material resources, but human resources (Human Capital). Therefore, more important than favourable conditions are people’s knowledge, skills, and efforts.

Question 40.
Write a note on the Arctic and Sub-Arctic climate region.
Answer:
ARCTIC/TUNDRA CLIMATE

• Arctic parts of Europe experience a tundra climate. The Arctic/Tundra climate is characterised by short, cold summers and long, harsh winters.
• While summer temperature rises to 10°C, winter temperatures drop from -25°C to -40°C.
• There is no sunlight here for 5 to 6 months in winter.

Long nights, harsh winters, and precipitation in the form of ice prevent the growth of plants. Due to this, only shrubs, lichens, and mosses that can withstand the cold generally grow in this climate. The lack of vegetation in the tundra climate also affects the animal life here. Only a few animals such as wolf, reindeer, polar bear, and Arctic hare with thick fur that can survive the cold, can be seen here.

SUBARCTIC/TAIGA CLIMATE

• The Taiga climate is experienced in the subarctic regions that lie south of the tundra region.
  Although the short summers are mild and warm, winters are as harsh as those in the Arctic climate.
• Temperature is below 0°C for five to seven months of the year.
• Precipitation in the taiga climate is generally in the form of snow. The main vegetation of the taiga climate is evergreen forests with coniferous trees. The main trees are pine and cedar. Lynx, ermine, and silver fox are the prominent animals in the region.

Question 41.
How agriculture, fishing and industry influence the life of people?
Answer:
Agriculture
Regional diversity exists in agriculture, intensive farming, extensive farming, and mixed farming

Fishing
Fishing is a major occupation in the countries of Norway, Denmark, and Poland, which are bordered by the North Sea, the North Atlantic Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean. Cod, herring, salmon, halibut, and sea trout are abundant in these areas.

Great Fisher Bank
The Great Fisher Bank and Dogger Bank, on the coast of Denmark and Norway, are the most abundant fishing areas in Europe. In addition to these, the Mediterranean Sea, the Black Sea, and the inland lakes support a thriving fishing industry.

Industry
The Industrial Revolution led Europe to development. Europe’s iron and steel industry, textile industry, and manufacturing sector gained world attention.
Automobile Manufacturing Industry in Europe: European countries are at the forefront of vehicle manufacturing. Many companies that built fighter planes, trucks, and tankers for their country’s military during the world wars later turned to the automotive sector. Audi, Ferrari, Bugatti, Volkswagen, Mercedes-Benz, BMW, Rolls-Royce, Scania, Volvo, and Porsche are all European automobile companies that have admirers all over the world.

Question 42.
Write a note on the Important cities of Europe.
Answer:
celebrations, Germany’s Oktoberfest, Spain’s La Tomatina, Bullfighting, the Netherlands’ King’s Day Carnival, and the Venice Carnival are some of the notable festivals.

• Famous landmarks such as the Eiffel Tower, the Leaning Tower of Pisa, and London Bridge, as well as cities that are famous for art, culture, and history, are major tourist attractions in Europe. Important Cities
• Paris: Paris is the most visited tourist place in Europe every year. Located on the banks of the Seine River, Paris is the capital of France. The Eiffel Tower and the Louvre Museum attract tourists to this city.
• London: Located on the banks of the Thames River, London is the capital and largest city of England and the United Kingdom.
• Berlin: Berlin is the capital and largest city of Germany. This city is located on the banks of the Spree River.
• Moscow: Moscow is the capital of Russia. It is the largest city in Europe, located on the banks of the Moskva River.
• Rome: Rome, the capital of Italy, is located on the banks of the Tiber River. Many monuments of the Roman Empire and Christianity are located here. The Colosseum in Rome is one of the ancient wonders of the world. In addition to these, Madrid, Athens, Amsterdam, Vienna, Barcelona, Lisbon, and Dublin are other major cities in Europe.

Land of a Thousand lakes

• The northern European country of Finland is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes.
  Although it is often referred to as the Land of a Thousand Lakes, Finland is actually home to more than 100,000 lakes, numerous rivers, and vast wetlands.
• The Baltic Sea and the Gulf of Finland lie to the south of Finland, and the Gulf of Bothnia lies to the southwest. The landscape, climate, and culture here attract many tourists.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 9 Democracy: Meaning and Scope Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Democracy: Meaning and Scope Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus

Democracy: Meaning and Scope Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Where did the democratic system originate?
Answer:
City-states of ancient Greece

Question 2.
Which was the most prominent Greek city-state?
a) Athens
b) Sparta
c) Corinth
d) Thebes
Answer:
a) Athens

Question 3.
What is the freedom that serves as the foundation of democracy?
a) Freedom to move
b) Freedom to assemble
c) Freedom to express
d) Freedom to organise
Answer:
c) Freedom to express

Question 4.
Arrange the given Table.

A	B
a. Political equality	Right to work
b. Social equality	Non-discrimination
c. Economic equality Right to vote	Right to vote

A) a -ii, b -iii, c -i
B) a -i, b – iii, c – ii
C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
D) a -ii, b – i, c – iii
Answer:
C) a – iii, b – ii, c – i

Question 5.
Which is the oldest form of government in the world?
a) Theocratic state
b) Dictatorship
c) Monarchy
d) Party Dictatorship
Answer:
c) Monarchy

Question 6.
How many languages are currently listed in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) 22 languages
b) 18 languages
c) 32 languages
d) 20 languages
Answer:
a) 22 languages

Question 7.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given assertion and reason.
Assertion: In India, the government is formed by representatives elected by the people at the national and state levels.
Reason: An Election Commission exists to conduct free and fair elections in India.
a) Both assertion and reason are correct.
b) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
c) Assertion is correct, Reason is wrong
d) Assertion is wrong, Reason is correct.
Answer:
a) Both assertion and reason are correct

Question 8.
Find the ones from ‘B’ that correspond to category ‘A’ given below.

A	B
Universal Adult Franchise	Article 326 of the Indian Constitution 61st Constitutional Amendment 1985 18 years

a) i and ii are correct
b) ii and iii are correct
c) i and iii are correct
d) i, ii, iii, iv are correct
Answer:
d) i, ii, iii, iv are correct

Question 9.
Statement I: In Monarchy, all the power of the state is vested in the king/queen.
Statement II: In Dictatorship, all the powers of the state will be concentrated in one person
Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Both the Statements are correct
b) Statement I only is correct
c) Statement II only is correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
a) Both the Statements are correct

Question 10.
Define Democracy?
Answer:
Democracy is not only a system of government but also a value. Democracy is built on the foundation of ideas such as Liberty, Equality, Justice, and Rights. Democracy consists of governments that respect these values and do not intrude upon them.

Question 11.
Define freedom? What are the important freedoms?
Answer:
Freedom is defined as the absence of restrictions. That is, a state devoid of any external restrictions on individuals. The important freedoms are freedom to move, freedom to organise, freedom to assemble and freedom to express.

Question 12.
Why is modern democracy called Constitutionalism? –
Answer:
In a democracy, there are limits to the activities of the government. These limits are set by the Constitution. That is why modem democracy is called Constitutionalism.

Question 13.
Explain the origin of the word Democracy.
Answer:
The word ‘democracy,’ meaning the power of the people, is derived from the Greek words ‘Demos’ meaning people, and ‘Kratos’ meaning power.

Question 14.
Define Rights.
Answer:
Rights are essential for the existence and growth of democracy. Rights are the conditions necessary to lead a dignified and meaningful life as human beings. What we desire or wish for is not necessarily a right. It is merely a claim. Only legally recognised claims are considered rights.

Question 15.
The rule of law is one of the basic values of democracy. Explain.
Answer:
The essence of the rule of law is that everyone is equal before the law and everyone will receive equal legal protection. The general laws of the country will apply equally to everyone. There will be no special laws for any group. Similarly, the government can fulfil its duties only through the process and principles prescribed by the legal system.

Question 16.
Which are the two houses of the Indian Parliament?
Answer:
The Upper house – Rajya Sabha
The lower house – Lok Sabha

Question 17.
Explain the role and composition of the National Election Commission of India.
Answer:
The Election Commission is a constitutional institution in India for conducting free and fair elections. The Election Commission conducts elections to the office of President and Vice President, as well as to Parliament and state legislatures. The Election Commission is composed of a Chief Election Commissioner and two other Commissioners.

Question 18.
Analyse the democracy that existed in Greece.
Answer:
All decisions concerning the state were made directly by the citizens. Similarly, the military leaders and judges were directly elected by the people. In this way, the democratic system in which the people directly participate in governance and law-making is called Direct Democracy. However, its greatest limitation was that slaves and women did not participate in the democratic system.

Question 19.
Explain the characteristics of indirect democracy or representative democracy.
Answer:
Representative Democracy or Indirect Democracy is a system in which the people elect their representatives to govern. In a parliamentary democratic system, the government is governed by a council of ministers that is collectively responsible to the parliament. Adult franchise and civil rights are milestones in the history of British parliamentary democracy.

Question 20.
What are the three dimensions of equality?
Answer:

• Political equality
• Social equality
• Economic equality

Question 21.
Political parties play an important role in strengthening democracy. Elucidate the statement.
Answer:
Political parties are an essential element in a modem democracy. They play an important role in creating political awareness and shaping public opinion in a democracy. Political parties facilitate the functioning of a democracy. The conferences, marches and speeches they hold are the most powerful political education programmes in a democracy. The aim of political parties is to win elections and gain political power by turning public opinion in their favour.

Question 22.
What are the devices of direct democracy?
Answer:

• Referendum
• Recall
• Plebiscite
• Initiative

Question 23.
Explain the relationship between freedom and restrictions.
Answer:
Freedom is not complete in the absence of restrictions. Therefore, some instructions and rules that individuals should and should not do are necessary for social life. It restricts the intrusion upon another person’s freedom. The value of freedom becomes meaningful only in a system where each individual respects the freedom of others. The thought that one’s own opinions and beliefs are more powerful than those of others leads to conflicts. In such cases, legal and political restrictions are needed.

Question 24.
What does equality mean?
Answer:
Equality is the view that all people in the world are unique and valuable, regardless of discrimination based on religion, colour, gender, race, language, or nationality. However, equality does not mean that everyone should be treated the same way in all situations. It cannot be said that giving different considerations to different persons according to their ability is a violation of the concept of equality.

Question 25.
Explain the three dimensions of equality.
Answer:

Political Equality	Social Equality	Economic Equality
Right to vote	Non-discrimination	Right to work
Right to contest elections	Equal status	Equal pay for equal work
Right to hold public office	Equal opportunities	Right to leisure

Question 26.
What are the four ways in which Parliament can exercise control over the Council of Ministers?
Answer:

• Adjournment Motion
• Question Hour
• Calling – Attention Motion
• Zero Hour

Question 27.
Compare and contrast the features of the parliamentary system and the presidential system.
Answer:

Features of the Parliamentary System	Features of the Presidential System
The executive branch is controlled by the legislature	The executive branch and the legislature are separate
The powers of the head of the state are nominal	The President serves both as the head of state and the head of government
The head of state is the King/ Queen/President	All executive powers are vested in the President
The head of government is the Prime Minister	The President is directly elected by the people
The Prime Minister is the leader of the party that has the majority in the legislature	The President is not accountable to the legislature
The Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the legislature

Question 28.
Explain the three principles of Justice.
Answer:

Equal Treatment for Equals	Proportionate Justice	Recognition of Special Needs
As human beings, all individuals deserve equal rights and equal consideration No discrimination on the basis of class, caste, religion, gender, or race	Justice should be proportionate to the ability and contribution of each person There is no injustice in treating each person separately according to their ability	In a society where inequality exists, the weaker section and the backward can enjoy equality only if special rights are granted Methods such as reservation can be adopted to ensure equality

Question 29.
Explain different types of rights.
Answer:

Political Rights	Civil Rights
Right to vote Right to contest elections Right to hold public office Right to criticise the government	Equality before the law Right to a free and fair trial Right to assemble and organise Freedom of expression
Economic Rights	Cultural Rights
Right to work Right to receive minimum wages Equal rights over the resources and property of the states	Right to preserve language and script Right to educate in the mother tongue Right of indigenous people to preserve their cultural heritage

Question 30.
There are many governments in the world that do not adhere to democracy. Elucidate the statement.
Answer:

Monarchy	The oldest form of government Power is transferred by inheritance All the power of the state is vested in the king/queen
Dictatorship	All the powers of the state will be concentrated in one person No one has the right to question or criticise the person who becomes the supreme leader of the state All forms of democracy, including elections, will be banned
Military Dictatorship	The military will rule directly There will be no democratic rights or other forms of democracy Protests and criticism will be suppressed by military force
Party Dictatorship	Only one political party governs All the powers of the state are concentrated in the party Democratic values, including freedom of expression, are completely prohibited
Theocratic State	Clergy will directly rule the state according to religious laws The official religion of the state shall be the basis of the legal system Everyone shall be obliged to believe in and follow the official religion

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 8 National Movement and Kerala Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

National Movement and Kerala Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 8 Kerala Syllabus

National Movement and Kerala Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Arrange the following in chronological order:
i) Kurichyar Rebellion
ii) End of Pazhassi
iii) Srirangapatnam Treaty
iv) Kundara Proclamation
A) ii – i – iii – iv
B) iii – i – ii – iv
C) iii – ii – iv – i
D) iv – iii – i – ii
Answer:
C) iii – ii – iv – i

Question 2.
Arrange the columns ‘B’ according to the given columns ’A’.
A) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
B) a – iii, b – iv, c-i, d-ii
C) a-iii, b – ii, c. iv, d – i
D) a -ii, b – i, c -iii, d – iv
Answer:
B) a – iii, b – iv, c-i, d-ii

Question 3.
Complete section ‘B’ by understanding the relationships in section ‘A’.
I. a. Samatva Samaj: Vaikunta Swamikal
b. Sadhujana Paripalana sangham: __________

II. a. Araya samajam: Pandit K.P. Karuppan
b. Atmavidya Sangham:
Answer:
I. Ayyankali
II. Vagbhatananda

Question 4.
Who led the Kurichyar rebellion?
Answer:
Rama Nambi or Rama Moopan

Question 5.
Match the following.

A	B
a. Vaikunta Swamikal	i. Pratyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha
b. Sree Narayana Guru	ii. Yogakshema Sabha
c. Poikayil Yohannan	iii. Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam
d. V.T Bhattathiripad	iv. Samatva Samaj

A) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
B) a – iv, b – ii, c-i, d -iii
C) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
D) a -iv, b – iii, c -i, d – ii
Answer:
D) a -iv, b – iii, c -i, d – ii

Question 6.
Complete section ‘B’ by understanding the relationships in section ‘A’
I.
a. Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha: Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi
b. Sadhujana Paripala Sangham: __________

II.
a. Nair Service Society: Mannath Padmanabhan
b. Araya Samajam: __________

III.
a. Yogakshema sabha: V.T. Bhattathiripad
b. Atmavidya Sangham: __________
Answer:
I. Ayyankali
II. Pandit K. P Karuppan
III. Vagbhatanandha

Question 7.
Who wrote the play “ Adukkalayil Ninnu Arangathekku”? #
Answer:
V. T. Bhattathiripad

Question 8.
Who performed ‘Shiva prathishta’ at Aruvippuram?
Answer:
Sree Narayana Guru

Question 9.
Who performed the first ‘Kannadi Prathishta’ in South India?
Answer:
Vaikunta Swamikal

Question 10.
Choose the correct answer from the following.
(i) Who conducted the Villuvandi strike?
a. Ayyankali
b. Pandit. K.P Karuppan
c. Vagbhatananda
d. V.T Bhattathiripad
Answer:
a. Ayyankali

(ii) Who is the volunteer captain of Guruvayur Sathyagraha?
a. K.Kelappan ,
b. A. K. Gopalan
c. Ayyankali
d. V.T. Bhattathiripad
Answer:
b. A. K. Gopalan

(iii) Who led Kallumala Strike?
a. Mannath Padmanabhan
b. Poikayil Yohannan
c. Ayyankali
d. Pandit K.P. Karuppan
Answer:
c. Ayyankali

Question 11.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
i. Guruvayur Satyagraha
ii. Paliyam Satyagraha
iii. Vaikom Satyagraha
iv. Upper cloth Agitation
a. i, iii, iv, ii
b. iv, iii, i, ii
c. i, iv, ii, iii
d. iii, ii, i, iv
Answer:
b. iv, iii, i, ii

a. Upper cloth agitation: 1859
b. Vaikom Satyagraha: 1924-25
c. Guruvayur Satyagraha: 1931
d. Paliyam Satyagraha: 1947-48

Question 12.
Who led the Salt Satyagraha in Payyanur?
Answer:
K. Kelappan

Question 13.
Who proposed the Salt Satyagraha at Kozhikode?
Answer:
Muhammad Abdur Rahman Sahib

Question 14.
Who were the main leaders of the Malabar Rebellion?
Answer:
Ali Musliyar, Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji and M. P. Narayana Menon.

Question 15.
Who is the Prime Minister of the first Congress ministry that came to power in Kochi?
Answer:
Ikkanda Warrier

Question 16.
Write the following in chronological Order.
i. Elecricity strike
ii. Nivarthanam
iii. Malabar Rebellion
iv. Kochi Rajya Praja Mandal
a. i, iii, iv, ii ,
b. ii, iii, i, iv
c. i, iv, ii, iii
d. iii, ii, i, iv
Answer:
d. iii, ii, i, iv

a. Malabar Rebellion: 1921
b. Nivarthanam: 1932
c. Electricity strike: 1936
d. Kochi Rajya Praja Mandal: 1941

Question 17.
Who is the first Chief minister of Kerala?
Answer:
E.M.S. Nambhoodiripad

Question 18.
Who is the first president of the Travancore State Congress?
Answer:
Pattom Thanu Pillai

Question 1.
__________ become enlightened through knowledge. .
Answer:
Sree Narayana Guru

Question 20.
Choose the correction option from the following.
Statement 1: In 1921, the All Kerala Provincial Conference was held at Ottapalam.
Statement 2: The conference included representatives from Malabar, Kochi, and Travancore.
Options:
A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.
B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
Answer:
A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true, and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

• The base was shifted to Wayanad
• The local people were added
• Guerrilla warfare was waged

Question 22.
What were the factors recorded in William Logan’s inquiry report as the causes of the peasant revolts in Malabar?
Answer:

• Tax policies of the British government
• Exploitation and eviction of landlords

Question 23.
Write the causes of the Electricity Strike in Thrissur?
Answer:
The Diwan of Kochi, R. K. Shanmukham Chetty, decided to hand over the electricity supply of Thrissur to a private company. In 1936, there was a popular uprising against the decision. Although the government suppressed the protest, this strike helped mobilise people to the forefront of the protest.

Question 24.
Write the name of w omen activists w ho actively participated in Indian National Movement?
Answer:

• A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
• Ammu Swaminathan
• Akkamma Cheriyan
• Annie Mascarene

Question 25.
What is the objective of Paliyam Satyagraha?
Answer:
The Paliyam Satyagraha of 1947-48 was another protest in Kerala for the abolition of untouchability. The marginalised sections of the people were prohibited from walking on the road in front of Paliath Achan’s residence in Chennamangalam, Kochi.

Question 26.
Why Malabar peasants rebellion is known as Mappila riots?
Answer:
There were protests and violence by farmers against exploitative landlords and the British government. Since most of the participants were Mappila farmers of South Malabar, the British authorities and imperial historians referred to these uprisings as the “Mappila riots”

Question 27.
Complete the table by examining the important events that led to the formation of Aikya Kerala.

Answer:
A. Payyannur Congress Conference: 1928
B. Reorganise the states of India based on Language

Question 28.
Write a note on the Abstention Movement.
Answer:
The 1932 ‘Nivarthanam’ or Abstention Movement was a powerful political agitation in Travancore. The Christian, Muslim, and Ezhava communities formed a political committee and led the movement jointly. They demanded proportional representation in government jobs and in the Legislative Assembly. C. Kesavan, N. V. Joseph and P. K. Kunju led the movement. The activities for responsible government in Travancore were carried out under the auspices of the Travancore State Congress. Pattom Thanu Pillai was the first president of the Travancore State Congress. They organised the agitation through petitions and direct-action protests.

Question 29.
What are the measures the British took against the Kurichyar and Kurumbrar?
Answer:

• The tribal people’s tracts of land were seized
• They were not allowed to continue their traditional methods of farming
• The British demanded money instead of goods as tax

Question 30.
a. Name the organisation formed under the leadership of Ikkanda Warrier.
b. What was its main objective?
Answer:
a. Kochi Rajya Praja Mandal
b. It was decided to hold a nationwide protest to achieve responsible government and 29 July 1946 was observed as “Responsible Government Day.” Later, the Praja Mandal merged with the Indian National Congress. Ikkanda Warrier became the Prime Minister, and the first Congress ministry came to power in Kochi.

Question 31.
Explain the formation of the Congress Socialist Party in Kerala and its role in peasant struggles.
Answer:
In 1934, Congress workers who supported socialist ideas met at Kozhikode under the leadership of K. Kelappan. They decided to form a socialist group within the Indian National Congress, called the Congress Socialist Party (CSP). The faction was led by P. Krishna Pillai, E. M. S. Namboothiripad, and A. K. Gopalan. The CSP played an important role in Kerala by organising several peasant struggles, fighting against landlord oppression and promoting the rights of farmers, which strengthened the broader national movement.

Question 32.
Write a note on Punnapra-Vayalar Struggle.
Answer:

• This struggle was against the tyranny of C. P. Ramaswamy Iyer, the Diwan of Travancore, and for the establishment of responsible government.
• Since the struggle took place in Punnapra and Vayalar in Alappuzha, it became known as the Punnapra- Vayalar Struggle.
• It was carried out in 1946 by farmers and workers under the leadership of the Communist Party.

Question 33.
What does British take the various measures against the Pazhassi.
Answer:

• Military camps were set up at strategic places
• New roads were built
• Rice supply to Wayanad was cut off
• A reward was announced for those who nab the participants in the rebellion

Question 34.
Describe the major activities of the national movement in Malabar and the role of important leaders.
Answer:
The national movement was more active in Malabar than in other parts of Kerala. The formation of the Malabar District Congress Committee and the activities of the Home Rule League propelled the national movement forward. The Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movements received strong support throughout Malabar.

• As part of the struggle, people boycotted foreign-made goods, courts, schools and other government institutions. The strike witnessed active participation of women and students.
• The prominent leaders during the time were C. Kunhirama Menon, K. Kelappan, U. Gopala Menon, K. P. Kesava Menon, Muhammed Abdur Rahiman Sahib, E. Moidu Moulavi and Moyarath Sankaran.
• When the Salt Satyagraha gathered momentum all over India under the leadership of (iandhiji as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement, its impact was also felt in Kerala.
• The centre of the Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was Payyannur in Malabar.
• The satyagraha was led by K. Kelappan.

Satyagrahis from various parts of Kerala reached the Payyannur beach and participated. Also, under the leadership of Muhammad Abdur Rahman, the Satyagrahis violated the law and made salt on the beach at Kozhikode. The people who gathered there had to suffer the brutal thrashings of the police. The boycott of foreign clothes, picketing of liquor shops and the Khadi campaign were all part of the struggle.

Question 35.
Explain the Paliyam Satyagraha and its significance in the struggle against untouchability in Kerala.
Answer:
The Paliyam Satyagraha (1947-48) was an important protest in Kerala against untouchability. At that time, marginalised communities were not allowed to walk along the road in front of Paliath Achan’s residence in Chennamangalam, Kochi. To oppose this injustice, political parties and community organisations jointly organised the satyagraha. C. Kesavan and other leaders led the protest. The government tried to stop the satyagraha by arresting and torturing the protestors. However, the struggle continued strongly. In 1948, when all the temples in Kochi were opened to people of all castes, the ban on walking along Paliyam Road was finally removed. The satyagraha became a major step towards ending untouchability and ensuring equal rights for everyone in Kerala.

Question 36.
Write a note on Kurichyar Rebellion.
Answer:

• The Kurichyar and Kurumbrar are tribal groups in Wayanad.
• The British considered them enemies after they supported Pazhassi in this rebellion.

Measures the British took against the Kiirichyar and Kurumbrar:

• The tribal people’s tracts of land were seized
• They were not allowed to continue their traditional methods of farming
• The British demanded money instead of goods as tax

The Kurichyar rebellion began in 1812. The tribal people fought against the British by taking control of the routes to Wayanad and by gaining local support. Rama Nambi or Rama Mooppan was their leader. They directly attacked the British army stationed at Sultan Bathery and Mananthavadv. But the British suppressed the Kurichyar rebellion by bringing in more soldiers from other places.

Peasant Discontent – Leads to Rebellion
A series of rebellions broke out in various parts of Malabar in the nineteenth century. William Logan, the Malabar District Collector, recorded in his investigation report that the British government’s tax policies, exploitation and eviction of landlords were the causes of these riots. There was protest and violence by farmers against the exploitative landlords and the British government. Since most of the participants were Mappila farmers of South Malabar, the British authorities and imperial historians referred to these uprisings as the ‘Mappila riots.’

Question 37.
Write a note on the Protest Led by Velu Thampi Dalawa and Paliath Achan against the British.
Answer:

• Velu Thampi was the Dalawa, or Prime Minister of Balarama Varma Maharaja, who ruled
  Trava ncore.
• In 1805, through an agreement signed between the English East India Company and the King of Travancore marked the end of the political freedom of Travancore.
• The British Resident Macaulay took control of the administration of Travancore.
• He cancelled the orders issued by Velu Thampi, the Dalawa (Prime Minister) of Travancore.
• Macaulay demanded immediate payment of tax arrears to the British company.
• This led to a conflict between Velu Thampi and the British.
• The Prime Minister of Kochi, Paliath Achan, also faced problems with Macaulay.
• Velu Thampi and Paliath Achan made a secret agreement to fight against the British.
• The joint forces of Travancore and Kochi attacked Macaulay’s camp in Kochi, but Macaulay escaped.
• On 11 January 1809, Velu Thampi issued the “Kundara Proclamation” at Kundara in Travancore.
• In this proclamation, he called on the people to fight against British rule.
• The Kundara Proclamation became a symbol of the people’s resistance against the British.

Kochi And Paliath Achan
Paliath Achan had opposed the interference of the British Resident Macaulay in the internal affairs of Kochi. Besides, Macaulay gave shelter to an enemy of Paliath Achan which worsened the situation. Then Paliath Achan joined hands with Velu Thampi and launched a struggle against the British. Although he strongly resisted the British, he was eventually exiled to Madras by them.

Paliath Achan: The heads of the Nair family called Paliyam in the Kochi kingdom were called Paliath Achan. The Paliath Achans held the position of being the Chief of Ministers or the Prime Minister of the Kochi kingdom.

Question 38.
“Social Reformers are those who fought against the irrational customs”. Justify the statement with examples of social reformers with their activities.
Answer:

Question 39.
Describe the Malayali Memorial and the Ezhava Memorial.
Answer:

Malayali Memorial	Ezhava Memorial
Demand for adequate representation of people of Travancore in government jobs in Travancore.	Demand for adequate representation of Ezhava community in government service.
On 1 January 1891, a petition signed by the people was submitted to the Maharaja, stating this demand	On 3 September 1986, a petition signed by members of the ezahava community was submitted to the Maharaja
Leadership- G.P. Pillai	Leadership-Dr. P. Palpu

Question 40.
Write a note on struggles for Civil Liberty.
Answer:
Upper Cloth Agitation

• The women of the Channar community of South Travancore did not have the right to wear upper cloth like the women who were considered to be the upper caste.
• The Channar women, who appeared in public places wearing upper cloth with the support of Christian missionaries, were attacked by those who were considered to be the upper caste and their upper cloth was tom off.
• Subsequently, riots broke out in many places in Southern Travancore.
• On July 26, 1859, the Maharaja of Travancore issued a decree removing restrictions on Channar women to wear upper cloth.

Vaikom Satyagraha

• The Vaikom Satyagraha was a major struggle for the freedom of travelling that took place in Kerala when the national movement was gaining strength.
• The people who were considered inferior were not allowed to walk on the approach roads of Vaikom temple. The satyagraha began on March 30, 1924, in protest against this discrimination. This satyagraha was led by T. K. Madhavan, K. Kelappan, K. P. Kesava Menon and others.
• The Vaikom Satyagraha, which attracted national attention, ended with the mediation of Mahatma Gandhi. On November 23, 1925, all the roads on all three sides of the temple (except two lanes leading to the Eastern Gate) were opened to all Hindus.

Guruvayursatyagraha

• The Guruvayur Satyagraha was a movement that demanded all sections of Hindus be allowed to enter the Guruvayur temple.
• The Satyagraha began on 1 November 1931 with the formation of a committee under the leadership of K. Kelappan and Mannath Padmanabhan.
• When the protest intensified, the authorities were forced to close the temple for approximately a month. The volunteer captains of the movement, A. K. Gopalan and P. Krishna Pillai, were brutally beaten by opponents of the Satyagraha.
• When K. Kelappan began a ‘fast unto death’ in front of the temple, many people came from different places to support it. Finally, the fast was ended on the instructions of Gandhiji.
• When the Congress held a plebiscite in Ponnani taluk to ascertain public opinion about the temple entry, the majority of the people supported it.
• In this way, the Guruvayur Satyagraha helped to create a favourable atmosphere for the entry of all sections of Hindus to the temple.

Savarna Jatha
To express solidarity with the Vaikom Satyagraha, a procession was organised from Vaikom to Thiruvananthapuram under the leadership of Mannath Padmanabhan. This is known as the ‘Savama Jatha.’

Pali Yam Satyagraha

• The Paliyam Satyagraha of 1947-48 was another protest in Kerala for the abolition of untouchability.
• The marginalised sections of the people were prohibited from walking on the road in front of the residence of Paliath Achan at Chennamangalam in Kochi.
• The Palyiam Satyagraha was organised by political parties and community organisations in protest against this injustice.
• The government responded with arrests and torture to suppress the satyagraha led by C. Kesavan and others.
• In 1948, when all the temples in Kochi were opened to everyone regardless of caste, restrictions on walking along Paliyam Road were lifted.