Bhagya

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

I. Answer any 3 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Obseve the first pair and fill in the blank.
Lichen : association with fungi and algae.
______ : association of fungi with roots of higher plants.
Answer:
Mycorrhiza

Question 2.
Fill in the blank.
DNA synthesis take place in the ______ phase of cell cycle.
Answer:
S-phase

Question 3.
Name the plant hormone which helps to the ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethylene

Question 4.
Fill in the blank.
A flower having both feynoecium and Androecium is _____
Answer:
Bisexual flower

Question 5.
Name a bacteria responsible for nitrification.
Answer:
Nitrosomonas/nitrobactor

Question 6.
Name the unicellular fungus used for making bread.
Answer:
Yeast

II. Answer any 9 questions form 7 to 24. Each carries 2scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Complete the table withappropriate terms:
Answer:
(a) Green Algae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Red algae
(d) Laminarin/Mannitol

Classes	Common Name	Stored food
Ghlorophyceae	(a)	Starch
(b)	Brown algae	(d)
Rhodophyceae	(c)	Florideam starch

Question 8.
The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as venation. Write any two types of venation.
Answer:
Recticulate and Parallel Venation

Question 9.
Match the folloiwng:

Column A	Column B
Sub-stages of Meiosis 1	Events
(i) Diakinesis	(a) Formation of chiasmata
(ii) Zygotene	(b) Crossing over
(iii) Pachytene	(c) Synapsis
(iv) Diplotene	(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Sub-stages of Meiosis 1	Events
(i) Diakinesis	(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(ii) Zygotene	(c) Synapsis
(iii) Pachytene	(b) Crossing over
(iv) Diplotene	(a) Formation of chiasmata

Question 10.
Mitochondria is known as the power house of the cell. Why?
Answer:
They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, stored and distributed for various cell activities hence they are called power houses of the cell.

Question 11.
Write any two functions of cell membrane.
Answer:
Cell growth, formation of intercellular juctions, secretion, endocytosis, cell division, transport of the molecules (Any two)

Question 12.
Light reaction is process involved in photosynthesis.
(a) What is light reaction?
(b) Where does it take place
Answer:
(a) It is the first step of photosynthesis in which trapping of light energy takes place and the synthesis of ATP and NADPH
(b) Grana membrane

Question 13.
In some plants that are adpted to dry tropical region have the C₄ pathway.
(a) Name the special type of anatomy seen in C4 plants.
(b) List out any two plants that shows C₄ pathway.
Answer:
(a) Kranz Anatomy
(b) Maize and sorghum

Question 14.
Sigmoid curve of growth is a characteristic of living organism growing in natural environment. Write any two phases seen in sigmoid growth curve.
Answer:
Lag phase/Exponential phase/Stationary phase (Anty two)

Question 15.
Write any two events take place in z-scheme of light reaction.
Answer:

1. Formation of ATP and NADPH
2. Splitting of water and release of oxygen.

Question 16.
Water movement in the root layer to xylem occurs by two distinct pathways. Which are they?
Answer:

1. Apoplast
2. Symplast

Question 17.
Write any two functions of Mesosomes.
Answer:
It helps in

1. Cell wall formation
2. DNA replciation and distribution to daughter cells
3. Respriation
4. Secretion (any two)

Question 18.
The Calvin cycle represents the main events in Dark reaction.
(a) Name the three main stages of Calvin cycle.
(b) What is the main product of Calvin cycle?
Answer:
1. Carboxylation
2. Reduction
3. Regeneration

b) Sucrose/ Starch

Question 19.
Agar is a commercial product obtained from algae.
(a) Name one alga from which agar is obtained.
(b) Write any one use of agar.
Answer:
(a) Gelidium Gracilaria
(b)

1. Use to grow microbes
2. Preparations of ice-creams and jellies.

Question 20.
Differentiate endarch and exarch xylem.
Answer:
In Endarch condition, protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the organ. eg. stem. In Exarch condition, protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. eg. root.

Question 21.
Observe the figure. Identify the types to vascular bundles.

Answer:
(a) Radial
(b) Conjoint open

Question 22.
Differentiate between Heartwood and sapwood.
Answer:
The central dark coloured, durable and non functional wood is heart wood.
The peripheral light coloured, less durable and functional wood is sap wood.

Question 23.
Name the products obtained from anaerobic respiration by Yeast.
Answer:
Ethanol and CO₂

Question 24.
The girue below shows three types of facilitated diffusion. Identify the type of movement seen in (a) and (b).

Answer:
(a) Antiport
(b) Symport

Answer any 3 questions from 25 to 30. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 25.
What are the fifferences between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
In aerobic respiration glucose is breakdown in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water and more amount of energy.
In anaerobic respiration glucose is breakdown in the absence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and ethanol (depends on type of micro-organism) and less amount of energy.

Question 26.
Given below is the floral formula of a plant in a particular family.

(a) Identify the family.
(b) Write any two floral characters of the family
Answer:
(a) Fabaceae
(b) Zygomorphic, 5 petals papilionaceous, vexillary aestivation diadelphous stamen and marginal placentation (any two)

Question 27.
The figure shown below is the diagrammatic view of an important phase of mitosis.
(a) Identify the phase.
(b) What are the key events occurring during this phase?
Answer:

(a) Metaphase
(b) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
Chromosomes are arranged at spindle equator.

Question 28.
What are the criteria used for identifying essentiality of elements?
Answer:
(a) The element must be supporting normal growth and reproduction.
(b) The requriement of the element must be specific.
(c) The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.

Question 29.
The respiratory quotient depends upon the type of substrate used during respiration.
(a) Define RQ (Respiratory quotient)
(b) What is the RQ of carbohydrte during respiration?
Answer:
(a) The ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration is called the respiratory quotient.
(b) 1

Question 30.
The various functions of plant growth regulaters are given below. Arrange them under suitable columns in the table provided.(i) Intermode elongation of sugarcane
(ii) Promotes cell division
(iii) Bolting
(iv) Apical dominance
(v) Initiate rooting in stem cutting
(vi) Overcome apical dominance

Name of Plant growth regulators	Function
Auxin
Giberelline
Cytokinin

Answer:

Name of Plant growth regulators	Functions
Auxin	(a) Apical dominance
	(b) Initiate rooting in stem cutting
Giberelline	(c) Intermode elongation of sugarcane
	(d) Bolting
Cytokinin	(e) Promotes cell division
	(f) Overcome apical

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

I. Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Fill in the blank.
Diffusion of water across a differentially or selectively Permeable membrane is ____.
Answer:
Osmosis

Question 2.
Choose the correct answr. Reserve Food in Phaeophyceae (Floridean starch, Mannitol, Starch, Algin)
Answer:
Mannitol

Question 3.
Observe the first pair and fill the blank.
Light reaction: Grana
Dark reaction: ____
Answer:
Stroma

Question 4.
Name the process which is common for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis

II. Answer any 9 questions from 5 to 17. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 5.
Plants adapted to dry tropical regions exhibit C₄ pathway.
(a) Name the first CO₂ acceptor in C₄ Pathway.
(b) Which is the first stable product formed in C₄ Pathway?
Answer:
a) PEP (Phospho enol Pyruvic acid)
b) OAA (Oxalo Acetic Acid)

Question 6.
Define Mycorrhiza. How is Mycorrhizal associaton helpful to plants?
Answer:
Mvcorrhiza
It is the syymbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants like pinus. Due to the presence of large surface area of hyphae, they helps to absorb water and minerals from soil Roots in turn gives sugar & N- containing compounds to fungus.

Question 7.
Differentiate between long day plants and short day plants.
Answer:

1. Long day plants : They require the exposure to light for a period greater than critical duration (12 hr) before flowering.
2. Short day plants: They require the exposure to light for a period less than critical duration before the flowering.

Question 8.
Match the following:

A	B
a) Bryophytes	i) Double Fertilisation
b) Pteridophytes	ii) Protonema
c) Gymnosperms	iii) Prothallus
d) Angiosperms	vi) Naked seeded

Answer:

A	B
a) Bryophytes	Protonema
b) Pteridophytes	Prothallus
c) Gymnosperms	Naked seeded
d) Angiosperms	Double Fertilisation

Question 9.
List out the four components of xylem in angiosperms.
Answer:

1. Xylem vessels.
2. Xylem tracheids.
3. Xylem parenchyma & Xylem fibres.

Question 10.
Given below are certain processes that occur during the differnt phases of Prophase I in meiotic division. Arrange them against appropriate stages provided in the table.
• Crossing over
• Formation of synapsis
• Terminilisation of Chiasmata
• Dissolution of synaptomal complex.
Answer:

(a) Zygotene	Formation of synapsis
(b) Pachytene	Crossing over
(c) Diplotene	Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(d) Diakinesis	Terminalisation of chiasmata

Question 11.
Write any two uses of Bacteria.
Answer:

• It helps in the conversion of milk to curd.
• It helps in the production of antibiotics.

Question 12.
Define Respiratory Quotient. Write the RQ value of Carbohydrate.
Answer:
Respiratory quotient It is the ratio of volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ constimed in respiration
RQ of carbohydrate = 1

Question 13.
List out the four stages of M phase of cell cycle in correct sequential order.
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

Question 14.
Observe the given diagram of Mitochondria.
(a) Identify and label parts A and B.
(b) Why Mitochondria is known as the power house of the cell?

Answer:
a) (A) Matrix
(B) Crista

b) Huge energy produced in the form of ATP and stored

Question 15.
How do conjoint vascular bundles fiffer from radial vascular bundels?
Answer:

• Conjoint vascular bundle : Xylem and Phloem are arranged in the same bundle on the same radius. Here phloem is located on the outer side of Xylem
• Radial vascular bundle : Xylem & Phloem are arranged in separate bundles on different radius.

Question 16.
Write any two peculiarities of facemose inflorescence.
Answer:

• Peduncle has unlimited growth.
• Flowers are arranged in Acropetal succession.

Question 17.
List any two functions of cell wall in plant cells.
Answer:

1. Give shape to the cell
2. Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.

Answer any 3 questions from 18 to 22. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 18.
Given below are certain activities of growth regulators in plants. Arrange them under suitable heading in the table provided.
• Initiate rooting in stem cuttings.
• Bolting in rosette plants.
• Apical dominance.
• Increase length of grape stalks
• Pathenocarpy in tomatores.
• Speed up malting process in brewing industry
Auxin:
Gibberellin:
Answer:

1. Auxin : Initiate rooting in stem cuttings, Apical dominance, Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
2. Gibberellin : Bolting in rosette plants, Increase length of grape stalks, Speed up malting process in brewing industry

Question 19.
Write any three differences between cyclic and non- cyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:

Cycic photophosphorvlation	Non-cvclic photophosphorvlation
1. Only PS I is functional,	1. Ps I and PS II are functional,
2. ATP is synthesized,	2. ATP & NADPH are synthesized.
3. Photolysis of water absent,	3. Photolysis of water present

Question 20.
Define Hydroponics. Write any two appli-cations of hydroponics.
Answer:
Hydroponics It is the soilless cultivation of plants in nutrient medium

1. It helps to study deficiency symptoms in plants
2. Commercial production of vegetables such as tomato, seedless cucumber & lettuce.

Question 21.
List out any three modifications of root with one example each.
(a) Identify and write the compounds A and B in the cycle.
(b) Name the scientist who first elucidated the cycle.
(c) Where does tricarboxylic cycle occur?
Answer:
Roots are modified for

1. Mechanical support
   • Prop roots : In banyan tree, adventitious roots are modified and provide mechanical support
   • Stilt roots : In maize and sugarcane adventitious roots are supporting and coming out from the lower nodes of the stem.
2. Storage of food
   • In carrot, turnips tap roots are modified for food storage
   • In sweet potato adventitious roots are swollen and store food.
3. Respiration
   • Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots dome out of the ground and grow vertically upwards. Such roots are called

Question 22.
Given below is the schematic representation of tricarboxylic acid cycle in respiration.

Answer:
a) A cjtric acid B Succinic acid
b) Hans Kreb
c) Matrix of Mitochondria

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

I. Answer any three questions from 1-5. Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Fill in the blank:
The algal component in lichen is known as _____
Answer:
Phycobiont

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer:
The R.Q (Respiratory Quotient) of carbo-hydrate is ______ .
Answer:
1

Question 3.
Observe the relationship of first pair and fill in the blank:
Algin : Brown algae
Carrageen : _______
Answer:
Red algae

Question 4.
Name the type of vascular bundle in the figure:

Answer:
Radial vascular bundle

Question 5.
Fill in the blank:
The site of dark reaction in photosynthesis is _____ part of chloroplast.
Answer:
Stroma

II. Answer any 9 questions from 6-16. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 6.
Expand the following:
(A) PPLO
(B) SER
Answer:
(A) Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organism
(B) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 7.
Observe the diagram given below:
(i) Identify this bryophyte.
(ii) Label the parts A, B and C

Answer:

1. Funaria
2. A – Rhizoid B – Seta C – Capsule

Question 8.
Match the following:

A	B
Amoeboid Protozoans	Paramoecium
Flagellated Protozoans	Entamoeba
Ciliated Protozoans	Plasmodium
Sporozoans	Trypanosoma

Answer:

A	B
Amoeboid Protozoans	Entamoeba
Flagellated Protozoans	Trypanosoma
Ciliated Protozoans	Paramoecium
Sporozoans	Plasmodium

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate term given below: Chloroplast, Amyloplasts, Lencoplast, Aleuroplast.

Answer:
A – Chloroplast
B – Leucoplast
C – Amyloplast
D – Aleuroplast

Question 10.
Karyokinesis in Mitosis involves four stages. What are they?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

Question 11.
The following figure A & B show two different types of phyllotaxy:
(i) Define phyllotaxy.
(ii) Write the name of phyllotaxy A & B

Answer:

1. Arrangement of leaves on stem or branch.
2. A – Alternate,
   B – Opposite

Question 12.
Write any two uses of Ethephon.
Answer:

1. Promote abscission in flowers and fruits.
2. Promote female flowers in cucumbers and thus increase the yield.

Question 13.
The first step in respiration is glycolysis.
(A) Define glycolysis.
(B) Write the site of glycolysis in a cell.
(C) Enzyme responsible for conversion of glucose to glucose -6-phosphate.
Answer:
(A)It is the partial oxidation of glucose into two molecules of Pyruvic acid.
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Hexokinase

Question 14.
Certain physiological effects in plants are given below: Name the plant growth regulators responsible for it.
(A) Bolting
(B) Apical dominance
(C) Ripening of fruit
(D) Closure of stomata
Answer:
(A) Gibberellin
(B) Auxin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Abscisic acid

Question 15.
Identify the sub stages of prophase I of Meiosis in which the following events take place:
(A) Crossing over
(B) Pairing of homologous chromosome
(C) Terminalisation of Chiasmata
(D) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
Answer:
(A) Pachytene
(B) Zygotene
(C) Diakinesis
(D) Diplotene

Question 16.
Some characteristic features of C₃ and C₄ plants are given below:
• Kranz anatomy absent
• Lack photorespiration
• First product of CO₂
• Primary CO₂ acceptor is PEP.

Arrange them as follows:
C₃ Plants:
C₄ Plants:
Answer:
C₃ Plants : Kranz anatomy absent, First product of CO₂ fixation is PGA

C₄ Plants: Lack Photorespiration , Primary CO₂ acceptor is PEP

III. Answer any 3 questions from 17-20. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 17.
The given figure shows different types of flowers based on position of floral parts on thalamus:
Answer:
(i) Identify (A) & (B).
(ii) Explain Epigynous flower.

(ii) Margin of thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary completely and other parts arise above the ovary.

Question 18.
Write any 3 external and internal features that affect photosynthesis.
Answer:

Internal factors	External factors
1. Number of leaf	1. Light
2. Age of leaf	2. Carbon dioxide concentration
3. Internal CO2 concentration	3. Temperature /Water

Question 19.
The following are the anatomical features of flowering plants. Arrange these features in the table given below:
• Spongy parenchyma
• Hypodermis present
• Exarch xylem
• Conjoint and open vascular bundle
• Large empty bulliform cells
• Endodermis with casparian strip
Answer:

1. Root : Exarch xylem , Endodermis with casparian strip
2. Stem : Hypodermis present, Conjoint and Open vascular bundle
3. Leaf : Spongy parenchyma , Large empty bullifoTm cells

Question 20.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

(i) Write the name of this cycle.
(ii) Identify A & B in the cycle.
Answer:
(i) Krebs’ cycle/ TCA cycle

(ii) A – Oxalo acetic acid
B – Citric acid

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2019

Answer all questions from 1 to 7. Each question carry one score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
The lowest hypothetical temperature at which gases are supposed to occupy zero volume is called
Answer:
-273.15° c. Absolute zero temperature.

Question 2.
Which among the following is a molecular hydride?
b) NH₃
c) CrH
d) LaH₂
Answer:
b) NH₃

Question 3.
Give the IUPAC name of

Answer:
3, Ethyl 1, 1 – dimethyl cyclo hexane

Question 4.
Predict the product obtained by the reaction of Li with O₂.
Answer:
Li₂O

Question 5.
According to the first law of thermodynamics, for an isolated system, ∆u = ………
Answer:
zero.

Question 6.
The minimum value for the product of uncertainties in position and momentum of a moving microscopic particle is equal to …………
Answer:
\(\frac{h}{4π}\)

Question 7.
Round off 0.0525 to a number with two significant figures.
Answer:
0.052

Answer any ten questions from 8 to 20. Each carries two scores (10 x 2 = 20)

Question 8.
Draw the Newman projections of the eclipsed and staggered conformations of ethane molecule.
Answer:
Newman Pojection Formula

Question 9.
Calculate the pH of 1 × 10^-2 molar aqueous solution of H₂SO₄
Answer:
pH = -log[H⁺]
= log[2 × 10^-2] = 1.699

Question 10.
Among NaCl, BeCl₂ and AlCl₃ which one is more covalent? Justify the answer.
Answer:
AlCl₃. Fajans Rule says that smaller the size and greater the charge of cation greater will be the polarising power, hence the covalent character.

Question 11.
Differentiate homolytic cleavage from heterolytic cleavage of covalent bonds.
Answer:

Question 12.
Mention two observations which could not be explained by the wave nature of electromagnetic radiations.
Answer:
Black body radiation, photo electric effect, atomic spectra, hot body radiation, line spectrum, reflection, Compton effect, (any two)

Question 13.
Chlorine has the most negative electron gain enthalpy. Justify the statement.
Answer:
In chlorine the incoming electron enters into 3p orbital which is larger than 2p of Flourine atom. So repulsion is low and Cl has highest electron gain enthalpy.

Question 14.
Write the expression for equilibrium
4NH_3(g) + 5O_2(g) → 4NO_(g) + 6H₂O_(g)
Write the expression for eqilibrium constant (K_c) for the above equilibrium. What happens to K_c, if the balanced equation is multiplied throughout by a factor, 2.
Answer:

Question 15.
Give the chemical equations for the steps involved In the ozonolysis of propene.
Answer:

Question 16.
Draw the structure of Diborane. Write a note on the nature of bonds present in it.
Answer:

Two types of bonds are present in diborane.
i) Two centre – two electron bonds (2c – 2e)
ii) Three centre – two electron bonds (3c – 2e)
In B₂H₆ four hydrogen atoms in one plane. These hydrogen atoms are known as terminal hydrogen. The other two hydrogen atoms which is above and below the plane are called bridging H atoms.

Question 17.
What is meant by spontaneous processes? Give the criterion of spontaneity in terms of ∆G for a process taking place at constant temperature and pressure.
Answer:
A process that take,s place without the help of any external agency is called a spontaneous process. The conditions for a spontaneous process is
∆G = -ve or ∆G < 0

Question 18.
Give the relation between molar-mass of a gas (m) and its density (d). How are the densities of 02(g). and CH_4(g) related, if they are kept at the same temperature and pressure?
Answer:
PM = dRT
P – Pressure,
M – Molar Mass,
d – density,
R – Universal gas constant,
T – Temperature.
d₁ = 2d₂
\(\frac{M_1}{M_2}\) =\(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\) → \(\frac{32}{16}\) = \(\frac{d_1}{d_2}\)
Density = 2:1

Question 19.
Represent, the Lewis structure of O₃ molecule and assign the formal charge on each atom.
Answer:
Lewis structure of ozone is

Formal Charge = Total no. of valence electrons on the free atom – Total no. of lone pair of electrons – \(\frac{1}{2}\)(Total no. of bonding electrons)

Formal charge on first O atom = 6 – 2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (6) = 1

Formal charge on 2nd O atom = 6 – 4 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (4) = 0

Formal charge on 3rd O atom = 6 – 6 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (2) = 1

Question 20.
Identify the positions of Al (z = 13) and S (z = 16) in the periodic table with the help of their electronic configurations. Predict the formula of the compound formed between them.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of Al₁₃ is 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p¹. It is a p block element because last electron enters in p subshell.
Period no. 3 (Highest principal quantum no.)
Group No.: 13 (No. of valence electrons + 10)
Electronic cinfiguration of S16 – 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s², 3p⁴.
p block element, period No. 3 and group no. 16
The compound formed by Al and S is Al₂S₃ because
valency of Al = 3 and that of S = 2.

Answer any seven questions from 21 to 29. Each carries three scores. (7×3 = 21)

Question 21.
Give reasons for the anomalous behaviour of Li. Write any four points of similarities between Li and Mg.
Answer:
Anomalous properties of Li are due to its small size, high ionisation enthalpy, high polarising power and absence of vacant d orbitals.
Anomalous properties of Li and Magnesium
i) Both Li and Mg are harder
ii) Both react slowly with water
iii) They do not form super oxides
iv) Their chlorides are deliquescent
v) Their bicarbonates are stable only in solution

Question 22.
Explain the hydrolysis of different types of salts with the help of examples and comment on the pH of the resulting solutions in each case.
Answer:
There are four types of salts
i) Hydrolysis of salts of strong base and weak acid.
eg. CH₃COONa, Na₂CO₃, KCN
These salts on hydrolysis give strong base and weak acid, hence the pH of resulting solution is ‘ as that of base, greater than 7.

ii) Hydrolysis of salts of weak base and week acid.
eg. NH₄Cl, NH₄NO₃, CuSO₄ etc.
These salts on hydrolysis gives weak base and strong acid and there fore pH of resulting solution is of less than 7.

iii) Hydrolysis otsalts of weak base and strong acid, eg. Ammonium Acetate (CH₃COONH₄), ammonium carbonate (NH₄)₂CO₃. These salts on hydrolysis give neutral solution.

iv) Hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base. These salts do not undergo hydrolysis and the solution is neutral.

Question 23.
a) What is meant by acid rain?
b) Explain the chemistry behind the formation of acid rain.
c) What are the harmful effects of acid rain?
Answer:
a) If the pH of the rain water drops is below 5.6 it is called acid rain.

b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are mainly responsible for acid rain.

c)
i) Acid rain is harmful for agriculture, trees and plants.
ii) It causes skin cancer
iii) It affects plants and animal life.
iv) Damages buildings and other structures

Question 24.
Alkynes can be converted selectively into cisalkenes and trans-alkenes. Explain with suitable examples.
Answer:
Lindlar catalyst gives cis product.

If the reduction is carried out using sodium in liquid ammonia, we get trans alkene.

Question 25.
A reaction mixture for the production of NH₃ gas contains 250g of N₂ gas and 50g of H₂ gas under suitable conditions. Identify the limiting reactant, if any and calculate the mass of NH₃ gas produced.
Answer:

H₂ is completely’consumed, so it is the limiting reagent.
Amount of ammonia formed = 50 + 233.33 = 283.33g

Question 26.
Write the molecular orbital electronic configuration, of N₂ and O₂ molecules. Compare the stability and magnetic behaviour of these molecules on the basis of M.O theory.
Answer:
Molecular orbital configuration of N₂ is
σ 1s² σ * 1s² σ 2s² σ * 2s² π 2px² = π2py² σ2pz²
Bond order = \(\frac{1}{2}\)(nb – na)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)(10 – 4) = 3
Due to the pressence of paired electron, the molecule is diamagnetic.
Molecular orbital configuration of O₂

Question 27.
a) Why do real gases deviate from ideal behaviour?
b) Write the conditions under which gases deviate from ideality.
c) Define Boyle point.
Answer:
Due to two wrong assumptions
i) There is no force of attraction between the molecules.
ii) The actual volume of gas molecule is negligible compared to the total volume of the gas.
b) High pressure and low temperature.
c) It is the temperature at which the real gases obey ideal gas equation over a range of pressure.

Question 28.
Give the structure, a method of preparation and a chemical reaction of H₂O₂.
Answer:
Open book like structure or laptop structure.

Chemical reaction
H₂O₂ decomposes slowly on exposure to light.
2H₂O_2(l) → 2H₂O_(l) + O_2(g)

Preperation of hydrogen peroxide
By acidifying barium peroxide with H₂SO₄
BaO₂.8H₂O(s) + H₂SO₄(aq) → BaSO₄ + H₂O₂(aq)

Question 29.
Balance the following Redox process by ion-electron method or oxidation number method :
P_4(S) + OH^–_(aq) → PH_3(g) + HPO^–_2(aq)
Answer:
Oxidation no. method
i) Write the equation P₄ + OH^– → PH₃ + HPO₂
ii) Write the oxidation no. of each element and identify atoms which undergo oxidation or reduction.
P°₄ + OH^– → P^-3H₃ + H^-2PO₂
iii) Calculate the change in oxidation no. per atom and equate them by multiplying with suitable coefficient.

iv) Now balance the hydrogen atoms by adding 12 water (H₂O) molecules on L.H.S.
5P₄ + 12OH^– + 12H₂O → 8PH₃ + 12HPO₂
Now the equation is balanced.

Question 30.
Explain quantum numbers. Give the importance of quantum numbers in Pauli’s Exclusion Principle.
Answer:
Quantum numbers are the address of the electron. It is used to explain the size, shape, spin and orientation of an electron.
Quantum numbers are four
i) Principal quantum no (n) gives us idea about size and energy of electron in an orbit. The values can be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, etc.
ii) Azimuthal Quantum No. (I): It gives the shape of the orbital. It is also called the orbital angular momentum quantum no. I can have values from 0 to (n -1).
iii) Magnetic quantum No. (m): It gives orientation of orbitals in space, m can have values from -I to +l including zero. There are (2I + 1) possible values.
iv) Spin Quantum no. (s): It gives the spin orientation +of electrons. It can have two values + \(\frac{1}{2}\) or – \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Paul’s exclusion principle : No two electrons in an atom can have same set of four quantum nos.

Or

If two electrons have same values for n, I and m they should have different values for s. ie. s = + \(\frac{1}{2}\) for first electron and – \(\frac{1}{2}\) for second electron.

Question 31.
a) What are silicones?
Answer:
Silicones are organo silicon polymers with -R₂SiO- repeating unit.

b) Write the chemical equations showing the steps involved in the manufacture of silicones.
Answer:

c) How can the chain length of silicones be controlled during their synthesis?
Answer:
By adding (CH₃)₃SiCl the chain length can be controlled.

Question 32.
Briefly explain the different types of structural isomerism shown by organic compounds with suitable examples.
Answer:
Structural isomerism are of four types
a) Chain Isomerism : Isomers differ in carbon chain
eg. Pentane – C₅H₁₂

b) Position Isomerism: Isomers differ in the position of the side chain or functional group.

c) Functional group Isomerism: Isomers which differ in the functional group.

d) Metamerism: Isomers which differ in the number of carbon atoms around the functional group.

Question 33.
a) State Hess’ law of constant heat summation.
b) Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH_(l) from the following data:

Answer:
Hess’s Law The law states that total enthalpy change for a physical or chemical process is same whether the reaction is taking place in a single step or several steps.

Reverse the equation (1) + equation (2) + equation (3) × 2, we get the required equation,
ie. 726 + -393 + -286 × 2 = -239 kg/mol

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Profit is the reward of
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Business

Question 2.
‘One man one vote’ is the principle applicable to _____ form of tjusiness.
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Joint Stock Company
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(d) Co-operative Society

Question 3.
Identify the business which is brought into existence by a Special Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Public Corporation
c) Government Company
d) Private Company
Answer:
b) Public Corporation

Question 4.
Name the warehouse to store imported goods prior to the payment of tax and customs duty.
a) Private warehouse
b) Public warehouse
c) Bonded warehouse
d) Govemment warehouse
Answer:
c) Bonded warehouse

Question 5.
Identify the type of social responsibility in the given statement. ‘Helping the affected people due to natural calamity.’
a) Economic
b) Legal
c) Ethical
d) Discretionary
Answer:
d) Discretionary

Question 6.
Identify the document related with the public subscription of shares.
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Prospectus

Question 7.
Ploughing back of profit in the business is also known as…
a) Retained earnings
b) Public deposit
c) Trade credit
d) Lease financing
Answer:
a) Retained earnings

Question 8.
MSMED Act 2006 deals with
a) Micro Enterprise
b) Small Enterprise
c) Medium Enterprise
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 9.
VPP is associated with business given below.
a) Departmental store
b) Chain store
c) Mail order business
d) Supermarket
Answer:
c) Mail order business

Question 10.
Scope of International business includes
a) Export and Import
b) Licensing and franchising
c) Contract manufacturing
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
Write any two characteristics of business activity.
Answer:
Characteristics of Business Activities
i) An economic activity: Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
ii) Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.

Question 12.
What is Government Company?
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

Question 13.
Write any two benefits of e-Banking.
Answer:
a) e-banking provides 24 hours, 365 days a year services to the customers of the bank.
b) Customers can make transactions from office of house or while travelling.
c) It creates a sense of financial discipline.

Question 14.
Explain B2B commerce with one example.
Answer:

1. B2B Commerce: It is that business activity in which two business units make electronic transaction. Eg. making enquiries seeking or placing orders, communicating supply of goods, making payments, and so on.
2. Accept quotations through online, give orders for goods through online.

Question 15.
Name any two documents required in the formation of company.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Consent of proposed directors

Question 16.
What is working capital requirements?
Answer:
Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 17.
Write any two services provided by retailers to manufacturers.
Answer:

1. Retailers undertake personal selling efforts and thus, help to increase the sale of the products.
2. As retailers are in constant touch with customers, they can provide various market information to the producers.

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
Write the three forms of public sector enterprises.
Answer:
1) Departmental Undertakings
2) Government companies
3) Statutory Corporation

Question 19.
Give any three causes of environmental pollution with one example each.
Answer:

1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

Question 20.
Briefly explain the following:
a) Lease financing
b) Factoring
Answer:
(a) Lease Financing: A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the1 other party (lessee). The lessor charges lease rent for asset for some specified period.

Merits

1. The lessee can acquire the asset with a lower investment.
2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are tax deductible. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business.

(b) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

1. It is cheaper than bank credit
2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow.
3. It ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Question 21.
Briefly explain any two types of Itinerant retailers.
Answer:
Types of Itinerant Retailers

1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and mq)/e from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys, vegetables, fruits etc.
2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 22.
Write any three disadvantages of mail order business.
Answer:
Disadvantages

1. It has to spend a large amount for advertisement.
2. There is no direct personal contact between the buyer and the seller. ,
3. They are not suitable for heavy and perishable goods.

Question 23.
Give three benefits of international business,
Answer:
A) Benefits to Nations

1. Earning of foreign exchange : It helps a country to earn foreign exchange which can be used for importing capital goods.
2. More efficient use of resources : External trade enables a country to utilise the available resources in the best possible manner.

B) Benefits to Firms:

1. Prospects for growth: It helps firms to create demands for their products in foreign countries.
2. Enhances competition : External trade enhances healthy competition.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
What is business risk? Mention any two causes of business risk.
Answer:
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events.
Business enterprises may face two types of risk, i.e. speculative risks and pure risks. Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It arises due to change in demand, change in price etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.

1. Natural causes: It includes natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.
2. Human causes: Human causes include dishonesty, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

Question 25.
Distinguish between Active and Nominal Partner.
Answer:
(a) Active partner : A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.
(b) Nominal partner (Quasi partner): A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.

Question 26.
Explain any two functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions
1) Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
a) Current deposit
b) Savings deposit
c) Fixed deposit

2) Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
a) Cash Credit
b) Bank Overdraft
c) Discounting of bill of exchange
d) Term Loans

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
1) Agency Functions
a) Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
b) Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.

Question 27.
Who is a promoter? Write any two functions of promoter.
Answer:
(a) The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
(b)

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

Question 28.
Write any four merits of equity shares.
Answer:
a) Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk.
b) Payment of dividend is not compulsory.
c) Equity capital serves as permanent capital.
d) Equity shares do not carry any charge on the assets of the company.

Question 29.
Differentiate International and Domestic Trade.
Answer:
29. Refer March 2022 Qn. 29

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
What are the difference between Private and Public Company?
Answer:

Basis	Private	Public
a) Members:	Company	Company
b) Minimum number of directors:	Minimum -2 Maximum – 200	Minimum-7 Maximum – Unlimited
c) Minimum paid up capital:	Two	Three
d) Transfer of shares:	₹ 1 lakh	₹ 5 lakh
e) Prospectus:	Restriction on transfer	No restriction

Question 31.
WhatdoyoumeanbyMNC? Write any three features of it
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.

Question 32.
Explain outsourcing. Why outsourcing is needed?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialised service providers. This helps the managers to concentrate on their core activities. Merits of outsourcing

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.

Question 33.
Match the following.

a) Obey the law of the country	a) Air pollution
b) Respecting the religious sentiments	b) Water pollution
c) Emission of carbon monoxide	c) Legal responsibility
d) Dumping of waste to streams	d) Noise Pollution
e) Loss of hearing	e) Ethical responsibility

Answer:

a) Obey the law of the country	Legal responsibility
b) Respecting the religious sentiments	Ethical responsibility
c) Emission of carbon monoxide	Air pollution
d) Dumping of waste to streams	Water pollution
e) Loss of hearing	Noise pollution

Question 34.
What is Memorandum of Association? Name any four clauses of it.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association – It is the “char-ter”.or “magna carta” of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the frame work beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the com¬pany with outside world. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by the proposed directors.

b) 1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. The pro¬posed name should not be identical with the name of another company. In case of a pub¬lic company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private com¬pany the name should end with the word ‘Pri¬vate Limited’ The name must not suggest any connection a national hero. It should not in- elude the word ‘co-operative’.

2. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of- the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.

3. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 35.
What are the problems faced by small business in India?
Answer:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
What is Industry? Briefly explain the classification of Industry.
Answer:
1.1 Industry
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1.2 Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries’are divided into two.

• Extractive industries:- These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
• Genetic industries:- These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

1.3 Secondary industries : Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production.
Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
   • Analytical industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
   • Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
   • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
   • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. television, car, computer, etc.
2. Construction industries: These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

1.4 Tertiary industries: These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg.  Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Question 37.
What is Partnership? Write any three merits and limications of partnership.
Answer:
Partnership The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of the business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.”

Features

1. Formation : Formation of a partnership is based , on agreement between partners.
2. Liability: The liability of partners is unlimited.
3. Risk bearing : The profit or loss shall be shared among the partners in agreed ratio.

Merits of Partnership

1. Easy formation and closure: A partnership firm can be formed and closed easily without any legal formalities.
2. Balanced decision making : In partnership, decisions are taken by all partners.
3. Division of labour: Division of labour is possible in partnership firm.

Limitations of Partnership

1. Unlimited liability : The liability of partners is unlimited.
2. Limited resources : There is a restriction on the number of partners. Hence capital contributed by them is also limited.
3. Possibility of conflicts : Conflicts among partners may affect the smooth working of the partnership business.

Question 38.
Explain any four principles of Insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

I Answer any eight of the following questions from 1-10. Each carriers one scores. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Transport provides utility to business.
a. Time
b. Place
c. Risk
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Place

Question 2.
Buying and selling of goods and services between nations are called
a. Internal trade
b. Island trade
c. International trade
d. wholesale trade
Answer:
c. International trade

Question 3.
The traders who do not have a fixed place of business is
a. Itinerant retailers b. Fixed shop relations c. Semi-fixed shoppers d. Non of these
Answer:
Itinerant retailers

Question 4.
Fishing belonging to ______ industry.
a. Extractive
b. Genetic
c. Manufacturing
d. Constructive
Answer:
Extractive

Question 5.
The member of an H.U.F. business is called
a. Member
b. Partner
c. Co-parcener
d. Shareholder
Answer:
Co-parcener

Question 6.
Indian Railway is an example of _____ from of public enterprise.
a. Statutory corporation
b. Departmental undertaking
c. Government company
d. Private company
Answer:
Departmental undertaking

Question 7.
The person who is taking an insurance policy is called
a. Insurer
b. Insured
c. Insurance company
d. Insurance policy
Answer:
Insured

Question 8.
Which among the following is the document which acknowledges the debt of a company?
a. Debenture
b. Share
c. Stock
d. Mutual Fund
Answer:
Debenture

Question 9.
Purchase of mobile phone through online by a customer is an example of model of e-commerce.
a. C2C
b. B2C
c. Intra B
d. B2G
Answer:
B2C

Question 10.
Providing scholarship to students by a bank belongs to _______ kind of social responsibility of
a. Ethical
b. Legal
c. Discretionary
d. Economics
Answer:
Discretionary

II Answer any 5 questions from 11-16. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
List out any two features of a joint stock company.
Answer:
1. Separate Legal Entity : Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
2. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
3. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.

Question 12.
What do you mean by social responsibility of business?
Answer:
Social responsibility of business refers to its obhgation to take those decisions and perform those actions which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society. Social responsibility involves an element of voluntary action on the part of business people for the benefit of society.

Question 13.
Who is a promoter?
Answer:
The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Question 14.
Briefly explain the term retained earnings
Answer:
A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 15.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
(a) Chocolates
(b) Soft drinks packets

Question 16.
List any two benefits of e-business.
Answer:

1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
2. Customers can buy goods at any time.
3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.

III Answer any 5 questions from 17-22. Each carriers 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 17.
What is partnership deed? List any four centents of it.
Answer:
Partnership of deed
a. The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership i called the partnership deed.
b. Contents of deed Name of firm

1. Name of firm
2. Nature of business and location of business
3. Duration of business
4. Investment made by each partner
5. Profit sharing ratio

Question 18.
Briefly explain any three features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of lepartrnental Undertaking

1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt. employees.

Question 19.
Write any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional business	e-business
1. Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high	Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important	Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low

Question 20.
Briefly explain the stages in the formation of public company.
Answer:
The steps involved in the formation of a company are:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation 25
3. Capital subscription
4. Commencement of business

Question 21.
Write a short note on ‘factoring’
Answer:
Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Question 22.
What are export processing zones?
Answer:
They are industrial estates, which form special enclaves separated from the domestic tariff areas. These are usually situated near seaports or airports. They are intended to provide an internationally competitive duty free environment for export production at low cost. They can import capital goods and raw materials for production of export goods without kcense.

Answer any 4 questions from 23-27, Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Briefly describe any four principles of insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise theinsurer can cancel the contract.
2. 2. Insurable Interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insu red whichever is less.
4. SubrogatIon: According to this prindple, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Question 24.
Write any four differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:

Memorandum of association	Articles of association
It defines the object of the company	It defines rules of internal management of the company.
It is the main document of the company	It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders	It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of memorandum is compulsory	Filing of articles is not compulsory for public company.

Question 25.
What is a share ? What is the difference between equity share and preference share?
Answer:
The capital of a company is divided into smaller units called share. Those who subscribe the shares of a company are known as shareholders’. Two types shares may be issued by a company to raise capital.
They are:
a) Equity Shares
b) Preference Shares

Question 26.
List any four differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Equity Shares	Preference Shares
Equity compulsory to issue shares.	Not compulsory to issue preference shares
Rate of dividend varies	Rate of dividend is fixed
Face value is lower	Face value is higher
No priority in dividend and repayment of capital	Priority in dividend and repayment of capital
Cannot be redeemed	Can be redeemed
Risk is high	Risk is low
Voting rights	No voting rights
Participate in the management	Not participate in the management

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four features of a business.
Answer:

1. An economic activity : Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
2. Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.
3. Sale or exchange of goods and services : There should be sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
4. Dealings in goods and services on a regular basis : Business involves dealings in goods and services on a regular basis.

V. Answer any 3 questions from 28-31. Each carriers 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Match the following :

A	B
a. Hindrance of finance	Transport
b. Hindrance of place	Waterhousing
c. Hindrance of time	Insurance
d. Hindrance of risk	Advertising
e. Hindrance of knowldege	Banking

Answer:

A	B
a. Hindrance of finance	Banking
b. Hindrance of place	Transport
c. Hindrance of time	Warehousing
d. Hindrance of risk	Insurance
e. Hindrance of knowldege	Advertising

Question 29.
What are global enterprises ? Describe any four features of them.
Answer:
Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different soirees.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.

Question 30.
Briefly explain any five problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:

1. Srpall scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generalLy high.
5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 31.
Match the following :

A	B
a. Responsibility towards owner	Fair wages
b. Responsibility towards customer	Fair return
c. Responsibility towards supplier	Quality products
d. Responsibility towards employees	Prompt payment
e. Responsibility towards government	Payment of tax

Answer:

A	B
a. Responsibility towards owner	Fair return
b. Responsibility towards customer	Quality products
c. Responsibility towards supplier	Prompt payment
d. Responsibility towards employees	Fair wages
e. Responsibility towards government	Payment of tax

Answer any 2 questions from 32-34. Each carriers 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Describe the various functions of Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks

I) Primary Functions

1. Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
   • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen. It carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
   • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
   • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers,
   • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
   • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an .. arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
   • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
   • Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

• 1) Agency Functions
  1. Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
  2. Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
  3. Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
  4. Acting as trustees or executors
  5. Providing credit information
• General utility services
  1. Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
  2. issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
  3. Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
  4. Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 33.
What is sole proprietorship? Explain any six features of it.
Answer:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.
Features

1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy.
3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.
4. The entire profit of the business goes to the sole proprietor.
5. The sole trader can take quick decisions.
6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.

Question 34.
Describe the following.
a. Consumer co-op-stores
b. Super markets
c. Mail order houses
d. Departmental stores.
Answer:
a. Consumers co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consumers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest price.

b. Super Markets I Super Bazar : Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘Self Service Store.

Features of Super Market

1. They are located at the centre of a town.
2. They sell goods on cash basis only.
3. They deal wide variety of goods.
4. There is no salesman to help consumers

c. In mail order business, the business transactions are done through post or mail. Under this system orders for goods, delivery of goods and payment is made through VPP (Value Payable Post). Under this arrangement, the goods are delivered to the customers only on making full payment for the same. There is no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers.

d. Departmental Stores A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods ¡n different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Answer the following questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (9 × 1 = 9)

Question 1.
Which among the following is a personal cause of business risk?
a) Strike of employees
b) Famine
c) Change in technology
d) Flood
Answer:
a) Strike of employees

Question 2.
A government company* is any company in which the paid-up capital held by government is not less than——?
a) 49%
b) 50%
c) 51%
d) 26%
Answer:
c) 51%

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a function of warehousing?
a) Break the bulk
b) Price stabilization
c) Consolidation
d) Mail facilities
Answer:
d) Mail facilities

Question 4.
Cash withdrawal by a customer by using ATM is an example of model of e-business transaction.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) IntraB
d) C2C
Answer:
b) B2C

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given :
a) Obeyance of law – legal responsibility of business
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people
Answer:
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people

Question 6.
Which clause of memorandum of association defines the purpose of company is formed ?
a) Object clause
b) Capital clause
c) Liability clause
d) Name clause
Answer:
a) Object clause

Question 7.
The apex bank to provide financial assistance to small business is
a) NCEUS
b) RWED
c) WASME
d) SIDBI
Answer:
d) SIDBI

Question 8.
Identify the type of retail outlets that sell their goods through mail from the following:
a) Mail order house
b) Departmental stores
c) Supermarkets
d) Multiple shops
Answer:
a) Mail order house

Question 9.
The scheme to refund excise duties and customs duties to exporters on production of proof of export of goods to authorities is called
a) Manufacturing under bond scheme
b) duty drawback scheme
c) advance licence scheme
d) export promotion capital goods scheme
Answer:
b) duty drawback scheme

Answer any 6 of the following questions from 10 to 16. Each carries 2 Scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 10.
Write a short note on the following in one or two sentences each.
a) Nominal parter
b) H.U.F
Answer:
a) Nominal Partner
Nominal partner (Quasi Partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm. But, he is liable to third parties for all the debts of the firm. Joint Hindu Family Business (HUF) It refers to a form of organisation where in the business is owned and carried on by the members of a joint Hindu family. It is also known as Hindu Undivided Family Business (H.U.F). It is governed by Hindu succession Act, 1956. It is found only in India.

Question 11.
List any two features of a statutory corporation.
Answer:
Featu res of statutory corporation:

1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
2. It is wholly owned by the state

Question 12.
Name any two types of payment mechanisms used in online shopping.
Answer:
a) Cash on delivery (COD)
b) Cheque
c) Credit Card
d) Debit Card
e) Net Banking
f) DigiyalCash

Question 13.
What do you mean by Retained Earnings?
Answer:
Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 14.
Name any two types of products which are suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending Machine is suitable for selling products like soft drinks, newspapers, platform tickets, chocolates, hot beverages, seeds of plants, magazines etc.

Question 15.
Write any two reasons for international business.
Answer:
Reasons for international business

1. Because of unequal distribution of natural resources and differences in productivity levels, a country cannot produce all that they need
2. Labour productivity and production costs differ among nations due to various socio-economic, geographical and political reasons.
3. Availability of various factors of production such as labour, capital and raw materials differ among nations.

Question 16.
Briefly explain ‘joint ventures’ as a mode of entry into international business.
Answer:
Joint Ventures: Joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more independent firms. It can be brought into existence in three major ways.
a. Foreign investor buying an interest in a local firm.
b. Local firm acquiring an interest in an existing foreign firm.
c. Both the foreign and local entrepreneurs jointly forming a new enterprise

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 17 to 21. Each carries 3 Scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Classify the following industries into Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.
a) Mining
b) Poultry farms
c) Oil refinery
d) Construction of dams
d) Banking
e) Advertising
Answer:

Primary Industry	Sepondary Industry	Tertiary Industry
Mining	Oil refinery	Banking
Poultry firms	Construction of dams	Advertising

Question 18.
Difference between traditional business and e-business. (Any Three)
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e- business

Traditional business	e- business
Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
Investment is very high	Investment is low
Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
Location is important	Location is not important
Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low
Contact with suppliers and customers is through intermediaries	Direct contact with the suppliers and customers
Business process cycle is long	Business process cycle is shorter
Inter personal touch is high	Personal touch is less
Limited market coverage	Access to the global market
Communication is in hierarchical order	Communication is in non hierarchical order
Transaction risk is less	Transaction risk is high

Question 19.
Who is a promoter of a company? List out any two function of him.
Answer:

1. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
2. Function of a promoter
   • Identification of business opportunity
   • Feasibility studies
   • Name approval
   • Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association
   • Appointment of professional
   • Preparation of necessary documents

Question 20.
Briefly explain any three features of global enterprises.
Answer:
Features of Global Enterprise:

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.
2. Foreign collaboration:-Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name etc. with local firms in the host countries.
3. Marketing strategies:- They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.
4. Centralised control: They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control overall branches and subsidiaries.

Question 21.
Write any three differences between a share and debenture.
Answer:

Shares	Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company	Debenture holders are the creditors of the tcompany
Shareholders get dividends	Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right	Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares	Generally debentures are secured
Shares are not redeemable	Debentures are redeemable
It is owner’s fund	It is borrowed fund

Question 22.
Match the following :

(A)	(B)
a) Partnership	1) Co-parcener
b) H.U.F.	2) Service motive
c) Joint Stock Company	3) Partner
d) Co-Op-Society	4) Shareholder

Answer:

(A)	(B)
a) Partnership	1) Partner
b) H.U.F.	2) Co-parcener
c) Joint Stock Company	3) Share holder
d) Co-Op-Society	4) Service motive

Answer any 3 of the questions from 23 to 26. Each carries 4 Scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 23.
What do you mean by a departmental undertaking? Give two examples.
Answer:
Departmental Undertaking: This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. Eg. Railways, Post& Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.
Features

1. The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
2. The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
5. They are accountablefto the concerned ministry.

Question 24.
‘E-business has several benefits’. Explain any four of it.
Answer:

1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
2. Customers can buy goods at any time from any seller located in different parts of the world.
3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.
4. It helps the business units to operate at the national as well as the global level.
5. It helps to reduce clerical and paper work.
6. It helps to eliminate middlemen.

Question 25.
Explain any ‘four’ problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems pf small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks and other financial institutions.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. Small business is generally operated by people who may not have all the managerial skills required to run the business.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So productivity per Employee is relatively low and employee turnover is generally high.
5. Small business depends excessively on middlemen for marketing the products. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 26.
Write short note on the following:
a) Special economic zones
b) Contract manufacturing
Answer:
a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ): It is specifically a delineated dutyfree enclave, which is deemed to be a foreign territory for the purpose of trading and imposing duties. It provided an internationally competitive and duty free environment for the production of export of goods.

b) Contract Manufacturing (Outsourcing): When a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain goods produced as per its specifications it is called contract manufacturing. It is also known as outsourcing and it can take place in following forms.

1. Production of certain components
2. Assembly of components into final products
3. Complete manufacture of the products

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 27-30. Each carries 5 Scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 27.
‘We want to consider a lot of factors before starting a business.’ Explain any 5 of it.
Answer:
Choice of business organisation The important factors determining the choice of organization are:

1. Cost and Ease of formation:- From the point of view of cost, sole proprietorship is the preferred form as it involves least expenditure and the legal requirements are minimum. Company form of organisation, is more complex and involves greater costs.
2. Liability: In case of sole proprietorship and partnership firms, the liability of the owners/ partners is unlimited. In cooperative societies and companies, the liability is limited. Hence, from the point of view of investors, the company form of organisation is more suitable as the risk involved is limited.
3. Continuity: The continuity of sole proprietorship and partnership firms is affected by death, insolvency or insanity of theowners. However, such factors do not affect the continuity of cooperative societies and companies. In case the business needs a permanent structure, company form is more suitable.
4. Management ability: If the organisation’s operations are complex in nature and require professionalized management, company form of organisation is a better alternative.
5. Capital: If the scale of operations is large, company form may be suitable whereas for medium and small sized business one can opt for partnership or sole proprietorship.

Question 28.
‘Memorandum of Association ¡s the major document of a company.’ Briefly explain the different clauses of it.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association:

1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.
   • The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
   • A name which can mislead the public
   • In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ’Private Limited’
2. Registered office clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.
3. Objects clause: This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by therfl or the amount
   guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 29.
‘Business requires capital for long term and short term purposes.’
a) Briefly describe any two sources of long term capital.
b) Write any three merits ¿f ‘factoring’ as a financial service.
Answer:
a) Equity Shares:- Equity shares represents the ownership capital of a company. They do not enjoy any preferential right in the matter of claim of dividend or repayment of capital. Equity shareholders do not get a fixed dividend but are paid on the basis of earnings by the company. They bear the maximum risk. Equity shareholders are the owners of the company. They have right to vote and participate in the management.

Merits

1. Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk for higher returns
2. Payment of equity dividend is not compulsory.
3. Equity capital serves as permanent capital as it is to be repaid only at the time of liquidation of a company.

Debentures: A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.

Merits

1. It is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense

c) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising shortterm finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

1. Obtaining funds through factoring is cheaper than bank credit
2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow so that the company is able to meet its liabilities promptly.
3. It is flexible and ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Question 30.
Describe how business impart its responsibility towards the following groups:
a) Owners
b) Employees
c) Government
d) Customers
e) Community
Answer:
Social Responsibility towards different interest groups:

• Responsibility towards share holders or owners
  1. Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
  2. Provide regular and accurate information the financial position of the firm.
  3. To ensure the safety of their investment.
• Responsibility Towards the workers :
  1. Providing fair wages
  2. Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
  3. Respect democratic rights of workers to form unions.
• Responsibility toward consumers :
  1. Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
  2. Avoding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
  3. Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
  4. To handle the customers grievance promptly.
• Responsibility Towards Government –
  1. Respect the laws of the country
  2. Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
  3. act according to the well accepted values of the society.
• Responsibility towards community-
  1. Make employment opportunities
  2. Protect the environment from pollution.
  3. To uplift the weaker sections of society

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 Scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
‘A company can be described as an artificial person having a separate leagl entity, perpectual succession and common seal.’
a) List any 2 merits and 2 demerits of it.
b) Differentiate between private company and public company.
Answer:
a)

1. Limited liability: The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held bythem. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.
2.  Transferability of shares: Shares of a public company are freely transferable . It provides liquidity to the investor.

b)

1. Difficulty in formation:-The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.
2. Lack of secrecy:- It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of public company, as company is requited to publish its annual accounts and reports.

c) Difference between a Public Company and Private Company

Basis	Private Company	Public Company
Members:	Minimum – 2 Maximum – 50	Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
Minimum number of directors:	Two	Three
Minimum paid up capital:	Rs 1 lakh	Rs 5 lakh
Transfer of shares:	Restriction on transfer	No restriction
Prospectus:	Need not issue prospectus	Can issue prospectus
Starting of business:	After getting Certificate of incorporation	After getting certificate of Commencement of business

Question 32.
Describe the various functions performed by commercial banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are

• Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by business men.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
• Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay rate of interest as decided by RBI on these deposits. Withdrawal from these accounts has some restrictions.
• Fixed deposit: Fixed accounts are time deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.

2. Lending of funds: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances out of the money received through deposits. These advances can be made in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, consumer credits and other miscellaneous advances.

• Cash Credit: Under this arrangement, the bank advances loan up to a specified limit against current assets. The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit. Interest is charged on the amount actually withdraw.
• Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.
• Discounting of bill of exchange: Under this, a bank gives money to its customers on the security of a bill of exchange before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
• Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period. Interest will be charged to the entire amount of loan.

3. Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
a) Agency Functions

• Cheque facility: Bank collects customers cheque drawn on other bank. There are two types of cheques mainly : Bearer cheques, which are encashable immediately at bank counters Crossed cheques which are to be deposited only in the payees account.
• Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc
• Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
• Acting as trustees or executors
• Providing credit information

b) General utility services

• Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers
• Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
• Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
• Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Bank DraftIt is a financial instrument with the help of which money can be remitted from one place to another. The payee can present the draft on the drawee bank at his place and collect the money. Bank charges some commission for issuing a bank draft.
Pay Order: It is almost like a bank draft. Banks issue pay order for local purpose and issue bank draft for outstations.

Question 33.
‘Wholesaler is the connecting link between producer and retailer.’
a) Explain any four services provide by them to producers.
b) Describe any two types of fixed shop small retailers.
Answer:
a) Departmental stores: A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling amide variety of goods in different departments under one and management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationary, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store

1. It is a large scale retail organization.
2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
4. It is located at central places of the city
5. The products are arranged in separate departments
6. Sales, control and management are centralized
7. It offers various services and facilities like free home delivery etc

Advantages

1. Central locations:- As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, the departmental stores provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods of their requirements at one place.
3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
4. Economy of large-scale operations: As these stores are organised in a very large-scale, the benefits of large-scale operations are available to them
5. Mutual advertisement:-All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising
6. Risk distribution:- If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
7. Increased sales:- Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its sales.

Limitations

1. Lack of personal attention: Because of the large- scale operations, it is very difficult to provide adequate personal attention to the customers in these stores.
2. Inconvenient location: As a departmental store is generally situated at a central location, it is not convenient for the consumers who reside away from town.
3. High price: A departmental store charges high price for the products because of high operating cost.
4. High operating cost: As these stores give more emphasis on providing services, their operating costs tend to be high.
5. High advertisement cost: The success and prosperity of a departmental store depends on advertisement. Therefore, it should spent large amount on advertisement.6. Lack of effective control: Departmental store works through a large number of departments. It creates so many problems.
6. High risk:- A departmental store keeps a large stock of goods. So changes in fashion, taste, price etc will affect the profitability of the business.

b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops: Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through out the nation.
Features of multiple shops

1. It deals in one or two lines of products.
2. All branches are dealing in similar goods
3. It has centralized management and unified system of control
4. It eliminates middlemen.
5. It works on cash and carry principle
6. It has centralized buying and decentralized selling.
7. There is uniformity in operation in all branches.
8. It deals in goods of daily use and durables.

Advantages

1. It enjoys economies of bulk purchase because the goods for all branches are purchased by head office.
2. There is no risk of bad debts because all sales are on cash basis.
3. The advertisements for all branches are done by the head office. So there is economy in advertisement.
4. Multiple shops are located in towns and cities. They attract a large number of customers.
5. All branches of multiple shops are uniform in style, design and display of goods.
6. All the branches sell quality goods at uniform prices. It creates public confidence.
7. The economy in large scale buying, centralized management etc. reduce the cost of operations.
8. Products having no demand in one branch can be transferred to another branch. It reduces business risk.
9. Multiple shops enjoy the benefits of quick turn over because of country wide location.

Limitations

1. The multiple shops deal only in a limited range of products. So consumers have very little choice.
2. They will not provide any credit facilities to consumers.
3. There is lack of personal touch between the company and consumers because branches are managed by salaried managers.
4. Branch manager is only a salaried employee. He has no initiative to increase the profits.
5. As these shops deal in a limited line of goods, fall in demand will affect the business.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020

PART – A

Answer any 7 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Water gas is a mixture of
(a) CO + H₂
(b) CO + N₂
(c) CO₂ + H₂
(d) CO₂ + N₂
Answer:
(a) CO + H₂

Question 2.
The element that has outer electronic configuration 3d54s1 belongs to
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Answer:
(c) d-block

Question 3.
The number of radial nodes of 4p orbital is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2 (n – l – 1)

Question 4.
The species that can form both conjugate acid and conjugate base among the following is
(a) H₂O
(b) BF₃
(c) HCl
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(a) H₂O

Question 5.
Liquids having larger difference in boiling points are separated by
(a) Distillation
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Vacuum distillation
Answer:
(a) Distillation

Question 6.
The oxidation number of an atom in the elementary form is ………….
Answer:
Zero

Question 7.
The unit of coefficient of viscosity in c.g.s. system is
Answer:
Poise or gcm^-1S^-1

Question 8.
The class of organic compound differe by a group between adjacent members are called
Answer:
Homologous series

Question 9.
The combination of smoke and fog is known as ……….
Answer:
Smog

PART B

Answer any 10 questions from 10 – 22. Each carries 2 scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 10.
(a) Classify the following matter as homogenous mixture, heterogenous mixture, element and compounds. (1)
Answer:
Homogenous mixture – air
Heterogenous mixture – Muddy water
Element – gold Compound – water

(b) Define limiting reagent of a reaction. (1)
Answer:
Limiting reagent is that reagent which is completely used up in the reaction.

Question 11.
Write any two characteristic properties of canal rays. (2)
Answer:
1. They move in straight line
2. They affect photographic plate

Question 12.
(a) Identify the group and period of an element having atomic number (Z) 25 in the periodic table. (1)
Answer:
Period – 4, Group – 7

(b) Predict the formula of the stable binary com-pound that would be formed by the combination of the following pairs of elements: (1)
(i) Lithium and Oxygen
(ii) Aluminium and iodine
Answer:
(i) Li₂O
(ii) AlI₃

Question 13.
Explain the general periodic trend of first ionization enthalpy along a period and group in the periodic table. (2)
Answer:
In a period as we move from left to right first ionisation enthalpy increases. In a group as we move down first ionisation energy decreases.

Question 14.
A gas occupy 400ml volume at 47°C and 800mm of Hg pressure. What will be its pressure at a height where the temperature is 27°C and volume of the gas is 450ml? (2)
Answer:

Question 15.
Define extensive and intensive properties. Give examples for each. (2)
Answer:
Extensive properties are properties which depend upon mass.
eg: mass, volume, internal, energy, enthalpy heat capacity.

Intensive properties are properties which are independent of mass.
eg: Temp, density, pressure

Question 16.
Derive the relation between equilibrium constants K_c and K_p for a general reaction.
at equilibrium. (2)
Answer:

Question 17.
(a) What are saline hydrides? (1)
Answer:
Saline hydrides or ionic hydrides are formed by the reaction of Hydrogenation with first or second group elements, ie. alkali metals and alkaline earth metals.

(b) Why hard water is unsuitable for laundry pur-pose? (1)
Answer:
It does not form lather with soap.

Question 18.
List any two points of difference between Lithium and other alkali metals. Give reasons. (2)
Answer:
Li is harder.
Li can form monoxide

Question 19.
(a)What is borone bead test? (1)
Answer:
On heating Borax first loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating it turns into a transparent liquid which solidifies into glass like material known as borax bead.

(b) SiCl₄ can be hydrolysed but CCl₄ cannot. Why? (1)
Answer:
In CCl₄ there is no vacant d orbitals. So it cannot be hydrolysed. But in Si; there are vacant d orbitals.

Question 20.
(a) Why AlCl₃ exist as dimers? (1)
Answer:
AlCl₃ is an electron deficient compund and is unstable. So it forms dimer.

(b) Write the basic structural unit of silicons and silicates.
Answer:
Silicone – (R₂SiO)_n
Silicates – SiO^4-

Question 21.
Give the complete and bondline structure of pent-e-en-2-ol. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula

Question 22.
Drawnttiei Newman projections for staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula

Answer any 7 questions from 23 – 31. Each carries 3 scores. (7 × 3 = 21)

Question 23.
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen combines to form H₂O and H₂O₂. Which law of chemical combination is illustrated here? (1)
Answer:
Law of multiple proportion.
When two elements combine to form more than one compound the fixed masses of element combine with the other bear a simple whole no. ratio.

(b) The balanced chemical equation for combustion of CH₄ is
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
Calculate the amount of water formed by the combustion of 32g of CH₄? (2)
Answer:

Question 24.
(a) Give two examples of compounds having expanded octet. (1)
Answer:
PCl₅, SF₆

(b) Draw the Lewis dot symbols of (2)
(i) Cl₂
(ii) NF₃
Answer:

Question 25.
(a)Write the name of Van der Waal’s force between (1)
(i) Non-polar molecules.
(ii) Molecules having permanent dipoles.
Answer:
1. London forces
2. Dipole – Dipole interaction

(b) State Dalton’s law of partial pressures. (1)
Answer:
Total pressure exerted by a mixture of non reactive gases is equal to the sum of partial pressures of the individual gases.

(c) At higher altitudes, pressure cooker is used for cooking. Give Reasons. (1)
Answer:
At higher altitudes atmospheric pressure is very low. Water boils at low temp.

Question 26.
(a) Write the mathematical expression of First Law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
∆U = q + w

(b) Define standard enthalpy of formation. (1)
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change when one mole of a compound is formed from its constituent efements in their standard state.

(c) Write the condition of temperature for a process to be spontaneous whose ∆H and ∆S values are positive. (1)
[Hint: ∆G = ∆H – T∆S]
Answer:
∆H – T∆S = ∆G
For a process to be spontaneous ∆G should be negative.
If ∆H & ∆S are positive ∆G is negative only at high temperature

Question 27.
(a) Justify that the following reaction is a redox reaction.
H₂S_(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2HCl_(g) + S_(s) (2)
Answer:

Sulphur gets Oxidised and Cl₂ gets redused.
Both oxidation and reduction occurs.

(b) Write the Stock notation of MnO₂. (1)
Answer:
Mn(IV)O₂

Question 28.
(a) What is calogen? (1)
Answer:
Calgon – Sodium hexametaphosphate

(b) Explain the methods used for the removal of temporary hardness of water. (2)
Answer:
Boiling – Hard water is boiled and the precipitate is filtered.
Clark process – Calculated amount of Ca(OH)₂ is treated with hard water.

Question 29.
(a) What is the purpose of adding gypsum during the manufacture of cement? (1)
Answer:
To decrease the setting time of cement

(b) Match the following.
Tablee
Answer:
Tablee

Question 30.
(a) What is Lindlar’s catalyst?
Answer:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal.

(b) Identify A, B and C.

Answer:

(c) Complete the following reaction:

Answer:

Question 31.
Define the following terms:
(i) Freons
(ii) BOD
(iii) Green house effect, nnalmoyon (oiisonio
Answer:
(i) Freons – Chlorofluorocarbons

(ii) BOD – Biochemical oxygen demand
The amount of oxygen required to degrade organic matter.

(iii) Green house effect
When number of the trees in the earth decreases, the amount of CO₂ in the earth increases. As a result temperature in the earth increases. Because of this ice burgs melts and seal level rises. This is known as Green House Effect.

Answer any 3 questions from 32 – 35. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 32.
(a) Write the n and I values of a 4d electron. (1)
Answer:
n = 4, l = 2

(b) Give the names of series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen and their region in the electro¬magnetic spectrum. (2)
Answer:
(b) Lyman – u.v.
Balmer – Visible
Paschen – IR
Bracket – IR
Pfund – IR

(c) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (1)
Answer:
Pairing occurs only after all the degenerate orbitals are completely half filled.

Question 33.
(a) Predict the hybridisation of phosphorous atom in PCl₅ molecule. (1)
Answer:
PCl₅ – sp³d

(b) Account for the high reactivity of PCl₅ molecule. (1)
Answer:
In PCl₅ there are two types of bonds. (1) Two axial bonds and 3 equatorial bonds.
Axial bonds are longer and are more reactive.

(c) Draw the MO energy level diagram of O₂ molecule. (2)
Answer:

BO = ½(nb – na)
= ½(10 – 6) = 2

Question 34.
(a) Predict the nature of solution produced by the hyrolysis of sodium acetate. (1)
Answer:

(b) Calculate the pH of a solution having H⁺ ion concentration 3.8 × 10³ m. (2)
Answer:
pH = -log[H⁺] = -log(3.8 × 10^-3)

(c) Explain the effect of pressure in the following equilibrium using Le Chatelier principle:

Answer:
Co + 3H₂ → CH₄ + H₂O
No.of moles of reactants is more than no.of moles of product. So high pressure is favoured.

Question 35.
(a) Write the IUPAC name of

Answer:

(b) Write the functional isomers of molecule having molecular formula C₃H₆O. (1)
Answer:

(c) How will you detect the presence of chlorine in an organic compound using Lassigne’s test.(1)
Answer:
A little of the salt is mixed with metallic sodium in an ignition tube and heated. When it becomes red hot it is plunged into water taken in a China dish boiled and filtered. This is known as Lassaignes extract.

A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with dil. HNO₃ and 1 ml AgNO₃ is added white ppt is obtained. This white ppt indicates presence of chloride ion.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

Answer the following questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Warehousing provides utility.
(a) Time
(b) Place
(c) Risk
(d) Finance
Answer:
(a) Time

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given.
(a) State Bank of india – Public sector Bank.
(b) HDFC Bank
Answer:
Private Sector

Question 3.
Respecting religious sentiments of society is an example of kind of social responsibility of business.
(a) Ethical
(b) Legal
(c) Economic
(d) Discriminating
Answer:
Ethical

Question 4.
List any ‘one’ method of payment mechanism in online transactions.
Answer:
Cheque, COD etc.

Question 5.
Identify the document which acknowledge debt of a company.
(a) Share
(b) Debenture
(c) Stock
(d) All of these
Answer:
Debenture

Question 6.
Name any one institution for supporting small business in India.
Answer:
NABARD, DIC etc.

Question 7.
Trade between two persons belong to the same country is called
(a) External trade
(b) Internal trade
(c) Foreign trade
(d) International trade
Answer:
Internal Trade

Question 8.
Which among the following is a mode of entry into international business?
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Joint ventures
(c) Wholly owned subsidiaries
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

II. Answer any 3 questions from 9 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 9.
Mohan, a teacher in Ernakuiam bought a carfor Rs. 5 lakhs. After two months he sold it to Raju for Rs.6 lakhs. Is it a business activity? Why?
Answer:

1. No. It is not a business activity.
2. Regularity in dealings is required in a business.

Question 10.
List any two privileges of a Private Company.
Answer:
Privilages of a private company are

1. Minimum number of members is 2.
2. No need to issue prospectus.
3. No need to keep index of members.

Question 11.
List out the stages in the formation of a Private Company.
Answer:
Stages of formation of a company are
a. Promotion
b. Incorporation

Question 12.
What do you mean by working capital?
Answer:
Working capital means amount of capital invested in current assets.

Question 13.
Briefly explain any two problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems of small businesses are

1. Lack of adequate/inance
2. Lack of raw materials
3. Poor managerial skill
4. Low quality of products

Question 14.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending machine products are

1. Newspaper
2. Soft drinks
3. Sanitary Napkins
4. Chocolates

III. Answer any 3 questions from 15 to 20. Each carries 3 scores.(3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Write any three feature’s of a Co-op. society.
Answer:
Features of Co-operative Societies are:

1. Voluntary membership : The membership of a co-operative society is voluntary.
2. Legal status : Registration of a co-operative society is compulsory.
3. Limited liability: The liability of the members of a co-operative society is limited.
4. Service motive: “Self help through mutual help” or “each for all and all for each” is the foundation of co-operative society.

Question 16.
List out any ‘three’ merits of a Statutory Corporation.
Answer:

1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament.
2. It is wholly owned by the Central Govt.
3. It has a separate legal entity.
4. It is usually independently financed.

Question 17.
Who is a promoter? List out any two functions of him.
Answer:

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
3. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.
4. Appointment of professional: Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

Question 18.
Describe the term ‘retained earnings’.
Answer:
a) Retained Earnings
b) Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 19.
Write ashort note on ‘District Industries Centre.
Answer:
The District Industries Centers (DICs): DICs were established in May 1978. District Industries Centers is the institution at the district level which provides all the services and support facilities to the entrepreneurs for setting up small and village industries. Identification of suitable schemes, preparation of feasibility reports, arranging for credit etc, are the main activities undertaken by these centres.

Question 20.
Differentiate between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
a) Licensing
Licensing is a contractual arrangement in which one firm grants access to its technology to another firm in a foreign country. The firm that grants permission is known as licensor and the firm that receives the rights is called the licensee,
b) Franchising
Franchising is similar to licensing. But it is used in connection with the provision of services. The parent * company is called the franchiser and the other party to the agreement is called franchisee.

IV. Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 30. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 21.
Classify the following industries in to extractive, genetic, manufacturing and constructions.
(a) Mining
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Building a dam
(d) Sugar production
Answer:
a) Mining – Extractive
b) Poultry Farming – Genetic
c) Building a dam – Construction
d) Sugar production – Manufacturing

Question 22.
Match the following:-

A	B
(a) Partnership	Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company	Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship	Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society	Member

Answer:

A	B
(a) Partnership	Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company	Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship	Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society	Member

Question 23.
Explain any four features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of Department Undertakings

1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt, employees.

Question 24.
What you mean by e-banking? Give two examples fore-banking services.
Answer:
a) E-banking means the conduct of banking transactions using the computer network.
b) Eg: ATM, Electronic Fund Transfer

Question 25.
Write a short note on the following:
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Government warehouses
Answer:
a) Bonded warehouses : These warehouses are used to keep the imported goods before the payment of import duties.
b) Government warehouses: These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. For example, Food Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation, and Central Warehousing Corporation.

Question 26.
What is outsourcing of services? List out any two „ benefits of it.
Answer:

1. Business Process Outsourcing
2. Merits of outsourcing
   • It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
   • It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
   • It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.
   • It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four causes of environmental pollution.
Answer:
Causes of PollutionMany industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.

1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.
4. Noise Pollution : Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Question 28.
Describe any four clauses of memorandum of association.
Answer:

1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the co pany is proposed to be situated.
2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares
   held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 29.
Write four differences between share and debenture..
Answer:

Shares	Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company	Debenture holders are the creditors of the company
Shareholders get dividends	Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right	Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares	Generally debentures are secured

Question 30.
List out any four ‘differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Domestic Business	International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country	Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country	Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country	There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature	International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 5 questions from 31 to 40. Each carries 5 scores. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 31.
Match the following.

A	B
(a) Hindrance of place	Insurance
(b) Hindrance of risk	Transport
(c) Hindrance of finance	Advertising
(d) Hindrance of knowledge	Warehousing Features
(e) Hindrance of time	Banking

Answer:

A	B
(a) Hindrance of place	Transport
(b) Hindrance of risk	Insurance
(c) Hindrance of finance	Banking
(d) Hindrance of knowledge	Advertising
(e) Hindrance of time	Warehousing Features

Question 32.
Briefly explain any five features of a Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
3. Formation : The formation of a company is>a time consuming and complicated process.
4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insblvency or insanity of shareholders..
5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.

Question 33.
Explain any two principles of insurance applicable to life insurance.
Answer:
a) Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract, b) Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.

Question 34.
Describe the following:
(a) e-Commerce
(b) cash on delivery
Answer:
a) E-commerce covers a firms interactions with its customers and suppliers over the internet.
b) Payment on e-commerce transactions at the time of delivery of goods.

Question 35.
How business import its responsibility to the following interest groups?
(a) Owner
(b) Worker
(c) Consumer
(d) Government
(e) Community
Answer:

1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners :To provide a fair return on the investment.
2. Responsibility towards the workers To provide fair wages.
3. Responsibility towards consumers : Supply quality goods and sen/ices at reasonable prices.
4. Responsibility towards Government : Respect the Laws of the country.
5. Responsibility towards community : Make employment opportunities.

Question 36.
Write any five differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:
a) A social responsibility is the obligation of businessman which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society, b) Discretionary responsibility:- This refers to voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes.

Question 37.
What are departmental Stores? briefly explain any three features of it.
Answer:

Memorandum of Association	Articles of Association
It defines the object of the company	It defines rules of Internal management of the company
It is the main document of the company	It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders	It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of Memorandum is compulsory	Filing of Articles is not compulsory for public company
Alteration of Memorandum is very difficult	It can be altered by passing a special resolution.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Public Company and Private Company.
Answer:
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store:

1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
4.  It is located at central places of the city.
5. The products are arranged in separate departments.

Question 39.
What are global enterprises? List out any three features of it.
Answer:

Basis	Private	Public Company
a) Members	Company	Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
b) Minimum number of directors:	Minimum-2 Maximum – 200	Three
c) Minimum paid up capital:	Two	X 5 lakh
d) Transfer of shares:	X 1 lakh	No restriction
e) Prospectus:	Restriction on transfer	Can issue prospectus

Answer any 2 questions from 41 to 44. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 40.
What is Commerce? briefly describe the various functions of Commerce.
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 41.
What is Partnership Deed? What are its contents?
Answer:
Commerce
Commerce is defined as all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange of goods. It includes all those activities, which are necessary for the free flow of goods and services from the producer to the consumer. Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade. Commerce = Trade + auxiliaries to trade Functions of commerce

Various Hindrances	Remedies
Hindrance of person	Trade
Hindrance of place	Transportation
Hindrance of time	Warehousing
Hindrance of risk	Insurance
Hindrance of knowledge	Advertising
Hindrance of finance	Banking

Question 42.
Illustrate the various functions,performed by Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Partnership Deed: The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership is called the partnership deed.
 Contents of deed

1. Name of firm
2. Nature of business and location of business
3. Duration of business
4. Investment made by each partner
5. Profit sharing ratip
6. Rights, duties and powers of the partners
7. Salaries and withdrawals of the partners
8. Terms governing admission, retirement and expulsion of a partner
9. Interest on capital and interest on drawings
10. Procedure for dissolution of the firm
11. Preparation of accounts and their auditing
12. Method of solving disputes

Question 43.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions

1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank . accepts following types of deposits. They are:
   • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
   • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
   • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
   • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
   • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
   • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
   • Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

1. Agency Functions
   • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
   • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
   • Purchase and sale Of shares and debentures
   • Acting as trustees or executors
   • Providing credit information
2. General utility services
   • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
   • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank , draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
   • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
   • Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 44.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘ Self Service Store’.

1. Features of Super Market
   • They are located at the centre of a town.
   • They sell goods on cash basis only.
   • They deal wide variety of goods.
   • There is no salesman to help consumers
2. Advantages
   • Consumers can purchase everthing from supermarket.
   • There is no bad debt as sales are on cash basis only.
   • They are located at the centre of a town.
   • Consumers can select goods according to their taste and preferences.
   • Variety of goods is available in a super market.