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Students can Download Chapter 8 Biodiversity and Conservation Questions and Answers, Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Biodiversity and Conservation

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The species diversity of plants on earth will be
(a) 2.4%
(b) 22%
(c) 8.1%
(d) 85%
Answer:
(b) 22%

Question 2.
Which of the following rain forest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?
(a) Amazonian
(b) Tropical
(c) Arctic tundra
(d) Temperate
Answer:
(a) Amazonian

Question 3.
Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas shows maximum biodiversity in our country?
(a) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch
(b) Eastern ghats and West Bengal
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
(d) Kerala and Punjab’
Answer:
(c) Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats

Question 4.
Which of the following is most dangerous to wildlife?
(a) Overexploitation
(b) Man-made forest
(c) Habitat destruction
(d) Introduction of foreign species
Answer:
(c) Habitat destruction

Question 5.
The extinction of cichlid fish in the lake is due to
(a) habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) overexploitation
(c) Alien species invansion
(d) Co-extinctions
Answer:
(c) Alien species invansion

Question 6.
Aquatic environment of Kerala is facing serious threat by alien species invasion. Can you say anyone example of a species by which our indigenous plants and animals are facing greater threat.
Answer:
Eichornia

Question 7.
Write the significance of seed banks in biodiversity conservation?
Answer:
Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants and other plants can be kept for a long period.

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Global diversity of invertebrates are shown below:-

1. Which invertebrate group shows highest biodiversity and why?
2. Among vertebrates, which group has the highest biodiversity?

Answer:

1. Insects (Arthropods), their cuticular exoskeleton gives high survival and diversity.
2. Fishes

Question 2.
Define co-extinction.
Answer:
When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it also become extinct. This is called co-extinction.

Question 3.
Now a days the area of sacred grooves decreased. Suggest the role of sacred grooves in conservation of biosphere?
Answer:
Sacred grooves are tracts of forests set aside by many cultures, where all the trees and wild life are given total protection.

Question 4.
Introduction of exotic species is one of the major threats to biodiversity. Analyse this statement with any four examples in your locality.
Answer:
When exotic species are introduced, some may turn invasive and cause extinction of ndigenous species.
Eg: Carrot grass, Eichornia, Lantana, African cat fish.

Question 5.
“The biological wealth of our planet has been declining rapidly and the accusing finger is clearly pointing to human activities.”

1. Mention any two activities leading to the loss of biodiversity.
2. Mention the different ways to conserve biodiversity.

Answer:

1. Habitat destruction Pollution and overexploitation
2. i) Insitu conservation – National parks, Biosphere reserve etc.
   ii) Exsitu conservation – Zoo, Botanical garden, Cryopreservation, etc

Question 6.
Arrange the following terms into two-column with proper title (Biological reserves, Zoological park, Sacred groves, National park, Cryopreservation of gametes, Wild life sanctuaries, In vitro fertilization, Botanical garden).
Answer:

Exsitu conservation	Insitu conservation
Zoological park	Biological reserves
Cryopreservation of gametes	Sacred groves
Invitro fertilization	National park
Botanical garden	Wild life sanctuaries

Question 7.
“Conservation of nature” is a slogan which is heard all over the world. Proposed by environmentalists in this conservation of biodiversity is very important.

1. What are the different levels of biodiversity?
2. Which are the threats of biodiversity?

Answer:
1. different levels of biodiversity

• genetic diversity
• Species diversity
• Ecological diversity

2. threats of biodiversity

• Habitat loss and fragmentation
• Over-exploitation
• Alien species invasions
• Co-extinction

Question 8.
Alien species invasion is one of the causes of biodiversity loss.

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Site any two examples of alien species in your locality.

Answer:

1. Yes. Alien species cause decline or extinction of indigenous species. Eg: Lantana
2. Eichhornia

Question 9.
The need for conservation of biodiversity is undoubtedly inevitable for the future existence of man kind.

1. Name the strategies involved in biodiversity conservation. Give examples for each.
2. What is endemism?
3. Expand IUCN.

Answer:

1. i) Insitu conservation
Eg: Biosphere, reserve, national parks, and wild life sanctuaries.

ii) Ex-situ conservation
Eg: Zoo, Botanical garden, tissue culture, seed banks.

2. Species confined to a region and not found anywhere else. Endemic species are rich in hotspots.

3. International Union for conservation of nature and natural resources.

Question 10.
Scientists estimate that species diversity decreases as we move away from equator towards the poles. Tropical Amazonian rainforest in South America has the greatest diversity on earth.

Do you agree that there is something so special about tropics that might account for greater biodiversity. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The specialities of tropics are
They remained undisturbed for millions of years. The tropical environment is less seasonal, more constant and predictable. There is more solar energy, which contribute to higher productivity.

Question 11.
The accelerated rates of species extinctions that the world is facing now are largely due to human activities.

1. Mention the evil quatret which cause extinction.
2. Name two ex-situ method to conserve diversity.

Answer:
1. The evil quatret which cause extinction

• Habitat loss
• Overexploitation
• Alein species invasion
• Coextinction

2. Two ex-situ method to conserve diversity

• Zoo
• Botanical garden

Question 12.
“The Central Govt. declared the buffer zone to the silent valley National Park.” Predict advantages of this decision.
Protective area
Answer:

• Research/Education
• Reduce human settlement
• Reduce destruction of forest resource
• Area of park increase
• Reduce the pressure

Question 13.
Alien species are a threat to native species, justify taking examples of an animal and a plant alien species.
Answer:
The Nile Perch introduced in lake Victora in East Africa led eventually to the extinction of more than 200 species of Ci child fish in the lake. African cat fish (Clariasgariepinus) for aquaculture purpose is posing threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.

Invasive weed species Eicchornia (water hyacinth). Parthenium (carrot grass). Lantana have posed a threat to our native species.

Question 14.
“We can develop a proper perspective through an analogy. The rivet popper hypothesis’ regarding the importance of species diversity to the ecosystem”. Substantiate?
Answer:
Analogy rivet popper hypothesis, used by Paul Ehrlich, indicates the importance of each species to the ecosystem. In a plane (ecosystem) all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets (species).

The extinction of a species affects the normal functioning of ecosystem, like removal of rivets of a plane. Damage of more number of species affects the ecosystem dangerously.

Question 15.
In our biosphere, immense diversity exists in all levels of biological organisation. Describe the most important levels of biodiversity.
Answer:

1. Genetic diversity: Diversity of genes within a species.
2. Species diversity: The diversity at the species level.
3. Ecological diversity: Diversity at the ecosystem level.

Question 16.
The extinction of the bird ‘Dodo’ in Mauritius island also lead to the extinctinon of the tree named ‘Calvaria major’. Explain the process that is a cause of a biodiversity loss?
Answer:
Co-extinction. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct. This is called co-extinction.

Analogy rivet popper hypothesis, used by Paul Ehrlich, indicates the importance of each species to the ecosystem. In a plane (ecosystem) all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets (species).

The extinction of a species affects the normal functioning of ecosystem, like removal of rivets of a plane. Damage of more number of species affects the ecosystem dangerously.

Question 17.
‘Evil Quartet’ is a sobriquet used to describe the cause of biodiversity loss.

1. What are the evil quartets of biodiversity loss?
2. Write two ill effects of biodiversity loss?

Answer:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation, Over-exploitation, Alien species invasion and Co-extinction.

2. effects of biodiversity loss

• decline in plant production
• Lowered resistance to environment

Question 18.
‘Amazon forests are called the lungs of the planet’ Why?
Answer:
Amazon rain forest is huge and harbor millions of species and it is estimated to produce, through photosynthesis, 20% of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.

Question 19.
The following pie diagram represents global biodiversity of invertebrates and vertebrates. Complete the graph by giving suitable group of animals to the missing sectors A and B.

Answer:

1. Insects
2. Fishes

Question 20.
‘India is one of the 12 Mega Biodiversity countries of the world’. Justify?
Answer:
India has approximately 8.1% of global species diversity, probably has more than 100000 species of plants and 200000 animal species, India has western Ghats, Indo Burma, and Himalaya as hotspots.

Question 21.
‘Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in a viable and fertile condition for a long time’

1. Identify the preservation technique used?
2. Why is it considered as an Ex-situ conservation approach?

Answer:

1. Cryopreservation
2. In ex-situ approach threatened animals/ plants/ gametes/ seeds are taken from their natural habitat and placed in special condition.

Question 22.
Categorize the following into ex-situ and in-situ conservation strategies. Seed banks, Tissue culture, sacred grooves, national parks, zoological parks, biosphere reserve, botanical garden, sanctuaries.
Answer:

• Ex-situ: Sacred groves, National Park, Biosphere reserve, Sanctuaries
• In-situ: Tissue culture, Zoological park, seed banks, Botanical garden.

Question 23.
Compare in situ and ex situ conservation strategies with examples?
Answer:
1. In-situ: Protect the whole ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels. Eg: Biosphere reserve, national park, sanctuaries, etc.

2. Ex-situ: it is the strategy to protect threatened and endangered species which needs urgent measures to save it from extinction. Eg: zoo, botanical garden, seed bank, etc.

Question 24.

Read the statement and state whether true or false.

1.

• Endangered species are more in reptiles than in birds and mammals.
• Critically endangered species are more in birds than in reptiles and mammals.

2. What is the role of Alien species invasions in extinction?

Answer:

1.

• True
• False

2. Alien species are foreign species, when introduced, some of them turn invasive and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species.

Question 25.
What are hot spots in biodiversity? Why endemism is considered an important criteria for identifying hot spots?
Answer:
1. Hot spots: are the regions with high levels of species richness and high degree of endemism.

2. Endemism: is the number of species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else. High degree of endemism means species richness is more and are not found anywhere else and should be protected to prevent extinction.

Question 26.
The species diversity of the plants (22%) is much less that of animals (72%). What could be the explanations to how animals achieved greater diversification?
Answer:
Compared to plants, animals have increased size and genetic variation. Also, the animals possess complex nervous system to control and coordinate various body activities.

Animals possess receptor organs for receiving various environmental stimuli and able to respond against them. The ability of locomotion is also a factor for greater diversification of animals.

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Amazonian rain forest has the greatest biodiversity on earth. List any two hypothesis that are proposed by the biologists to account for the greater biological diversity.
Answer:
The hypothesis are:
1. Speciation is generally a function of time; unlike temperate regions which are subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained undisturbed for millions of years and hence had a long time for species diversification.

2. Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable; such constant environments promote niche specialization and lead to a greater species diversity.

3. There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to species diversity.

Question 2.
Introduction of exotic species is one of the major threats of biodiversity.

1. Cite any two examples of these exotic species in your locality.
2. Recent illegal introduction of a fish for aquaculture poses a threat to indigenous catfishes in our rivers. Name it.
3. How co-extinctions affects biodiversity?

Answer:

1. Eichornia- Lantana Camera
2. African catfish (clarius gariepinus)
3. When a species becomes extinct, the species associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct. This is called co-extinction.

Question 3.
Observe the graph.

1. What does this graph represent?
2. Who proposed this relationship?
3. What does the alphabets S, C, A, Z represent?

Answer:

1. Species – Area relationships
2. Alexander Von Humboldt
3. S-Species richness A – Area Z – Slope of the line C-Y-Intercept.

Question 4.
There are many reasons, some obvious and others not so obvious, but all equally important to conserve biodiversity. They are grouped into three categories.

1. Name them.
2. Among 3 categories, which one has a scope of ‘bioprospecting’, for exploring biodiversity for products of economic importance.
3. Give examples for Ex-situ conservation.

Answer:

1. Narrowly utilitarian argument.
   Broadly utilitarian argument.
2. Narrowly utilitarian argument.
3. Zoological parks, botanical gardens, Cryopreservation, tissue culture, seed banks, pollen banks, etc.

Question 5.
Bio-diversity is not uniform throughout the world, but shows a rather uneven distribution.

1. What is latitudinal gradients in diversity?
2. What is so special about tropics that might account for their greater biological diversity.
3. Which is the area that has the highest biodiversity on earth?

Answer:

1. The distribution of diversity of plants and animals decreases as we move away from equator towards the poles.

2. biological diversity

• Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, thus had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
• Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable.
• More solar energy is available which contributes to high productivity and greater diversity.

3. Amazonian rain forest in South America.

Question 6.
Observe the given graph

1. What does the above graph represent?
2. What does S and A indicate?
3. Write the significance of ‘Z’ value?

Answer:

1. Species area relationship
2. S = Species richness, A = area
3. Z is the slop of the line (regression coefficient).

Question 7.
How do the following factors affect biodiversity? Answer with suitable examples.

1. Alien species invasion
2. Co extinction
3. Overexploitation

Answer:
1. Alien species turn invasive and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species. Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led to the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.

2. When a species become extinct the plants and animals associated with it in an obligatory way also become extinct, coevolved. Plant-pollinator mutualism where extinction of one species leads to the extinction of the other.

3. It happen when need turns greed and over utilization of natural resources in an irrecoverable way. Extinction of Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon was due to humans.

Question 8.
Narrow utilitarian, broad utilitarian and ethical arguments are the three major arguments/ reasons for conserving biodiversity. Briefly explain the basis of these three arguments?
Answer:
1. Narrowly utilitarian:
Humans get economic benefits from nature food (cereals, pulses, fruits), firewood, fibre, construction material, industrial products (tannins, lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes) and products of medicinal importance.

2. broadly utilitarian:
Biodiversity plays a major role in ecosystem services. Amazon forest is through photosynthesis produce 20 percent of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.

Pollination is another ecosystems service by bees, bumblebees, birds, and bats. Nature provides aesthetic pleasures of watching spring flowers in full bloom and bulbul’s song in the morning.

3. Ethical:
Every species has an intrinsic value so they are conserved for future generations.

Question 9.
What are the factors responsible for the greater biodiversity in tropical regions?
Answer:

1. Tropics have remained undisturbed for millions of years and had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
2. Constant and predictable tropical environments promote niche speciation and greater diversity.
3. More solar energy in tropics contributes higher productivity and indirectly to greater diversity.

Question 10.
Write the three components of Biodiversity. Select the component which deals with ecosystem levels of biodiversity?
Answer:

• Genetic diversity
• Species diversity
• Ecological diversity.

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the three important of biodiversity.
Answer:

• Genetic diversity
• Species diversity
• Ecosystem diversity

Question 2.
How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world?
Answer:
They make a statistical comparison of the species richness of exhaustively studied groups of insects of the temperate and tropical regions and extrapolate this ratio to other groups of animals and plants to calculate gross estimate of the total number of species present on the earth.

Question 3.
Give three hypothesis for explaining why tropics show greatest levels of species richness.
Answer:
Biodiversity is not uniformly distributed throughout the world. Polar regions have very little biodiversity whereas South America has the greatest biodiversity on the earth. There are many hypothesis for higher biodiversity in tropics:

1. There are no unfavourable seasons in tropics. Continued favourable environmental condition has helped tropical organisms to flourish more.

2. There is more solar energy available in the tropics due to which productivity is higher and this contribute to greater diversity.

The tropical environment is older thus allowing more time for the evolution of greater number of plants and animals.

Question 4.
What is the significance of the slope of regression in a species-area relationship?
Answer:
Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a definite region the species richness increases upto some extent with increase in area. This relationship between species richness and area is a hyperbola fora large variety of taxa.
On a logarithmic scale it is a straight line
Log S = log C + Z log A
Where S = species richness
Z = slope of line (regression coefficient)
C = Y-intercept
A = Area
Z is generally 0.1 -0.2 regardless of taxonomic group or region i.e., when analysis of speices-area relationship is done among small areas, the values of slopes of regression are remarkably similar regardless of the taxonomic group or the region.

If analysis of species-area relationship is done among very large like a whole continent, the slope of regreesion line would be much steeper.

Question 5.
What are the major causes of species losses in a geographical region?
Answer:

• Habit loss and fragmentation
• Over-exploitation
• Introduction of exotic species
• Co-extinctions.

Question 6.
Can you think of a situation where we deliberately want to make a species extinct? How would you justify it?
Answer:
This situation may appear when alien species is introduce unintentionally or deliberately into an area. Some of them may become invasive and cause damage to indigenous species.

For example Nile perch introduced into lake Victoria in East Africa led to extinction of 200 species of Cichlid fish in the lake. Introduction of African catfish Clariasgariepinuslor aquaculture is threatening the indigenous catfishes in rivers of India.

Question 7.
What are sacred groves? What is their role in con¬servation?
Answer:
Sacred groves are sacred forest patches around places of forest. In such cases, nature is protected by prevailing religious and cultural traditions. Here tracts of forests are set aside and all plants and animals are venerated and provided with complete protection.

Some examples of sacred groves are Khasi and initial hills in Meghalaya. Aravalli hills in Rajasthan, Western ghat regions of Karnataka, Maharashtra and Sargiya, Chanda and Bastar areas of M.P. In Sikkim, Khecheopalri lake is declared sacred lake by people, thus protecting the aquatic flora and fauna.

Many rare and threatened plants have been protected in sacred groves of Meghalaya. Such areas have been found to be most undisturbed and they are usually surrounded by most degraded landscapes.

Question 8.
Among the ecosystem services are control of floods and soil erosion. How is this achieved by the biotic components of the ecosystem?
Answer:
Earth’s rich biodiversity is vital for indirect benefits like control of floods and soil erosion. Species richness checks soil erosion by binding the soil particles thereby reducing the rate of water velocity, hence reducing the chances of floods.

Question 9.
The species diversity of plants (22 percent) is much less than that of animals (72 percent). What would be the explanations to how animals achieved greater diversification?
Answer:
Animals bear nervous system for control and co-ordination of activities. They also bear receptors to respond to environment stimuli. Many responses become adaptive for survival. Thus animal bears higher species diversity than plants.

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Spot out the zone of our country considered as the hot spot of biodiversity and regarded as the ‘Cradle of Speciation’.
(a) Western ghats
(b) North East
(c) Himalayan base
(d) Deccan plateau
Answer:
(b) North East

Question 2.
One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that
(a) one can observe tropical plants there
(b) they allow exsitu conservation of germplasm
(c) they provide the natural habitat for wild life
(d) they Provide a beautiful area for recreation
Answer:
(b) they allow exsitu conservation of germplasm

Question 3.
The diversity of the habitats over the total geographical area is called
(a) alpha diversity
(b) beta diversity
(c) gamma diversity
(d) delta diversity
Answer:
(c) gamma diversity

Question 4.
Biosphere reserves differ from national parks and wild life sanctuaries because in the former
(a) human being are not allowed to enter
(b) people are an integral part of the system
(c) plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(d) living Organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity
Answer:
(b) people are an integral part of the system

Question 5.
An institution, where valuable plant material-likely to become irretrievably lost in the wild or in cultivation is preserved in a viable condition is known as
(a) genome
(b) gene library
(c) gene bank
(d) herbarium
Answer:
(c) gene bank

Question 6.
Biological diversity day is
(a) 5^th June
(b) 21^st March
(c) 14^th January
d) 29^th December
Answer:
(d) 29^th December

Question 7.
Biodiversity is determined by
(a) number of individuals in an area
(b) species richness
(c) evenness
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 8.
Rare endangered and endemic taxa can be found intact and flourishing in
(a) sacred groves
(b) buffer zone
(c) tropical forests
(d) temperate forests
Answer:
(a) sacred groves

Question 9.
In situ conservation and national genetic resources can be achieved by Establishing
(a) National Park
(b) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(c) Biosphere Reserve
(d) All of a bove
Answer:
(d) All of a bove

Question 10.
IUCN, now called World Conservation Union (WCU) has its headquarter at
(a) South Africa
(b) America
(c) India
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(d) Switzerland

Question 11.
If forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to happen on a long term basis?
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death
(b) Domestic animals in these and joining areas will die due to lack of fodder
(c) Large biomes will become deserts
(d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a reduced ability of variety of germplasm
Answer:
(c) Large biomes will become deserts

Question 12.
The management of biosphere in such a way that it may yield one greatest suitable benefit to present generation, while maintaining its potential to meet the needs of future generation is
(a) conservation
(b) aforestation
(c) fossilization
(d) over-exploitation
Answer:
(b) aforestation

Question 13.
The first Biosphere Reserve establish in India for conserving the gene pool of flora and fauna and the life style of tribals is
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(b) Nandadevi Biosphere Reserve
(c) Uttarakhand Biosphere Reserve
(d) Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

Question 14.
The government of India in 1980s has introduced a concept to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests. The concept is
(a) forest research institutes
(b) panel of local communities for forest management
(c) joint forest management
(d) jhum cultivation
Answer:
(c) joint forest management

Question 15.
The percentage of forest cover recommended by the national forest policy (1988)is
(a) 33% for plains and 67% for hills
(b) 37% for plains and 63% for hills
(c) 20% for plains and 70% for hills
(d) 23% for plains and 77% for hills
Answer:
(a) 33% for plains and 67% for hills

Question 16.
The species diversity is maximum in
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Alpine meadows
(d) wetlands.
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Question 17.
According to the IUCN (2004), the number of species on the earth that dominates
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) bacteria
(d) plants
Answer:
(b) animals

Question 18.
The greatest biodiversity in world is reported in
(a) Amazonian forest
(b) coniferous forest
(c) W ghats
(d) Scandinavian forest
Answer:
(a) Amazonian forest

Question 19.
Tropical environments are less seasonal and constant that lead to a greater species diversity, it is come under
(a) niche specialization
(b) species richness
(c) genetic erosion
(d) genetic equilibrium
Answer:
(b) species richness

Question 20.
The equation log S = log C +Z log A represent
(a) species richness and area
(b) genetic diversity and area
(c) allelic frequency and speciation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) species richness and area

Question 21.
The extinction of Steller’s sea cow is due to
(a) overexploitation
(b) alien species invasion
(c) habitat loss and fragmentation
(d) co extinctions
Answer:
(a) overexploitation

Question 22.
The major cause of reduction in biodiversity is due to
(a) habitat fragmentation
(b) overexploitation
(c) overproduction
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 23.
The introduction of fish that is more serious threat to the indigenous catfishes in river, they are
(a) hilsa
(b) Clarias
(c) carp
(d) catla
Answer:
(b) Clarias

Question 24.
If two species are in obligatory relationship, the extinction of one species affect the other. This is called
(a) competitive exclusion
(b) competitive release
(c) co extinction
(d) co evolution
Answer:
(c) co extinction

Plus Two Zoology Biodiversity and Conservation SCERT Sample Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Arrange the following terms into two based on the mode of biodiversity conservation. Hot spots, Zoological Park, Sacred groves, wild life Safari Parks (2)
2. Fill in the blank box noted as A. (1)

Answer:

1. Hotspot and sacred grove Zoological Park and Wild Life Safari Park
2. A. Western ghats

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ti plasmids used in genetic engineering is obtained from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Pseudomonas tumefaciens
(d) Bacillus subtilis
Answer:
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 2.
Which one is regarded as a molecular scissor in biotechnology?
(a) Reverse transcriptase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Answer:
(b) Restriction endonuclease

Question 3.
Name the stain used to identify DNA bands in gel electrophoresis
Answer:
Ethidium Bromide

Question 4.
In rDNA technology the alein DNA and cloning vector are a cut by same Restriction endonuclease enzyme. Give reason.
Answer:
The same restriction enzyme must be used cut the alien and foreign DNA forgetting sticky ends.

Question 5.
Name the most common technique is used to transfer DNA into plants.
Answer:
Biolistics or gene gun

Question 6.
The plasmid of Agrobacterium is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) F1 plasmid
(c) T plasmid
(d) Col E1
Answer:
(a)Ti plasmid

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease?
(a) EcoRI
(b) Hind III
(c) pst I
(d) DNAse I
Answer:
(d) DNAse I

Question 8.
The desired DNA can be amplified to 1 billion copies through an important technique. Name it.
Answer:
Polymerace Chain Reaction

Question 9.
Restriction in Restriction enzyme refers to:
(a) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(b) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria

Question 10.
In PCR technique, nucleotides add one by one on template strand with the help of polymerace enzyme. From which organism it is isolated.
Answer:
Thermus aquaticus

Question 11.
A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the folloiwng:
(a) Resriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E.coli
Answer:
(d) E.coli

Question 12.
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their:
(a) Charge only
(b) Size only
(c) Charge to size ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Size only

Question 13.
Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
(a) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Esherichia coli
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Bacillius amyloli
Answer:
(a) Haemophilus influenzae

Question 14.
Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extenstion of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Extenstion of primer end on the template DNA

Question 15.
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is:
(a) endonuclease
(b) exonuclease
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Hind-ll
Answer:
(b) exonuclease

Question 16.
Polymerase Chain Reaction helps in
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) DNA amplification
(c) Protein synthesis
(d) Aminoacid synthesis
Answer:
DNA synthesis

Question 17.
Starting from double stranded DNA suggest a strategy for obtaining large amounts of pure single stranded DNA for sequencing purpose.
Answer:
PCR (POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION)

Question 18.
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of ensymes called ‘molecular scissors’. Identify this enzyme.
Answer:
Restriction enzymes/Restriction Endonucleases

Question 19.
Which among the following is the first discovered Restriction Endonuclease?
(a) Hindi I
(b) Hindi II
(c) EcoR I
(d) EcoR II
Answer:
(b) Hind II

Question 20.
Observe the following illustration and find out the enzymes which are denoted as A and B.
Answer:

1. Restriction endonucleases
2. DNAIigases

Question 21.
Write the technique used for the separation of DNA fragments.
Answer:
Gel Electrophoresis

Question 22.
Final step of gel electrophoresis of DNA molecules from the gel. What is this process called?
Answer:
Elution

Question 23.
One of the given options is not related to PCR. Find it.
(a) Denaturation
(b) Spooling
(c) Extension
(d) Annealing
Answer:
Spooling

Question 24.
Which among the following is not a gene transfer method?
(a) Microinjection
(b) Disarmed pathogen vectors
(c) Gene gun
(d) Elution
Answer:
(d) Elution

Question 25.
Cloning vector suitable for gene transfer in plants is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) Bacteriophages
(c) Viruses
(d) Transposons
Answer:
(a) Ti Plasmid

Question 26.
Which among the following are the selectable markers of PBR-322.
(a) amp^R, kan^R
(b) tet^R, kan^R
(c) ampR, tetR
(d) chl^R, tet^R
Answer:
ampR, tetR

Question 27.
Restriction Endonucleases cut DNA at specific locations by breaking_______
(a) Sugar-phosphate bonds
(b) Sugar-Nitrogen base bonds
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Disulphide bonds
Answer:
Sugar-phosphate bond

Question 28.
Downstream processing is the final step in the process of recombinant DNA technology. What do you understand by “down stream processing”?
Answer:
Separation and purification of gene product.

Question 29.
Ti plasmid is a suitable cloning vector for plants. It is the plasmid of a bacterium called_______.
Answer:
Agrobacterium tumifaciens.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elution is a major step of electrophoresis.

1. Explain the process.
2. Give the importance of UV light

Answer:

1. Separated bands of DNA are cut from Agarose gel piece and extracted out.
2. Under UV light DNA bands are observed as orange colour.

Question 2.
Genetic engineering is the gene manipulation technique that helps to create new organism with desired genetic make up

1. Give the contribution of Stanley cohen and Herbert Boyer in genetic engineering.
2. Name the enzyme used to cut DNA strand?

Answer:

1. Herbert Boyer and Stanley cohen constructed first recombinant DNA by linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium in 1972.
2. Restriction endonuclease

Question 3.
Mosquitoes are considered as vectors which transfer the malarial parasite into human body. Plasmids are considered as Vectors in biotechnology’. Justify.
Answer:
Vectors are agents which transfers materials from one organism to another. Plasmids are extra chromosomal DNA seen in bacteria which have the ability for independent replication.

In the field of Biotechnology plasmids are used as vectors as they replicate rapidly after integrating a foreign DNA. Thus, through the plasmid the alien gene can be introduced into another organism.

Question 4.
Eco R I is the restriction endonuclease enzyme obtained from E.coli bacteria that helps them to restrict the growth of virus. What are the criteria for naming endonucleases.
Answer:
EcoRI comes from the name of bacterium Escherechia coli Ry 13. E represents the genus, co represents species, ‘R’ is derived from the name of strain and I is the order in which the enzyme is isolated.

Question 5.
Separation and isolation of DNA fragments can be done by a technique known as gel electrophoresis

1. What is the procedure used separate DNA fragements?
2. Name the organism from which agarose gel is isolated

Answer:
1. Negatively changed DNA fragments are separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through agarose matrix.

The DNA fragments separate according to their size in agarose gel. So the smaller the fragment size moves farther. Then it is cut out from the agarose gel by elution.

2. Seaweeds.

Question 6.
PCR is meant for making the multiples copies of the gene of interest.

1. Give the major step involved in PCR.
2. Name the thermostable DNA polymerase enzyme is used in this technique. Why?

Answer:
1. The major step involved in PCR:

• Denaturation – It involves the separation of DNA strands
• Annealing – The double strands are synthesised from free nucleotides by the action of DNA polymerase.
• Extension – The length of the strands are increased as a result of addition of more and more nucleotides. Thus DNA amplified up to 1 billion copies.

2. Taq polymarase
PCR cylinderworks at high temperature. Hence thermostable enzyme is used.

Question 7.
In r DNA technology recombinant DNA is directly injected into the plant cell

1. Name the technique used
2. What you meant by competent host?

Answer:

1. Biolispics or Gene gun.
2. This is done by treating them with calcium ions and incubating the cells and recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42°C. Then putting them back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

Question 8.
If RNA use, protease, cellulase etc. are not used in the isolation of genetic materials.

1. Find out the difficulties arise during the process of rDNA technology.
2. What is spooling?

Answer:

1. If the above said enzymes are not used, it is difficult to get DNA in pure form for foreign gene isolation.
2. Fine thread of DNA separated out from chilled alcohol.

Question 9.
How is the action of Exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
Answer:
Exonuclease removes the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules while endonuclease takes cut at specific position within a DNA molecule.

Question 10.
Spooling is one of the important method used in r DNA technology.

1. Name the medium in which DNA appear as fine threads.
2. What is the aim of using lysozyme in the isolation of genetic material?

Answer:

1. Chilled alcohol
2. It helps to remove the cell wall of bacteria

Question 11.
Sticky ends are unpaired strands of DNA get by using restriction endonuclease enzyme.
Do you agree?.Give reason
Answer:
Yes. The same restriction enzyme is used to cut both vector DNA and foreign DNA, get sticky ends that facilitate the action of DNA ligase.

Question 12.
In biotechnology lab Ramu interested in constructing r DNA, for this he used tools of r DNA technology.

1. What happen if DNA polymerase enzyme is not used?
2. Name the sequence of DNA subjected to the action of restriction enzyme

Answer:

1. Addition of nucleotides not take place
2. Palindromic sequence

Question 13.
3′ end of template strand is very important in polymerase chain reaction

1. Name the complementary strand that attaches template sequence of 3′ end
2. Find out the type of nucleotides supplied in this technique

Answer:

1. Primer
2. dCTP, d ATP, d GTP, d TTP

Question 14.
In r DNA technology recombinant DNA is directly injected into the plant cell

1. Name the technique used
2. Can you explain two other methods for gene transfer?

Answer:
1. Microinjection.

2. Methods for gene transfer:

a. The bacterium is treated with divalent cation such as calcium which makes the bacterial cell competent to take up DNA (the pores bacterial cell wail is widened).

The recombinant DNA is forced in to the cell by incubating cells with recombined DNA on ice followed by heat shock (42YC) and then back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up recombined DNA.

b. High velocity micro particles of gold or tungsten is coated with DNA & bombarded into the cell. This method is called biolistics or gene gun.

Question 15.
A researcher in biotechnology is in need to produce insulin in large amounts as part of his study.

1. Which instrument will he select for the purpose?
2. What are the facilities in the instrument?

Answer:
1. Bioreactor.

2. A bioreactor commonly use a stirring type. It consists of cylindrical tank with a stirrer which facilitate mixing of the content of the reactor. It also facilitate oxygen availability.

An agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, temperature control system, pH control system are present in a bioreactor. Small volumes of the products are removed through sampling ports periodically.

Question 16.
In r DNA technology amplification of genetic material is important, In such a device

1. Thermostable enzyme must be used why?
2. Name it.

Answer:

1. The working of programmed cylinder for PCR requires high temperature . Hence thermostable DNA polymerase is used
2. Taq polymerase

Question 17.
It is difficult to use other bacteria instead of Agrobacterium for the transfer of desired gene into plants. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. Agrobacterium possess Ti plasmid , it has the ability to transfer gene into dicot plants through infection. Hence it is widely used in gene transfer.

Question 18.
When chromogenic substrate is added to the medium containing bacterial colonies are subjected to insertional inactivation, some appears as blue coloured and others as white coloured colonies. Give reasons.
Answer:
The colonies appears as blue coloured does not possess for eigengene they are called non-recombinants while the colonies of white coloured have foreign gene insert, they are called as recombinants.

The production of blue colour is due to the reaction between beta-galactosidase enzyme and chromogenic substrate while the white coloured colonies have no enzyme for reaction with substrate.

Question 19.
Even though salmonella, Ecoli etc. contains plasmids PBR 322 is widely used in genetic engineering. Why?
Answer:
The plasmid PBR 322 is artificial cloning vector, it possess several features such as origin of replication, selectable marker, cloning sites etc. Some features of artificial cloning vector is not found in natural plasmid. Hence PBR 322 is widely used in genetic engineering.

Question 20.
What you meant by selectable marker? Give 2 examples.
Answer:
The selectable marker is antibiotic resistant gene. Examples are ampicilin resistant and tetracycline resistant gene.

Question 21.
If RNA ase, protease, cellulaseetc are not used in the isolation of genetic materials. Find out the difficulties arise during the process of rDNA technology.
Answer:
If the above said enzymes are not used, it is difficult to get DNA in pure form for foreign gene isolation.

Question 22.
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it can’t pass through the cell membrane. How can DNA inserted into a Bacterial cell?
Answer:
Bacterial cells must have to be competent to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with calcium ions and incubating the cells and recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42_oC Then putting them back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

Question 23.
State principle underlying gel electrophoresis and mention two applications of this technique in biotechnology.
Answer:
The molecular separation in gel electrophoresis are based on gel filtration as well as electrophoretic mobilities of the molecules being separated. It is among the most powerful and yet conveniently used method of macro molecular separation.

Question 24.
How has Agrobacterium tumifaciens has been suitably modified to act as cloning vector?
Answer:
Genes are transferred from bacterium or virus to eukaryotic cells and these genes force the transformed cell to works at their will eg: Agrobacterium-mediated gene transfer.

Question 25.
How is the action of Exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
Answer:
Exonuclease removes the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules while endonuclease takes cut at specific position within a DNA molecule.

Question 26.
According to the size and charge of DNA sequence that move in an agarose gel,the smaller fragment is selected for cloning

1. Name the technique is used to’separate digested and undigested fragments
2. Which is the method used to get pure DNA fragment from agarose gel

Answer:

1. Gel electroforesis
2. Elusion

Question 27.
Why is the enzyme cellulose used for isolating genetic material from plant cells but not for animal cells?
Answer:
Due to the presence of cell wall in plants cellulose is used, whereas the animal cell lacks cell wall.

Question 28.
Following is the sequence of nucleotide in two strands of DNA .observe the strands and answer the preceding questions
5’ GAATTC 3’
3’ CTTAAG 5’

1. Name the special term used for such an arrangement of nucleotide
2. Name the special type of enzyme which work/function at this specific points
3. Name the enzyme that cut DNA between GA sequence.
4. Name the single strands produced after the action of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Palindromes
2. Restriction endonucleases
3. E co Rl
4. Sticky strands

Question 29.
DNA cutting enzymes are mainly isolated from prokaryotes

1. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. No.
2. They do not have restriction endonucleases. The eukaryotic cells have some other means of defence against viral infection, i.e., immune system.

Question 30.
Give an example of micro organisms that have transforming ability.
Answer:
A bacterium Agrobacterium tumefactions has T- DNA in its Ti-plasmid which is able to transform normal plant cells to tumour cell and cause crow gall tumours in plants.

Question 31.
‘One of the limitations of traditional hybridization is that it leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes’. How does genetic engineering help to overcome these limitations?
Answer:
In this method desirable genes/alien gene can be cut and incorporated into plasmid and thus recombinant DNA is prepared . Then introduced into the target organism.

Question 32.
In-gel electrophoresis, we cannot see pure DNA fragments in visible light and without staining. Explain how is it possible to visualize the DNA fragments?
Answer:
Staining the DNA with Ethidium bromide, followed by exposure to UV radiation.

Question 33.
Figure given below is an important technique used in genetic-engineering.

1. Identify the technique.
2. Find out the aim technique.

Answer:

1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Separation of DNA fragments

Question 34.
Match the following columns A and B suitably

A	B
i. Gel Electrophoresis	a. Continuous culture of microorganisms
ii. Microinjection	b. Amplification of genes
iii. Polymerase Chain reaction	c. Separation of DNA fragments
iv. Bioreactor	d. Precipitation of DNA fragments
	e. Direct gene transfer method

Answer:

A	B
(i)	(c)
(ii)	(e)
(iii)	(b)
(iv)	(a)

Question 35.
Given below is the diagram of a cloning vector.

1. Identify the vector
2. What do amp^R and tet^R stand for?

Answer:

1. pBR 322
2. amp^R – ampicillin resistant gene, tet^R tetracyclin resistant gene.

Question 36.
Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

1. What is a palindrome?
2. Give one example.

Answer:

1. Palindrome is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on two strands of DNA molecule
2. 5′ GAATTC 3′
3. 3′ CTTAAG 5′

Question 37.
Given below are some enzymes used for the release of DNA molecules from different types of cells. Lysozyme, chitinase, cellulose. Arrange them suitably in the columns provided below.

Answer:

Plant cells	Cellulase
Bacterial cells	Lysozyme
Fungal cells	Chitinase

Question 38.
Select markers help us in identifying and eliminating non transformed cells during gene cloning. Explain how the gene for beta-galactosidase enzyme works as a selectable marker?
Answer:
When recombinant DNA inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme beta-galactosidase, the gene for the enzyme production is removed, after this colonies are transferred into growing medium containing chromogenic substrate, non-transformed colonies give blue colour but transformed colonies not give any colour due to insertional inactivation.

Question 39.
In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. Suggest a method to make bacterial cell competent to receive DNA.
Answer:
At first, treat the cell with divalent cation like calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in the cell wall. Then incubate of cell with rDNA on ice and placing them briefly at 42° C and then putting back to ice.

Question 40.
Multiple copies of the gene of interest is synthesized in vitro using DNA polymerase enzyme.

1. Which are the three steps of the above process?
2. Find out the DNA polymerase enzyme used here.

Answer:

1. Three steps of the above process:

• Denaturation
• Annealing
• Extension

2. Thermostable DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase.

Question 41.
Bioreactors help for the large scale production of recombinant proteins.

1. Which are the two commonly used bioreactors?
2. What is the purpose of stirring mechanism in a bioreactor?

Answer:

1. Simple stirred tank bioreactor
2. Sparged stirred tank bioreactor

The stirrer facilitates mixing of content and o₂ availability.

Question 42.
Given below is the diagram of a cloning vector. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. Name the bacterium from which this vector is made?
2. What are the significances of ‘ori’ and ‘rop’ denoted in the picture?

Answer:

1. Ecoli
2. “ori”-origin of replication it is the point from which replication starts “rop”- codes for proteins involved in replication of plasmid.

Question 43.
Restriction Endonucleases are enzymes responsible for cutting of DNA molecule. Eco Rl is derived.

1. How the name Eco Rl is derived?
2. Write the palindromic sequence of Eco Rl.

Answer:
1. First letter from the genus and second two letters from the species name Letter ‘R’ is derived from the type of strain Roman number I indicates the order of discovery.

2. 5′ ………..GAATTC 3′
3’…………CTTAAG 5′

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any three uses of Gene cloning.
Answer:

1. Genes of interest can be inserted into animals, so as to produce better farm animals.
2. Desired proteins like insulin, hormones, interferons, vitamins can be manufactured in bacteria on an industrial basis.
3. Recombinant vaccines, improved antibiotics can be produced by gene cloning.

Question 2.

1. Identify the process.
2. Identify the enzymes involved in steps (ii) and (iii)
3. Write the base sequences recognised by EcoRI

Answer:
1. Recombinant DNA technology.

2. enzymes involved in steps:

• Restriction Endonuclease
• Ligase enzyme

3. sequences recognised by EcoRI:

• GAATTC
• CTTAAG

Question 3.
Vehicles which are used to transfer a gene from one cell to another is called a cloning vector. PBR 322 is a widely used cloning vector.

1. Name 2 important features that a cloning vector should possess.
2. What is the importance of Ori?

Answer:

1. Origin of replication Selectable marker
2. Origin of replication the point from which replication begins.

Question 4.
Stanley cohen and Hebert Boyer constructed r DNA by using plasmid and antibiotic-resistant gene.

1. Name the slicing and splicing enzyme used.
2. What is the significance of slicing enzyme in rDNA technology?

Answer:
1. Slicing enzyme – Restriction endo nuclease Splicing enzyme-DNA ligase

2. significance of slicing enzyme in rDNA technology:

• It is used to cut within DNA sequence.
• Same restriction enzyme is used to cut both vector DNA and foreign DNA.

Question 5.
Match the items in column A with the items of Column B.

A	B
Palindromic nucleotide sequence	Separation of DNA fragments
Restriction endonuclease	Synthesise gene product
Gel Electrophoresis	Tool of recombinant technology
Bioreactor	5′ – GAATTC- 3′, 3′ – CTTAAG- 5′
Biolistics	Cloning vector
pBR322	Method to introduce alien DNA into host

Answer:

A	B
Palindromic nucleotide sequence	5′ – GAATTC- 3′, 3′ – CTTAAG- 5‘
Restriction endonuclease	Tool of recombinant technology
Gel Electrophoresis	Separation of DNA fragments
Bioreactor	Synthesise gene product
Biolistics	Method to introduce alien DNA into host
PBR322	Cloning vector

Question 6.
Following is the sequence of nucleotide in two strands of DNA. Observe the strands and answer the preceding questions
5’ GAATTC 3’
3’ CTTAAG 5’

1. Name the special term used for such an arrangement of nucleotide
2. Name the enzyme that cut DNA between GA sequence.
3. Name the single strands produced after the action of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Palindromes
2. EcoRI
3. Sticky strands

Question 7.
Following are the various steps of recombinant DNA technology. Arrange them in correct sequential order.

i) Obtaining the foreign gene product
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
iv) Downstream processing
v) Intsertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism
vi) Isolation of genetic material
Answer:
vi) Isolation of genetic material
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell organism
i) Obtaining the foreign gene product
iv) Downstream processing

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Answer:
DNA molecules are bigger in molecular size as compared to molecular size of enzymes. It is because an enzyme (protein) is synthesized from the segment of DNA called gene.

Question 2.
What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell?
Answer:
In human being the concentration of DNA is 0.4%. It contains 6.6 × 10⁹ bp.

Question 3.
Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantage do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?
Answer:
Shake flasks are used for growing microbes and mixing the desired materials on a small scale in the lab. But the large scale production of desired bio technological product requires large stirred tank bioreactors. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, the bioreactors have following advantages –

1. It has oxygen delivery system.
2. It has foam control, temperature and P^ control system.
3. Small volumes of culture can be withdrawn periodically.

Question 4.
Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. They do not have restriction endonucleases. The eukaryotic cells have some other means of defence against viral infection ie, immune system.

Question 5.
Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?
Answer:
Pachytene stage of prophase I by crossing over.

Question 6.
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
Answer:
Reporter enzyme can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce specific color in the presence of chromogenic substrate. ArDNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme, galactosidase.

This results into inactivation f the enzyme which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue colored colonies, if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.

Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour. These are identified as recombinant colonies.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
(a) DNA ligase
(b) Endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Exonucleases
Answer:
(a) DNA ligase

Question 2.
The construction of the first recombinant DNA was done by using the native plasmid of
(a) E.coli
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) yeast
Answer:
(b) Salmonella typhimurium

Question 3.
Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 4.
One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid, the vector in genetic engineering?
(a) It is resistant to antibiotics
(b) It is resistant to restriction enzymes
(c) It has the ability to carry a foreign gene
(d) It has the ability to cause infection in the host
Answer:
(c) It has the ability to carry a foreign gene

Question 5.
A clone is
(a) heterozygote obtained asexually
(b) homozygote obtained asexually
(c) heterozygote produced by sexual methods
(d) homozygote produced by sexual methods
Answer:
(b) homozygote obtained asexually

Question 6.
In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to
(a) donor DNA is identified and picked up through eletrophoresis
(b) plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell
(c) collection of entire genome in form of plasmid
(d) enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites
Answer:
(b) plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell

Question 7.
The enzyme employed for amplification of DNA during PCR is commercially obtained from
(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Bacillus licheniformis
(c) Trichodermapallidum
(d) Thermusaquaticus
Answer:
(d) Thermusaquaticus

Question 8.
The enzyme used for annealing the cut DNA segments is
(a) DNA ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Polymerase
Answer:
(d) Polymerase

Question 9.
How does PCR serve the purpose of early diagnosis?
(a) By detecting very low amounts of DNA by amplification
(b) It is a powerful technique to identify man genetic disorders
(c) To detect mutations is genes in suspected cancerpatients
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
Enzyme used in the addition of nucleotides in DNA replication is
(a) catalase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) nuclease
(d) RNA polymrerase
Answer:
(b) DNA polymerase

Question 11.
Importance of restriction endonuclease enzyme is to cut
(a) RNA strands at specific site
(b) DNA strands at specific site
(c) Ends of DNA strands
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) DNA strands at specific site

Question 12.
Large amount of recombinant protein is produced in
(a) tissue culture
(b) bioreactor
(c) somatic hybridization
(d) genetic engineering
Answer:
(b) bioreactor

Question 13.
Polymerase enzyme in the replication process to produce 1 billion copies of DNA is
(a) RNA polymerase 1
(b) DNA polymerase 1
(c) DNA polymerase 11
(d) taq polymerase
Answer:
(d) taq polymerase

Question 14.
Digested and undigested fragments of DNA can be observed in elecrophoresis by
(a) Ethidium bromide
(b) CFC
(c) Ethidium chloride
(d) acetyl chloride
Answer:
(a) Ethidium bromide

Question 15.
In which step of DNA amplification DNA hybridization occurs
(a) denaturation
(b) extention
(c) annealing
(d) elongation
Answer:
(c) annealing

Question 16.
The plasimid of Agrobacterium is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) F1 plasmid
(c) T plasmid
(d) col E1
Answer:
(a) Ti plasmid

Question 17.
The ori of clonimg vector indicates
(a) cloning site
(b) restriction site
(c) replication site
(d) selectable marker site
Answer:
(c) replication site

Question 18.
Selectable marker of cloning vector plays an important role in
(a) identification of recombinants
(b) identification of non recombinants
(c) identification of recombinants from non recombinants
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) identification of recombinants from non recombinants

Question 19.
Coating of gold or tungsten particle with DNA is used in
(a) direct gene transfer
(b) indirect gene transfer
(c) both direct and indirect gene transfer
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) direct gene transfer

Students can Download Chapter 6 Organisms and Populations Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Organisms and Populations

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Zero growth means
(a) Natality balance mortality
(b) Natality is more than mortality
(c) Natality is less than mortality
(d) Natality is zero
Answer:
(a) Natality balance mortality

Question 2.
Different types of interactions and the nature of interactions between species A and B are given in column I and II respectively. Choose the correct answer key where they are matched.

Answer:
(c) 2 5 4 3 1

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer:
(d) Fresh weight

Question 4.
In a pond there were 200 frogs, 40 more were born in a year. Calculate the birth rate of population.
Answer:
Birth rate = 40/200 = 0.2 offspring per year.

Question 5.
What is the cause of altitude sickness at high altitudes?
Answer:
Is due to the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes that the body is unable to get enough oxygen.

Question 6.
Amensalism is an association between two species where:
(a) One species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) One species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) One species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) Both the species are harmed
Answer:
(c) One species is benefitted and other is unaffected.

Question 7.
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
(a) Shorter ears and longer limbs
(b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(c) longer ears and longer limbs
(d) shorter ears and shorter limbs
Answer:
(c) longer ears and longer limbs

Question 8.
Lichens are the association of:
(a) bacteria and fungus
(b) algae and bacterium
(c) fungus and algae
(d) fungus and virus
Answer:
(c) fungus and algae

Question 9.
Salt concentration (Salinity) of the sea measured in parts perthousand is:
(a) 10-15
(b) 30-75
(c)  0-5
(d) 30-35
Answer:
(d) 30-35

Question 10.
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
(a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm
(b) 5-15°C and 50-100 cm
(c) 30-50°C and 100-150 cm
(d) 5-15°C and 100-200 cm
Answer:
(a) 18-25°C and 150 – 400 cm

Question 11.
Observe the following statements. Select the correct one.
(a) Temperature increases progressively from equator towards the poles and from plain to mountain tops.
(b) Temperature is sub-zero level in polar areas and high altitude and increases to above 50°c in tropical desert in summer.
(c) In unique habitats such as thermal springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents average temperatures exceed 20°c.
(d) Mango trees grow in temperate countries like Canada and Germany.
Answer:
(a) Temperature is sub-zero level in polar areas and high altitude and increases to above 50°c in tropical desert in summer.

Question 12.
Cuscuta and vanda are growing on a mango tree. Which plant makes harm to the mango tree. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Cuscuta makes harm, it is a parasite that derives its nutrition from the host plant.

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not related to competition.
(a) Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting.
(b) Unrelated species also compete for same resources.
(c) Even if resources are abundant, the feeding effect of one species might be reduced due to the interfering and inhibitory presence of other species.
(d) Calotropis. growing in abandoned fields is an example of competition.
Answer:
(d) Calotropis growing in abandoned fields is an example of competition.

Question 14.
Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and meals. Identify the correct statements related to parasites.
(a) Parasites are not host specific and co-evolved.
(b) Parasites have special adaptations like loss of unnecessary sense organs, presence of suckers, loss of digestive systems, high reproductive capacity.
(c) Lice is an endoparasite.
(d) The female mosquito is a parasite.
Answer:
a, b.

Question 15.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks. Hibernation: Bear;……….: Snail
Answer:
Aestivation.

Question 16.
Read the statements properly and choose the correct one.
(a) Many desert plants have CAM pathway that enables their stomata to remain open during day time.
(b) In Opuntia, leaf reduced into green flattened structure.
(c) Kangaroo rat in North American deserts is capable of meeting all water requirements through the protein oxidation.
(d) Mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs.
Answer:
(d) Mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a biotic community initially the population size was 250 during the year 2005 after a period of time 130 animals died of forest fire 20 were nearly born. During the next winter season 20 animals immigrated. Find out the change in population size.
Answer:
Nt = No + B + I – D + E
Therefore Nt = 250+ 20+ 20- 130 + 40
= 290- 170= 120

Question 2.
Some organism are different intheirtoleration level to temperature fluctuations

1. Name the type of organism that can tolerate wide range of temperature variation especially in increased global temperature?
2. Name the other type organisms restricted to narrow range.

Answer:

1. Eurythermal species,
2. Stenothermal.

Question 3.
In desert condition water availability very low hence normal plants cannot withstand. What are the adaptations are desert plants.
Answer:

1. Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces
2. Stomata arranged in deep pits to minimise water loss through transpiration.
3. They show CAM pathway (they open stomata during night and closed during day time)
4. Opuntia, their leaves are reduced to spines and the flattened stems do photosynthesis.

Question 4.
In extreme summer and winter certain animals like frogs and lizard abandon their active life. This is popularly known as summer sleep and winter sleep respectively. Write down the technical term for summer sleep and winter sleep.
Answer:

• Summer sleep – Aestivation
• Winter sleep – Hibernation

Question 5.
What you meant by resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
Answer:
If two species compete for the same resource, they avoid competition by choosing different times for feeding or different foraging patterns.This is called resource partitioning.

Question 6.
Camouflaging is a method adopted by prey to lessen effect of predatien in animals. List out some mechanisms seen in plant species.
Answer:
Plants have evolved a variety of morphological and chemical defences against their predators (herbi-vores).

1. Thorns in plants are morphological means of defence.
2. Plants produce and store chemicals that make the herbivore sick. Eg: Glycosides, Quinine, Caf¬feine, Opuim etc.

Question 7.
Gause proposed the Competitive Exclusion Principle in 1934.

1. Define it
2. Give an example.

Answer:
1. Competitive Exclusion Principle states that the closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely The competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

2. Abingdon tortoise compete with goats in galapagos island for same food source and tortoise became extinct.

Question 8.
Many tribes living in high altitudes of Himalayas have higher red blood cell count.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reason

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In high altitudes there is low oxygen availability. The tribes having high RBC production since the binding capacity of RBC with 02 decreases and ultimately results in high breathing rate.

Question 9.
Tribalsin high altitude are difficult to live in the initial phase of colonization but after few days they are adapted to live.

1. Write down 2 adaptations they developed
2. Name two disease symptoms in low 02 and atmospheric pressure conditions

Answer:
1. 2 adaptations they developed:

• increase RBC production
• increase breathing rate

2. nausea, fatigue.

Question 10.
The relationship between cattle egret and grazing cattle is considered as commensalism. Justify.
Answer:
Cattle egret gets food in the form of insects when the grazing cattle flushes out insects from the vegetation as it moves during grazing. The egret is benefited but there is no harm for the cattle.

Question 11.
Abingdon tortoise and goats are compete with each other in Galapagos Islands for common food finally one of them is eliminated.

1. Name the principle proposed by Gause to explain the elimination of one species due to other
2. Suggest one important method to reduce competition

Answer:

1. competitive exclusion principle
2. resource partitioning

Question 12.
Thermoregulation is expensive to small animals like Shrews and Hummingbirds live in colder climates. Do you agree? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes
Their body surface area is large compared to body volume, hence they have to spend more energy to increase metabolic rate when cold outside for producing more heat.

Question 13.
Ophrys is a Mediterranean orchid it’s petals shows resemblance to female be in colour size and markings but a male bee come into the flower and pollinate

1. Name the sexual deciet between male bees and orchid
2. Which is the interaction used to explain pollination method mentioned above

Answer:

1. pseudocopulation
2. mutualism

Question 14.
In sample A population growth under abandoned food supply violin sample B population growth under reduced food supply.

1. Name the two types of growth occurs in sample A and sample B
2. What will be the shape of curve get in sample A and sample B population

Answer:

1. In sample A exponential growth, in sample B Logistic growth
2. In sample A- J shaped, In sample B- S shaped

Question 15.
dN/dt = (b-d) × N
Let (b-d) = r, then
dN/dt = rN

1. What does r indicate in the above equation?
2. Which parameter is chosen for assessing impact of any biotic or abiotic factor on population growth?

Answer:

1. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
2. r parameter

Question 16.
Use proper terms of the statement given below.

1. Few organisms can tolerate and thrive in wide range of temperature.
2. Some organisms are tolerant to a narrow range of salinities.
3. The organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment.
4. The organism may move temporarily from the stressful habitats to more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over.

Answer:

1. Eurythermal
2. Stenothermal
3. Homeostasis
4. Migrate

Question 17.
The integral form of the exponential growth equation is Nt = N₀e^rt. Expand the symbols in this equation.
Answer:

• Nt – Population density at time t
• No – Population density at time 0
• r – Intrinsic rate of natural increase
• e – base of natural logarithms.

Question 18.
In rocky intertidal communities of the American Pacific Coast the starfish Pisasterwere removed for an experimental purpose.

1. How did this affect the invertebrates in that region?
2. List out the important role of predators in nature.

Answer:
1. Pisaster is an important predator in the intertidal area. When Pisasters were removed, more than 10 invertebrate species became extinct because of interspecific competition.

2. important role of predators in nature:

• Predation helps to transfer energy to higher trohpic level from plants,
• Agricultural pest control or biological control is based on the ability of predator that important in regulating prey population.

Question 19.
Match A with B based on mutualism.

A	B
Lichen	Wasp
Mycorrhiza	Ophrys
Fig tree	Cyanobacteria
Sexual deceit	Fungi

Answer:

• Lichen – cyanobacteria
• Mycorrhiza – fungi
• Fig tree – Wasp
• Sexual deceit – Ophrys

Question 20.
Define commensalism and write any two examples.
Answer:
Interaction in which one species benefited and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
Example – Cattle egret and grazing cattle Sea anemone and clownfish.

Question 21.
Adaptations may be morphological, physiological or behavioural. Write the behavioural adaptations in desert lizard.
Answer:
Desert lizards bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone They move into shade when the temperature starts increasing.

Question 22.
Interaction between sea anemone and clown fish is termed as commensalism. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:
Sea anemone has stining tentacles and the clown fish lives among them, In this interaction the fish get protection from predators which stay away from the stinging tentacles but sea anemone does not derive any benefit or harm by hosting the clown fish.

Question 23.
Competition causes extinction of species. Substantiate this statement based on the extinction of Abingdon tortoise.
Answer:
A bingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct due to the introduction of goat on the island because goats have greater browsing efficiency than tortoise. Due to the lack of food tortoise became extinct.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Given below is the bar diagram showing the age structure of three countries. Answer the following questions by analyzing the diagram.

1. Which country has the highest population?
2. Which country has declining population?
3. One of the countries has a stable population. Explain.

Answer:

1. A has the highest population
2. C has declining population
3. B has stable population. In this population reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are more or less same. Hence it is stable.

Question 2.
Population growth curves (two types are given: observing the graph answer the following questions).

1. Identify the curves a & b.
2. Explain the signficance of K.
3. Which population growth has limited food supply?

Answer:

1. Curve ‘a’ is exponential growth curve and b is logistic growth curve.
2. K is the carrying capacity. Beyond K no further growth of population is possible.
3. Logistic growth

1. Name A, B and C pyramids.
2. Which one is ideal for a population. Suggest reason.
3. How does such age pyramids help policy makers of the country.

Answer:
1. Name A, B and C pyramids:

• Expaning
• Stable
• Declining

2. Expanding
Pre reproductive individuals are more in number than reproductive and post-reproductive.

3. It reflects the growth status

Question 4.
Scientist paul Ehrlich and Peter Raven developed the concept of co-evolution.

1. Give an example for co-evolution.
2. How did they show mutualistic association.
3. Name the mutualistic relationship shown by male bee and ophrys petal.

Answer:
1. Wasp and fig tree.

2. The female wasp lays its egg in the ovary locule and uses the developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg laying sites.

3. Pseudocopulation

Question 5.
Analyze the given graph which represents the population growth curve.

1. Which growth curves do ‘a’ and ‘b’ indicate?
2. Suggest an equation for ‘b’.
3. What parameters are required for calculating current r-value?

Answer:
1. growth curves do ‘a’ and ‘b’ indicate

• Exponential growth curve
• logistic growth curve

2. \(\frac{\mathrm{d}\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{rN}\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right)\)

3. Current birth rate and death rate.

Question 6.
Observe the flow chart given below and answer the following questions.

1. Identify I, B, D and E.
2. Write the equation for population density.
3. B and I are positive, D and E are negative about population. Suggest reason.

Answer:
1. Identify I, B, D and E:

• l-Immigration
• D-Mortality
• B-Natality
• E-Emigration

2. N_t+1 = Nt + [(B+1)-(D + E)]

3. N and I are natality and immigration – Both contribute an increase in population density. D and E are mortality and emigration – Both contribute to decrease in population.

Question 7.
Analyse the given graph and answer the following questions.

1. Label a, b, c.
2. How a differs from b?

Answer:
1.

• Conformers
• Regulators
• Partial regulators

2.

• Organism Cannot maintain constant internal environment.
• Organism can maintain constant internal environment through thermoregulation and osmoregulation.

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
(a) Mutualism
(b) Competition
(c) Predation
(d) Parasitism
(e) Commensalism
(f) Amensalism

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define phenotypic adaption. Give one example.
Answer:
Phenotypic adaptions are acquired non-genetic changes in individuals such as physiological modification, acclimatization or behavioural changes.

For examples, if a person has ever been to any high altitude, on visiting such as place he or she must have altitude sickness because body does not get enough oxygen. But gradually he or she gets acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness.

Question 2.
Most living organisms cannot survive at temperature above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperature exceeding 100°C?
Answer:
The microbes of high temperature area are known as thermo-acidophiles. They are able to survive at high temperature through.

1. Reduction in amount of free water.
2. Occurrence of branched chain lipids that reduce fluidity of cell membranes.

Question 3.
List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Answer:

• Population density.
• Natality or birth rate.
• Mortality or death rate.
• Population growth.
• Sex ratio.
• Age distribution.

Question 4.
If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population?
Answer:
N_t = N₀ e^rt
Since N_t = 2; N0 = 1, e = 2.71828 ; t = 3
2 = (1 × 2.71828)^3r
Log 2 = 3 r log (2.71828)
0.3010 = 3 r × 0.4343
r= 0.2310
Intrinsic rate of increase=23.1 %.

Question 5.
Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory?
Answer:
Leaves modified into thorns, development of spiny margins on the leaves. Many plants produce and store chemicals that make the herbivore sick.

eg: calotropis produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides. Some other chemical substances like nicotine, quinine, opium etc are produced by plants and provide defence against grazing animals.

Question 6.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction?
Answer:
It is an example of commensalism, where the or-chid gets space (benefitted) but the mango tree is neither benefited nor harmed.

Question 7.
What is the ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects?
Answer:
The ecological principle behind the biological control of pest insects is based on the ability of predator to regulate prey population in that habitat. For example Gambusia fish prey upon the larvae of mosquito and acts as biological controller of malaria.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The niche of a population is defined as
(a) set of condition that interacts
(b) place where it lives
(c) set of conditions and resources it uses
(d) geographical’ area that it covers
Answer:
(c) set of conditions and resources it uses

Question 2.
Competition for food, light and space is most severe between two
(a) closely related species growing in different niches
(b) distantly related species growing in different niches
(c) closely related species growing in same niches
(d) distantly related species growing in same niches
Answer:
(c) closely related species growing in same niches

Question 3.
An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
Answer:
(a) low stability and high resilience

Question 4.
Assertion :Predaton is an interspecific ineraction with I a feeding strategy.
Reason : Predation and their prey maintain fairly stable population become abundant or scarce.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 5.
The assemblage of all the populations of different species that function as an Integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is Called
(a) biome
(b) biotic community
(c) population
(d) ecosystem
Answer:
(b) biotic community

Question 6.
A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this
I) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizers were used in the crops in the vicinity.
II) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
III) The lake water turned green and stinky.
IV Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis. Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake?
(a) II, III
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III
(d) I, II
Answer:
(d) I, II

Question 7.
In commensalism
(a) both partners are harmed
(b) weaker partner is benefitted
(c) both partners are benefitted
(d) None of the partners is benefited
Answer:
(b) weaker partner is benefitted

Question 8.
If the strong partner is benefitted and the weak partner is damaged. It is known as
(a) predation
(b) alleloathy
(c) symbiosis
(d) commensalisms
Answer:
(a) predation

Question 9.
Competition of species leads to
(a) extinction
(b) mutation
(c) greater number of niches are formed
(d) symbiosis
Answer:
(a) extinction

Question 10.
Which of the following statement regarding species interdependence are true?
I. An association of two species where one is benefitted and other remain unaffected is called mutualism.
II. An interspecific association where both partners derive benefit from each other is called commensalism.
III. A direct food relation between two species of animals in which one animals kills and feeds on another is referred as predation.
IV. A relationship between two of organisms where both the partners are benefitted from each other is called symbiosis.
(a) I and II only
(b) III and IV only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only
Answer:
(b) III and IV only

Question 11.
In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age group as a result of
(a) Short life span of many individuals and low birth rate
(b) Short life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(c) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(d) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate
Answer:
(b) Short life span of many individuals and high birth rate

Question 12.
Ratio between mortality and natality is
(a) population ratio
(b) census proportion
(c) vital index
(d) density coefficient
Answer:
(c) vital index

Question 13.
The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in number during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(b) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(c) Its population growth curve is of type
(d) The population of its predators increases enormously
Answer:
(c) Its population growth curve is of type

Question 14.
The annual variations in temperature results distinct seasons, these variations together with annual variation in precipitation leads to
(a) rain forest
(b) deserts ,
(c) lake
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 15.
Few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures they are called as
(a) eurythermal
(b) stenothermal
(c) euryhaline
(d) stenohaline
Answer:
(a) eurythermal

Question 16.
The type of benthic animals in ocean is determined by
(a) pH of water
(b) mineral composition
(c) sediment characteristics
(d) dissolved CO„ level
Answer:
(c) sediment characteristics

Question 17.
Important characteristics of mammals live in Antarctica or in the Sahara desert have
(a) osmoregulation
(b) thermoregulation
(c) thermoperiodicity
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 18.
The Smaller animals have a larger surface area, so they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. This result in spending
(a) much energy for catabolism
(b) much energy for catabolism and anabolism
(c) low energy for catabolism
(d) much energy for anabolism
Answer:
(b) much energy for catabolism and anabolism

Question 19.
The Keolado National Park in Rajasthan host many
(a) bat population from warmer countries
(b) bird population from warmer countries
(c) bird population from winter countries
(d) bat population from winter countries
Answer:
(c) bird population from winter countries

Question 20.
Mammals of colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is come under
(a) Allen’s Rule
(b) bergmans rule
(c) jordans rule
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Allen’s Rule

Question 21.
The number of births plus the number of immigrants is the major component in determining the
(a) density of population
(b) sex ratio
(c) age distribution
(d) species composition
Answer:
(a) density of population

Question 22.
If the resources in the habitat are unlimited, this results in the population have
(a) s- shaped curve
(b) j shaped curve
(c) parabolic curvature
(d) linear curve
Answer:
(b) j shaped curve

Question 23.
The equation dN/dt = rN(K-N/K) is represented as
(a) logistic population growth
(b) exponential population growth K
(c) Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Students can Download Chapter 7 Microbes in Human Welfare Questions and Answers, Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Microbes in Human Welfare

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following plants is used as biofertilizer?
(a) Nostoc
(b) Funaria
(c) Volvox
(d) Rhizopus
Answer:
(a) Nostoc

Question 2.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel
(a) bio-metallurgical technique
(b) bio-mineralisation processes
(c) bio-insecticidal plants
(d) bio-fertilizers
Answer:
(c) bio-insecticidal plants

Question 3.
Cyclosporin A obtained from
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) nematode
(d) virus
Answer:
(b) fungi

Question 4.
Swiss cheese’ with large holes are due to production of a large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium named
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii.
(b) Penicillium notatum
(c) Streptococcus
(d) Monascus purpureus
Answer:
(a) Propionibacterium sharmanii

Question 5.
Clostridium butylicum produces
(a) butyric acid
(b) acetic acid
(c) aspartic acid
(d) lactic acid
Answer:
(a) butyric acid

Question 6.
Note the relationship between first two words and suggest suitable word for the fourth place. Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid, Aspergillus niger – ……..acid.
Answer:
(a) Citric acid

Question 7.
Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures in secondary treatment in sewage plants. What is it called?
Answer:
Floes

Question 8.
Biogas is a terminology that we hear in our day to day life. Name the gases produced in biogas plant.
Answer:
Methane, CO₂, H₂

Question 9.
………..Is called brewer’s yeast, which is used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices to produce ethanol.
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Clostridium butylicum
(c) Trichodermapolysporum
(d) Penciliumnotatum
Answer:
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Question 10.
Over use of chemical fertilizers harmfully affect the environment and human survival. Make discussion . points to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
Organic farming and use of biofertilizers.

Question 11.
Biogas is a terminology that we hear in our day to day life. Name the gases produced in biogas plant.
Answer:
Methane, CO₂, H₂

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the name of the microbes from which Cyclosporin A (An Immunosuppressive drug) and statins (Blood cholesterol-lowering agent) are obtained.
Answer:

• Cyclosporin A-Trichoderma polysporum
• Statins – Monascus purpureus

Question 2.
The dough which is used for making foods such as dosa and idli give a puffed-up appearance.

1. What is the prodess involved here?
2. Name the gas produced?

Answer:

1. Fermentation
2. CO₂

Question 3.
Microbes synthesis a number of industrial product like beverages and antibiotics.

1. Name the microbes involved in the production of beverages.
2. Classify the types of alcoholic drinks based on raw material and processing.

Answer:

1. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (Brewer’s yeast)
2. Alcoholic drinks without distillation – Wine and Beer Alcoholicdrinkswith distillation-Whisky, brandy, rum.

Question 4.
Identify the microorganism.

1. Symbiotic association with roots of leguminous plant.
2. Microbe responsible for the preparation of dough.
3. Bacteria used in the production of biogas.
4. Microbes responsible for the conversion of milk to curd.

Answer:

1. Rhizobium
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Methanobacterium
4. Lactobacillus

Question 5.
Your family has decided to minimize the use of LPG (Liquid petroleum gas). List out the steps that you would adopt to install a biogas plant at your house premises.
Answer:

1. A concrete tank in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung is fed.
2. A floating cover over the slurry.
3. An outlet connected to pipe to supply biogas.
4. Another outlet to remove spent slurry to be used as fertiliser.

Question 6.
BOD testing is widely used in detecting the polluting potential of different water sources. How BOD helps in analysing the polluting potential? BOD is the measure of organic matter in the water. The greater the BOD of wastewater more is its polluting potential.
Answer:
Auto immune response
Eg: Rhuematoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis.

Question 7.
Microbes play an important role in production of biogas.

1. Name the group of bacteria, which produce biogas. Give an example.
2. Which are the common habitat of these bacteria.

Answer:

1. The bacteria are collectively called methanogens. Eg: Methanobacterium
2. Methanogens are commonly found in, Anaerobic sludge Rumen of cattle, Cattle dung, etc.

Question 8.
In sewage treatment floes play a major role.

1. What are floes?
2. State their role in effluent treatment and their ultimate fate in sewage treatment tank.

Answer:

1. Floes are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures.
2. Floes consume the organic matter in the effluent and reduces the BOD. Then the effluent passed into settling tank, where floes are allowed to sediment forming activated sludge.

Question 9.
In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention some of their useful applications.
Answer:
In curd Other Applications are,

1. Increases nutritional quality
2. Checking disease-causing microbes

Question 10.
Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides? Explain how this is accomplished.
Answer:
By switch to organic farming using biofertilizers like bacteria, fungi, and cyanobacteria.
Eg: Rhizobium, Glomus, Anabaena, Nostoc etc.

Question 11.
A person has suffered a heart attack due to a floating clot in his coronary artery.

1. Name the bacterium that can save him.
2. Mention its product and its action.

Answer:

1. Strep to cocus
2. Strep to kinase. It is a clot-buster

Question 12.
“Biogas become popular on now a days as a source of energy.” Mention the merits of Biogas.
Answer:

• Clean & Ecofriendly fuel
• Produce fewer pollutants
• Can be easily stored and transported
• Recycling ensures
• Renewable energy.

Question 13.
Microbes play a dual role when used for sewage treatment as they not only help to retrieve usable water but also generate fuel. Write the points how this happens.
Answer:
Heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage are used. Vigorous growth of aerobic microbes as floes use up organic matter in effluent and reduce BOD of waste water.

Other kinds of bacteria grow in it anaerobically and digest the bacteria and fungi called floes. As they digest floes, as mixture of CH₄, H₂S and CO₂ (biogas) are evolved, which can be used as a fuel.

Question 14.
Common yeast is known as Baker’s yeast and also as Brewer’s yeast. Justify.
Answer:
Common yeast is employed in the fermentation of

1. Dough, used for making bread, cakes in bakeries.
2. Fruit juices and malt in breweries for the production of alcoholic beverages: hence it is known as both as baker’s and brewer’s yeast.

Question 15.
What is the difference in production of wine and whisky?
Answer:
Wine is produced without distillation while whisky is produced by distillation.

Question 16.
Match column A with column B and column C

Answer:

Question 17.
Milk is converted to curd by the action of micro organisms

1. Name the microorganism that convert milk to curd.
2. Explain the superior nutritional quality of curd over milk.

Answer:

1. LAB (Lactic Acid Bacteria)
2. Increasing Vit. B₁₂, Check disease-causing microbes in stomach.

Question 18.
Ramu likes fresh juices than bottled juices

1. As a plus two biology student, give your opinion about his habit.
2. Why bottled juices are clearer than fresh juices? Critically evaluate its harmful effects.

Answer:

1. bottled juice is not good for health,
2. Use of Pectinase and Protease make clear solutions. It contains large number of preservatives and other chemicals.

Question 19.
Swiss cheese contains large holes

1. Describe the formation of large holes in cheese
2. Name the end product of the process mentioned

Answer:

1. Production of large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium called Propionibacterium sharmanii during fermentation
2. CO₂

Question 20.
Farmers cultivate pea plant as an intermediate crop in the paddy fields. After harvesting they remove all parts of the pea plant from their crop land

1. Do you think the action of removing all parts of the pea plant from the field is a good agricultural practice.
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. No,
2. The root nodules of leguminous plants(Pea plant) have symbiotic association of Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen which is used by the plant as nutrient.

Question 21.
Many pathogenic microbes and large amounts of organic matter are found in sewage.

1. During sewage treatment primary sludge is produced. Define Primary sludge.
2. Compare it with activated sludge.

Answer:

1. All solids that settle during primary treatment are called primary sludge.
2. During secondary treatment the effluent is passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘floes’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.

Question 22.
The untreated sewage when discharged directly into rivers cause aquatic pollution and spread various diseases. Suggest suitable remedies to overcome the problem. Give emphasis on Ganga action plan and Yamuna action plan.
Answer:
The aim of Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan is to save major rivers of our country from pollution. These plan is proposed to set up of sewage treatment plants and discharge less polluted water into the rivers.

This helped to avoid many water-borne diseases and through which major rivers can be conserved.

Question 23.
“BOD is commonly calculated as an index of water pollution”.

1. Do you agree with the statement? Why?
2. Expand BOD.

Answer:

1. Yes, BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro organisms in a sample of water, indirectly. BOD is the measure of the organic matter present in water.
2. biochemical oxygen demand.

Question 24.
Expand the terms given below.

• KVIC
• IARI

Answer:

• KVIC: Khadi and Village Industries Commission
• IARI: Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Question 25.
Today we cannot imagine a world without antibiotics.

1. Define antibiotics?
2. Name the first antibiotic to be discovered.

Answer:

1. Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by some microbes and can kill or retard the growth of other disease-causing microbes.
2. Penicillin

Question 26.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Microbes	Acids/Uses
Aceto bacter aceti	Acetic acid
Methano bacterium	Biogas
Lactobacillus	Lactic acid
Penicillium notatum	Penicillin

Question 27.
Your local self-government is newly introducing a project on waste management and installing Biogas plants at all homes. As a plus two biology student, briefly explain the working of biogas plant.
Answer:
The biogas plant consists of a concrete tank (10-15 feet deep) in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung is fed.

The biogas plant has an outlet, which is connected to a pipe to supply biogas to nearby houses. The spent slurry is removed through another outlet and used as fertiliser. The biogas thus produced is used for cooking and lighting.

Question 28.
Farmers cultivate pea plant as an intermediate crop in the paddy fields. After harvesting they remove all parts of the pea plant from their crop land

1. Do you think the action of removing all parts of the pea plant from the field is a good agricultural practice.
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. No,
2. The root nodules of leguminous plants(Pea plant) have symbiotic association of Rhizobium. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen which is used by the plant as nutrient.

Question 29.
Many pathogenic microbes and large amounts of organic matter are found in sewage.

1. During sewage treatment primary sludge is produced. Define Primary sludge.
2. Compare it with activated sludge.

Answer:

1. All solids that settle during primary treatment are called primary sludge.
2. During secondary treatment the effluent is passed into a settling tank where the bacterial ‘floes’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge.

Question 30.
The untreated sewage when discharged directly into rivers cause aquatic pollution and spread various diseases. Suggest suitable remedies to overcome the problem. Give emphasis on Ganga action plan and Yamuna action plan.
Answer:
The aim of Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan is to save major rivers of our country from pollution. These plan is proposed to set up of sewage treatment plants and discharge less polluted water into the rivers.

This helped to avoid many water – borne diseases and through which major rivers can be conserved.

Question 31.
Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water, and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B, and C, but the Laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B, and C were recorded as 20mg/L, 8 mg/L, and 400 mg/L, respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted? Why?
Answer:
The sample C is more polluted. So the bottle labelled C was untreated sewage water, because it has the highest BOD 400mg/L.

BOD is a measure of organic matter present in water. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its
polluting potential.

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match column A with column B and column C

Answer:

Question 2.
Name the household products, the following microbes help to produce.

1. LAB
2. Saccharomyces cerevisae
3. Propionibacteriumsharmanii

Answer:

1. LAB – Curd
2. Saccharonyces cerevisiae (Baker’s yeast) – Bread
3. Propionibacterium Sharmanii – Swiss cheese

Question 3.
One of the most significant discoveries of the twentieth century was the production of antibiotics from microbes.

1. How will you define antibiotic?
2. Name the first antibiotic and who discovered it?
3. Name some deadly diseases which can be treated by antibiotics.

Answer:

1. Antibiotics is a chemical substance produced by some microbes and can kill or retard the growth of other disease-causing microbes.
2. Alexander Fleming discovered the first antibiotic Penicillin, while working on Staphylococcus bacteria.
3. Plague, Whooping cough, Diphtheria, Leprosy, etc.

Question 4.
Match the following.

Microbe	Use
a. Penicillium notatum	Biogas
b. Methano bacterium	Penicillin
c. Monascus purpureus	Biofertilizer
d. Nostoc	Cholesterol-lowering
e. Bacillus thuringiensis	Immune suppressive agent
f. Trichoderma polysporum	Biological control

Answer:

Microbe	Use
a. Penicillium  notatum	Penicillin
b. Methano bacterium	Biogas
c. Monascus purpureus	Cholesterol lowering
d. Nostoc	Biofertilizer
e. Bacillus thuringiensis	Biological control
f. Trichoderma polysporum	Immune suppressive agent

Question 5.
Many microbes are used for the commercial production of chemicals, acids, enzymes, etc.
1. Give examples for acid-producing microbes and the acids.
2. Name the enzymes produced by microbes and their use.
3. What are

• Cyclosporin A
• Statins

Answer:
1.

• Aspergillusniger(fungus)-Citric acid
• Acetobacter aceti (Bacterium) – Acetic acid
• Clostridium butylicum (Bacterium) – Butyric acid
• Lactobacillus (Bacterium) – Lactic acid

2.

• Lipases – In detergents for removing oily stains from the laundry.
• Pectinases (and Proteases) – clearing bottled juices.
• Streptokinase – As ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from blood vessels of heart patients

3.

• Cyclosporin A is a bioactive molecule used as an immuno suppressive agent in organ transplant patients. It is produced by a fungus Trichoderma polysporum.
• Statins are blood-cholesterol lowering agents produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus.

Question 6.
Microbes play a major role in the treatment of sewage, which is a main cause of pollution. Some terms related to sewage treatment are given. What are they?

1. Sewage
2. B.O.D.
3. Floes

Answer:
1. Sewage is the muncipal waster water generated in cities and towns everyday, which contains large amount of organic matter and pathogenic microbes.

2. Biological Oxygen Demand (B.O.D) refers to the amount of 02 that would be consumed, if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidized by bacteria.

3. Floes are masses of bacteria associated with fun-gal filaments to form mesh like structures.

Question 7.
Microbes are widely applied as biocontrol agents in biological farming approach.

1. What is Biocontrol?
2. What is the advantage of this over conventional chemical methods?
3. Give two examples for biocontrol.

Answer:
1. Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.

2. Chemicals like insecticides and pesticides are toxic and extremely harmful to human beings and animals. They also pollute the environment. Use of biocontrol measures reduce the dependence on toxic chemicals.

3.

• Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)
• Trichoderma

Question 8.
A part of the flow chart showing sewage treatment is given below. Complete it with other steps involved in sewage treatment.

Answer:

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage treatment?
Answer:
Primary treatment involves the removal of large sized floating and suspended solids by physical methods, while secondary treatment involves decomposition of organic matter by microbial action.

Question 2.
Do you think microbes can also be used as source of energy? If yes, How?
Answer:
Yes.
The microbes present in activated sludge are digested an aerobically to generate an inflammable biogas or gobar gas which is used as source of energy.

Question 3.
Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished?
Answer:
By the use of biofertilizers and biological pest control method. The use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides can be reduced.

The fertility of the soil depends not only on its chemical composition but also on the presence of useful microbes in it, which enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main source of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.

Question 4.
Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water, and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were labeled A. B. and C, but the laboratory attendant did not which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B, and c were recorded as 20 mg/L. 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each assuming the river water is relatively clean?
Answer:

1. Sample A-Secondary effluent
2. Sample B – River Water
3. Sample C – Untreated Sewage water.

Question 5.
Find out the name of the microbes from which cyclosporine A and Statins are obtained.
Answer:

1. Cyclosporin A-Trichoderma Polysporum (a fungus)
2. Statins – Monascus Purpureus (a yeast)

Question 6.
Find out the role of microbes in the following and discuss it with your teacher –

1. Single-cell protein (SCP)
2. Soil.

Answer:
1. SCP:-
It is protein-rich microbial biomass which can be used as food and feed. It has low-fat content. The common SCP are Spirulina. Yeast and Fusarium graminearum.

2. Soil:-
Microbes play an important role in decomposition of organic matter and thus cause mineralization of the soil. The are used as biofertilizers and biopesticides.

Question 7.
Arrange the following in the decreasing order (most important first) of their importance, for the welfare of human society. Give reasons for your answer, Biogas, citric acid, Penicillin, and curd.
Answer:
Penicillin, biogas, curd, critic acid. penicillin fan antibiotic is used to cure a number of bacterial diseases.

Question 8.
Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes but can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope, which sample would you carry and why?
Answer:
Bacteria can be grown and multiplied on nutritive culture media in aseptic conditions to form colonies which can be transported from the home to biology laboratory where these can be demonstrated under a microscope. In homes easily available source of microbial culture is curd. It is with Lactic acid bacteria.

Question 9.
Give examples to prove that microbes release gases during metabolism.
Answer:
1. Puffing up of dough, during making of dosa, idli or bread, is due to production of CO₂ gas during the fermentation process.

2. Appearance of large holes in “swiss cheese” is due to C0₂ produced during fermentation by the bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

3. During secondary treatment of sewage in sewage treatment plants, a number of gases like methane, H₂S and CO₂ are produced during microbial digestion of organic compounds.

4. Methanogens(e.g. Methano bacterium) present in the rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle are being used in biogas plants to produce biogas as energy source.

Question 10.
In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention some of their useful applications.
Answer:
1. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) are commonly found in milk and under suitable condition, these multiply and produce acids which coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins and change the milk into curd.

2. LAB are also found in the human stomach where these prevent the growth of certain disease-causing microbes.

Question 11.
In which way microbes have played a major role in controlling diseases caused by harmful bacteria?
Answer:
Antibiotics are the chemical substances which are derived from certain useful microbes and are employed to kill or retard the growth of disease-causing microbes.

So antibiotics are being used in controlling a number of bacterial diseases like cholera, pneumonia, typhoid, syphilis, whooping cough, diphtheria, etc.

Question 12.
Name any two species of fungus, which are used in the production of the antibiotics.
Answer:

Question 13.
Name some traditional Indian foods made of wheat, rice and Bengal gram (or their products) which involve using microbes.
Answer:

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following was used as a bioweapon agent in America?
(a) Botulinuni
(b) Anthrax (Bacillus anathracis)
(c) Polio vims
(d) AIDS virus
Answer:
(b) Anthrax (Bacillus anathracis)

Question 2.
During an aerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which one of the following is left undegraded?
(a) Hernicellulose
(b) Cellulose
(c) Lipids
(d) Lignin
Answer:
(d) Lignin

Question 3.
Azolla is used as a biofertilizer because it
(a) multiplies very fast to produce massive bio
(b) has association of nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium
(c) has association of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
(d) has association of Mycorrhiza
Answer:
(c) has association of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria

Question 4.
Which is a bioinsecticide?
(a) cactoblastis cactorum
(b) Anabaena
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 5.
One of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pest is that
(a) the method is less effective as compared with the us of insecticides
(b) the predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment
(c) the predator develops a preference to other diets may itself become a pest
(d) the practical difficulty of introducing the predat specific area
Answer:
(b) the predator does not always survive when transferred to a new environment

Question 6.
Biogas is pathogen-free because
(a) anaerobic digestion removes pathogens and bacteria
(b) it is toxic to pathogens
(c) during decomposition, it produces antibiotics
(d) cattle dung is pathogen-free
Answer:
(c) during decomposition, it produces antibiotics

Question 7.
Green manures are prepared from
(a) Saccharum officinarum
(b) Zea mays
(c) Crotalariajuncea
(d) Sorghum Vulgare.
Answer:
(c) Crotalariajuncea

Question 8.
Insecticide obtained from neem plant is
(a) pyrethrin
(b) pyrethroid
(c) thiocarbamate
(d) azadirachtin
Answer:
(d) azadirachtin

Question 9.
Biogas production from waste biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria is
(a) multi-step process
(b) one-step process
(c) two-step process.
(d) three-step process
Answer:
(a) multi-step process

Question 10.
From which one of the following plants, the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared?
(a) Vetivera
(b) Cymbopogon
(c) Chrysanthemum
(d) 7ephrosia
Answer:
(c) Chrysanthemum

Question 11.
lPM (Integrated Pest Management) involves
(a) tissue culture
(b) biological control
(c) biofertilizers
(d) confusion technique
Answer:
(b) biological control

Question 12.
The lactic acid bacteria is involved in
(a) conversion of milk into curd
(b) conversion of curd into ghee
(c) lactic acid fermentation
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Question 13.
In the case of the ‘Swiss cheese’ with large hole is due to the production of
(a) CO
(b) CO₂
(c) CH₄
(d) C₂H₅OH
Answer:
(b) CO₂

Question 14.
Roquefort cheese is made by
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) nematode
(d) mycoplasma
Answer:
(b) fungi

Question 15.
The important distillation products are
(a) whisky
(b) brandy
(c) rum
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 16.
Alexander Fleming observed that the chemical produced by mould in one of his unwashed culture plates restricted the growth of
(a) streptococcus
(b) staphylococcus
(c) pneumococcus
(d) bacillus
Answer:
(b) staphylococcus

Question 17.
The microbe that produce butyric acid belongs to
(a) virus
(b) mycoplasma
(c) bacteria
(d) fungi
Answer:
(c) bacteria

Question 18.
The ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients is mainly obtained from
(a) streptococcus
(b) staphylococcus
(c) pneumococcus
(d) bacillus
Answer:
(a) streptococcus

Question 19.
Trichoderma polysporum is helpful to the patients subjected to organ-transplant because it produce immunosuppressive agent called as
(a) interferon
(b) cyclosporine A
(c) Streptokinase
(d) statins
Answer:
(b) cyclosporine A

Question 20.
Which one of the following microbe produce Statins
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Saccharomy cescerevisiae
(c) Trichoderma polysporum
(d) Monascus purpureus
Answer:
(d) Monascus purpureus

Question 21.
The major part of activated sludge is subjected to
(a) aerobic digestion
(b) anaerobic digestion
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) anaerobic digestion

Plus Two Zoology Microbes in Human Welfare SCERT Sample Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Name the microorganism which produced butyric acid. (1)
2. ‘Secondary treatment is sewage water treatment is called biological’. Justify. (1)

Answer:

1. Clostridum butylicum
2. The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks, is carried with the help of aerobic bacteria.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

1. Amoeba: Binary fission
   Yeast: …………..
2. Reptiles: Oviparous
   Mammals: ………….

Answer:

1. Yeast: Budding
2. Mammals: Viviparous

Question 3.
Internal buds of Sponges are:,
(a) Spores
(b) Gemmules
(c) Planula
(d) Blastos
Answer:
(b) Gemmules

Question 4.
In honeybees and lizards, the female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization. Name this phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Question 5.
The life span of man is_____years.
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 85
(d) 100
Answer:
(d) 100

Question 6.
What is meiocyte?
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis
(b) The cell undergoes mitosis
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis

Question 7
All individuals produced are genetically identical
(a) clone
(b) offspring
(c) fission
(d) monoecious
Answer:
(a) clone

Question 8.
Hydra reproduces asexually by
(a) budding
(b) binary fission
(c) Multiple fission
(d) Vegetative propagation
Answer:
(a) budding

Question 9.
Find the propagules of ginger
(a) Runner
(b) Bulbil
(c) Rhizome
(d) Bulb
Answer:
(c) Rhizome

Question 10.
Bulb acts as a propagule in
(a) Onion
(b) Garlic
(c) Agave
(d) Both and b
Answer:
(d) Both and b

Question 11.
In some algae_____are motile
(a) male gametes
(b) female gametes
(c) both male and female gametes
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) both male and female gametes

Question 12.
A population of genetically identical plants derived from a single parent is called………..
Answer:
Clone

Question 13.
Embryo sac is found in:
(a) Endosperm
(b) Embryo
(c) Ovule
(d) Seed
Answer:
(c) Ovule

Question 14.
Types of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is………
(a) Gemmule formation
(b) Budding
(c) Sporulation
(d) Multiple fission
Answer:
(b) Budding

Question 15.
Observe the relation and fill in the blanks. Syncarpous: the pistils remain united: the pistils remain free.
Answer:
Apocarpous

Question 16.
In honeybees and turkey new organisms are formed through a peculiar phenomenon. Name that phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Question 17.
Choose the correct answer: Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually through
(a) Gemmules
(b) Conidia
(c) Bud
(d) Zoospores
Answer:
(d) Zoospores

Question 18.
In Marchantia male and female thallus are separate. This condition is called
(a) Dioecious
(b) Hermaphrodite
(c) Monoecious
(d) Bisexual
Answer:
(a) Dioecious

Question 19.
Find the odd one. Bulbil, Bulb, Rhizome, Stem tuber.
Answer:
Bulbil

Question 20.
Identify the correctly matched pair.
(a) Chlamydomonas – conidia
(b) Sponge – Zoospore
(c) Hydra – bud
Answer:
(c) Hydra – bud

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Sugarcane, Banana, Ginger, and Onion are flowering plants. But these are mostly cultivated by vegetative propagation.

1. What is meant by vegetative propagation.
2. Can you identify which part of the above plants are used for vegetative propagation.

Answer:

1. The regeneration of new plants from the portions of vegetative organs like stem, root, and leaves.
2. plants are used for vegetative propagation.

• Sugar cane – stem
• Banana – Rhizome
• Ginger – Rhizome
• Onion – Bulb

Question 2.
Leaves not only produce foods, but also produce young ones. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
In some plants, leaves are organ of vegetative propagation i.e new plants are formed from leaf margins eg-Bryophyllum.

Question 3.
How is pistia and zingiber officinale different in their mode of Asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The above two plants shows vegetative propagation. The vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction The vegetative propagule of pistia is offset (short and thick internode) and zingiber is rhizome (underground stem).

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

1. Male and female flowers on the same plant: monoecious
   Male and female flowers on different plants: ………….
2. Fusion of gametes: Syngamy
   Offspring from unfertilized female gamete: ……………

Answer:

1. Dioecious
2. Parthenogenesis

Question 5.
Plant can reproduce both vegetatively and sexually. Name any 4 vegetative propagule.
Answer:

1. Eye of potato,
2. rhizome of ginger,
3. bulbil of agave,
4. offset of water hyacinth.

Question 6.
Given below is a diagram showing particular types of reproduction.

1. Name the process of reproduction.
2. Briefly explain the process

Answer:

1. Budding
2. It is the mode of asexual reproduction in which the unicellular organism divides unequally and the buds remain attached to the parent cell. Eg. yeast.

Question 7.
Given below the figures of different types of reproduction present in organisms. Identify and name the type of reproduction.

Answer:

1. Zoospores in chlamydomanas
2. Conidia of penicillium
3. Eyes of potato
4. Leaf buds of bryophyllum.

Question 8.
Match the following: (Hint: Name of organisms in column A and asexual reproductive structure in Column B)

A	B
1. Chlamydomonas 2.  Penicillium 3.  Hydra 4.  Sponge	1. Gemmules 2. Buds 3. Zoospores 4. Conidia

Answer:

A	B
1.  Chamydomonas 2.  Pencillium 3.  Hydra 4.  Sponge	Zoospores Conidia Buds Gemmules

Question 9.
In diploid organisms, meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked. Justify.
Answer:
In diploid organism, reproductive cells undergoes reduction division – meiosis and produces haploid gametes. Gametogenesis means the process of gamete formation. So meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked.

Question 10.
Categorize the following into pre and post-fertilization changes in plants. Gamete transfer, pericarp formation, ovule development, embryogenesis.
Answer:
Pre fertilization-ovule development and gamete transfer. Post fertilization -embryogenesis and pericarp formation.

Question 11.
Events of sexual reproduction is given below.

1. Write the events in a sequential order. Fertilization, gamete transfer, zygote, gameto – genesis, embryogenesis.
2. Point out the differences between gametogenesis and embryogenesis

Answer:

1. Gametogenesis, gamete transfer, fertilization, zygote, embryogenesis.

Question 12.
‘Water-hyacinth’ is commonly called ‘Terror of Bengal’. Give reason.
Answer:
‘Water-hyacinth’ is a highly spreading aquatic weeds, which drains oxygen from the water and leads to the death of fishes.

Question 13.
Bamboo plant and strobilanthus kunthianus (Neela Kurunji) have similarity and dissimilarity in their reproductive and vegetative character. Justify.
Answer:

1. Similarity – Both Bamboo and neela kurinji are perennial plants.
2. Dissimilarity – Bamboo flowers only once in their life time (in the period of 50-100 years) and die whereas neelakurinji flowers once in 12 years.

Question 14.
Zygote is called as the vital link. Why?
Answer:
Zygote is the product of fertilization, that maintains the continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next.

Question 15.
Post fertilization changes in flowering plants are given, by observing the given pair complete the others.
(a) Zygote: Embryo
(b) Ovule: ……….
(c) Ovary: ………
(d) Nucellus: Perlsperm
(e) Integument: ……….
(f) PEN: ………..
Answer:
(b) Ovule: Seed
(c) Ovary: Fruit
(e) Integument: seed coat
(d) PEN: Endosperm

Question 16.
Leaves are used not only for photosynthesis but also for reproduction.

1. Name the type of reproduction
2. Give an example.

Answer:

1. Vegetative propagation
2. Eg-Broyophyllum

Question 17.
Observe the relationship between first two terms and fill up the blanks.
1. Asexual reproduction – Unparental
Sexual reproduction……………….

2. Zygote: Diploid nucleus: Endosperm: ………….

3. Pea: non albuminous: wheat ………….
Answer:

1. biparental
2. Triploid nucleus
3. albuminous

Question 18.
In yeast and Amoeba the parent cell divides to give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:

• In yeast, the cell division is unequal and small buds are produced.
• In Amoeba, the cell division is equal and identical daughter cells are produced.

Question 19.
Offsprings formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaptation.

Question 20.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
2. Why are offspring of oviparous-animals subjected to greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

1. oviparous animals
2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent while in viviparous organisms development of zygote take place inside the body of female organisms. Hence viviparous type get proper embryonic care and protection.

Question 21.
In one type plant Adventitious buds develops into new leafy shoot by leaf as means of vegetative propagation but in others by rhizome. Give examples for leaf and rhizome used as unit of vegetative propagation.
Answer:

• Leave – bryophyllum
• Rhizome – banana, and Ginger

Question 22.
In certain lower plants, equal and un equal daughter cells are produced by asexual reproduction. Name these Asexual Reproduction with examples
Answer:
In binary fission equal daughter cells are produced. Example bacteria and Paramecium. In budding two unequal daughter cells are produced. Example Yeast and hydra.

Question 23.
In lower plants movement of gametes takes place by water but in seed plants male gametes are non motile. Which part of plant helps the movement of gametes?
Answer:
Pollen tube

Question 24.
Haploid gametes are produced in bryophytes and angiosperms by two types of cell division. Name it
Answer:

• bryophytes-Mitosis
• angiosperms-meiosis

Question 25.
Sexual reproduction is very common in higher plants to produce young ones that shows variation.

1. Name the product formed in sexual reproduction is considered as vital link
2. Give its significance

Answer:

1. product-zygote
2. It maintains continuity of species for many generation.

Question 26.
Nature prefer internal fertilization than external fertilisaiton. Do you agree with this statement.
Answer:
Yes, In nature the advanced plants and animals show internal fertilisation.

Question 27.
In fishes gamete fusion takes place in external medium. Give the disadvantage of this method.
Answer:
The offsprings formed through external fertilisation are subjected to the attack of predators.

Question 28.
Animals are categorized into viviparous and oviparous based on the development of the Zygote takes place outside the body or inside. In which of these two types the chances of survival is greater. Why?
Answer:
In oviparous animals like reptiles and birds, the fertilised eggs after the period of incubation young ones hatch out. In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism. After the period of growth, they are delivered out. The chances of survival is greater in viviparous animals.

Question 29.
Mention the characteristic feature and a function of zoospore in some algae.
Answer:

• Zoospores are flagellated, motile aquatic bodies
• On germination give rise to new plants

Question 30.
Name the site of occurrence of syngamy in amphibians and reptiles.
Answer:

• In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organism i.e external.
• In reptile syngamy occur inside the body of the organism i.e internal

Question 31.
What are the three major phases in the life cycle of an organism? Define each phase.
Answer:
Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase, senescent phase

• Juvenile phase-The phase of growth in the organisms before reproductive maturity
• Reproductive phase- In this phase organism attains reproductive maturity
• Senescent phase- The phase between reproductive maturity and death

Question 32.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 33.
In yeast and amoeba the parent cell divides and give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:
In yeast, cell division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached to parent cell. In amoeba the cell division is equal and produces identical daughter cells.

Question 34.
Mention the site where syngamy occurs in amphibians and reptiles respectively.
Answer:
In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organisms in the external medium (water). In reptiles syngamy occurs inside the body of an organism.

Question 35.
The turkey usually produces females for several. generations. How is this possible?
Answer:
In a turkey, female gametes undergo development without fertilization. This phenomenon is called parthenogenesis.

Question 36.
Leaves not only produce food but also produce young ones. Substantiate.
Answer:
In few plants the leaves are the means of vegetative propagation in addition to photosynthesis. In such plants, plantlets are formed on the leaves eg- Bryophyllum.

Question 37.
Observe the figures given below, identify and name the organisms and their asexual reproductive structures.

Answer:
Organisms – Asexual reproductive Structures

1. Chlamydomonas – Zoospore
2. Penicilium – Conidia

Question 38.
The chromosome number in the meiocyte of housefly is 12 and that of its gamete is 6. Write the reason for the change in chromosome number of meiocyte and gamete.
Answer:
Meiocyte is a diploid cell undergo reduction division to form haploid gametes.

Question 39.
In coconut, male and female flowers are separate. Write the technical term for the male and female flowers. Write the condition of the flower.
Answer:

1. Female flower – pistillate
2. Male flower – staminate
3. Condition of the flower – unisexual

Question 40.
Observe the figures given below. Identify the gametes in A and B. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Homogametes
2. Heterogametes

In first figure gamates come to fusion have similar structure but in second figure gametes have dissimilar structure.

Question 41.
Match the items of column A with B

A	B
a. Offset	i. Ginger
b. Bulb	ii. Agave
c. Rhizome	iii. Onion
d. Adventitious leaf buds	iv. Water hyacinth
	v. Bryophyllum

Answer:

Question 42.
Analyse the table given below and fill in the blanks.

Answer:

1. Hermaphrodite or bisexual
2. Female gamete develops into new organism without fertilisation
3. majority of algae or fishes or amphibians
4. Fertilisation occurs inside the body

Question 43.
The chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous organisms than oviparous organisms. Justify this statement.
Answer:
In viviparous organisms the zygote develops into young one inside the body of the female organism. So during the course of development proper embryonic care and protection is provided inside the female organism.

Question 44.
In some organisms male and female reproductive organs are seen in the same individual. Name that condition. Give two examples of such organisms.
Answer:
Hermaphrodite Eg.Earthworm, Leech.

Question 45.
Name of certain plants and their vegetative propagules are given below. Make correct pairs using them. Agave, Offset, Ginger, Bulb, Bulbil, Water hyacinth, Potato, Bryophyllum, Rhizome
Answer:

1. Agave – Bulbil
2. Ginger-Rhizome
3. Water hyacinth – offset
4. Onion-Bulb

Question 46.
Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are the two prefertilisation events. Write the differences between the two.
Answer:
Gametogenesis – It is the formation of gametes.
Gamete transfer – It is the transfer of male gamete to the female gamete.

Question 47.
Based on the nature of reproduction, organisms are classified as continuous breeders and seasonal breeders. Write the difference between the two.
Answer:

1. Continuous breeders – They are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase.
2. Seasonal breeders – They reproduce only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase.

Question 48.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks.

1. Hydra: Bud; …….: Gemmule
2. Birds: Internal fertilization; …….External fertilization.

Answer:

1. Sponge: gemmule
2. Algae or fishes or amphibian

Question 49.
Fertilisation in some organisms occur outside the body. Name that kind of fertilization. Write its disadvantage.
Answer:
External fertilization
In this type young ones are subjected to threat of predators. So, it is the disadvantage of external fertilisation.

Question 50.
The offspring formed by asexual reproduction is referred to as clone. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Offsprings formed are morphologically and genetically similar among themselves and to their parents. So such individuals are called clone.

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During sexual reproduction-fertilization is an important process. But in most aquatic organisms like fishes, amphibians, etc. external fertilization occur. In most terrestrial organisms internal fertilization is common.

1. Point out the differences between external and internal fertilization.
2. Write the disadvantages of external fertilization.

Answer:
(a) 1. External Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs in the external medium – water i.e. outside the body of organisms. Eggs and sperms are released outside the female and male parents respectively and move through water before fusion of gametes.

2. Internal Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs inside the body of organisms. Egg is formed inside the female body where they fuse with male gamete that is released by the male parent.

(b) Offsprings formed by external fertilization, are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adulthood.

Question 2.
Write technical terms for the following.

1. Morphologically different types of gametes.
2. Process of formation of male and female gametes.
3. Formation of new organisms without fertilization.

Answer:

1. Heterogametes
2. Gametogenesis
3. Parthenogenesis

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In bacteria and lower organisms offspring formed are close similar among themselves and to their parents.

1. Name offsprings derived through such process
2. Write down the 2 characterstics of such offsprings

Answer:

1. Clone
2. Morphologically and genetically similar

Question 2.
The offsprings formed by a sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaption.

Question 3.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 4.
In some lower and higher plants offsprings are produced shows greater similarity and it occurs mainly through asexual reproduction, in higher plants the process occurs through vegetative propagation.

1. What is vegetative propagation?
2. Give two suitable examples.

Answer:
1. The process of multiplication, in which parts or fragments of the plant act as reproductive unit or propagule to form new individuals is called vegetative propagation.

2. Examples,

• Buds (eyes) of Potato.
• Rhizome of Ginger.

Question 5.
Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. It is always uniparental 2. There is no formation and fusion of gametes. 3. Only mitotic cell division takes place. 4. Offsprings are genetically identical to the parent.	1. It is usually biparental 2. Formation and fusion of gametes take place. 3. It involves both meiosis and mitosis. 4. Offsprings genetically differ from the parent.

Vegetative reproduction involves single parent and its offsprings are genetically identical hence it is considered as a type of asexual reproduction.

Question 6.
Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Answer:
Because sexual reproduction induces genetic variability(adaptations) which make the offsprings better equipped for the struggle of existence.

Question 7.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
2. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

1. oviparous animals
2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent, (they lay fertilized /unfertilized egg). In viviparous organisms development of zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.

This offers proper embryonic care and protection and have better chances of survival than young ones of viviparous organisms.

Question 8.
Prefertilisation events events of sexual reproduction in all organisms are gametogenesis and gamete transfer.

1. What are the post fertilization events?
2. Name the parts of plants such as ovary, ovule and ovary wall develop in post fertilization process.

Answer:

1. Zygote formation Embrogenesis
2. Ovary-fruit, ovule-seed, ovary wall -pericarp

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In papaya, the flowers are:
(a) Unisexual
(b) Bisexual
(c) neuter
(d) Flowers are not formed
Answer:
(a) Unisexual

Question 2.
In vegetative propagation, characters of parent plants are:
(a) Changed
(b) Not preserved
(c) preserved
(d) Exchanged
Answer:
(c) preserved

Question 3.
Rhizopus reproduces asexually by:
(a) Conidia
(b) Spores
(c) Gemma
(d) Bulbil
Answer:
(b) Spores

Question 4.
In potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
(a) Root
(b) Leaf
(c) Grafting
(d) Stem tuber
Answer:
(d) Stem tuber

Question 5.
Vegetatively propagated plants are:
(a) Genetically similar
(b) Genetically dissimilar
(c) Do not bear roots
(d) Do not form buds
Answer:
(a) Genetically similar

Question 6.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Question 7.
In which pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

Question 8.
Regeneration of a plant, cell to give rise to new plant is called :
(a) Reproduction
(b) Budding,
(c) Totipotency
(d) Pleuripotency
Answer:
(c) Totipotency

Question 9.
Hydra reproduces asexually through:
(a) iragmettatwn
(b) Budding
(c) binary fission
(d) Sporulation
Answer:
(d) Sporulation

Question 10.
Animals giving birth to young ones are
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) viviparous
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(c) viviparous

Question 11.
The offspring that are exactly identical to one another as well as identical to their parents are called as
(a) clone
(b) twins
(c) replicates
(d) drones
Answer:
(a) clone

Question 12.
Buds and conidia are asexual reproductive structures of
(a) hydra&rhizopus
(b) rhizopus & penciriium
(c) hydra & pencillium
(d) both a&b
Answer:
(c) hydra & pencillium

Question 13.
Banana is multiplied through
(a) suckers
(b) seeds
(c) rhizome
(d) stolen
Answer:
(c) rhizome

Question 14.
In rotifers, the type of reproduction responsible for the organisms to multiply is
(a) apomixis
(b) parthenogenesis
(c) asexual reproduction
(d) sexual reproduction
Answer:
(b) parthenogenesis

Question 15.
Bulbils are employed for multiplication of
(a) bryophyllum
(b) crocus
(c) Agave
(d) strawberry
Answer:
(c) Agave

Question 16.
During favourable condition Amoeba reproduces by
(a) binary fission
(b) buds
(c) multiple fission
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(a) binary fission

Question 17.
After post-fertilization, the ovary and ovule develops into
(a) pericarp and fruit
(b) fruit and seed
(c) fruit and seed coat
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) fruit and seed

Question 18.
The plants which flower every year after attaining certain maturity are called
(a) monocarpic
(b) polycarpic
(c) perennials
(d) annuals
Answer:
(b) polycarpic

Question 19.
The type of reproduction occurs in ciliated protozoans is
(a) syngamy
(b) conjugation
(c) budding
(d) cross fertilization
Answer:
(b) conjugation

Students can Download Chapter 6 Human Health and Disease Questions and Answers, Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Human Health and Disease

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The immunoglobulin present in mother’s milk is
(a) lgD
(b) lgE
(c) 1gM
(d) lgA
Answer:
(d) lgA

Question 2.
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(d) innate or non-specific immunity
Answer:
(b) passive immunity

Question 3.
Malarial parasite is introduced into the blood of man as a
(a) meta crypto zoite
(b) schizont
(c) oocyte
(d) sporozoite
Answer:
(d) sporozoite

Question 4.
The genes concerned with the production of cancer are called
(a) cancer genes
(b) carcino genes
(c) carcinomas
(d) oncogenes
Answer:
(c) carcinomas

Question 5.
A drug called morphine is obtained from
(a) Rauwoiffia serpentina
(b) Cannabis sativa
(c) Cajanuscajan
(d) Papaversomniferum
Answer:
(d) Papaversomniferum

Question 6.
Observe the relationship between the first two words and fill in the blanks.

1. Ascariasis: Ascaris, Elephantiasis:-
2. Cannabinoids: Hashish, Opioids:-

Answer:

1. Wuchereria
2. Heroin

Question 7.
Choose the odd one with reason. Malaria, Pneumonia, Cancer, Hyphoid.
Answer:
Cancer.
All others are infectious diseases.

Question 8.
“Death rate due to Cancer is high now a days” Name the gene casing cancer.
Answer:
Oncogene

Question 9.
One your classmate is suspected to be having typhoid and you advise him to consult a doctor and to do the confirmation test. Name the medical confirmation test.
Answer:
Widal test

Question 10.
Amoeboid dysentery is caused by a protozoan parasite. Name the parasite.
Answer:
Entamoeba histolytica

Question 11.
Identify the odd one
(a) Malaria
(b) Elephantiasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dengue
Answer:
(c) Typhoid; all others are vector bone disease

Question 12.
WBC, PMNL monocytes and natural killer cells are then examples of
(a) Physical Barriers
(b) Physiological barrier
(c) Cellular barrier
(d) Cytokine barriers
Answer:
(c) Cellular barrier

Question 13.
When the immune system attacks our own cells, the process is called……….
(a) Innate immunity
(b) Acquired immunity
(c) Auto immunity
(d) Humoral immunity
Answer:
(c) Auto immunity

Question 14.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Which type of virus is HIV?
(a) Adenovirus
(b) Retrovirus
(c) Bacteriophage
(d) Rhinovirus
Answer:
(b) Retrovirus

Question 15.
Mother’s colostrum contains Ig G. What type of immunity it confers to the infants?
(a) Passive immunity
(b) Active immunity
(c) Cell mediate immunity
(d) Innate immunity
Answer:
(a) Passive immunity

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Malaria is a disease, man has been fighting since many years.

1. Name the protozoan which cause Malaria and the toxic substance released by it.
2. Which part of the body is mainly affected by the parasite?

Answer:

1. Plasmodium (P.Vivax, P.Malaria, P.Falciparum) Haemozoin
2. The parasite initially multiply within liver cells and then attack RBC, resulting in their rupture, which causes the release of haemozoin.

Question 2.
Cancer can be cured completely. Write down two diagnostic and treatment methods.
Answer:
1. Diagnostic methods:

• Biopsy
• CT Scan
• MRI etc.

2. Treatments:

• Surgery
• Radiation therapy
• Immunotherapy etc.

Question 3.
Select the odd one from the given groups and assign reason.

1. Gonorrhea, Typhoid, Syphilis, Chlamydiasis
2. Spleen, Tonsil, Lymph nodes, Thymus

Answer:

1. Typhoid. All others are sexually transmitted diseases.
2. Thymus. All others are secondary lymphoid organs.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below.

Answer:

1. Insect bite
2. Ringworm
3. Rhinovirus
4. Internal bleeding, fever, muscle pain

Question 5.
Maintenance of Personal and Public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of many infectious diseases. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Infectious diseases are spread mainly through air, food, drinking water, vectors, etc. Personal and public hygiene help to prevent infectious diseases.

Not only that balanced diet, regular exercise, vaccination, proper waste disposal, control of vectors, etc. are also necessary to prevent diseases and for achieving good health.

Question 6.
Complete the table.

Answer:

1. ELISA
2. Typhoid

Question 7.
“The soldiers of a country kills their own king”. Keeping this mind, in our body can you find a similar situation in some person. Give examples.
Answer:
Auto immune response
Eg: Rhuematoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis.

Question 8.
During a discussion, your friend said that “AIDS can also be transmitted through food and touch.”

1. How HIV infects human body?
2. What clinical test is used to confirm AIDS?

Answer:

1. Method of infection is through body fluids, sexual contact, contaminated needles, blood transfusion from mother to foetus,
2. Western blot/ELISA

Question 9.
You are working as a volunteer in an AIDS awareness programme. If a person comes to you and asks the following questions, how will you answer?

1. How HIV multiplies in host cell?
2. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Answer:
1. HIV, being a retrovirus, enters the macrophages, where the RNA replicates to form viral DNA. It incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs infected cells to produce viral particle.

2. Avoid unsafe sex with a stranger.

• Use of disinfected needles.
• Avoid sharing of injection needles.
• Screening of blood before transfusion.

Question 10.
A sportsperson was tested positive for cannabinoid. What are these? From where are these extracted?
Answer:
Cannabinoids are group of chemicals interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain. Cannabis sativa.

Question 11.
More than a million Indians suffer from cancer and a large number of them die from it annually. Unlike normal cells, cancer cells possess some unique features. List any two of them.
Answer:

1. Loss of contact inhibition
2. Metastasis

Question 12.
“Prevention is better than cure”. Can you suggest some important preventive measures of STD’s.
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with a stranger/multiple partner.
2. Always use condoms during coitus.

Question 13.
Give the scientific term for the following.

1. Spreading of cancer cell into distant place.
2. Hypersensitivity to certain substance

Answer:

1. Metastasis
2. Allergy

Question 14.
A group of five members spent in a room with dust. One among them shows some allergic responses.

1. Name the chemicals released during allergy and which cells produce them.
2. Which are the drugs used to reduce the symptoms quickly?

Answer:

1. Histamine and serotonine from mast cells,
2. Anti-histamine drugs, adrenalin, and steroids.

Question 15.
What is the role of histamine in inflammatory response? Name few drugs which reduce the symptoms of allergy.
Answer:

1. The histamine acts as allergy mediator which cause blood vessels to dilate. It is released by mast cells.
2. Antihistamine, steroids, and adrenaline quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.

Question 16.
Name one plant and the additive drug extracted from latex. How does this drug affect the human body?
Answer:
Papaver somniferum (Poppy plant)

1. Morphine is obtained from this plant.
2. It is an opioid that binds to specific receptors in the central nervous system and gastro intestinal tract; it slows down the body functions.

Question 17.
How does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place?

1. Amoebiasis
2. Malaria
3. Ascariasis

Answer:
1. Amoebiasis, By ingesting quadrinucleated cysts of Entamoeba histolytica with food and water. The cysts are carried from faces of patient to food and water.

2. Malaria. Plasmodium (malarial parasite) is trans-mitted from sufferer to healthy one by biting of female Anopheles mosquito.

3. Ascariasis. The disease is transmitted by taking contaminated food and water with embryonated egg of Ascaris.

Question 18.
Match the following.

Pathogen	Symptoms	Effector
a. Salmonella Typhi	Stool with excess blood	Alveoli
b. Plasmodium	Sustained high fever	Large Intestine
c. Strep to cocus pneumonia	High fever recurring every three days	Enter small intestine
d. Entamoeba	Fever, Chills	RBC

Answer:

Pathogen	Symptoms	Effector
a. Salmonella Typhi	Sustained high fever	Enter small intestine
b. Plasmodium	High fever recurring every three days	RBC
c. Strep to cocus pneumonia	Fever, Chills	Alveoli
d. Entamoeba	Stool with excess blood	Large Intestine

Question 19.
The graph given below shows the response of attack of an influenza virus in a patient repeatedly during the interval of 40 days.

1. What is the difference in the response during the first and second attacks?
2. Give the reason for this change.

Answer:

1. In secondary response, more antibody is produced than primary response.
2. In secondary response, the memory cells help to produce more antibody rapidly than the primary response.

Question 20.
Elaborate the diagnostic methods used for early detection of cancer.
Answer:
X ray, CT Scan, and MRI Scan, Specific antibody against cancer cell, identification of cancer genes.

Question 21.
You meet an HIV patient. He is unaware about the transmission method of HIV. What precautions will you suggest him so that HIV cannot be spread to others?
Answer:
Use disposable needles, use of condoms, safe blood transfusion, safe sex, controlling drug use.

Question 22.
Write the difference between malignant tumor and benign tumor?
Answer:
1. Benign tumors: normally confined to their original location and do not spread to the other parts of the body.

2. Malignant tumors: it is the mass of proliferating cells invading and damaging surrounding normal cells quickly dividing and have property called metastasis.

Question 23.
Briefly explain the methods used to treat cancer.
Answer:
Surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, immunotherapy.

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the type of immunity that is present at the time of birth in humans. Explain any two ways by which it is accomplished.
Answer:
Innate immunity is present at the time of birth. This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body. It consists of four type of barriers:

1. Physical barrier- Skin and mucus
2. Physiological barrier- Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and tears.
3. Cellular barrier- Neutrophils and macrophages.
4. Cytokine barrier-Interferons.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Disease	Pathogen
a. Malaria	Epidermophyton
b. Filariasis	Ascaris
c. Amoebiasis	HIV
d. AIDS	Entamoeba histolytica
e. Ringworm	Plasmodium
f. Ascariasis	Wuchereria

Answer:

Disease	Pathogen
a. Malaria	Plasmodium
b. Filariasis	Wuchereria
c. Amoebiasis	Entamoeba histolytica
d. AIDS	HIV
e. Ringworm	Epidermophyton
f. Ascariasis	Ascaris

Question 3.
A person injured in a road accident and requiring an urgent immune response was brought to a doctor.

1. What did the doctor immediately do?
2. What kind of immunity was he providing to the patient?
3. Define this kind of immunity.

Answer:

1. Performed antibodies are injected
2. Passive immunity
3. Passive immunity is developed by injecting the performed antibodies, which neutralize the antigen.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:

1. a – Pneumonia
2. b – Fever, chills, cough, and headache
3. c – Microsporum
4. d – Ascariasis
5. e – Ascaris lubricoids
6. f – Salmonella typhi

Question 5.
Lymphoid organs play an important role in immunity, where maturation and proliferation of lymphocyte takes place.

1. What are the primary lymphoid organs?
2. Name the lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major tracts.
3. What are the secondary lymphoid organs, which provide sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen.

Answer:

1. Bone marrow and Thymus
2. MALT (Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
3. Spleen, Lymph nodes, Tonsils, Peyer’s patches

Question 6.
Write the single word for the following.

1. Glycoproteins secreted by virus-infected cells.
2. Antibody-dependent immunity.
3. The type of antibody produced during allergy.

Answer:

1. Interferons
2. Humoral immunity
3. lgE

Question 7.
A patient consult a doctor with the following symptoms.

• Constipation
• Abdominal pain and cramps
• Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.

1. Identify the disease.
2. Name the microbe that causes this disease.
3. Write the mode of transmission of this disease.

Answer:

1. Amoebic dysentery
2. Entamoeba hystolytica
3. Contaminated food and drinking water

Question 8.

1. Identify the molecule.
2. Name the types.
3. Copy and label the diagram.

Answer:

1. Immunoglobin
2. lgA, lgM, lgE, lgG

Question 9.
A doctor noticed a small internal growth in the abdomen of a patient. Doctor suspects it as cancer.

1. Name any two possible Carcinogens.
2. Which biomedical technique is used for the diagnosis of cancer.
3. Suggest the methods to treat this disease.

Answer:
1. Ionising radiation (X-ray, gamma-ray)

• Oncogenic viruses
• Chemicals like nicotine, polycyclic hydrocarbons, etc.

2. Biopsy/Scanning/MRI/Sonography etc.

3. Chemotherapy, Surgery, Hormone therapy, Radiation therapy, and Immune therapy.

Question 10.
Complete the table.

Disease	Causative organism
Typhoid
Common cold
	Plasmodium
	Ascaris

Answer:

Disease	Causative organism
Typhoid	Salmonella typhi
Common cold	Rhino virus
Malaria	Plasmodium
Ascariasis	Ascaris

Question 11.
Identify the disease from the symptoms given below table.

Answer:

Question 12.
Complete the table

Answer:

Question 13.
A doctor noticed a small internal growth in the abdomen of a patient. Doctor suspects it as cancer.

1. Name any two possible Carcinogens.
2. Which biomedical technique is used for the diagnosis of cancer.
3. Suggest the methods to treat this disease.

Answer:
1. Ionising radiation (X-ray, gamma-ray)

• Oncogenic viruses
• Chemicals like nicotine, polycyclic hydrocarbons, etc.

2. Biopsy/Scanning/MRI/Sonography etc.

3. Chemotherapy, Surgery, Hormone therapy, Radiation therapy, and Immune therapy.

Question 14.
The symptoms of some diseases are given below. Identify the disease, name the parasite which cause the disease and write the mode of transmission.

1. Weakness, Stomach pain, sustained high fever, constipation, etc.
2. Fever, chill, cough, headache, bluish fingernails, etc.
3. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with mucus and blood, etc.
4. Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails, and scalp, itching, etc.

Answer:

1.

• Typhoid
• Salmonella typhi
• Contaminated food and water

2.

• Pneumonia
• Streptococcus pneumoniae
• Droplet infection/ sharing glasses and utensils etc.

3.

• Amoebic dysentery (Amoebiasis)
• Entamoeba histolytica
• Contaminated food and drinking water

4.

• Ringworms
• Fungi (Microsporum/Trichophyton Epidermophyton)
• Soil and towels, clothes, or comb of infected persons

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What measures would you take to prevent water-borne diseases?
Answer:

1. Drinking clean water.
2. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water tanks and reservoirs.

Question 2.
Discuss with your teacher what does suitable gene means, in the context of DNA vaccines.
Answer:
The term Suitable Gene refers to that specific segment of DNA that will be modified in the host to produce protein to kill specific disease-causing organisms.

Question 3.
Name the primary and secondary lympboid organs.
Answer:
1. Primary Lymphoid organs: Bone marrow and thymus.

2. Secondary Lymphoid organs: Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches (small intestine) and mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

Question 4.
Expand the following terms:

1. MALT
2. CM I
3. AIDS
4. NACO
5. HIV

Answer:

1. MALT:- Mucosal – Associated Lymphoid Tissue
2. CMI – Cell Mediated Immunity
3. AIDS -Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
4. NACO – National AIDS Control Organisation
5. HIV – Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.

Question 5.
Differentiate the following and give example of each:

1. Innate and acquired immunity
2. Active and passive immunity

Answer:

Innate Immunity	Acquired Immunity
Non – specific	Specific
Is present from birth	Is acquired in response to a specific pathogen
Involves different types of barriers	Involves memory of antibody
Example: Skin acts like a barrier	Example: Antibody response after vaccination.

Question 6.
What are the various public health measures, which you would suggest to safeguard us against infectious diseases?
Answer:

1. Proper disposal of wastes and excreta
2. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water sources.
3. Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering.
4. Avoiding close and prolonged contact with infected persons suffering from contagious diseases.
5. Eliminating the breeding places of the vectors of infectious diseases like malaria.

Question 7.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
Various modes of transmission of HIV are sexual intercourse; use of contaminated hypodermic needles and syringes; blood transfusion organ transplantation; artificial insemination; from infected mother to baby during parthurition (30%) and breast feeding.

Question 8.
What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus causes deficiency of immune system of the infected person?
Answer:
HIV attacks the helper-T cells inside the host cell, viral RNA syntheses single-stranded DNA on it in the presence of enzyme reverse transcriptase. Single-stranded DNA separates from viral RNA and forms its complimentary copy to form double-stranded DNA which is incorporated into hosts cell DNA.

The viral DNA transcribes large number of RNA particles, each of which gets surrounded by a proteinous capsid to complete viral particles.

Finally, the host helper T- cell is lysed and many HIV viruses are released. Each of these infects new Helper T-cells. So there is progressive decrease in the number of Helper-T- cells.

Question 9.
Do you think that friends can influence one to take alcohol/drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/ herself from such an influence?
Answer:
One of the reasons for alcohol drinking or drug abuse is peer pressure. So one can be easily influenced by one’s friends to take alcohol/drugs. So one must avoid undue peer pressure with one’s own will power may seek the help of one’s parents and teachers.

Question 10.
How transmission of each of the following diseases takes place?

1. Amoebiasis
2. Malaria
3. Ascariasis
4. Pneumonia

Answer:
1. Amoebiasis: Direct and oral. The tetranucleate cysts are ingested with contaminated food and water.

2. Malaria: Indirect and inoculative. The sporozoites are introduced along with the saliva of vector female Anopheles mosquitoes.

3. Ascariasis: Direct and oral. Capsules with second juveniles are ingested with contaminated food and water.

4. Pneumonia: Airborne or through droplet infection or aerosols or contaminated utensils. Bacterial cysts are spread by sputum of the patients.

Question 11.
So that once a person starts taking alcohol or drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss it with your teacher.
Answer:
Initially, one may be motivated to take alcohol or drugs by many causes like peer pressure, liking of taste, desire for excitement, advertisements, false belief of enhanced performance, etc.

But the regular consumption of alcohol or drugs develops dependency on it called addition. Then if alcohol or drug is not available to an addict, then he/she start showing certain unpleasant characteristics called withdrawal symptoms.

Question 12.
Explain what is meant by metastasis.
Answer:
The cancerous cells of malignant tumour initially show slow growth called the latent stage, but later their growth becomes very rapid causing over-crowding and damage to the normal cells. This phase of secondary rapid growth of cancer cells is called metastasis.

In this, the cancer extends to the neighbouring tissues like the roots of a tree. Small pieces of primary tumour break off and are carried to other parts of the body by the blood or lymph, where these form the secondary tumors.

Question 13.
In which way the study of biology has helped us to control infectious diseases?
Answer:
Advancements achieved in biological science have helped us to control infectious diseases by:

1. Discovery of vaccines and their timely use in immunization programmes have helped in controlling and even eradicating certain infections diseases.
2. Discovery of antibiotics and many other drugs helped to treat a number of infectious diseases.

Question 14.
In your view, what motivates the youngsters to take to alcohol of drugs and how can this be avoided?
Answer:
1. Main motivating factors which stimulate the youngsters to take to alcohol or drug are:

• Peer pressure
• Desire for excitement
• Liking of taste
• To escape from frustrations Family’s history
• Curiosity due to advertisements
• False belief of enhanced performance
• To overcome the hardships of daily life.

2. Alcohol or drug abuse can be avoided by:

• To identify the reason of addition and to take remedial measures
• Avoid undue peer pressure
• By giving proper education and counseling to the addict.
• Seeking help from parents, teachers and trusted friends
• Seeking professional and medical help

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
(a) thyroid
(b) thalamus
(c) tonsil
(d) thymus
Answer:
(d) thymus

Question 2.
Use of antihistamines and steroids give a quick relief from
(a) allergy
(b) nausea
(c) cough
(d) headache
Answer:
(a) allergy

Question 3.
Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(a) Ringworm, AIDS
(b) Common cold, AIDS
(c) Dysentery, common cold
(d) Typhoid, tuberculosis
Answer:
(b) Common cold, AIDS

Question 4.
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
(a) defence mechanisms of body
(b) osmotic balance of body fluids
(c) oxygen transport in the blood
(d) clotting of blood
Answer:
(a) defence mechanisms of body

Question 5.
In the cell mediated immuno response, T- lymphocytes divide and secrete
(a) antigens
(b) plasmogens
(c) collagens
(d) cytokines
Answer:
(d) cytokines

Question 6.
During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are
(a) interferons
(b) hormones
(c) histamines
(d) acetylamine
Answer:
(c) histamines

Question 7.
Genetic material found in Fluman Immunodeficiency virus(HIV) is
(a) double-stranded RNA
(b) single-stranded RNA
(c) double-stranded DNA
(d) single-stranded DNA
Answer:
(b) single-stranded RNA

Question 8.
HIV virus affect in AIDS patient,
(a) cytotoxic T-cell
(b) M-Ncell
(c) suppressor cell
(d) helper T-cells
Answer:
(d) helper T-cells

Question 9.
Lung tuberculosis is caused by
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Escherichia coli
Answer:
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 10.
If the person shows the production of interferons in body, chances are that he is suffering from
(a) anthrax
(b) malaria
(c) measles
(d) tetanus
Answer:
(c) measles

Question 11.
Morphine obtained from opium is
(a) latex
(b) pome
(c) alkaloid
(d) tannin
Answer:
(c) alkaloid

Question 12.
Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?
(a) Morphine
(b) LSD
(c) Amphetamines
(d) Barbiturates
Answer:
(d) Barbiturates

Question 13.
Assertion LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics. Reason Both these drugs suppress brain function.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 14.
Cocaine, an alkaloid is obtained from the leaves of
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Ephedra sp. [Manipall
(c) Digitalis purpurea
(d) Papaversomnferum
Answer:
(a) Erythroxylon coca

Question 15.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
(a) state of hallucination
(b) loss of memory
(c) suppression of brain function
Answer:
(c) suppression of brain function

Question 16.
Which of the following is not hallucinogen?
(a) Heroin
(b) LSD
(c) Marijuana
(d) Charas
Answer:
(a) Heroin

Question 17.
Widal test is used to detect
(a) pneumonia
(b) typhoid
(c) cholera
(d) whooping cough
Answer:
(b) typhoid

Question 18.
The organism responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli of the lungs is
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Haemophilus
(c) bacillus
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 19.
Rhino viruses which cause one of the most infectious human ailments they are
(a) common cold and chicken pox
(b) common cold
(c) diphtheria
(d) mumps
Answer:
(b) common cold

Question 20.
The malignant malaria is serious and fatal. It is due to
(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(b) P. malaria
(c) P. vivax
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Plasmodium falciparum

Question 21.
Bite of Anopheles mosquito causes the rupture of RBCs and release a toxic substance called as
(a) saxitoxin
(b) aflatoxin
(c) haemozoin
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) haemozoin

Question 22.
Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person to food and food products. This results
(a) malaria
(b) elephantiasis
(c) amoebiasis
(d) chikungunya
Answer:
(c) amoebiasis

Question 23.
Virus-infected cells secrete a kind of proteins which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection. It is belonged to
(a) Cytokine barriers
(b) Physical barriers
(c) Physiological barriers
(d) Cellular barriers
Answer:
(a) Cytokine barriers

Question 24.
The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation contains antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant, this is an example for
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) autoimmunity
(d) cell-mediated immunity
Answer:
(b) passive immunity

Question 25.
The antibodies produced as immune response to allergens come under
(a) lgE
(b) lgA
(c) lgM
(d) lgG
Answer:
(a) lgE

Question 26.
Due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells and cause the damage to the body
(a) passive immunity
(b) active immunity
(c) auto immunity
(d) innate immunity
Answer:
(c) auto immunity

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease SCERT Sample Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A. Complete the table by using hints from brackets. (Haemophilus influenzae, Common cold, Salmonella Ityphi, Running nose & Nasal congestion, Pneumonia, Ascariasis, Sustained fever 39°C – 40°C, Malaria) (3)

Answer:

1. A-Salmonellatyphi
2. B – Sustained fever 39-400C
3. C – Common cold
4. D – Running Nose and Nasal congestion
5. E – Pneumonia
6. F – Haemophilus influenza

OR

B. Categorise the following organs into two, with appropriate headings. Thymus, Spleen, Bone marrow, Peyer’s Patches(3)
Answer:

1. Primary Lymphoid Organs
2. Thymus, Bone marrow
3. Secondary Lymphoid Organs
4. Spleen, Peyer’s Patches

Students can Download Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The factors which affect the success of an enterprise are called …………….
Answer:
Entrepreneurship values and attitudes.

Question 2.
Activities undertaken by an entrepreneur to bring a business unit into existence are known as ………………
Answer:
Entrepreneurship.

Question 3.
……………… is the reward of the entrepreneur for taking risks.
Answer:
Profit

Question 4.
Choose the right answer from the bracket given below.
(a) Employer
(b) Taking the responsibility of risk
(c) Maximise the wealth
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
Entrepreneurship must be encouraged due to …………………..
(a) It helps regional development.
(b) Promote export trade.
(c) Create employment opportunities.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Entrepreneur + Enterprise = ………………………..
Answer:
Entrepreneurship

Question 7.
The owner of a new enterprise is called?
Answer:
Entrepreneur

Question 8.
KASH means
Answer:
Knowledge + Attitude + Skills + Habits

Question 9.
Match the following.

A	B
a) Entrepreneur	a) Selecting the best project from various projects
b) Manager	b) Risk taking
c) Zero-in process	c) Profit
d) Return for taking risks	d) Not taking the risks

Answer:

A	B
a) Entrepreneur	a) Risk taking
b) Manager	b) Not taking the risks
c) Zero-in process Zero-in	c) Selecting the best project from various projects
d) Return for taking risks	d) Profit

Question 10.
Pick out the false statement.
(a) Entrepreneurship is a systematic and purposeful activity.
(b) The object of entrepreneurship is lawful business.
(c) Entrepreneurship involves risk.
(d) Entrepreneurship and management are same.
Answer:
(d)Entrepreneurship and management are same

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the steps in setting up of a business.

Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion Raju stated that “entrepreneur is also a manager. But manager is not an entrepreneur”. Are there any differences between these two?
Answer:
Relationship between Entrepreneurship and Management:

Entrepreneurship	Management
The main motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting up an enterprise.	The main motive of a manager is to render his services in an enterprise already set up by someone.
An entrepreneur is the owner of the enterprise.	A manager is the servant in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur assumes all risks and uncertainty.	A manager does not bear any risk involved in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur gets profit.	A manager gets salary.
An Entrepreneur acts as an innovator.	A manager executes the plans prepared by the entrepreneur.
Entrepreneur is self motivated	A manager is motivated by entrepreneur.

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is entrepreneurial motivation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Motivation:
The entrepreneurial motivation may be defined as the process that activates and motivates the entrepreneur to exert higher level of efforts for the achievement of organisational goals.

1. Need for Achievement (N-Ach.):
Need for achievement implies a desire to accomplish something difficult. They are intrinsically motivated. They prefer work that has a moderate chance for success (about 50/50) and tend to avoid situations that are low-risk and those that are high-risk.

2. Need for Power (N-Pow):
Need for Power is the concern for influencing people or the behaviour of others for moving in the chosen direction and attaining the envisioned objectives.

3. Need for Affiliation (N-Aff.):
The need for affiliation is characterised by a desire to belong, and enjoyment of teamwork, a concern about interpersonal relationships, etc.

4. Need for Autonomy (N-Aut.):
The need for autonomy is a desire for independence and being responsible and accountable to oneself rather than some external authority for performance.

Question 14.
The qualities or competencies of an entrepreneur can be written as KASH. What is it?
Answer:
Qualities of an entrepreneur can be summarised as follows:

• K – Knowledge
• A – Attitude
• S – Skills
• H – Habits

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the features of Entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Characteristics of Entrepreneurship

• It is a systematic and purposeful activity.
• The object of entrepreneurship is a lawful business.
• Entrepreneurship is a creative response to the environment and the ability to exploit an economic opportunity.
• It is concerned with employing, managing, and developing the factors of production.
• Entrepreneurship involves risk. Profit is the reward of risk-taking.

Question 2.
Distinguish between entrepreneurship and Management.
Answer:

Entrepreneurship	Management
The main motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting up an enterprise.	The main motive of a manager is to render his services in an enterprise already set up by someone.
An entrepreneur is the owner of the enterprise.	A manager is the servant in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur assumes all risks and uncertainty.	A manager does not bear any risk involved in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur gets profit.	A manager gets salary.
An Entrepreneur acts as an innovator.	A manager executes the plans prepared by the entrepreneur.
Entrepreneur is self motivated	A manager is motivated by entrepreneur.

Question 3.
List down the process of setting up of a business.
Answer:
Process of Setting up a Business:

Question 4.
An entrepreneur is a leader, philosopher, planner, etc. He must have several qualities and competencies. List down any five entrepreneurial competencies.
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Competencies:

1. He has the ability to take or initiate the first move towards setting up of an enterprise.
2. He is always on the look out or searching for opportunity and is ready to exploit it in the best interest of the enterprise.
3. Successful entrepreneur finds ways to do things faster with fewer resources at tower costs.
4. He belives in systematic planning and its proper execution to reach goals.
5. An entrepreneur is never disheartened by failures. He follows try-try again for overcoming the obstacles.
6. An entrepreneur is always in search of new ideas from various sources.
7. He has the ability to understand and solve business problems.
8. He must be optimistic

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An entrepreneur is responsible for doing several functions. What are the functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of Entrepreneurs in Relation to their Enterprise

1. Perceiving market opportunities
2. Gaining command over scarce resources.
3. Marketing of the products.
4. Face the competition
5. Dealing with public bureaucracy (concession, licenses and taxes)
6. Managing the human relation within the firm.
7. Managing customer and supplier relations.
8. Managing finance.
9. Acquiring and overseeing assembly of the factory.
10. Improve the quality of the products

Question 2.
Write an essay on the role of entrepreneurs in economic development.
Answer:
Functions (Role) of Entrepreneurs in Relation to Economic Development:
1. Contribution to GDP:
Entrepreneurs explore and exploit opportunities, encourage effective resource mobilisation of capital and skill, bring in new products and services and develops markets for growth of the economy. In this way, they help increasing gross national product (GDP) as well as per capita income of the people in a country.

2. Capital Formation:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of public. They employ these resources for setting up an enterprise.

3. Generation of Employment:
With the setting up of more and more business units by entrepreneurs, a large number of employment opportunities are created.

4. Promotes Balanced Regional Development:
Entrepreneurs help to remove regional disparities through setting up of industries in less developed and backward areas.

5. Reduces Concentration of Economic Power:
A large number of entrepreneurs needs to be developed, which will help reduce the concentration of economic power amongst the population.

6. Improvement in the Standard of Living:
Entrepreneurs enables the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

7. Promotes Export Trade:
Entrepreneurs help in promoting a country’s export-trade, which is an important ingredient of economic development.

8. Facilitates Overall Development:
The entrepreneurs multiply their entrepreneurial activities, thus creating an environment of enthusiasm and invite others for overall development of the area.

Students can Download Chapter 10 Financial Markets Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Financial Markets

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for medium and long-term instruments having a period of maturity of more than one year is?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Commercial bill market
(d) Call market
Answer:
(b) Capital market

Question 2.
Identify the related term from the following.

1. Share : Capital Market
2. Commercial Paper : ………………………

Answer:
2. Money Market

Question 3.
Identify the odd one.
(a) Bill of Exchange
(b) Treasury bills
(c) Certificate of deposits
(d) Equity shares
Answer:
(d) Equity shares

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Call money market
(b) Commercial bill market
(c) Treasury bill market
(d) New issue market
Answer:
(d) New issue market.

Question 5.
Which among the following is not related with Money Market?
(a) Call money market
(b) Equity shares
(c) Commercial Paper
(d) Certificate of Deposit
Answer:
(b) Equity shares

Question 6.
Offering the shares to existing shareholders whenever fresh issue is made. Identify the method of primary issue.
Answer:
Right issue

Question 7.
These shares are issued as fully paid shares to the existing shareholders in the ratio of shares held by them. Identify the share.
Answer:
Bonus shares

Question 8.
Birla White Ltd., a leading cement manufacturing company, proposes to give 1 Equity share to every 10 shares held by the existing Equity shareholders as dividend due to poor liquidity position. Identify the type of dividend the company proposes to declare.
(a) Cash dividend
(b) Property dividend
(c) Script dividend
(d) Stock dividend
Answer:
(d) Stock dividend

Question 9.
Treasury Bills are basically ……………….
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds
(b) An instrument to borrow long term funds
(c) An instrument of capital market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds

Question 10.
………………….. securities are not required to be listed in the
stock exchange.
Answer:
Government securities

Question 11.
A Method of floating new issues does not deal directly to public but operates issuing houses and brokers. Name the Method.
Answer:
Offer for sale

Question 12.
Identify the watchdog of the capital market.
Answer:
SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India)

Question 13.
Complete the series.
Money market: RBI
Capital market: ………….
Answer:
SEBI

Question 14.
National Stock Exchange of India was recognized as stock exchange in the year.
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 15.
NSE commenced futures trading in the year.
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(c) 2001

Question 16.
To be listed on OTCEI, the minimum capital requirement for a company is …………….
(a) Rs. 5 crore
(b) Rs. 30 lakh
(c) Rs. 6 crore
(d) Rs. 1 crore
Answer:
(b) Rs. 30 lakh

Question 17.
Admission of a company for trading its securities in the stock exchanged is called ………….
Answer:
Listing

Question 18.
Certificate of Deposit is issued by
(a) Bank
(b) Mutual Fund
(c) Government
Answer:
(a) Bank

Question 19.
The process by which physical share certificate are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form is termed as …………………..
Answer:
Dematerialisation

Question 20.
The issuing company will give a price band at which securities will be offered and gives the investors an opportunity to bid. Can you suggest the name for this method?
Answer:
Book building

Question 21.
At present trading in stock exchanges is taking place through ………………..
Answer:
Online trading

Question 22.
Smt. Faseela is a shareholder of ABC Co. Ltd, She gets an allotment of 50 shares free of cost from the company. ABC Ltd.

1. Find out the method of share allotment referred here.
2. Will it affect ownership?

Answer:

1. Bonus shares
2. Will not affect the ownership

Question 23.
Certain instruments of money market is short term, self – liquidating and used to finance credit sales. Name the instruments.
Answer:
Commercial bill

Question 24.
It is a long term financial market. It is divided as ………….. and ………………..
Answer:
Capital market, Primary market, Secondary market

Question 25.
Issue of shares through online trading system of stock exchange is called …………………
Answer:
Electronic – Initial Public Offer (e-IPO)

Question 26.
Which is the organised market where second hand securities are traded?
Answer:
Stock Exchange

Question 27.
………………. is the mirror which reflects the economic policies of a nation?
Answer:
Stock exchange

Question 28.
Exchange of paper certificate of securities into electronic form is called …………….
Answer:
De-mat (De Materialisation)

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Financial market perform an allocative function”. How?
Answer:
Financial markets channelise savings of investors and makes them available for needs of industry and hence they are set to perform the allocated function.

Question 2.
State the two categories into which financial markets are classified?
Answer:
Two categories into which financial markets are classified:

1. Money Market
2. Capital Market

Question 3.
Explain the features of Certificate of Deposit (CD).
Answer:
Money Market Instruments
1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par.

They are issued in the form of promissory notes. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills.They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
Define stock exchange.
Answer:
Stock Exchange:
According to Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956, stock exchange means any body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, constituted for the purpose of assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying and selling or dealing in securities.

Question 5.
Explain briefly how stock exchanges provide liquidity and marketability to existing securities?
Answer:
Stock exchange provides a continuous market where securities are brought and sold. It provides opportunities for investors to disinvest and reinvest in securities. It there by provides liquidity and easy marketability to securities.

Question 6.
Write the full form of

1. OTCEI
2. NSE

Answer:

1. OTCEI is Over the Counter Exchange of India.
2. NSE is National Stock Exchange.

Question 7.
State the minimum capital requirement for a company to be listed with OTCEI
Answer:
For company to be listed with OTCEI minimum paid up capital Rs. 30 Lack or more.

Question 8.
In a classroom discussion, Asharaf argued that only listed securities are permitted to be in a stock exchange. While, Sundar argued that certain unlisted securities are also tilled in a stock exchange.

1. Whose argument do you support?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. We support the argument of Sundar.
2. Government securities do not require to be listed.

Question 9.
What is Primary Market?
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for short term financial assets having a maturity period of less than one year.

1. Explain the concept referred above.
2. How does it differ from capital market?

Answer:

1. Money market
2. Difference between capital market and money market

Capital Market	Money Market
1) Market deals only long term fund.	1) Market deals only short term fund.
2) It arranges large amount of fund.	2) It arranges small amount of fund.
3. Return is high.	3) Return is law.
4) The instruments used are equity shares, preference shares, debentures and bonds.	4) The instruments used are call money, treasury bills, trade bills, commercial paper and certificate of deposit.
5) SEBI is the market regulator.	5) RBI is the market regulator.
6) Capital market instruments are highly risky.	6) Money market instruments are safe.

Question 2.
Define primary market. State any two methods of issuing securities in primary market.
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Methods of flotation:
There are various methods of floating new issues in the primary market. They are:

a. Offer through Prospectus:
Prospectus is an invitation to the public for the subscription of shares and debentures of a company. The issues may be underwritten and also are required to be listed on at least one stock exchange.

b. Offer for Sale:
Under this method new securities are not offered directly to the public. Initially the entire lots of securities are sold to an intermediary at a fixed price. The intermediary sells these securities to the public at a higher price.

c. Private Placement:
Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors or some selected individuals. It is less expensive and saves time.

d. Rights Issue:
According to the Companies Act, if a public company wants to issue additional shares, it must first be offered to the existing shareholders, in proportion to the amount paid up on their shares. This right is known as ‘Pre-emptive right’ and such an issue is called right issue.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following documents traded in a capital market and money market. Treasury bill, Debentures, Certificate of deposit, Bonds, Equity shares, Commercial paper, Trade bill, and Preference shares.
Answer:

• Treasury bill – Money market
• Debentures – Capital market
• Certificate of deposit – Money market
• Bonds – Capital market
• Equity shares – Capital market
• Commercial paper – Money market
• Trade bill – Money market
• Preference shares – Capital market

Question 2.
During late 1990’s trading took place in the trading ring of the stock exchange through direct auction. In the trading, ring brokers assemble together and make a bargain on the price of securities. Therefore, investors felt difficulty in taking the delivery of securities soon after the execution of the transaction.

1. Explain the new system emerged to overcome these limitations.
2. Explain the merits of the new system.

Answer:

1. Online Trading.
2. Advantages of electronic trading system (Screen based online trading)
On line trading means buying and selling of shares and debentures are done through a computer terminal.

• On line trading ensures transparency in dealing.
• It helps in fixing prices of securities efficiently.
• It increases efficiency of operations by reducing time, cost and risk of errors.
• People from all over the country can buy or sell securities through brokers.
• All trading centres have been brought into one trading platform.

Question 3.
“NSEI” is the largest stock exchange of the country”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its features.

Answer:
1. National Stock Exchange of India (NSE):
NSE is the most modern stock exchange in India. It was incorporated in 1992 and was recognised as a stock exchange in April 1993. It commenced operations in 1994. NSE has set up a nationwide fully automated screen based trading system.

2. Objectives of NSE:

• Establishing a nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
• Ensuring equal access to investors all over the country.
• Providing a transparent securities market using electronic trading system.
• Enabling shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlements.
• Meeting international benchmarks and standards.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of SEBI?
Answer:
Objectives of SEBI

• To regulate stock exchange and the securities market to promote their orderly functioning.
• To protect the rights and interests of investors and to guide and educate them.
• To prevent trade malpractices.
• To regulate and develop a code of conduct to intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In India, a major portion of money market transaction is conducted by commercial banks like SBI, PNB, etc. Development banks like IFC, IDBI, etc. and special financial institutions like DFHI, UTI, etc. The indigenous banks, moneylenders and chitty funds are also other participants in the market.

1. Categorise these money market participants into appropriate heads.
2. Identify the submarkets in which these institutions participate for short term dealings.

Answer:
1. Capital market can be divided into organized market and unorganized market.

Organised Money Market	Unorganised Money Market
Commercial Banks	Indigenous Bank
Development banks	Moneylenders
Special financial institutions	Chitty Funds

2. The submarkets are called money market, commercial bill market, treasury bill market, commercial paper market, etc.

Question 2.
Listing of securities with a stock exchange involves stringent procedures. Small companies find it difficult to undergo is such formalities. Therefore, when such companies issue shares, there are only a few buyers for them.

1. Identify the stock exchange promoted to solve these problem faced by small companies.
2. List out the main features and advantages of this stock exchange.

Answer:
1. Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI):
The OTCEI is a company incorporated under the Companies Act 1956. It was set-up to provide smalt and medium companies an access to the capital market.

It is fully computerised, transparent, single window exchange which provides quicker liquidity to securities at a fixed and fair price, liquidity for less traded securities. It is commenced trading in 1992.

2. Objectives of OTCEI

• Provide a trading platform to smaller and less liquid companies.
• Provide online trading facilities to the investors.
• Ensure a transparent system of trading.
• Ensure liquidity to the listed securities.
• Help the investors to exchange the securities at minimum cost.

Question 3.
Shareholders in India were facing a lot of problems in handling the paper based certification, such as delay in transfer of ownership, forgery and theft of certification, bad delivery, etc. But nowadays there are no such difficulties. Paper forms of shares are not seen.

1. What is this paperless security called?
2. What are its merits?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation

2. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

Question 4.
Explain the steps involved in the Purchase / Sale of securities.
Answer:
Trading Procedure on a Stock Exchanges:

• Selection of a broker.
• Opening Demat account with the Depository Participant (D.P.).
• Placing an order for the purchase or sale of securities with the broker.
• Purchase or sale of securities through on-line.
• Delivery of the contract note to the investor.
• Effecting changes in the Demat account.
• Making payment or receiving of money.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of depository services and Demat Account?
Answer:
Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Question 6.
“SEBI is the watchdog of the security market”. Do you agree? Comment.
Answer:
Yes.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.

1. What do you mean by dematerialisation?
2. What are the benefits of Demat account?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

2. Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What is the Secondary market?
2. Explain the functions of Secondary Market.
3. Distinguish it from the Primary Market.

Answer:
1. Secondary market:
The secondary market is also known as the stock market or Stock exchange. It is a market for the purchase and sale of existing securities. It also provides liquidity and marketability to existing securities

2. Functions of a Stock Exchange:

a. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

b. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

c. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

d. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

e. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

f. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

3. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Primary Market	Secondary Market
1. It deals with new securities.	1. It deals with existing securities.
2. It promotes capital formation directly.	2. It promotes capital formation indirectly.
3. Investors can only buy securities.	3. Investors can buy and sell the securities.
4. Prices of the securi­ties are determined by the management of the company.	4. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.
5. Companies sell securities directly.	5. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.

Question 2.
“In today’s commercial world, the stock exchange performs vital functions”. Explain the functions.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 3.
Prepare a seminar report on various segments of the money market.
Answer:

Money Market Instruments:

1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par. They are issued in the form of promissory notes.

They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills. They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
“Stock exchange is the barometer of the country’s economic health”. Discuss.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 5.
Prepare an assignment on functions of stock exchange.
Answer:

Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 6.
RBI is the controller and guide of banks in India. In the field of stock market an institution similar to RBI is there. Can you name it and explain its objectives and functions?
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.
“It is the regulatory and development agency of Indian Capital Market.”

1. Identify the agency referred here.
2. Explain its functions.

Answer:
1. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)

2. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 8.

1. What is Primary Market?
2. How it differs from Secondary Market?

Answer:
1. Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans, and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds, and individuals.

2. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Primary Market	Secondary Market
1. It deals with new securities.	1. It deals with existing securities.
2. It promotes capital formation directly.	2. It promotes capital formation indirectly.
3. Investors can only buy securities.	3. Investors can buy and sell the securities.
4. Prices of the securi­ties are determined by the management of the company.	4. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.
5. Companies sell securities directly.	5. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.

You can Download Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion

Patterns of Social Inequality and Exclusion Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The process by which people are categorized into different levels is called…. by Sociologists,
a) social inequality
b) Social exclusion
c) Social stratification
d) Social control
Answer:
Social inequality

Question 2.
Keeping, individuals away from all activities of the society is called
a) social inequality
b) Social exclusion
c) Social stratification
d) Social control
Answer:
Exclusion

Question 3.
Who called the untouchables as Harijans (Children of God) and publicized that name?
a) Ambedkar
b) Ayyankali
c) Sri Narayana Guru
d) Gandhiji
Answer:
Gandhiji

Question 4.
Which was the first Backward Community Commission in India?
a) Netter Commission
b) Mandal Commission
c) Kothari Commission
d) Kaka Kalelkar Commission
Answer:
Kaka Kalelkar Commission

Question 5.
Who was the head of the second Backward Community Commission in India?
Answer:
B.P. Mandal

Question 6.
Who was the Chairman of the Backward Community Commission appointed he Kerala government in 1970?
B.P.Mandal
b) V.P. Singh
c) KakaKalelkar
d) Nettur
Answer:
Nettur

Question 7.
Who started the Bengali Social Reform Movement?
a) JyotibaPhule
b) SirSayyed Ahmed Khan
c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 8.
Who formed the Brahma Samaj?
Answer:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 9.
Match the following.
Answer:

A	B
Gandhiji	Harijans
B.P. Mandal	Backward Commission
Tharabai Shinde	Male-Female Equality
Anita Ghai	Differently-abled people

Question 10.
Social inequality and seclusion are realities in the life of the Indian society. Explain.
Answer:
Social inequality and seclusion are realities in the life of the Indian society. On the street, we see so many beggars. We also see small children employed to work in households. We see them working as helpers in construction sites, tea shops, and temporary food outlets. We see them engaged in cleaning jobs. We see small children working as servants in households carrying the school bags of children who are much bigger than them.

Often these sights don’t affect us. We may not feel that forcing children to work at their school-going age, preventing them from learning, is injustice. We often read how children are segregated or discriminated in school, we hear about violence against women, hatred to minorities, contempt for the physically or mentally challenged, etc. These news items also may not affect us much. All these are examples of social inequality and seclusion.

Question 11.
What are the social implications of social inequality and seclusion?
Answer:
There are three answers to this question.
a) Firstly, they are not related to individuals. They are concerned with groups and therefore they are social issues.
b) Secondly, they are not economic problems. In this, they are social issues.
c) Thirdly, they are well-established and structural. Social inequalities have a definite pattern.

Question 12.
How can we classify social resources?
Answer:
We can classify social resources into capitals of three kinds:
a) financial (economic) capital.
b) cultural capital.
c) social capital

• Economic capital refers to material wealth and income.
• Cultural capital refers to education and positions.
• Social capital refers to the chains of relations and social organizations.

Question 13.
Explain the principles that help in the stratification of people.
Answer:
a) Social stratification is a feature of society: Social stratification is a feature of society. It is not merely the difference between individuals. It is something that permeates (covers) the entire society. Stratification implies that the societal resources are inequitably distributed among the different classes of people. In backward societies, production was very little and therefore stratification was also only nominal, or very minimal. Societies that lived by hunting and collecting foods are examples for this. But where societies achieved technological progress, stratification was seen in its full color. In such societies, people produced surplus, more than what they required. These resources were unequally distributed among the people of different classes. The innate abilities of people were not considered here.
b) Social stratification has been in existence for generations: Social stratification is related to the family and also to the societal resources that one generation receives from the previous one as hereditary property. The social status of a person is imposed on him. A person gets the social status of his parents. For example, a Dalit is supposed to do only traditional jobs like farming, scavenging or leatherwork. Because of that, he had very limited chances of getting jobs with higher pay. Such social inequalities were further aggravated by rules like marrying in the same caste. This prevented people from removing the boundary lines through mixed marriages.
c) The ways of faith or ideologies support Social stratification: If Social stratification is to continue through generations it must be proved to be inevitable. For example, the Jati system was justified through the ‘Purity-Pollution’ (suddha-asuddha) concept. This made Brahmins high caste and Dalits low caste merely by birth and profession. Not everyone approves inequality as a legitimate system. People with special privileges in the society support systems like Jati and Varna. But those who suffer contempt and negligence raise their voice against them.

Question 14.
What are prejudices? What are their social repercussions?
Answer:
Prejudices are the biased feelings and attitudes people of one class have about members of other classes. This is an opinion formed about a familiar thing without taking into consideration any evidence against it. Some prejudices are developed on mere hearsay. A prejudiced person refuses to examine any evidence. Even if he gets evidences to the contrary, he refuses to give up his previous opinion.

Prejudice can be positive or negative. Usually, it is used in a negative sense. But sometimes it can be positive also. For example, one may feel that his Caste is better than other Castes. Very often such prejudices are found when it comes to women in one’s Caste.

Question 15.
Discrimination is a feature of social inequality and seclusion. Explain.
Answer:
Discrimination is definitely a feature of social inequality and seclusion Prejudices talk about biased opinions and attitudes. But discrimination shows one’s behavior towards people of another class or group, or an individual.

Denying opportunities because of Jati, religion, or gender can be considered discrimination. Denying a job because of gender is discrimination. Discrimination is difficult to prove. Very often discrimination is cleverly hidden behind other reasonable explanations. For example, if a person is refused to be appointed to a post because of his Jati, nobody will tell him that he was rejected because of his Jati. He will be told that he is unfit for the job because of some other reasons.

Question 16.
What is meant by social seclusion?
Answer:
Social seclusion means keeping away individuals from participating in the activities of the society. By these individuals or groups of individuals are denied the opportunities available to the majority of others. To have a reasonable life, persons need food, clothes, and shelter. I.n addition to these essential requirements, they also need education, health, transport, insurance, social security, banking, police services, and court. When these things are denied to people, there is social seclusion.

Social seclusion is hot accidental. It is well established. It is related to the structure of the society, tt is not something that is done with one’s consent. It is done without considering the feelings of the secluded. It is against their will.

Question 17.
How has the Jati System categorized people?
Answer:
Historically, Jai system has classified people based on profession and status. Each Jati is connected with a particular profession. Persons born in particular Jati are supposed to do the work of only that Jati. The Jati rules don’t allow them to choose other jobs. In the same way; in the stratification of classes, their Jati will have a particular slot.

Another feature Jati system is the differentiation between social status and economic status. For example, Brahmins who have high social status are under kings or rulers who belong to Kshatriyas in non-religious matters. At the same time kings, in spite of their wealth and power, are under Brahmins in religious matters like pooja and other rituals.

Question 18.
What is the relation between social status and economic status?
Answer:
There are close relations between them in spite of the differences. Normally, people who have high social status will also have high economic status. The financial status of the lower castes will below. But this situation has changed since the 19th century. The strictness with Jati and profession has been reduced. The religious and ritual control over professions could not be imposed in the changed situation. Now people can choose any job they like without any caste consideration. Now people change jobs as they like.

The relation between Jati and economic power has also weakened. The situation is quite different from the one some 50 or 60 years ago. There are rich people and poor people in all Castes. However, if we look very carefully we can still see that the relation between social class and economic status has some relevance.

Question 19.
What is untouchability? What is its basis?
Answer:
Untouchability is the worst part of the Jati System. Jati system imposes severe social controls and restraints on the lower castes. The suddha-asuddha (Purity- Pollution) concept is behind this heinous system. Those who are outside the Jati system were considered untouchables. They are impure. Even their touch can pollute members of other Jatis. If the Untouchables touch members of the Upper Castes, they would be given severe punishments. Those who were touched by the Untouchables had to undergo complex purification processes.

Question 20.
Describe the three measures of Untouchability.
Answer:
They are:
a) Seclusion
b) Ridicule and submission
c) Exploitation
Seclusion is to be suffered only by the Untouchables. Other Jatis don’t suffer from it. It is the Dalits who suffer the worst form of seclusion. They could not draw water from public wells. They could not worship with other Jatis or take part in any functions of festivities. But they are forced to do low jobs. For example, they were forced to beat the tom-toms (chenda) during religious functions.

Ridicule and submission are important aspects of Untouchability. Dalit and other lower castes are to do certain symbolic signs in public to show respect to the higher castes. They had to remove their head- cover, hold their slippers in their hand, stand with bowed heads, and not wear clean and colorful clothes. They were often scolded and ridiculed public.

Economic exploitation was another factor of Untouchability. Dalits and lower castes were exploited in various ways. They were forced to work without payment or with very little payment. Their properties were often confiscated by the higher castes.

Question 21.
Untouchability is an Indian phenomenon. Comment.
Answer:
Untouchability is certainly an Indian phenomenon. There might be some variations in its intensity and forms, depending on regional, historical and social background.

Untouchables were known by different names in different centuries. In the ancient period, they were called ‘Chandalas’. All those names were contemptuous and degenerative. Some of the names are used even today as abusive words, even though it is a criminal offense. In the 1930s, with a view to remove the contempt in the names, Gandhiji gave the Untouchables a new name ‘Harijans’. It means children of God. He made that name popular.

But the untouchable groups and their leaders gave them their own name ‘Dalits’. Today this name is widely used. ‘Dalit’ means suppressed. Dr. Ambedkar never used this name. But the echo of his philosophy and his Empowering Movement is heard in this name. In the 1970s, during the Jati revolts in Bombay, the word ‘Dalit’ received great popularity. The Dalit Panthers was a revolutionary group from Western India and they used this name to uphold their being and individuality.

Question 22.
What are the legal steps that the Government took against Caste discrimination?
Answer:
Government passed many laws to prevent caste discrimination and to punish offenders. One of them is the Freedom of Religion Act of 1850. This Law says that the rights of citizens should not be reduced or denied if they change their Caste or Religion.

The 93rd Amendment to our Constitution in 2005 also is on similar lines. It came into effect from 23 January 2006. Both the 1850 Act and the 2006 Constitution Amendment Act are related to education. The 1850 Law gave the Dalits admission to government schools. The 2006 Amendment made reservations to Other Backward Classes in our Higher Educational Institutions.

Between 1850 and 2006, many laws were enacted by various governments. The Indian Constitution (1950) itself is one such law. In 1989 the “Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act” came into force. This law was enacted with the specific purpose of preventing atrocities to the members of scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This law recommended severe punishments to those who committed offenses against Dalits and Adivasis. By the 17th article of the Constitution, Untouchability was abolished.

Question 23.
Codify the steps taken by the Nation to prevent discrimination based on Caste and Tribe.
Answer:

• Reservation
• provisions in the Constitution
• Different kinds of Laws
• Act of 1850
• Act of 1980
• Act of 2006
• Abolition of Untouchability

Question 24.
Give examples of struggles for social justice,
Answer:
Even before independence, people like Jyotiba Phule, lyodi Das, Periyar (E.V, Ramaswami Naicker) and Ambedkar had fought against Caste discriminations. There are many organizations today that fight for the rights of Dalits. The Bahujan Samaj Party of UP, Dalit Sangharsh Samiti in Karnataka, etc. are prominent among them. Dalit writers have given valuable contributions to the literature of various Indian languages like Marathi, Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, and Hindi and they have beep highlighting the problems of Dalits and seeking solutions.

Question 25.
What were the struggles against discrimination from non-governmental agencies?
Answer:

• Struggles by Social Reformers
• Dalit Movements
• Contributions in the field of literature

Question 26.
The main problem of Adivasis is migration by other people. Explain.
Answer:
The Adivasi problem is made worse because of migration by other people. Today except in the North-Eastern States, there is no region where only Tribals are living. Only in some places, there are their concentrations. From the mid 19th century, non-Tribals began to migrate into the Tribal districts of Central India. The Tribals in these areas left their habitat and went to other places seeking jobs in estates, mines, and factories.

The economic condition of the Tribals in places where they have concentrated is much worse than the non- Tribals there. Adivasis stay in circumstances of poverty and exploitation. It is the exploitation done by rulers and their agents that pushed the Adivasis into their present miserable situation.

Question 27.
What are some of the challenges that Adivasis face?
Answer:
The Sardar Sarovar Dam in the Narmada River in Western India and the Polavaram Dam in Godavari in Andhra Pradesh have made thousands of Adivasis leave their homes, pushing them into poverty. In the 1990s there were the economic liberalization policies and this has made their condition even worse. With the liberalization policy, many corporate companies appeared. They drove away the Adivasis from their land giving them very little compensation and started schemes to exploit the natural resources there. The word Adivasi means ‘real settlers’ or ‘first settlers’. This word was used as a part of the struggle against those who trespassed into the habitat of Adivasis as part of the Colonial Government’s schemes for the so-called development.

Adivasis are people who have been losing their land and forest in the name of development. This word has also the symbolic meaning of political awareness and claiming their rights.

The Tribals have fought seriously protesting against discrimination and exploitation. They have fought against the intruders and the government. Because of their struggles, Jharkhand and Chhatisgarh became States. At this level, the struggles of Adivasis are different from those of Dalits. As Adivasis live in large numbers in nearby areas, they could demand States of their own. But Dalits are so scattered all over, they can’t make such demands.

Question 28.
Describe the struggles of women for equality with men.
Answer:
From time immemorial, women have been victims of exploitation and inequality. As the Reform Movements of modern India took the problems of women seriously, they were brought to public attention. There were regional differences in the Social Reform Movements that came up in the 19* century. They are often called Middle-Class Reformation Movements.

It is so because most of the Reformists were Middle-Class men who had got western education. Western concepts about democracy and the ancient democratic traditions of India had influenced them in equal measure. Many of them used these ideas in their fight against inequality. Rajaram Mohan Roy in Bengal, Mahadev Govind Ranade in Bombay Presidency and Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan among the Muslims fought for the rights of women. Rajaram Mohan Roy especially fought for women’s rights. Ranade fought for widow-remarriage. Jyotirao Phule fought against gender discrimination. Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan struggled for reforms in Islam.

It was Rajaram Mohan Roy that started the first Reform Movement in Bengal. He tried to bring changes in the Indian society and Hinduism. In 1928 he founded Brahma Samaj. He had started is fight against Sati even before that. Sati was the first ‘problem’ that grabbed public attention. Roy formulated an ideology that was a mixture of European rationalism and Indian tradition. He used both these concepts to fight against Sati. He proved that Sati was anti-human and anti-religious.

Widows in the Upper Castes had to suffer a lot. Their bad condition was noticed by the Reformists. They took up their case. They fought for the rights of widows and also for their right to remarry. Ranade made use of books like “Analogy of Religion, Three Sermons on Human Nature” by Bishop Joseph Butler. Ranade’s books like the “Texts of the Hindu Law “, “Lawfulness of the Remarriage of Widows”, and “Vedic Authorities for Remarriage” established that widow remarriage had the sanction of the Vedas.

Rajaram Mohan RdV and Ranade were Middle-Class Upper Caste Reformists. Reformists from the lower classes also fought for women’s equality. Jyoti Rao Phule from Maharashtra is an example. He fought heroically against gender discrimination and Jati system. He founded a Movement called Satyasodhak Samaj”, seeking truth. This Organization did a lot for the benefit of women and Untouchables.

In the light of Western ideas, Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan tried to reform the Islamic community. He recommended reforms keeping himself within the framework of religion. He argued for the education of Muslim girls. He said that this education could be given in places near their homes. Like Swami Vivekananda, he also stood for women education. He said that in their curriculum, religious principles, training for running a home, skills in handicrafts, and childcare should be included: We must evaluate him by looking at the circumstances in which he made these suggestions. His contributions for women education were really great.

Question 29.
Was it only men that fought for women’s rights? Explain.
Answer:
Some people have said that it was men who actually fought for women’s rights and their ideas were imported from Western nations. Both these ideas are wrong.

There were many women who fought for women’s rights. Pandita Ramabai, Mataji Maharani Thapaswini, Anandibai and Sr. Subbalakshmi were some of them. There were many writers who highlighted the problems of women with their powerful writing. They include Tharabai Shinde and Begum Rokea Sakhawat Hussain.

Question 30.
What were the declarations of the Karachi Meeting of the Congress?
Answer:
The Karachi Meeting of the Congress was in 1931. It made a declaration regarding the fundamental rights of Indian citizens. It highlighted woman-equality. Here are the main points of the declaration:

• All are equal before law irrespective of caste, religion, class, and gender.
• There will be no discrimination against anybody on the basis of religion, caste, class or gender for taking up government jobs, occupying positions of authority and getting any titles. Each person will have the right to do whatever profession he chooses.
• Voting right will be based on adult franchise.
• Women will have the right to vote and take up public positions.

Question 31.
Even after independence, there are unsolved women problems. Explain with examples.
Answer:
Two decades after independence, in the 1970s, women’s problems again came to the forefront. Reform Movements of the 19th century were mainly against evils like Sati and child marriage, They also tried for women education and widow-remarriage. But in the 1970s the problems were ‘modem’. Raping of women in police custody, murders in the name of dowry, women representation in public offices and media, gender discrimination in jobs and positions, etc. were some of them.

In the 1980s there was a demand to restructure laws related to women. Activists pointed out that there were no changes in the laws that were made in the 1911 century.

In the 21^st century, new issues of gender equality surfaced. The most significant of them was the reduction in female population. The fall in the number of females shows society’s wrong attitude towards women. This raises new challenges. Only through prolonged struggles can these injustices be ended.

Question 32.
What are the general concepts about differently-abled people?
Answer:
Everywhere in the world, there are common concepts about differently-abled people. Here are the main points:

• Handicap is a biological phenomenon.
• The problems of the differently-abled person come from his/her handicaps.
• Differently-abled people are considered ‘victims’.
• A person’s handicap is related to his self-respect.
• The very word handicap suggests that the person needs help.

Question 33.
What are the views of the society about handicapped people?
Answer:
Any handicap was seen as a negative feature of that person. Even in the Indian mythology, handicapped term ‘Differently-abled’ for handicapped people challenges the old concepts. It is argued that it is not biological factors that make somebody handicapped, but the attitude of the society. Brisendine has rightly said: “Handicap lies in the structure of the society, and not in the physical condition of the individual.” All structures including courts were built by the society and all this was done without giving any consideration to the handicapped.

They create obstacles for the handicapped. Thus they are denied opportunities for education and jobs. We have now seen that handicap is something that society has made. It has another aspect also. There is a close relation between handicap and poverty. Children with handicaps are born mainly in families suffering from malnutrition. Lack of proper health of parents, regularly repeated childbirth by the mother, lack of preventive medicines, accidents that happen in crowded homes, etc. are main causes for handicaps. This is the reason for having more handicapped people among the poor than among the rich.

Just like poverty creates handicap, handicap creates poverty. People tend to ostracise handicapped persons and this increases their financial problems. The family of the handicapped also falls into poverty. There is no doubt that the poorest people in India are the handicapped, or, to use a more politically correct language, differently-abled people.

You can Download The Market as a Social Institution Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 The Market as a Social Institution

The Market as a Social Institution Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In the 18th century, economics was known as …
a) Social economy
b) Political economy
c) Cultural economy
d) Technical economy
Answer:
Political Economy

Question 2.
Who was the most important political economist of the early period?
a) Karl Marx
b) AmartyaSen
c) Alfred Marshal
d) Adam Smith
Answer:
Adam Smith

Question 3.
………… said that individual transactions affect the market system.
a) Karl Marx
b) Adam Smith
c) Alfred Marshal
d) AmartyaSen
Answer:
Adam Smith

Question 4.
The French word ……… means giving freedom in the matters connected with market and industry (non- regulated market).
a) Laissez-faire
b) Marketization
c) Globalization
d) Liberalization
Answer:
Laissez-faire

Question 5.
Economic activities of the ……… are similar to those of the capitalists.
Answer:
Nagarathars (Also known as Nattukkottai Chettiars)

Question 6.
What is the most important book of Adam Smith?
a) Capital
b) Wealth of Nations
c) Communist Manifesto
d) Market
Answer:
Wealth of Nations

Question 7.
Who is the person who coined the term ‘invisible hand’?.
a) Karl Marx
b) Engels
c) Alfred Marshal
d) Adam Smith
Answer:
Adam Smith

Question 8.
Anthropologist who made studies in the Dorai village pointed out the social importance of market,
a) Adam Smith
b) Alfred Gell
c) Karl Marx
d) Engels
Answer:
Alfred Gell

Question 9.
Who said that In the capitalist production system, labour itself becomes goods’?
a) Adam Smith
b) Karl Marx
c) Alfred Gell
d) Alfred Marshal
Answer:
Karl Marx

Question 10.
Match the following.

A	B
Adam Smith	Salt
Banjara	The Wealth of Nations
Karl Marx	Status symbol
Max Weber	Capitalist exploitation

Answer:

A	B
Adam Smith	The Wealth of Nations
Banjara	Salt
Karl Marx	Capitalist exploitation
Max Weber	Status symbol

Question 11.
What are the different meanings of ‘market’?
Answer:
These are the different meanings of market:

• A place for selling and buying things (fruit market, wholesale market).
• The coming together of people for buying and selling (weekly market).
• Trade-Business sector (Car market, Ready-made clothes market).
• Demand for special products or services (market for mobiles phones, market for computer professionals).

Question 12.
What are the sociological views about Markets and Economic System?
Answer:
The main aim of economics is to understand and explain how markets work in the modem capitalist economy. For example, how are prices determined? What are the benefits of certain kinds of investment? What are the factors that make people earn money and spend it? All these questions are answered by economics. Here the question is what contribution the sociologist can make in the study of markets. Sociology tries to go beyond the things that economics tells us. That means, Sociology tells us things about the market which Economics does not tell us. Sociology looks at the changes markets bring in the society.

Question 13.
What role does Sociology have in the study of markets?
Answer:
To answer this question, we have to look into the England of the 18th century and the starting of Economics. Economics was then called political economy. Among the early political economists, the most famous was Adam Smith. He is known as the Father of Economics. He published a book called “The Wealth of Nations” in 1776. In his book, Smith tried to understand the market system that started at that time.

Smith argued that economic system is made by individual transactions, like a series of buying and selling. It slowly becomes a self-working, orderly system. Market system is not something anybody deliberately creates. The millions of people that made transactions did not have any intention to create a market system. Each individual looks at his personal interest or gain.

When we try for our personal interests, automatically the interests of the society get protected. In other words, what individuals do for their benefit will prove beneficial to the society as a whole. Smith argued that this is brought about by an invisible power. He called this invisible power as “invisible hand”. In his opinion, the capitalist economy is propelled forward by the selfish interests of individuals. It is when buyers and sellers take rational decisions, protecting their interests that the capitalist economy goes forward smoothly.

Smith used the concept of ‘Invisible Hand’ to argue that when people pursue their selfish interests in the market, it proves beneficial to the Society. When they work for their personal interests, it awakens the economy and that way more wealth is produced. Because of this Smith supported the idea of free market. Free market means a market without controls from the government or any other agency. This idea is called laissez-faire. It is a French word. It means leave something alone to do its work.

It is from the ideas presented by early political economists like Adam Smith, modern Economics is developed. Modern economics says that the system of wealth should be studied as a separate part of the society. Economic system works with its own principles. It does not worry about the social and political background. But sociologists had an entirely different viewpoint. They tried to study economics within the larger sociological framework. Thus they developed an alternative method for studying economic institutions.

Sociologists look at markets as social institutions. They observe that markets are formed through special cultural ways. For example, markets are organized and controlled by special social classes. They have special relations with other institutions, social processes and structures.

Sociologists say that wealth systems are set in the society. They point out two examples. One is the weekly market of the Tribal Groups, and the second is the traditional business community and its business chains in colonial India.

Question 14.
What is free market?
Answer:
Free market means a market which is not controlled in any way by the government or any other agency. This economic vision is called laissez-faire.

Question 15.
Describe the features of weekly markets.
Answer:
Weekly markets are a central feature of the social and economic activities of agricultural communities. Weekly markets bring people from different villages together. They sell their products and buy those things that are not available in their own villages. Traders from outside, money lenders, artist of various kinds, fortune tellers and such other people also came to the weekly markets with their own purposes. In the Indian villages, there are also special markets at fixed short-term intervals. For example, there are the cattle markets. Such markets bring the economic systems of different places together. They thus get connected to the urban economy and finally to the national economy.

Question 16.
Give a picture of the Doke Market.
Answer:

Question 17.
What were the changes brought into the Indian society by the coming of Colonialism?
Answer:
Studies show that with the coming of Colonialism, the unchanging economic system of India began o crumble. With the establishment of colonial rule, a new economic system came up in money, market and trade. It even penetrated the local agricultural economy. Gradually this agricultural economy became part of a wide exchange chain. With this, self-sufficient villages collapsed.

The old studies say that the coming of the colonial rule brought revolutionary changes in the village and urban communities of India. But modern studies do not support this view. The old studies say that before the colonial rule, the Indian economy was immobile. It was self-sufficient. There, exchanges (barters) took place without any interference of market forces. Economy based on money was not there.

All these arguments were denied by the new studies conducted by Bailey, Burton Stein and Sanjay Subramanian. New studies point out that just before the colonial rule, the system of collecting taxes in cash was started in India. Trade was also done using money. There is no doubt that in many villages of India there still was the barter system as found in the Jajmani system. At the same time, many agricultural products and other goods were also sold for cash in the markets. Recent researches show that extensive trade and business chains were in existence in India before the colonial rule.

Question 18.
How were the indigenous trade chains organized in India?
Answer:
The history of the t mottukkottai Chettiars (Nagarathars) of Tamil Nadu will help us to know about this. The Nagarathars were a famous trade and business community in Tamil Nadu. They had a banking system based on Jati and an extensive business chain. Their community, relatives and family were interested in trade matters. Therefore all their trade activities worked within this social structure. Their banks were institutions run by joint families. Similarly, their trade and banking activities were done through the connections of Jati and relatives. For example, they had extensive Jati-based relations in South East Asia and Sri Lanka. This helped them to extend their business interests into those areas. Some people. say that the economic activities of the Nagarathars were some of kind indigenous capitalism. This raises an important question: Did India have capitalist systems different from those of Europe?

Question 19.
How was the social structure of the markets?
Answer:
ln India there were many traditional trade communities like the Nagarathars. There is a close relation between Jati system and economic system. This relation can be seen in things like ownership of land and differences in professions. For example, the big land (estate) owners during the colonial times were people belonging to the Upper Classes. It was Jati that determined the profession for each Caste. The relations between Jati and economy are also found in trade and market.
The main profession of Vaisyas, one of the 4 Vamas, is trade! It shows that even in ancient India trade and traders had a high status in society.

There are many Vaisya communities here which have taken up trade as their traditional profession. The Banias of North India are good examples. But trade and business were not the monopoly of Vaisyas. In the traditional trade communities of India, there were. Parsis, Sindhis, Bohras, Jains and also members of other communities. In the trade communities, there were also people who did not have a high status in the society. For example, during the colonial period, it was the Banjaras who controlled the export trade of salt. Banjaras are Low Caste Tribals.

Question 20.
Describe the changes that colonial rule brought to India.
Answer:
Describe the changes that colonial rule brought to India.
a) It destroyed the handloom industry. When cheap factory manufactured clothes came to India, the Indian handloom industry could not survive in the competition.
b) The Indian economy was strongly linked to the world capitalist system.
c) Before colonisation, India was a country exporting manufactured goods to the world market. But after colonization, India became a place for collecting raw materials for the British factories, agricultural products for their consumption and market to sell their finished goods. Thus all the benefits went to England.
d) New groups – especially Europeans – entered the. trade and commerce market. The new groups either worked with the existing trading communities or ousted them from their trade.
e) In India, a market economy came. It helped some new trade communities to grow. They tried to take advantage of the new circumstances. These communities continued to remain powerful even after independence.

Question 21.
Show how the.new trade communities made use of the opportunities provided by the colonial rule, citing the example of Marwaris.
Answer:
Marwaris are the most famous and widespread trade community in India. That community includes business magnates like Birla and also the small traders found all over the cities and towns of India. It was during the colonial rule that the Marwaris became so successful in their trade. They took advantage of the opportunities offered by the colonial rule in cities like Calcutta. To engage in trade and money-lending business, they spread across India. Like the Nagarathars, they were able to make use of extensive trade chains and acquire the confidence of the business world.

Many Marwari families made huge amounts of money through trade. They worked like bankers by giving money on interest. Thus they also helped in the development of British trade policies. Towards the end of the colonial rule, and even after independence, the Marwaris continue to march forward successfully. Many Marwari families became modem industrialists. Even now amongst all communities, Marwari community has the biggest share of Indian industries. This story of the Marwaris shows the importance of social background in economic processes.

Question 22.
Examine the evaluation of Marx on capitalism.
Answer:
Marx saw capitalism as a system for the production of goods. All productions in capitalism aim the market. For production, hired labour is used. In Marx’s view, all economic systems are also social systems. Each style of manufacture (slavery, feudalism, capitalism) gives birth to a certain class structure. Marx pointed out that in the economic system, the only important thing is not just the goods. Relations between people are an important aspect also. People are connected through the manufacturing (Production) process.

In the capitalist production system, labour itself becomes a kind of goods. The workers are forced to sell their work power in the market. This creates two important classes – capitalists and workers.

Question 23.
Write about the views of Marx about Capitalist and Labour classes.
Answer:
Capitalists are the owners of the means of production like factory, machinery and land. Labourers are those who live by selling their labour. A product has value because of the work of the labourers. It is the workers

that convert a cheap raw material into a product of high value. The entire profit is taken by the capitalists. (Profit = the cost of the product – production. expenses.) Capitalists try to maximise their profit by giving workers minimum wages. Marx imagined that the labours will fight against this exploitation by organizing themselves and fighting against the capitalists, establishing a Socialist-Communist society. The theory of Marx regarding capitalist economy and society helped in the making of many theories and debates regarding the nature of capitalism.

Question 24.
What is the meaning of materialization?
Answer:
Two important features of capitalist society are materialization and consumerism. As capitalism grew, markets began to spread all over the world. Markets came in all aspects of human life. With this, the process of materialization also started. Materialization takes place when things not available in the market until then become available. It is a process by which non-goods are changed into goods and made part of the economy. For example, drinking water was not an item for sale. Nobody bought and sold water. When drinking water is bottled and sold – in the market, it becomes ‘goods’ for sale. Materialization takes place. Like that, labour, and skill have been materialized.

Question 25.
A special feature of capitalism is consumerism. Clarify.
Answer:
Consumerism is a special feature of capitalism. This is becoming more and more significant. Consumerism has symbolic meanings. This, and not economic reasons, makes the importance of consumerism greater.

In the modern society, consumerism creates social differences. When a consumer buys some things and shows them off he is showing his social and economic status or his cultural concerns. Companies, which want to sell their products, attract customers by presenting them as symbols of status and culture. In the advertisements, we see on television, in the media and even on the advertising boards, these techniques for sale are used.

Question 26.
What is globalization? What are it features?
Answer:
Globalization era means an era when the entire world is mutually connected. The world is connected economically, politically and culturally. This mutual relation is the mark of globalization.

There are many tendencies in globalization. The main tendency liere is the flow of goods, money, information, and people from one country to another. Technology (computer, telecommunication, transport) and internal structure are also factors of globalization. The, most important feature of globalization is the expansion of markets and their linkage.

Question 27.
What are the changes globalization brought in the market?
Answer:
As a result of globalization, markets expanded in a big way. Not only that important markets of the world have also been linked. With this, the change in one market began to affect other markets also. For example, following the 11 September 2001 (9/ 11) terrorist attack on the World Trade Centre in New York, there was a crisis in the American economy. It seriously affected the software industry in India. It adversely affected our business and professional fields. Many lost their jobs. It is through Software industry, BPO industries like Call-Centres, etc. we get connected to the global economy. Many Indian companies give cheap services to many consumers in developed nations. Indian software industry and other services have a world market.

Question 28.
What do the liberalization policies show?
Answer:
It was the liberalization policy started in India at the end of the 1980s that led to globalization here. The policy included selling public (government) companies to private organizations, removing control over capital and labour market, reduction of customs and duties on imported goods, allowing foreign companies to start industries in India, etc.

The policy of liberalization is often called marketization. It is solving social, political and economic problems using markets. This includes reducing and removing economic controls, privatizing industries, removing governmental control over prices and wages, etc.

The proponents of marketization believe that it will hasten economic growth and prosperity. It is seen that private industries are far more efficient than public or government industries.

Question 29.
Critically examine the changes liberalization and marketization brought in the Indian economic system.
Answer:
Liberalization and marketization brought many changes in the Indian economic system. They stimulated economic growth and opened Indian markets to foreign goods. Many things that were not available in the Indian markets are now available here. There was an increase in foreign investment. It was hoped it would help economic growth and create employment opportunities. It was also hoped that the privatization of government enterprises would make them more efficient and also reduce the responsibility of the government to run them. But liberalization had mixed results. Some people feel that liberalization and globalization had negative results in India.

Some industries were benefited by globalization. Software industry, technology, fish farming and fruit farming made good progress as they could enter foreign markets and make gains. But areas like automobile industry, electronics and oil seeds suffered setbacks as they could not compete with foreign competitors.
Indian farmers are facing serious competition from foreign farmers. The reason for this is the permission given to import agricultural products here. In the past Indian farmers were protected from foreign competition by the government, giving them subsidies and base prices for their products. Such support helped the farmers. By giving them base price, the government promised the farmers to buy their products at a minimum price.

Since they were given subsidies to farm, their expenses were not high. But liberalization was against such policies of giving subsidies and base prices. It demanded the slow reduction and final abolition of both subsidies and support prices. With this, it was certain that farmers could not live comfortably with the little they got from their farms. The many suicides of farmers in India show the evils of liberalization and globalization. Globalization adversely affected small manufacturers and traders. They faced stiff competition in the market. Foreign goods and foreign brands captured the markets. Many small manufacturing units had to close down. Many small shops were also had to close because of stiff competition.

Globalization brought serious loss of jobs in some areas. Many lost their jobs in the organized sector. But this increased jobs in the non-organized sectors. While organized labour suffered, un-organized labour gained. But this was not beneficial to the workers. In the organized labour sector, workers are ensured stability of jobs and better wages. But in the un-‘ organized sector nothing of this kind is available.