Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum: 60 Scores

Questions from 1-7 carry one score each, answer all the questions. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Which of the following is an example of an ideal solution?
(a) Phenol + Aniline
(b) Ethanol + Acetone
(c) Acetone + Chloroform
(d) Benzene + Toluene
Answer:
(d) Benzene + Toluene

Question 2.
Identify the ore of zinc from the following:
(a) Siderite
(b) Malachite
(c) Haematite
(d) Calamine
Answer:
(d) Calamine

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Question 3.
Write the ‘Spin-only’ formula used to calculate the magnetic moment.
Answer:
\(\mu=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
n = no. of unpaired electrons.

Question 4.
Give one example for a hexadentate ligand.
Answer:
EDTA

Question 5.
What is the chemical name of aspirin?
Answer:
Acetyl Salicylic Acid

Question 6.
Which synthetic zeolite is used for converting alcohol to gasoline?
Answer:
ZSM-5

Question 7.
What are the main constituents of Dettol?
Answer:
Chloroxylenol and Terpinol

Questions 8-20 carry two points each. Answer any ten questions. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 8.
Write any two differences between crystalline and amorphous solids.
Answer:

Cystalline Substances Amorphous Substances
1. Definite shape. 1. Irregular shape.
2. Sharp melting point. 2. Melting point is in a range.
3. Long range order. 3. Short range order.
4. Anisotropic. 4. Isotropic.

Question 9.
A compound with cubic structure is made of elements X and Y. X atoms are at the corners of the cube and Y atoms are at the body centre. Write the simplest formula of the compound.
Answer:
No. of X atoms (corners) = \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 1
No. of Y atoms (body centre) = 1
X : Y = 1 : 1 i.e. XY

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Question 10.
When a zinc electrode (Zn (s)/Zn2+ (1m)) combines with SHE at 298 K and forms a galvanic cell. \(E_{\text {cell }}^0\) is found to be, 0.76 V. Write cell representation of the cell and calculate the standard electrode potential of the zinc electrode.
Answer:
When combined with SHE, the zinc electrode acts as an oxidation half cell (anode), while SHE acts as a reduction half cell or cathode.
\(E_{\text {cell }}^0\) = 0 – 0.76 = -0.76V

Question 11.
How many coulombs of electricity are required to produce 40 g of Al from Al3+ solution?
Answer:
Al3+ + 3e– → Al
3 Faraday is needed to deposit 27g aluminum.
3F → 27 g Al
\(\frac{3F}{27}\) → 1 g Al
\(\frac{3F}{27}\) × 40 → 40 g Al
(\(\frac{3}{27}\) × 40) Faraday → 40 g Al
4.44 F → 40 g Al

Question 12.
What is chemical kinetics? Give any importance to it?
Answer:
Chemical kinetics is the branch of chemistry that deals with the rate of chemical reaction, factors affecting the rate, and the mechanism of a reaction.
Applications:

  • To find how fast a medicine works.
  • Speed of a reaction.
  • Formation of ozone layer.

Question 13.
Explain homogeneous catalysis with one example.
Answer:
The catalysis in which both the reactants and the catalyst are in the same phase is called homogeneous catalysis.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q13

Question 14.
Explain Mond Process.
Answer:
Mond Process: In this process, nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide forming a volatile complex, nickel tetracarbonyl.
It is then decomposed to Ni and CO by heating at very high temperature.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q14

Question 15.
PH3 has a lower boiling point than NH3, why?
Answer:
Due to the presence of strong hydrogen bonds, NH3 has a high boiling point. But in PH3 no hydrogen bond is present so its boiling point is low.

Question 16.
Silver atom has filled ‘d’ orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. Why is it considered a transition metal?
Answer:
Because its +1 and +2 oxidation state has incomplete d subshell. So it is a transition element.

Question 17.
Actinoid contraction is greater than Lanthanoid contraction. Account for it?
Answer:
The 5f electrons of actinoids are more effectively shielded from nuclear Charge than the 4f in lanthanoids.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Question 18.
Draw the cis and trans isomers of [CoCl2(en2]+?
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q18

Question 19.
What is ‘DIBAL-H’? Give the importance of it?
Answer:
Diisobutylaluminium hydride (DIBAL – H) is a reducing agent.
Use: It can selectively reduce CN group or ester group without affecting double or triple bond.

Question 20.
Write the correct order of basic character of the following amines is (a) Gas phase and (b) in aqueous solution.
Answer:
In gas phase basicity is in the order 3° > 2° > 1°
(CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
In aqueous solution basicity is in the order 2° > 1 ° > 3°
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

Questions from 21-29 carry three points each. Answer any seven questions. (7 × 3 = 21)

Question 21.
Write any three applications of Henry’s law.
Answer:

  • Formation of bends as the scuba divers reach the Surface of the sea.
  • Anoxia: At high altitudes, the amount of oxygen in the air is low, which creates a headache and is known as Anoxia.
  • To increase the solubility of CO2 in water, soda water is kept under high pressure in sealed vessels.

Question 22.
Activity and selectivity are the two important terms used in catalysis. Explain these terms with suitable examples.
Answer:
Activity: Catalyst can increase the rate of a chemical reaction.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q22
The reaction takes place only in the presence of platinum.
Selectivity: A catalyst can direct a chemical reaction to a particular product.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q22.1

Question 23.
(a) Write the formula for the following coordination compounds.
(i) Tetra ammine aquachlorido cobalt (III) chloride
(ii) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
(b) Write the IUPAC names of the given coordination compound K[Co(SCN)4]
Answer:
(a) [CO(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
(b) K2[Zn(OH)4]
(c) Potassium Thiocyantatocobaltate (II)

Question 24.
Explain the SN1 mechanism with a suitable example.
Answer:
Step I: Formation of a carbocation
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q24
Step II: Attack of a nucleophile
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q24.1

Question 25.
Complete the following.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q25
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q25.1

Question 26.
Write any three methods for the preparation of ethanamine (C2H5-NH2).
Answer:
1. Reduction of nitriles
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q26
2. Reduction of Amides
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q26.1
3. Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
CH3CH2CONH2 + Br2 + NaOH → CH3CH2NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2H2O + 2NaBr

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Question 27.
Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Answer:

DNA RNA
Double stranded. Single stranded.
Nucleic acid present is deoxyribose. Nucleic acid present is deoxyribose.
Bases present are adenine, Thymine, cytosine, guanine. Bases present are Adenine, Uracil Cytosine and guanine.

Question 28.
(a) Name two synthetic polypeptide fibres.
(b) Indicate the monomers in each.
Answer:
(a) Nylon 6,6 – monomers – hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
(b) Nylon 6 – caprolactum

Question 29.
Explain the therapeutic action of the following:
(a) Antacids
(b) Analgesics
(c) Antibiotics
Answer:
(a) Antacid: Used to reduce acidity in the stomach.
(b) Analgesic: to reduce pain or painkillers.
(c) Antibiotics: are drugs which kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms which are prepared from other microorganisms.

Questions 30-33 carry fourscore each. Answer any three questions. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 30.
(a) Explain pseudo first order reaction with an example.
(b) A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 S-1. How long will 5g of this reactant take to reduce to 3g?
Answer:
(a) Reactions which appear to be higher order but follow first order kinetics are called pseudo first order reactions.
eg: CH3COOC2H5 + H2O → CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q30

Question 31.
(a) Why does ozone act as a powerful oxidising agent?
(b) How is O3 estimated quantitatively?
Answer:
(a) Because ozone on decomposition gives nascent oxygen, which is a powerful oxidizing agent.
O3 → O2 + [O]
(b) When ozone and potassium iodide react, iodine is liberated. Now this iodide is titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate using starch as indicator.
2I + H2O + O3 → 2OH + I2 + O2
2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaCl

Question 32.
(a) Explain the reason for the less reactivity of chlorobenzene than alkyl chloride?
(b) Identify the major product formed by the reaction of 2-bromobutane with alcoholic KOH. Give reason for it.
Answer:
(a) 1. Due to resonance effect, chlorobenzene develops a partial double bond character to the C-Cl bond which is difficult to break.
2. Instability of phenyl cation
3. Greater S character in sp2 hybridised c-atom, which is more electronegative. Thus the bond in chlorobenzene becomes shorter and difficult to break.
4. Electron rich benzene ring
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q32
According to Saytzeft rule, more symmetric products are favoured.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Question 33.
Explain the following reactions.
(a) Aldol condensation
(b) HVZ reaction
Answer:
(a) Aldehydes or ketones with α hydrogen atom undergo condensation in the presence of dil. alkali to form aldols. (β hydroxy aldehyde). This reaction is known as aldol condensation.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q33
(b) HVZ Reaction
Carboxylic acid with α hydrogen is heated with chlorine or bromine in the presence of red phosphorous to give α halo carboxylic acid.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers Q33.1

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf SAY 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper SAY 2019

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Which among the following is an object – oriented programming language?
a) Pascal
b) FORTRAN
c) C++
d) C
Answer:
c) C++

Question 2.
Which among the following is known as push operation?
a) Inserting a new data item into a stack.
b) Deleting an element from top of a sack.
c) Inserting an element in a queue.
d) Inserting an element in a linked list.
Answer:
a) lnserting a new data item to the stack

Question 3.
Which among the following does not belong to the group?
a) Drupal
b) Joomla
c) File Zilla
d) WordPress
Answer:
c) File Zilla

Question 4.
Write full form of SMTP.
Answer:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Question 5.
A web page can contain various links that direct to other web pages or specific parts of same web page. In HTML links are created using <A> tag. The attribute of <A>tag which specifies link destination is
Answer:
href

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Question 6.
The year in which IT act came into existence in India is …………………..
Answer:
2000

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
Structure combines different types of data under a single unit.
Write a structure definition in C++ which includes student details admission number, name, age and weight.
Answer:
struct student{
int admno;
char name[25];
int age;
float weight;
};

Question 8.
Which are the operations that facilitates dynamic memory allocation in C++? What are their functions?
Answer:
New is used to allocate memory during execution of the program. Delete is used to de-allocate the memory during run time.

Question 9.
What is reusability? How is reusability possible through inheritance?
Answer:
Once a class is defined, it can be used in other programs easily, this is called reusability. Inheritance allows the addition of more features to an existing class without modifying it. One can derive a new class from an existing one and add new features to it.

Question 10.
List any two applications of stack.
Answer:
Reversing a string, creating polish strings.

Question 11.
The user name and password of an e-mail account has to be sent securely over the Internet?
(a) Name the technology used to send data to the server securely.
(b) How does this technology support secure data communication?
Answer:
a) https(Hypertext transfer protocol secure)

b) It works using secure sockets layer, which provides a standard security technology for establishing an encrypted connection between computers on net.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Question 12.
How does browser execute JavaScript code?
Answer:
Every browser has a JavaScript engine. If the code snippet contains JavaScript code, it is passed to the JavaScript engine for processing, the engine executes the code. If there is no script then it processes without the help of script engine. Hence an HTML file without JavaScript is faster than with JavaScript code.

Question 13.
Write the keyword used to declare variables in JavaScript.
List different data types in JavaScript.
Answer:
In JavaScript, variables can be declared by using the keyword var.
Ex: var n;
The three basic data types are Number, String, Boolean.

Question 14.
Cardinality of two relations R1 and R2 are 10 and 8 respectively. They are union compatible.
a) What is the maximum possible cardinality of R1∪R2?
b) What will be the minimum cardinality of R1∩R2?
Answer:
a) 80
b) 0

Question 15.
What is primary key? How does it differ from alternate key?
Answer:
It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row in a relation. But a foreign key is a candidate key other than the primary key.

Question 16.
What are the methods of writing comments in PHP?
Answer:
There are two ways to write comments in PHP.

  1. Single line comment (//)- The text after // is treated as comment.
  2. Multi line comment- It starts with I* and ends with /*. The text enclosed between this is treated as comments.

Question 17.
Write any two advantages of parallel computing compared to serial computing.
Answer:

Serial computing Parallel computing
A single processor is used Multiple processors are used with shared memory
A problem is divided into a series of instructions A problem is divided into smaller ones that can be solved simultaneously
Instructions executed sequentially Instructions executed simultaneously
One instruction is executed on a single processor at any moment More than one instruction is executed on multiple processors at any moment of time.

Question 18.
What is e-Governance? List any two challenges to e-Governance.
Answer:
The integration of computers and communication technology for the benefit of Government functions to the public is termed as E-Governance. By this Govt can serve the citizen in a convenient, efficient and transparent manner.

Challenges-

  • Due to lack of e-Literacy, there is a difficulty to access the service of E-Governance
  • High Security measures are required because of possibility of cyber attack.
  • Implementation and maintenance requires huge amount and planning.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 30. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
Write differences between array and structure. (At least three differences.)
Answer:

Structure Array
Differences
1. It is a user defined data type
Predefined data type
2. It is a collection of different types of logically related data under one name. Collection of data elements of same data type having a common name.
3. Elements referenced using dot operator (.) Elements reference using its subscripts (position value)
4. When an element of a structure becomes another structure nested structure and complex structures are formed. When an element of another becomes another array, multidimensional arrays are formed.
5. Structure contains array as its elements Array of structure can be formed.

Question 20.
Write any three advantages of object oriented programming compared to procedural programming.
Answer:
Advantages of OOP are

  • OOP allows modularity
  • It is good for defining abstract data types
  • It allows data abstraction
  • fallows code reusability
  • ft supports to create new data type.

Question 21.
Write short notes about any six operations on data structures.
Answer:
Operations on data structures
a) Traversing: Accessing or visiting or reading all elements of a data structure is called Traversal.
b) Searching: Searching is the process of finding elements in a data structure
c) Inserting: It is the process of adding new data at particular location is called insertion.
d) Deleting: It is the process of removing a particular element from the data structure
e) Sorting: Arranging elements in a particular orderfascending or descending) is called sorting. Examples are bubble sort and selection sort.
f) Merging: This is the process of combining two sorted data structure and form a new one.

Question 22.
What is a data centre? What are the basic facilities required to set up a data centre?
Answer:
A data centre is a place where huge amount of data is stored by the organisations. The main objective of data centers are storing, processing, dispensing data to the clients. A data center requires huge memory, uninterrupted power supply, cooling system, high speed internet and high security.

Question 23.
(a) Which HTML tag is used to partition the browser window?
(b) Write HTML code to partition the browser window into two equal vertical partitions and load two
HTML documents sample 1.html and sample2.html in them.
Answer:
a) <frameset>

b) <framesetcols=”50%,*”>
<framesrc=”sample1.htmr>
<framesrc=”sample2.htmr>
</frameset>

Question 24.
Write built-in functions or properties in JavaScript to perform the following:
a) To display a message on the screen.
b) To check whether a value is number or not.
c) To get upper case form of a string.
d) To get lower case form of a string.
e) To get character at a particular position in a string.
f) To get number of characters in a string.
Answer:
a) alert()
b) isNaN()
c) toUpperCase()
d) toLoweCase()
e) charAt()
f) x.length();

Question 25.
What is web hosting? List different types of web hosting. What are the factors, to be considered while choosing web hosting?
Answer:
Buying or renting storage space to store website in a web server and provide sen/ice to all the computers connected to the internet. This is called web hosting.
Types of web hosting

  1. Shared hosting
  2. Dedicated hosting
  3. Virtual Private Server

Following factors to be considered while choosing web hosting
a) Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files.
b) If web page contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider.
c) Based upon the programs select Windows or Linux hosting.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Question 26.
List advantages (any six) of database management system compared to traditional file management system.
Answer:
1) Data Redundancy: Duplication of data is known as redundancy, i.e., the same data may be repeated in many files. It leads to higher storage and access cost. So data redundancy should be eliminated

2) Inconsistency can be avoided: If data redundancy exist, it may lead to data inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency can be avoided.

3) Data can be shared: If the computers are connected to a network, the data stored in the database can be shared among several users or programs.

4) Standards can be enforced: There is a standard BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) in the field of Gold and ISBN (International Standard Book Number) in the field of publication. Similarly here is also some standards like ANSI(American National Standards Institute), ISO (International Organization for standardization), etc.. For example a filed “Name” should have 40 characters is a standard.

5) Security restrictions can be applied: The database is of great value to a company or organization. Data security means protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized persons.

6) Integrity can be maintained: It ensures that the data entered in the database is correct. The data may contain in fcorrect information for example a date of birth can be 30/30/2001. To avoid this DBMS defines integrity check.

Question 27.
Write SQL commands for the following:
a) To remove a column from a table.
b) To remove a row from a table.
c) To modify data in a table.
Answer:
a) alter table <table name> drop <column name>;
b) delete from <tablename> where <condition>;
c) update <tablename> set <column name>=<new
value> [where <condition>];

Question 28.
What are the two methods of sending information from a form to web server? How do these two methods differ? (Write any four differences)
Answer:

Get Post
1. Faster Slower
2. To send small volume of data To send large volume of data
3. Less secure More secure
4. Data visible during submission Data not visible during submission

Question 29.
Write advantages of cluster computing.
Answer:
Cluster means groups. Here a group of Internet connected computers, storage devices, etc are linked together and work like a single computer. It provides computational power through parallel processing. Its cost is less and used for scientific applications.

Advantages

  • Price performance ratio: The performance is high and the cost is less.
  • Availability: If one group of system fails the other group will do the work.
  • Scalability: Computers can be easily added according to the work load increases.

Question 30.
What is e-Business? What are the challenges to e-Business?
Answer:
E business(electronic Business): Providing services or running business through internet is called E business.
Advantages of ebusiness:

  • It overcomes geographical limitations
  • It reduces the operational cost
  • It minimizes the time and cost
  • It remains open all the time
  • We can locate the product faster from a wider range of choices

Challenges to E business

  • Peoples are unaware of IT applications and its uses
  • Most peoples don’t have plastic money(credit / debit card) and net banking
  • It requires high security measurements otherwise you may lose money
  • We can’t touch or smell products through online
  • Some companies may not have proper Goods delivery service

Useful e Business websites
Address of website – Purpose / Service
www.irctc.in – Web site of Indian Railway and Tourism Corporation Ltd. to reserve and cancel train tickets and room booking
www.amazon.com – Us based marketing company headquarters in Washington
www.ebay.in – Largest online shopping site in India
www.licindia.com – Website of Life Insurance Corporation of India
www.airindia.com – Website of Air India to book / cancel air tickets
www.makemytrip.com – website for reserving and canceling tickets for journey and room booking www.keralartc.com – Website of KSRTC to book bus tickets

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 31.
(a) An HTML documents begins with <HTML> tag.
What are the attributes of <HTML>tag? Specify the values these attributes can take.
(b) Explain basic structure of an HTML document with a simple example.
Answer:
a) Attributes of <HTML>tag

  1. Dir-: It specifies the direction of text displayed on the webpage, values are Itr and rtl.
  2. Lang-: It specifies the language, values are En(English),Hi(Hindi),Ar(arabic), etc..

b) HTML page has a well defined structure. The main sections of HTML document are given below. <HTML>_____</HTML>
The entire HTML document is bounded with <HTML> and </HTML>
<Head> __________ </Head> This defines the head section. The head section,includes information such as document title, general style definition etc.
<Title>_________ </Title> This encloses a Title.
Title is given in head section. Text given in

<TITLE> _________ </TITLE>will displayed in the Title Bar.
<Body></Body>. Content of the document is written within <BODY> and </BODY>
Eg. <HTML>
<Head>
<Title>First Page</Title>
</Head>
<Body>
Hello
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 32.
Explain values (any five) that can be given to type attribute of <INPUT>tag.
Answer:
The ‘type’ attribute of <INPUT> tag is used to create different control. The main values of type attribute is given below.

  1. Text: Creates a single line Text Box.
    Eg. <INPUT Type= “Text”>
  2. Password: creates a password box in which characters are displayed by symbols like asterisk(*)
    Eg. <INPUT Type= “Password”>
  3. Check Box: Creates a check box.
    Eg. <INPUTType = “Check Box”>
  4. Radio: Creates option button (Radio Button)
    Eg. <INPUT Type= “Radio” Name=”sex” Value- ”M”>Male.
  5. Reset: Creates reset button. It is used to clear all the data entered
    Eg. <INPUT Type= “Reset”>

Question 33.
Consider the following table CUSTOMER.

AccNo. Name Branch Amount
1001 APPU CALICUT 40000
1002. ARUN KANNUR 20000
1003 VARUN CALICUT 10000
1004 THARUN KOTTAYAM 30000
1005 VARUN KANNUR 20000

Write output of the following SQL series:
a) Select Name from Customer where Amount>20000;
b) Select Avg(Amount) from Customer where Branch = ‘CALICUT’;
c) Select Name from Customer where Name like ‘A%’.
Write SQL queries for the following:
d) To rename the Table Customer as Customer2020.
e) To delete record with AccNo. 1003 from the table Customer2020.
Answer:
a)
Name
APPU
THARUN

b)
avg(Amount)
25000

c)
Name
APPU
ARUN

d)
alter table Customer rename to Customer2020;
b) delete from Customer2020 where AccNo= 1003

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum: 60 Scores

Answer the following questions from 1 to 40 up to a maximum score of 60.
Questions from 1 to 11 carry 2 scores each. (11 × 2 = 22)

Question 1.
Calculate the number of particles present per unit cell in the cubic lattice shown below:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q1
Answer:
bcc
Particles at the corner contribute \(\frac{1}{8}\).
Particles at 8 corners contribute
∴ \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 1
Particle at the centre contributes one as a whole.
∴ Total no. of particels = 1 + 1 = 2

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 2.
With the help of a diagram, represent the arrangement of valence band and conduction band in semiconductors and insulators.
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q2

Question 3.
Classify the following substances into ionic solids and molecular solids.
Answer:

Ionic Solid Molecular Solid
NaCl, Zinc Sulphide Ice, Solid NH3

Question 4.
What are isotonic solutions? Give one example.
Answer:
Isotonic solutions are solutions with the same osmotic pressure.
Blood plasma and 0.9% saline solution.

Question 5.
Write any two methods for preventing corrosion of metallic objects.
Answer:
Painting, galvanising, and applying grease.

Question 6.
The rate expression for a reaction is
Rate = k[A]1/2 [B]3/2
Calculate
(i) Overall order of reaction. (1)
(ii) Unit of rate constant. (1)
Answer:
(i) Overall order = \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{3}{2}=\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
(ii) Unit of rate constant for nth order = \(\mathrm{mol}^{1-\mathrm{n}} l^{n-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)
For second order = \(\mathrm{mol}^{-1} l^1 \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\)

Question 7.
Write any two characteristics of Chemisorption.
Answer:
Chemisorption – Due to chemical bonds, irreversible, specific.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 8.
How will you prepare XeF6? Give its structure.
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q8

Question 9.
What are interhalogen compounds? Write any one of its uses.
Answer:
Inter halogen compounds are compounds formed by two different halogen atoms.
eg. IF3, BrF5, CIF3, etc.
Uses:

  • Used for uranium enrichment
  • Are very useful chlorinating agents
  • Used as non-aqueous solvents (any one)

Question 10.
Identify the products A and B in the following reaction:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q10
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q10.1

Question 11.
Which among CH3COOH and Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q11 is more acidic? Give reason.
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q11.1 is more acidic due to the presence of an electron withdrawing Cl-group.
-I affect increases acidity.

Questions from 12-29 carry 3 scores each. (18 × 3 = 54)

Question 12.
‘Partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in solution.’
(i) Name the law stated above. (1)
(ii) Write any two applications of the law. (2)
Answer:
(i) Henry’s law
(ii) Applications of Henry’s law:

  • When a soda bottle opens, a fizz sound occurs.
  • Scuba divers use a little He dissolved in an oxygen cylinder.

Question 13.
(i) What are ideal solutions? (1)
(ii) A mixture of chloroform and acetone is a non-ideal solution. Identify the type of deviation shown by this mixture and give a reason for it. (2)
Answer:
(i) Ideal solutions – Obey Raoults Law
\(P_A=P^0 A \cdot x_n\)
or
ΔVmix = 0
or
ΔHmix = 0
(ii) Negative deviation: Due to the decrease in vapour pressure by the formation of H-bond between acetone and chloroform.

Question 14.
What are primary cells? Write an example for a primary cell and specify its anode and cathode.
Answer:
Primary cell – Can not be recharged or reused.
eg. dry cell, anode – Zn rod, cathode – graphite rod (carbon).

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 15.
Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q15
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q15.1

Question 16.
Write the expression for the integrated rate equation of a first order reaction and derive the equation for its half-life.
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q16

Question 17.
(i) What is meant by coagulation of sol? (1)
(ii) Write any two methods used for the coagulation of lyophilic Sols. (2)
Answer:
(i) Accumulation of colloidal particles is called coagulation of the sol.
(ii) By adding an electrolyte of oppositely charged colloidal particles.

Question 18.
(i) Which among the following pres can be concentrated by magnetic separation method? (1)
(A) Bauxite
(B) Haematite
(C) Zinc blende
(D) Calamine
(ii) Explain the hydraulic washing method for the concentration of ore. (2)
Answer:
(i) Haematite
(ii) Crushed ore is washed with running water, i.e., taken in a tank and water is poured. The gauge particles are washed away and heavier metals are left behind.

Question 19.
(i) What are the purposes of adding Na3AlF6 to purified alumina in the metallurgy of aluminium? (2)
(ii) Write any two uses of aluminium. (1)
Answer:
(i) To reduce the melting point of Alumina.
(ii) To make utensils, lab reagents.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 20.
(i) Explain Mond process for refining nickel. (2)
(ii) Which among the following can be refined by distillation? (1)
(A) Mercury
(B) Copper
(C) Silicon
(D) Zirconium
Answer:
(i)
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q20
M is treated with carbon monoxide and nickel tetra carbonyl is formed. It is again strongly heated to get decomposed.
(ii) Mercury

Question 21.
What is meant by lanthanoid contraction? Give its consequences.
Answer:
The steady decrease in atomic and ionic size of atoms from Lanthanum to Lutetium with increase in atomic number is known as Lanthanoid contraction.
Eg. Zr and Hf are similar
Consequences:

  • Second and third transition series elements are similar and very difficult to separate.
  • The basic strength of the hydroxides decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3.

Question 22.
(i) Why are the transaction and their compounds used as catalysts? (2)
(ii) Which is the transition metal compound used as catalyst in the contact process? (1)
Answer:
(i) Due to its variable oxidation state and vacant d orbitals.
(ii) V2O5

Question 23.
(i) Name the type of structural isomerism exhibited by the following pair. (1)
[CO(NH3)5(SO4)] Br and [Co(NH3)5Br] SO4
(ii) Draw the Geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]. (2)
Answer:
(i) Ionisation isomerism
(ii) Geometical isomers of [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] are:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q23

Question 24.
(i) Write the formulae for the following co-ordination compounds: (2)
(A) Tetraamminediaquacobalt (III) chloride
(B) Potassiumtetracyanidonickelate(II)
(ii) Which among the above is a homoleptic complex? (1)
Answer:
(i) A – [Co(H2O)2(NH3)4]Cl3
B – K2[Ni(CN)4]
(ii) Potassiumtetracyanidonickelate (II) or K2[Ni(CN)4] is homoleptic since it contains only one type of ligand.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 25.
(i) Describe the preparation of ethanol from molasses. (2)
(ii) What is meant by denaturation of alcohol? (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q25
(ii) Ethanol is made unfit to drink by adding a little amount of methanol or pyridine to it. This is known as denaturation of alcohol.

Question 26.
(i) Alcohols have higher boiling points in comparison to hydrocarbons of comparable molar mass. Give reason. (1)
(ii) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points: (2)
Propanol, Ethanol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol
Answer:
(i) Due to the presence of hydrogen bond.
(ii) Ethanol < propanol < butan 2-ol < butan 1-ol

Question 27.
(i) Name the type of linkage between the two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom in a disaccharide. (1)
(ii) Write two differences between DNA and RNA. (2)
Answer:
(i) Glycosidic linkage
(ii)

DNA RNA
1. Deoxyribonucleic acid 1. Ribonucleic acid
2. The nitrogen bases present are (ATCG) Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine 2. The nitrogen bases Present are (AUCG) Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine

Question 28.
(i) Write the monomers used for getting the following polymers.
(A) Nylon-6
(B) Polystyrene
(ii) Which among the following is a condensation polymer? (1)
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Buna-S
(C) Nylon-6,6
(D) Teflon
Answer:
(i) (A) Nylon-6 – Caprolactam
(B) Polystyrene – Styrene
(ii) Nylon 6, 6

Question 29.
Match the drugs in Column-I with their therapeutic action in Column II.

Column-I Column-II
(i) Antacid (A) Neurologically active drugs
(ii) Tranquilliser (B) Antimicrobial drugs
(iii) Disinfectant (C) Treatment for acidity

Answer:
(i) Antacid – Treatment for acidity
(ii) Tranquilizer – Neurologically active drug
(iii) Disinfectant – Antimicrobial drugs

Questions from 30-40 carry 4 scores each. (11 × 4 = 44)

Question 30.
Explain the following:
(i) Crystal lattice
(ii) Void
(iii) Frenkel defect
(iv) F-centres
Answer:
(i) Crystal lattice: Three dimensional representation of particles of a crystal.
(ii) Void: The interstitial space in the crystal lattice.
(iii) Due to the absence of a cation from its lattice and is seen in the void. No change in density.
(iv) F centre – Electron trapped anion vacancy.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 31.
Solids can be divided into five types based on their response to the magnetic field. Describe any four magnetic properties.
Answer:
1. Ferromagnetic substances: ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑
Magnetic moments are in the same direction.
eg: Fe, Ni
2. Antiferromagnetic substances: ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
Magnetic moments are in equal and opposite directions.
eg: MnO, NiO, Fe2O3
3. Ferrimagnetic substances: ↑↑↑ ↓↓ ↑↓
Magnetic moments are unequal and opposite in direction.
eg: Fe3O4, ZnFe2O4, MgFe2O4
4. Paramagnetic substances are attracted to a magnetic field and are shown by compounds or atoms with an unpaired electron.
eg. O2, Cu2+.

Question 32.
(i) What are colligative properties? (1)
(ii) Name any two colligative properties? (1)
(iii) Calculate the osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0 g of a polymer of molar mass 18500 g mol-1 in 450 mL of water at 37°C (R = 0.821 L atm k-1 mol-1) (2)
Answer:
(i) Colligative properties are those properties which depend only on the number of particles.
(ii) (1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(2) Depression in freezing point
(3) Elevation in boiling point
(4) Osmotic pressure

Question 33.
(i) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions. (2)
(ii) \(\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0\) for NaCl, HCl, CH3COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91.0 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. Calculate \(\Lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0\) for CH3COOH. (2)
Answer:
Kohlrausch Law
(i) The law states that the limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte is the sum of the limiting molar ionic conductivities of the cations and anions of the electrolyte present in the solution.
\(\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{NaCl}=\lambda_{\mathrm{Na}^{+}}^0+\lambda_{\mathrm{cl}}^0\)
(ii) \(\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COOH}=\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{COONa}+\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{HCl}-\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^0 \mathrm{NaCl}\)
= 91 + 425.9 – 126.4
= 390.5 S cm2 mol-1

Question 34.
Consider the following equation:
K = \(A e^{(-E a / R r)}\)
(i) What does the term ‘A’ represent? (1)
(ii) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles when temperature is increased from 300K to 310K. Calculate the activation energy. (3)
Answer:
(i) A – Arhenius factor
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q34

Question 35.
Explain the following:
(i) Lyophilic colloid
(ii) Peptization
(iii) Tyndall effect
(iv) Electrophoresis
Answer:
(i) Lyophillic Colloid: Dispersed phase with very high affinity for dispersion medium.
(ii) Peptization: Conversion of a precipitate to colloid.
(iii) Tyndal effect: Scattering of light by colloidal particles.
(iv) Electrophoresis: Movement of colloidal particles under electric field.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 36.
(i) Explain the Ostwald’s process for the preparation of nitric acid. (3)
(ii) Write any two uses of nitric acid. (1)
Answer:
(i) 1. Catalytic oxidation of NH3 to form NO in the presence of platinum.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q36
2. NO is converted to NO2
2NO + O2 → 2NO2
3. NO2 is treated with water to form HNO3
NO2 + H2O → HNO3
(ii) (a) Lab reagent
(b) Used for making fertilizers

Question 37.
(i) What are the products obtained when 2-Bromopentane is treated with alcoholic KOH? (2)
(ii) Identify the major product obtained in the above reaction. (1)
(iii) Name the rule that decides the formation of the major product. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q37
(ii) Major product is Pent-2-ene / CH3CH2CH=CHCH3
(iii) Saytzef Rule/Zaitsev Rule

Question 38.
Describe the following:
(i) HVZ reaction. (2)
(ii) Cannizaro reaction (2)
Answer:
(i) HVZ reaction: Carboxylic acid with α-hydrogen when treated with chlorine or bromine in the presence of red phosphorous gives α-halo carboxylic acids.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q38
(ii) Cannizaro reaction: Aldehydes or ketones without α-hydrogen undergo oxidation and reduction in presence of conc. alkali to form acid salt and alcohol.
Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers Q38.1

Question 39.
(i) Which among the following reduces Fehling reagent? (1)
(A) Propanone
(B) Benzophenone
(C) Ethanal
(D) Butanone
(ii) Name the class of organic compound obtained when aldehydes undergo reaction with the following reagents: (3)
(A) HCN
(B) Alcohol
(C) Hydroxylamine
Answer:
(i) (C) Ethanal (Aldehydes only gives Fehling’s test)
(ii) (A) Cyanohydrins
(B) Hemiacetal Acetal
(C) Oxime

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 40.
(i) Which among the following is a primary amine? (1)
(A) (CH3)2CHNH2
(B) C6H5NHCH3
(C) (CH3)3N
(D) (CH3)2NH
(ii) Explain the reaction of Hinsberg reagent with primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
(i) (CH3)2 CH NH2
(ii) Hinsberg reagent- C6H5SO2Cl (Benzene Sulphonyl Chloride)
1° amine + Hinsberg reagent → a precipitate soluble in alkali
2° amine + Hinsberg reagent → a precipitate insoluble in alkali
3° amine + Hinsberg reagent → no reaction

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

By reviewing Std 6 Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium and മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Notes Malayalam Medium, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Notes Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Medieval India: Society, Resource and Trade Class 6 Notes Malayalam Medium

Question 1.
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ കാർഷിക പ്രവർത്ത നങ്ങൾ മികവുറ്റതായിരുന്നു വിശദമാക്കുക.
Answer:

  • മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ കൃഷിയായിരുന്നു. പരുത്തി, ധാന്യ ങ്ങൾ, പയറുവർഗ്ഗങ്ങൾ, നീലം, കരിമ്പ് തുട ങ്ങിയവയായിരുന്നു അക്കാലത്തെ പ്രധാന വിളകൾ.
  • കാർഷിക പുരോഗതിക്കായി ഭരണാധികാ രികൾ പല നടപടികളും സ്വീകരിച്ചു. സേചന സൗകര്യങ്ങൾ ഒരുക്കി, വിത്തുകൾ വിതരണം ചെയ്തു, ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർക്ക് വേത നമായി ഭൂമി പതിച്ചു കൊടുത്തു തുടങ്ങി യവയാണ് അവ.
  • സ്വന്തമായി കൃഷി ഭൂമിയില്ലാത്ത കർഷകർ, കൃഷിക്കനുയോജ്യമായതും എന്നാൽ കൃഷി യിറക്കാത്തതുമായ ഭൂമി നേടിയെടുക്കുകയും അതിന്റെ ഉടമസ്ഥാവകാശം സ്വന്തമാക്കുകയും ചെയ്തു.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 2.
നെയ്ത്തിന്റെയും കച്ചവടത്തിന്റെയും വ്യപാനം നഗരങ്ങളുടെ വളർച്ചയെ സഹായിച്ചതെങ്ങനെ ?
Answer:
നെയ്ത്തും മറ്റ് കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളുമായിരുന്നു പട്ടണങ്ങളിലെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ. ഗ്രാമീണ ജനത ഉല്പാദിപ്പിച്ച പരുത്തിയും നീലവും പട്ടു നൂലും നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തെ ശക്തമാക്കി. തുണി നെയ്ത്തിന് പുതിയ ഉപകരണങ്ങളായ നൂൽ നൂൽക്കാനുള്ള ചർക്ക്, നെയ്ത്തിനുളള തറികൾ മുതലായവ ഉപയോഗിച്ചു. കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി വാണിജ്യം അഭിവൃദ്ധി പ്പെടാനുള്ള സാഹചര്യമൊരുക്കി. ഇക്കാര്യങ്ങ ളെല്ലാം നഗരങ്ങളുടെ വളർച്ചയെ സഹായിച്ച ഘടകങ്ങളായിരുന്നു.

Question 3.
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് സഞ്ചാരികളെയും കച്ചവടക്കാരെയും ആകർഷിച്ച ഘടകങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാം ?
Answer:

  • ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സുഗന്ധ വ്യഞ്ജനങ്ങൾ, തുണി ത്തരങ്ങൾ, തുകൽ, രത്നങ്ങൽ, ചന്ദനം, ലോഹങ്ങൾ, മുത്ത്, ആനക്കൊമ്പ്.
  • തുടങ്ങിയവ പുറം നാടുകളിൽ പ്രിയമുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളായിരുന്നു.
  • ഈ വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് സഞ്ചാരികളെയും കച്ചവടക്കാരെയും ആകർ ഷിച്ചത്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 4.
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ വിജ്ഞാന രംഗത്ത് കൈവരിച്ച പുരോഗതി പരിശോധിക്കുക.
Answer:

  • മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിൽ നിരവധി വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്ര ങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു.
  • ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ നിന്നുള്ള വിദ്യാർത്ഥികൾ ഈ അറിവ് തേടിയെത്തി. വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങളിൽ
  • ബനാറസ്, ആഗ്ര, ലാഹോർ, കാഞ്ചി, മധുര, ഡൽഹി എന്നിവിടങ്ങളിലെ വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഇവയിൽ ശ്രദ്ധേയമായിരുന്നു.
  • ജ്യോതിശാസ്ത്രം, ഗണിതശാസ്ത്രം എന്നീ വിജ്ഞാന ശാഖകൾ അക്കാലത്ത് പുരോഗതി നേടി.
  • ഭാസ്കരാചാര്യർ രചിച്ച ലീലാവതി ശ്രദ്ധ യമായ ഗണിതശാസ്ത്ര ഗ്രന്ഥമായിരുന്നു. ജയ്പൂർ, ഡൽഹി, ഉജ്ജയിനി, ബനാറസ് എന്നിവടങ്ങളിൽ വാന നിരീക്ഷണ കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെട്ടു.
  • നിരവധി കൃതികൾ പേർഷ്യൻ ഭാഷയിലേക്ക് തർജ്ജമ ചെയ്യപ്പെട്ടു.

Question 5.
ഇന്ത്യയെക്കുറിച്ച് എന്തെല്ലാം കാര്യങ്ങൾ ബാബർനാമയിൽ നിന്ന് മനസ്സിലാക്കാം ?
Answer:
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളും വിഭവങ്ങളുമാണ് ബാബർ വിശദീകരിക്കുന്നത്. ഹിന്ദുസ്ഥാൻ അത്ഭുതമുളവാക്കുന്ന ഭൂഭാഗമാണ്. മറ്റു രാജ്യങ്ങളുമായി താരതമ്യം ചെയ്യുമ്പോൾ അത് തികച്ചും വിഭിന്നമാണ്. ഇവിടുത്തെ പർവ്വതങ്ങൾ, നദികൾ, കാടുകൾ, മരുഭൂമികൾ എല്ലാം വ്യത്യസ്തമാണ്. ഇവിടത്തെ മൃഗങ്ങൾ, ചെടികൾ, ജനങ്ങൾ, ഭാഷകൾ, മഴ, കാറ്റ് എല്ലാം വൈവിധ്യമാർന്നവയാണ്.

Question 6.
വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളും വിഭവ സമൃദ്ധിയുമാണ് സഞ്ചാരികളെ മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ചത്. അൽബറൂനിയുടെ വിവരണത്തിൽ പരാമർശി ച്ചിട്ടുള്ള തൊഴിലുകളും നികുതികളും ഏതൊക്കെയാണ് ?
Answer:
ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ കൃഷിയായിരുന്നു. കൃഷിയോടൊപ്പം കന്നുകാലി മേയ്ക്കലും, വ്യാപാരവും നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു. മൂന്ന് തരത്തിലുളള നികുതികളാണ് ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നത്. ഭൂമികരം, മേച്ചിൽ കരം, കച്ചവട നികുതി എന്നിവയായി രുന്നു അവ.

Question 7.
സൽത്തനത്ത് കാലഘട്ടത്തിലും മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ട ത്തിലും കൃഷിയുടെ പുരോഗതിയെ പ്രോത്സാ ഹിപ്പിച്ച ഘടകങ്ങൾ എന്തൊക്കെയായിരുന്നു
Answer:
കൃഷിക്കനുയോജ്യമായതും എന്നാൽ കൃഷിയി റക്കാനാകാത്തതുമായ ഭൂമിയിൽ അക്കാലത്ത് ഇന്ത്യയിൽ ധാരാളമുണ്ടായിരുന്നു. കാർഷിക പുരോഗതിക്കായി ഭരണാധികാരികൾ ചില നടപടികൾ സ്വീകരിച്ചു.

  • ജലസേചന സൗകര്യങ്ങൾ ഒരുക്കി.
  • വിത്തുകൾ വിതരണം ചെയ്തു.
  • നികുതിയിളവുകൾ നൽകി.

ഇപ്രകാരം ഭൂമിയുടെ ഉടമാവകാശം നേടാൻ ഉത്സാഹശീലരായ കർഷകൾ ശ്രമിച്ചു. ഈ നടപടി ക്രമങ്ങളിലൂടെയെല്ലാം കാർഷിക പുരോഗതി നേടുവാൻ കഴിഞ്ഞു.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 8.
കൃഷിയോടൊപ്പം കാർഷികോപകരണങ്ങളുടെ നിർമ്മാണവുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട് പല കൈത്തൊഴി ലുകളും ഗ്രാമങ്ങളിൽ നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു. എന്തൊക്കെയാണ് ?
Answer:

  • ലോഹപണി
  • മരപ്പണി
  • ആയുധങ്ങളുടെ പണി
  • തുകൽ ജോലി

Question 9.
കാർഷികമേഖല നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തിന്റെ വളർച്ചയെ സഹായിച്ചതെങ്ങനെ ?
Answer:

  • കാർഷിക മേഖല നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തിന്റെ വളർച്ചയിൽ വളരെയേറെ പങ്കു വഹിച്ചിട്ടുണ്ട്. ഗ്രാമീണ ജനത ഉല്പാദിപ്പിച്ച് പരുത്തിയും നിലവും പട്ടുനൂലും നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തെ ശക്തമാക്കി.
  • നീലത്തിന്റെയും പരുത്തിയുടെയും ലഭ്യത ഇന്ത്യൻ നെയ്ത്തുകാരെ വ്യത്യസ്ത നിറ ത്തിലും ഗുണനിലവാരത്തിലുമുള്ള വസ്ത്ര ങ്ങൾ നിർമ്മിക്കുവാൻ സഹായിച്ചു.
  • അസംസ്കൃത വസ്തുക്കളുടെ ഉൾനാടൻ ഉല്പാദനവും പുതിയ ഉപകരണങ്ങളുടെ വരവും വളർച്ചയെ സഹായിച്ചു. ഇങ്ങനെയെല്ലാമാണ് കാർഷിക മേഖല നെയ് ത വ്യവസായത്തിന്റെ വളർച്ചയെ സഹായിച്ചത്.

Question 10.
ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച ഇബ്നു ബത്തൂത്തയും റാൽഫ് ഫിച്ചും ഇന്ത്യയിലെ നഗരങ്ങളെക്കുറിച്ച് നൽകിയ വിവരങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാമാണ് ?
Answer:
സൽത്തനത്ത് കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർ ശിച്ച് മൊറോക്കോ സഞ്ചാരിയായ ഇബ്നു ബത്തൂത്ത നൽകുന്ന വിവരങ്ങൾ:

  • വലിയ ജനസംഖ്യയും നിറഞ്ഞ സമ്പത്തു മുള നഗരങ്ങളാണ് ഇന്ത്യയിൽ ഉള്ളത്.
  • നഗരങ്ങളുടെ തെരുവോരങ്ങൾ വൈവിധ്യ മാർന്ന ഉല്പന്നങ്ങളുടെ കമ്പോളങ്ങളാണ്.
  • വർണ്ണാഭമായ പട്ടണങ്ങളാണ് ഡൽഹിയും ദൗലത്താബാദും.

മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച ഇംഗ്ലീഷ് സഞ്ചാരിയായ റാൽഫ് ഫിച്ചിന്റെ വിവരണത്തിൽ നിന്നും ലഭിക്കുന്ന വിവര ങ്ങൾ

  • ആഗ്രയും ഫത്തേപ്പൂർ സിക്രിയും അഹമ്മദാ ബാദും ലോകത്തു തന്നെ വലിയ നഗരമായ ലണ്ടനെക്കാൾ വലുതാണ്.
  • ഡൽഹി വലുതും സമ്പന്നമായ നഗരവു മാണ്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 11.
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ പ്രധാന വാണിജ്യ കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഭൂപടത്തിൽ നിന്നും കണ്ടെത്തുക.
ദക്ഷിണേന്ത്യയിലെ വാണിജ്യകേന്ദ്രങ്ങളുടെ പുരോഗതിയെ സഹായിച്ച ഭൂമിശാസ്ത്രപരമായ പൊതു സവിശേഷത എന്തെന്ന് ചർച്ച ചെയ്യുക.
Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം 1

Answer:
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ പ്രധാന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ

  • ഡൽഹി
  • അഹമ്മദാബാദ്
  • സൂറത്ത്
  • പൈത്താൻ
  • തഞ്ചാവൂർ
  • മധുര കോഴിക്കോട് കൊച്ചി
  • കൊല്ലം
  • കൊൽക്കത്ത
  • കാഞ്ചിപുരം
  • മുർഷിദാബാദ്
  • മഹാബലിപുരം
  • മറയൂർ

Question 12.
എതെല്ലാം തൊഴിൽ കൂട്ടങ്ങളായിരുന്നു കാർഖാന കളിൽ ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നത് ?
Answer:

  • സ്വർണ്ണ പണിക്കാർ
  • ചായം പൂശുന്നവർ
  • ചെരുപ്പു കുത്തികൾ
  • തയ്യൽക്കാർ
  • തുകൽ തൊഴിലാളികൾ

Question 13.
ഫ്രഞ്ച് സഞ്ചാരിയായ ടവർണിയറുടെ വിവരണ ത്തിൽ നിന്ന് അന്നത്തെ സാമൂഹിക ജീവിതത്തെ ക്കുറിച്ച് എന്തെല്ലാം വിവരങ്ങളാണ് ലഭിക്കുന്നത് ?
Answer:

  • സാമൂഹികവും സാമ്പത്തികവുമായ അസമത്വ ങ്ങൾ അക്കാലത്ത് ജനങ്ങൾക്കിടയിൽ നില നിന്നിരുന്നു. അവ വെന്ന് നോക്കാം എന്തൊക്കെയായിരുന്നു.
  • ജാതി, ഉദ്യോഗം, സമ്പത്ത് തുടങ്ങിയവയെ അടിസ്ഥാനമാക്കിയാണ് സാമൂഹിക പദവികൾ നിർണ്ണയിക്കപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്നത്.
  • രാജാക്കന്മാർ, പ്രഭുക്കന്മാർ, പുരോഹിതന്മമാർ, ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർ തുടങ്ങിയ വർ സാമൂഹിക പദവി അനുഭവിച്ചു.
  • കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളിലും കൃഷിയിലും ഏർപ്പെ ട്ടിരുന്നവർ സമൂഹത്തിലെ താഴെ തട്ടിലുള്ള വരായിരുന്നു.
  • ഓരോ ജാതിയിൽപ്പെട്ടവർക്കും അവരുടെ തായ ആചാരങ്ങളും അനുഷ്ഠാനങ്ങളും ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു.
    സതി, ശൈശവ വിവാഹം തുടങ്ങിയ അനാ ചാരങ്ങൾ നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 14.
അമീർ ഖുസ്രുവിന്റെ വാക്കുകളിൽ നിന്നും ഇന്ത്യയുടെ വിജ്ഞാന പുരോഗതിയെക്കുറിച്ച് എന്തെല്ലാം മനസ്സിലാക്കാം ?
Answer:

  • ഇന്ത്യക്കാർക്ക് ഏത് ഭാഷയിലും സംസാരി ക്കാനാവും എന്നാൽ മറ്റുള്ളവർക്ക് നമ്മുടെ ഭാഷ വഴങ്ങാൻ ബുദ്ധിമുട്ടാണ്.
  • വിജ്ഞാന സമ്പാദനത്തിന് മറ്റു രാജ്യങ്ങളി ലേക്ക് ഇന്ത്യക്കാർ പോകുന്നില്ല. മറ്റുള്ള രാജ്യ
  • ങ്ങളിൽ നിന്നുളളവർ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് വരിക യാണ്.
  • ചതുരംഗം, പഞ്ചതന്ത്രം കഥകൾ, സംഖ്യാ ശാസ്ത്രം എന്നിവ ലോകത്തിന് ഇന്ത്യ നൽകിയ സംഭാവനകളാണ്.

മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം Class 6 Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
മുഗൾ ചക്രവർത്തിയായ ബാബറിന്റെ ഓർമ്മക്കു റിപ്പ് ഏതാണ് ?
Answer:
ബാബർനാമ

Question 2.
മധ്യേഷയിൽ നിന്ന് ഇന്ത്യയിലെത്തിയ സഞ്ചാരി ആരാണ് ?
Answer:
അൽ-ബറൂനി.

Question 3.
മധ്യകാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർക്ക് വേതനമായി ഭൂമി പതിച്ചു കൊടുത്തിരുന്ന സമ്പ്രദായം ഏതാണ് ?
Answer:
ഇഖ് -സൽത്തനത്ത് കാലഘട്ടം.
ജാഗിർദാരി- മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടം.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 4.
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെത്തിയ ഇറ്റാലിയൻ സഞ്ചാരി ആരാണ് ?
Answer:
നിക്കോളോ കോണ്ടി.

Question 5.
കോഴിക്കോടു നിന്നും കയറ്റുമതി ചെയ്തിരുന്ന തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ, യൂറോപ്യൻ വിപണിയിൽ എന്തും പേരിലാണ് അറിയപ്പെട്ടിരുന്നത് ?
Answer:
കാലിക്കോ,

Question 6.
മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച ഇംഗ്ലീഷ് സഞ്ചാരിയാര് ?
Answer:
റാൽഫ് ഫിച്ച്.

Question 7.
മുഗൾ രാജാക്കന്മാരുടെയും പ്രഭുക്കന്മാരുടെയും കൊട്ടാരങ്ങളിലേക്കുളള വസ്തുക്കൾ നിർമ്മിച്ച് വിതരണം ചെയ്തിരുന്ന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾക്ക് പറയുന്ന പേര് ?
Answer:
കാർഖാനകൾ,

Question 8.
മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച ഫ്രഞ്ച് സഞ്ചാരി
Answer:
വർണിയർ.

Question 9.
സൽത്തനത്ത് കാലത്ത് ജീവിച്ചിരുന്ന പ്രമുഖ കവി ?
Answer:
അമീർ ഖുസ്രു

Question 10.
ലീലാവതി എന്ന ഗണിത ശാസ്ത്ര ഗ്രന്ഥത്തിന്റ രചയിതാവ് ?
Answer:
ഭാസ്കരാചാര്യർ

Question 11.
വിദേശ സഞ്ചാരികളെ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർ ഷിച്ച ഘടകങ്ങൾ എന്തൊക്കെയാണ് ?
Answer:
ഇന്ത്യയിലെ വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളും വിഭവ സമൃദ്ധി യുമാണ് സഞ്ചാരികളെ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർ ഷിച്ചത്.

Question 12.
ഇഖ്തയും ജാഗിർദാരിയും വിശദീകരിക്കുക
Answer:
മധ്യകാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർക്ക് വേതന മായി ഭൂമി പതിച്ചു കൊടുക്കുമായിരുന്നു. ഈ സമ്പ്രദായം സൽത്തനത്ത് കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇഖ് എന്നും മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ജാഗിർ ദാരി എന്നും അറിയപ്പെട്ടു.

Question 13.
ഇന്ത്യൻ തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ എങ്ങനെയാണ് ലോക പ്രശസ്തി നേടിയത് ?
Answer:

  • നെയ്ത്തും മറ്റ് കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളുമായിരുന്നു പട്ടണങ്ങളിലെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ.
  • ഗ്രാമീണ ജനത ഉല്പാദിപ്പിച്ച പുരുത്തിയും നീലവും പട്ടുനൂലും നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തെ ശക്തമാക്കി.
  • ഇന്ത്യൻ നെയ്ത്തുകാർ വ്യത്യസ്ത ഗുണ ത്തിലും നിറത്തിലുമുള്ള വസ്ത്രങ്ങൾ ഉല്പാ ദിപ്പിച്ചു.
  • പട്ട്, പരുത്തി, കമ്പിളി എന്നിവ കൊണ്ടുണ്ടാ ക്കിയ വസ്ത്രങ്ങൾ അവയിൽ പ്രധാനപ്പെട്ട വയായിരുന്നു.
  • തുണി നെയ്ത്ത്തിനായി പുതിയ ഉപകരണങ്ങ ളായ നൂൽനൂൽക്കാനുള്ള ചർക്കയും നെയ്ത്തി നായുള്ള തറികളും ഉപയോഗിച്ചു. ഇങ്ങനെയെല്ലാമാണ് ഇന്ത്യൻ തുണിത്തര ങ്ങൾ ലോകപ്രശസ്തി നേടിയത്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 14.
കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി വാണിജ്യം അഭിവൃദ്ധിപ്പെടാനുള്ള സാഹചര്യമൊരുക്കിയ തെങ്ങനെ ?
Answer:

  • ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സുഗന്ധ വ്യഞ്ജനങ്ങൾ, തുണി ത്തരങ്ങൾ, തുകൽ, രത്നങ്ങൾ, ചന്ദനം, ലോഹ ങ്ങൾ, മുത്ത്, ആനക്കൊമ്പ് തുടങ്ങിയവ പുറം നാടുകളിൽ പ്രിയമുളള വിഭവങ്ങളായിരുന്നു.
  • ഈ വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് വ്യാപാരികളെ ഇന്ത്യയി ലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ചത്.
  • ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ നിന്ന് നിരവധി കച്ചവടക്കാർ, മധ്യകാലത്ത് ഇന്ത്യയി ലെത്തി.

Question 15.
ഇന്ത്യയുമായി വ്യാപാരം നടത്തിയ പുറം നാട്ടുകാർ ആരെല്ലാമായിരുന്നു?
Answer:

  • ചൈനക്കാർ
  • അറബികൾ
  • പോർച്ചുഗീസുകാർ
  • ഡച്ചുകാർ
  • ഇംഗ്ലീഷുകാർ
  • ഫ്രഞ്ചുകാർ

Question 16.
“കാലിക്കോ ‘, ‘കാലിക്കറ്റ് ‘ എന്നിവയെക്കുറിച്ച് ലഘു കുറിപ്പെഴുതുക
Answer:
കോഴിക്കോട് നിന്ന് പരുത്തി തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ മറ്റ് സ്ഥലങ്ങളിലേക്ക് കയറ്റുമതി ചെയ്തിരുന്നു. ഈ തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ യൂറോപ്യൻ വിപണിയിൽ “കാലിക്കോ’ എന്നാണ് അറിയപ്പെട്ടിരുന്നത്. കോഴിക്കോടിനെ യൂറോപ്യൻമാർ കാലിക്കറ്റ് എന്നാണ് വിളിച്ചത്.

Question 17
ഉല്പാദന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾക്കും മാർക്കറ്റുകൾക്കും ചുറ്റുമായി വികസിപ്പിച്ചെടുത്ത നഗരങ്ങളുടെ പേര് എഴുതുക ?
Answer:

  • ധാക്ക
  • പൈത്താൻ
  • കാഞ്ചിപുരം
  • ഉറയൂർ
  • മധുര

Question 18.
നഗരവാസികൾ ആരെല്ലാമായിരുന്നു
Answer:

  • കരകൗശല തൊഴിലാളികൾ
  • വ്യാപാരികൾ
  • ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർ
  • സേവകർ
  • അടിമകൾ

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 19.
കാർഖാനകൾ എന്താണെന്ന് വ്യാഖ്യാനിക്കുക ?
Answer:

  • മുഗൾ രാജാക്കന്മാരുടെയും പ്രഭുക്കന്മാരു ടെയും കൊട്ടാരങ്ങളിലേക്കുളള വസ്തുക്കൾ നിർമ്മിച്ച് വിതരണം ചെയ്തിരുന്ന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങ ളായിരുന്നു കാർഖാനകൾ.
  • വിവിധ ഉല് പാദന പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾക്കും പുതിയ സാങ്കേതിക വിദ്യകളുടെയും നൂതനാശയങ്ങളുടെയും പരിക്ഷണത്തിനു മായുള്ള സ്ഥലമായിരുന്നു കാർഖാനകൾ.

Question 20.
ടവർണിയർ ആരായിരുന്നു
Answer:
മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച ഫ്രഞ്ച് സഞ്ചാരിയായിരുന്നു ടവർണിയർ.

Question 21.
ഇന്ത്യയുടെ വിജ്ഞാന പുരോഗതിയെക്കുറിച്ച് വിശദീകരിക്കുക ?
Answer:

  • മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലും നിരവധി വിദ്യാ കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു.
  • ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ നിന്നുളള വിദ്യാർത്ഥികൾ ഈ അറിവ് തേടിയെത്തി.
    വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങളിൽ
  • ബനാറസ്, ആഗ്ര, ലാഹോർ, കാഞ്ചി, മധുര, ഡൽഹി എന്നിവിടങ്ങളിലെ വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഇവയിൽ ശ്രദ്ധേയമായിരുന്നു.
  • ജ്യോതിശാസ്ത്രം, ഗണിതശാസ്ത്രം എന്നീ വിജ്ഞാന ശാഖകൾ അക്കാലത്ത് പുരോഗതി നേടി.
    ഭാസ്കരാചാര്യർ രചിച്ച ലീലാവതി ശ്രദ്ധേ യമായ ഗണിതശാസ്ത്ര ഗ്രന്ഥമായിരുന്നു.
  • ജയ് പൂർ, ഡൽഹി, ഉജ്ജയിനി, ബനാറസ് എന്നിവിടങ്ങളിൽ വാനനിരീക്ഷണ കേന്ദ്ര ങ്ങൾ സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെട്ടു.
  • നിരവധി കൃതികൾ പേർഷ്യൻ ഭാഷയിലേക്ക് തർജ്ജമ ചെയ്യപ്പെട്ടു.

Question 22.
ഹിന്ദുസ്ഥാൻ അത്ഭുതമുളവാക്കുന്ന ഭൂഭാഗമാണ്. മറ്റു രാജ്യങ്ങളുമായി താരതമ്യം ചെയ്യുമ്പോൾ അത് തികച്ചും വിഭിന്നമാണ്. ഇവിടുത്തെ പർവ്വതങ്ങൾ, നദികൾ, കാടുകൾ, മരുഭൂമികൾ എല്ലാം വ്യത്യസ്തമാണ്. ഇവിടത്തെ മൃഗങ്ങൾ, ചെടികൾ, ജനങ്ങൾ, ഭാഷകൾ, മഴ, കാറ്റ് എല്ലാം വൈവിധ്യമാർന്നവയാണ്.
മുഗൽ ചക്രവർത്തി ബാബറിന്റെ ഓർമ്മക്കുറി പ്പിൽ നിന്നുള്ള ഭാഗമാണ് മുകളിൽ കൊടുത്തി ട്ടുള്ളത്.
(a) ബാബറിന്റെ ഓർമ്മക്കുറിപ്പിന്റെ പേരെന്താണ് ?
(b) ഇന്ത്യയെക്കുറിച്ച് എന്തെല്ലാം കാര്യങ്ങൾ ഇതിൽ നിന്ന് മനസ്സിലാക്കാം ?
(c) ബാബറിന്റെ അഭിപ്രായത്തിൽ സഞ്ചാരികളെ മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ച പ്രധാന ഘടകങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാമാണ്?
Answer:
(a) ബാബർ നാമ
(b) ഹിന്ദുസ്ഥാൻ അത്ഭുതമുളവാക്കുന്ന ഭൂഭാഗ മാണ്. മറ്റ് രാജ്യങ്ങളുമായി താരതമ്യം ചെയ്യു മ്പോൾ അത് തികച്ചും വിഭിന്നമാണ്. ഇവി ടുത്തെ പർവ്വതങ്ങൾ, നദികൾ, കാടുകൾ, മരു ഭൂമികൾ എല്ലാം വ്യത്യസ്തമാണ്. ഇവിടുത്തെ മൃഗങ്ങൾ, ചെടികൾ, ജനങ്ങൾ, ഭാഷ, മഴ, കാറ്റ് എല്ലാം വൈവിധ്യമാർന്നവയാണ്.
(c) ബാബറിന്റെ അഭിപ്രായത്തിൽ വൈവിധ്യ ങ്ങളും വിഭവ സമൃദ്ധിയുമാണ് സഞ്ചാരികളെ മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ചത്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

Question 23.
(a) മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ എന്തായിരുന്നു?
(b) ഈ പ്രധാന തൊഴിലിന്റെ പുരോഗതിക്കായി ഭരണാധികാരികൾ സ്വീകരിച്ച് ഏതെങ്കിലും രണ്ട് നടപടികൾ എഴുതുക?
(c) ജാഗിർദാരി സമ്പ്രദായം എന്നാൽ എന്ത്
Answer:
(a) കൃഷി.
(b) ജലസേചന സൗകര്യങ്ങൾ ഒരുക്കി നികുതി ഇളവുകൾ നൽകി
(c) മധ്യകാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർക്ക് വേതന മായി ഭൂമി പതിച്ചു കൊടുത്തിരുന്ന രീതി നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു. മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഈ സമ്പ്രദായത്തെ പറയുന്ന പേരാണ് ജാഗിർ ദാരി

Question 24.
കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി, വാണിജ്യം അഭിവൃദ്ധിപ്പെടാനുള്ള സാഹചര്യമൊരുക്കി യതെങ്ങനെ ?
Answer:
കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി വാണിജ്യം അഭിവൃദ്ധിപ്പെടാനുള്ള സാഹചര്യമൊരുക്കി. ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സുഗന്ധവ്യഞ്ജനങ്ങൾ, തുണിത്തര ങ്ങൾ, തുകൽ, രത്നങ്ങൾ, ചന്ദനം, ലോഹങ്ങൾ, മുത്ത്, ആനക്കൊമ്പ് തുടങ്ങിയവ പുറം നാടു കളിൽ പ്രിയമുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളായിരുന്നു. ഈ വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് വ്യാപാരികളെ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ചത്.

Question 25.
ചേരുംപടി ചേർക്കുക
Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം 2
Answer:
Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം 3

Question 26.
“മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സാമ്പത്തിക -സാമൂഹിക സ്ഥിതിയുടെ വൈജ്ഞാനികരംഗങ്ങളിലെ പുരോ ഗതിയും’ എന്ന വിഷയത്തെ അടിസ്ഥാനമാക്കി ഒരു സെമിനാർ സംഘടിപ്പിക്കുക. വിഷയം : മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സാമ്പത്തിക -സാമൂഹിക സ്ഥിതിയും വൈജ്ഞാനികരംഗങ്ങ ളിലെ പുരോഗതിയും’
Answer:
ആമുഖം : മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സാമൂഹിക സാമ്പത്തികാവസ്ഥ മനസ്സിലാക്കുന്നതിന് ഏറ്റവും അധികം വിദേശ സഞ്ചാരികളുടെ സഞ്ചാര കുറിപ്പുകളാണ്, നാം ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നത്. ആ കാലഘട്ടത്തിലെ സാമൂഹിക സാമ്പത്തികാ വസ്ഥയിൽ കൃഷി, കൈത്തൊഴിലുകൾ, നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായ വളർച്ച, വാണിജ്യ അഭിവൃദ്ധി, സാമൂ ഹിക അസമത്വങ്ങൾ മുതലായവ ഉൾപ്പെടുന്നു.

ഉളളടക്കം
സാമൂഹിക സാമ്പത്തികാവസ്ഥ
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ കൃഷിയായിരുന്നു. പരുത്തി, ധാന്യങ്ങൾ, പയറുവർഗങ്ങൾ, നീലം, കരിമ്പ് തുടങ്ങി യവയായിരുന്നു അക്കാലത്തെ പ്രധാന വിളകൾ. കൃഷിക്കനുയോജ്യമായതും എന്നാൽ കൃഷിയി റക്കാത്തതുമായ ഭൂമി അക്കാലത്ത് ഇന്ത്യയിൽ

ധാരാളമുണ്ടായിരുന്നു. ഇത്തരം ഭൂമിയിൽ ആദ്യ മായി കൃഷി ചെയ്യുന്നവർക്ക് അതിന്റെ ഉടമസ്ഥാ വകാശം നേടാൻ ഉത്സാഹശീലരായ കർഷകർ ശ്രമിച്ചു. നെയ്ത്തും മറ്റ് കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളുമായിരുന്നു പട്ടണങ്ങളിലെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ. ഗ്രമീണ ജനത ഉല്പാദിപ്പിച്ച പരുത്തിയും നിലവും പട്ടുനൂലും നെയ്ത്തു വ്യവസായത്തെ ശക്തമാക്കി. ഇന്ത്യൻ നെയ്ത്തുകാർ വ്യത്യസ്ത ഗുണത്തിലും നിറത്തിലുമുളള വസ്ത്രങ്ങൾ ഉല്പാദിപ്പിച്ചു. പട്ട്, പരുത്തി, കമ്പിളി എന്നിവകൊണ്ട് ഉണ്ടാക്കിയ വസ്ത്രങ്ങൾ അവയിൽ പ്രധാനപ്പെട്ടവയാ യിരുന്നു. തുണി നെയ്ത്തിന് പുതിയ ഉപകരണ ങ്ങൾ ഉപയോഗിച്ചു.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

നെയ്ത്തിനുള്ള തറികളും അവയിൽ പ്രധാനപ്പെ ട്ടവയായിരുന്നു. തുണികളിൽ ചായം മുക്കുന്ന തിന് നീലവും നിറക്കൂട്ടുകളും ഉപയോഗിച്ചു. ഇന്ത്യൻ തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ ലോകപ്രശസ്തി നേടി. കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി വാണിജത്തിന്റെ അഭിവൃദ്ധിക്ക് സാഹചര്യം ഒരുക്കി. ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സുഗന്ധ വ്യഞ്ജനങ്ങൾ, തുണിത്തരങ്ങൾ, തുകൽ, രത്നങ്ങൾ, ചന്ദ്നം, ലോഹങ്ങൾ, മുത്ത്, ആനക്കൊമ്പ് തുടങ്ങിയവ പുറം നാടുകളിൽ പ്രിയമുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളായിരുന്നു.

ഈ വിഭവ ങ്ങളാണ് വ്യാപാരികളെ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർ ഷിച്ചത്. ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങളിൽ നിന്ന് നിരവധി കച്ചവടക്കാർ മധ്യകാലത്ത് ഇന്ത്യയി ലെത്തി. സാമൂഹികവും സാമ്പത്തികവുമായ അസമത്വ ങ്ങൾ അക്കാലത്ത് ജനങ്ങൾക്കിടയിൽ നില നിന്നിരുന്നു. ജാതി, ഉദ്യോഗം, സമ്പത്ത് തുടങ്ങിയ വയെ അടിസ്ഥാനമാക്കിയാണ് സാമൂഹിക പദവി കൾ നിർണ്ണയിക്കപ്പെട്ടിരുന്നത്.

രാജാക്കന്മാർ മാർ, പ്രഭുക്കന്മാർ, പുരോഹിതന്മാർ, ഉദ്യോഗ സ്ഥർ തുടങ്ങിയവർ ഉയർന്ന സാമൂഹിക പദവി അനുവദിച്ചത്. കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളിലും കൃഷി യിലും ഏർപ്പെട്ടിരുന്നവർ സമൂഹത്തിലെ താഴെ തട്ടിലുള്ളവരായിരുന്നു. ഓരോ ജാതിയിൽ പ്പെട്ടവർക്കും അവരുടെതായ ആചാരങ്ങളും അനുഷ്ഠാനങ്ങളും ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു. സതി, ശൈശവ വിവാഹം തുടങ്ങിയ അനാചാരങ്ങളും അക്കാലത്ത് നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു.

വിദ്യാഭ്യാസ അവസ്ഥ
മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിൽ നിരവധി വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു. ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങ ളിൽ നിന്നുള്ള വിദ്യാർത്ഥികൾ ഈ വിദ്യാ കേന്ദ്രങ്ങളിൽ അറിവ് തേടിയെത്തി. ബനാറസ്, ആഗ്ര, ലാഹോർ, കാഞ്ചി, മധുര, ഡൽഹി എന്നിവിടങ്ങളിലെ വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഇവയിൽ ശ്രദ്ധേയമായിരുന്നു.
ജ്യോതിശാസ്ത്രം, ഗണിതശാസ്ത്രം എന്നീ വിജ്ഞാന ശാഖകൾ അക്കാലത്ത് പുരോഗതി നേടി. ഭാസ്കരാചാര്യർ രചിച്ച ലീലാവതി ശ്രദ്ധ യമായ ഗണിതശാസ്ത്ര ഗ്രന്ഥമായിരുന്നു. നിരവധി കൃതികൾ പേർഷ്യൻ ഭാഷയിലേക്ക് തർജ്ജമ ചെയ്യപ്പെട്ടു. ജയ്പൂർ, ഡൽഹി, ഉജ്ജ്വ യിനി, ബനാറസ് എന്നിവിടങ്ങളിൽ വാനനിരി ക്ഷണ കേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെട്ടു.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

നിഗമനം
മധ്യകാല ഘട്ടത്തിൽ വ്യാപാരത്തിനും മറ്റുമായി ധാരാളം വിദേശികൾ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് കടന്നു വന്നു. കൃഷിയും കച്ചവടവും മെച്ചപ്പെ ടുന്നതിനായി ഭരണാധികാരികൾ വിവിധ രീതിയിൽ സഹായം ചെയ്തു. ഇത് വഴിയായി, ഇന്ത്യയിലെ സാമ്പത്തിക സാമൂഹിക അവസ്ഥ മെച്ചപ്പെടുകയും ചെയ്തു. വിജ്ഞാനിക രംഗത്തും ശ്രദ്ധേയമായ പുരോഗതി നേടുവാൻ ക്കുവാൻ ഇന്ത്യക്ക് സാധിച്ചു.

Question 27.
മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യ സന്ദർശിച്ച വിദേശികളുടെ പേരും സ്ഥലും എഴുതുക
Answer:

  • അൽ ബറൂനി — മധ്യേഷ്യ
  • നിക്കോളോ കോണ്ടി — ഇറ്റലി
  • ഇബ്നു ബത്തൂത്ത — മൊറോക്കോ
  • റാൽഫ് ഫിച്ച് — ഇംഗ്ലണ്ട്

Medieval India: Society, Resource and Trade Class 6 Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium

വൈവിധ്യങ്ങളും വിഭവ സമൃദ്ധിയുമാണ് സഞ്ചാരികളെ മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് ആകർഷിച്ചത്. മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ കൃഷിയായിരുന്നു. കൃഷിയോടൊപ്പം കാർഷികോപകരണങ്ങളുടെ നിർമ്മാണവുമായി ബന്ധപ്പെട്ട പല കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളും ഗ്രാമങ്ങളിൽ നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു. ലോഹപ്പണി, മരപ്പണി, ആയുധങ്ങൾ ഉപയോഗിച്ചുളള ജോലികൾ തുടങ്ങിയവയായിരുന്നു ഗ്രാമങ്ങളിൽ നിലനിന്നിരുന്ന ജോലികളിൽ ചിലത്.

മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ തൊഴിൽ, ആ കാലഘട്ടത്തിലെ വ്യാപാര വാണിജ്യ പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ, മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിലെ ജനജീവിതം തുടങ്ങിയ കാര്യങ്ങളാണ് ഈ പാഠഭാഗത്തിൽ നാം മനസ്സിലാക്കുന്നത്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

  • മധ്യകാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഇന്ത്യയിലേക്ക് വന്ന സഞ്ചാരികളുടെ കുറിപ്പുകൾ ആ കാലഘട്ടത്തെക്കുറിച്ച് വിവരങ്ങൾ തരുന്നും
  • മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലെ ജനങ്ങളുടെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ കൃഷിയായിരുന്നു. പരുത്തി, ധാന്യങ്ങൾ,
  • പയറുവർഗ്ഗങ്ങൾ, നീലം, കരിമ്പ് തുടങ്ങിയവയായിരുന്നു പ്രധാന കൃഷി വിളകൾ.
  • മദ്യകാല ഘട്ടത്തിൽ ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർക്ക് ഭൂമി വേതനമായി നൽകിയിരുന്നു.
  • നെയ്ത്തും മറ്റ് കൈത്തൊഴിലുകളുമായിരുന്നു പട്ടണങ്ങളിലെ പ്രധാന തൊഴിൽ.
  • കാർഷിക രംഗത്തെ പുരോഗതി വാണിജ്യ അഭിവൃദ്ധിപ്പെടാനുള്ള സാഹചര്യമൊരുക്കി.
  • ചൈനക്കാർ, അറബികൾ, പോർച്ചുഗീസുകാർ, ഡച്ചുകാർ, ഇംഗ്ലീഷുകാർ, ഫ്രഞ്ചുകാർ തുടങ്ങിയ പുറം
  • നാട്ടുകാരെല്ലാം ഇന്ത്യയുമായി വ്യപാരം നടത്തിയിട്ടുളളവരാണ്.
  • ഉല്പാദന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങളെയും ചന്തകളെയും കേന്ദ്രീകരിച്ചാണ് നഗരങ്ങൾ വളർന്നു വന്നത്.
  • കൈത്തൊഴിലുകൾ, വ്യപാരികൾ, ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥർ, പരിചാരകർ, അടിമകൾ തുടങ്ങിയവരായിരുന്നു നഗരവാസികൾ,
  • മുഗൾ രാജാക്കന്മാരുടെയും പ്രഭുക്കന്മാരുടെയും കൊട്ടാരങ്ങളിലേക്കുളള വസ്തുക്കൾ നിർമ്മിച്ച് വിതരണം ചെയ്തിരുന്ന കേന്ദ്രങ്ങളായിരുന്നു കാർഖാനകൾ.
  • സാമൂഹികവും സാമ്പത്തികവുമായ അസമത്വങ്ങൾ മുഗൾ കാലഘട്ടത്തിൽ ജനങ്ങൾക്കിടയിൽ നിലനിന്നിരുന്നു.
  • ജാതി, ഉദ്യോഗം, സമ്പത്ത് തുടങ്ങിയവയെ അടിസ്ഥാനമാക്കിയാണ് സാമൂഹിക പദവികൾ നിർണ്ണയിക്ക പ്പെട്ടിരുന്നത്.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യ സമൂഹം വിഭവം വിനിമയം

  • മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യയിലും നിരവധി വിദ്യാകേന്ദ്രങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടായിരുന്നു.
  • ഇന്ത്യ സാമ്പത്തിക പുരോഗതിക്കൊപ്പം വിജ്ഞാന പുരോഗതിയും കൈവരിച്ചു.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
In inheritance the existing Class is called ____________
Answer:
Base / Parent class

Question 2.
The ____________operator is used to allocate memory location during run time (execution).
Answer:
new

Question 3.
Write an empty tag used in HTML.
Answer:
<br> or <hr> or <img>

Question 4.
Which attribute of <input> tag is used to make different kinds of controls like Text box, Radio button, Submit button etc.?
Answer:
type

Question 5.
The IP address of a Webserver connected to a do-main name is stored in ____________ .
Answer:
A record

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 6.
Expand. ICT.
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology

Answer any 9 questions from 7 to 18. Each carries 2 Score. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 7.
What is a pointer variable in C++? Write the syntax or example to declare a pointer variable.
Answer:
Pointer is a special variable which points to memory location of some other variable.
data_type *variable_name;
int *ptr;

Question 8.
Write any two differences in static and dynamic memory allocation.
Answer:
Refer Chapter 2. 3 Mark Qn.9.

Question 9.
Write any two advantages of using object oriented programming language. (OOP)
Answer:
Advantages of using OOP are
a) OOP allows modularity(divide the large programs into smaller ones)
b) It is good for defining abstract data types.
c) It allows data abstraction. That is it hides or protects data.
d) It allows code reusability
e) Real life entities can be easily created
f) It supports to create new data types.

Question 10.
Write the algorithm to add an item in to a queue which is not empty?
Answer:
If(REAR < N)then
REAR=REAR+1;
Q[REAR]=ITEM;
Else
Print “Over Flow”;

Question 11.
Briefly explain about Webserver.
Answer:
A computer with high storage capacity, high speed and processing capabilities is called a web server.
It is connected to the internet 24 × 7.

Question 12.
Write JavaScript statements to create a number and string variables.
Answer:
var n,str;
n=12;
str=”Plus Two”;

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 13.
Breifly explain about any two built-in functions available in JavaScript.
Answer:
BUILT IN FUNCTIONS (methods)

  1. alert() : This is used to display a message (dialogue box) on the screen.
    eg: alert(“Welcome to JS”);
  2. isNaN(): To check whether the given value is a number or not. It returns a Boolean value. If the value is not a numberfNaNl then this function returns a true value otherwise it returns a false value.

Question 14.
List any four advantages of DBMS.
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS

  1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.
  2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy odcurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.
  3. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.
  4. Standards can be enforced – The.data in the database follows some standards. Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

Question 15.
Distinguish between the terms degree and cardinality used in RDBMS.
Answer:
Degree(to be remembered CD) – Number of Columns in a relation is called Degree.
Cardinality(to be remembered RC) – Number of rows in a relation is called Cardinality.

Question 16.
Differentiate echo and print used inPHP.
Answer:
The difference between echo and print

echo print
take more than one parameter only one parameter
Does not return any value Returns TRUE or 1 on successful print and FALSE otherwise
Faster slower

Question 17.
Write short note about any two applications of computational intelligence.
Answer:
Application of Computational Intelligence
A) Biometrics : Biometrics refers to the unique characteristics of a human being to recognize an individual such as finger prints, face recognition, iris, retina etc. Biometrics are used to record attendance Eg. In banks employee login is restricted by using finger print reader.

B) Robotics : It is a branch of scientific study associated with the design, manufacturing and control the movements of the robots. Roboticss are used in all the areas. Some of them are discussed below.

Question 18.
Name the types of interactions in e-Government
Answer:
Types of interactions in e-Governance e-Governance facilitates interaction between different stakeholders in governance
Government to Government(G2G)
Government to Citizens(G2C)
Government to Business(G2B)
Government to Employees(G2E)

Answer any 9 questions from 19 to 30. Each carries 3 Score. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 19.
Describe about any three e-Learning tools.
Answer:
A) e Learning tools
a) Electronic books reader(e Books) With the help of a tablet or portable computer or any other device we can read digital files by using a s/w is called electronic books reader.

b) e text
The electronic format of textual data is called e-Text.

c) Online chat
Real time exchange of text or audio or video messages between two or more person over the Internet.

d) e Content
The data or information such as text, audio, video, presentations, images, animations etc, are stored in electronic format.

e) Educational TV channels
TV channels dedicated only for the e-Learning purpose : Eg. VICTERS (Virtual Class room Technology on Edusat for Rural Schools OR Versatile ICT Enabled Resources for Students)

B) Advantages of E Learning :

  • It can offer variety courses to large number of students from distant location.
  • It saves journey time and money, instructor fees, etc.
  • People can enjoy e Learning with lower cost
  • It enables people to do courses conducted by national or Inter national institutions.

C) Challenges to e Learning

  • Face to face contact between student and teachers is not possible
  • Proper interaction is limited lack of infrastructure facilities
  • Its implementation requires computer and high speed Internet
  • Pupil may not get proper motivation
  • It does not provide a real lab facility

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
What is cloud computing? Write any two service? offered by cloud.
Answer:
It is an emerging computing technology. Here with the use of Internet and central remote servers to maintain data and applications. Example for this is Email service, Office Software(word processor, spread sheets, presentations, data base etc), graphic software etc. The information is placed in a central remote server just like clouds in the sky hence the name cloud computing.

Cloud service models (3 major services)

  1. 1. Software as a Service(SaaS)
  2. Platform as a Service(PaaS)
  3. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

Question 21.
Differentiate indexed and associated arrays in PHP.
Answer:
Arrays in PHP
In PHP array is a collection of key and value pairs. Unlike C++, in PHP we can use either non negative integers or strings as keys.
Different types of arrays in PHP

  • Indexed arrays
  • Associate arrays
  • Multi dimensional arrays.

Indexed arrays-: The elements in an array can be distinguished as first or second or third etc. by the indices and the index of the first element is zero. In PHP the function array() is used to create an array. Syntax: $array_name=array(value1 ,value2, ……………….);

Question 22.
Write short not about numeric and string data types of SQL.
Answer:
Data Types

  1. Char – It is used to store fixed number of characters,. It is declared as char(size).
  2. Varchar – It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.
  3. Dec or Decimal – It is used to store numbers with decimal point. It is declared as Dec (size, scale). We can store a total of size number of digits.
  4. Int or Integer – It is used to store numbers without decimal point. It is declared as int. It has no argument. Eg: age int.
  5. Smallint – Used to store small integers.
  6. Date – It is used to store date. The format is yyyy- mm-dd. Eg: ‘1977-05-28’.
  7. Time – It is used to store time. The format is Numeric data types are int(integer), dec(decimal), small int.
    String data types are char and varchar.

Question 23.
What are the different control structures used in JavaScript? Explain any one with an example.
Answer:
CONTROL STRUCTURES IN JavaScript
In general the execution of the program is sequential, we can change the normal execution by using the control structures.
1) Simple if

Syntax:
ifftest expression)
{
statements;
}

First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true, then the statement block will be executed other wise not.

* if-else
Syntax:
if(test expression)
{
statement block1;
}
else
{
statement block2;
}

First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block 1 will be executed otherwise statement block2 will be evaluated.

Question 24.
Consider the following relations:
Arts relation:

Adm no. Name Batch
3001 Mpnju A1
3009 Cristy C1
4010 Fazil B1
3090 Arun K2

Sports relation:

Adm no. Name Batch
4015 Arjun B1
4010 Fazil B1
3005 Fathima C2

Find the result of following relational algebra operation.
a) Arts ∩ Sports
b) Arts ∪ Sports
c) Sports – Arts
Answer:
a)

Adm No. Name Batch
4010 Fazil B1

b)

Adm No. Name Batch
3001 Manju A1
3009 Cristy C1
4010 Fazil B1
3090 Arun K2
4015 Arjun B1
3005 Fathima C2

c)

Adm No. Name Batch
4015 Arjun B1
3005 Fathima C2

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 25.
Explain about various types of web hosting.
Answer:
Types of web hosting
Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the yveb hosting services according : to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

  1. Shared Hosting
  2. Dedicated Hosting
  3. Virtual Private Server (VPS)

Question 26.
Write HTML code to create a web page which in-cludes, the following table.

Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title>table</title>
</head>
<body>
<table border=”1''>
<tr align=”c6nter”>
<th colspan=”3">No. of Student</th>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<th rowspan=”2">Boys</th>
<td> XI</td>
<td> 140</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td> XII</td>
<td> 60</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<th rowspan=”2">Girls</th>
<td> XI</td>
<td> 75</td>
</tr>
<tr align=”center”>
<td>XII</td>
<td> 125</td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 27.
Differentiate static and dynamic web pages.
Answer:

Static web pages Dynamic web pages
Content and layout is fixed Content and layout is changed frequently
Never use database Data base is used
Run by browser It runs on the server and result get back to the c|ient(browser)
Easy to develop Not at all easy

Question 28.
Explain about the operations performed on stack data structure.
Answer:
Operations on stack
a) Push operation: It is the process of inserting (adding) a new data item into the stack. If the stack is full and we try to add a new item into the stack makes the stack over flow.

b) Pop operation: It is the process of deleting (removing) a data item from the stack. If the stack is empty and we try to delete an item from the stack makes the stack underflow.

Question 29.
What is polymorphism? Write short notes about the types of polymorphism?
Answer:
Polymorphism, is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. This is achieved by function overloading, operator overloading and dynamic binding.
There are two types of polymorphism

a) Compile time(early binding / static)
polymorphism: It is the ability of the compiler’ to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during compilation time itself.
Examples are Function overloading and operator overloading

Function overloading : Functions with same name and different signatures(the jiumber of parameters or data types are different).

Operator overloading -: It gives new meaning to an existing C++operator.
Eg: we know that + is used to add two numbers, Operator overloading assigns + to a new job such as it concatenates two strings into one string.

b) Run time (late binding/dynamic) poly morphism: It is the ability of the compiler to relate or bind a function call with the function definition during run time, it uses the concept of pointers and inheritance.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 30.
Define structure. Write any two differences between structure and array.
Answer:
Structure is a group Of different types of logically related data referenced a single name.

Structures Array
1. It is a user defined data type 1. Predefined data type
2. It is a collection of different types of logically related data under one name. 2. Collection of data elements of same data type having a common name
3. Elements referenced using dot operator (.) 3. Elements references using its subscripts (position value)
4. When an element of a structure becomes another structure nested structure and complex structures are formed 4. When an element’of another becomes another array, multidimensional arrays are formed.
5. Structures contains array as its elements 5. Array of structure can be formed

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 5 Score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 31.
a) The ____________ tag identifies the document as an HTML document.
b) Breifly explain about any two attributes of <BODY> tag.
c) Write the use of any four tags given below.
<B>, <U>, <SUB>, <PRE>, <IMG>, <BR>,
Answer:
a) <HTML>

b) We can use the attributes of <Body>tag
1) Bgcolor-specifies background color for the docu¬ment Body
Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR= “RED”>
2) Background – Sets the image as background for the document body
Eg. <BODY BACKGROUND= “C:/page1 ,jpg”>

c) a)<B> To make the content Bold.
b) <U> To underline the content.
c) <SUB> create a subscript.
d) <PRE> It is used to display the content as we entered in the text editor.
e) <IMG> Used to insert an image.
f) <BR> Break a line.

Question 32.
a) What are the different kinds of lists available in HTML? Briefly explain about the tags used for each kind.
b) Differentiate the following HTML code fragment:
<A Href = “http ://www.dbsc kerala.gov.in”>Higher secondary</A>
<A Href = Mailto : “scertkerala.gov.in”> SCERT </A>
c) Write any one attribute of <FRAMESET> tag.
Answer:
a) 3 types of Lists in HTML.
1) Unordered List (<UL>) – Items are displayed with square, circle or disc in front.

2) Ordered List (<OL>) – Items are displayed with the following type values.
Type = 1 for 1, 2, 3, …………….
Type = i for i, ii, iii, …………….
Type = I for I, II, III, ………….
Type = a for a, b, c, …………….
Type = A for A, B, C, ……………

3) Definition List (<DL>) – It is formed by definitions.

  • <LI> – it is used to specify List items.
  • <DT> – It is used to specify Definition Term.
  • <DD> – Used to specify the description
  • <A> is used to provide hyperlinks. Two types of linking. Its attribute is HREF.

1) External link – Used to connect 2 different web pages.
2) Internal link – Used to connect different locations of same page.

b) First one used to link a website and other is used to link an e-mail

c) Attributes are cols, rows, border or bordercolor.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 33.
a) Briefly explain about any two column constraints used in SQL.
b) Describe about any two DML commands of SQL.
Answer:
a) a) NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty
b) UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.
c) PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.
d) DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.
e) Autojncrement: This constraint is used to perform autojncrement the values in a column. That is automatically generate se¬rial numbers. Only one autojncrement column per table is allowed.

b) DML commands

  1. Select – Used to select rows from a table. The keyword From is used with this. Where clause is used to secify the conition.
  2. Insert – Used to insert new records into a table. So the keyword used is INTO.
  3. Delete – Used to delete records in a table.
  4. Update – Used to modify the records in a table the keyword used is set.

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing with Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Question Paper and Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 will help students prepare effectively for their upcoming exams.

Class 8 Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Time: 1½ Hours
Marks: 40

Answer any 2 questions from 1 to 3. (Each question carries 1 score.(2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
A major Neolithic site inKerala.
(Bhimbetka, Edakkal, Adamgarh, Mehrgarh)
Answer:
Edakkal

Question 2.
Which among the following is an Igneous rock?
(Limestone, Marble, Basalt, Slate)
Answer:
Basalt

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Question 3.
Who is the chairman of the NITI Ayaog?
(The President,The Prime Minister, The Chief Minister, The Finance Minister)
Answer:
The Prime Minister

Answer any 4 questions from 4 to 9. (Each question carries 1 score.(3 × 3 = 9)

Question 4.
Legislature is one of the organs of the govenment. Name the other two organs.
Answer:
Executive, Judiciary

Question 5.
Mention any two peculiarities of the life of Aryans in the Sapta Sindhu region.
Answer:

  • Aryans belonged to different tribes.
  • Each tribe comprised of many families.
  • The eldest member of the tribe was selected as the head of the tribe.
  • There were different tribal assemblies to assist the tribal heads.
  • These assemblies were known as Vidatha, Sabha and Samithi.
  • The main occupations of the Aryans was cattle rearing and farming.
  • They fought battles for pastoral grounds and cattle, (any two)

Question 6.
What are the factors that brought Mauryn Kingdom to the status of the first empire in India?
Answer:
Kingdom was extensively large. Administration was centred on the king. Unified administration established throughout the whole state.

Question 7.
Name any two gases that cause Greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, methane, ozone etc

Question 8.
Complete the Chart.
8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus 1
Answer:
A. Equity
B. Modernisation

Question 9.
Write any two features of family as a social group.
Answer:

  • Small group
  • Familiar people
  • Elevated group consciousness
  • Common ways of acting
  • Satisfies the needs of the members
  • Influences personality (any two)

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Answer any 3 questions from 10 to 14. (Each carries 3 score. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 10.
Complet the chart that indicate the excavations of the Indus Valley Civilization.
8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus 2
Answer:
A. Sir John Marshall
B. Daya Ram Sahni
C. Mohenjadaro

Question 11.
Write any three functions of the President of India.
Answer:
The functions of the president are the following:-

  • Appoint Prime Minister and other ministers.
  • Appoint Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court.
  • Nominate 12 members of Rajya Sabha and 2 members of Lok Sabha.
  • Act as the Supreme Commander of armed forces.
  • Give assent to bills passed by the parliament.
  • Declare emergency in the country if – needed. Take decision on mercy petitions

Question 12.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production are;- Land, Labour, Capital, Organisation.

Question 13.
What is Global Warming? How does it become a threat to the life forms of the earth?
Answer:

  • The increase in temperature in the atmosphere due to greenhouse gases is referred as Global warming.
  • Sea level may rise as a result of melting of polar ice.
  • Destruction in the coastal ecosystem may lead to the problems such as food crisis, large scale migration etc.
  • Global warming leads to the depletion of many species of plants and animals in the ecosystem

Question 14.
Write a short note on the rescue activities held in Kerala during the flood of 2018.
Answer:
The public establishments including the schools provided asylum to those rushing out of their drowning houses, the local people, their representatives as well as the officials helped them. As flood rose to uncontrollable limits, Army, Navy and Air force swing in action. The Kerala society gratefully acknowledged the .service of the fisher folk by calling them ‘Kerala’s Own Army.’

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Answer any 4 questions from 15 to 19. (Each question carries 4 score.(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 15.
Arrange coloumn A with appropriate items from Column B.

A B
Vardhamaana Mahavira Arthasasthra
Kautilya Jainism
Kalidasa Tripitika
Sri Buddha Abhijana Shakuntalam

Answer:

A B
Vardhamaana Mahavira Jainism
Kautilya Arthasasthra
Kalidasa Abhijana – Shakuntalam
Sri Buddha Tripitika

Question 16.
Explain the factors that led to the fall of the Harappan civilization.
Answer:

  • Flood
  • External invasions
  • Deforestation
  • Decline of agricultural sector
  • Epidemics

Question 17.
Analyse the social life that existed in different Tinais of ancient Tamilakam.
Answer:

  • The Tinais had an important role in moulding the social life of ancient Tamilakam.
  • Hunting and collecting of forest resources were the means of livelihood of the people in the hilly Kurinchi.
  • Rearing of cattle was the major occupation of the people of Mullai, the grassland.
  • The practice of seizing cattle prevailed. This practice was known as vetchi. Those who chiefly engaged the stealing cattle were the people from Palai, the dry lands.
  • Rice and sugarcane were cultivated in the wetland Marutam.
  • Fishing and salt production were the major occupation of the people in the coastal region Neytal.

Question 18.
Mention the essentials for map reading.
Answer:
Scale, Direction, Grid, Internationally accepted colours, signs and symbols

Question 19.
Suggest any for activities that would be helpful in collecting and storing rain water in the soil.
Answer:
Activities that would be helpful in collecting and storing the rainwater in the soil are:-

  • Conservation of wet lands
  • Protection of forests
  • Terrace farming
  • Mulching
  • Construction of check dams
  • Construction of mud walls
  • Digging rainwater percolation pits

Answer any 1 questions from 20 to 21. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 20.
Explain the features of the Neolithic Age.
Answer:
The features of the Neolithic period are:-

  • Sharpened and polished stone tools were used.
  • Wooden handled stone axes and sticks were used
  • Made pots of clay
  • Wooden wheels were used for making pottery
  • Rafts were used for water transportation
  • Ornaments were made of stone wood and bone.
  • Ploughshare and spade were made of wood
  • Harpoons and fishing hooks were used for fishing
  • Clothes woven out of jute fibres were sewn using needles fashioned from bones

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22 Kerala Syllabus

Question 21.
Explain the factors influencing soil formation.
Answer:
The factors influencing soil formation are:-
Climate;- Soil formation will be slow in cold environments.
Topography:- Soil will be thin along steep slopes
Plants and animals:- The acid formed as a result of the decaying of plants and animals cause weathering of rocks
Parent Rock:- The minerals in the soil and the structure of the soil depend on the rock from which it is formed
Time:- The thickness and structure of soil depends on the time taken for its formation

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing with Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Question Paper and Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 will help students prepare effectively for their upcoming exams.

Class 8 Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Time: 2½ Hours
Marks: 40

Answer the questions from 1 to 2. (Each carries 1 score.) (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
The state in whichthe Neolithic site, Edakkal is located.
(Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala; Uttar Pradesh)
Answer:
Kerala

Question 2.
Pyramids are tombs where the mummies were preserved. Identify the civilization to which the pyramids are related.
(Harappan Civilization, Mesopotamian civilization, Chinese civilization, Egyptian civilization)
Answer:
Egyptian Civilisatio

Answer all questions from 3 to 6. Each carries 2 score. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 3.
Explain the factors that led to the decline of Buddhism.
Answer:
Buddhism started to decline in its mother land. Buddhist teachings and ideologies failed to receive much support from the later rulers. Moreover, Buddhism lost its grandeur when it was split into two sects – the Mahayana and the Hinayana. The revival of vedic religion adversely affected the progress of Buddhism.

Question 4.
Identify the geographical features represented by the given conventional symbols inmaps.
8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 1
Answer:
A. Bridge
B. Graveyard

Question 5.
Mention the precautions to be taken to prevent flood from becoming a disaster.
Answer:
It is essential to create environmental awareness in people. We can ensure this through scientific environmental education from childhood itself. Fields and ponds are natural sinks if rain water, many of the studies indicates that there has been a trend of reclaiming the paddy fields for other purposes in the last 50 years. Activities like massive demolition of hills, rock quarrying, sand mining from rivers may lead to negative environmental impacts.

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 6.
What are the use of social groups?
Answer:
The influence and use of social groups in our life is significant.
Some of the uses are: Promote companionship, Train behaviour patterns, Promote coexistence, Promote social values Ensure cooperation

Answer any 3 questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 3 score. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 7.
Mention the function of the Prsident of India.
Answer:
The functions of the Indian president are:

  • Appoint Prime Minister and other ministers.
  • Appoint Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court.
  • Nominate 12 members of Rajya Sabha and 2 members of Lok Sabha.
  • Act as the Supreme Commander of armed forces.
  • Give assent to bills passed by the parliament.
  • Declare emergency in the country if needed.
  • Take decision on mercy petitions

Question 8.
Complete the given tables showing the developments occurred in the fields of science and literature during the Gupta period.
Answer:
A. Kalidasa
B. Aryabhatiyam
C. Amarasimha

Question 9.
Write any three objectives of the economic planning in Inida.
Answer:
Growth, Modernisation, Self-reliance, Equity.

Question 10.
Explain the structure of NITI Aayog.
Answer:
The structure of NITI Ayog is as following:-
The Chairman of the NITI Aayog is the Prime Minister. The governing council consists of all state Chief Ministers, Lieutenant Governors of union territories, and a Vice chairman nominated by the Prime Minister. In addition to full members, there are two part-time members and four ex-officio members and a chief executive officer. The temporary members are selected from the leading universities and research institutions. The Prime Minister deputes four cabinet ministers as ex-officio members. The chief executive officer is appointed by the Prime Minister.

Answer any four questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 11.
Answer the following questions related to wetlands.
a) What are wetlands?
b) Mention the environmental problems caused by the reclamation of wetlands.
Answer:
a) Wetlands are natural sinks of surface
water. Paddy fields, ponds, swampy region and all low lying regions come under the category of low lands. The water stored here form part of the ground water,
b) Reclamation of the wet lands which are the natural sinks of water will lead to several environmental problems like the following. Lowering of water level in wells. Floods become common in rivers even in slight rains.

Question 12.
Match items in column ‘A’ with appropriate items from collumn ‘B’.

A B
Troposphere Ozone layer
Stratosphere The meteors get burnt out
Mesophere Hellps in the transmission of radio waves
Thermosphere Cloud formation

Answer:

A B
Troposphere Cloud formation
Stratosphere Ozone layer
Mesosphere Meteors are burnt out
Thermosphere Helps in the transmission of radio waves

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 13.
Explain the impact of the flood that occurred in Kerala during 2018.
Answer:
The flood of 2018 was a severe blow to all sectors in Kerala. From 2018 May to 2019 January 513 people lost their life. Landslides were reported from 381 places in Idukki and Wayanad. The flood affected 10.80 lakh farmers directly. Crops over 236650 hectares was destructed. 51194 hectare of agricultural land was filled with garbage and other wastes brought down by floods. Domestic animals such as cows, buffaloes, calves, dogs, hens, as well as numerous other living beings lost their life. Due to flood 16107 houses were fully damaged and 246303 houses were partially damaged during the flood season. It affected the transport systems as roads were washed away. People lost their fixed properties also.

Question 14.
Complete the flow chart.
8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 2
Answer:
A. Informal Social Control
B. Family
C. Military
D. Prison

Question 15.
What is water pollution? Mention the ill effects of water pollution.
Answer:
The undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological properties of water is termed as water pollution. Water pollution not only affects the availability of fresh water, but leads to the pollution of land and air as well. The survival of plants and animals are put to danger.

Questions 16 and 17 carry 5 score each. Answer any one. (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 16.
Explain the role of the three tier system of Panchayats in local development.
Answer:
8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 3

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 17.
Explain the activities that help in surface runoff harvesting.
Answer:
The following activities would be helpful in collecting and storing the rainwater in the soil. Conservation of wet lands,

  • Protection of forests
  • Terrace farming
  • Mulching
  • Construction of check dams
  • Construction of mud walls
  • Digging rainwater percolation pits

8th Standard Social Science Second Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing with Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Question Paper and First Term Question Paper 2022-23 will help students prepare effectively for their upcoming exams.

Class 8 Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Time: 2½ Hours
Marks: 40

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. (Each carries 2 score.) (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 1.
Identify the megalithic monuments represented by the following pictures.
8th Standard Social Science Second term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 1
Answer:
a. Umbrella stone (Kuda Kallu)
b. Menhir

Question 2.
What are the factors that prompted Alexander to attack India?
Answer:
To capture all regions under the Persian emperor.
To spread Greek culture.

Question 3.
Who was the famous Kushana ruler? Mention the style of sculpture that developed during the reign of the Kushanas.
Answer:
Kanishka, Gandhara style

8th Standard Social Science Second Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 4.
Identify the geographical features represented by the given conventional symbols in maps.
8th Standard Social Science Second term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 2
Answer:
a. Fort
b. Graveyard

Question 5.
Complete the tablerelated to the taxes imposed by the Mauryas

Taxes Sectors in which the tax was imposed
Bhaga (a)
(b) Tax on fruits and flowers

Answer:
a. Tax on land
b. Bali

Answer any four questions from 6 to 10. Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 6.
Write any three features of Loksabha
Answer:
543 directly elected members Known as the house of representatives Elected for a term of five years Presided over by the Speaker (any three)

Question 7.
What are the major sources of information on the history of ancient Tamilakam?
Answer:
The megalithic monuments, ancient Tamil songs, coins, travelogues, and a few Tamil inscriptions are the major sources of information on the history of ancient Tamilakam.

Question 8.
What are the fundamental problems of an economy?
Answer:
Three fundamental problems of an economy are:- What to produce and how much to produce? How to produce? For whom to produce?

Question 9.
Write any threepeculiarities of the life of people in the Sapta Sindhu region.
Answer:
The peculiarities of the people of the Sapta Sindhu region were:-

  • Aryans belonged to different tribes.
  • Each tribe comprised of many families.
  • The eldest member of the tribe was selected as the head of the tribe.
  • There were different tribal assemblies to assist the tribal heads.
  • These assemblies were known as Vidatha, Sabha and Samithi.
  • The main occupation of the Aryans was cattle rearing and farming.
  • They fought battles for pastoral grounds and cattle.

Question 10.
List out the negative impacts of Ultraviolet rays.
Answer:
The negative impact of Ultra violet rays are:-

  • Climate change
  • Destruction in food chain
  • Crop failure
  • Stunted growth of plants
  • Premature ageing
  • Blindness
  • Skin cancer

Answer any two questions from 11 to 13. Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
Match column ‘A’ with appropriate items from column‘B’

A B
Kurinchi Coastal region
Mullai Hilly region
Marutam Grass land
Neytal Wet land

Answer:

A B
Kurinchi Hilly region
Mullai Grass land
Marutam Wet land
Neytal Coastal region

Question 12.
Who proposed the ‘Drain Theory’? What are the main reasons of economic drain according to this theory?
Answer:
Dadabai Naoroj

  • The British officers in India were paid high salaries.
  • Goods made from Indian raw materials and resources bought at extremely low price were sold at a high price in the Indian market.
  • Indian wealth was robbed for expanding the British Empire.
  • Indian labourers were treated as slaves and farm and industrial products were exported to England.

8th Standard Social Science Second Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 13.
Evaluate the activities implemented by Ashoka to propagate Buddhism.
Answer:
Ashoka erected edicts in various parts of the country and made inscriptions on rocks. Most of them were near cities and highways. The edicts can be classified as major rock edicts, minor rock edicts and pillar edicts. Ashoka sent officers to different parts of the country and other countries to propagate Dhamma. He sent his son Mahendra and his daughter Sangamitra to Ceylon (now Sri Lanka). Ashoka installed stupas containing the relics and left overs of Buddha in various parts of the country

Answer any two questions from 14 to 16. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
Explain the contributions of Buddhism and Jainism to Inian society and culture.
Answer:
Buddhism also played a major role in promoting trade and cultural relations between India and neighbouring countries.
Countries like Myanmar, Japan, China, Srilanka, Java and Sumatra became the main centres of Buddhism. The Buddhist viharas played an important role in the progress of education in India. The universities of Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramasila were key centres of education and Buddhist teachings. Jamsm brought radical changes in the Indian society Mahavira advised the people to lead right life by following the principles of right belief, righfonowledge and right action. The Jain saints were abstained from telling lies, killing, stealing and acquiring wealth. They followed celibacy in life. Jainism encouraged construction of stone pillars, cave temples and statues.

Question 15.
‘The most powerful among the Mahaj anapadas was Magadha’. What were the reasons for their supremacy?
Answer:
The reasons for the supremacy of Magadha over other janapadas were as follows:-

  • Rich deposits of iron ore enabled the making of weapons and farming equipments.
  • Ganga and her tributaries made Magadha a fertile land.
  • Trees from nearby forests in the Gangetic plains were used for making big boats to facilitate trade.
  • Made use of elephants in battles.
  • Progress in agriculture and commerce Water transportation
  • Powerful kingship and highly efficient military.

Question 16.
Classify maps based on scale and explain with examples.
Answer:
Based on scale maps are classified in small scale maps and large scale maps.

Small scale maps:- If larger areas such as the world, continents, countries, and states are to be depicted in a small sheet of paper, only a little information can be incorporated into it. Maps showing only the important information of larger areas are called small scale maps.
Eg: Atlas maps, Wall maps

Large scale maps:- If the area to be depicted is a comparatively small region like a ward or village, more information can be incorporated in it. Maps representing detailed information of a small area are called large scale maps.
Eg: Cadastral maps, Topographical maps.

8th Standard Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing with Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Question Paper and First Term Question Paper 2022-23 will help students prepare effectively for their upcoming exams.

Class 8 Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Time: 2½ Hours
Marks: 40

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. (Each carries 2 score.) (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 1.
Executive is an important organ of the government. Mention the other organs of the government.
Answer:
Legislature, Judiciary.

Question 2.
What are the features of the Chalcolithic age?
Answer:
The Chalcolithic Age was a transition period from the Stone Age to the Metal Age. In addition to the stone tools, the people of this period made copper tools as well. Let us see the major sites of the Chalcolithic Age.

Question 3.
Name any two civilizations that emerged and declined in Mesopotamia.
Answer:
The Sumerian, the Babylonian, the Assyrian, and the Chaldean civilisations (any two)

8th Standard Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 4.
List out any two methods of soil conseration.
Answer:
Some methods for the conservation of soil are:-

  • Check deforestation
  • Crop rotation
  • Terrace farming along hill slopes
  • Construction of check dams.

Question 5.
Write the causes for the decline of the Harappan civilization.
Answer:
The possible reasons for the decline of Harappan civilisation were Flood, External invasions, Deforestation, Decline of agricultural sector, Epidemics.

Answer any four questions from 6 to 10. (Each carries 3 score. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 6.
What are the sources of information about the interior of earth?
Answer:
The sources for the study of the interior of the earth are:-
From the materials reaching the Earth’s surface through volcanic eruptions.

  • Data collected from mines.
  • Analysis of the propagation of waves generated during earthquakes

Question 7.
Write the common feature of river valley civilizations.
Answer:
The use of bronze, agricultural progress, development of trade and craftsmanship, the art of writing, progress in the field of science, etc. were the remarkable common features of these civilizations.

Question 8.
Legislation is the primary function of the parliament. State the other functions of the parliament.
Answer:
Control over Executive:-Asking questions

  • Deliberating various bills and resolutions
  • Passing or rejecting the no confidence motion

Electoral Function:-
Participating in the election of the President and Vice President

Constitutional Amendment:-
Timely amendment of the constitutional provisions

Question 9.
Write the evidences for the technological advancement in the Palaeolithic Age.
Answer:
Stone statutes were made, Pictures were drawn on the bones and horns of animals and on caves and rocks, Ornaments of ivory, bones, stones and shells were made, flute like wind instruments were made out of bones, Vessels were woven out of bark fibre, human figures were moulded from clay.

8th Standard Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 10.
Complete the Chart.
8th Standard Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus 1
Answer:
A. Climate,
B. Parent Rocks,
C. Time or plants and animals

Answer any two questions form 11 to 13. Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 11.
List out the features of the Rajya sabha.
Answer:
The features of the Rajyasabha are:-

  • 238 elected members,
  • 12 nominated members,
  • known as the council of states,
  • permanent house,
  • Vice president over the sessions.

Question 12.
Math the items in column ‘A’ with those in column ‘B’

A B
Harappan civilisation Sphinix
Chinese civilisation Great Bath
Mesopotamian civilisation Pictographic script
Egyptian civilisation Ziggurat

Answer:

A B
Harappancivilisation GreatBath
Chinese civilisation  Pictographic script
Mesopotamian civilisation Ziggurat
Egyptian civilisation  Sphinix

Question 13.
Distinguish between Physical weathering and Chemical Weathering.
Answer:
Physical/Mechanical Weathering:- The expansion and contraction of minerals due to the variations in temperature results in weathering. Disintegration also occurs due to the freezing of water in the fissures of rocks.
Chemical Weathering:- Oxygen, carbon dioxide, water, etc. react with the minerals and result in the chemical decomposition of rocks.

Answer any two questions from 14 to 16. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 14.
Explain the features of the Neolithic Age.
Answer:
The features of the Neolithic period are:-

  • Sharpened and polished stone tools were used.
  • Wooden handled stone axes and sticks were used
  • Made pots of clay
  • Wooden wheels were used for making pottery
  • Rafts were used for water transportation
  • Ornaments wee made of stone wood and bone.
  • Ploughshare and spade were.made of wood
  • Harpoons and fishing hooks wee used for fishing
  • Clothes woven out of jute fibres were sewn using needles fashioned from bones

8th Standard Social Science First Term Question Paper 2022-23 Kerala Syllabus

Question 15.
Explain the types of rocks based on the mode of formation.
Answer:
Refer chapter – 3, Rocks

Question 16.
Analyse the contributions of the Egyptian civilization on the basis of the following hints.

  • Pyramid
  • Art of writing
  • Science

Answer:

  • The practice of preserving the body of the dead prevailed in Egypt. A corpse preserved thus is called a ‘mummy’.
  • Pyramids were tombs where the mummies were preserved.
  • They remain as evidence for the excessive use of labour and wealth.
  • They formed an art of writing. It is known as ‘Hieroglyphics’, which means ‘sacred writing’. They used the leaves of the plant called papyrus for writing.
  • The Egyptians also attained amazing advancement in the field of science.
  • They formulated a solar calendar. As per this calendar a year had 365 days. A year was divided into 12 months, of 30 days each. The remaining five days were set aside for celebrations. Their advancement in the field of Mathematics is also significant. They could calculate the area of triangles and rectangles. To determine time they made sundial, a clock that tells time by the shadow cast by the sun and water clock that works on water current.

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing with Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Social Science Question Paper and Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 will help students prepare effectively for their upcoming exams.

Class 8 Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 Kerala Syllabus

Time: 2½ Hours
Marks: 40

Answer all questions from 1 to 4. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Who is known as the father of Economics?
a) Gandhiji
b) Adam Smith
c) Karl Marx
d) DadabhaiNaoroji
Answer:
b) Adam Smith

Question 2.
Identify the ruler of the Haryanka dynasty.
a) Bimbisaran
b) Shishunagan
c) Kalashokan
d) Mahapadmanandhan
Answer:
a) Bimbisaran

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 Kerala Syllabus

Question 3.
Identify the tax on land mentioned in Arthashastra.
a) Udagabhaga
b) Bali
c) Bhaga
d) Shulka
Answer:
c) Bhaga

Question 4.
Identify the World Watershed day.
a) March 22
b) December 5
c) June 5
d) February 2
Answer:
d) February 2

Answer all questions from 5 to 7. Each carries 2 score. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 5.
What information about the life of early humans do we get from the cave paintings?
Answer:
Cave painting gives the following information about the early man.

  • Earlymangatheredfoodbyhuntinganimals.
  • Early man engaged in entertainment.
  • Earlyman interacted with animals.
  • Early man had artistic expertise-.

Question 6.
Complete the following table.

Moovendans Capitals
The Cheras Muchiri
The Pandyas a) _______
b) _______

Answer:
a) Madurai
b) The Cholas

Question 7.
What are small scale maps? Give an example.
Answer:
Maps showing only the important information of larger areas are called small-scale maps.
Example: Atlas maps, Wall maps

Question 8.
Answer the following questions related to rocks.
(i) Which type of rocks are known as primary rocks?
(ii) Give an example for sedimentary rock.
(iii) Which type of rocks are mostly found in Kerala?
Answer:
i) Igneous rocks,
ii) Sandstone, Limestone.
iii) Metamorphic rocks.

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 Kerala Syllabus

Question 9.
What do you mean by social control? Write any two features of social control.
Answer:
Social control means the pressure and interventions exerted by each social group over its members in order to ensure and sustain a safe environment.

Features of social control

  • In every society, there are certain commonly accepted standards of behaviour.
  • Society establishes suitable social institutions for the regulation of behaviour and socialisation of its members.
  • Social control is formally implemented through systems such as police, court, prison and military.
  • Society has institutions and systems to control, prevent of punish those who do not adhere to social control.

Question 10.
How does global warming become a threat to the life forms?
Answer:
Global warming leads to the following problems in the economy.

  • Sea level may rise as a result of melting of polar ice.
  • Destruction in the coastal ecosystem may lead to problems such as food crisis, large-scale migration, etc
  • Leads to the depletion of many species of plants and animals in the ecosystem.

Question 11.
Mention the geographical characteristics of Kerala which may cause the flood to become a natural disaster.
Answer:

  • The topography of Kerala is divided into Highland, Midland and Lowland
  • Kerala has a topography that slopes from east to west
  • Moreover, the presence of 44 rivers and other waterbodies
  • Excess rainfall

Question 12.
Write the features of family as a social group.
Answer:

  • Elevated group consciousness
  • Familiar people.
  • Common ways of acting
  • Satisfies the needs of the members
  • Influences Personality.
  • Small Group.

Answer any 2 from questions 13 to 15 . Each carries 4 score. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 13.
What are the activities helpful in collecting and storing the surface runoff?
Answer:
Surface runoff water can be stored in the following ways:

  • Conservation of wetlands
  • Protection of forests
  • Terrace farming
  • Mulching
  • Construction of check dams
  • Construction of mud walls
  • Digging rainwater percolation pits.

Question 14.
What is Green Revolution? Mention the achievements in Indian agricultural sector as a result of Green Revolution.
Answer:
The completion ofthe first and second Five Year Plans could not solve India’s food deficiency. It led to an all-out effort to achieve self-sufficiency in food and progress in agriculture. There occurred a quantum jump in food output and a transformation in agriculture in two stages (1960-70and 1970-80) known as the ‘Green Revolution’. Green Revolution was made possible through the use of high-yielding seeds, improved irrigation, fertilisers, insecticides and agriculture finance at low- interest rates. The increased food output, especially in wheat and rice, ended our dependence on foreigners and achieved self sufficiency.

8th Standard Social Science Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24 Kerala Syllabus

Question 15.
Arrange the items in column ‘B’ with appropriate items in column ‘A’.
Answer:

A B
Natural sinks of surface Water Wetlands
The surface of the water-rich part beneath the ground Water table
The water stored beneath the ground Underground water
Shallow tube well dug in sandy regions Filter point wells

Answer any 2 from questions 16 to 18. Each carries 5 score. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 16.
Give an account of the impact of the flood that occurred in Kerala during 2018
Answer:

  • To manage the excess wafer in the reservoirs, 37 dams were opened
  • It took away hundreds of lives.
  • This caused considerable flooding in 13 out of the 14 districts.
  • It had a devastating effect on all the sectors.
  • The agricultural sector was wholly affected by the floods.
  • The land, environment as well as lifeforms, including man, were subjected to flood.

Question 17.
Write the aims of NITI Aayog.
Answer:

  • To bring down government participation in industrial and service sectors
  • To un utilise the services of the dominant middle class for sustainable economic growth.
  • To improve agriculture production by practising mixed farming.
  • To make use of the services of non resident Indians for economic and technological growth.
  • To convert the cities into secure living centres using modem technology.
  • To equip the nation to face global transformation and market forces.

Question 18.
Explain the characteristics of troposphere.
Answer:

  • This layer extends up to about 90 Km from the surface of the earth and lies close to the earth.
  • The height of the troposphere is higher in the equatorial regions because of strong convection here, (about 18 Km)
  • Almost all the weather and climatic phenomena, such as cloud formation, rain, snow, wind, thunder and lightning, etc., take place in this layer.
  • In the troposphere, the temperature decreases at a uniform rate of 10 Celsius for every 165 metres of altitude. This is called the Normal Lapse Rate.
  • The zone of transition above the troposphere is called the tropopause.