Class 8

In the final stage of revision, Class 8 Maths Question Paper Pdf Kerala Syllabus Set 2 help manage time.

Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 2

Times: 1½ hr.
Score: 40

Instructions

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about answers.
• There are 16 questions, split in to 4 parts A, B, C, D
• Answer all questions; but in questions of the type A or B you need answer only one of those.
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number.
• Answers must be explained, whenever necessary.

Section – A
This section has 4 questions of score 1 each. Select the correct answer.

Question 1.
A table showing classes and frequencies is called ________
(a) Pie chart
(b) Bar graph
(c) Histogram
(d) Frequency table
Answer:
(d) Frequency table

Question 2.
Which statement is TRUE?
(a) Equal chords are at unequal distances from the centre
(b) Chords at equal distances from the centre are equal
(c) Perpendicular bisector of a chord never passes through the centre
(d) Radius is always perpendicular to the chord
Answer:
(b) Chords at equal distances from the centre are equal

Question 3.
Two statements are given below:
(i) The diagonals of all parallelograms bisects each other perpendicularly.
(ii) The diagonal of a rhombus bisects each other perpendicularly.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Only (i) is true
(c) Only (ii) is true
(d) (i) and (ii) is not true
Answer:
(c) Only (ii) is true

Question 4.
Two sides of a triangle are equal. Small angle is 30°. What is the one of the equal angles?
(a) 100°
(b) 75°
(c) 70°
(d) 50°
Answer:
(b) 75°

Angle sum 180
Smallest is 30°. Sum of the equal angles is 150°
Equal angle is 75°

Section – B
This section has 4 questions of score 2 each.

Question 5.
Calculate \(\frac{1}{7}-\frac{3}{7}+\frac{5}{7}-\frac{7}{7}+\cdots+\frac{21}{7}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{1-3+5-7+9-11+13-15+17-19+21}{7}\)
= \(\frac{-10+21}{7}\)
= \(\frac{11}{7}\)

Question 6.
When \(\frac{2}{3}\) of a number is subtracted from a number we get 13 . What is the number?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{3}\) of the number is 13.
Number is 3 × 13 = 39

Question 7.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4:5:9.
(a) Write the angles as multiples of x.
Answer:
Angles are 4x, 5x, 9x

(b) Find the angles.
Answer:
Sum of angles =180
⇒ 4x + 5x + 9x = 180
⇒ 18x = 180
⇒ x = 10
So, angles are 40°, 50°, 90°

Question 8.
Draw the following trapezium.

Answer:

Section – C
This section has 4 questions of socre 3 each.

Question 9.
Sum of two consecutive natural numbers is 63
(a) If the smaller is x then what is the other number.
Answer:
x, x + 1 are the numbers

(b) Write the equations and find the numbers.
Answer:
2x + 1 = 63, 2x = 62, x = 31
Numbers are 31, 32

Question 10.
In a class of 52 students, number of boys is \(\frac{6}{7}\) of number of girls. How many are boys ?
Answer:
Number of boys x, number of girls 52 — x 6
x = \(\frac{6}{7}\) × (52 – x),7x = 6(52 – x)
7x = 312 – 6x, 13x = 312, x – 24
Boys 24 girls 28

Question 11.
[A] This is the section of a regular polygon.

(a) What are the angles of triangle ?
Answer:
18°, 18°, 144°

(b) What is an outer angle ?
Answer:
180 – 144 = 36°

(c) How many sides does this polygon have ?
Answer:
\(\frac{360}{36}\) = 10

OR

[B] The diagram shows an equilateral triangle, a square, and one diagonal of the square. What is the value of ?

Answer:
Equilateral triangle has one inner angle 60°
Square has inner angle 90°
A diagonal divides it into 45° each
x = 60 + 45 = 105°

Question 12.
[A] In the figure ABCD is a parallelogram. AB = 6 cm. The distance between AB and CD is 3 cm and the distance between AD and BC is 2 cm. Find the perimeter of the parallelogram.

Answer:
Area of the parallelogram ABCD = 6 × 3 = 18 cm²
Also, area – BC × 2 = 18
⇒ BC = 18 + 2 = 9 cm
AB = CD = 6 cm
AD = BC = 9 cm
∴ Perimeter = 2(6 + 9) = 30 cm

OR

[B] The area of a rhombus is 120 cm² and the length of one of its diagonals is 24 cm.
(a) Find the length of its second diagonal.
Answer:
Area =120 cm²
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) × d₁ × d₂ = 120
⇒ \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 24 × d₂ = 120
⇒ d₂ = 120 ÷ 12 = 10 cm

(b) Find the perimeter.
Answer:
Length of side of the rhombus
= \(\sqrt{12^2+5^2}=\sqrt{144+25}=\sqrt{169}\) = 13 cm
∴ Perimeter = 4 × 13 = 52 cm

Section – D
This section has 4 questions of score 4 each.

Question 13.
Check the steps given below:
\(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1}{10} \times \frac{10}{3}\)
= \(\frac{1}{10}\left(3+\frac{1}{3}\right)\)
= \(\frac{3}{10}+\frac{1}{30}\)
\(\frac{1}{3}-\frac{3}{10}=\frac{1}{30}\)

(a) Write two more steps and convert \(\frac{1}{3}\) into decimal form.
Answer:
Step 1:

Decimal form of \(\frac{1}{3}\) is 0.3333….

(b) Write the decimal form of \(\frac{1}{9}\) and \(\frac{2}{9}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{9}\) = 0.111 …..
\(\frac{2}{9}\) = 0.222……

(c) Calculate \(\sqrt{0.444} \ldots\)
Answer:
\(\sqrt{0.444} \ldots\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{4}{9}}=\frac{2}{3}=\frac{6}{9}\) = 0.666 ………..

Question 14.
One side of a triangle has a length of 6 cm, and the angles at the ends of that side are 40° and 70°. Draw the triangle and construct its circumcircle.
Answer:

Question 15.
[A] (i) 11² + 10² = 121 +100 = 221 By using this , write 442 as the sum of the two perfect squares.
(ii) If the square of a number ending in 5 is of the form 110pq. Then p × q = ________.
(iii) (a) 7.6² = ________
(b) 75.4² = ________
Answer:
(i) 442 = 2 × 221
= 2(11² + 10²)
= (11 + 10)² + (11 – 10)²
442 = 21² + 1²

(ii) p × q = 2×5 = 10

(iii) (a) 7.6² = 72 + 2 × 7 × 0.6 + (0.6)²
= 49 + 8.4 + 0.36
= 57.76

(b) 75.4² = 75² + 2 × 75 × 0.4 + (0.4)²
= 5625 + 60 + 0.16
= 5685.16

OR

[B] The perimeter of a rectangle is 48 centimetres. The ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3,
(a) Length + breadth =
(b) Calcualte the length and breadth.
(c) If the breadth is increased by 1 centimetre, then find the ratio between length and breadth
Answer:
a) Length + breadth = \(\frac{48}{2}\) = 24 cm

b) Length : breadth = 5:3
∴ Length = 24 × \(\frac{5}{8}\) = 15 cm
Breadth = 24 × \(\frac{3}{8}\) = 9 cm 8

c) If the breadth is increased by 1 cm
Means
New breadth = 9 + 1 = 10 cm
∴ Length : breadth = 15:10 = 3:2

Question 16.
[A] The marks obtained by 25 students in an examination are given below. Prepare a grouped frequency table and answer the following questions, (maximum mark: 40)
25, 30, 33, 18, 36
12, 25, 30, 15, 25
19, 25, 30, 33, 20
35, 37, 29, 31, 30
31, 28, 33, 31, 30
(i) How many students scored less than 15 marks?
(ii) How many students scored 30 marks or more?
(iii) How many students scored more than 25 marks?
(iv) How many students scored between 30 and 40 marks?
Answer:

Class interval	Number of students
10-15	1
15-20	3
20-25	1
25-30	6
30-35	11
35-40	3
Total	25

i. 1 student
ii. 14 students
iii. 20 students
iv. 14 students

OR

[B] Some natural numbers can be, written as the difference of two perfect squares. For example,
8 = 4 × 2 × 1 = 3² – 1²
12 = 4 × 3 × 1 = 4² – 2²
16 = 4 × 4 × 1 = 5² – 3² ……..
(a) Write 20 as the difference of two perfect squares.
Answer:
20 = 4 × 5 × 1 = 6² – 4²

(b) Explain using algebra, the method of writng all multiples of 4, starting with 8 as the difference of two perfect squares.
Answer:
4 × x × 1 = (x + 1)² – (x – 1)²
(x + 1)² – (x – 1)²
= (x + 1 + x – 1)(x + 1 – [x – 1])
= 2x × 2 = 4 × x × 1

In the final stage of revision, Class 8 Maths Question Paper Pdf Kerala Syllabus Set 1 help manage time.

Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper Set 1

Times: 1½ hr.
Score: 40

Instructions

• Use the first 15 minutes to read the questions and think about answers.
• There are 16 questions, split in to 4 parts A, B, C, D
• Answer all questions; but in questions of the type A or B you need answer only one of those.
• You can answer the questions in any order, writing the correct question number.
• Answers must be explained, whenever necessary.

Section – A
This section has 4 questions of score 1 each. Select the correct answer.

Question 1.
In a right angled triangle with its perpendicular sides 9 cm and 12 cm, the radius of its circumcircle is:
(a) 6 cm
(b) 7.5 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 15cm
Answer:
(b) 7.5 cm

Hypotenuse =15 cm
⇒ Radius = \(\frac{15}{2}\) = 7.5 cm

Question 2.
A histogram is drawn for …
(a) Discrete data
(b) Continuous data
(c) Alphabetical data
(d) Tally marks
Answer:
(b) continuous data

Question 3.
Four statements are given below Identify the true statement
(a) Equal triangles have equal area
(b) Equiangular triangles (Triangles having equal angles) are equal triangles
(c) Equality one angle and any two sides of two triangles make them equal
(d) One side and angle at the ends can fix a triangle

(a) (a) and (b) are true
(b) (a) and (c) are true
(c) (b) and (c) are true
(d) (a) and (d) are true
Answer:
(d) (a) and (d) are true
Equality means identical or having same shape and side

Question 4.
101² – 100²
(a) 1
(b) 201
(c) 100
(d) none of these
Answer:
101² – 100² = 101 + 100 = 201

Section – B
This section has 4 questions of score 2 each.

Question 5.
Find the sum of the angles marked in the star.

Answer:

In triangle BQD, sum of the marked angles is the outer angle at Q
In triangle PCE, the marked angle sum is the outer angle at P
All marked angles make the sum 180°

Question 6.
The age of Ammu’s mother is now four times of Ammu. After 20 years mothers age will be two times Ammu’s age
(a) If Ammu’s age is x then write the equation.
Answer:
Ammu’s age x, Mothers age 4x

(b) Find the age of Ammu and her mother.
Answer:
After 20 years Ammu’s age = x +
20,mothers age = 4x + 20
4x + 20 = 2(x + 20), 4x + 20
= 2x + 40, x = 10
Ammu’s age 10, Mother age 40

Question 7.
Write the following in the simplified form
\(\frac{12-11+10-9+8-7}{6-5+4-3+2-1}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{12-11+10-9+8-7}{6-5+4-3+2-1}=\frac{1+1+1}{1+1+1}=\frac{3}{3}\)
= 1

Question 8.
The area of a rectangle is 2100 sq.cm.
(a) Write length and breadth as multiple of x.
Answer:
Length = 7x
Breadth = 3x

(b) Find the length and breadth of the rectangle.
Answer:
Area = 2100 sq.cm
length × breadth = 2100
7x × 3x = 2100
21x² = 2100
x² = 100
x = 10
Length = 70 cm
Breadth = 30 cm

Section – C
This section has 4 questions of socre 3 each.

Question 9.
Draw a square with side length 4 cm and construct its circumcircle.
Answer:

Question 10.
Draw a rectangle of diagonal 5.5 cm with the angle between the diagonals 50°.
Answer:
Draw a diagonal 5.5 cm long. Draw its perpendicular bisector. Take angle 50° from this midpoint. Distance on either side of the mid point on the first diagonal is same as on the second diagonal. Join the points. We get the required rectangle.

Question 11.
[A] i. Five angles of a hexagon have measures 100°, 110°, 120°, 130°, 140°. What is the measure of the sixth angle?
ii. Squares are drawn on the sides of a regular hexagon.

Find x
Answer:
(i) Inner angle sum of the hexagon is 720°
Sixth angle is
= 720 – (100 + 110 + 120 + 130 + 140)
= 720 – 600
= 120°

(ii) One inner angle of regular hexagon is 120°
Two squares in a comer make the angles 90°.
Angle around the comer is 360°
x = 360 – (120 + 90 + 90) = 60

OR

[B] Draw 22 \(\frac{1}{2}\) cone using scale and compass.
Answer:
Draw a line and mark a point on it. Draw a perpendicular line through the point.
90° angle is formed. Draw the angle bisctor. 45° angle is formed. Draw the angle bisctor.
22 \(\frac{1}{2}\) angle is formed.

Question 12.
[A] (a) Write the following as powers of 10: \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{8}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)

(b) Write their decimal forms.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5, \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 0.25, \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 0.125

(c) Calculate: 1 – \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{8}\)
Answer:
1 – \(\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{8}=\frac{1}{8}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{8}=\frac{4}{8}+\frac{1}{8}=\frac{5}{8}\) = 0.625

OR

[B] Four numbers forming a square in a calendar are given below:

(a) Find the difference of its diagonal products.
(b) Is it the same for all squares of four numbers in a calendar? Explain using algebra.
Answer:
(a) (5 × 11) – (4 × 12) = 7
(b) Yes

x	x + 1
x + 7	x + 8

Difference of diagonal product
= ((x + 1)(x + 7)) – (x(x + 8))
= x² + 8x + 7 – (x² + 8x)
= 7

Section – D
This section has 4 questions of score 4 each.

Question 13.
Draw a right triangle with two angles 45° and length of its hypotneous as 4.75 centimetres.
Answer:
Draw a line of length 9.5 cm. Draw its perpendicular bisector.
The part of the line on one side of the perpendicular bisector will be 4.75 cm.
The angle between the line and the perpendicular bisector is 90 0 Draw the angle bisector.
Draw a perpendicular from one end of the line to the angle bisector. It forms a right triangle.

Question 14.
(i) Draw an equilateral triangle with side length 4 cm and construct its circumcircle.
Answer:

(ii) The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:3. If the longest side is 18 cm, what is the radius of the circumcircle?
Answer:
It is a right-angled triangle.
The radius of the circumcircle is 9 cm, which is half of the hypotenuse.

Question 15.
[A] (i) In the figure AB = CF, EF = BD, ∠DBC = ∠AFE

(a) Are the triangles AFE and triangle BDC equal ? How do you know this?
Answer:
AB = CF
∴ AB + BF = CF + BF
ie., AF = CB,
BD = EF,
∠DBC = ∠AFE
Triangles are equal

(b) What are the equal sides and equal angles of these triangles?
Answer:
CD = AE, EF = BD, ∠DBC = ∠AFE

(ii) In the figure AB = AC, E is the mid point of AB, F is the mid point of AC .
(a) What are the equal triangles in the figure ?
Answer:
AB = AC ⇒ ∠B = ∠C
BE = CF, BC is common
Triangle BEC and triangle CFB are equal

(b) If BF = 12 cm then what is CE ?
Answer:
Sides opposite to equal angles are equal. CE = 12 cm

OR

[B] ABCDEF is a polygon

(a) What is the suitable name for this polygon?
(b) How many diagonals can be drawn from any one of the vertices?
(c) What is the sum of inner angles of this polygon
(d) What is the sum of inner anlgles of a 7 sided polygon?
Answer:
(a) Hexagon
(b) 3 w
(c) 180 × 4 = 720°
(d) 720 + 180 = 900°

Question 16.
[A] The scores of 30 students in a test are given below.
21, 32, 5, 12, 36, 24, 31, 15, 27, 34
44, 39, 37, 25, 7, 20, 23, 12, 9, 40
46, 42, 28, 16, 47, 27, 37, 18, 49, 26

(a) Prepare a frequency table as shown below.
Answer:

(b) How many students scored more than 30?
Answer:
7 + 6 = 13 students

OR

[B] In figure, ∠AOB = 71° OC is the bisector of ∠AOB

(a) What is the measure of ∠AOC ?
Answer:
∠AOC = \(\frac{71}{2}\) = 35\(\frac{1^0}{2}\)

(b) Draw triangle PQR with PQ = 6 centimetres,
∠P = 35\(\frac{1^0}{2}\), ∠Q = 60°
Answer:
Draw OQ = 6 cm, ∠P = 71° and
∠Q = 60°. Draw bisector of ∠P.
Now in ∆PQR, ∠P = \(\frac{71}{2}\) = 35.5°

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Time: 2 hour
Total Score: 60

Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your answers.
2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Question 1.
Cheetah is the fastest animal on land. Its speed is given in different ways. Which among these is correct?
a) 25 metre pers
b) 25 m/s
c) 25 m/s²
d) 25 M/S
Answer:
d) 25 M/S

Question 2.
The folloing figures depict. two electro-magnets made from two iron nails of same size.
Statement 1: (a) is the strongest electromagnet as it has more number of turns of coil compared to(b)
Statement 2: (b) is the strongest electromaguet as it has less number of turns of coil compared to (a)

Options:
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
c) Only the first statement is correct

Section – B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 6 and 7 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
A person start from A, moves through B, C and reaches D in 30 s.

a) Calculate the distance.
b) Find out the speed.
Answer:
a) Distance covered from A to D
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 m

b) Speed = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{30 \mathrm{~m}}{30 \mathrm{~s}}\) = 1 m/s

Question 4.
A child measures the total thickness of the papers of his science diary having 200 sheets and finds it to be 2 cm. Find the thickness of one of these papers in SI unit.
Answer:
Thickness of one paper = \( \frac{Height of the pile of papers }{No. of papers}\)
Thickness of one paper = \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~cm}}{200}=\frac{1}{100} \mathrm{~cm}\)
= 0. 01 cm
Thickness of paper in SI unit = \(\frac{0.01 \mathrm{~cm}}{100}\)
= 0.0001 m

Question 5.
Rahul care fully cut the bar magnet he had exactly into two pieces to observe whether it becomes a magnet with only a south pole. What is your conclusion? Why?
Answer:
No, it does not become a magnet with only a south pole. Every broken piece of a magnet, no matter how small it is, it will always have both south and north poles. A magnet with only one pole does not exist

Question 6.
A. Calculate the force exerted by atmospheric pressure on a table surface of area 3 m2. Atmospheric pressure is 101325 Pascal.
Answer:
A. Force = Pressure × Area
= 1 Pa × 3 m²
= 101325 × 3
= 303975 N

OR
B. The weight of the air column over unit area of earth’s surface is atmospheric pressure.
a) What is standard atmospheric pressure?
b) Name the instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
a) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is known as standard atmospheric pressure. It is defined as the weight of a mercury column that is 0.76 m high, with a unit cross sectional area, exerting a pressure of 1 atm.

b) Barometer.

Question 7.
A. When certain bodies are rubbed against one another, electron transfer takes place between them. Complet the table give below on the basis of this concept.

Pair of bodies used for rubbing	Body that loses electrons	Body that receives negative charge
Ebonite, Wool	(a)	(b)
Glass rod, Silk	(c)	(d)

Answer:
a) Wool
b) Ebonite
c) Glass rod
d) Silk cloth

OR
B. a) Mention the method to confirm whether bodies possess charge?
b) What is the unit of charge?
Answer:
a) From the property of repulsion.
b) coulomb

Question 8.
Correct the following statements if there are any mistakes in them.
a) The virtual image formed by convex mirror is always magnified.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called convex mirrors.
Answer:
a) The virtual image is formed by convex mirror is always diminished.
b) Spherical mirrors with a reflecting surface curved inward are called concave mirrors.

Section – C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
A ray of light is made to fall on the pole of a concave mirror making an angle 30° with the principal axis.
a) What is the angle of reflection?
b) Justify your answer.
c) Draw the ray diagram.
Answer:
a) Angle of reflection = 30°
b) The ray falling at the pole reflects at an angle equal to that of the incident angle.
c)

Question 10.
A. a) The pole of a magnet attracts an iron nail which has no magnetic power. Describe the working behind this.
b) What are the factors that the attractive force of two magnetic poles depend on?
Answer:
a) The magnet attracts the iron nail brought near the pole of a magnet as the result of magnetic induction. If a magnetic material is bought near the magnetic field of the magnet, an unlike pole is induced at its near end. The pole of permanent magnet attracts the newly formed unlike poles. That is why the magnetic pole attracts a magnetic material near it.

b) The attractive force between the magnetic poles increases with increase in the strength of the pole and decreases with increase in the distance between the poles.

OR
B. a) What do you mean by susceptibility and retentivity?
b) Compare soft iron and steel in terms of its susceptibility and retentivity
Answer:
a) Susceptibility is the ability of magnetic materials to get magnetised due to the influence of an external magnetic field.
b) Retentivity is the ability to retain the magnetism.

Soft iron	Steel
• The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is low’.	• The ability to retain magnetism acquired (retentivity) is very high
• Its susceptibility is very high.	• Its susceptibility is very low

CHEMISTRY 

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2.1 score each. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Match the following.
Substances
i) Lemon juice
ii) Yoghurt/Buttermilk
iii) Tamarind
iv) Vinegar

Acid responsible for the sour taste
a) Lactic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Tartaric acid

Choose the correct order.
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
B) i – a, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a
D) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
Answer:
A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c

Question 2.
Two statements related to steam and boiling water are given below. Examine them and choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Boiling water causes more severe bums than steam since it has a higher temperature. Statement 2: Steam contains more energy than boiling water.
Options:
A) Both statements are correct
B) Only the second statement is correct.
C) Only the first statement is correct
D) Both statements are incorrect.
Answer:
B) Only the second statement is correct.

Section – B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Magnesium is taken in a test tube, and a liquid is added to it. A vigorous chemical reaction occurs, and a gas is released. If a burning splinter is shown to. the gas, it bums with a “pop” sound.
a) Identify the probable liquid added to the test tube.
b) Which gas was produced?
Answer:
a) Dilute Hydrochloric acid
b) Hydrogen

Question 4.
(A) Polymers are macromolecules formed by the combination of many monomers.
a) How are polymers classified?
b) Classify the following: Cotton, Wool, Nylon, Silk, Bakelite, Jute, PVC, Polythene
Answer:
a) Polymers are classified into natural polymers and synthetic polymers,
b) Natural polymers – Cotton, wool, Silk, Jute, Synthetic polymers – Polythene, Bakelite, PVC, Nylon

OR
(B) Identify whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the statements.
a) Thermosetting plastics cannot be reheated or melted to make new, reshaped products.
b) Monomers are macromolecules composed of many simpler molecules.
Answer:
a) True.
b) False. Polymers are macromolecules composed of many simple molecules.

Question 5.
Water pollution is a maj or issue we face today.
a) Write down any two situations in which water in your locality gets polluted.
b) Suggest a method to prevent water pollution.
Answer:
a) • Untreated sewage and wastewater
• Plastic and garbage dumping

b) • Reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture to prevent runoff into water bodies.
• Avoid dumping plastic, oils, and other non- biodegradable waste into water sources.
• Promote rainwater harvesting
• Raise awareness about water conservation.

Question 6.
a) What are periods and groups in the periodic table?
b) How many of these are there in the modem periodic table?
Answer:
a) The horizontal rows in the table are called periods and the vertical columns are called groups. Elements in a group show similar chemical properties.

b) Periods – 7
Groups – 18

Question 7.
Take 5 mL of sodium chloride solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of silver nitrate solution to it. Record the observations and conclusions of this experiment.
Answer:
Observation – Acurdy white precipitate is formed. Conclusion – Chloride (Cl^–) ion react with silver nitrate to form white precipitate of silver chloride.

Question 8.
(A) The modem periodic table that we use today is the result of the efforts of many scientists. Explain the
classification of elements done by the following scientists.
a) Lavoisier
b) Newlands
Answer:
(A) Antoine Lavoisier: Classified the then-known elements into metals and non-metals. Newlands: The elements were arranged based on mass number using the Law of Octaves.

OR
(B) a) How did Mendeleev classify the elements?
b) Write one advantage of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Answer:
a) Elements were arranged in the ascending order of atomic mass using periodic law.

b) • Blank spaces were left for elements to be discovered and their properties were predicted.
• Elements with similar properties were grouped together to simplify the study of elements and their compounds.

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 has a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Two activities are given:
(i) Take a little ammonium nitrate salt solution in a test tube. Add freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution
to it. Add concentrated sulphuric acid drop by drop very slowly through the. sides of the test tube.

(ii) Take a little sodium carbonate salt solution in a test tube. Add 2 mL of dilute hydrochloric acid to it. Pass the gas released from the test tube through clear lime water.
a) Write the observation of activity (i).
b) Write the observation of activity (ii).
c) Name the gas formed in activity (ii).
Answer:
a) A brown ring forms between the two liquids.
b) The lime water turns milky.
c) Carbon dioxide gas (CO₂ gas)

Question 10.
(A) Two samples of water are given.
Sample 1 – Soap gives lather easily.
Sample 2 – Soap does not lather easily.
a) Which sample represents hard water?
b) Which among the following salts causes hardness of water? (Sodium carbonate, Magnesium chloride. Zinc hydroxide, Ammonium chloride)
c) Which type of hardness of water can be removed by boiling?
Answer:
(A) a) Sample 2
b) Magnesium chloride
c) Temporary hardness

OR
(B) Soap decreases the surface tension of water.
a) What is surface tension?
b) How does the decrease in surface tension benefit washing clothes?
Answer:
a) The surface of liquids acts like a stretched elastic membrane. The property responsible for this is called surface tension, b) When surface tension decreases, water can spread easily through the threads.

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7,8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Match the scientists with their contributions.

A	B
1. Theophrastus	A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms
2. Aristotle	B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs
3. Ernst Haeckel	C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms
4. Robert H. Whittaker	D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood

Answer:
B. Classified plants into trees, shrubs, and herbs
D. Classified organisms into those with red blood and those without red blood
C. Classified living things into 3 kingdoms
A. Classified living things into 5 kingdoms

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer.
Statement 1: Fossil studies also show that Pakicetus, the ancestor of the whales, had the physical
characteristics of a wolf, as well as a body structure suitable tr swimming.

Statement 2: The ancestor of the Whales was an ancient mammal called Pakicetus, which lived 60 million years ago.
(a) Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statements 1 and 2 are wrong
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true
Answer:
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Observe the picture and answer the questions below.

a) Which farming method is shown in the picture?
b) What is the advantage of this farming method?
Answer:
a) Pet bottle farming
b) The maximise the use of space

Question 4.
Some organisms included in a food chain are given below.

a) Make a food chain using the given organisms. Which organism comes under the third trophic level in this food chain?
b) ‘Abiotic factors are essential
for the existence of biotic factors. ’ Justify this statement.
Answer:
a) Grass → Zebra → Lion , Vulture
Lion will corne under the third trophic level.

b) Abiotic factors are essential for the existence of biotic factors because they form the non-living foundation and physical environment that directly sustains, controls, and limits all life processes. Without the proper balance of ahiotic factors. biotic organisms cannot survive, reproduce, or forn iriable ecosystems.

Question 5.
Complete the table.

Feature	Compund microscope	Electron microscope
The need for light	____(a)____	An electron beam is used instead of light
Magnification Power	Up to 1000 times.	____(b)____
Lens	____(c)____	____(d)____

Answer:
(a) Light is needed.
(b) Magnifies objects more than a million times,
(e) Using multiple lenses,
(d) Electromagnets are used.

Question 6.
A 15-year-old student is experiencing acne and is also showing signs of developing an aversion to food.
a) Identify the hormonal change responsible for the acne.
b) Suggest a necessary dietary change she should make to ensure proper development, specifically addressing her aversion to food.
Answer:
(a) The increase in sex hormones (like androgen) during adolescence. which leads to the sebaceous glands producing more sebum.

(b) She must adopt a diet that provides the right nutrients needed for rapid growth to avoid the negative effects of the lack of essential nutrients (under-nutrition).

Question 7.
A. Observe the image and answer the questions below.

a) Identify the organism?
b) What are the characteristics of this organism?
Answer:
(a) Paramecium
(b) Eukaryote, unicellular organism, hetero- troph, has mobility.

OR
B. Pair the terms given in the box appropriately.
Tiger, Canis familiaris, Panthera tigris, Coconut Tree, Panthera leo, Cocos nucifera, Dog, Lion
Answer:
• Tiger -Panthera tigris
• Coconut Tree -Cocos nucifera
• Dog – Canis familiaris
• Lion – Panthera leo

Question 8.
A. a) What are the characteristics of the following agricultural products?
Palakkadan Matta rice, Malabar pepper, Kuttiyattur mango
b) On what basis are such agricultural products special?
Answer:
(a) They have been granted geographical indication status.

(b) Depending on the characteristics of the land where it is cultivated, the taste, colour, smell, and nutritional value of the products will vary. Based on this, agricultural products produced in certain regions are given Geographical Indication status.

OR
B. Select the ones related to artificial fertilisers from the ones given below.
a) Does not harm soil structure or decomposers.
b) A much smaller amount is sufficient compared to other fertilisers.
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
e) Plants get the nutrients released from these bio residues by the decomposers.
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.
h) Microorganisms are added to the soil to help fix nitrogen and phosphorus.
Answer:
c) Plants can easily absorb it.
d) Urea is an example
f) It is artificially produced and used to increase the nutrient value of the soil.
g) Excessive fertiliser application can harm soil structure and decomposers.

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Complete the list.

Scientists	Contributions
____(a)____	They together proved that the fundamental units responsible for the origin of life can form from simple gases.
Sidney Fox	____(b)____
Joan Oro	____(c)____

Answer:
(a) Harold Urey, Stanley Miller.
(b) Proved that molecules similar to proteins can be synthesised artificially.
(c) Adenine, one of the key building blocks of nucleic acids, was artificially synthesised.

Question 10.
A. ‘Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus’.
Explain and differentiate the cytoplasmic division in plant and animal cell.
Answer:
Cytokinesis is defined as the division of the nucleus. Cell division is completed only when the cytoplasm also divides following nuclear division. The plasma membrane folds inwards at the centre of the cell, and these infolded regions of the plasma membrane join together, which leads to the division of the cytoplasm, thereby two daughter cells in animal cells. Unlike animal cells where the plasma membrane folds inwards at the center of the cell, plant cell has a rigid cell wall to divide. There are small, membrane- bound vesicles containing cell wall materials that gather at the centre of the dividing cell, and they join together to form a cell plate. The cell plate formed divides the cytoplasm into two, forming two daughter cells.

OR
Question 10.
B. “Cell division is a process in which a parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells”.
a) What is the name of the process that causes the chromosome number to change 46 to 23?
b) In which specific organs do these gamete-producing cells undergo meiosis?
c) Describe the function of‘Meiosis Phase 1’ and ‘Meiosis Phase 2’ in the formation of gametes.
Answer:
(a) Meiosis
(b) It occurs in the sexual organs (specifically the testes in males and the ovaries in females).
(c) Meiosis Phase 1 is where the chromosome number is halved (46 to 23). Meiosis Phase 2 is similar to mitosis and results in the final four sperm cells and one ovum, and three polar cells.

To reduce exam fear, Class 8 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 1 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 1

Time: 2 hour
Total Score: 60

Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is cool-off time. This time is meant for reading the questions and planning your auswers.
2. This question paper includes 10 questions in sections A, B and C
3. You need to answer only one of the options provided for each of the choice-based questions.

PHYSICS

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Select the correct answer for questions 1 to 2. Answer all questions. (1 score for each question) (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Find out the odd one from following units and write it down
a) m
b) g
c) kg
d) mg
Answer:
a) m

Question 2.
Statement 1: Connecting an object to earth with a conductor is called earthing.
Statement 2: Due to its size and conductivity, the Earth can only donate electrons.
Analyse these statements and find out the correct choice from the following
a) Both statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is correct
c) Only the first statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer:
c) Only the first statement is correct

Section- B

Answer questions 3 to 8 in more than one sentence. Questions 7 and 8 have choices. (2 score for each question) (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Observe the picture below. Both beakers contain the same volume of water.
a) Which beaker experiences maximum pressure at the bottom?
b) Justify your answer.

Answer:
a) Beaker A experience maximum pressure at the bottom.
b) The height of liquid column or depth is more in beaker A than beaker B. So more pressure is experienced at the bottom of beaker A.

Question 4.
a) Draw magnetic lines of force between the given poles of magnets.

b) Write any two peculiarities of magnetic lines of force.
Answer:
a)

b) i) Magnetic lines of force do not intersect one another.
ii) When like poles of two magnets Come close.tile magnetic held lines bend away from each other.

Question 5.
Observe the figure.
a) Identify the device.
b) When you touch the metallic sphere of this device with a charged object, what do you observe?
Answer:

Question 6.
Draw a ray diagram showing image formation when an object is placed in front of a convex mirror.

Question 7.
A. The paths of two cars are as shown below. Car A started from P and reached R through Q and car B started from P and reached R through S.

a) What is the total distance covered by the car A?
b) What is the total distance covered by car B
Answer:
a) Total distance covered by the car A
= 500 + 600 = 1100 m

b) Total distance covered by car B
= 400 + 600 = 1000 m

OR
Question 7.
B. A book on a table is in a state of rest.
a) Identify the reference body for the above statement?
b) Considering the Sun as reference body, the book is in a state of (motion/rest)
Answer:
a) Reference body: Table
b) With respect to Sun, the book is in a state of motion

Question 8.
A. The height of an obj ect kept 12 cm away from a concave mirror is 1 cm. Calculate the magnification if an image of height 2.5 cm is formed in front of the mirror.
Magnification m = \(\frac{h_i}{h_0}\) = \(\frac{-2.5 \mathrm{~cm}}{1 \mathrm{~cm}}\) = -2.5

OR
Question 8.
B. Observe the figure and calculate the magnification.

Answer:
h = 10 cm.
h₁ = 5 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac{h}{h_0}=\frac{-10}{5}\) = -2

Section- C

Questions 9 to 10 carry 3 score each Question 10 has a choice. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Electromagnets are temporary magnets that can be artificially made. Suggest three methods to increase the strength of electromagnets.
Answer:
i) Increase the number of turns of the coil,
ii) Increase current
iii) Increase the thickness of the core

Question 10.
A. a) Name the device which is capable of storing electric charge.
b) Name the ability of a capacitor to store electric charge.
c) What is its unit?
Answer:
a) Capacitor
b) Capacitance
c) farad (F)

Question 10.
B. One method of eharging an object is charging by induction.
a) What do you mean by charging by induction?
b) Write down the inference and reason based on the picture given below.

Answer:
a) Charging by induction is the method of charging an object without direct physical contact of a charged object.

b) (i) Redistribution of charges takes place in the metal sphere
(ii) The electrons in the metal sphere are repelled away from the glass rod.

CHEMISTRY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Answer all the questions from 1 to 2. 1 score each. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
Match the following.
Chemicals added Colour of Glass obtained

a) Cadmium sulphide	i) Blue
b) Gold chloride	ii) Green
c) Chromium oxide	iii) Ruby red
d) Cobalt oxide	iv) Yellow

The correct match is
A. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
B. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
D. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Answer:
A. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Question 2.
Two statements are given below.
(i) Hydrochloric acid (HC1) is naturally produced in the stomach to aid the digestion of food.
(ii) Antacids like Milk of Magnesia (Mg(OH),) work by increasing the pH of the stomach contents. Choose the correct one from the options given below.
A – Both statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect.
B – Statement (ii) is correct. However, statement (i) is incorrect.
C – Statement (i) is correct. However, statement (ii) is incorrect.
D – Both the statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
Answer:
D – Both the statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

Section-B

Two questions from 3 to 8 have choices. Each question carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Plastics are used for the following purposes. Identify the type of plastics used for the following purposes
a) To make a handle for a pressure cooker.
b) Plastic carry bags.
Answer:
a) Thermosets
b) Thermoplastics

Question 4.
A. The arrangement showing the electrolysis of water is given below? Analyse the diagram and answer the following.

a) Identify the gases A & B
b) Name an instrument used for the electrolysis of water in a convenient manner.
Answer:
A) a) A-Oxygen
B – Hydrogen
b)Hoffiman water vokarneter

OR
B. Water is a precious gift of nature.
a) Why is water known as a universal solvent?
b) What is the reason for water to occur in the liquid state at room temperature, even though its constituent elements (hydrogen and oxygen) are gases?
Answer:
a) skater is known as the universal solvent bcciuse it can dissolve more substances than any other liquid.
b) The reason isa special kind of attractive force between water molecules.This attractive force helps keep water in liquid form at room temperature.

Question 5.
Quicklime is taken in a steel cup. A little water is added to it.
a) What is the substance formed when water is added to quicklime?
b) Why do people handling quicklime wear gloves?
Answer:
a) When water is added to quicklime (calcium oxide), slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) is formed.
b) The reaction of quicklime with water is highly exothermic. If quicklime comes into contact with moisture on the skin, it will react and release a lot of heat. This can cause severe bums to the skin.

Question 6.
a) Find the number of molecules and the total number of atoms in the following.
i) O₂
ii) 5F₂
Answer:
i) O₂
No. of molecules – 1
Total no. of atoms – 2

ii) 5F₂
No. of molecules – 5
Total no. of atoms – 10

b) It is said that oxygen is an element and carbon dioxide is a compound. Why?
Answer:
In an oxygen molecule, there are only the same type of atoms. In carbon dioxide, there is the combination of atoms of the elements oxygen and carbon in a fixed ratio.

Question 7.
Magnesium reacts with oxygen in the air to form magnesium oxide.
a) Write the chemical equation for this reaction.
b) What is the product of magnesium oxide dissolved in water?
Answer:
a) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
b) Magnesium Hydroxide

Question 8.
A. Give reasons for the following:
a) The handles of electrical tools and cooking utensils are made of non-metals.
Answer:
Electric tools and cookware are made of metals. Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat. Therefore, their handles are made of non-metal materials such as wood, plastic, and rubber to ensure safe handling without injury.

b) Metals like sodium, potassium, etc., are stored in kerosene.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are very reactive metals. They react rapidly with air and moisture and are destroyed. They are stored in kerosene to avoid contact with the environment.

OR
B.
a) What is an alloy?
b) What are the benefits of alloying metals?
Answer:
a) Metals are combined with other metals or non-metals to make alloys.
b) It is done to obtain materials with desirable properties and to resist corrosion. A very small amount of non-metals like carbon, phosphorus, etc., is also added to such alloys.

Section – C

One question from 9 to 10 has a choice. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Magnesium ribbon is burned in the air, resulting in a bright light and a white powder as a product. This powder is then mixed with water.
a) What is the white product obtained?
b) Identify the chemical nature (acidic or basic) of the solution formed when the white powder product is dissolved in water, and state the reason based on the litmus paper test.
c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction that occurs when the white powder product is mixed with water.
Answer:
a) Magnesium oxide (MgO).
b) Basic-Red litmus turns blue.
c) MgO + H₂O → Mg (OH)₂ (Magnesium hydroxide).

Question 10.
A. a) Name the type of glass used to make laboratory equipment and cookware?
b) Find out the major components present in this glass?
c) Name the components present in all types of glass?
Answer:
a) Borosilicate Glass

b) Silica. Boron oxide or Boron tnoxide, (Also small amounts of (Na₂O) and (Al₂O₃).

C) Silica.

OR
B. a) What is the natural source from which natural rubber is obtained?
b) Explain why synthetic rubbers are predominantly used in the manufacture of tyres?
C) Name the first synthetic fibres?
Answer:
a) Natural rubber is obtained from the latex collected from the rubber tree.
b) Synthetic rubber shows less wear and tear compared to natural rubber. That is why synthetic rubbers are used in the manufacture oftyres.
c) Nylon

BIOLOGY

Time: 40 minutes
Total Score: 20

Section – A

Choices are given for questions 7, 8,10. Answer questions 1 and 2. Each question carries 1 score. (2 × 1 = 2)

I. Choose the correct order of the events that take place in karyokinesis.
I. Chromatids separate and move towards the two poles of the cell as daughter chromosomes.
II. Chromosomes are arranged at the centre of the cell.
III. Condensation of chromatin network into chromosomes.
IV. Chromosomes change into chromatin networks, and two daughter nuclei are formed,
a) I-II-III-IV
b) III-II-I-IV
c) III-I-IV-II
d) II-IV-I-III
Answer:
b) III-II-I-IV

Question 2.
Mutualism is an interaction between two species in which.
a) Both are benefited
b) both are harmed
c) one is benefited, and the other is harmed
d) one is benefited, and the other is neither benefited nor harmed.
Answer:
a) Both are benefited

Section – B

Write answers to questions 3 to 8. Each question carries 2 score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Some characteristics of a Kingdom are given below. Eukaryotes. Primary Producers.
a) Which Kingdom is this?
b) What are the other characteristics of this Kingdom?
Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the illustration.

Answer:
a) All organisms are made up of one or more cells,
b) New cells originate from pre-existing cells.

Question 5.
List the statements given below.
(a) More organelles
(b) Organelles are not membrane-bound
(c) No membrane-bound nucleus
(d) There is a membrane-bound nucleus
Prokaryotic cell: (b) and (c),
Eukaryotic cell: (a) and (d).

Question 6.
Suppose the biotic components of an ecosystem consists of Tree, Rat, crow, grasshopper, paddy, Frogs, snakes, Rabbit, Eagle and Squirrel.
Construct a food chain consisting of 5 trophic levels of this ecosystem and name the producers and primary consumers.
Answer:
Paddy → Rat → Crow → Snake → Eagle
The Producers are trees, Paddy and Primary consumers are rats, grasshoppers, rabbits, and squirrels.

Question 7.
A. Observe the newspaper article and answer the questions below.
GM crops as hope for farmers…
Kochi- GM crops are reaching farmers to increase their income….
a) What are GM crops?
b) Write examples of GM crops?
Answer:
(a) GM crops are genetically modified crops. Genetic engineering allows for the incorporation of new traits into crops by altering their genetic structure.

(b) Examples of such crops include cotton, which is resistant to pests, soybeans, which are resistant to herbicides, and rice, which is rich in vitamin A.

OR
B. Select and write down the possibilities of overcoming space constraints from those given below.
Sack farming, smart farming, aquaponics, greenhouse, vetical farming, terrace farming, tissue culture, mulching
Answer:
Sack farming, aquaponics, vertical farming, and terrace farming.

Question 8.
A. Observe the figure and answer the questions

a) Identify the parts labelled as X and Y in the figure
b) Write the function of X
Answer:
(a) X-Prostate gland, Y – Testis.
(b) Produces a fluid that contains the substances needed for the nourishment and movement of the sperm.

OR
B. Imagine a scenario where a fertilised ovum (Zygote) attempts to develop into an Embryo, but the inner
lining of the uterus is suddenly unable to form the blood and mucus mentioned in menstruation.
a) Identify the biological event that must have occurred for the zygote to form.
b) Explain the necessary of the blood and tissues in the development of the zygote.
Answer:
(a) Fertilisation.
(b) The blood, tissues, and capillaries that make up the thickened endometrium are formed to nourish and support the newly formed embryo as it grows.

Section – C

Answer questions 9 and 10. Each question carries 3 score. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 9.
Arrange the given facts based on biodiversity by giving suitable titles.
• Protects wildlife along with the protection of historical monuments, natural resources and geographical features of an area.
• Research centres with facilities to collect seeds and gametes to preserve them.
• Different varieties of animals are protected and housed separately, and necessary arrangements are made available for their reproduction.
• Includes extinct organisms.
• Areas protected with the participation of the public.
Answer:

• In-situ conservation
  1. Protects wildlife along with the protection of historical monuments, natural resources and geographical features of an area.
  2. Areas protected with the participation of the public.
• Ex-situ conservation
  1. Research centres with facilities to collect seeds and gametes to preserve them.
  2. Different varieties of animals are protected and housed separately, and necessary arrangements are made available for their reproduction.
  3. Includes extinct organisms.

Question 10.
A. Observe the picture and answer the questions below.

a) What does the picture indicate?
b) What are the parts indicated by A and B?
c) What are the characteristics of the part indicated by A?
Answer:
(a) Nucleus
(b) A- Chromatin reticulum, B – Nucleolus
(c) Function of chromatin reticulum: Chromatin network is the structure that appears like a network of threads within the nucleoplasm. During cell division, these chromatin networks condense into chromosomes.

OR
B. Stem cells have special importance in modem medicine.
a) What are stem cells?
b) What are the characteristics of stem cells?
Answer:
(a) Stem cells are specialised cells that can develop into various types of cells such as muscle cells, nerve cells, blood cells, etc.

(b) Stem cells have the ability to create new types of cells. Hence, they are referred to as the body’s master cells. Stem cells help to eliminate damaged cells, promote the growth of new cells and maintain healthy tissues. In modem medicine, stem cells hold significant importance.

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• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Syllabus Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Set 5

Class 8 Maths Question Paper Malayalam Medium

• Class 8 Maths Question Paper Set 1 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Maths Question Paper Set 2 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Maths Question Paper Set 3 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Maths Question Paper Set 4 Malayalam Medium
• Class 8 Maths Question Paper Set 5 Malayalam Medium

Class 8 Maths Previous Year Question Paper Kerala Syllabus are equally important. Maths Question Paper Class 8 Kerala Syllabus help students identify commonly repeated questions and important chapters. When students practice Class 8 Maths Question Paper Kerala Syllabus, they learn how to present answers step by step, which is essential in Mathematics.

The Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Model Question Paper usually includes short answer questions, problem-solving sections, and application-based questions. Practicing at least four to five Class 8 Maths Model Question Paper Kerala Syllabus before exams can significantly improve accuracy and speed.

Consistent revision and daily problem practice of Model Question Paper Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus can make Mathematics an easy and scoring subject.

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 5 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 5

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “A Long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Mani carried a small bedding-roll. Granny had a large cloth shopping bag and an umbrella. They decided to take rest when they were hungry. They walked steadily without much talk. A flock of parrots flew overhead. There were no other sounds except the hiss and patter of the rain. Mani picked a few blackberries from the bush. Granny was not fond of berries. Mani’s lips became purple with the juice from the berries.

Question 1.
What things did Granny have?
Answer:
Granny had a large cloth shopping bag and an umbrella.

Question 2.
The only sound they could hear was:
A. the sound made their feet as they walked.
B. the sound of the parrots.
C. the sound of the rain.
D. the from the animals in the bush
Answer:
C. the sound of the rain.

Question 3.
Pick out the word from the passage that means ‘continuously’.
Answer:
steadily

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Jim and Della were very proud of two things which they owned. One thing was Jim’s gold watch. It had once belonged to his father. And, long ago, it had belonged to his father’s father. Though the watch was so distinctive, it did not have a fine chain. So could not wear it in the public.

The other thing was Della’s hair. Della knew her hair was more beautiful than any queen’s gold or gems. So now Della’s beautiful hair fell around her, shining like a falling stream of brown water. It reached below her knee. It almost made itself into a dress for her. And then she put it up on her head again, nervously and quickly. Once she stopped for a moment and stood still while a tear or two ran down her face.

Question 4.
What were the two precious things that Della and Jim owned?
Answer:
The two precious things that Della and Jim owned were Della’s long and beautiful hair and Jim’s watch which he got from his father.

Question 5.
“It almost made itself into a dress for her.” What was it?
Answer:
Her long and thick hair

Question 6.
Why did a tear or two run down Della’s face?
A. Because Jim was not with her.
B. Because her hair was too long.
C. Because she was sick.
D. Because she was planning to sell her hair.
Answer:
D. Because she was planning to sell her hair

Question 7.
Read the following lines from “The Seven Ages of Man” by William Shakespeare. In these lines the 5,h’ 6th and 7th ages are described. Write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines, using the hints given below. (1 × 4 = 4)
And then the justice
In fair round belly, with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe, and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws, and modem instances,
And so he plays his part. The sixth age shifts
Into the lean and slipper’d pantaloon,
With spectacles on nose, and pouch on side,
His youthful hose well sav’d, a world too wide.
For his shrunk shank, and his big manly voice,
Turning again towards childish treble, pipes
And whistles in his sound. Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
Answer:
In the fifth age, man becomes the justice, with a fair round belly as he has eaten fat chicken meat. His eyes are severe and his beard is formally cut. He is full of wise sayings and contemporary knowledge. Thus he plays his part.

In the sixth stage he shifts into lean and loose pants. He has spectacles on his nose and a bag on his side like a school teacher. His youthful skin has become loose. His legs have become small and weak and the world too wide for him. His big manly voice goes back to his childish treble, with pipes and whistles in his sound making his speech unclear.

In the last scene we see the end of his strange eventful history. He is in his second childhood and in forgetfulness. He is without teeth, eyes, taste – without everything. This is when he quits the stage as his life has ended. “The Seven Ages of Man is a beautiful description of a person’s steady movement from cradle to grave.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

Riya loved visiting her grandmother’s village during the holidays. Unlike the noisy city, the village was calm and filled with fresh air. Every morning, Riya woke up to the sound of birds instead of traffic. She enjoyed walking through the fields, where farmers worked patiently from sunrise to sunset. One day, her grandmother took her to the small community library. Although the library was old, it was filled with interesting books about nature, history, and science. Riya spent hours reading and discovered many new ideas. She realized that learning could happen anywhere, not just in school. By the time she returned home, she felt thankful for the simple but meaningful experiences the village had given her.

Question 8.
How was Riya’s grandmother’s village different from the noisy city?
Answer:
Riya’s grandmother’s village different from the noisy city by being calm and filled with fresh air.

Question 9.
To what sounds did Riya wake up every morning?
A. The sounds of traffic.
B. the sounds her grandmother made.
C. The sounds the farmers made.
D. The sounds the birds made.
Answer:
D. The sounds the birds made.

Question 10.
The community library had books about:
A. history
B. science
C. politics
D. sports

Now, choose the right option,
i) A
ii) B
iii) Both A and D
iv) Both A and B
Answer:
iv) Both A and B

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] Write the story of “Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan, using the hints given below.
(Hints: Malgudi – lottery – narrators wins a road engine in a lottery – proves a burden – the engine has to be moved – temple elephant 50 coolies and Joseph moving the engine – hitting and breaking the compound wall – police – debts -earthquake pushes the engine into a disused well – the owner of the well agrees to pay all the debts of the narrator)
Answer:
“Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan narrates the humorous misfortune of a man from Malgudi who wins a road engine in a lottery at a fair. What seems like a grand prize soon becomes a burden. The huge machine is impossible to move, and the winner has neither the space to keep it nor the money to operate it. The engine blocks the town’s public road, causing inconvenience to everyone and attracting complaints from officials. The municipality gives him a dead line to remove the engine. He gets the temple elephant, 50 coolies, and one driver named Joseph.

As the engine is dragged out, it hits a compound wall and breaks it. There are many spectators to watch the fun and there is a lot of noise. The angry elephant strained and broke the rope. The coolies fled in panic. The owner of the compound slaps the man and takes him to the police station. Finally, an earthquake gets the road engine fall into a disused well. The owner of the well is happy and agreed to pay all the debts of the narrator. The story highlights the irony of unexpected “gifts” and the humour of everyday life.

OR
[B] In the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry we see what happens between what is expected and what actually occurs. How does the unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasise the value of love over material possessions?
Answer:
Jim and Della love each other deeply. They want to give their partner an appropriate Christmas gift. Della has beautiful hair and Jim has a precious watch. Della thinks the best gift for Jim, is a golden watch chain so that he can wear it proudly in public. Jim thinks the best gift for Della is some fine combs so that she can wear her hair elegantly. Della sells her beautiful hair to get the golden watch chain. Jim sells his watch to get the combs for Della’s hair. The irony is that the gifts are currently useless for them.

The unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasises the value of love over material possessions by showing us Jim and Della going to dinner with hearts overflowing with love. They may have lost their precious possessions but they have shown each other that their love is paramount. By selling her hair Della bought the golden watch chain and he bought the combs by selling the watch. The golden watch chain and the combs are useless for them now. Material possessions are nothing before real love.

Question 12.
[A] How was the newspaper distribution in Rameshwaram before World War II started and why did Abdulkalam accept the job of distributing the paper?
Answer:
[A] The newspapers reached Rameswaram in a unique way. They came by morning train and were kept at the Rameswaram station. From there they had to be collected and sent to all subscribers. Samsuddin managed it effortlessly. When World War II raged, it affected the newspaper delivery business in a strange way. The British government had placed a number of sanctions and rations on goods. Something like a state of emergency prevailed in the country. Our large family felt the difficulties badly. Food, clothes and the need of the babies were difficult to get. Samsuddin came up with a proposal that delighted me. The train stop at Rameswaram was cancelled. Flow to get the papers then? Samsuddin found a way out.

The papers would be kept ready in large bundles. As the train slowed down at the Rameswaram-Dhanushkodi track, the bundles would be flung out on to the platform. Samsuddin offered me the job of collecting these bundles and then taking them around town for distribution. I was very happy. I was only 8, but I was going to contribute meaningfully to the household income. I had seen that the food on the plates of my mother and grandmother was getting smaller and smaller as the food had to be shared among all of us. So I accepted Samsuddin’s offer.

OR
[B] Imagine you were a reporter at the time of India’s Independence. You heard the speech “A Tryst with Destiny” by Jawaharlal Nehru. In about 150 words, report the speech to be published in your newspaper.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru’s “ATryst with Destiny” speech, delivered on the eve of India’s independence on 14 August 1947, celebrates the nation’s historic transition from colonial rule to freedom. Nehru describes independence as the fulfilment of a long-awaited pledge made by India’s leaders and freedom fighters. He emphasizes that political freedom is only the beginning and calls for dedicated effort to build a just, prosperous, and democratic nation.

Nehru urges citizens to end poverty, inequality, and discrimination, reminding them that the responsibility of shaping India’s future lies with every individual. He highlights unity, communal harmony, and service to humanity as essential values for the new nation. India has been suffering long under the yoke of the British. Now we are no more a colony of some foreign power, but an independent nation that has to work for self-sufficiency in everything. We should prove to the world that we are behind no one. The speech concludes with a hopeful vision of India awakening to life and freedom, ready to contribute to peace and progress in the world.

Question 13.
[A] In “Thank you Ma’am” by Langston Hughes we find how Roger tries to snatch the purse from Mrs. Jones and how she decides to take him to her house and treat him well. Describe the incident in about 250 words.
Answer:
Mrs. Jones was a large woman with a large purse that seemed to contain everything. It had a long strap, and she carried it slung across her shoulder. It was about 11 at night, and she was walking alone, when Roger, a boy of around 15, ran up behind her and tried to snatch her purse. The strap broke with the single tug Roger gave it from behind. But he lost his balance and fell on his back on the sidewalk. Mrs. Jones kicked him in his buttocks. Then she picked the boy up by his shirt front, and shook him until his teeth rattled. She made him pick up her purse and give it to her. She then asked if he wasn’t ashamed of himself. The boy said yes and apologized to her.

She said his face was dirty and asked him if he did not have anybody home to tell him to wash his face. The boy said there was none at home. She took Roger to her house and then said to him she would treat her like her son and teach him right from wrong. He asked her to wash his face. She then sat with him and ate together. When he finished his meals, she gave him 10 dollars to buy the kind of shoes he wanted to buy. He was trying to snatch the purse from Mrs. Jones to buy a pair of blue suede shoes he desired so much.

OR
[B] Imagine you had a chance to meet Jim, the hero of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry. Write down four questions you want to ask him and his possible answers to them.
Answer:
1. What prompted you to sell your valuable possession, the watch, you got from your father?
My desire to buy my beloved Della a proper Christmas gift prompted me to sell my valuable possession, the watch.

2. When you saw Della without her hair, how did you feel?
When I saw Della without her hair, at first I was very much shocked. But when I came to know the reason why she cut and sold her hair, I felt greater love and admiration for her.

3. Did you regret your decision to sell your watch?
No, I didn’t. I sold it for a noble purpose. I love for Della is much more precious to me than the watch which is just a material possession.

4. Did Della look less beautiful to you without her hair?
No, she didn’t. In fact she looked more beautiful without her hair as she made such a great sacrifice because of her love for me.

Question 14.
Using the hints given below, prepare a brief profile of R.K. Narayan who wrote the story “Engine Trouble”. (4)
(Hints: bom in Madras in 1906 – graduated from Maharaja College in Mysore, tried a brief stint as a teacher – celebrated writer – Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan – Swami and Friends, The Guide, and Malgudi Days, The Guide, The Financial Expert, and Mr. Sampath – themes – death of his wife – died in 2001)

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

A. Ethiopian Volcanic Ash Cloud Reaches India, Affecting Flights
B. Dharmendra, Bollywood Legend Hero of Sholay, Passes Away at 89
C. Delhi Air Quality Crisis Prompts New Restrictions
D. Indian Cricket Team Worried about its Performance Against South Africa
Answer:
R. K. Narayan was bom in Madras in 1906. He graduated from Maharaja College in Mysore. He tried a brief stint as a teacher but left to become a full-time writer. He was a prominent Indian writer in English, celebrated for his novels set in the fictional town of Malgudi. He was much influenced by English literature from a young age. He is known for his simple, humorous style and insightful portrayals of everyday Indian life. Narayan was a recipient of numerous awards, including the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan. His writing is characterized by its simplicity, genial humour, and keen observation of human nature.

His works often explored the clash between tradition and modernity, the role of the individual, and family dynamics. He is most famous for creating the fictional town of Malgudi, which became a recurring setting for many of his stories. Malgudi provided a window into small-town Indian life for a global audience.

Some of his notable novels include “Swami and Friends, The Guide, and Malgudi Days, The Guide, The Financial Expert, and Mr. Sampath. He also wrote over two hundred short stories, essays, and travel books. –
The tragic and untimely death of his wife, Rajam, was a profound experience that influenced the themes of fate in his writing. Narayan died in 2001.

Question 15.
Which headline is of the greatest importance to air travellers?
Answer:
A. Ethiopian Volcanic Ash Cloud Reaches India, Affecting Flights

Question 16.
Which is saddest news to lovers of films?
Answer:
B. Dharmendra, Bollywood Legend Hero of Sholay, Passes Away at 89

Question 17.
If you live Delhi, which headline will get your immediate attention?
Answer:
C. Delhi Air Quality Crisis Prompts New Restrictions

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate phrases given in brackets. (1 × 3 = 3)
My friend Mark decided to a)…… his old, stressful job to pursue his dream of becoming a chef. It was tough at first, but his family helped him b) …… while he was in culinary school. He didn’t give up on his dream, and now he is a successful restaurant owner who loves to c) ……
his customers.
(get by, look up, give up. make out. speed up. look after)
Answer:
a) give up,
b) get by,
c) look after

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
Jim stopped inside the door. He was as a) quite as a hunting dog when it is near a bird. His eyes looked strangely at Della, and there was an expression in them that she could not b) understood It filled her with fear. It was not anger, nor surprise, nor anything she had been reads for. He simply looked at her with that strange expression on c) her face. Della went to him. “Jim. dear.” she cried, “don’t look at me like that. I had my hair cut off and sold it. I couldn’t live through Christmas without giving you a gift. My hair will grow again. You won’t care, d) won’t you? My hair grows very fast
Answer:
a) quiet,
b) understand,
c) his,
d) will you?

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Roger and Mrs. Jones. (3 × 1 = 3)
She said, “What is your name?”
“Roger,” answered the boy.
“Roger, go to that sink and a) ______ said the woman. She turned him looseat last. Roger looked at the door—looked at the woman— looked at the door—and went b) ______”
“Let the water run until it gets warm,” she said. “Here’s a clean towel.”
Are you going to take me to jail?” asked the boy, bending over the sink.
“Not with that face, I would not take you anywhere,” said the woman. “I was trying to get home to cook me something to eat and you snatch my pocketbook! Maybe, you haven’t eaten your supper, c) ______?”
Answer:
a) wash your face,
b) to the sink,
c) have you

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 4 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 4

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “A long Walk with Granny” by Ruskin Bond and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

As the bus was well away from the landslide, the passengers got out of the bus. They knew it would take days to clear the road. Most of the passengers decided to return to Nain with the bus. But some bold ones agreed to walk to Mussoorie. Mani asked Granny if they should go back. Granny said it was only 10 miles; and they did that yesterday. So they started climbing a narrow path. When they got to the top of the mountain, they were alone. Granny had brought some pakoras. and buns and peaches. He said they would eat and then proceed. She said she could walk forever. But there should be no rain as the umbrella was leaking.

Question 1.
What did the passengers know?
Answer:
The passengers knew that it would take days to clear the road because of the landslide.

Question 2.
Most of the passengers:
A. cursed their fate.
B. quarrelled with the driver.
C. wanted to protest against the Road Transport Authority.
D. decided to return to Nain with the bus.
Answer:
D. decided to return to Nain with the bus.

Question 3.
Add a question tag: The passengers got out of the bus,?
Answer:
didn’t they?

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from the script of the film “Village of the Watermills sand answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The procession approaches. Women, children and men move in rhythm. The little children pick flowers from the vases they hold and throw them out. Behind them are the bugle players. Then the girls. They dance beautifully. All are wearing hats. Six men carry a coffin in the middle of the procession. The children sing along. The Old Man, ringing his bell and holding a bunch of flowers in his hand, greets them. As the procession approaches, he joins it. All pass in front of the Young man who curiously watches the procession, smiling. As the coffin approaches, he takes off his hat to show respect.

Question 4.
What do the little children do?
Answer:
The little children pick flowers from the vases they hold and throw them out.

Question 5.
Who takes off his hat to show respect, as the coffin approaches?
Answer:
The Young man takes off his hat to show respect, as the coffin approaches.

Question 6.
As the procession approaches, joins it.
A. the Old man
B. the Young man
C. a bugle player
D. a dancing girl
Answer:
A. the Old man

Question 7.
Read the following lines from the song “Get Together” by The Young bloods and write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines. (1 × 4 = 4)

Love is but a song we sing
Fear’s the way we die
You can make the mountains ring
Or make the angels cry
Though the bird is on the wing
And you may not know why

Come on, people now
Smile on your brother
Everybody get together
Try to love one another right now

Some may come and some may go
He will surely pass
When the one that left us here
Returns for us at last
We are but a moment’s sunlight
Fading in the grass
Answer:
“Get Together” is a melodious song by The Youngbloods, an American rock band. The song says that love is but a song we sing. Fear is the way we die. You can make the mountains ring or make the angels cry, though the bird is on the wing and you may not know why. The poem asks the people to come and smile on their brothers. Everybody should get together and try to love one another right now.

Some may come and some may go. We all surely die one day. When the one that left us here returns for us at last, we are but a moment’s sunlight fading in the grass. The song is very melodious with beautiful rhythm. There is a fine metaphor when love is called a song that we sing. The song encourages us to live smilingly as our time is short and we all will die one day.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Incredible Journey of a Seed

Did you know that a tiny seed holds the complete plan for a huge tree? It’s true! Every seed is like a small, self- contained package of life. When a seed falls into the soil and finds the right amount of water, sunlight, and warmth, a magical process begins.

First, the seed absorbs water and swells up. Atiny root pushes down into the ground to anchor the plant and look for more water. Next, a tiny shoot grows upwards, reaching for the sunlight. This is called germination.

Once the shoot breaks through the soil, it becomes a seedling. The seedling uses the energy stored inside the seed until its first leaves grow and can start making its own food through photosynthesis. From this small beginning, and with continuous care, a tall, strong tree can eventually grow, ready to produce new seeds and start the cycle all over again!

Question 8.
When does the process of germination begin?
Answer:
The process of germination begins when the seed finds the right amount of water, sunlight, and warmth.

Question 9.
For a seed to germinate it will need
A. the right amount ofwater
B. warmth
C. attention by people
D. enough manure

Choose one from the following.
i) A and D
ii) B and C
iii) B and D
iv) A and B
Answer:
iv) A and B

Question 10.
In a seedling, photosynthesis is the process of
A. germination
B. making its own food,by the leaves
C. the roots getting into the soil
D. absorbing water
Answer:
B. making its own food by the leaves

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] In the story “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome, we see the narrator taking the prescription the doctor gave him to a pharmacist. The pharmacist looks at it and returns it to him saying that he was not running a cooperative store and a family hotel. Attempt the likely diary entry of the pharmacist.
Answer:
A very strange thing happened today. It was around 4 in the afternoon. I was alone in my pharmacy. Then I saw a well-dressed man coming to my pharmacy in a hurry. He looked sad and upset. He had a folded prescription in his hand. He gave it me. I unfolded it and I felt like laughing. This is what was written in the prescription: “A balanced diet, with water every 2 hours. A 10-mile walk every morning.

To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night. Don’t stuff up your mind with things you don’t understand.” I then told him I was not running a cooperative store and a family hotel. He then asked me if I were not a chemist. In reply I gave the prescription back to him and asked him to read it. When he read it, a smile came to his lips. He said “Thank you” and went away. I’d like to know if he took the doctor’s advice and became better.

OR
[B] Hot seat refers to a situation where a person is expected to answer many tough or embarrassing questions. The person in the hot seat answers questions from a group. Imagine Della, the heroine of the story “”ATale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry is on the hot seat. Ask her 4 relevant questions and her replies to them.
Answer:
• Della, why did you decide to sell your hair?
I decided to sell my hair because I wanted money to buy a golden watch chain for Jim as my Christmas present to him..

• How did you feel without your long, beautiful hair?
I looked a bit strange without my hair, but when I thought of the happiness Jim would get when he saw the watch chain, I felt quite happy.

• Has Jim’s love for you increased because of the sacrifice you made?
Definitely yes. Jim’s love for me has increased because of the sacrifice I made which showed him how much I love him.

• Do you think your decision to sell your hair was right?
I think I was hundred percent right. To me what is important is the happiness of Jim, much more than my hair which will grow again.

Question 12.
[A] In “A Prescription for Life” by Jerome K. Jerome, the prescription given by the doctor says, “A balanced diet, with water every two hours. A10-mile walk every morning. To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night.” Write a paragraph on the Role of Habits in Shaping Health and Well-being”.
Answer:
In Latin there is a proverb which says “Mens sana in corpore sano”. In English it means “a Healthy mind in a healthy Body”. Habits play a major role in shaping the health and wellbeing of person. There are certain do’s and don’ts that we must follow if we want to be healthy. In the list of the things we ought to the following are the most important:

Have a balanced diet, drink enough water, sleep well, exercise well, avoid spending too much time watching TV or using the computer, laptop or the mobile, read good books, magazines etc., keep your mind filled with good thoughts and be optimistic. The things we must avoid are: eating too much junk food, lack of physical activity, excessive screen time, lack of enough sleep, Using psychedelic drugs or alcohol, self-diagnosis of diseases, self-prescriptions of medicines and being pessimistic.

OR
[B] How does the unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry emphasise the value of love over material possessions?
Answer:
Jim and Della are a poor couple. But each of them has a very valuable possession. Jim has a watch that he got as a hereditary possession. But he can’t wear it as it does not a suitable chain. Della has beautiful hair. But she can’t display the beauty of her hair because she does not have the necessary combs and ribbons. So as a Christmas present Jim wants to buy combs for Della and Della wants to buy a chain for Jim’s watch.

The unexpected twist in the tail-end of the story emphasises the value of love over material possessions by showing us Jim and Della going to dinner with hearts overflowing with love. They may have lost their precious possessions but they have shown each other that their love is paramount. By selling her hair Della bought the golden watch chain and he bought the combs by selling the watch. The golden watch chain and the combs are too nice to use now. Material possessions are nothing before real love.

Question 13.
[A] Write a character sketch of Jim, the hero of the story “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry, using the following hints.
(22 years old, small salary, heavy responsibility’ – precious watch – very’ loving – wants to buy expensive combs for Della – sells the watch – proves his love)
Answer:
Jim, the hero of “A Tale of Two Gifts” is a 22 year old young man. He is selfless, responsible, and loving young husband who is deeply burdened by financial hardship. Despite his small salary, he is described as serious but good-natured, and his character is defined by his willingness to sacrifice his most prized possession, a gold watch, to buy his wife Della the perfect Christmas gift, showcasing his profound love and commitment to her happiness. Jim is selfless and loving. He is a responsible husband.

As the main provider, Jim feels the weight of responsibility to support his wife, even with a low salary. His hard work and dedication are evident in his being “never late” for work. He has a sacrificing mind. His action of selling his watch is a testament to his belief that their love and happiness are more valuable than material possessions. He is thoughtful and wise. Although his gift to Della becomes useless after she sells her hair, he doesn’t dwell on the irony. Instead, he sees the situation as a testament to their selfless love and quietly suggests they put their useless gifts away, appreciating th,e sentiment behind them rather than the objects themselves.

OR
[B] Using the hints below, tell the story of “Thank You, Ma’am,” by Langston Hughes, in less than 200 words.

(Hints: Roger wants blue suede shoes – tries to grab the purse Mrs. Jones – strong and practical woman – kicks Roger – takes to her home – face wash – eat together -10 dollars to buy shoes – advice – Roger’s change)
Answer:
Mrs. Luella Jones, a large woman, was walking home late at night. Roger, a boy, attempts to steal her purse. Instead of handing him over to the police, the strong and practical woman hauls him into her home.

Inside her boarding-house room, Mrs. Jones insists Roger wash his face, shares her meal of lima beans and ham with him, and discovers he only wanted money for a pair of blue suede shoes. She reveals that she, too, had once wanted things she couldn’t have, though she stopped short of theft, showing empathy rather than judgment. This act of unexpected kindness and trust moves Roger deeply. He feels ashamed of his actions and a desire to be trustworthy.

At the end of the evening, Mrs. Jones gives Roger ten dollars for the shoes he wanted, and he leaves, profoundly impacted by her generosity and the life lesson she imparted. The boy is unable to express his gratitude beyond a simple “Thank you, Ma’am” as she closes the door, but the story’s focus on second chances and compassion highlights the transformative power of human connection.

Question 14.
You read the poem “The Astronomer” by Rabindranath Tagore. Using the hints given below, write a brief profile ofTagore. (4)
(Hints: 1861 -1941, poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer, and painter – Gurudev – Nobel in 1913 for Gitanjali – two national anthems – more than 2000 songs, short stories and famous novels like Gora and Ghare-Baire – Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, renounced British knighthood in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre)
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was a poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer, and painter. He reshaped Bengali literature and music, as well as Indian art. He is often referred to as Gurudev.

He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his poetry collection, Gitanjali (Song Offerings). He composed the national anthems of India {“Jana Gana Mana ”) and Bangladesh (“Amar Shonar Bangla ”). His vast body of work includes over 2,000 songs (Rabindra Sangeet), numerous poems, short stories, novels like “Gora ” and Ghare- Baire (The Home and the World), and plays.

He founded an experimental school in rural West Bengal in 1901, which later grew into the international Visva-Bharati University in Santiniketan, aiming to blend the best of Indian and Western educational traditions. He advocated for Indian independence from the British Raj. He renounced his British knighthood in 1919 in protest of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

Questions 15-17: Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow.(3 × 1 = 3)
Nehru dies from a heart attack on 27 May 27, 1964, at age 74.
Subhash Chandra Bose was 48 years old when he is believed to have died in a plane crash on August 18, 1945.
Mahatma Gandhi, 78, shot dead on his way to a prayer meeting at Birla House, on 30 January 1948.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, 75, dies on 15 December 1950, due to a heart attack.

Question 15.
Of the four people, who died when he was not yet 50?
Answer:
Netaji Subhash Chdandra Bose

Question 16.
What caused the death of two leaders?
Answer:
Heart attack

Question 17.
Who among the four leaders was the victim of violence?
A. Subhash Chandra Bose
B. Mahatma Gandhi.
C. Sardar Patel
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B. Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using appropriate phrasal verbs taken from those given in brackets. (3 × 1 = 3)
After a busy week, Sarah decided to a) …… her apartment. She started by tackling the kitchen, where she had to b) …… some old food that had been sitting in the fridge for a while. After she had finished that, she decided to c) …… her work clothes and put on something more comfortable.
(throw away, hold on, get through, clean up, wind down, make out, take off)
Answer:
a) clean up,
b) throw away,
c) take off

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. (4 × 1/2 = 2)
The other thing was Della’s hair. Della knew her hair was more beautiful than any queen’s gold or a) jems. So now Della’s beautiful hair fell around her, shining like a falling b) streem of brown water. It c) reach below her knee. It almost made itself into a dress for her. And then she put it up on her head again, nervously and quickly. Once she stopped for a moment and stood still while a tear or two ran down her d) phase.
Answer:
a) gems,
b) dream,
c) reached,
d) face

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Mr Student and Teresa.
Mr Student : What do you want?
Teresa : I want you to a) …….
Mr. Student : b) To …….
Teresa : To Boleslav Kashput.
Mr. Student : Who is he?
Teresa : He is my c) …….
Answer:
a) write a letter for me.
b) whom do you want to write?
c) young man/lover/beloved.

Regular practice of 8th Standard English Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 3 helps students overcome exam fear and perform better.

Kerala Syllabus Class 8 English Model Question Paper Set 3

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes
Max. Score: 40

Instructions:

1. 15 minutes is given as cool off time.
2. This time is to be used for reading the question paper.
3. You are not supposed to write anything during the cool off time.
4. Attempt the questions according to the instructions.

Questions 1-3: Read the excerpt from “Talking of Science” and answer the questions that follow. “ Dr. Ajith Parameswaran is giving answers to some questions put to him by the interviewer. (3 × 1 = 3)

Curiosity is essential for a good scientist. It drives the quest for knowledge. Children naturally ask questions, but adults often do not bother. It is because they don’t care or they don’t want to appear ignorant. Scientists must retain the child-like curiosity and admit their ignorance. This alone can drive them to discover the truth. Creating new knowledge requires a strong understanding of what is already known. Newton said, “If I have seen farther, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants.” School education prepares us for this.

Question 1.
How does curiosity help a good scientist?
Answer:
Curiosity helps a good scientist it drives his quest for knowledge.

Question 2.
What are the two things scientists must do?
Answer:
The two things scientists must do are retaining child like curiosity and admitting their ignorance.

Question 3.
Newton said, “If I have seen farther, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants.” It means:
A. He stood on the shoulders of tall people.
B. The giants helped him to climb on to their shoulders.
C. He used the knowledge of the earlier scientists to improve.
D. He wasn’t able to see properly as the giants were standing in front of him.
Answer:
C. He used the knowledge of the earlier scientists to improve.

Questions 4-6: Read the following excerpt from “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

At seven, Jim’s dinner was ready for him. Jim was never late. Della held the watch chain in her hand and sat near the door where he always entered. Then she heard his step in the hall and her face lost colour for a moment. She often said little prayers quietly, about simple everyday things. And now she said: “Please God, make him think I’m still pretty.”  The door opened and Jim stepped in. He looked very thin and he was not smiling. Poor fellow, he was only twenty-two and with a family to take care of! He needed a new coat and he had nothing to cover his cold hands.

Question 4.
Was Jim always late to come home after work?
Answer:
No, he wasn’t. Jim was never late.

Question 5.
When Della heard Jim’s step in the hall, her face lost colour for a moment. What was the reason for that?
A. Jim always scolded her.
B. She had cut off and sold her hair.
C. Jim had come very late.
D. Jim did not like her.
Answer:
B. She had cut off and sold her hair.

Question 6.
How old was Jim?
Answer:
He was only 22 years old.

Question 7.
Read the following poem “The Astronomer” by Rabindranath Tagore. Write a paragraph summarising the ideas contained in the lines. (1 × 4 = 4)
I only said, “When in the evening the round full moon gets
entangled among the beaches of that Dadam tree, couldn’t somebody catch it?”
But dada laughed at me and said, “Baby, you are the silliest
child I have ever known. The moon is ever so far from us, how could anybody catch it?”
I said, “Dada, how foolish you are! When mother looks out of
her window and smiles down at us playing, would you call her far away?”
Still dada said, “You are a stupid child! But, baby where
could you find a net big enough to catch the moon with?”
I said, “Surely you could catch it with your hands.”
But dada laughed and said, “You are the silliest child I have
known. If it came nearer, you would see how big the moon is.”
I said, “Dada, what nonsense they teach at your school! When
mother bends her face down to kiss us, does her face look very big?”
But still dada says, “You are a stupid child.”
Answer:
The poem is a conversation between a small child and his dada. The child asks his dada why somebody could not catch the moon when it gets entangled among the branches of the dadam tree in the evening. Dada says the boy is foolish to ask such a question because the moon is so far away from us and no one catch it. But the boy says dada is foolish. He asks when the mother looks out of her window and smiles down at us playing, would he call her far away.

Dada wanted to know how they will find a net big enough to catch it. The boy says you could catch it with your hands. Again dada says if the moon came nearer they would see how big it was. The boy then asks his dada when mother bends her face down to kiss us, does her face look very big?” Dada Says the boy is very stupid. The poem tells us about the innocence of the children.

Questions 8-10: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

The Importance of Trees

Trees are essential to life on Earth. They provide oxygen, which we breathe, and help maintain the balance of the atmosphere. Trees also act as carbon sinks, absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air. In addition to this, trees provide shelter and food for a variety of animals, from birds to insects. Forests, made up of many trees, are vital for maintaining the water cycle and preventing soil erosion. Without trees, the environment would become unbalanced, affecting all living things. As urbanization increases, it is important to remember the value of trees and work towards preserving and planting more to safeguard our planet’s future.

Question 8.
Why are trees important for life on Earth?
Answer:
Trees important for life on Earth because they provide oxygen, which we breathe, and help maintain the balance of the atmosphere.

Question 9.
Trees act as carbon sinks by:
A. producing carbon dioxide .
B. by maintaining the water cycle.
C. by giving leaves and fruits to people, animals and birds.
D. by absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air.
Answer:
D. by absorbing harmful carbon dioxide from the air.

Question 10.
Trees are essential to life of earth because:
A. they provide oxygen.
B. they help maintain the balance of the atmosphere.
C. they are needed for cooking purposes.
D. they produce beautiful flowers.
Choose one answer from the following:
i) A and C are correct.
ii) B and D are correct,
iii) C and D are correct.
iv) A and B are correct.
Answer:
iv) A and B are correct.

Questions 11-13: Answer either A or B. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 11.
[A] In “A Prescription for Life” we see Jerome going to a doctor, who is his friend, and the doctor giving him a prescription. The prescription read “A balanced diet, with water every two hours. A 10-mile walk every morning. To bed sharp at 11 o’clock every night. Don’t stuff up your mind with things you don’t understand”. Tell the story in your own words, using the hints given below.
(Hints: Jerome goes to British museum to learn about an illness – medical encyclopaedia – thinks he has all the diseases – goes to doctor – prescription – goes to pharmacy – read the prescription – goes home happily)
Answer:
One day Jerome wanted to learn something about hay fever and so he went to the British Museum to get the information from the books there. There he read the medical encyclopaedia which dealt with all kinds of diseases. When he read about the symptoms of hay fever he felt that he had all those symptoms. Then he looked at some other diseases and their symptoms. He felt that he had all those diseases in him. This made him worried and he decided to consult the doctor for help. The doctor was his friend.

When the doctor asked him what the disease that bothered him, he said that if he went on talking about all the diseases he had, the doctor would die before he finished his explanations. He said he had all the diseases except housemaid’s knee. The doctor examined him and gave him a prescription. Jerome took the prescription to the pharmacy. The chemist read the prescription and told him that he was not running a cooperative store or a family hotel, Jerome then took the prescription back and read it for the first time. It was some commonsense advice on proper diet, drinking plenty of water, regular exercise, and going to bed early. Jerome left the pharmacy feeling quite happy and decided to follow the doctor’s advice.

OR
[B] Irony is the contrast between what is expected and what actually occurs. How does the author O. Henry bring a touch of irony to the story “A Tale of Two Gifts”?
Answer:
Jim and Della are a young couple and they love each other deeply. ‘They are poor and therefore they can’t afford to buy expensive gifts for each other. But they want to give the partner an appropriate Christmas gift. Della has beautiful hair and Jim has a precious watch. Della thinks the best gift for Jim is a golden watch chain so that he can wear it proudly in public. Jim thinks the best gift for Della is some fine combs so that she can wear her hair elegantly. Della sells her beautiful hair to get the golden watch chain. Jim sells his watch to get the combs for Della’s hair. The irony is that the gifts are currently useless for them. But by sacrificing their most valuable possession they have shown how deeply they love each other.

Question 12.
[A] The narrator in the story “The Engine Trouble” by R.K. Narayan, tries to convince the municipal chairman to buy the road engine. Prepare the likely conversation between them.
Answer:
Narrator : (Enters the Office of the Chairman) Good Morning, Sir.

Chairman : Yes, Good Morning. What can I do for you?

Narrator : I’m the owner of the road engine parked in the gymkhana grounds.

Chairman : Oh, you are the owner. Didn’t you get the notice to remove it from there? We need the grounds for the upcoming cattle show.

Narrator : Sir, I had been looking for a road engine driver. But I could not find any. They say there is not a single road engine driver within 50 miles around.

Chairman : That is not my problem. I want you to remove the road engine immediately.

Narrator : Sir, I have a suggestion. The municipality has many roads to maintain. It will be good if the municipality has a road engine of its own. I will sell you the road engine at a very cheap price.

Chairman : What nonsense are you talking? Do you think the municipality wants to have a road engine of its own? It has only a few kilometres of road to maintain. For that we don’t need a road engine of our own.

Narrator : But, Sir, if you have ……

Chairman : Stop talking and don’t waste my time with your ifs and buts. I want you to remove the road engine from the gymkhana grounds in a couple of days.

Narrator : Sir, but …….

Chairman: I told you I don’t want to hear your ifs and buts. If you don’t remove that in two days’ time I will complain to the police to arrest you and charge you for blocking the use of the grounds for conducting different programmes.

Narrator : Don’t complain, Sir. I will remove it somehow.

Chairman : It is good for you to do that. Remember, in two days’ time.

Narrator : Okay, Sir!
(The Narrator goes out cursing the Chairman.)

OR
[B] Mr. Student is perplexed by the story of Teresa’s imaginary lover and her unusual letters. Later, he understands that Teresa had invented the imaginary lover because she was terribly lonely. He felt ashamed of his prejudices and misjudgements. He tells one of his close friends detailing his experiences. What does he say?
Answer:
Yuri, I want to tell you of something new I learned about human predicament. Opposite my room lives Teresa. She is tall and strong, with bushy dark brown hair and a large coarse face. She has dark eyes. She speaks with a bass voice. She also had a bad reputation. I was so prejudiced against her that I never left my door open when I knew she was in her apartment.

She once came to me and said she wanted me to write a letter to her lover Boles. She dictated it to me and I wrote it. She came back to me after some days and told me I should write another letter as a reply from Boles. I got annoyed and told her she is a liar and there is no one called Boles. She went away quite sadly. So I went to her room and had a discussion with her.

I then realised her plight. She was lonely and she invented this lover. When she makes some people read the letter written by her and the reply she supposedly gets she feels happy that there is someone to love her. I felt empathetic and I agreed to write the reply also. I continued doing that. Teresa repaid for my services by mending the holes in my socks, shirt and others items of clothing. We have become god friends now. Things are fine between Teresa and me and we are happy.

Question 13.
[A] What does Nehru mean by “noble mansion of free India” in his speech “A Tryst with Destiny? What are your dreams for our country and for the world?
Answer:
By “noble mansion of free India”, Nehru means an India where there is no gap between the rich and the poor, no intolerance, no fanaticism, and no blind love of some people for their region or language. He wants India to be a sovereign, democratic, secular nation where all the citizens live in peace, harmony and prosperity. He envisages a nation where there is unity in diversity, where there is brotherhood among the various religious, linguistic and regional groups.

My dream for the country and for the world is to have peace and harmony among people. My dream is for a world where there are no wars, no hunger, no poverty and no intolerance. I dream of world where people live like family members, loving one another without any discrimination of caste, creed, colour, language or region.

OR
[B] Nehru in his speech calls all citizens to live and work together on the path to prosperity. Imagine you share his vision with one of your friends through a letter. Write the likely letter.
Answer:
XV/24 M.G. Road
Kottayam – 686006
12 October 2025
Dearest Rosy,

I hope this letter finds you in good health and spirits.

I recently read Nehru’s speech A Tryst with Destiny” which he made on the eve of our independence in the Constituent Assembly. The words of Jawaharlal Nehru, especially his appeals for national unity and a shared commitment to building the future of India were superb. I thought of sharing this vision with you, as I know you are keen on our country’s growth.

Nehru very clearly says that India’s progress depends entirely on all of us living and working together. He wanted India to be a nation where every citizen regardless of their religion, region or language— focuses on the prosperity for all the people.

Nehru was against all kinds of communalism and provincialism which divide people. He extolled our unity in diversity. There are problems facing India – poverty, ignorance, disease and lack of modernity. As children of Mother India we should work hand in hand to overcome the problems and make India one of the best countries in the world.

There are three most important things we ought to be if we are to achieve progress and prosperity. They are working with dedication, practising tolerance and empathy, prioritizing the Nation. So let’s make a pledge in our homes, workplaces, and communities to make a democratic, secular, prosperous modem India.

With love and affection, and ebullient hope and optimism,

Yours lovingly,
Joe

Question 14.
You studied “Little Things Matter” by A.P.J. Abdulkalam, who was the 11th President of India. Using the hints given below write his brief profile. (1 × 4 = 4)
(bom 15.10.1931 in Rameshwaram – scientist, statesman and 11th President – after presidency, teaching and public service – ISRO project director – missile man of India – Pokhran II nuclear tests in 1998 – received many awards, including the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour – died while delivering a lecture at the IIM in Shillong.)
Answer:
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was bom on 15 October 1931, in a poor Tamil Muslim family in Rameswaram. He was inspired to pursue science and engineering despite humble beginnings. He was an Indian scientist, statesman, and the 11th President of India (2002-2007). After his presidency, he returned to a life of teaching and public service until his death in 2015.

As Project Director at ISRO, he was instrumental in developing India’s first indigenous Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-III). He played a crucial role in the development of India’s ballistic missile and launch vehicle technologies, earning him the title “Missile Man of India”. He was also a key figure in India’s Pokhran-II nuclear tests in 1998 and served as the Scientific Adviser to the Defence Minister. He was the President between 2002 and 2007.He has received many awards, including the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour. He passed away on 27 July 2015, while delivering a lecture at the Indian Institute of Management in Shillong.

Questions 15-17: Here are some headlines that appeared in the Indian Newspapers in the morning of August 15,1947, after Nehru had made the “A Tryst with Destiny” speech. Read the news headlines and answer the questions that follow. (3 × 1 = 3)

NATION WAKES TO NEW LIFE

INCESSANT STRIVING TASK OF THE FUTURE

WILD SCENES OF JUBILATION IN DELHI

PANDIT NEHRU TO BE PREMIER

Question 15.
Which of the headlines is the most specific?
Answer:
The headline that is the most specific is PANDIT NEHRU TO BE PREMIER.

Question 16.
Which is the headline that shows the happiness of the people?
Answer:
The headline that shows the happiness of the people is WILD SCENES OF JUBILATION IN DELHI.

Question 17.
“Incessant Striving Task of the Future” refers to:
A. Pandit Nehru’s work as PM.
B. The troubles the British will have to face in India.
C. The hard work of the leaders behind the Independence Movement.
D. The hard work we have to do to make India a prosperous nation.
Answer:
D. The hard work we have to do to make India a prosperous nation.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks using the appropriate forms of the phrasal verbs given in brackets.
After waking up early, I had to a)……. the partment b) ……. my keys. I finally c) ……. the
search and realized they were in my backpack all along.
(figure out, run round, break down, put on, look for, put up with, call oft)
Answer:
a) run round,
b) looking for,
c) called off

Question 19.
Edit the following passage: Errors are in bold. ( 4 × 1/2 = 2)
To my utter surprise she took me her house. She asked me to wash my face. She made me a) to sit down. Then she heated some lima beans and ham she had in the icebox, made the cocoa and set the table. She asked me to eat with her. She did not b) asked me anything about where I lived, or my people or anything else that would c) embarass me. She told me about her job. She made me eat as if I were his son. When we finished eating she gave me ten dollars to buy the blue suede shoes I wanted.
Answer:
a) sit down,
b) ask,
c) embarrass,
d) her

Question 20.
Complete the conversation between Mrs. Jones and Roger in “A Tale of Two Gifts” by O. Henry. (3 × 1 = 3)
Della: Mrs. Sofronie, will you buy a) ______?
Mrs. Sofronie: Remove b) ______
Della: How much will you pay me?
Mrs. Sofronie: c) “______”.
Answer:
A) my hair?
b) remove your cap.
c) Twenty dollars