Bhagya

For scoring high marks, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Question Papers Set 5 play an important role.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 90 minutes
Max. Score : 40

सामान्य निर्देश:

1. पहला पंद्रह मिनिट का कूल ऑफ टाइम है। इस समय प्रश्नों का वाचन करें और उत्तर लिखने की तैयारी करें।
2. वैकल्पिक प्रश्नों में से किसी एक का उत्तर लिखें।

सूचना : ‘बाइसिकल थीव्स’ फिल्मी लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें और 1 से 3 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

मुझे तो सिर्फ चौबीस घंटे देर से आने वाली फ्लाइट की चिंता थी। और जब मुँबई पहुँचूँगी तो एक टैक्सी वहाँ मेरे इंतज़ार कर रही होगी। बाबा घर पर ही मेरे इंतज़ार में रुकने वाले थे। माँ ने घर पर गरम-गरम पोहा तैयार कर रखा होगा। मेरा सवाल चौबीस घंटों का था, पर उसका !

प्रश्न 1.
लेखिका कहाँ जा रही है?
(क) टर्की
(ख) मुंबई
(ग) सीरिया
(घ) कागज़ देखकर पढ़ना
उत्तर:
(ख) मुंबई

प्रश्न 2.
“मेरा सवाल 24 घंटे का था, पर उसका ?” इस कथन की गहराई पर अपना विचार प्रकट करें?
उत्तर:
लेखिका को सिर्फ चौबीस घंटे देर से आनेवाली फ्लाइट की चिंता थी। पर वह मुंबई पहुँचेंगे तो पापा उसे इंतज़ार कर रहेगी और माँ गरम गरम पोहा तैयार कर रखा होगा। लेकिन सीरिया जानेवाली लड़की की अवस्था ऐसा नहीं है। सीरिया में युद्ध चल रही है। माँ का शहर यूँ तो सुरक्षित था। लेकिन वहाँ भी डॉक्टर के पास जाना मुश्किल काम था।

प्रश्न 3.
प्रस्तुत प्रसंग के आधार पर लेखिका और सीरिया जाने वाली लड़की के बीच हुई बातचीत लिखिए। (4)
उत्तर:
लेखिका : तुम कहाँ जा रही हो?
लड़की : सीरिया।
लेखिका : लेकिन वहाँ तो युद्ध है ?
लड़की : मालूम है। पर मेरी माँ की तबीयत ठीक नहीं है।
लेखिका : पर डाक्टर के पास जाना भी खतरा है।
लड़की : मैं खतरे की परवाह न करूँ।

II. सूचना: ‘बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी” कविता का यह अंश पढ़ें और 4 से 6 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

एक कदम जब वो चलती है
एक कदम वो चलता है
बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित आशयवाली पंक्तियाँ लिखें।
छड़ी और बाबा दोनों एक दूसरे के सहारे ही चल सकते हैं।
उत्तर:
एक कदम वो चलती है।
एक कदम वो चलता है।
बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी।

प्रश्न 5.
बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी दोनों में आपसी संबंध क्या है?
उत्तर:
छड़ी और बाबा दोनों एक दूसरे के सहारे ही चल सकते हैं।

प्रश्न 6.
प्रस्तुत कविता के आस्वादन टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर:
गुलज़ार हिंदी फिल्मों के प्रसिद्ध गीतकार है। वे कवि, पटकथाकार, फिल्म निर्देशक तथा नाटककार हैं। बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी गुलज़ार की कविता है। इस कविता में आपस में प्रेम करने तथा एक दूसरे की मदद करने के फायदे पर विचार किया है। बाबा और बाबा की छड़ी दोनों साथ-साथ चलते हैं। बाबा की मदद से छड़ी चलती है और छड़ी की मदद से बाबा चलता है।

रास्ते में गली का कोई कुत्ता भौंका तो छड़ी उसे भगा देती है। दोनों उपवन तक चलते हैं। यदि बाबा थक जाए तो छड़ी की मदद से बेंच पर बैठता है। छड़ी बाबा के उपवन की सुंदरता दिखाती हैं। दोनों में से कोई अकेला चल नहीं सकता। कविता का तथ्य मुख्य रूप से इन पंक्तियों में है – दोनों में से कोई अकेला चल नहीं सकता। हाथ अगर छूटे तो दोनों गिर पड़ते हैं। बूढ़ा हो या जवान आपसी सहयोग सेप्रत्येक ही शक्ति बढ़ती है। कविता की भाषा सरल है, अर्थ स्पष्ट है।

अथवा
वृद्धावस्था के बारे में लघु लेख लिखिए।
उत्तर:
वृद्धावस्था आना प्राकृतिक परिवर्तन की एक क्रमिक, सतत प्रक्रिया है जो प्रारंभिक वयस्कता काल से ही आरंभ हो जाती है। प्रारंभिक प्रौढ़ावस्था के दौरान, शरीर की बहुत सी क्रियाक्षमताएँ धीरे-धीरे कम होने लगती हैं। लोग किसी खास आयु में “ज्यादा उम्र के लोग” या “बुजुर्ग” नहीं होते। पारंपरिक रूप से, बुढ़ापा शुरू होने की आयु 65 वर्ष बताई गई है। लेकिन इसके कारण जीव विज्ञान में नहीं बल्कि इतिहास से मिलते हैं।

कई वर्षों पहले, 65 वर्ष की आयु को ज़र्मनी में रिटायरमेंट की आयु चुना गया था, जो कि रिटायरमेंट प्रोग्राम स्थापित करने वाला पहला राष्ट्र है। वर्ष 1965 में संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में, 65 वर्ष की आयु मेडिकेयर बीमार के लिए एक योग्य आयु के रूप में निर्दिष्ट किया गया था। यह आयु आर्थिक रूप से उन्नत समाजों में अधिकांश लोगों की वास्तविक रिटायरमेंट आयु के करीब है।

III. सूचना : ‘जब हम धीरे चलते है’ यात्रा विवरण का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 7 से 9 के उत्तर लिखें।

मैत्रेयो स्लोवेनिया और इटली के बॉर्डर पर रहता है। हमारी मंडली का सबसे छोटा सदस्य। हम उसे बच्चा-बच्चा बुलाते थे पर जब वह संगीत बजता तो जैसे समाबंध जाता था। अकोरडियन पर उसकी बजाई खूबसूरत धुनें हवाओं को थिरका देती थी।

प्रश्न 7.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए।
(क) वह + की = उसकी
(ख) वे + की = उसकी
(ग) वह + को = उसकी
(घ) वह + के = उसकी
उत्तर:
(क) वह + की = उसकी

प्रश्न 8.
हम मैत्रेयो को क्या बुलाते थे? (2)
उत्तर:
बच्चा-बच्चा

प्रश्न 9.
एक दिन मैत्रेयो का संगीत सुनकर लेखक बहुत प्रभावित हो गया । लेखक के उस दिन की डायरी कल्पना करके लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:
08/06/2024
गुरुवार
आज मुझे मैत्तोयो का संगीत सुनने का मौका मिला। भी थिरका देती थीं। वहाँ उपस्थित सभी लोग सब कुछ भूलकर उसका संगीत सुनते रहे। वह हमारी मंडली का सबसे छोटा सदस्य है। हम उसे ‘बच्चा-बच्चा’ ही बुलाते थे। वह सचमुच एक अच्छा कलाकार है। मैं आगे भी उसके साथ काम करना चाहता हूँ। मुझे पूरा विश्वास है कि संगीत के क्षेत्र में वह बहुत प्रसिद्ध हो जाएगा।

अथवा
प्रस्तुत प्रसंग को लेकर लेखक अपने मित्र के नाम पत्र लिखता है। वह पत्र कल्पना करके लिखिए।
उत्तर:
चेन्नई
06/09/2024
प्रिय मित्र,
नमस्कार !
आप कैसे हैं? अब मैं ‘ कला थिएत्रो’ नामक एक संस्था में चित्रकार के रूप में काम करता हूँ। यहाँ अनेक अच्छे कलाकार हैं। हम रास्ते में कहीं रुककर नाचने-गाने-बजाने लगते हैं। जिस शहर में शाम को परफॉर्म करते, वहीं रात गुज़ारते हैं। मैं इन सबको कागज़ में चित्रों के रूप में उकेरता। आज कैथरीना नामक एक गायिका ने सुंदर गीत गाया। सुनकर सबकी आँखें भीग गईं। कभी हमसे मिलने यहाँ आना। हमारा कार्यक्रम भी देखना। आपसे मिलने की प्रतीक्षा में……

आपका दोस्त
नाम

IV. सूचना : ‘हाची की कहानी’ का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 10 और 12 के उत्तर लिखें।

कुछ समय बाद प्रोफेसर की पत्नी ने मकान बेच दिया और दूसरे शहर चली गई। वह अपने साथ हाची को भी लेती गई थी, लेकिन हाची वहाँ से भाग आया और स्टेशन के बार ठीक उसी जगह पर बैठकर फिर से इंतज़ार करने लगा। स्टेशन के आसपास लोग उसे पहचानते थे। वे लोग हाची को खाना खिला देते।

प्रश्न 10.
कोष्ठक के शब्दों की सहायता से वाक्य विस्तार करें।
(लोगों ने, आसपास के, स्टेशन के )
हाछी को खाना खिलाया।
उत्तर:
लोगों ने हाथी को खाना खिलाया। आसपास के लोगों ने हाथी को खाना खिलाया। स्टेशन के आसपास के लोगों ने हाथी को खाना खिलाया।

प्रश्न 11.
पहचानकर लिखें कि कौन-सा विकल्प पूर्ण रूप से सही है।

(क) प्रोफेसर की पत्नी	(च) भाग गया।
(ख) हाची वहाँ से	(छ) इंतज़ार करने लगा।
(ग) स्टेशन के बाहर	(ज) मकान बेच दिया।

(क) क – ज, ख – छ, ग – च
(ख) क – छ, ख – ज, ग – च
(ग) क – ज, ख – ज, ग – च
(घ) क – छ, ख – ज, ग – च,
उत्तर:

(क) प्रोफेसर की पत्नी	(ज) मकान बेच दिया।
(ख) हाची वहाँ से	(च) भाग गया।
(ग) स्टेशन के बाहर	(छ) इंतज़ार करने लगा।

प्रश्न 12.
कहानी के इस संदर्भ के आधार पर समाचार लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:

प्रोफेसर की खोज में हाची फिर स्टेशन पर

टोक्यो: हाची प्रोफेसर यूएनो का पालतू कुत्ता है। प्रोफेसर ट्रैन से दफ्तर आते और जाते थे। हर सुबह हाची प्रोफेसर को छोड़ने स्टेशन तक जाता, शाम को फिर स्टेशन पहुँचता और उनके साथ घर जाता। पर एक दिन अकस्मात् दफ्तर में प्रोफेसर का निधन हो गया था। हाची को इस बात का पता न था। वह तो स्टेशन के बाहर हर दिन प्रोफेसर की खोज में आया करता था। कुछ महीनों के बाद प्रोफेसर की पत्नी मकान बेचकर दूसरे शहर चली गई। हाची को भी अपने साथ ले गई थी। पर उस शहर को छोड़कर प्रोफेसर की खोज में वह फिर स्टेशन के बाहर पहुँचा है और ठीक उसी जगह पर बैठकर प्रोफेसर का इंतज़ार करने लगा है।

अथवा
प्रोफेसर युएनो के इंतज़ार में बैठे-बैठे 1935 में हाची ने दम तोड़ दिया। इसपर समाचार तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
हाची ने दम तोड़ दिया टोक्योः बूढ़े हाची ने कल दम तोड़ दिया। पूरे नौ साल नौ महीने तक हाची ने अपने मालिक का इंतज़ार करता रहा। सर्दी, गर्मी, बरफ इन सबका राजी पर कोई फरक नहीं पड़ा। प्रोफेसर की पत्नी कभी पति की कब्र पर फूल चढ़ाने आती तो वह हाजी के साथ सड़क पर बैठकर रोती रहती थी। हाची का यह लंबा इंतज़ार एक मूक जानवर के अपने मालिक के प्रति प्रेम, समर्पण एवं प्रतीक्षा की नमूना है। इसका यह लंबा इंतज़ार लोगों को भी अचरज कर देती थी। निगम के लोग उसका आदरपूर्ण अंतिम संस्कार करने का सोच रहा है।

V. सूचना: ‘मेरी माँ’ फिल्म के गीत की पंक्तियाँ पढ़ें और 13 और 14 के उत्तर लिखें।

जब भी कभी पापा मुझे
जो ज़ोर से झूला झुलाते हैं माँ
मेरी नज़र ढूंढे तुझे
सोचूँ यही तू आ के थामेगी माँ
उनसे मैं सहम जाता हूँ माँ
चेहरे पे आने देता नहीं
दिल ही दिल में घरबाता हूँ माँ
तुझे सब है पता है न माँ
तुझे सब है पता …….. मेरी माँ

प्रश्न 13.
जब पापा ज़ोर से झूला झुलाते हैं तो बेटे की प्रतिक्रिया क्या है? (1)
उत्तर:
जब पापा ज़ोर से झूला झुलाते हैं तो बेटे की दृष्टि अपनी माँ को खोजती है। वह दिल में घबराता है। वह सोचता है कि माँ आकर उसे पकड़ेगी।

प्रश्न 14.
प्रस्तुत गीत के आधार पर बेटे के चरित्र पर टिप्पणी लिखिए। (4)
उत्तर:
बेटे बहुत भावुक प्रकृति का है। जो उसके मन में है, वह कहने में भी उसे कोई संकोच नहीं। वह भोलेपन से कहता है कि उसे अंधेरे से डर है। इस डर का प्रमुख कारण यह है कि उसकी माँ उसके पास नहीं। बेटा पढ़ाई के लिए दूर है। पर वह घर जाकर माँ से मिलना चाहता है। माँ के प्रति उसका प्यार अनुपम है। वह किसी भी हालत में माँ को दुःख पहुँचाना नहीं चाहता है। इसलिए अपने डर को अपने मन में ही रहने देता है। पर वह सोचता है कि माँ सब कुछ जानती है। इस तरह बेटे का चरित्र हमारे मन को छूने वाला है।

प्रश्न 15.
नीचे दिए चित्रों को पहचान कर किन्हीं दो के बारे में एक-एक वाक्य लिखें। (2)

उत्तर:
पहली चित्र में एक लड़की अपनी माँ के साथ नदी पार कर रही थी। दूसरी चित्र में एक धोबी कपड़े धोते हैं।

प्रश्न 16.
चित्रों के आधार पर दो प्रश्न बनाएँ।

उत्तर:
a) विद्यार्थियाँ क्या कर रहे थे?
b) आदमी क्या माँगता है?

For scoring high marks, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Question Papers Set 4 play an important role.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 90 minutes
Max. Score : 40

सामान्य निर्देश:

1. पहला पंद्रह मिनिट का कूल ऑफ टाइम है। इस समय प्रश्नों का वाचन करें और उत्तर लिखने की तैयारी करें।
2. वैकल्पिक प्रश्नों में से किसी एक का उत्तर लिखें।

सूचना : ‘बाइसिकल थीव्स’ फिल्मी लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें और 1 से 3 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

हमें कहीं पहुँचने की जल्दी नहीं थी। हम रास्ते में कहीं भी रुककर नाचने गाने बजाने लगते थे। जिस शहर में शाम को परफॉर्म करते, वहीं रात गुजारते थे। मैं इन सबको कागज़ पर उकेरता रहता। शुरुआत नदी से दुआ माँगने से हुई। कैटरीना ने एक सुंदर गाना गाया। कइयों की आँख भीग गई।

प्रश्न 1.
कागज़ पर उकेरना – यहाँ इसका मतलब क्या है ?
(क) कागज़ पर लिखना।
(ख) कागज़ पर चित्र खींचने।
(ग) कागज़ को फाड़ना।
(घ) कागज़ देखकर पढ़ना।
उत्तर:
(क) कागज़ पर लिखना।

प्रश्न 2.
कइयों की आँखें भीग गई। क्यों?
उत्तर:
गीत सुनकर

प्रश्न 3.
प्रस्तुत प्रसंग को लेकर लेखक अपने मित्र के नाम पत्र लिखता है। वह पत्र कल्पना करके लिखिए। (4)
उत्तर:

II. सूचना : ‘मेरी माँ’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़ें और 4 से 6 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

भीड़ में, यू न छोड़ो मुझे
घर लौट के भी आना पाऊँ माँ
भेज ना इतना दूर मुझको तू
याद भी तुझको आना पाऊँ माँ
क्या इतना बुरा हूँ मैं माँ
क्या इतना बुरा ……….. मेरी माँ।
उत्तर:
मुंबई,
15/10/2025

प्रिय मित्र,
नमस्कार !
आप कैसे हैं? अब मैं ‘ कला थिएत्रो’ नामक एक संस्था में चित्रकार के रूप में काम करता हूँ। यहाँ अनेक अच्छे कलाकार हैं। हम रास्ते में कहीं रुककर नाचने-गाने-बजाने लगते हैं। जिस शहर में शाम को परफॉर्म करते, वहीं रात गुज़ारते हैं। मैं इन सबको
कागज़ में चित्रों के रूप में उकेरता। आज कैथरीना नामक एक गायिका ने सुंदर गीत गाया। सुनकर सबकी आँखें भीग गईं। कभी हमसे मिलने यहाँ आना।

आपका दोस्त
नाम

प्रश्न 4.
यहाँ बेटा क्यों कहता हू – क्या इतना बुरा हूँ मैं माँ ? (1)
(क) क्योंकि बेटा सचमुच बुरा है।
(ख) माँ ने उसे पढ़ाई के लिए दूर भेज दिया है।
(ग) बेटा माँ की बात मानने वाली नहीं।
उत्तर:
माँ ने उसे पढ़ाई के लिए दूर भेज दिया है।

प्रश्न 5.
गीत के आधार पर दो सही प्रस्ताव चुनकर लिखिए। (2)
(क) बेटा अंधेरे से डरता है।
(ग) बेटे को हमेशा माँ की याद आती है।
(ख) बेटा अपनी माँ से प्यार नहीं करता है।
(घ) बेटा अपने घर से दूर जाना चाहता है।
उत्तर:
(क) बेटा अंधेरे से डरता है।
(ग) बेटे को हमेशा माँ की याद आती है।

प्रश्न 6.
प्रस्तुत कविता के आस्वादन टिप्पणी लिखिए। (4)
उत्तर:
बेटे बहुत भावुक प्रकृति का है। जो उसके मन में है, वह कहने में भी उसे कोई संकोच नहीं। वह भोलेपन से कहता है कि उसे अंधेरे से डर है। इस डर का प्रमुख कारण यह है कि उसकी माँ उसके पास नहीं। बेटा पढ़ाई के लिए दूर है। पर वह घर जाकर माँ से मिलना चाहता है। माँ के प्रति उसका प्यार अनुपम है। वह किसी भी हालत में माँ को दुःख पहुँचाना नहीं चाहता है। इसलिए अपने डर को अपने मन में ही रहने देता है। पर वह सोचता है कि माँ सब कुछ जानती है। इस तरह बेटे का चरित्र हमारे मन को छूने वाला है।

अथवा
इन बातों के प्रसंग पर ईशान अवस्थी की डायरी कल्पना करके लिखिए।
उत्तर:
10 जनवरी 2025
बुधवार
आज मुझे नींद नहीं आ रही है। लगातार मुझे माँ की याद आ रही है। माँ, मुझसे कितनी दूर है! पर माँ को पता है कि माँ से अलग होने पर मैं कितना डरता हूँ। मुझे अंधेरे से भी डर होने लगता है। जब पापा मुझे झूला झुलाते थे, तब भी मुझे डर लगता था । तब मैं यही सोचता कि माँ आकर मुझे पकड़ेगी। अपने डर को मैं कैसे माँ से बताता ! इससे माँ निश्चय ही दुखी हो जाएगी। मैं हमेशा माँ के पास ही रहना चाहता हूँ। मैं कब वापस घर चला जा सकता हूँ? कौन जाने!

III. सूचना: ‘बाइसिकल थीव्स’ कहानी यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 7 से 9 के उत्तर लिखें।

रोम में रहने वाले अंतोनियो को नौकरी चाहिए। लेकिन नौकरी ऐसी मिली है जिसके लिए साइकिल होना ज़रूरी है। उसकी पत्नी मरिया बड़ी मुश्किलों से घर का सामान बेचकर साइकिल के पैसे जुटाती है। काम के पहले ही दन अंतोनियो की साइकिल चोरी हो जाती है। वह अपने दस साल के बेटे ब्रूनो के साथ साइकिल खोजने निकलता है।

प्रश्न 7.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए। (1)
(क) जो + का = जिसके
(ख) जो + की = जिसके
(ग) जो + को = जिसके
(घ) जो + के = जिसके
उत्तर:
(घ) जो + के = जिसके

प्रश्न 8.
अंतोनियो कहाँ रहते थे? (2)
उत्तर:
रोम में

प्रश्न 9.
किसी मनपसंद सिनेमा की विशेषताओं का उल्लेख करते हुए एक फिल्मी लेख तैयार करें। (4)
उत्तर:
‘गाँधी’ फिल्म महात्मा गाँधी के जीवन पर आधारित है। रिचर्ड एटनबरो ने इसका निर्देशन किया था। इसमें बेन किंग्सले ने महात्मा गाँधी की भूमिका निभाई थी। यह फ़िल्म 1982 में बनी थी। इस फ़िल्म में गाँधीजी के जीवन के कई महत्वपूर्ण क्षण हमें देखने को मिलते हैं। दक्षिण अफ्रीका में उनका जीवन, भारत की संवतंत्रता के लिए उनका संघर्ष, सत्याग्रह आंदोलन, उनकी अहिंसात्मक विचारधारा आदि की स्पष्ट झलक इसमें है। 1948 में उनकी हत्या तथा अंतिम संस्कार के साथ फ़िल्म समाप्त होती है। इस फ़िल्म ने आठ ऑस्कार पुरस्कार सहित कई पुरस्कार जीते। आज भी यह सिनेमा सभी के लिए प्रेरणा स्रोत है।

अथवा
आपके स्कूल के फिल्मोत्सव में बाइसिकल थीव्स सिनेमा का प्रदर्शन होने वाला है। उसके लिए एक नोटिस तैयार करें।
उत्तर:

IV. सूचना: ‘हाची की कहानी’ का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 10 और 12 के उत्तर लिखें।

हाची का अर्थ होता है आठ, वह अंक, जिसे पूरा जापान बहुत सौभाग्यशाली मानता है। लेकिन पिल्ला ऐसी मज़बूर हालत में था कि लगे, भाग्य का मारा है।

प्रश्न 10.
कोष्ठक के शब्दों की सहायता से वाक्य विस्तार करें।
(पूरे, बहुत, आठ, अंक)
जापान में सौभाग्यशाली मानता था।
उत्तर
पूरे जापान में सौभाग्यशाली मानता था।
पूरे जापान में आठ अंक सौभाग्यशाली मानता था।
पूरे जापान में आठ अंक बहुत सौभाग्यशाली मानता था।

प्रश्न 11.
पहचानकर लिखें कि कौन – सा विकल्प पूर्ण रूप से सही है।

(क) प्रोफेसर हाची को	(त) इंतज़ार करता है।
(ख) पत्नी अचरज	(थ) घर लाता है।
(ग) हाची प्रोफेसर का	(द) ढूँढती है।
	(ध) हो जाती है।

(क) च – द, छ – त, ज – द
(ख) च – त, छ – ध, जं – द
(ग) च – थ, छ – ध, ज – त
(घ) च – ध, छ – द, ज – थ
उत्तर:

(क) प्रोफेसर हाची को	(थ) घर लाता है।
(ख) पत्नी अचरज	(ध) हो जाती है।
(ग) हाची प्रोफेसर का	(त) इंतज़ार करता है।

प्रश्न 12.
प्रोफेसर युएनो के इंतज़ार में बैठे बैठे 1935 में हाची ने दम तोड़ दिया। इस पर समाचार तैयार करें। (4)
उत्तर:
प्रोफेसर की तलाश में हाची ने भी विदा ली

टोक्योः सालों पहले टोक्यो में सड़क पर टहलते हुए प्रोफेसर युएने को एक पिल्ला मिला। अकीता नस्ल का शानदार पिल्ला। उसके गले पर पट्टा बाँधा था, जिसपर लिखा था ‘हाची’। मतलब है ‘आठ’। जापानियों का भाग्यशाली अंक। हाची और प्रोफेसर की दोस्ती  दिन-व-दिन बढ़ती गई। हर सुबह प्रोफेसर को ट्रेन में बिठाकर विदा किया करता और शाम को स्टेशन के बाहर उनका इंतज़ार करता।

प्रोफेसर के आने पर उनके साथ घर लौटता। एक दिन प्रोफेसर दफ्तर से लौटकर नहीं आए। उस दिन दुपहर को दफ्तर में उनका निधा हो गया था। हाची को इस बात का पता न था। वह स्टेशन के बाहर उनका इंतज़ार करता रहा। एक या दो दिन नहीं…… पूरे नौ साल और नौ महीने तक। अपने प्रिय स्वामी के इंतज़ार में बैठे-बैठे कल उसी जगह हाची ने भी अपना दम तोड़ दिया। स्टेशन के आस-पास के लोग और कई यात्री हाची की लाश को देखने आए हुए थे।

अथवा
एक साल ……….. दो साल ……….. तीन साल …… पूरे नौ साल प्रतिमा स्थापित है। सर्दी, गर्मी, बरसात पर हाची को इन सबसे कोई फर्क नहीं पड़ा। इससे क्या तात्पर्य है?
उत्तर:
नौ साल और नौ महीने तक हाची प्रोफेसर का इंतज़ार करता रहा। समय के साथ मौसम भी बदलता रहा। हाची के मन में अपने स्वामी की ही चिंता थी। मौसम का कोई असर उसपर नहीं पड़ा।

V. सूचना: ‘जूलिया और लूना’ का यह अंश पढ़ें और 13 और 14 के उत्तर लिखें।

738 दिनों तक पेड़ काटने का इंतज़ार करने के बाद एक दिन वे आदमी चुपचाप वहाँ से जाने लगे। वादा करो यहाँ के किसी भी पेड़ को कभी नहीं काटोगे। ” लड़की ने सेठ से वादा ले लिया। सारे पेड़ बच गए। उस लड़की का नाम जूलिया है उस पेड़ का नाम है लूना

प्रश्न 13.
कब आदमी चुपचाप वहाँ से जाने लगा? (1)
उत्तर:
738 दिनों तक पेड़ काटने का इंतज़ार करने के बाद एक दिन वे आदमी चुपचाप वहाँ से जाने लगे।

प्रश्न 14.
5 जून विश्व पर्यावरण दिवस है। इस पर आधारित एक पोस्टर तैयार करके लिखिए।
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 15.
नीचे दिए चित्रों को पहचान कर किन्हीं दो के बारे में एक-एक वाक्य लिखें।

उत्तर:
पहले चित्र में दो हँस तालाब में तैर रही थीं। दूसरी चित्र में सर्दी का मौसम का चित्रण मनमोहन रूप में चित्रित किया है।

प्रश्न 16.
चित्रों के आधार पर दो प्रश्न बनाएँ।

उत्तर:
a) इस चित्र में किस समय का चित्रण किया है?
b) चिड़िया कहाँ बैठी है?

For scoring high marks, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Question Papers Set 3 play an important role.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 90 minutes
Max. Score : 40

सामान्य निर्देश:

1. पहला पंद्रह मिनिट का कूल ऑफ टाइम है। इस समय प्रश्नों का वाचन करें और उत्तर लिखने की तैयारी करें।
2. वैकल्पिक प्रश्नों में से किसी एक का उत्तर लिखें।

सूचना : ‘बाइसिकल थीव्स’ फिल्मी लेख का यह अंश पढ़ें और 1 से 3 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

738 दिनों तक पेड़ काटने का इंतज़ार करने के बाद एक दिन वे आदमी चुपचाप वहाँ से जाने लगे। वादा करो यहाँ के किसी भी पेड़ को कभी नहीं काटोगे।” लड़की ने सेठ से वादा ले लिया।

प्रश्न 1.
सही प्रस्ताव चुनकर लिखें।
(क) सेठ पेड़ काटने में सफल हुआ।
(ख) सेठ ने पेड़ काटने का वादा किया।
(ग) सेठ पेड़ काटने में असफल हुआ।
(घ) सेठ ने पेड़ काटने का दावा किया।
उत्तर:
(ग) सेठ पेड़ काटने में असफल हुआ।

प्रश्न 2.
“वादा करो यहाँ के किसी भी पेड़ को कभी नहीं काटोगे।” जूलिया ने सेठ से ऐसा वादा क्यों ले लिया? (2)
उत्तर:
क्योंकि वह पेट काटने को पसंद नहीं करता।

प्रश्न 3.
लूना की रक्षा करने के लिए जूलिया 738 दिनों तक उस पेड़ पर ही रही। इस पर समाचार तैयार करें। (4)
उत्तर:
पेड़ पर लड़की

चेन्नई: पिछले 738 दिनों तक एक लड़की पेड़ के ऊपर बैठी है और पेड़ को काटने से मना कर रही है। पिछले एक दिन कुछ हट्टे कट्टे आदमी एक बड़े पेड़ को काटने पहुँचे। लेकिन एक लड़की ने उन्हें देख लिया। वह झट से पेड़ पर चढ़ गई और चिल्लाई। फिर
एक शाखा पर जा बैठी।

II. सूचना : ‘खुशबू रचते हैं हाथ’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़ें और 4 से 6 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।

उभरी नसों वाले हाथ
घिसे नाखूनों वाले हाथ
पीपल के पत्ते से नए-नए हाथ
जूही की डाल – से खुशबूदार हाथ
गंदे कटे-पिटे हाथ
ज़ख़्म से फटे हुए हाथ
खुशबू रचते हैं हाथ
खुशबू रचते हैं हाथ ।।

प्रश्न 4.
‘उभरी नसों वाले हाथ’ यहाँ किसका प्रतिनिधित्व करते हैं ?
(बड़ों के, बच्चों के, गरीबी से सूखे आदमियों के)
उत्तर:
गरीबी से सूखे आदमियों के

प्रश्न 5.
पीपल के पत्ते के समान कोमल हाथ – यह आशय वाली पंक्तियाँ चुनकर लिखिए।
उत्तर:
पीपल के पत्ते से नए-नए हाथ।

प्रश्न 6.
मज़दूर वर्ग के लोग ही इस दुनिया को सुंदर और खुशबूदार बनाते हैं। क्या आप इससे सहमत हैं? समर्थन करें। (4)
उत्तर:
मैं इससे सहमत हूँ। मज़दूरों के हाथ ही अगरबत्तियों का निर्माण करते हैं तथा सारी दुनिया को सुगंध से महमह कर देते हैं। मज़दूरों ने जिस बस्ती में अगरबत्तियाँ फिर भी वे लोग इस दुनिया को सुगंध से महमह कर देते हैं।

अथवा
कविता की आस्वादन टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
“खुशबू रचते हैं हाथ” कविता में कारीगरों मज़दूरों और गरीबों की आर्थिक दुर्दशा का चित्रण किया गया है। जो लोग खुशबू देने वाली अगरबत्तियाँ बनाते हैं, संसार में खुशबू फैलाते हैं, वे स्वयं नालों के आस- पास, कूड़े-कर्कट के ढ़ेर के पास बदबू -भरे वातावरण में रहते हैं। चाहे उभरी हुई नसों वाली बूढ़ी महिलाएँ हों या जख्म से फटे हाथों वाला गरीब या कोमल हाथों वाली नन्हीं बालिकाएँ – सभी गरीब मजबूरी में कूड़े- कर्कट के पास रहते हैं और संसार भर को खुशबू देने वाली अगरबत्तियाँ बनाते हैं। यह मज़दूरों का दुर्भाग्य है।

III. सूचना : ‘सीरिया की बेटी’ का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 7 से 9 के उत्तर लिखें।

इसीने थकान को और बढ़ा दिया था। अजब-सी बोरियत ने मुझे घेर लिया था। ऊपर से विमान लेट पर लेट होता जा रहा था। मेरे पास टर्की का वीज़ा भी नहीं था कि कहीं बाहर जाकर घूम ही आऊँ।

प्रश्न 7.
सही विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए।
(1)
क) मैं + का = मुझे
(ख) मैं + के = मुझे
(ग) मैं + को = मुझे
(घ) मैं + की = मुझे
उत्तर:
(ग) मैं + को = मुझे

प्रश्न 8.
उसको क्यों बाहर जाकर घूमने का अवसर नहीं मिला?
उत्तर:
क्योंकि उसको टर्की का वीज़ा नहीं है।

प्रश्न 9.
यहाँ ‘अजीब सी बोरियत’ का प्रयोग क्यों किया होगा?
उत्तर:
लेखिका छह-सात घंटे से फ्लाइट का इंतज़ार कर रहा था। वह बहुत थका हुआ था। उसके पास टर्की का वीज़ा भी नहीं था कि कहीं बाहर जाकर घूमने के लिए। इसलिए यहाँ ‘अजब-सी बोरियत’ का प्रयोग किया होगा।

अथवा
“युद्ध की हर कहानी ही बेचैन करने वाली होती है” – युद्ध के विरुद्ध एक पोस्टर तैयार कीजिए।
उत्तर:

IV. सूचना : ‘सयानी बुआ’ का यह अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 10 और 12 के उत्तर लिखें।

उनकी एक-एक बात पिताजी हम लोगों के सामने उदाहरण के रूप में रखते थे जिसे सुनकर हम सभी खैर माया करते थे कि ससुराल में ही रहा करें वरना हम जैसे अस्त व्यस्त और अव्यवस्थित जनों का तो जीना ही हराम हो जाएगा।

प्रश्न 10.
कोष्ठक के शब्दों की सहायता से वाक्य विस्तार करें।
(हम लोगों, के सामने, उदाहरण के रूप में) पिताजी रखते थे।
उत्तर:
पिताजी हम लोगों को रखते थे।
पिताजी हम लोगों के सामने रखते थे।
पिताजी हम लोगों के सामने उदाहरण के रूप में रखते थे।

प्रश्न 11.
पहचानकर लिखें कि कौन-सा क्रम सही है।

(क) पिताजी पढ़ाई के विषय में	(च) सयानी बुआ
(ख) अस्त व्यस्त जीवन	(छ) सतर्क थे
(ग) उदाहरण	(ज) हराम हो जाएगा

(क) क – छ, ख – च, ग – च
(ख) क – ज, ख – च, ग – छ
(ग) क – छ, ग – ज, ग – ज
उत्तर:

(क) पिताजी पढ़ाई के विषय में	(छ) सतर्क थे
(ख) अस्त व्यस्त जीवन	(ज) हराम हो जाएगा
(ग) उदाहरण	(च) सयानी बुआ

प्रश्न 12.
लड़की बुआ के घर में रहने लगी वह पिता के नाम पत्र लिखती है। वह पत्र कल्पना करके लिखें।
उत्तर:
चेन्नई,
12/05/2025
आप कैसे हैं ? ठीक हैं न……? मेरी पढ़ाई शुरु हुई। कॉलेज तक पैदल चलने का दूर है । मैं सुबह नौ बजे घर से निकलती हूँ। 10 मिनट का दूर है। पिताजी, बुआ के व्यवहार में कोई परिवर्तन नहीं आया है। सब उसी प्रकार है। अन्नू की हालत भी ठीक नहीं। उसमें बच्चों का सा उल्लास नहीं, बेचारी …..। एक सुराही तोड़ने के कारण बुआ ने कल एक नौकर को बहुत पीटा। इस परिवेश में मेरी भी हँसी-खुशी मारी गई। कोई बात नहीं पिताजी। मैं पढ़ने के लिए आयी हूँ। पढूँगी ज़रूर।
माँ और छोटे भाई को प्यार।

आपकी पुत्री,
नाम

अथवा
सयानी बुआ शीर्षक की सार्थकता पर टिप्पणी लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सयानी बुआ’ कहानी का मुख्य पात्र बुआ के वास्तविक नाम पर कोई पता नहीं। कहानी में कुल चार पात्र हैं, बुआ, बुआ के पति, पाँच साल की बेटी और बुआ के भाई की पुत्री। कहानी पढ़ने से पता चलता है कि बुआ की बेटी का नाम अन्नू है और किसी पात्र के नाम का उल्लेख कहानी में कहीं नहीं। सयानी बुआ का नाम वास्तव में सयानी था या उसके सयानेपन को देखकर लोग उसे सयानी कहने लगे थे, यह नहीं जानते। इस कहानी का मुख्य पात्र सयानी बुआ है। कहानी का मुख्य विषय बुआ का व्यक्तित्व और व्यवहार तथा उससे होनेवाली छोटी-छोटी समस्याएँ है। अकसर कहानियों के लिए मुख्य पात्र का नाम शीर्षक के रूप में दिया जाता है। इस दृष्टि से ‘सयानी बुआ’ शीर्षक सार्थक ही है।

V. सूचना: ‘हाची की कहानी’ का यह अंश पढ़ें और 13 और 14 के उत्तर लिखें।

प्रोफेसर ने तय किया कि मैं इस कुत्ते के मालिक को खोजूँगा। जब तक वह नहीं मिलेगा, यह मेरे साथ ही रहेगा। उसे साथ लेकर वह रोज़ उसके मालिक को खोजने निकलते, लेकिन वह कहीं नहीं मिला।

प्रश्न 13.
प्रोफेसर ने किसको खोजने के लिए तय किया ?
क) कुत्ता
ख) कुत्ते का मालिक
ग) लेखक
घ) हाची
उत्तर:
ख) कुत्ते का मालिक

प्रश्न 14.
प्रोफेसर और हाची का संबंध कैसा है ? व्यक्त कीजिए।
उत्तर:
प्रोफेसर को 1923 में हाची को मिला। उसके गले में हाची लिखा गया है जापानी भाषा में हाची का अर्थ है आठ। उन्होंने तय किया कि हाची के मलिक को खोजें। जब तक वह नहीं मिलेगा हाची उनके साथ ही रहेगा। हाची और प्रोफेसर के बीच में दिनों दिन प्यार बढ़ते जा रहा था । बह सबह ट्रेन में ऑफिस जाकर अपना काम किया और शाम को घर जाकर हाची के साथ खेलता था। इस प्रकार हाची और प्रोफेसर के बीच में एक अटूट संबंध था।.

प्रश्न 15.
नीचे दिए चित्रों को पहचान कर किन्हीं दो के बारे में एक-एक वाक्य लिखें।

उत्तर:
पहले चित्र में एक लड़की तालाब से कमल लेती है।
दूसरी चित्र में दो लड़कियाँ और एक लड़का खेलते हैं।

प्रश्न 16.
चित्रों के आधार पर दो प्रश्न बनाएँ।

उत्तर:
चित्र में कुम्हार क्या कर रहा है?
लड़का क्या खेलता है?

After completing the syllabus, Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 5 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 1 ½ hour
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

1. The first Fifteen minutes is given as cool off time.
2. Read the questions and instructions carefully and write the answers.
3. Answer the questions considering score and time.
4. Attempt any one question from each section having choice.

Answer the questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The famous emperor of the Eastern Roman Empire was
a) Charlemagne
b) Justinian
c) Augustus
d) Julius
Answer:
b) Justinian

Question 2.
Match the following.

Factors Influencing Cropping System	Sub-Factor
1. Natural Factors	A. Area of Agricultural Land held
2. Economic Factors	B. Scientific Irrigation
3. Social Factors	C. Diet
4. Technological Factors	D. Climate

a) 1-A, 2-B,3-C,4-D
b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
Answer:

Factors Influencing Cropping System	Sub-Factor
1. Natural Factors	D. Climate
2. Economic Factors	A. Area of Agricultural Land held
3. Social Factors	C. Diet
4. Technological Factors	B. Scientific Irrigation

Question 3.
Statement I: According to Article 326 of the Indian Constitution, all citizens of India have the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or class.

Statement II: According to the 61st Constitutional Amendment, the voting age was reduced to 18 years from the 1989 election onwards.

Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Only Statement I is correct
b) Only Statement II is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): In India, the government is formed by representatives elected by the people at the national and state levels.
Reason (R): An Election Commission exists to conduct free and fair elections in India.
a) Both A and R are true
b) Both A and R are false
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true

Answer the questions from 5 to 7 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 5.
(A) Who issued the proclamation granting freedom to the slaves? When?
(B) Which countries were involved in the Opium War?
Answer:
(A) Abraham Lincoln. January 1, 1863

(B) • China
• Britain

Answer the questions from 8 to 11 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 6.
Write any two natural factors that influence cropping systems.
Answer:
• Topography
• Climate

Question 7.
Complete the table by examining the important events that led to the formation of Aikya Kerala.

Answer:
A. Payyannur Congress Conference: 1928
B. Reorganise the states of India based on Language

Question 8.
(A) Explain the difference between moderates and extremists.
Moderates: There were differences-of opinion among the leaders regarding the working methods of the Indian National Congress. The early leadership was not ready for an open struggle against the British. They were known as moderates. Chief among them were Pherozshah Mehta, Gopalakrishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji. They propagated their ideas through peaceful and bloodless struggles, meetings, speeches and resolutions.

Extremists: A group, dissatisfied with the ideas and activities of the moderates, became strong in the Congress. They were known as extremists. Bal Gangadhara Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai were prominent among them. Their mode of action was quite different from those of the moderates.They adopted revolutionary methods of action like swadeshi and boycott to argue that freedom could be achieved only through strong open struggle.

OR
(B) List the early political movements in India.
Answer:

Early political movements	Centre of activity	National leaders who led the movements
Indian Association	Calcutta	Surendranath Banerjee, Ananda Mohan Bose
Madras Mahajan Sabha	Madras	M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, Ananda Charlu
Bombay Presidency Association	Bombay	Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, Badruddin Tyabji

Question 9.
What were the ideas put forward by Sun Yat-sen?
Answer:

1. Nationalism
2. Democracy
3. Socialism

Question 10.
Write a note on any three cities of Europe.
Answer:

1. Paris: Paris is the most visited tourist place in Europe every year. Located on the banks of the Seine River, Paris is the capital of France. The Eiffel Tower and the Louvre Museum attract tourists to this city.
2. London: Located on the banks of the Thames River, London is the capital and largest city of England and the United Kingdom.
3. Berlin: Berlin is the capital and largest city of Germany. This city is located on the banks of the Spree River.

Question 11.
What are the defensive strategies Pazhassi adopted against the English East India Company?
Answer:

1. The base was shifted to Wayanad
2. The local people were added
3. Guerrilla warfare was waged

Answer the questions 12 and 13 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score.

Question 12.
(A) Explain different types of Rights.
Answer:

Political Rights	Civil Rights
Right to vote Right to contest elections Right to hold public office Right to criticise the government	Equality before the law Right to a free and fair trial Right to assemble and organise Freedom of expression
Economic Rights	Cultural Rights
Right to work Right to receive minimum wages Equal rights over the resources and property of the states	Right to preserve language and script Right to educate in the mother tongue Right of indigenous people to preserve their cultural heritage

OR
(B) List out the reasons why India adopted a democratic system.
Answer:

1. Democratic values influenced India’s freedom struggle and its leadership.
2. All the movements in the freedom struggle adopted democratic methods.
3. The leaders believed that only a democratic system could politically unify a region with such cultural and geographical diversity.
4. Democracy provides a platform for different ideas to interact.
5.  democratic system can ensure a peaceful transfer of power between governments.

Question 13.
Write the main differences between mixed Cropping and intercropping.
Answer:
• Mixed Cropping: This is the method of cultivating two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintaining spacing between them. This cropping system is more common in dry areas. The advantage is that even if the yield of one crop is poor due to adverse weather conditions, yields from other crops can still be obtained. Example: maize-groundnut, coconut-pigeon pea

• Inter cropping: Inter Cropping is a cropping system where another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern. Production can be increased through the efficient use of resources. This is a suitable method for controlling weeds and pests. Example: Groundnut cultivated as an intercrop in cotton, which grows slowly in the initial stage. Plantain cultivated as an intercrop in coconut plantations.

Answer the questions 14 and 15 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
(A) Compare the ownership and features of the capitalist economy and the socialist economy.
Answer:
Capitalist Economy: It is an economy in which ownership of the factors of production is concentrated in individuals.
Socialist Economy: A socialist economy is one in which the government owns and controls all the factors of production. A centralised planning committee will take decisions on economic activities.

Features of the Economies
Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
All persons have the right to own property. Maximum profit. Limited government intervention. Individuals can store resource and use it to produce goods and services as they want: The consumer has complete freedom in the market (consumer sovereignty). Competition among industries. Active participation of government in economic development can be seen today in many countries that follow capitalist economy.	Ownership of the factors of production is vested in the government. Social welfare is the main objective. Government’s control over the market. The central planning committee utilises resources keeping in view the availability of resources and national objectives. Reducing inequality in income and wealth A centralised planning Committee will take decisions on economic activities. Intervention of pnvate enterprises is also seen in today’s socialist economy.

OR
(B) Highlight the economic contributions of Indian economists like Chanakya, Dadabhai Naoroji, Mahatma Gandhi and Abhijit Vinayak Baneijee.
Answer:

Indian Economists have given great contribution to the development of economics.

1.  Chanakya in ancient India, who devised an efficient tax system for the country’s economicdevelopment.
2. Dadabhai Naoroji, the originator of The Drain Theory, are prominent among them.
3. Mahatma Gandhi, Father of our Nation, describes the economic visions in his books Hind Swarajand india of My Dreams.

Gandhiji’s Economic Thoughts

1. Gandhiji envisioned an economy based on self-sufficiency and decentralisation.
2. Rural industries need to be nurtured to increase employment opportunities locally.
3. Expand local markets for marketing locally produced goods.
4. Economic inequality should be alleviated to ensure social justice.

Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee

1. Indian-American economist Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee was awarded the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economics for devising an experimental approach to global poverty eradication.
2. He shared the Nobel Prize with Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer.

Question 15.
Explain the climatic features of Europe.
• Arctic Climate
• Subarctic/ Taiga Climate
• Eastern European Climate
• Western European Climate
• Mediterranean Climate
Answer:

Climatic Region	Features
Arctic climate	Very short, cold summers (around 10°C) and long, harsh winters. No sunlight for 5-6 months in winter.
Subarctic/Taiga Climate	Mild, short summers; very cold winters. Temperature stays below 0°C for 5-7 months.
Eastern European Climate	Winter temperature falls below 0°C. Light rainfall in summer.
Western European Climate	Severe winters, moderate heat, Rainfall throughout the year.
Mediterranean Climate	Hot, dry summers and cold, rainy winters. Found around the Mediterranean Sea – Portugal, Spain, Italy, Greece, Croatia, etc.

After completing the syllabus, Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 1 ½ hour
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

1. The first Fifteen minutes is given as cool off time.
2. Read the questions and instructions carefully and write the answers.
3. Answer the questions considering score and time.
4. Attempt any one question from each section having choice.

Answer the questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Who Conducted the Villuvandi Strike?
a) Ayyankali
b) Pandit.K.P Karuppan
c) Vagbhatananda
d) V.T Bhattathiripad
Answer:
a) Ayyankali

Question 2.
Arrange the items in column ‘B’ appropriate to column ‘A’ and choose the correct combinations from the options given below.

A	B
1. Kurichal War	A. Kurichya leader
2. Pazhassiraja	B. Kochi
3. Thalakkal Chandu	C. Dutch
4. Paliathachan	D. Kottayam Royal Family

a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
Answer:

A	B
1. Kurichal War	C. Dutch
2. Pazhassiraja	D. Kottayam Royal Family
3. Thalakkal Chandu	A. Kurichya leader
4. Paliathachan	B. Kochi

Question 3.
Statement I: The Mongols were a nomadic tribe that lived in the eastern part of Central Asia. Statement II: Genghis Khan united the various Mongol tribes which had been fighting each other for a long time, and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire.
Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Only Statement I is correct
b) Only Statement II is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): The New Economic Policy was a partial return to private trade, agriculture, and private investment.
Reason (R): By implementing the New Economic Policy, Lenin developed the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) into a world superpower.
a) Both A and R are true
b) Both A and R are false
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
a) Both A and R are true

Answer the questions from 5 to 7 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 5.
(A) Explain Justinian’s Law.
Answer:
Justinian was a famous ruler of the Eastern Roman Empire. Justinian’s greatest contribution to the world was the Code of Justinian. A committee of jurists was formed to codify the laws, jurisprudence, and legal edicts that existed in the empire and to create a distinct law. The law thus compiled was the Corpus Juris Civilis. It had three parts: Digest, Code, Institute.

OR
(B) Complete the flow chart related to the feudal system.

Answer:

1. Nobles
2. Peasants

Question 6.
Write the name of women activists who actively participated in Indian National Movement?
Answer:

1. A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
2. Ammu Swaminathan
3. Akkamma Cheriyan
4. Annie Mascarene

Question 7.
Differentiate between basic needs and gratifying needs.
Answer:

Basic needs	Gratifying needs
The essential needs for the survival of life such as food, clothing and shelter can be called basic needs.	There are certain needs that make our life more comfortable and happy. These are called gratifying needs.

Answer the questions from 8 to 11 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 8.
(A) Write a note on Kurichyar Rebellion.
Answer:
The Kurichyar and Kurumbrar are tribal groups in Wayanad. The Kurichyar rebellion began in 1812. The tribal people fought against the British by taking control of the routes to Wayanad and by gaining local support. Rama Nambi or Rama Mooppan was their leader. They directly attacked the British army stationed at Sultan Bathery and Mananthavady. But the British suppressed the Kurichyar rebellion by bringing in more soldiers from other places.

OR
(B) Describe the Malayali Memorial and the Ezhava Memorial.
Answer:

Malayati Memorial	Ezhava Memorial
• Demand for adequate representation of people of Travancore in government jobs in Travancore	• Demand for adequate representation of Ezhava community in government service
• On 1 January 1891, a petition signed by the people was submitted to the Maharaja, stating this demand	• On 3 September 1896, a petition signed by members of the Ezhava community was submitted to the Maharaja.
• Leadership – G. P. Pillai	• Leadership – Dr. P. Palpu

Question 9.
Explain the concept of multi-storied cropping/ Multi-Tier Cropping. What is the main advantage of this method in terms of soil, water and sunlight?
Answer:
Multi-tier cropping is the method of cultivating crops of different heights, with different root depths and varying sunlight requirements on the same field simultaneously. Its advantage is that soil, water and sunlight can be used more effectively. Example: coconut, pepper, ginger/turmeric are cultivated simultaneously on the same farm.

Question 10.
There were some other factors that urged the colonists to fight against Britain. What were they?
Answer:
• The colonists’ fear of the French disappeared as a result of the Seven Year War
• The military experience gained as a result of participating in the war
• Awareness of one’s own strength

Question 11.
Explain the three principles of Justice.
Answer:

Equal Treatment for Equals	Proportionate Justice	Recognition of Special Needs
• As human beings, all individuals deserve equal rights and equal consideration. • No discrimination on the basis of class, caste, religion, gender, or race	• Justice should be proportionate to the ability and contribution of each person. • There is no injustice in treating each person separately according to their ability.	• In a society where inequality exists, the weaker section and the backward can enjoy equality only if special rights are granted. • Methods such as reservation can be adopted to ensure equality.

Answer the questions 12 and 13 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 12.
(A) Distinguish between Umayyad and Abbasids dynasty.
Answer:
• Umayyad Dynasty: Muawiya, the governor of Syria seized power following the insecurity that arose after the death of the fourth caliph, Ali. The dynasty he founded was the Umayyad Dynasty. They moved the capital to Damascus in Syria. Abd al-Malik, the caliph of the Umayyad dynasty, emphasised Arabhood.

1. Made Arabic the official language
2. Implemented the Islamic currency system
3. Built the Dome of the Rock in Jerusalem

• Abbasids: The Abbasid dynasty came into power under the leadership of Abul Abbas by overthrowing the Umayyad dynasty. They moved the capital from Damascus to Baghdad. The most important poet and scholar among them was Harun al-Rashid.

OR
(B) Explain the contributions of Arabs to the world.
Answer:
The Arab people were the ones who had built a unique culture. They had an efficient government, a postal system and a tax collection system. They were able to achieve a lot of progress in the field of education. The universities in Baghdad, Damascus, Cairo, and Cordoba are examples of this. It was the Arabs who contributed algebra and Arabic numerals to the world. Zero, which was the contribution of India was spread to the whole world by the Arabs. The Arabs were also the inventors of many chemical processes in chemistry. They were also the inventors of optics. They had knowledge about tuberculosis, smallpox, stomach cancer, and plague. The Thousand and One Nights is a famous book in Arabic literature.

Question 13.
Explain the four devices of direct democracy.
Answer:

1. Referendum: A process in which laws passed by the legislature are submitted to the people for their approval through voting.
2. Recall: The process of removing elected representatives from office when their performance is unsatisfactory. This is implemented by a written request from a specified percentage of voters.
3. Plebiscite: A method used to ascertain the will of the people on very important public issues.
4. Initiative: A way for people to directly intervene in law-making. They submit to the legislature either a draft or complete version of the law they desire.

Answer the questions 14 and 15 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
(A) Compare and contrast the features of the parliamentary system and the presidential system.
Answer:

Features of the Parliamentary System	Features of the Presidential System
• The executive branch is controlled by the legislature • The powers of the head of the state are nominal • The head of state is the King/Queen/President • The head of government is the Prime Minister • The Prime Minister is the leader of the party that has the majority in the legislature • The council of ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the legislature	• The executive branch and the legislature are separate • The President serves both as the head of state and the head of government • All executive powers are vested in the President • The President is directly elected by the people • The President is not accountable to the legislature

OR
(B) There are many governments in the world that do not adhere to democracy. Elucidate the statement.
Answer:

Monarchy	• The oldest form of government • Power is transferred by inheritance• All the power of the state is vested in the king/queen
Dictatorship	• All the powers of the state will be concentrated in one person • No one has the right to question or criticise the person who becomes the supreme leader of the state • All forms of democracy, including elections, will be banned
Military Dictatorship	• The military will rale directly • There will be no democratic rights or other forms of democracy • Protests and criticism will be suppressed by military force
Party Dictatorship	• Only one political party governs • All the powers of the state are concentrated in the party • Democratic values, including freedom of expression, are completely prohibited
Theocratic State	• Clergy will directly rale the state according to religious laws • The official religion of the state shall be the basis of the legal system • Everyone shall be obliged to believe in and follow the official religion

Question 15.
What were the main features of the Constitution of the United States of America?
Answer:

1. The Constitution of the United States is a written one in the federal system. Accordingly, each state joining the union had certain powers of its own.
2. The smallest constitution in the world
3. The central government has authority over foreign affairs, war, interstate trade, and currency
4. The state governments had representation in the central government
5. The powers of the three branches of government such as the Congress, the President, and the Judiciary are clearly specified.

After completing the syllabus, Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 3 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 1 ½ hour
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

1. The first Fifteen minutes is given as cool off time.
2. Read the questions and instructions carefully and write the answers.
3. Answer the questions considering score and time.
4. Attempt any one question from each section having choice.

Answer the questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which index is prepared by the United Nations to assess the development of the countries of the world?
a) Human Development Index
b) Happiness Index
c) Gender Equality Index
d) Poverty Index
Answer:
a) Human Development Index

Question 2.
Match the following.

Agricultural Pattern	Explanation
1. Mixed cropping	A. Another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
2. Inter-cropping	B. Cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop.
3. Relay cropping	C. Two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintain space between them.
4. Crop rotation	D. Growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.

a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
Answer:

Agricultural Pattern	Explanation
1. Mixed cropping	C. Two or more crops simultaneously on agricultural land without maintain space between them.
2. Inter-cropping	A. Another crop is cultivated between the main crop in a specific pattern.
3. Relay cropping	D. Growing a second crop on the field before harvesting the first crop.
4. Crop rotation	B. Cultivating crops of different plant families on the same field after harvesting each crop.

Question 3.
Statement I: The development of transport and communication by the British helped people to travel to all parts of India, communicate and understand each other.

Statement II: The implementation of a unified administrative system, legal system, and currency system also created a sense of unity among the people.

Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Only Statement I is correct
b) Only Statement II is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Genghis Khan united the Mongol tribes and laid the foundation of the Mongol Empire. Reason (R): The Mongols were nomadic people who travelled in search of pastures.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Answer the questions from 5 to 7 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 5.
(A) Explain the characteristics of indirect democracy or representative democracy.
Answer:
Representative Democracy or Indirect Democracy is a system in which the people elect their representatives to govern. In a parliamentary democraticsystem, the government is governed by a council of ministers that is collectively responsible to the parliament. Adult franchise and civil rights are milestones in the history of British parliamentary democracy.

OR
(B) The rule of law is one of the basic values of democracy. Explain.
Answer:
The essence of the rule of law is that everyone is equal before the law and everyone will receive equal legal protection. The general laws of the country will apply equally to everyone. There will be no special laws for any group. Similarly, the government can fulfil its duties only through the process and principles prescribed by the legal system.

Question 6.
State the four main boundaries (direction and area bounded) of the continent of Europe.
Answer:

1. North – Arctic Ocean
2. West – Atlantic Ocean
3. South – Mediterranean Sea
4. East – Asia

Question 7.
What are the main features of print media?
Answer:

1. They provide comprehensive news, features, and literary works to society.
2. They provide a reliable and immersive reading experience through print media.
3. They are useful for storing and rereading.
4. Communication is possible only from print media to readers (in one direction).

Answer the questions from 8 to 11 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 8.
(A) By the 14th century, feudalism began to collapse. Give reasons for this.
Answer:

1. Climate Change
2. Strengthening of monarchy
3. Spread of the pandemic, known as the plague or Black Death
4. Invention of gunpowder
5. Crusades
6. Scarcity of metal coins

OR
(B) Why is the Frankish Empire known as Holy Roman Empire?
Answer:
(A) The Western Roman Empire was later conquered by the Franks, a tribe in Europe. They founded the Frankish Empire. The most famous ruler of this empire was Charlemagne. When Pope Leo III was expelled from Rome by his enemies, Charlemagne defeated them and restored him as Pope. In return, the Pope crowned Charlemagne as the first Holy Roman Emperor. Therefore, this empire is also known as the Holy Roman Empire.

Question 9.
List any three challenges/problems facing the Indian agriculture sector.
Answer:
Climate change and natural disasters.
High cost of fertilizers and pesticides.
Lack of market for agricultural produce, lack of capital

Question 10.
Explain the trade laws implemented by Britain in the American colonies.
Answer:

1. Goods from colonies to colonies could only be transported on the British ships or on the ships of the colonies.
2. Goods such as wool, tobacco, and ship’s sails could be sent to Europe via England only. Goods from Europe could only be transported via England only.
3. The Stamp Act of 1765 insisted that Deeds of will, legal documents, and pamphlets be marked with a fixed value stamp. An additional tax was imposed to recoup the cost of protecting the colonies from French attacks.

Question 11.
Explain the difference between renewable and non-renewable resources with examples.
Answer:

Renewable Resources	Non-Renewable Resources
• Resources that do not get depleted after use and can be reused are renewable resources. • These are resources that are continuously produced in nature and are always readily available to man. • Examples: Sunlight, wind, and waves	• Non-renewable resources have been formed over millions of years and they decrease in quantity with use. • Examples: iron, gold, coal, and petroleum.

Answer the questions 12 and 13 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 12.
(A) The American War of Independence made significant contributions to the world. What were they?
Answer:

1. It gave energy to anti-colonial struggles around the world
2. The first written constitution came into effect
3. It contributed the concept of federal government to the world
4. It contributed the idea of modem republican government to the world

OR
(B) Explain the results of the revolution in China.
Answer:

1. China became the People’s Republic
2. Foreign domination in China came to an end
3. Agricultural land was distributed to the farmers
4. It caused the socialist ideas spread among the nations of the world

Question 13.
Describe the major activities of the national movement in Malabar and the role of important leaders.
Answer:
The national movement was more active in Malabar than in other parts of Kerala. The formation of the Malabar District Congress Committee and the activities of the Home Rule League propelled the national movement forward. The Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movements received strong support throughout Malabar.

As part of the stmggle. people boycotted foreign-made goods, courts, schools and other government institutions. The strike witnessed active participation of women and students. The prominent leaders during the time were C. Kunhirama Menon, K. Kelappan, U. Gopala Menon, K. P. Kcsava Menon, Muhammed Abdur Rahiman Sahib, E. Moidu Moulavi and Moyarath Sankaran.

Answer the questions 14 and 15 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
(A) Describe the major geographical regions of Europe and give examples of each.
Answer:
The topography of Europe can be classified as follows:

• North Western Highlands: The high hills found in the North Western regions of Europe and the Scandinavian Plateau spread across Norway, Sweden, and Finland are the speciality of the North Western Highlands. Scandinavia is a popular destination for travellers with its snow-capped mountains, glaciers, fast-flowing rivers, beautiful forests, and lakes. Round-topped and gently sloping hills, formed as a result of long-term glaciation and weathering, are found in many places. Fjords, which are found on the Scandinavian coast, are another feature of this region.

• North European Plains: The North European Plains are located south of the North Western Highlands. It is also known as the Great European Plain. This plain extends from the Ural Mountains in the east to the Atlantic Ocean in the west. The plain has a fairly flat topography with small hills here and there. The North European Plain, which is very suitable for agriculture, was formed as a result of glacial deposits and by the alluvium deposits of the major rivers of Europe, the Volga, the Don, and the Dnieper. The Volga is the longest river in Europe. The steppes are the most widespread grassland in the North European Plain.

• Central Uplands: The Central Uplands are located to the south of the North European Plain. This area of land, filled with small hills, valleys, and plateaus, stretches from Ireland in the west to Russia in the east. The Rhine and Rhone rivers enrich this area with water.

• Alpine Mountain System: The Alpine Mountain System is a series of fold mountains with parallel ranges located south of the Central Uplands. These mountain ranges extend from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to the Caspian Sea in the east. The main Alpine Mountain ranges are the Alps, the Caucasus, and the Carpathians. Mount Elbrus in the Caucasus Mountains is the highest peak in Europe.

OR
(B) How agriculture, fishing and industry influence the life of people?
Answer:
Agriculture: Regional diversity exists in agriculture, intensive farming, extensive farming’ and mixed farming are mostly practised depending on the availability of land and population density.

Intensive Farming	Extensive Farming	Mixed Farming
A farming method that increases production using advanced technology in densely populated areas.	A mechanised grain fanning method that is carried out on a commercial basis over very large areas of land.	A method of raising livestock along with crops.
Cultivated in countries with a Mediterranean climate.	This type of farming is practised in the steppes of northern Europe.	This type of farming is mainly found in central and western Europe.
Oranges, olives, and grapes are mainly cultivated.	The main crop is wheat. Cereals such as barley, com, and oats are also grown	In addition to the production of cereals and vegetables, livestock are also raised.

• Fishing: Fishing is a major occupation in the countries of Norway, Denmark, and Poland, which are bordered by the North Sea, the North Atlantic Ocean, and the Arctic Ocean. Cod, herring, salmon, halibut, and sea trout are abundant in these areas.

• Industry: The Industrial Revolution led Europe to development. Europe’s iron and steel industry, textile industry, and manufacturing sector gained world attention.

Question 15.
Explain the causes of the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
• Autocratic rule of Tsar: Agitated with the miserable working conditions, the economic depression, and the ongoing war with Japan, the people, led by Father Gapon, marched to St. Petersburg to present a petition to Tsar Nicholas II requesting economic and political reforms.

The army opened fire on the protesters, killing over a hundred workers. This massacre in St. Petersburg on January 22,1905, is known as ‘Bloody Sunday.’ In response to the popular outrage, the Tsar agreed to form a parliament called the Duma. But he rejected all the reforms proposed by the Duma and attempted to suppress political freedom.

• The main problems faced by the workers:
  1. Low wages .
  2. Poor living conditions
  3. Long working hours
  4. The dominance of foreign capitalists in industries
• Problems of Peasants:
  1. The peasants were socially and economically oppressed
  2. Most of the agricultural land was owned by nobles ‘
  3. Only a small section of the peasants had their own land
  4. The taxes that the peasants had to pay were extremely high
• Formation of Social Democratic Workers’ Party
• Influence of the writings of Leo Tolstoy, Turgenev, Maxim Gorky, etc.
• The communist theories of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.
• Russian participation in World War I.

After completing the syllabus, Class 8 Social Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 test students’ understanding.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 1 ½ hour
Total Score: 40

Instructions:

1. The first Fifteen minutes is given as cool off time.
2. Read the questions and instructions carefully and write the answers.
3. Answer the questions considering score and time.
4. Attempt any one question from each section having choice.

Answer the questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Who was the most powerful ruler of the Mali Empire?
a) Genghis Khan
b) Mansa Kangan Musa
c) Abdul Abbas
d) Muawiya
Answer:
b) Mansa Kangan Musa

Question 2.
Match the following.
a) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
d) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
Answer:

A	B
1. S.K. Pottekkat	A. World Development Index
2. Dimension of Europe	B. Published in 1955
3. HDI	C. l,03,55,00 Square Kilometer
4. Innathe Europe	D. Malavalam Travel Writer

Question 3.
Statement I: In Monarchy, all the power of the state is vested in the king/queen.
Statement II: In Dictatorship, all the powers of the state will be concentrated in one person. Analyse the above statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a) Only Statement I is correct
b) Only Statement II only is correct
c) Both the Statements are correct
d) Both the Statements are not correct
Answer:
c) Both the Statements are correct

Question 4.
Choose the correct answer by reading the given Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A): Using drone technology in agriculture helps increase productivity.
Reason (R): Due to global population increase, climate change, and technological advancement, agricultural practices are continuously changing.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer:
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Answer the questions from 5 to 7 in two or more sentences. Each carries 2 score. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 5.
(A) What were the two factions of the Social Democratic Workers’ Party?
Answer:

1. Bolsheviks
2. Mensheviks

OR
(B) Define Boxer Rebellion.
Answer:
The growing interference of foreign powers increased the resentment of the people against them in China. As a result, many secret agencies were formed in China. One such secret agency was the Boxers. Their symbol was the Boxers Fist. Their resistance against the European invasion is known as the ‘Boxer Rebellion’.

Question 6.
What is the importance of Rain Shelter Farming?
Answer:
A rain shelter is a roof covered with polythene sheets. By using transparent polythene sheets as a canopy, the crops are protected from excessive rain while receiving the necessary sunlight for farming. Rain shelter farming is suitable for achieving high production throughout the year even in adverse weather conditions. If every household has a rain shelter, the household’s vegetables can be cultivated year-round.

Question 7.
Define Carolingian Style of Architecture.
Answer:

1. The Carolingian style was a combination of Byzantine and ancient Roman styles.
2. Its characteristics include arched doorways, domes, and mosaic floors.

Answer the questions from 8 to 11 in three or more sentences. Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 8.
(A) What is the historical and geographical role of the Mediterranean Sea on the southern border of Europe?
Answer:
1. Geographical: It provides the countries of southern Europe with a mild Mediterranean climate. This is favourable for shipping and agriculture.

2. Historical: The Mediterranean region was the cradle of ancient Greek and Roman civilizations. This sea was a major trade route connecting Europe, North Africa, and Asia. It played a crucial role in the cultural and political growth of Europe.

OR
(B) How do Europe and Asia share an eastern border? What is the geographical significance of this region?
Answer:
Asia is located to the east of Europe, and together they form a large landmass called Eurasia. They share a continental border. This border (mainly the Ural Mountains and the Ural River) serves as a geographical and cultural transition zone. This border has a significant influence on the politics and trade of the eastern European countries.

Question 9.
Political parties play an important role in strengthening democracy. Elucidate the statement.
Answer:
Political parties are an essential element in a modem democracy. They play an important role in creating political awareness and shaping public opinion in a democracy. Political parties facilitate the functioning of a democracy. The conferences, marches and speeches they hold are the most powerful political education programmes in a democracy. The aim of political parties is to win elections and gain political power by turning public opinion in their favour.

Question 10.
Write a note on Punnapra-Vayalar Struggle.
Answer:
Punnapra-Vayalar Struggle struggle was against the tyranny of C. P. Ramaswamy Iyer, the Diwan of Travancore, and for the establishment of responsible government.Since the struggle took place in Punnapra and Vayalar in Alappuzha, it became known as the Punnapra-Vayalar Struggle. It was carried out in 1946 by farmers and workers under the leadership of the Communist Party.

Question 11.
What are the three categories into which minerals are classified?
Answer:

1. Metallic minerals containing iron
2. Metallic minerals not containing iron
3. Organic and Inorganic minerals

Answer the questions 12 and 13 in four or more sentences. Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 12.
(A) Explain the relationship between freedom and restrictions.
Answer:
Freedom is not complete in the absence of restrictions. Therefore, some instructions and rules that individuals should and should not do are necessary for social life. It restricts the intrusion upon another person’s freedom. The value of freedom becomes meaningful only in a system where each individual respects the freedom of others. The thought that one’s own opinions and beliefs are more powerful than those of others leads to conflicts. In such cases, legal and political restrictions are needed.

OR
(B) What are the four ways in which Parliament can exercise control over the Council of Ministers?
Answer:

1. Adjournment Motion
2. Question Hour
3. Calling – Attention Motion
4. Zero Hour

Question 13.
Some important events in human history led to the concept of fundamental rights. Complete the table.

Timeline of Fundamental Rights
The first official document in the world to refer to civil rights and liberties.	____(a)_____
Bill of Rights mentioned in the world’s first written constitution.	____(b)____
Bill of Rights defining human rights that influenced the nations of the world.	____(c)____
Bill of Rights issued by the United Nations for implementation by all member states.	____(d)____

Answer:
a) Magna Carta – 1215
b) United States Bill of Rights – 1789
c) Declaration of Human Rights after the French Revolution (Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen – 1789)
d) United Nations’ Universal Declaration of Human Rights (Universal Declaration of Human Rights-1948)

Answer the questions 14 and 15 in detail. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
(A) Write the Challenges Faced by Agricultural Marketing.
Answer:

1. Inadequate transport facilities
2. Lack of access to loans
3. Insufficient market information
4. Inadequate storage facilities
5. Import policies
6. Exploitation of intermediaries

OR
(B) Describe the various types of agricultural markets in the country for buying and selling agricultural products.
Hints:
• Organised Agricultural Market and Unorganised Agricultural Market.
• Rural Primary Markets
• Wholesale Markets or Secondary Wholesale Markets
Answer:
• Agricultural markets are classified into two categories-Organised Agricultural Market and Unorganised Agricultural Market. Organised agricultural markets are those that operate according to the rules and regulations of the government. They operate mainly according to the APMC rules. However, unorganised agricultural markets are those that operate without a specific structure.

• Rural primary markets are markets where farmers directly sell their produce without intermediaries. They are centred in small villages and are a mechanism of exchange between individuals in the village as main sellers and consumers. Markets meet once or twice a week in open areas.

• Wholesale Markets or Secondary Wholesale Markets are markets operating in cities associated with agricultural areas. The agricultural products are brought here by the farmers who produce them. These are marketing centres located in district headquarters or near the railway stations. Trade here takes place between rural farmers and wholesale traders. Goods from other markets also brought here.

Question 15.
Write a note on the Arctic and Sub-Arctic climate region.
Answer:
Arctic/Tundra Climate: Arctic parts of Europe experience a tundra climate. The Arctic/Tundra climate is characterised by short, cold summers and long, harsh winters. While summer temperature rises to 10°C, winter temperatures drop from -25°C to -40°C.

There is no sunlight here for 5 to 6 months in winter. Long nights, harsh winters, and precipitation in the form of ice prevent the growth of plants. Due to this, only shrubs, lichens, and mosses that can withstand the cold generally grow in this climate. The lack of vegetation in the tundra climate also affects the animal life here.

Only a few animals such as wolf, reindeer, polar bear, and Arctic hare with thick fur that can survive the cold, can be seen here. Subarctic/Taiga Climate: The Taiga climate is experienced in the subarctic regions that lie south of the tundra region. Although the short summers are mild and warm, winters are as harsh as those in the Arctic climate.

Temperature is below 0°C for five to seven months of the year. Precipitation in the taiga climate is generally in the form of snow. The main vegetation of the taiga climate is evergreen forests with coniferous trees. The main trees are pine and cedar. Lynx, ermine, and silver fox are the prominent animals in the region.

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 5 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 2 hour
Total score: 60

Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 2. Answer all questions. (1 score for each question) (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Choose the correct equation of pressure.
a) P = F × A
b) P = A/ F
c) P = F/A
d) P = F + A
Answer:
c) P = F/A

Question 2.
Statement 1 : Virtual images can be caught on a screen.
Statement 2 : A convex mirror always forms a virtual .small and erect image.
Analyse these statements and find out the correct choice from the following
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
b) Only the second statement is correct

Section – B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 7 and 8 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Lightning conductors are installed to safeguard tall buildings from lightning strikes.
a) Pointed edges are used in lightning conductors. What is the scientific principle behind it?
b) Poorly earthed lightning conductors are more harmful than beneficial. What is the reason?
Answer:
a) Charge density will be greater at pointed edges.
b) Because if the lightning conductor is not properly earthed, the electric charge cannot safely go into the ground, and it may cause damage or electric shock instead.

Question 4.
Based on the fundamental physical quantity length, write down the following questions.
a) In which unit is the thickness of plastic carry bags expressed?
b) How many kilometres make one astronomical unit?
Answer:
a) micrometre
b) 15 crore kilometre

Question 5.
a) What do you mean by magnetic levitation?
b) Write any one use of magnetic levitation.
Answer:
a) Magnetic levitation is the phenomenon where an object is made to float in the air using magnetic force. It happens when the magnetic repulsion or attraction balances the force of gravity.

b) • Maglev launch system
• Magnetic bearings in machines (.Anyone)

Question 6.
Define the given terms related to a spherical mirror.
a) Aperture
b) Pole
Answer:
a) The diameter of the circular reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called the aperture.
b) The midpoint of the reflecting surface is called the pole(P).

Question 7.
A. Assume you are given an object with a positive charge. Write down a suitable method to charge a metal sphere using this.

Object	Charge to be gained	Suitable charging method
Metal sphere	Positive	___(a)___
Metal sphere	Negative	___(b)___

Answer:
a) Charging by conduction
b) Charging by induction

B. The dangers of lightning strikes are very serious. Write any two first aid to be provided if a person is struck by lightning?
Answer:

1. The person struck by lightning should be laid flat in a well-ventilated area.
2. Massage the entire body to warm it up.
3. Provide artificial respiration.
4. Apply intermittent, pressure on the chest, (any two)

Question 8.
A. A student is trying to make a device to find direction using a magnetic needle. For this, he places the magnetic needle inside a box made of iron.
a) Will this device work properly?
b) Explain your answer.
Answer:
a) No, the device will not work properly.
b) The magnetic field of earth will not influence the needle due to high permeability of iron. So the needle cannot point correctly to the north.

OR
B. AB is a bar magnet shown in the figure. An iron rod CD is placed near its B pole.

a) Which magnetic poles will be formed at the ends C and D?
b) Which property of magnets does this phenomenon demonstrate?
Answer:
a) Poles formed in C (near B) will become a north pole and D will become a south pole.
b) This shows magnetic induction (a magnet can induce poles in a nearby iron object).

Section – C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each. Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
What is frictional force? Point out two disadvantages of friction in our daily life and suggest remedy for overcoming it?
Answer:
When a surface moves or tries to move over another surface, a parallel force is produced between them against their relative motion. This force is called frictional force.

1. Difficulty to draw water from the well. Remedy – Apply oil in the pulley.
2. Chains of bicycles sometimes does not move due to friction. Remedy – Apply grease on it.

Question 10.
A. Write down reasons for the following statements.
a) Astronauts wear specially designed suits.
b) Sewing needles are made with sharp tips. .
c) Connecting the wheels of tanks and other such vehicles using wide chains.
Answer:
a) The suit helps to maintain the pressure between the dress and the body equal to the atmospheric pressure.

b) Sharp tips have less surface area of contact. As area of contact decreases, pressure increases so that sewing needles can pierce into the materials to be stitched easily.

c) Connecting wheels of tanks and other such vehicles using wide chains helps in making more surface area of contact with the ground to exert less pressure over it. This ensures its smooth motion.

OR
B.The thrust acting per unit area by a liquid is the liquid pressure.

a) Three points A, B and C are marked on a cylindrical glass vessel filled with water as shown in figure. If three identical inflated balloons are placed on these points inside the cylinder, which one will be the largest in size? Justify your answer.
Answer:
a) The balloon placed in the position A will be the largest in size. As depth decreases liquid pressure also decreases. The pressure experienced at position A is the least compared to positions B and C and so the balloon with largest size occupies position A.

b) Do you expect any change in size to the balloons, if the water is replaced with kerosene? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, when kerosene is replaced with water the size of the balloons become comparatively larger than in water because kerosene has low density than water. When density decreases liquid pressure also decreases. So when the pressure experienced is less, the size of balloons (volume of balloons) is comparitively larger.

CHEMISTRY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2.1 score each.

Question 1.
Match the following

Column A	Column B
a) Universal solvent	(i) Water moderates body temperature
b) High heat capacity	(ii) Soap lather well
c) Surface tension	(iii) Dissolves most substances
d) Soft water	(iv) Enables small insects to walk on water

A. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
B. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
D. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Answer:

Column A	Column B
a) Universal solvent	(iii) Dissolves most substances
b) High heat capacity	(i) Water moderates body temperature
c) Surface tension	(iv) Enables small insects to walk on water
d) Soft water	(ii) Soap lather well

Question 2.
(i) Acids turn blue litmus paper red.
(ii) Acids release hydroxide ions (OH^–) in aqueous solution. Choose the correct one from the options given below.
A – Both the statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
B – Statement (ii) is correct. However, statement (i) is incorrect.
C – Statement (i) is correct. However, statement (ii) is incorrect.
D – Both the statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
Answer:
C – Statement (i) is correct. However, statement (ii) is incorrect.

Section B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
The following are the findings of some experiments with acids.
• A piece of paper rubbed with hibiscus changes colour when dipped in lemon juice.
• Buttermilk, Vinegar, lemon juice and tamarind have a common taste.
• Bubbles form when zinc is added to vinegar.
Examine the findings and write the general properties of acids.
Answer:
Have a sour taste
• Carbon dioxide gas is formed by reacting with carbonates.
• Hydrogen gas is liberated by reacting with highly reactive metals such as zinc and magnesium.

Question 4.
A. Due to the intermolecular attraction between water molecules, a force arises that tends to minimise the surface area of water. How can this be demonstrated?
Answer:
This property of water is called surface tension. It cati be demonstrated through simple experiments:
Experiment: Gently place a needle or a razor blade on the surface of still water. Even though the object is denser than water, it tloats because the water’s surface behaves like a stretched film due to surface tension. Observation: The needle remains on the surface without sinking, showing that the water surface resists external force and tries to minimise its surface area.

Conclusion: The ability of water to support light objects and form spherical droplets is due to surface tension, which is caused by intermolecular attraction.

OR
B. Explain how the boiling point of water varies under the following conditions:
a. In high-altitude areas
b. In pressure cookers
Answer:
a) At high altitudes, atmospheric pressure is lower, so water boils at a ternperawre less than 100°C.

b) Inside a pressure cooker, the pressure is higher than normal, so the boiling point of water increases above 1OŒ’C, allowing food to cook faster.

Question 5.
A picture of the arrangement of copper plating on an iron bangle is drawn. What are the mistakes in this?

Answer:
Copper should be connected to the positive terminal of the battery. The iron bangle should be connected to the negative terminal of the battery. Copper sulfate solution should be used as the electrolyte (or solution).

Question 6.
Sugar is heated strongly in a dry boiling tube.
a) What will be the observation?
b) What products are formed?
Answer:
a) The diameter of the circular reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called the aperture.
b) The midpoint of the reflecting surface is called the pole(P).

Question 7.
What is the energy change occurring in the following?
a) Combustion of fuel
b) Photosynthesis
Answer:
a) A black substance remains in the boiling tube.
b) Carbon (C), Water (H₂O)

Question 8.
A. a) Identify the type of plastics shown in these symbols?

b) Which of the following is a polymer?
a. Bakelite
b. Boron
c. Potassium
d. Copper
Answer:
Code 1- PET (Polyethylene terephthalate)
Code 2- HDPE (High-density polyethylene)

b) Bakelite.

B. a) What is the advantage of blending natural fibres along with synthetic fibres?
b) Write down the uses of fibres
Answer:
a) Blending natural and synthetic fibres improves the texture, strength, and comfort of the fabric and reduces cost and wrinkling.

b) Nylon fibres are used to make fishing nets.
• Used to make bulletproof vests.

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 have choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Observe the picture.

Calcium chloride is taken in a test tube. A smooth iron nail is moistened and passed through a cork, and the test tube is closed.
a) What will be the observation after a few days?
b) Write the reason for the observation.
c) What is the conclusion drawn from this?
Answer:
a) The part of the nail inside the test tube is not rusted. The part of the nail outside the test tube is rusted. The calcium chloride absorbs the moisture inside the test tube. Therefore, the iron does not rust.

b) The presence of water and moisture outside the test tube causes the iron to rust rapidly.

c) The presence of water and air affects the rusting of iron.

Question 10.
A. Below are some statements related to early attempts at element classification. Match the statements with the ones in brackets that match them.
(Mendeleev, Dobereiner, Berzelius, Lavoisier, Newlands, Henry Moseley)
a) Classified the then-known elements into metals and non-metals.
b) Classified the elements of similar properties into groups of three.
c) Arranged the elements in ascending order of their atomic masses.
Answer:
a) Lavoisier.
b) Dobereiner.
c) Mendeleev.

B. Given Samples

a) How many hydrogen atoms are present in Sample Y?
b) Which samples contain the same total number of atoms per molecule?
c) Find the total number of atoms present in 4 molecules of Sample X.
Answer:
a) One molecule of NH₃, contains:
N = 1
H = 3
2NH₃ means two molecules:
Hydrogen atoms = 2 x 3 = 6 H atoms

b) Sample X(C₂H₆)
C = 2
H = 6
Total = 8 atoms
Sample Y:2NH₃
N = 2
H = 6
Total = 8 atoms
Sample Z: CO₂
C = 1
O = 2
Total = 3 atoms
Sample X and Y contain same number of atoms.

c) One molecule of C₂H₆ has 8 atoms.
So 4 molecules = 4 x 8 = 32 atoms

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7, 8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Which is the correct order in the food chain?
a) Grass → vulture → Rabbit → Snake
b) Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Vulture
c) Vulture → Snake → Rabbit →Grass
d) Rabbit → Grass → Vulture → Snake
Answer:
b) Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Vulture

Question 2.
Match the Kingdoms with their main characteristics

A	B
1. Monera	a. Eukaryotic saprophytes without chlorophyll
2. Protista	b. Multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic
3.Fungi	c. Prokaryotic organisms without true nucleus
4. Animalia	d. Unicellular eukaryotes with flagella or cilia

a) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
b) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
Answer:

A	B
1. Monera	c. Prokaryotic organisms without true nucleus
2. Protista	d. Unicellular eukaryotes with flagella or cilia
3.Fungi	a. Eukaryotic saprophytes without chlorophyll
4. Animalia	b. Multicellular, eukaryotic, heterotrophic

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Native varieties are beneficial for the environment. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Native varieties are adapted to the local environment and can be grown in harmony with it. They are naturally resistant to pests and diseases in the area, which reduces the use of pesticides. They also help maintain the ecological balance by supporting local pollinators. They also require less fertiliser, which can reduce costs.

Question 4.
Observe the picture and answer the questions below.

(a) Which are the organelles indicated by A and B in the picture?
(b) What is the function of these organelles?
Answer:
(a) A- Mitochondria, B- Centriole
(b) A Mitochondria – Energy production centre of the cell. It stores the energy obtained from the oxidation of glucose and distributes it as needed. B-Centriole – Helps in cell division.

Question 5.
A group of high school students is starting a new school year. They are considering joining various clubs but are also worried about balancing their social lives with the pressures of new media and academics. Suggest two specific positive activities that will aid their personality development and mental well-being, and briefly explain the risk associated with one negative modem influence they should be wary of.
Answer:
Positive Activities: Participation in various school clubs (aids personality development and nurtures a spirit of sendee) and nurturing good friendships (vital for mental well-being and growth).

Risk of New Media: Spending too much time in front of screens (new media) can cause many physical and mental health problems. The advice is to use new media wisely, recognising both its benefits and risks.

Question 6.
Select and write the correct pairs.
(A) John Ray – First used the term ‘species’.
(B) Ernst Haeckel – Introduced the Six Kingdom Classification.
(C) Carl Linnaeus – Father of Taxonomy.
(D) Theophrastus – Introduced the Five Kingdom Classification.
Answer:
(A) and (C)

Question 7.
A. ‘The group of similar type of cells are known as tissues.’
Make a note of the differences between simple tissues and complex tissues.
Answer:
A. Tissues that are composed of similar types of cells are known as simple tissues. Parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma are examples of simple tissues. Xylem and phloem are made up of cells of different shapes and sizes. Therefore, they are called complex tissues. The transport of water and salts to the leaves takes place through the xylem. The phloem tissues transport the food produced by the leaves to various parts.

OR
B. “Cells are often called the “building blocks of life” because they arc the smallest units that can perform all
the functions necessary for life. Cell biology is the study of cells.”
– What was the contribution of Robert Hooke and Anton van Leeuwenhoek to cell biology?
Answer:
B. Robert Hooke, a scientist, was observing a thin piece of cork through his microscope. He observed small parts like boxes stacked together. He called them ‘cells’, meaning chambers. Anton van Leeuwenhoek, using a much better microscope, observed water from a pond and discovered microorganisms in it.

Question 8.
A. Which of the following does not belong to the group? What is the common feature of the others?
A. Housefly, Lizard, Butterfly, Grasshopper
B. Cat, Dog, Tiger, Snake
C. Arecanut tree, Coconut tree, Jack tree, Palm tree
Answer:
A. Lizard, others are Invertebrates
B. Snake, others are Mammals
C. Jack tree, others are monocots

OR
B. Carl Linnaeus, who lived in the 18th century, was the one who introduced the different levels of classification.
a) What are the main steps in classification?
b) What are the classification levels between species and phylum?
Answer:
a) Identification, classification and naming of organisms are the main steps in classification.
b) Phylum – Class – Order – Family- Genus – Species

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Make pairs ofparts of male and female reproductive system along with their functions in the given box:

Testis, vas deferens, vagina, fallopian tube, uterus, penis, produces estrogen and progesterone, semen is deposited, growth of the embryo completes here, fertilization takes place, ovary, helps to deliver the sperm into the vagina, produces testosterone, transport male gametes from testes to the urethra
Example: Ovary-produces estrogen and progesterone.
Answer:

1. Testis – produces testosterone
2. Vas deferens – transports male gametes from the testes to the urethra
3. Penis – helps to deliver the sperm into the vagina
4. Vagina – semen is deposited
5. Fallopian tube – fertilisation takes place
6. Uterus – growth of the embryo completes here.

Question 10.
A. Complete the illustration.

Answer:
(a) By sharing images and information related to crops, you can find solutions to problems with the help of artificial intelligence.

(b) Plants are grown in nutrient solutions, and with the help of sensors, the amount of nutrients is detected and provided as needed.

(c) Aeroponics

B. A farmer raises cattle, chickens, ducks, fish, and rice.
a) What is this farming method known as?
b) What are the advantages of this farming method?
Answer:
a) Integrated farming

b) Multiple sources of income – Farmers can earn money from multiple activities, not just from one crops. Even if one crop fails, they can earn income from other crops. Efficient use of land and resources. Waste from one activity can be used for another by doing different activities in the same area.

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 2 hour
Total score:60

Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 2. Answer all questions. (1 score for each question) (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
The figure shows the lines of force between the poles of two bar magnets. Identify the poles represented by A and B.

a) A-North, B-South
b) A-South, B-South
c) A -North, B -North
d) A -South, B -North
Answer:
c) A -North, B -North

Question 2.
Two statement are given below. Examine them and choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Charging by conduction is the method of charging an object by direct physical contact with a charged object.
Statement 2: Charging by induction is the method of charging an object with direct physical contact of a charged object.
Options:
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
c) Only the first statement is correct

Section- B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 7 and 8 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Write down two precautions to be taken for protecting ourselves from lightning.
Answer:
• Do not operate electrical equipment’s.
• Avoid touching metal objects.
• Do not seek shelter under tall or isolated trees. (any two)

Question 4.
Classify the following situations into contact and non-contact forces.
a) Applying break in a bicycle.
b) The earth revolving around the sun.
Answer:
Contact force
a) Applying brake in a bicycle Non-Contact force
b) The earth revolving around the sun

Question 5.
Two identical balloons one filled with water and other with kerosene of equal quantity.
iMG- 1
a) Identify the balloon filled with water.
b) Why is the expansion of balloons appearing to be different in figures (a) and (b)?
Answer:
a) Figure (b)
b) Water has higher density than kerosene. As density increases, liquid pressure increases. So the balloon which is expanded has water filled in it and the other balloon which is small in size has kerosene filled in it.

Question 6.
Lightning conductors are fixed to protect tall buildings from the danger of lightning. Write down how lightning conductors work?
Answer:
A lightning conductor has sharp pointed ends where 9. the electric charge density is highest. It is connected to the earth through a conducting wire, allowing charges to safely flow into the ground. When clouds accumulate a large negative charge, positive charges are induced at the pointed ends of the conductor, which neutralizes the cloud’s charge. If the clouds carry a positive charge, negative charges gather at the pointed ends which neutralizes the cloud’s charge. When lightning occurs charge accumulate at the pointed ends and reaches to earth through the conducting wire. Thus the object or building is protected.

Question 7.
A. Classify the physical quantities given in the box as fundamental quantities and derived quantities.
Length, density, area, mass

Fundamental quantities	Derived quantities

Answer:

Fundamental quantities	Derived quantities
Length, Mass	Density, Area

B. 1 mm is the least count of a metre scale.
a) What do you mean by least count?
b) Arrange the following units in ascending order of their values.
(mm, km, nm. cm)
Answer:
a) The smallest value that can be measured using
an instrument is called its least count.
b) nm < μm < cm < km

Question 8.
A. What would be the radius of curvature of a concave mirror with a focal length of 40 cm?
Answer:
f = 40 cm
f = \(\frac{R}{2}\)
R = f × 2
R = 40 × 2 = 80 cm

OR
B. a) Copy the ray diagram and complete it showing the image formation.

Answer:

b) What are the characteristics of the image formed?
Answer:
Real, inverted and enlarged

Section – C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each. Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Write your inferences.
a) All magnets have same shape.
b) All magnets show N, S direction when suspended freely.
c) All magnets are man made.
Answer:
a) There are different types of magnets.

b) Yes. Because the north pole of magnet turns to geographical south of earth and south pole turns to geographical north of earth.(or Earth acts like a large magnet. Hence the poles of the suspended magnet is opposite to the poles of the earth’s magnet.)

c) No, There are natural and man made magnets.

Question 10.
A. Convert the following units into SI units without changing their values.
a) 3500g
b) 2.5 km
c) 2h
Answer:
a) 3500g = \(\frac{3500}{1000}\) kg = 3.5 kg

b) 2.5km = 2.5 × 1000 m = 2500 m

c) 2h = 2 × 60 × 60s = 7200s.

OR
B. State whether the following symbol are right or wrong. Correct them if wrong.
a) m/s/s
b) 50 kg/m3
c) 100 n
d) 20 kgs
e) 3M
Answer:
a) Wrong. m/s² is the correct form.
b) Right
c) Wrong. 100 N is the correct form.
d) Wrong. 20 kg is the correct form.
e) Wrong. 3 m is the correct form.
f) Wron 1.5 kg or 1500 g is the correct form.

CHEMISTRY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2.1 score for each.

Question 1.
Match the Following

Reaction/Property	Product Basis
i) Acid reacts with a highly reactive metal	a) CO2 gas
ii) Acids react with carbonates	b) H+ ions
iii) Basis of general properties of acids	c) H2 gas
iv) Non-metal oxide reacts with water	d) Acidic properties

A) i – a, ii – c, iii – b, iv – d
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
C) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
D) i – d, ii – b, iii – a, iv – c
Answer:

Reaction/Property	Product Basis
i) Acid reacts with a highly reactive metal	c) H2 gas
ii) Acids react with carbonates	a) CO2 gas
iii) Basis of general properties of acids	b) H+ ions
iv) Non-metal oxide reacts with water	d) Acidic properties

Question 2.
Two statements are given below.
(i) Gold can be coated on a copper bangle by the process of electroplating.
(ii) In this process, the copper bangle is connected to the positive terminal of the battery. Choose the correct one from the options given below.
A. Both the statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
B. Statement (i) is correct. However, the statement (ii) is incorrect.
C. Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
D. Statement (ii) is correct. However, statement (i) is incorrect.
Answer:
B. Statement (i) is correct. However, the statement (ii) is incorrect.

Section – B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Sodium reacts with Water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Is this a physical change or a chemical change? Why
Answer:
it is a chemical change because new substances are formed.

Question 4.
A) Give a reason for the following:
a) More than 65% of the body of living organisms is made up of water.
b) Ice formed on freezing water floats on it.
Answer:
a) Water has a high specific heat capacity, so it prevents sudden changes in body tempera-ture. This helps plants and animals maintain a stable internal environment and survive in dif-ferent climatic conditions.

b) When water freezes into ice, its volume in¬creases and density decreases. So, ice floats on water.

B. Water expands when it freezes.
a) What change happens to its volume and density?
b) How does this property help aquatic life in cold regions?
Answer:
a) When water freezes, its volume increases and its density decreases. This is why ice is lighter than water and floats on its surface.

b) Ice floats on water because its volume increases (density decreases) when it freezes. Floating ice acts as a protective layer (insulator). This insulation prevents the water below from freezing. This allows fish and aquatic life to survive in cold regions.

Question 5.
a) The symbol for the element hydrogen is H. What is the difference between 2H and H₂?
b) Classify the following into elements and compounds and list them.
[Carbon, Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Sodium chloride]
Answer:
a) In a 2H refers the two atoms of Hydrogen. H₂ refers to a Hydrogen molecule formed by two atoms.

b)

Elements	Compounds
Carbon	Carbon dioxide
Oxygen	Sodium Chloride

Question 6.
a) How is soda water made?
b) Write the chemical equation for this reaction
Answer:
a) Soda water is made by dissolving carbon dioxide in water under high pressure.
b) CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃

Question 7.
The degree of acidic/basic nature of soil and other substances is determined by calculating their pH value.
a) Who invented the pH scale?
b) What characteristic pH value defines a neutral solution?
Answer:
a) The pH scale was invented by the Danish scientist Sorensen.
b) The characteristic pH value that defines a neutral solution is 7.

Question 8.
A. a) What is the natural source from which natural rubber is obtained?
b) Explain why synthetic rubbers are predominantly used in the manufacture of tyres?
Answer:
a) Natural rubber is obtained from the latex collected from the rubber tree.

b) Synthetic rubber shows less wear and tear compared to natural rubber. That is why synthetic rubbers are used in tyre manufacture.

OR
B. a) What is the difference between thermoplastics and thermosets?
b) Which of the following is a natural polymer?
[Polythene, Nylon, Bakelite, Cellulose]
Answer:
a) Thermoplastics: Soften on heating and can be reshaped many times.
Thermosets: Harden permanently on heating and cannot be remoulded once set.
b) Cellulose.

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 has a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
One molecule of nitric acid contains one hydrogen atom, one nitrogen atom and three oxygen atoms.
a) Write the chemical formula of nitric acid
b) Find the total number of atoms present in four molecules of nitric acid.
c) How many ammonia (NH3) molecules are required to obtain the same number of atoms present in four molecules of nitric acid?
Answer:
a) HNO₃

b) H = 1
N = 1
O = 3
Total = 1 + 1 + 3 = 5 atoms
For four molecules:
4 × 5 = 20 atoms

c) Atoms in one NH, molecule:
N = 1
H = 3
Total = 4 atoms
Number of ammonia molecules
= 20 ÷ 4 = 5 molecules

Question 10.
A. The stomach produces hydrochloric acid (HCl) for digestion. Excess acid can cause problems, which
are treated with medicines called antacids.
a) Define the term Neutralisation reaction?
b) What is the chemical nature of antacids (acidic or basic)?
c) Write the name of a commonly used antacid?
Answer:
a) The chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react to form water and a salt is known as a neutralisation reaction. Magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia

b) Basic

c) Magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia

OR
B. Take a pinch of ammonium sulphate in a test tube and mix it well with some water. Pour barium chloride solution into it. A white curdy precipitate is formed.
a) Identify the substance that forms the curdy white precipitate.
b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between ammonium sulphate ((NH₄)2SO₄) and barium chloride (BaCl).
c) What property of the precipitate is demonstrated when it is observed that adding dilute hydrochloric acid (HCl) causes no change?
Answer:
a) Barium sulphate (BaSO₄)

b) (NH₄)₂ + SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NH₄Cl

c) Barium sulphate is insoluble in dilute hydrochloric acid.

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7, 8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding electron microscopes?
(A) It helps in seeing up to a thousand times larger.
(B) It helps in detailed observation of living cells, viruses and molecular structures.
(C) It uses an electron beam.
(D) It uses light.
Answer:
(B) and (C)

Question 2.
Choose and write the correct answer from the options given below where the pairs are correctly matched:

Meiosis	Period of intense mental and emotional changes
Adolescence	Fully matured ovum is released from the ovary
Cell plate	Chromosome number is reduced to half
Ovulation	Cytokinesis in plant cell

(a) A-I, B-II, C-III. D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer:
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Which pair is correct?
a) Online system – Disease and pest information collection, solution – Up-to-date knowledge about climate change – Market opportunities
b) Family members – financial assistance to farmers, procurement, marketing
c) Local Government Institutions – Financial Assistance, Employment Assistance, Psychological Support.
d) Cooperative societies – Use of barren lands – Approval – Government assistance
e) Krishi Bhavan – Distribution of best planting materials – Scientific guidance and training programs for agriculture
Answer:
a) Online system – Disease and pest information collection, solution – Up-to-date knowledge about climate change – Market opportunities

e) Krishi Bhavan – Distribution of best planting materials – Scientific guidance and training programs for agriculture

Question 4.
Analyse the statements given below and give reasons for each.
a) One of the most important ecological hotspots in India is the Western Ghats.
b) Sacred groves are to be protected and maintained.
Answer:
(a) The Western Ghats is designated as one of the world’s most important ecological hotspots primarily for twp key reasons: high endemicity and significant habitat loss.

Sacred groves are patches of forest or natural vegetation protected and revered by local 8 communities on religious and cultural grounds. Their protection is vital for both biodiversity conservation and cultural heritage.

Question 5.
Complete the table.

Division	Characteristics
Carnivora	____(A)____
____(B)____	Have retractable claws and excellent night vision.
Panthera	____(C)____
Panthera tigris	____(D)____

Answer:
(A) Sharp teeth and claws adapted for hunting and eating meat.
(B) Felidae
(C) Ability to roar, large and powerful body structure.
(D) Orange fur with black stripes and strong large body.

Question 6.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions below.

(a) Which process does the illustration indicate?
(b) Explain the process that the illustration indicates.
Answer:
a) Formation of organelles found in cells.

b) Eukaryotic cell engulfs small aerobic bacteria.
Instead of digesting the small cell, it protects it. Gradually, these become mitochondria. Eukaryotic cell engulfs small photosynthetic bacteria Instead of digesting the photosynthetic bacteria, it protects it. Gradually these become chloroplasts.

Question 7.
A. Complete the flowchart:

Answer:
A – Anther
B – Filament
C – Style
D – Ovary

B. Observe the given figure and answer the following questions:

a) Identify A and B in the given figure.
b) Give an example each for A and B which shows this type of reproduction.
Answer:
a) A- Binary fission, B – Multiple fission
b) Binary fission is seen in Bacteria and amoeba. Multiple fission is seen in Plasmodium.

Question 8.
A. Obsere the picture and answer the questions below.

a) Which organelle is represented by the picture?
b) What is the function of this organelle?
Answer:
a) Endoplasmic Reticulum
b) These organelles appear as a network of tubules within the cell, serve as pathways for conducting materials. It helps in the synthesis and removal of materials required by the cell.

OR
B. Choose the answer to the statements given below from the box and write it down.

Muscle tissue, Connective tissue, Epithelial tissue, Neural tissue

a) Connects different parts of the body.
b) Controls and coordinates bodily functions.
Answer:
a) Connective tissue
b) Neural tissue

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
The names of Papaya in different regions are given below:
Papaya, Karumusa, Kappalanga
a) How can a person from a different region identify this plant?
b) What is the solution to this problem?
Answer:
a) A person can identify this plant in different regions using its scientific name. Since scientific names are the same worldwide, it helps to avoid the confusion caused by different local names.

b) The solution to this problem is to use the Binomial Nomenclature system. This system gives each organism a unique and universally accepted name. This makes identification clear and unifonn everywhere.

Question 10.
A. Gene banks are an Ex-situ conservation method.
a) What is the role of gene banks in the conservation of biodiversity?
b) What are the various levels of Biodiversity?
c) Write the names of Ecological hotspots in India?
Answer:
a) These are research centres with facilities to collect seeds and gametes to preserve them for a long time. Organisms can be recreated out of them whenever required.
b) Ecosystem biodiversity, Species diversity, Genetic diversity.
c) Western Ghats, North-Eastern Himalayas, Indo- Bumia region

B. Logo of an international organisation is given.

a) Write the name of this organisation.
b) What is the obj ective of this organisation?
c) Write two instructions that can be included in the poster to create awareness in people of your locality to protect the environment.
Answer:
a) WWF

b) To understand the importance of biodiversity, i.e,, Conserving Biodiversity, Sustainable Resource Use, and Reducing Human Impact are the major objectives.

c) • Native plants support local pollinators (bees, butterflies) and require less water and maintenance than non-native species, helping conserve water and local biodiversity.

• Carry a reusable water bottle and shopping bag. Local water bodies and parks are often clogged with single-use plastic, harming wildlife and degrading our nature’s beauty.

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 3 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 2 hour
Total score:60

Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 2. Answer all questions. (1 score for each question) (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
The pressure exerted on an area of 10 m₂ by a force of 5 0 N is _____
a) 5 N
b) 5 N/m₂
c) 0.2 N/m₂
d) 0.2 N
Answer:
b) 5 N/m₂
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{~A}}\), F = 50 N, A = 10₂
P = \(\frac{\mathrm{50}}{\mathrm{10}}\) = 5 N/m₂

Question 2.
Two statements related to image formation in a spherical mirror is given. Examine them and choose the correct answer.
Statement l:When an object is placed at C of concave mirror, size of image formed is as that of object.
Statement 2 :When the object is placed at F of a concave mirror ,we can imagine that the image is formed at infinity.
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
a) Both statements are correct

Section – B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 4 and 6 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
“Overspeed of vehicles result in accidents”
Write two messages to be written on an awareness board in your school premises to minimise road accidents.
Answer:

1. Speed thrills but kills
2. Don’t mix drink with drive.
3. Wear helmets while driving motor cycles. (Any two)

Question 4.
A. Write down the following units in descending order of their values.
a) 2 cm, 2 m, 2 km, 2 mm
b) 5g, 5 mg, 5 quintal, 5 kg
Answer:
a) 2 km > 2 m> 2 cm > 2 mm
b) 5 quintal > 5 kg > 5 g > 5 mg

OR
B. Complete the table.

Unit	Symbol
Newton	(a)….
Kelvin	(b)….
Ampere	(c)….
Metre	(d)….
Kilogram	(e)….
Second	(f)….

Answer:

Unit	Symbol
Newton	(a) N
Kelvin	(b) K
Ampere	(c) A
Metre	(d) M
Kilogram	(e) K
Second	(f) S

Question 5.
Liquids also exert pressure. Write down any two factors that influence liquid pressure.
Answer:
i) Height of the liquid column
ii) Density of the liquid

Question 6.
A. Find out the magnetic polarity indicated by A and B in the figures given below.

Answer:
Fig(a) A-North pole
Fig(b) B-South pole

B. Some of the devices are mentioned below.
Electric bell, Maglev train, Compass needle, Generators, Magnetic toys
a) From the given devices classify them as electromagnets and permanent magnets?
b) What are the differences between Electromagnets and permanent magnets?
Answer:
a) Electromagnets: Electric bell, Maglev trains, Generators
Permanent magnets: Compass Needle, Magnetic toys

b)

Electromagnets	Permanent magnets
• Poles can be changed.	• Poles are fixed
• Strength can be increased by changing current or number of turns of coil.	• Magnetic strength cannot be increased.
• Magnetism exists only when current flows	• The gained magnetism can be retained for a long time.

Question 7.
A negatively charged rod is brought near an electroscope as shown in the figure.

Copy down the diagram and mark the distribution of electric charge formed at A and B
Answer:

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks.
a) In a spherical mirror, the distance from the pole to the pnncipal focus is called the ______
b) The focal length of a mirror having radius of curvature 18 cm is ______
Answer:
a) Focal length
b) 9 cm

Section – C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each . Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
a) Earth is considered as an electron bank why?
b) Observe the figure.

If the plate B is earthed, what change occurs. Draw the picture.
Answer:
a) When a positively charged body is earthed, electrons flows from earth to body. When a negatively charged body is earthed. electrons flows from body to earth. Thus earth receives and gives electrons, so earth is called an electron bank.
b)

Question 10.
A. a) Complete the diagram given below by drawing normal and the path of the reflected rays.

b) Complete the diagram given below by drawing the path of the reflected rays.

c) The principal focus of a concave mirror is real? Why?
Answer:

c) In a concave mirror, the rays that fall parallel to the principal axis converge to the principal focus and it can be caught on a screen. Hence, its principal fochs is real.

OR
Question 10.
B. Classify the following statements as to those related to uses of concave mirrors and convex mirrors and tabulate them accordingly.
a) as make up mirror
b) as rear view mirrors in vehicles
c) in solar concentrators
d) as shaving mirror
e) Dentist mirror
f) Reflectors in street lamps
Answer:
Concave mirrors Convex mirrors
a) as make up mirror
b) as rear view mirrors in vehicles
c) in solar concentrators
f) Reflectors in street lamps
d) as shaving mirror
e) Dentist mirror

CHEMISTRY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2. 1 score each.

Question 1.
Match the following.

Common Name	Chemical formula
i) Caustic soda	a) KOH
ii) Milk of lime	b) NaOH
iii) Caustic potash	c) Ca(OH)2

Choose the correct order.
A) i-b. ii-a, iii-c
B) i-c, ii-b. iii-a
C) i-c. ii-a, iii-b
D) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
Answer:
D) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

Question 2.
Two statements are given.
Statement 1: Soda-lime glass, Borosilicate glass. Flint Glass contain silica.. Statement 2: Silica is the component present in all types of glass.
Select the correct option from the following.
A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B) Statement 1 is correct. But statement 2 is not correct.
C) Statement 2 is correct. But statement 1 is not correct.
D) Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Answer:
Select the correct option from the following.

Section – B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
The observation result of an experiment is given below. Identify the gases formed

Acids	Substance	Gas
Vinegar	Zinc piece	___(a)___
Vinegar	Baking soda	___(b)___

Answer:
a) Hydrogen gas (H₂)
b) Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)

Question 4.
A) Write any two merits and demerits of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Merits: Less expensive, High durability. Wrinkle-free.
Demerits: Do not absorb water, Less air circulation.

OR
B) Synthetic fibres are generally used by blending them with natural fibres. Why?
Answer:
To give extra strength.
• To give a new texture.
• To bring extra qualities

Question 5.
Water expands when it freezes.
a) What change happens to its volume and density?
b) How does this property help aquatic life in cold regions?
Answer:
When water freezes, its volume increases and
its density decreases. This is why ice is lighter than water and floats on its surface.

b) Ice floats on water because its volume increases (density decreases) when it freezes. Floating ice acts as a protective layer (insulator). This insulation prevents the water below from freezing. This allows fish and aquatic life to survive in cold regions.

Question 6.
Take a small piece of zinc in a test tube. Add a little dilute hydrochloric acid to it. Hold a burning matchstick at the mouth of the test tube.
a) What do you observe?
b) Name the gas formed here?
Answer:
a) When you hold a burning matchstick or splinter near the mouth of the test tube, the gas will ignite and bum with a “pop” sound.

b) Hydrogen gas. (When acids react with highly reactive metals, hydrogen gas is produced.)

Question 7.
a) What are the components of water?
b) How can we separate the components of water?
Answer:
a) Hydrogen, Oxygen
b) Water can be split into its components by passing electricity through it.

Question 8.
A) Which properties of metals are used in the following situations?
a) Copper is used to make bells.
b) Tungsten is used to make the filament of a light bulb.
Answer:
a) Sonority – the ability to produce a specific sound when struck with a hard object.
b) Ductility – the ability to be formed into a very thin sheet.

OR
B) Which properties of metals are utilised in the following cases?
a) Iron is used to make weapons.
b) Aluminium is used to make food packaging.
Answer:
a) Hardness
b) Malleability

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 have choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Write what type of chemical reaction each of the following is:
a) Fireflies emit light.
b) When zinc and copper nails are inserted into a lemon and connected to an LED through a copper wire, the LED glows.
c) Ammonium chloride decomposes when heated strongly.
Answer:
a) Bioluminescence.
b) Electrochemical Reaction.
c) Thermochemical reactions.

Question 10.
A) A few polymers and their characteristics are given in the table. Complete the table based on their
characteristics.
[Rubber, Fibre, Plastics, PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)]

Characteristics	Polymer
Suitable for making strong threads.	____(a)____
A polymer that can be moulded into various shapes.	Plastic
Polymer with elastic nature.	____(b)____
Polymer with electrical resistance.	____(c)____

Answer:
a) Fibres
b) Rubber
c) PVC (Polyvinyl chloride)

OR
B) Consider the apparatus as shown in the figure. Heat the water in the flask.

a) When does the temperature remain constant?
b) What happens to the water when the temperature remains constant?
c) Why does the temperature not rise even when heat is supplied?
Answer:
a) At 100°C
b) Water starts boiling.
c) The temperature does not rise above 100°C because the heat supplied is being used to overcome the intermolecular forces of attraction between the water molecules and change the water’s state from liquid to gas.

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7, 8, 10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2× 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Scientists who advanced the theory of chemical evolution
a) Harold Urey, Stanley Miller
b) Oparin, Haldane
c) Sidney Fox, Joan Oro
d) Watson. Crick
Answer:
b) Oparin, Haldane

Question 2.
Examine the statement and the reason, and choose the correct answer.
Statement (S): Carl Linnaeus is known as the Father of Taxonomy.
Reason (R): Linnaeus introduced the different levels of classification and provided a scientific basis for classification. He also introduced the scientific method of naming organisms called Binomial Nomenclature.
a) Both S and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of S.
b) Both S and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of S.
c) A is true, but S is false
d) A is false, but S is time
Answer:
a) Both S and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of S.

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score.

Question 3.
Over time, complex organisms evolved into the plants and animals we see today.
a) When is life thought to have originated on Earth?
b) What conditions led to the formation of complex organisms?
Answer:
a) Scientists believe that life originated on Earth about 3.5 billion years ago.
b) Some of the simpler organisms released oxygen through photosynthesis, which led to the formation of more complex organisms.

Question 4.
Observe the given figure and answer the following questions:

a) Identify A and B in the given figure.
b) Write about the shape and motility of A and B.
Answer:
a) A – Male gamete (Sperm)
B – Female gamete (Ovum/Egg)

b) Shape of A- Tadpole like shape, Shape of B – Spherical in shape.
Motility of A- Tail helps in the motility, B- It is not motile.

Question 5.
Choose and write the correct pairs.
(A) Matthias Jacob Schleiden discovered that all plants are made of cells
(B) Theodor Schwann – introduced the idea that new cells arise from existing cells
(C) Rudolf Virchow discovered that all animals are made of cells
(D) Ernst Ruska and Max Knoll invented the electron microscope.
Answer:
A and D

Question 6.
A) Complete the table given below:

Ecological Interaction	Examples
Predation	a _____
b _____	Mango tree and vanda
c _____	Mango tree and loranthus

Answer:
A) Deer and Tiger.
b) Commensalism,
c) Parasitism

B) What is trophic level? Which organism belongs to the first trophic level in the food chain
Answer:
Trophic level is the position of an organism in the food chain. l?lants belong to the first trophic level.

Question 7.
A. Differentiate between drip irrigation and wick irrigation.
Answer:
Drip irrigation – This is an irrigation method that uses pipes and valves to deliver water in droplets to the root zone. This minimises water loss and ensures that all plants receive the same amount of water. Wick irrigation This method delivers water directly from the water source to the root zone of plants using a cotton wick. It requires less water than drip irrigation.

OR
B. ‘Farming will be profitable only if all the pests are killed!’
What is your response to this comment from a farmer? How can effective pest control be implemented?
Answer:
I do not agree with this opinion of the farmer. Pest control methods should be selected taking into account the density and nature of the crops. The farmers’ need is not to kill the entire pests, but to control their growth in a way that does not damage the crops. Integrated pest control is a method that minimises the use of pesticides through automated pest control methods using various types of nets and traps, friendly insects, and the cultivation of seeds that are resistant to pests.

Question 8.
A. If there is a mistake in the statements given below, correct the mistake by changing only the underlined word.
a) The cell wall is the hard outer layer of the cell membrane.
b) The cell membrane provides protection and shape to the cell.
c) The cell wall in plants is mainly made of cellulose.
d) Substances enter and leave the cell through the Golgi apparatus.
Answer:
b) The cell wall provides protection and shape to the cell.
d) Substances enter and leave the cell through the cell membrane.

OR
B. Observe the picture and answer the questions below.

a) Which is the complex tissue represented by the picture?
b) What is the function of this complex tissue?
Answer:
a) Xylem
b) The conduction of water and salt to the leaves takes place through the xylem.

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Answer the following questions related to twins:
a) Give one characteristic that is always true for Identical twins regarding their sex.
b) Why is the external appearance of Fraternal twins usually different?
c) State the two major consequences (results) of the incomplete division or fusion that defines Conjoined twins.
Answer:
a) They will always belong to the same sex.

b) Fraternal twins develop from two different eggs fertilized by two different sperms. Therefore, they have different genetic material, which results in different external appearances and hereditary traits.

c) Body parts will be joined together, the external appearance and hereditary traits of the offspring will be the same.

Question 10.
A. Observe the illustration and answer the questions below.

a) Who performed the experiment shown in the illustration?
b) What is the source of energy in this experiment?
c) How does this experiment validate the theory of chemical evolution?
Answer:
a) Harold Urey and Stanley Miller
b) Electric spark
c) This experiment was conducted by artificially recreating the conditions of the primitive Earth in the laboratory. This experiment was able to produce amino acids, which are organic molecules. This experiment proved that organic molecules can be formed from inorganic components under suitable conditions.

Question 10.
B. Arrange the timeline properly.

Answer: