Plus Two

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60

Section – I
(Accountancy) (40 Scores)

Part – I

A. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Excess of expenditure over revenue of a not-for-profit organisation is called:
(a) Surplus
(b) Deficit
(c) Profit
(d) Loss
Answer:
(b) Deficit

Question 2.
Which among the following account is prepared at the time of dissolution of a partnership firm?
(a) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(b) Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
(c) Revaluation Account
(d) Realisation Account
Answer:
(d) Realisation Account

Question 3.
The proportion in which existing partner surrender their share of profit in favour of newly admitted partner is called:
(a) Sacrificing ratio
(b) Gaining ratio
(c) Old ratio
(d) New ratio
Answer:
(a) Sacrificing Ratio

Question 4.
On retirement of a partner, the amount of General Reserve is transferred to all partner’s capital account in:
(a) New Profit Sharing Ratio
(b) Capital Ratio
(c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio
Answer:
(c) Old Profit Sharing Ratio

Question 5.
Under fixed capital method of maintaining capital accounts, yearly adjustment are transferred to partner’s _________________
(a) Capital Account
(b) CurrentAccount
(c) Loan Account
(d) Cash Account
Answer:
(b) Current Account

Question 6.
Anil, Biju and Chithra were partners Sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. Biju retired from the firm. Gaining ratio of the remaining partners will be:
(a) 5 : 4
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 4 : 3
(d) Equal
Answer:
(b) 5 : 3

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 1 Score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 7.
Which among the following is a revenue receipt?
(a) General Donation
(b) Donation for building
(c) Life Membership Fees
(d) Sale of fixed assets
Answer:
(a) General Donation

Question 8.
Arun and Babu are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admitted Chandu as a partner for \(\frac{1}{6}\) share with a guaranteed minimum profit of Rs. 15,000. The Net Profit of the firm for the year ending 31st March, 2021 was Rs. 60,000. Chandu’s share of profit will be:
(a) Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 15,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
(d) Rs. 30,000
Answer:
(b) Rs. 15,000

Question 9.
The capitalized value of Average profit of a business is Rs. 5,00,000 and value of net assets of the business is Rs. 4,20,000. The Goodwill of the business under capitalization method will be
(a) Rs. 5,00,000
(b) Rs. 4,20,000
(c) Rs. 80,000
(d) Rs. 9,20,000
Answer:
(c) Rs.80,000

Part – II

A. Answer the following question, which carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 10.
Write any two features of a Not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:
Features of Not-for-profit organisations:

• Their main objective is to render service, and they are not expected to earn profit.
• These organisations are generally organized as charitable trusts/societies.
• The managing committee manages them.
• They do not usually engage in trading activities.
• They are not expected to earn profit.

B. Answer any 1 question from 11 to 12. Carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 11.
State any two circumstances under which goodwill of a partnership firm is valued.
Answer:
Need for valuation of Goodwill may arise in the following situations:

• Change in profit sharing ratio between partners
• Admission of a new partner
• Retirement of a partner
• Death of a partner
• Amalgamation of two firms

Question 12.
Select the suitable account from brackets for the following:
(Realisation, Bank, Partners, Capital)
(a) On dissolution of the firm, capital accounts of partners are closed by transferring the capital balance to _________________ Account.
(b) The accumulated loss appearing in the balance sheet is closed by transferring to _________________ Account.
Answer:
(a) Bank Account
(b) Partner’s Capital Account

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 13 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 13.
Mr. Rajeev, a partner in a firm, withdrew Rs. 2,000 each every month from the firm. Calculate the amount of interest on drawings @ 8% per annum, assuming that he withdraws the amount:
(a) at the beginning of each month.
(b) at the end of each month.
Answer:
Calculation of Interest on drawings:
Total Drawings = 2000 × 12 = 24,000
Interest on drawings = Total drawings × \(\frac{Rate}{100}\) × Average Period
(a) Interest on Drawings of Rajeev (beginning of each month) = 24,000 × \(\frac{8}{100}\) × \(\frac{6.5}{12}\) = 1040
(b) Interest On Drawings of Rajeev (End of each month) = 24,000 × \(\frac{8}{100}\) × \(\frac{5.5}{12}\) = 880

Question 14.
Write any three differences between Receipt and Payments Account and Income and Expenditure Account.
Answer:

Receipts and Payments Account	Income and Expenditure Account
1. It is a real account.	1. It is a nominal account.
2. It is a summary of the cash book.	2. It is like a profit and loss account.
3. It records both revenue and capital items.	3. It records only revenue items.
4. It records receipts and payments related to the previous years, the current year, and the succeeding years.	4. It records only relating to the current accounting year.

Question 15.
Smitha and Varghese are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1. They admitted Soorya as a new partner for \(\frac{1}{4}\) share in the future profits of the firm. Calculate new profit sharing ratio of Smitha, Varghese, and Soorya.
Answer:
Calculation of new profit sharing Ratio:
New profit sharing Ratio = Balance shares × Old ratio
Old ratio of Smitha and Varghese = 2 : 1
Soorya’s Share = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Balance share = 1 – \(\frac{1}{4}\) = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Smitha’s new share = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{2}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Varghese’s new share = \(\frac{3}{4}\) × \(\frac{1}{3}\) = \(\frac{3}{12}\)
Soorya’s share = \(\frac{1}{4}\) or \(\frac{3}{12}\)
The new ratio between Smitha, Varghese and Soorya = 6 : 3 : 3 or 2 : 1 : 1

Question 16.
Write the three differences between dissolution of partnership and dissolution of firm.
Answer:
Differences between dissolution of partnership and dissolution of firm

Basis of Difference	Dissolution of Partnership	Dissolution of Firm
1. Settlement of accounts	Assets and Liabilities are revalued.	Assets are realised and liabilities are paid off.
2. Closing of books	Books of accounts are not closed.	Books are closed.
3. Preparation of Balance Sheet	A New Balance Sheet is prepared soon after the Dissolution.	New Balance Sheet is not prepared.
4. Intervention of the court	No intervention of the court.	Court can intervene.
5. Closure of business	The business is not closed.	The business of the firm is closed.

B. Answer the following question, which carries 3 scores. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 17.
Jeeja and Rekha are partners in a firm. Their capital balances as on 1.4.2020 were Jeeja ₹ 1,50,000 and Rekha ₹ 2,00,000. On 1.10.2020 Jeeja introduced additional capital of ₹ 50,000. Calculate the interest on capital @ 10% per annum assuming that they closes their books of account on 31st March every year.
Answer:
Calculation of Interest on Capital:
Incase of Jeeja:
Interest on capital for full year = 1,50,000 × 10% = 15,000
Interest on additional capital for 6 months = 50,000 × 10% × \(\frac{6}{12}\) = 2,500
Total Interest on capital of Jeeja = 15,000 + 2,500 = 17,500
In case of Reaha:
Total Interest on capital of Rekha = 2,00,000 × 10% = 20,000

Part – IV

A. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 18.
A firm’s profits for the last four years were ₹ 30,000, ₹ 40,000, ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 60,000. Calculate the value of the firm’s goodwill based on the two years’ purchase of the average profits for the last four years.
Answer:
Calculation of Goodwill under Average Profit Method.
Goodwill = Average Profit × No. of the Year’s Purchase
Average profit = \(\frac{30,000+40,000+50,000+60,000}{4}\)
= \(\frac{1,80,000}{4}\)
= 45,000
Goodwill of the firm = 45,000 × 2 = 90,000

Question 19.
Complete the following table about the provisions applicable in the absence of partnership deed based on the hint given:

Hint: Interest on Capital	No.
(a) Sharing of Profits and Losses	______________
(b) Interest on drawings	______________
(c) Interest on loan from a partner	______________
(d) Remuneration to partner	______________

Answer:
a. Sharing of Profit and Loss – Equally
b. Interest on Drawings – No
c. Interest on loan from partner – 6%
d. Remuneration to partner – No

Question 20.
Anila, Kamla and Vimla are partners in a firm. Anila retired from the firm on 1st April, 2017. On that date, Rs. 2,00,000 becomes due to her and the amount was transferred to her Loan Amount. Remaining partners promised to pay the amount due to her in four equal annual instalments together with interest @ 8% per annum. Prepare Anila’s Loan Account till the loan is closed.
Answer:
Amount due to Anila = 2,00,000
Equal annual instalments = \(\frac{2,00,000}{4}\) = 50,000
Anila’s Loan Account

B. Answer any 1 Question from 21 to 22. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 21.
From the following details ascertain the amount of salary to be debited to Income and Expenditure Account:
Salary paid during 2020-21 – Rs. 30,000
Salary outstanding on 31.03.2021 – Rs. 3,200
Salary outstanding on 31.03.2020 – Rs. 1,600
Salary paid in advance on 31.03.2021 – Rs. 800
Answer:

Question 22.
A firm’s profits for the last three years and their respective weights are given below:

Year	Profit (₹)	Weight
2019	70,000	1
2020	1,00,000	2
2021	1,10,000	3

Calculate the value of the firm’s goodwill based on the two-year purchase of the weighted average profits for the last three years.
Answer:
Calculation of Goodwill

Weighted Average Profit = \(\frac{\text { Sum of Product }}{\text { Total weights }}\)
= \(\frac{6,00,000}{6}\)
= 1,00,000
Value of Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of the year purchase
Goodwill = 1,00,000 × 2 = 2,00,000

Part – V

Answer any 1 question from 23 to 24. Carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 23.
The Receipts and Payments Account of Navodaya Library is given below. Prepare Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March, 2021.
Receipts and Payments account for the year ended 03.03.2021

Additional Information:
(1) Subscription outstanding as on 31.03.2021 amounts to Rs. 1,500.
(2) Provide depreciation @ 10% on furniture.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure A/c for the year ended 31.3.2021.

Note: Membership fees is treated as capital receipt and it is added to the capital fund in the Balance Sheet.

Question 24.
Devika and Krishna are equal partners in a firm. Their balance sheet as on March 31, 2021 is given below:
Balance Sheet as on 31.3.2021

They agreed to admit Amala into the firm with \(\frac{1}{4}\) share in future profits. They decided to revalue their assets at the time of admission.
1. Stock is to be revalued at Rs. 35,000.
2. Furniture is to be depreciated by 10%.
3. Machinery is to be revalued at Rs. 1,00,000.
4. A provision for doubtful debts is to be created on debtors at 5%. Prepare Revaluation account.
Answer:
Revaluation Account

Section – II
(Computerised Accounting) (20 Scores)

A. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 28. Each carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 25.
Range of numbers are used for codification in:
(a) Sequential codes
(b) Block codes
(c) Mnemonic codes
(d) Alpha Numeric codes
Answer:
(b) Block codes

Question 26.
Pre-defined formulae in the spreadsheet are called:
(a) Functions
(b) Cell reference
(c) Valups
(d) Operator
Answer:
(a) Functions

Question 27.
Identify the function which displays the current system date.
(a) TODAY
(b) NOW
(c) DATE
(d) DATEVALUE
Answer:
(a) TODAY

Question 28.
Which of the following voucher is used to make rectification entries?
(a) Purchase Voucher
(b) Sales Voucher
(c) Receipt Voucher
(d) Journal Voucher
Answer:
(d) Journal Voucher

B. Answer any 1 question from 29 to 30. Carries 1 score. (1 × 1 = 1)

Question 29.
Identify the function used for EMI (Equated Monthly Installment) calculation while preparing a Loan Repayment Schedule in LibreOffice Calc.
(a) PMT
(b) FV
(c) PV
(d) NPV
Answer:
(a) PMT

Question 30.
Identify the chart that displays data in rings.
(a) Bar Chart
(b) Column Chart
(c) Area Chart
(d) Donut Chart
Answer:
(d) Donut Chart

Part – VII

A. Answer any 3 questions from 31 to 34. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 31.
Identify the relevant functions in LibreOffice Calc used for the following purposes:
(a) To count the cells that contain numbers only.
(b) To count all types of data in a range of cells.
Answer:
(a) COUNT
(b) COUNTA

Question 32.
What is DBMS? Give a suitable example for it.
Answer:
DBMS – Database Management System
Examples: LibreOffice Base, MS Access

Question 33.
List out any two advantages of preparing Graphs and Charts.
Answer:

• It helps to create visual appeal.
• It helps to read the data easily.

Question 34.
List out any two system generated ledger accounts in GNU Khata.
Answer:

• Closing stock
• Opening stock
• Profit & Loss A/c
• Stock at the beginning

B. Answer any 1 question from 35 to 36. Each carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 35.
Briefly explain any two security features of Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:

1. Data Audit: It enables one to know as to who and what changes have been made in the original data, thereby helping and fixing the responsibility of the person who has manipulated the data and ensuring data integrity.
2. Data Vault: Software provides additional security through data encryption. Encryption means scrambling the data to make its interpretation impossible. Encryption converts readable data into an unreadable format. The encrypted data is commonly known as Ciphertext.

Question 36.
State the accounting groups of the following accounts in GNUKhata:
(a) Cash in hand
(b) Machinery
Answer:
(a) Cash in hand – Current Assets
(b) Machinery – Fixed Assets

Part – VIII

A. Answer any 2 questions from 37 to 39. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 37.
Explain the three features of the computerised accounting system.
Answer:
Salient Features of Computerised Accounting System (CAS)

• Simple and Integrated: A computerized accounting system is designed to integrate all the business operations such as sales, finance, purchase, etc.
• Accuracy and Speed: Computerised Accounting system provides data entry forms for fast and accurate data entry of the transactions.
• Scalability: The system can cope easily with the increase in the volume of business transactions. The software can be used for any size and type of organisation.

Question 38.
Briefly explain any two Logical functions in LibreOffice Calc.
Answer:
1. IF(): This function is used to test a condition.
When the condition is TRUE, then the first action is taken. When it is FALSE, then the second action is taken.
Syntax = IF (Test, Then value, Otherwise value)

2. NESTED IF()
LibreOffice Calc allows to include one function inside another function. It is called nesting of functions. The IF function can be nested, when you have multiple conditions to meet.
Syntax: =IF (Test_1, Then value_1, IF(Test_2, Then value _2, IF (……..)))

3. AND(): This function gives only a TRUE or FALSE answer.
Syntax: =AND (Logical value 1, Logical value 2, …..)

Question 39.
Explain the purposes of using the following voucher types in GHUKhata:
(a) Receipt Voucher
(b) Payment Voucher
(c) Contra Voucher
Answer:
(a) Receipt Voucher – For recording cash and bank receipts.
(b) Payment Voucher – For recording cash and bank payments.
(c) Contra Voucher – For recording cash bank (contra) transactions.

B. Answer the following questions, which carry 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 40.
Match the following items in Column – A with Column – B:

A	B
(a) TEXT	To calculate the accrued interest on the investment
(b) ACCRINT	To search certain values from a table
(c) LOOKUP	To convert a number into a text

Answer:
(a) TEXT – To convert a number into a text.
(b) ACCRINT – To calculate the accrued interest on investment.
(c) LOOKUP – To search certain values from a Table.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2021

Answer question from 1 to 41 up to the maximum of 80 scores. (12 × 1 = 12)

Question 1.
a. In a centrally planned economy, all the important economic activities are planned by:
i) The market
ii) The government
iii) Both market and government
iv) Corporate sector
Answer:
ii) The government

b. An example of micro variable is:
i) National income
ii) Gross Domestic Product
iii) Net Domestic Product
iv) Individual income
Answer:
iv) Individual income

c. The founding father of Modern Economics is:
i) J.M. Keynes
ii) Adam Smith
iii) Alfred Marshall
iv) Amartya Sen
Answer:
ii) Adam Smith

d. The book ‘General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money was published in the year:
i) 1929
ii) 1936
iii) 1775
v) 1946
Answer:
ii) 1936

e. Other things remain the same, when price of a commodity decreases, ite demand
i) Falls
ii) Rises
iii) Never changes Constant
Answer:
ii) Rises

f. The firm’s revenue under perfect competiion is:
i) MR > AR
ii) AR > MR
iii) MR = AR
iv) MR > Price
Answer:
iii) MR = AR

g. National income in India is:
i) GDP_MP
ii) GNP_FC
iii) NDP_FC
iv) NNP_FC
Answer:
iv) NNP_FC

h. In India, the custodian of foreign exchange reserve is :
i) State Bank of India
ii) Reserve Bank of India
iii) Canara Bank
iv) Indian Bank
Answer:
ii)  Reserve Bank of India

i. The situation where, market demand equals market supply:
i) Excess supply
ii) Excess demand
iii) Equilibrium
iv) Deficient demand
Answer:
iii) Equilibrium

j. Shape of the demand curve under monopoly market:
i) Upward sloping
ii) Downward sloping
iii) Horizontal straight line
iv) Vertical straight line
Answer:
ii) Downward sloping

k. Budget in which Government Expenditure is greater than Government Revenue:
i) Surplus budget
ii) Deficit budget
iii) Balanced budget
iv) Current account deficit
Answer:
ii) Deficit budget

l. In a two sector model AD = \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}+\overline{\mathrm{I}}\)
Here autonomous consumption is indicated by:
i) c
ii) \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}\)
iii) \(\text { T }\)
iv) Y
Answer:
ii) \(\overline{\mathrm{C}}\)

Question from 2 to 13 carry each.

Question 2.
Write any two features of centrally planned economy.
Answer:
Welfare motive or welfare of the people, No private property, govt, planning, govt takes all important decisions etc.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Balance of trade?
Answer:
Difference between value of visible exports and visible imports of goods of a country in a given period of time.

Question 4.
What is meant by Average product and Marginal product?
Answer:
AP = Total Product per variable input or AP = TP/ variable input MP = Change in output/change in input or MP = “TP/”variable input.

Question 5.
What is Cardinal utility analysis?
Answer:
The level of utility can be expressed in numbers or utility can be measured cardinally . Eg:- 50 utils etc.

Question 6.
List out four sectors of the economy according to the marco economic point of view.
Answer:
Household, Firms or Business, Government, External or Foreign Sector.

Question 7.
What is the difference between micro and macro economics?
Answer:
Microeconomics deals with individual behaviour, Macroeconomics with aggregates.

Question 8.
Why the AR and MR curves are the same under per-fect competition?
Answer:
Under Perfect competition, there is uniform price, soAR = MR.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Excess demand?
When total demand is greater than total supply in a market or Total demand>Total supply.

Question 10.
What is meant by Paradox of thrift?
Answer:
If the MPS of the economy increases, the total value of saving in the economy will not increase or If the individual saving increases, the total saving in the economy will not increase.

Question 11.
Briefly explain the market demand.
Answer:
Sum total of individual demand for a good in a particular market at different prices.

Question 12.
Define the Gross national Product.
Answer:
The economic output produced by a nation’s normal residents. They are either in India or in abroad. Or GDP + Net Factor income from abroad = GNP or GNP = NNPmp + Depreciation.

Question 13.
What is meant by the personal income?
Answer:
PI = Nl -Undistributed profit -Net interest payment made by household – corporate tax + Transfer payment to household.

Question 14.
Write a brief note on the central problems of an economy due to scarcity of resources.
Answer:
What is produced and in what quantities? How are these goods produced? For whom are these goods produced?

Question 15.
Write a short note to the Great Depression of 1929.
Answer:
Started in USA, output and employment level in Europe and North America fell by huge amount, many factories were closed or shut down, production fell, huge unemployment, shut down of industries.

Question 16.
Briefly explain the circular flow of income in a simple economy.
Answer:

Question 17.
Identify the important features of monoploy market.
Answer:
Single seller, No close substitute, No entry , price maker, downward sloping demand curve.

Question 18.
Briefly explain any three functions of money.
Answer:
Medium of exchange, Unit of account, Measure

Question 19.
Briefly explain the determination of income in a two sector model.
Answer:

Question 20.
Define the Total Revenue, Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue.
Answer:
TR = total amount of receipts from the sale of the product or TR = Price X output AR = Revenue per unit of commodity sold or AR = TR/QMR = net addition to TR when an additional unit sold or MR =TR_n – TR_n-1; , or MR = ∆TR/∆Q (Since in the Malayalam version to the question, it is asked to define TP, AP and MP, give score 1 + 1 + 1, if the student defines or write the equations to TP, AP and MP.) TP – quantity produced by using a given level of output AP – Output per unit of variable input or TP/variable input MP – change in output/change in input.

Question 21.
When price is ₹10/-, the consumer buys 10 units of commodity. When price rises to ₹20/-, the demand falls to 5 units. Calculate the price elasticity of de-mand.
Answer:
For equation or formula(relevant formula)For correct process For answer (-0.5 or 0.5)∆q/∆p x p/q – 10/10 × 5/10 = – 0.5.

Question 22.
Discuss the important determinants of firm’s supply curve.
Answer:
1. Technological progress
2. input price
3. unit tax

Question 23.
Explain the difference between Revenue deficit and Primary deficit.
Answer:
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit-Net interest payment.

Question 24.
Explain any two features of indifference curve.
Answer:
1. For writing any two features( downward sloping or convex to origin, Higher IC shows higher level of satisfaction and lower IC shows lower level of satisfaction, two ICs never intersect each other)
2. For explanation or figure/diagram

Question 25.
Analyse the features of Perfect competition.
Answer:
Large number of buyers and sellers, Homogeneous product, free entry and exit, price taker, uniform price, perfect knowledge, demand curve parallel to X axis, No transport cost etc.

Question 26.
Define the concepts of stocks and flows with examples.
Answer:
Stocks:- A quantity or variable measured at a particular point of time or static concept. Eg;- Capital, wealth etc. FlowsA quantity or variable measured at particular period of time or dynamic concept. Eg;- Capital formation, income etc.

Question 27.
Distinguish between MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) and MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save).
Answer:
MPC = Change in consumption/Change in income or AC/AY or any relevant equation or definition. MPS = Change in saving /Change in income or AS/AY.

Question 28.
What do you mean by the government budget. Explain its objectives.
Answer:
Annual financial statement of the govt. Statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the govt, for a financial year. Objectives:- Allocation function Redistribution function Stabilisation function Relevant.

Question 29.
What is an open economy? identify the three linkages of an open economy.
Answer:
Relevent definition to open economy (Is one which interacts with other countries through various channels or country having economic relations with other countries) Three linkages:- Output or product market linkage Financial market linkage Labour or Factor market linkage

Question 30.
Suppose the market demand curve of Apple is ; QD = 500 – P. The market supply curve of Apple is; qs = 100 + P. Calculate the equilibrium price and quantity.
Answer:
At equilibrium, Qd = Qs or Qs = Qd 100 + p =500 – p 2p = 400 P = 200 Equi.
Price = 200 100 + p = 100 + 200 = 300
500 -p = 500 “200 = 300 Equi. Quantity ” = 300

Question 31.
List out the important features of monopolistic competition; write two examples of this market.
Answer:

1. Any three features of Monopolistic competition (many firms or fairly large number of firms, differentiated products or non-homogeneous products, free entry and exit, selling cost etc)
2. Any two relevant examples (soap producing firms, Toothpaste producing firms etc).

Question from 32 to 37 carry 5 scores each. (6 × 5 = 30)

Question 32.
Explain price ceiling. Write its two effects.
Answer:
1. Pnceceing :-Thegovernmentimposed upperlimit on the price of a good or services. Fixed below the market determined price. When the government fixes a price ceiling there is an excess demand. Effects :- Rationing, Long queue, creation of black marketing etc.

Question 33.
Classify the following Govt. Expenditures into Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure.
Answer:
Revenue Expenditure: lnterest Payments, Subsidies, Salaries and Pensions Capital Expenditure:- lnvestment in shares, Loans to state Govt. by central govt.

Question 34.
The items in Column A show the concepts related with cost and production. Match them suitably with Coulmn B.

A	B
Short run	Total cost
Marginal product	Some factors are fixed
Total Fixed Cost	ATC
Curve(TFC)	AQ
Total Fixed Cost + Total Variable Cost (TFC + TVC)	Change in output Change in input
Marginal Cost (MC)	Horizontal Straight line parallel to X axis

Answer:
Short run – Some factors are fixed Marginal Product Change in output/change in input Total Fixed Cost Curve(TFC) – Horizontal stright lineparallel to X axis. Total Fixed Cost + Total Variable Cost(TFC + WC) – Total Cost Marginal Cost(MC) – ∆TC/∆Q.

Question 35.
What is Balance of payments (BOP)? Explain the three components of current account of BOP.
Answer:
BoP:-Record the transactions in goods, services and assets between a country with the rest of the world for a specified period, typically a year. Components of current a/c:- Trade in goods, Trade in services, Transfer payments & with brief explanation.

Question 36.
Explain the tax revenue and non-tax revenue of the Central Government.
Answer:

1. Tax Revenue :-Direct Tax and Indirect Tax
2. Direct Tax :- Personal income tax, Corporate tax, wealth tax etc (any two examples)
3. Indirect Tax:- Customs duty, excise duty, GST, etc (any two)
4. Non Tax Revenue :- interest receipts, dividends, profits, fee, grants in aid etc.

Question 37.
Brsefly explain ‘the Returns to scale’.
Answer:
Long run production function/Studies the effects of increase in factors in same ratio on the output (or any relevant point which clarifies the concept) 3 stages of Returns to scIe :- IRS, CRS and DRS

Questions from 38 to 41 carry 8 scores each.

Question 38.
A consumer wants to consume two goods. The prices of two goods are 10/- each. Income of the consumer is 50f-. based on the data:
A) Draw a budget line.
B) Explain the optimal choice of the consumer with the help of indifference curve.
Answer:
A. M/p1 = 50/10 = 5M/p2 = 50/10 = 5
Budget line Diagram with given data and the Budget Equation

B. Diagram and explanation

Question 39.
Complete the given table and define The concepts of TFC, WC and TC.

Output	TFC	TVC	TC	AFC	AVC	SAC	SMC
0	100	0
1	100	100
2	100	200
3	100	300
4	100	400

Answer:

Output	TFC	TVC	TC	AFC	AVC	SAC	SMC
0	100	0	100	–	–	–	–
1	100	100	200	100	100	200	100
2	100	200	300	50	100	150	100
3	100	300	400	33.3	100	133.3	100
4	100	400	500	25	100	125	100

TFC – The total cost to employ fixed inputs or TC – TVCTVC- Total cost to employ variable inputs or TC – TFCTC – Total cost of the firm or TFC + TVC = TC

Question 40.
GDP of a country can be calculated by using three methods. Explain the income and expenditure method.
Answer:

1. For explaining income method(W + P + ln + R)
2. For explain Expenditure method(C + l + G + X M)

Question 41.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) controls the money supply in the economy in various ways. Explain. (Hints : Quantitative and Qualitative tools)
Answer:

1. For Quantitative Measures – Bank Rate, CRR, Open Market Operation etc. (any relevant three measures with explanation)
2. For listing any two qualitative measures persuasion, moral suasion, margin requirement etc.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any number of questions from 1 to 44. Maximum Score 60.

Question 1.
Answer the following questions from (a) to (e). Each carries 1 score.
a. In C++, _________ operator is used to get the address of a variable.
b. _________ is a prototype/ blue print that defines
the specifications common to all objects of a particular type.
c. Write any one core data type in PHP.
d. Name a SaaS provider.
e. KITE VICTERS is an example for _________ ICT service.
Answer:
(a) &
(b) Class
c) Integer / Float / Double / String / Boolean
d) Microsoft / Facebook/Amazon etc
e) E – learning tool / Educational TV channel

Answer the following questions from 2 to 21. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 2.
Write the use of new and delete operations in C++.
Answer:
The new operator is used to allocate memory during run time, while delete operator used to de-allocate this memory.

Question 3.
What is memory leak?
Answer:
If the memory allocated using new operator is not de allocated using delete, that memory is left unused and not released for further allocation. This situation caused memory leak.

Question 4.
Mention any two advantages of Object Oriented Programming (OOP).
Answer:
Data Abstraction, inheritance , Encapsulation, polymorphism etc

Question 5.
Briefly explain about polymorphism.
Answer:
Polymorphism is an essential feature of object oriented programming. Polymorphism means having many forms. It.is the capability of an object to behave differently in response to a message or action. That is, the same operation is performed differently depending upon the type of data it is working with. Polymorphism is implemented in C++ in two ways, compile time polymorphism and runtime polymorphism.

Question 6.
What do you mean by queue overflow?
Answer:
6. When we try to insert a new item to a queue which is already full then queue overflow occurs.

Question 7.
Differentiate between static web page and dynamic web page.
Answer:

Static web pages	Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed	Content and layout is changed frequently
Never use database	Data base is used
Run by browser	It runs on the server and result get back to the client(browser)
Easy to develop	Not at all easy

Question 8.
Write the name of any four scripting languages.
Answer:
Asp, Jsp, VBscript, JavaScript, PHP

Question 9.
Which are the HTML tags used to divide the browser window?
Answer:
<frameset> and <frame>

Question 10.
Differentiate between internal linking and external linking in HTML.
Answer:

1. External Linking. External links are hyperlinks given to another page. By clicking on hyper text we can link or go to other webpages.
   <A> Anchor tag is used for External Linking. <A href= “c:\main.html”>Main</A>
2. Internal Linking- Internal Links are given to a sec-tion in the same document.

Question 11.
What are the different ways to include Java Script in HTML?
Answer:
WAYS TO ADD SCRIPTS TO A WEB PAGE.
Inside <BODY> section
Scripts can be placed inside the <BODY> section.
Inside <HEAD> section
Scripts can be placed inside the <HEAD> section. This method is widely accepted method
External (another) JavaScript file
We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js . The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading.

Question 12.
Why do we use FTP client software? Write an example for FTP client software.
Answer:
It is used to transfer(upload) files from our computer to web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client softwares are FileZilla, CuteFTP, SmartFTP, etc.

Question 13.
Write a short note on free hosting. ’
Answer:
Free hosting
The name implies it is free of cost service and the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, ,do not allow multimedia(audio and video) files.
A paid service website’s address is as follows
eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.com

Question 14.
Write any four advantages of Data Base Management System (DBMS).
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS

1. Data Redundancy
2. Inconsistency can be avoided
3. Data can be shared
4. Standards can be enforced
5. Security restrictions can be applied
6. Integrity can be maintained
7. Efficient data access
8. Crash recovery

Question 15.
Differentiate between Degree and Cardinality of a relation.
Answer:

Degree	Cardinality
Number of Columns is Degree(CD)	Number of rows is Cardinality(RC)

Question 16.
Write the names of any four constraints used in Structured Query Language.
Answer:
Not null, unique, primary key, autojncrement, default.

Question 17.
Differentiate between static and dynamic memory allocations.
Answer:

Static memory allocation	Dynamic memory allocation
Memory requirement is known in advance	Memory requirement is not known in advance
Memory is allocated during compilation time	Memory is allocated during runtime
Memory cannot be freed	Memory can be freed When not required
Less efficient	More efficient

Question 18.
Briefly explain the structure of an HTML document.
Answer:
An HTML document contains 2 sections Head and Body
<html>
<head>
<title>Here we give the title</title>
</head>
<body>
Here we give the content </body>
</html>

Question 19.
Write any two tags used for creating definition list in HTML.
Answer:
<DL>, <DT> and <DD>

Question 20.
How to create a variable in Java Script?
Answer:
The keyword var is used to create a variable in JavaScript. Eg. varnum;

Question 21.
Write your opinion about enforcement of cyber laws in our society.
Answer:
It ensures the use of computers and internet by the people safely and legally. It consists of rules and regulations like IPC to stop crimes and for the smooth functions of cyber world. Two Acts are IT Act 2000. and IT Act Amended in 2008.

Answer the following questions from 22 to 41. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 22.
A structure definition for date is given below. Fill in the blanks in it.
___________ date
{
___________ day;
int month;
int___________ ;
};
Answer:
struct date
{
int day;
int month;
int year
}

Question 23.
Write a short note on operations on data structures.
Answer:
Operations on data structures
a) Traversing: Accessing or visiting or reading all elements of a data structure is called Traversal.

b) Searching : Searching is the process of finding elements in a data structure

c) Inserting : It is the process of adding new data at particular location is called insertion.

d) Deleting: It is the process of removing a particular element from the data structure

e) Sorting : Arranging elements in a particular order(ascending or descending) is called sorting. Examples are bubble sort and selection sort.

f) Merging : This is the process of combining two sorted data structure and form a new one.

Question 24.
Fill the empty boxes in the diagram regarding the classification of data structures.

Answer:

Question 25.
Write the HTML code fragment to print the following:
(a) x²+y²
(b) H₂SO₄
(c) a > b
Answer:
a) x²+y²
b) H₂SO₄
c) a &gt;b

Question 26.
Prepare a short note on attributes of <BODY> tag in HTML.
Answer:
Web page contents are given int the body section. Attributes of body tag are:

1. BGCOLOR-Specifies background color for the document Body .
   Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR= “RED”>
2. BACKGROUND -Sets the image as background for the document body
   Eg. <BODY BACKGROUNG= “C:\result.jpg”>
3. TEXT-Specifies the color of the text content of the page
   Eg. <BODYTEXT= “Red”>
4. LINK- Specifies colour of the hyperlinks that are not visited by the user
5. ALINK-Specifies the colour of hyperlinks
6. VLINK-Specifies the color of hyperlinks which are already visited by the viewer.
   Eg. < BODY ALINK= “Cyan” LINK=” Magenta” VLINK=“Orange”>
7. Leftmargin and Right margin-Sets margin from left and top of the document window.

Question 27.
Write a short note on <INPUT> tag in HTML.
Answer:
Input tag is used to create different controls. It has an attribute called type, its value can be text, password, checkbox, radio, submit or button. Eg.<input type=”text”> will create a text box control.

Question 28.
Describe about <TR><TD><TH> tags in HTML.
Answer:
<tr> is used to create a new raw in a table.
<td> for table data and <th> for table heading

Question 29.
Prepare a brief explanation about the operators in Java Script.
Answer:
Operators are the symbols used to perform an operation
1. Arithmetic operators
It is a binary operator. It is used to perform addition(+), subtraction(-), division(/), multiplication(*), modulus (%-gives the remainder) ,increment(++) and decrement-Operations.
Eg. If x= 10 and y=3 then

x+y	x-y	x*y	x/y	x%y
13	7	30	3.333	1

If x=10 then
document.write(++x); -> It prints 10+1=11
If x=10then
document.write(x++); -> It prints 10 itself.
If x=10then
document.write(-x); It prints 10-1=9
If x=10then
document.write(x-);-> It prints 10 itself.

2. Assignment operators
If a = 10 and b = 3 then a = b. This statement sets the value of a and b are same, i.e. it sets a to 3.
It is also called short hands
If X = 10 and Y = 3 then

Arithmetic Assignment Expression	Equivalent Arithmetic Expression	The value of X becomes
X+=Y	X=X+Y	13
X-=Y	X=X-Y	7
X*=Y	X=X*Y	30
X/=Y	X=X/Y	3.333
X%=Y	X=X%Y	1

3. Relational(Comparison) operators
It is used to perform comparison or relational operation between two values and returns either true or false. Eg:
If X=10 and Y=3 then

X<Y	X<=Y	X>Y	X>=Y	X==Y	X!=Y
false	false	true	true	false	true

4. Logical operators uaope
Here AND(&&),, OR(||) are binary operators and NOT(!) is a unary operator. It is used to combine relational operations and it gives either true or false If X=true and Y=false then

X&&X	X && Y	Y&&X	Y&& Y
true	false	False	false

Both operands must be true to get a true value in the case of AND(&&) operation If X=true and Y=false then

X || X	X || Y	Y || X	Y || Y
true	true	true	false

Either one of the operands must be true to get a true value in the case of OR(||) operation
If X= true and Y=false then

!X	!Y
false	true

5. String addition operator(+)
This is also called concatenation operator. It joins(concatenates) two strings and forms a string.
Eg:
var x,y,z;
x = “BVM HSS
y = “Kalparamba”;
z = x+y;
• Here the variable z becomes “BVM HSS Kalparamba”.
Note: If both the operands are numbers then addition operator(+) produces number as a result otherwise it produces string as a result.
Consider the following

Operand 1 data type	Operand 2 data type	Operation	Resultant data type
number	number	+(addition)	number
number	string		string
string	number		string
string	string		string

Eg:

1. 8(number) + 3(number)=11 (Result is a number)
2. 8 (number)+ “3”( string) = “83” (Result is a string)
3. “8” (string) + 3 (number) = “83”(Result is a string)
4. “8” (string) + “3” (string) = “83″ (Result is a string)

Question 30.
Write the use of the following built in functions in JavaScript.
(a) alert()
(b) is NAN()
(c) char At()
Answer:
(a) alert() – It is used to display a message on the monitor.

(b) isNaN() – It is used to check whether the given values is a number or not. It returns a true value if the given value is not a number.

(c) charAt() – It returns a character specified by the position. The position starts from 0.

Question 31.
Write a brief explanation about three types of web hosting.
Answer:
Types of web hosting : Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the web hosting services according to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number-of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1) Shared Hosting : This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory , disk space and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.
Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, play ground, etc) with every one.

2) Dedicated Hosting : A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors. Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.
Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

3) Virtual Private Server (VPS): A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS. This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo

Question 32.
What is data independence? What are tHfe different levels of data independence?
Answer:
It is the ability to modify the schema definition at one level without affecting the schema definition at the next higher level. There are two types

1. Physical data independence -: It is the ability to modify the schema definition at the physical level without affecting the schema definition at the conceptual level
2. Logical data independence -: It is the ability to modify the schema definition at the logical level without affecting the schema definition at the view level

Question 33.
How do you use ORDER BY clause along with SELECT command?
Answer:
Order by command is used to sort rows either in ascending or descending order. Eg. Select * from student order by roll_no;

Question 34.
What are the different data types used in SQL? Explain.
Answer:
Data Types

1. Char- It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
2. Varchar – It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.
3. Dec or Decimal – It is used to store numbers with decimal point. It is declared as Dec (size, scale). We can store a total of size number of digits.
4. Int or Integer – It is used to store numbers with¬out decimal point. It is declared as int. It has no argument. Eg: age int.
5. Smallint – Used to store small integers.
6. Date – It is used to store date. The format is yyyy- mm-dd. Eg:‘1977-05-28’.
7. Time – It is used to store time.

Question 35.
What is cloud computing? What are the services offered by cloud?
Answer:
Cloud computing
It is an emerging computing technology. Here with the use of Internet and central remote servers to maintain data and applications. Example for this is Email service, Office Software(word processor, spread sheets, presentations, data base etc), graphic software etc. The information is placed in a central remote server just like clouds in the sky hence the name cloud computing.

Cloud service models (3 major services)

1. Software as a Service(SaaS)
2. Platform as a Service(PaaS)
3. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

Question 36.
Prepare a short note on e-learning.
Answer:
e Learning : It is the use of electronic media(lt includes text, audio, video, image, animation, etc), educational technology(lt includes Satellite TV, CD ROM, Computer Based Learning, etc) and information and communication technologies(ICT- ilt uses intranet / extranet and web based learning) in education.

A) e Learning tools
a) Electronic books reader(e Books)
With the help of a tablet or portable computer or any other device we can read digital fifes by using a s/w is called electronic books reader.

b) e text
The electronic format of textual data is called
e-Text.

c) Online chat
Real time exchange of text or audio or video messages between two or more person over the Internet.

d) e Content
The data or information such as text, audio, video, presentations, images, animations etc, are stored in electronic format.

e) Educational TV channels
TV channels dedicated only for the e-Learning purpose : Eg. VICTERS (Virtual Class room Technology on Edusat for Rural Schools OR Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Students)

Question 37.
Differentiate between echo and print constructs used in PHP.
Answer:
The difference between echo and print

echo	print
take more than one parameter	only one parameter
Does not return any value	Returns TRUE or 1 on successful print and FALSE otherwise
Faster	slower

Question 38.
Write any three characteristics of client side scripting.
Answer:

• Script is copied to the client browser
• The script is executed in the client browser
• Used for validation of data at the client level
• Users can block

Question 39.
Prepare HTML code to display the following num-bered list of High Tech equipments in your class room.
High Tech Class Room
(1) Projector
(2) Laptop
(3) Multimedia Speaker
Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>List of items</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<h1> High Tech Class Room</h1>
<ol type=”1">
<li>Projector</li>
<li>Laptop</li>
<li>Multimedia Speaker </li>
</ol>
</body>
<html>

Question 40.
Write the use of any three DML commands in SQL.
Answer:
DMLcommands(any3-SUDI)

1. Select – Used to retrieve records from a table.
2. Update – Used to change or modify existing records.
3. Delete – Used to delete records from a table.
4. Insert – Used to add a new record to a table.

Question 41.
Illustrate any one loop statement used in PHP.
Answer:
while loop
It is an entry controlled loop The syntax is given below Loop variable initialised while(expression)

{
Body of the loop;
Update loop variable;
}

Answer the questions from 42 to 44. Each carries 5 scores.

Question 42.
Write the use of following tags in HTML.
(a) <BODY>
(b) <P>
(c) <MARQUEE>
(d) <IMG>
(e) <H6>
Answer:
a) <body> The content inside in this tag wifi be displayed in the browser window.
b) <p> It is used to start a new paragraph
c) <marquee> It is used to insert a scrolling text.
d) <img> It is used to insert an image.
e) <h6> It is one of the heading tags. It shows the smallest heading.

Question 43.
Prepare a web page using HTML to show the follow-ing details about prevention of COVID-19.
Break the Chain
■ Sanitise your hands.
■ Use soap regularly
■ Wear mask
■ Keep social distancing.
Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>Prevention of COVID-19</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<h1> Break the Chain</h1> <ul type=”disc”>
<li>Sanities your hands</li>
<li>Use soap regularly</li>
<li>Wear Mask</li>
<li>Kepp social distancing </li>
</ul>
</body>
<html>

Question 44.
(a) Distinguish betwen primarykeyand alternate key. (2)
(b) Write a short note on any three operations in re-lational algebra. (3)
Answer:
a) Primary key is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row. A candidate key other than the primary key is the alternate key.

b) A) SELECT operation
SELECT operation is used to select tuples in a relation that satisfy a selection condition. Greek letter a (sigma) is used to denote the operation.
Syntax,
σ_condition(relati0n)
eg. σ_{salery < 100oo} (EMPLOYEE)-selects tuple whose salary is less than 10000 from EMPLOYEE relation.

B) PROJECT operation
PROJECT operation selects certain columns from the table and discards the other columns. Greek letter π(pi) is used to denote PROJECT operation.
Syntax, π_condition(relation)
π_{name salery} (EMPLOYEE) displays only the name and salary of all employees

C) ONION operation
This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by U. duplicate tuples are eliminated. Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order. e.g. SCIENCE U COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Part – I

A. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 6. Each caries 1 Score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The book ‘General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money1 was written by
a) Adam Smith
b) Alfred Marshall
c) J.M. Keynes
d) David Ricardo
Answer:
Total revenue and total cost

Question 2.
Profit is the difference between
a) Total Revenue and Total Cost
b) Total Revenue and Total Variable Cost
c) Total Revenue and Total Fixed Cost
d) Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost
Answer:

Question 3.
At the Break-even-point, the firm faces
a) Super normal profit
b) Normal profit
c) Abnormal profit
d) Loss
Answer:
Normal profit

Question 4.
The want satisfying capacity of a commodity is known as
a) Demand
b) Supply
c) Utility
d) Elasticity of demand
Answer:
utility

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a Stock Variable?
a) Wealth
b) Income
c) Investment
d) GDP
Answer:
wealth

Question 6.
Which of the following is included in the current ac-count of balance of payment (BOP)?
a) External borrowing
b) Purchase of assets
c) Foreign Direct Investment
d) Trade in goods
Answer:
Trade in goods

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
The market with a few sellers is known as:
a) Perfect competition
b) Oligopoly
c) Monopolistic competition
d) Monopoly
Answer:
oligopoly

Question 8.
The price elasticity of the following demand curve is.

a) e^D > 1
b) e^D < 1
c) e^D = a
d) e^D = 0
Answer:
c) e^D = a

Question 9.
In a perfectly competitive market with free entry and exit, the equilibrium price is
a) equal tomin AC
b) greater than AC
c) less than AC
d) equal to min MC
Answer:
Equal to minimum of AC

.

Question 10.
The ratio of nominal GDP to real GDP is
a) Consumer Price Index
b) Wholesale Price Index
c) GDP Deflator
d) Producer Price Index
Answer:
GDP Deflator

Part – II

A. Answer any 3 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 11.
Write two examples for substitute goods and complementary goods.
Answer:

• Examples for substitute goods are
  1. Tea and coffee
  2. Eye glasses and contact lenses.
• Examples for complementary goods are
  1. Car and petrol
  2. Bread and butter

Question 12.
Distinguish between short-run and long-run in the production process.
Answer:
Under short run only one factor is variable all other factors are fixed, in long run all factors are variable.

Question 13.
What do you mean by market equilibrium?
Answer:
Market equilibrium is a point where the market supply equals market demand.

Question 14.
Elucidate intermediate goods with example.
Answer:
Goods used as an input for producing new goods are called intermediate goods. For example wheat is an intermediate good in case of a bread making company.

Question 15.
Write the appropriate economic term for the following:
a) The rate of change of consumption as income changes.
b) The rate of change of saving as income changes.
Answer:
(a) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
(b) Marginal propensity to save (MPS)

B. Answer any 2 questions from 1.6 to 18. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
List the major sectors in an economy according to the macro economic point of view)
Answer:
According to Macro economic point of view the different sectors arei:

1. Firms
2. Households
3. Government
4. External sector.

Question 17.
When the price of Apple increased by 20 percent, the quantity supplied of Apple increased by 30 percent. Calculate the price elasticity of supply.
Answer:

Question 18.
Mention two motives behind the demand for money.
Answer:
Money is demanded for many purposes, but it is mainly demanded for:

1. Transaction purposes
2. Precautionary motive.

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 19 to 23. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Distinguish between centrally planned economy and ‘ market economy.
Answer:
(a) Centrally planned economy – It is an economic system where all means of production are under the ownership and control of the government. This economy otherwise known as socialist economy.

(b) Market economy – Under this system all means of production are under the ownership and control of private individuals. This economy is otherwise known as capitalist economy.

Question 20.
What are the main functions of money?
Answer:
Money plays an important role in the modern world. The vital role played by money can be termed as functions of money. They are

• Primary functions
  1. Medium of exchange
  2. Measure of value
• Secondary functions
  1. Store of value
  2. Standard of differed payment
  3. Transfer of value
• Contingent functions
  1. Basis of credit
  2. Liquidity
  3. Distribution of Nationalincome
  4. Guarantor of solvency

Question 21.
(a) List the characteristics of monopoly market.
(b) Draw the average revenue and marginal revenue curves of the monopoly market.
Answer:
Monopoly is a market situation where one seller or producer of the commodity exists. The main features of monopoly market are given below.
a)

1. Single seller for a product
2. Absence of substitute products
3. Entry of new firms in the market is denied
4. Monopolist has complete control over supply of the product.
5. Firm and industry are the same
6. Firm is price maker

b) Average revenue and Marginal revenue curves under monopoly

Here MR curve lies below AR curve

Question 22.
Equilibrium output and aggregate demand are deter-mined in the following diagram:
(a) Identify the components of Aggregate Demand.
(b) Show the changes in the equilibrium when au-tonomous expenditure increases.
Answer:
a) Aggregate demand consists of autonomous expenditure (A), Marginal propensity to consume (c) and income (y)

A rise in autonomous expenditure will result in an upward parallel shift in AD which result in a new equilibrium E₁ here income increases from y to y₁

Question 23.
Explain the objectives of government budget.
Answer:
Budget is an annual financial statement of income

B. Answer any 1 Question from 24 to 25. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
(a) Draw Marginal Product Curve and Average product curve in a single diagram.
(b) Identify any two relationship between them.
Answer:

b) Relationship between AP and MP
1. When a AP increases, MP is greater than AP ie. MP curve is above the AP curve.
2. When AP reaches maximum AP and MP are equal.

Question 25.
Match the following:

A	B
GDPat Factor Cost	NDPFO + NFIA
NNPat Factor Cost	GDPMP – Depreciation
NDPat Market Price	GNPMP – Depreciation
NNPat Market Price	GDPMP – Net indirect Tax

Answer:

A	B
GDP at factor cost	GNPMP – Depreciation
NNP at factor cost	GDPMP – Depreciation
NDP at market price	NDPFO + NFIA
NNP at market price	GDPMP – Net indirect Tax

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each carries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 26.
(a) Complete the short-run costs table.

Output	TFC	TVC	TC	SAC	SMC
0	20	0		–	–
1	20	20
2	20	30
3	20	34
4	20	40
5	20	60
6	20	100

(b) Draw SAC and SMC curves in a single diagram,
Answer:

Output	TFC	TVC	TC	SAC	SMC
0	20	0	20	–	–
1	20	20	40	40	20
2	20	30	50	25	10
3	20	34	54	18	4
4	20	40	60	15	6
5	20	60	80	16	20
6	20	100	120	20	40

TC = TVC + TFC, SAC = \(\frac{\mathrm{TC}}{\mathrm{Q}}\)
SMC = \(\frac{\Delta T C}{\Delta Q}\)
Q → output

Question 27.
Distinguish Price Ceiling and Price Floor with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
‘Price ‘ceiling’
It is the upper limit on the price of goods and services imposed by the government to protect the interest of consumers (ie. protection from high price)

Here in the diagram P₀ is equilibrium price which is higher, P_c is the ceiling price fixed by government which is lower than P₀.

‘Price floor’
It is otherwise known as support price, it is the minimum price fixed by government to protect the interest of the producers.

Here in the diagram P0 is equilibrium price which is very low. To ensure fair price government fixes floor price above the equilibrium price (P0). It is the floor price.

Price ceiling:	Price floor:
Upper price limit imposed by government	Lower price limit imposed by „ government
It is less than equilibrium price	It is higher than equilibrium price
This will create excess demand	This will create excess supply
Imposed on necessary commodities	Generally imposed on agricultural goods

Question 28.
Differentiate the following with examples:
1. Revenue Receipts and Capital Receipts.
2. Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure.
Answer:
a) Revenue receipts:
The receipts which do not create liabilities or reduce government assets are known as revenue receipts.

1. Capital receipts:
   The receipts that create liabilities or reduce the assets of the government.

b) Revenue expenditure:
Expenditure that does not create assets or reduce liabilities is called revenue expenditure.

1. Capital expenditure:
   Expenditure which creates assets or reduces liabilities is known as capital expenditure.

Question 29.
(a) What do you mean by Exchange Rate?
(b) Briefly explain Flexible Exchange Rate and Fixed , Exchange Rate.
Answer:
a) Exchange rate: It is the rate at which one currency is exchanged for another currency.

b) Fixed exchange rate : It is otherwise known as pegged exchange rate. Here the exchange rate is fixed by government or central bank.

Flexible exchange rate:
This exchange rate is otherwise known as floating exchange rate. Here exchange rate is fixed by farces of demand and supply.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 30.
Explain the monetary policy tools of RBI to control money supply in the Indian Economy.
Answer:
Monetary policy:
It is the policy franked and implemented by the central bank, through this policy money supply is regulated according to various situations. For this central bank uses certain tools, they are given below.
1. Bank rate
2. Reserve ratios
3. Open market operations.

1. Bank rate:
It is the rate of interest paid by commercial banks on short term loans borrowed from RBI. An increase in bank rate will result in contraction of credit this would help to control inflation. On the other hand a decrease in bank rate will result in expansion of credit, this would help to overcome depression.

2. Reserve ratios:
This include CRR and SLR cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Reserve bank increases both CRR and SLR to control inflation, to control depression reserve bank reduces both CRR and SLR.

3. Open market operations.:
Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI is known as open market operations. To control inflation RBI sells securities this would reduce the volume of credit provided by commercial banks, Because commercial banks purchase the securities issued by RBI with their loanable funds. To control depression RBI , purchases securities sold earlier. So the money comes back to commercial banks, with this the credit supply increases.

Question 31.
(a) Compare Open Economy and Closed Economy.
(b) Explain the three ways in which an economy interact with rest of the world.
Answer:
Open economy
An economy which has economic relations with other countries of the world through exchanging goods and services, financial assets etc…

1. Product market linkage : Country can import and export goods. This will result in more global co-peration.
2. Financial market linkage : Through this investors can invest in domestic economy as well as in other countries.
3. Factor market linkage : This means factors can be easily transfer-from one nation to another nations. This process improved the connection of different nations.

Question 32.
Observe the following diagram:
Answer:
a) When income change from 50 to 70

When income increased from 50 to 70 the budget line shifts upward, b. When price

when price

when price of x₁ decreased, the x intercept moves forward from 5 to 10, there is no change in y intercept.

Part – V

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 35. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
a) What are the features of indifference curve?
b) Diagrammatically explain the optimal choice of the consumer.
Answer:
i) Indifference curve
It is the locus of points of combinations of two goods which give same level of satisfaction to the consumer.

Features of indifference curve.

1. Indifference curve slopes downwards from left to right.
2. Indifference curve ¡s convex to origin.
3. Higher indifference curves represent higher levels of satisfaction.
4. Indifference curves do not intersect each other

ii) Optimal choice of the consumer A consumer prefers a situation where his satisfaction is maximum. According to indifference curve approach, a consumer attains equilibrium at the point where budget line is tangent to highest possible indifference curve.

Here in the diagram point ‘E’ shows optimal choice of the consumer.

Question 34.
a) Identify the three methods of measuring National Income.
b) Explain any two methods of measuring National Income.
Answer:
Money value of all final goods and services produced by a nation during a financial year is known as national income.  Computation of national income is an important activity. To compute national income we can use three different methods they are

1. Product method or value added method
2. Expenditure method or out lay method
3. Income method

b) 1. Product method or value added method:
Here in this method national income is calculated by adding all the final goods and services produced by all production units in a nation during a financial year. But it is not so easy because the final output produced by a firm is used as input in other firms this problem is termed as double counting. To avoid this problem value added method is used to calculate final value of output. As per value added method, GDP is the sum of gross value added by all the producers in the domestic territory.

2. Income method:
Under his method GDP is calculated by adding together all the factor income received by the owners of factors of production, such as land, labour, capital and entrepreneurship. Therefore as per income method the GDP of an economy is the sum total of wages, rent, interest and gross profit.
ie.GDP = W+R+l+P

Question 35.
a) What are the features of a perfect competitive market?
b) Diagrammatically explain the profit maximisation conditions of perfect competitive firm in the short- run.
Answer:
Perfect competition:
It is a market situation where large number of buyers and sellers operate freely perfect competition is an extreme form of market which is rarely existing in the real world.

Features of perfect competition.

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Homogenous products.
3. Perfect mobility of factors of production
4. Perfect knowledge of market condition
5. Freedom of entry and exit
6. Absence of transport cost
7. Uniform price
8. Absence of selling cost
9. Firms are price takers.

Short run equilibrium Conditions of equilibrium.

1. P = MC
2. MC curve should cut MR curve from below.
3. Price should be greater than or equal to AVC

Diagrammatic representation of equilibrium

The above given diagram represents short run equilibrium under perfect competition.
Here TR = OPAQ
TC = OEBQ
Profit = TR – TC
le. OPAQ – OEBQ = EPAB

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Maximum: 60 Scores
Time: 2 Hours

Part – A
(Accounting) (40 Scores)

I. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Underfixed capital method, all adjustments relating to partners’ capital are shown in __________________
(a) Current A/c
(b) Capital A/c
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
(d) Profit & Loss A/c
Answer:
(a) Current A/c

Question 2.
Anu, Binu and Cinu are partners sharing profits in the ratio \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{2}{5}\) and \(\frac{1}{10}\). Cinu retires. The new ratio between Anu and Binus is __________________
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 5 : 4

Question 3.
The present value of a firm’s anticipated excess earnings is __________________
(a) Capital
(b) Reserve
(c) Goodwill
(d) Loss
Answer:
(a) Goodwill

Question 4.
Realisation Account is prepared at the time of __________________
(a) Dissolution of Firm
(b) Admission of a Partner
(c) Retirement of a Partner
(d) Death of a Partner
Answer:
(a) Dissolution of firm

Question 5.
The accumulated profits and reserves at the time of dissolution of a firm are transferred to __________________
(a) Realisation Account
(b) Partner’s Capital Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) Partner’s Loan Account
Answer:
(b) Partner’s Capital Account

II. Answer all questions from 6 to 7. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 6.
List out any four items appearing in the credit side of the Partners Capital Account, when capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
Items on the credit side of the Partner’s Capital Account.

• Opening balance of capital
• Interest on capital
• Partner’s salary
• Partner’s Commission
• Share of accumulated profit
• Share of profit

Question 7.
Anil, Sunil, and Manoj are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Sunil retires and Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 60,000. Pass necessary journal entry for the treatment of Goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill of the firm = 60000
Sunil’s share of goodwill = 60000 × \(\frac{2}{6}\) = 20,000
Gaining Ratio = 3 : 1
Journal Entry is:
Anil’s Capital a/c Dr 15,000
Manoj’s Capital a/c Dr 5,000
To Sunil’s Capital 20,000
(Sunil’s share of goodwill adjusted in gaining ratio 3 : 1)

III. Answer any 2 questions from 8 to 10. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 8.
Raheem and Saleem are partners in a firm. They share profits equally. Their monthly drawings are ₹ 2,500 each. Interest on drawings is charged at 12% p.a. Calculate interest on Raheem’s drawings for the year 2022, assuming that the drawings are made:
(i) in the beginning of every month
(ii) in the middle of every month and
(iii) at the end of every month
Answer:
Calculation of Interest on drawings:
Total Drawings = 2,500 × 12 = 30,000
(i) In the beginning of every month = 30,000 × \(\frac{12}{100}\) × \(\frac{6.5}{12}\) = 1950
(ii) In the middle of every month = 30,000 × \(\frac{12}{100}\) × \(\frac{6}{12}\) = 1800
(iii) At the end of every month = 30,000 × \(\frac{12}{100}\) × \(\frac{5.5}{12}\) = 1650

Question 9.
Rosy and Lilly are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 5. They admit Jhinsi as a new partner for \(\frac{1}{6}\) share which she acquired \(\frac{1}{24}\) from Rosy and \(\frac{1}{8}\) from Lilly. Calculate the New Profit Sharing Ratio of Rosy, Lilly, and Jhinsi.
Answer:
Calculation of new profit sharing ratio:
Old ratio = 7 : 5
Jhinsi’s Share= \(\frac{1}{6}\) which she acquired \(\frac{1}{24}\) from Rosy and \(\frac{1}{8}\) from Lilly.
So Rosy’s new share = Rosy’s old share – Share acquired by Jhinsi
= \(\frac{7}{12}\) – \(\frac{1}{24}\)
= \(\frac{13}{24}\)
Lilly’s new share = Lilly’s old share – Lilly’s share acquired by Jhinsi
\(\frac{5}{12}-\frac{1}{8}=\frac{10-3}{24}=\frac{7}{24}\)
Jhinsi’s share = \(\frac{1}{6}\) or \(\frac{4}{24}\)
New ratio = 13 : 7 : 4

Question 10.
Write any three differences between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Firm.
Answer:

Dissolution of Partnership	Dissolution of Firm
1. It means a change in the existing agreement between the partners.	1. It means dissolution of partnership between all the partners in the firm.
2. Assets and liabilities are revalued.	2. Assets are realised and liabilities are paid off.
3. The business of the firm is continued.	3. The business of the firm is closed down.

IV. Answer all questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
A firm’s profit during 2020, 2021, and 2022 were ₹ 18,000, ₹ 20,00,0 and ₹ 22,000 respectively. The firm has capital investment of ₹ 1,00,000. Afair rate of return on investment is 10% p.a. Calculate the value of Goodwill based on:
(a) two years’ purchase of the average profits.
(b) three years’ purchase of the super profits.
Answer:
Calculation of goodwill:
(a) Average Profit = \(\frac{18000+20000+22000}{3}\) = 20,000
Goodwill = Average profit × 2 Years Purchase of average profit
= 2 × 20000
= 40,000

(b) Super Profit = Actual or Average Profit – Normal Profit
Normal Profit = Capital Employed × Normal Rate of return
= 1,00,000 × 10%
= 10,000
Super Profit = 20,000 – 10,000 = 10,000
Goodwill = Super Profit × 3 years purchase of super profit
= 10,000 × 3
= 30,000

Question 12.
Anoop, Manoop and Sanoop are partners in a firm. Manoop retires from the firm. On his date of retirement ₹ 40,000 is due to him. Anoop and Sanoop promised to pay him in instalments every year at the end of the year. Prepare Manoop’s Loan Account when the payment is made in four yearly instalments plus interest @ 12% p.a. on the unpaid balance.
Answer:
Manoop’s Loan A/c

Note: Instalment = \(\frac{40000}{4}\) = 10,000

V. Answer all the questions from 13 to 14. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 13.
Rajan and Sajan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. Their capital balance as on 01.04.2022 was ₹ 4,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000 respectively. The partnership deed provides that Rajan is to be paid a salary of ₹ 2,000 per month and Sajan is to get a commission of ₹ 10,000 for the year. Interest on capital is to be allowed at 8% p.a. The drawings of Rajan and Sajan for the year were ₹ 30,000 and ₹ 10,000 respectively. Interest on Rajan’s drawings was ₹ 750 and on Sajan’s drawings ₹ 250. The Net Profit of the firm before making these adjustments was ₹ 1,82,000. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account.
Answer:
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

Question 14.
(a) Abu, Tara and Ravi are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 1. Ravi died on 30th June 2022. His share of profit was to be calculated based on average profits of the last three years, which were ₹ 1,56,000 for 2019, ₹ 1,85,000 for 2020 and ₹ 1,75,000 for 2021.
(1) Calculate Ravi’s share of Profit.
(2) Pass necessary journal entry for the same.
(Hint: Accounts are closed on 31st December)
(b) Mention any four accounting adjustments/aspects involved on retirement/death of a partner.
Answer:
(a) (i) Calculation of Ravi’s share of profit up to the date of his death.
Average Profit = \(\frac{1,56,000+1,85,000+1,75,000}{3}\) = 1,72,000
Ravi’s share of profit up-to the date of his death = 1,72,000 × \(\frac{1}{10}\) × \(\frac{6}{12}\) = 8,600

(ii) Profit and Loss Suspense A/c Dr. 8600
To Ravi’s Capital a/c 8600
(Ravi’s share of profit up to the date of his death brought into A/c)

(b) Accounting treatment required at the time of retirement or death of a partner is as follows:

• Calculation of new profit sharing ratio and gaining ratio.
• Treatment of goodwill
• Revaluation of assets and liabilities.
• Distribution of accumulated profit and losses.
• Calculation of profit or loss up to the date of retirement or death.
• Ascertainment of the total amount due to the retiring partners/deceased partner.
• Adjustment of the capitals of the continuing partners.

VI. Answer any one question from 15 to 16. Carries 8 scores. (1 × 8 = 8)

Question 15.
The following is the Balance Sheet of Arun and Varun sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3.
Balance Sheet as on March 31, 2022

They agreed to admit Sabu into partnership on the following terms:
(a) Sabu brings ₹ 80,000 as his capital and ₹ 40,000 as his share of goodwill.
(b) Machinery is valued at ₹ 1,50,000 and Stock at ₹ 1,00,000.
(c) A provision for bad debts is to be created @ 5% on debtors.
(d) The new profit sharing ratio is 7 : 5 : 4.
Prepare:
(i) Revaluation A/c
(ii) Partners Capital A/c and
(iii) Balance sheet of new firm
Answer:
(i) Revaluation Account

(ii) Partner’s Capital Account

(iii) Balance Sheet as on 31-03-2022

Working Note:
Calculation of Sacrificing Ratio:
Old Ratio = 5 : 3
New Ratio = 7 : 5 : 4
Sacrificing Ratio = Old Share – New Share
Arun’s sacrifice = \(\frac{5}{8}\) – \(\frac{7}{16}\) or \(\frac{10}{16}\) – \(\frac{7}{16}\) = \(\frac{3}{16}\)
Varun’s sacrifice = \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{5}{16}\) or \(\frac{6}{16}\) – \(\frac{5}{16}\) = \(\frac{1}{16}\)
Sacrificing ratio of Arun and Varun = 3 : 1
Arun’s share of goodwill = 40,000 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 30,000
Varun’s share of goodwill = 40,000 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 10,000

Question 16.
Amal and Bimal are equal partners in a firm. Their balance sheet as on 31st March 2022 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2022

The firm was dissolved on the 31st March 2022.
(i) The assets realised were:
Debtors – ₹ 8,500
Stock – ₹ 7,000
Furniture – ₹ 9,000
(ii) Creditors were paid ₹ 8,000 in full settlement.
(iii) Expenses on realisation amounted to ₹ 500.
Prepare Realisation Account, Partner’s Capital Account and Bank Account.
Answer:
Realisation Account

Partner’s Capital Account

Bank Account

Part – B
(Computerised Accounting) (20 Scores)

VII. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 17.
Alphabets or symbols used to codify a piece of information is __________________
(a) Sequential codes
(b) Block codes
(c) Mnemonic codes
(d) Numeric codes
Answer:
(c) Mnemonic codes

Question 18.
Identify the function which helps to convert a dae in the form of text to a number.
(a) DATE
(b) DAY
(c) NOW
(d) DATE VALUE
Answer:
(d) DATE VALUE

Question 19.
Net Pay = __________________
(a) Gross Pay – Total Deductions
(b) Gross Pay + Total Deductions
(c) Basic Pay + DA
(d) Basic Pay + DA + HRA
Answer:
(a) Gross Pay – Total Deductions

Question 20.
Identify the Free and Open Source Accounting Software
(a) Peachtree
(b) Tally
(c) Daceasy
(d) GNU Khata
Answer:
(d) GNU Khata

VIII. Answer the question 21 which carries 2 scores. (1 × 2 = 2)

Question 21.
Write short notes on:
(a) Tables
(b) Queries
Answer:
(a) Table – Store data in a database
(b) Queries – Retrieve from a database
Any meaningful explanation

IX. Answer all the questions from 22 to 23. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 22.
Briefly explain the following elements of a Chart/Graph.
(a) Chart Area
(b) Data Points
(c) Legend
Answer:
(a) Chart area – The entire area of a chart
(b) Data points – The individual values plotted in a chart.
(c) Legend – An identifier of a piece of information in the chart.
Any meaningful explanation.

Question 23.
Write the syntax for the following functions:
(a) SLN
(b) DB
(c) PMT
Answer:
(a) SLN- = SLN(Cost, Salvage, Life)
(b) DB- = DB (Cost, Salvage, Life, Period, Month)
(c) PMT- = PMT (Rate, Nper, PV, FV, Type)

X. Answer the question 24 which carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
Describe any four features of CAS.
Answer:
Simple and Integrated
Transparency and Control
Accuracy and Speed
Scalability
Reliability (any 4)

XI. Answer any one question from 25 to 26. Carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 25.
(a) Using the following spreadsheet function, write the result displayed in the cell.
(i) = ROUND (412.654, -1)
(ii) = ROUND UP (25.314, 0)
(iii) = ROUND DOWN (568, -2)
(b) State the reason for the errors given below:
(i) #DIV/0!
(ii) #NAME
Answer:
(a) 410
(b) 26
(c) 500
(i) Number divided by Zero
(ii) Text in formula not recognised

Question 26.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

1. All receipts of cash or cheque
2. Sales
3. Credit/Cash purchase of goods
4. F9
5. Contra

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score:

Question 1.
A good that is non-rival and non-excludable is
(a) Public goods
(b) Inferior goods
(c) Private goods
(d) Capital goods
Answer:
Public goods

Question 2.
The value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) lies between
(a) 0 and 100
(b)0and1
(c) -1 and +1
(d) 0 and infinity
Answer:
0 and 1

Question 3.
‘For whom to produce’ is the problem related to
(a) Technology of production
(b) Selection of Goods and Services
(c) Distribution of National Income
(d) Price Determination
Answer:
Distribution of National Income

Question 4.
The short run shut-down point of a firm in a perfect competitive market is:
(a) Price = Average Cost
(b) Price = Total Cost
(c) Price = Total Variable Cost
(d) Price = Average Variable Cost
Answer:
rice = Average Variable Cost

Question 5.
The institution that regulates the money supply in India:
(a) NABARD
(b) RBI
(c) WTO
(d) SEBI
Answer:
RBI

Question 6.
If consumer’s income increases, the demand for in-ferior goods
(a) Increase
(b) Constant
(c) Decrease
(d) None of these
Answer:
Decrease

Question 7.
The ratio of Nominal GDP to real GDP is
(a) Consumer Price Index
(b) Wholesale Price Index
(c) Producer Price Index
(d) GDP Deflator
Answer:
GDP Deflator

Question 8.
If export of goods is more than import of goods, then Balance of trade will be:
(a) Surplus
(b) Deficit
(c) Balance
(d) Zero
Answer:
Surplus

Question 9.
The U shape of Long run Average Cost (LRAC) curve is due to
(a) Law of Variable Proportion
(b) Law of Returns of Scale
(c) Law of Demand
(d) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
Answer:
Law of Returns of Scale

Question 10.
When output is zero,total Variable Cost (TVC) will be:
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Zero
(d) One
Answer:
Zero

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scroes.

Question 11.
What is intermediate goods? Give one example.
Answer:
It is a good which is used to produce a final good or a finished product. These goods are also known as producers good or intermediate good. Eg : Tyres

Question 12.
If the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of an economy is 25% find the value of money multiplier.
Answer:
Money multiplier = \(\frac{1}{c r r}=\frac{1}{0.25}=\underline{\underline{4}}\)

Question 13.
Write down any two features of Indifference curve.
Answer:
It is the curve representing different combinations of two commodities that give equal satisfaction to a consumer.
Features of Indifference curve
1. Negatively sloping curve
2. Convex to origin

Question 14.
The market demand curve and the market supply curve for wheat are given below: Find the equilibrium price and quantity.
Answer:
Market Equilibrium = Q_d = Q_s Q_d = 50 – 2P,
Q_s = 10 + 2P
50 – 2 P = l0 + 2P
50 – 10 = 2P + 2P
40 = 4P
p = \(\frac{40}{4}\)
so equilibrium Price = 10
To find equilibrium quantity put the value of a P in either demand equation of supply equation.
Q_d = 50 – 2P
= 50 – 2 × 10
= 50 – 20 = 30

Q_s = 10 + 2P
= 10 + 2 × 10
= 10 + 20 = 30
Here the equilibrium quantity is 30

Question 15.
Write down any two objectives of government bud-get.
Answer:
A budget is annual financial statement related to the expected revenue and expenditure of government for a financial year.
Objectives of government budget
1. To attain economic growth
2. To establish equality (through redistribution)

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 16.
Write down the three stages of returns to scale.
Answer:
Returns to scale refers to long run production func-tion. In long run all factors are variable, returns to scale explains how output changes according to the changes made in inputs. Here the output changes in three different ways they are as follows.
1. Increasing Returns of Scale (IRS)
2. Constant Returns to Scale (CRS)
3. Diminishing Returns to Scale (DRS)

1. Increasing returns of scale
   • A small increase in input results in a large increase in output.
2. Constant returns to scale
   • Here out put increases in the same proportion as in the input.
3. Diminishing returns to scale

• • Here a large increase in input results only in a small increase in outpout.

Question 17.
List out any three features of perfect competitive market.
Answer:
Features of perfect competition

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Homogenous product
3. Perfect information

Question 18.
Jomon wants to buy rice and wheat with the money income of Rs. 120. Its market Prices are Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 respectively. Find the horizontal Intercept, vertical intercept and slope of the budget line.
Answer:
Take rice as x and wheat as y
Budget line equation = 15 x + 20 y = 120
Horizontal Intercept = 15 x = 120
x = \(\frac{120}{15}\) = 8

Vertical Intercept = 20 y = 120
y = \(\frac{120}{20}\) = 6
Slope = \(-\frac{P x}{P y}=\frac{15}{20}\) = 0.75

Question 19.
Write down the three limitations of Gross Domestic product (GDP) as an indicator of welfare, List out the three ways in which an economy makes economic relations with other economies.
Answer:
We cannot consider GDP as a good indicator of welfare due to following reasons.
1. Inequality in distribution of income:
Even if GDP of a nation is very high we can see people with low income there, so we cannot consider an increase in GDP would promote welfare of a nation.

2. GDP and non monetary exchanges:
Many of the non monetary transactions are not included in GDP: Eg: Service of housewife, Exchange of goods under barter system.

3. GDP and harmful goods:
The value of GDP increases when production increases, it includes the value of harmful prod-ucts.

Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 4 scores.

Question 20.
List out the three ways in which an economy makes economic relations with other economies.
Answer:
One nation can keep economic relationship with other nation in the following ways
(1) Product Market linkage
(2) Financial market linkage
(3) Factor Market linkage

Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 4 scores.

Question 21.
Explain the circular flow of income in a two-sector economy with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

• Here households provide factors of production to the firms for this firms provide factor payment.
• Firms provide goods and services required to the household and households give payment as price.

Question 22.
Write a short note on the emergence of macro eco-nomics.
Answer:
Macro economics has emerged as a new branch of economics after global economic crisis of 1928. It was the work done by J.M. Keynes acted as a cata-lyst for the growth of Macro economics. J.M. Keynes criticised classical economists for their unrealistic assumptions related to working of economic factors.

The views of classical economists were wrong and misleading and they failed to solve economic crisis. During this time Keynes published his famous book “General Theory of Employment Interest and Money” in 1936, which acted as a guide to solve the global economic crisis. Later the views of Keynes popularly known as Macro economics.

Question 23.
Write a short note on flexible exchange rate with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Under flexible exchange rate system exchange rate is determined according to changes in demand and supply of foreign exchange.

The above given diagram explains how exchange rate is determined under flexible exchange rate system. D is initial demand curve where ‘e’ is exchange rate when demand increased from D to D₁ as a result exchange rate changed from ‘e’ to e₁.

Question 24.
Explain price ceiling with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Government Intervention in market against increas-ing price levels of essential commodities by fixing alower price than equilibrium price is known as price ceiling.

‘E’ is the equilibrium in the above given diagram where ‘e_p’ is equilibrium price. When government felt ‘e_p’ is very high and unaffordable for the poor, fixed a new price ‘C_p’ which is ceiling price and lower than ‘e_p’. Through this government protects common people from the adversities of price increase.

Question 25.
Difference between market economy andCentrally planned economy.
Answer:

• We can classify the entire economies in the world into three based on the differences in organization of economic activities, they are
  1. Market economy (Capitalist Economy)
  2. Centrally planned economy (Socialist Economy)
  3. Mixed Economy
• Market Economy (Capitalist Economy)
  1. Means of production are under the ownership of private individuals.
  2. Central economic problems are solved by mar-ket mechanism.
  3. Private property and transfer of wealth to legal heir, e. Profit is the ultimate aim.
  4. Less Government control over economic activities.
• Centrally planned economy (Socialist Economy)
  1.  All means of productions are under Government Ownership and control.
  2. Central economic problems are solved by Gov-ernment through planning.
  3. No private property, all wealths are controlled by government, so there you can see public property.
  4. Maximization of public welfare is the ultimate aim of Socialist Economy.
  5. All economic activities are controlled by government.

Question 26.
Explain the optimal choice of a counsumer (consumer’s equilibrium) with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Optimal choice of consumer or consumer equilib-rium can be defined as the position of maximum satisfaction attained by a consumer. According to indifference curve approach a consumer attains equilibrium at the point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. It can be expressed with the help of a diagram.

The above given diagram shows consumer equilibrium. HereAB is budget line of consumer and IC₁, IC₂ and Ic₃ are different indifference curves. Point ‘E’ is the region where highest possible indifference curve (Ic₂) tangents with budget line so that particular point (E) is called consumer equilibrium.

Question 27.
Complete the following flow chart:

Answer:

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 28.
Explain the short run equilibrium conditions for profit maximization of firms under perfect competitive mar-ket with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Perfect competition is a market situation where large number of buyers and sellers dealing with homogenous product.
Features of perfect competition:

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Homogenous product
3. Perfect information,
4. Uniform price
5. Freedom of entry and exit

Profit maximisation condition of a firm in short run under Derfect corn Detition.
Three Conditions
1. P= Mc
2. MC should cut MR from below
3. Price should be greater than or equal to AVC Here the above mentioned three conditions follows
le. (1)P = MC
(2) MC cuts MR from below
(3) p ≥ AVC

Question 29.
(a) What do you mean by the price elasticity of demand?
(b) The price of potato falls from Rs. 100 to Rs. 75. As a result of which demand rises from 10 kg to 15 kg. Calculate the price elasticity of demand.
(c) Based on the above information, comment on the nature of the elasticity of demand.
Answer:
Deg ree of responsiveness of quantity demanded of a commodity towards the changes in its price is technically known as price elasticity of demand.
ed = \(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{Q}}{\Delta \mathrm{P}} \cdot \frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{Q}}\)
a) ∆Q = Change in quantity demanded
∆P = Change in price
p = Original Price (Early Price)
Q = Original quantitydemanded (Early demand)

Here
∆Q = 5 (le. 15-10)
∆P = 25 (le. 100-75)
P = 100
Q = 10
Put the above values in to the equation
ie.ed = \(\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta P} \cdot \frac{P}{Q}=\frac{5}{25} \cdot \frac{100}{10}\) = 2
ed = 2
b) Based on the answer obtained we can say that elasticity of demand is highly positive and elastic.

Question 30.
(a) Differentiate between Marignal Propensity to Consume (MPC) and Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS)
(b) In a two sector economy, Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.6. Find the investment mul-tiplier.
Answer:
a) Marginal propensity to consume is a concept that explains the impact of change in income on consumption.
MPC = \(\frac{change in consumption }{\mathrm{change in income}}\)
= \(\frac{\Delta C}{\Delta Y}\)
Marginal propensity to save explains the impact of change in income on savings
MPS = \(\frac{change in savings }{\mathrm{change in income}}\)
MPS = \(\frac{\Delta S}{\Delta Y}\)

b) Investment Multiplier = \(\frac{1}{\text { MPS }}\)
As know MPS + MPC = 1
so MPS =1- MPC
MPS = 1- 0.6
= 0.4
Investment multiple = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{MPS}}=\frac{1}{0.4}\) = 2.5

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
Explain the three methods of measuring GDP.
Answer:
Money value of all final goods and services produced in a nation during a financial year is known as GDP. Calculation of GDP is an important activity in any economy. GDP Can be calculated in 3 different ways, they are:

1. Product method or value added method
2. Income method
3. Expenditure method

Product Method:
Here the GDP is calculated through adding the val-ues of all final goods and services produced by a nation during a financial year. This method is other-wise known as value added method.

Income Method:
Under this method GDP is calculated through the summation of all factor incomes earned during a financial year. Factor incomes means rent, wage, interest and profit

Expenditure Method:
Here the GDP is calculated through adding all types of expenditure madefy the nation during a financial year, expenditures made by public and private are included here.

Question 32.
Describe the monetary policy instruments of RBI.
Answer:
The Policy implemented by central bank to stabilize the economy through controlling supply of money is known as monetary policy. In india the above mentioned duty is performed by RBI. RBI controls supply of money through two methods they are:
1. Quantitative credit control methods
2. Qualitative credit control methods

• Quantitative credit control methods
  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Change in cash reserves ratios
  4. Repo Rate and Reverse repo rate
  5. Statutory liquidity ratio.
• Qualitative credit control methods
  1. Marginal requirements
  2. Regulation of consumer credit
  3. Credit rationing
  4. Moral suasion
  5. Direct action.
• Explain the following method
  1. Bank rate
  2. Reserve ratios,
  3. Open market operations

Question 33.
(a) Calculate Total Variable Cost (WC), Average Cost (AC), Average Fixed Cost (A FC), Average Vari able Cost (AVC) and Short run Marginal Cost (SMC):

Output	TFC	TVC	FC	AC	AFC	AVC	SMC
0	70		70
1	70		100
3	70		115
4	70		125
5	70		145
6	70		180
7	70		250

(b) Draw Total Cost (TC), Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC) in a single diagram by using the above data.
Answer:

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

PART – I

A. Answer any five questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Keyword used to create structure is ___________ .
Answer:
struct

Question 2.
Write the Syntax to declare a pointer variable.
Answer:
Data_type *variable_name;

Question 3.
Object of the class is called ___________ .
Answer:
instance

Question 4.
Define ‘Data Structure’.
Answer:
It is a specialised format for organising .processing, retrieving and storing data

Question 5.
The tag used to create a hyperlink is ___________ .
Answer:
<a> tag

Question 6.
Write an attribute of <OL>tag.
Answer:
type or start

Question 7.
Keyword used to create variable in Java Script is ___________ .
Answer:
var

Question 8.
Which operator is used to add two strings in Java Script?
Answer:
+

Question 9.
In PHP, Variable name starts with ___________ Sign.
Answer:
$ symbol

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13 each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
Write the full form of CMS.
Answer:
Content Management System

Question 11.
A candidate key that is not the primary key is called ___________ .
Answer:
Alternate key

Question 12.
Data about data is called ___________ .
Answer:
Meta data

Question 13.
Write the name of the function used in PHP to display both data type and value of variables.
Answer:
var_dump()

PART – II

A. Answer any two questions from 14 to 17 each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
What is polymorphism? What are the two types of polymorphism in OOP?
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. Two types of polymorphism are compile time polymorphism and run time polymorphism.

Question 15.
What is “queue” in data structure?
Answer:
Queue is a linear data structure, its working principle is FIFO (First-In-First-Out) manner.

Question 16.
Write the name of Java Script functions to perform the following:
(a) To display a message “Computer Science”.
(b) To print the length of the string “Hello”.
Answer:
a. alert(“Computer Science”);
b. alert(“Hello”.length);

Question 17.
Write any two advantages of Parallel Computing.
Answer:
A problem is divided into smaller ones that can be solved simultaneously. More than one instruction is
executed on multiple processors at any moment of time.

B. Answer any two questions from 18 20 each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
What is dynamic array? Write the syntax.
Answer:
An array created during run time by using the operator new is known as dynamic array.
Its syntax is
Pointer = new data_type [ size];

Question 19.
What is Programming Paradigm? Write the name of any two programming paradigms.
Answer:
A programming paradigm is the way in which a program is organized. Two types of programming paradigms are procedure oriented paradigm and object-oriented paradigm.

Question 20.
Define Linked List. Write any two operations on Linked List.
Answer:
Linked list is a dynamic data structure containing a collection of nodes, where each node consists of a data and a link to the next node. Traversing, deletion, insertion etc. are operations on linked list.

PART – III

A. Answer any three questions from 21 to 24 each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
What is Stack? Write algorithm to perform PUSH operation on stack.
Answer:
Stack is a linear data structure working on the principle of
LIFO (Last-In-First-Out).
Algorithm for PUSH operation is
Start
If (top < N – 1) Then
top = top + 1
STACK [top] = item
Else
Print “Stack Overflow”
End of If
Stop

Question 22.
Differentiate static and dynamic webpage.
Answer:

Static web page	Dynamic web page
• Contents and layout is fixed	• Contents and layout may change during run time
• Never use databases	• Database is used
• Server side application does not require	• Runs Server side application
• Easy to develop	• Programming skills is needed

Question 23.
Briefly explain the different types of Webhosting.
Answer:
Types of web hosting : Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the web hosting services according to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1) Shared Hosting : This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory , disk space and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.
Eg: Shared hosting is verisimilar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, play ground, etc) with every one.

2) Dedicated Hosting : A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors. Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.
Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

3) Virtual Private Server (VPS): A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS. This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo

Question 24.
Write the name of different cloud service models.
Answer:
Software as a Service, Platform as a Service, Infrastructure as a Service (SaaS, PaaS, IaaS)

B. Answer any two questions from 25 to 27 each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
What are the different ways to add JavaScript to a Webpage?
Answer:
(a) Inside <BODY>

(b) Inside <HEAD>

(c) External JavaScript file:- The extension .js is used Settle extension for the script file. The src attribute of the <SCRIPT> tag is set as the external JavaScript file name.

Question 26.
Write any three aggregate functions in SQL.
Answer:
SUM (), AVG(), MIN (), MAX () and COUNT () are aggregate functions.

Question 27.
Write any three advantages of e-learning, e-learning
Answer:

• Offers variety of courses from different institutions in the world
• Cost is very less
• Time and place is not an issue in e-Learning
• No need to travel which saves time and cost

PART – IV

A. Answer any three questions from 28 to 31 each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
What are the two methods of memory allocation in C++? Write operators with its use.
Answer:
Static memory allocation and dynamic memory allocation are the two methods of memory allocations in C++, new operator is used for dynamic memory allocation, delete operator is used for releasing the allocated memory.

Question 29.
Define column constraints in SQL. Explain any three column constraints.
Answer:
It ensures the correct data is entered into the database.
(a) NOT NULL :- This specifies that a column can never have NULL values.
(a) AUTO_INCREMENT:- MySQL will assign serial numbers automatically for a column with this constraint.
(b) UNIQUE: – If a column is set with this constraint, then no two rows will have the same value.

Question 30.
Briefly explain any four data types in PHP.
Answer:
(a) Integers: – This include whole numbers. E.g. -45, 129 etc.
(b) Float/Double: – This include fractional numbers. Eg. 3.14
(c) String: – This is used to store text or string data . Eg.”Covid 19″
(d) Boolean: – This can hold two values such as true or false.

Question 31.
Briefly explain any four cyber crimes against individuals.
Answer:

1. Identity theft: – This occurs when someone uses another person’s identifying information like name, debit or credit card details , account number, passwords etc. without their permission.
2. Harassment: – Posting humiliating comments focusing on gender, race, religion and nationality at specific individuals in social media, e-mail etc. is called harassment.
3. Impersonation: – Impersonation is an act of pretending to be another person for the purpose of harming him/her.
4. Violation of privacy: – Posting or sharing images and videos in social media without their permission is violation of privacy

B. Answer any one question from 32 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
(a) Write any two client side scripting languages.
(b) Write any two attributes of <FRAMESET> tag.
Answer:
(a) Write any two client side scripting languages. A: JavaScript, VB Script
(b) Write any two attributes of <FRAME6ET> tag. A: Cols , Rows

Question 33.
Write any four applications of Computational Intelli-gence.
Answer:

1. Biometrics
2. Robotics
3. Computer Vision
4. Natural Language Processing
5. Automatic Speech Recognition. Etc.

PART – V

Answer any two questions from 34 to 36. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
(a) Explain four text formatting tags with its use.(2)
(b) Explain any two attributes of <BODY> tag. (2)
(c) Write HTML code to display the text H₂SO₄.(2)
Answer:
(a) Explain four text formatting tags with its use.
A: <B> for bold text, <I> for italics , <U> for underline, <S>for strike through.
(b) Explain any two attributes of <BODY> tag.
A: Background – To add a picture, Bgcolor – To change background color.
(c) Write HTML code to display the text H2S04 A: H₂SO₄

Question 35.
(a) Write HTML code to display the following list:

(b) Write HTML code to display the following table:

No. of Students
Science	56
Commerce	58

(c) Write any two attributes of <INPUT>tag. (2)
Answer:
(a) <h₁ align= “left”> INPUT DEVICES</h₁;
<OL>
<LI>MOUSE</LI>
<LI>KEYBOARD<aLI>
<LI>SCANNER</LI>
</OL>

(b) <TABLE Border= “2”>
<TR><th Colspan= “2”>No. of students</th></TR>
<TR><th>Science</th><td>56</td></TR>
<TR><th>Commerce</th><td>58</td></TR>
</TABLE>

(c) Type, Name, Value, Size etc.

Question 36.
Explain the advantages of DBMS.
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS

1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.
2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.
3. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.
4. Standards can be enforced – The data in the database follows some standards. Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.
5. Security restrictions can be applied – The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.
6. Integrity can be maintained – It ensures that the data is to be entered in the databse Is correct.
7. Efficient data access – It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.
8. Crash recovery – Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

 

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Part – I

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Elements inside a structure is accessed by ___________ operator.
Answer:
dot operator(.)

Question 2.
___________ is the data structure that follows FIFO principle.
Answer:
Queue

Question 3.
The type of tag that requires only a starting tag but not an ending tag is called ___________ .
Answer:
Empty tag

Question 4.
___________ is used to store the IP address of a Webserver connected to a domain name.
Answer:
Domain Name System Server

Question 5.
The description Or structure of a database is called ___________ .
Answer:
Database Schema KITE Victers

Question 6.
Name the educational channel of Kerala Government,
Answer:
KITE Victers

Part – II

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Write any 2 differences between Array and a Structure.
Answer:

Structures	Array
• It is a user defined data type.	• Predefined data type.
• It is a collection of different types of logically related data under one name.	• Collection of data elements of same data type having a common name.
• Elements         referenced using dot operator (.).	• Elements references using its subscripts (position value).
• When an element of a structure becomes another structure nested structure and complex structures are formed.	• When an element of another becomes another array, multidimensional arrays are formed.
• Structures contains array as its elements.	• Array of structure can be formed.

Question 8.
Match the following:

A	B
(1) Stack	(a) Rear
(2) Queue	(b) POP
(3) Array	(c) Link
(4) Linked list	(d) Subscript

Answer:

A	B
(1) Stack	(b) POP
(2) Queue	(a) Rear
(3) Array	(d) Subscript
(4) Linked list	(c) Link

Question 9.
Write an algorithm to add a new element in a stack.
Answer:
It is the process of inserting(adding) a new data item into the stack. If the stack is full and we try to add a new item into the stack makes the stack over flow. Algorithm is given below

Step 1 : If top = N. Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
Step 2 : Settop=top+1
Step 3 : Set Stack[top]= item
Step 4 : stop

Question 10.
Explain any two methods of implementing CSS in a webpage.
Answer:
Inline – By using style attribute inside HTML elements Internal – By using <style> element in the <head> section

Question 11.
Name any two attributes of FORM tag.
Answer:
Name/Action/ Method/ Target

Question 12.
Explain any two data types in JavaScript.
Answer:
Unlike C++ it uses only three basic data types

1. Number: Any number(whole or fractional) with or without sign.
   Eg: +1977,-38.0003,-100, 3.1415, etc.
2. String: It is a combination of characters enclosed within double quotes.
   Eg: “BVM”, “jobi_cg@rediffmail.com”, etc
3. Boolean : We can store either true or false.It is case sensitive. That means can’t use TRUE OR FALSE

Question 13.
Distinguish between shared hosting and dedicated hosting.
Answer:

Shared hosting	Dedicated hosting
Multiple sites on a single server	Only one site on the Server
It is cheaper	Increment Very expensive
More traffic hence slower	Its faster

Question 14.
Expand the following Terms:
(a) VPS
(b) SFTP
Answer:
a) VPS – Virtual Private Server
b) SFTP – Secure File Transfer Protocol

Question 15.
Name any 4 column constraints in SQL.
Answer:
Aut_increment, not null, unique, primary key.

Question 16.
What are the rules for naming variables
Answer:
Rules for naming tables and columns

• The name may contain alphabets(A – Z, a – z), digits(0 – 9), under score(_) and dollar ($) symbol
• The name must contain at least one character.
• Special characters cannot be used except_ and $
• Cannot be a keyword
• The name must be unique.

Question 17.
Write any 2 differences between parallel computing and serial computing .
Answer:

Serial computing	Parallel computing
• A single processor is used.	• Multiple processors are used with shared memory
• A problem is divided into a series of instructions	• A problem is divided into smaller ones that can be solved simultaneously
• Instructions executed sequentially	• Instructions      executed simultaneously
• One instruction is executed on a single processor at any moment.	• More than one instruction is executed on multiple processors at any moment of time.

Question 18.
Explain the following terms in connection with Cloud Service Models.
(a) SaaS
(b) IaaS
Answer:
a) SaaS (Software as a service)
Eg. Google Docs

b) IaaS(Infrastructure as a service)
Eg. Amazon Web Services, IBM cloud, Etc.

Part – III

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 29. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
What is Dynamic Memory Allocation? State the name and use of two dynamic operators.
Answer:
In dynamic memory allocation, the amount of memory to be allocated is not known in advance. It is allocated during run time as and when required using new operator. The delete operator is used to de-allocate the memory.

Question 20.
What is Inheritance? Explain any two types of Inheritance.
Answer:
Parent-child relationship is the best example of inheritance. Child derives properties of parents. C++ supports inheritance.

It is the capability of one class to inherit properties from another class. In other words, inheritance is the process of creating new classes called derived classes, from existing base classes. The derived class inherits all the properties of base class but can add features of its own. The base class is unchanged by this process.

Question 21.
Write html code to display the following in a web page:
(a) A₂B³
(b) X > Y
(c) X & Y
Answer:
a) A₂B³
b) X &gt; Y
c) X &amp; Y

Question 22.
Explain any 3 attributes of <BODY> Tag.
Answer:
Attri butes of body tag are:

1. BGCOLOR-Specifies background color for the document Body
   Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR= “RED”>
2. BACKGROUND -Sets the image as background for the document body
   Eg. <BODY BACKGROUNG= “C:\result.jpg”>
3. TEXT-Specifies the color of the text content of the page
   Eg. <BODY TEXT = “Red”>
4. LINK- Specifies colour of the hyperlinks that are not visited by the user
5. ALINK-Specifies the colour of hyperlinks
6. VLINK-Specifies the color of hyperlinks which are already visited by the viewer.
   Eg. <BODYALINK= “Cyan” LINK=” Magenta” VLINK= “Orange”>
7. Leftmargin and Right margin-Sets margin from left and top of the document window.

Question 23.
Write a short note on Heading Tags in HTML.
Answer:
There are 6 heading tags in Html. They are <h1> to w<h6>. From this <h1> gives largest heading while <h1> gives smallest one.

Question 24.
List and Explain any 3 Mouse Events in JavaScript.
Answer:
Different mouse events and their description is given below

Event	Description
onClick	It occurs when the user clicks on an object by using mouse
onMouseEnter	It occurs when the mouse pointer is moved onto an object
onMouseLeave	It occurs when the mouse pointer is moved out of an object
onKeyDown	It occurs when the user presses a key on the keyboard
on.KeyUp	It occurs when the user releases a key on the keyboard

Question 25.
List and Explain any 3 Built-in functions in JavaScript.
Answer:
BUILT IN FUNCTIONS (methods)
1) alert() : This is used to display a message (dialogue box) on the screen.
eg: alert(“Welcome to JS”);

2) isNaN() : To check whether the given value is a number or not. It returns a Boolean value. If the value is not a numberfNaN) then this function returns a true value otherwise it returns a false value.
EgA.

1. isNaN(“BVM”); returns true
2. isNaN(8172); returns false .
3. isNaN(“680121”) ; returns false
4. alert(isNaN(8172); displays a message box as false
5. toUpperCaseO : This is used to convert the text to upper case.
   Eg: varx=”bvm”; alert(x.toUpperCase());

Question 26.
List and explain any 3 database users in DBMS.
Answer:
Users of Database
a) Database Administrator – It is a person who has a central control over the DBMS.

b) Application Programmer – These are computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through programs.

c) Naive users – He is an end user. He does not know the details of DBMS.

Question 27.
List and explain the 3 components of SQL?
Answer:
Components of SQL are DDL, DML and DCL.

• DDL(Data Definition Language) commands (3-CAD)
  Create, Alter and Drop
• DML( Data Manipulation Language) Commands (4-SUDI)
  Select, Update, DeIee and Insert.
• DCL(Data Control Language) Commands(2-GR)

Question 28.
Explain the following terms in connection with the e-Governance infrastructure.
(a) SDC
(b) KSWAN
(c) CSC
Answer:
a) State Data Centre(SDC): It is used for providing e Governance to Government agencies(G2G), Citizens(G2C), Business persons(G2B) by National e Governance Plan(NeGP).

b) Kerala State Wide Area Network (KSWAN): It is envisaged to be the core common network infrastructure for e-Governance and the State Information Infrastructure(SII), connecting Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi and Calicut. It acts as backbone of SII.

c) Common Service Centre(CSC): These are the web enabled points of the government, private and social sector services. They provide services such as Agriculture, Health, Banking, Educational, Entertainment, Commercial, Transport services for the rural citizens of India. In Kerala Akshaya centers are working as CSC.

Question 29.
What is the difference between echo and print in PHP?
Answer:
The difference between echo and print

Echo	Print
Take more than one parameter	Only one parameter
Does not return any value	Returns TRUE or 1 on successful print and False otherwise
Faster	slower

Part – IV

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 30.
(a) What do you mean by an attribute of a Tag in HTML? (1)
(b) Explain any 4 attributes of <MARQUEE> Tag. (4)
Answer:
a) Attributes provide additional information to the tags. It makes the tags more meaningful.

b) Attributes of <MARQUEE>

• Height – Sets the height of the Marquee text
• Width – Sets the width of the Marquee text
• Direction – Specifies the scrolling direction of the text such as up, down, left or right
• Behavior – Specifies the type such as Scroll, Slide(Scroll and stop)and altemate(to and fro). <marquee behavior=”scroll” scrollamount =”100″> hello</marquee>
  <marquee behavior-‘slide” scrollamount= “100”> hello</marquee>
  <marquee behavior-‘alternate” scroll amount = “100”>hello</marquee>
• Scrolldelay – Specifies the time delay in seconds between each jump.
• scrollamount – Specifies the speed of the text
• loop – This specifies the number of times the marquee scroll. Default infinite.
• bgcolor – Specifies the back ground colour.
• Hspace – Specifies horizontal space around the marquee
• Vspace – Specifies vertical space around the marquee

Question 31.
Define the following operations in RDBMS with example:
(a) Union Operation (2)
(b) Set Difference Operation (2)
(c) Select Operation (1)
Answer:
(a) UNION operation
This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by U. duplicate tuples are eliminated. Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order. e.g. SCIENCE U COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

(b) SET DIFFERENCE Operation
It is a binary operation. It returns a relation containing the tuples appearing in first relation but not in the second relation. It is denoted by -(Minus). The two relations must be union compatible.“Eg. SCIENCE – COMMERCE gives all the tuples in SCIENCE that are not in the COMMERCE

(c) SELECT operation
SELECT operation is used to select tuples in a relation that satisfy a selection condition. Greek letter a σ (sigma) is used to denote the operation. Syntax,
σ_condition(relation)
eg- σ_{salary < 10000} (EMPLOYEE)-selects tuple whose salary is less than 10000 from EMPLOYEE relation.

Question 32.
(a) Explain the term e-Governance. (1)
(b) Describe the different interactions in e-Govemance. (4)
Answer:
(a) e-Governance: It facilitates interaction between different stakeholders in governance.

(b) G2G (Government to Government): It is the sharing data electronically among government departments or agencies.

G2C (Government to Citizens): The citizen utilizes government services electronically. It increases availability and accessibility of public services in a transparent manner.

G2B (Government to Business): The government interacts with business community through electronic modes. G2B reduces red-tapism, save time, reduce cost and ensure transparency.

G2E (Government to Employees): The government interacts with employees using e- Governance services, which result in fast and efficient communication between government and employees.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum: 60 Scores

Questions from 1-7 carry one score each, answer all the questions. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Which of the following is an example of an ideal solution?
(a) Phenol + Aniline
(b) Ethanol + Acetone
(c) Acetone + Chloroform
(d) Benzene + Toluene
Answer:
(d) Benzene + Toluene

Question 2.
Identify the ore of zinc from the following:
(a) Siderite
(b) Malachite
(c) Haematite
(d) Calamine
Answer:
(d) Calamine

Question 3.
Write the ‘Spin-only’ formula used to calculate the magnetic moment.
Answer:
\(\mu=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
n = no. of unpaired electrons.

Question 4.
Give one example for a hexadentate ligand.
Answer:
EDTA

Question 5.
What is the chemical name of aspirin?
Answer:
Acetyl Salicylic Acid

Question 6.
Which synthetic zeolite is used for converting alcohol to gasoline?
Answer:
ZSM-5

Question 7.
What are the main constituents of Dettol?
Answer:
Chloroxylenol and Terpinol

Questions 8-20 carry two points each. Answer any ten questions. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 8.
Write any two differences between crystalline and amorphous solids.
Answer:

Cystalline Substances	Amorphous Substances
1. Definite shape.	1. Irregular shape.
2. Sharp melting point.	2. Melting point is in a range.
3. Long range order.	3. Short range order.
4. Anisotropic.	4. Isotropic.

Question 9.
A compound with cubic structure is made of elements X and Y. X atoms are at the corners of the cube and Y atoms are at the body centre. Write the simplest formula of the compound.
Answer:
No. of X atoms (corners) = \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 1
No. of Y atoms (body centre) = 1
X : Y = 1 : 1 i.e. XY

Question 10.
When a zinc electrode (Zn (s)/Zn²⁺ (1m)) combines with SHE at 298 K and forms a galvanic cell. \(E_{\text {cell }}^0\) is found to be, 0.76 V. Write cell representation of the cell and calculate the standard electrode potential of the zinc electrode.
Answer:
When combined with SHE, the zinc electrode acts as an oxidation half cell (anode), while SHE acts as a reduction half cell or cathode.
\(E_{\text {cell }}^0\) = 0 – 0.76 = -0.76V

Question 11.
How many coulombs of electricity are required to produce 40 g of Al from Al3+ solution?
Answer:
Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al
3 Faraday is needed to deposit 27g aluminum.
3F → 27 g Al
\(\frac{3F}{27}\) → 1 g Al
\(\frac{3F}{27}\) × 40 → 40 g Al
(\(\frac{3}{27}\) × 40) Faraday → 40 g Al
4.44 F → 40 g Al

Question 12.
What is chemical kinetics? Give any importance to it?
Answer:
Chemical kinetics is the branch of chemistry that deals with the rate of chemical reaction, factors affecting the rate, and the mechanism of a reaction.
Applications:

• To find how fast a medicine works.
• Speed of a reaction.
• Formation of ozone layer.

Question 13.
Explain homogeneous catalysis with one example.
Answer:
The catalysis in which both the reactants and the catalyst are in the same phase is called homogeneous catalysis.

Question 14.
Explain Mond Process.
Answer:
Mond Process: In this process, nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide forming a volatile complex, nickel tetracarbonyl.
It is then decomposed to Ni and CO by heating at very high temperature.

Question 15.
PH₃ has a lower boiling point than NH₃, why?
Answer:
Due to the presence of strong hydrogen bonds, NH₃ has a high boiling point. But in PH₃ no hydrogen bond is present so its boiling point is low.

Question 16.
Silver atom has filled ‘d’ orbitals (4d¹⁰) in its ground state. Why is it considered a transition metal?
Answer:
Because its +1 and +2 oxidation state has incomplete d subshell. So it is a transition element.

Question 17.
Actinoid contraction is greater than Lanthanoid contraction. Account for it?
Answer:
The 5f electrons of actinoids are more effectively shielded from nuclear Charge than the 4f in lanthanoids.

Question 18.
Draw the cis and trans isomers of [CoCl₂(en₂]⁺?
Answer:

Question 19.
What is ‘DIBAL-H’? Give the importance of it?
Answer:
Diisobutylaluminium hydride (DIBAL – H) is a reducing agent.
Use: It can selectively reduce CN group or ester group without affecting double or triple bond.

Question 20.
Write the correct order of basic character of the following amines is (a) Gas phase and (b) in aqueous solution.
Answer:
In gas phase basicity is in the order 3° > 2° > 1°
(CH₃)₃N > (CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂
In aqueous solution basicity is in the order 2° > 1 ° > 3°
(CH₃)₂NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃N

Questions from 21-29 carry three points each. Answer any seven questions. (7 × 3 = 21)

Question 21.
Write any three applications of Henry’s law.
Answer:

• Formation of bends as the scuba divers reach the Surface of the sea.
• Anoxia: At high altitudes, the amount of oxygen in the air is low, which creates a headache and is known as Anoxia.
• To increase the solubility of CO₂ in water, soda water is kept under high pressure in sealed vessels.

Question 22.
Activity and selectivity are the two important terms used in catalysis. Explain these terms with suitable examples.
Answer:
Activity: Catalyst can increase the rate of a chemical reaction.

The reaction takes place only in the presence of platinum.
Selectivity: A catalyst can direct a chemical reaction to a particular product.

Question 23.
(a) Write the formula for the following coordination compounds.
(i) Tetra ammine aquachlorido cobalt (III) chloride
(ii) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
(b) Write the IUPAC names of the given coordination compound K[Co(SCN)₄]
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂
(b) K₂[Zn(OH)₄]
(c) Potassium Thiocyantatocobaltate (II)

Question 24.
Explain the S_N1 mechanism with a suitable example.
Answer:
Step I: Formation of a carbocation

Step II: Attack of a nucleophile

Question 25.
Complete the following.

Answer:

Question 26.
Write any three methods for the preparation of ethanamine (C₂H₅-NH₂).
Answer:
1. Reduction of nitriles

2. Reduction of Amides

3. Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
CH₃CH₂CONH₂ + Br₂ + NaOH → CH₃CH₂NH₂ + Na₂CO₃ + 2H₂O + 2NaBr

Question 27.
Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Answer:

DNA	RNA
Double stranded.	Single stranded.
Nucleic acid present is deoxyribose.	Nucleic acid present is deoxyribose.
Bases present are adenine, Thymine, cytosine, guanine.	Bases present are Adenine, Uracil Cytosine and guanine.

Question 28.
(a) Name two synthetic polypeptide fibres.
(b) Indicate the monomers in each.
Answer:
(a) Nylon 6,6 – monomers – hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
(b) Nylon 6 – caprolactum

Question 29.
Explain the therapeutic action of the following:
(a) Antacids
(b) Analgesics
(c) Antibiotics
Answer:
(a) Antacid: Used to reduce acidity in the stomach.
(b) Analgesic: to reduce pain or painkillers.
(c) Antibiotics: are drugs which kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms which are prepared from other microorganisms.

Questions 30-33 carry fourscore each. Answer any three questions. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 30.
(a) Explain pseudo first order reaction with an example.
(b) A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10^-3 S^-1. How long will 5g of this reactant take to reduce to 3g?
Answer:
(a) Reactions which appear to be higher order but follow first order kinetics are called pseudo first order reactions.
eg: CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O → CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH

Question 31.
(a) Why does ozone act as a powerful oxidising agent?
(b) How is O₃ estimated quantitatively?
Answer:
(a) Because ozone on decomposition gives nascent oxygen, which is a powerful oxidizing agent.
O₃ → O₂ + [O]
(b) When ozone and potassium iodide react, iodine is liberated. Now this iodide is titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate using starch as indicator.
2I + H₂O + O₃ → 2OH + I₂ + O₂
2Na₂S₂O₃ + I₂ → Na₂S₄O₆ + 2NaCl

Question 32.
(a) Explain the reason for the less reactivity of chlorobenzene than alkyl chloride?
(b) Identify the major product formed by the reaction of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH. Give reason for it.
Answer:
(a) 1. Due to resonance effect, chlorobenzene develops a partial double bond character to the C-Cl bond which is difficult to break.
2. Instability of phenyl cation
3. Greater S character in sp² hybridised c-atom, which is more electronegative. Thus the bond in chlorobenzene becomes shorter and difficult to break.
4. Electron rich benzene ring

According to Saytzeft rule, more symmetric products are favoured.

Question 33.
Explain the following reactions.
(a) Aldol condensation
(b) HVZ reaction
Answer:
(a) Aldehydes or ketones with α hydrogen atom undergo condensation in the presence of dil. alkali to form aldols. (β hydroxy aldehyde). This reaction is known as aldol condensation.

(b) HVZ Reaction
Carboxylic acid with α hydrogen is heated with chlorine or bromine in the presence of red phosphorous to give α halo carboxylic acid.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf SAY 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper SAY 2019

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Which among the following is an object – oriented programming language?
a) Pascal
b) FORTRAN
c) C++
d) C
Answer:
c) C++

Question 2.
Which among the following is known as push operation?
a) Inserting a new data item into a stack.
b) Deleting an element from top of a sack.
c) Inserting an element in a queue.
d) Inserting an element in a linked list.
Answer:
a) lnserting a new data item to the stack

Question 3.
Which among the following does not belong to the group?
a) Drupal
b) Joomla
c) File Zilla
d) WordPress
Answer:
c) File Zilla

Question 4.
Write full form of SMTP.
Answer:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Question 5.
A web page can contain various links that direct to other web pages or specific parts of same web page. In HTML links are created using <A> tag. The attribute of <A>tag which specifies link destination is
Answer:
href

Question 6.
The year in which IT act came into existence in India is …………………..
Answer:
2000

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Structure combines different types of data under a single unit.
Write a structure definition in C++ which includes student details admission number, name, age and weight.
Answer:
struct student{
int admno;
char name[25];
int age;
float weight;
};

Question 8.
Which are the operations that facilitates dynamic memory allocation in C++? What are their functions?
Answer:
New is used to allocate memory during execution of the program. Delete is used to de-allocate the memory during run time.

Question 9.
What is reusability? How is reusability possible through inheritance?
Answer:
Once a class is defined, it can be used in other programs easily, this is called reusability. Inheritance allows the addition of more features to an existing class without modifying it. One can derive a new class from an existing one and add new features to it.

Question 10.
List any two applications of stack.
Answer:
Reversing a string, creating polish strings.

Question 11.
The user name and password of an e-mail account has to be sent securely over the Internet?
(a) Name the technology used to send data to the server securely.
(b) How does this technology support secure data communication?
Answer:
a) https(Hypertext transfer protocol secure)

b) It works using secure sockets layer, which provides a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted connection between computers on net.

Question 12.
How does browser execute JavaScript code?
Answer:
Every browser has a JavaScript engine. If the code snippet contains JavaScript code, it is passed to the JavaScript engine for processing, the engine executes the code. If there is no script then it processes without the help of script engine. Hence an HTML file without JavaScript is faster than with JavaScript code.

Question 13.
Write the keyword used to declare variables in JavaScript.
List different data types in JavaScript.
Answer:
In JavaScript, variables can be declared by using the keyword var.
Ex: var n;
The three basic data types are Number, String, Boolean.

Question 14.
Cardinality of two relations R₁ and R₂ are 10 and 8 respectively. They are union compatible.
a) What is the maximum possible cardinality of R₁∪R₂?
b) What will be the minimum cardinality of R₁∩R₂?
Answer:
a) 80
b) 0

Question 15.
What is primary key? How does it differ from alternate key?
Answer:
It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row in a relation. But a foreign key is a candidate key other than the primary key.

Question 16.
What are the methods of writing comments in PHP?
Answer:
There are two ways to write comments in PHP.

1. Single line comment (//)- The text after // is treated as comment.
2. Multi line comment- It starts with I* and ends with /*. The text enclosed between this is treated as comments.

Question 17.
Write any two advantages of parallel computing compared to serial computing.
Answer:

Serial computing	Parallel computing
A single processor is used	Multiple processors are used with shared memory
A problem is divided into a series of instructions	A problem is divided into smaller ones that can be solved simultaneously
Instructions executed sequentially	Instructions executed simultaneously
One instruction is executed on a single processor at any moment	More than one instruction is executed on multiple processors at any moment of time.

Question 18.
What is e-Governance? List any two challenges to e-Governance.
Answer:
The integration of computers and communication technology for the benefit of Government functions to the public is termed as E-Governance. By this Govt can serve the citizen in a convenient, efficient and transparent manner.

Challenges-

• Due to lack of e-Literacy, there is a difficulty to access the service of E-Governance
• High Security measures are required because of possibility of cyber attack.
• Implementation and maintenance requires huge amount and planning.

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 30. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
Write differences between array and structure. (At least three differences.)
Answer:

Structure	Array
Differences 1. It is a user defined data type	Predefined data type
2. It is a collection of different types of logically related data under one name.	Collection of data elements of same data type having a common name.
3. Elements referenced using dot operator (.)	Elements reference using its subscripts (position value)
4. When an element of a structure becomes another structure nested structure and complex structures are formed.	When an element of another becomes another array, multidimensional arrays are formed.
5. Structure contains array as its elements	Array of structure can be formed.

Question 20.
Write any three advantages of object oriented programming compared to procedural programming.
Answer:
Advantages of OOP are

• OOP allows modularity
• It is good for defining abstract data types
• It allows data abstraction
• fallows code reusability
• ft supports to create new data type.

Question 21.
Write short notes about any six operations on data structures.
Answer:
Operations on data structures
a) Traversing: Accessing or visiting or reading all elements of a data structure is called Traversal.
b) Searching: Searching is the process of finding elements in a data structure
c) Inserting: It is the process of adding new data at particular location is called insertion.
d) Deleting: It is the process of removing a particular element from the data structure
e) Sorting: Arranging elements in a particular orderfascending or descending) is called sorting. Examples are bubble sort and selection sort.
f) Merging: This is the process of combining two sorted data structure and form a new one.

Question 22.
What is a data centre? What are the basic facilities required to set up a data centre?
Answer:
A data centre is a place where huge amount of data is stored by the organisations. The main objective of data centers are storing, processing, dispensing data to the clients. A data center requires huge memory, uninterrupted power supply, cooling system, high speed internet and high security.

Question 23.
(a) Which HTML tag is used to partition the browser window?
(b) Write HTML code to partition the browser window into two equal vertical partitions and load two
HTML documents sample 1.html and sample2.html in them.
Answer:
a) <frameset>

b) <framesetcols=”50%,*”>
<framesrc=”sample1.htmr>
<framesrc=”sample2.htmr>
</frameset>

Question 24.
Write built-in functions or properties in JavaScript to perform the following:
a) To display a message on the screen.
b) To check whether a value is number or not.
c) To get upper case form of a string.
d) To get lower case form of a string.
e) To get character at a particular position in a string.
f) To get number of characters in a string.
Answer:
a) alert()
b) isNaN()
c) toUpperCase()
d) toLoweCase()
e) charAt()
f) x.length();

Question 25.
What is web hosting? List different types of web hosting. What are the factors, to be considered while choosing web hosting?
Answer:
Buying or renting storage space to store website in a web server and provide sen/ice to all the computers connected to the internet. This is called web hosting.
Types of web hosting

1. Shared hosting
2. Dedicated hosting
3. Virtual Private Server

Following factors to be considered while choosing web hosting
a) Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files.
b) If web page contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider.
c) Based upon the programs select Windows or Linux hosting.

Question 26.
List advantages (any six) of database management system compared to traditional file management system.
Answer:
1) Data Redundancy: Duplication of data is known as redundancy, i.e., the same data may be repeated in many files. It leads to higher storage and access cost. So data redundancy should be eliminated

2) Inconsistency can be avoided: If data redundancy exist, it may lead to data inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency can be avoided.

3) Data can be shared: If the computers are connected to a network, the data stored in the database can be shared among several users or programs.

4) Standards can be enforced: There is a standard BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) in the field of Gold and ISBN (International Standard Book Number) in the field of publication. Similarly here is also some standards like ANSI(American National Standards Institute), ISO (International Organization for standardization), etc.. For example a filed “Name” should have 40 characters is a standard.

5) Security restrictions can be applied: The database is of great value to a company or organization. Data security means protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized persons.

6) Integrity can be maintained: It ensures that the data entered in the database is correct. The data may contain in fcorrect information for example a date of birth can be 30/30/2001. To avoid this DBMS defines integrity check.

Question 27.
Write SQL commands for the following:
a) To remove a column from a table.
b) To remove a row from a table.
c) To modify data in a table.
Answer:
a) alter table <table name> drop <column name>;
b) delete from <tablename> where <condition>;
c) update <tablename> set <column name>=<new
value> [where <condition>];

Question 28.
What are the two methods of sending information from a form to web server? How do these two methods differ? (Write any four differences)
Answer:

Get	Post
1. Faster	Slower
2. To send small volume of data	To send large volume of data
3. Less secure	More secure
4. Data visible during submission	Data not visible during submission

Question 29.
Write advantages of cluster computing.
Answer:
Cluster means groups. Here a group of Internet connected computers, storage devices, etc are linked together and work like a single computer. It provides computational power through parallel processing. Its cost is less and used for scientific applications.

Advantages

• Price performance ratio: The performance is high and the cost is less.
• Availability: If one group of system fails the other group will do the work.
• Scalability: Computers can be easily added according to the work load increases.

Question 30.
What is e-Business? What are the challenges to e-Business?
Answer:
E business(electronic Business): Providing services or running business through internet is called E business.
Advantages of ebusiness:

• It overcomes geographical limitations
• It reduces the operational cost
• It minimizes the time and cost
• It remains open all the time
• We can locate the product faster from a wider range of choices

Challenges to E business

• Peoples are unaware of IT applications and its uses
• Most peoples don’t have plastic money(credit / debit card) and net banking
• It requires high security measurements otherwise you may lose money
• We can’t touch or smell products through online
• Some companies may not have proper Goods delivery service

Useful e Business websites
Address of website – Purpose / Service
www.irctc.in – Web site of Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation Ltd. to reserve and cancel train tickets and room booking
www.amazon.com – Us based marketing company headquarters in Washington
www.ebay.in – Largest online shopping site in India
www.licindia.com – Website of Life Insurance Corporation of India
www.airindia.com – Website of Air India to book / cancel air tickets
www.makemytrip.com – website for reserving and canceling tickets for journey and room booking www.keralartc.com – Website of KSRTC to book bus tickets

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 31.
(a) An HTML documents begins with <HTML> tag.
What are the attributes of <HTML>tag? Specify the values these attributes can take.
(b) Explain basic structure of an HTML document with a simple example.
Answer:
a) Attributes of <HTML>tag

1. Dir-: It specifies the direction of text displayed on the webpage, values are Itr and rtl.
2. Lang-: It specifies the language, values are En(English),Hi(Hindi),Ar(arabic), etc..

b) HTML page has a well defined structure. The main sections of HTML document are given below. <HTML>_____</HTML>
The entire HTML document is bounded with <HTML> and </HTML>
<Head> __________ </Head> This defines the head section. The head section,includes information such as document title, general style definition etc.
<Title>_________ </Title> This encloses a Title.
Title is given in head section. Text given in

<TITLE> _________ </TITLE>will displayed in the Title Bar.
<Body></Body>. Content of the document is written within <BODY> and </BODY>
Eg. <HTML>
<Head>
<Title>First Page</Title>
</Head>
<Body>
Hello
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 32.
Explain values (any five) that can be given to type attribute of <INPUT>tag.
Answer:
The ‘type’ attribute of <INPUT> tag is used to create different control. The main values of type attribute is given below.

1. Text: Creates a single line Text Box.
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Text”>
2. Password: creates a password box in which characters are displayed by symbols like asterisk(*)
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Password”>
3. Check Box: Creates a check box.
   Eg. <INPUTType = “Check Box”>
4. Radio: Creates option button (Radio Button)
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Radio” Name=”sex” Value- ”M”>Male.
5. Reset: Creates reset button. It is used to clear all the data entered
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Reset”>

Question 33.
Consider the following table CUSTOMER.

AccNo.	Name	Branch	Amount
1001	APPU	CALICUT	40000
1002.	ARUN	KANNUR	20000
1003	VARUN	CALICUT	10000
1004	THARUN	KOTTAYAM	30000
1005	VARUN	KANNUR	20000

Write output of the following SQL series:
a) Select Name from Customer where Amount>20000;
b) Select Avg(Amount) from Customer where Branch = ‘CALICUT’;
c) Select Name from Customer where Name like ‘A%’.
Write SQL queries for the following:
d) To rename the Table Customer as Customer2020.
e) To delete record with AccNo. 1003 from the table Customer2020.
Answer:
a)
Name
APPU
THARUN

b)
avg(Amount)
25000

c)
Name
APPU
ARUN

d)
alter table Customer rename to Customer2020;
b) delete from Customer2020 where AccNo= 1003