Plus One

You can Download Local Governments Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Local Governments

Local Governments Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the necessity of local governments?
Answer:
Apart from the Central Government and State Governments, it is the local self-governments that manage the developmental activities of district, urban centers, and rural areas. According to Gandhiji, the Father of our Nation, India’s soul lives in the villages. His dream was self-sufficient villages. The Makers of the Constitution included this idea in the Constitution. Later through the 73^rd and 74^th Amendments the Local Self-Government Institutions acquired their present shape and status.
The necessity for local governments:

• Local governments are close to people and they are able to solve the problems of the people quickly and cheaply.
• They can protect local interests.
• They are necessary to make use of local knowledge and the energy of the local community.
• They are the pillars of democracy. They ensure the participation of the people in the administration.
• It is through them decentralization and decentralized planning are done.

Question 2.
Examine the growth of local governments in India.
Answer:
There have been references to local governments in India also in the past. The father of the Indian local governments is Lord Rippon. But in 1687, the first local government in India, the Madras Corporation, was founded. Apart from the Central Government and State Governments, it is the local self-governments that manage the developmental activities of district, urban centers, and rural areas. According to Gandhiji, the Father of our Nation, India’s soul lives in the villages. His dream was self-sufficient villages. The Makers of the Constitution included this idea in the Constitution. Later through the 73^rd and 74^th Amendments, the Local Self-Government Institutions acquired their present shape and status.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of India’s modern local governments?
Answer:
Lord Rippon

Question 4.
Prepare a seminar paper on Panchayat Raj in India.
Answer:
The +1 Political Science students in Kannur Government HSS organized a seminar on the topic “Panchayat Raj in India”. The students were divided into groups, and the leaders of the groups presented the views of their groups.
Panchayat Raj in India/Three-tier administrative decentralization:

• In 1957 the Indian Government appointed a Committee with Balwant Rai Mehta as its chairman to study the rural development schemes.
• Panchayat Raj came into existence as per this Committee’s report.
• The Committee recommended a 3-tier system for decentralization of powers.
• In the village, there was Village Panchayat, at the block level there was Panchayat Samiti and at the district level there was Zila Parishad.

a) Village Panchayat:

• Panchayat is at the bottom of the village administration. Panchayat is a committee the members of which are elected directly by the people of the Panchayat.
• There are reservations for women and also Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe members.
• The main responsibilities of the Panchayat are sanitation, drinking water distribution, street lamps, land use, keeping cattle register, relief work, maintenance of roads, culverts, bridges, sewers and ponds, supervision of primary education, welfare of the backward classes and revenue collection.
• The Panchayat also has to maintain the birth-death register and propagate family planning.
• Apart from all these, the Panchayat can work as the agents of the Samiti for implementing developmental plans.
• Village panchayats are recommended to be agents for revenue collection.

b) Panchayat Samiti:

• This is the mid-level or Block level administrative setup.
• The members are indirectly elected. The members of the Samiti are: The chiefs of the village Panchayats in the block’s jurisdiction, nominated women members, Representatives of Cooperative Societies, the local MLA and the M.P.
• All the development projects in the Block are its responsibility.
• Their responsibility includes agriculture, animal husbandry, Cooperation, small scale irrigation, rural industries, primary education, local communication, sanitation, health, and medical help. It is the duty of the State Government to delegate powers to the Samiti.

c) Zila Parishad:

• This is the topmost part of the local government set up. The members of the Zila Parishad are Representatives of the Panchayat Samiti, Representatives of the SC’s and ST’s, Women Representatives, MLAs of the District and MP’s.
• The Presidents of the Panchayat Samiti will be ex-officio members.
• District level officers from spheres like medical, health, agriculture, veterinary, engineering education, welfare of Back Ward Classes, Public Works, etc.
• It is the Zila Parishad that examines and passes the budgets of Panchayat Samitis.
• It gets funds from the Government and distributes it among the Panchayat Samitis.
• It collects the various schemes of the Blocks of the district and coordinates them.
• It collects the various applications from Panchayat Samitis and forwards them to the State Government.
• It has the duty of supervising the working of the Panchayat Samitis.
• The Chairman of the Zila Parishad is the Collector. Otherwise, he can function as the Secretary of the Parishad.
• The recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta were approved by the Development Council in 1959.

Question 5.
Kochi is a Municipal Corporation in Kerala. Which are the other Municipal Corporations?
Answer:
Kozhikode, Thrissur, Kollam, Thiruvananthapuram.

Question 6.
The 73^rd Amendment Act is a milestone on constitutional amendments. What were the changes brought by this Amendment?
Answer:
The 73^rd Amendment Act made the Panchayat Raj a Constitutional system.
It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
The block-level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment,
The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.

The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SC’s and ST’s.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs. One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.
Reservations are by rotation.

The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.

It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission. The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 7.
Complete the Chart.

Answer:

Question 8.
What are the main differences between the local governments before the 73rd Amendment and after it?
Answer:
Local Governments before the 73^rd Amendment:
Before the 73^rd Amendment, local government was in the State list. The State Governments had full authority to makes laws in this.
Before the 73^rd Amendment, there was no condition that elections should be done immediately after the local government have been dissolved by the State Government.
Before the 73^rd Amendment, there was no reservation for women and SC’s and ST’s.
Before the 73^rd Amendment, it was the responsibility of the State Government to conduct elections for the local committees.
Before the 73^rd Amendment, in the local committees, dominant castes and feudal lords had the upper hand.

Local Governments after the 73^rd Amendment:
After the 73^rd Amendment, the power of the State governments to enact laws on local government was restricted. The States were now forced to make laws in conformity with the Amendment.
After the 73^rd Amendment, direct election came into effect.
After the 73^rd Amendment, the condition came that if the local governments are dissolved, within 6 months fresh elections must be conducted.
After the 73^rd Amendment, there was reservation for women and SC’s and ST’s.
After the 73^rd Amendment, the duty of conducting elections to the local governments was vested in a State Election Commission.
After the 73^rd Amendment, in the local committees, dominance of the dominant castes and feudal lords came to an end to a certain limit.

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by the 73^rd and 74^th Amendments in the local administration?
Answer:
The 73^rd Amendment Act made the Panchayat Raj a Constitutional system.

• It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
• The block-level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
• The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
• The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
• The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
• The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
• Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.
• One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies.
• Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs. One-third of the chairpersons will be ladies.
• Reservations are by rotation.
• The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed.
• The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.
• It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.
• The Act also makes provision for the appointment of Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Urban Local Government and the 74^rd Amendment Act:
The formation of the urban local government and determining its powers have been made according to the Constitution.
The 74^th Amendment Act of 1992 came into effect in April 1993. It defines the rules, structure, and powers of the Municipal Administration.
According to the Act, the urban local governments have Municipal Corporations, Municipalities Urban Panchayats.

• For all the seats, there should be direct election.
• Councilors are elected from the Wards (Constituencies in the Town).
• There are reservations for SCs and STs.
• The duration of the Municipality is 5 years.
• The Government has the authority to dissolve the Municipality before the completion of its time.
• The Council established after the dissolution will continue in power for the remaining duration.
• To contest in Municipal election, one should be at least 25 years of age.
• Each State appoints a State Election Commission.
• The State Election Commission will prepare the voters’ list and make arrangements for the elections and it has full control over them.
• The State Governor appoints the Commissioner of the State Election Commission.
• Each State has to form State Finance Commission, District Planning Committee and Urban Development Committee. The Act which specifies the responsibilities of the Urban local self-government is included in the XII schedule of the Constitution. It has 18 matters.

Question 10.
How many Grama Panchayats are there in Kerala?
Answer:
999

Question 11.
Imagine your class as the Grama Sabha. Discuss the agenda of the meeting and suggest some steps to realize the goal.
Answer:
Grama Sabha is at the bottom of the 3-tier Panchayat Raj System. It is an integral part of the Grama Panchayat. In the Grama Sabha, all the voters of the village are members. It presents development plans, discusses them and takes decisions. The Ward Member will lead the meeting of the Grama Sabha. Under the Chairmen of various Standing Committees, the discussions are codified and decisions made.

Question 12.
“There are certain limitations in the functioning of the Local Governments.” Do you agree? Explain
Answer:
There are many obstacles on the way of the smooth functioning of the local governments.
Problems of Panchayat Rai:
The main problem is that the people’s civic responsibility is not good enough, maybe because of poverty and illiteracy. They don’t show much alertness or imagination.

Another problem is the indifference that the officials show in Panchayat Raj activities. Another problem is lack of money. Many workers in the local governments are not competent enough to do things properly. They are paid less. Many local governments are plagued with corruption and nepotism. There are also factionalism and political interferences.

The problems faced by the local governments can be solved only through making the people aware of them. They should know the essence of decentralization of power. They should know that decentralization is the means and people’s participation is the goal.

Question 13.
Match the following:

A	B
Tongan Committee	1957
Panchayat Raj	74th Amendment
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee	73rd Amendment
Nagarpalika Law	1984

Answer:

A	B
Tungan Committee	1984
Panchayat Raj	73rd Amendment
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee	1957
Nagarpalika. Law	74th Amendment

Question 14.
The administrative reforms made by ………… in 1882, were the starting point of the local self-governments of modem India.
Answer:
Lord Ripon

Question 15.
The Constitutional Amendments Acts ……… helped in the growth of the local self-government.
Answer:
73, 74

Question 16.
…….. is the basic level of the Panchayat Raj System.
Answer:
Grama Panchayat

Question 17.
The 74^th Constitutional Amendment regarding the local governments in the urban centres is known by the name ………..
Answer:
Nagar Palika System

Students can Download Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Notes, Plus One Business Studies Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Notes Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics

Contents
1. Social Responsibility – Meaning – Arguments for and against social responsibility – Kinds of social responsibility – Social responsibility towards different interest groups

2. Environmental protection – Causes of pollution – Need for pollution control – Role of business in environmental protection

3. Business Ethics – Meaning – Elements of Business Ethics Social responsibility of business refers to its obligation to take those decisions and perform those actions which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society. Social responsibility involves an element of voluntary action on the part of business people for the benefit of society.

Arguments in favour of Social Responsibility:
1. Justification for Existence and Growth:
The prosperity and growth of business is possible only through continuous service to society.

2. Long term Interest of the firm:
A firm can improve its image and builds goodwill in the long run when its highest goal is to serve the society .

3. Avoidance of government regulations:
Business can avoid the problem of government regulations by voluntarily assuming social responsibilities.

4. Maintenance of society:
Law alone can’t help out people with ail the difficulties they face. A socially responsible business can contribute something for social peace and harmony.

5. Availability of resources with business:
Business has valuable financial and human resources which can be effectively used for solving problems of the society.

6. Better environment for doing business:
Social responsibility creates better environment for business operations as it improves quality of life and standard of living of the people.

7. Contribution to social problems:
Some of the social problems have been created by business firms themselves such as pollution, unsafe work places, discrimination etc, Therefore, it is the moral obligation of business to solve such social problems.

Arguments Against Social Responsibility:
1. Violation of profit maximization objective:
According to this argument, business exists only for the maximum profit to its shareholders and do not have responsibility to the society as a whole.

2. Burden on consumers:
Involvement of business in social responsibilities involve a lot of expenditure which will ultimately be borne by the customers.

3. Lack of Social Skills:
The business firms and managers are not expert to tackle the social problems like poverty, over population etc.

4. Lack of public support:
business cannot fulfill social responsibility because of lack of public confidence & cooperation.

Kinds of Social Responsibility:
1. Economic responsibility:
The primary social responsibility of a business is to produce goods and services that society wants and sell them at a profit.

2. Legal responsibility:
Every business has a responsibility to operate within the laws of the land.

3. Ethical responsibility:
This includes the behavior of the firm that is expected by the society but not included in law. eg: Respect religious sentiment and dignity of people while advertising.

4. Discretionary responsibility:
This refers to voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes. eg: Giving charitable contributions to educational institutions, helping the people in natural calamities etc.

Social Responsibility towards different interest groups:
1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners:

• Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
• Provide regular and accurate information on the financial position of the firm.
• To ensure the safety of their investment.

2. Responsibility Towards the workers:

• Providing fair wages
• Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
• Respect democratic rights of workers to form unions.

3. Responsibility toward consumers:

• Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
• Avoding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
• Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
• To handle the customers grievance promptly.

4. Responsibility Towards Government:

• Respect the laws of the country
• Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
• act according to the well accepted values of the society.

5. Responsibility towards community:

• Make employment opportunities
• Protect the environment from pollution.
• To uplift the weaker sections of society

Business & Environmental Protection Causes of Pollution:
Many industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.
1. Air Pollution:
Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.

2. Water pollution:
Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping.. It has led to the death of several animals and posed a serious problem to human life.

3. Land Pollution:
Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

4. Noise Pollution:
Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Need for Pollution Control:
1. Reduction of health hazard:
Pollution control measures can check diseases like cancer, heart attack & lung complications and support a healthy life on earth.

2. Reduced Risk of Liability:
It is a sound business policy to install pollution control devices in its premises to reduce the risk of liability of paying compensation to the affected people.

3. Cost Saving:
An effective pollution control programme is needed to save costs of operating business.

4. Improved Public Image:
A firm that adopts pollution control measures enjoys a good reputation as a socially responsible enterprise.

5. Other social benefits:
Pollution control results in many other benefits like clearer visibility, cleaner buildings, better quality of life, and the availability of natural products in a purer form.

Role of Business in Environmental Protection:

1. A definite commitment by top management to create a work culture for environmental protection
2. Ensuring that commitment of environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
3. Developing clear cut policies and programmes for purchasing good quality raw materials, introducing superior technology, using scientific techniques of disposal of waste and developing employee skills for pollution control.
4. Complying with the laws and regulations enacted by the Government for prevention of pollution.
5. Participation in government programs relating to management of hazardous substances, cleaning up of polluted rivers, plantation of trees, and checking deforestation.
6. Periodical assessment of pollution control programmes in terms of costs and benefits with a view to improve them.
7. Arranging educational workshops and training materials to share technical information with everyone involved in pollution control.

Business Ethics:
Ethics is concerned with what is right and what is wrong in human behavior. Business ethics refer to the socially determined moral principles which should govern business activities.

Business ethics is the code of conduct followed and performed by every business. Ethical business behavior improves public image, earn’s public confidence and leads to greater success.
Examples of Business Ethics:

1. Charging fair prices from customers
2. Using fair weights for measurement of commodities
3. Giving fair treatment to workers
4. Earning reasonable profits.
5. Avoiding adulteration, hoarding etc.
6. Using environmentally friendly products

Elements of Business Ethics:
1. Top management commitment:
The Chief Executive Officer and higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing and upholding the moral values of the organisation.

2. Publication of a Code:
‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles, values and standards that guide a firm’s actions. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, health and safety in the workplace etc.

3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.

4. Employees Involvement:
To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.

5. Measuring Results:
Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

You can Download Federalism Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus one Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Federalism

Federalism Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Federalism?
Answer:
Federalism is the system by which powers of the nation are divided between the Centre and the States. If all the powers of the nation are concentrated in the Central government, such a system will be called unitary government. America is a Federal system But China is a unitary system.

Question 2.
Complete the following chart:

Answer:

Question 3.
Indian Federalism and American Federalism are different. Do you agree?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution follows the federal system. This is what article 1 states: “India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States.” When India became free on 15 August 1947, the integration of the Princely, States became necessary. Our Federation did not come into existence through an agreement among existing States. It is a creation of the self-identity of the Indian people through the Constitution. The American Federal system came into existence as the result of an agreement among 13 colonies. Today America is Federation of 50 States.

Question 4.
Explain how powers are divided among the States and the Centre in the Indian Federalism.
Answer:
In the 11th Section of the Constitution, Articles 245 to 263 deal with the relations between the States and the Centre. Article 246 talks about the 3 lists for legislation. The content of the 7th schedule is the three lists – Union List, State List, and the Concurrent List. On subjects mentioned in the Union List, the Parliament makes the Laws. It has 97 subjects. The most important subjects of the nation are in this list. The State List has subjects over which the States can make Laws. It has 66 subjects.

Over the subjects mentioned in the Concurrent List, both the Parliament and the State Assembly can make laws. It has 47 subjects. If any subject is not mentioned in the State List or Concurrent list, the Parliament will have the power to makes laws on that subject.

The main subjects in the Union List are: Defence, Armed Forces, Military Camps, the Fortresses of armed forces, arms and ammunition, nuclear energy, defence industry, Central Intelligence, Preventive Detention, Foreign Policy, Diplomacy, Treaties and Agreements, Possessions abroad, Exchange of criminals, Passport, Visa, Migration, Pilgrimage outside the country, crimes against international laws, Railway, National Highways, National waterways, Shipping and Navigation, Light Houses, Big ports, Naval hospitals, air traffic, movement of goods, Post, Telephone, Broadcasting, Public Debt, Currency and Coin making, Foreign loans, Reserve Bank, Post Office and so on.

Main items in the State List: Law and Order, Police, Jail, Local government, public health.
Main items in the Concurrent list: Criminal Law, Criminal procedure, Marriage, divorce, etc.

Question 5.
Categorize the following and put in the appropriate columns: Police, education, defense, Foreign trade Banking, Jail, Forest, agriculture, adulteration.

Answer:

Union list	State list	Concurrent List
defense	Jail	Forest
Foreign trade	Police	Adulteration
Banking	Agriculture	Education

Question 6.
Critically examine the Indian Federalism.
Answer:
India is a Federation. All the features of a federation are found in the Indian Constitution.

• Written and Rigid Constitution
• Division of Authority
• Independent Federal Judiciary

The Indian Constitution stands for a strong federal system. It created a strong federal system. The following show strong Central control:

• All the most important subjects are in the Union list.
• Governors are appointed by the Centre.
• The Centre has the right to declare emergency.
• The Centre has Residuary Powers.

Question 7.
Name the Commission that was appointed to study the Centre-State relations
Answer:
Sarkaria Commission

Question 8.
Evaluate the Centre-State relations in India.
Answer:
The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and blood to it. Therefore the changing political processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism.

Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamoring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states. The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict.

Demand for New States: This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telangana State.
Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened.

Question 9.
There are States in India that demand autonomy. What are the major demands of such States?
Answer:
Many States and Political Parties demand more autonomy for States. But autonomy means different things to different States and Parties. By Division of authority what some States want is more powers to be given to them. Many States and Political Parties demand more self-rule for their States.

Another demand is that States must have their own sources of income and they should have greater control over their natural resources. Some States wanted autonomy so that they can control their resources.

A third demand is that Centre should not interfere with the State administration. The States can’t tolerate the intervention by the Centre. The fourth reason for self-rule is linked to cultural and language matters. The opposition to Hindi in Tamil Nadu and the imposition of Punjabi in Punjab are causes of protest. The domination of the Hindi speaking States over the other States often causes rifts. Some States protested saying that Hindi was being forcefully imposed on them.

Question 10.
Inter-State Conflicts are common in India. Explain with examples.
Answer:

• River-Water Conflict
• Boundary Conflict

River-water conflicts often become serious as they affect the drinking water and water for irrigation.
Examples are Kaveri Water conflict, Mullaperiyar problem.

Boundary problems also exist in many States. Although the States were formed on linguistic basis, there are many linguistic minorities living in the boundary areas. Example, the conflict between Maharashtra and Karnataka regarding Belgaum.

Question 11.
Which Indian State has got special status according to the Constitution?
Answer:
Jammu-Kashmir (Article 370).

Question 12.
Write down the years in which the following States were formed:
Kerala, Punjab, Sikkim, Goa, Uttaranchal, Nagaland, Jharkhand
Answer:
Kerala — 1956
Punjab — 1966
Sikkim — 1975
Goa — 1987
Uttaranchal — 2000
Nagaland — 1963
Jharkhand — 2000

Question 13.
There is an opinion Governors are responsible for aggravating the Centre-State Conflicts. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
I don’t fully agree. A Governor is appointed by the Central Government. Governor is the head of the State Executive. Governors being Central Government appointees often clash with the State Governments. In the matter of imposing President’s rule and the dissolution of the State Government, there often develop rifts between the Governors and State Governments. But it would be unfair to put the blame of bringing problems to Indian Federalism on the Governors alone. There are some other reasons too for the Centre-State Conflicts.

Question 14.
Match the following:

A	B
Residual Powers	Article 356
Authority to dissolve the Government	Inter-States Conflicts
State Reorganization Commission	Cyber laws
Jammu Kashmir	1954
River Water Conflict	Article 370

Answer:

A	B
Residual Powers	Cyber laws
Authority to dissolve the Government	Article 356
State Reorganization Commission	1954
Jammu Kashmir	Article 370
River Water Conflict	Inter-States Conflicts

Question 15.
What is the relevance of Article 356?
Answer:
Article 356, which empowers the President to dissolve the democratically elected State government, has been often criticized. The first time it was used in Punjab in 1951. Before the election of 1967, the Article 356 was used 8 times. Three times it was in Kerala. By 1998, this article was used nearly a hundred times.

Question 16.
Point out the major topics of inter-state conflicts in India.
Answer:

1. River Water Conflict
2. Boundary Disputes

Since water is need for drinking and also for irrigation in the States, the overwater conflicts between States become highly complex. Examples are the Kaveri River water conflicts and the Mullaperiyar River Water conflicts.

There are also boundary conflicts between States. Although the States were formed on the basis of language, there are linguistic minorities staying in the border villages. For example, there is the conflict between Maharashtra and Karnataka about Belgaum.

Question 17.
An Administrative System in which two kinds of ……….. governments work is called
Answer:
Federalism

Question 18.
From the following, find out which one is included in the Concurrent List.
a) Banking
b) Agriculture
d) Education
d) Police
Answer:
Education

Question 19.
Cyber laws are examples for ………….
Answer:
Residual Powers

Question 20.
……..is a State which has a special status as per Article 370 of the Constitution.
Answer:
Jammu-Kashmir

You can Download Judiciary Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus one Political Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Judiciary

Judiciary Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is judiciary? Why do we need an independent judiciary?
Answer:
The Judiciary in a nation makes sure that there is law and order in the nation and justice prevails there. Although it is considered the 3rd branch of the government, it has equal importance with the other two. The yardstick of a nation’s competence is its judiciary. The Constitution of India has made the Judiciary a free Institution. Judiciary protects the rights of the citizens and it is the guardian of the Constitution.

The laws enacted by the Legislatures are interpreted by the Judiciary. By interpreting the laws, the Judiciary brings in new laws. It is the Judiciary that decides if the laws are vague or anti-Constitutional. It is the duty of the Judiciary to ensure rule of law in the country.

Question 2.
What do you mean by the independence of judiciary?
Answer:
By the independence of judiciary we mean the following:
a) The Executive and the Legislature should not interfere in the affairs of the judiciary. The judiciary is independent of the Executive and the Legislature.
b) The decisions of the Judiciary are not to be interfered with.
c) The Judiciary needs independence to pronounce judgments impartially, without fear or favor.
d) Judges should have an atmosphere in which they can deliver impartial judgments.
By independence of judiciary what is meant is not irresponsible or unilateral actions on the part of the Judiciary. Independent Judiciary is part of the democratic structure of the nation. Democratic values are to be protected. Therefore Judiciary should be loyal to the Constitution, to the democratic traditions and the people.
How can the independence of the Judiciary be ensured and maintained?
The independence of the Judiciary can be ensured and maintained by the following means:

• Mode of appointment
• Fixed period of tenure of office
• Financially independent
• Freedom from personal criticism
• Separation of the Executive and the Judiciary
• Handsome salary for the Judges
• Job Security

Question 3.
Who appoints the Supreme Court Judges?
Answer:
It is the President that appoints the Supreme Court and High Court Judges. After consulting the Chief Justice, the President appoints the other judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 4.
Removal of the Supreme and High Court Judges is a very difficult task. Why?
Answer:
The removal of the Supreme and High Court Judges is done through impeachment. Supreme Court Judges can continue in office until the age of 65. Any judge can resign by giving a letter to the President. The President has the authority to remove Judges on the basis of proven corruption of incompetence. But this can be done only if 2/3 majority of both the Houses with full membership passes a resolution to such an effect and requests the President for the removal of the Judge. Supreme Court Judges get allowances and free accommodation, apart from their salaries.

It is from the Consolidated Fund of India the Judges are given their salaries. The salary and other benefits of a Judge can’t be altered in a way that adversely affects him. The decisions and activities of the Judges done in their official capacity are not subject to any criticism. The Supreme Court has its own secretariat. It is the Chief Justice that appoints officials for the Secretariat. All this is done to keep the Judiciary as an independent and impartial organization.

Question 5.
Complete the following pyramid showing the structure of the Judiciary.

Answer:

Question 6.
……….. have Writ jurisdiction.
Answer:
The Supreme Court and High Courts that are Constitutional Courts.

Question 7.
Prepare a table showing the powers and duties of the Supreme Court, High Courts and District Courts.
Answer:

Supreme Court	High Courts	District Courts
The decisions of the Supreme Court are binding on all courts.	Can hear appeals from lower courts.	Handle all the cases that happen in the district.
Can transfer High Court Judges.	Can issue Writs to re-establish fundamental rights.	Can hear appeals from lower courts.
Can move a case from any court to the High Court.	Can handle any case within the jurisdiction of the State.	Can make judgments in serious criminal cases.
The case of one High Court can be moved to another High Court.	Can have control and supervision over the lower courts.	Lower Courts Handle civil and criminal cases.

Question 8.
The Supreme Court is the highest Court in India. In that respect, evaluate the powers of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction: In the following cases the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction.

• Conflicts between the Centre and one or more States.
• In conflicts where the Centre and a State or States are on one side and a State or States on the opposite side.
• Conflicts between States.
• In issues connected with the election of the President and Vice President.
• To implement Fundamental Rights as per Article 32.

Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court is the highest Appellate Court in India. Its Appellate Jurisdiction can be divided into 3 – Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.

Constitutional Cases: If the High Court testifies that the problem has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, appeal can be given to the Supreme Court. Even if the High Court refuses to certify such a thing, if the Supreme Court feels that the case has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, the SC can issue Special Leave of Appeal.

The Supreme Court can, on its own initiative, or on the request of the Attorney General, can ask the High Courts to move matters of public interest to the SC.

Civil Cases: If the high Court that testifies to the effect that the matter needs the decision of the SC, the case can be transferred to the SC.

Criminal Cases: In the following circumstances appeals against High Court Judgements can be made in the SC:
If an accused is left unpunished, a person or organization can file an appeal if it is felt that leaving the accused unpunished will cause some difficulty to the public. Here the Court is approached for protecting public interest. Since the Court is approached for public interest, such cases are called ‘Public Interest litigation’. Such cases usually come up in situation where there is a lack of drinking water, problems of the poor, pollution, etc. Today this has become the most energetic weapon in the hands of the Judiciary.

Public Interest Litigation:
a) Anybody who is interested in public interest, to defend the rights of others; to solve public problems, can approach the Court.
b) Since litigation is very costly in India, for defending people’s rights, this helps. In the Constitution, is stated that only the persons whose fundamental rights are violated can approach the court. But this condition has been made loose by the Supreme Court by letting Public Interest Litigation. Through this anybody can approach the court to defend the fundamental rights of others.

Question 9.
Name the Chief justice of India.
Answer:
Justice T.S. Thakur.

Question 10.
Binu: Judicial activism has highly influenced our political system.
Meena: But it has led to conflict between the Executive and the Judiciary.
On the basis of this conversation, explain the merits and demerits of judicial activism.
Answer:
Judicial activism has caused some bitter feuds and confrontations among the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary in India. When the Executive and legislature become weak, the Judiciary openly intervenes for the protection of the rights of the people. It is good for democracy but it has its weaknesses. Here are the merits and demerits of judicial activism.
Merits

• Through public interest litigation, the powers of the Courts increased and the people’s faith in them also increased.
• Judicial activism helped to reduce expenses for litigation.
• Judicial activism forced the Executive to carry out its responsibilities.

Demerits

• Increased workload for the Courts.
• It caused open clash between the Executive and Judiciary.

Question 11.
Prepare a note on Judiciary and rights.
Answer:
Judiciary and rights: In jurisprudence, rights and their remedies go hand in hand.

• Right without remedy is useless.
• The Constitution has given the rights and the remedies for their violation.
• Articles 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution authorizes the Supreme Court and the High Courts to issue orders for the implementation of the rights.
• The fundament rights given in the 3rd part of the Constitution are to be implemented and the remedies for violation are given in Article 32.
• Article 32 empowers the citizens to approach the Court to get their fundamental rights implemented.
• Article 226 empowers the High Courts in the States to issue orders for the implementation of citizens’ rights.

Question 12.
Public interest litigation enables the courts to interfere in social issues. Comment.
Answer:
Article 226 talks about Public interest litigation. This is to ensure the citizens that they get their rights. In Kerala, there was a strike by government doctors. The Court then asked the government to solve the problem through negotiations. This court interference in the issue was because of Public interest litigation.

Question 13.
Identify examples where the Court/Judiciary acts as custodian of public interests.
Answer:

• Banning meetings in public places.
• Banning the use of loudspeakers on streets.

These are examples where Judiciary has acted as custodian of public interests.

Question 14.
Find the odd one out:
a) When other Judges are appointed to the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice is consulted.
b) Judges are not usually removed before their retirement.
c) A High Court Judge can’t be transferred to another High Court. .
d) The Parliament has no role in the appointment of Judges.
Answer:
A High Court Judge can’t be transferred to another High Court.

Question 15.
Prepare a note on Judiciary and Parliament.
Answer:
According to the principle of decentralization of powers, each component of the government has to carry out separate functions. Judiciary has the responsibility of looking at the laws passed by the Parliament and see if they are in keeping with the Constitutional principles. In the modern times, through judicial activism, Judiciary is interfering with the Legislature. But the Parliament has the power to impeach the Judges if they found incompetent or corrupt. In fact, for the Constitution to function smoothly, cooperation between these two organs is essential.

Question 16.
What is the importance of judicial review?
Answer:
lf the laws passed by the Legislature and implemented by the Executive are found to be contrary to the Constitution, the Judiciary has the right to declare such laws null and void. Using this right the Judiciary protects the rights of the citizens and thus it does a praiseworthy job.

Question 17.
Match the following:

A	B
a) Supreme Court	T.S. Thakur
b) Writ authority	Original jurisdiction
c) Chief Justice of the SC	1979
d) Fundamental Rights	Constitutional Court
e) Judicial Activism	32nd section (Article 32)

Answer:

A	B
a) Supreme Court	Original jurisdiction
b) Writ authority	32nd section (Article 32)
c) Chief Justice of the SC	T.S. Thakur
d) Fundamental Rights	Constitutional Court
e) Judicial Activism	1979

Question 18.
How can the independence of the Judiciary be protected?
Answer:
The Constitution has made provisions for keeping the Judiciary independent and impartial. They are as follows:
a) Mode of Appointment of Judges: The Constitution has made provisions to make the appointment of Judges above politics. The Legislature does not have much role in the appointment of Judges. For a person to be appointed as a Judge he should have experience as an advocate. He should be well-versed in law. A person’s politics does not have any role in his appointment as a Judge.
b) Fixed Tenure: The fixed tenure ensures that the Judges can work independently as they can’t be easily removed from their posts. Only in very rare circumstances can a judge be removed. This stability in the job makes them fearless and act judiciously without fear or favor.
c) Financial independence: The Judiciary does not have to depend on the Executive or the Legislature for their financial needs. The Constitution has made the salaries and allowances of the Judges beyond the jurisdiction of the Legislature. It makes the Judiciary independent. Handsome salaries and allowances will help the Judges to be independent and they will be free from the temptation of accepting bribes or such financial benefits.
d) Freedom from personal criticism: The decisions and activities of the Judge should be from criticism. Judiciary has the power to punish people for contempt of court. It is believed that this provision will protect Judges from unjust criticism. Even the Parliament can’t discuss the behavior of a Judge except as part of his impeachment process. The Judiciary can thus take impartial decisions without being afraid of criticism.
e) Separating the Executive from the Judiciary: This is another way of protecting the freedom of the Judiciary. If his fundamental rights are violated, any person can approach the SC for redress. In the form of Writ, the SC can issue special orders. For defending Fundamental Rights, the SC can issue Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari. Through these Writs, the Judiciary can give orders to the Executive to take action.

Question 19.
What do you mean by writ Jurisdiction?

Question 20.
Who appoints the Judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts?
Answer:
The President

Question 21.
Which of the following are the jurisdictions of the Supreme Court?
a) Original jurisdiction
b) Appellate jurisdiction
c) Advisory jurisdiction
d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 22.
By issuing …….. the Supreme Court can reestablish Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Writs

Question 23.
The first Woman Judge of the Supreme Court was………
Answer:
Justice Fatima Biwi

Students can Download Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants Notes, Plus One Botany Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Botany Notes Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Define Morphology:
It is study of external features of a plant i.e presence of roots, stems, leaves, flowers and fruits.

The Root:
Root system:
In dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of primary root which bears lateral roots that are secondary, tertiary, etc.

1. Tap root system:
The radical elongate and forms primary root or tap root that bears number of lateral roots. It is found in dicot root. eg: the mustard plant.

2. Fibrous root system:
In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived from there thin fibre roots originates. eg: wheat plant.

3. Adventitious roots:
In grass, Monstera and the banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle.

Regions of the Root:
1. Region of Root cap:
It is the covering of root apex that protects the tender apex.

2. Region of Meristem:
This is the region just behind the the root cap that is capable of active cell division.

3. Region of elongation:
The cells proximal to this region undergo rapid elongation and enlargement for the growth

4. Region of maturation:
This is proximal to the region of elongation gradually differentiate and mature

5. Region root hairs:
From the region of maturation root hairs arise. These root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil.

Modifications of Root:
Roots are modified for

1. Mechanical support
2. Storage of food
3. Respiration

1. Mechanical support:
(a) Prop roots:
In banyan tree, adventitious roots are modified and provide mechanical support

(b) Stilt roots:
In maize and sugarcane adventitious roots are supporting and coming out from the lower nodes of the stem. .

2. Storage of food:
In carrot, turnips tap roots are modified for food storage. In sweet potato adventitious roots are swollen and store food.

3. Respiration:
Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards. Such roots are called pneumatophores.
Function:
It help in the process of respiration.

The Stem:
Salient features:

1. The stem arise from the plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed.
2. The stem bears nodes and internodes.
3. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called nodes while internodes are the portions between two nodes.

Function:
Support leaves, flowers and fruits. It also conducts water, minerals and do photosynthesis.

Modifications of Stem:
1. Storage of food:
Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are modified to store food

2. Climbing:
Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds, are slender and spirally coiled that help the plants to climb. eg: in gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and grapevines.

3. Protection:
Axillary buds of stem are modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns. eg: in Citrus, Bougainvillea Thev nrotect Dlants from browsina animals

4. Photosynthesis:
Some stems are lattened (Opuntia), or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.

5. Vegetative propagation:

• In grass and strawberry, etc. stem spread to new niches and when older parts die new plants are formed.
• In mint and jasmine lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially and arch downwards to touch the ground.
• In Pistia and Eichhornia the lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
• In banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal underground portion of the main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots.

The Leaf:
Salient features:

1. It is the flattened structure develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
2. The axillary bud later develops into a branch.
3. They are the most important vegetative organs for photosynthesis.
4. some plants leaf base bear two lateral stipules.
5. In monocotyledons, the leaf base expands into a sheath covering the stem.
6. In some leguminous plants the leaf base become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
7. The lamina or the leaf blade is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets.
8. The middle prominent vein, which is known as the midrib.

Function of veins:
Veins act as channels of transport for water, minerals and food materials.
A typical leaf consists of three main parts:

• Leaf base
• petiole
• lamina

Venation:
1. Reticulate Venation:
The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf. Veinlets repeatedly branched to form a network. eg: dicotyledonous plants.

2. Parallel Venation:
When the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina. eg: monocotyledons plants.

Types of Leaves:

1. Siimple leaf: In this lamina is entire or the incisions do not touch the midrib.
2. Compound leaf: In this incisions of the lamina reach up to the midrib breaking it into a number of leaflets.

Can you see the bud in the axil of leaflet of compound leaf?
A bud is not present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf.

Two types of compound leaves:

1. Pinnately compound leaf: Number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf eg neem.
2. Palmately compound leaf: In this leaflets are attached at the tip of petiole, eg silk cotton.

Phyllotaxy:
It is the arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch Three types of phyllotaxy in plants alternate, opposite and whorled.

1. Alternate type: A single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner. eg: china rose, mustard and sunflower.
2. Opposite type: A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other. eg: Calotropis and guava.
3. Whorled type: More than two leaves arise at a node. eg: Alstonia.

Modifications of Leaves:

1. Food storage: The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store food.
2. Protection: The spines are developed in cacti act as organ of defence
3. Climbing: In peas Leaves are modified into tendrils for climbing
4. Photosynthesis: In Australian acacia, the leaves are small and short-lived. The petioles in these plants expand become green and synthesise food
5. Insect capture: In pitcher plant and venus-fly trap (insectivorous plants) leaves are modified for Capturing insects.

The Inflorescence:
The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as inflorescence. Two major types of inflorescences are

1. Racemose
2. Cymose.

How will you differentiate recemose inflorescence from cymose?
In racemose type, the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are arranged in an acropetal succession. In cymose type, the main axis terminates in a flower. The flowers arranged in a basipetal order.

The Flower:
The flower is the reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It consists of different kinds of whorls (calyx, corolla, androecium and Gynoecium) arranged successively on the swollen end of the stalk or pedicel, called thalamus or receptacle.

What are the accessory and reproductive organs?
Calyx and corolla are accessory organs,while androecium and gynoecium are reproductive organs.

Did you see single accessory organ of a flower:
In lily plant, the calyx and corolla are not distinct, it is called as perianth. This is the single accessory organ of a flower. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is bisexual. A flower having either only stamens or only carpels is unisexual.
1. Actinomorphic Flower:
A flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through the centre, eg: mustard, datura, chilli.

2. Zyqomorphic:
A flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, eg: pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia.

3. Asymmetric (irregular):
A flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the centre, as in canna. Afloweristrimerous, tetramerous or pentamerous when the floral appendages are in multiple of 3, 4 or 5, respectively.

Bracteate and ebracteate flower:
Flowers with reduced leaf found at the base of the pedicel, are called bracteate and those without bracts, ebracteate.

Classification of flower:
It is based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium in respect of the ovary on thalamus
1. Hypogynous flower:
The position of gynoecium is highest when compared to other. The ovary in such flowers is said to be superior, eg: mustard, china rose and brinjal.

2. Perigynous flower:
The position of gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level. The position of ovary is half inferior, eg: plum, rose, peach.

3. Epigynous flowers:
The margin of thalamus grows upward and other parts of flower arise above the ovary. The position of ovary is inferior. eg: guava and cucumber, and the ray florets of sunflower.

Parts of a Flower:
Each flower has four floral whorls -calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium.

Calyx:
Act as protective whorl:
The calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and segments are called sepals. The sepals are green, leaf like and protect the flower in the bud stage. The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals united) or polysepalous (sepals free).

Corolla:
Act as an attractive whorl:
Petals are brightly coloured that attract insects for pollination. Corolla may be free (polypetalous) or united (gamopetalous).

Aestivation:
The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud is known as aestivation. The main types of aestivation are:

1. Valvate
2. Twisted
3. Imbricate
4. Vexillary.

1. In valvate sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping, Eg -Calotropis
2. In twisted the one margin of the appendage overlaps the next one and so on. g. china rose, lady’s finger and cotton
3. In imbricate the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction. eg: Cassia and gulmohur

Can vou find out aestivation type in papillionaceous corolla?
There are five petals, the largest (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petals (keel). This is vexillary aestivation; Eg pea and bean flowers.

Androecium:
Structure of stamen:
Androecium is composed of stamens. Stamen is the male reproductive organ consists of a filament and an anther. Each anther is usually bilobed and each lobe has two chambers, the pollen-sacs. The pollen grains are produced in pollen-sacs. A sterile stamen is called staminode.

Differentiate between epibetalous and epiphvllous condition:
When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal, or epiphyllous when attached to the perianth as in the flowers of lily.

Free and fused nature of stamens:
The stamens in a flower remain free called as polyandrous. If the stamens are united into one bundle called as monoadelphous. eg: china rose, or two bundles called as diadelphous eg: pea, or into more than two bundles called as polyadelphous eg: citrus.

Variation in the length of filaments:
eg: Salvia and mustard.

Gynoecium:
Structure of carpel/pistil:
Gynoecium is the female reproductive part of the flower and is made up of one or more carpels. Acarpel consists of three parts namely stigma, style and ovary. Ovary is the enlarged basal part, on which lies the elongated tube, the style.

The style connects the ovary to the stigma. The stigma is the receptive surface for pollen grains. Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to a flattened, cushion-like placenta.

Free and fused nature of carpel:
If carpels are free they are called apocarpous, eg lotus and rose. If carpels are fused they are called syncarpous. eg: mustard and tomato.

What happens to ovule and ovary after fertilization?
After fertilisation, the ovules develop Into seeds and the ovary matures into a fruit.

Placentation:
The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. Different types of placentation are marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central and free central.

Marginal placentation: the placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this ridge eg- pea. Axile placentation: When the placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary eg china rose, tomato and lemon. Parietal placentation: Ovary is one-chambered and the ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary e.g., mustard and Argemone. Free central placentation: When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent Eg Dianthus and Primrose Basal placentation: The placenta develops at the base of ovary and a single ovule is attached to it eg sunflower, marigold

The Fruit:
It is a ripened ovary developed after fertilisation.
Parthenocarpic fruit:
If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of the ovary, it is called a parthenocarpic fruit. The fruit consists of a wall called pericarp and seeds.

Meaning of Drupe:
Fruit that develops from monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded. Eg:- mango and coconut.

Different layers of pericarp:
In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut fruit is drupe, the mesocarp is fibrous.

The Seed:
Seed consists of a seed coat and an embryo. The embryo is made up of a radicle, an embryonal axis, one cotyledons as in wheat, maize or two cotyledons as in gram and pea.

Structure of a Dicotyledonous Seed:
The seed coat has two layers, the outer testa and the inner tegmen. The hilum is a scar on the seed coat .Above the hilum is a small pore called the micropyle. It consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. The cotyledons are fleshy and contains reserve food materials. At the two ends of the embryonal axis are present the radicle and the plumule.

What is non endospermic seed?
In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds and such seeds are called non endospermous.

Structure of Monocotyledonous Seed:
Monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic but it is non-endospermic in orchids. The seed coat is membranous and fused with the fruit wall. The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone layer The embryo is situated in one end of the endosperm.

It consists of Vy one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum and a short axis with a plumule and a radicle. The plumule is enclosed in sheaths called coleoptile and radicle are enclosed in sheaths called as coleorhiza.

Some Technical Description Of A Typical Flowering Plant:
In the floral formula, Br stands for bracteate K stands for calyx, C for corolla, P for perianth, A for androecium and G for Gynoecium, for superior ovary and for inferior ovary, for male, for female, for bisexual plants, for for actinomorphicand forforzygomorphic nature of flower

Description Of Some Important Families:
Fabaceae (Papilonoideae ):
It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae.

Vegetative Characters:

• Stem: Erect or climber
• Leaves: alternate, pinnately compound or simple; leaf base, pulvinate; stipulate; venation reticulate.

Economic importance:
Sources of pulses (gram, arhar.sem, moong, soyabean; Edible oil (soyabean, groundnut); dye (indigofera); Fibres (sunhemp); Fodder (Sesbania, Trifolium), Ornamentals (lupin, sweet pea) Medicine (muliathi).

Solanaceae (‘potato family’):
Vegetative Characters:
1. Stem:
herbaceous rarely woody, aerial; erect, cylindrical, branched, solid or hollow, hairy or glabrous, underground stem in potato (Solatium tuberosum).

2. Leaves:
alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound, exstipulate; venation reticulate

Floral Characters:

• Inflorescence: Solitary, axillary or cymose as in Solanum
• Flower: bisexual, actinomorphic
• Calyx: sepals five, united, persistent, valvate aestivation
• Corolla: petals five, united; valvate aestivation
• Androecium: stamens five, epipetalous
• Gynoecium: bicarpellary, syncarpous; ovary superior, bilocular, placenta swollen with many ovules
• Fruits : berry or capsule
• Seeds: many, endospermous.

Economic Importance:
source of food (tomato, brinjal, potato)spice (chilli); Medicine (belladonna, ashwagandha) Fumigatory (tobacco); ornamentals (petunia).

Lilaceae (‘Lily family’):
Vegetative characters:
Perennial herbs with underground bulbs/corms/rhizomes. Leaves mostly basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with parallel venation.

Floral characters:

• Inflorescence: solitary/cymose; often umbellate clusters.
• Flower: bisexual; actinomorphic
• Perianth: tepal six (3 + 3), often united into tube valvate aestivation.
• Androcium: stamen six, 3 + 3
• Gynoecium: tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovar ovules; axile placentation.
• Fruit: capsule, rarely berry
• Seed: endospermous

Economic Importance:
Ornamentals (tulip, Gloriosa), Source of medicine (Aloe), Vegetables (Asparagus), and colchicine (Colchicum autumnale).

Students can Download Chapter 10 Straight Lines Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Straight Lines

Plus One Maths Straight Lines Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (2, 2) and cutting off intercepts on the axis whose sum is 9.
Answer:
Let equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1 ______(1)
Given a + b = 9
Since (1) passes through (2, 2) we have;
\(\frac{2}{b}+\frac{2}{b}\) = 1 ⇒ 2a + 2b – ab ⇒ 2 (a + b) = ab
⇒ 18 = ab. Then the numbers are 3 and 6.
Hence the equation of the line is
\(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{6}\) = 1 ⇒ 6x + 3y = 18 ⇒ 2x + y = 6

OR

\(\frac{x}{6}+\frac{y}{3}\) = 1 ⇒ 3x + 6y = 18 ⇒ x + 2y = 6.

Question 2.
The perpendicular from the origin to a line meets it at the point (-2, 9), find the equation of the line.
Answer:
Slope of the line through the origin and (-2, 9)

Then the slope of the required line is \(\frac{2}{9}\).
Hence the equation is y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
⇒ y – 9 = \(\frac{2}{9}\)(x – (-2))
⇒ 9y – 81 = 2x + 4 ⇒ 2x – 9x + 85 = 0.

Question 3.
Reduce the following into normal form. (3 score each)

1. \(\sqrt{3}\)x + y – 8 = 0
2. 3x + 3y – 1 = 0

Answer:
1. The given equation can be written in the form \(\sqrt{3}\)x + y = 8
Divide the above equation by

we get;

which is the normal form. On comparing with
x cos θ + y sin θ = p
Where; cosθ = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\); sinθ = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and p = 4.

2. The given equation can be written in the form 3x + 3y = 1
Divide the above equation by

we get;

which is the normal form. On comparing with x cosθ + y sinθ = p
Where; cosθ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\); sinθ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) and p = \(\frac{1}{3 \sqrt{2}}\).

Question 4.
Find the angle between the given lines. (3 score each)

1. y – \(\sqrt{3}\)x – 5 = 0 and \(\sqrt{3}\)y – x + 6 = 0
2. 3x – 2y + 9 = 0 and 2x + y – 9 = 0

Answer:
1. Given; y – \(\sqrt{3}\)x – 5 = 0 and \(\sqrt{3}\)y – x + 6 = 0

⇒ θ = 30°.

2. Given; 3x – 2y + 9 = 0 and 2x + y – 9 = 0
⇒ 2y = 3x + 9 and y = -2x + 9

Question 5.
Find the transformed equation of the straight line 2x – 3y + 5 = 0, when the origin is shifted to the point (3, -1) after translation of axes.
Answer:
Let coordinates of a point P changes from (x, y) to (X, Y) in new coordinate axes whose origin has the coordinates h = 3, k = -1. Therefore, we can write the transformation formulae as x = X + 3 and y = y – 1.

Substituting, these values in the given equation of the straight line, we get 2(X + 3) – 3 (Y – 1) + 5 = 0 or 2X – 3Y + 14 = 0. Therefore, the equation of the straight line in new system is 2x – 3y + 14 = 0.

Question 6.
Find what the following equations become when the origin is shifted to the point (1, 1) x² + xy – 3y² – y + 2 = 0.
Answer:
We can write the transformation formulae as x = X + 1 and y = Y+ 1.
The new equation is
(X + 1)² + (X + 1)(Y + 1) – 3(Y + 1)² – (Y + 1) + 2 = 0
X² + XY – 3Y² + 3X – 6Y + 1 = 0
Therefore, the equation of the straight line in new system is x² + xy – 3y² + 3x – 6y + 1 = 0.

Question 7.
1. Identify the figure in which the line has a positive slope. (1)
a.

b.

c.

d.

2. Find the x and y intercepts of the line 3x + 4y – 12 = 0 (2)
Answer:
1. Figure b

2. 3x + 4y = 12

x – intercept = 4; y – intercept = 3.

Plus One Maths Straight Lines Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the line 4x – 3y + 12 = 0

1. Find the equation of the line passing through the point (1, 2) and parallel to the given line. (2)
2. Find the distance between these two parallel lines. (1)
3. Which among the following lines is perpendicular to the line 4x – 3y + 12 = 0 (1)
   • 2x + 3y – 8 = 0
   • 4x – 3y + 5 = 0
   • x + y = 7
   • 3x + 4y + 9 = 0

Answer:
1. Equation of the parallel line 4x – 3y + k = 0
Passing through (1, 2)
4(1) – 3(2) + k = 0 ⇒ k = 2
⇒ 4x – 3y + 2 = 0.

2. Distance \(\left|\frac{12-2}{\sqrt{25}}\right|=\frac{10}{5}=2\).

3. 3x + 4y + 9 = 0.

Plus One Maths Straight Lines Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the slope of the lines passing through the points (1 score each)

1. (3, -2) and (-1, 4)
2. (4, -5) and (2, 1)
3. (0, -2) and (4, 3)

Answer:
1. Slope

2. Slope

3. Slope

Question 2.
Find a point on the x-axis, which is equidistant from the points (7, 6) and (3, 4).
Answer:
Let (x, 0) be the points on the x-axis. Then the distance will be same;
(x – 3)² + 16 = (x – 7)² + 36
⇒ x² – 6x + 9 + 16 = x² – 14x + 49 + 36
⇒ 14x – 6x = 49 + 36 – 9 – 16
⇒ 8x = 60 ⇒ x = \(\frac{15}{2}\)
Hence the point is (\(\frac{15}{2}\), 0).

Question 3.
Find the value of x for which the points (x, -1), (2, 1) and (4, 5) are collinear.
Answer:
The slope of the lines joining the points (x, -1) and (2, 1); (2, 1) and (4, 5) are same.

Question 4.
Line through the points (-2, 6) and (4, 8) is perpendicular to the line through the points (8, 12) and (x, 24). Find the value of x.
Answer:
The product of the slopes of the lines joining the points (-2, 6) and (4, 8); (8, 12) and (x, 24) will be equal to -1.

⇒ 12 = -3x + 24 ⇒ 3x = 12⇒ x = 4.

Question 5.
Find the equation the following lines satisfying the given conditions. (2 score each)

1. Passing through the point (-2, 3) with slope -4.
2. Passing through the point (-4, 3) with slope \(\frac{1}{2}\).
3. Line with y-intercept \(-\frac{3}{2}\) and slope \(\frac{1}{2}\)
4. Line with x-intercept – 3 and slope – 2.
5. Line which makes intercepts -3 and 2 on the x- and y-axis respectively.
6. Perpendicular distance from origin is 5 units and the angle the perpendicular makes with the positive direction of x-axis is 30°.
7. Passing through the point (-1, 1) and (2, -4).
8. Passing through the point (1, -1) and (3, 5).

Answer:
1. Equation of the line is y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
⇒ y – 3 = -4(x – (-2))
⇒ y – 3 = -4x – 8 ⇒ 4x + y + 5 = 0.

2. Equation of the line is y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
⇒ y – 3 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(x – (-4))
⇒ 2y – 6 = x + 4 ⇒ x – 2y + 10 = 0.

3. Equation of the line is y = mx + c
⇒ y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x – \(\frac{3}{2}\) ⇒ 2y = x – 3
⇒ x – 2y – 3 = 0.

4. Equation of the line is y = m(x – d)
⇒ y = -2(x – (-3)) ⇒ y = -2x + 6
⇒ 2x + y = 6.

5. Equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1
⇒ \(\frac{x}{-3}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1 ⇒ 2x – 3y = -6
⇒ 2x – 3y + 6 = 0.

6. Equation of the line is xcosθ + ysinθ = p
⇒ xcos30° + ysin30° = 5

7. Equation of the line is

8. Equation of the line is

Question 6.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (-3, 5) and perpendicular to the line through the points (2, 5) and (-3, 6).
Answer:
Slope of the line through the points (2, 5) and (-3, 6)

Then the slope of the required line is 5. Hence the equation is y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
⇒ y – 5 = 5(x – (-3)
⇒ y – 5 = 5x + 15 ⇒ 5x – y + 20 = 0.

Question 7.
Find the equation of the line that cut off equal intercepts on the coordinate axis and passes through the point (2, 3).
Answer:
Let the equal intercept is ‘a’, then equation of the required line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=1\)
Since this line passes through the point (2, 3),
we have; \(\frac{2}{a}+\frac{3}{a}=1\) ⇒ \(\frac{5}{a}\) = 1 ⇒ a = 5
Therefore the equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{5}+\frac{y}{5}=1\)
⇒ x + y = 5.

Question 8.
P(a, b) is the mid-point of a line segment between axis. Show that equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=2\).
Answer:
Since the P(a, b) is the mid-point of the line segment, then the x-intercept and the y-intercept will be 2a and 2b. Hence the equation of the line is

Question 9.
Find the slope, x-intercept and y-intercept of the following lines. (2 score each)

1. 3x – 4y + 10 = 0
2. 6x + 3y – 5 = 0
3. 4x – 3y = 6

Answer:
1. Given the equation of the line is 3x – 4y + 10 = 0 ⇒ 4y = 3x + 10

2. Given the equation of the line is 6x + 3y – 5 = 0 ⇒ 3y = -6x + 5

3. Given the equation of the line is
4x – 3y = 6 ⇒ 3y = 4x – 6

Question 10.
Find the distance between the parallel lines. (2 score each)

1. 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 and 3x – 4y + 5 = 0
2. 15x + 8y – 34 = 0 = 0 and 30x + 16y + 62 = 0

Answer:
1. The distance between the lines 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 and 3x – 4y + 5 = 0

2. The distance between the lines
15x + 8y – 34 = 0 = 0 and 15x + 8y + 31 = 0 is

Question 11.
Find the distance between the given point and the line. (2 score each)

1. Line 3x – 4y – 26 = 0 and point (3, -5)
2. Line 12(x + 6) = 5(y – 2)and point(-1, 1)

Answer:
1. The distance between the line and the

2. Express the line in standard form
12(x + 6) = 5(y – 2) ⇒ 12x + 72 = 5y – 10
⇒ 12x – 5y + 82 = 0
The distance between the line and the point is

Question 12.
Find the equation of the line parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 2 = Oand passing through the point (-2, 3).
Answer:
The equation of the line parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 2 = 0 is of the form 3x – 4y + k = 0.
Since it passes through (-2, 3), we have;
3(-2) – 4(3) + k = 0 ⇒ -6 – 12 + k = 0
⇒ -18 + k = 0 ⇒ k = 18
Hence the equation is 3x – 4y + 18 = 0.

Question 13.
Find the equation of the line x – 7y + 5 = 0 perpendicular to the line and having x-intercept 3.
Answer:
The equation of the perpendicular line will be 7x + y + k = 0.
Since x-intercept is 3, the line passes through the point (3, 0). So we have;
7(3) + 0 + k = 0 ⇒ 21 + 0 + k = 0 ⇒ k = -21
Therefore the equation is 7x + y – 21 = 0.

Question 14.
Find the new coordinates of point (3, -4) if the origin is shifted to (1, 2) by a translation.
Answer:
The coordinates of the new origin are h = 1, k = 2, and the original coordinates are given to be
x = 3, y = -4
X = x – h; Y = y – k
Substituting the values, we have
X = 3 – 1 = 2 and Y = -4 – 2 = -6
Hence, the coordinates of the point (3, -4) in the new system are (2, – 6).

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biomolecules

Plus One Biomolecules One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of the following is not, found in living organisms.
(a) Silicon
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Question 2.
Aminoacids, as the name suggests, have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. In addition, all naturally occurring amino acids (those which are found in proteins) are called L-aminoacids. From this, can you guess from which compound can the simplest amino acid be made?
(a) Formic acid
(b) Methane
(c) Phenol
(d) Glycine
Answer:
(b) Methane

Question 3.
When we homogenise any tissue in an acid the acid soluble pool represents
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm

Question 4.
Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
(a) Positively charged form
(b) Negatively charged form
(c) Neutral form
(d) Zwitter ionic form
Answer:
(d) Zwitter ionic form

Question 5.
Sugars are technically balled carbohydrates, referring to the fact that their formulae are only multiple of C(H₂O). Hexoses, therefore, have six carbons, twelve hydrogens and six oxygen atoms. Glucose is a hexose.
Choose from among the following another hexose.
(a) Fructose
(b) Erythrose
(c) Ribulose
(d) Ribose
Answer:
(a) Fructose

Question 6.
Fill the gap:
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by Malonate is an example for _____________
Answer:
Competitive Inhibition

Question 7.
Name the phospholipid found in cell membrane.
Answer:
Lecithin

Question 8.
The metabolic pathway from glucose to lactic acid which occurs in 10 metabolic steps is called ________________
Answer:
Glycolysis

Question 9.
Energy currency in living systems is _______________
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 10.
Find the off one out.
Rubber, Amino Acids, Drugs, Pigments
Answer:
Amino acids: Amino acids are primary metabolites. All others are secondary metabolites.

Question 11.
Arrange the following Carbo-hydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical structure.
Glucose, Oligosaccharides, Lactose, Starch.
Answer:
Glucose → Lactose → Oligosaccharides → Starch

Question 12.
One full turn of the DNA double helix would involve.
(a) 8 steps
(b) 10 steps
(c) 20 steps
(d) 12 steps
Answer:
(b) 10 steps

Question 13.
Match the column A with B and C.

Answer:

• Glucose – Glycoside – Carbohydrate
• Aminoacids – Peptide – Protein
• Nucleotide – Phosphor diester – Nucleic acid

Question 14.
A short length of DNA double helix contains 60 Adenine nucleotides and 40 cytosine nucleotides. What will be the total number of nucleotides in it? (60, 120, 80, 200)
Answer:
200

Question 15.
Add suitable word in the gap.

1. A protein molecule is a polymers of _____________
2. Nucleic acids are polymers of _____________
3. DNA has _________ instead of uracil.
4. Single stranded structure is found in ___________

Answer:

1. Aminoacids
2. Nucleotides
3. Thymine
4. RNA

Question 16.

The structure of amino acids in solutions of different PH are given above. Identify the structure ‘B’.
Answer:
Zwitterionic form

Question 17.

Name the enzyme catalyse this reaction.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase

Plus One Biomolecules Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table and fill the blanks from the brackets.
(Collagen, Cholesterol, chitin, Lecithin)

Answer:

 

Question 2.
Building blocks of proteins are amino acids and that of polysaccharides are monosaccharides. Many polysaccharides are called homopolymers but all proteins are known as heteropolymers.

1. Do you agree with the above statement? Give reason.
2. Give one example for a homopolymer.

Answer:

1. Yes. Many polysaccharides are made up of only one type of monosaccharide. They are known as homopolymers. But all protein contain different type of amino acids. So they all are heteropolymers.
2. Cellulose. Cellulose is made up of only one type of monosaccharide ie. glucose.

Question 3.
Classify the following as polypeptide and polysaccharide.
(Insulin, Glycogen, Chitin, Paper)
Answer:

Polypeptide	Polysaccharide
Insulin	Glycogen
	Chitin
	Paper

Question 4.

1. Observe the graph and comment.
2. List out the factors which influence enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called the optimum temperature. Activity declines both below and above the optimum value.
2. Temperature, pH, change in substrate concentration, binding of specific chemicals that regulate enzyme activity.

Question 5.
Write the general names of the following.

1. Enzymes catalyzing the linking together of two compounds.
2. Enzymes that catalyze removed of groups from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.

Answer:

1. Ligases
2. Lyases

Question 6.
Find out the differences between DNA and RNA and fill the table given below.

DNA	RNA
?	Ribonucleotides
Deoxyribosugar	?
?	Single stranded
ACTS Present	?

Answer:

DNA	RNA
Deoxyribonucleotides	Ribonucleotides
Deoxyribosugar	Ribose sugar
Double stranded	Single stranded
ACTG Present	ACUG Present

Question 7.

Two polymers are given. In this chain how are monomers linked ?
Answer:
a. Glycosidicbond
b. Peptide bond

Question 8.
The following graph shows the relationship between subtrate concentration and rate of enzymatic reaction.

1. What is the effect of subtrate concentration on rate of reaction ?
2. Identify ‘A’.

Answer:
1. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rise at first. The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity V(max) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration of the substrate.

This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecule and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

2. V_(max)

Question 9.
Identify the class of enzyme which catalyse the following reaction.

1. S reduced + S’ oxidised ? S oxidised + S’ reduced
2. S – G + S’→ S + S’ – G
   X Y
   I I
3. C – C → X-Y+C
4. C-O, C-S, C-N bonds

Answer:

1. Oxidoreductase
2. Transferase
3. Lyases
4. Ligases

Question 10.
A portion of DNA double helix is given below. Copy the diagram and make correction if any.

Answer:

Question 11.
Adenine, Guanine, thymine, Cytosine, Uracil, are the nitrogen bases present in the living organisms. Write their nucleosides and nucleotides.
Answer:

Question 12.

1. Prepare a graph showing the action of temperature on enzyme activity.
2. What is optimum temperature.

Answer:
1.

2. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called optimum temperature.

Question 13.

1. Identify the given graph
2. If we add more substrate after reaching Vmax, What will be the effect in the reaction rate?

Answer:

1. Effect of change in concentration of substrate on enzyme activity.
2. There is no further increase in the velocity of reaction because there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

Question 14.

The table shows the percentage composition of different elements of a living matter and a non-living matter represented as X and Y. Identify X and Y.
Answer:

1. X – Non living matter (Earth’s crust)
2. Y – Living matter (human body)

Question 15.
Fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated. Give an account on it.
Answer:
1. Fatty acids are saturated if they do not have any double bond between the carbons of the molecular chain.
eg: Palmitic acid.

2. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bond between carbon of the molecular chain,
eg: linoleic acid.

Question 16.

Identify the structure.
Answer:
Cholesterol

Question 17.
General Formula of amino acid is given below.

(a) Prepare the amino acids – Glycine and Serine using this formula.
(b) State the influence of pH in the nature of amino acid.
Answer:

(b) Amino acids are of basic amino acids, acidic amino acids, Neutral amino acids and aromatic amino acids. Hence in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids changes.

Question 18.
Chemical structure of an Amino acid is given.

(a) Prepare its Zwitter ionic form.
(b) What happens to the Zwitter ion if it is placed in acidic medium?
Answer:

(b) In acidic medium it gains H and become positive charged

Question 19.
Write the missing word.

1. Amino acid: Protein, Nucleotide: __________
2. Glucose: Monosaccharide, Starch: __________
3. Adenine: Thymine, Guanine: ________
4. Animals: Glycogen, Plants: _________

Answer:

1. Nucleic acid
2. Polysaccharide
3. Cytosine
4. Starch

Question 20.
(a) Identify the structure of protein A and B.

(b) Write an example for a protein with a quaternary structure.
Answer:
(a) A) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure

(b) Hemoglobin

Question 21.
Proteins carry out many functions in living organisms. List them.
Answer:

1. Some protein functions as enzymes.
2. Some protein functions as Hormones.
3. Some protein fight infectious organisms.
4. Some protein transport nutrients across the cell membrane.

Question 22.
Give an example forthe following.

1. Phospholipids
2. Saturated fatty acid
3. Nucleoside
4. Nucleotide

Answer:

1. Lecithin
2. Palmitic acid
3. Adenosine
4. Adenylic acid

Question 23.
B-DNA is the most common DNA. Write the salient features of this DNA.
Answer:
The length of one full turn of a B-DNA molecule is 34A⁰. The distance between two adjacent nucleotides in a chain is 3.4A⁰. Thus there are 10 pairs of nucleotides in one full turn of DNA molecule.

Question 24.
Identify the structure.

Answer:
(a) Adenine
(b) Adenosine

Question 25.
The given structure showing the molecule give ready energy for biological activities. Identify the structure.

Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 26.
Schematic diagram of DNA is given. Copy the structure and correct it, if there is any mistake.

Answer:

Question 27.
Classify the given terms into two columns and give appropriate heading.
rubber, Glucose, amino acids, drugs, gums, spices, cholesterol, Fatty acids.
Answer:

Primary Metabolism	Secondary Metabolism
Glucose	Rubber
Amino acids	Drugs
Cholesterol	Gums
Fatty acids	Spices

Question 28.
Progress of a chemical reaction and potential energy changes associated with it is plotted as curve.

1. What happens to the activation energy of the substrate, when enzyme is added to the reaction system?
2. Redraw the above graph and also plot another curve showing the progress of the reaction and associated potential energy change, when enzyme is added to the system.

Answer:
1. Activation energy decreases

2.

Question 29.
Observe the given graph a and

1. State how temperature and pH influences enzyme activity.
2. Does the substrate concentration influence enzyme activity. If so, how?

Answer:
1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature. This is called optimum temperature. Low temperature or high temperature reduces the enzyme activity. Same as, there is an optimum pH for enzyme activity. Deviation from this pH reduces the enzyme activity.

2. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction increase at first, as the substrate concentration continues to increase, the increase in the rate of reaction begins to slow down and finally no further rise in velocity occurs. This is because there is no free enzyme molecule to bind additional substrate molecule.

Question 30.

The graph shows the relation between potential energy and progress of reaction. Observe the graph and answer the questions.

1. Is this reaction”exothermic or endothermic? Give reason.
2. What happen to the amount of enzyme at completion of reaction?

Answer:

1. Exothermic. The energy level of substrate is higher than that of product.
2. No change to enzyme

Question 31.
Observe the diagram.

1. Name the process showing here.
2. How is this process would be useful?

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Competitive inhibitor are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 32.
Fill in the blank columns with the correct terms/ sentences.

A	B
………. (1)…………..	Catalyse oxido – reduction between two substrates.
Transferase	……. (1)………..
………. (2)………..	Catalyse hydrolysis of ester, glycosidic bond
Lyases	………. (2)……………
………. (3)…………..	Catalyse inter conversion of optical isomers
Ligase	………. (3)…………………..

Answer:

A	B
Oxidoreductase	Catalyse oxido – reduction between two substrates.
Transferase	Catalyse group transfer between substrates.
Hydrolase	Catalyse hydrolysis of ester, glycosidic bond
Lyases	Removal of group from a substrate by clearing double bonds.
Isomerase	Catalyse inter conversion of optical isomers
Ligase	Catalyse linking together of two compounds.

Plus One Biomolecules Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Structure of a nucleotide pair in DNA is showing below.

Identify the bonds A, B and C.
Answer:

• A – Hydrogen bond
• B – Glycosidic bond
• C – Ester bond

Question 2.
Give examples.

1. Prosthetic group
2. Co-enzyme
3. Metal ion required for enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Haem is the prosthetic group of enzyme peroxidase.
2. NADP and NAD contain the Vitamin Niacin.
3. Zinc present in carboxy peptidase.

Question 3.
Give one word.

1. The nucleic acids that behave like enzymes
2. The organic compound tightly bound to the apo enzyme.
3. The non protein organic compound that are not tightly bound to the apoenzyme.
4. The protein portion of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Prosthetic group
3. Co-enzyme
4. Apoenzyme

Question 4.

Identify the molecules A and B and name the bond marked C.
Answer:

• A – Glucose
• B – Maltose
• C- Glycosidicbond

Question 5.
Observe the structure.

1. Identify the bond formed between amino acids.
2. How many types of amino acids are present in animal body?
3. In nutrition some amino acids are required. Write a note on it.

Answer:

1. Peptide bond
2. 20 types of amino acids
3. Note on amino acids:
   • Essential amino acids: The amino acids can not be synthesisecHn the animal body and must be obtained through diet are called essential amino acids.
   • Non-essential amino acids: The amino acids which can be synthesised in the body are called non essential amino acids.

Question 6.
Give name.

1. The most abundant protein in animal.
2. The most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
3. A polymer of fructose.
4. Paper made from plant pulp is
5. Complex polysaccharide present in the exoskeleton of Arthropods
6. Polysaccharide with helical structure

Answer:

1. Collagen
2. RuBisCo
3. Insulin
4. Cellulose
5. Chitin
6. Starch

Question 7.

1. Identify the structures A, B, C and D.
2. Name the molecule formed by the esterification of one ‘D’ molecule and three ‘C’ molecule.

Answer:

1. Structures:
   • A) Glucose
   • B) Amino acid (Glycine)
   • C) Fatty acid
   • D) Glycerol
2. 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acid Triglyceride

Question 8.
Match the column A and B.

A	B
a. Bioluminescence	Fructose
b. Inulin	Basic amino acid
c. Lysine	Nicotinamide adenine
	dinucleotide
d. Skelton	Ctenophora
e. Nucleoside	Spicules
f. Co-enzyme	Thymidine

Answer:

A	B
a. Bioluminescence	Ctenophora
b. Inulin	Fructose
c. Lysine	Basic amino acid
d. Skelton	Spicules
e. Nucleoside	Thymidine
f. Co-enzyme	Nicotinamide adenine
	dinucleotide

Question 9.
The activity of the enzyme is inhibited by certain chemicals having close resemblance to the substrate in its molecular structure.

1. Name the type of inhibition
2. Point out a suitable example
3. Mention the Significance of this type of inhibition.

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate. Which closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure.
3. Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 10.

The figure shows the bonding of a biomolecule

1. Identify the monomer
2. Name the bond between the molecules
3. Name the macromolecule formed

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Glycosidic bond
3. Starch

Plus One Biomolecules NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Proteins have primary structure. If you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Answer:
In there is one type of amino acid at both termini then it is homopolymer and it cannot be a pure protein. When there are different types of amino acids on both termini then it is a pure protein as proteins are heteropolymer. This property of protein in because of presence of 21 types of amino acids.

Question 2.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., Cosmetics art)
Answer:

1. Therapeutic Agents:
   • Contraceptive pills: As they are hormones so they are made up of protein.
   • Nutritional Supplements: Many brands are available as protein supplements. Example: Protinex.
2. Other Uses: Chicken cubes are used in making soups and dishes.

Question 3.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Answer:
Triglycerides are formed from a single molecule of glycerol, combined with three fatty acids on each of the OH groups, and make up most of fats digested by humans. Easter bonds from between each fatty acid and the glycerol molecule.
General structure of a triglyceride Chemical formula:

RCOO-CH₂CH(-OOCR)CH₂-OOCR,
where R, R’, and R” are longer alkyl chains. The three fatty acids RCOOH, RCOOH and RCOOH can be all different, all the same, or only two the same. Chain lengths of the fatty acids in naturally occurring triglycerides can be of varying lengths, but 16, 18 and 20 carbons are the most common.

Natural fatty acids found in plants and animals are typically composed only of even numbers of carbon atoms due to the way they are biosynthesized from acetyl CoA. Bacteria, however, possess the ability to synthesise odd – and branched – chain fatty acids. Consequently, ruminant animal fat contains odd num¬bered fatty acids, such as 15, due to the action of bacteria in the rumen.

Question 4.
Can you describe What happens when milk is converted into curd or yogurt, from your understanding of proteins?
Answer:
Casein is the predominant phosphoprotein, that accounts for nearly 80% of proteins in cow milk and cheese. Milk-clotting proteases act on the soluble portion of the caseins. K Casein, thus originating an unstable micellar state that results in clot formation. When coagulated with chymosin, casein is sometimes called paracasein.

Casein is not coagulated by heat. It is precipitated by acids and by rennet enzymes, a proteolytic enzyme typically obtained from the stomachs of calves.

Question 5.
Can you attempt building models of biomolecules using commercially available atomic models (Ball and Stick models)?
Answer:
Following three-dimensional structure of cellulose can be made using balls and sticks. Similarly, models of other biomolecules can be made.

Question 6.
Attempt titrating an amino acid against a weak base and discover the number of dissociating (ionizable) functional groups in the amino acid.
Answer:
On titrating against a weak base the amino acid ionizes into following functional groups.

• NH2 (amino group)
• COOH (Carboxyl group)

Question 7.
Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.

Answer:

Question 8.
What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
Answer:
Natural gums are polysaccharides of natural origin, capable of causing a large viscosity increase in solution, even at small concentrations. Fevicol is a synthetic glue. These adhesives are a mixture of ingredients (typically polymers) dissolved in a solvent. As the solvent evaporates, the adhesive hardens.

Depending on the chemical composition of the adhesive, they will adhere to different materials to greater or lesser degrees. These adhesives are typically weak and are used for household applications.

Question 9.
Explain the basic structure of a nucleotide.
Answer:
A nucleotide is a building block of nucleic acids. A nucleotide has following components:

1. A heterocyclic compound (base)
2. A mnonosaccharide, and
3. A phosphoric acid or a phosphate.

Plus One Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Enzyme often have additional parts intheirstructures that are made up of molecules otherthan proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called
(a) cofactor
(b) coenzyme
(c) substrate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) cofactor

Question 2.
Nucleotides are formed by
(a) sugar and phosphate
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
Answer:
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

Question 3.
The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
(a) temperature
(b) concentration of the substrate
(c) original activation energy of the system
(d) concentration of the enzyme
Answer:
(c) original activation energy of the system

Question 4.
Which is an organic compound found in most cells?
(a) Glucose
(b) Water
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 5.
Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are
(a) ligases
(b) lyases
(c) hydrolases
(d) isomerases
Answer:
(d) isomerases

Question 6.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Fungi – Chitn
(b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande
(d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
Answer:
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande

Question 7.
An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) isoenzyme
Answer:
(a) coenzyme

Question 8.
The ‘Repeating unit of glycogen is
(a) fructose
(b) mannose
(c) glucose
(d) galactose
Answer:
(c) glucose

Question 9.
Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following?
(a) Enzyme
(b) Substrate
(c) End products
(d) Intermediate end products
Answer:
(c) End products

Question 10.
The enzyme, which combines with non-protein part to form a functional enzyme, is known as
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) prosthetic group
Answer:
(b) holoenzyme

Question 11.
Benedict’s reagent test is conducted to confirm the presence of
(a) polysaccharides like starch
(b) lipids
(c) reducing sugars
(d) proteins
Answer:
(c) reducing sugars

Question 12.
Which disaccharide has different linkage?
(a) Maltose
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 13.
Select the wrong statement.
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids
(b) Majority of enzymes contain a non-protein part called the prosthetic group
(c) The thylakoids are arranged one above the other like a stack of coins forming a granum
(d) Crossing over occurs at pachytene stage ofmeiosis-l
Answer:
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids

Question 14.
Which of the following is a disaccharide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Galactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 15.
Lactose is composed of following components.
(a) glucose and fructose
(b) glucose and glucose
(c) glucose, fructose and galactose
(d) glucose and galactose
Answer:
(d) glucose and galactose

Question 16.
The simple polyhydroxy ketone molecule containing 3-7 carbons is a
(a) disaccharide
(b) monosaccharide
(c) polysaccharide
(d) dipeptide
Answer:
(b) monosaccharide

Question 17.
How many of the twenty two amino acids are essential for children?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 18.
Starch and cellulose are compounds of many units of
(a) glycerol
(b) amino acids
(c) simple sugars
(d) fatty acids
Answer:
(c) simple sugars

Students can Download Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Notes, Plus One Botany Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Botany Notes Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Cell cycle:
It involves

1. Cell division
2. DNA replication
3. Cell growth

these all process take place in a coordinated way. The replicated chromosomes (DNA) are then distributed to daughter nuclei.

Phases of Cell Cycle:
Time taken for division:
The duration of cell cycle vary from organism to organism and also from cell type to cell type

• In typical eukaryotic cell cycle (human cells in culture) cells divide once in every 24 hours
• Yeast cell divide in every 90 minutes.

The cell cycle and two basic phases:

• Interphase
• M Phase (Mitosis phase)

Interphase:
The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle. It is divided into three phases.
1. G1 phase (Gap 1):
G phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. In this phase cell is metabolically active and continuously grows.

2. S phase (Synthesis):
It is the period which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

What happens to DNA after S phase?
During S phase amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it Increases to 4C. But the chromosome number is not changed

Events in nucleus and cytoplasm:
In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm.

3. G2 phase (Gap 2):
During the G2 phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis while cell growth continues.

M Phase (Mitosis phase):

• M Phase represents actual cell division or mitosis
• The M Phase starts with the nuclear division and the separation of daughter chromosomes (karyokinesis).
• It ends with division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis).

Quiescent stage (Go)L
Some cells in the adult animals do not exhibit division (e.g, heart cells), exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage.

Common features:
Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate .But proliferate depending on the requirement of the organism.

M Phase:
This is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle.
Mitosis is an eauational division why?
The number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same hence* it is also called as equational division. Mitosis is divided into the following four stages:

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

1. Prophase:
It starts after cthe completion of G2 phase.
Key features:

• Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes. It consists of two chromatids attached together at the centromere.
• Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle fibres.
• At the end of prophase golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope disappears.
• The centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

2. Metaphase:
The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.
Maximum condensation of chromosome:
In this stage, condensation of chromosomes is completed and morphology of chromosomes can be easily studied. key features:

• Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
• Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and get aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibres to both poles.

3. Anaphase:
key features:

• Centromeres split and daughter chromatids separate.
• Chromatids move to opposite poles and centromere of each chromosome is towards the pole.

4. Telophase
It is the final stage of mitosis, in which the chromosomes reached their respective poles
key features:

• Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. Chromosome decondense as chromatin material.
• Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
• Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reappears.

Cytokinesis:
In this two daughter cells separate by a process called cytokinesis.
Cytokinesis in animal cell:
In an animal cell, the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane which gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the centre, dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

Cytokinesis in plant cell:
In plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the lateral walls. The formation of the new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple precursor, called the cell-plate that represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.

How does a cell become multinucleated?
In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium (eg: liquid endosperm in coconut).

Significance of Mitosis:
Mitosis is restricted to the diploid cells only. But in some lower plants and in some social insects haploid cells also divide by mitosis.

1. Mitosis results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic constitution.
2. The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.
3. Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
4. Mitosis helps to cell repair, i.e cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells of the lining of the gut, and blood cells are being constantly replaced.
5. Mitotic divisions in the meristematic tissues – the apical and the lateral cambium, result in a continuous growth of plants throughout their life.

Meiosis:
The cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half results in the production of haploid daughter cells. This kind of division is called meiosis.

What is common to sexually reproducing organisms?
Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase.

Key features:

1. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.
2. Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce identical sister chromatids at the S phase.
3. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them.
4. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis II.

Meiosis I	Meiosis II
Prophase I	Prophase II
Metaphase I	Metaphase II
Anaphase I	Anaphase II
Telophasel I	Telophasel II

Meiosis I:
Prophase I:
Prophase is typically longer and more complex when compared to prophase of mitosis. It is subdivided into five phases based on chromosomal behaviour i.e., Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diploteneand Diakinesis.

1. Leptotene stage: The chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope. The compaction of chromosomes continues throughout leptotene.

2. Zygotene stage: During this stage homologous chromosomes start pairing together and this process is called synapsis. Synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal complex. Synapsed homologous chromosome is called a bivalent or a tetrad. The first two stages of prophase I are relatively short-lived.

3. Pachytene stage: During this stage bivalent chromosomes appears as tetrads. This stage is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over (exchange of genetic material between two homologous Chromosomes) occurs between non-sister chromatids. The enzyme involved is called recombinase.

4. Diplotene stage: During this stage dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers. These X-shaped structures, are called chiasmata. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene stage last for months or years

5. Diakinesis stage: During this stage terminalisation of chiasmata occurs. The chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled for separation of chromosomes. By the end of diakinesis, the nucleolus and the nuclear envelope disappears.

Metaphase I:
The bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate. The spindle fibers attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes.

Anaphase I:
The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.

Telophase I:
The nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear. After cytokinesis diad of cells are formed. The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis. It is short lived. Interkinesis is followed by prophase II, a much simpler prophase than prophase I.

Meiosis II:
Meiosis II resembles a normal mitosis

Prophase II:
Meiosis II begins after cytokinesis, The nuclear membrane disappears by the end of prophase II. The chromosomes again become compact.

Metaphase II:
At this stage the chromosomes align at the equator and Spindle fibers get attached to the kinetochores of sister chromatids.

Anaphase II:
It begins with splitting of the centromere of each chromosome allowing them to move toward opposite poles of the cell.

Telophase II:
Meiosis ends with telophase II, in which the two groups of chromosomes get enclosed by a nuclear envelope; cytokinesis follows resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., four haploid daughter cells.

Significance of meiosis:

1. Meiosis conserves the specific chromosome number of each species across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. 2. It results in reduction of chromosome number by half. 3. It increases the genetic variability from one generation to the next. 4. Variations are very important for the process of evolution.

You can Download Paths to Modernization Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 11 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Paths to Modernization

Question 1.
There are physical differences between China & Japan. Explain.
Answer:
China was under Japanese and Western domination for long. The people of China began to react to these changes. They wanted to reconcile themselves with the modern world and recover their lost glory. For that, they had to free themselves from Japanese and Western control. Their two main aims were removing the gross inequalities in the country and rebuilding the nation. They realized that this could be achieved only through a revolution.

In the 1949 civil war, the Chinese Communist Party became victorious. But by the end of the 1970s, the leaders there realized that the principles of the Communist Party were actually going against the economic growth and development of the country. Following this, radical changes were brought in the economic sphere. This brought back capitalism and a free market. But at the same time, the Party retained its political control.

Japan grew into an industrially developed country. But its efforts to establish an empire led to WW II and its defeat. After the War, the control of Japan was taken over by the US. This caused the beginning of the formation of a democratic system in Japan. Japan rebuilt its economy. In the 1970s Japan became a strong economic power.

The Japanese path to modernization was made by capitalist ideologies. Modernization of Japan happened in a world where Western colonialism is dominant. The fast development of Japan underscored the power of tradition in Japanese Institutions and society. At the same time, it showed the capacity of the Japanese to understand things and the strength of their nationalism.

Question 2.
China and Japan have a long tradition of historiography. Evaluate.
Answer:
China and Japan definitely have a long tradition of historiography. For their rulers, history was a great guide. They had made departments to preserve documents and to write the royal history. The greatest historian of ancient China was Sima Quian (145 – 90 BC). Japan also had given great importance to history. This was because of the influence of Chinese culture.

Question 3.
Naito Konan is a famous Japanese scholar on China. Describe his contributions.
Answer:
Naito Konan is a famous Japanese scholar on China. His books have influenced scholars all over the world. He developed a tradition using new methods of scientific historiography to study about China. He helped the authorities to establish a Department of Oriental Studies at Kyoto University in 1907.

Naito argued that The Republican Government of Sun Yat-sen showed a way to end the dominance of the aristocracy and centralised power that were in existence in China right from the time of the Sung dynasty. He showed that there are powers in Chinese history to modernise and democratise China. He thought that Japan has a special role to play in China. He somehow lessened the power of Chinese nationality.

Question 4.
In Japan the political system was feudal. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
In Japan the political system was feudal. The country was divided into 250 sectors. The administration of s each sector was entrusted to a Daikyo who were a group of feudal lords. Over the Daikyo there were Shoguns. Edo (the modem Tokyo) was the capital. The shoguns often asked the Daikyo to spend time in the capital. This was to prevent any threat from them. The shoguns also controlled important cities and mines. The Samurai were a set of warriors and they were the elite in the administration. They assisted the Shoguns and, Daikyos.

Question 5.
Meiji Restoration was a revolution. Based on this statement, prepare a seminar paper on Meiji Restoration.
Answer:
Meiji Restoration:
Japan was more or less isolated from other, countries. Japan was the only country . that escaped colonization by Europeans. There was only one Western country that had trade relations with Japan and that was Holland. The US had always Wanted the Japanese ports to open for foreign trade.

In 1853, under Matthew Perry, a powerful navy was sent to Japan by the USA. The aims of the US were getting permission for trade and establishing diplomatic relations with Japan. Japan is on the way to the sea-route to China. Therefore the US saw Japan as a good strategic point and market. They also thought of Japan as a place where their ships could refill their fuel tanks.

Matthew Perry returned to Japan the next year also. The government was forced to open two ports for the US ships and do some trade in a controlled manner. The arrival of Matthew Perry caused big movements 1 in Japanese politics. It resulted in the end of the Shogun rule and the restoration of Emperor Meiji. There was a strong protest against the Shoguns that succumbed to the foreign powers. The protesters wanted the restoration of Meiji rule. With this, the image of the emperor, who was until then a nominal figure, increased.

in 1868 there was an open revolt against the Shoguns. The revolutionaries drove away the Shogun from Edo and brought the emperor there, Edo was renamed Tokyo (Capital of the East) and was declared as the capital of the nation.

The new emperor took the title Meiji or Enlightened and became the official ruler of the country. This revolution of 1868 was known as the Meiji Restoration. The officials and people of Japan were aware of the fact that Europeans were building their colonial empires in India and other places. They also knew about the defeat of China by Britain. They were afraid if Japan also would become a colony of foreign powers.

The scholars and leaders wanted to learn about the ideas of Europeans unlike the Chinese who simply rejected them. One section of the people thought that they should learn the technology of the West but keep them away from the country. There was also an opinion that Japan should slowly open its gates to the external world.

A slogan that summed up the ideals of the Meiji Era was Fukoku Kyohei, meaning Enriching the Country and Strengthening the Army or Rich Country and Strong Army. It became the principle that led to the modernization and transformation of Japan. Japan resized that a strong economy and a strong army were needed to resist the foreigners. They saw how India yielded to the foreigners in the absence of these two things. For realizing these aims there was the need to make the people loyal citizens and build a strong sense of unity based on nationalism.

The administrative system of Japan was reorganized. The new government tried to formulate a system called the Emperor System. It was a system that followed the European model. They sent officials to Europe to study it thoroughly and then only they implemented it.

It was a system that gave the Emperor a divine aura. The emperor was considered a direct descended of the sun-god and therefore he deserved maximum reverence. He was also depicted as the leader bringing in Europeanization. His birthday was declared a national holiday. The emperor wore the military uniform of the Europeans. All edicts and orders to establish new institutions were sent out in his name.

In its education system it followed the European model, in the 1870s, stress was laid on the studies of Japanese history so that students could develop loyalty to their nation. The Educational Ministry strictly controlled the curriculum. If chose the textbooks and gave training to teachers. Education also stressed developing a moral culture in the students. The children were asked to respect and show loyalty to their nation and become good citizens.

To unify the country, the Meiji administration brought a new administrative system. The old boundaries of villages were changed. Each administrative unit had to run schools and give health facilities to its people. It also worked as an agency for the recruitment of soldiers to the army, Everyone who had passed 20 years of age had to do compulsory military service for a fixed minimum period. Japan organized a strong army. It brought a legal system that controlled the formation of political parties and meetings and did the censorship. The army and bureaucracy were under the direct control of the emperor. All these activities of the government faced stiff opposition from the public.

The new democratic constitution and the modern army were not ideologically compatible. The army started demanding a more aggressive foreign policy to conquer new regions. This led to wars with both Russia and China and in both the wars Japan came out victorious.

The demand of people for greater democracy was against the aggressive policy of the government. Japan developed economically and built an empire, suppressing democracy at home.

Question 6.
The industrialization of Japan created environmental problems. Do you agree with this statement? Clarify with examples.
Answer:
With industrialization, the factories became bigger and more numerous. In 1909, there were 1000 factories in which more than 100 people each worked. In 1920, this figure grew to 2000 factories with each one having more than 4000 workers. In spite of all that there were some 550,000 small workshops there with less than 5 workers each.

The uncontrolled and fast growth of factories, the need for natural resources like timber, etc. caused environmental damage. Tanaka Shozo, who was elected to the first House of Representatives, started the first protest against industrial pollution in 1897. This protest in which 800 villagers took part forced the government to take steps against environmental pollution.

Question 7.
What were the reasons behind the growth of the Japanese army and its aggressive nationalism?
Answer:
The Commander-in-Chief of the army was the emperor. But from 1890, it was interpreted that the army and the navy had independent control. In 1899, the, prime Minister issued an order specifying that only serving Generals and Admirals could become ministers. This increased the power of the army. The army propagated the fear that Japan is always under threat from the Western powers and it increased its strength. The same technique was used to increase its territory. They also used it to suppress the protest of the people against higher taxes and for the expansion of the army.

Question 8.
One section of the people in Japan supported Westernization but another section held fast to traditions: Discuss these paradoxical views.
Answer:
Scholars had different views about the relations Japan should have with other countries. Some scholars wanted to have cordial relations with the USA and other Western nations which were culturally on top of the world. The Meiji intellectual Fukuzawa Yukichi was highly pro-American. He was of the opinion that using its specialties Japan should become part of the Western nations.

But the next generation was not willing to accept this view of Fukuzawa. They questioned the idea of accepting Western ideas blindly. They gave stress to nationalism based on traditional values. Miyake Setsiirei, a famous Japanese philosopher, wanted Japan to develop its competence for the betterment of world culture. He said that dedicating oneself to the nation is dedicating himself to the whole world.

Another group of intellectuals was attracted by the liberalism of the West. They wanted Japan not to just concentrate oh militarism but on liberalism. Ueki Emori was the leader of the democratic movement in Japan. He wanted the establishment of a democratic government in Japan. He was an admirer of the principles of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity, popularised by the French Revolution and he had -the view that students should be given a liberal education for their proper development. He said that liberty is more important than law and order. Another group wanted women to be given voting rights. All these pressures forced to government to declare a new Constitution.

Question 9.
The transformation of Japan into modernity was reflected in the life of the people. Explain.
Answer:
The transformation of Japan into modernity definitely was reflected in the life of the people. It brought great changes in family relations. Japan had a patriarchal joint family system. Under the elder of the family, many generations lived under the same roof. But when Japan became modern, the old system collapsed and nuclear families replaced the old system. In the nuclear family, the husband earned the livelihood and the wife managed the household affairs.

This change in the system brought changes in the family possessions, family entertainment and even the structure of the house. Construction companies made cheap houses and gave them to people on installment.

Question 10.
After their defeat in WW II, Japan resurrected as a global economic power. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
The quick rebuilding of the economy that Japan achieved after their defeat in the WW II is called the Post-War Wonder or the Post-War Miracle. The roots of that success can be seen in the long history of Japan.

Japan had a tradition of democratic protests and intellectual and creative activities. Moreover, the social solidarity that was there even before the War became stronger after the War. It helped in the cooperation and collective efforts of government, bureaucracy, and industry. The demands for many things created by the Korean and Vietnam Wars also helped in boosting the Japanese economy.

The Tokyo Olympics of 1964 was the start of a new era in Japanese history. The high-speed bullet trains that began in 1964 showed the world the competence of Japanese technology. The ability of the Japanese to produce high quality but cheap products by using top technology surprised the world.

Question 11.
When was a Republican Government established in China? Who is the founder of modem China?
Answer:
In 1911, overthrowing the Manchu dynasty, a Republic was established in China under Sun Yat-sen. He is the founder of modem China.

Question 12.
For the reconstruction of the country, Sun Yat-sen prepared a scheme. What was that?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen was worried about China’s fate. For the reconstruction of the country, he prepared a scheme. This is called “Three Principles” or San-Min Doctrine or Tridemism. The three principles are nationalism, democracy, and socialism.

Nationalism meant driving away the Manchus and other imperialists. Democracy meant establishing a democratic government. Socialism meant controlling capital and bringing equality in land ownership.

Question 13.
What is the reason for the origin of the May 4 Movement? What were its goals?
Answer:
The Republican Revolution of 1911 did not bring any basic change in the society. When the WW I started, China joined the Allied Powers, but Britain did not return the regions it had captured earlier. Naturally, there was a serious protest against the decisions of the Paris Conference. Gradually it became a Movement. This Movement started on 4 May 1919 in Beijing and it was known as May 4 Movement.

This Movement severely attacked tradition calling to save the country through modem science, nationalism, and democracy. It demanded the sending away of foreigners, removing inequalities and reducing poverty. Their other demands were: Use simple language for writing, stop the custom of foot-binding, end the slavery of women, bring equality in marriage and bring economic development to end poverty.

Question 14.
The Kuomintang government was a failure. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
After the republican revolution, the country entered an era of crises. The Kuomintang (National People’s Party) tried to unify the nation and bring stability and the Chinese Communist Party became the most powerful one.The base of the political vision of Kuomintang was the ideas of Sun Yat-sen. They put forward 4 great principles: clothes, food, shelter, and travel.

After the death of Sun Yat-sen, Chiang Kai-shek became the leader of Kuomintang. In 1928, a national government was formed by Kuomintang. Chiang Kai- shek was the President of the government. Kuomintang government was a failure. The causes for its failure were its narrow social base and narrow political vision. The Party ignored the farmers. It did not take into account the increasing social inequalities. The Chiang government could not carry out Socialism, which was the main principle of Sun Yat-sen’s scheme for China. The Chiang government tried to impose a military order and suppress protests instead of solving popular problems.

Question 15.
Prepare a seminar paper on the 1949 Chinese Revolution.
Areas to be considered: Background, Chinese Communist Party and Mao Zedong, Long March, Civil War.
Answer:
In 1937 Japan attacked China. Instead of resisting the Japanese attack, the Kuomintang government retreated. Long wars had weakened China. The prices of things skyrocketed and the life of common people was hard.

Rural China faced two crises:

a) Environmental crisis:
Soil fertility was lost, there was deforestation and there were floods.

b) Social and economic crisis:
Exploitative land-owning system, debt, primitive technology, very poor exchange system.

Following the Russian Revolution, in 1921 the CPC (Communist Party of China) was established. The success of the Russian Revolution had a big impact on the world. Soon the Russian leaders Lenin and Trotsky established the Comintern (Community International) or Third International. Its aim was to end exploitation and establish a world government. If supported all the Communist Parties all over the world. But they had the traditional Marxist view that only an urban labour class could bring about a revolution. Soon Comintern became a means of protecting only Soviet interests, it was disbanded in 1943.

Mao Zedong was the leader of CPC. In the strategy of the Communist Party, Mao brought a big change. He saw the peasants as a great power. He believed that only peasants could bring about a revolution. Thus he moved away from the traditional Marxian view. The success of Mao made CPC very strong and it was helpful in bringing victory over the Kuomintang.

When the attacks from the Kuomintang became intense, Mao and his followers retreated to the Jiangxi Mountain. From 1928 to 1934 he camped here. There he formed a strong Peasant Council. By confiscating land the distributing them to people, he made the Council very strong. Mao wanted to establish an independent government and army. He was aware of the problem of women. He encouraged the formation of organizations of village women. He objected to the traditional system of marriage and brought a new marriage law. It made divorces simple.

In 1934, Mao and his followers left their camps to escape from the attacks by Kuomintang. Their destination was Yanan, 6000 miles away. This march became a historical event and is called the Long March. The Communists who reached Yanan formulated their plans. They gave importance to suppress the warlords, bring land reforms and fight against the foreign imperial powers. This helped them to make a strong social base.

In 1937 when Japan attacked China, the Communists cooperated with the Kuomintang to fight against the common enemy, Japan. But when the war ended, this cooperation ended and the civil war between Kuomintang and Communists restarted. The Communists led a final assault against the Kuomintang and captured the capital Nanjing. Chiang Kai-shek and his army escaped to Taiwan. On 1st October 1949, the new Chinese Republic under Mao was proclaimed.

Question 16.
The basis of the 1949 Chinese Democratic Republic was “New Democracy”. Explain.
Answer:
In 1949, the Chinese Republic was established. Its basis was a new democracy. This was different from the Soviet Union s concept of the dictatorship of the Proletariat. Democracy means the union of all social classes.

All the decisive areas of the economy were taken under the control of the government. Private entrepreneurship and private land owning were gradually ended. This scheme lasted until 1953, The government declared that there was going to be a socialist transformation. To make industrialization fast, Mao brought in the scheme called the Great Leap Forward, in 1958.

The government encouraged people to establish iron melting furnaces behind their homes. For collective farming, in the rural sector, communes of people were established. In 1958 itself there were 26,000 such communes.

Mao was able to make people ready for working to achieve the aims of the Party. His main goal was creating a socialist man.

A socialist man should have five livings:
love for the fatherland, love for people, hard work, science, and common property. Democratic organizations were formed for peasants, women, students and other classes of people.

Question 17.
Write a note on Mao’s “Great Cultural Revolution”.
Answer:
To defeat his critics and enemies in 1965 Mao started his scheme called the Cultural Revolution. It was a movement against the old culture and old customs and rituals. It gave more importance to ideological knowledge than professional knowledge. Instead of healthy debates, it gave prominence to slogans. He entrusted the job of making Cultural Revolution practical to the Red Guards which consisted of the army and students.

In the beginning, the CR was a failure. It weakened the Party. It ruined the economy and educational system. The entire country was in turmoil. But by the end of the 1960s, things began to change. In 1975 Deng Xiao Ping came to power and he ended the CR.

Question 18.
Critically examine the reforms made in China from 1978.
Answer:
Deng Xiao Ping brought many revolutionary reforms. Many of them were of a deviant nature from the Socialist Principles. He made Party control very strong. He brought in a Socialist market system. In 1978 the Party declared its four reformist goals, known as four modernizations. They were developments in science, industry, agriculture, and defence. He allowed debates that did not question party lines.

In the new free atmosphere, new ideas developed. On 5 December 1978, there was a wall writing declaring the fifth modernization. It declared that without democracy all other modernizations were useless. It also criticized the Communist Party for not solving the problem of poverty and for not ending sexual exploitation. But all the demands were suppressed. In 1989 more intellectuals in China demanded greater democracy. It demanded the ending of unchanging ideologies. In 1989 students protested in the Tiananmen Square in Beijing. The protests were cruelly put down by the army and many students died. This incident was condemned by the whole world.

There were debates about the development of China after the reform period. There are three distinct views.

 

1. The first view was that through strict political control, economic liberalization and cooperation with the global market, development was possible. The Party supported this view.
2. Many questioned the stress on the market. Critics pointed out that inequalities among social classes and regions and gender inequality would cause conflicts in the society.
3. There was also a view that the ideas of Confucianism should be revived. They argued it was possible to build a new society by using their own traditions and without borrowing ideas from Western models.

Question 19.
Evaluate the political changes in Taiwan and discuss the possibility of its unification with China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek who was defeated by China escaped to Taiwan (Formosa). He went to Taiwan with a lot of gold and priceless artifacts. In Taiwan, he formed a government in exile called Republic of China. Taiwan was once part of the Chinese Empire. In 1894-95, when China was defeated by Japan, Japan occupied this region and transformed it into their colony. When Japan lost in the WW II, Taiwan was again given back to China.

Chiang Kai-shek ruled Taiwan like a despot. His government was repressive. Chiang denied the people freedom of speech and political protests. He also kept the local people away from the administration. But through land reforms, he was able to increase agricultural production and to revive the economy. The economy which was based on trade grew fast and the gap between the rich and poor was reduced. The biggest change that happened in Taiwan was its step toward democracy.

This happened after the . Death of Chiang Kai-shek in 1975. In 1987 the martial law in Taiwan was repealed. Opposition political parties were allowed to function. In the first free elections, the process to bring the local people to power was started. Most countries had only trade relations with Taiwan. Since Taiwan is part of China, it is not possible to have full diplomatic relations and embassies there. The unification of Taiwan with China is a matter of dispute. However, the relations between Taiwan and China are improving. Taiwan has large investments and trade with China.

Question 20.
Japan and China chose different paths for their modernization. Discuss.
Answer:
Both China and Japan are industrialized but they chose separate paths for their modernization. Japan was successful in maintaining its freedom and in using its traditional expertise and styles in new ways. But the elite class who were responsible for the modernization process made the people develop an aggressive nationalism. It helped in the continued rule by an administration that often suppressed the demands for democracy and social changes.

Although it developed internally, it embarked on an imperial policy. The modernization process of Japan was influenced by Western powers. Even as the Japanese followed Western models they also practised their own ideas. All this affected Japan’s nationalism. Japan wanted to free Asia from Western domination. This was the justification they gave for their own imperial designs.

In the 19^th and 20^th centuries, China changed a lot. It tried to deny tradition and look for new ways to build national unity and strength. The Chinese Communist Party and its followers tried to end traditions which kept the people in poverty, made women slaves and kept the country underdeveloped. They made a slogan that meant power to people and it raised people’s hope. But the repressive regime often spoilt the beauty of the slogans of liberty and equality. However, it was able to end centuries-old inequalities and to spread education among people and make people aware or the need for change.

You can Download From the Beginning of Time Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 From the Beginning of Time

Question 1.
As people began to produce food, there were great changes in their lives. What were these changes?
Answer:
During the long history of mankind, until people learned to produce food, they found their food by collecting the flesh of dead animals, hunting animals and collecting roots or fruits from plants. They had learned to make stone weapons and communicate with one another. Later man began to get food by means of agriculture, and domesticating and growing animals. But they continued hunting and gathering food. Even today we find hunter-gatherer communities in some parts of the world.

Question 2.
“The fossils of man, stone weapons and cave drawings or pictures help us to understand the history of man. On the basis of this statement, find out the sources that throw light on the history of early men.
Answer:
The fossils of man, stone weapons and cave drawings or pictures help us to understand the history of man. But in the beginning, many scholars were not willing . to understand or acknowledge the importance of these discoveries. They even refused to acknowledge that they were the fossils of early people. They were doubtful about the capacity of the early people to make stone weapons and to draw pictures, it was after a long time that the scholars recognized the importance of the discoveries.

It is from the fossils that we get the evidence for the evolution of man. The time of the fossil can be determined through chemical testing. Otherwise by examining the remnants of the stone in which the. fossils are found their time can be established. Once the time of the fossils is determined, the order of the human evolution can be found out.

Question 3.
“There are different categories in the Homo Genus Explain.
Answer:
Homo Erectus:
The origin of this species was 1.8 million years ago. Homo Erectus, which means upright man, is the direct predecessor of modem man. It was Homo Erectus that discovered the use of fire and started using clothes. This human race, which appeared in Africa, was interested in migration. From Africa they spread to Europe and Asia.

Homo Sapiens:
This humankind appeared on earth after the homo erectus. Their origin was in Africa some 8 lakh years ago. Just like the homo erectus, the homo sapiens also moved to Europe and Asia. They were known as “Wise or Thinking Man”.

Question 4.
Hominids originated in Africa. Do you agree with this opinion? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Hominids originated in Africa. There are two evidences for this.

1. The apes in Africa are very close to Hominids.
2. Early hominid fossils were discovered from East Africa. The fossils discovered outside Africa are not as old as the ones found in East Africa.

Question 5.
In a classroom discussion, Sheeba opined that there are differences between hominoids and hominids. Do you agree with her opinion? If yes, describe them.
Answer:
Hominoids are apes. All apes which include Gorillas, chimps, humans, orangs gibbons, etc. are hominoids. But Hominids are great apes and exclude gibbons (lesser apes). All hominids are hominoids, but not all hominoids are hominids. Hominids belong to the family called Hominidae. All people come in this group. There are 4 features that make hominids different from others:

1. Bigger brain
2. Upright posture
3. Walkirig.on two legs
4. Special ability in the use of hands.

Question 6.
Hominids are divided into different genus (branches). Mention two important genus.
Answer:
Hominids are divided into different genus (branches) and the ‘two most important of them are Australopithecus and Homo.

Question 7.
Arrange chronologically (in the order of time):

1. homo habilis
2. homo erectus
3. homo sapiens
4. homo sapiens sapiens

Answer:

1. homo sapiens
2. homo erectus
3. homo sapiens sapiens
4. homo habilis

Question 8.
Match the items in column A & B.

A	B
Handy man	Homo erectus
Upright man	Homo sapiens
Intelligent man	Homo sapiens sapiens
Modem man	Homo habilis

Answer:

A	B
Handy man	Homo habilis
Upright man	Homo erectus
Intelligent man	Homo sapiens
Modem man	Homo sapiens sapiens

Question 9.
Babu: “Modern man originated in different places.”
Reena: “No. Modern man originated in one place.”
This is a part of a classroom discussion. With which opinion do you agree? Why?
Answer:
The place of origin of the modem man has been a much-discussed topic. Scholars have put forward two contradictory views on this issue. They are Regional Continuity Model and Replacement Model. Regional Continuity Modeh This model says that modem people originated in different places.

The early homo sapiens in many places slowly evolved as modem people and that is why the modem people in various parts of the world look different from one another at first sight. The regional differences in the features of people are the basis for such a view.

Replacement Model:
This model says that modem man originated in Africa. The spokesmen of this model say that modem people appeared in place of (the old species of people everywhere. As evidence to their claim, they put forward the hereditary and anatomical similarity of modem people.

This model points out that modem people are quite similar everywhere because they originated in the same place – Africa. The first fossils of modem people were discovered from Omo in Ethiopia. This evidence substantiates the Replacement Model.

Question 10.
For procuring food, the early people had used different ways. Explain.
Answer:
The early people got their food by gathering.huriting, taking the flesh from dead animals and fishing. They gathered vegetarian products like seeds, kernel of nuts, fruits arid roots. Some people believe that they stored food but for this, there is ho dear proof.

Although there are many fossils of bones, the fossils of vegetarian stuff have been rare. Remnants of plants and trees that have been burned down by sudden fire last for quite a long time, but archaeologists have not yet found such fossils.

It is natural that the early people collected the flesh of dead animals or the remnants of animals killed by carnivorous beasts. Early hominids ate mammals like rats and squirrels, birds and their eggs, crawling creatures and even insects like termites.

Question 11.
Fire was useful to the early man in many ways. Discuss how they used fire.
Answer:
It gave heat and light in the caves. It was used for cooking. It was used to harden timber. It was helpful in the making of tools. It was also used to drive away dangerous beasts.

Question 12.
“Early man used to make working tools.” Examine the relevance in this statement.
Answer:
The first proofs of man’s making and using working stone tools were got from Ethiopia and Kenya. We don’t know if these tools were made by man, woman or both. Most likely both men and women made such tools. Women must have made these tools to earn their food and also food their children after they had stopped breastfeeding them.

Question 13.
“Among all creatures only man has language.” On the basis of this statement write about the various views regarding the development of language.
Answer:
There are many views regarding the development of language.

1. Scholars say that hominids use first used gestures.
2. Another group argues that sounds (words) of emotional interjections preceded language.
3. There are others who believe that language developed from the calls (sounds) that primates made to one another. In the beginning, there were different sounds. Slowly they developed into a language.

Question 14.
What is anthropology?
Answer:
It is a branch of knowledge that studies human culture and the evolutionary levels of humans/ Anthropos in Greek means man and logos means study. Anthropology is the study of various aspects of humans within past and present societies.

Question 15.
What is the Glacial Age?
Answer:
Once the earth surface was covered with thick ice sheets. This phenomenon is known as the Glacial Age. In the history of the earth there were 4 Such glacial ages. The last glacial age ended some 13,000 years ago. The period between two Glacial Ages is called Inter Glacial Period.