Budget: The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 10 Budget: The True Record of Development Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 10 Budget: The True Record of Development Notes Questions and Answers

Budget: The True Record of DevelopmentClass 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 10 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
What are the expenses mentioned in the conversation?
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 1
Answer:
Paying off debts, paying the electricity, Buying medicines, Paying for chitty

Question 2.
Which are the needs in our daily life that we spend money on?
Answer:

  • Food
  • Health
  • Buying dresses
  • Entertainment
  • Buying vehicles
  • Mobile phone bills, internet, and digital services

Budget: The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10

Question 3.
Complete the list by giving more examples for expected and unexpected expenditure.
Answer:

Expected Expenditure Unexpected Expenditure
Education Accident
Medical Expenses Device replacement
Food Interest rate hikes

Question 4.
The picture shows the different fields in which the members of Nikhil’s family are engaged. Among them, there are people who engage in occupation and those who do not. Let’s see who they are.
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 2
Answer:

Family Members Area of Activity/ Source of Income Income Yes/No
Nikhil Student No
Father Tailoring Yes
Mother Saleswoman Yes
Grandfather Agriculture Yes
Grandmother Pensioner Yes

Question 5.
Which are the sources of income of your family?
Answer:
(Hints: Here are some common sources of family income)
Salaries: Money earned from jobs or work.
Business Profits: Money made if someone in the family owns a business.
Freelance Work: Income from part-time or side jobs, like tutoring or projects.
Investments: Money earned from savings or investments, like stocks or interest from a bank.
Rent: Money received if the family owns property and rents it out.
Pensions: Money from retirement funds if grandparents or parents are retired.
Gifts or Inheritances: Money given by relatives or inherited from family.

Question 6.
Given below is the model of the monthly budget of a family.
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 3
a. What is the speciality of this family budget?
b. What suggestions can you give to turn this family budget into a surplus one?
Answer:
a. This family budget shows that expenditure is greater than income.
b. This family can reduce their unnecessary miscellaneous expenditure, which helps them to reduce their deficit and make their budget surplus.

Question 7.
What are the benefits of a family budget?
Answer:

  • Recognising different sources of income.
  • Adjusting the expenditure to match the income.
  • Moderate expenditure is practised.
  • Reduces Financial Stress.
  • Teaches Financial Responsibility.
  • Better Money Management.

Question 8.
Discuss what welfare and developmental activities have been done in your area using government funds and prepare a note.
Answer:
In our area, the government has improved life with several welfare and development activities: Roads and Bridges: New roads and small bridges were built, making travel easier and safer.
Healthcare Centers: Health centers were set up and upgraded, providing nearby medical help. Schools and Education: Schools were renovated, with new classrooms, computer labs, and scholarships for low-income students.
Water Supply and Sanitation: Clean water pipelines and public toilets were installed.
Parks and Playgrounds: New parks and playgrounds were made, and trees were planted to improve the environment.

Question 9.
Categorise the following expenditure as developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditures and list them in the table given below.
Interest
construction of roads
energy generation
construction of schools
epidemic
war
welfare pension
defence
liability
public administration
subsidies
industries
Answer:

Developmental Expenditure Non-Developmental Expenditure
Construction of roads Interest
Energy generation War
Construction of schools Defence
Epidemic (health spending) Liability
Welfare pension Public administration
Subsidies
Industries

Question 10.
The public expenditure of the Central Government from 2018-19 to 2022-23 is given below.
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 4
Analyse the graph on the public expenditure of the government and write your conclusions.
Answer:
The expenditure of the government in 2018-19 is 23.14 lakh crores. It increased to 26.87 lakh crores in 2019-20. As compared to 2020-21 (32.09 lakh crores), it was around 37.93 lakh crores in 2021-22. In 2022-23, it was 41.88 lakh crores.

Budget: The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10

Question 11.
Find more examples of direct and indirect taxes and list them.
Answer:

Direct Taxes Indirect Tax
Income Tax Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Corporate Tax Value Added Tax (VAT)
Property Tax Entertainment Tax
Gift Tax Service Tax

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare your family budget after collecting details of income and expenditure from your parents.
Answer:
(Hint: As per the given example below, prepare your family budget with the help of your parents and elders).
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 5
Total Income = 7500
Total Income = 7500
Total Expenses: 7100
Savings: 400

Question 2.
Collect the news report on the developmental and welfare activities of the state and central governments and prepare a magazine.
Answer:
Budget The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10 Img 6

Question 3.
The GST rates that we pay on the receipt of goods and services are given below. Find out the services and goods on which each tax is levied and complete the table given below.
Answer:

Tax rates Goods Services
0% Egg, Milk, Bread, Vegetables etc. Health, Public Transportation etc.
5% Sugar, coffee powder, Tea powder, edible oil etc. Economy air travel, Railway etc.
12% Butter, cheese, ghee, etc. restaurant services (non-AC), business class air travel, etc.
18% Biscuits, cake, etc. I.T services, A.C Hotels, Telecom services etc.
28% Chocolate, Luxury items like high-end cars etc. Five-star hotel, cinema etc.

Question 4.
The local self-government institutions also levy different types of taxes, just like the state and central governments. Search, find out and list them.
Answer:
Local self-government institutions like panchayats and municipal corporations levy the following types of taxes:
Property Tax: On residential and commercial properties.
Land and Building Tax: Levied in rural areas based on land value.
Profession Tax: Imposed on businesses and professionals.
Entertainment Tax: On movie screenings and public events.
Water Tax: For water supply services.
Vehicle Tax: On registered vehicles within the area.
Advertisement Tax: Imposed on public advertisements like billboards.

Class 7 Social Science Budget: The True Record of Development Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define the terms.
a. Expected expenditure
b. Unexpected expenditure
Answer:
a) Expected Expenditure: Expected expenditure is the expenditure that is expected in a family for particular period. This can be estimated as monthly and annually. E.g., food, electricity bills, etc
b) Unexpected Expenditure: The expenditure that a family cannot fix in advance for a particular period and which occurs accidentally is termed unexpected expenditure. E,g., natural disasters, diseases, etc.

Question 2.
What is difference between family Expenditure and family income?
Answer:

  • Family expenditure: The total amount spent by a family for food consumption and non-food consumption for a particular period is called the family expenditure.
  • Family Income: Family Income is the total income of the family in a particular period from different sources. By spending the income effectively, a family can develop the habit of saving, deal with unexpected expenditures and improve the standard of life.

Budget: The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10

Question 3.
Classify the following items into expected and unexpected expenditure. Education, Interest rate hikes, Medical Expenses, Food, Device replacement, Accident
Answer:

Expected Expenditure Unexpected Expenditure
Education Accident
Medical Expenses Device replacement
Food Interest rate hikes

Question 4.
How can we reduce the expenditure of a family?
Answer:

  • Use locally available resources for food.
  • Cultivate your own food resources.
  • Use public distribution system and fair price sale counters to the maximum extent possible.
  • Limit Transportation Costs.
  • Cut Unnecessary Spending.

Question 5.
Meenu saw that her father is planning their family budget for next month. Is there any benefit to this? State your opinion.
Answer:

  • Adjusting the expenditure to match the income.
  • Reduces Financial Stress.
  • Teaches Financial Responsibility.
  • Better Money Management.

Question 6.
What are the two major categories of public expenditure? Explain.
Answer:
The public expenditure can be classified into two categories: developmental expenditure and non- developmental expenditure. Expenditures directly related to the economic and social development of the country are called developmental expenditures. Non-development expenditure is the one incurred by the government on a regular basis for national interest and public services.

Question 7.
A list of items is given below. Categorise them into developmental and non-developmental expenditures.
roads, defence, interest, pension, bridges, epidemic and natural disasters, harbours
Answer:
Development expenditure: The expenditure spent for constructing roads, bridges, harbours
Non-developmental expenditure: Expenses involved in defence, interest, pension, epidemic, and natural disasters come under this.

Question 8.
What are the major divisions of public revenue?
Answer:
Tax revenue and non-tax revenue.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Direct tax and Indirect tax.
Answer:
Direct tax: Direct tax is the tax remitted by the person on whom tax is levied. This means that the taxpayer himself bears the burden of the tax. Income tax and building tax are examples.
Indirect tax: the tax levied on one individual is paid partially or completely by another. Sales tax and entertainment tax are examples of indirect tax.

Question 10.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is the amount of money that the public should remit to the government to bear the expenses of welfare activities and developmental activities which are carried out in public interest. The person who remits taxes is called a taxpayer.

Question 11.
Give examples of direct and indirect tax.
Answer:

Direct Taxes Indirect Tax
Income Tax Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Corporate Tax Value Added Tax (VAT)
Property Tax Entertainment Tax
Gift Tax Service Tax

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks.
a) ……………is the amount spent by the government for developmental and non- developmental activities.
b) …..is the one incurred by the government on a regular basis for national interest and public services.
c) The person who remits taxes is called as…….
Answer:
a) Public expenditure
b) Non-development expenditure
c) Taxpayer

Question 13.
Define GST.
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a unified indirect tax that came into effect on July 1, 2017, after the 101st amendment of the Constitution, to implement the principle of a unified tax for the nation.

Question 14.
Define terms.
a) Budget
b) GST
c) Public debt
Answer:
a) The budget is a financial document of the expected income and expenditure by the government for a specific financial year.

b) Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a unified indirect tax that came into effect from July 1, 2017, after the 101st amendment of the Constitution, to implement the principle of a unified tax for the nation.

c) The government has to take loans to materialise developmental and welfare activities and to meet various administrative needs when the income is not sufficient to satisfy various needs. The loans thus availed by the government are known as the public debt.

Question 15.
What are the objectives of Fiscal policy?
Answer:

  • Accelerate the economic growth
  • Create job opportunities
  • Regulate additional expenditure
  • Eliminate the inequality in the distribution of revenues

Budget: The True Record of Development Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 10

Question 16.
What is meant by Internal and external debt?
Answer:
Internal debt: The loans availed by the government from individuals and institutions inside the
country are known as domestic debt.
External debt: Foreign debt is the loan availed from other countries and international organisations. The productive use of these loans helps in materialising welfare and developmental activities, thereby increasing revenue and reducing public debt.

Question 17.
Identify the terms.
a) More income, less expenditure
b) Equal income and expenditure
c) Less income, more expenditure
Answer:
a) Surplus Budget
b) Balanced Budget
c) Deficit Budget

Question 18.
Who is the first Finance minister of India?
Answer:
R. K. Shanmugham Chetty

Question 19.
Write down the tax rates under GST.
Answer:
At present, the consumer has to pay GST at the rates of 0%, 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%.

Question 20.
Fill in the blanks
a) In our country, the budget is prepared for one financial year starting from ……. to ………
b) The…………presents the budget.
c) The loans thus availed by the government are known as the……..
Answer:
a) April 1st to March 31st.
b) finance minister
c) public debt

Std 7 Social Science Budget: The True Record of Development Notes

  • The total amount spent by a family for food consumption and non-food consumption for a particular period is called the family expenditure.
  • All the expenditure of a family cannot be fixed in advance.
  • Family Expenditure can be categorised into two: Expected Expenditure and Unexpected Expenditure.
  • Expected expenditure is the expenditure that is expected in a family for particular period. This can be estimated as monthly and annually.
  • The expenditure that a family cannot fix in advance for a particular period and which occurs accidentally is termed unexpected expenditure.
  • Family budget is the financial plan that is prepared based on the expected income and expenditure of a family in a particular period.
  • The family budget that can be prepared on a monthly or annual basis will differ according to the size, income and needs of the family.
  • The family income becomes stable when the income is more than the expenditure or when the income and the expenditure are equal.
  • Public expenditure is the amount spent by the government for developmental and non- developmental activities.
  • The public expenditure increases as the government expands its activities.
  • The public expenditure can be classified into two categories: developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.
  • The public revenue is the wealth that the government collects from various sources to satisfy these needs.
  • This is an important factor of the government budget.
  • The government needs a huge amount of money for developmental and welfare activities. The government makes revenue from two major sources: Tax revenue and non-tax revenue. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a unified indirect tax that came into effect from July 1, 2017, after the 101st amendment of the Constitution, to implement the principle of a unified tax for the nation.
  • The budget is a financial document of the expected income and expenditure by the government for a specific financial year.
  • In our country, the budget is prepared for one financial year starting from April 1st to March 31st.
  • The government has to take loans to materialise developmental and welfare activities and to meet various administrative needs when the income is not sufficient to satisfy various needs. The loans thus availed by the government are known as the public debt.
  • Fiscal policy is a comprehensive government policy concerning the public revenue, public expenditure and public debt.
  • Fiscal policy prepared by the finance department is implemented through the budget.

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 9 Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 9 Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Notes Questions and Answers

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 9 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
The pictures of a globe and a map are given below. Observe them and identify the differences between the two based on the given indicators. (Indicators: Shape,Latitudes/Longitudes, Use)
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 2
Answer:

Indicator Globe Map
Shape Spherical, three-dimensional model of the Flat, Earth. Flat, two-dimensional representation of the Earth.
Latitudes/longitudes Shows accurate latitudes and longitudes in Latitudes and longitudes may be their true positions and proportions. Latitudes/longitudes may be distorted due to the flattening of the Earth onto a flat surface.
Use Used for a general, accurate representation of the entire Earth and global spatial relationships. Used for detailed study of specific areas, navigation, and for easy portability and accessibility.

Question 2.
Some major characteristics of globes and maps are given below. Classify and list them as ‘characteristics of globes’ and ‘characteristics of maps.’
(a real model of the earth, two-dimensional image of the earth, spherical representation of the earth, representation of the whole earth or a portion of it on a plain surface, gives a comprehensive visual sense of the earth as it is illustrated completely, latitudes and longitudes are illustrated as straight lines, longitudinal lines are illustrated as semicircles and latitudinal lines are illustrated as concentric circles, very useful for collecting information of a specific place and for planning the route for a trip.)
Answer:

Characteristics of globes Characteristics of maps
a real model of the earth two-dimensional image of the earth
spherical representation of the earth representation of the whole earth or a portion of it on a plain surface
gives a comprehensive visual sense of the earth as it is illustrated completely latitudes and longitudes are illustrated as straight lines
longitudinal lines are illustrated as semicircles and latitudinal lines are illustrated as concentric circles very useful for collecting information of a specific place and for planning the route for a trip

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9

Question 3.
Classify and list the following maps as physical maps and cultural maps. (physiographic map, soil map, climate map, vegetation map, river map, political map, population map, economic map, transportation map)
Answer:

Physical maps Cultural maps
physiographic map, soil map, climate map, vegetation map, river map political map, population map, economic map, transportation map

Question 4.
Columns A and B give the various features on the surface of the earth and the names of the maps on which they are depicted. Connect them with lines.
Answer:
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 3

Question 5.
Examine an atlas and find out different types of maps and identify their characteristics.
Answer:

  • Political Map- Shows boundaries of countries, states, cities, and capitals, Depicts political divisions without detailed physical features.
  • Historical Map- Focuses on past events, such as territorial boundaries, trade routes, and military campaigns, Useful for understanding historical geography and the development of human societies.
  • Land Use Map- Shows how land is being used in a given area and helps in urban planning, zoning, and land conservation efforts.
  • Vegetation Map -Shows the distribution of different types of vegetation like forests, grasslands, and deserts, Useful in environmental and ecological studies.

Question 6.
Observe the maps in your Social Science lab and find out and write their scales.
Answer:
(Hint)
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 4

Question 7.
Identify the differences between large-scale and small-scale maps and prepare a note.
Answer:
Large-scale maps and small-scale maps differ mainly in the amount of detail they show and the area they cover. Large-scale maps represent smaller areas in greater detail, with features like streets, buildings, and landmarks clearly visible. They are typically used for city maps or neighbourhood plans. Small-scale maps, on the other hand, cover larger areas with less detail, making them ideal for showing entire countries, continents, or the world. These maps give a broad overview, focusing on general locations rather than specific features. In summary, large-scale maps are detailed for small areas, while small-scale maps provide an overview for larger regions.

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9

Question 8.
Download the maps of panchayats or municipalities and topographical maps with the help of information technology. Based on the scale compare and classify the maps in your Social Science labs, the maps in the atlas and the maps you have downloaded.
Answer:
(Hints)

  • Download Panchayats/municipalities and topographical maps (Use Google map or Bhuvan).
  • Compare and Classify Maps Based on Scale:
    • Maps in Your Social Science Lab – Shows local areas with medium-scale or large-scale.
    • Maps in the Atlas – Provide an overview of larger regions.
    • Panchayat/Municipality Maps – Medium-scale with details of local features such as roads, buildings, and local landmarks.
    • Topographical Maps – Typically large-scale, showing detailed land features.

Question 9.
Observe the maps in the Social Science lab and identify the relation between the content and the title.
Answer:
The content of a map is directly related to its title, as the title indicates the main theme or focus of the information displayed. For example, a “Political Map” will show country boundaries, capitals, and major cities, emphasising political divisions. A “Physical Map,” however, highlights natural features like mountains, rivers, and plains, focusing on the landforms rather than human-made boundaries. The title of each map guides viewers on what kind of information to expect, helping them understand whether it will cover geographical features, population density, climate zones, or economic activities. This relation between title and content ensures that the map serves its intended purpose clearly and effectively.

Question 10.
Observe maps and find out the scales written as statements.
Answer:
1 cm = 1 km, 1 inch = 10 miles etc.

Question 11.
What is meant by the Representative Fraction, RF = 1:200000. Let’s try to write it.
Answer:
RF 1:200000, which means that 1 unit in the map (such as 1 centimetre, inch, or any other measurement) is equal to 200000 units on the surface of the earth. So, if you measure 1 cm on the map, it represents 200,000 cm (or 2 km) on the surface of the earth.

Question 12.
Find out and write the Representative Fractions (RF) observing the maps.
Answer:
1:900000, 1:500000 etc

Question 13.
Examine the following sketch and complete the table.
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 5
Answer:

Geographical Information Directions
In which direction of the playground is the school building located? North
In which direction of the school building is the water tank located? West
To which direction you should move from the school building to reach the toilet? East
In which part of the water tank is the well located? South

Question 14.
Given aside is a sketch that depicts the geographical information using different colours and signs. Examine the sketch, identify the colours and signs that represent each geographical area and mark them in the table given below.
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 6
Answer:
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 7

Question 15.
Observe the map of India and find out between which lines of latitude and longitude India is located.
Answer:
India is situated in the continent of Asia. It lies completely in the Northern hemisphere and Eastern hemisphere between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E.

Question 16.
With the help of ICT, identify the different purposes for which GPS is used in day-to-day life.
Answer:
Navigation, Travel and Tourism, Emergency Services, Agriculture, Fitness and Sports.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a sketch of your school and illustrate the details of it using colours and signs.
Answer:
(Hints)

  • Draw the outline of the school building.
  • Add Key Details (Buildings, Playground, Trees/Plants, Paths and Roads).
  • Use Colors and signs.
  • Label the Areas.

Question 2.
Collect different types of physical and cultural maps with the help of ICT and prepare a digital album.
Answer:
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 1

Question 3.
Collect information on the achievements of ISRO in various remote sensing areas and prepare a wallpaper. Don’t forget to include it in your Social Science Observation Book.
Answer:
(Hints) Prepare a wallpaper by elaborating the given achievements.

  • Design the Wallpaper:
    • Background: Use a satellite image of Earth.
    • Main Title: “ISRO’s Achievements in Remote Sensing”.
    • Include icons/Images.
  • Achievements of ISRO in Remote Sensing:
    • First Indian Satellite (Aryabhata).
    • INSAT (Indian National Satellite System).
    • IRS (Indian Remote Sensing Satellites).
    • GSAT and GISAT Satellites.
    • International Collaboration.

Class 7 Social Science Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main purpose of a map?
Answer:
Maps are made by representing the whole earth or a portion of it on a plain surface. Such plain surfaces on which the earth is partially or completely depicted are called maps. We can use maps for Weather Forecasting, Disaster Management, to locate a place, find the route to a destination. scientifically, and understand the geographical features.

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9

Question 2.
What are thematic maps?
Answer:
The maps that focus on a particular topic or specific theme are called Thematic Maps.

Question 3.
What is the difference between Physical and Cultural Maps?
Answer:
Physical Maps – Maps that depict natural features of a region, such as topography, soil, rivers, climate and vegetation.
Cultural Maps – Maps that depict man-made features or cultural features.

Question 4.
Why is it important to use different maps for different geographical features?
Answer:
Different maps are used for representing different geographical features. The information of both different maps, when brought together, will create confusion, making data collection complex. That is why major geographical features are depicted on different maps.

Question 5.
Give examples of maps classified by their function.
Answer:
Political Map, Soil Map, Historical Map.

Question 6.
What is the scale of a map?
Answer:
The ratio between the actual distance on earth and the distance marked on maps is the scale of a map.

Question 7.

Explain the classification of Maps based on Scale with examples.
Answer:
large-scale maps – depicts more information about a small area. For e.g., topographical map, village map
small-scale maps – depicts only less information of an area for e.g., World Map, Map of India, Map of Kerala

Question 8.
What is map reading?
Answer:
Finding or collecting information by examining maps is called map reading.

Question 9.
What is the importance of the title on a map?
Answer:
The title indicates the specific content of the map.

Question 10.
What is the scale of a map?
Answer:
Scale is the ratio between the distance of two places on the ground and the corresponding distance of the same places on the map.

Question 11.
What are the three methods used to record the scale on a map?
Answer:
Statement of scale, Representative Fraction, Linear Scale.

Question 12.
Why are conventional colours and symbols used in maps?
Answer:
People from all countries can read maps made in any country without confusion if we use internationally accepted colours and signs. These colours and signs are used on maps where man- made and natural phenomena are represented together.

Question 13.
Match the Colours/Signs with their Features.
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 8
Answer:
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 9

Question 14.
What is remote sensing?
Answer:
Collecting information on an object, region or a phenomenon from a distance without direct contact with the help of devices is called remote sensing.

Question 15.
Name three types of platforms used in remote sensing.
Answer:
Balloons, Aeroplanes, Artificial satellites.

Question 16.
Remote Sensing can be classified into three. Which are they? Explain.
Answer:
Terrestrial Remote Sensing – The method by which the geographical features are copied using cameras from the ground level.
Aerial Remote Sensing – The method by which the photographs of geographical areas are copied with the help of a camera fixed on an aeroplane.
Satellite Remote Sensing – The process by which the information on geographical areas are collected using platforms fixed on artificial satellites.

Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9

Question 17.
What is the difference between GIS and GPS?
Answer:
A software based computer technology is used to make such products after analysing geographical information. This technology is known as Geographic Information System (GIS). Technology that identifies the location of an aeroplane, its altitude, direction and the time taken to reach a destination accurately is known as Global Positioning System (GPS).

Question 18.
Write any three benefits of GIS.
Answer:
Transport, Irrigation, Education.

Question 19.
Explain the working of GIS.
Answer:
Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 9 Img 10

Question 20.
How does GPS technology assist in tracking moving objects?
Answer:
GPS calculates the location, direction of movement, speed, and time taken for moving objects like vehicles, aeroplanes, and ships.

Std 7 Social Science Maps and Technology to Know the Earth Notes

  • Plain surfaces on which the earth is partially or completely depicted are called maps.
  • Maps can be classified based on two factors: The function of the map and the scale on which maps are made.
  • Maps can generally be classified into two based on their functions: Physical Maps and Cultural Maps.
  • The maps that focus on a particular topic or specific theme are called Thematic Maps. Classification of Maps Based on Scale are large-scale maps and small-scale maps. Finding or collecting information examining maps is called map reading.
  • The factors that help in map reading are Title, Scale, Direction, Latitude and Longitude, Conventional colours/symbols, and Index.
  • Statement of Scale, Representative Fraction and Linear Scale are the three methods used to record the scale on a map.
  • Remote sensing, Geographic Information System, and Global Positioning System are the modern techniques of geographical study.
  • Collecting information on an object, region or a phenomenon from a distance without direct contact with the help of devices is called remote sensing.
  • A software based computer technology is used to make such products after analysing geographical information.
  • This technology is known as Geographic Information System.
  • Technology that identifies the location of an aeroplane, its altitude, direction and the time taken to reach a destination accurately is known as Global Positioning System.

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 8 Power to the People Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 8 Power to the People Notes Questions and Answers

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 8 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Find out the following from Nivin’s post.
Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8 Img 1
a. What is referred to in the post?
b. What are discussed in grama sabhas?
c. Who presides over a grama sabha?
d. What is the system in cities which is equal to grama sabhas?
e. Who is the convenor of the grama sabha?
Answer:
a. Grama Sabha
b. Development of the locality, day-to-day problems of the people
c. Panchayat President
d. Ward Sabha
e. Ward Member

Question 2.
Find out and list what activities are going on in the grama sabha from the notice.
Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8 Img 2
Answer:

  • Regional developmental activities – discussion and planning.
  • Honouring the talented persons.
  • To select the beneficiaries for individual concession.
  • ‘Let’s Proceed’- Women Empowerment Programme.

Question 3.
Consolidate the facts that you have understood on the functioning of grama sabhas and prepare a note.
Answer:
Grama Sabhas play a key role in grassroots democracy by involving local communities directly in decision-making processes. They facilitate discussions and planning for regional development activities, ensuring projects align with local needs. Additionally, Grama Sabhas honor talented individuals, boosting community pride, and select beneficiaries for government concessions transparently to ensure fair resource distribution. Through initiatives like the ‘Let’s Proceed’ Women Empowerment Programme, Grama Sabhas also promote gender equality by empowering women and encouraging their active participation in community and economic activities.

Question 4.
Prepare a notice with the help of the teacher and organise the class sabha.
Answer:
Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8 Img 3

Question 5.
Find out the vision of Gandhiji concerning the development of villages.
Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8 Img 4
Answer:

  • Attain self-sufficiency in catering to the major needs of the village.
  • Villages should aim to become fully self-reliant republics.
  • Engage in mutual cooperation with others only when necessary.
  • The primary interest of villages should be to increase food production and the cultivation of essential crops like cotton for clothing needs.
  • A designated space should be available in the village for livestock.
  • Recreation and entertainment facilities are needed for both adults and children.
  • Utilise land effectively for growing crops and other essential produce.

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8

Question 6.
Discuss the features of decentralisation and write a description.
Answer:
Decentralisation is a governance approach that distributes power from central authorities to local governments, fostering more region-focused development. This system prioritises regional development by addressing the unique needs of each area, thereby promoting balanced growth between urban and rural communities. It empowers ordinary people by enhancing their participation in local governance, giving them a stronger voice in decisions that affect their lives. Decentralisation also strengthens the local economy, as targeted initiatives can boost regional industries and employment. Additionally, it prioritises immediate developmental needs like healthcare, education, and infrastructure based on the community’s priorities. Importantly, decentralisation creates leadership opportunities for women and marginalised groups, giving them valuable experience in administration and fostering a more inclusive governance process.

Question 7.
Conduct a panel discussion, including more details about the two committees (Balwantrai Mehta Committee and Ashok Mehta Committee).
Answer:
(Hints) Conduct a panel discussion by including given points..
Balwantrai Mehta Committee

  • Democratic decentralisation of power through the creation of a 3-layered Panchayati Raj system.
  • The administration had to be handed over to the local governing bodies named Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
  • The functions, organisations, responsibilities, funding, and duties were all laid down in the report for each of the institutions.
  • Proper representation of the SC, ST, and OBCs had to be provided.

Ashok Mehta Committee

  • Reservation for the seats based on the weaker section.
  • Keep two seats always for women.
  • Adequate all the financial resources for panchayats.
  • Requirement for the constitutional sector.

Question 8.
Conduct a quiz in the class based on the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution.
Answer:

  • In which name is the rural administrative decentralisation system known in India? – Panchayati Raj.
  • What is the basic unit of the Panchayati Raj system? – Gram Panchayat or village panchayat.
  • What is the duration of a Panchayat? – Five years.
  • What is the reservation policy for women in the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts? – One-third.

Question 9.
Find out and list the recommendations of the Balwantrai Mehta Committee and Ashok Mehta Committee that were included in the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution.
Answer:

  • The three-tier panchayat system.
  • Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Reservation.
  • Direct Elections to Panchayats.
  • Greater Financial Devolution.

Question 10.
Find out the details of your local self-government institutions.
Answer:
(Hints) Fill the table according to your areas details as the example given below.

Grama Panchayat Vaniyamkulam Grama Panchayat
Ward member of the Grama Panchayat Smt. Kavitha
President of the Grama Panchayat Manoharan
Block Panchayat Mala
President of the Block Panchayat Madhavan
District Panchayat Eloor
President of the District Panchayat Shiny
Municipality Thottakyad
Councillor of the Municipality Ameena
Chairperson of the Municipality Joseph
Corporation Varkala
Councillor of the Corporation Lakshmi
Mayor Prashanth

Question 11.
Which are the services that your family availed from the local self-governments? Discuss.
Answer:
Register births/deaths, Mother and child development, Sanction permission for building construction, Garbage treatment granting, etc.

Question 12.
Prepare a questionnaire to interview the people’s representatives in your area to know more about the responsibilities of local self-government institutions.
Answer:
1. What are the main responsibilities of the local self-government institutions in your area, and which services do you prioritise for the community?
2. How do you ensure that community needs, such as healthcare, education, and infrastructure, are adequately addressed?
3. What steps are taken to involve the local community in decision-making processes, and how can citizens actively participate in local governance?
4. Can you share examples of recent projects or developmental initiatives led by the local self- government that have positively impacted our area?
5. What challenges do you face in fulfilling the responsibilities of the local self-government, and how do you work to overcome these challenges?

Question 13.
Complete the list by identifying the different sources of revenue of local self-government bodies from the conversation given above.
Answer:

  • Various types of taxes
  • Licensing Fees
  • Fines and Penalties
  • Rent from Properties

Question 14.
Prepare a brief note on the local self-government institution to which you belong and present it in the class.
Answer:
I belong to the local self-government institution known as the Gram Panchayat (or Municipality, if it’s an urban area). This institution is responsible for managing and addressing local needs in the community, such as maintaining roads, water supply, sanitation, health services, and public spaces. It also implements welfare programs, assists in education and development projects, and promotes women’s and marginalised groups’ participation in governance. The Gram Panchayat or Municipality collects revenue from local taxes, service fees, and grants from the State and Central- Governments to fund these activities. This local governance structure ensures that our community has access to essential services and contributes to grassroots development.

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8

Question 15.
‘If I become a Panchayat President/Chairperson of the Municipality/ Mayor of the Corporation’ – Present your ideas in the class.
Answer:
If I become the President of the Panchayat (or Chairperson of the Municipality/Mayor of the Corporation), I would focus on making our community a healthier, cleaner, and more inclusive place for everyone. Here are some of my key priorities:

Improving Health and Sanitation: I would ensure clean drinking water, regular garbage collection, and well-maintained public toilets. I’d organise health camps and promote awareness about hygiene and preventive healthcare.

Better Roads and Public Transport: I would work on repairing and maintaining roads, creating safe pathways, and improving local transport options to make it easier for people to travel within the area.

Educational and Employment Opportunities: I would support local schools with resources and offer skill-training programs for youth to help them secure better job opportunities. Libraries and digital learning centres could also benefit the community.

Green and Clean Environment: I would promote tree-planting drives and plastic waste reduction and set up more green spaces for people to enjoy. Waste recycling and eco-friendly practices would be a priority.

Empowering Women and Marginalized Groups: I’d encourage their active participation in community activities and governance, ensuring their voices are heard. Self-help groups and women’s entrepreneurship would receive special support.

Transparent and Inclusive Governance: I would hold regular community meetings to listen to people’s needs and ensure transparency in decision-making and budget spending. By involving everyone, I would work towards building a community that thrives on participation, fairness, and mutual respect.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Interview with the people’s representative to learn about the activities of local self-government institutions.
Answer:
(Hints) Here’s a sample interview script for gathering information from a local people’s representative about the activities of local self-government institutions:

Interviewer: Thank you for meeting with us today. To start, could you share with us the main responsibilities of the local self-government in our community?

Representative: Certainly! Our local self-government focuses on basic services like water supply, sanitation, road maintenance, and health services. We also work on implementing welfare programs, managing schools, and supporting local development initiatives.

Interviewer: What are some of the recent projects that the local government has completed or is currently working on?

Representative: One of our major projects has been improving the local water supply and constructing new sanitation facilities. We’ve also launched a green initiative to plant more trees and reduce waste in public spaces.

Interviewer: How does the local self-government involve the community in decision-making?

Representative: We hold regular meetings where community members can voice their concerns and offer suggestions. We also encourage people to participate in planning processes through Gram Sabhas (or Ward Committees, in urban areas).

Interviewer: What steps are taken to support and empower women and marginalised groups within the community?

Representative: We have specific programs that focus on skill development, entrepreneurship, and education for women and marginalized groups. We also ensure reserved seats in local government bodies to promote their participation in decision-making.

Interviewer: Lastly, could you tell us about the main challenges faced by local self-governments in fulfilling their responsibilities?

Representative: Funding can be a major challenge, as we rely on grants and limited local taxes. Managing resources effectively and meeting the needs of a growing population can also be difficult, but we are committed to finding solutions.

Question 2.
Conduct a field trip to the panchayat/municipality/corporation office to learn about the functioning of local self-government institutions directly and prepare a digital documentation.
Answer:
(Hints) Here’s a suggested outline to help organise a field trip to the Panchayat/Municipality/ Corporation office and create à digital documentation of the experience:
Introduction to Local Self-Government: Briefly explain what local government is and why it’s important for the community.

Structure and Key Roles: Describe who works at the office (like the Mayor or Panchayat President) and their main duties.

Departments and Services: List the important departments (like health, sanitation, and education) and what services they provide.

Citizen Involvement: Mention how people in the community can participate, like attending meetings or sharing suggestions.

Highlights and Learnings: Summarize what you learned from the visit and why local government is valuable for the community.

Question 3.
Observe the grama sabha/ward sabha of your area, collect information and prepare a report.
Answer:
On November 10, 2024, I attended the Gram Sabha at [Village Name]. The meeting, held at the Panchayat Hall, was presided over by the Panchayat President, [President’s Name], with attendance from local officials and about 50 community members. Key issues discussed included road conditions, water supply, waste management, and public health services. The community also selected beneficiaries for various welfare schemes like the old age pension and housing assistance. There was active participation from women and marginalised groups, and the meeting emphasised the importance of community involvement in local governance. The session concluded with decisions on prioritising infrastructure and sanitation projects.

Question 4.
Conduct a debate on the topic of “Women’s Reservation in the 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments.”
Answer:
(Hints) Conduct a debate based on the pros and cons given below.
Pros:

  • Increased Representation: Guarantees more women in local governance roles.
  • Empowerment of Women: Boosts confidence and social status of women leaders.
  • Community Welfare Focus: Women prioritise health, education, and sanitation issues.
  • Role Models for Youth: Inspires young girls to pursue leadership.
  • Promotes Gender Equality: Ensures fairer gender representation in politics.
  • Legal Protection: Secures women’s voices and interests in governance.

Cons:

  • Tokenism: Women may be seen as symbolic leaders without real power.
  • Dependency on Quotas: Could discourage women from entering politics independently.
  • Quantity Over Quality: Focuses on numbers, not necessarily effectiveness.
  • Social Resistance: Women often face societal discrimination in leadership roles.
  • Lack of Training: Many women lack the experience needed for effective governance.
  • Influence from Male Relatives: Some women leaders face pressure to follow male family members’ decisions.

Question 5.
Prepare a Class Development Plan by including the ideas on development that were put forward while the ‘class sabha’ was conducted. Present it in the school parliament. Then, release it in the school assembly in the presence of the members of the School Development Committee.
Answer:
(Hints) On the basis of the given ideas on development, prepare a Class Development Plan.

  • Academic Growth
  • Skill Development
  • Physical and Mental Well-being
  • Community and Environmental Responsibility
  • Extracurricular Activities

Class 7 Social Science Power to the People Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the following.
a) How often is the grama sabha convened?
i. Once a month
ii. Once in three months
iii. Once in a year
iv. Every week

b) Who is responsible for convening the grama sabha?
i. The Mayor
ii. The Ward Member
iii. The Panchayat President
iv. The Village Chief
Answer:
a) Once in three months,
b. The Ward Member

Question 2.
Write true or false.
a) In cities, the grama sabha is called a ward sabha.
b) The grama sabha is only for elected members and not for everyone in the ward.
Answer:
a.True, b. False

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks.
a) Gandhiji believed that the soul of India lies in the _______
b) The _______ is the platform for ensuring equality of status and equal rights among citizens.
Answer:
a. villages
b. grama sabha

Question 4.
Match the Following

Column A Column B
Grama Sabha Three-tier System
Ward Sabha Two-tier System
Balwantrai Mehta Committee Self-governing body in a village
Ashok Mehta Committee City-level governing body

Answer:

Column A Column B
Grama Sabha Self-governing body in a village
Ward Sabha City-level governing body
Balwantrai Mehta Committee Three-tier System
Ashok Mehta Committee Two-tier System

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8

Question 5.
Write a note on Centralisation and Decentralisation of Power.
Answer:
Democracy becomes meaningful when power is decentralised to all people and not simply vested with some. Thus, in a political or administrative system, the transfer of power legally to the people to take decisions and execute them is called decentralisation of power. The power to take decisions and execute them in administrative matters is centred on some people is called centralisation of power. Here, the common people comparatively do not get the opportunity to become a part of administrative affairs.

Question 6.
Write the features of Decenteralisation of Power.
Answer:

  • Importance to regional development.
  • Common people have more power and participation in the administration.
  • Development of the local economy.
  • Developmental needs get prioritised.
  • Women and the marginalised get leadership and administrative experience.

Question 7.
Differentiate between the recommendations of Balwantrai Mehta Committee and Ashok Mehta Committee.
Answer:

The Recommendations of Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957) The Recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
The three-tier panchayat system – Grama Panchayat, Panchayat District Parishad. The two-tier system – Mandal Panchayat, District Parishad.
The power for planning and execution to be given to Panchayat Committees and supervision and organisation for District Parishad. The District Parishad shall have the charge over the district-level planning. Mandal panchayats are in charge of the villages.
Direct election in Grama Panchayats. Constitutional validity for panchayat institutions.
Indirect election in District Parishad and Panchayat Committee. Reservation for Scheduled Caste Scheduled Tribe.

Question 8.
Write a short note on the Panchayat Raj System.
Answer:
The Panchayati Raj system came into existence first in Rajasthan as per the recommendations of the Balwantrai Mehta Committee. Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru  the project in Nagaur district in Rajasthan on October 2nd, 1959. The Panchayati Raj system came into existence in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal the same year.

Question 9.
Why was it decided to give constitutional powers to local self-government bodies in India?
Answer:
It was decided to give constitutional powers to strengthen local self-government bodies and create a uniform structure across the country.

Question 10.
What was the purpose of the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution?
Answer:
The purpose of the 73rd Amendment was to introduce the Panchayati Raj Act, which gave more powers to local self-government bodies in rural areas.

Question 11.
What change did the 74th Amendment bring to local governance?
Answer:
The 74th Amendment introduced the Nagarpalika Act, which provided more powers to local self- government bodies in urban areas.

Question 12.
Match the following.

Column A Column B
73rd Amendment 1992
74th Amendment Strengthening local governance
Purpose of Amendments Nagarpalika Act
Year of Amendments Panchayati Raj Act

Answer:

Column A Column B
73rd Amendment Panchayati Raj Act
74th Amendment Nagarpalika Act
Purpose of Amendments Strengthening local governance
Year of Amendments 1992

Question 13.
Write the difference between 73rd and 74th Amendment.
Answer:

73rd Constitutional Amendment Panchayati Raj System 74th Constitutional Amendment Nagarpalika System
Formation of grama sabhas Formation of ward sabhas
Tenure of administration – five years Tenure of administration – five years
Reservation for the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe Reservation for the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe
Reservation for Women Reservation for Women
The election charge was given to the State Election Commission The election charge was given to the State Election Commission
Finance Commission once in five years The election charge was given to the State Election Commission
Three-tier Panchayat system – Grama Panchayat, Block Panchayat, District Panchayat Two types of Urban Local Self Government bodies Nagar Panchayat, Municipal (Municipality/Corporation in Kerala)

Question 14.
Write a short note on People’s Planning.
Answer:
After the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution, the process of decentralisation of power introduced in Kerala in 1996 is known as ‘People’s Planning’ (Janakeeyasuthranam). The ‘People’s Planning’ system has given more power and responsibilities to the local self-government system which also ensured more officials, institutions and funds to implement them. As a result of these constitutional amendments, 33% reservation is accorded to women in the local self-government systems. Further, as per the amendment of the Panchayati Raj Act 2005, the representation of women in local self-government bodies was elevated to 50%. 10% of the total plan fund of local self- government bodies has been allocated to projects exclusively meant for women. Kerala, thus, became a model for the country through the effective implementation of the decentralisation process.

Question 15.
Write down any five responsibilities of local self-government institutions.
Answer:

  • Register births/deaths
  • Collect statistical data
  • Supervision and responsibility of primary schools
  • Mother and child development
  • Sanction permission for building construction

Question 16.
What are the different major sources of income for local self-government institutions?
Answer:
The panchayat has different sources of income. For example, there are funds and grants from the State and Central governments. Besides, panchayats get revenue from building tax, professional tax, entertainment tax, etc. The fee from permits and registration, the user fee from bus stands, markets and playgrounds owned by the panchayat and the fine that is levied by the panchayat also come under its revenue. The revenue will be different for different panchayats based on the nature of the locality. The different types of loans that are approved by the government, the shares from beneficiaries and the contributions that are accepted based on certain conditions come under the revenue of the panchayat.

Power to the People Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 8

Question 17.
What are the major challenges of local self-government institutions?
Answer:

  • A condition in which the plan share is not available on time.
  • A situation in which decentralisation is not executed completely.
  • The less participation of people in grama sabhas.
  • Dip in panchayat’s own revenue in the rural sector.
  • Inadequacy of infrastructure.

Std 7 Social Science Power to the People Notes

  • The ward member, who is the convenor of the grama sabhas.
  • The developmental activities that were planned and executed through grama sabhas and ward sabhas.
  • Gandhiji considered the grama swaraj a self-governing body.
  • In a political or administrative system, the transfer of power legally to the people to take decisions and execute them is called decentralisation of power.
  • The word ‘Panchayat’ was formed from the Sanskrit words ‘pancha’ (five) and ‘ayat’ (meeting).
  • The Government of India Act came into existence in 1935.
  • The local self-government bodies got more powers with the 73rd and 74th amendments of the Constitution in 1992.
  • The Panchayati Raj Act came into existence through the 73rd Amendment.
  • The Nagarpalika Act was introduced with the 74th Amendment.
  • The process of decentralisation of power introduced in Kerala in 1996 is known as ‘People’s Planning’ (Janakeeyasuthranam).
  • 33% reservation is accorded to women in the local self-government systems.
  • Panchayats get revenue from building tax, professional tax, entertainment tax, etc.
  • The major challenges of local self-government are:
    • A condition in which the plan share is not available on time.
    • A situation in which decentralisation is not executed completely.
    • The less participation of people in grama sabhas.
    • Dip in panchayat’s own revenue in the rural sector.
    • Inadequacy of infrastructure.

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Time: 2 Hours
Total Scores: 60

Section – A

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
1Å (angstrom) = ___________
(i) 1010 m
(ii) 10-15 m
(iii) 1015 m
(iv) 10-10 m
Answer:
(iv) 10-10 m

Question 2.
___________ is the measure of inertia.
Answer:
Mass

Question 3.
True or False:
Elastomers do not obey Hooke’s law.
Answer:
True

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 4.
The point at which the whole mass of the body is supposed to be concentrated is called ___________
Answer:
Center of Mass

Question 5.
The change of state from liquid to solid is called ___________
Answer:
Fusion

Question 6.
Kinetic energy of a gas molecule is directly proportional to the ___________ of the gas.
Answer:
Absolute Temperature

Question 7.
Most fundamental property of a wave is
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Frequency
(d) Wavelength
Answer:
(c) Frequency

Section – B

Answer any 5 questions from 8 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 8.
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity u. Calculate the time taken to reach maximum height.
Answer:
At maximum height, v = 0 and a = -g
v = u + at
0 = u – gt
u = gt
∴ t = \(\frac{u}{g}\)

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 9.
What is a null (zero) vector? Give any two properties.
Answer:
A vector with zero magnitude is called a null vector.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+\overrightarrow{0}=\mathrm{A}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\overrightarrow{0}\)

Question 10.
(a) Choose the correct option:
The spring force is a conservative/non-conservative force. (1)
(b) Draw the variation of potential and kinetic energies of a spring with its displacement from the equilibrium position. (1)
Answer:
(a) Conservative
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q10

Question 11.
What are the factors affecting moment of inertia of an object?
Answer:
Mass of body, position of axis, orientation of axis, distribution of mass around the axis of rotation.

Question 12.
(a) Consider a planet moving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in Fig. If t1 and t2 are the time taken by the earth to go from P1 to P2 and P3 to P4 respectively. The two shaded parts have equal area, then
(i) t1 < t2
(ii) t1 = t2
(iii) t1 > t2
(iv) t2 = -t1
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q12
(b) State the law which explains the above case. (1)
Answer:
(a) (ii) t1 = t2
(b) The line that joins any planet to the sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time. ie, the aerial velocity is constant.

Question 13.
(a) A drop of liquid under no external force is always spherical. Why? (1)
(b) When a painting brush dipped in water, its hairs cling together. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) Sphere has least surface area. To reduce potential energy due to surface tension, a liquid drop has to acquire the least surface area.
(b) When the hairs cling together, the free surface area gets reduced, which reduces potential energy due to surface tension.

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 14.
The modes of heat transfer are shown below. Identify A and B.
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q14
Answer:
A → Conduction
B → Convection

Section – C

Answer any 6 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 15.
(a) Give an example for a body possessing zero velocity which is accelerating. (1)
(b) Show that the area under the velocity-time graph gives displacement. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Extreme position of simple harmonic oscillation.
(ii) When a body is projected vertically upwards, at maximum height, the body has zero velocity but non-zero acceleration.
(b) Consider a body moving with constant velocity v. Its velocity time graph is given below.
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q15
The area of the rectangle has height v and breadth t.
Therefore, Area = vt = displacement

Question 16.
While firing a bullet, the gun recoils.
(a) Which conservation law helps you to explain this phenomenon? (1)
(b) “In the firing process, the speed of the gun is very low compared to the speed of the bullet”. Substantiate the above statement mathematically. (2)
Answer:
(a) Conservation of momentum
(b) Let m and v be the mass and velocity of the bullet.
Let M and V be the mass and velocity of the gun
According to conservation of momentum,
the momentum before firing = the momentum after firing.
0 = mv’ + MV
MV = -mv’
M = \(\frac{-m v^{\prime}}{\mathrm{M}}\)
Since m<<M, V is small compared to v’.
ie, the velocity of the gun is small compared to the velocity of the bullet.

Question 17.
(a) Which type of elasticity is involved in stretching a wire? (1)
(b) Steel is more elastic than rubber. Why? (1)
(c) If the bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 Nm-2, find its compressibility. (1)
Answer:
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) Steel regains its original condition almost completely, when the deforming force is removed. But rubber will not regain its original condition after the removal of deforming force.
(c) Compressibility, K = \(\frac{1}{B}\)
B = 2 × 109 Nm-2
K = \(\frac{1}{2 \times 10^9}\) = 5 × 10-10 Pa-1

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 18.
(a) “When water flowing in a broader pipe enters into a narrow pipe, its pressure decreases.” Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (2)
(b) Define coefficient of viscosity. (1)
Answer:
(a) Yes. I do agree
According to the continuity equation,
AV = constant
Hence, as the area decreases, the velocity increases.
According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
P + \(\frac{1}{3}\)PV2 + ρgh = constant
As velocity increases, kinetic energy increases, which in turn causes a decrease in pressure.
(b) The coefficient of viscosity is defined as the ratio of shear stress to shear strain rate.

Question 19.
(a) State First law of thermodynamics. (1)
(b) One mole of an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to volume V2 at a constant temperature T. Derive an expression for the work done. (2)
Answer:
(a) According to the first law of thermodynamics, heat supplied to a system is used to increase its internal energy and to do work.
If ΔQ is heat supplied to the system, ΔW is work done by the system and ΔU is change in internal energy, then ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
(b) Work done in isothermal process: For an isothermal process, the equation of state is
PV = constant = µRT
P = \(\frac{\mu \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{~V}}\)
Let a system undergo an isothermal process at temperature T, from the state (P1, V1) to (P2, V2).
Let ‘DV’ be a small charge in volume due to pressure P.
Then work done (for ΔV)
ΔW = PΔV
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q19

Question 20.
(a) State the law of equipartition of energy. (1)
(b) A box contains an equal number of molecules of hydrogen and oxygen. If there is a fine hole on top of the box, which gas will leak rapidly? Why? (1)
(c) When gas is heated, its temperature increases. Explain it based on kinetic theory of gases. (1)
Answer:
(a) The total kinetic energy of a molecule is equally divided among the different degrees of freedom.
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q20
Thus rms speed \(\bar{v}\) is proportional to \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{~m}}}\)
The mass of hydrogen, is less compared to that of oxygen and hence veloicty of hydrogen is large compared to oxygen. Hence hydrogen leaks rapidly.
(c) According to kinetic theory fo gases, average kinetic energy of molecule is directly proportional to temperature. When heat is given to gas molecules vibrate and kinetic energy increases and hence its temperature increases.

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 21.
(a) Derive an expression for the period of oscillation of a Simple Pendulum. (2)
(b) Can a pendulum clock show correct time inside a spaceship? Why? (1)
Answer:
(a)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q21
Consider a mass m suspended from one end of a string of length L fixed at the other end as shown in the figure.
Suppose P is the instantaneous position of the pendulum. AP this instant it’s string makes an angle θ with the vertical.
The forces acting on the bob are (1) weight of bob Fg (mg) acting vertically downward. (2) Tension T in the string.
The gravitational force Fg can be divided into a radial component Fg Cos θ and tangential component Fg Sin θ.
The radial component is canceled by the tension T. But the tangential component Fg Sin θ produces a restoring torque.
Restoring torque
τ = -Fg sin θ . L
τ = -mg sin θ . L ………….(1).
-ve sign shown that the torque and angular displacement θ are oppositely directed. For rotational motion of the bob.
τ = Iα ……………..(2).
Where I is a moment of inertia about the point of suspension and a is the angular acceleration.
From eq (1) and eq (2)
Iα = -mg sin θ . L
If we assume that the displacement θ is small, sin θ ~ θ.
∴ Iα = -mgθ L
Iα + mgθ L = 0
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q21.1
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{~L}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
(b) No. In space spaceship, g = 0
T = \(2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{~L}}{\mathrm{~g}}}\)
Hence T becomes infinity, ie, the pendulum will not oscillate.

Section – D

Answer any 3 questions from 22 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 22.
(a) What do you mean by principle of homogeneity of dimensions? (1)
(b) Using this principle, check whether the following equation is dimensionally correct: (2)
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = mgh
(c) State the number of significant figures in the following: (1)
(i) 0.060607 m2
(ii) 6.0320 Nm-2
Answer:
(a) If an equation contains more than one term, the dimension of each term must be the same.
[\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2] = (MLT-1)2 = M2L2T-2
[mgh] = M × LT-2 × L = ML2T2
Dimension on each side of the equation is the same.
Hence the equation is correct.
(c) (i) 5
(ii) 5

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 23.
(a) ‘Sketch the schematic diagram of a vehicle on a banked road and mark various forces acting on it. (2)
(b) Obtain an expression for maximum safe speed for a vehicle in the banked road. (Without considering friction) (2)
Answer:
(a)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q23
(b) Consider a vehicle along a curved road with angle of banking θ. Then the normal reaction on the ground will be inclined at an angle θ with the vertical. The vertical component can be divided into N cos θ (vertical component) and N sin θ (horizontal component). Suppose the vehicle tends to slip outward. Then the frictional force will be developed along the plane of the road as shown in the figure. The frictional force can be divided into two components. F cos θ (horizontal component) and F sin θ (vertical component).
From thefigureare get,
N cos θ = F sin θ + mg
N cos θ – F sin θ = mg ……….(1)
The component N sin θ and F sin θ provide centripetal force.
Hence N sin θ + F cos θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{mv}^2}{\mathrm{R}}\)
eq (1) by eq (2)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q23.1
This is the maximum speed at which a vehicle can move over a banked curved road.

Question 24.
(a) A car and a lorry have equal kinetic energy, which one will have greater momentum? Explain. (1)
(b) State and prove work-energy theorem. (3)
Answer:
(a) KElorry = KEcar
P = \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{~m} \times \mathrm{KE}}\)
∴ P ∝ √m
The mass of the lorry is large compared to the mass of the car.
Hence the momentum of the lorry is greater than that of the car.
(b) The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.
Proof: We know v2 = u2 + 2as
v2 – u2 = 2as
Multiplying both sides with m/2; we get
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q24

Question 25.
(a) A string is stretched between two fixed supports and a note of sound is heard when it is plucked at its middle point.
(i) How are standing waves produced? (1)
(ii) Derive an expression for the frequency of sound produced by the first two modes of vibration. (2)
(b) Where will a man hear a louder sound in the case of a stationary wave (node or anti-node)? (1)
Answer:
(a) (i) When two waves of the same amplitude and frequency travelling in opposite directions superimpose, the resulting wave pattern does not move to either side. This pattern is called standing wave.
(ii) A string of length L is fixed at two ends. The position of one end is chosen as x = 0, then the position of the other end will be x = L.
At x = 0, there will be a node.
To occur node at x = L, it must satisfy L = \(n \frac{\lambda}{2}\) (since, x = \(n \frac{\lambda}{2}\))
ie; the wavelength, λ = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~L}}{\mathrm{n}}\)
the frequency, υ = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{\mathrm{nv}}{2 L}\) (υλ = v)
n = 1, 2, 3, ….. etc.
The frequency of vibrations of the stretched string of length L is
υ = \(\frac{n v}{2 L}\), n = 1, 2, 3…etc.
This set of frequencies at which the string can vibrate are called natural frequencies or modes of vibration or harmonics.
The above equation shows that the modes of vibration (natural frequencies) of a string are integral multiples of the lowest frequency.
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{2 \mathrm{~L}}\) (for n = 1)
Fundamental mode (or) First harmonics
For n = 1, υ1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{2 \mathrm{~L}}\)
This is the lowest frequency with which the string vibrates. This is called fundamental mode or first harmonic of vibration.
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q25
(b) antinode

Section – E

Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 26.
A boy throws a cricket ball with velocity u at an angle θ with the horizontal.
(a) What is the trajectory of the ball? (1)
(b) Deduce an expression for maximum height reached by the ball. (2)
(c) If the boy can throw the ball to a maximum height ‘h’, what is the maximum horizontal distance to which he can throw? (2)
Answer:
(a) Parabola
(b) Vertical height of body is decided by vertical component of velocity (u sin θ).
The vertical displacement of the projectile can be found using the formula
v2 = u2 + 2as
When we substitute v = 0, a = -g, s = H and u = u sin θ, we get
0 = (u sin θ)2 + 2 × -g × H
2gH = u2 sin2θ
H = \(\frac{u^2 \sin ^2 \theta}{2 g}\)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q26

Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 27.
(a) State the law of conservation of angular momentum. (1)
(i) outstretching her arms and legs.
(ii) folding her arms and legs. (2)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q27
(c) Derive the relation connecting torque and angular momentum. (2)
Answer:
(a) Conservation of angular momentum and moment of inertia.
When there is no external torque, the total angular momentum of a body or a system of bodies is a constant.
τ = \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) (when τ = 0, we get \(\frac{\mathrm{dL}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = 0)
L = constant
But L = Iω
∴ Iω = a constant
(b) According to the law of conservation of angular momentum
L = Iω = constant
(i) When a girl stretches her arms and legs, the moment of inertia (I = mr2) increases and angular speed decreases.
(ii) On folding arms and legs, moment of inertia decreases and angular speed increases.
(c) Angular momentum of a particle, \(\vec{l}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{r}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}\) When we differentiate on both sides, we get
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q27.1

Question 28.
Escape velocity from the earth for a body of mass m is 11 km/s.
(a) If the body is projected at an angle of 45° with the vertical, the escape velocity will be
(i) 11/√2 km/s
(ii) 22√2 km/s
(iii) 22 km/s
(iv) 11 km/s
(b) Derive an expression for the escape velocity of an object from the surface of the earth. (3)
(c) The moon has no atmosphere. Why? (1)
Answer:
(a) 11 km/s (escape velocity is independent of θ)
(b) Force on a mass m at a distance r from the centre of Earth = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^2}\)
Work done for giving a small displacement dr,
dw = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^2} \mathrm{dr}\)
Work done in taking the body to infinity from the surface of the earth,
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q28
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q28.1
This escape velocity \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{Rg}}\) is estimated to be 11.2 km/s on the earth. But escape velocity of the moon is 2.3 km/s.
(c) Escape velocity on the moon is 2.3 km/s. The r.m.s. velocity of the gas molecules is greater than this value. Gas molecules easily escape from the surface of the moon.
Hence, there is no atmosphere on the moon.

Question 29.
Due to capillary action, water will rise inside a glass tube.
(a) The angle of contact in this case is (1)
(i) Acute
(ii) Obtuse
(iii) 90°
(iv) Zero
(b) Obtain an expression for the rise of liquid in the tube. (3)
(c) Water rises to different heights in glass tubes of different radii. Give reason. (1)
Answer:
(a) (iv) zero
(b)
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q29
Consider a capillary tube of radius ‘a’ dipped in a liquid of density r and surface tension S. If the liquid has a concave meniscus, it will rise in the capillary tube.
Let h be the height of the liquid in the tube.
Let p1 be the pressure on the concave side of the meniscus and p0, that on the other side.
The excess pressure on the concave side of the meniscus can be written as
pi – p0 = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~S}}{\mathrm{R}}\) ………(1)
Where R is the radius of the concave meniscus.
The tangent to the meniscus at the point A makes an angle q with the wall of the tube.
In the right-angled triangle ACO
Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023 with Answers Q29.1
Considering two points M and N in the same horizontal level of a liquid at rest,
pressure at N = pressure at M
But pressure at M = pi, the pressure over the concave meniscus, and pressure at N = p0 + hrg
∴ pi = p0 + hrg
or pi – p0 = hrg …….(3)
From equations (2) and (3), we get
hρg = \(\frac{2 S \cos \theta}{a}\)
h = \(\frac{2 S \cos \theta}{\text { apg }}\)

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Which among the following is an invalid number?
a) (10110)10
b) (769)8
c) (ABC)16
d) (111)2
Answer:
b) (769)8 because 9 is not allowed in octal number system.

Question 2.
Which among the following is the fastest memory in a computer?
a) Registers
b) Cache
c) Hard Disk
d) RAM
Answer:
a) Registers

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a keyword in C++?
a) float
b) for
c) cin
d) int
Answer:
c) cin. It is not a keyword.

Question 4.
The conditional operator (?:) inC++ is a
a) Unary operator
b) Binary operator
c) Ternary operator
d) Logical Operator
Answer:
c) Ternary operator

Question 5.
Write equivalent C++ statement for the Mathematical equation z = x<sup>y</sup>.
Answer:
z = pow(x, y);

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 6.
SIM cards are used in mobile phones. Write the full form of SIM.
Answer:
Subscribers Identification Module

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Match the following:

a) First generation computers 1) Microprocessor
b) Second generation computers 2) Vaccum Tube
c) Third generation computers 3) Integrated Circuit
d) Fourth generation computers 4) Transister

Answer:

a) First generation computers 2) Vaccum Tube
b) Second generation computers 4) Transister
c) Third generation computers 3) Integrated Circuit
d) Fourth generation computers 1) Microprocessor

Question 8.
Convert the hexadecimal number (A2D)16 into octal equivalent.
Answer:
It first convert it into binary and then convert it into octal.

Step 1: First convert it into binary for this write down the corresponding binary equivalent of each symbol in 4 digits
(A2D)16 = (101000101101)2

Step 2: Then convert this into octal for this divide the number into groups of 3 bits and write down the corresponding octal equivalent.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 1
Hence the answer is (5055)8

Question 9.
Write four complementory approaches to promote green computing.
Answer:
Green Design, Green Manufacturing, Green Use and Green Production.

Question 10.
Write short notes about the methods of program documentation.
Answer:
There are two types of documentation internal and external.

  1. Internal documentation- Writing comments in source code such as including name of the programmer, purpose of the code etc. This user tips will help in debugging and future modifications.
  2. External documentation – It includes preparation of user manual and system manual.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 11.
Identify tokens in the following C++ statement and write in which type they belong to. float x = 3.14;
Answer:
float – Keyword.
x – Identifier.
= – Operator.
3.14 – Literal.
; – Punctuator.

Question 12.
Write use of data type modifiers in C++. Give two examples of data type modifiers.
Answer:
By using data type modifiers we can change the size, range and precision of data types.
They are signed, unsigned, long and short.

Question 13.
Comments are useful to enhance readability and understandability of a program. What are the methods of writing comments in a C++ program?
Answer:
There are two methods to add comments in C++.

  1. Single Line comment(//)- It starts with II, means the string after // in the line is treated as comment. It is not the part of the program
  2. Multi line comments(/* and */)- It starts with /* and ends with */, means the string enclosed between these two even in multiple line is treated as comment.

Question 14.
Write syntax of it …… else statement in C++.
Answer:

if(Test expression)
{
Statement block 1;
}
else
{
Statement block2;
}

Question 15.
Compare binary search method with linear search method and write advantage of binary search method.
Answer:

Binary search Linear search
It requires sorted array No need of sorted array
Divide and conquer method so no need to visit all the elements May need to visit all the elements
Takes less time Takes more time
Suitable for large sized array Suitable for small sized array.

Question 16.
Write built – in functions in C++ for the following:
a) To get number of character in a string.
b) To append one string to another string.
a) To find absolute value of an integer.
b) To convert a given character into uppercase.
Answer:
a) strlen();
b) strcat();
c) abs();
d) toupper();

Question 17.
What are the advantage of using broadband internet connection over a dial-up connection?
Answer:
The advantages are

  • It is a high speed connection.
  • It is always on connection.
  • Simultaneous use of voice and data possible.

Question 18.
What is a computer worm? How does it differ from computer virus?
Answer:
It is a stand alone malware program that replicates itself in order to spread to other computers. It slows down the traffic by consuming the bandwidth. In 2000 a worm called “ILOVEYOU” is affected many computers.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 30. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
The analytical Engine has many features found in modern digital computer. What are they?
Answer:
Analytical engine :- In 1833, Charles Babbage introduced this. Charles Babbage is considered as the “Father of computer” It is considered as the predecessor of today’s computer. This engine vyas controlled by programs stored in punched cards. These programs were written by Babbage’s assistant, Augusta Ada King, who was considered as the first programmer in the World.

Question 20.
NAND gate is called universal gate because all other logic gates can be derived using NAND gate alone. How will you connect NAND gates to implement inverter, OR gate and AND gate? Draw logic circuits.
Answer:
By using NAND and NOR gates only we can create other gate hence these gates are called Universal gate.

Question 21.
Write the statement of De Morgan’s First theorem. Prove it algebraically.
Answer:
(a + b))’ = a’.b’ OR The complement of the sum of boolean variables is equal to the product of their individual complements.
We have to prove that (a + b)’ = a’.b’
Let us take z = a + b (1)
z’ = (a + b)’ (2)
We know that by complementary law z + z’ = 1 and z.z’= 0
Replace z and z’ with the values of (1) and (2) respectively.
So (a + b) + (a + b)’ = 1 (3)
(a + b).(a + b)’= 0 (4)
Let us assume that De Morgan’s first theorem is true, so (a + b)’=a’.b’
Hence Equation (3) and (4) becomes as follows (a + b) + (a’, b’) =1 (5)
(a + b).(a’.b’) = 0 (6)
Now we have to prove Equations (5) and (6). If they are true then we will conclude that the De Morgan’s theorem is also true.
Consider the LHS of Eq. (5)
(a + b) + (a’.b’) = (a + b + a’). (a + b + b’) by Distributive law
= (a + a’ + b).(a + b + b’) by Commutative law.
= (1 + b).(a + 1) by Complementary law
= 1.1 (Basic Postulates)
= 1
= RHS
Now let us consider the LHS of Eq.(6).
(a + b).(a’.b’) = (a.a’.b’) + (b.a’.b’) Distributive law
= (a.a’.b’) + (b.b’.a’) Commutative law
= (0.b’) + (0.a’) Complementary law
= 0 + 0 (Basic postulates
= 0
= RHS
Hence the theorem is proved

Question 22.
Draw flow chart symbols and write their meanings standardized by American National Standards Institute.
Answer:
Flow chart symbols are explained below
1) Terminal (Oval)
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 2
It is used to indicate the beginning and ending of a problem

2) Input/Output (parallelogram)
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 3
It is used to take input or print output.

3) Processing (Rectangle)
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 4
It is used to represent processing
That means to represent arithmetic operation such
an addition, subtraction, multiplication….

4) Decision (Rhombus)
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 5
It is used to represent decision making. It has one entry flow and two exit flows but one exit path will be executed at a time.

5) Flow lines (Arrows)
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 6
It is used to represent the flow of operation

6) Connector
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers 7

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 23.
What is explicit type conversion (type casting)? Explain with example.
Answer:
This is done by the programmer. The programmer forcibly convert the data type into another type. Its syntax is (data type to be converted) expression;
Eg. int x=10;
(float) x;

Question 24.
What is an identifier? Write the rules to be followed while creating an identifier in C++.
Answer:
These are user defined words. Eg. Variable name, function name, class name, object name etc.
The rules are

  1. It starts with alphabet.
  2. Underscore is considered as an alphabet.
  3. Digits can be used followed by an alphabet.
  4. Keywords cannot be used.
  5. Special characters cannot be used.

Question 25.
Write a list of operations that can be performed on arrays.
Answer:
Array operations – Traversal, Sorting and Searching.

Question 26.
Consider the following C++ statement:
char name [20];
cm >> name;
cout << name;
What will be the output if you input the string “Abdul Kalam”? Justify your answer. Rewrite the code using a console function to input a string.
Answer:
It is output is Abdul. Because cin reads the characters upto the space. Here space is the delimiter. To read characters including white spaces use gets() function. Instead of cin»name; use gets(name);

Question 27.
Write the two methods of calling functions in C++. What are the differences between these two methods?
Answer:
Two types call by value and call by reference.
1. Call by value: In call by value method the copy of the original value is passed to the function, if the function makes any change will not affect the original value.
Example

#include<iostream.h>
#include<conio.h>
void swap>(int a, int b)
{
int temp;
temp=a;
a=b;
b=temp;
}
main()
{
clrscr();
int a,b;
cout<<“Enter values for a and b:- “;
cin>>a>>b;
cout<<“The values before swap a=”<<a<<“ ,and
b=”<<b;
swap(a,b);
cout<<“\nThe values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
getch();
}

2. Call by reference: In call by reference method the address of the original value is passed to the function, if the function makes any change will affect the original value.

Example

#include<iostream.h>
#include<conio.h>
void swap(int &a, int &b)
{
int temp;
temp=a;
a=b;
b=temp;
}
main()
{
clrscr();
int a,b;
cout<<“Enter values for a and b:- ";
cin>>a>>b;
cout<<“The values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
swap(a,b);
cout<<“\nThe values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
getch();
}

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 28.
What is recursion? Write a recursive function that returns factorial of a non – negative integer. Rewrite the function without using recursion.
Answer:
A function calls itself is called recursive function. Using recursive function long int fac(int n)

{
if(n==0)
return(1);
else
retum(n*fac(n-1));
}
Without using recursive function long int fac(int n)
{
for(i=1;i<=n;i++)
fact=fact*i;
}

Question 29.
Write a brief description about any three wireless communication technologies using radio waves.
Answer:

  1. Bluetooth: This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile , phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.
  2. Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity): It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets, Mobile phones etc.
  3. Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access); It uses micro waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2 GHz to 11 GHz over very long distance.

Question 30.
Write any three advantages of social media.
Answer:

  1. Bring people together: It allows people to maintain the friendship.
  2. Plan and organize events: It allows users to plan and organize events.
  3. Business promotion: It helps the firms to promote their sales.

Answer any two of the questions from 31 to 33. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 31.
Write a description about general purpose application software.
Answer:
Programs developed to serve a particular application is known as application software, eg:- MS Office, Compression Utility, Tally etc.
Application software can further be sub divided into three categories.
a) Packages
b) Utilities
c) Customized Software

a) Packages: Application software that makes the computer useful for people to do every task. Packages are used to do general purpose application.

b) Utilities: Utilities are programs which are designed to assist computer for its smooth functioning.

c) Specific purpose software (Customized software): It is collection of programs which are developed to meet user needs to serve a particular application. It is also called tailor made software.

Question 32.
What is the use of looping statements? Looping / Explain elements of a looping statement with suitable example.
Answer:
Iteration statements: If we have to execute a block of statements more than once then iteration statements are used.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2020 with Answers

Question 33.
Explain advantaged of using networked computers instead of using stand -alone computers.
Answer:

  • Resource sharing: All the computers in a network can share software (programs, data ………………..) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).
  • Reliability: If one computer fails, the other computer can perform the work without any delay. This is very important for banking, air traffic control and other application.
  • Price Vs Performance: A main frame computer can be 10 times faster than a PC but it costs thousand times a PC. Therefore instead of a main frame 10 personal computers are used with less cost and same performance.
  • Communication Medium: It is a powerful communication medium. We can exchange information between computers in a network.
  • Scalable: This means, System performance can be increased by adding computers to a network.

 

Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

 

Board SCERT
Class Plus Two
Subject Physics
Category Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum: 60 Scores

General Instructions to candidates:

  • There is a ‘cool off-time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
  • You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
  • Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
  • Read questions carefully before you answering.
  • All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
  • When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
  • Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
  • Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
  • Give equations wherever necessary.
  • Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

The given value of constants can be used wherever necessary.

Velocity or light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s
Plank’s constant, h = 6.64 × 10-34 Js
Charge of electron, e = 1.6 × 10-19C
Mass of the electron, m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg
Avogadro number = 6.025 × 1023 atom/mol
ε0 = 8.854  × 10-12 CN-1 m-2
μ0 = 4π × 10-7 Tm/A

Questions 1 and 2 carry 1 Score each. Answer both. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
How will you represent a resistance of 3700 Ω ± 5% using colour code?
Answer:
Orange, Violet, Red and Gold.

Question 2.
Draw the symbol of NAND gate.
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 15

Answer any six questions from question number 3 to 10. Each question carries 2 Scores. (Scores: 6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Two equal and opposite charges placed in air as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 1
a) Redraw the figure and show the direction of dipole moment (P), direction of resultant electric field (E) at P.
b) Write an equation to find out the electric field at P.
Answer:
a)

b) \(\overline{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\overline{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\)

Question 4.
Calculate the electrical capacitance of earth. The radius of earth is 6400 km.
Answer:
Capacitance of earth C = \(4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{R}\)
C = \(4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\) × 6400 × 103
= 710.8 µF

Question 5.
What do you mean by drift velocity? Write the relation between drift velocity and electric current.
Answer:
The average velocity acquired by an electron under the applied electric field is called drift velocity.
I = neAVd

Question 6.
A galvanometer is connected as shown in the figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 2
a) This combination can be used as ………..
(voltmeter/rheostat/ammeter)
b) Derive an expession to find the value of resistance S.
Answer:
a) Ammeter
b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 17
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer, giving full deflection for a current Ig.
To convert it into an ammeter, a suitable shunt resistance ‘S’ is connected in parallel. In this arrangement Ig current flows through Galvanometer and remaining (I – Ig) current flows through shunt resistance.
Since G and S are parallel
P.d Across G = p.d across S
Ig × G = (I – Ig)s
S = \(\frac{\I_g G}{(I-\I_g )}\)

Question 7.
An unpolarised light incident on a medium as shown in figure.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 3
Show that the direction of reflected and refracted waves are mutually perpendicular.
Answer:
According to Brewster’s law
n = tan p = \(\frac{\sin p}{\cos p}\) ………(1)
According to Snell’s law
n = \(\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}\) …….(2)
Comparing (1) and (2), we get
\(\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}=\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}\)
sin x = cos p = sin(90 – p)
x = 90 – p, but p = r
x = 90 – r
x + r =90°
If x + r is 90°, angle between reflected and refracted ray will be 90°.

Question 8.
How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there in 16g of 8O16?
Answer:
Number of atoms in 16g of 8O16 = 6.023 × 1023
Number of protons = 8 × 6.023 × 1023
Numberof neutrons = 8 × 6.023 × 1023

Question 9.
The given block diagram shows general form of a communication system.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 4
a) Identify the blocks X and Y.
b) What is the difference between attenuation and amplification?
Answer:
a) X – transmitter
Y – Receiver
b) Attenuation: The loss of strength of a signal while propagating through a medium is known as attenuation.
Amplification: It is the process of increasing the amplitude of a signal.

Question 10.
What is the population covered by the transmission, if the average population density around the tower is 1200 km-2? The antenna height is 160 m.
Answer:
Distance travelled by the wave d = \(\sqrt{2 R h}\)
Area = πd2
= π(\(\sqrt{2 R h}\))2
= π2Rh
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.160 Km2
Population covered = Area × population density
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.16 × 1200
= 7.72 × 106

Answer any five questions from question number 11 to 16. Each question carries 3 Scores. (Scores: 5 × 3 = 15)

Question 11.
Two spheres encloses charges as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 5
a) Derive and expression for electric field intensity at any point on the surface S2.
b) What is the ratio of electric flux through S1 and S2?
Answer:
a) According to Guess law
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 18
b) Flux a charge
for first sphere Φ1 α Q
for second sphere Φ2 α 3Q
∴ \(\frac{\phi_{1}}{\phi_{2}}=\frac{Q}{3 Q}=\frac{1}{3}\)
= 1 : 3

Question 12.
The electric field lines of a positive charge is as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 6
a) Give the sign of potential difference Vp – Vq.
b) Give the sign of work done by the field in moving a small positive charge from ‘Q’ to ‘P’.
c) What is the shape of equipotential surface near the charge?
Answer:
a) positive.
b) negative.
c) spherical.

Question 13.
a) Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum:
i) used in radar systems.
ii) produced by bombarding a metal target by a high speed electrons.
b) Electromagnetic waves are produced by ………..
(charges at rest/charges in uniform motion/ charges in accelerated motion)
c) Why only microwaves are used in microwave ovens?
Answer:
a) i) Micro waves
ii) X – rays
b) Charges in accelerated motion.
c) The frequency of micro waves matches with the rotational frequency of water molecule.

Question 14.
Two thin convex lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are placed in contact:
a) If the object is at principal axis, draw ray diagram of the image formation by this combination of lenses.
b) Obtain a general expression for effective focal length of the combination in terms of f1 and f2.
Answer:
a)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 19

b) Consider two thin convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 kept in contact. Let O be an object kept at a distance ‘u’ from the first lens L1, I1 is the image formed by the first lens at a distance v1.
Then from the lens formula, we can write,
\(\frac{1}{f_{1}}=\frac{1}{v_{1}}-\frac{1}{u}\) ……..(1)
This image will act as the virtual object for the second lens and the final image is formed at I (at a distance v). Then
\(\frac{1}{f_{2}}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{v_{1}}\) ……..(2)
Adding eq (1) and eq (2)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 20
If the two lenses are replaced by a single lens of focal length ‘F’ the image is formed at ‘v’. Then we can write,
\(\frac{1}{F}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\) …….(4)
from eq(3) and (4),
\(\frac{1}{F}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}\) …….(3)

Question 15.
A plane wave-front AB incident on a surface XY and undergoes refraction as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 7
a) Prove Snell’s law of refraction by using this figure.
b) What is the change in speed of propagation and frequency of the refracted wave?
Answer:
a) AB is the incident wavefront and c1 is the velocity of the wavefront in the first medium. CD is the refracted wavefront and c2 is the velocity of the wavefront in the second medium. AC is a plane separating the two media.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 21
The time taken for the ray to travel from P to R is
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 22
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable.
But the time to travel a wavefront from AB to CD is constant. In order to satisfy this condition, the term containing AO in eq (2) should be zero.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 23
where 1n2 is the refractive index of the second medium w.r.t. the first. This is the law of refraction.

b) Speed decreses
frequency remains same.

Question 16.
a) State radioactive decay law.
b) Prove the relation N(t) = N0e-λt.
Answer:
a) The number of nuclei undergoing decay per unit time is proportional to number of nuclei in the sample at that time.

b) According to Law of Radioactive decay,
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = -λN
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = -λdt
Integrating
In N = -λt + C …….. (1)
C is the constant of integration. To get value of C, let us assume that initially (t = 0) the number of nuclei be N0.
∴ C = In N0
Substituting for C in equation (1) we get,
In N – In N0 = -λt
In \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) = -λt
\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) e-λt
N = N0e-λt

Answer any four questions from question number 17 to 21. Each question carries 4 Scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 17.
Two charged partjeles q1 and q2 are moving through a uniform magnetic field (B) as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 8
a) What is the shape of path of q1 and q2.
b) Derive an expression for cyclotron frequency with the help of a neat diagram.
Answer:
a) q1 charges undergoes helical motion and q2 moves in a circular path.

b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 24
Let ‘v’ be the velocity of ion, q the charge of the ion and B the magnetic flux density. If the ion moves along a semicircular path of radius ‘r’, then we can write
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 25
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 26

Question 18.
The B-H curve of a ferromagnetic material is as shown in figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 9
a) What do you mean by ferromagnetic material? Write any two properties of it.
b) Identify the value of retentivity and coercivity from the figure.
c) A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the number of turns is 1000 per metre, calculate magnetic intensity (H) and magnetic field (B).
Answer:
a) Ferromagnetic substances are those which gets strongly magnetized in an external magnetic field.
Properties: High susceptibility and permeability.
b) Ob represents retentivity and Oc coercivity.
c) H = nI
= 1000 × 2
= 2 × 103 A/m
B = µsµrH
= µ0 × 400 × 2 × 103
B = IT

Question 19.
a) Derive an expression for self inductance of a solenoid.
b) What do you mean by eddy current? Write any two applications of it.
Answer:
a) Consider a solenoid (air core) of length/.number of turns N and area cross section A. let ‘n’ be the no. of turns per unit length (n = N/I)
The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid,
Φ = BAN
Φ = μ0nIAN (since B = μ0 ni)
but Φ = LI
∴ LI = μ0nIAN
L = μ0nAN
If solenoid contains a core of relative permeability
μr
Then L = μ0μrnAN

b) when magnetic flux in a metal block changes, induced currents are produced. This current is called eddy current.
Applications:

  • Magnetic beaking in trains
  • Damping
  • Induction furnace

Question 20.
The given graph shows the variation of KE with frequency of incident radiations for two surfaces A and B.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 10
a) Which of the two metals has greater work function? For which of the metals will stopping potential be more for the same frequency of incident radiation?
b) The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz incident on the metal surface, what is the maximum KE of the photoelectrons and stopping potential?
Answer:
a) A
b) KE = hυ – Φ0
= 6.6 × 10-34 × 6 × 1014 – 2.14 × 1.6 × 10-19
= 0.551 × 10-19 J
= 0.345 eV
∴ Stopping potential = 0.345 V

Question 21.
a) Name different series of lines observed in hydrogen spectrum.
b) Draw energy level diagram of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
a) Laymen, Balmer, Paschen, Bracket, Pfund
b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 27

Answer any three questions from question number 22 to 25. Each question carries 5 Scores. (Scores: 3 × 5 = 15)

Question 22.
The circuit diagram of a potentiometer for determining the emf ‘E’ of a cell of negligible internal resistance is as shown in figure.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 11
a) State the principle of working of a potentiometer.
b) How the balancing length AJ changes when the value of R1 decreases?
c) Derive an expression to find out internal resistance of a cell.
Answer:
a) Potential difference between two points of current carrying conductor is directly proportional to the length of the wire between two points.
b) Balancing length decreases.
c)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 28
The key (K1) in the primary circuit is closed and the key is the secondary (K2) is open. Jockey is moved to get zero deflection in galvanometer. The balancing length l1 (from A) is found out.
Then we can write.
E1 ∝ l1 …….. (1)
Key K2 is put in the circuit, corresponding balancing length (l2) is found out. Let V be the applied voltage, then
V1 ∝ l1 ……..(2)
‘V’ is the voltage across resistance box.
Current through resistance box
i.e., voltage across resistance,
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 29

Question 23.
The phasor diagram of the alternating voltage across an unknown device X and current flowing through it are shown below.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 12
a) Identify the device X.
b) Draw the graphical variation of current and voltage with ωt through this device.
c) Draw the phasor diagram which shows the relation among VR, VL, VC and I in a series LCR circuit.
Answer:
a) Resistor
b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 30
c)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 31

Question 24.
A ray of light passing through a prism. If the refracted ray QR is parallel to the base BC, as shown in figure.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 13
a) Derive an expression to find out deviation (d).
b) Draw a graph which shows the variation of ‘d’ with ‘i’.
c) Calculate the angle of minimum deviation if A = 60° and refractive index of the material of prism is 1.62.
Answer:
a)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 32
The angle between the emergent ray and incident ray is the deviation ‘d’.
In the quadrilateral AQMR,
∠Q + ∠R = 180°
[since N1M and NM are normal]
i.e., ∠A + ∠M = 180° …….(1)
In the Δ QMR,
∴ r1 + r2 + ∠M = 180° …….(2)
Comparing eq (1) and eq (2)
r1 + r2 = ∠A …….(3)
From the Δ QRT,
(i1 – r1) + (i2 – r2) = d
(i1 + i2) – (r1 + r2) = d
but, r1 + r2 = A
∴ (i1 + i2) – A = d

Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 33
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 34

Question 25.
The symbol of a diode is shown in the figure:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 14
a) The diode is a ………… (rectifier diode/photo diode/Zener diode)
b) Draw the VI characteristics of above diode.
c) A zener diode with VZ = 6.0 V is used for voltage regulation. The current through the load is to be 4.0 mA and that through the zener diode is 20 mA. If the unregulated input is 10.0 V, what is the value of series resistor R?
d) What is the fundamental frequency of the ripple in a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains?
Answer:
a) Rectifier diode
b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 35
c) I = IZ + IL
= 20 × 10-3 + 4 × 10-3
I = 24 × 10-3 A
Resistance R = \(\frac{V}{1}=\frac{10-6}{24 \times 10^{-3}}\)
R = 166.67 Ω
d) 100 Hz

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 3 questions from (a) to (e). Each carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
(a) Who is known as father of computer ?
(b) The pictorial representation of algorithm is known as _____________ .
(c) The ___________ operator gives the remainder value during arithmtic division in C++.
(d) In C++ array index or subscript starts with _____________ .
(e) In C++, ___________ function is used to find the square root of a number.
Answer:
a. Charles Babbage
b. Flowchart
c. % Or Modulus Operator Or MOD
d. 0
c. sqrt()

Answer any 11 questions from 2 to 19. Each carries 2 scores. (11 × 2 = 22)

Question 2.
(a) 1 Byte = ____________ Bits
(b) 1 GB = 1024 ___________ .
Answer:
(a) 8
(b) MB or Mega Bytes

Question 3.
Prepare a short note on any one e-Waste disposal method.
Answer:

  1. Reuse -Second hand use or usage after the equipment has been upgraded or modified.
  2. Incineration -burn at high temperature
  3. Recycle -making new products from old one
  4. Land filling -buried in the soil

Question 4.
What is cache memory ?
Answer:
It is a high speed memory placed in between RAM and processor. It enhances the speed. Eg. L1, L2,…

Question 5.
Compare logical errors and syntax errors.
Answer:
Syntax error occurs due to violation of rules or syntax of the programming language .It will be displayed. Error in the logic of the program is called Logical error, it is due to the improper planning. Hence it gives incorrect output.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 6.
Write any two advantages of flow chart.
Answer:
Any two from the following

  1. Better communication
  2. Effective analysis
  3. Effective synthesis
  4. Efficient coding

Question 7.
List out the literals in C++.
Answer:

  1. Integer literal
  2. Floating point literal
  3. Character literal
  4. String literal

Question 8.
Describe about any two fundamental data types in C++.
Answer:
Any two from the following

SI.No Data Type Description Size
1 void Its for empty set 0
2 char to represent characters 1
3 int to represent integers 4
4 float to represent floating point (real) numbers 4
5 double to represent large floating point numbers 8

Question 9.
Compare break and continue statements in C++.
Answer:
break-: It is used for premature termination from the loop or switch.
continue-: It bypasses(skips) one iteration and continue the iteration with next value.

Question 10.
Write C++ statement to declare an array to store 10 integer values.
Answer:
int n[10];

Question 11.
Write short note on getline().
Answer:
getline()-: It is used to read a string from the console(keyboard).
Eg. cin.getline(str.len);
cin.getline(str,len,ch);

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 12.
What is the use of write( ) function in C++ ?
Answer:
Write()-: It is used to display a string on the monitor.

Question 13.
Briefly explain function argument in C++.
Answer:
Arguments are the values passing to the function while it is calling.

Question 14.
Write the names of any two character functions in C++.
Answer:
Any two character functions from the following

  1. islower()
  2. isupper()
  3. isdigit()
  4. isalpha()
  5. isalnum()
  6. tolower()
  7. toupper()

Question 15.
Write the name of string functions used for the following purposes:
(a) To find the length of a string.
(b) To compare two strings.
Answer:
(a) strlen()
(b) strcmp() or strcmpi()

Question 16.
Write short note on :
(a) Modem
(b) Switch
Answer:
(a) Modem:

  • It is a device used to connect a computer to the internet.
  • Its name derived from modulator and demodulator.
  • Modem converts digital signals to analog signals(modulation) and analog signals to digital signals(demodulation)

(b) Switch:
• Switch is an intelligent device used to connect computers devices of the same network.

Question 17.
Discuss about the advantages of Social Media.
Answer:
Any two points from the following :

  1. Bring people together
  2. Plan and organise events
  3. Business promotions
  4. Social skills

Question 18.
What is computer virus?
Answer:
Virus is a bad program used to corrupt or delete, data from our computer.

Question 19.
Write short note on hacking.
Answer:
Hacking is a technical effort to manipulate the normal behaviour of network connections and connected systems. The person who performed this is called hackers. Eg. White hats, Black hats and Grey hats

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Answer any 10 questions from 20 to 39. Each carries 3 scores. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 20.
Explain Fourth generation computers.
Answer:
Any three points from the following

  1. Microprocessors were used
  2. They are also called microcomputers.
  3. They use Very Large Scale Integration VLSI () technology.
  4. A microprocessor consists of millions of transistors and components.
  5. Semiconductors were used as main memory.
  6. Fourth generation computers were more portable and reliable.

Question 21.
Write a short note on representation of integer numbers in computer memory.
Answer:

  • Sign and magnitude representation(SMR): In SMR the MSB is used for representing sign,1 for -ve and 0 for +ve and the remaining bits for its magnitude.
  • 1’s complement representation-: In this method replace all 1 by 0 and 0 by 1.
  • 2’s complement representation-: 2′ s complement representation can be calculated by Adding 1 to 1’s complement representation.

Question 22.
briefly explain principle of duality.
Answer:

  • There will be a dual for every Boolean expression
  • It is obtained by replacing every AND with OR and every OR with AND
  • It is also obtained by replacing 1 with 0 and 0 with 1

Question 23.
Prepare a short note on RAM.
Answer:
Any three from the following

  1. Random Access Memory
  2. temporary memory
  3. volatile memory / data is lost when power is off
  4. stores data , instruction , results etc

Question 24.
Differentiate between Primary Memory and Secondary Memory.
Answer:
Primary memory holds data, intermediate results and results of ongoing jobs temporarily.
Eg: Any one from (RAM, ROM, Cache)
Secondary memory holds data and information permanently.
Eg: Any one from (Hard disk, CD, DVD, Pen drive etc)

Question 25.
Draw the flow chart to find the area of a circle.
[Hint area = 3.14 × r2]
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 1

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 26.
List out the stages of phases in programming.
Answer:

  1. Problem identification
  2. Algorithm and flowchart
  3. Program coding
  4. Translation
  5. Debugging
  6. Execution and testing
  7. Documentation

Question 27.
Categorise the following identifiers as valid or invalid.
sum, 1a, Class No,
reg-no, int, a * b
Answer:
Valid identifiers – sum
Invalid identifier – 1a , class No , reg-no , int, a*b

Question 28.
Briefly explain about structure of a C++ program.
Answer:

# include <iostream> /#include<header file>
using namespace std ; 
int main ()
{
statements
}
Question 29.
Prepare a short note on comments in C++.
Answer:
Comments in C++ are used for giving internal documentation (user tips). It will not be executed by the compiler.
Single line comment //
Multiline comment /* ………………… */Question 30.
Which are the relational operators in C++ ?
Answer:

  • < less than
  • <= less than or equal to
  • > greater than
  • >= greater than or equal to
  • == equal to
  • != not equal to

Question 31.
Consider the following code fragment of a C++ program.
cout <<“Enter your choice”; cin >> choice;
if (choice = = 1)
cout<<“Science”;
if (choice = = 2)
cout <<“Humanities”;
Rewrite the above code fragment using switch statement .
Answer:
cout <<“Enter your choice”;
cin >> choice;
switch(choice)
{
case 1 : cout <<“Science”; break;
case 2 : cout<<“Humanities”;
}

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 32.
Briefly explain about if and if-else statement in C++.
Answer:
if statement
First it will check the condition and execute the body only if the condition is true

Syntax:
if (test expression)
{
statement block ;
}

if ….else statement
if else will check the condition and execute the if part if the condition is true and else part if the condition is false,

Syntax:
lf(test expression)
{
statement block;
}
else
{
statement block;
}

Question 33.
List out the array operations.
Answer:
Any three from the following

  1. Traversal
  2. Inserting
  3. Deleting
  4. Sorting
  5. Searching
  6. Merging

Question 34.
Write down a C++ program to find the sum of n integer numbers stored in an array.
Answer:

# < include <iostream>
using namespace std ;
int main ()
{
int n, A[20] , i ,s=0;
cout<<“Enter the limit”; 
cin>>n;
cout<<“Enter the numbers”;
for( i=0 ; i<n; i++) 
{ 
cin>>A[i];
s= s+A[i];
}
cout<<“sum is “<<s;
}

Question 35.
Briefly explain about merits of modular programming.
Answer:
Any 3 points from the following

  1. Reduces the size of the program
  2. Less chance of errors
  3. Reduces programming complexity
  4. Improves re usability

Question 36.
Write the name of any three mathematical functions in C++.
Answer:
Any three from the following

  1. abs()
  2. pow()
  3. sqrt()
  4. sin()
  5. cos()

Question 37.
What are the advantages of Computer network ?
Answer:
Any three from the following :

  1. Resource sharing
  2. Reliability
  3. Price / Performance ratio
  4. Communication
  5. Scalability

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 38.
Write short note on following :
(a) MAC
(b) IP
Answer:
(a) MAC Address – Media Access Control
It is a universally unique 12 digit hexadecimal (48bit binary) number provided to each NIC by its manufacturer

(b) IP address – Internet Protocol Address
It is a unique numeric address assigned to each node on a network by the network administrator or the Internet Services Provider. Eg:IPv4 or IPv6.

Question 39.
Briefly explain about any two services on Internet.
Answer:
Any two explanation from the following

  1. www – is a system of inter linked hyper text documents accessed via the Internet
  2. Web browser – A piece of software used to access internet.
  3. Web browsing – The process of accessing internet is called web browsing.
  4. Search engine: special programs used to help people to find information in www
  5. E-mail – Electronic mail – method of exchanging digital messages between computers over internet
  6. Social media – refers to the use of mobile and web – based technologies through which individuals and communities can create, share, discuss and modify content.

Answer any 1 question from 40 to 42. Each carries 5 scores. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 40.
Answer the following :
(a) Convert (87)10 to binary number system.
(87)10 = (____________)2 (1)
(b) Convert (101101 )2 to octal number system. (101101)2
(101101)2 = (___________)8 (1)
(c) Convert (5A9)16 to binary number system.
(5A9)16 = (__________)2 (1)
(d) Draw circuit diagram for AND, OR gates. (2)
Answer:
(a) 10101112
(b) 558
(c) 0101101010012
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 2

Question 41.
Explain about iteration or loop statements in C++.
Answer:
Loop statement – control statements used to execute a block of statements repeatedly
• for
• while
• do… while
for (initialisation expression ; test expression ; update expression)
{
Body of the loop ;
}

while loop
Initialisation expression;
while (test expression)
{
Body of the loop ;
Update expression;

do ………while loop
initialisation;
do
{
body of the loop ;
update statement;
}
while (test expression);

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 42.
List the major topologies used in Computer Network. Write short note on any one topology.
Answer:

  1. Bus topology
  2. Star topology
  3. Ring topology
  4. Mesh topology

Any one from the following
Bus topology- In bus topology all the nodes are connected to a main cable called bus. A small device called a terminator is attached to each end of the bus.

Star topology – In star topology each node is directly connected to a hub switch.

Ring topology – In ring topology all nodes are connected using a cable that shapes like a ring or circle Data travels only in one direction in a ring.

Mesh topology – In mesh topology every node is connected to other nodes. There will be more than one path between two nodes.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any five questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
What is the major technological advancement in the fourth generation computers?
a) Transistor
b) Integrated circuit
c) Microprocessor
d) Vacuum Tube
Answer:
Micro processor

Question 2.
___________ memory is small and fast memory between the processor and RAM.
Answer:
Cache memory

Question 3.
Choose the correct exit controlled loop from the following looping statements written below:
a) while
b) for
c) do…while
d) None of the above
Answer:
do – while

Question 4.
____________ character is used as a string terminator and added at the end of the string.
Answer:
Null character(\0)

Question 5.
____________ function is used to check whether a character is in the upper case or not.
Answer:
isupper()

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 6.
The ability of a function to call itself is known as _____________
Answer:
Recursive function

Question 7.
A ___________ is a device that can interconnect differnt networks having different protocols.
a) Router
b) Bridge
c) Switch
d) Gateway
Answer:
Gateway

Answer any 9 questions from 8 to 19. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 8.
Do the following number conversions
a) (31 )10 to binary. (1)
b) (10001 )2 to decimal. (1)
Answer:
a) (31 )10 = (11111)2
b) (10001 )2 = (17)10

Question 9.
Define Data processing
Answer:
Data processing is the set of operations performed on data to produce meaningful information

Question 10.
Compare RAM and ROM
Answer:

RAM ROM
Read and write memory (Just like our note book) Read only memory (Just like our text book)
Faster Slower
Volatile Non volatile
Stores programs and data Stores BOOT programs

Question 11.
What is an Operating System?
Answer:
It is a collection of programs that act as an interface between user and computer, without OS computer is a bare machine. Eg. MS DOS, Windows, Linux, Ubuntu,…

Question 12.
What are the two types of Documentation?
Answer:
Documentation is the last phase in programming. A computerized system must be documented properly and it is an ongoing process. It is helpful for the modification of the program later. Two types of documentations are internal and external.

Question 13.
How are non-graphic characters represented in C++? Give an example.
Answer:
It can be represented by using escape sequences, which consists of back slash(\) followed by character. Eg. \0,\n,etc

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 14.
Write the purpose of default statement in switch statement.
Answer:
When no match is found then default statement will be executed.

Question 15.
Compare ‘break’ and ‘continue’ statements in C++.
Answer:

break continue
Used with switch and loops Used only with loops
It is used to quit the loop or switch It is used to bye pass one iteration and continue the loop with next value

Question 16.
Define an array.
Answer:
An array is a collection of elements with same data type. Syntax Data_type Array_name[size];
Eg. int n[10]; It is an array of 10 integers.

Question 17.
Compare Linear search and Binary search.
Answer:

Linear Search Binary Search
The elements need not be in an order The elements must be in a sorted order
It may be visit all the elements Never visit all the elements
Suitable for small sized array Suitable for large sized array
Slower – Takes more time Faster- Takes less time

Question 18.
Explain the merits of modular programming.
Answer:
It reduces the size of the program as well as the complexities. Hence chance of error occurrences, is less. Improves the code reusability.

Question 19.
Pick the odd one out and give reason:
a) strlen()
b) itoa()
c) strcyp()
d) strcat()
Answer:
b) itoa, it is a conversion function all others are string functions.

Answer any 9 questions from 20 to 32. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 20.
Explain Von Neumann architecture of a computer with proper diagram.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 1
Functional units of computer
A computer is not a single unit but it consists of many functional units(intended to perform jobs) such as Input unit,Central Processing Unit(ALU and Control Unit), Storage (Memory) Unit and Output Unit.
1) Input Unit: Its aim is to supply data (Alpha-numeric, image , audio, video, etc.) to the computer for processing. The Input devices are keyboard, mouse, scanner, mic, camera, etc

2) Central Processing Unit (CPU): It is the brain of the computer and consists of three components

  • Arithmetic Logic Unit(ALU) – As the name implies it performs all calculations and comparison operations.
  • Control Unit(CU) – It controls over all functions of a computer
  • Registers – It stores the intermediate results temporarily.

3. Storage Unit(Memory Unit): A computer has huge storage capacity. It is used to store data and instructions before starts the processing. Secondly it stores the intermediate results and thirdly it stores inf<jrmation(processed data), that is the final results before send to the output unit (Visual Display Unit, Printer, etc)

Two Types of storage unit
i. Primary Storage alias Main Memory: It is further be classified into Two- Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory(ROM). The one and only memory that the CPU can directly access is the main memory at a very high speed. It is expensive hence storage capacity is less.

RAM is volatile (when the power is switched off the content will be erased) in nature but ROM is non volatile(lt is permanent)

ii. Secondary Storage alias Auxiliary Memory: Because of limited storage capacity of primary memory its need arises. When a user saves a file, it will be stored in this memory hence it is permanent in nature and its capacity is huge.Eg: Hard Disc Drive(HDD), Compact Disc(CD), DVD, Pen Drive, Blu Ray Disc etc.

4. Output Unit: After processing the data we will get information as result, that will be given to the end user through the output unit in a human readable form. Normally monitor and printer are used.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 21.
Represent-60 in 1’s complement form.
Answer:
Step 1 : Find the binary equivalent of + 60 + 60 in binary (in 8 bits) is (00111100)2
Step 2 : To take 1 ’s complement, change all ones to zeroes and all zeroes to ones.
So -60 in 1’s complement is (11000011 )2
Step 3 : To take 2’s complement add 1 to 1’s complement.
So -60 in 2’s complement is (11000011 )2 + 1 = (11000100)2

Question 22.
What is e-waste? Explain different e-waste disposal methods.
Answer:
e-Waste(electronic waste): It refers to the mal functioning electronic products such as faulty computers, mobile phones, tv sets, toys, CFL etc.

e-Waste disposal methods
a) Reuse: Reusability has an important role of e-Waste management and can reduce the volume of e-Waste
b) Incineration: It is the process of burning e-Waste at high temperature in a chimney
c) Recycling of e-Waste: It is the process of making new products from this e-Waste.
d) Land filling: It is used to level pits and cover by thick layer of soil.

Question 23.
What is mean by debugging? What are different types of errors in computer programs?
Answer:
The process of correcting errors(bugs) is called debugging. There are three types of errors Syntax error and logical error and run time error. When the programmer violates the syntactical rules then syntax error occurs and it is displayed after compilation. Eg. not using comma for multiple variable declaration, int x y z instead of int x, y, z; If the programmer makes a logical mistake then logical error occurs but it is not displayed at the time of compilation and may not get the correct answer. To find the product (*) of x and y, using + instead of *. Run time occurs during program execution

Question 24.
What are the rules for naming identifiers in C++?
Answer:
Rules for naming variables
a) A variable name must be starts with alphabets to z or A to Z) or Under score(_)
b) Digits can be used followed by an alphabet.
c) Keywords cannot be used.
d) While spaces and special characters are cannot be used.

Question 25.
Define data types in C++? List fundamental data types in C++.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 2

Question 26.
Rewrite the following statement using if…else statement.
result =mark>30? ‘p’: ‘f’:
Answer:
if(mark>30)
result=’p’;
else
result=’f’;

Question 27.
Write an algorithm for bubble sort.
Answer:
Following are the steps involved in bubble sort(for sorting a given array in ascending order):

  1. Starting with the first element(index = 0), compare the current element with the next element of the array.
  2. If the current element is greater than the next element of the array, swap them.
  3. If the current element is less than the next element, move to the next element. Repeat Step 1.

Question 28.
Differentiate between ‘get()’ and ‘getline()’ functions in C++.
Answer:
get() – To read a character or characters from the keyboard. Eg.cin.get(ch); orcin.get(str,10);
getline() – To read a string with specified length from the keyboard. Eg. cin.getline(str.len);

Question 29.
Write down the differences between call by value and call by reference function calling techniques in C++.
Answer:

Call by Value Method Call by Reference Method
Ordinary variables are used as formal parameters. Reference variables are used as formal parameters.
Actual parameters may be constants, variables or expressions. Actual parameters will be variables only.
The changes made in the formal arguments do not reflect in actual arguments The changes made in the formal arguments do reflect in actual arguments.
Exclusive memory allocation is required for the formal arguments. Memory of actual arguments is shared by formal arguments.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 30.
What is a computer network? What are the major advantages of a computer network?
Answer:
Computer network: Two or more computers connected through a communication media that allows exchange of information between computers is called a Computer Network. Eg: Internet

Need for network
The advantages of Networks are given below.

  1. Resource sharing: All the computers in a network can share software (programs, data) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).
  2. Reliability: If one computer fails, the other computer can perform the work without any delay. This is very important for banking, air traffic control and other application.
  3. Price Vs Performance: A main frame computer can be 10 times faster than a PC but it costs thousand times a PC. Therefore instead of a main frame 10 personal computers are used with less cost and same performance.
  4. Communication Medium: It is a powerful corfimunication medium. We can exchange information between computers in a network.
  5. Scalable: This Means, System performance can be increased by adding computers to a network.

Question 31.
Explain the main sections of e-mail with an example.
Answer:
E mail(Electronic mail): It is used to send text, multi media messages between computers over internet. An example of an email id is jobi_cg@rediffmail.com.

The email message contains the following fields.

  1. To: Recipient’s address will be enter here. Multiple recipients are also allowed by using coma.
  2. CC: Enter the address of other recipients to get a carbon copy of the message.
  3. bcc: The address to whom blind carbon copies are to be sent. This feature allows people to send copies to third recipient without the knowledge of primary and secondary recipients.
  4. From: Address of the sender
  5. Reply to: The email address to which replies are to be sent.
  6. Subject: Short summary of the message.
  7. Body: Here the actual message is to be typed.

Question 32.
Write the disadvantages of social media. What are the different ways to avoid the disadvantages of social media?
Answer:
Disadvantages of social media

  • Intrusion to privacy: Some people may misuse the personal information.
  • Addiction: sometimes it may waste time and money.
  • Spread rumours: The news will spread very quickly and negatively.

The following measures can be taken to avoid disadvantages of socila media

  • Avoid unnecessary uploading of personal data like e-mail address, phone number, address, pictures etc.
  • Set time schedule for using different websites.
  • Avoid posting wrong or misleading content on websites.
  • Set privacy levels (private, friends, public) such that you know exactly who can see your posts.

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 36. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 33.
a) State De Morgan’s theorems. (2)
b) Draw logic circuit for the Boolean expression X + \(\bar{Y}\). (2)
c) Draw the logical symbol of universal gates (2)
Answer:
a) De Morgan’s theorem
Demoraan’s first theorem states that
\(\overline{X . Y}\) = \(\bar{X} . \bar{Y}\)
ie. the compliment of sum of two variables equals product of their compliments.
The second theorem states that
\(\overline{X . Y}\) = \(\bar{X} + \bar{Y}\)
ie. The compliment of the product of two variables equals the sum of the compliment of that variables
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 3

Question 34.
a) What is flowchart? List any three advantages of flowcharts. (21/2)
b) Convert the following algorithm to corresponding flowchart. (21/2)
Step 1 : START
Step 2 : Input A, B, C
Step 3 : S = A+B+C
Step 4 : Avg = S/3
Step 5 : Print S, Avg
Step 6 : STOP
Answer:
a) The diagrammatic(pictorial) representation of algorithm is called flow chart.
Advantages are

  • Better communication
  • Effective analysis
  • Effective synthesis
  • Efficient coding

b) Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 4

Question 35.
a) Write the basic structure of a C++program. (21/2)
b) Explain any one method of type conversion in C++. (21/2)
Answer:
a)

#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
Body of the program
return 0;
}

b) Statements: Statements are smallest executable unit of a programming language. Each and every statement must be end with semicolon(;).

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 36.
What is Topology? Compare different LAN topologies
Answer:
Network topologies: Physical or logical arrangement of computers on a network is called structure or topology. It is the geometrical arrangement of computers in a network. The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.

1) Star Topology: A star topology has a server all ’ other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmit the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B. That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network is easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 5
2) Bus Topology: Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantages are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 6

3) Ring Topology: Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address. The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. If not, it passes to the next node.

It requires only short cable length. If a single node fails, at least a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 7

4) Hybrid Topology: It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology ahd mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.

a) Tree Topology: The structure of a tree topology is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmission takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 8
b) Mesh Topology: In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers 9

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Which is the MSB representation of – 90 in the sign magnitude representation method?
Answer:
1

Question 2.
Which flowchart symbol is always used in Pair?
Answer:
Connector symbol

Question 3.
Name a ternary operator in C++.
Answer:
conditional operator

Question 4.
________ is the built in function used to terminate the program.
Answer:
exit()

Question 5.
Expand the term Wi-MAX.
Answer:
Worldwide Interoperability for microwave access

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 6.
Acquiring information such as username, password, credit card detrails etc. using misleading websites is known as ……………………
Answer:
Phishing

Part – II

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
One of the following number is invalid, find it and state the reason for invalidity.
Answer:
(a) (101001)8
(b) (111)2
(c) (768)8
(d) (ABC)16
Answer:
(c) (768)8
(768)8 is invalid because the number 8 will not be used in Octal number system.

Question 8.
Write any 2 differences between RAM and ROM.
Answer:

RAM ROM
• It allows reading and writing. • Allows reading only.
• It is volatile. • Non-volatile.

Question 9.
Draw a flowchart to find the biggest of two numbers.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 1

Question 10.
Find the invalid identifier names from the following and give the reason for invalidity.
-8AC Z$ B7 for INT
Answer:
Z$ – $ Symbol is not allowed
for – Keyword is not allowed

Question 11.
What is L-value and R-value of a variable?
Answer:
L – value is the address and
R – value is the content of the variable

Question 12.
Compare entry controlled loop with exit controlled loop.
Answer:

Entry controlled loop Exit controlled loop
• No guarantee to execute at least once.

E.g. for, while

• Execute at least once.
E.g. do while

Question 13.
List the name of any 4 operations that can be performed on an array.
Answer:
Traversing, Searching, Insertion, Deletion.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 14.
Write an algorithm for linear search.
Answer:
Step 1 : Start
Step 2 : Read the search element, say x
Step 3 : Compare the x with the first element.
Step 4 : if not matched, complare with the next element
Step 5 : if matched, display “element found” and go to last step
Step 6 : Repeat step 3 and 4 until the last element
Step 7 : if no match, print “Element is not found”
Step 8 : Stop

Question 15.
Distinguish between call by value and call by reference method.
Answer:

Call by value method Call by reference method
Ordinary variables are used as formal parameters. Reference variables are used as formal parameters.
The changes made in the formal arguments do not reflect in actual arguments. The changes made in the formal arguments to reflect inactual arguments.

Question 16.
List the name of any 4 character functions in C++.
Answer:
isupper(), islower(), isalpha(), isdigit()

Question 17.
List and explain any 2 advantages of computer networks.
Answer:
Need for network
The advantages of Networks are given below.

  1. Resource sharing: All the computers in a network can share software (programs, data …………) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).
  2. Reliability : If one computer fails, the other computer can perform the work without any delay. This is very important for banking, air traffic control and other application.
  3. Price Vs Performance: A main frame computer can be 10 times faster than a PC but it costs thousand times a PC. Therefore instead of a main frame 10 personal computers are used with less cost and same performance.
  4. Communication Medium : It is a powerful communication medium. We can exchange information between computers in a network.
  5. Scalable: This means, System performance can be increased by adding computers to a network.

Question 18.
Write any 4 advantages of social media.
Answer:
Social Media helps to :

  1. Bring people together
  2. Plan and organize events
  3. Business promotion
  4. Social Skills

Part – III

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 29. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 19.
Match the following:

a. ABACUS 1. Charles Babbage
b. Napier’s Bones 2. Wheels and Gears
c. Pascaline 3. Counting Frame
d. Leibnitz’s Calculator 4. Punched Card
e. Jacquard’s Loom 5. Numbering Rods
f. Analytical Engine 6. Step Reckoner

Answer:

a. ABACUS 5. Numbering Rods
b. Napier’s Bones 2. Wheels and Gears
c. Pascaline 4. Punched Card
d. Leibnitz’s Calculator 6. Step Reckoner
e. Jacquard’s Loom 1. Chrles Babbage
f. Analytical Engine 3. Counting Frame

Question 20.
Construct a logical circuit for the expression
f (a, b) = (a + b) . (\(\overline{\mathrm{a}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{b}}\))
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 2

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 21.
Categorize the software given below into operating system, application software and utility program.
Answer:
Ubuntu, Open Office Calc, Windows, WinZip, GIMP, Kaspersky
Answer:

OS Application software Utility program
Ubuntu, Windows Open Office Calc, GIMP WinZip, Kaspersky

Question 22.
Explain the different types of errors that are occurred during the compilation and running of a program.
Answer:
There are two types of errors in a program before execution and testing phase.They are syntax error and logical error. When the programmer violates the rules or syntax of the programming language then the syntax error occurred. Eg: It involves incorrect punctuation. Key words are used for other purposes, violates the structure etc,… It detects the compiler and displays an error message that include the line number and give a clue of the nature of the error. When the programmer makes any mistakes in the logic, that types of errors are called logical error. It does not detect by the compiler but we will get a wrong output. The program must be tested to check whether it is error free or not. The program must be tested by giving input test data and check whether it is right or wring with the known results. The third type of errors are Runtime errors. This may be due to the in appropriate data while execution. For example consider B/C. If the end user gives a value zero for c, the execution will be interrupted because division by zero is not possible. These situation must be anticipated and must be handled.

Question 23.
Explain any 3 Tokens available in C++.
Answer:
Token: It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens
1) Keywords: These are reserved words for the compiler. We can’t use for any other purposes Eg: float is used to declare variable to store numbers with decimal point. We can’t use this for any other purpose

2) Identifier: These are user defined VvdtdS. Eg: variable name, function name, class narrle; Pbject name etc…

3) Literals (Constants): Its value does not change during execution
1) Integer literals -: Whole numbers without fractional parts are known as integer literals, its value does not change during execution. There are 3 types decimal, octal and hexadecimal.
Eg. For decimal 100, 150, etc
For octal 0100, 0240, etc
For hexadecimal 0 × 100,0 × 1 A,etc

2) Float literals -: A number with fractional parts and its value does not change during execution is called floating point literals.
Eg. 3.14157, 79.78, etc

3) Character literal-: A valid C++ character enclosed in single quotes, its value does not change during execution.
Eg. ‘m’, ‘f ’ etc

4) String literal -: One or more characters enclosed in double quotes is called string constant. A string is automatically appended by a null character(‘\0’)
Eg. “Mary’s”,’’India”,etc

Question 24.
Write another 3 forms of the C++ statement a = a +1;
Answer:
a++; ++a; a+=1;

Question 25.
What is the role of relational operators in C++? Distinguish between == and =
Answer:
== is an relational operator. It is used for comparing two expressions in C++. -’ is an assignment operator
Used to assign values from RHS to LHS.

Question 26.
Distinguish between break and continue statements in C++.
Answer:

Break Continue
Used with switch or loops Used only with loops
Takes the control outside the Loop Does not take control out of loop
Causes to terminate the loop Skips one iteration of the loop

Question 27.
Differentiate between put ( ) and write ( ) with an example.
Answer:
Output function: The outputt functions like put() (to print a character on the screen) and write() (to print a line of characters on the screen) is used with cout and dot(.) operator.

Function Example Description Header file
put() cout.put(ch) cout.put(‘a’) To print a character on the screen iostream
write() cout. write (str, len) To print a string with specified length on the sreen iostream

Question 28.
Write a short note on any 3 network topologies.
Answer:
Bus topology – In bus topology all the nodes are connected to a main cable called bus. A small device called a terminator is attached to each end of the bus.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 3
Star topology – In star topology each node is directly connected to a hub switch.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 4
Ring topology in ring topology all nodes are connected using a cable that shapes like a ring or circle Data travels only in one direction in a ring.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 5

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 29.
Explain about the following social medias.
a) Internet Forums
b) Content communities
c) Micro blogs
Answer:
a) Internet forums : It is an online discussion site where people can exchange information about various issues like social, political, educational etc. in the text form.
b) Content communities. By using these websites we can share multi media files.
Eg. www.youtube.com
c) Microblogs : It allows users to exchange short messages, multi media files etc.
Eg. www.twitter.com

Part – IV

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 30.
(a) Explain any 3 methods of representing integer numbers in computer memory? (3)
(b) Find the one’s complement of – 38 (2)
Answer:
(a) There are three ways to represent integers in computer. They are as follows:
1) Sign and Magnitude Representation (SMR)
2) 1’s Complement Representation
3) 2’s Complement Representation

1) SMR: Normally a number has two parts sign and magnitude, eg:- Consider a number +5. Here + is the sign and 5 is the magnitude. In SMR the most significant Bit (MSB) is used to represent the sign. If MSB is 0 sign is +ve and MSB is 1 sign is-ve.
eg :- If acopiputer has word size is 1 byte then

+5 is represented as

0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1

-5 is represented as

1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1

Here MSB is used for sign then the remaining 7 bits are us£d to represent magnitude. So we can represent 27 = 128 numbers. But there are negative and positive numbers. So 128 + 128 = 256 number. The numbers are 0 to +127 and 0 to -127. Here zero is repeated. So we can represent 256 – 1 = 255 numbers.

2) 1’s Complement Representation: To get the 1 ’s complement of a binary number, just replace every 0 with 1 and every 1 with 0. Negative numbers are represented using 1’s complement but +ve number has no 1 ’s complement.
eg:- To find the 1’s complement of-21
+21 = 00010101
To get the 1 ’s complement change all 0 to 1 and all 1 to 0.
-21 = 11101010
∴ 1’s complement of -21 is 11101010
Eg: Find the 1’s complement of +21
Positive numbers are represented by using SMR.
+21 = 00010101 (No need to take the 1’s complement)

3) 2’s Complement Representation : To get the 2’s complement of a binary number, just add 1 to its 1’s complement +ve number has no 2’s complement.
eg:- To find the 2’s complement of -21
+21 =00010101
First take the 1 ’s complement for this change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 6
∴ 2’s complement of-21 is 1110 1011

(b) (38)10 = (100110)2
So +38 = 00100110
One’s complement of-38 is 11011001
Changed all ones to zero and all zeros to one.

Question 31.
(a) What do you mean by e-Waste? (1)
(b) Explain any 4 methods of disposing e-Waste? (4)
Answer:
(a) e-Waste(electronic waste): It refers to the mal functioning electronic products such as faulty computers, mobile phones, TV sets, toys, CFL etc.

(b) e-Waste disposal methods
a) Reuse: Reusability has an important role of e-Waste management and can reduce the volume of e-Waste
b) Incineration: It is the process of burning e-Waste at high temperature in a chimney
c) Recycling of e-Waste : It is the process of making new products from this e-Waste.
d) Land filling: It is used to level pits and cover by thick layer of soil.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 32.
(a) Name and explain the different types of loops in C++. (3)
(b) Rewrite the following program using while loop. (2)
main( )
{
int a, p -1;
for (a = 1; a<=5; a+<2)
P=P*a;
cout<<p;
}
main( )
{
int a, p – 1;
for (a = 1; a<=5; a+<2)
p=p*a;
cout<<p;
}
Answer:
1. while statement
It is an entry controlled loop. An entry controlled loop first checks the condition and execute(or enters in to) the body of loop only if it is true. The syntax is given below
Loop variable initialised
while(expression)
{
Body of the loop;
Update loop variable;
}
Here the loop variable must be initialised before the while loop. Then the expression is evaluated if it is true then only the body of the loop will be executed and the loop variable must be updated inside the body. The body of the loop will be executed until the expression becomes false.

2. for statement
The syntax of for loop is
for(initialization; checking ; update loop variable)
{
Body of loop;
}
First part, initialization is executed once, then checking is carried out if it is true the body of the for loop is executed. Then loop variable is updated and again checking is carried out this process continues until the checking becomes false. It is an entry controlled loop.

3. do – while statement : It is an exit controlled loop. Exit control loop first execute the body of the loop once even if the condition is false then check the condition.
do
{
Statements
}while(expression);
Here the body executes at least once even if the condition is false. After executing the body it checks the expression if it false it quits the body otherwise the process will be continue.

b)
main()
{.
int a=1,p=1;
while(a<=5)

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 7 From Food Production to Food Security Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 7 From Food Production to Food Security Notes Questions and Answers

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 7 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
What kind of food crops does Neetu cultivate for daily purposes?
Answer:

  • Eggplant
  • Brinjal
  • Yard long beans
  • Snake gourd
  • Lady’s finger
  • Spinach
  • Yam
  • Sorghum

Question 2.
How is surplus production used?
Answer:

  • Gave some to Keerthi’s house
  • Sold to market

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 3.
What are the benefit of such farming?
Answer:

  • Pesticide free
  • Availability of healthy and fresh vegetables

Question 4.
What are the benefits of mixed farming?
Answer:

  • Livestock can utilise crop residues and by-products, reducing waste and improving water use efficiency.
  • Provides multiple income streams, ensuring more stable and reliable farm revenue.
  • Promotes biodiversity.
  • Reduces the environmental impact through integrated pest management and reduced reliance on chemical inputs.

Question 5.
You have learned about the different types of farming methods in our country, expand the below list by adding more features.
From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7 Img 1
Answer:

Subsistence farming Mixed farming Cultivation of plantation crops Cultivation of commercial crops
Production for own consumption. The same fertiliser can be used for multiple crops. Cost of production is relatively low. High capital investment.
Cultivation is possible even in small plots of land. Lower cost of production. Large-scale production. Provides raw materials.
Profit is not the primary objective. Provides multiple income. Long-term income. Use of modem technology.
Traditional agricultural tools are mostly used. Promotes biodiversity. Conserving soil and ecosystem. Large-scale production of agricultural products.

Question 6.
From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7 Img 2
a. Which of the crops seen in the picture are used for food?
b. Which are the other crops?
Answer:
a. Maize, Rice, Wheat
b. Rubber, Tea, Cotton

Question 7.
Find the crops of our country and complete the list.
Answer:

Food crops Cash crops
Rice Cotton
Wheat Rubber
Maize Tea
Pulses Coffee
Millets Jute

Question 8.
From the table given below, you can understand which crops grow in which states. Identify those states on the map and colour them.

Crops States
Wheat Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh and Haryana
Cotton Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana and Rajasthan
Rice West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Bihar

Answer:
From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7 Img 3

Question 9.
Mention the agricultural seasons in our country.
Answer:
Three distinct cropping seasons: –

  • Kharif
  • Rabi
  • Zaid

Question 10.
Can all crops be grown everywhere? Why? Make a note.
Answer:
No, not all crops can be grown everywhere because different crops have specific requirements for climate, soil type, water availability, and growing season. For example, rice needs a lot of water and warm temperatures, so it grows well in tropical and subtropical regions. Soil types vary in nutrients and drainage properties, which can affect crop growth. Farmers must choose crops that are suitable for their local environmental conditions to ensure good yields and sustainable farming practices.

Question 11.
Find more Agro-based industries that use agricultural products as raw materials and add them to the list.
Answer:

AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTS INDUSTRY
Cotton Textile industry
Sugarcane Sugar industry
Jute Textile industry
Wheat Food industry

Question 12.
From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7 Img 4
See the above images of minerals and areas where minerals are mined.
a. What are Minerals?
b. Where do we get these from?
c. What is the use of these?
Answer:
a. Minerals are metallic and non-metallic compounds found in the Earth’s crust
b. We get minerals from the Earth’s crust, where they are extracted through mining processes.
c.

  • Technology: Components for electronics, batteries, and computers.
  • Industry: Manufacturing processes and machinery.
  • Energy: Coal, uranium, and other resources for power generation.
  • Agriculture: Fertilizers to enrich soil.
  • Healthcare: Pharmaceuticals and medical devices.

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 13.
Important mineral-based industries.
Answer:

  • Iron and Steel industry
  • Copper industry
  • Aluminium industry
  • Cement industry
  • Glass industry
  • Ceramic Industry

Question 14.
What are the following minerals used for? Find their usages and complete the list.
Answer:

Minerals Usage
Hematite Manufacturing of iron bars
Silica (sand) Glass manufacturing
Bauxite Aircraft and electrical equipment
Diamond Jewellery
Coal Railway, Iron and Steel production
Petroleum Fuel, lubricant

Question 15.
Above mentioned are some of the problems faced by the Indian agriculture sector during the pre-independence and post-independence period. What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

  • The land tax system implemented by the British
  • Limited infrastructure
  • Outdated technology
  • Food shortage
  • Decline in agricultural productivity

Question 16.
Discuss and make notes on how the Green Revolution helped to eradicate food shortage and poverty in India.
Answer:
Green Revolution in India: Eradicating Food Shortage and Poverty
Introduction to the Green Revolution in India:

  • Initiated in the mid-1960s to address severe food shortages and dependence on food imports.
  • Focused on high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of wheat and rice, improved irrigation infrastructure, use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides, and agricultural mechanisation.

Key Aspects and Strategies:
1. High-Yielding Varieties (HYVs):

  • Introduction of new wheat and rice varieties with higher productivity.
  • Notable varieties: IR8 rice and Kalyan Sona wheat.

2. Irrigation Expansion:

  • Large-scale development of irrigation projects (dams, canals, tube wells).
  • Improved water management practices.

3. Use of Chemical Fertilizers and Pesticides:

  • Increased use of nitrogen-based fertilisers and chemical pesticides to boost crop growth and protect against pests.

4. Mechanization:
Adoption of tractors, harvesters, and other machinery to enhance efficiency and reduce labour costs.

Impact on Food Shortage:

1. Increased Food Production:

  • Substantial rise in wheat and rice production.
  • Wheat production: From 12 million tons in the early 1960s to over 50 million tons by the late 1970s.
  • Rice production: Significant increase, though less pronounced than wheat.

2. Food Self-Sufficiency:

  • India transformed from a food-importing country to self-sufficiency in food grains.
  • Reduction in dependency on foreign aid and food imports.

3. Reduction in Hunger and Famine:

  • Alleviation of severe hunger and prevention of famines, particularly in drought-prone regions.

Impact on Poverty:
1. Increased Farmer Incomes:

  • Higher crop yields and productivity led to increased incomes for farmers, especially those with access to land, water, and capital.

2. Rural Employment:

  • Creation of employment opportunities in agriculture and related sectors (transport, marketing, processing).
  • Increased demand for agricultural labour during planting and harvesting seasons.

3. Economic Growth:

  • Boost rural economies through increased agricultural productivity.
  • Stimulation of secondary industries (agro-chemicals, machinery, seed production).

4. Reduction in Rural Poverty:

  • Significant reduction in rural poverty levels due to increased agricultural incomes.
  • Enhanced living standards and improved access to education and healthcare.

Challenges and Limitations:
1. Environmental Concerns:

  • Soil degradation, water pollution, and decline in biodiversity due to excessive use of chemical inputs.

2. Resource Strain:

  • Over-extraction of groundwater and unsustainable irrigation practices.

3. Health Impacts:

  • Health issues arising from exposure to chemical fertilisers and pesticides.

4. Loss of Crop Diversity:

  • Focus on wheat and rice led to neglect of other important crops, affecting dietary diversity.

Question 17.
Many people in our society are unable to meet even their basic needs. What can we call the condition of not being able to fulfil such needs?
Answer:
Poverty

Question 18.
Complete the sun diagram by finding out other causes that lead to poverty.
From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7 Img 5
Answer:
Causes of poverty are:

  • Traditional practises
  • War
  • Political instability
  • Economic downturn
  • Inadequate social policies
  • Natural disasters

Question 19.
a. Find Kerala’s position among Indian states according to the Multidimensional Poverty Index.
b. Find out how much of Kerala’s poverty has decreased in 2019-2021 compared to 2015- 2016.
c. Find out how Kerala has achieved this and make a note
Answer:
a. Among the states, Kerala ranks first position
b. Poverty decreased by 0.15 per cent
c.
1. Strong Emphasis on Education:

  • High Literacy Rates: Kerala has one of the highest literacy rates in India. The state government has historically prioritised education, ensuring universal access to primary and secondary education.
  • Quality of Education: Investment in the quality of education, including better school infrastructure, qualified teachers, and innovative teaching methods, has led to high educational attainment among its population.

2. Strong Healthcare System:

  • Universal Healthcare: Kerala has a well-established public healthcare system that provides accessible and affordable healthcare services to its residents.
  • Health Indicators: The state boasts impressive health indicators, such as low. infant mortality rates and high life expectancy, due to its focus on preventive and primary healthcare.

3. Social Welfare Programs:

  • Comprehensive Social Safety Nets: Kerala has implemented various social welfare programs aimed at reducing poverty and inequality. These include pensions for the elderly, widows, and disabled individuals, as well as welfare schemes for marginalised communities.
  • Public Distribution System (PDS): An effective PDS ensures food security by providing essential commodities at subsidised rates to the poor.

4. Infrastructure Development:

  • Rural Development: Investment in rural infrastructure, including roads, electrification, and sanitation, has improved the quality of life in rural areas and reduced urban-rural disparities.
  • Urban Amenities: Kerala’s cities and towns are equipped with better urban infrastructure and services, enhancing living conditions for urban residents.

5. Decentralized Governance:

  • Local Self-Government: Kerala has effectively decentralised governance, empowering local bodies and communities to make decisions and implement development projects that directly benefit the local population.

6. Economic Factors:

  • Remittances: A significant portion of Kerala’s population works abroad, particularly in the Gulf countries. Remittances from these workers contribute substantially to the state’s economy, improving household incomes and reducing poverty.
  • Diversified Economy: Kerala’s economy is diversified with significant contributions from agriculture, services, and tourism sectors.

7. Cultural and Social Factors:

  • Progressive Social Norms: Kerala’s society has historically been progressive, with a focus on social justice and equity. Social movements and a strong civil society have played crucial roles in advocating for the rights and welfare of marginalised groups.
  • Community Participation: Active participation of the community in developmental activities and strong grassroots organisations have been pivotal in implementing and sustaining poverty alleviation programs.

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 20.
Find out the beneficiaries of the poverty schemes in your area. Also find the similar schemes that exist and make a note.
Answer:
Through the poverty alleviation schemes, people in my village can receive employment and income; it also provides livelihood for the people who are suffering through financial hardship.

  • It also ensures food security for the people.
  • It also provides pension coverage for old age people.
  • It also ensures the health of the people by conducting camps and vaccinations on time.

(By conducting research and engaging with local authorities and community organisations, you can collect detailed information on the beneficiaries of poverty alleviation schemes in your area and identify similar schemes that exist at both the state and central levels.)

Question 21.
Prepare a questionnaire to organise an interview with Kudumbashree unit members in your area in order to understand how Kudumbashree’s work is helpful in poverty alleviation.
Answer:
(Hints: Kudumbashree Interview Questionnaire)

  1. Can you please introduce yourself and tell us about your role in the Kudumbashree unit?
  2. How long have you been associated with Kudumbashree?
  3. Can you give us a brief overview of Kudumbashree’s mission and objectives?
  4. What motivated you to join Kudumbashree?
  5. What are the main activities and projects undertaken by your Kudumbashree unit?
  6. How often do you meet, and what typically happens during these meetings?
  7. How has participating in Kudumbashree helped you and your family economically?
  8. Can you provide examples of income-generating activities initiated by your unit?
  9. Have you received any financial support or loans through Kudumbashree? If yes, how has it impacted your livelihood?
  10. Apart from economic benefits, how has Kudumbashree contributed to your personal and social development?
  11. How has your participation in Kudumbashree affected your confidence and decision-making abilities?
  12. What kind of training and capacity-building programs have you attended through Kudumbashree?
  13. How have these trainings improved your skills and knowledge?
  14. Is there anything else you would like to share about your experience with Kudumbashree?

Question 22.
Why can’t Food safety be ensured?
Answer:

  • Climate change
  • Low income
  • Industrialisation
  • Rise in price
  • Imbalance in distribution
  • Lack of availability of food
  • Economic Pressures
  • Emerging Risks
  • lack of training and poor hygiene practices
  • Resource Limitations

Question 23.
Which are the government agencies that distribute food grains at subsidy rates? Find
Answer:

  • Civil suppliers
  • Triveni Super Market
  • Food Corporation of India
  • State food corporation
  • Ration shops
  • Public distribution system

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Find out and describe the farming practices that use advanced technology as opposed to traditional farming practices.
Answer:
Here are some key advanced technologies used in modern agriculture:
1. Precision Agriculture:

  • Uses GPS and satellite imagery to monitor and manage crops and soil.
  • Enables farmers to apply water, fertilisers, and pesticides more efficiently.

2. Drones and UAVs:

  • Monitor crop health, soil conditions, and irrigation needs from above.
  • Provide real-time data and high-resolution images for better decision-making.

3. IoT and Sensors:

  • Deploy sensors in fields to monitor soil moisture, temperature, and nutrient levels.
  • IoT devices collect and transmit data for real-time analysis and automated adjustments.

4. Automated Machinery:

  • Tractors, harvesters, and planting equipment equipped with automation and robotics.
  • Reduces labour costs and increases precision in planting, harvesting, and other tasks.

5. Vertical Farming and Hydroponics:

  • Grow crops in controlled indoor environments with stacked layers.
  • Utilize nutrient-rich water solutions instead of soil, conserving water and space.

Question 2.
Prepare a seminar paper on ‘poverty alleviation programmes and poverty Eradication’.
Answer:
(Hints: using the below programme prepare a seminar report)
1. Growth-oriented approach: The growth-oriented approach assumes that the economic growth of the economy will reduce the magnitude of poverty. It is based on the expectation that the effects of economic growth led to a rapid increase in gross domestic product, and per capita income would spread to poor sections of society.

2. Creation of assets and employment to generate income Expanding self-employment and wage employment programmes are being considered as the major ways of addressing poverty. a) Self Employment Programmes, Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY), Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP), Swarna Jayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), Swarna Jayanthi Shahri Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY), National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM).

b) Wage Employment Programmes, National Food for Work Programme, Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY), National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP) In 2005 Indian Parliament passed the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. The act guaranteed 100 days wages employment to every rural household. NREGP has now been renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MGNREGP).

3. Providing minimum Basic amenities to people:
a) a) Food Security Programmes: Public Distribution System, Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS), Mid-day meal scheme.
b) Social security programmes: Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana, Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme, Janasree Bima Yojana, Atal Pension Yojana.

Question 3.
Organise interviews with Kudumbashree members regarding the activities of Kudumbashree.
Answer:
(Hint: Based on the following questions, conduct an interview in your locality)
Sample Interview Questions
Activities:
1. Can you describe the specific activities you participate in through Kudumbashree?
2. How do these activities benefit you and your family?
Impact:
1. What changes have you noticed in your community since you started participating in Kudumbashree activities?
2. Can you share a success story from your experience with Kudumbashree?
Challenges:
1. What are the main challenges you face in your Kudumbashree activities?
2. How do you think these challenges can be addressed?

Support and Resources:
1. What type of support do you receive from Kudumbashree (training, financial, etc.)
2. Are there additional resources or support you feel would be beneficial?
By following this plan, you can effectively organise and conduct interviews with Kudumbashree members to gain a comprehensive understanding of their activities and the impact of Kudumbashree on their lives and communities.

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 4.
Find out the features of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme and answer the questionnaire given below.
Answer:

Year of implementation of the scheme 2005
Objective of the scheme 100-day work for the rural people
The first two districts to implement the project in Kerala Palakkad and Wayanad
Number of working days guaranteed 100
Current daily wages as per the scheme 320 per person
What are the activities included in the scheme Construction of check dams, ponds, and other water bodies.
Activities aimed at improving the moisture retention capacity of the soil.
Development of micro-irrigation facilities.

Class 7 Social Science From Food Production to Food Security Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Differentiate between cash crops and food crops.
Answer:
Food crops are grown primarily for direct consumption (either human or animal), while cash crops are grown primarily for commercial sale and profit, not direct consumption.

Question 2.
List the important cropping seasons.
Answer:
Three distinct cropping seasons: –

  • Kharif
  • Rabi
  • Zaid

Question 3.
What are the major differences between mixed farming and subsistence farming?
Answer:
Subsistence Farming

  • This is the method in which farmers produce and use only the products required for their sustenance.
  • Profit is not the primary objective of this method.
  • Traditional agricultural tools are mostly used in this farming.

Mixed Farming

  • Mixed farming is the simultaneous cultivation of more than one crop in a given plot of land.
  • Along with this, livestock rearing, poultry farming, fish farming, etc. can also be combined.
  • Livestock feed comes from agriculture.
  • Manure required for agriculture is also obtained from livestock.
  • The cost of production will be relatively low.

Question 4.
Explain the origin of Agriculture.
Answer:

  • Agricuiture has played a crucial role in transforming human beings from hunter-gatherers to a modem man.
  • The necessary systems for social life, such as family, community, village and town, emerged with the beginning of agriculture.
  • Over a peri9d of time, man shifted from subsistence-based agriculture to market-based agriculture.
  • The crops that can be directly consumed as food are called food crops.
  • Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 5.
Define plantation crops.
Answer:

  • With the arrival of the British, the farmers who traditionally cultivated paddy and other food crops started cultivating plantation crops like tea, coffee, cloves, cardamom, and pepper in large areas.
  • Britishers ‘promoted plantation crops in the colonial countries from the beginning of the 19th century.
  • Long-term income and relatively low cost of production are the characteristics of this farming method.

Question 6.
Name the non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

  • Limestone
  • Mica
  • Gypsum
  • Coal
  • Petroleum

Question 7.
Petroleum deposits are mostly confined to the coastal regions. Why?
Answer:
Fossil fuels include petroleum. It is created when the remains of marine life decompose. They are largely limited to the areas along the coast.

Question 8.
Define metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Metallic minerals are minerals that contain metal elements, while non-metallic minerals do not.

Question 9.
Which among the following is a mineral-based industry.
a. Sugar industry
b. Jute industry
c. Iron and steel industry
d. Cotton industry
Answer:
Iron and steel industry.

Question 10.
What was the Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Green Revolution was a series of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that took place from the 1940s to the late 1960s. It aimed to increase agricultural production worldwide, particularly in developing countries, through the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, and improved irrigation techniques.

Question 11.
What were the main goals of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
The main goals were to boost agricultural productivity, alleviate hunger and poverty, achieve food security, and stimulate economic growth in developing countries by adopting modern agricultural technologies and practices.

Question 12.
What were some of the key innovations of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Key innovations included the development and widespread adoption of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, which produced significantly higher crop yields compared to traditional varieties. Other innovations included the use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides, mechanised farm equipment, and improved irrigation systems.

Question 13.
Explain in the causes of poverty.
Answer:
Poverty’s causes are multifaceted, stemming from factors like lack of education, healthcare, and economic opportunities, as well as discrimination, conflict, and climate change, which can all contribute to a cycle of deprivation.

Question 14.
Define poverty.
Answer:
Poverty is a state or condition where individuals lack the financial resources and essentials for a basic standard of living, encompassing inadequate access to food, shelter, healthcare, and education, among other necessities.

Question 15.
Write about Hunger-free Kerala.
Answer:
The key objective of the Hunger-Free Kerala Project is to eliminate hunger and make Kerala a hunger-free state.
From 2017 to 2018, the project is being run with the help of Kudumbashree and local self- government bodies. Through such innovative projects, the aim is to achieve food security by ensuring adequate food for all.

Question 16.
Explain the objectives of life plan.
Answer:
To provide livelihood to dependents of victims of crime who are suffering financial hardship

Question 17.
How can we get out of poverty?
Answer:
The Central and State governments are implementing many poverty alleviation schemes to eradicate the poverty prevalent in our country. These projects can be classified into three categories:
Self-employment wage employment schemes
Food security projects
Social security schemes

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 18.
What is farming?
Answer:
Farming is the practice of cultivating land, growing crops, and raising animals for food, fibre, and other products used to sustain and enhance human life. It encompasses a variety of techniques and practices that have evolved over centuries to maximise productivity and sustainability.

Question 19.
What are plantation crops?
Answer:
Plantation crops are usually grown on large estates for commercial purposes and require specific climatic conditions. Examples include tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, and oil palm. These crops are typically labour-intensive.

Question 20.
What are the main characteristics of plantation farming?
Answer:
Characteristics of plantation farming include large-scale operations, monoculture (cultivation of a single crop over a large area), significant investment in infrastructure, intensive labour requirements, and production primarily for export markets.

Question 21.
What distinguishes commercial crops from subsistence crops?
Answer:
Commercial crops are grown for profit and are typically sold in national or international markets. In contrast, subsistence crops are grown primarily for the farmer’s family consumption, with little surplus for sale. Commercial crops often require more investment in terms of inputs and technology.

Question 22.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of commercial farming?
Answer:

  • Advantages: Increased income for farmers, employment opportunities, contribution to the national economy, and access to new technologies and improved farming practices.
  • Disadvantages: Can lead to environmental degradation, over-reliance on a single crop. (monoculture), potential displacement of small farmers, and vulnerability to market fluctuations and global trade dynamics.

Question 23.
What are the benefits of mixed farming?
Answer:
Benefits of mixed farming include enhanced soil fertility due to crop rotation and animal manure, reduced risk of crop failure, diversified income sources, and improved resource utilisation. It also promotes ecological balance and reduces dependency on a single agricultural product.

Question 24.
What are the different types of farming?
Answer:
Different types of farming include subsistence farming, commercial farming, mixed farming, organic farming, and intensive farming. Each type varies based on the scale of operation, the methods used, and the primary goals (e.g., food for family use vs. profit).

Question 25.
How do government policies influence the success of commercial farming?
Answer:
Government policies play a critical role by providing subsidies, ensuring access to credit, investing in infrastructure, offering extension services, setting trade policies, and enacting regulations that promote fair competition and sustainability. Supportive policies can enhance productivity and market access, while restrictive policies can hinder growth and innovation.

Question 26.
How does mixed farming contribute to food security?
Answer:
Mixed farming contributes to food security by diversifying production, which reduces the risk of total crop failure and ensures a steady supply of food products. It also provides a more balanced diet through the combination of crops and livestock products.

Question 27.
How can sustainable farming practices benefit the environment?
Answer:
Sustainable farming practices, such as crop rotation, organic farming,and agroforestry, can improve soil health, enhance biodiversity, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, conserve water, and prevent land degradation.

Question 28.
Write a note on the origin of agriculture.
Answer:
Nomadic man began farming around 7000 BCE. Humans started farming at different times in Mesopotamia, Turkey, Egypt, Western Asia and Europe; around 3000 BCE, an agrarian culture developed in India along with the Indus Valley Civilization. Cereals such as wheat, barley, etc., were cultivated in Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa, the twin cities situated along the banks of the river Indus. Agriculture started much later in South India.

Question 29.
Write a short note on agricultural crops.
Answer:
The diverse crops of India can be classified as food crops and cash crops. The crops that can be directly consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.
Food crops- Rice, wheat, maise, millets and pulses.
Cash crops- cotton, rubber, jute, tea and coffee.

Question 30.
Write the geographical factors of cultivation.
Answer:

  • Favourable climate
  • Irrigation facility
  • Fertile soil

Question 31.
Categories the following crops into food crops and cash crops.
Rice, wheat, cotton, tea, coffee, pulses, tobacco, maize, ragi, and rubber.
Answer:

Food crops Cash crops
  • Rice
  • Wheat
  • Pulses
  • Maize
  • Ragi
  • Cotton
  • Tea
  • Coffee
  • Tobacco
  • Rubber

Question 32.
Which is the major wheat-producing states in India?
Answer:

  • Punjab
  • Uttar Pradesh
  • Haryana
  • Himachal Pradesh
  • Uttarakhand
  • Rajasthan
  • Bihar

Question 33.
What is Agriculture and Agro-based industries?
Answer:
Agriculture involves the cultivation of crops, rearing of animals, and other activities related to food production. Agro-based industries are those industries that process agricultural raw materials into value-added products, such as food processing, textile manufacturing, and biofuel production.

Question 34.
What is the significance of agriculture and agro-based industries in the economy?
Answer:
Agriculture and agro-based industries play a vital role in economic development by providing food, raw materials, employment, and income generation opportunities. They contribute to GDP growth, foreign exchange earnings, rural development, and poverty alleviation.

From Food Production to Food Security Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 7

Question 35.
What are some examples of agro-based industries?
Answer:
Examples include food processing (e.g., milling, canning, dairy, meat processing), textile manufacturing (e.g., cotton spinning, weaving, garment production), biofuel production (e.g., ethanol, biodiesel), agrochemicals (e.g., fertilisers, pesticides), and pharmaceuticals (e.g., herbal medicines, plant-based drugs

Question 36.
What are the raw materials for agro-based industries?
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton, jute, rubber, oil seeds.

Question 37.
Which are the major agro-based industries in India?
Answer:
Sugar industry, cotton textile industry, jute industry, paper industry, woollen industry, silk industry, paint industry, varnish industry, soap industry, rubber industry, etc.

Question 38.
Name any three agro-based industries in India.
Answer:
i) Textile industry
ii) Jute industry
iii) Sugar industry.

Question 39.
Define metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Minerals are metallic and non-metallic compounds found in the Earth’s crust. Hematite, Magnetite, Calamine, Bauxite and Cinnabar are metallic minerals. Many of these are used in the industrial manufacture of metals. Mica, Diamond, Silica (Sand), etc., are non-metallic minerals.

Question 40.
What were the impacts of the Green Revolution on agricultural production?
Answer:
The Green Revolution led to substantial increases in crop yields, particularly for wheat, rice, and maize. It transformed many countries from food deficit to surplus regions, significantly improving food availability and reducing hunger and malnutrition.

Question 41.
What were some of the environmental consequences of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
The Green Revolution had both positive and negative environmental consequences. While it increased agricultural productivity and helped alleviate hunger, it also led to environmental degradation due to the overuse of chemical inputs, soil erosion, loss of biodiversity, and depletion of water resources.

Question 42.
What are the major causes of poverty.
Answer:

  • Unemployment
  • Corruption
  • Political instability
  • Price rise
  • Overpopulation
  • Inequality

Question 43.
Define multinational poverty index.
Answer:

  • The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is a new method developed to measure global poverty.
  • It was jointly prepared by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
  • Multidimensional poverty is calculated by assessing twelve indicators across three dimensions: health, education and standard of living of the members of a household.
  • Multidimensional poverty is calculated by taking into account how much each individual and family can achieve in terms of health, education and standard of living.

Question 44.
How is poverty measured?
Answer:
Poverty is commonly measured using income-based measures like the poverty line, which denotes the minimum income level needed to meet basic needs. Other measures include the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which considers factors such as health, education, and living standards.

Question 45.
How does poverty impact children?
Answer:
Poverty affects children by limiting their access to education, nutrition, healthcare, and safe living environments. It can lead to malnutrition, poor academic performance, higher dropout rates, and increased vulnerability to exploitation and abuse.

Question 46.
What are some strategies to reduce poverty?
Answer:
Strategies include improving access to education and healthcare, creating job opportunities, ensuring fair wages, implementing social safety nets, investing in infrastructure, promoting economic growth, and fostering inclusive policies that address inequality.

Std 7 Social Science From Food Production to Food Security Notes

  • Agriculture has played a crucial role in transforming human beings from hunter-gatherers to a modern man.
  • The necessary systems for social life, such as family, community, village and town, emerged with the beginning of agriculture.
  • Subsistence farming is a method in which farmers produce and use only the products required for their sustenance.
  • Traditional agricultural tools are mostly used in subsistence farming.
  • Mixed farming is the simultaneous cultivation of more than one crop in a given plot of land. The cost of production will be relatively low in mixed farming.
  • Britishers promoted plantation crops in the colonial countries from the beginning of the 19th century.
  • Cultivation of commercial crops is the large-scale production of agricultural products on a commercial basis.
  • The role of commercial crop farming is significant in providing agricultural raw materials to industries.
  • The crops that can be directly consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and
  • commercial significance. Agro-based industries are industries that depends on agricultural products.
  • Cotton, an agricultural product, is the raw material for the textile industry. So, the textile industry is an example of an Agro-based Industry.
  • Minerals are metallic and non-metallic.compounds found in the Earth’s crust.
  • Hematite, Magnetite, Calamine, Bauxite and Cinnabar are metallic minerals. Many of these are used in the industrial manufacture of metals.
  • Mica, Diamond, Silica (Sand), etc., are non-metallic minerals, while Coal and Petroleum are fuel minerals.
  • The iron ore industry is the largest mineral-based industry in the country.
  • Among food grains, the result of Green Revolution was first visible in wheat production. Hence, it is also called as ‘Wheat Revolution’.
  • Poverty is a condition in which basic human needs such as food, clothing, shelter, education and health are not accessible as per the requirement.
  • The poor are those who do not have access to income or property to meet even their basic needs. A poverty line is an imaginary line that divides the population of a country into those who are poor and those who are not.