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Students can Download Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

1. Amoeba: Binary fission
   Yeast: …………..
2. Reptiles: Oviparous
   Mammals: ………….

Answer:

1. Yeast: Budding
2. Mammals: Viviparous

Question 3.
Internal buds of Sponges are:,
(a) Spores
(b) Gemmules
(c) Planula
(d) Blastos
Answer:
(b) Gemmules

Question 4.
In honeybees and lizards, the female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization. Name this phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Question 5.
The life span of man is_____years.
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 85
(d) 100
Answer:
(d) 100

Question 6.
What is meiocyte?
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis
(b) The cell undergoes mitosis
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis

Question 7
All individuals produced are genetically identical
(a) clone
(b) offspring
(c) fission
(d) monoecious
Answer:
(a) clone

Question 8.
Hydra reproduces asexually by
(a) budding
(b) binary fission
(c) Multiple fission
(d) Vegetative propagation
Answer:
(a) budding

Question 9.
Find the propagules of ginger
(a) Runner
(b) Bulbil
(c) Rhizome
(d) Bulb
Answer:
(c) Rhizome

Question 10.
Bulb acts as a propagule in
(a) Onion
(b) Garlic
(c) Agave
(d) Both and b
Answer:
(d) Both and b

Question 11.
In some algae_____are motile
(a) male gametes
(b) female gametes
(c) both male and female gametes
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) both male and female gametes

Question 12.
A population of genetically identical plants derived from a single parent is called………..
Answer:
Clone

Question 13.
Embryo sac is found in:
(a) Endosperm
(b) Embryo
(c) Ovule
(d) Seed
Answer:
(c) Ovule

Question 14.
Types of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is………
(a) Gemmule formation
(b) Budding
(c) Sporulation
(d) Multiple fission
Answer:
(b) Budding

Question 15.
Observe the relation and fill in the blanks. Syncarpous: the pistils remain united: the pistils remain free.
Answer:
Apocarpous

Question 16.
In honeybees and turkey new organisms are formed through a peculiar phenomenon. Name that phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Question 17.
Choose the correct answer: Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually through
(a) Gemmules
(b) Conidia
(c) Bud
(d) Zoospores
Answer:
(d) Zoospores

Question 18.
In Marchantia male and female thallus are separate. This condition is called
(a) Dioecious
(b) Hermaphrodite
(c) Monoecious
(d) Bisexual
Answer:
(a) Dioecious

Question 19.
Find the odd one. Bulbil, Bulb, Rhizome, Stem tuber.
Answer:
Bulbil

Question 20.
Identify the correctly matched pair.
(a) Chlamydomonas – conidia
(b) Sponge – Zoospore
(c) Hydra – bud
Answer:
(c) Hydra – bud

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Sugarcane, Banana, Ginger, and Onion are flowering plants. But these are mostly cultivated by vegetative propagation.

1. What is meant by vegetative propagation.
2. Can you identify which part of the above plants are used for vegetative propagation.

Answer:

1. The regeneration of new plants from the portions of vegetative organs like stem, root, and leaves.
2. plants are used for vegetative propagation.

• Sugar cane – stem
• Banana – Rhizome
• Ginger – Rhizome
• Onion – Bulb

Question 2.
Leaves not only produce foods, but also produce young ones. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
In some plants, leaves are organ of vegetative propagation i.e new plants are formed from leaf margins eg-Bryophyllum.

Question 3.
How is pistia and zingiber officinale different in their mode of Asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The above two plants shows vegetative propagation. The vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction The vegetative propagule of pistia is offset (short and thick internode) and zingiber is rhizome (underground stem).

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

1. Male and female flowers on the same plant: monoecious
   Male and female flowers on different plants: ………….
2. Fusion of gametes: Syngamy
   Offspring from unfertilized female gamete: ……………

Answer:

1. Dioecious
2. Parthenogenesis

Question 5.
Plant can reproduce both vegetatively and sexually. Name any 4 vegetative propagule.
Answer:

1. Eye of potato,
2. rhizome of ginger,
3. bulbil of agave,
4. offset of water hyacinth.

Question 6.
Given below is a diagram showing particular types of reproduction.

1. Name the process of reproduction.
2. Briefly explain the process

Answer:

1. Budding
2. It is the mode of asexual reproduction in which the unicellular organism divides unequally and the buds remain attached to the parent cell. Eg. yeast.

Question 7.
Given below the figures of different types of reproduction present in organisms. Identify and name the type of reproduction.

Answer:

1. Zoospores in chlamydomanas
2. Conidia of penicillium
3. Eyes of potato
4. Leaf buds of bryophyllum.

Question 8.
Match the following: (Hint: Name of organisms in column A and asexual reproductive structure in Column B)

A	B
1. Chlamydomonas 2.  Penicillium 3.  Hydra 4.  Sponge	1. Gemmules 2. Buds 3. Zoospores 4. Conidia

Answer:

A	B
1.  Chamydomonas 2.  Pencillium 3.  Hydra 4.  Sponge	Zoospores Conidia Buds Gemmules

Question 9.
In diploid organisms, meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked. Justify.
Answer:
In diploid organism, reproductive cells undergoes reduction division – meiosis and produces haploid gametes. Gametogenesis means the process of gamete formation. So meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked.

Question 10.
Categorize the following into pre and post-fertilization changes in plants. Gamete transfer, pericarp formation, ovule development, embryogenesis.
Answer:
Pre fertilization-ovule development and gamete transfer. Post fertilization -embryogenesis and pericarp formation.

Question 11.
Events of sexual reproduction is given below.

1. Write the events in a sequential order. Fertilization, gamete transfer, zygote, gameto – genesis, embryogenesis.
2. Point out the differences between gametogenesis and embryogenesis

Answer:

1. Gametogenesis, gamete transfer, fertilization, zygote, embryogenesis.

Question 12.
‘Water-hyacinth’ is commonly called ‘Terror of Bengal’. Give reason.
Answer:
‘Water-hyacinth’ is a highly spreading aquatic weeds, which drains oxygen from the water and leads to the death of fishes.

Question 13.
Bamboo plant and strobilanthus kunthianus (Neela Kurunji) have similarity and dissimilarity in their reproductive and vegetative character. Justify.
Answer:

1. Similarity – Both Bamboo and neela kurinji are perennial plants.
2. Dissimilarity – Bamboo flowers only once in their life time (in the period of 50-100 years) and die whereas neelakurinji flowers once in 12 years.

Question 14.
Zygote is called as the vital link. Why?
Answer:
Zygote is the product of fertilization, that maintains the continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next.

Question 15.
Post fertilization changes in flowering plants are given, by observing the given pair complete the others.
(a) Zygote: Embryo
(b) Ovule: ……….
(c) Ovary: ………
(d) Nucellus: Perlsperm
(e) Integument: ……….
(f) PEN: ………..
Answer:
(b) Ovule: Seed
(c) Ovary: Fruit
(e) Integument: seed coat
(d) PEN: Endosperm

Question 16.
Leaves are used not only for photosynthesis but also for reproduction.

1. Name the type of reproduction
2. Give an example.

Answer:

1. Vegetative propagation
2. Eg-Broyophyllum

Question 17.
Observe the relationship between first two terms and fill up the blanks.
1. Asexual reproduction – Unparental
Sexual reproduction……………….

2. Zygote: Diploid nucleus: Endosperm: ………….

3. Pea: non albuminous: wheat ………….
Answer:

1. biparental
2. Triploid nucleus
3. albuminous

Question 18.
In yeast and Amoeba the parent cell divides to give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:

• In yeast, the cell division is unequal and small buds are produced.
• In Amoeba, the cell division is equal and identical daughter cells are produced.

Question 19.
Offsprings formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaptation.

Question 20.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
2. Why are offspring of oviparous-animals subjected to greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

1. oviparous animals
2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent while in viviparous organisms development of zygote take place inside the body of female organisms. Hence viviparous type get proper embryonic care and protection.

Question 21.
In one type plant Adventitious buds develops into new leafy shoot by leaf as means of vegetative propagation but in others by rhizome. Give examples for leaf and rhizome used as unit of vegetative propagation.
Answer:

• Leave – bryophyllum
• Rhizome – banana, and Ginger

Question 22.
In certain lower plants, equal and un equal daughter cells are produced by asexual reproduction. Name these Asexual Reproduction with examples
Answer:
In binary fission equal daughter cells are produced. Example bacteria and Paramecium. In budding two unequal daughter cells are produced. Example Yeast and hydra.

Question 23.
In lower plants movement of gametes takes place by water but in seed plants male gametes are non motile. Which part of plant helps the movement of gametes?
Answer:
Pollen tube

Question 24.
Haploid gametes are produced in bryophytes and angiosperms by two types of cell division. Name it
Answer:

• bryophytes-Mitosis
• angiosperms-meiosis

Question 25.
Sexual reproduction is very common in higher plants to produce young ones that shows variation.

1. Name the product formed in sexual reproduction is considered as vital link
2. Give its significance

Answer:

1. product-zygote
2. It maintains continuity of species for many generation.

Question 26.
Nature prefer internal fertilization than external fertilisaiton. Do you agree with this statement.
Answer:
Yes, In nature the advanced plants and animals show internal fertilisation.

Question 27.
In fishes gamete fusion takes place in external medium. Give the disadvantage of this method.
Answer:
The offsprings formed through external fertilisation are subjected to the attack of predators.

Question 28.
Animals are categorized into viviparous and oviparous based on the development of the Zygote takes place outside the body or inside. In which of these two types the chances of survival is greater. Why?
Answer:
In oviparous animals like reptiles and birds, the fertilised eggs after the period of incubation young ones hatch out. In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism. After the period of growth, they are delivered out. The chances of survival is greater in viviparous animals.

Question 29.
Mention the characteristic feature and a function of zoospore in some algae.
Answer:

• Zoospores are flagellated, motile aquatic bodies
• On germination give rise to new plants

Question 30.
Name the site of occurrence of syngamy in amphibians and reptiles.
Answer:

• In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organism i.e external.
• In reptile syngamy occur inside the body of the organism i.e internal

Question 31.
What are the three major phases in the life cycle of an organism? Define each phase.
Answer:
Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase, senescent phase

• Juvenile phase-The phase of growth in the organisms before reproductive maturity
• Reproductive phase- In this phase organism attains reproductive maturity
• Senescent phase- The phase between reproductive maturity and death

Question 32.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 33.
In yeast and amoeba the parent cell divides and give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:
In yeast, cell division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached to parent cell. In amoeba the cell division is equal and produces identical daughter cells.

Question 34.
Mention the site where syngamy occurs in amphibians and reptiles respectively.
Answer:
In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organisms in the external medium (water). In reptiles syngamy occurs inside the body of an organism.

Question 35.
The turkey usually produces females for several. generations. How is this possible?
Answer:
In a turkey, female gametes undergo development without fertilization. This phenomenon is called parthenogenesis.

Question 36.
Leaves not only produce food but also produce young ones. Substantiate.
Answer:
In few plants the leaves are the means of vegetative propagation in addition to photosynthesis. In such plants, plantlets are formed on the leaves eg- Bryophyllum.

Question 37.
Observe the figures given below, identify and name the organisms and their asexual reproductive structures.

Answer:
Organisms – Asexual reproductive Structures

1. Chlamydomonas – Zoospore
2. Penicilium – Conidia

Question 38.
The chromosome number in the meiocyte of housefly is 12 and that of its gamete is 6. Write the reason for the change in chromosome number of meiocyte and gamete.
Answer:
Meiocyte is a diploid cell undergo reduction division to form haploid gametes.

Question 39.
In coconut, male and female flowers are separate. Write the technical term for the male and female flowers. Write the condition of the flower.
Answer:

1. Female flower – pistillate
2. Male flower – staminate
3. Condition of the flower – unisexual

Question 40.
Observe the figures given below. Identify the gametes in A and B. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Homogametes
2. Heterogametes

In first figure gamates come to fusion have similar structure but in second figure gametes have dissimilar structure.

Question 41.
Match the items of column A with B

A	B
a. Offset	i. Ginger
b. Bulb	ii. Agave
c. Rhizome	iii. Onion
d. Adventitious leaf buds	iv. Water hyacinth
	v. Bryophyllum

Answer:

Question 42.
Analyse the table given below and fill in the blanks.

Answer:

1. Hermaphrodite or bisexual
2. Female gamete develops into new organism without fertilisation
3. majority of algae or fishes or amphibians
4. Fertilisation occurs inside the body

Question 43.
The chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous organisms than oviparous organisms. Justify this statement.
Answer:
In viviparous organisms the zygote develops into young one inside the body of the female organism. So during the course of development proper embryonic care and protection is provided inside the female organism.

Question 44.
In some organisms male and female reproductive organs are seen in the same individual. Name that condition. Give two examples of such organisms.
Answer:
Hermaphrodite Eg.Earthworm, Leech.

Question 45.
Name of certain plants and their vegetative propagules are given below. Make correct pairs using them. Agave, Offset, Ginger, Bulb, Bulbil, Water hyacinth, Potato, Bryophyllum, Rhizome
Answer:

1. Agave – Bulbil
2. Ginger-Rhizome
3. Water hyacinth – offset
4. Onion-Bulb

Question 46.
Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are the two prefertilisation events. Write the differences between the two.
Answer:
Gametogenesis – It is the formation of gametes.
Gamete transfer – It is the transfer of male gamete to the female gamete.

Question 47.
Based on the nature of reproduction, organisms are classified as continuous breeders and seasonal breeders. Write the difference between the two.
Answer:

1. Continuous breeders – They are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase.
2. Seasonal breeders – They reproduce only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase.

Question 48.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks.

1. Hydra: Bud; …….: Gemmule
2. Birds: Internal fertilization; …….External fertilization.

Answer:

1. Sponge: gemmule
2. Algae or fishes or amphibian

Question 49.
Fertilisation in some organisms occur outside the body. Name that kind of fertilization. Write its disadvantage.
Answer:
External fertilization
In this type young ones are subjected to threat of predators. So, it is the disadvantage of external fertilisation.

Question 50.
The offspring formed by asexual reproduction is referred to as clone. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Offsprings formed are morphologically and genetically similar among themselves and to their parents. So such individuals are called clone.

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During sexual reproduction-fertilization is an important process. But in most aquatic organisms like fishes, amphibians, etc. external fertilization occur. In most terrestrial organisms internal fertilization is common.

1. Point out the differences between external and internal fertilization.
2. Write the disadvantages of external fertilization.

Answer:
(a) 1. External Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs in the external medium – water i.e. outside the body of organisms. Eggs and sperms are released outside the female and male parents respectively and move through water before fusion of gametes.

2. Internal Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs inside the body of organisms. Egg is formed inside the female body where they fuse with male gamete that is released by the male parent.

(b) Offsprings formed by external fertilization, are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adulthood.

Question 2.
Write technical terms for the following.

1. Morphologically different types of gametes.
2. Process of formation of male and female gametes.
3. Formation of new organisms without fertilization.

Answer:

1. Heterogametes
2. Gametogenesis
3. Parthenogenesis

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In bacteria and lower organisms offspring formed are close similar among themselves and to their parents.

1. Name offsprings derived through such process
2. Write down the 2 characterstics of such offsprings

Answer:

1. Clone
2. Morphologically and genetically similar

Question 2.
The offsprings formed by a sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaption.

Question 3.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 4.
In some lower and higher plants offsprings are produced shows greater similarity and it occurs mainly through asexual reproduction, in higher plants the process occurs through vegetative propagation.

1. What is vegetative propagation?
2. Give two suitable examples.

Answer:
1. The process of multiplication, in which parts or fragments of the plant act as reproductive unit or propagule to form new individuals is called vegetative propagation.

2. Examples,

• Buds (eyes) of Potato.
• Rhizome of Ginger.

Question 5.
Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Asexual reproduction	Sexual reproduction
1. It is always uniparental 2. There is no formation and fusion of gametes. 3. Only mitotic cell division takes place. 4. Offsprings are genetically identical to the parent.	1. It is usually biparental 2. Formation and fusion of gametes take place. 3. It involves both meiosis and mitosis. 4. Offsprings genetically differ from the parent.

Vegetative reproduction involves single parent and its offsprings are genetically identical hence it is considered as a type of asexual reproduction.

Question 6.
Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Answer:
Because sexual reproduction induces genetic variability(adaptations) which make the offsprings better equipped for the struggle of existence.

Question 7.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
2. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

1. oviparous animals
2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent, (they lay fertilized /unfertilized egg). In viviparous organisms development of zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.

This offers proper embryonic care and protection and have better chances of survival than young ones of viviparous organisms.

Question 8.
Prefertilisation events events of sexual reproduction in all organisms are gametogenesis and gamete transfer.

1. What are the post fertilization events?
2. Name the parts of plants such as ovary, ovule and ovary wall develop in post fertilization process.

Answer:

1. Zygote formation Embrogenesis
2. Ovary-fruit, ovule-seed, ovary wall -pericarp

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In papaya, the flowers are:
(a) Unisexual
(b) Bisexual
(c) neuter
(d) Flowers are not formed
Answer:
(a) Unisexual

Question 2.
In vegetative propagation, characters of parent plants are:
(a) Changed
(b) Not preserved
(c) preserved
(d) Exchanged
Answer:
(c) preserved

Question 3.
Rhizopus reproduces asexually by:
(a) Conidia
(b) Spores
(c) Gemma
(d) Bulbil
Answer:
(b) Spores

Question 4.
In potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
(a) Root
(b) Leaf
(c) Grafting
(d) Stem tuber
Answer:
(d) Stem tuber

Question 5.
Vegetatively propagated plants are:
(a) Genetically similar
(b) Genetically dissimilar
(c) Do not bear roots
(d) Do not form buds
Answer:
(a) Genetically similar

Question 6.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Question 7.
In which pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

Question 8.
Regeneration of a plant, cell to give rise to new plant is called :
(a) Reproduction
(b) Budding,
(c) Totipotency
(d) Pleuripotency
Answer:
(c) Totipotency

Question 9.
Hydra reproduces asexually through:
(a) iragmettatwn
(b) Budding
(c) binary fission
(d) Sporulation
Answer:
(d) Sporulation

Question 10.
Animals giving birth to young ones are
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) viviparous
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(c) viviparous

Question 11.
The offspring that are exactly identical to one another as well as identical to their parents are called as
(a) clone
(b) twins
(c) replicates
(d) drones
Answer:
(a) clone

Question 12.
Buds and conidia are asexual reproductive structures of
(a) hydra&rhizopus
(b) rhizopus & penciriium
(c) hydra & pencillium
(d) both a&b
Answer:
(c) hydra & pencillium

Question 13.
Banana is multiplied through
(a) suckers
(b) seeds
(c) rhizome
(d) stolen
Answer:
(c) rhizome

Question 14.
In rotifers, the type of reproduction responsible for the organisms to multiply is
(a) apomixis
(b) parthenogenesis
(c) asexual reproduction
(d) sexual reproduction
Answer:
(b) parthenogenesis

Question 15.
Bulbils are employed for multiplication of
(a) bryophyllum
(b) crocus
(c) Agave
(d) strawberry
Answer:
(c) Agave

Question 16.
During favourable condition Amoeba reproduces by
(a) binary fission
(b) buds
(c) multiple fission
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(a) binary fission

Question 17.
After post-fertilization, the ovary and ovule develops into
(a) pericarp and fruit
(b) fruit and seed
(c) fruit and seed coat
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) fruit and seed

Question 18.
The plants which flower every year after attaining certain maturity are called
(a) monocarpic
(b) polycarpic
(c) perennials
(d) annuals
Answer:
(b) polycarpic

Question 19.
The type of reproduction occurs in ciliated protozoans is
(a) syngamy
(b) conjugation
(c) budding
(d) cross fertilization
Answer:
(b) conjugation

Students can Download Chapter 6 Human Health and Disease Questions and Answers, Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Human Health and Disease

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The immunoglobulin present in mother’s milk is
(a) lgD
(b) lgE
(c) 1gM
(d) lgA
Answer:
(d) lgA

Question 2.
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant is categorized as
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) cellular immunity
(d) innate or non-specific immunity
Answer:
(b) passive immunity

Question 3.
Malarial parasite is introduced into the blood of man as a
(a) meta crypto zoite
(b) schizont
(c) oocyte
(d) sporozoite
Answer:
(d) sporozoite

Question 4.
The genes concerned with the production of cancer are called
(a) cancer genes
(b) carcino genes
(c) carcinomas
(d) oncogenes
Answer:
(c) carcinomas

Question 5.
A drug called morphine is obtained from
(a) Rauwoiffia serpentina
(b) Cannabis sativa
(c) Cajanuscajan
(d) Papaversomniferum
Answer:
(d) Papaversomniferum

Question 6.
Observe the relationship between the first two words and fill in the blanks.

1. Ascariasis: Ascaris, Elephantiasis:-
2. Cannabinoids: Hashish, Opioids:-

Answer:

1. Wuchereria
2. Heroin

Question 7.
Choose the odd one with reason. Malaria, Pneumonia, Cancer, Hyphoid.
Answer:
Cancer.
All others are infectious diseases.

Question 8.
“Death rate due to Cancer is high now a days” Name the gene casing cancer.
Answer:
Oncogene

Question 9.
One your classmate is suspected to be having typhoid and you advise him to consult a doctor and to do the confirmation test. Name the medical confirmation test.
Answer:
Widal test

Question 10.
Amoeboid dysentery is caused by a protozoan parasite. Name the parasite.
Answer:
Entamoeba histolytica

Question 11.
Identify the odd one
(a) Malaria
(b) Elephantiasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dengue
Answer:
(c) Typhoid; all others are vector bone disease

Question 12.
WBC, PMNL monocytes and natural killer cells are then examples of
(a) Physical Barriers
(b) Physiological barrier
(c) Cellular barrier
(d) Cytokine barriers
Answer:
(c) Cellular barrier

Question 13.
When the immune system attacks our own cells, the process is called……….
(a) Innate immunity
(b) Acquired immunity
(c) Auto immunity
(d) Humoral immunity
Answer:
(c) Auto immunity

Question 14.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Which type of virus is HIV?
(a) Adenovirus
(b) Retrovirus
(c) Bacteriophage
(d) Rhinovirus
Answer:
(b) Retrovirus

Question 15.
Mother’s colostrum contains Ig G. What type of immunity it confers to the infants?
(a) Passive immunity
(b) Active immunity
(c) Cell mediate immunity
(d) Innate immunity
Answer:
(a) Passive immunity

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Malaria is a disease, man has been fighting since many years.

1. Name the protozoan which cause Malaria and the toxic substance released by it.
2. Which part of the body is mainly affected by the parasite?

Answer:

1. Plasmodium (P.Vivax, P.Malaria, P.Falciparum) Haemozoin
2. The parasite initially multiply within liver cells and then attack RBC, resulting in their rupture, which causes the release of haemozoin.

Question 2.
Cancer can be cured completely. Write down two diagnostic and treatment methods.
Answer:
1. Diagnostic methods:

• Biopsy
• CT Scan
• MRI etc.

2. Treatments:

• Surgery
• Radiation therapy
• Immunotherapy etc.

Question 3.
Select the odd one from the given groups and assign reason.

1. Gonorrhea, Typhoid, Syphilis, Chlamydiasis
2. Spleen, Tonsil, Lymph nodes, Thymus

Answer:

1. Typhoid. All others are sexually transmitted diseases.
2. Thymus. All others are secondary lymphoid organs.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below.

Answer:

1. Insect bite
2. Ringworm
3. Rhinovirus
4. Internal bleeding, fever, muscle pain

Question 5.
Maintenance of Personal and Public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of many infectious diseases. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Infectious diseases are spread mainly through air, food, drinking water, vectors, etc. Personal and public hygiene help to prevent infectious diseases.

Not only that balanced diet, regular exercise, vaccination, proper waste disposal, control of vectors, etc. are also necessary to prevent diseases and for achieving good health.

Question 6.
Complete the table.

Answer:

1. ELISA
2. Typhoid

Question 7.
“The soldiers of a country kills their own king”. Keeping this mind, in our body can you find a similar situation in some person. Give examples.
Answer:
Auto immune response
Eg: Rhuematoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis.

Question 8.
During a discussion, your friend said that “AIDS can also be transmitted through food and touch.”

1. How HIV infects human body?
2. What clinical test is used to confirm AIDS?

Answer:

1. Method of infection is through body fluids, sexual contact, contaminated needles, blood transfusion from mother to foetus,
2. Western blot/ELISA

Question 9.
You are working as a volunteer in an AIDS awareness programme. If a person comes to you and asks the following questions, how will you answer?

1. How HIV multiplies in host cell?
2. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Answer:
1. HIV, being a retrovirus, enters the macrophages, where the RNA replicates to form viral DNA. It incorporated into the host cell’s DNA and directs infected cells to produce viral particle.

2. Avoid unsafe sex with a stranger.

• Use of disinfected needles.
• Avoid sharing of injection needles.
• Screening of blood before transfusion.

Question 10.
A sportsperson was tested positive for cannabinoid. What are these? From where are these extracted?
Answer:
Cannabinoids are group of chemicals interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain. Cannabis sativa.

Question 11.
More than a million Indians suffer from cancer and a large number of them die from it annually. Unlike normal cells, cancer cells possess some unique features. List any two of them.
Answer:

1. Loss of contact inhibition
2. Metastasis

Question 12.
“Prevention is better than cure”. Can you suggest some important preventive measures of STD’s.
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with a stranger/multiple partner.
2. Always use condoms during coitus.

Question 13.
Give the scientific term for the following.

1. Spreading of cancer cell into distant place.
2. Hypersensitivity to certain substance

Answer:

1. Metastasis
2. Allergy

Question 14.
A group of five members spent in a room with dust. One among them shows some allergic responses.

1. Name the chemicals released during allergy and which cells produce them.
2. Which are the drugs used to reduce the symptoms quickly?

Answer:

1. Histamine and serotonine from mast cells,
2. Anti-histamine drugs, adrenalin, and steroids.

Question 15.
What is the role of histamine in inflammatory response? Name few drugs which reduce the symptoms of allergy.
Answer:

1. The histamine acts as allergy mediator which cause blood vessels to dilate. It is released by mast cells.
2. Antihistamine, steroids, and adrenaline quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.

Question 16.
Name one plant and the additive drug extracted from latex. How does this drug affect the human body?
Answer:
Papaver somniferum (Poppy plant)

1. Morphine is obtained from this plant.
2. It is an opioid that binds to specific receptors in the central nervous system and gastro intestinal tract; it slows down the body functions.

Question 17.
How does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place?

1. Amoebiasis
2. Malaria
3. Ascariasis

Answer:
1. Amoebiasis, By ingesting quadrinucleated cysts of Entamoeba histolytica with food and water. The cysts are carried from faces of patient to food and water.

2. Malaria. Plasmodium (malarial parasite) is trans-mitted from sufferer to healthy one by biting of female Anopheles mosquito.

3. Ascariasis. The disease is transmitted by taking contaminated food and water with embryonated egg of Ascaris.

Question 18.
Match the following.

Pathogen	Symptoms	Effector
a. Salmonella Typhi	Stool with excess blood	Alveoli
b. Plasmodium	Sustained high fever	Large Intestine
c. Strep to cocus pneumonia	High fever recurring every three days	Enter small intestine
d. Entamoeba	Fever, Chills	RBC

Answer:

Pathogen	Symptoms	Effector
a. Salmonella Typhi	Sustained high fever	Enter small intestine
b. Plasmodium	High fever recurring every three days	RBC
c. Strep to cocus pneumonia	Fever, Chills	Alveoli
d. Entamoeba	Stool with excess blood	Large Intestine

Question 19.
The graph given below shows the response of attack of an influenza virus in a patient repeatedly during the interval of 40 days.

1. What is the difference in the response during the first and second attacks?
2. Give the reason for this change.

Answer:

1. In secondary response, more antibody is produced than primary response.
2. In secondary response, the memory cells help to produce more antibody rapidly than the primary response.

Question 20.
Elaborate the diagnostic methods used for early detection of cancer.
Answer:
X ray, CT Scan, and MRI Scan, Specific antibody against cancer cell, identification of cancer genes.

Question 21.
You meet an HIV patient. He is unaware about the transmission method of HIV. What precautions will you suggest him so that HIV cannot be spread to others?
Answer:
Use disposable needles, use of condoms, safe blood transfusion, safe sex, controlling drug use.

Question 22.
Write the difference between malignant tumor and benign tumor?
Answer:
1. Benign tumors: normally confined to their original location and do not spread to the other parts of the body.

2. Malignant tumors: it is the mass of proliferating cells invading and damaging surrounding normal cells quickly dividing and have property called metastasis.

Question 23.
Briefly explain the methods used to treat cancer.
Answer:
Surgery, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, immunotherapy.

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the type of immunity that is present at the time of birth in humans. Explain any two ways by which it is accomplished.
Answer:
Innate immunity is present at the time of birth. This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body. It consists of four type of barriers:

1. Physical barrier- Skin and mucus
2. Physiological barrier- Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and tears.
3. Cellular barrier- Neutrophils and macrophages.
4. Cytokine barrier-Interferons.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Disease	Pathogen
a. Malaria	Epidermophyton
b. Filariasis	Ascaris
c. Amoebiasis	HIV
d. AIDS	Entamoeba histolytica
e. Ringworm	Plasmodium
f. Ascariasis	Wuchereria

Answer:

Disease	Pathogen
a. Malaria	Plasmodium
b. Filariasis	Wuchereria
c. Amoebiasis	Entamoeba histolytica
d. AIDS	HIV
e. Ringworm	Epidermophyton
f. Ascariasis	Ascaris

Question 3.
A person injured in a road accident and requiring an urgent immune response was brought to a doctor.

1. What did the doctor immediately do?
2. What kind of immunity was he providing to the patient?
3. Define this kind of immunity.

Answer:

1. Performed antibodies are injected
2. Passive immunity
3. Passive immunity is developed by injecting the performed antibodies, which neutralize the antigen.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:

1. a – Pneumonia
2. b – Fever, chills, cough, and headache
3. c – Microsporum
4. d – Ascariasis
5. e – Ascaris lubricoids
6. f – Salmonella typhi

Question 5.
Lymphoid organs play an important role in immunity, where maturation and proliferation of lymphocyte takes place.

1. What are the primary lymphoid organs?
2. Name the lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major tracts.
3. What are the secondary lymphoid organs, which provide sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen.

Answer:

1. Bone marrow and Thymus
2. MALT (Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue)
3. Spleen, Lymph nodes, Tonsils, Peyer’s patches

Question 6.
Write the single word for the following.

1. Glycoproteins secreted by virus-infected cells.
2. Antibody-dependent immunity.
3. The type of antibody produced during allergy.

Answer:

1. Interferons
2. Humoral immunity
3. lgE

Question 7.
A patient consult a doctor with the following symptoms.

• Constipation
• Abdominal pain and cramps
• Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.

1. Identify the disease.
2. Name the microbe that causes this disease.
3. Write the mode of transmission of this disease.

Answer:

1. Amoebic dysentery
2. Entamoeba hystolytica
3. Contaminated food and drinking water

Question 8.

1. Identify the molecule.
2. Name the types.
3. Copy and label the diagram.

Answer:

1. Immunoglobin
2. lgA, lgM, lgE, lgG

Question 9.
A doctor noticed a small internal growth in the abdomen of a patient. Doctor suspects it as cancer.

1. Name any two possible Carcinogens.
2. Which biomedical technique is used for the diagnosis of cancer.
3. Suggest the methods to treat this disease.

Answer:
1. Ionising radiation (X-ray, gamma-ray)

• Oncogenic viruses
• Chemicals like nicotine, polycyclic hydrocarbons, etc.

2. Biopsy/Scanning/MRI/Sonography etc.

3. Chemotherapy, Surgery, Hormone therapy, Radiation therapy, and Immune therapy.

Question 10.
Complete the table.

Disease	Causative organism
Typhoid
Common cold
	Plasmodium
	Ascaris

Answer:

Disease	Causative organism
Typhoid	Salmonella typhi
Common cold	Rhino virus
Malaria	Plasmodium
Ascariasis	Ascaris

Question 11.
Identify the disease from the symptoms given below table.

Answer:

Question 12.
Complete the table

Answer:

Question 13.
A doctor noticed a small internal growth in the abdomen of a patient. Doctor suspects it as cancer.

1. Name any two possible Carcinogens.
2. Which biomedical technique is used for the diagnosis of cancer.
3. Suggest the methods to treat this disease.

Answer:
1. Ionising radiation (X-ray, gamma-ray)

• Oncogenic viruses
• Chemicals like nicotine, polycyclic hydrocarbons, etc.

2. Biopsy/Scanning/MRI/Sonography etc.

3. Chemotherapy, Surgery, Hormone therapy, Radiation therapy, and Immune therapy.

Question 14.
The symptoms of some diseases are given below. Identify the disease, name the parasite which cause the disease and write the mode of transmission.

1. Weakness, Stomach pain, sustained high fever, constipation, etc.
2. Fever, chill, cough, headache, bluish fingernails, etc.
3. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with mucus and blood, etc.
4. Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails, and scalp, itching, etc.

Answer:

1.

• Typhoid
• Salmonella typhi
• Contaminated food and water

2.

• Pneumonia
• Streptococcus pneumoniae
• Droplet infection/ sharing glasses and utensils etc.

3.

• Amoebic dysentery (Amoebiasis)
• Entamoeba histolytica
• Contaminated food and drinking water

4.

• Ringworms
• Fungi (Microsporum/Trichophyton Epidermophyton)
• Soil and towels, clothes, or comb of infected persons

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What measures would you take to prevent water-borne diseases?
Answer:

1. Drinking clean water.
2. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water tanks and reservoirs.

Question 2.
Discuss with your teacher what does suitable gene means, in the context of DNA vaccines.
Answer:
The term Suitable Gene refers to that specific segment of DNA that will be modified in the host to produce protein to kill specific disease-causing organisms.

Question 3.
Name the primary and secondary lympboid organs.
Answer:
1. Primary Lymphoid organs: Bone marrow and thymus.

2. Secondary Lymphoid organs: Spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches (small intestine) and mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

Question 4.
Expand the following terms:

1. MALT
2. CM I
3. AIDS
4. NACO
5. HIV

Answer:

1. MALT:- Mucosal – Associated Lymphoid Tissue
2. CMI – Cell Mediated Immunity
3. AIDS -Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
4. NACO – National AIDS Control Organisation
5. HIV – Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.

Question 5.
Differentiate the following and give example of each:

1. Innate and acquired immunity
2. Active and passive immunity

Answer:

Innate Immunity	Acquired Immunity
Non – specific	Specific
Is present from birth	Is acquired in response to a specific pathogen
Involves different types of barriers	Involves memory of antibody
Example: Skin acts like a barrier	Example: Antibody response after vaccination.

Question 6.
What are the various public health measures, which you would suggest to safeguard us against infectious diseases?
Answer:

1. Proper disposal of wastes and excreta
2. Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water sources.
3. Observing standard practices of hygiene in public catering.
4. Avoiding close and prolonged contact with infected persons suffering from contagious diseases.
5. Eliminating the breeding places of the vectors of infectious diseases like malaria.

Question 7.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
Various modes of transmission of HIV are sexual intercourse; use of contaminated hypodermic needles and syringes; blood transfusion organ transplantation; artificial insemination; from infected mother to baby during parthurition (30%) and breast feeding.

Question 8.
What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus causes deficiency of immune system of the infected person?
Answer:
HIV attacks the helper-T cells inside the host cell, viral RNA syntheses single-stranded DNA on it in the presence of enzyme reverse transcriptase. Single-stranded DNA separates from viral RNA and forms its complimentary copy to form double-stranded DNA which is incorporated into hosts cell DNA.

The viral DNA transcribes large number of RNA particles, each of which gets surrounded by a proteinous capsid to complete viral particles.

Finally, the host helper T- cell is lysed and many HIV viruses are released. Each of these infects new Helper T-cells. So there is progressive decrease in the number of Helper-T- cells.

Question 9.
Do you think that friends can influence one to take alcohol/drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/ herself from such an influence?
Answer:
One of the reasons for alcohol drinking or drug abuse is peer pressure. So one can be easily influenced by one’s friends to take alcohol/drugs. So one must avoid undue peer pressure with one’s own will power may seek the help of one’s parents and teachers.

Question 10.
How transmission of each of the following diseases takes place?

1. Amoebiasis
2. Malaria
3. Ascariasis
4. Pneumonia

Answer:
1. Amoebiasis: Direct and oral. The tetranucleate cysts are ingested with contaminated food and water.

2. Malaria: Indirect and inoculative. The sporozoites are introduced along with the saliva of vector female Anopheles mosquitoes.

3. Ascariasis: Direct and oral. Capsules with second juveniles are ingested with contaminated food and water.

4. Pneumonia: Airborne or through droplet infection or aerosols or contaminated utensils. Bacterial cysts are spread by sputum of the patients.

Question 11.
So that once a person starts taking alcohol or drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss it with your teacher.
Answer:
Initially, one may be motivated to take alcohol or drugs by many causes like peer pressure, liking of taste, desire for excitement, advertisements, false belief of enhanced performance, etc.

But the regular consumption of alcohol or drugs develops dependency on it called addition. Then if alcohol or drug is not available to an addict, then he/she start showing certain unpleasant characteristics called withdrawal symptoms.

Question 12.
Explain what is meant by metastasis.
Answer:
The cancerous cells of malignant tumour initially show slow growth called the latent stage, but later their growth becomes very rapid causing over-crowding and damage to the normal cells. This phase of secondary rapid growth of cancer cells is called metastasis.

In this, the cancer extends to the neighbouring tissues like the roots of a tree. Small pieces of primary tumour break off and are carried to other parts of the body by the blood or lymph, where these form the secondary tumors.

Question 13.
In which way the study of biology has helped us to control infectious diseases?
Answer:
Advancements achieved in biological science have helped us to control infectious diseases by:

1. Discovery of vaccines and their timely use in immunization programmes have helped in controlling and even eradicating certain infections diseases.
2. Discovery of antibiotics and many other drugs helped to treat a number of infectious diseases.

Question 14.
In your view, what motivates the youngsters to take to alcohol of drugs and how can this be avoided?
Answer:
1. Main motivating factors which stimulate the youngsters to take to alcohol or drug are:

• Peer pressure
• Desire for excitement
• Liking of taste
• To escape from frustrations Family’s history
• Curiosity due to advertisements
• False belief of enhanced performance
• To overcome the hardships of daily life.

2. Alcohol or drug abuse can be avoided by:

• To identify the reason of addition and to take remedial measures
• Avoid undue peer pressure
• By giving proper education and counseling to the addict.
• Seeking help from parents, teachers and trusted friends
• Seeking professional and medical help

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
(a) thyroid
(b) thalamus
(c) tonsil
(d) thymus
Answer:
(d) thymus

Question 2.
Use of antihistamines and steroids give a quick relief from
(a) allergy
(b) nausea
(c) cough
(d) headache
Answer:
(a) allergy

Question 3.
Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(a) Ringworm, AIDS
(b) Common cold, AIDS
(c) Dysentery, common cold
(d) Typhoid, tuberculosis
Answer:
(b) Common cold, AIDS

Question 4.
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
(a) defence mechanisms of body
(b) osmotic balance of body fluids
(c) oxygen transport in the blood
(d) clotting of blood
Answer:
(a) defence mechanisms of body

Question 5.
In the cell mediated immuno response, T- lymphocytes divide and secrete
(a) antigens
(b) plasmogens
(c) collagens
(d) cytokines
Answer:
(d) cytokines

Question 6.
During an allergic reaction, the binding of antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response, in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood vessels and a host of other physiological changes. Such chemicals are
(a) interferons
(b) hormones
(c) histamines
(d) acetylamine
Answer:
(c) histamines

Question 7.
Genetic material found in Fluman Immunodeficiency virus(HIV) is
(a) double-stranded RNA
(b) single-stranded RNA
(c) double-stranded DNA
(d) single-stranded DNA
Answer:
(b) single-stranded RNA

Question 8.
HIV virus affect in AIDS patient,
(a) cytotoxic T-cell
(b) M-Ncell
(c) suppressor cell
(d) helper T-cells
Answer:
(d) helper T-cells

Question 9.
Lung tuberculosis is caused by
(a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Escherichia coli
Answer:
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 10.
If the person shows the production of interferons in body, chances are that he is suffering from
(a) anthrax
(b) malaria
(c) measles
(d) tetanus
Answer:
(c) measles

Question 11.
Morphine obtained from opium is
(a) latex
(b) pome
(c) alkaloid
(d) tannin
Answer:
(c) alkaloid

Question 12.
Which of the following is an opiate narcotic?
(a) Morphine
(b) LSD
(c) Amphetamines
(d) Barbiturates
Answer:
(d) Barbiturates

Question 13.
Assertion LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics. Reason Both these drugs suppress brain function.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 14.
Cocaine, an alkaloid is obtained from the leaves of
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Ephedra sp. [Manipall
(c) Digitalis purpurea
(d) Papaversomnferum
Answer:
(a) Erythroxylon coca

Question 15.
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
(a) state of hallucination
(b) loss of memory
(c) suppression of brain function
Answer:
(c) suppression of brain function

Question 16.
Which of the following is not hallucinogen?
(a) Heroin
(b) LSD
(c) Marijuana
(d) Charas
Answer:
(a) Heroin

Question 17.
Widal test is used to detect
(a) pneumonia
(b) typhoid
(c) cholera
(d) whooping cough
Answer:
(b) typhoid

Question 18.
The organism responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli of the lungs is
(a) Streptococcus
(b) Haemophilus
(c) bacillus
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 19.
Rhino viruses which cause one of the most infectious human ailments they are
(a) common cold and chicken pox
(b) common cold
(c) diphtheria
(d) mumps
Answer:
(b) common cold

Question 20.
The malignant malaria is serious and fatal. It is due to
(a) Plasmodium falciparum
(b) P. malaria
(c) P. vivax
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Plasmodium falciparum

Question 21.
Bite of Anopheles mosquito causes the rupture of RBCs and release a toxic substance called as
(a) saxitoxin
(b) aflatoxin
(c) haemozoin
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) haemozoin

Question 22.
Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person to food and food products. This results
(a) malaria
(b) elephantiasis
(c) amoebiasis
(d) chikungunya
Answer:
(c) amoebiasis

Question 23.
Virus-infected cells secrete a kind of proteins which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection. It is belonged to
(a) Cytokine barriers
(b) Physical barriers
(c) Physiological barriers
(d) Cellular barriers
Answer:
(a) Cytokine barriers

Question 24.
The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation contains antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant, this is an example for
(a) active immunity
(b) passive immunity
(c) autoimmunity
(d) cell-mediated immunity
Answer:
(b) passive immunity

Question 25.
The antibodies produced as immune response to allergens come under
(a) lgE
(b) lgA
(c) lgM
(d) lgG
Answer:
(a) lgE

Question 26.
Due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells and cause the damage to the body
(a) passive immunity
(b) active immunity
(c) auto immunity
(d) innate immunity
Answer:
(c) auto immunity

Plus Two Zoology Human Health and Disease SCERT Sample Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A. Complete the table by using hints from brackets. (Haemophilus influenzae, Common cold, Salmonella Ityphi, Running nose & Nasal congestion, Pneumonia, Ascariasis, Sustained fever 39°C – 40°C, Malaria) (3)

Answer:

1. A-Salmonellatyphi
2. B – Sustained fever 39-400C
3. C – Common cold
4. D – Running Nose and Nasal congestion
5. E – Pneumonia
6. F – Haemophilus influenza

OR

B. Categorise the following organs into two, with appropriate headings. Thymus, Spleen, Bone marrow, Peyer’s Patches(3)
Answer:

1. Primary Lymphoid Organs
2. Thymus, Bone marrow
3. Secondary Lymphoid Organs
4. Spleen, Peyer’s Patches

Students can Download Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The factors which affect the success of an enterprise are called …………….
Answer:
Entrepreneurship values and attitudes.

Question 2.
Activities undertaken by an entrepreneur to bring a business unit into existence are known as ………………
Answer:
Entrepreneurship.

Question 3.
……………… is the reward of the entrepreneur for taking risks.
Answer:
Profit

Question 4.
Choose the right answer from the bracket given below.
(a) Employer
(b) Taking the responsibility of risk
(c) Maximise the wealth
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
Entrepreneurship must be encouraged due to …………………..
(a) It helps regional development.
(b) Promote export trade.
(c) Create employment opportunities.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Entrepreneur + Enterprise = ………………………..
Answer:
Entrepreneurship

Question 7.
The owner of a new enterprise is called?
Answer:
Entrepreneur

Question 8.
KASH means
Answer:
Knowledge + Attitude + Skills + Habits

Question 9.
Match the following.

A	B
a) Entrepreneur	a) Selecting the best project from various projects
b) Manager	b) Risk taking
c) Zero-in process	c) Profit
d) Return for taking risks	d) Not taking the risks

Answer:

A	B
a) Entrepreneur	a) Risk taking
b) Manager	b) Not taking the risks
c) Zero-in process Zero-in	c) Selecting the best project from various projects
d) Return for taking risks	d) Profit

Question 10.
Pick out the false statement.
(a) Entrepreneurship is a systematic and purposeful activity.
(b) The object of entrepreneurship is lawful business.
(c) Entrepreneurship involves risk.
(d) Entrepreneurship and management are same.
Answer:
(d)Entrepreneurship and management are same

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the steps in setting up of a business.

Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion Raju stated that “entrepreneur is also a manager. But manager is not an entrepreneur”. Are there any differences between these two?
Answer:
Relationship between Entrepreneurship and Management:

Entrepreneurship	Management
The main motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting up an enterprise.	The main motive of a manager is to render his services in an enterprise already set up by someone.
An entrepreneur is the owner of the enterprise.	A manager is the servant in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur assumes all risks and uncertainty.	A manager does not bear any risk involved in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur gets profit.	A manager gets salary.
An Entrepreneur acts as an innovator.	A manager executes the plans prepared by the entrepreneur.
Entrepreneur is self motivated	A manager is motivated by entrepreneur.

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is entrepreneurial motivation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Motivation:
The entrepreneurial motivation may be defined as the process that activates and motivates the entrepreneur to exert higher level of efforts for the achievement of organisational goals.

1. Need for Achievement (N-Ach.):
Need for achievement implies a desire to accomplish something difficult. They are intrinsically motivated. They prefer work that has a moderate chance for success (about 50/50) and tend to avoid situations that are low-risk and those that are high-risk.

2. Need for Power (N-Pow):
Need for Power is the concern for influencing people or the behaviour of others for moving in the chosen direction and attaining the envisioned objectives.

3. Need for Affiliation (N-Aff.):
The need for affiliation is characterised by a desire to belong, and enjoyment of teamwork, a concern about interpersonal relationships, etc.

4. Need for Autonomy (N-Aut.):
The need for autonomy is a desire for independence and being responsible and accountable to oneself rather than some external authority for performance.

Question 14.
The qualities or competencies of an entrepreneur can be written as KASH. What is it?
Answer:
Qualities of an entrepreneur can be summarised as follows:

• K – Knowledge
• A – Attitude
• S – Skills
• H – Habits

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the features of Entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Characteristics of Entrepreneurship

• It is a systematic and purposeful activity.
• The object of entrepreneurship is a lawful business.
• Entrepreneurship is a creative response to the environment and the ability to exploit an economic opportunity.
• It is concerned with employing, managing, and developing the factors of production.
• Entrepreneurship involves risk. Profit is the reward of risk-taking.

Question 2.
Distinguish between entrepreneurship and Management.
Answer:

Entrepreneurship	Management
The main motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting up an enterprise.	The main motive of a manager is to render his services in an enterprise already set up by someone.
An entrepreneur is the owner of the enterprise.	A manager is the servant in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur assumes all risks and uncertainty.	A manager does not bear any risk involved in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur gets profit.	A manager gets salary.
An Entrepreneur acts as an innovator.	A manager executes the plans prepared by the entrepreneur.
Entrepreneur is self motivated	A manager is motivated by entrepreneur.

Question 3.
List down the process of setting up of a business.
Answer:
Process of Setting up a Business:

Question 4.
An entrepreneur is a leader, philosopher, planner, etc. He must have several qualities and competencies. List down any five entrepreneurial competencies.
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Competencies:

1. He has the ability to take or initiate the first move towards setting up of an enterprise.
2. He is always on the look out or searching for opportunity and is ready to exploit it in the best interest of the enterprise.
3. Successful entrepreneur finds ways to do things faster with fewer resources at tower costs.
4. He belives in systematic planning and its proper execution to reach goals.
5. An entrepreneur is never disheartened by failures. He follows try-try again for overcoming the obstacles.
6. An entrepreneur is always in search of new ideas from various sources.
7. He has the ability to understand and solve business problems.
8. He must be optimistic

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An entrepreneur is responsible for doing several functions. What are the functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of Entrepreneurs in Relation to their Enterprise

1. Perceiving market opportunities
2. Gaining command over scarce resources.
3. Marketing of the products.
4. Face the competition
5. Dealing with public bureaucracy (concession, licenses and taxes)
6. Managing the human relation within the firm.
7. Managing customer and supplier relations.
8. Managing finance.
9. Acquiring and overseeing assembly of the factory.
10. Improve the quality of the products

Question 2.
Write an essay on the role of entrepreneurs in economic development.
Answer:
Functions (Role) of Entrepreneurs in Relation to Economic Development:
1. Contribution to GDP:
Entrepreneurs explore and exploit opportunities, encourage effective resource mobilisation of capital and skill, bring in new products and services and develops markets for growth of the economy. In this way, they help increasing gross national product (GDP) as well as per capita income of the people in a country.

2. Capital Formation:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of public. They employ these resources for setting up an enterprise.

3. Generation of Employment:
With the setting up of more and more business units by entrepreneurs, a large number of employment opportunities are created.

4. Promotes Balanced Regional Development:
Entrepreneurs help to remove regional disparities through setting up of industries in less developed and backward areas.

5. Reduces Concentration of Economic Power:
A large number of entrepreneurs needs to be developed, which will help reduce the concentration of economic power amongst the population.

6. Improvement in the Standard of Living:
Entrepreneurs enables the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

7. Promotes Export Trade:
Entrepreneurs help in promoting a country’s export-trade, which is an important ingredient of economic development.

8. Facilitates Overall Development:
The entrepreneurs multiply their entrepreneurial activities, thus creating an environment of enthusiasm and invite others for overall development of the area.

Students can Download Chapter 10 Financial Markets Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Financial Markets

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for medium and long-term instruments having a period of maturity of more than one year is?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Commercial bill market
(d) Call market
Answer:
(b) Capital market

Question 2.
Identify the related term from the following.

1. Share : Capital Market
2. Commercial Paper : ………………………

Answer:
2. Money Market

Question 3.
Identify the odd one.
(a) Bill of Exchange
(b) Treasury bills
(c) Certificate of deposits
(d) Equity shares
Answer:
(d) Equity shares

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Call money market
(b) Commercial bill market
(c) Treasury bill market
(d) New issue market
Answer:
(d) New issue market.

Question 5.
Which among the following is not related with Money Market?
(a) Call money market
(b) Equity shares
(c) Commercial Paper
(d) Certificate of Deposit
Answer:
(b) Equity shares

Question 6.
Offering the shares to existing shareholders whenever fresh issue is made. Identify the method of primary issue.
Answer:
Right issue

Question 7.
These shares are issued as fully paid shares to the existing shareholders in the ratio of shares held by them. Identify the share.
Answer:
Bonus shares

Question 8.
Birla White Ltd., a leading cement manufacturing company, proposes to give 1 Equity share to every 10 shares held by the existing Equity shareholders as dividend due to poor liquidity position. Identify the type of dividend the company proposes to declare.
(a) Cash dividend
(b) Property dividend
(c) Script dividend
(d) Stock dividend
Answer:
(d) Stock dividend

Question 9.
Treasury Bills are basically ……………….
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds
(b) An instrument to borrow long term funds
(c) An instrument of capital market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds

Question 10.
………………….. securities are not required to be listed in the
stock exchange.
Answer:
Government securities

Question 11.
A Method of floating new issues does not deal directly to public but operates issuing houses and brokers. Name the Method.
Answer:
Offer for sale

Question 12.
Identify the watchdog of the capital market.
Answer:
SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India)

Question 13.
Complete the series.
Money market: RBI
Capital market: ………….
Answer:
SEBI

Question 14.
National Stock Exchange of India was recognized as stock exchange in the year.
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 15.
NSE commenced futures trading in the year.
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(c) 2001

Question 16.
To be listed on OTCEI, the minimum capital requirement for a company is …………….
(a) Rs. 5 crore
(b) Rs. 30 lakh
(c) Rs. 6 crore
(d) Rs. 1 crore
Answer:
(b) Rs. 30 lakh

Question 17.
Admission of a company for trading its securities in the stock exchanged is called ………….
Answer:
Listing

Question 18.
Certificate of Deposit is issued by
(a) Bank
(b) Mutual Fund
(c) Government
Answer:
(a) Bank

Question 19.
The process by which physical share certificate are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form is termed as …………………..
Answer:
Dematerialisation

Question 20.
The issuing company will give a price band at which securities will be offered and gives the investors an opportunity to bid. Can you suggest the name for this method?
Answer:
Book building

Question 21.
At present trading in stock exchanges is taking place through ………………..
Answer:
Online trading

Question 22.
Smt. Faseela is a shareholder of ABC Co. Ltd, She gets an allotment of 50 shares free of cost from the company. ABC Ltd.

1. Find out the method of share allotment referred here.
2. Will it affect ownership?

Answer:

1. Bonus shares
2. Will not affect the ownership

Question 23.
Certain instruments of money market is short term, self – liquidating and used to finance credit sales. Name the instruments.
Answer:
Commercial bill

Question 24.
It is a long term financial market. It is divided as ………….. and ………………..
Answer:
Capital market, Primary market, Secondary market

Question 25.
Issue of shares through online trading system of stock exchange is called …………………
Answer:
Electronic – Initial Public Offer (e-IPO)

Question 26.
Which is the organised market where second hand securities are traded?
Answer:
Stock Exchange

Question 27.
………………. is the mirror which reflects the economic policies of a nation?
Answer:
Stock exchange

Question 28.
Exchange of paper certificate of securities into electronic form is called …………….
Answer:
De-mat (De Materialisation)

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Financial market perform an allocative function”. How?
Answer:
Financial markets channelise savings of investors and makes them available for needs of industry and hence they are set to perform the allocated function.

Question 2.
State the two categories into which financial markets are classified?
Answer:
Two categories into which financial markets are classified:

1. Money Market
2. Capital Market

Question 3.
Explain the features of Certificate of Deposit (CD).
Answer:
Money Market Instruments
1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par.

They are issued in the form of promissory notes. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills.They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
Define stock exchange.
Answer:
Stock Exchange:
According to Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956, stock exchange means any body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, constituted for the purpose of assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying and selling or dealing in securities.

Question 5.
Explain briefly how stock exchanges provide liquidity and marketability to existing securities?
Answer:
Stock exchange provides a continuous market where securities are brought and sold. It provides opportunities for investors to disinvest and reinvest in securities. It there by provides liquidity and easy marketability to securities.

Question 6.
Write the full form of

1. OTCEI
2. NSE

Answer:

1. OTCEI is Over the Counter Exchange of India.
2. NSE is National Stock Exchange.

Question 7.
State the minimum capital requirement for a company to be listed with OTCEI
Answer:
For company to be listed with OTCEI minimum paid up capital Rs. 30 Lack or more.

Question 8.
In a classroom discussion, Asharaf argued that only listed securities are permitted to be in a stock exchange. While, Sundar argued that certain unlisted securities are also tilled in a stock exchange.

1. Whose argument do you support?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. We support the argument of Sundar.
2. Government securities do not require to be listed.

Question 9.
What is Primary Market?
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for short term financial assets having a maturity period of less than one year.

1. Explain the concept referred above.
2. How does it differ from capital market?

Answer:

1. Money market
2. Difference between capital market and money market

Capital Market	Money Market
1) Market deals only long term fund.	1) Market deals only short term fund.
2) It arranges large amount of fund.	2) It arranges small amount of fund.
3. Return is high.	3) Return is law.
4) The instruments used are equity shares, preference shares, debentures and bonds.	4) The instruments used are call money, treasury bills, trade bills, commercial paper and certificate of deposit.
5) SEBI is the market regulator.	5) RBI is the market regulator.
6) Capital market instruments are highly risky.	6) Money market instruments are safe.

Question 2.
Define primary market. State any two methods of issuing securities in primary market.
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Methods of flotation:
There are various methods of floating new issues in the primary market. They are:

a. Offer through Prospectus:
Prospectus is an invitation to the public for the subscription of shares and debentures of a company. The issues may be underwritten and also are required to be listed on at least one stock exchange.

b. Offer for Sale:
Under this method new securities are not offered directly to the public. Initially the entire lots of securities are sold to an intermediary at a fixed price. The intermediary sells these securities to the public at a higher price.

c. Private Placement:
Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors or some selected individuals. It is less expensive and saves time.

d. Rights Issue:
According to the Companies Act, if a public company wants to issue additional shares, it must first be offered to the existing shareholders, in proportion to the amount paid up on their shares. This right is known as ‘Pre-emptive right’ and such an issue is called right issue.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following documents traded in a capital market and money market. Treasury bill, Debentures, Certificate of deposit, Bonds, Equity shares, Commercial paper, Trade bill, and Preference shares.
Answer:

• Treasury bill – Money market
• Debentures – Capital market
• Certificate of deposit – Money market
• Bonds – Capital market
• Equity shares – Capital market
• Commercial paper – Money market
• Trade bill – Money market
• Preference shares – Capital market

Question 2.
During late 1990’s trading took place in the trading ring of the stock exchange through direct auction. In the trading, ring brokers assemble together and make a bargain on the price of securities. Therefore, investors felt difficulty in taking the delivery of securities soon after the execution of the transaction.

1. Explain the new system emerged to overcome these limitations.
2. Explain the merits of the new system.

Answer:

1. Online Trading.
2. Advantages of electronic trading system (Screen based online trading)
On line trading means buying and selling of shares and debentures are done through a computer terminal.

• On line trading ensures transparency in dealing.
• It helps in fixing prices of securities efficiently.
• It increases efficiency of operations by reducing time, cost and risk of errors.
• People from all over the country can buy or sell securities through brokers.
• All trading centres have been brought into one trading platform.

Question 3.
“NSEI” is the largest stock exchange of the country”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its features.

Answer:
1. National Stock Exchange of India (NSE):
NSE is the most modern stock exchange in India. It was incorporated in 1992 and was recognised as a stock exchange in April 1993. It commenced operations in 1994. NSE has set up a nationwide fully automated screen based trading system.

2. Objectives of NSE:

• Establishing a nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
• Ensuring equal access to investors all over the country.
• Providing a transparent securities market using electronic trading system.
• Enabling shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlements.
• Meeting international benchmarks and standards.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of SEBI?
Answer:
Objectives of SEBI

• To regulate stock exchange and the securities market to promote their orderly functioning.
• To protect the rights and interests of investors and to guide and educate them.
• To prevent trade malpractices.
• To regulate and develop a code of conduct to intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In India, a major portion of money market transaction is conducted by commercial banks like SBI, PNB, etc. Development banks like IFC, IDBI, etc. and special financial institutions like DFHI, UTI, etc. The indigenous banks, moneylenders and chitty funds are also other participants in the market.

1. Categorise these money market participants into appropriate heads.
2. Identify the submarkets in which these institutions participate for short term dealings.

Answer:
1. Capital market can be divided into organized market and unorganized market.

Organised Money Market	Unorganised Money Market
Commercial Banks	Indigenous Bank
Development banks	Moneylenders
Special financial institutions	Chitty Funds

2. The submarkets are called money market, commercial bill market, treasury bill market, commercial paper market, etc.

Question 2.
Listing of securities with a stock exchange involves stringent procedures. Small companies find it difficult to undergo is such formalities. Therefore, when such companies issue shares, there are only a few buyers for them.

1. Identify the stock exchange promoted to solve these problem faced by small companies.
2. List out the main features and advantages of this stock exchange.

Answer:
1. Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI):
The OTCEI is a company incorporated under the Companies Act 1956. It was set-up to provide smalt and medium companies an access to the capital market.

It is fully computerised, transparent, single window exchange which provides quicker liquidity to securities at a fixed and fair price, liquidity for less traded securities. It is commenced trading in 1992.

2. Objectives of OTCEI

• Provide a trading platform to smaller and less liquid companies.
• Provide online trading facilities to the investors.
• Ensure a transparent system of trading.
• Ensure liquidity to the listed securities.
• Help the investors to exchange the securities at minimum cost.

Question 3.
Shareholders in India were facing a lot of problems in handling the paper based certification, such as delay in transfer of ownership, forgery and theft of certification, bad delivery, etc. But nowadays there are no such difficulties. Paper forms of shares are not seen.

1. What is this paperless security called?
2. What are its merits?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation

2. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

Question 4.
Explain the steps involved in the Purchase / Sale of securities.
Answer:
Trading Procedure on a Stock Exchanges:

• Selection of a broker.
• Opening Demat account with the Depository Participant (D.P.).
• Placing an order for the purchase or sale of securities with the broker.
• Purchase or sale of securities through on-line.
• Delivery of the contract note to the investor.
• Effecting changes in the Demat account.
• Making payment or receiving of money.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of depository services and Demat Account?
Answer:
Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Question 6.
“SEBI is the watchdog of the security market”. Do you agree? Comment.
Answer:
Yes.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.

1. What do you mean by dematerialisation?
2. What are the benefits of Demat account?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

2. Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What is the Secondary market?
2. Explain the functions of Secondary Market.
3. Distinguish it from the Primary Market.

Answer:
1. Secondary market:
The secondary market is also known as the stock market or Stock exchange. It is a market for the purchase and sale of existing securities. It also provides liquidity and marketability to existing securities

2. Functions of a Stock Exchange:

a. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

b. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

c. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

d. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

e. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

f. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

3. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Primary Market	Secondary Market
1. It deals with new securities.	1. It deals with existing securities.
2. It promotes capital formation directly.	2. It promotes capital formation indirectly.
3. Investors can only buy securities.	3. Investors can buy and sell the securities.
4. Prices of the securi­ties are determined by the management of the company.	4. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.
5. Companies sell securities directly.	5. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.

Question 2.
“In today’s commercial world, the stock exchange performs vital functions”. Explain the functions.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 3.
Prepare a seminar report on various segments of the money market.
Answer:

Money Market Instruments:

1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par. They are issued in the form of promissory notes.

They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills. They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
“Stock exchange is the barometer of the country’s economic health”. Discuss.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 5.
Prepare an assignment on functions of stock exchange.
Answer:

Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 6.
RBI is the controller and guide of banks in India. In the field of stock market an institution similar to RBI is there. Can you name it and explain its objectives and functions?
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.
“It is the regulatory and development agency of Indian Capital Market.”

1. Identify the agency referred here.
2. Explain its functions.

Answer:
1. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)

2. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 8.

1. What is Primary Market?
2. How it differs from Secondary Market?

Answer:
1. Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans, and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds, and individuals.

2. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Primary Market	Secondary Market
1. It deals with new securities.	1. It deals with existing securities.
2. It promotes capital formation directly.	2. It promotes capital formation indirectly.
3. Investors can only buy securities.	3. Investors can buy and sell the securities.
4. Prices of the securi­ties are determined by the management of the company.	4. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.
5. Companies sell securities directly.	5. Prices are determined by the demand and supply of securities.