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Students can Download Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript

Plus Two Computer Science Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Among the following which one is the most correct. JavaScript is used mostly at the
(a) client side
(b) server side
(c) client side and server side
Answer:
(a) client side

Question 2.
Name the tag that is used to embed scripts in a web page.
Answer:
<SCRIPT>

Question 3.
In JavaScript, a variable is declared using the keyword
Answer:
var

Question 4.
………………. are small programs embedded in the HTML pages.
Answer:
Scripts

Question 5.
Who developed JavaScript?
Answer:
Brendan Eich

Question 6.
………… are the scripts that are executed by the browser
Answer:
Client Scripts

Question 7.
……………… are the scripts that are executed by the web server.
Answer:
Server Scripts.

Question 8.
……………… Script is a platform independent script.
Answer:
JavaScript

Question 9.
……………. Script is a platform dependent script.
Answer:
VBScript

Question 10.
……………. makes the tags meaningful.
Answer:
Attribute

Question 11.
……………. attribute specifies the name of the scripting language used.
Answer:
Language

Question 12.
State True or False
The identifiers are case sensitive
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Which part of the browser executes the JavaScript.
Answer:
JavaScript engine

Question 14.
Odd one out
(a) Google Chrome
(b) Internet Explorer
(c) Mozilla Firefox
(d) C++
Answer:
(d) C++, It is a programming language others are browsers.

Question 15.
A group of codes with a name is called …………
Answer:
function

Question 16.
To declare a function the keyword ……………. is used.
Answer:
function

Question 17.
A function contains a function …………. and function ………
Answer:
header, body

Question 18.
State true or false
Even though a function is defined within the body section, it will not be executed, if it is not called.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
Write down the purpose of the following code snippet
function print()
{
document.writefWelcome to JS”);
}
Answer:
This code snippet is used to display the string, “Welcome to JS” on the screen (monitor)

Question 20.
From the following select which one is Not the data type in JavaScript
(a) Number
(b) String
(c) Boolean
(d) Time
Answer:
(d) Time

Question 21.
…………… keyword is used to declare a variable in JavaScript.
Answer:
var

Question 22.
…………. function is used to return the data type.
Answer:
typeof()

Question 23.
……………….. is a special data type to represent variables that are not defined using var.
Answer:
undefined

Question 24.
Odd one out
(a) +
(b) –
(c) %
(d) ==
Answer:
(d) == , It is a relational operator the others are arithmetic operator

Question 25.
Odd one out
(a) &&
(b) ||
(c) !
(d) %
Answer:
(d) %, it is an arithmetic operator, others are logical operator.

Question 26.
Odd one out
(a) <
(b) >
(c) ==
(d) !
Answer:
(d) ! it is a logical operator, the others are relational operator.

Question 27.
Consider the following declaration
varb;
From the following which value can be used for the variable b as boolean value.
(a) True
(b) TRUE
(c) True
(d) FALSE
Answer:
(a) True, The value is case sensitive

Question 28.
Predict the output of the following.
var a, b;
a = ”0480″;
b = 2828159;
document.write(a+b);
Answer:
The output is “04802828159”. That is the string “0480″ concatenates(joins) the number 2828159. The output is a string, not a number.

Question 29.
Predict the output
var x, y;
x = ”8″;
y = 3;
document. write(x+y);
Answer:
The output is a string “83”; String addition means concatenation.

Question 30.
From the following which method is used to display a message (dialog box) on the screen.
(a) alert()
(b) isNaN()
(c) toUpperCase()
(d) toLowerCase()
Answer:
(a) alert()

Question 31.
Raju wants to convert a lower case text to Upper case text, which function is to be used.
Answer:
toUpperCase()

Question 32.
Christy wants to convert an upper case text to lower case text, which function is to be used.
Answer:
tolower case()

Question 33.
Andrea wants to check a value is a number or not. From the following which function is used for that.
(a) isNumb()
(b) isNaN()
(c) isNotNumb()
(d) isNotNumber()
Answer:
(b) isNaN()

Question 34.
Predict the output of the following code snippet
var x =”HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(x.charAt(4));
Answer:
It displays a message box with character ‘E’ from the fifth (4 + 1) place

Question 35.
Read the following three statements regarding JavaScript.
(a) JavaScript can be used at the client side for data validation.
(b) JavaScript statements are case sensitive.
(c) JavaScript can be used only for creating web pages.
(d) All the three statements are correct
Answer:
(d) All the three statements are correct

Question 36.
Write the output of the following web page.
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT languge = “JavaScript”> document.write(“welcome”);
</SCRIPT>
welcome
</BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
welcome welcome

Question 37.
Following is the web page that accepts a string from a text box, converts in to upper case and display it on the screen. Complete the missing portion in the page.
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<SCRIPT language = JavaScript”> function show()
{
var x, y;
x = ………….. ;
y = x.toupperCase ();
alert (y);
<SCRIPT>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<FORM name= “form1 ”>
Enter a string
<tNPUTtype=“text”name=“TEXTr>
<INPUT type= “submit” onClick() = “show()”> </FORM>
</BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
document.form1.text1.value

Question 38.
Name the attribute of <SCRIPT> tag that is used to include an external JavaScript file into a web page.
Answer:
src

Plus Two Computer Science Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A javaScript code has the following three variables and values.
x = “Script”;
y = “3”;
z = “2″;
Then match the following table.

Answer:

Question 2.
“Placing JavaScript as an external file has some advantages”. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
External (another) JavaScript file:
We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading.

Question 3.
Explain the difference between the statements.
document.write (“welcome”);
and
alert (“welcome)”;
Answer:
document.write () is a JavaScript command used to print anything on the browser window, document writes (“welcome”) prints “welcome” on the browser window. alert (“welcome”). This is a built in function used to display a message here the message “welcome” in a separate window.

Question 4.
Is it necessary to use Language – ‘JavaScript” in the <SCRIPT> tag to specify the JavaScript code? Why?
Answer:
No, it is not necessary. If the language attribute is not specified, it will take the default value as Javascript.

Question 5.
Write the output of the following web page:
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT language=”JavaScript”> function show ()
{
document.write(“welcome to JavaScript”);
}
</SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
It will not display anything on the screen. This code snippet contains a function that will not do anything unless it is invoked(called).

Question 6.
Write the output of the following web page:
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT language -”JavaScript”>
function show ()
{
document.write (“welcome to JavaScript<br>”);
}
</SCRIPT>
show();
show();
<BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
The output is as follows
welcome to JavaScript
welcome to JavaScript
The message repeats 2 times.

Question 7.
Among the following, identify the data types used in JavaScript
int, float, number, char, boolean, long
Answer:
From the list there is only two, number and boolean are the types used in JavaScript.

Question 8.
Write the output of the following web page and justify your answer.
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT language =’’JavaScript”>
var x, y, z;
x =“10”;
y = “20”;
z = x+y;
document.write(z);
</SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
x = “10” means x is a string variable y = “20” means y is a string variable x + y means the string x and y will be concatenated Hence it displays 1020

Question 9.
What do you mean by Scripts? Explain?
Answer:
Scripts are small programs embedded in the HTML pages. <SCRIPT> tag is used to write scripts,
The attributes used are:

• Type – To specify the scripting language
• Src – Specify the source file

Two types of scripts:
1. Client scripts – These are scripts executed by the browser.
Eg: VB Script, Javascript, etc.

2. Server scripts – These are scripts executed by the server.
Eg: ASP, JSP, PHP, Perl, etc.

The languages that are used to write scripts are known as scripting languages.

Question 10.
Suppose you have written a JavaScript function named checkData(). You want to execute the function when the mouse pointer is just moved over the button. How will you complete the following to do the same?
<INPUT Type=”button” ______ = “checkData()”>
Answer:
<INPUT Type=”button” onMouseEnter = “checkData()”>

Plus Two Computer Science Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Categorize the following as UpperCamelCase or lowerCamelCase and explain.
(a) DateOfBirth
(b) dateOfJoining
(c) timeOfJoining
(d) PlaceOfBirth
Answer:
CamelCase:
An identifier does not use special characters such as space hence a single word is formed using multiple words. Such a naming method is called CamelCase (without space between words and all the words first character is in upper case letter).

These are two types:
1. UpperCamelCase: when the first character of each word is capitalised,
2. lowerCamelCase: when the first character of each word except the first word is capitalised.

• UpperCamelCase: DateOfBirth, PlaceOfBirth
• lowerCamelCase: dateOfJoining, time Of Joining.

Question 2.
Explain the method of working of a JavaScript
Answer:
Every browser has a JavaScript engine. If the code snippet contains JavaScript code, it is passed to the JavaScript engine for processing, the engine executes the code. If there is no script then it processes without the help of script engine. Hence an HTML file without JavaScript is faster than with JavaScript code.

Question 3.
Write down the various data types used in JavaScript.
Answer:

1. Number: Any number(whole or fractional) with or without a sign.
   Eg: +1977,-38.0003,-100,3.14157,etc
2. String: It is a combination of characters enclosed within double-quotes.
   Eg: “BVM”, “jobi_cg@rediffmail.com”, etc
3. Boolean: We can use either true or false.lt is case sensitive. That means can’t use TRUE OR FALSE

Question 4.
Explain how a variable is declaring in JavaScript
Answer:
For storing values you have to declare a variable, for that the keyword var is used. There is no need to specify the data type.
Syntax:
var<variable name1> [, <variable name2>, <variable name3>,etc…]
Here square bracket indicates optional.
Eg: var x, y, z;
x =11;
y = “BVM”;
z = false;
Here x is of number type, y is of string and z is of Boolean type.

Question 5.
What are the different ways to add Scripts to a web page?
Answer:
The three different ways to add Scripts as follows
1. Inside <BODY> section
Scripts can be placed inside the <BODY> section.

2. Inside <HEAD> section
Scripts can be placed inside the <HEAD> section. This method is widely accepted method

3. External (another) JavaScript file
We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading.

Question 6.
Create a web page that checks whether a student has passed or not?
Answer:
<HTML>
<head>
<title>
JavaScript-Passed or not </title>
<SCRIPTLanguage=”JavaScript”> function check()
{
var score;
score=document.frmCheck.txtscore.value; . if(score<30)
alert(“The student is failed”); else ;
alert(“The student is passed”);
}
</SCRIPT>
</head>
<BODY>
<Form name=”frmCheck”>
Enter the score
<inputtype=”text” name=”txtscore”>
<br>
<input type=”button” value=”check” onClick= “check()”>
</Form>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 7.
Create a web page to display the squares of first 10 numbers
Answer:
<HTML>
<head>
<title>
JavaScript- squares
</title>
</head>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”> vari.s;
for(i=1; i<=10; i++)
{
s= i * i;
document.write(s);
document.write(“<br>”);
}
</SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 8.
Create a web page to display even numbers up to 10.
Answer:
<HTML>
<head>
<title>
JavaScript- squares </title>
</head>
<BODY>
<SCRI PT Language=”JavaScript”>
vari;
i=2;
while(i<=10)
{
document.write(i); document.write(“<br>”); i +=2;
}
</SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 9.
Following web page is used to show “Passed” or “Failed” based on a mark. Mark’less than 30 is cosidered as failed. There are some errors in the code. Correct them.
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT src=”JavaScript”>
var m;
m = 55;
if(m<30)
document.print(“Passed”);
document.print(“Failed”);
<SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>
Answer:
<HTML>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT language=”JavaScript”>
var m;
m = 55;
if(m<30)
document.write(“Passed”);
else
document.write(“Failed”);
</BODY>
</HTML>
</SCRIPT>

Plus Two Computer Science Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following declarations
vara, b, c, d;
a = “BVM”;
b = 100;
c = true;
d = 3.14157;
Predict the output of the following

1. document.write(typeof(a)); (1)
2. document.write(typeof(b)); (1)
3. document.write(typeof(c)); (1)
4. document.write(typeof(d)); (1)
5. document.write(typeof(e)); (1)

Answer:

1. string
2. number
3. boolean
4. number
5. undefined

Question 2.
Create a web page to print the day of a week
Answer:
<HTML>
<head>
<title>
JavaScript- day </title>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaSCTipt”>
function checkData()
{
var n, ans;
n=Number(document.frmCheck.txtday. value); switch (n)
{
case 1;
ans=”Sunday”; break; case 2:
ans=”Monday”; break; case 3:
ans=”Tuesday”; break; case 4:
ans=”Wednesday”;
break;
case 5:
ans=”Thursday”;
break;
case 6:
ans=”Friday”;
break;
case 7:
ans=”Saturday”;
break;
default:
ans=”lnvalid”
}
alert(ans);
}
</SCRIPT>
</head>
<BODY>
<Form name=”frmCheck”>
Enteranumber(1-7)
<inputtype=”text” name=”txtday”>
<br>
<input type=”button” va|ue=”Test” onClick= “checkData()”>
</Form>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 3.
What is the operator? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Operators are the symbols used to perform an operation
1. Arithmetic operators:
It is a binary operator. It is used to perform addition(+), subtraction(-), division (/), multiplication (*), modulus(%-gives the remainder), increment(++) and decrement(- -) operations.
Eg. If x = 10andy = 3then

lf x = 10 then
document.write(++x); → It prints 10 + 1 = 11 If x = 10 then
document.write(x++); → It prints 10 itself. If x = 10 then
document.write(—x); It prints 10 – 1 = 9 If x = 10 then
document.write(x—); → It prints 10 itself.

2. Assignment operators:
If a = 10 and b = 3 then a = b. This statement sets the value of a and b are same,i.e. it sets a to 3.
It is also called short hands lf X = 10 and Y = 3 then

3. Relational(Comparision) operators:
It is used to perform comparison or relational operation between two values and returns either true or false.
Eg: if X =10 and Y = 3 then

4. Logical operators:
Here AND(&&), OR(||) are binary operators and NOT (!) is a unary operator. It is used to combine relational operations and it gives either true or false If X = true and Y = false then

Both operands must be true to get a true value in the case of AND(&&) operation. If X = true and Y = false then

Either one of the operands must be true to get true value in the case of OR(||) operation If X = true and Y = false then

5. String addition operator(+):
This is also called concatenation operator. joins(concatenates)two strings and forms a string.
Eg:
var x, y, z;
x = “BVM HSS;
y = “Kalparamba”;
z = x + y;
Here the variable z becomes “BVM HSS Kalparamba”.
Note: If both the operands are numbers then addition operator(+) produces number as a result otherwise it produces string as a result. Consider the following

Question 4.
Write down the control structures used in JavaScript.
Answer:
Control structures in JavaScript, In general, the execution of the program is sequential, we can change the normal execution by using the control structures.
1. simple if Syntax:
if(test expression)
{
statements;
}
First, the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block will be executed otherwise not.
if-else Syntax:
if(test expression)
{
statement block1;
}
else
{
statement block2;
}
First, the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block1 will be executed otherwise statement block2 will be evaluated.
2. switch:
It is a multiple branch statement. Its syntax is given below, switch (expression)
{
case value1: statements;break;
case value2: statements;break;
case value3: statements;break;
case value4: statements;break;
case value5: statements;break;
default: statements;
}
First expression evaluated and selects the statements with matched case value.
Eg.
switch (n)
{
case 1: cout << “Sunday”;break;
case 2: cout << “Monday”;break;
case 3: cout << “Tuesday”;break;
case 4: cout << “Wednesday”;break;
case 5: cout << “Thursday”;break;
case 6: cout << “Friday”;break;
case 7: cout << “Saturday”;break;
default: cout << “lnvalid”
}
3. for loop
If a statement wants to execute more than once. Loop is used. for loop is an entry controlled loop.
The syntax of for loop is given below For(initialisation; testing; updation)
{
Body of the for loop;
}
while loop
If a statement wants to execute more than once Loop is used. It is also an entry controlled loop The syntax is given below
Loop variable initialised while(expression)
{
Body of the loop;
Update loop variable;
}
Here the loop variable must be initialised outside the while loop. Then the expression is evaluated if it is true then only the body of the loop will be executed and the loop variable must be updated inside the body. The body of the loop will be executed until the expression becomes false.

Question 5.
Write down the different mouse events used in JavaScript.
Answer:
Different mouse events and their description is given below

Event	Description
onClick	It occurs when the user clicks on an object by using mouse
on mouse enter	It occurs when the mouse pointer is moved onto an object
on mouse leave	It occurs when the mouse pointer is moved out of an object
onKeyDown	It occurs when the user presses a key on the keyboard
on KeyUp	It occurs when the user releases a key on the keyboard

Question 6.
Create a web page that displays the capital of a state.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>
JavaScript </TITLE>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”> function capital()
{
varn.ans;
n=document.frmCapital.cbostate.selectedlndex; switch(n)
{
case 0:
ans=’Thiruvananthapuram”; i break;
case 1:
ans=”Bengaluru”;
break;
case 2:
ans=”Chennai”;
break;
case 3:
ans=”Mumbai”;
break;
}
document.frmCapital.txtCapital.value=ans;
}
</SCRIPT>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<FORM name=”frmCapital”>
<center>
State
<select size=1 name=”cbostate”>
<option>Kerala</option>
<option>Kamataka</option>
<option>Tamilnadu</option>
<option>Maharashtra</option>
</select>
<br>
Capital
<input type=”text” name=”txtCapital>
<br>
<input type=”button” value=”Show” onClick= “capital()”>
</center>
</FORM>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Students can Download Chapter 4 The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition Questions and Answers, Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition

Plus Two Economics The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
TR curve under perfect competition passes through the origin. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, I agree.

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out.

1. Homogeneous products, free entry, and exit, price maker.
2. Homogeneous product, freedom of entry and exit, large number of buyers and sellers, product differentiation.
3. MC = MR, MR = AFC, MC cuts MR from below, P = AC.

Answer:

1. Price maker. Others are features of perfect competition.
2. Product differentiation. Others are features of perfect competition.
3. MR = AFC. Others are conditions for firm’s equilibrium under perfect competition.

Question 3.
Pick out the odd one and justify it.
Free entry, profit maximization, perfect knowledge, price discrimination.
Answer:
Price discrimination. Others are features of perfect competition.

Question 4.
Which of the following represents normal profit?
(a) MR = MC
(b) AR = AC
(c) TR > TC
(d) AR < AC
Answer:
(b) AR = AC

Question 5.
Firm is price taker under:
(a) perfect competition
(b) monopoly
(c) monopolistic competition
(d) duopoly
Answer:
(a) perfect competition Question

6. Shut down point occurs at:
(a) rising part of
(b) following part of AVC
(c) minimum point AVC
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) minimum point AVC

Question 7.
A firm is able to sell any quantity of the good at a given price. The firm’s marginal revenue will be
(a) Greater than AR
(b) Less than AR
(c) Equal to AR
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Equal to AR

Question 8.
The short run shut-down point of a firm in a perfectly competitive firm is.
(a) P = AVC
(b) P = AC
(c) P > AVC
(d) P < AVC
Answer:
(a) P = AVC

Question 9.
If P exceeds AVC but is smaller than AC at the best level of output, the firm in perfect competition is
(a) Making profit
(b) Minimizing losses in the short run
(c) Incurring a loss and should stop producing
(d) Breaking even
Answer:
(b) Minimizing losses in the short run

Plus Two Economics The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A firm cannot make supernormal profit in the long run under perfect competition. Do you agree? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree to the statement that a firm cannot make supernormal profit in the long run under perfect competition. This is because freedom of entry will prevent supernormal profit in the long run.

Question 2.
Define ‘Break even point’.
Answer:
The point on the supply curve at which a firm earns normal profit is called the break even point. The point of minimum average cost at which the supply curve cuts the LRAC curve is, therefore, the break-even point of a firm.

Question 3.
Examine the difference between the short run price and the long run price of a firm under perfect competition.
Answer:
There is a major difference between the short run and long run price under perfect competition. In the short run, price should be equal to or greater than the minimum AVC. If the price falls below this level, the firm will shut down production. On the other hand, the long run price should be equal to or greater than the minimum AC. Below this level, the firm will shut down production.

Question 4.
What is the supply curve the firm in the long run?
Answer:
In the long run, a firm will produce output only when its price is at least equal to the average cost of production. Therefore, average cost curve represents the supply curve of the firm.

Question 5.
How does technological progress affect the supply curve of the firm?
Answer:
The supply curve of the firm slopes upward from left to right indicating a direct relationship between price and quantity supplied. When there is technological progress, it will affect the supply. Now the firm will be in a position to produce and supply more output at the same price. Therefore the supply curve will shift towards the right side.

Question 6.
How does an increase in the number of firms in a market affect the market supply curve?
Answer:
As the number of firms changes the market supply curve shifts. When the number of firms increases the market supply curve shifts to the right. On the other hand, if the number of firms decreases, the market supply curve shifts to the left.

Question 7.
Define ‘shut down point’
Answer:
Shut down point refers to a situation where average revenue is equal to average variable cost. If the price fails to cover even average variable cost, firm will stop its production.

Question 8.
Make pairs:
Perfect competition, price marker, oligopoly, Cournot model, price taker, monopoly.
Answer:

• Perfect competition – price taker
• Monopoly – price maker
• Oligopoly – Cournot model

Question 9.
The diagram below shows two curves faced by a firm under perfect competition. Name them.

Answer:

1. Total revenue curve
2. Average/Marginal revenue curve

Question 10.
Choose the correct answer from the given multiple choices.
a. Identify the equilibrium condition of a firm under perfect competition.

1. AC=MR, & AC cuts MR from above.
2. MC=MR, & AC cuts MR from below.
3. AC=MR, & MC cuts MR from below.
4. MC=MR, &MC cuts MR from above.
5. MC=MR, & MC cuts MR from below.

b. The demand for the product of a firm is perfectly elastic in one of the following markets.
Identify the market.

1. monopoly
2. monopolistic competition
3. perfect competition
4. monopsony
5. oligopoly

Answer:
a. 5
b. 3

Plus Two Economics The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following.

A	B
Perfect competition	TR-TC
TR	Minimum point of AVC
Profit	Price taker
Shutdown point	Price x Quantity
Supply curve of the firm	Rise in-unit tax
Shift of supply curve	Rising portion of SMC

Answer:

A	B
Perfect competition	Price taker
TR	Price x Quantity
Profit	TR-TC
Shutdown point	Minimum point of AVC
Supply curve of the firm	Rising portion of SMC
Shift of supply curve	Rise in-unit tax

Question 2.
A firm maximizes profit when the difference between total revenue and total cost is the maximum. Profit is maximized when certain conditions are satisfied. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes.
A firm maximizes profit when the following three conditions are satisfied.

1. The market price, p, is equal to the marginal cost.
2. The marginal cost is nondecreasing.
3. In the short run, the market price must be greater than or equal to the average variable cost. In the long run, the market price must be grater than or equal to the average cost.

Question 3.
Write the economic terms

1. Cost vary with output
2. Total Cost divided by quantity
3. TR_n – TR_n-1
4. TR = TC point
5. A case where an increase in all the inputs lead to a just proportionate increase in output.

Answer:

1. Variable cost
2. Average cost
3. Marginal revenue
4. Breakeven point
5. Constant returns

Question 4.
Perfect competition does not exist in the real world. Do you agree? Substantiate your view.
Answer:
Yes, I agree to the statement that in the real world perfect competition does not exist.

This is because, it is rare to find the features of perfect competition especially the features like perfect knowledge, perfect mobility of factors and product, etc. What we really find in the world is monopolistic competition which is a mix of perfect competition and monopoly.

Question 5.
A firm’s supply curve in the short run is the rising part of the SMC curve. Why?
Answer:
A firm under perfect competition in the short run will start supplying only if the price is equal to or greater than the short run average variable cost. Therefore, the rising part of the short run marginal cost which begins with the minimum SAVC is the supply curve of the firm in the short run.

Question 6.
Imagine that S° is the original supply curve of the firm. If a unit tax is imposed, what happens to the supply curve? Show the change in a diagram.
Answer:
If a unit tax is imposed, firm’s long run supply curve shifts to the left. It is shown in the following diagram.

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Long run price under perfect competition will be equal to ……………….
2. Maximum price fixed for a product by the government is called ………..
3. The point denoted by the minimum of AVC is called …………

Answer:

1. Average cost
2. Price ceiling
3. Shutdown point

Question 8.
Choose the appropriate answer.
a. A fall in supply caused by a fall in price is known as:

1. Contraction of supply
2. Expansion of supply
3. Increase in supply ‘

b. When supply curve is a vertical straight line, supply is

1. Perfectly elastic
2. Perfectly inelastic
3. Unitary elastic

c. The price under perfect competition. short run should be at least equal to

1. Short run MC
2. Short run AC
3. Short run AVC

Answer:
a. Contraction of supply
b. Perfectly inelastic
c. Short run AVC

Question 9.
List the factors affecting elasticity of supply.
Answer:
The factors affecting elasticity of supply are

1. nature of the commodity
2. cost of production
3. time period
4. technique of production

Question 10.
Observe the following figures and answer the questions.

1. Point out the elasticities on the above supply curves.
2. Which method is applied here?

Answer:
1. supply curves:

• S₁ Elastic supply
• S₂ Unitary elastic supply
• S₃ Inelastic supply

2. Geometric method is applied here.

Question 11.

1. Identify the market structure that is represented by their curve in the diagram.
2. Explain why the AR curve is horizontal

Answer:
1. Perfect competition

2. It is assumed that under perfect competition compared to the industry the share of each firm is meager. No firm can influence the market supply. So even if a firm doubles the quantity supplied the market supply will not change. The price remains the same. So theARorthe demand curve is horizontal.

Question 12.
Information about a firm is given in the following

Find out the equilibrium level of output in terms of MC & MR. Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:

Equilibrium quantity is 4. At this level of output MC = MR & MC cuts MR from below.

Question 13.
A firm can sell any quantity of the output it produces at a given price. If so, what is the behaviour of marginal revenue and average revenue? Draw the two curves in a single diagram.
Answer:
The demand curve facing the firm is perfectly elastic. At this condition AR=MR=Price

Plus Two Economics The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following table

1. At which production level there will be no profit or loss to the producer?
2. Comment on the profit and loss conditions as TC 1000 and TR750.

Answer:
1. At the production level of 100 units of output, the producer incurs 1500 TC and 1500 TR. So there will be no profit or loss to the producer

2. When TC =1000
TR = 750
Loss = TC-TR
= 1000-750 = 250

Question 2.
How would each of the following affect the market supply curve for wheat?

1. A new and improved technique is discovered.
2. The price of fertilizers falls
3. The government offers new tax concessions to farmers
4. Bad weather affects the crops.

Answer:

1. A new and improved technique is discovered: increase market supply
2. The price of fertilizers falls: increase market supply
3. The government offers new tax concessions to farmers: increase market supply
4. Bad weather affects the crops: decrease market supply

Question 3.
The following table shows the total cost schedule of a competitive firm. It is given that the price of the good is ₹10. Calculate the profit at each output level. Find the profit maximizing level of output.

Answer:

Question 4.
Explain briefly break even point with the help of an example.
Answer:
XUS Break even point refers to a situation when total revenue is equal to total cost assuming a given selling price per unit of output.
TR = TC
This can be explained with the help of an example.

If the firm produces less than 200 units, itsTR< TC. So it bears loss. If the firm produces more than 200 units, its TR > TC. So it earns profit.

If the firm produces 200 units, its TR = TC. This is the breakeven point. Break even point is a normal profit point as beyond it the firm earns super normal profits and below it, the firm incur losses.

Question 5.
Choose the correct answer
a. profit of a firm is the revenue earned:

1. zero of cost
2. net of cost
3. gross of cost
4. none of these

b. TMC curve cuts LAC curve :

1. at minimum point
2. at maximum point
3. below the LAC curve
4. none of these

c. under perfect competition, firm is :

1. price taker
2. price maker
3. both 1 and 2
4. none of the above

d. MR can be negative but AR is:

1. negative
2. positive
3. either positive or negative
4. none of the above

Answer:
a. net of cost
b. at minimum point
c. price taker
d. positive

Question 6.
Observe the following diagram.

Plot the break even point and shut down point.
Answer:

• Point ‘A’ represents shut down point
• Point ‘B’ represents the break even point.

Question 7.
Complete the following tables and identify the market structure


Answer:

This market represents a perfectly competitive market because in this market, P = AR = MR.

This market represents a monopoly market. In this market, AR and MR are different and AR > MR.

Question 8.
At the market price of ₹10, a firm supplies 4 units of orange. The market price rises to ₹30. The price elasticity of the firm’s supply is 1.25. What quantity will the firm supply at the new price?
Answer:
In the given example,
P = 10 Q = 4 P1 = 30 es = 1.25
ΔP = 30-10 = 20
Applying these values in the formula, we get, \(e_{s}=\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta P} \times \frac{P}{Q}\)

ΔQ =1.25×8=10

Question 9.
Suppose that the market demand in a perfectly competitive industry is given by, Qd = 7000 – 500 p and the market supply function is given by, Qs = 4000 +250 P. Find the market equilibrium price.
Answer:
Equilibrium is determined by the condition,
Qd = Qs.
In this example,
7000-500 p = 4000 +250 p
7000-4000 = 250 p + 500 p
3000 = 750 P
∴ \(P=\frac{3000}{750}=4\)
Therefore, the equilibrium price in the market is ₹4.
7000 – 500 p = 4000 + 250 p
7000 – 4000 = 250 p + 500 p
3000 = 750 P
∴ \(P=\frac{3000}{750}=4\)

Question 10.
Point out the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
Features of perfect competion are pointed out below.

1. Large number of buyers and sellers
2. Homogeneous product
3. Freedom of entry and exit
4. Free movement of product and factors of production.
5. Profit motive.
6. Perfect knowledge of market conditions
7. Absence of transport cost.

Question 11.
Identify from the diagram below.

1. Shutdown point and breakeven point.
2. Distinguish between these two.

Answer:

1. c is the break even point. b is the shut even point

2. Break down point shows a situation where a firm earns no profit or no loss. It is the point where AR = AC. Shut down point shows a situation where a firm is compelled to stop the production since it is not able to cover its variable cost. This is the situation where the firm’s P > AVC.

Question 12.
Identify the profit maximizing level of output from the diagram below. List out the condition for profit maximization.

Answer:
b is the profit maximizing level of output.
MR = MC
At the profit maximizing level of output MC is non decreasing, that is the slope of MC is positive.
P > AVC.

Question 13.
Match the commodities given below with the diagram. Justify your answer.

Answer:
a. Mobile Phone

b. Coconut
The supply of mobile phones are relatively price elastic. This is because the purchase of mobile phones can easily react to a change in price. It is a manufactured good. All the raw materials needed to produce a mobile phone can easily be available. The producers can pile up stock and when price increases they can increase the supply.

The supply of coconut can be price inelastic. This is because the producers cannot easily react to a change in the price of coconut. Years needed for a coconut tree to get mature and start to produce coconuts. It is an agricultural product. The producers cannot hold the stock of coconut fora longer duration.

Question 14.
The following table gives you certain information about a firm.

1. Find the price at which output is sold and identify the form market,
2. Is this firm a price-taker or price-maker? Give reasons.
3. Find the firm’s equilibrium level of output in terms of MC &MR. Give reasons.
4. Also find profit of the firm at this level of output.

Answer:

1. Price = 8
2. Price-taker, a firm has no influence on price determination under perfect competition.
3. Equilibrium quantity is 3. At this level of output MC=MR.
4. Firm is at no profit-no loss condition, i. e., he is at break even point.

Plus Two Economics The Theory of The Firm Under Perfect Competition Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on ‘perfect competitive markets’
Answer:
Respected teachers and dear friends,
The topic of my seminar paper is perfect competitive markets. The term market refers to all the places in which buyers and sellers are in contact with each other for the purchase and sale of any commodity or service. There are different kinds of markets based on their characteristics – say perfect competitive markets and noncompetitive markets.

Introduction:
Perfect competition is a market situation characterized by the existence of large number of buyers and sellers, homogeneous products, free mobility of factors of production, freedom of entry and exit, perfect knowledge of market conditions and absence of transportation costs.

Contents:

1. Profit Maximisation
2. Profit Maximisation in short-run: Diagrammatic representation
3. Long run profit maximisation

1. Profit Maximisation:
The main objective of the producer is to maximize the profit levels of his firm. The output level at which the firm maximizes the profit is called the equilibrium of the firm. The profit level of the firm is the difference between Total Revenue and Total Cost. Symbolically it is represented as X = TR – TC.

The firm under perfect competition maximizes its profit under three conditions. They are:

• The MC must be equal to MR (MC = MR)
• MC must be non-decreasing. It means that MC curve should cut the MR from below.
• Third condition has two parts, one for short-term and the other for long-term.

a. In the short run, price should be more than or equal to the minimum point of Average Variable Cost (AVC). It can be denoted as P> AVC.

b. In the long run, price should be more than or equal to the minimum point of Average Cost (AC). It can be denoted as P > AC.

2. Profit Maximisation in short run: Diagrammatic representation:
The profit maximizing condition of a firm in short-run can be understood from the figure. All the three profit maximizing conditions of a firm in short run are satisfied at point of output level q0.

• The price must be equal to MC (P = MC)
• MC must be non-decreasing.
• P > AVC

All the profit maximizing conditions are satisfied in the figure given above.

1. The prices become equal to MC. At point E, the firm reaches equilibrium at the output level q (MC = MR).
2. At q MC is non-decreasing at point E.
3. At point E, prices have become more than AVC (P > AVC at point E).

Therefore, three conditions for the equilibrium level of output are depicted in a single figure.

3. Long run profit maximisation:
The profit maximization level of the firm is reached when the long run supply curve of the firm is that portion of LRMC curve which lies over and above the minimum point of LRAC curve (P > minimum of LRAC). The supply curve of a firm, in the long run, is the rising portion of minimum point of LMRC. It can be explained with the help of the following figure.

Conclusion:
Thus it can be concluded that perfect competition is a market structure characterized by complete absence rivalry among individual sellers. Sellers in the market do not hold any freedom of influencing market prices. Therefore, they are known as price takers. However, it should be admitted that it is a rare form of market.

Question 2.
The diagram shows one of the short run equilibrium situations of a firm under perfect competition.

1. List out any four features of such market condition.
2. Identify the equilibrium situation of the firm profit, normal profit, loss diagrammatically. Show a situation in which the firm makes a profit.
3. With the help of a diagram explain the long run situation of a firm under perfect competition.

Answer:
1. Market Conditions:

• Large number of sellers
• Homegeneous product
• Firm is a price taker
• Free entry and exit

2. The firm is making a normal profit.
The firm produces ‘oq’ level of output and charges a price ‘op’. The shaded area in the diagram shows profit.

3. Firm under perfeert competition in the long run makes only normal profit. This is because if firms are making profit, new entrants will be attracted into the industry.

The price falls due to increase in supply and the extra profit will be taken away. If the firms are making loss some of them will leave the industry, price rises and the loss will be turned into profit. This is shown in the diagram below.

The firm under perfect competition in the long run will produce ‘oq’ level of output and charges a price ‘op’.

Question 3.
How are price and output determined under perfect competition in the short run? Compare the profit of a firm in the short run and long run and bring out the difference. Give suitable diagram.
Answer:
Under perfect competition, market determines the price – price taker and not price maker firms produce the output that maximises its profit – a firm may get abnormal profit or normal profit or loss in the short run – only normal profit will prevail in the long run – due to free entry and exit – Draws separate diagram for short run and long run-explains price and output determination as well as profit in short run and long run.

PROFIT MAXIMIZATION IN SHORT-RUN:
DIAGRAMMATIC REPRESENTATION:
The profit maximizing condition of a firm in short-rn can be understood from the figure. All the three profit maximizing conditions of a firm in short run are satisfied at point of output level q₀.

1. The price must be equal to MC (P = MC)
2. MC must be non-decreasing.
3. P > AVC

All the profit maximizing conditions are satisfied in the figure given above.

1. The prices become equal to MC. At point E, the firm reaches equilibrium at the output level q (MC = MR). 0
2. At q MC is non-decreasing at point E.
3. At point E, prices have become more than AVC (P > AVC at point E).

Therefore, three conditions for the equilibrium level of output are depicted in a single figure.

LONG RUN PROFIT MAXIMISATION:
The profit maximization level of the firm is reached when the long run supply curve of the firm is that portion of LRMC curve which lies over and above the minimum point of LRAC curve (P>minimum of LRAC). The supply curve of a firm, in the long run, is the rising portion of minimum point of LMRC. It can be explained with the help of the following figure.

Students can Download Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug?
(a) Luminal
(b) Salol
(c) Catechol
(d) Ranitidine
Answer:
(a) Luminal

Question 2.
Alitame is an example of ……………………….
Answer:
Artificial sweetner

Question 3.
Say TRUE or FALSE: Non-ionic detergents are used for dishwashing purpose.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Which of the following is a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
(a) Pencillin
(b) Aminoglycosides
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Ofloxacin
Answer:
(c) Chloramphenicol

Question 5.
Antipyretics are medicinal compounds which
(a) lower body temperature
(b) relieve pain
(c) control hypertension
(d) remove acidity
Answer:
(a) lower body temperature

Question 6.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Answer:
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question 7.
Which of the following s not used as a neurologicaly active drug?
(a) Veronal
(b) Bithional
(c) Equanil
(d) Nardil
Answer:
(b) Bithional

Question 8.
Bithional is added to soap as an additive which per¬form as
(a) Herdenel
(b) Softness
(c) perfume
(d) Antiseptic
Answer:
(d) Antiseptic

Question 9.
Chemicaly Aspirin is …………….
Answer:
Acetyl Salicylic acid

Question 10.
Chemical compound used for the treatment stress are called ……………..
Answer:
tranquilizer

Question 11.
Terfenadine is commonly used as ……………
Answer:
Antibiotic

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘target molecules’ or ‘drug-targets’ as used in medicinal chemistry.
Answer:
Target molecules or drug-targets are the macromolecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, noucleic acids with which the drug interacts in our body to produce therapeutic effect.

Question 2.
What you mean by the term broad spectrum antibiotics? Explain.
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against several different types of harmful micro-organisms and thus capable of curing several infections are called broad spectrum antibiotics, e.g. Chloramphenicol.

Question 3.
Describe the following with suitable examples.

1. Tranquilizers
2. Antihistamines

Answer:

1. They are used for the treatment of stress or mental diseases. e.g. Barbituric acid
2. These are anti-allergic drugs and are used to treat allergy. e.g. skin rashes, conjunctivitis, nasal discharge, etc. e.g. brompheniramine, terfenadine

Question 4.
Bithional is added to soap. Give reason.
Answer:
It eliminates undesirable odour resulting from bacterial decompostion of organic matter on skin.

Question 5.
How do antiseptic and disinfectant differ? Explain with example.
Answer:
Both antiseptics and disinfectants are chemicals which either kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Antiseptics can be applied to living tissues. But disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects. They are harmful to living tissues, eg. Antiseptic – Dettol, Disinfectant – Phenol

Question 6.

1. What are artificial sweetening agents?
2. Name any two artificial sweetners.

Answer:

1. Substances which are used as sweetening agents in place of sugar but have no nutritive value are called artificial sweetening agents,
2. Sacharine and Aspartame are artificial sweetners.

Question 7.
What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetener?
Answer:
Alitame is a high potency sweetener. It is about 2000 times sweeter than sucrose. Therefore, the control of sweetness of food is difficult while using it.

Question 8.
Classify the following drugs into antihistamines transquilizers, analgesics and antibiotics.
Barbituric acid, Ranitidine, Morphine, Amoxycillin
Answer:

• Antihistamines – Rantidine
• Tranquilisers – Barbituric acid
• Analgesics – Morphine
• Antibiotics – Amoxycillin

Question 9.
What do you mean by bacteriocidal and bactereostatic antibiotics? Give example.
Answer:
Bacteriocidal antibiotics kills bacteria, e.g. pencillin Bacteriostatic antibiotics has inhibitory effects on bacteria, e.g. Tetracycline.

Question 10.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
Only a doctor can diagnose the disease properly and prescribe the correct medicine in appropriate dose.

Question 11.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Answer:
Forces such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals interaction or dipole-diple interaction.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question. 1
Match the following:

A	B
Analgesic	Paracetamol
Antipyretics	Chloramphenicol
Antibiotic	Aspirin
Tranquilizers	Dettol
Antiseptic	Barbituric acid
Disinfectant	Phenol

Answer:

A	B
Analgesic	Aspirin
Antipyretics	Paracetamol
Antibiotic	Chloramphenicol
Tranquilizers	Barbituric Acid
Antiseptic	Dettol
Disinfectant	Phenol

Question 2.

1. Give an example of tranquilizers.
2. Aspirin belongs to which type of analgesic?
3. Give an example for narcotic analgesic.

Answer:

1. Barbituric acid and its derivatives.
2. Non-narcotic/Non-addictive analgesics
3. Morphine

Question 3.
Match the following:

A	B
1) NaHCO3	Sweetening agent
2) Morphine	Preservative
3) Aspartame	Detergent
4) Sodium benzoate	Antifertility drug
5) Sodium lauryl sulphate	Analgesic
6) Novestrol	Antacid

Answer:

A	B
1) NaHCO3	Antacid
2) Morphine	Analgesic
3) Aspartame	Sweetening agent
4) Sodium benzoate	Preservative
5) Sodium laurylsulphate	Detergent
6) Novestrol	Antifertility drug

Question 4.
Chemistry plays a major role in our daily life.

1. How are synthetic detergents better than soaps?
2. Give one example each for cationic and anionic detergents.

Answer:

1. Detergents can be used even in hard water and also in acidic medium.
2. Cationic detergent – Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
   Anionic detergent – Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 5.
Match A and B:

A	B
Antiseptic	Brompheniramine
Analgesis	Equanil
Preservative	Iodoform
Antacid	AI(OH)3
Tranquilizer	Sodium benzoate
Antihistamines	Aspirin

Answer:

A	B
Antiseptic	Iodoform
Analgesis	Aspirin
Preservative	Sodium benzoate
Antacid	AI(OH)3
Tranquilizer	Equanil
Antihistamines	Brompheniramine

Question 6.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Answer:
Antacids and antiallergic drugs do not interfere with the function of each other because they work on different receptors. Thus, antihistamines (antiallergic drugs) do not affect the secretion of acid in stomach because they do not interact with the receptors present in the stomach wall.

Question 7.
A low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Answer:
Drugs which can inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline are needed. This will slow down the process of metabolism of noradrenaline and will thus help in counteracting the effect of depression. Iproniazid and phenelzine are two such drugs.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What are the main constituents of dettol?
2. What is tincture of iodine? What is its use?
3. Name the substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.

Answer:

1. Chloroxylenol and terpineol.
2. A 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture is called tincture of iodine. It is used as an antiseptic.
3. Phenol can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant. 0.2% solution of phenol is used as an antiseptic and 1% solution of phenol is used as disinfectant.

Question 2.

1. Differentiate between antagonists and agonists.
2. What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

Answer:
1. Drugs that bind to receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists. They are usefull when blocking of message is required. Drugs that mimic natural messenger by switching on the receptor are called agonists. They are useful when there is lack of natural chemical messenger.

2. They can kill or inhibit a wide range of bacteria.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Answer:
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question 2.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
Medicines should always be taken after consulting a doctor because any medicine if taken in overdose may act as a poison. Moreover, only a doctor can diagnose the disease properly and prescribe the correct medicine in appropriate dose.

Question 3.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Answer:
Drug is held to the amino acid residues of the protein present on the active site of the enzyme through forces such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals’ interaction ordipole-diple interaction.

Question 4.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Answer:
Antacids and antiallergic drugs do not interfere with the function of each other because they work on different receptors. Thus, antihistamines (antiallergic drugs) do not affect the secretion of acid in stomach because they do not interact with the receptors present in the stomach wall.

Question 5.
A low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Answer:
Drugs which can inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline are needed. This will slow down the process of metabolism of noradrenaline and will thus help in counteracting the effect of depression. Iproniazid and phenelzine are two such drugs.

Students can Download Chapter 10 Server Side Scripting Using PHP Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Server Side Scripting Using PHP

Plus Two Computer Science Server Side Scripting Using PHP One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
PHP files have a default file extension of ______.
(a) .html
(b) .xml
(c) .php
(d) .ph
Answer:
(c) .php

Question 2.
A PHP script should start with.
(a) <php>
(b) <?php?>
(c) <?php>
(d) <?php?>
Answer:
(c) <?php>

Question 3.
We can use_ to provide multi line comments.
(a) /?
(b) //
(c) #
(d) /* */
Answer:
(d) /* */

Question 4.
Which of the following php statement/statements will store 111 in variable num?
i) int$num = 111;
ii) intnum = 111;
iii) $num = 111;
iv) 111 = $num;
(a) Both i) and ii)
(b) All of the mentioned.
(c) Only iii)
(d) Only i)
Answer:
(c) Only iii)

Question 5.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$num = 1;
$num1 = 2;.
print $num . “+”. $num1;
?>
(a) 3
(b) 1 + 2
(c) 1. + .2
(d) Error
Answer:
(b) 1 + 2

Question 6.
Which of the following PHP statements will output Hello World on the screen?
i) echo (“Hello World”);
ii) print (“Hello World”);
iii) cout(“Hello World”);
iv) sprintf (“Hello World”);
(a) i) and ii)
(b) i), ii) and iii)
(c) All of the mentioned.
(d) i), ii) and iv)
Answer:
(a) i) and ii)

Question 7.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$total=25;
$more=10;
$total=$total + $more; .
echo “$total”;
?>
(a) Error
(b) 35 students
(c) 35
(d) 25 students
Answer:
(c) 35

Question 8.
Which statement will output $x on the screen?
(a) echo “\$x”;
(b) echo “$$x”;
(c) echo“/$x”;
(d) echo“$x;”;
Answer:
(a) echo “\$x”;

Question 9.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$a = “clue”;
$a = “get”;
echo “$a”;
?>
(a) get
(b) true
(c) false
(d) clueget
Answer:
(d) clueget

Question 10.
PHP’s numerically indexed array begin with position ______.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) -1
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 11.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
echo $x— != ++$x;
?>
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) error
(d) no output
Answer:
(d) no output

Question 12.
List Superglobals used in PHP.
Answer:
superglobals used in PHP is given below.
$_REQUEST, S_POST, S_GET, and S_COOKIE.

Plus Two Computer Science Server Side Scripting Using PHP Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the PHP functions we use

1. to find the length of a string
2. for comparing two strings

Answer:

1. strlen()
2. strcmp()

Question 2.
What is the main difference between JavaScript and PHP?
Answer:
JavaScript is a client side scripting language whereas PHP is a server side scripting language.

Question 3.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$a = 10;
echo ++$a;
echo $a++;
echo $a;
echo ++$a;
?>
(a) 11111213
(b) 11121213
(c) 11111212
(d) 11111112
Answer:
(a) 11111213
It works as follows
<?php
$a = 10;
echo ++$a; → Here pre increment first add 1 to
10 then it prints 11
echo $a++; → Here it prints 11 and then add 1 to
11 and stores in the variable $a, i.e. $a=12. echo$a; → Here it prints 12.
echo ++$a; → Here pre increment first add 1 to
12 then it prints 13 ?>

Question 4.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$x=”test”;
$y=”this”;
$z=”also”;
$x.=$y.=$z; echo $x; echo $y;
?>
(a) testthisthisalso
(b) testthis
(c) testthisalsothisalso
(d) error at line 4
Answer:
(c) testthisalsothisalso

Question 5.
What will be the output of the following PHP code?
<?php
$y = 2;
if ($y— == ++$y)
{
echo $y;
}
?>
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) no output
Answer:
(a) 2
It works as follows $y=2;
Here $y – – (LHS of the condition) , it first use the value of $y i.e. 2 hence LHS becomes 2, then its values decremented by 1 so $y now becomes 1. ++$y(RHS of the condition) first it changes the value
i. e. incremented by 1 now $y=2 hence RHS becomes 2
Here LHS and RHS are same then the condition $y— == ++$y returns true.
So it prints the value of $y, i.e. 2.

Plus Two Computer Science Server Side Scripting Using PHP Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A special type of array which is not supported by C++ is used in PHP. Can you describe the features of that array with example?
Answer:
Associative arrays
Arrays with named keys and string indices are called associative arrays.
Syntax: $varibale_name=array(key1 =>value1, key2=>value2,etc);
Eg:
<!DOCTYPE HTML>
<html lang=”en”>
<head>
<title>
We are learning PHP </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”cyan”>
<?php
$course = array (“Computer Science”=>”05″, “Commerce”=>”39″,”Science”=> “01” ); echo”The code of Computer Science is “.Scourse[“Computer Science”];
?>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Compare echo and print statements used in PHP.
Answer:
Output statements in PHP:
1. echo and print are used to display all types of data but echo is used to produce multiple outputs. Parenthesis is optional. Print returns true or false based on success or failure whereas echo doesn’t return true or false.
eg:
echo “ first output”, “second output”; or
echo (“ first output”, “second output”);
print “only one output”; .
or
print (“only one output”);
Eg.
<!DOCTYPE HTML> <head> <meta charset=”UTF-8″> <title>
This is a php page </title>
</head>
<body>
<?php
echo “This is first output”,” This is second output<br>”;
print “Only support single output”;
?>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
List the main differences between GET and POST methods in form submitting?
Answer:
The main differences are given below.

Plus Two Computer Science Server Side Scripting Using PHP Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the additional steps involved to run PHP in your computer?
Answer:
Basics of PHP
A. Setting up the development environment

• Step 1: Install a PHP compatible web Server(Eg. Abyss Web Server For Windows)
• Step 2: Install PHP interpreter.
  After installing the webserver type http:// localhost in the address bar the following screen will be available.

B. Writing and running the script
Take a note pad and type the code , PHP code should begin with <?php and end with ?>. Save this file in the root directory of the web server with extension .php.
Step 1
Take a notepad and type the following and save it as first.php on C:\Abyss Web Server\htdocs.
<?php
echo” My first PHP web page”;
?>
Step 2
Start the webserver if it is off
Step 3
Type as “http://localhost/first.php” in the address bar.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Data Base Management System for Accounting Questions and Answers, Plus Two Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Data Base Management System for Accounting

Plus Two Accountancy Data Base Management System for Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
DBMS stands for __________
Answer:
Data Base Management system.

Question 2.
Name of database object to hold data
(a) Tables
(b) Forms
(c) Queries
(d) Reports
Answer:
(a) Tables

Question 3.
LibreOffice Base is a
a) Word Processing Software
b) Presentation Software
c) Spread sheet Software
d) Data Base Management Software
Answer:
d) Data Base Management Software

Question 4.
The common fields used in a relationship between tables are called
(a) Joint field
(b) Main field
(c) Key field
(d) Table field
Answer:
(c) Key field

Question 5.
The result of Query can be displayed by clicking on ___________
Answer:
Run Button

Question 6.
SQL stands for _______
Answer:
Structural Query Language

Question 7.
______ denotes the number of rows in the table
(a) Tuple
(b) Cardinality
(c) DBMS
(d) Domain
Answer:
(b) Cardinality

Question 8.
A single row in the table is called
(a) Attribute
(b) Tuple
(c) Column
(d) Cardinality
Answer:
(b) Tuple

Question 9.
Database in LibreOffice Base is called ________
(a) Data group
(b) Mass Data
(c) Rows and columns
(d) Data Source
Answer:
(d) Data Source

Question 10.
A data base consists of a number of that ______ contains the individual pieces of data
Answer:
fields

Question 11.
A _________ of the database is a group of fields
(a) Table
(b) Forms
(c) Query
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Table

Question 12.
The data type suitable to the name of a person
Answer:
Text: [VARCHAR]

Question 13.
The default extension of LibreOffice Base file is
(a) .bmp
(b) .xls
(c) .lob
(d) .odb
Answer:
(d) .odb

Question 14.
Which among the format searches for all values ending with R?
(a) LIKE ‘*R*’
(b) LIKE ‘*R’
(c) LIKE ‘R*’
(d) LIKE ‘END\‘R’
Answer:
(b) LIKE ‘*R’

Question 15.
ODBC stands for _______
Answer:
Open Database Connectivity

Question 16.
The data type suitable to the age of an employee is;
Answer:
Number (Numeric)

Question 17.
__________are used to store the data in the database
(a) Reports
(b) Forms
(c) Tables
(d) Queries
Answer:
(c) Tables

Question 18.
________ is a tool to connect tables in a database
(a) Forms
(b) Queries
(c) Relationships
(d) Fields
Answer:
(c) Relationships

Question 19.
Choose the right path to start up LibreOffice Base
(a) Applications → Office → LibreOffice Base
(b) Applications → Create → LibreOffice Base
(c) Applications → Login → Office → LibreOffice Base
(d) Applications → Create → Office → LibreOffice Base
Answer:
(a) Applications → Office → LibreOffice Base

Question 20.
LibreOffice Base runs on _____ and _____ operating system
Answer:
Windows and Linux

Question 21.
Which among the following is not an advantage of LibreOffice Base
(a) The information is portable
(b) Ensure Data security
(c) Initial training is required for all users
(d) Many people can access the same database at the same time
Answer:
(c) Initial training is required for all users

Question 22.
Which among the following is not a component of Database system?
(a) Data
(b) Hardware
(c) Software
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 23.
RDBMs stands for ____________
Answer:
Relational Data Base Management System

Question 24.
The data type suitable to basic pay of employee:
Answer:
Number (Numeric)

Question 25.
What field type is used to store picture in a table?
Answer:
OLE object.

Question 26.
‘Join Line’ in the context of LibreOffice Base Tables means:
Answer:
Graphical representation of relationship between tables.

Question 27.
Reports are created from
(a) Tables
(b) Forms
(c) Relationships
(d) Tabs
Answer:
(a) Tables

Question 28.
Database is referred to as _______________
(a) Front-end program
(b) Back – end program
(c) User-end program
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Back – end program

Question 29.
Which among the following is not a DBMS?
(a) Base
(b) Access
(C) Oracle
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 30.
Choose the right pairs.
(a) Desktop data base – Single user applications
(b) Desktop data base – Multi user applications
(c) Server data base – Multi user applications
(d) Server data base – Single user applications.
Answer:
(a) & (c)

Question 31.
_______ are the fundamental building blocks fo the database.
(a) Tables
(b) Forms
(c) Queries
(d) Reports
Answer:
(a) Tables

Question 32.
Each column of the table is called …..(a)…… and characteristics of which is called …….(b)…….
Answer:
(a) field
(b) attributes

Question 33.
The format for getting the employees whose names begins with ‘K’ is ______
Answer:
LIKE ‘K*’

Question 34.
To expect a well formatted printable data from LibreOffice Base database, we may use
Answer:
Report

Question 35.
__________ are used for connecting tables in database to get the advantage of data redundancy
(a) Relationships
(b) Primary key
(c) Forms
(d) Tables
Answer:
(a) Relationships

Question 36.
In a database context is a window or screen that contain numerous fields, or spaces to enter data
(a) Tables
(b) Forms
(c) Query
(d) Reports
Answer:
(b) Forms

Question 37.
________ section contains the tittle of the report
(a) Field name
(b) Report header
(c) Form Header
(d) Report name
Answer:
(b) Report header

Question 38.
A ________ is a reference to a field in another relation or table
(a) Primary key
(b) Candidate key
(c) Foreign key
(d) Super key
Answer:
(c) Foreign key

Question 39.
The name which indicate the number of columns in the table
(a) Domain
(b) Tuple
(c) Degree
(d) Attribute
Answer:
(c) Degree

Question 40.
The end result of normalisation is known as ___________
Answer:
Refinement

Question 41.
Data type ‘Text’ can store up to characters
(a) 65,535
(b) 255
(c) 35,423
(d) 555
Answer:
(b) 255

Question 42.
Relationship between primary key of one table to primary key of another table is called
(a) One to one
(b) One to many
(c) Many to many
(d) Many to one
Answer:
(a) One to one

Question 43.
A query criteria LIKE ‘RAJU*’ returns all names that: LIKE ‘RAJU*’
(a) Contains RAJU
(b) Starts with RAJU
(c) Ends with RAJU
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Starts with RAJU

Question 44.
The characteristics of an entity is ________________
Answer:
Attributes

Question 45.
The data type _______ can store upto 65, 535 characters
(a) Text
(b) Number
(c) Memo
(d) Date
Answer:
(c) Memo

Question 46.
Anything which has a real life existence is called ___________
Answer:
Entities

Question 47.
What criteria is used to get return a text starts with ‘A’
Answer:
LIKe ‘A*’

Question 48.
A text data field is used to hold ______ values
(a) Alpha numeric
(b) Numbers only
(c) Alphabets only
(d) Any data
Answer:
(a) Alpha numeric

Question 49.
DBMS is an aggregate of data, hardware, software and ______
Answer:
Users

Question 50.
A _______ is a two dimensional array containing rows and columns
Answer:
Table

Plus Two Accountancy Data Base Management System for Accounting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Data base?
Answer:
Database/ Data source – Introduction
A database is a collection of related data. It is organised in such a way that its contents can easily be accessed, managed and updated. In LibreOffice, database is also called data source.

Database consists of interrelated data tables that are structured in a manner that ensures-data consistency and integrity. LibreOffice base, MS Access, Oracle, SQL server, etc. Are the commonly used softwares for data base management.

Question 2.
Define Primary Key.
Answer:
Primary key is a unique key which identify a row in a table. A primary key comprises a single column or set of columns.

Question 3.
What are the different ‘views’ of a form?
Answer:
Form view, Layout view and Design view

Question 4.
What are the components of Database system?
Answer:

• Data
• Hardware
• Software
• Users

Question 5.
What do you mean by Normalisation?
Answer:
Normalisation is the Alteration of tables that reduces data redundancy. Data redundancy means data duplication.

Question 6.
What are the different objects in LibreOffice Base?
Answer:
Tables, Relations, Forms, Queries and Reports.

Question 7.
Write the step for starting up Libre Office Base.
Answer:

• Step 1 – Click on Applications
• Step 2 – Select Office
• Step 3 – Select LibreOffice Base

Path → Application → office → LibreOffice Base

Question 8.
What is an attribute?
Answer:
Attributes: These define the characteristics of an entity. Eg: Name, Age, Caste, Salary etc.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Query?
Answer:
Query:
Query is a question. Queries are used to view, change and analyse data in different ways. It creates a new table from the existing tables based upon the question/ request asked to the data base.

Question 10.
What is Join line?
Answer:
It is the graphical representation of relationship between tables.

Question 11.
What is relationships?
Answer:
These are links between tables.

Question 12.
How to run saved Query?
Answer:
Select Queries option from the left panel of the LibreOffice Base window. The saved query can be seen in the right side. Double click on the query name to run the query.

Question 13.
What are the different methods to create Forms in LibreOffice Base?
Answer:

1. Create Form in Design view
2. Use wizard to create Form

The second method is the easy way to create Forms in LibreOffice Base

Question 14.
How to close a Database file and Exit from it?
Answer:

• Step 1 – Click on the File menu
• Step 2 – Select Close

Then the file will be closed. To exit from the Base file, follow these steps:

• Step 1 – Click on the File menu
• Step 2 – Select exit LibreOffice

Question 15.
Give short note on Tables in LibreOffice Base
Answer:
A table is a database object used to store data about a particular subject. A table consists of records and fields, the columns are called fields the and rows are called records.

Question 16.
Write down the character length of the ‘Text’ data type and ‘memo’ data type.
Answer:

• Text – 225 Characters
• Memo – 65535 Characters

Question 17.
List down the disadvantages of LibreOffice Base
Answer:
Disadvantages of database / Data source:

1. Designing of database is a complex and time consuming process.
2. Initial training is required for all the users.
3. Installation cost is high.

Question 18.
Distinguish between database and database management system
Answer:
Database is a collection of data. It consists of inter-related data tables.
Database management system is a collection of programs that enables users to work on database. DBMS enables the user to create and maintain a database.

Question 19.
Match the following

1. One to One Relationship – Non Primary Key to Non Primary Key
2. One to Many Relationship – Primary key to Primary Key
3. Many to Many Relationship – Non Primary key to Primary Key
4. Many to One Relationship – Primary key to Non Primary Key

Answer:

1. One to One Relationship – Primary key to Primary Key
2. One to Many Relationship – Primary key to Non Primary Key
3. Many to Many Relationship – Non Primary key to Non Primary Key
4. Many to One Relationship – Non Primary key to Primary Key

Question 20.
What are the different methods for creating Queries?
Answer:

• Using the Query Wizard
• Using Design view

Plus Two Accountancy Data Base Management System for Accounting Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List down the advantages of using Database.
Answer:
Advantage of database/ data source:

1. All of the information is together
2. The information is portable
3. Information can be accessed at any time
4. Many users can access the same database at the same time.
5. Reduced data entry, storage and retrieval cost.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of Database Management System.
Answer:

1. It helps to maintain records for ongoing use.
2. It helps to generate reports based on the database.
3. Mass volume of data can be managed easily.
4. It is very useful; if the information stored in the system is subject to many changes.

Question 3.
Three options are available in database wizard to create a new database. What are they?
Answer:

1. Create a new Database.
2. Open an existing database.
3. Connect to an existing database.

1.Create a new Database:
This option helps to create a new database with new tables, forms, queries, reports, etc.

2. Open an existing database:
This option helps to open an existing database file which had been created earlier.

3. Connect to an existing database:
This option helps to connect a database which is created on a server.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Desktop Database and Server Database.
Answer:

Desktop Database	Server Database
(a) It is single user database.	(a) It is multi user database.
(b) It helps to do simple analysis and calculations.	(b) It helps to do complex analysis and calculations.
(c) It is less expensive.	(c) It is expensive.
(d) It is residing on personal computers.	(d) It is residing on server computer.

Question 5.
List down the steps to create a Database in LibreOffice base
Answer:

• Step 1 – Creation of Blank Database
• Step 2 – Creation of Tables
• Step 3 – Creation of Relationships
• Step 4 – Creation of Forms
• Step 5 – Creation of Queries
• Step 6 – Creation of Reports

Question 6.
What are the different Data types commonly used in LibreOffice Base?
Answer:

1. Text – Used to hold alphanumeric values
2. Memo- Used to enter long pieces of text
3. Number – Used to enter Numeric data
4. Date – Used to enter data information
5. Time – Used to enter time information

Question 7.
Some query criteria are given below. Write the query format.

1. Search for all values which contain salary
2. Search for all values beginning with K
3. Search for all values ending with P
4. Searches for all values beginning with Dr
5. Searches for all values ending with Cr.

Answer:

1. LIKE ‘*salary*’
2. LIKE ‘K*’
3. LIKE ‘*P’
4. LIKE ‘Dr*’
5. LIKE ‘*Cr’

Plus Two Accountancy Data Base Management System for Accounting Practical Lab Work Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Create a Table named ‘Tblstudents’ in LibreOffice Base with the following fields. Set the Admn No. as Primary Key

procedure:
Step 1 – Open Libre Office Base
Application → Office → LibreOffice Base.

Step 2 – Create a new database
Database wizard → Create a New Database → Next → Yes register the database for me → Open the database for editing Finish.

Step 3 – In Save Dialogue box, give the name STUDENTFEE and select a location to save the database and click Save button.
The new database file STUDENTFEE.odb. is created

Step 4 – Create Data Tables
From the left Database Pane, click on the icon Tables and below the Tasks section, click on ‘Create Table in Design view’
Database Pane → Tables → Create Table in Design view

Step 5 – Field Name Entry
In Table creation Screen, Enter the Field names and select appropriate Data Types as given below.

Field Name	Data Type
Admn No.	Number (Numeric)
Name of student	Text (VARCHAR)
Class	Text (VARCHAR)
Admission date	Date(DATE)
Fee Paid	Number (Numeric)

Step 6 – Setting Primary Key
To set the Admn No. as the Primary key, Right click on the row selector of Admn No. and select the Primary key from the drop down menu

Step 7 – Save Table
Click on Save button (or press Ctrl+S) to save the table. In save as dialogue box, Enter Tblstuderrts as table name and click on OK button Close the table creation screen

Step 8 – Data Entry
Database Pane → Tables → Created Tables → Select Tbl students → Double click to open it

Enter all the data given one by one

Output:

Question 2.
Create Two Data Tables named TBLSTUDENT and TBLMARKS in LibreOffice Base with the following fields and show the relationship assuming that the first fields in both tables are set as primary keys

Table – 1

Table – 2

procedure:
Step 1 – Open LibreOffice Base
Application → Office LibreOffice Base

Step 2 – Create new Database
Datebase wizard → Create a new database Next → Yes, register database for me → Open the data base for editing → click on Finish button

Step 3 – In save Dialogue box, give the name STUDENTFILE and select a location to save the database and click Save button.
The new database file STUDETFILE.odb is created

Step 4 – Create Data Tables
Create Table – 1
From the left Data base pane, click on the Icon Tables and below the Tasks section, click on ‘Create Table in Design view’,
Data base Pane → Tables → Create Table in Design view

Step 5 – Field name Entry:
In Table creation screen, Enter the field names and select appropriate Data Types as given below

Field Name	Data Type
Admn No.	Number (Numeric)
Name	Text (VARCHAR)
Class	Text(VARCHAR)

Step 6 – Setting Primary key
To set Admn No as the primary key Right click → Primary key from the drop-down menu

Step 7 – Save Table
Press Ctrl+S on click on save button to save the table. Enter the name TBLSTUDENT → Click OK button.

Step 8 – Repeat the same steps for creating the second Table
Create Table -2

Field name	Data Type
Class No.	Number (Numeric)
Mark	Number (Numeric)

Set ‘Class No’ as the ‘Primary key’ save the table by naming TBLMARKS. Then close the table creation screen.

Step 9 – Data Entry
Data base Pane → Tables → Created Tables → Select → (Two tables TBLSTUDENT and TBLMARKS one by one) → Double click to open it
Enter all the details one by one.

Step 10 – Create Relationship
(a) Go to the Tools menu, select Relationships. Now Add Table dialogue box will appear. Add both the tables to the relationship window and close the Add Table dialogue box

(b) Create relationship between TBLSTUDENT and TBLMARK. Position the mouse pointer over the primary key of TBLSTUDENT table, hold down the left mouse button, drag the pointer right to the primary key in the TBLMARK table and then release the mouse button.

(c) Click on Save button in relation design window to save the relationship File → Save Click Close button to close the relation design window
Output:

Question 3.
Create a Form in LibreOffice Base to Manage data in a table named customers with the following details.

Step 1 – Open LibreOffice base
Application → Office LibreOffice Base

Step 2 – Create New Database
Database wizard → Create a new database Next → Yes, register database for me Open the database for edting → Click on Finish button

Step 3 – In save dialogue box, give the name CUSTOMERFILE . Select the location to save the database and cfick Save button.
The new database file CUSTOMERFILE.odb is created.

Step 4 – Create Data Tables
From the left database pane, click on the Icon Tables, and below the Tasks section, click on ‘Create Table in Design View’
Database Pane → Tables Create Tables in Design View

Step 5 – Enter necessary field names and select appropriate Data Type. Save the Table in the name TBLCUSTOMER and close the window

Step 6 – Create Form
From the left database pane, click on the Forms button and in right side, under Tasks section, click on Use Wizard to Create a Form.
Now Form wizard window opens
Data base Pane → Forms → Use wizard to create a Form

Step 7 – Selection of fields

• In Form wizard, select TBLCUSTOMER from the combo box under the head Tables/Queries. → Click on Next button.
• Add all Fields to Fields in the Form section in the right side by clicking >> button → Next button
• Setup subform → Next → Arrange controls → Next
• Set Data entry → Select The form is to display all data → Next → Apply styles → Next
• Enter the name of the form inset Name Option as FORM CUSTOMER → select work with the Form → Finish

Now the data entry form will be opened

Step 8 – Data Entry in the form
Enter data in each field and Press Enter Key or Tab Key
Output:

Question 4.
Enter the following data in a database table

• Display the names of students who scored greater than or equal to 500.
• Display the name of student whose name begin with ‘S’

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open LibreOffice Base
Application → Office → LibreOffice Base

Step 2 – Create New Database
Datebase wizard → Create New Data base Next Yes, register the database form → Open the database for editing → Finish

Step 3 – In Save dialogue box, give the name STUDENTMARK and select the location to Save the data base and click Save button, the new data base file STUDENTMARK.odb. is created.

Step 4 – Create Data Table
From the left Database Pane, Click on the icon Tables, and below the Tasks section, Click on ‘Create Table in Design view’
Database Pane → Tables → Create Tables in Design view

Step 5 – Filed Name Entry
In Table creation Screen, Enter the Field names and select appropriate Data Types as given below

Step 6 – Setting Primary Key
To set STUDROLL_NO as primary key Right click → Select Primary key from the drop down menu

Step 7 – Save Table
Click on Save button or Press Ctrl+S to save the table. In save as dialogue box, Enter TBLSTUDENTDETAILS as the name and dick on OK Button
Close the Table creation screen.

Step 8 – Data Entry
Data base pane → Tables → Created Tables → Select TBLSTUDENTDETAILS → Double click to open it Enter all the data on by one

Step 9 – Create Query

• From the Data base Pane, Click on Queries button and in the right side under Task section, Click on Create Query in Design view. Now Add Table or Query Window opens.
• Select the table TBLSTUDENTDETAILS and click Add button, then close the window.
• In the Query Design window, double click on each Field in Table window to add all the fields to query design grid.

Step 10 – Enter Query Criteria (Question 1)
In Query design Grid, set the Criteria for the query.

• Enter >=500, in the Criterion row in STUDMARK column.
• Click on the RUN Query Button or Press F5 to display the result.
• Save and close the query. File → Save. ‘Save as’ window opens. Give the name Query 1 and click on OK button.

Step 11 – Enter the Query Criteria (Question 2)
In the Query design grid, set the criteria for the query

a) Enter LIKE ‘S*’, in the criterion row in STUDNAME column.
b) Click on the Run Query Button or Press F5 to display the result.
c) Save and close the query.
File → Save. ‘Save as’ window opens. Give the name ‘Query 2’ and click on OK button.
Output – 1

Output – 2

Question 5.
Enter the following list of employees in Tblemployee and make a report from this table sorted in the order of Designation.

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open Libre Office base

Step 2 – Create new database
Database wizard → Create a new database → Next → Yes, register database for me → Open the database for editing → Click on Finish Button.

Step 3 – In save dialogue box, give the name Employee file. Select the location to save the database and click Save button.
Now, the new database file Employeefile.odb is created.

Step 4 – Create data tables
From the left database pane, click on the icon Tables, and below the Tasks section, Click on Create Table in Design View. Database Pane → Tables → Create Tables in design view.

Step 5 – Enter the necessary field names and select appropriate Data Type. Save the Table in the name Tbl employee and close the window.

Step 6 – Create Report
In the left Pane of the data base window, click on the Reports button and in right side, Under Tasks section click on Use Wizard to create a Report. This will open a Report wizard.

Step 7 – In Field selection step, under Tables Queries, Select the table Tblemployee. Then Press Add All buttons [>>] to all fields to report. Then click Next button.

Step 8 – Labelling fields (Skip this Step) → Next → Grouping Level (Skip this Step) → Next → In sort Option, Select Designation against sort by, and click Next button.

Step 9 – Choose Layout section, Select Tabular in the layout. → Click Next → In create Report Section → Give the tittle of Report as Report-Designation and select modify I Report Layout → Click Finish button.

Step 10 – Report Design window, click on Page Header area → Insert → Report controls → Label field to insert a Header for the report

Step 11 – Double click on the Label Field inserted and in the property window edit the Label as “Designation List of Employees” and Press Enter.

Step 12 – Click on Execute Report button to view the Report.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Web Hosting Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The companies that provide web hosting services are called_____.
Answer:
Web Hosts

Question 2.
The service of providing storage space in a web server to make a website available on Internet is called______.
Answer:
web hosting

Question 3.
Which of the following is true in the case of dedicated hosting?
(a) It shares server with other websites.
(b) It is usually inexpensive.
(c) It does not guarantee performance.
(d) It offers freedom for the clients to choose the hardware and the software.
Answer:
(d) It offers freedom for the clients to choose the hardware and the software.

Question 4.
Choose the odd one out, and justify your answer,
(a) Shared hosting
(b) Dedicated hosting
(c) DNS
(d) Virtual Private Server
Answer:
(c) DNS others are types of web hosting.

Question 5.
______is the service of providing storage space in a Webserver.

OR

Storing the web pages of a website in a server is popularly known as_____.
Answer:
Web hosting

Question 6.
The companies that provides web hosting services are called______.
Answer:
Web hosts

Question 7.
Odd one out.
(a) Shared
(b) Dedicated
(c) VPS
(d) DNS
Answer:
(d) DNS, means Domain Name System. The others are types of web hosting.

Question 8.
VPS stands for______.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server

Question 9.
From the following select the most commonly used web hosting.
(a) Shared
(b) Dedicated
(c) VPS
(d) DNS
Answer:
(a) Shared hosting

Question 10.
DNS stands for_____.
Answer:
Domain Name System

Question 11.
‘A record’ means_____.
Answer:
Address record

Question 12.
FTP stands for______.
Answer:
File Transfer Protocol

Question 13.
Odd one out.
(a) Mozilla Firefox
(b) FileZilla
(c) CuteFTP
(d) SmartFTP
Answer:
(a) Mozilla Firefox, it is a web browser, the others are popular FTP client software.

Question 14.
______hosting provides web hosting services free of change.
Answer:
Free hosting

Question 15.
Give an example for Free web hosting services with sub domain website address.
Answer:
www.bvmhsskaiparamba.facebook.com

Question 16.
Give an example for Free web hosting services with directory service website address.
Answer:
www.facebook.com/bvm hss kalparamba

Question 17.
CMS stands for______.
Answer:
Content Management System

Question 18.
The term ‘responsive web designing’ was introduced by______.
Answer:
Ethan Marcotte.

Question 19.
The method of Flexible designing of web pages to suit the various types of screens is called______.
Answer:
Responsive web design method

Question 20.
In dedicated hosting, if the client is allowed to place his own purchased web server in the service
provider’s facility, then it is called______.
Answer:
Co-location

Question 21.
What are the information contain in a ICANN database?
Answer:
Registered domain names/name, address, telephone number and e-mail address of the registrants.

Question 22.
What is ‘A record’?
Answer:
‘A record’ is used to store the IP address and the corresponding domain name.

Question 23.
Joomla is an example for______.
(a) CMS
(b) ISP
(c) DNS
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) CMS

Question 24.
The responsive web design feature that converts horizontal menu to a dropdown menu in mobile phones is called______.
Answer:
Media queries.

Question 25.
The organization that maintains the WHOIS data-base of domain names is______.
Answer:
ICANN

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider that your school is planning to host a website. What are the factors that you will consider while choosing the type of web hosting?
Answer:
Following factors to be considered

1. Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files
2. If the web pages contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider
3. Based upon the programs select Windows hosting or Linux hosting.

Question 2.
Emmanuel wishes to buy a suitable domain for his company. Unfortunately, the domain name he chose is already registered by someone else. Name the feature that will help him to find the current owner. List the details will he get.
Answer:
WHOIS. Name, address, telephone number and e-mail address of the registrant.

Question 3.
What is the use of FTP client software? Give an example.
Answer:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) client software. When a client requests a website by entering website address. Then FTP client software helps to establish a connection between client computer and remote server computer.

Unauthorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files for that SSH(Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. Instead of http://, it uses ftp://.

By using FTP client s/w we’ can transfer(upload) the files from our computer to the web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client software are FileZilla, Cute FTP, Smart FTP, etc.

Question 4.
Haseena has decided to host her new website using free hosting facility; her friend Rinisha is against this move. Can you guess her argument against the utilization of free hosting facility?
Answer:
In free web hosting service, the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia (audio and viedo) files.

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Priya has developed a website for her shop. She has purchased a domain name and hosting space.

1. Name the software that will help her to transfer her files from her computer to the web server.
2. List the requirements in that software that are necessary to connect to the web server.

Answer:

1. FTP software such as FileZilla, Cute FTP, Smart FTP
2. Following are the requirements to connect to the web server
   • Domain name/IP address
   • Username
   • Password

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of using SFTP protocol in FTP client software.
Answer:
Un authorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files, for this SSH (Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. It encrypts and sends usernames, passwords, and data to the web server.

Question 3.
Merin plans to create a website for their family without spending money.

1. List some of the limitations that Merin will face regarding the hosting space for website.
2. How will she provide a domain name for the website?

Answer:
1. In free web hosting service, the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia (audio and viedo) files.

2. Usually two types of free web hosting services as follows.

• as a directory service: service provider’s website address/our website address
  eg: www.facebook.com/bvmhsskalparamba
• as a sub domain: Our website address.service providers website address
  eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.facebook.com

Question 4.
Recentlly more and more people are using Content Management Systems (CMS) for developing professional websites. What can be the reasons for this?
Answer:
CMS means Content Management System. Do you heard about Data Base Management System (DBMS). DBMS is a software (collection of programs) used to create, alter modify, delete and retrieve records of a Data Base.

Similarly CMS is a collection of programs that is used to create, modify, update and publish website contents. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are the examples of CMS.

Question 5.
Suggest a hosting type for the following websites given below. Justify.

1. Website for a medical shop in your city.
2. Website for Public Service Commission (PSC) of Kerala.
3. Website for an online shopping facility.

Answer:

1. Shared hosting
2. Dedicated/VPS
3. Dedicated/VPS

Question 6.
Consider that a college in your locality plans to shift its website from shared type of hosting to VPS hosting. List the advantages that the website will gain from this change.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server (VPS):
A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS(Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS.

This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo

Question 7.
Mr. Mohan wants to host a personal website with minimal cost. Which type of web hosting would you advise for him? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Shared Hosting:
This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory, disk space, and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.

Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, playground, etc) with every one.

Question 8.
A super market in a city wishes to take its business online. It plans to accept orders for its products through a website and receive payments online.

1. Which type of hosting is suitable for this website?
2. Explain the reason for your choice,

Answer:
1. Dedicated Hosting.

2. A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors.

Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.

Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

Question 9.
Emil wishes to purchase the web hosting space required to host a website for his medical shop. List the features to be taken into consideration while buying hosting space on a web server.
Answer:
Following factors to be considered

1. Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files
2. If the web pages contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider
3. Based upon the programs select Windows hosting or Linux hosting.

Question 10.
How can we connect a website hosted in a Webserver to a domain name?
Answer:
Millions of websites are available over Internet so that our website must be registered with a suitable name. Domain Name registration is used to identify a website over Internet.

A domain name must be unique(i.e. no two website with same name is available). So you have to check the availability of domain name before you register it, for this www.whois.net website will help.

If the domain name entered is available then we can register it by paying the Annual registration fees through online. Consider a Post Office, it has two addresses one string address (Irinjalakuda) and one numeric(pin) code (680121).

Just like this, the website has also two addresses a string address for example www.agker.cag.gov in and a numeric address (http:/ /210.212.239.70/). We are following string address, hence this domain name has to be connected to the corresponding IP address of the web server.

This is done by using ‘A record’(Address record) of the domain. ‘A record’ is used to store the IP address and the corresponding domain name.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of using SFTP protocol in FTP software?
Answer:
FTP(File Transfer Protocol) client software. When a client requests a website by entering website address. Then FTP client software helps to establish a connection between client computer and remote server computer.

Unauthorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files for that SSH(Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. Instead of http://, it uses ftp://.

By using FTP client s/w we can transfer(upload) the files from our computer to the web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client software are FileZilla, CuteFTP, SmartFTP, etc.

Question 12.
Raju wishes to host a website for his family. What are the advantages that free web hosting companies provide?
Answer:
The name implies it is free of cost service and the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia(audio and video) files.

A paid service website’s address is as follows
eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.com
Usually two types of free web hosting services as follows

1. as a directory service: Service provider’s website address/our website address
   eg: www.facebook.com / bvm hss kalparambu
2. as a Sub domain: Our website address.service providers website address
   eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.facebook.com

Earlier web hosting services are expensive but nowadays it is cheaper hence reduced the need for free web hosting.

Question 13.
What is CMS? What are the features of CMS? Give Examples.
Answer:
CMS means Content Management System. Do you heard about Data Base Management System (DBMS). DBMS is a software(collection of programs) used to create, alter, modify, delete and retrieve records of a Data Base.

Similarly, CMS is a collection of programs that is used to create, modify, update and publish website contents. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are the examples of CMS.

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain different types of web hosting?
Answer:
Types of web hosting:
Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the web hosting services according to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1. Shared Hosting:
This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory, disk space, and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server.

This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.

Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, play ground, etc) with every one.

2. Dedicated Hosting:
A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors.

Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.

Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

3. Virtual Private Server (VPS):
A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS.

This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo.

Question 2.

1. What is responsive web design? (3)
2. Why is it gaining importance recently? (2)

Answer:
1. The home page is displayed differently according to the screen size of the browser window(different screen sized devices mobile phone, palmtop, tablet, laptop, and desktop) we used.

The website is designed dynamically (flexibly) that suit the screen size of different device introduced by Ethan Marcotte. Before this, companies have to design different websites for different screen sized devices.

By responsive web design, companies have to design only one website that suitably displayed according to the screen size of the devices. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries.

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.

Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the
device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

2. Insted of using desktops or laptops many people nowadays visit websites using tablets and mobiles phones. Portability is the main reason for this.

Question 3.
Today, we visit websites using tablets and mobile phones also. You might have noticed that the same website is displayed in a different layout in different devices.

1. Name the concept used for this. (1)
2. List and explain the technologies used for implementing this concept. (5)

Answer:

1. Responsive web design.
2. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries.

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.

Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

Question 4.

1. What is responsive web design? (3)
2. How is responsive web design implemented? (2)

Answer:
1. The home page is displayed differently according to the screen size of the browser window(different screen sized devices mobile phone, palmtop, tablet, laptop, and desktop) we used.

The website is designed dynamically(flexibly) that suit the screen size of different device introduced by Ethan Marcotte. Before this, companies have to design different websites for different screen sized devices.

By responsive web design, companies have to design only one website that suitably displayed according to the screen size of the devices.

2. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.
Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

Students can Download Chapter 9 Financial Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Financial Management

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
………………. is the objective of modern financial management.
Answer:
Wealth maximisation

Question 2.
A decision to acquire a new and modern plant to upgrade an old one is a ……………..
(a) financing decision
(b) working capital decision
(c) investment decision
(d) dividend decision
Answer:
(c) investment decision

Question 3.
The decision to maximise the return of equity shareholders by introducing more debt capital in the total capital structure. Identify the concept.
(a) Financial leverage
(b) Undercapitalisation
(c) Over capitalisation
(d) Fair capitalisation
Answer:
(a) Financial leverage

Question 4.
Use of fixed interest bearing source of funds to enhance the return of equity shareholders is called ………………
(a) Trading on profit
(b) Trading on equity
(c) Trading on assets
(d) Trading on liability
Answer:
(b) Trading on equity

Question 5.
Identify the term referred here. Use of debt capital along with equity capital with total capital of a company.
Answer:
Trading on equity

Question 6.
The cheapest source of finance is …………….
(a) Debenture
(b) Equity share
(c) Preference share
(d) Retained earning.
Answer:
(d) Retained earning

Question 7.
Current assets are those assets which get converted into cash ……………….
(a) within six month
(b) within one year
(c) between one and three year
(d) between three and five year
Answer:
(b) within one year

Question 8.
Amount invested in Fixed assets is known as ………………………
(a) Working capitalisation
(b) Circulating capital
(c) Fixed capital
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Fixed capital

Question 9.
Gross Working capital means ……………
Answer:
Total current assets

Question 10.
………………………….. is the excess of current asset over current liabilities.
Answer:
Working Capital

Question 11.
Jasim one of your classmates, confused with the two different concept of working capital. Help him.
Answer:

1. Gross working capital
2. Net working capital

Question 12.
Generally in trading concerns there is a time gap between sales of goods and their actual realisation of cash. Write down the term used to describe the time gap.
Answer:
Operating cycle of working capital/ Working capital cycle

Question 13.
Decision of allocation of funds to long term assets is ………………
Answer:
Capital budgeting

Question 14.
………………….. is the reward of shareholders for investment made by them.
Answer:
Dividend

Question 15.
Which among the following is not a factor affecting dividend decision?
(a) Nature of industry
(b) Taxation policy
(c) Competition
(d) Legal restrictions
Answer:
(c) Competition

Question 16.
A finance manager of a firm has to take many decisions, which can be put under three main categories. Besides dividend decisions, what are the other two categores?
Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Financing devision

Question 17.
Which among the following is not a finance function? (Investment decision, Compensation decision, Dividend decision, Financing decision)
Answer:
Compensation devision

Question 18.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

1. Financing decision
2. Investment decision
3. Dividend decision

Question 19.
Choose any two factors which affect the working capital. <0>6)sn$aKO)3<e>.
(a) Tax policy
(b) Credit policy
(c) Pcocurement of fixed assets
(d) Dividend policy
(e) Seasonal factors
(f) Investment ratio
Answer:
(b) Credit policy
(e) Seasonal factors

Question 20.
Ensuring the availability of fund from different sources is called …………….
Answer:
Financial planning

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Moli, the finance manager of Chikk Ltd, has to take the following decisions in connection with expansion of appropriate heads. What decisions are they?

1. Amount to be spent on current assets.
2. Sharing profits to shareholder.
3. Raising funds through issue of debenture.
4. Determining the proportion of owned fund and borrowed fund.

Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Dividend decision
3. Finance decision
4. Finance decision

Question 2.
When is a capital structure said to be optimum?
Answer:
A capital structure is said to be optimum when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the shares.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The primary objective of financial management is to maximise shareholders wealth. Explain.
Answer:
The primary aim of financial management is to maximise shareholder’s wealth, which is referred to as the wealth maximisation concept . It means maximisation of the market value of equity shares.

The shareholders are the owners of the company. So it is the responsibility of the company to pay reasonable dividend and also to maximize the value of its shares. All financial decisions aim at ensuring that each decision is efficient to increase the market price of shares.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Trading on Equity or Capital gearing’
Answer:
Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

8. Period of Finance:
If funds are required for short period, borrowing from bank should be preferred. If funds are required for longer period company can issue shares and debentures.

9. Taxation Policy:
interest on loan and debentures is deductible item under the Income Tax Act whereas dividend is not deductible. In order to take advantage of this provision, companies may issue debentures.

10. Legal Requirements:
The structure of capital of a company is also influenced by the statutory requirements. For example, Banking Regulation Act, Indian Companies Act, SEBI, etc.

Question 3.
Distinguish between fixed capital and working capital.

Fixed Capital:

• Investment made in fixed assets
• Uses long term sources of capital fund
• Increase the efficiency and effectiveness of an organisation

Working Capital:

• Investment made in current assets
• Uses short term sources of capital fund
• Sustain the efficiency and effectiveness of an organisation

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom debate Arun argued that “profit as a criteria for judging the financial performance is suitable only for sole proprietorship concerns”.

1. Do you agree with the views of Arun? Justify your answer.
2. Suggest operationally feasible criteria for assessing the financial performance of a company form of organisation.

Answer:

1. Yes. I agree with the views of Arun because the main objective of sole proprietorship concerns are profit maximization. In sole proprietorship, only a single person invests capital and the whole profit is enjoyed by himself.
2. The feasible criteria for assessing the financial performance of a company is wealth maximization.

Question 2.
Match the following

 

A	B
Financial planning	Earnings of equity shareholders
Capital structure	Under capitalisation
Financial leverage	Optimum utilization of resources
Bonus shares	Mix of long term sources

Answer:

A	B
Financial planning	Optimum utilization of resources
Capital structure	Mix of long term sources
Financial leverage	Under capitalisation
Bonus shares	Earnings of equity shareholders

Question 3.
Mr. Vishnu is appointed financial manager of a company. As a commerce student can you state the primary duties of Vishnu as the financial manager? You have to identify the finance functions of the company.
Answer:
Finance Functions:
The finance function is concerned with three broad decisions which are:

1. Finance Decision:
It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision:
The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.

Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question 4.
Clearly state the role of a financial manager in a business.
Answer:
Role of finance manager in a business:

1. The finance manager determines size and com-position of fixed assets in the business.
2. The finance manager determines the quantum of current assets as well as working capital.
3. He must also determine the long term and short term financing to be used.
4. The finance manager determines break up of long term finances into debt and equity.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Every manager has to take three major decisions while performing the finance function. Explain them.
Answer:
Mr. Vishnu is appointed financial manager of a company. As a commerce student can you state the primary duties of Vishnu as the financial manager? You have to identify the finance functions of the company.
Answer:
Finance Functions:
The finance function is concerned with three broad decisions which are:

1. Finance Decision:
It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision:
The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.

Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question2.
Kurian Jose, the financial manager in Aravinda Ltd. has to take the following decision in connection with expansion of business:

1. Amount to be spent on fixed assets
2. Sources of finance
3. Sharing of profit to shareholders
4. Ratio of debt and equity
5. Retain profit for expansion
6. Amount to be provided for working capital.

Categorise these finance functions into appropriate heads.
Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Financing decision
3. Dividend decision
4. Financing decision
5. Dividend decision
6. Investment decision

Question 3.
Explain the term Financial Planning.
Answer:
Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

Question 4.
Explain briefly the importance of financial planning.
Answer:
Importance of Financial Planning

1. It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
2. It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
3. It integrates the financial policies and procedures.
4. It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
5. It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
6. It serves as the basis of financial control
7. It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
8. It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
9. It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Question 5.
Capital structure means the mix or composition of long term sources of funds. As a financial expert, what are the factors you would consider while determining it?
Answer:
Capital Structure:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners funds and borrowed funds. Owners fund consists of equity share capital, preference share capital and reserves and surpluses or retained earnings. Borrowed funds can be in the form of loans, debentures, public deposits, etc.

A capital structure will be said to be optimal when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

Question 6.
‘No business can run successfully without adequate working capital’. By considering this fact:

1. Narrate the significance of adequacy of working capital.
2. The important factors influencing working capital.

Answer:
1. Working Capital:
Working capital is that portion of capital required for investing in current assets for meeting day to day working of an organization. Current assets can be converted into cash within a period of one year. They provide liquidity to the business.

2. Working capital is of two types:

• Gross working capital = Total of current asset
• Networking capital = Current assets – Current Liabilities

Factors affecting Working Capital:
1. Nature of Business:
A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital as compared to a manufacturing organisation.

2. Scale of Operations:
A large scale organisation requires large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

3. Business Cycle:
In the boom period larger amount of working capital is needed to meet the demand. In case of depression, demand for goods declines so less working capital is required.

4. Seasonal Factors:
During peak season demand of a product will be high and thus high working capital will be required as compared to the lean season.

5. Production Cycle:
Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

6. Credit Policy:
A liberal credit policy results in higher amount of debtors, increasing the requirement of working capital.

7. Operating Efficiency:
If cash, debtors and inventory are efficiently managed, working capital requirement can be reduced.

8. Availability of Raw Materials:
If the raw materials are easily available in the market and there is no shortage, huge amount need not be blocked in inventories, so it needs less working capital.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Zee Ltd. is a well established company engaged in the production of cosmetics. They propose to undertake an expansion programme for product diversification, such as toys and perfumes.

1. Being a business consultant, explain to them various steps involved in formulating plans relating to the financial aspects of this new project.
2. Also state the importance of financial planning.

Answer:
1. Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

2. Importance of Financial Planning

• It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
• It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
• It integrates financial policies and procedures.
• It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
• It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
• It serves as the basis of financial control
• It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
• It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
• It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Question 2.
You are the finance manager of a new company. The management of the company asked you to suggest a suitable capital structure. What are the factors you will take into account while designing the company’s capital structure.
Answer:
Capital Structure:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners funds and borrowed funds. Owners fund consists of equity share capital, preference share capital and reserves and surpluses or retained earnings. Borrowed funds can be in the form of loans, debentures, public deposits, etc.

A capital structure will be said to be optimal when . the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

8. Period of Finance:
If funds are required for short period, borrowing from bank should be preferred. If funds are required for longer period company can issue shares and debentures.

9. Taxation Policy:
interest on loan and debentures is deductible item under the Income Tax Act whereas dividend is not deductible. In order to take advantage of this provision, companies may issue debentures.

10. Legal Requirements:
The structure of capital of a company is also influenced by the statutory requirements. For example, Banking Regulation Act, Indian Companies Act, SEBI, etc.

Question 3.
Sree Lakshmi Ltd. is a newly promoted company. While taking the investment decision, the financial manager of the company allotted the investment outlay of Rs. 25 crore in Land & Buildings, Furniture, and copyrights.

1. Identify the type of capital referred to this context.
2. Explain the factors influencing the investment in these assets.

Answer:
1. Fixed Capital:
Fixed capital refers to the capital needed for the the acquisition of fixed assets to be used for a longer period.

2. Factors affecting Fixed Capital
1. Nature of Business:
A trading concern needs lower investment in fixed assets compared with a manufacturing organization.

2. Scale of Operations:
An organisation operating on large scale require more fixed capital as compared to an organisation operating on small scale.

3. Choice of Technique:
A capital-intensive organisation requires more amount of fixed capital than labour intensive organisations.

4. Technology Upgradation:
Organisations using assets which become obsolete faster require more fixed capital as compared to other organisations.

5. Growth Prospects:
Higher growth of an organisation generally requires higher investment in fixed assets.

6. Diversification:
The firms dealing in number of products (Diversification) requires more investment in fixed capital.

7. Use of Fixed Assets:
Companies acquiring fixed assets on hire purchase or lease system require lesser amount as against cash purchases.

Question 4.

1. What do you mean by Financial Planning?
2. List down the importance of financial planning.

Answer:
1. Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

2. Importance of Financial Planning:

• It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
• It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
• It integrates the financial policies and procedures.
• It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
• It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
• It serves as the basis of financial control
• It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
• It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
• It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Alternating Current Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A 100Ω resistor is connected to a 220V, 50 Hz ac supply.

1. What is the rms value of current in the circuit?
2. What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?

Answer:
Given R = 100Ω, E_ν = 220V, ν = 50 Hz.
1. Since l_ν = \(\frac{E_{ν}}{12}\)
So l_ν = \(\frac{220}{100}\) = 2.2 A

2. P_aν = E_ν I_ν = 220 × 2.2
or P_aν = 484 W.

Question 2.

1. The peak voltage of an ac supply is 300V. What is the rms voltage?
2. The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10A. What is the peak current?

Answer:
1. Given E₀ = 300 V, E_aν = ?
Since E_ν = \(\frac{E_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 0.707 × 300
or E_ν = 212.1V.

2. Given I_ν = 10A, I₀=?
Since l₀ = \(\sqrt{2}\) E_ν = 1.414 × 10
or I = 14.14 A.

Question 3.
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.
Answer:
Given L = 44 mH = 44 × 10^-3H
E_ν = 220V, ν = 50Hz, I_ν = ?
Since I_ν = \(\frac{E_{ν}}{x_{L}}=\frac{220}{\omega L}\)

or Iν = 15.9A.

Question 4.
A 60µF capacitor is connected to a 11OV, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of the current in the circuit.
Answer:
Given C = 60µF = 60 × 10^-6F, E_ν = 110V, ν = 60 Hz.
Since I_ν = \(\frac{E_{ν}}{x_{c}}\)
∴ I_ν = ωCE_ν
= 2pνCE_ν = 2 × 3.142 × 60 × 60 × 10^-6 × 110
= 2.49A or
I_ν = 2.49V.

Question 5.
In Exercises 7.3 and 7.4, what is the net power absorbed by each circuit over a complete cycle. Explain your answer.
Answer:
In both the cases the net power consumed is zero because in both the cases.
Net power consumed P = E_ν l_νcosΦ
and Φ =90°
∴ P = 0 (in each case).

Question 6.
Obtain the resonant frequency of a series LCR circuit with L=2.0H, C=32µV and R = 10?. What is the Q-value of this circuit?
Answer:
Given L = 2.0H, C = 32µF = 32 × 10^-6F
R = 10Ω, Q = ?, ω₀ = ?
Resonant frequency

Question 7.
A charged 30µF capacitor is connected to a 27mH inductor. What is the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit?
Answer:
Given C = 30µF=30 × 10^-6F,L = 27mH = 27 × 10^-3H
ω₀ = ?

or ω₀ = 1.1 × 10^-3S^-1.

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of transformer you use to operate the coffee maker at 220 V?
Answer:
Step down transformer.

Question 2.
In an A C. circuit, I_rms and I_o are related as.

Answer:
(d) I_rms = \(\frac{I_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 3.
A capacitor of capacitance C has reactance X. If capacitance and frequency become double then reactance will be
(a)  4X
(b) X/2
(c) X/4
(d) 2X
Answer:
(c) Explanation

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks

• Impedance: admittance
• ……………..: conductance

Answer:
Resistance

Question 5.
Why it is better to use an inductor rather than a resistor to limit the current through the fluorescent lamp?
Answer:
No power is developed across the inductor as heat.

Question 6.
In an a.c circuit with phase voltage V and current I, the power dissipated is
(a) V.l
(b) Depends on phase angle between V and I
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\) × V.I
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(b) Depends on phase angle between V and I

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
(i) Current lags by π/2
(ii) X_c = 1/cω
(iii) R
(iv) Phase difference is zero.

Question 2.
A.C. adaptor converts household ac into low voltage dc. A stepdown transformer is a essential part of ac adapter.

1. What is the use of step down transformer?
2. What is the principle of a transformer? Explain.

Answer:

1. To decrease voltage
2. It works on the principle of mutual induction.

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 2.

The following figure is a part of a radio circuit.

1. Identify the circuit.
2. What happens to this circuit if X_L = X_C
3. lf X_C > X_L draw the phaser diagram.

Answer:
1. LCR circuit.

2. When X_L = X_C, the impedance of circuit becomes minimum and the current corresponding to that frequency is maximum.

3.

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Figure below shows a bulb connected in an electrical circuit.

1. When the key is switched ON the bulb obtains maximum glow only after a shorter interval of time which property of the solenoid is responsible for the delay?

• Self-induction
• Mutual Induction
• Inductive reactance
• None of the above

2. If the flux linked with the solenoid changes from 0 to 1 weber in 2 sec. Find the induced emf in the solenoid.

3. If the 3v battery is replaced by an AC source with the key closed, what will be observation? Justify your answer.
Answer:
1. Self-induction.

2. \(\frac{d \phi}{d t}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5V.

3. When AC is connected the brightness of bulb will be decreased. This is due to the back emf in the circuit.

Question 2.
A graph connecting the voltage generated by an a.c. source and time is shown.

1. What is the maximum voltage generated by the source?
2. Write the relation connecting voltage and time
3. This a.c. source, when connected to a resistor, produces 40J of heat per second. Find the equivalent d.c. voltage which will produce the same heat in this resistor.

Answer:

1. 200v.
2. V = V₀sin ωt
3. \(V_{\max }=\frac{V_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{200}{\sqrt{2}}\) = 141.8v.

Question 3.
An inductor, capacitor, and resister are connected in series to an a.c. source V = V₀sin ωt.

1. Draw a circuit diagram of L.C.R. series circuit with applied a.c. voltage.
2. Find an expression for impedance of L.C.R. series circuit using phasor diagram.
3. What is impedance of L.C.R. series circuit at resonance?

Answer:
1.

2.

For impedance of LCR circuit.
From the right angled triangle OAE,
Final voltage, V = \(\sqrt{v_{n}^{2}+\left(v_{L}-v_{c}\right)^{2}}\)

Where Z is called impedance of LCR circuit

3. Impedance, Z=R.

Question 4.
A voltage source is connected to an electrical component X as shown in figure.

1. Identify the device X.
2. Which of the following equations can represent the current through the circuit?

• i = i_m sin(ωt + π/2)
• i = i_m sin(ωt – π/2)
• i = i_m sin ωt
• i = i_m sin(ωt + π/4)

3. Draw the phasor diagram for the circuit. (2)
Answer:
1. Resistor
2. i = i_m sin ωt
3.

Question 5.
A friend from abroad presents you a coffee maker when she visited you. Unfortunately, it was designed to operate at 110V line to obtain 960W power that it needs.

1. Which type of transformer you use to operate the coffee maker at 220V? (1)
2. Assuming the transformer you use as ideal, calculate the primary and secondary currents. (2)
3. What is the resistance of the coffee maker? (1)

Answer:
1. Step down transformer.

2. Since the transformer is ideal
V_pI_p = V_s I_s = 960W, V_p = 220v, V_s = 110v
V_pI_p =960

3.

Plus Two Physics Alternating Current Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The voltage-current values obtained from a transformer constructed by a student is shown in the following table.

1. Identify the transformer as step up or step down.
2. How much power is wasted by the transformer?
3. What are the possible energy losses in a transformer?
4. If the input voltage is 48v and input current is 1 A, is it possible to light 240v, 100w bulb using the above transformer. Justify.

Answer:
1. Step down transformer.

2. Power loss = 200w -10w = 190w

3. The possible energy losses in a transformer:

• Eddy current loss
• Copper loss
• Hysteries loss
• Flux leakage

4. In this case input power = VI = 48 × 1 = 48W.
If transformer does not waste energy, input power =out put power.
Hence maximum output power 48W. But bulb requires 100w. Hence the bulb does not glow with this low input power.

Question 2.
The current through fluorescent lights are usually limited using an inductor.

1. Obtain the relation i = i_m sin(ωt – π/2)for an inductor across which an alternating emf v = v_m sin ωt is applied. (2)
2. Why it is better to use an inductor rather than a resistor to limit the current through the fluorescent lamp? (1)
3. When 100 V DC source is connected across a coil a current of 1 A flows through it. When 100V, 50 Hz AC source is applied across the same coil only 0.5 A flows. Calculate the resistance and inductance of the coil. (2)

Answer:
1. AC voltage applied to an Inductor

Consider a circuit containing an inductor of inductance ‘L’ connected to an alternating voltage. Let the applied voltage be
V = V₀ sinωt…………(1)
Due to the flow of alternating current through coil, an emf, \(\mathrm{L} \frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) is produced in the coil. This induced emf is equal and opposite to the applied emf (in the case of ideal inductor).

2. No power is developed across the inductor as heat.

3. Resistance of the coil R = \(\frac{v}{I}=\frac{100}{1}\) = 100Ω. Current through the coil when ac source is applied.

R² + X²_L = 200²
X²_L = 200² – 100²
X_L = 173.2Ω
L_ω = 173.2

Question 3.
An alternating voltage is connected to a box with some unknown circuital arrangement. The applied voltage and current through the circuit are measured as v = 80 sinωt volt and i = 1.6 sin(ωt + 45°) ampere.

1. Does the current lead or lag the voltage?
2. Is the circuit in the box largely capacitive or inductive?
3. Is the circuit in the box at resonance?
4. What is the average power delivered by the box?

Answer:
1. Leads.

2. Capacitive

3. No Hint: Current and voltage are not in the same phase.

4. P = V_rmsl_rmsCosΦ, V_m = 80v, i_m = 1.6A

p = 45.25W

Students can Download Chapter 5 Organising Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Organising

Plus Two Business Studies Organising One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which level of managers are responsible for determining formal organisation?
Answer:
Top level management

Question 2.
Name the type of organisation which does not have any predetermined objectives.
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 3.
In ABC Ltd. all the decisions are taken by top level management only. Which policy is followed by organisation?
Answer:
Centralisation.

Question 4.
‘It is an organisation which is consciously coordinated towards a common objective’. State the type of Organisation.
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 5.
An organisation officially created by the management is called
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 6.
Name the organisation which emerges due to authority-responsibility relationship.
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 7.
A network of social relationship that arises spontaneously due to interaction at work is called.
Answer:
Informal organization

Question 8.
The form of organisation known for giving rise to rumours is called
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 9.
In an organisation, the network of small social groups based on friendship is called
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 10.
This structure is followed by large scale service organisation whose activities are geographically spread. Identify the type of organisation structure
Answer:
Divisional organisation.

Question 11.
Which of the following is not an element of delegation?
(a) Accountability parole
(b) Authority
(c) Responsibility
(d) Informal organisation
Answer:
(d) Informal organisation

Question 12.
A company has its registered office in Delhi, manufacturing unit at Chennai and marketing and sales department at Bangalore. The company manufactures consumer products. Which type of organisational structure should it adopt to achieve its target?
Answer:
Divisional organisation.

Question 13.
Which organisational structure is suitable for a multiproduct manufacturing company?
Answer:
Divisional organisation

Question 14.
Which organisational structure is suitable for a uni-product manufacturing company?
Answer:
Functional organisation

Question 15.
In this structure, activities are grouped on the basis of function. Identify the organisation structure.
Answer:
Functional organisation

Question 16.
Grouping of activities on the basis of product lines is a part of
(a) Delegated organisation
(b) Divisional organisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Autonomous organisation
Answer:
(b) Divisional organisation

Question 17.
Participation of lower levels in management is
Answer:
Decentralisation

Question 18.
Suggest the most suitable terminology to describe “the systematic dispersal of authority to the lower levels”.
Answer:
Decentralisation.

Question 19.
‘It is the right to give orders and the power to exact obedience.’ This is called
Answer:
Authority.

Question 20.
Name the concept which reduces the workload of a manager.
Answer:
Delegation of Authority.

Question 21.
Anything that goes to increase the importance of subordinates is called
Answer:
Decentralisation.

Question 22.
The technical term4which denotes the number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise.
Answer:
Span of control.

Question 23.
The following are different steps involved in the process of Organising.
(i) Grouping of similar jobs.
(ii) Division of work.
(iii) Co-ordination of activities.
(iv) Creation of authority relationship
Which of the following sequence is correct?
(a) iv, iii, i, ii
(b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) ii, i, iii, iv
(d) iv, i, ii, iii
Answer:
(b) ii, i, iv, iii

Question 24.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) → ii)
(b) → iv)
(c) → i)
(d) → iii)

Question 25.
Span of management refers to
(a) Number of managers
(b) Length of term for which a manager is appointed
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior
(d) Number of members in top management.
Answer:
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by organising?
Answer:
Organising is one of the most important functions of management, which includes

1. Identifying and grouping the work to be performed.
2. Defining and delegating authority and responsibility.
3. And establishing relationships for the purpose of accomplishing objectives.

Question 2.
What do you mean by organisation as ‘process’?
Answer:
The process of organising involves division of work, grouping of jobs into departmentation, establishing authority relationships and co-ordination of activities. Therefore organising is treated as a process.

Question 3.
State the circumstances in which functional organisation is more suitable.
Answer:
It is most suitable when the size of the organisation is large and, has diversified activities and operations require a high degree of specialisation

Question 4.
Mr. Satheesh Babu, the General Manager of Venad automobiles decided to share some of his work with his newly appointed assistant manager Mr. Raju. This helped him to concentrate more on important tasks. Which management concept is referred here?
Answer:
Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

Question 5.
Suggest the most appropriate term used to describe the process of entrusting part of the work by the superior to his subordinates.
Answer:
Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why does informal organisation exist within the framework of formal organisation? Give any two reasons for the emergence of informal organization
Answer:

1. To fulfil the social needs of the members.
2. To make the communication easy.

Advantages

• There can be faster spread of communication.
• It helps to fulfil the social needs of the members and this enhances their job satisfaction.
• Top level managers can know the real feedback of employees on various policies and plans.

Question 2.
In a classroom discussion Saleem, a Plus Two Commerce student, argues that delegation and decentralisation are one and same.

1. Do you agree with his argument?
2. Give any two points to justify your answer.

Answer:

1. I am not agreeing with this statement
2. Difference between Delegation and Decentralisation

 

Delegation	Decentralisation
It is the entrustment of authority and responsibility from one individual to another.	It is a systematic delegation of authority from one level to another level.
Responsibility cannot be delegated.	Responsibility can be delegated.
Delegation is a compulsory act.	Decentralisation is an optional policy decision.
More control by superiors hence less freedom to take own decisions. it is individualistic.	Less control over executives hence greater freedom of action. It is totalistic.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘It is an organisation which is consciously coordinated towards a common objective’.

1. What this organisation is called?
2. State any 3 important features of this organisation.

Answer:
1. This is a formal organisation.
2. The important features are:

• It is deliberately created by the top management to achieve the objectives.
• It is based on division of labour and specialisation.
• It is impersonal – Does not take into consideration emotional aspect of employees.
• It clearly defines the authority and responsibility of every individual.^
• The principle of scalar chain is followed informal organisation

Question 2.
The employees of Manik Ltd., a software company, have formed a Dramatic group for their recreation.

1. Name the type of organisation so formed.
2. State its three features.

Answer:
1. Informal organisation
2. features are:

• It originates from within the formal organisation as a result of personal interaction among employees.
• It has no written rules and procedures.
• It does not have fixed lines of communication.
• It is not deliberately created by the management.
• It has no definite structure.

Question 3.
Explain the differences between Formal Organisation and informal Organisation.
Answer:

Formal organisation	Informal organisation
1) It is deliberately created by top-level management.	1) It arises automatically as a result of social interaction among the employees.
2) It has a pre-determined purpose.	2) It has no pre­determined purpose.
3) It is highly rigid.	3) It is more flexible.
4) Communication is allowed through the scalar chain.	4) Communication is allowed through all channels networks.
5) Managers are leaders.	5) Leaders are chosen voluntarily by the members.
6) It is based on authority and responsibility.	6) There is no authority and responsibility relationship.

Question 4.
Delegation of authority is based on the elementary principle of division of work. Explain.
Answer:
In division of work, the work is divided into small tasks. Same way in the delegation, the manager divides some of his work and authority among his subordinates.

No manager can perform all the functions himself. To get the work done efficiently and in a specialized manner, the manager divides the work among his subordinates according to their qualification and capability.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Formal organisation when blends with informal organisation result in organisational success.” Comment.
Answer:
Formal organisation refers to intentional structure of well-defined jobs informally organised enterprises. Such jobs are well defined in terms of authority, responsibility and accountability. It is based on division of labour and specialisation.

But informal organisation refers to relationship between individuals in the organisation based on interest, personal attitude, emotions, likes, dislikes etc.

The informal organisation is a part of the formal organisation; it cannot be separated. They are the two aspects of the same organisation and are linked to each other. Both are required for the success of an organisation.

Question 2.
“It is an organisation structure followed by large scale service organisations whose activities are geographically spread”.

1. Find out the organisation structure.
2. State its merits and demerits.

Answer:
1. It is divisional organisation.

2. merits and demerits are:
Divisional Structure:
Grouping of activities on the basis of different product manufactured are known as divisional structure of organisation. Each division has a divisional manager responsible for performance. Each division is multifunctional because within each division functions like production, marketing, finance etc. are performed together to achieve a common goal.

Advantages:

1. Each division functions as an autonomous unit which leads to faster decision making.
2. It helps in fixation of responsibility in cases of poor performance of the division
3. It helps to develop the skill of the divisional head.
4. It facilitates expansion and growth as new divisions can be added without interrupting the existing operations.

Disadvantages

1. Conflict may arise among different divisions with reference to allocation of funds.
2. It may lead to increase in costs since there may be a duplication of activities across products.
3. It is not suitable for small organisations.

Question 3.
Arunima Pvt. Ltd. is a new company for manufacturing soaps at Mysore. They decided to have four functional departments – viz, Production, Marketing Finance and Administration.

1. Recommend the most suitable organisation structure of the company.
2. Give the diagrammatic representation of this organisational structure.

Answer:
1. It is functional organisation

2. organisational structure are:
Divisional Structure:
Grouping of activities on the basis of different product manufactured are known as divisional structure of organisation. Each division has a divisional manager responsible for performance. Each division is multifunctional because within each division functions like production, marketing, finance etc. are performed together to achieve a common goal.

Advantages:

1. Each division functions as an autonomous unit which leads to faster decision making.
2. It helps in fixation of responsibility in cases of poor performance of the division
3. It helps to develop the skill of the divisional head.
4. It facilitates expansion and growth as new divisions can be added without interrupting the existing operations.

Disadvantages

1. Conflict may arise among different divisions with reference to allocation of funds.
2. It may lead to increase in costs since there may be a duplication of activities across products.
3. It is not suitable for small organisations.

Question 4.
Identify the organisation structure of a transport company having operations throughout India. Explain.
Answer:
It is divisional structure.
Types of Organisation Structures:
The organisational structure can be classified as undertwo categories.

1. Functional Organisation
2. Divisional Organisation

Question 5.
Distinguish between functional organisation and divisional organisation.
Answer:

Functional Structure	Divisional Structure
1. Formation is based on functions	1. Formation is based on product lines.
2. Functional specialisation	2. Product specialisation
3. Difficult to fix responsibility on a department	3. Easy to fix responsibility for performance
4. It is economical	4. It is costly.
5. Suitable for small organisation	5. Suitable for big organisation

Question 6.
“Delegation of authority leads to reduction in the workload of superiors.” In the light of this statement, comment briefly on the importance of delegation of authority.
Answer:
a. Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

b. Importance of Delegation of Authority:

1. Reduces the work load of managers:
The managers are able to function more efficiently as they get more time to concentrate on important matters.

2. Employee development:
Delegation empowers the employees by providing them the chance to use their skills,’gain experience and develop themselves for higher positions.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Organising is the backbone of management and it contributes to the success of an enterprise”. Point out your arguments in favour of this statement.
Answer:
a. Organising is one of the most important functions of management which includes:

1. Identifying and grouping the work to be performed.
2. Defining and delegating authority and responsibility.
3. And establising relationships for the purpose of accomplishing objectives

b. Importance of Organising
1. Specialisation:
Since the activities are divided into convenient jobs and are assigned to a particular employee, it leads to specialisation, more productivity and efficiency.

2. Clarity in working relationship:
It helps in creating well-defined jobs and also clarifying authority – responsibility relationship between the superior and subordinates.

3. Optimum utilisation of resources:
The proper assignment of jobs avoids overlapping of work and also makes possible the best use of resources.

4. Adaptation of change:
It allows a business enterprise to adapt itself according to changes in the business environment.

5. Effective administration:
Clarity in working relationships enables proper execution of work and brings effectiveness in administration.

6. Development of personnel:
Organising stimulates creativity amongst the managers and subordinates.

7. Expansion and growth:
Organising helps in the growth and diversification of an enterprise by adding more job positions, departments and product lines.

Question 2.
ABC Ltd is a newly registered company. As a commerce student, can you help the management by providing the various steps involved in the managerial organisation functions?
Answer:
Step in the Process of Organising
1. Division of Work:
The first step in the process of organising involves identifying and dividing the work that has to be done. Division of work leads to specialisation.

2. Departmentation:
The second step is to group similar or related jobs into larger units, called departments. The grouping of activities is known as departmentation.

3. Assignment of duties:
The next step is to allocate the work to various employees according to their ability and competencies.

4. Establishing authority – responsibility relationship:
The last step is creation of authority – responsibility relationship among the job positions. It helps in the smooth functioning of the organisation.

Question 3.
Mr. Hassan, the General Manager of Almonsa Ltd. has decided to give some responsibility and decision making authority to the different levels of management so that he will be relieved of all daily routine activities.

1. What is the concept referred to?
2. State the benefit derived through this process.
3. How does it differ from delegation of authority?

Answer:
1. Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

2. Importance of Delegation of Authority:

a. Reduces the workload of managers:
The managers are able to function more efficiently as they get more time to concentrate on important matters.

b. Employee development:
Delegation empowers the employees by providing them with the chance to use their skills, gain experience and develop themselves for higher positions.

c. Motivation of employees:
Responsibility for work builds the self-esteem of an employee and improves his confidence. He feels encouraged and tries to improvers performance.

d. Facilitation of growth:
Delegation helps in the expansion of an organisation by providing a ready workforce to take up leading positions in new ventures.

e. Superior-subordinate relations:
Delegation of authority establishes superior-subordinate relationships, which are the basis of hierarchy of management.

f. Better co-ordination:
The elements of delegation – authority, responsibility and accountability help to avoid overlapping of duties and duplication of effort

 

Students can Download Chapter 7 Ecosystem Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Ecosystem

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The 10% law is associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) Productivity
(b) Nutrient cycling
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) Increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 2.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 3.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 4.
Give an example for gaseous and sedimentary cycle
Answer:

• Gaseous cycle -Nitrogen cycle
• Sedimentary cycle – Phosphorus cycle

Question 5.
Which is the community next to lichen that occur in xerarch succession.
Answer:
Moss stage

Question 6.
In food chain transfer of energy takes place from one tropic level to the next is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 7.
The second trophic level in a lake is………….
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 8.
Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers
(a) Parasitic food chain
(b) Detritus food chain
(c) Consumerfoodcahin
(d) Predator food cahin
Answer:
(b) Detritus food chain

Question 9.
What is true of ecosystem?
(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(b) Primary consumers out number producers
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerfull
Answer:
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers

Question 10.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) The base of the energy pyramid contains the largest trophic level.
(b) About 10% of energy available in food is actually incorporated into any trophic level.
(c) Humans are at the top of energy pyramids.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
The energy pyramid is always upright because the energy content
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels
(b) increases in successive trophic levels
(c) increases from the base to the top
(d) decreases from primary consumer to secondary consumer only
Answer:
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
Which one of the following is not coming under decomposition
(a) catabolism
(b) anabolism
(c) mineralization
(d) the surface area of detritus increases
Answer:
(b) anabolism

Question 13.
Most useful step of decomposition for plants is
(a) mineralization
(b) catabolism
(c) humification
(d) fragmentation of detritus
Answer:
(a) mineralization

Question 14.
Food chains are not always linear, it is branched in some steps. Name the network of food chains.
Answer:
The network of the food chain is called food web.

Question 15.
The biotic community along with physical environment forms an interacting system called………..
Answer:
Ecosystem

Question 16.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 17.
Cite an example of an inverted ecological pyramid.
Answer:
Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem & pyramid of biomass in sea ecosystem is inverted.

Question 18.
Which among the following equation is related with net primary productivity?
(a) GPP + R = NPP
(b) NPP + GPP = R
(c) GPP – R = NPP
(d) R + R = GPP
Answer:
(c) GPP-R = NPP

Question 19.
Find out the stage given below which is not included in hydrarch succession.
(a) Forest
(b) Phytoplanktons
(c) Lichens
(d) Marsh-Meadow
Answer:
(c) Lichens

Question 20.
Which among the following decomposers.
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Saprotrophs
(c) Heterotrophs
(d) Herbivores
Answer:
(b) Saprotrophs

Question 21.
Which one of the following is a primary consumer in an aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Phytoplanktons
(b) Aquatic birds
(c) Zooplanktons
(d) Large Fishes
Answer:
(d) Zooplanktons

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
GPP-R= NPP is an equation indicating productivity. Illustrate the terms denoted in the equation.
Answer:
GPP is the gross primary productivity which is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. R- is the respiration loses which is the amount of GPP utilized by plants in respiration. NPP is the available biomass for the consumption to hetrotrophs. (Herbivores and Decomposers).

Question 2.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like C0₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature Anaerobiosis

Question 3.
Vast area of vegetation is destroyed mostly by fires and it results in clearing of lush vegetation. How long it takes to re-form climax community. Name the process is related in the above case.
Answer:
Time taken is about 50-100 years in case of a grassland and about 100-200 years for a forest. Secondary succession.

Question 4.
Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of goods and services. Find out any four ecosystem services provided by a healthy forest ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Purify air and water
2. Mitigate drought and floods
3. Cycling of nutrients
4. Generate fertile soils

Question 5.
Differentiate between Standing state and Standing Crop.
Answer:
1. Standing crop
The amount of living material present in each trophic level.

2. Standing state
The amount of nutrients like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc present in the soil at a given time.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain.
Answer:
1. Grazing food chain
It starts with producers. In aquatic ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through GFCthan DFC.

2. Detritus food chain
It starts with detritus. In terrestrial ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through DFC than GFC.

Question 7.
Xerarch succession is mainly occurs in desert conditions

1. Name the pioneefspecies on a bare rock.
2. How do pioneer species help in establishing the next type of vegetation.

Answer:

1. Lichens
2. They secrete carbonic acid and dissolve rocks. This process forms soil to help growth of mosses.

Question 8.
Energy flow is always unidirectional, never return back. Do you agree. Give the justification of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The flow of energy is based on thermodynamic laws.lt starts from producers and flows through successive trophiclevels, The efficiency of energy transfer from one trophic level to the next is 10%.

Question 9.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions?
2. Give the reason also.

Answer:

1. This is an example of primary succession
2. Because it begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 10.
Decomposition is the process in which complex dead matters are broken down into simpler inorganic substances,

1. Name the step of decomposition in which biological activity not found?
2. Chemical composition of detritus influence decomposition why?

Answer:

1. Humification
2. If the detritus rich in Lignin and c.hitinthe rate of decomposition is very slow but it is rich in nitrogenous compounds and Sugars the rate of decomposition is very high.

Question 11.
Decaying Biomass is formed through the process of decomposition, from which different types of mineral ions are released based on the mineralisers act on it.

1. Name the microorganisms that helps to release phosphate and nitrate into the soil
2. Give an example for nutrient cycling that helps in the photosynthesis of land plants.

Answer:

1. Phosphate solubilizing bacteria and nitrifying bacteria
2. Carbon cycle

Question 12.
In Barren lands succession continuous and forms climax vegetation after many years

1. Name the Pioneer community formed.
2. Which is the community comes next to Pioneer community?

Answer:

1. lichen
2. bryophytes

Question 13.
Productivity is one of the key function of an ecosystem, it varies in different ecosystems.

1. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity.
2. Some Terrestrial ecosystem shows abundant and least productivity. Name it.

Answer:

1. The primary productivity is associated with producers while secondary productivity is associated with consumers.
2. Abundant productivity is found in tropical rainforest Least productivity is found in desert.

Question 14.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 15.
Mention the functions of ecosystem.
Answer:

• Productivity
• Decomposition
• Energy flow
• Nutrient cycling

Question 16.
Connect the terms in the column A with suitable definition given below and fill up column B.

(a) Rate of biomass production.
(b) Rate of storage of organic matter by producers in excess of their metabolic consumption.
(c) Rate of production of organic matter by plants during photosynthesis.
(d) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. a
4. d

Question 17.
Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate than fresh weight. Why?
Answer:
Fresh Weight contains weight of water present inside the cells as cell sap. Where as dry weight is the actual weight of the materials making up the body of the organism.

Question 18.
Leaching, detritus, catabolism, humification, fragmentation, mineralization, detritivores, humus. Given above are the terms involved in the process of decomposition. Arrange them in correct sequence.
Answer:
Detritus ? detritivore ? fragmentation ? leaching ? catabolism ? humification ? humus ? Mineralization.

Question 19.
The given table shows the dry weight of different trophic levels of forest ecosystem.

Trophic level	Dry wt. (Kgm-2)
PP	809 kgm-2
PC	37 kgm-2
SC	11 kgm-2
TC	1.5 kgm-2

1. From the given data construct a pyramid of biomas.

2. if you select Lake ecosystem to construct pyramid of biomas, it contain producers (Phytoplanktons), Herbivores (Short lived fishes) and Carnivores (Long lived fishes) with dry weight 2mgm-3, 7mgm-3 and 9mgm-3 respectively. From the data construct a pyramid of biomas.
Answer:
1.

2.

Question 20.
Energy is an important key functional component of ecosystem and pyramid of energy is always upright.

1. Do you agree with this statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Energy transfer in a pyramid follows the ll nd law of thermodynamics . It also obeys the 10 % law (only 10 % of energy is transferred to each tropic level from the lower tropic level).

Question 21.
In nature there is no independent food chain.

1. Do you agree with the statement? Justify?
2. Decomposers have important role in nutrient cycling. Substantiate.

Answer:
1. Yes. The members of one food chain depends the members of other food chains and forms interconnections.

2. Detritus or dead remains are broken down by detritivores catabolism results in breaking down of complex molecules by decomposers. This results in the formation of mineral nutrients into the soil, thereby recycling of nutrients are achieved.

Question 22.
While visiting a forest, Ranjan’s grandfather told that long back it was a pond.

1. Name the phenomenon takes place here.
2. Write down the different stages of that process.

Answer:

1. Hydrach
2. Phytoplankton stage – Submerged plant-stage – Submerged free floaloting plant stage – Reed swamp stage – Marsh meadow stage — Scrub stage – Forest stage.

Question 23.
Human activities have a significant role in carbon cycle.

1. Do you agree with the statement?
2. Mention the environmental hazard caused by excess release of CO₂?

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Deforestation activities and massive burning of fossil fuels increase the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere that causes reradiation of reflected solar radiations. This leads to heating of the troposphere called green house effect.

Question 24.
Ecological succession and species evolution would have been a parallel process. Justify.
Answer:
As succession gives to the replacement of one community by another and establishment of dominant species it can be considering as parallel steps to evolution.

Question 25.
Sedimentary cycle that occure in lithosphere

1. Give an example for sedimentary cycle.
2. Give a flow chart representing the above cycle.

Answer:
1. Phosphorous cycle.

2. The cycle consists of following steps.

Question 26.
The atmosphere contains only about 1% of total global carbon. But carbon cycle is an gaseous cycle since the reservoir is atmospheric CO₂. Justify.
Answer:
71% of carbon is found dissolved in oceans which regulates the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere. Fossil fuels also represents a reservoir of carbon. Carbon cycle is considered as gaseous cycle since the cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead organisms.

The CO₂ is released to the atmosphere by burning of fuels, processing of waste materials in land and ocean and hence it act as a reservoir of CO₂ in an ecosystem.

Question 27.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2-3 trophic levels, as a result an ecosystem can support only limited number of trophic levels.

Question 28.
Name the type of food chain responsible for the flow of larger fraction of energy in aquatic and a terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one difference between two food chains.
Answer:
In an aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduits for energy flow where as in terrestrial ecosystem a much larger fraction of energy flow through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels.

Difference between two food chains:
Detritus food chain always start with dead organic matter where as GFC starts with plants.

Question 29.
A volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually new lichens and then plants grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions ?
2. Give the reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. This is an example of primary succession because this begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 30.
Distinguish between grazing and detritus food chain. Name the type of food chain helps in the flow of major fraction of energy through aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:

• The food chain start with producers are called grazing food chain.
• It start with dead organic matters is called detritus food chain.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, majorfraction of energy flow occurs through GFC.

Question 31.
In lake ecosystem .biomass of trophic levels are different

1. Do you agree the pyramid of biomass is inverted.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. In lake ecosystem producers are phyto-planktons. The short lived and long lived fishes are arranged above the lelvel of producers.Here biomass is increased from base to the top of pyramid.

Question 32.
How much PAR is used by producers for gross primary productivity?
Answer:
Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation(PAR. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR for gross primary productivity.

Question 33.
Differentiate between a detrivore and a decomposer giving an example of each.
Answer:
Detrivores are the primary consumers of a detritus food chain which feed upon the detritus and include protozoan, bacteria, and fungi, while decompers form the last trophic level of both detritus and grazing food chains and break down complex organic compounds of dead plants and animals and include bacteria and fungi.

Question 34.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2 – 3 trophic levels. As a result an ecosystem can support only a limited number of trophic levels.

Question 35.
Due to uncontrolled excessive hunting the population of tigers in a forest becomes zero. What are the long term effects of this situation on the population of deer in that forest.
Answer:
The reduction in predator population may result in the increase of prey population (deer), since they are not preyed upon. Increase in the number of deer will lead to overgrazing, hence, shortage of herbs and eventually reduction in the number of deer.

Question 36.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions? Give the reason also.
Answer:
This is an example of primary succession Because this begins from a .state of little or no life.

Question 37.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 38.
Observe the flow chart on functional components of ecosystem given below.

1. Identify the components given as A and B
2. What is stratification?

Answer:
1. components given as A and B:
A = Energy flow
B = Nutrient cycling

OR

A = Nutrient cycling
B = energy flow

2. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.

Question 39.
Observe the food chain given below. Grass? Goat? Man

1. Identify the type of food chain,
2. How does it differ from detritus food chain?

Answer:

1. Grazing Food Chain
2. Grazing food chain starts with producers while detritus food chain starts with dead organic matter.

Question 40.
Given below is the flow chart of ecological succession occur in water bodies.

1. Identify the stages A, B, C, D, E and F
2. What is this succession called?

Answer:
1. The stages A, B, C, D, E, and F:

• A = Submerged plant stage
• B = Submerged free floating plant stage
• C = Reed-swamp stage
• D = Marsh-meadow stage
• E = Scrub stage
• F = Forest stage

2. Hydrarch succession

Question 41.
Given below is a simplified model of a nutrient cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem.

1. Identify the cycle?
2. How does it differ from a gaseous cycle?

Answer:

1. Phosphorus cycle
2. This cycle starts from earth’s crust(lithosphere) but gaseous cycle exists in atmosphere.

Question 42.
Decomposition of detritus is a complex process. Decomposition has various steps. Identify the steps given below and fill the blanks.

Answer:

1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humification

Question 43.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like CO₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature, Anaerobiosis.

Question 44.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number, biomass, and energy are upright. Suggest on occasion each where the pyramid of number and pyramid of biomass are inverted.
Answer:
When a big tree is considered as an ecosystem- pyramid of number is inverted. Pyramid of biomass in sea is also inverted.

Question 45.
Ecological pyramids express the food or energy relationship between organisms, Write any three limitations of ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. In some cases same species may belong to two or more trophic levels
2. It does not represent food web
3. Saprophytes are not given any place

Question 46.
Analyze the table given below and fill in the blanks suitably.

Answer:

1. Standing crop
2. The amount of nutrients presents in the soil or eosystem at any given time

Question 47.
Match the items of column A with column B
VAnswer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 48.
Human activities have significantly influenced the carbon cycle by increasing the amount of C02- production. Justify this statement with minimum two points.
Answer:

1. It lead to rapid deforestation.
2. Massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport.

Question 49.
Given below is simplified mode of a biogeochemical cycle.
Fill up the blanks a), b), c) and d)

Answer:

1. Rock minerals
2. Producers
3. Consumers
4. Detritus

Question 50.
Construct a pyramid of biomass using the data given below.
PC 37Kgm^-2 TC 1.5Kgm^-2
PP 809Kgm^-2 SC 11Kgm^-2
Answer:

Question 51.
Carbon cycle and phosphorus cycle are two common biogeochemical cycles. Write any three differences between these two cylces.
Answer:

Carbon cycle	Phosphorous cycle
1. Gaseous cycle 2. Respiratory release into atmosphere 3. Atmospheric input through rainfall very high	a)  Sedimentary cycle b)  No respiratory release c)  Atmospheric input through rainfall is very low

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Primary succession is a long term process, while secondary succession is a short term process.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons.
3. Name the pioneer species in hydrarch succession

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In primary succession development of forest climax on a barren land may take about 1,000 years but in secondary succession it takes 50 – 100 years in case of a grassland and about 100 – 200 years for a forest.

3. Phtoplanktons.

Question 2.
Succession on different habitat are different in nature

1. Name the pioneer species on a bare rock.
2. How do they help in establishing the next type of vegetation?
3. Mention the type of climax community that will ultimately get established.

Answer:

1. Lichens are the pioneer species:
2. They absorb water due to their spongy structure and secrete carbonic acid which loosens rock particles and help in weathering of rocks and soil formation; thus, they pave way to some small plants like bryophytes.
3. The climax community will be a forest.

Question 3.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Name three plant communites that appear during ecological succession.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. three plant communites that appear during ecological succession:

• Pioneer community
• Serai community (transitional community)
• Climax community

2. Phytoplankton stage? Submerged plant stage? Submerged free floating plant stage? Reed swamp stage? Marsh meadow stage? Scrub stage? Forest stage.

Question 4.
If decomposition not occur in nature huge amount of detritus of plants and animals may fill our ecosystems, it is seriously harm to living organisms of our environment

1. Define decomposition
2. Give the steps
3. Decomposers are known as scavengers of earth”. Justify.

Answer:
1. Breaking down of complex organic matter into simple inorganic substance like C02, H20 and Nutrients is called decomposition.

2. Decomposition steps are

• Fragmentation – It is the breaking down of detritus into smaller particle by the detrivores like earthworm.
• Leaching – Precipitation of water soluble or inorganic nutrient into soil horizon.
• Catabolism – It is the degradation of detritus into simple inorganic substances by the action of micro organism.
• Humification – It is the accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance called humus. Humus serve as the reservoir of nutrients.
• Mineralization – The degradation of humus & release of nutrients from it by microbes is called mineralization.

3. Decomposers split the complex detritus into simple inorganic compounds while doing so they also bring about nutrient cycling. The degradation of detritus into simple organic substances by micro organism involves catabolic process. Without micro organism the earth would have been filled with dead organisms.

Question 5.
In an ecosystem there is unidirectional flow of energy and cyclic flow of matter.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason?
3. Mention the significance of standing crop and standing state in this contest.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Energy in an ecosystem flows unidirectionally from producers to different consumers through different tropic level. The constant supply of matter (nutrients like C, N„, P, Ca, etc.) are never lost from the ecosystem. Their constant supply is maintained by nutrient cycling.

3. The mass of living material in a tropic level at a particular time is a standing crop. The amount of nutrients present in a soil at a given time is called standing state.

Question 6.
Robert Constanza and his colleagues put price tags on nature’s life-support services. Price tag of US $ 33 trillion a year

1. What is meant by, ecosystem services? Give example.
2. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. The product ecosystem process

• Generate fertile soil
• Pollinate crops

2. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 7.
Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. Rate of decomposition depend upon many factors.

1. What are the factors influence the rate of decomposition
2. Explain it.

Answer:
1. The factors influencing the rate of decomposition are:

• Chemical nature of detritus
• Climatic condition (temperature and soil moistures)

2. Detritus which is rich in N₂ and water soluble substances like sugar decompose quickly than detritus containing lignin and chitin.

Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobic condition inhibit decomposition.

Question 8.
The number of individuals in grass land ecosystem is given below.
Grass – 5842,000
Grasshopper – 7,08,000
Frogs – 3,54,000
Snakes – 3

1. Draw a pyramid representing the relationship of the given organisms in terms of number.
2. Give justification for the shape of pyramid.

Answer:
1.

2. The pyramid is an upright one the largest number being producers (grasses) forms the base of the pyramid. The Herbivores or primary consumer at the next level (grass hopper) are second to producers in number.

The third layer is occupied by secondary consumers (Frogs) which are smaller in number compared to the primary consumer. The tertiary consumer (snakes) are the least in number and occupies the top most level. Thus an upright pyramid is obtained.

Question 9.
Food chain ensures unidirectional flow of energy from producerto different levels of consumers. Construct a food chain? Is the flow of energy obey the law of thermodynamics?
Answer:

Yes, the first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can be converted from one form to another. In an ecosystem the plants capture 2-10% of PAR (Photosynthetically active radiation) from the sun.

The solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem in the form of food energy. This unidirectional flow of solar energy in accordance with 10% law.

Question 10.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Substantiate the above statement with the process involved in the above phenomenon.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. Plant succession:
The gradual & predictable change in species composition or communities of a given area is called ecological successions. It occurs due to the change of communities in response to environmental changes. Important features of ecological successions are

• Invasion of a bare area by pioneer community
• sequence of communities that successfully change or modify the particular area called seres
• change in the diversity of species and organism in the successive serai communities
• formation of climax community.

2. Phytoplankton stage → Submerged plant stage → Submerged free floating plant stage → Reed swamp stage → Marsh meadow stage → Scrub stage → Forest stage.

Question 11.
In an ecosystem flow of energy through successive trophic levels decreases, this is very common in aquatic and terrestrial habitat.

1. Write down the first and second thermodynamic laws supports energy flow
2. What do you meant by 10% law

Answer:
1. In first law of thermodynamics energy can be transferred from one state to other while in second law of thermodynamics energy losses in the form of heat.

Question 12.
The average price tag of US is 22 trillion US dollars a year.

1. What does this data indicate?
2. How is it related to GNP?'(Gross National Production)
3. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. Ecosystem are the base of wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services. The products of ecosystem process are named as ecosystem services.

These services are usually taken for granted because they are free. Researches have tried to put prize tags on nature’s life support services in order to understand the values of services provided by nature.

2. Gross national production is the value of human resources and services of a particular country. It is only half the value of ecosystem services.

3. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 13.
Primary productivity varies in different types of ecosystems.

1. What is meant by primary productivity.
2. Give reason with suitable examples.

Answer:
1. Primary productivity is the amount of biomass or organic matter produced during photosynthesis. The gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plant in respiration. The gross primary productivity – Respiration losses is the net primary productivity.

2. In some ecosystems producers number and nutrient content are not stable.

Question 14.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids are upright. But there are exceptions to this generalisation.

1. Give any of the cases where pyramid of number and biomass becomes inverted.
2. What is detritus food chain?

Answer:
1. The pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem is inverted. The primary producer tree is a single unit. The consumers like insects, small birds & large birds are the primary consumers secondary consumers &territory consumers respectively.

Thus the no. of consumer in tree ecosystem is more than that of the producer. The pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted because the biomass of fishes (Consumers) exceeds that of phytoplankton (producer).

2. Food chain starts with detritus called as detritus food chain.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Plants are called as_____because they fix carbon dioxide.
2. In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is_____type.
3. In aquatic eco systems, the limiting factor for the productivity is_______
4. Common ditritivores in our eco system are______
5. The major reservoir of carbon on earth is______

Answer:

1. Producers
2. Upright
3. Availability of sunlight.
4. Earthworm
5. Ocean

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain______
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
The decomposers can have the maximum population but they are excluded from food chain, hence the correct answer is – (a) Producers

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is______
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 4.
What is the percentage of photosyntheticaliy active radiation (PAR) , if incident solar radiation is considered 100%?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 1-5%
(d) 2-10%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Give an account for flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer:
1. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional from producers to consumers.

2. The flow of energy obeys the laws of the thermodynamics 2-10% of radiant energy (50% of which reaches the earth) is photosyntheticaliy active radiation. It travels through different tropic levels from producers in the form of food energy.

The producers convert radiant energy into chemical energy which is stored as biomass. When energy flows from one tropic level to another only 10% of the total energy is transferred, as certain amount of energy is utilized by the organism belonging to a particulartropic level.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer:
(d) Fresh weight

Question 2.
Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a Grassland ecosystem?
(a) Secondary production
(b) Tertiary production
(c) Gross production
(d) Net production
Answer:
(c) Gross production

Question 3.
Which of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary Productivity?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
Answer:
(a) Tropical rain forest

Question 4.
An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
Answer:
(a) low stability and high resilience

Question 5.
The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive
(a) Producer and primary consumer
(b) Producer and decomposer
(c) primary Consumer and decomposer
(d) primary and secondary Consumer
Answer:
(b) Producer and decomposer

Question 6.
In plant succession, when climax is reached, the net productivity
(a) continues to increase
(b) becomes halved
(c) becomes stable
(d) becomes zero
Answer:
(c) becomes stable

Question 7.
Detrivores are
(a) detritus eating vertebrates
(b) detritus eating fungus
(c) detritus decomposing bacteria
(d) detritus eating invertebrates
Answer:
(d) detritus eating invertebrates

Question 8.
How fig tree is benefited to its pollinator wasp?
(a) Pollens are edible
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits
(c) Floral petal resembles female to pseudo coupulate
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits

Question 9.
Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 10.
Weathering of rocks makes phosphorous available to
(a) Decomposers
(b) Consumers
(c) Producers
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Producers

Question 11.
The 10% law associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) productivity
(b) nutrient cycling
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
In the reductive process, the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia occurs by
(a) nitrosomonas
(b) rhizobium
(c) nitrococcus
(d) pseudomonas
Answer:
(b) rhizobium

Question 13.
The primary productivity is least in
(a) coral reef
(b) grassland
(c) coniferous forest
(d) desert
Answer:
(d) desert

Question 14.
Choose the correct arrangement of plant communities
(a) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(c) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(d) marsh meadow stage, woodland stage, scrub stage and forest stage
Answer:
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage

Question 15.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 16.
Detritus is the
(a) dead remains of plants only
(b) dead remains of plants and animals
(c) excretory products of animals
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c

Question 17.
The plants efficiency of N₂ absorption is promoted when the nitrogen source available in the form of
(a) NO^3-
(b) NO^2-
(c) NH⁴⁺
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) NO^3-

Question 18.
Which one of the following process is associated with oxidation
(a) ammonification
(b) nitrification
(c) denitrification
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) nitrification

Question 19.
PAR belongs to the wavelength of
(a) 300-400 A0
(b) 400-700A0
(c) 600-800A0
(d) 700-1000A0
Answer:
(b) 400-700A0