Plus Two

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf SAY 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper SAY 2019

Time : 2 Hours
Total Score: 60

Use the following constants wherever neces-sary:

Permitivity of free space, s0= 8.854 × 10^-12 C²N^-1m^-2
Permeability of free space, JI0= 4π0 × 10^-7 Tm/A
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s

Questions 1 to 4 carry 1 score each. Answer any 3 questions. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
The value pf Electric field inside a charged conductor is ………….
Answer:
Zero

Question 2.
An e.m.f. of 16V is induced in a coil of self-inductance 4H. The rate of change of current must be
(i) 64 A/s
(ii) 32 A/s
(iii) 16 A/s
(iv) 4A/s
Answer:
(iv) 4A/s

ε = \(\frac{\mathrm{L dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
\(\frac{\mathrm{dI}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{\varepsilon}{L}\) = \(\frac{16}{4}\) = 4 A/s

Question 3.
The fundamental logic gate represented by the following circuit is:

Answer:
NOT

Question 4.
The type of modulation technique using frequency range 88 MHz. to 108 MHz.
Answer:
FM (Frequency modulation)

Questions 5 to 11 carry 2 score each. Answer any 6 questions. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 5.
(a) The figure shows the Q(charge) versus V (potential) graph for a two combination of capacitors. Identify the graph representing the parallel combination.

Answer:
Graph A

(b) W rite the expression for the effective capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel.
Answer:
C = C₁ + C₂

Question 6.
An α particle and a proton are moving in a region normal to a uniform magnetic field B. If two particles have equal linear momenta, what will be the ratio of the radii of their trajectories in the field? (2)
Answer:
Linear moment of α and proton are same
P_α = P_P
Radius R = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
r ∝ \(\frac{1}{q}\)
qα = 2q
q_P = q
r_α = \(\frac{1}{2 q}\)
r_P = \(\frac{1}{q}\)

Question 7.
The phasor diagram of an a.c. circuit is shown in figure.

(a) Identify the circuit. (1)
Answer:
Answer:
AC circuit containg inductor only

(b) Prove that the average power dissipated in the above circuit is zero. (1)
Answer:
P_av = V_rmsI_rms cosϕ
for pure indutor = ϕ = 90°
P_av = V_rmsI_rms cos90°
P_av = 0

Question 8.
In an electromagnetic wave, the oscillating electric field having a frequency of 3 x 10¹⁰ Hz. and an am-plitude of 30 V/m propagates in free space in the positive x-direction. Write down the expression to represent the electric field. (2)
Answer:
Wave lenght λ = \(\frac{C}{v}\) = \(\frac{3 \times 10^8}{3 \times 10^{10}}\) = \(10^{-2}\)
K = \(\frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}\) = \(\frac{2 \times 3.15}{10^{-2}}\) = 628 rad/m

Angular frequency ω = 2 π v
= 2 × 3.14 × 3 × 10⁸
18.84 × 10 rad/s

Question 9.
An unpolarized beam of light is incidewnt on water surface as in figure.

(a) Name the law relating refractive index of water with angle of incidence. (1)
Answer:
Brewsters law

(b) Find the value of refractive index of water, if the angle of incidence & 53°.
Answer:
n = tan θ
n = tan 53°
n = 1.33

Question 10.
(a) ypte Einstein’s photo electric equation. (1)
Answer:
Einstein’s photo electric equation

(b) Draw a graph showing the variation of Stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation. Mark threshold frequency on the graph.
Answer:

Question 11.
The block diagram of AM transmitter is shown in figure.

(a) Identify X and Y.
Answer:
x – amplitude modulator
y – power amplifier

(b) The amplitudes of modulating signal and carrier wave are 9V and 12V respectively. Find the value of modulation index.
Answer:
Modulation index M = \(\frac{A_M}{A_C}\) = \(\frac{9}{12}\) = 0.75

Questions 12 to 18 carry 3 scores each. Answer any 6 questions. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 12.
(a) Name the theorem used to find the electric flux through a surface enclosing charge, (1)
Answer:
Guess theorem

(b) Using this theorem derive an expression for the electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge with surface charge density o. (2)
Answer:

Consideran infinite thin plane sheet of charge of density σ.
To find electric f ield at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cyiinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \mathrm{~d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{~s}}=\frac{1}{\varepsilon_0} \mathrm{q}\)
\(\mathrm{E} \int \mathrm{ds}=\frac{\sigma \mathrm{ds}}{\varepsilon_0}\) (Since q = σ ds)
But electric field passes only through end surfaces ,so we get
\(\int \mathrm{ds}\) = 2ds
ie. E 2ds = \(\frac{\sigma \mathrm{ds}}{\varepsilon_0}\)
E = \(\frac{\sigma \mathrm{ds}}{2 ds \varepsilon_0}\), E = \(\frac{\sigma }{2 \varepsilon_0}\)
E is directed away from the charged sheet, if a is positive and directed towards the sheet if a is negative.

Question 13.
(a)With suitable circuit diagram. show how emfs of two cells can be compared using a potentiometer. (2)
Answer:

Principle : Potential difference between two points of a current carrying conductor (having uniform thickness) is directly proportional to the length’of the wire between two points.

Circuit details: A battery (B₁), Rheostat and key are connected in between A and B. This circuit is called primary circuit. Positive end of E₁ and E₂ are connected to A and other ends are connected to a-two way key. Jockey is connected to a two key through galvanometer. This circuit is called secondary circuit.

(b) Why do we prefer potentiometer to measure the e.m.f. a cell than a voltmeter? (1)
Answer:
Potentio meter does not take current at null point and hence measure actual emf. Hence potentio meter is more accurate than volt meter.

Question 14.
Based on the magnetic property, materials are classified into diamagnetic, paramagnetic and ferromagnetic.

(a) Compare paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials in view of magnetic susceptibility. (1)
Answer:
For paramagnetic susceptibility is small and positive but for ferromagnetic its value is positive and high.

(b) State the law expalining the variation of magnetic susceptibility with temperature in the case of ferromagnetic material. What happens to its magnetic property when the temperature is increased? (2)
Answer:
(i) Curie law
(ii) When temparature increases, at a particular temparature ferromagnetic becomes

Question 15.
Motion of a conductor in a magnetic field induces’ an emf across its ends.

(a) Write an expression for the emf induced across the ends of a conductor moving right angles to a uniform magnetic field.
Answer:
ε = Bl v

(b) An aeroplane is flying horizontally from west to east with a velocity of 720 km/h. Calculate the e.m.f. induced between the ends of its wings having a span of 25m. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at the place is 2.19 × 10 5T.
Answer:
Velocity = 720 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 200 m/s
emf ε = Bl v
= 2.19 × 10^-5 × 200
0.1090 v

Question 16.
The figure below shows the transmission of light signals through an optical fibre.
(Refractive index of the core – n₁, Refractive index of cladding-n₂)

(a) Name the optical phenomenon happening at the point A. (1)
Answer:
Total internal reflection

(b) Write the necessary conditions for this to happen. (1)
Answer:
i) Light should travel from denser to rarer medium,
ii) incident angle must

(c) Write the relationship between critical angle and refractive indices of the material of the core and cladding of the optical fibre. (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{n_2}{n_1}\) = \(\frac{1}{sin c}\)

Question 17.
(a) Draw a graph showing the variation of de-Broglie’s wavelength (A) with accelerating potential (V).(1)
Answer:
Out of syllabus
λ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mev}}}\)
λ ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{r}}\)
This equation is in the form of y ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\) hence, we get a graph as shown below

(b) Express de-Broglie’s wavelength in terms of ac-celerating voltage. (2)
Answer:
de-Broglie’s wavelength λ = \(\frac{h}{P}\)
biet P = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mev}}\)
λ = \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mev}}}\)

Question 18.
The energy of an electron in the nth electronic orbit of hydrogen atom is
E_n = \(\frac{-m e^4}{8 \epsilon_0^2 n^2 h^2}\)
(a) What does the negative sign signify? (1)
Answer:
Negative sigyis shows that electrons are bound to the nucleus.

(b) Obtain the Rydberg formula for the spectral series of hydrogen atom. (2).
Answer:
Energy of hydrogen atom, when elctron is in the ground state
E_i = \(\frac{-\mathrm{me}^4}{8 \varepsilon_0^2 \mathrm{n}_2^2 \mathrm{~h}^2}\)
Energy of hydrogon atom, when electron is in excited state.
E_f = \(\frac{-m e^4}{8 \varepsilon_0^2 n_f^2 h^2}\)

Energy emitted, when an electron comes from 1 excited state into ground state.
∆ E = E_f – E_i

Questions 19 to 22 carry 4 scores each. Answer any 3questions. (3x 4 = 12)

Question 19.
An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity ‘E’. Let ‘0’ be the angle between dipole moment and electric field.

(a) Derive an expression for the torque acting on the electric dipole in vector form. (2)
Answer:
Torque \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{\tau}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)

(b) What orientation of the dipole corresponds to stable and unstable equillibrium. (1)
Answer:
for stable equilibrium, θ = 0°
for unstable equilibrium, θ = 180°

(c) Write the equation of potential energy corre-sponds to stable equilibrium.
Answer:
Ptential energy U = – PE cos Q or U = \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}} . \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}\)

Question 20.
An alternating voltage is applied across an LCR cir¬cuit as in figure.
(L = 100mH. C = 10OuF, R = 50Q)

(a) Draw the phasor diagram of the circuit. (1)
Answer:

(b) In the.circuit, if V = 20sin (100t) volts
(i) Impedance
(ii) Peak value of current
(iii) Resonant frequency of the circuits
Answer:

Question 21.
Coherent sources are necessary for producing sus-tained interference.

(a) Write the condition of coherence.
Answer:
Two light sources are said to be coherant, if they emit light waves of same frequency, same amplitude and same phase.

(b) With the help of a suitable diagram, find the dis-tance between two consecutive bright brands pro-duced by Young’s double slit.
Answer:
Young’s double slit experiment

The experiment consists of a slit ‘S’. A monochromatic light illuminates this slit. S₁ and S₂ are two slits in front of the slit ‘S’. A screen is placed at a suitable distance from S₁ and S₂.
Light from S₁ and S₂ falls bn the screen. On the screen interference bands can be seen.

Explanation : If crests (or troughs) from S₁ and S₂. meet at certain points on the screen, the interference of these points will be constructive and we get bright bands on the screen.

At certain points on the screen, crest and trough meet together. Destructive interference takes place at those points. So we get dark bands

Expression for band width

S₁ and S₂ are two coherent sources having wave length λ. Let ‘d’ be the distance between two coherent sources. A screen is placed at a distance D from sources. ‘O’ is a point on the screen equidistant from S₁ and S₂.
Hence the path difference, S₁ O – S₂ O = 0
So at ‘O’ maximum brightness is obtained.
Let ‘P’ be the position of n,h bright band at a distance xn from O. Draw S₁ A and S₂ B as shown in figure.
From the right angle AS₁AP
we get, S₁P² = S₁A² + AP²
S₁P² = D² + (X_n – d/2)²
= D² + X_n² + X_nd + \(\frac{d^2}{2}\)

Question 22.
(a) What do you mean by half life period of a radio-active substance. (1)
Answer:
Half life is the time taken to reduce half of its initial value.

(b) Write the relation between mean life and half life. (1)
Answer:
T_mean = \(\frac{T_{1 / 2}}{0.693}\)

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

I. Answer the following questions from 1 to 31 upto a maximum score of 30.
Questions 1 to 7 carry 1 score each.

Question 1.
The cells present in the seminiferous tubules of testes that provide nutrients to the male germ cells are called ______.
Answer:
Sertoli cells

Question 2.
Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called ______.
Answer:
Medical termination of pregnanacy (MTP)

Question 3.
Certain standard symbols are used in the pedigree analysis. Draw the symbols of
a) Normal male
b) Affected female
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the process ‘A’ and ‘B’

Answer:
A – DNA Replication
B – Translation

Question 5.
In Miller’s Experiment, the gases used were
a) CH₄, NH₂, H₂O, H₂
b) CH₄, NH₂, CO₂, H₂
c) CH₄, NH₂, O₂, C0
d) CH₄, NH₂, N₂, O₂
Answer:
a) CH₄, NH₂, H₂O, H₂

Question 6.
The large holes in Swiss cheese are due to the production of a large amount of CO₂, by a bacterium named ______.
a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Propionibacterium sharmanii
c) Trichodermapolysporum
d) Clostridium butylicum
Answer:
Propionibacterium sharmanii

Question 7.
Expand the following :
a) IARI
b) KVIC
Answer:
IARI- Indian Agricultural Research Institute KVIC- Khadi and Village Industries Commission

Questions 8 to 26 carry 2 scores each.

Question 8.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
(a)’Mammary alveoli
(b) Mammary tubule

Question 9.
Differentiate ZZ-ZW mechanism of sex determination from XX-XO mechanism.
Answer:

• ZZ – ZW type
  1. Female birds have one Z and one W chromosome, where as males have a pair of Z- chromosomes besides the autosomes.
  2. In birds the total number of chromosome is same in both males and females.
  3. Female heterogamety.
• In XO type and XY type
  1. Males produce two different types of gametes, Such types of sex determination mechanism is seen in drosophila and human male respectively.
  2. Male heterogamety.

Question 10.

a) Identify the process
b) Write the role of UTR in this process.
Answer:
(a) Translation or Protein synthesis
(b) The UTRs are present at both 5’-end and at 3’end are required for efficient translation process

Question 11.
Write any four common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse in youth.
Answer:

1. Drop in academic performance
2. unexplained absence from school or college
3. lack of interest ¡n personal hygiene
4. deteriorating relationships with family and friends

Question 12.
a) Name the bacteria which converts milk to curd.
b) “It is essential to add a small of curd the fresh milk to get quality curd.”
Answer:
(a) Lactobacillus
(b) A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk act as an inoculum contain millions of LAB, which
at suitable temperatures multiply and convert milk to curd. It also improves the nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B₁₂

Question 13.
Observe the figure
a) Name the part labelled as ‘A’.
b) Write the functions of’A’.

Answer:
(a) Acrosome
(b) It help the sperm to enter into the cytoplasm of egg results fertilization.

Question 14.
List out FOUR ‘Evil Quartet’ which adversely affect the biodiversity.
Answer:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over – exploitation
3. Alien species invasions
4. Co extinctions

Question 15.
“Doctors recommended breastfeeding is inevitable in initial period of infant growth.” Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which contains several antibodies provide resistance for the new-born babies.

Question 16.

i.‘S’ Strain	Inject into Mice
ii. ‘R’ Strain	Mice die
iii. ‘S’ Strain (Heat Killed)	Mice live
iv. ‘S’ Strain (Heat Killed) + ‘R’ Strain (Live)	Mice live

a) Identify the experiment.
b) Why did the mice die when a mixture to heat killed ‘S’ strain and live ‘R’ strain was injected?
Answer:
(a) Griffith experiment
(b) In a mixture of heat-killed S and live R bacteria, the mice died and recovered living S bacteria from the dead mice. It is due to transforming principle transferred from the heat-killed S strain, to the R strain to synthesise a smooth polysaccharide coat and become virulent.

Question 17.
Father has ‘A’ group Mother has ‘O’ group blood. Find out the possible blood groups of their children.
Answer:
The Possible blood groups of children’s ‘A’ or O group

Question 18.

a) Identify the figure
b) What is its significance in birth control?
Answer:
(a) Tubectomy in female
(b) It is the permanent method of birth control

Question 19.
Differentiate narrowly utilitarian arguments and broadly utilitarian arguments. Give one example for each.
Answer:

Narrowly utilitarian	Broadly utilitarian
Humans get economic benefits from nature.	Biodiversity plays a major role in ecosystem services.
Eg. food, firewood, fibre, construction material, industrial products and products of medicinal importance.	Eg. Amazon forest is through photosynthesis produce 20 per cent of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.

Question 20.

a) Name the genetic disorder illustrated in this figure.
b) Redraw the amino acid sequence with normal haemoglobin.
Answer:
(a ) Sickle – cell anaemia

Question 21.
Complete the illustration showing the features of an ideal contraceptive.

Answer:
(a) User friendly
(b) Easily available
(C) Effective
(d) Reversible

Question 22.

a) Identify the figure
b) Name the part labelled as ‘P’ and write about its significance.
Answer:
(a) Blastocyst
(b) Inner cell mass – It gets differentiated into embryo.

Question 23.
Categories the following diseases under two headings
(Chlamydiasis, HIV infection, Hepatitis-B, Trichomoniasis)

Completely Curable	Non Curable

Answer:

Completely Curable	Non Curable
Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis	HIV infection, Hepatitis – B

Question 24.
a) Expand the term AIDS.
b) Name the causative organism.
c) Identify the diagnostic technique to detect AIDS.
d) Write any two preventive methods to avoid AIDS.
Answer:
(a) Acquired mm uno Deficiency Syndrome

(b) Human 1mm une deficiency Virus or HIV

(c) ELISA Test Enzyme Linked 1mm uno – Sorbent Assay

(d) 1. Use disposable syringe and needles.
2. Propr monitoring of blood before blood transfusion.
3. Avoid intercourse with unknown partner.

Question 25.
Fill in the blanks using the terms given below.
Answer:
(a) Opioids
(b) Papayer somniferum
(c) Hashish
(d) Cannabis sativa

Question 26.
Diagrammatic representation of the operation of Natural selection on different traits are given below.

a) Identify the figures which show stabilising and disruptive selection.
b) What is founder effect?
Answer:
(a) Figure A – Stabilising selection
Figure C – Disruptive selection

(b) The change in allele frequency in the small population from a large population leads to the evolution of new species The original drifted population becomes founders and the effect is called founder effect.

Questions 27 to 31 carries 3 scores each.

Question 27.

a) Identify the process
b) Name the parts labelled as ’A’ and ’B’.
c) Distinguish template strand and coding strand.
Answer:
(a) Transcriptional unit

(b) A – Promoter
B – Terminator

(c) Template strand – with 3-5 polarity, mRNA is produced from template strand. Coding strand Strand- with 5 ‘ 3 polarity , It does not code for anything strand.

Question 28.
a) Mention the different steps involved in test tube baby programme.
b) DifferentiateAl and IUI.
c) Write any two reasons for infertility.
Answer:
(a) In test tube baby programme, ova from the wife and sperms from the husband are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory.

The zygote with upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT – zygote intra fallopian transfer) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (lUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its further development.

(b)

AI (Artificial insemination)	lul Intra (Uterine insemination)
Semen collected from the donor isartificially into the vagina.	Semen collected from the donor is artificially into the uterus.

(c) 1. Physical or congenital problems
2. Immunological reason

Question 29.
a) Name the three layers of uterus.
b) Identify the layer which exhibits strong contractions during pregnancy.
c) Name the glandular layer that undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
Answer:
(a) Perimetrium, Myometrium, Endometrium
(b) Myometrium
(c) Endometrium

Question 30.
a) Name the genetic disorder caused due to the presence of an additional copy of ‘X’ chromosome.
b) Write down Karyotype and mention at least two characters of that syndrome.
Answer:
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome

(b) 44A + XXY.

• Masculine development
• Gynaecomastia

Question 31.

a) Identify the figure.
b) Distinguish Homologous and Analogous organs.
c) Comment on the evolutionary significance.
Answer:
(a) Homologous Organ

(b)

Homologous Organ	Analogous organ
Same structure with different function	Similar function but differ in structure
Represent divergent evolution	Represent convergent evolution

(c) Homologous organ represent divergent evolution. Analogous organ represent convergent evolution.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum: 60 Scores

Answer the following questions from 1 to 40 up to a maximum score of 60.
Questions from 1 to 11 carry 2 scores each. (11 × 2 = 22)

Question 1.
Calculate the number of particles present per unit cell in the cubic lattice shown below:

Answer:
bcc
Particles at the corner contribute \(\frac{1}{8}\).
Particles at 8 corners contribute
∴ \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 1
Particle at the centre contributes one as a whole.
∴ Total no. of particels = 1 + 1 = 2

Question 2.
With the help of a diagram, represent the arrangement of valence band and conduction band in semiconductors and insulators.
Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the following substances into ionic solids and molecular solids.
Answer:

Ionic Solid	Molecular Solid
NaCl, Zinc Sulphide	Ice, Solid NH3

Question 4.
What are isotonic solutions? Give one example.
Answer:
Isotonic solutions are solutions with the same osmotic pressure.
Blood plasma and 0.9% saline solution.

Question 5.
Write any two methods for preventing corrosion of metallic objects.
Answer:
Painting, galvanising, and applying grease.

Question 6.
The rate expression for a reaction is
Rate = k[A]^1/2 [B]^3/2
Calculate
(i) Overall order of reaction. (1)
(ii) Unit of rate constant. (1)
Answer:
(i) Overall order = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{3}{2}=\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
(ii) Unit of rate constant for nth order = \(\mathrm{mol}^{1-\mathrm{n}} l^{n-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)
For second order = \(\mathrm{mol}^{-1} l^1 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)

Question 7.
Write any two characteristics of Chemisorption.
Answer:
Chemisorption – Due to chemical bonds, irreversible, specific.

Question 8.
How will you prepare XeF₆? Give its structure.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are interhalogen compounds? Write any one of its uses.
Answer:
Inter halogen compounds are compounds formed by two different halogen atoms.
eg. IF₃, BrF₅, CIF₃, etc.
Uses:

• Used for uranium enrichment
• Are very useful chlorinating agents
• Used as non-aqueous solvents (any one)

Question 10.
Identify the products A and B in the following reaction:

Answer:

Question 11.
Which among CH₃COOH and is more acidic? Give reason.
Answer:
is more acidic due to the presence of an electron withdrawing Cl-group.
-I affect increases acidity.

Questions from 12-29 carry 3 scores each. (18 × 3 = 54)

Question 12.
‘Partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in solution.’
(i) Name the law stated above. (1)
(ii) Write any two applications of the law. (2)
Answer:
(i) Henry’s law
(ii) Applications of Henry’s law:

• When a soda bottle opens, a fizz sound occurs.
• Scuba divers use a little He dissolved in an oxygen cylinder.

Question 13.
(i) What are ideal solutions? (1)
(ii) A mixture of chloroform and acetone is a non-ideal solution. Identify the type of deviation shown by this mixture and give a reason for it. (2)
Answer:
(i) Ideal solutions – Obey Raoults Law
\(P_A=P^0 A \cdot x_n\)
or
ΔV_mix = 0
or
ΔH_mix = 0
(ii) Negative deviation: Due to the decrease in vapour pressure by the formation of H-bond between acetone and chloroform.

Question 14.
What are primary cells? Write an example for a primary cell and specify its anode and cathode.
Answer:
Primary cell – Can not be recharged or reused.
eg. dry cell, anode – Zn rod, cathode – graphite rod (carbon).

Question 15.
Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place:

Answer:

Question 16.
Write the expression for the integrated rate equation of a first order reaction and derive the equation for its half-life.
Answer:

Question 17.
(i) What is meant by coagulation of sol? (1)
(ii) Write any two methods used for the coagulation of lyophilic Sols. (2)
Answer:
(i) Accumulation of colloidal particles is called coagulation of the sol.
(ii) By adding an electrolyte of oppositely charged colloidal particles.

Question 18.
(i) Which among the following pres can be concentrated by magnetic separation method? (1)
(A) Bauxite
(B) Haematite
(C) Zinc blende
(D) Calamine
(ii) Explain the hydraulic washing method for the concentration of ore. (2)
Answer:
(i) Haematite
(ii) Crushed ore is washed with running water, i.e., taken in a tank and water is poured. The gauge particles are washed away and heavier metals are left behind.

Question 19.
(i) What are the purposes of adding Na₃AlF₆ to purified alumina in the metallurgy of aluminium? (2)
(ii) Write any two uses of aluminium. (1)
Answer:
(i) To reduce the melting point of Alumina.
(ii) To make utensils, lab reagents.

Question 20.
(i) Explain Mond process for refining nickel. (2)
(ii) Which among the following can be refined by distillation? (1)
(A) Mercury
(B) Copper
(C) Silicon
(D) Zirconium
Answer:
(i)

M is treated with carbon monoxide and nickel tetra carbonyl is formed. It is again strongly heated to get decomposed.
(ii) Mercury

Question 21.
What is meant by lanthanoid contraction? Give its consequences.
Answer:
The steady decrease in atomic and ionic size of atoms from Lanthanum to Lutetium with increase in atomic number is known as Lanthanoid contraction.
Eg. Zr and Hf are similar
Consequences:

• Second and third transition series elements are similar and very difficult to separate.
• The basic strength of the hydroxides decreases from La(OH)₃ to Lu(OH)₃.

Question 22.
(i) Why are the transaction and their compounds used as catalysts? (2)
(ii) Which is the transition metal compound used as catalyst in the contact process? (1)
Answer:
(i) Due to its variable oxidation state and vacant d orbitals.
(ii) V₂O₅

Question 23.
(i) Name the type of structural isomerism exhibited by the following pair. (1)
[CO(NH₃)₅(SO₄)] Br and [Co(NH₃)₅Br] SO₄
(ii) Draw the Geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]. (2)
Answer:
(i) Ionisation isomerism
(ii) Geometical isomers of [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] are:

Question 24.
(i) Write the formulae for the following co-ordination compounds: (2)
(A) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
(B) Potassiumtetracyanidonickelate(II)
(ii) Which among the above is a homoleptic complex? (1)
Answer:
(i) A – [Co(H₂O)₂(NH₃)₄]Cl₃
B – K₂[Ni(CN)₄]
(ii) Potassiumtetracyanidonickelate (II) or K₂[Ni(CN)₄] is homoleptic since it contains only one type of ligand.

Question 25.
(i) Describe the preparation of ethanol from molasses. (2)
(ii) What is meant by denaturation of alcohol? (1)
Answer:

(ii) Ethanol is made unfit to drink by adding a little amount of methanol or pyridine to it. This is known as denaturation of alcohol.

Question 26.
(i) Alcohols have higher boiling points in comparison to hydrocarbons of comparable molar mass. Give reason. (1)
(ii) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points: (2)
Propanol, Ethanol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol
Answer:
(i) Due to the presence of hydrogen bond.
(ii) Ethanol < propanol < butan 2-ol < butan 1-ol

Question 27.
(i) Name the type of linkage between the two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom in a disaccharide. (1)
(ii) Write two differences between DNA and RNA. (2)
Answer:
(i) Glycosidic linkage
(ii)

DNA	RNA
1. Deoxyribonucleic acid	1. Ribonucleic acid
2. The nitrogen bases present are (ATCG) Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine	2. The nitrogen bases Present are (AUCG) Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine

Question 28.
(i) Write the monomers used for getting the following polymers.
(A) Nylon-6
(B) Polystyrene
(ii) Which among the following is a condensation polymer? (1)
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Buna-S
(C) Nylon-6,6
(D) Teflon
Answer:
(i) (A) Nylon-6 – Caprolactam
(B) Polystyrene – Styrene
(ii) Nylon 6, 6

Question 29.
Match the drugs in Column-I with their therapeutic action in Column II.

Column-I	Column-II
(i) Antacid	(A) Neurologically active drugs
(ii) Tranquilliser	(B) Antimicrobial drugs
(iii) Disinfectant	(C) Treatment for acidity

Answer:
(i) Antacid – Treatment for acidity
(ii) Tranquilizer – Neurologically active drug
(iii) Disinfectant – Antimicrobial drugs

Questions from 30-40 carry 4 scores each. (11 × 4 = 44)

Question 30.
Explain the following:
(i) Crystal lattice
(ii) Void
(iii) Frenkel defect
(iv) F-centres
Answer:
(i) Crystal lattice: Three dimensional representation of particles of a crystal.
(ii) Void: The interstitial space in the crystal lattice.
(iii) Due to the absence of a cation from its lattice and is seen in the void. No change in density.
(iv) F centre – Electron trapped anion vacancy.

Question 31.
Solids can be divided into five types based on their response to the magnetic field. Describe any four magnetic properties.
Answer:
1. Ferromagnetic substances: ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
Magnetic moments are in the same direction.
eg: Fe, Ni
2. Antiferromagnetic substances: ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
Magnetic moments are in equal and opposite directions.
eg: MnO, NiO, Fe₂O₃
3. Ferrimagnetic substances: ↑↑↑ ↓↓ ↑↓
Magnetic moments are unequal and opposite in direction.
eg: Fe₃O₄, ZnFe₂O₄, MgFe₂O₄
4. Paramagnetic substances are attracted to a magnetic field and are shown by compounds or atoms with an unpaired electron.
eg. O₂, Cu²⁺.

Question 32.
(i) What are colligative properties? (1)
(ii) Name any two colligative properties? (1)
(iii) Calculate the osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of a polymer of molar mass 18500 g mol^-1 in 450 mL of water at 37°C (R = 0.821 L atm k^-1 mol^-1) (2)
Answer:
(i) Colligative properties are those properties which depend only on the number of particles.
(ii) (1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(2) Depression in freezing point
(3) Elevation in boiling point
(4) Osmotic pressure

Question 33.
(i) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions. (2)
(ii) \(\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0\) for NaCl, HCl, CH₃COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm² mol^-1 respectively. Calculate \(\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0\) for CH₃COOH. (2)
Answer:
Kohlrausch Law
(i) The law states that the limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte is the sum of the limiting molar ionic conductivities of the cations and anions of the electrolyte present in the solution.
\(\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{NaCl}=\lambda_{\mathrm{Na}^{+}}^0+\lambda_{\mathrm{cl}}^0\)
(ii) \(\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}=\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COONa}+\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{HCl}-\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{NaCl}\)
= 91 + 425.9 – 126.4
= 390.5 S cm² mol^-1

Question 34.
Consider the following equation:
K = \(A e^{(-E a / R r)}\)
(i) What does the term ‘A’ represent? (1)
(ii) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles when temperature is increased from 300K to 310K. Calculate the activation energy. (3)
Answer:
(i) A – Arhenius factor

Question 35.
Explain the following:
(i) Lyophilic colloid
(ii) Peptization
(iii) Tyndall effect
(iv) Electrophoresis
Answer:
(i) Lyophillic Colloid: Dispersed phase with very high affinity for dispersion medium.
(ii) Peptization: Conversion of a precipitate to colloid.
(iii) Tyndal effect: Scattering of light by colloidal particles.
(iv) Electrophoresis: Movement of colloidal particles under electric field.

Question 36.
(i) Explain the Ostwald’s process for the preparation of nitric acid. (3)
(ii) Write any two uses of nitric acid. (1)
Answer:
(i) 1. Catalytic oxidation of NH3 to form NO in the presence of platinum.

2. NO is converted to NO₂
2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
3. NO₂ is treated with water to form HNO₃
NO₂ + H₂O → HNO₃
(ii) (a) Lab reagent
(b) Used for making fertilizers

Question 37.
(i) What are the products obtained when 2-Bromopentane is treated with alcoholic KOH? (2)
(ii) Identify the major product obtained in the above reaction. (1)
(iii) Name the rule that decides the formation of the major product. (1)
Answer:

(ii) Major product is Pent-2-ene / CH₃CH₂CH=CHCH₃
(iii) Saytzef Rule/Zaitsev Rule

Question 38.
Describe the following:
(i) HVZ reaction. (2)
(ii) Cannizaro reaction (2)
Answer:
(i) HVZ reaction: Carboxylic acid with α-hydrogen when treated with chlorine or bromine in the presence of red phosphorous gives α-halo carboxylic acids.

(ii) Cannizaro reaction: Aldehydes or ketones without α-hydrogen undergo oxidation and reduction in presence of conc. alkali to form acid salt and alcohol.

Question 39.
(i) Which among the following reduces Fehling reagent? (1)
(A) Propanone
(B) Benzophenone
(C) Ethanal
(D) Butanone
(ii) Name the class of organic compound obtained when aldehydes undergo reaction with the following reagents: (3)
(A) HCN
(B) Alcohol
(C) Hydroxylamine
Answer:
(i) (C) Ethanal (Aldehydes only gives Fehling’s test)
(ii) (A) Cyanohydrins
(B) Hemiacetal Acetal
(C) Oxime

Question 40.
(i) Which among the following is a primary amine? (1)
(A) (CH₃)₂CHNH₂
(B) C₆H₅NHCH₃
(C) (CH₃)₃N
(D) (CH₃)₂NH
(ii) Explain the reaction of Hinsberg reagent with primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
(i) (CH₃)₂ CH NH₂
(ii) Hinsberg reagent- C₆H₅SO₂Cl (Benzene Sulphonyl Chloride)
1° amine + Hinsberg reagent → a precipitate soluble in alkali
2° amine + Hinsberg reagent → a precipitate insoluble in alkali
3° amine + Hinsberg reagent → no reaction

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
In inheritance the existing Class is called ____________
Answer:
Base / Parent class

Question 2.
The ____________operator is used to allocate memory location during run time (execution).
Answer:
new

Question 3.
Write an empty tag used in HTML.
Answer:
<br> or <hr> or <img>

Question 4.
Which attribute of <input> tag is used to make different kinds of controls like Text box, Radio button, Submit button etc.?
Answer:
type

Question 5.
The IP address of a Webserver connected to a do-main name is stored in ____________ .
Answer:
A record

Question 6.
Expand. ICT.
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 Score. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
What is a pointer variable in C++? Write the syntax or example to declare a pointer variable.
Answer:
Pointer is a special variable which points to memory location of some other variable.
data_type *variable_name;
int *ptr;

Question 8.
Write any two differences in static and dynamic memory allocation.
Answer:
Refer Chapter 2. 3 Mark Qn.9.

Question 9.
Write any two advantages of using object oriented programming language. (OOP)
Answer:
Advantages of using OOP are
a) OOP allows modularity(divide the large programs into smaller ones)
b) It is good for defining abstract data types.
c) It allows data abstraction. That is it hides or protects data.
d) It allows code reusability
e) Real life entities can be easily created
f) It supports to create new data types.

Question 10.
Write the algorithm to add an item in to a queue which is not empty?
Answer:
If(REAR < N)then
REAR=REAR+1;
Q[REAR]=ITEM;
Else
Print “Over Flow”;

Question 11.
Briefly explain about Webserver.
Answer:
A computer with high storage capacity, high speed and processing capabilities is called a web server.
It is connected to the internet 24 × 7.

Question 12.
Write JavaScript statements to create a number and string variables.
Answer:
var n,str;
n=12;
str=”Plus Two”;

Question 13.
Breifly explain about any two built-in functions available in JavaScript.
Answer:
BUILT IN FUNCTIONS (methods)

1. alert() : This is used to display a message (dialogue box) on the screen.
   eg: alert(“Welcome to JS”);
2. isNaN(): To check whether the given value is a number or not. It returns a Boolean value. If the value is not a numberfNaNl then this function returns a true value otherwise it returns a false value.

Question 14.
List any four advantages of DBMS.
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS

1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.
2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy odcurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.
3. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.
4. Standards can be enforced – The.data in the database follows some standards. Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

Question 15.
Distinguish between the terms degree and cardinality used in RDBMS.
Answer:
Degree(to be remembered CD) – Number of Columns in a relation is called Degree.
Cardinality(to be remembered RC) – Number of rows in a relation is called Cardinality.

Question 16.
Differentiate echo and print used inPHP.
Answer:
The difference between echo and print

echo	print
take more than one parameter	only one parameter
Does not return any value	Returns TRUE or 1 on successful print and FALSE otherwise
Faster	slower

Question 17.
Write short note about any two applications of computational intelligence.
Answer:
Application of Computational Intelligence
A) Biometrics : Biometrics refers to the unique characteristics of a human being to recognize an individual such as finger prints, face recognition, iris, retina etc. Biometrics are used to record attendance Eg. In banks employee login is restricted by using finger print reader.

B) Robotics : It is a branch of scientific study associated with the design, manufacturing and control the movements of the robots. Roboticss are used in all the areas. Some of them are discussed below.

Question 18.
Name the types of interactions in e-Government
Answer:
Types of interactions in e-Governance e-Governance facilitates interaction between different stakeholders in governance
Government to Government(G2G)
Government to Citizens(G2C)
Government to Business(G2B)
Government to Employees(G2E)

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 30. Each carries 3 Score. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
Describe about any three e-Learning tools.
Answer:
A) e Learning tools
a) Electronic books reader(e Books) With the help of a tablet or portable computer or any other device we can read digital files by using a s/w is called electronic books reader.

b) e text
The electronic format of textual data is called e-Text.

c) Online chat
Real time exchange of text or audio or video messages between two or more person over the Internet.

d) e Content
The data or information such as text, audio, video, presentations, images, animations etc, are stored in electronic format.

e) Educational TV channels
TV channels dedicated only for the e-Learning purpose : Eg. VICTERS (Virtual Class room Technology on Edusat for Rural Schools OR Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Students)

B) Advantages of E Learning :

• It can offer variety courses to large number of students from distant location.
• It saves journey time and money, instructor fees, etc.
• People can enjoy e Learning with lower cost
• It enables people to do courses conducted by national or Inter national institutions.

C) Challenges to e Learning

• Face to face contact between student and teachers is not possible
• Proper interaction is limited lack of infrastructure facilities
• Its implementation requires computer and high speed Internet
• Pupil may not get proper motivation
• It does not provide a real lab facility

Question 20.
What is cloud computing? Write any two service? offered by cloud.
Answer:
It is an emerging computing technology. Here with the use of Internet and central remote servers to maintain data and applications. Example for this is Email service, Office Software(word processor, spread sheets, presentations, data base etc), graphic software etc. The information is placed in a central remote server just like clouds in the sky hence the name cloud computing.

Cloud service models (3 major services)

1. 1. Software as a Service(SaaS)
2. Platform as a Service(PaaS)
3. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

Question 21.
Differentiate indexed and associated arrays in PHP.
Answer:
Arrays in PHP
In PHP array is a collection of key and value pairs. Unlike C++, in PHP we can use either non negative integers or strings as keys.
Different types of arrays in PHP

• Indexed arrays
• Associate arrays
• Multi dimensional arrays.

Indexed arrays-: The elements in an array can be distinguished as first or second or third etc. by the indices and the index of the first element is zero. In PHP the function array() is used to create an array. Syntax: $array_name=array(value1 ,value2, ……………….);

Question 22.
Write short not about numeric and string data types of SQL.
Answer:
Data Types

1. Char – It is used to store fixed number of characters,. It is declared as char(size).
2. Varchar – It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.
3. Dec or Decimal – It is used to store numbers with decimal point. It is declared as Dec (size, scale). We can store a total of size number of digits.
4. Int or Integer – It is used to store numbers without decimal point. It is declared as int. It has no argument. Eg: age int.
5. Smallint – Used to store small integers.
6. Date – It is used to store date. The format is yyyy- mm-dd. Eg: ‘1977-05-28’.
7. Time – It is used to store time. The format is Numeric data types are int(integer), dec(decimal), small int.
   String data types are char and varchar.

Question 23.
What are the different control structures used in JavaScript? Explain any one with an example.
Answer:
CONTROL STRUCTURES IN JavaScript
In general the execution of the program is sequential, we can change the normal execution by using the control structures.
1) Simple if

Syntax:
ifftest expression)
{
statements;
}

First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true, then the statement block will be executed other wise not.

* if-else
Syntax:
if(test expression)
{
statement block1;
}
else
{
statement block2;
}

First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block 1 will be executed otherwise statement block2 will be evaluated.

Question 24.
Consider the following relations:
Arts relation:

Adm no.	Name	Batch
3001	Mpnju	A1
3009	Cristy	C1
4010	Fazil	B1
3090	Arun	K2

Sports relation:

Adm no.	Name	Batch
4015	Arjun	B1
4010	Fazil	B1
3005	Fathima	C2

Find the result of following relational algebra operation.
a) Arts ∩ Sports
b) Arts ∪ Sports
c) Sports – Arts
Answer:
a)

Adm No.	Name	Batch
4010	Fazil	B1

b)

Adm No.	Name	Batch
3001	Manju	A1
3009	Cristy	C1
4010	Fazil	B1
3090	Arun	K2
4015	Arjun	B1
3005	Fathima	C2

c)

Adm No.	Name	Batch
4015	Arjun	B1
3005	Fathima	C2

Question 25.
Explain about various types of web hosting.
Answer:
Types of web hosting
Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the yveb hosting services according : to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1. Shared Hosting
2. Dedicated Hosting
3. Virtual Private Server (VPS)

Question 26.
Write HTML code to create a web page which in-cludes, the following table.

Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>table</title>
</head>
<body>
<table border=”1''>
<tr align=”c6nter”>
<th colspan=”3">No. of Student</th>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<th rowspan=”2">Boys</th>
<td> XI</td>
<td> 140</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td> XII</td>
<td> 60</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<th rowspan=”2">Girls</th>
<td> XI</td>
<td> 75</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td>XII</td>
<td> 125</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 27.
Differentiate static and dynamic web pages.
Answer:

Static web pages	Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed	Content and layout is changed frequently
Never use database	Data base is used
Run by browser	It runs on the server and result get back to the c|ient(browser)
Easy to develop	Not at all easy

Question 28.
Explain about the operations performed on stack data structure.
Answer:
Operations on stack
a) Push operation: It is the process of inserting (adding) a new data item into the stack. If the stack is full and we try to add a new item into the stack makes the stack over flow.

b) Pop operation: It is the process of deleting (removing) a data item from the stack. If the stack is empty and we try to delete an item from the stack makes the stack underflow.

Question 29.
What is polymorphism? Write short notes about the types of polymorphism?
Answer:
Polymorphism, is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. This is achieved by function overloading, operator overloading and dynamic binding.
There are two types of polymorphism

a) Compile time(early binding / static)
polymorphism: It is the ability of the compiler’ to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during compilation time itself.
Examples are Function overloading and operator overloading

Function overloading : Functions with same name and different signatures(the jiumber of parameters or data types are different).

Operator overloading -: It gives new meaning to an existing C++operator.
Eg: we know that + is used to add two numbers, Operator overloading assigns + to a new job such as it concatenates two strings into one string.

b) Run time (late binding/dynamic) poly morphism: It is the ability of the compiler to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during run time, it uses the concept of pointers and inheritance.

Question 30.
Define structure. Write any two differences between structure and array.
Answer:
Structure is a group Of different types of logically related data referenced a single name.

Structures	Array
1. It is a user defined data type	1. Predefined data type
2. It is a collection of different types of logically related data under one name.	2. Collection of data elements of same data type having a common name
3. Elements referenced using dot operator (.)	3. Elements references using its subscripts (position value)
4. When an element of a structure becomes another structure nested structure and complex structures are formed	4. When an element’of another becomes another array, multidimensional arrays are formed.
5. Structures contains array as its elements	5. Array of structure can be formed

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 5 Score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 31.
a) The ____________ tag identifies the document as an HTML document.
b) Breifly explain about any two attributes of <BODY> tag.
c) Write the use of any four tags given below.
<B>, <U>, <SUB>, <PRE>, <IMG>, <BR>,
Answer:
a) <HTML>

b) We can use the attributes of <Body>tag
1) Bgcolor-specifies background color for the docu¬ment Body
Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR= “RED”>
2) Background – Sets the image as background for the document body
Eg. <BODY BACKGROUND= “C:/page1 ,jpg”>

c) a)<B> To make the content Bold.
b) <U> To underline the content.
c) <SUB> create a subscript.
d) <PRE> It is used to display the content as we entered in the text editor.
e) <IMG> Used to insert an image.
f) <BR> Break a line.

Question 32.
a) What are the different kinds of lists available in HTML? Briefly explain about the tags used for each kind.
b) Differentiate the following HTML code fragment:
<A Href = “http ://www.dbsc kerala.gov.in”>Higher secondary</A>
<A Href = Mailto : “scertkerala.gov.in”> SCERT </A>
c) Write any one attribute of <FRAMESET> tag.
Answer:
a) 3 types of Lists in HTML.
1) Unordered List (<UL>) – Items are displayed with square, circle or disc in front.

2) Ordered List (<OL>) – Items are displayed with the following type values.
Type = 1 for 1, 2, 3, …………….
Type = i for i, ii, iii, …………….
Type = I for I, II, III, ………….
Type = a for a, b, c, …………….
Type = A for A, B, C, ……………

3) Definition List (<DL>) – It is formed by definitions.

• <LI> – it is used to specify List items.
• <DT> – It is used to specify Definition Term.
• <DD> – Used to specify the description
• <A> is used to provide hyperlinks. Two types of linking. Its attribute is HREF.

1) External link – Used to connect 2 different web pages.
2) Internal link – Used to connect different locations of same page.

b) First one used to link a website and other is used to link an e-mail

c) Attributes are cols, rows, border or bordercolor.

Question 33.
a) Briefly explain about any two column constraints used in SQL.
b) Describe about any two DML commands of SQL.
Answer:
a) a) NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty
b) UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.
c) PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.
d) DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.
e) Autojncrement: This constraint is used to perform autojncrement the values in a column. That is automatically generate se¬rial numbers. Only one autojncrement column per table is allowed.

b) DML commands

1. Select – Used to select rows from a table. The keyword From is used with this. Where clause is used to secify the conition.
2. Insert – Used to insert new records into a table. So the keyword used is INTO.
3. Delete – Used to delete records in a table.
4. Update – Used to modify the records in a table the keyword used is set.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Part – I

A. Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Mention any one of the factors that affects Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:
Gene migration

Question 2.
Embryo with 8-16 Blastomeres is called
Answer:
Morula

Question 3.
Expand SNPs
Answer:
Single nucleotide polymorphism

Question 4.
State the term indicating the ceasing of menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menopause

B. Answer all questions from 5 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 5.
The World Summit on Systainable Development was held in 2002 in _______ South Africa.
Answer:
Johannesburg

Question 6.
The first antibiotic discovered was
Answer:
Penicillin

Part-II

A. Answer any two questions from 7 to 9. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 7.
Write any four characteristic features of individual inflicted with Down’s syndrome.
Answer:

1. Short statured
2. Small round head,
3. Furrowed tongue,
4. Partially open mouth

Question 8.
Fungi forms symbiotic associations with plants. What advantages the plant derives from this association?
Answer:

1. This associations helps to absorbs phosphorus from soil:
2. Resistance to root-borne pathogens,
3. Tolerance to salinity and drought,
4. Overall increase in plant growth and development

Question 9.
Complete the table with appropriate terms.

Name of Disease	Causative Organism	Type of Pathogen
Typhoid	A	Bacteria
B	Plasmodium	Protozoa
Ringworm	Microsporum	C
Ascariasis	D	Helminth

Answer:
A – Salmonella typhi
B – Malaria
C – Fungi
D – Ascaris

Answer any two questions from 10 to 13. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 10.
Differentiate active immunity and passive immunity.
Answer:

Active Immunity	Passive Immunity
When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response.	When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called passive immunity Passive immunity is quick and takes short time to give its full effective response.

Question 11.
(a) Name the theory of origin of life proposed by Oparin and Haldane.
(b) Who experimentally proved theory?
Answer:
a) Chemical evolution
b) S.L. Miller

Question 12.
Complete the pathway of milk secreted from the alveoli of mammary glands.

Answer:
a) Mammarytubule
b) Mammary duct

Question 13.
Describe test cross and mention its significance.
Answer:
a) Itis the crossing of a Fi progenywith its recessive parent.
b) It is used to find unknown genotype of an individual

Part – III

A. Answer any three questions from 14 to 17. Each carries 3 scors. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 14.
‘Prevention is better than cure’. What are the measures useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among adolescents? (any three measures)
Answer:

1. Avoid undue peer pressure
2. Education and counselling
3. Seeking help from parents and peers.

Question 15.
Pedigree study provides a strong tool in human ‘ genetics to trace the inheritance of a specific trait.
Define Pedigree analysis and identify the following symbols used in Pedigree analysis:

Answer:
Pedigree analysis Analysis of trait in a several generations of a family is called pedigree analysis.

1. Mating between relatives (consanguineous mating)
2. Sex unspecified
3. Female
4. Mating

Question 16.
The graph showing species area relationship is given.

(b) How is species richness related to area?
(c) What is the range of ‘Z’ value?
Answer:
a)  Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient)
C = Y – intercept

b) Within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit

c) 0.1 to 0.2

Question 17.
Distinguish homologous organs and analogous organs with one example for each and mention the type of evolution that led to the formation of homologous and analogous organs.
Answer:

Homologous organs	Analogous organs
Homologus organs are organs having same structure and origin but different functions.	Analogous Organs having same function but different structure and origin
Eg: whales, bats,Cheetah and human share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs	Eg: Wings of butterfly and of birds
Homologus organs are developed due to divergent evolution.	Analogous are deve-loped due to Con-vergent evolution

B. Answer the following questions. Carries 3 scores. (1 × 3 = 3)

Question 18.
In Eukaryotes the heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is a precursor of mRNA’. Explain the steps involved in the processing of hnRNA.
Answer:
The Heterogenous nuclear RNA (HnRNA) contain both the exons and the introns and are non-functional.
Hence, it is subjected to a processing.

Splicing : Here the introns are removed and exons are joined

Capping : In capping an unusual nucleotide (rnethyi guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’-end of
hnRNA..

Tailing : In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3’-end of a template strand

Part – IV

Answer any one question from 19 to 20. Carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 19.
(a) What is the central dogma in molecular biology and name any two processes involved in it?
(b) “In Eukaryotes, gene expression can be regulated at several levels.” Which are they?
Answer:
(a) Central Dogma in molecular biology is the unidirectional flow of information from DNA-RNA- Protein Processes in central Dogma in molecular biology

1. DNA Transcription
2. DNA Translation

(b) Regulation of gene expression in Eukaryotes

1. Transcriptional level (formation of primary transcript),
2. Translational level

Question 20.
Diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproducitve system is given below.
(a) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
(b) Mention the surgical contraceptive methods in male and female and name the part which is cut or tied up in each method.

(a) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
(b) Mention the surgical contraceptive methods in male and female and name the part which is cut or tied up in each method.
Answer:
(a) A – Ampulla
B – Ovary
C – Fimbriae
D – Cervical canal

b) Surgical contraceptive method in male : Vasectomy
The part which is cut or tied up in Vasectomy : Vas deferens
Surgical contraceptive method in male : Tubectomy.
The pat which is cut or tied up in Tubectomy : fallopian tube.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2021

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any number of questions from 1 to 44. Maximum Score 60.

Question 1.
Questions from (a) to (e) carries 1 score each. (20 × 2 = 40)
a. Which keyword is used to define a structure in C++?
b. Which type of inheritance has one base class and two or more sub-classes?
c. Name the PHP operator to join two strings.
d. Name the application of computational intelligence that refers to metrics related to human characteristics and traits.
e. Give an example of Common Service Centre associated with e-Governance of Kerala.
Answer:
a) struct
b) Hierarchical inheritance
c) concatenation operator (∵)
d) biometrics
e) Akshaya Center

Answer from 2 to 21 carries 2 scores each. (20 × 2 = 40)

Question 2.
What is the use of structure data type in C++ programs?
Answer:
It is used to store elements of different data types. The keyword struct is used to define a structure.

Question 3.
Explain the reason for memory leak in programming.
Answer:
If the memory allocated using new operator is not de allocated using delete, that memory is left unused and not released for further allocation. This situation caused memory leak.

Question 4.
If int num = 5; write C++ statements to declare a pointer variable and store the address of num into it.
Answer:
int *n=&num;

Question 5.
Write any two features of Object Oriented Programming.
Answer:

• It allows modularity
• It allows data abstraction
• It allows code reusability

Question 6.
What is polymorphism in OOP? Which are the two classifications of it?
Answer:
Polymorphism is an essential feature of object oriented programming. Polymorphism means having many forms. It is the capability of an object to behave differently in response to a message or action. That is, the same operation is performed differently depending upon the type of data it is working with. Polymorphism is implemented in C++ in two ways, compile time polymorphism and runtime polymorphism.

Question 7.
What is the advantage of circular queue over linear queue?
Answer:
It is a linear data structure in which the operations are performed based on FIFO principle. Here insertion and deletion are easier and efficient utilization of memory.

Question 8.
Distinguish dynamic web page from static web page.
Answer:

Static web pages	Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed	Content and layout is changed frequently
Never use database	Data base is used
Run by browser	It runs on the server and result get back to the client(browser)
Easy to develop	Not at all easy

Question 9.
Prepare a short note on Cascading Style Sheet.
Answer:
It is a style sheet language used for specifying common format like colour of the text, font, size, etc. other than the HML codes. That is CSS file used to separate HTML content from its style.
It can be written in 3 ways as follows

1. Inline CSS In the body section of the HTML file
2. Embedded CSS In the head section of the HTML file
3. Linked CSS ;- A separate file(external file, eg. bvm.css) with extension .css and can be linked in the web page

Question 10.
Write any two attributes of <FONT>tag and their effects in the web page.
Answer:
Face – Used to specify the font face.
Color – Used to set the font color of text.
Size – Used to set the font size of the text.

Question 11.
Write the two tags associated with <DL> tag and the use of each in making a definition list.
Answer:
<DT> It is used to find the definition term
<DD> It is used to specify the description

Question 12.
What is hyper linking in a web page? Name the tag used for it.
Answer:
<A> tag is used for hyper links, these are used to connect two different web pages or different locations of same page.

Question 13.
What is the use of Action attribute in <FORM> tag?
Answer:
Action- Here we give the name of program(including the path) stored in the web server. This usually specifies a URL.

Question 14.
How will you declare a variable in JavaScript? Give an example.
Answer:
The keyword var is used to create a variable in JavaScript. Eg. var num;

Question 15.
Write a JavaScript code to display the numbers from 1 to 100.
Answer:
vari;
for(i=1;i<=100;i++)
document.write(i+” “);

Question 16.
Write any two limitations of free hosting.
Answer:

• Limited storage space
• Do not allow multimedia files.

Question 17.
What is the use of FTP client software? Give an example.
Answer:
It is used to transfer(upload) files from our computer to web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client softwares are FileZilla, CuteFTP, SmartFTP, etc.

Question 18.
Which are the four components of DBMS?
Answer:
Hardware, Software, Data, Users and Procedures.

Question 19.
If a table has 10 rows and 5 columns, what will be its degree and cardinality?
Answer:
Cardinality is the number of rows, here it is 10 Degree is.the number of columns, here it is 5.

Question 20.
What is the advantage of using VARCHAR data type over CHAR data type in SQL?
Answer:
Both are used to store characters. CHAR is used for fixed number of characters while VARCHAR is used for variable length of characters. No memory wastage in VARCHAR method.

Question 21.
Write a short note on Infringement.
Answer:
Infringement (Violation)
Unauthorized copying or use of Intellectual property rights such as Patents, Copy rights and Trademarks
are called intellectual property Infringement(violation).

It is a punishable offence.
* Patent Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Patent without the permission of the creator. Piracy: It is the unauthorized copying, distribution and use of a creation without the permission of the creator. It is against the copy right act and fience the person committed deserve the punishment.

* Trademark Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Trademark without the permission of the creator.

* Copy right Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Copy right without the permission of the creator.

Questions from 22 to 41 carries 3 scores each. (20 × 3 = 60)

Question 22.
Compare the two types of memory allocations in C++.
Answer:

Static memory allocation	Dynamic memory allocation
Memory requirement is known in advance	Memory requirement is not known in advance
Memory is allocated during compilation time	Memory is allocated during runtime
Memory cannot be freed	Memory can be freed when not required
Less efficient	More efficient

Question 23.
Write an algorithm to perform PUSH operation in a stack.
Answer:
Start

1. lf(TOS <N-1)Then
2. TOS = TOS +1
3. STACK[TOS] = VAL
4. Else
5. Print “Stack Overflow”
6. End of If
   Stop

Question 24.
Explain any three operations performed on data structures.
Answer:
Operations on data structures
a) Traversing: Accessing or visiting or reading all elements of a data structure is called Traversal.
b) Searching : Searching is the process of finding elements in a data structure
c) Inserting : It is the process of adding new data at particular location is called insertion.

Question 25.
What is the use of each of the following text format-ting tags in HTML?
(a) <STRONG>
(b) <SUP>
(c) <U>
Answer:
a) <STRONG> – To bold text
b) <SUP> – To make the text as a Superscript.
c) <U> – To make the text underline.

Question 26.
List any three features of web server.
Answer:

• Its storage capacity is high
• It is a high speed computer
• Its processing capacity is high.
• It has multiple processors.
• Always on and connected to a high bandwidth internet connection

Question 27.
How does client side scripting differ from server side scripting?
Answer:
Following are the differences.

Client Side Scripting	Server Side Scripting
Script is copied to client browser	to the web server
Executed by the client	Executed by the server and result is get back to the browser window
Used for Client level validation	Connect to the database in the server
It is possible to block by the user	Cannot possible
Client side scripts depends the type and version of the browser	It does not depend the type and version of the browser

Question 28.
Write HTML code to display the following list in a web page.
Higher Secondary Education
* Science group
* Humanities group
* Commerce group
Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>List of Course</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<h1>Higher Secondary Education</h1>
<UL>
<LI>Science group</LI>
<LI>Humanities group</LI>
<LI>Commetce group</LI>
</UL>
</body>
</html> .

Question 29.
List any three values provided to Type attribute of <INPUT> tag and specify the use of each.
Answer:
The ‘type’ attribute of <INPUT> tag is used to create different control. The main values of type attribute is given below.

1. Text: Creates a single line Text Box.
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Text”>
2. Password: creates a password box in which characters are displayed by symbols like asterisk(*)
   Eg. <INPUT Type=“Password”>
3. Check Box: Creates a check box.
   Eg. <INPUT Type = “Check Box”>
4. Radio: Creates option button (Radio Button)
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Radio” Name=“sex” Value= “M”>Male
5. Reset: Creates reset button. It is used to clear all the data entered
   Eg. <INPUT Type= “Reset” >
6. Submit: Creates a submit Button. When click on it data entered in the form will sent to web server.
   Eg. INPUTType = “Submit”>

Question 30.
What is meant by nesting of <FRAMSET>? Explain its need.
Answer:
A<FRAMESET>tag contains another <FRAMESET> tag is called nesting. It is used to divide the Broser window more than one. Further division is possible by using nesting of this tag.

Question 31.
List three data types in JavaScript and give example for each.
Answer:
DATA TYPES IN JAVASCRIPT
Unlike C++ it uses only three basic data types

1. Number: Any number(whole or fractional) with or without sign.
   Eg: +1977,-38.0003,-100, 3.14157,etc
2. String: It is a combination of characters enclosed within double quotes.
   Eg: “BVM”, “jobi_cg@rediffmail.com”, etc
3. Boolean : We can store either true or false.lt is case sensitive. That means can’t use TRUE OR FALSE

Question 32.
Explain the working of the following JavaScript functions and specify the output of each.
(a) isNaN(“254”)
(b) “Covid-19”.charAt(3)
(c) “MASK”.toUpperCase()
Answer:
(a) isNaN()- To check whether the given value is a number or not. If the value is a number then it return a false value.
isNaN(“254”)- It returns false.

(b) charAt()- It returns the character at a particular position.
“Covis-19”.charAt(3)- It returns “i”.

(c) toUpperCase() – This is used to convert the text to upper case.
“mask”.toUpperCase() – It returns MASK.

Question 33.
Prepare short notes on three types of web hosting.
Answer:
Types of web hosting: Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the web hosting services according to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1) Shared Hosting : This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory , disk space and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.

Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, play ground, etc) with every one.

2) Dedicated Hosting : A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by th6 visitors. Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.

Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your bouse is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resources.

3) Virtual Private Server (VPS): A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS. This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo

Question 34.
Explain three types of data abstractions in DBMS.
Answer:
Database Abstraction – Abstraction means hiding, it hides certain details of how data is stored and maintained.
Levels of Database Abstraction –

1. Physical Level (Lowest Level) – It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
2. Logical Level (Next Higher Level) – It describes what data are stored in the database.
3. View Level (Highest level) – It is closest to the users. It is concerned with the way in which the individual users view the data.

Question 35.
List any three constraints used with CREATE TABLE command and specify the use of each.
Answer:
a) NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty

b) UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.

c) PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.

d) DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.

e) Auto_increment: This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That is automatically generate serial numbers. Only one auto_ncrement column per table is allowed.

Question 36.
Explain the use of any three DML commands in SQL.
Answer:
DMLcommands(SUDI-Any3)

1. Select -: Used to select or display rows from a table. The keyword from is used with this. The Where clause is used to specify the condition.
2. Update -: Used to modify the records in a table, the keyword used is set.
3. Delete -: Used to delete records in a table.
4. Insert -: Used to insert new records into a table. The keyword used is into.

Question 37.
Briefly describe three optional clauses used with SELECT command in SQL.
Answer:
Distinct – It is used to select distinct data from a table.
Where – This clause is used to give a condition for selection
Between And – This is used to select records which satisfies a range of values.

Question 38.
Write the syntax of for loop in PHP and explain its working.
Answer:

for(initialization; test;update)
{
body;
}

First initialize the loop variable. Then it check the condition, if it is true then the body will be executed. After that the loop variable will be updated and again check the condition. This process will be continued until the condition becomes false.

Question 39.
Explain two types of arrays in PHP.
Answer:
Arrays in PHP
In PHP array is a collection of key and value pairs. Unlike C++, in PHP we can use either non negative integers or strings as keys.

Different types of arrays in PHP

• Indexed arrays
• Associate arrays
• Multi dimensional arrays.

Indexed arrays-: The elements in an array can be distinguished as first or second or third etc. by the indices and the index of the first element is zero. In PHP the function array() is used to create an array. Syntax: $array_name=array(value1 ,value2 );
OR
$array_variable[key]=value;
Eg:$mark=array(60,70,80);
$course=array(“Science”,’’Commerce”,’’Humanities”);.
OR

$mark[0]=60;
$mark[1]=70;
$mark[2]=80;
$course=”Science”;
$couree=”Commerce”;
$course=”Humanities”;
Eg:
<!DOCTYPE HTML>
<html lang=”en”>
<head>
<title>
We are learning PHP
</title>
</head> >
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<?php
$couree=array(“Science”, “Commerce”,"Humanities”);
for($i=0;$i<3;$i++)
echo $course[$i].’’,”;
?>
</body>
</html>

The function print_r can be used for printing an array.
Syntax: print_r(array_name);
Eg:

<!DOCTYPEHTML>
<html lang=”en”>
<head>
<title>
We are learning PHP
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<?php
$ c o u r s e = a r r a y ( ‘ Science”, “Commerce”,"Humanities”);
print_r($course);
?>
</body>
</html>

Question 40.
Write a brief note on three services of cloud computing.
Answer:
Cloud service models (3 major services)
1) Software as a Service (SaaS): A SaaS provider company provides more services on demand such as they allow to access both resources and applications.
Examples are Google Docs, Adobe creative cloud, Microsoft Office 365, Facebook.com etc.

2) Platform as a Service(PaaS): A PaaS provider company provides subscribers access to the components that they require to develop and operate applications over the Internet.
Example : LAMP platform(Lirtux,Apache Server,MySQL and PHP), ASP.NET, PHP and Python, Google’s App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Force.com, etc.

3) Infrastructure as a Service(laaS): It provides basic storage devices and computing capabilities as standardized services over the network. Example: Amazon Web Services, Joyent, AT&T, GoGrid etc.

Question 41.
Write any three advantages of e-Learning.
Answer:
Advantages of E Learning :

• It can offer variety courses to large number of students from distant location.
• It saves journey time and money, instructor fees, etc.
• People can enjoy e Learning with lower cost
• It enables people to do courses conducted by national or inter national institutions.

Questions from 42 to 44 carries 5 scores each. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 42.
A web page is to be developed for Kerala Tourism.
(a) Write the basic structure of HTML program to design the page.
(b) Which attribute will be used to give green colour to the background.
(c) Write the HTML statement to insert an image file “kerala.jpeg”.
(d) Write the HTML statement to scroll the text “God’s own country.” (2 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 5)
Answer:

a) <html>
<head>
<title>Kerala Tourism</title>
</head>
i(1<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<h1 align=”centeiJ’><u>KeralaTourism</u></h1>
<p> Kerala is blessed with beutiful destinations such as beaches, backwaters, hill stations etc. It is also known as God’s own Country.
</p>
<h3>Tourist Destinations</h3>
<UL>
<LI>Kovalam</LI>
<LI>Munnar</LI>
<LI>Thekkadi</LI>
<LI>Kochi</LI>
<LI>Vayanadu</LI>
</UL>
</body>
</html>

b) <body bgcolor=”green”> or <body bgcolor=”#00FF00″>

c) <img src=”kerala.jpg” width=”400 “ height=”400″>

d) <marquee>God’s own country</marquee>

Question 43.
Write HTML code to create a table in a web page as shown below.

2021	Science	Humanities	Commerce
Std. XI	165	58	109
Std. Xlt	173	64	112

Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>Simple Table</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor-’blue” text=”red”>
<table border=”1">
<tr>
<th>2021</th>
<th>Science</th>
<th>HumanitIes</th>
<th >Commerce</th >
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Std XI</td>
<td>165</td>
<td>58</td>
<td>109</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Std XII</td>
<td>173</td>
<td >64 </td >
<td>112</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 44.
Observe the following tables DBMS.
Football

PCode	PName	Class
101	Rahul	12 C
105	John	11 A
107	Noufal	12 A

Atheletics

PCode	PName	Class
103	Renjith	12 B
105	John	11 A
110	Irfan	12 A

(a) Explain UNION operation with the help of the above two tables.
(b) What will be the result if INTERSECTION opera¬tion is performed on these tables?
(c) Which operation is to be performed to get the list of students in Football from class 12A? ( 2+ 2 + 1 = 5)
Answer:
a) UNION operation returns a relation containing all tuples appearing in either or both of two relations. The resulted relation is as follows.

Pcode	Pname	Class
101	Rahul	12C
103	Renjith	12B
105	John	11A
107	Noufal	12A
110	Irfan	12A

b) INTERSECTION operation returns a relation of all tuples appearing in both of the two relations.

Pcode	Pname	Class
105	John	11A

c) σ_{Class=”12A”}(Football)

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum: 60 Scores

Part – I

A. Answer any five questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Which of the following is a ferromagnetic substance?
(a) NaCl
(b) Co
(c) MnO
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(b) Co

Question 2.
The electrolyte used in Lead Storage battery is __________________
Answer:
H₂SO₄ = 38%

Question 3.
The concentration term that varies with temperature is
(a) Mass
(b) Mole fraction
(c) Molality
(d) Molarity
Answer:
(d) Molarity

Question 4.
The unit of rate constant of a first order reaction is __________________
Answer:
s^-1

Question 5.
Name the metal that can be purified by Mond’s process.
Answer:
Nickel (Ni)

Question 6.
Which of the following is a macromolecular colloid?
(a) Gold sol
(b) Sulphur sol
(c) Rubber latex
(d) As₂S₃ sol
Answer:
(c) Rubber Latex

Question 7.
Carbyl amine reaction is given by __________________
(a) CH₃ – NH₂
(b) CH₃ – CN
(c) CH₃ – NO
(d) CH₃ – NH – CH₃
Answer:
(a) CH₃ – NH₂

Question 8.
Find the product formed when formaldehyde reacts with CH₃ – Mg – Cl.
Answer:
CH₃ – CH₂ – OH

Question 9.
The chemical formula of phosgene is
(a) CaCl₂
(b) CHCl₃
(c) COCl₂
(d) PH₃
Answer:
(c) COCl₂

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13. each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
Which of the following bases is not present in RNA?
(a) Adenine
(b) Thymine
(c) Guanine
(d) Uracil
Answer:
(b) Thymine

Question 11.
The compounds required for the preparation of Bakelite are
(a) Urea, formaldehyde
(b) Phenol, formaldehyde
(c) Melamine, formaldehyde
(d) Phenol, Urea
Answer:
(b) Phenol, formaldehyde

Question 12.
Saccharin is used as
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) Food preservative
(c) Artificial sweetener
(d) Anti-oxidant
Answer:
(c) Artificial sweetener

Question 13.
During galvanisation the iron surface is coated with
(a) Mercury
(b) Zinc
(c) Tin
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(b) Zinc

Part – II

A. Answer any two questions from 14 to 17. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
Distinguish between order and molecularity of chemical reaction.
Answer:

Order	Molecularity
1. It is the sum of the powers to which the concentration terms are raised in the rate equation.	1. No. of molecules taking part in the chemical reaction.
2. It can be in integral and zero.	2. It can be integral but not zero.
3. Experimental	3. Theoretical

Question 15.
What is Lanthanoid Contraction? Mention one consequence of it.
Answer:
The steady decrease in the atomic and ionic size of lanthanoids with increase in atomic number is known as lanthanoid contraction.
Consequences:

• Separation of Lanthanoid is difficult
• Zr and Hf are similar.

Question 16.
What is the chemical name of Hinsberg reagent? What is its use?
Answer:
Benzene sulphonyl chloride (C₆H₅SO₂Cl).
It is used to distinguish primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.

Question 17.
Calculate the osmotic pressure of 0.1 M glucose solution at 27°C (R = 0.082).
Answer:
π = CRT
= 0.1 × 0.082 × 300
= 2.46 atm

B. Answer any two questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
Explain the behaviour of conductor and insulator using Band theory.
Answer:

Question 19.
How is Potassium Permanganate prepared?
Answer:
The preparation of Potassium permanganate from Pyrolusite (MnO₂) involves two steps.

1. MnO₂ is fused with KOH to form potassium manganate.
   2MnO₂ + 4KOH + O₂ → 2K₂MnO₄ + 2H₂O
2. Manganate ion on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline medium gives permanganate ion.
   \(\mathrm{MnO}_4^{2-} \longrightarrow \mathrm{MnO}_4^{-}\)

Question 20.
Write the two stages involved in the conversion of Aniline to Phenol.
Answer:

Part – III

A. Answer any three questions from 21 to 24. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
Distinguish between Schottky and Frenkel defect.
Answer:

Schottky Defect	Fenkel Defect
1. Equal number of cations and anions are missed from the lattice.	1. Cations are missing from the lattice and are seen in the interstitial space.
2. Density decreases.	2. No change in density.
3. Cations and anions are similar in size.	3. Cations and anions are large with a difference.

Question 22.
A first order reaction is 90% completed in 20 seconds. Find the rate constant and half-life period.
Answer:

Question 23.
What is Williamson’s synthesis? How is it used to prepare methoxy benzene?
Answer:
Alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide to form ether. This reaction is called Williamson’s ether synthesis.
Or
R-X + R’-ONa’ → R-O-R’ + NaX
By Williamson synthesis, we can prepare methoxybenzene (Anisole) by treating sodium phenoxide (C₆H₅-ONa) with methyl bromide (CH₃-Br).
C₆H₅ – ONa + CH₃ – Br → C₆H₅ – O – CH₃ + NaBr

Question 24.
(i) What is Reimer-Tiemann reaction? (2)
(ii) Identify the products formed when phenol is treated with Bromine water. (1)
Answer:
(i)

Phenol reacts with chloroform in the presence of NaOH to form salicylaldehyde.
(ii)

B. Answer any two questions from 25 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
(i) What is Vant Hoff factor? (1)
(ii) The molar mass of benzoic acid measured from colligative property shows an abnormal value. Explain. (2)
Answer:
(i) Van’t Hoff factor (i) is defined as:

(ii) In benzoic acid, due to association of molecules, the total no. of molecules decreases. Hence colligative property decreases and molecular mass increases.

Question 26.
(i) Halo arenes are less reactive in nucleophilic substitution. Why? (2)
(ii) What is Wurtz-Fittig reaction? (1)
Answer:
(i) Due to the delocalisation of π electrons in the benzene ring halo arenes are less reactive in nucleophilic substitution reactions or resonance effect, sp² hybrid C atom is attached to halogen atom.
(ii) When a mixture of alkyl halide and aryl halide is treated with sodium in dry ether, an alkyl arene is formed. This reaction is called Wurtz-Fittig reaction.

Question 27.
(i) Explain the hydroboration-oxidation of propene. (2)
(ii) What is Wood Spirit? (1)
Answer:
(i) Hydroboration-Oxidation is according to Markovnikov’s addition due to the presence of H₂-O₂.

(ii) Wood spirit – methanol CH₃OH

Part – IV

A. Answer any three questions from 28 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
(i) What are Fuel Cells? Explain the working of H₂-O₂ fuel cell. (3)
(ii) Give any two advantages of fuel cells. (1)
Answer:
(i) Fuel cells are galvanic cells which convert the energy of combustion of fuels directly into electrical energy.
Working of H₂ – O₂ fuel cell:
Anode reaction: 2H₂ + 4OH^– → 4H₂O + 4e^–
Cathode reaction: O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e^– → 4OH^–
Overall reaction: 2H₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2H₂O (l)
(ii) The advantages of fuel cell are:

• Eco friendly
• By-product is pure water
• Continuously working

Question 29.
(i) Match the following:

Polymer	Monomer
HDP	Amino acid
Teflon	Ethylene
Protein	D-Glucose
Starch	Tetra fluoro ethene

(ii) What is Vulcanisation? How does it enhance the properties of rubber? (2)
Answer:
(i)

Polymer	Monomer
HDP	Ethylene
Teflon	Tetrafluoroethene
Protein	Amino acid
Starch	D-glucose

(ii) Heating rubber with sulphur to make natural rubber harder is known as vulcanisation. Sulphur cross links are formed between the monomer units.

Question 30.
(i) Hydrolysis of sucrose is called inversion of sugar. Why? (2)
(ii) Why is sucrose called a Non-reducing sugar? (2)
Answer:
(i) Dextro rotatory sucrose on hydrolysis gives a mixture of laevo rotatory. Thus hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in sign of rotation from dextro to laevo and the product is called invert sugar. This process is called inversion of sugar.
(ii) Those carbohydrates which do not contain free aldehyde or ketone group are called non-reducing sugars.
Eg. sucrose

Question 31.
(i) Explain the steps involved in the leaching of Bauxite. (3)
(ii) What is the role of Cryolite in the metallurgy of Aluminium? (1)
Answer:
(i) Bauxite is treated with NaOH. Then sodium aluminate is formed. To this solution CO₂ gas is passed. Sodium aluminate is precipitated as hydrated alumina. It is filtered and heated to get pure alumina.

(ii) Cryolite lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity.

B. Answer any one question from 32 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
(i) What is the Brownian movement? What is the reason for this movement? (2)
(ii) What are Zeolites? Write its use. (2)
Answer:
(i) Brownian movement: It is the zig-zag movement of colloidal particles.
(ii) Zeolite: Sodium Aluminum silicate.
They are used as a water softener, shape-selective catalyst.

Question 33.
(i) Distinguish between Anionic and Cationic detergents with example. (2)
(ii) What are broad spectrum antibiotics? Give an example. (2)
Answer:
(i)

Anionic Detergents	Cationic Detergents
1. They contain Na salts of sulpho-nated long chain alcohols or hydrocarbons.	1. They are quaternary ammonium salts of amines with acetates, chlorides or bromides.
2. The anionic part is used in the cleaning action.	2. Cationic part is the cause for cleaning action.
3. Used in toothpaste.	3. Used in Hair conditioner.
4. Sodium Lauryl sulphate or Sod. Dodecyl benzene sulphonate.	4. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide or quarternary ammonium compounds.

(ii) Broad Spectrum Antibiotics: They are effective for a wide range of diseases.
(Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are called broad spectrum antibiotics).
eg. Chloramphenicol, Ampicillin

Part – V

Answer any two questions from 34 to 36. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
(i) What are the major steps involved in the contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid? (3)
(ii) What are interhalogen compounds? Give two examples. (2)
(iii) PCl₃ fumes in moist air. Why? (1)
Answer:
(i) Contact process involves the following steps:
S + O₂ → SO₂
SO₂ + O₂ → SO₃
SO₃ + H₂SO₄ → H₂S₂O₇ Oleum
(ii) Inter halogen compounds are formed by combining different halogen atoms, eg, BrF₅, CIF₃.
(iii) PCl₃ + H₂O → H₃PO₃ + HCl
PCl₃ reacts with H₂O to form fuming HCl

Question 35.
(i) What is Rosenmund’s reduction? (2)
(ii) Give the aldol condensation product of CH₃ – CHO. (1)
(iii) Which is the strongest acid – acetic acid, chloro acetic acid or fluoro acetic acid? Justify. (2)
Answer:
(i) Rosenmund reduction: Acid chlorides react with hydrogen in the presence of Pd supported on BaSO₄, we get aldehydes. This reaction is called Rosenmund’s reduction.
The equation:

(ii) Crotanaldehyde or, But-2-enal

(iii) Fluoroacetic acid: Due to the presence of -I effect (electron withdrawing) group.

Question 36.
(i) Give the IUPAC name of [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ and [Ni(CO)₄]. (2)
(ii) Explain Linkage isomerism with an example. (2)
(iii) Represent the geometrical isomers of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]. (2)
Answer:
(i) [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ – Penta ammine bromido cobalt (III) sulphate
[Ni(CO)₄] – Tetracarbonylnickel(O)
(ii) Linkage isomerism is due to the difference in the linking atom.
eg: [Co(NH₃)₅ (NO₂)]Cl₂ – Linking the nitro group with Cobalt through Nitrogen atom
[Co(NH₃)₅(ONO)]Cl₂ – Linking the nitro group with Cobalt through oxygen atom
(iii) Geometrical isomers of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

I. Answer any 3 q uestions from 1 -5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Write the part of fallopian tube where fertilization takes place in human beings.
Answer:
Aampullary-isthmic junction

Question 2.
Select the completely curable sexually transmitted infections (STIs) from the following:

Genital herpes SPphilis Chiamydiosis Hepatities-B

Answer:
Syphilis, Chlamydiasis

Question 3.
obserye the given figure showing global magnitude of biodiversity in vertebrates. Identify the group of animals labelled as A.

Answer:
Fishes

Question 4.
Expand:
(a)UTR
(b)VNTR
Answer:
(a) Untranslated Regions
(b) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats

Question 5.
Identify the first word pair relationship and fill theblank with suitable word for second pair.
Answer:
Brain

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6-16. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
(a) Define placenta.
(b) Write any 2 hormones secreted from placenta.
Answer:
(a) Structural and functional connection between embryo and maternal body is called placenta I Chorionic villi and uterine tissues together form the placenta.

(b)
1. Human chorionic gonadotropin
2. Human placental lactogen

Question 7.
Biodiversity loss is dangerous threat facing planet earth in present days. Write the four reasons of Biodiversity loss given as evil quartet.
Answer:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasions
4. Co-extinctions

Question 8.
(a) Define homologous organs.
(b) Analogous structures are a result of the evolution.
Answer:
(a) Organs that has similar structure but having different function.
(b) Convergent evolution.

Question 9.
Name the microbes which produce the following bioactive molecules and write use of (a) and (b).
(a) Cyclosporin A
(b) Statin
Answer:
(a) Trchodenna polysporum.
Used as Immunosuppressive agent.

(b) Monescus purpureus,
Blood diolesterol lowering agents.

Question 10.
Complete the table by filling (A) and (B)

Birth Control Methods
Sterilisation	(B) ________
Vasectomy (A) _______	Multiload 375 Lipper’s Loop

Answer:
(A) – Tuboctomy
(B) – Non-medicated IUDs

Question 11.
Identify the given symbols of Pedegree.

Answer:
(a) MaleorUnaffected male
(b) Female or Unaffected female
(C) Mating
(d) Mating between relatives or consanguineous mating.

Question 12.
Observe the given figure and answer the following questions:

(a) Identify the given strucutre
(b) Name (A) and (B)
Answer:
(a) Nudeosorne
(b) (A)-DNA
(B) Histone octamer

Question 13.
Complete the given representation:

Answer:
(A) Skin
(B) Physiological Barrier
(C) PMNL – neutrophils or Monocytes
(D) Cytokine Barriers.

Question 14.
(a) A man with blood group ‘AB marries a woman with blood group ‘O’. Write the possible genotes of blood grotipsAB and O.
(b) Write the possible genotypes of their offsprings by suing Punnet Square.
Answer:
(a) AB blood group genotpe – \(\|\left.^A\right|^B\)
O blood group genotype – ii

Question 15.

Scientists	Contribution
George Gamow	DNA finger-printing
Alec Jeifreys	Chargaff Rule
Frederick Griffith	Genetic Code
Taylor and Colleagues	Transformation experiment
	DNA replication

Answer:

Scientists	Contribution
George Gamow	Genetic Code
Alec Jeifreys	DNA finger-printing
Frederick Griffith	Transformation experiment
Taylor and Colleagues	DNA replication

Question 16.
Using the given terms in brackets complete the evolutionary stages of man. (homo habilis, Ramapithecus, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man)

Answer:
(A) Ramapithecus
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Neanderthal man
(D) Homo sapiens (Not given in question)

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17 to 20. Each carries 3 scoers. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
Observe the given figures A and B. Answer the following questions:

(a) Name the embryoñic stages in figure A and B.
(b) In figure B outertayer is trophoblast, and inner group of cells attached to trophoblast is ___
(C) Define implantation.
Answer:
(a) A – Morula
B – Blastocyst
(b) Inner cell mass
(c) Blastocyst embedded in the endometrium of the uterus is called implantation.

Question 18.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Complete the given representation.

(b) Categorie the following bases into Purines and Pyrimidines:
Adenine, Cytosine, Uracil, Guanine
(c) DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains where back bone is constituted by ______ and bases project inside.
Answer:
(a) (A) – Transcription
(B) Translation
(b) Purines – Adenine and Guanine. Pyrimidines – Uraail & Cytosine.
(c) Sugar – phosphate.

Question 19.
(a) Cancer causing agents are called ____
(b) Differentiate between benign tumour and malignant tumour.
(c) Write any two methods to detect cancer of the internal organs.
Answer:
(a) Carcinogens.

(b) Benign Tumors:
The cancer, which are localized to a particular tissue, are called benign tumor. They cause little damage.

Malignant Tumors:
Mali gnant tumors consist of mass of proliferative cells. The cells can invade to other tissues

(c) (i) Radiography
(ii) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging).

Question 20.
Observe the figures given in (A), (B) and (C) and answer the questions.
(a) Identify and write the genetic disorder in (A), (B) and (C).
(b) Write any three Mendalian disorders.

Answer:
(a) (A) Down’s Syndrome
(B) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
(C) Turner’s Syndrome
(b) Haemophilia, Sickle-cell anaemia, Phenylketonuna,

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

PART – I

A. Answer any five questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The keyword used to define structure data type in C++ is ___________ .
Answer:
struct

Question 2.
Which of the following operator is used for dynamic memory allocation ?
(a) *
(b) &
(c) new
(d) delete
Answer:
new

Question 3.
Identify the type of inheritance that has two base classes and one derived class.
(a) Multi level inheritance
(b) Multiple inheritance
(c) Hierarchical inheritance
(d) Hybrid inheritance
Answer:
Multiple Inheritance

Question 4.
Name the data structure that follows LIFO principle to organize data.
Answer:
stack

Question 5.
Which attribute is used with <A> tag to specify the name of the web page to be linked ?
Answer:
href

Question 6.
The HTML tag used to specify a data item in a definition list in a web page is ____________ .
Answer:
<dt>and</dt>

Question 7.
Name the keyword used to declare a variable in JavaScript.
Answer:
var

Question 8.
Which of the following data is represented by Boolean data type in JavaScript ?
(a) 1
(b) TRUE
(c) “true”
(d) true
Answer:
d) true

Question 9.
The PHP operator used to join two strings is ____________ .
Answer:
(Dot) operator

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13 each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
The full form of VPS is
(a) Virtual Premium Service
(b) Virtual Private Service
(c) Virtual Premium Server
(d) Virtual Private Server
Answer:
Virtual Private Server

Question 11.
The level of data abstraction in DBMS that is closest to the user is known as __________ .
(a) Physical level
(b) Logical level
(c) View level
(d) Conceptual level
Answer:
View level

Question 12.
If a table STUDENT has 5 columns and another table TEACHER has 3 columns, the Cartesian product STUDENT × TEACHER will have columns.
Answer:
8, the sum of degrees

Question 13.
Variable in PHP begin with ____________ character.
Answer:
$

PART – II

A. Answer any two questions from 14 to 17 each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
What is polymorphism in Object Oriented Program-ming? Name the two types of polymorphism.
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. Two types of polymorphism are compile time polymorphism and run time polymorphism.

Question 15.
Explain the situations ‘overflow’ and ‘underflow’ in data structure operations.
Answer:
Overflow happens if we try to insert a new item when the data structure is full. Underflow happens if we try to remove an item from an empty data structure.

Question 16.
Write down the use of any two built-in functions in JavaScript with the help of examples.
Answer:
BUILT IN FUNCTIONS (methods)
1. alert() : This is used to display a message (dialogue box) on the screen.
eg: alert(“Welcome to JS”);

2. isNaN(): To check whether the given value is a number or not. It returns a Boolean value. If the value is not a numberfNaNI then this function returns a true value otherwise it returns a false value.
Eg: isNaN(“BVM”); returns true

3. toUpperCase(): This is used to convert the text to upper case.
Eg:var x=“bvm”;
alert(x.toUpperCase());

4. toLowerCase() This is used to convert the text to lowercase.
Eg: var x= “BVM”;
aiert(x.toLowerCase());

5. charAt(): It returns the character at a particular position.
Syntax: variable.charAt(index);
The index of first character is 0 and the second is T and so on. ,
Eg: var x=“HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(x.charAt(4));(anytwo)

Question 17.
Distinguish between serial computing and parallel computing.
Answer:

Serial computing	Parallel computing
A single processor.	Multiple processors with a shared memory.
Problem is broken into a series of instructions	Problem is broken into discrete parts that that can be solved concurrently
Only one instruction is executed on a single processor at a time.	More than one instruction is executed on multiple processors at a time.
Instructions are executed sequentially one after another.	Instructions execute simultaneously on different processors

B. Answer any two questions from 18 20 each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
What is meant by self-referential structure ?
Answer:
Self referential structure is a structure in which one of the elements is a pointer to the same structure.
Dynamic data structures like linked list, tree etc. can be implemented using self referential structure.

Question 19.
How do the access labels of class data type implement data hiding ?
Answer:
It is called data abstraction(hiding up of data and functions). The access specifiers (labels) usedin C++ are Public,Private and Protected. In, Public all the members will be available to everyone. In private, the data and function can’t be accessed by other classes. In protected, data and functions will only be available to the derived class.

Question 20.
Prepare short note on linked list.
Answer:
Linked list is a dynamic data structure containing a collection of nodes, where each node consists of a data and a link to the next node. Traversing, deletion, insertion etc. are operations on linked list.

PART – III

A. Answer any three questions from 21 to 24 each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
Write an algorithm to perform pop operation in a stack.
Answer:
Algorithm for pop operation is

Start
If (top > -1) Then
ltem= Stack[top]
top = top - 1
Else
Print "Stack Underflow”
End of If
Stop

Question 22.
Distinguish between static web page and dynamic web page.
Answer:

Static web page	Dynamic web page
• Contents and layout is fixed	• Contents and layout may change during run time
• Never use databases	• Database is used
• Server side application does not require	• Runs Server side application
• Easy to develop	• Programming skills is needed

Question 23.
Explain the merits and demerits of free hosting.
Answer:
Merits : Free hosting provides web hosting services free of cost.lt is very useful for the beginners.

De-merits; There may be restriction on the uploading file size. Free hosting service usually provide either their own sub domain or as a directory service. Free web hosting providers E.g. sites.google.com , blogspot.in

Question 24.
Briefly describe the three cloud service models.
Answer:
Cloud service models (3 major services)
1) Software as a Service (SaaS): A SaaS provider company provides more services on demand*’ such as they allow to access both resources and applications.
Examples are Google Docs, Adobe creative cloud, Microsoft Office 365, Facebook.com etc.

2) Platform as a Service (PaaS): A PaaS provider company provides subscribers access to the components that they require to develop and operate applications over the Internet.
Example : LAMP platform(Linux,Apache Server,MySQL and PHP), ASP.NET, PHP and Python, Google’s App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Force.com, etc.

3) Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) : It provides basic storage devices and computing capabilities as standardized services over the network.
Example: Amazon Web Services, Joyent, AT&T, GoGrid etc.

B. Answer any two questions from 25 to 27 each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
Write a JavaScript code to display the sum of the first 100 natural numbers.
Answer:
< script > var i, sum=0;
for(i = 1; i <= 100; i + +)
sum = sum + i;
document.write(sum);
< /script >

Question 26.
Explain the use of any three aggregate functions in SQL.
Answer:
SUM() – To find the sum of values
AVG() – To find the average of values
MIN() – To find the smallest value
MAX() – To find the largest value
COUNT() – To count the number of values excluding NULL.

Question 27.
Briefly describe any three ways of protecting Industrial Property Rights.
Answer:
Intellectual property is divided into two categories
1) Industrial Property
2) Copyright

1) Industrial property,
It ensures the protection of industrial inventions, designs, Agricultural products etc from unauthorized copying or creation or use. In India this is done by Controller of Patents Designs and Trademarks.

• Patents: A person or organization invented a product or a creation can be protected from unauthorized copying or creation without the permission of the creator by law. This right is called Patent. In India the validity of the right is up to 20 years. After this anybody can use freely.
• Trademark: This is a unique, simple and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company. It must be registered. The period of registration is for 10 years and can be renewed. The registered trademark under Controller General of Patents Design and Trademarks cannot use or copy by anybody else.
• Industrial designs: A product or article is designed so beautifully to attract the customers. This type of designs is called industrial design. This is a prototype and used as a model for large scale production.
• Geographical indications: Some products are well known by the place of its origin. Kozhikkodan Halwa, Marayoor Sharkkara(Jaggery), Thirupathi Ladoo, etc are the examples.

2) Copyright
The trade mark is ©, copy right is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates a new work by his own and by Law it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator for 60 years after the death of the author.

Attributes	Patent	Trademark	Copyright
Items	Product, Process	Name, Logo, Signs	Creativity, artistic
Registration Required	Yes	Yes	No(Automatic)
Duration	20 years	10 years	Upto 60 years after the death of the author
Renewable	No	Yes	NA

PART – IV

A. Answer any three questions from 28 to 31 each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
(a) How does static memory allocation differ from dynamic memory allocation ? (2)
(b) What is memory leak ? (2)
Answer:
a) In the static memory allocation, the amount of memory to be allocated is predicted and preknown. This memory is allocated during the compilation itself. All the declared variables declared normally, are allocated memory statically.

In the dynamic memory allocation, the amount of memory to be allocated is not known before hand. It is allocated during run time as and when re-quired. The memory is dynamically allocated using ‘new’ operator.

The objects that are allocated memory statically have the lifetime as their scope allows, as de¬cided by the compiler. And the objects that are allocated memory dynamically have.the lifetime as decided by the programmer. That is, until the programmer explicify deallocates the memory, such objects live in the memory.

b) Memory leak occurs when programmers allocate memory by using the new operator and forgets to de-allocate the memory by using delete operator.

Question 29.
(a) Distinguish between CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL. (2)
(b) What is the use of SELECT command in SQL ? Write down its syntax of usage. (2)
Answer:
a) char : It is used to store fixed number of characters . The memory is not used then it will be wasted.
varchar: It is also used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.

b) SELECT command is used to retrieve rows from a table. The symbol * is used for selecting all the columns in a table.
Its syntax is
SELECT < column “ name > [< column “ name >,< column “ name > ] FROM < table “
name >;
E.g. SELECT “ FROM student;

Question 30.
(a) Compare echo() and print () functions in PHP. (2)
(b) Write any two string functions in PHP and their uses. (2)
Answer:
a) The difference between echo and print

echo	print
take more than one parameter	only one parameter
Does not return any value	Returns TRUE or 1 on successful print and FALSE otherwise
Faster	slower

b) String functions

• chr()-: Returns a character corresponding to the ASCII.
  Eg. chr(ascii value);
• strlen()- Returns the number of characters in a string strlen(string);
• strops()- Returns the position of the first occurrence of a string inside another string. strpos(main string, sub string, start position);
• strcmp()- Compares two stings. strcmp(string1 ,string2);

Eg.

<!DOCTYPE HTML>
<html lang=“en”>
<head>
<title>
We are learning PHP
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=“cyan”>
<?php
echo “ASCII 65 is ”.chr(65).”<br>”;
echo”The length is “.strien(“ComputerScience”).”<br>”;
echo “e is at “.strposf'Computer Science”,’e’,8).”<br>";
if(strcmp(“Science”,’’Commerce”))
echo”Science and Commerce is not same”;
else
echo”Science and Commerce is same”;
?>
</body>
</html>

Question 31.
What is e-Governance ? Briefly describe the three components of e-Governance.
Answer:
The integration of computers and communication technology for the benefit of delivering government services to citizens in a convenient, efficient and transparent manner. Three infrastructures (components) are SDC, SWAN and CSC

(a) SDC (State Data Center): – SDC supports e- Governance initiative by providing functions like, keep data repository of the state, secure data storage, online delivery of services, state internet portal, disaster recovery etc.

(b) KSWAN (Kerala State Wide Area Network): – This WAN acts as a backbone of the State Information Infrastructure.
It connects Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi and Kozhikode as its hubs and extends to all 14 districts linking each of the 152 Block Panchayats.

(c) CSC (Common Service Centre): – These are front-end delivery points of the government, private and social sector services for the rural citizens of India. It helps in telephone, electricity and water bill payments, online application, certificate distribution etc. In Kerala, Akshayacenters are working as CSCs.

B. Answer any one question from 32 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
(a) Explain the two types of communication over the web. (2)
(b) Distinguish between Rowspan and Colspan used in the creation of tables in web pages. (2)
Answer:
(a) Two types of communication over the web.

1. Client to server communication: This, communication is carried out between client to the web server (shopping site). The technology used to protect data that are transferred from client to web server is https.
2. Server to server communication: This communication is usually carried out between web .sever (seller) to another web server (Gateway or bank), for the safe transaction.

(b) Colspan is used for combining two columns in a table. Rowspan is used for combining two rows in a table. Colspan and Rowspan are used with < TD > or < TH > tag.

Question 33.
(a) Prepare short note on cluster computing. (2)
(b) Write any two advantages of grid computing. (2)
Answer:
a) Cluster means groups. Here a group of Internet connected computers, storage devices, etc are linked together and work like a single computer. It provides computational power through parallel processing. Its cost is less and used for scientific applications.

Advantages

• Price performance ratio: The performance is high and the cost is less.
• Availability: If one group of system fails the other group will do the work.
• Scalability: Computers can be easily added according to the work load increases.

Disadvantages

• Programmability issues: Different computers uses different software and hardware hence the issues.
• Problem in finding fault: Fault detection is very difficult.

b) Advantages of grid computing.
Grid computing.
It is a system in which millions of computers, smart phones, satellites, telescopes, cameras, sensors etc. are connected each other as a cyber world in which computational power (resources, services, data) is readily available like electric power. Any information at any time at any place can be made available in our finger tips. This is used in disaster management, weather forecasting, market forecasting, bio information etc.

PART – V

Answer any two questions from 34 to 36. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
(a) Write any two attributes used with <BODY> tag and specify their effects in the webpage. (2)
(b) Name any four text formatting tags in HTML and write down the use of each. (4)
Answer:
(a) Write any two attributes used with < BODY >
tag and specify their effects in the webpage.
Background:- To set a background image.
Bgcolor:- To change background color.
Text:- To set color of text in the webpage.
Link:- To set color of hyperlink not visited. Alink:- To set color of active hyperlink.
Vlink:- To set color of visited hyperlink.
Left/Top margin:- To set margin

(b) <B> - For Bold
<I> - For Italicising
<U>-For Underline
<STRONG> - For Bold Text
<BIG> - Big sized text
<Small> - Small sized text
<SUB> - Subscript
<SUP> - Superscript 

Question 35.
(a) Write an HTML code to create a table as shown below. (3)

Year	Computer Science	Comp.Appl.(Commerce)	Comp.Appl. (Humanities)
2021	55	108	57
2022	60	120	60

(b) Explain the three types of lists that can be created in HTML documents. Name the tags required for each.
Answer:
(a) <html>
<head>
<title>Table</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”red”>
<tableborder=”1">
<tr align=”center”>
<th><b>Year</b></th>
<th><b>Computer Science</b></th>
<th><b>Comp.Appl.<br>(Commerce)</b></th>
<th><b>Comp. Appl.<br>(Humanities)</b></th>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td>2021</td>
<td>55</td>
<td>108</td>
<td>57</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td>2022</td>
<td>60</td>
<td>120</td>
<td>60</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

b) 3 types of Lists in HTML.
1) Unordered List (<UL>) – Items are displayed , with square, circle or disc in front.

2) Ordered List (<OL>) – Items are displayed with the following type values.
Type = 1 for 1, 2, 3
Type = i for i, ii, iii,
Type = I for I, II, III
I Type = a for a, b, c
Maximum <Pu6Cishers
Type = A for A,B,C, ………………………..

3) Definition List (<DL>) – It is formed by definitions.

• <U> – It is used to specify List items.
• <DT>- It is used to specify Definition Term.
• <DD> – Used to specify the description
• <A> is used to provide hyperlinks. Two types of linking. Its attribute is HREF.

Question 36.
(a) Explain any four advantages of DBMS. (4)
(b) List the four components of DBMS. (2)
Answer:
a) Advantages of DBMS

1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.
2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If re-dundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.
3. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.
4. Standards can be enforced – The data in the database follows some standards. Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

b) Components of DBMS
a) Databases – It is the main component.
b) Data Definition Language (DDL) – It is used to define the structure of a table.
c) Data Manipulation Language (DML) – It is used to add, retrieve, modify and delete records in a database.
d) Users – With the help of programs users interact with the DBMS.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf SAY 2019 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Answer all questions from 1 to 3. Each carries 1 Score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Find out the correct sequence:
a) Fertilisation – Zygote – Blastula – Morula – Cleavage – Implantation
b) Fertilisation – Zygote – Cleavage – Morula – Implantation – Blastula
c) Fertilisation – Zygote – Morula – Cleavage – Implantation – Blastula
d) Fertilisation – Zygote – Cleavage – Morula – Blastula – Implantation
Answer:
Fertilisation-Zygote – cleavage-Morula-blastula Implantation

Question 2.
Identify the following symbols in pedigree Analysis :

Answer:
a) Mating
b) Marriage between relatives

Question 3.
In a double strandard DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equal one. Who observed this fact?
Answer:
Ervin Chargaff

Answer any 9 questions from 4-14. Each carries 2 Scores.

Question 4.
Observe the cross of a pure violet and white flower.

a) By using the F₁ progeny design a test cross.
b) Mention the significance of test cross.
Answer:

b) It helps to find out the unknown genotype of organism

Question 5.
‘Don’t die of ignorance.
a) About which it is mentioned?
b) List two measures taken by WHO to prevent it.
Answer:
a) HIV infection

b) 1. blood transfusion must be safe
2. use dispossible syringes and needles in public and private Hospitals

Question 6.
Match the following:

A	B
a) Citric Acid	i) Acetobactor aceti
b) Acetic Acid	ii) Clostridium butylicum
c) Lactic acid	iii) Aspergillus niger
d) Butyric Acid	iv) Lacto bacillus
	v) Trycoderma polysporum
	vi) Saccharomyces cervisiae

Answer:

A	B
a) Citric Acid	Aspergillus niger
b) Acetic Acid	Acetobacter aceti
c) Lactic acid	Lactobacil lus
d) Butyric Acid	Clostridium butylicum

Question 7.
Each symptom of two chromosomal disorders are given below:
Gynaecomastia Rudimentary ovary and lack of secondary sexual characters.
Answer:
Gynaecomastia- Kilnefelter’s syndrome Rudimentary ovary and lack of secondary sexual characters – Turner’s Syndrome

Question 8.
Observe the diagram of a double stranded DNAstrand:

Identify the bonds A, B, C & D A, B, C, D
Answer:
A – Hydrogen bond
B – phospho esterbond
C – phospho di esterbond
D – Glycosidic bond

Question 9.
‘LH Surge’ induces the rupture of Graafian follicle.
a) Which gland produces LH and in which day LH Surge happens?
b) Write the role of LH in males.
Answer:
a) Pituitary gland, 14th day

b) LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens

Question 10.
Bio-fertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. How these biofertilisers enrich the soil nutrients? Give two examples.
Answer:
a) Microbes can fix atmospheric N₂
Eg. Azospirillum and Azotobacter

Question 11.
Based on evolution in the geological period arrange the plants and animals in the correct order in various million years ago. Choose the appropriate organisms from the bracket.
a) 500 m ya :
b) 350 m ya :
c) 320 m ya :
d) 200 m‘ya :
Answer:
a) 500 mya – Invertebrates
b) 35Omya – jawless fish
c) 320m ya – sea weeds
d) 200mya – Reptiles

Question 12.
The following diagram shows a process in the Ribosome:

Identify the process and explain.
Answer:
Translation step of protein synthesis During this process, ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA and the amino acids are joined by peptide bond i.e polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide.

Question 13.
Make a flow chart using the following terms :
[Natural selection, Struggle for existence, Variation, Origin of species, Over production, Survival of the fittest]
Answer:

Question 14.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions:

a) Identify the given molecule.
b) Mention two types of immune respones in human body.
Answer:
a) Antibody or Immunoglobulin
b) Humoral immune response Cell mediated immunity

Answer any 3 Questions from 15 to 18. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Write the effect of the following drugs in human body:
a) Ophiods
b) Cannabinoids
c) Coca alkaloids
Answer:
a) Ophioids – Effect on central nervous system
b) Can nabinoids – Effect on brain or cardiovascular system of body
c) coca alkaloids – It has a stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy

Question 16.
There are several method of in vitro fertilisation to assist couples who lack the ability of fertilisation.
a) Give the popular name of the programme.
b) Suggest two techniques of in vitro fertilisation and their conditions of transfer to assist these people.
Answer:
a) Assisted reproductive technologies

b) ZIFT : zygote intra fallopian transfer: The zygote or early embryos upto 8 blastomeres transferred into the fallopian tube

GIFT : gamete intra fallopian transfer: Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development

Question 17.
In your school the Science Club decided to conduct a seminar about “Biodiversity conservation – Approaches.” You are invited to present a paper on this seminar. List out the main points you include d in the presentation. [Hint: In Situ, Ex-Situ conservation]
Answer:
In situ conservation – Organisms are protected in their natural habitat Eg. sacred groves, biosphere reserves, national parks and sanctuaries. Ex situ conservation – It is the conservation of threatened animals and plants outside their natural habitat. Examples are Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife safari parks.

Question 18.
Transcription of eukaryotes are more complicated than that of prokaryotes. Explain any two additional complexities found in the transcription of eukaryotes.
Answer:
Three types of RNA polymerases in eukaryotes RNA processing Three important steps are involved – Splicing, capping, Tailing

1. In splicing the introns are removed and exons are joined toether.
2. In capping an methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’-end of hnRNA.
3. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3-end in a template.