Plus Two

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

 

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Physics
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2 Hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum: 60 Scores

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off-time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

The given value of constants can be used wherever necessary.

Velocity or light in vacuum, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Plank’s constant, h = 6.64 × 10^-34 Js
Charge of electron, e = 1.6 × 10^-19C
Mass of the electron, m = 9.1 × 10^-31 kg
Avogadro number = 6.025 × 10²³ atom/mol
ε₀ = 8.854  × 10^-12 C² N^-1 m^-2
μ₀ = 4π × 10^-7 Tm/A

Questions 1 and 2 carry 1 Score each. Answer both. (2 × 1 = 2)

Question 1.
How will you represent a resistance of 3700 Ω ± 5% using colour code?
Answer:
Orange, Violet, Red and Gold.

Question 2.
Draw the symbol of NAND gate.
Answer:

Answer any six questions from question number 3 to 10. Each question carries 2 Scores. (Scores: 6 × 2 = 12)

Question 3.
Two equal and opposite charges placed in air as shown in figure:

a) Redraw the figure and show the direction of dipole moment (P), direction of resultant electric field (E) at P.
b) Write an equation to find out the electric field at P.
Answer:
a)

b) \(\overline{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\overline{\mathrm{P}}}{\mathrm{r}^{3}}\)

Question 4.
Calculate the electrical capacitance of earth. The radius of earth is 6400 km.
Answer:
Capacitance of earth C = \(4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{R}\)
C = \(4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\) × 6400 × 10³
= 710.8 µF

Question 5.
What do you mean by drift velocity? Write the relation between drift velocity and electric current.
Answer:
The average velocity acquired by an electron under the applied electric field is called drift velocity.
I = neAV_d

Question 6.
A galvanometer is connected as shown in the figure:

a) This combination can be used as ………..
(voltmeter/rheostat/ammeter)
b) Derive an expession to find the value of resistance S.
Answer:
a) Ammeter
b)

Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer, giving full deflection for a current I_g.
To convert it into an ammeter, a suitable shunt resistance ‘S’ is connected in parallel. In this arrangement Ig current flows through Galvanometer and remaining (I – Ig) current flows through shunt resistance.
Since G and S are parallel
P.d Across G = p.d across S
Ig × G = (I – Ig)s
S = \(\frac{\I_g G}{(I-\I_g )}\)

Question 7.
An unpolarised light incident on a medium as shown in figure.

Show that the direction of reflected and refracted waves are mutually perpendicular.
Answer:
According to Brewster’s law
n = tan p = \(\frac{\sin p}{\cos p}\) ………(1)
According to Snell’s law
n = \(\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}\) …….(2)
Comparing (1) and (2), we get
\(\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}=\frac{\sin p}{\sin x}\)
sin x = cos p = sin(90 – p)
x = 90 – p, but p = r
x = 90 – r
x + r =90°
If x + r is 90°, angle between reflected and refracted ray will be 90°.

Question 8.
How many electrons, protons and neutrons are there in 16g of ₈O¹⁶?
Answer:
Number of atoms in 16g of ₈O¹⁶ = 6.023 × 10²³
Number of protons = 8 × 6.023 × 10²³
Numberof neutrons = 8 × 6.023 × 10²³

Question 9.
The given block diagram shows general form of a communication system.

a) Identify the blocks X and Y.
b) What is the difference between attenuation and amplification?
Answer:
a) X – transmitter
Y – Receiver
b) Attenuation: The loss of strength of a signal while propagating through a medium is known as attenuation.
Amplification: It is the process of increasing the amplitude of a signal.

Question 10.
What is the population covered by the transmission, if the average population density around the tower is 1200 km^-2? The antenna height is 160 m.
Answer:
Distance travelled by the wave d = \(\sqrt{2 R h}\)
Area = πd²
= π(\(\sqrt{2 R h}\))²
= π2Rh
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.160 Km²
Population covered = Area × population density
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.16 × 1200
= 7.72 × 10⁶

Answer any five questions from question number 11 to 16. Each question carries 3 Scores. (Scores: 5 × 3 = 15)

Question 11.
Two spheres encloses charges as shown in figure:

a) Derive and expression for electric field intensity at any point on the surface S2.
b) What is the ratio of electric flux through S₁ and S₂?
Answer:
a) According to Guess law

b) Flux a charge
for first sphere Φ₁ α Q
for second sphere Φ₂ α 3Q
∴ \(\frac{\phi_{1}}{\phi_{2}}=\frac{Q}{3 Q}=\frac{1}{3}\)
= 1 : 3

Question 12.
The electric field lines of a positive charge is as shown in figure:

a) Give the sign of potential difference Vp – Vq.
b) Give the sign of work done by the field in moving a small positive charge from ‘Q’ to ‘P’.
c) What is the shape of equipotential surface near the charge?
Answer:
a) positive.
b) negative.
c) spherical.

Question 13.
a) Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum:
i) used in radar systems.
ii) produced by bombarding a metal target by a high speed electrons.
b) Electromagnetic waves are produced by ………..
(charges at rest/charges in uniform motion/ charges in accelerated motion)
c) Why only microwaves are used in microwave ovens?
Answer:
a) i) Micro waves
ii) X – rays
b) Charges in accelerated motion.
c) The frequency of micro waves matches with the rotational frequency of water molecule.

Question 14.
Two thin convex lenses of focal length f₁ and f₂ are placed in contact:
a) If the object is at principal axis, draw ray diagram of the image formation by this combination of lenses.
b) Obtain a general expression for effective focal length of the combination in terms of f₁ and f₂.
Answer:
a)

b) Consider two thin convex lenses of focal lengths f₁ and f₂ kept in contact. Let O be an object kept at a distance ‘u’ from the first lens L₁, I₁ is the image formed by the first lens at a distance v₁.
Then from the lens formula, we can write,
\(\frac{1}{f_{1}}=\frac{1}{v_{1}}-\frac{1}{u}\) ……..(1)
This image will act as the virtual object for the second lens and the final image is formed at I (at a distance v). Then
\(\frac{1}{f_{2}}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{v_{1}}\) ……..(2)
Adding eq (1) and eq (2)

If the two lenses are replaced by a single lens of focal length ‘F’ the image is formed at ‘v’. Then we can write,
\(\frac{1}{F}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\) …….(4)
from eq(3) and (4),
\(\frac{1}{F}=\frac{1}{f_{1}}+\frac{1}{f_{2}}\) …….(3)

Question 15.
A plane wave-front AB incident on a surface XY and undergoes refraction as shown in figure:

a) Prove Snell’s law of refraction by using this figure.
b) What is the change in speed of propagation and frequency of the refracted wave?
Answer:
a) AB is the incident wavefront and c₁ is the velocity of the wavefront in the first medium. CD is the refracted wavefront and c₂ is the velocity of the wavefront in the second medium. AC is a plane separating the two media.

The time taken for the ray to travel from P to R is

O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable.
But the time to travel a wavefront from AB to CD is constant. In order to satisfy this condition, the term containing AO in eq (2) should be zero.

where ¹n₂ is the refractive index of the second medium w.r.t. the first. This is the law of refraction.

b) Speed decreses
frequency remains same.

Question 16.
a) State radioactive decay law.
b) Prove the relation N(t) = N₀e^-λt.
Answer:
a) The number of nuclei undergoing decay per unit time is proportional to number of nuclei in the sample at that time.

b) According to Law of Radioactive decay,
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = -λN
\(\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{t}}\) = -λdt
Integrating
In N = -λt + C …….. (1)
C is the constant of integration. To get value of C, let us assume that initially (t = 0) the number of nuclei be N₀.
∴ C = In N₀
Substituting for C in equation (1) we get,
In N – In N₀ = -λt
In \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) = -λt
\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) e-λt
N = N₀e^-λt

Answer any four questions from question number 17 to 21. Each question carries 4 Scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 17.
Two charged partjeles q1 and q2 are moving through a uniform magnetic field (B) as shown in figure:

a) What is the shape of path of q₁ and q₂.
b) Derive an expression for cyclotron frequency with the help of a neat diagram.
Answer:
a) q₁ charges undergoes helical motion and q₂ moves in a circular path.

b)

Let ‘v’ be the velocity of ion, q the charge of the ion and B the magnetic flux density. If the ion moves along a semicircular path of radius ‘r’, then we can write

Question 18.
The B-H curve of a ferromagnetic material is as shown in figure:

a) What do you mean by ferromagnetic material? Write any two properties of it.
b) Identify the value of retentivity and coercivity from the figure.
c) A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 400. The windings of the solenoid are insulated from the core and carry a current of 2A. If the number of turns is 1000 per metre, calculate magnetic intensity (H) and magnetic field (B).
Answer:
a) Ferromagnetic substances are those which gets strongly magnetized in an external magnetic field.
Properties: High susceptibility and permeability.
b) Ob represents retentivity and Oc coercivity.
c) H = nI
= 1000 × 2
= 2 × 10³ A/m
B = µ_sµ_rH
= µ₀ × 400 × 2 × 10³
B = IT

Question 19.
a) Derive an expression for self inductance of a solenoid.
b) What do you mean by eddy current? Write any two applications of it.
Answer:
a) Consider a solenoid (air core) of length/.number of turns N and area cross section A. let ‘n’ be the no. of turns per unit length (n = N/I)
The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid,
Φ = BAN
Φ = μ₀nIAN (since B = μ₀ ni)
but Φ = LI
∴ LI = μ₀nIAN
L = μ₀nAN
If solenoid contains a core of relative permeability
μr
Then L = μ₀μ_rnAN

b) when magnetic flux in a metal block changes, induced currents are produced. This current is called eddy current.
Applications:

• Magnetic beaking in trains
• Damping
• Induction furnace

Question 20.
The given graph shows the variation of KE with frequency of incident radiations for two surfaces A and B.

a) Which of the two metals has greater work function? For which of the metals will stopping potential be more for the same frequency of incident radiation?
b) The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz incident on the metal surface, what is the maximum KE of the photoelectrons and stopping potential?
Answer:
a) A
b) KE = hυ – Φ₀
= 6.6 × 10^-34 × 6 × 10¹⁴ – 2.14 × 1.6 × 10^-19
= 0.551 × 10^-19 J
= 0.345 eV
∴ Stopping potential = 0.345 V

Question 21.
a) Name different series of lines observed in hydrogen spectrum.
b) Draw energy level diagram of hydrogen atom.
Answer:
a) Laymen, Balmer, Paschen, Bracket, Pfund
b)

Answer any three questions from question number 22 to 25. Each question carries 5 Scores. (Scores: 3 × 5 = 15)

Question 22.
The circuit diagram of a potentiometer for determining the emf ‘E’ of a cell of negligible internal resistance is as shown in figure.

a) State the principle of working of a potentiometer.
b) How the balancing length AJ changes when the value of R₁ decreases?
c) Derive an expression to find out internal resistance of a cell.
Answer:
a) Potential difference between two points of current carrying conductor is directly proportional to the length of the wire between two points.
b) Balancing length decreases.
c)

The key (K₁) in the primary circuit is closed and the key is the secondary (K₂) is open. Jockey is moved to get zero deflection in galvanometer. The balancing length l₁ (from A) is found out.
Then we can write.
E₁ ∝ l₁ …….. (1)
Key K₂ is put in the circuit, corresponding balancing length (l₂) is found out. Let V be the applied voltage, then
V₁ ∝ l₁ ……..(2)
‘V’ is the voltage across resistance box.
Current through resistance box
i.e., voltage across resistance,

Question 23.
The phasor diagram of the alternating voltage across an unknown device X and current flowing through it are shown below.

a) Identify the device X.
b) Draw the graphical variation of current and voltage with ωt through this device.
c) Draw the phasor diagram which shows the relation among VR, VL, VC and I in a series LCR circuit.
Answer:
a) Resistor
b)

c)

Question 24.
A ray of light passing through a prism. If the refracted ray QR is parallel to the base BC, as shown in figure.

a) Derive an expression to find out deviation (d).
b) Draw a graph which shows the variation of ‘d’ with ‘i’.
c) Calculate the angle of minimum deviation if A = 60° and refractive index of the material of prism is 1.62.
Answer:
a)

The angle between the emergent ray and incident ray is the deviation ‘d’.
In the quadrilateral AQMR,
∠Q + ∠R = 180°
[since N1M and NM are normal]
i.e., ∠A + ∠M = 180° …….(1)
In the Δ QMR,
∴ r₁ + r₂ + ∠M = 180° …….(2)
Comparing eq (1) and eq (2)
r₁ + r₂ = ∠A …….(3)
From the Δ QRT,
(i₁ – r₁) + (i₂ – r₂) = d
(i₁ + i₂) – (r₁ + r₂) = d
but, r₁ + r₂ = A
∴ (i₁ + i₂) – A = d

Question 25.
The symbol of a diode is shown in the figure:

a) The diode is a ………… (rectifier diode/photo diode/Zener diode)
b) Draw the VI characteristics of above diode.
c) A zener diode with V_Z = 6.0 V is used for voltage regulation. The current through the load is to be 4.0 mA and that through the zener diode is 20 mA. If the unregulated input is 10.0 V, what is the value of series resistor R?
d) What is the fundamental frequency of the ripple in a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains?
Answer:
a) Rectifier diode
b)

c) I = I_Z + I_L
= 20 × 10^-3 + 4 × 10^-3
I = 24 × 10^-3 A
Resistance R = \(\frac{V}{1}=\frac{10-6}{24 \times 10^{-3}}\)
R = 166.67 Ω
d) 100 Hz

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two History Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two History Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Part – I

A. Answer any questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The Great Bath was situated at
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Harappa
(d) Dholavira
Answer:
(a) Mohenjodaro

Question 2.
Who gave leadership for the preparation of a critical edition of the Mahabharata?
(a) B.B. Lai
(b) V.S.Sukthankar
(c) Mahashweta Devi
(d) R.D.Baneiji
Answer:
(b) V.S.Sukthankar

Question 3.
Socrates was a native of:
(a) Iran
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Greece
Answer:
(d) Greece

Question 4.
Identify the birth place of the Buddha.
(a) Lumbini
(b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Samath
(d) Kusinagara
Answer:
(a) Lumbini

Question 5.
Where did the Buddha make his first sermon?
(a) Sachi
(b) Amaravati
(c) Kusinagara
(d) Samath
Answer:
(d) Samath

Question 6.
Name the leader of the Virashaiva movement in Karnataka.
(a)GuruNanak
(b) Basavanna
(c) Andal
(d) Appar
Answer:
(b) Basavanna

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
Identify the king who was referred to as ‘Piyadassi’.
a) Kanishka
b) Samudra Gupta
c) Bimbisara
d) Asoka
Answer:
d) Asoka

Question 8.
Sultan Jehan Begum was the ruler of:
a) Amaravati
b) Bhopal
c) Iran
d) Guntur
Answer:
b) Bhopal

Question 9.
The Vijayanagara empire was founded in:
a) 1300
b) 1316
c) 1326
d) 1336
Answer:
d) 1336

Question 10.
Who started the newspaper ‘Rajyasamacharam’?
a) Benjamin Bailey
b) AmosPathiri
c) Hermen Gundert
d) Rev. Mead
Answer:
c) Hermen Gundert

Part – II

A. Answer any 3 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 12.
Prepare a short note on AkbarNama
Answer:
Abul Fazl – 3 books – first two books are chronicles – third isAin-i- Akbari – Reign of Akbar.

Question 13.
Point out any two capital cities of the Mughals.
Answer:

1. Delhi
2. Fathepur Sikri
3. Agra
4. Lahore
5. Shajahanabad

Question 14.
Write the names of any two leaders of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. Bahadurshah
2. Jhansi Rani
3. Nana Sahib
4. Shahmal Beegum Hazrat Mahal
5. Gonoo

Question 15.
Mention the names of any two Tinais.
Answer:

1. Kurinchi
2. Mullai
3. Palai
4. Marutham
5. Neithal

B. Answer any 2 questions from 16 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
Prepare a short note on Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
Abul Fazl – completed in 1598 – 3rd book of Akbar Nama – Aim gives detailed accounts of the organisation of the court  administration and army, the sources of revenue and the physical lay out of the princess of Akbar’s empire and the literacy, cultural and religious traditions of the people – 5 books.

Question 17.
Identify any two rulers who rules the Mughal empire in between 1526 to 1707.
Answer:

1. Babur
2. Humayun
3. Akbar
4. Jahangir
5. Shahjahan
6. Aurangazeb

Question 18.
Elucidate the European powers who came to Kerala for trade.
Answer:

1. The Portuguese
2. The Dutch
3. The English
4. The French

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 19 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Evaluate the causes for the decline of the Harappan Civilization.
Answer:

1. Climatic change
2. Deforestation
3. Excessive floods
4. Over use of the landscape
5. Shifting and/or drying up of rivers

Question 20.
Examine the condition of women in the agrarian society of the Mughals.
Answer:
Women sowed, weeded, threshed and winnowed the harvest – gendered segregation was not possible – biases related to women’s biological functions – artisanal tasks – amongst the landed gentry, women had the right to inherit property.

Question 21.
Mark the following places on the outline map of ancient India:
• Delhi
• Kanpur
• Jhansi
• Awadh
Answer:

1. Delhi
2. Kanpur
3. Jhansi
4. Awadh

Question 22.
Evaluate the importance of oral history in the history of India’s partition.
Answer:
Lack of concreteness and the chronology – unique¬ness of personal experiences – memory of the indi¬vidual – Urvasi Bhutalia – The other side of silence’.

Question 23.
Match Column A with appropriate items from Column B.

Column A	Column B
Velu Thampi	Savarna Jatha
Rama Namby	Kallumala agitation
Mannath	Kundara Proclamation
Padmanabhan	Kurichiya Revolt
Ayyankali

Answer:

Column A	Column B
Velu Thampi	Kundara Proclamation
Rama Namby	Kurichiya Revolt
Mannath Padmanabhan	Savarna Jatha
Ayyankali	Kallumala agitation

B. Answer any 1 question from 24 to 25. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
How did travellers like Ibn Battuta and Francois Bernier describe the condition of women and slaves in medieval India?
Answer:
Slaves were openly sold in markets, like any other commodity, and were regularly exchanged as gifts. There was considerable differentiation among slaves. Some female salves in the service of the sultan were experts in music and dance. Female slaves were also employed by the Sultan to keep a watch on his nobles.

While some women seemed to embrace Sati cheer¬fully, others were forced to die. However, women’s lives revolved around much else besides the prac¬tice of Sati. Their labour was crucial in both agricultural and non-agricultural production. It seems un¬likely that women were confined to the private spaces of their homes.

Question 25.
Analyse the importance of Awadh during the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
The taking over of Awadh by the British made the local kings, talukdars, peasants and sepoys very unhappy and angry. By taking over Awadh, not only the Nawab but also many talukdars lost their jobs. The talukdars had many estates and fortresses in the villages of Awadh. They had been in control of these lands for generations. They had much power in the villages. They also used to keep small army units with them. Some even had armies numbering up to 12,000 soldiers. Even the small ones had 200 footmen.

The British refused to accept the autonomy and authority of the talukdars. Soon after they took over Awadh, they dispersed the armies of the talukdars and destroyed their fortresses. The land tax system also was not liked by the talukdars. The British enforced the new tax system in 1856. This was called the Summary Settlement of 1856. This was enforced with the concept that the talukdars had no permanent ownership of the land. The British saw them as encroachers who got the ownership of the land using ail kinds cheating and even force.

The British wanted to avoid the talukdars and make settlements with the real owners of the land. They thought this would reduce exploitation of the farmers and increase the government’s income. But in reality none of these happened. The officials soon realized that the tax imposed on the fanners was much more than their capacity to pay. In short the Summary Settlement was a failure. It satisfied neither the farmers nor the talukdars.

As talukdars lost their positions, their social status was lost. The relations between them and the farmers were ruined. Before the take-over by the British there was cordiality between the talukdars and the farmers. Although the talukdars were strict, they often behaved like the guardians of peasants. They helped peasants in their needs. They also gave peasants loans during festivals.

Peasants also showed loyalty to talukdars. But the coming of the British spoiled all these. The farmers got no consideration from the British. The British charged them heavy tax and used strict methods to collect it. During crop failure, or times of trouble, or feasts, the British never helped the peasants.

The ousted talukdars wanted to get back their lost estates and power. They became the strongest enemies of the British. In places like Awadh, where the revolt was the worst, the talukdars and the farmers were in the forefront of the revolt. Many of the talukdars were loyal to the Nawab. They joined Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the Nawab, in her fight against the British. Even in failure, the talukdars did not abandon the Begum.
The taking over of Awadh by the British made the sepoys also unhappy. Many o f them were from Awadh itself. They did not like the idea of their birthplace getting into the hands of the British.

The Sepoys had many problems and complaints. They had small salarjes. The places they had to stay and the food they got were not of good quality. It was also difficult to get leave. The chances of promotion were limited. They did not get any foreign service allowance for working outside India. The journeys across the seas were not liked by many, because some religions prohibited such journeys. They also were unhappy because the British did not allow many of them to wear headcovers and also beards.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each carries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 26.
Explain the features of the stupas and its relation with Buddhism.
Answer:
Stupas are holy places. These are mounds where part of the mortal remains of Buddha or some things he used is buried. They have been made with bricks or stones. They have a lot of story value.

1. Even before the coming of Buddhism, the practice of making stupas was in existence. Later it became attached to Buddhism.
2. Since they are built over the remains of Buddha or the things he used, they are worshipped as a sign of Buddha and Buddhism.

Followers of Buddha built many stupas in different parts of India. The Buddhist Book“Asokavadana Sishta” says that Emperor Asoka sent the mortal remains of Buddha in all the important towns of his empire and ordered stupas to be built over them. By the 2nd century BC, many stupas were built. The most famous stupas are in Bharhut, Sanchi and Saranath.

Stupa is a Sanskrit word meaning a heap or mound. In the early times, stupas were in semi-circles. Later they were known as ‘anda’. Gradually, the structure of the stupas became complex. They now acquired
circular and rectangular shapes.

Over the andas, they built some kind of balcony. It was called harmika which means ‘sreekovil’. It represents the abode of god. From harmika rose a flag-post, called ‘yashti’. Around this there were chhatris (umbrellas). Around the mound, a stone wall was constructed separating it from the material world around. The early stupas in Sanchi and Bharhut were simple.

The gates and the fences were looking as if they were made of bamboos or wood. There were four entrance arches to the stupas. These arches were decorated with sculptures. The worshippers entered the stupa from the eastern archway and went round the mound, Later these stupas were adorned with various sculptures and inscriptions. Such decorated stupas can be seen in Amaravati and Shahji-ki-dheri in Peshawar in Pakistan.

Question 27.
Assess the factors that led to the emergence of Magadha.
Answer:
Fertility of soil – growth of agriculture – iron deposit – use of elephants in war – communication through river Ganga – Powerful rulers like Bimbisara, Ajathashathru and Mahapadmananda – location of capitals (Rajagaha and Pataliputra)

Question 28.
Explain the features of the buildings in the Royal centre of the Vijayanagara empire.
Answer:
The royal centre was located in the southwestern part of the subcontinent. Although designated a royal centre, it included over 60 temples. There are more distinctive structures in the area. The King’s palace is the largest. It has two impressive platforms. They were the audience hall and Mahanavami dibba. The audience hall is a high platform with slot for wooden pillars. It had a stair case going up to the second floor which rest on the pillars. So there were little free space. So it is not clear what the hall was used for.

It is a massive platform rising from a base about 11,000 sq.ft, to a heights of 40 ft. There is evidence to that it supported a wooden structure. Tfie base of platform is covered with relief carvings Celebrations like Mahanavami are connected to Mahanavami Dibba. Mahanavami means the Great Ninth Day. This feast is known by different names in different regions. In North India it is ‘Dussehra’, in Bengal it is ‘Durga Pooja’ and in South India it is ‘Navaratri’. The Vijayanagara kings exhibited their glory and authority during this festival.

Mahanavami is celebrated with many rituals. Idol worship, veneration to the royal horse, animal sacrifice etc. were part of the rituals. The celebrations are made more enjoyable through dance performances, wrestling, processions with adorned horses, elephants, chariots and soldiers. Nayakas and regional chiefs owing loyalty to the main King come with gifts for their king and his guests. All these rituals had their symbolic meanings. On the last day of the festival, a huge function was conducted in an open place. In that the King examines his army and also those of the Nayaks.On this occasion, the nayaks give tribute to the king. Along with the tribute, the nayaks also gave the king plenty of expensive gifts.

One of the most beautiful buildings in the Royal Centre is the “Lotus Mahal”. This name was given by the British travellers who came here in the 19th century. Historians are not very sure for what purpose this structure was esed. Mackenzie feels that this was a Council Chamber in which the King met his advisors. There are many temples in the Royal Centre.

One of the important temples in the Royal Centre is Hazara Rama Temple. It is believed that only the king and his family members used this temple. The important idols of the Hazara Ramaswami Temple are not yet found. But the inscriptions and sculptures on the walls are still seen there. There are scenes from the Ramayana. They have been inscribed on the inner walls of the temple. When Vijayanagara was destroyed most of the constructions there also were destroyed. Still the tradition of building palatial structures was continued by the Nayaks. Many of the buildings made by them are still standing.

Question 29.
Analyse the life of Paharias and Santhals in the Rajmahal hills.
Answer:
Rajmahal Hills – The hoe and the plough – paharias – settled agriculture expanded – In 1770s the British embarked on a brutal policy of extermination – Santhals were pouring into the area – Damin-i-koh – Santhal settlements expanded rapidly – state levied heavy tax – money lenders – Santhal Revolt -1855-56 – Sidhu.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 6 scores.

Question 30.
Explain the social condition of ancient India based on four fold varna system and system of marriage.
Answer:

1. Brahmanas – Study and teach vedas, perform sacrifices, give and receive gifts.
2. Kshatriyas – warfare, protect people and administer justice, study the vedas, get sacrifices performed, and make gifts.
3. Vaishyas – Engaged in agriculture, pastoralism and trade.
4. Shudras – Serve the three higher vamas. Exogamy, endogamy, Brahma marriage, Arsha marriage, child marriage, Asura marriage, Gandharva marriage, Rakshasa marriage, Paisacha marriage, monogamy, polgamy, polyandry etc. are some of the marriages that existed in ancient India.

Question 31.
Explain the early Bhakti traditions of South India.
Answer:
The leaders of early Bhakti movement were poet saints. They challenged the orthodox brahaminical traditions. These traditions also accomodated and acknowledged women and the lower castes. Some of the early Bhakti Movement were led by the Alvars and Nayanars.

Alvars and Nayanars initiated a movement of protest against the caste system and the dominance of Brahmins. This can be proved by the fact that the bhaktas came from diverse social backgrounds. They included various groups like brahmanas, artisans, cultivators, etc. The tradition of the Alvars and Nayanars were considered important. Many claimed that their composition were an important on the vedas. For example, one of the major anthologies of composition by the Alvars, the Nalayira Divya Prabandam, was known as Tamil Veda. This text was considered as significant as four vedas in Sanskrit.

I n the 12th century, a new pious movement came up in Karnataka. A Brahmin named Basavanna (1106 – 1168) was the leader of this movement. Virashaiva Movement is also called Lingayat. In the beginning Basavanna was a believer of Jainism. He had also served as a minister under King Bijalaof Chalukya. Because of serious differences of opinion, Basavanna decided to quit Jainism and with his son-in-law he formed the Virashaiva Movement. His followers were called Virasaivas or Lingayats.

Question 32.
Evaluate the background of the partition of India.
Answer:
It is quite true that the anti-Indians in Pakistan and anti-Pakistanis in India were the product ofvthe Partition. R.M. Murphy, a famous journalist, says that there are many anti Hindus in Pakistan and anti-N Muslims in India. They consider their opposite group as cruel, fanatical and vicious. Such misconceptions were in existence even before partition.

But these beliefs were strengthened with the unfortunate happenings in 1947.The voices of hared are still heard in both countries. When there are communal problems, the anger and hatred come in the open. People mutually accuse each other, repeating the atrocities committed during the partition time. The policies of both India and Pakistan were based, to an extent, on these misconceptions.

Some historians, both in India and Pakistan, believe that the Two-Nation Theory of Mohammed Ali Jinnah had actually originated in the Middle Ages. The two- nation theory stresses that the Hindus and Muslims of Colonial India are two separate nations. They show that difference have been in existence for centuries. The Partition of 1947 was just a climax for the long-standing rivalries.

These historians stress only the rivalries. They do not see the friendship and cooperation that existed between them. Although there were differences between the two communities there was also the sharing of cultural and economic aspects.

Some scholars say that the Partition was the result of the communal politics that began in India in the beginning of the 20th century. It was the separate constituencies allowed to the Muslims that caused such divisive thinking. Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909 allowed these separate constituencies. The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms expanded the concept still further. Separate constituencies helped the Muslims to elect their own representatives.

This was exploited by the politicians. They started promoting religious thinking. Each politician, whether Hindu or Muslim, did some favours to the members of his community and thus gained acceptance among them. Their only purpose was to gain power by playing the religious card. Religious concepts began to influence politics. Enmity between religious groups grew. Some incidents that took place in the first decades of the 20th century also increased the tension between the two communities. In the 1920s and 30s, this enmity grew.

1. Singing in front of the mosques, Save-the-Cow Movement, and the Suddhi Movement by Arya Samaj which tried to bring back coverts into other religions including Islam, made the Muslims unhappy.
2. The growth of some Islamic Organizations like Tabligh (Islamic Preaching) enraged Hindus.
3. Fanatics in both groups tried to organize their members with greater unity and solidarity. Opposing groups often clashed. This caused communal riots in many parts of the country.

Part – VI

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 35. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
Explain the features of the Harappanb civilization on the bassi of following hints:
Hints:
• Mohenjodaro – A planned urban centre
• Seals and script
Answer:
History has left behind a number of evidences that Harappan civilization was an urban civilization. The greatest site of Harappan civilization is Mohenjo Daro. This was discovered after Harappa. It is from Mohenjo Daro that evidences of town planning, dwellings and seals of the Harappan civilization were discovered. This big city is situated in the Larkana District of Sindh on the shore of River Sindhu. The meaning of Mohenjo Daro is ‘The Mound of the Dead”. The excavations done here brought to light the remains of a well planned city. This city was divided into two parts – The Citadel and the Lower Town.

The Citadel: Citadel is a small manmade platform. It is located on the western side of the city. Citadel is the highest part of the city. There are two reasons for the unusual height of the citadel. First of all it is built on a higher ground. Secondly its buildings are constructed on the bricks made of earth. The citadel is protected by building walls around it. There are many big buildings in the citadel. They have been used various special purposes. The main buildings of the citadel are The Warehouse, and the Great Bath.

The Warehouse : The biggest building of Mohenjo Daro is its warehouse of barn. The lower part of this building is built with bricks. It can still be seen. The upper portion of the warehouse is made of wood. With the passage of most of it is ruined. The warehouse was used to store the leftover food grains.

The Great Bath : The most important structure in the citadel of Mohenjo Daro is the Great Bath. It is in rectangular shape. The pond is in the yard which is surrounded by corridors on all four sides. To^get into the pond there are steps on the northern and southern sides. The bottom of the pond is made watertight using bricks and lime paste. This prevents the water from seeping down and making the pond dry. There are rooms on 3 sides of the pond. There was a big well in one of the rooms.

The water for the pond was brought from this well. There were provisions for filling the pond with water and to make the dirty water flow out into drains. Historians think that the Great Bath had a religious importance. They think that this Great Bath was used for ritual baths. The Great Bath shows the importance the Harappans gave to cleanliness. It also shows their engineering and technical skills.

Lower Town : Domestic Architecture: The Lower Town was just below the citadel. This was also protected by walls. People lived here. Here we can see good examples of domestic architecture. The houses were made of bricks. The houses were ordered in the Grid System. The houses were built along both sides of the road, with adequate space between houses. The doors and windows were opened to face the central yard. It is believed that the yard was used for cooking and also weaving.

The houses did not have doors and windows that faced the street. All the houses had bathrooms. They were paved with bricks. The drainage system was excellent. Houses were different in size. There were single room and double room houses. There were also houses with more than two storeys. To get to the top stories there weife staircases.

Big houses had wells. It was dug in a room in such a way that even outsiders could draw water from it. Experts estimate that Mohenjo Daro had some 700 wells. Houses were built on raised platforms. The settlements were well planned. The bricks were made to certain specifications. The same kind of bricks was used in most constructions.

The drainage system : The drainage system in the Harappan cities was excellent. The drain of each house waslinked to the drainage canal outside. The drainage canals were covered with bricks or sheets of rock. In some places they covered the drainage canals with limestone slabs. It was possible to clean the canals by removing the top coverings. There were manholes in the public drainage.

Seal and Script:
The Harappan people used seals and sealings to identify the goods that sent from one place to another. The sealings convey the identity of the sender. Most of the Harappan inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs. The Harappan script is not deciphered so far. It was evidently not alphabetical as it has just too many signs. somewhere between 375 to 400. The script was written from right to left. The Harappan writing has been found on seals, copper tools, rims of jars, copper and terracotta tablets, jewellery bone rods and an ancient signboard.

Question 34.
How did Al-Biruni describe India in his text? Explain.
Answer:
Al-Biruni was born at Khwariezm in Uzbekistan. Khwariezm was an important centre of knowledge and so he got the best education possible. He was a linguist a scholar in many languages. He knew Syriac, Arabic, Persian, Hebrew and Sanskrit. He was not familiar with Greek. But he had read the books of Plato and other Geek philosophers through Arabic translations. In 1017 Suitan Mahmud Ghazni attacked Khwarezm. He made many people prisoners and took them to Ghazni. Al-Biruni was one of them. Although he came to Ghazni as a prisoner, he began to like the place. He entered the services of Mahmud Ghazni and remained in Ghazni until he died at the age of 70.

It was in Ghazni that Al – Biruni developed an interest in India. Sanskrit work on astronomy, mathematics, and medicine, had been translated into Arabic from the eighteenth century on wards. When the Punjab became a part of the Ghaznavid empire, contact with local population helped to create an environment of mutual trust and understanding. He spent years in the company of Brahmin priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit and studying religion and philosophical texts.

Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is simple and lucid. It is a voluminous text, divided into 80 chap- ’ ters on subjects such as religion, philosophy, festivals, astronomy, alchemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology. He adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter. He began the chapter with a question. Then a description was made on the basis of Sanskrit tradition. The chapter was concluded with a comparison with other cultures. Some present-day scholars argued that this almost geometric structure, re- markablefor its precision and predictability. It reflects his mathematical orientation.

Al-Biruni was conscious of the problems involved in understanding strange countries. He has mentioned three things that proved difficult:

1. The first problem was language – Sanskrit was quite different from Arabic and Persian languages.
   It was not easy to translate the concepts from one language into another.
2. The second problem was the differences in religions and rituals.
3. The third problem was the secluded people who were interested only in their things. They looked at foreigners with suspicion and were not willing to mingle with them freely.

Al-Biruni accepted the Class distinctions as put forward by Brahmins. But he did not approve of the untouchability practised by them. He said that things that were impure would always try to get back their purity and succeed. For example, the sun purifies the air. The salt in sea-water prevents it from getting polluted. Without this natural purification, life would be impossible on this earth. He argued that untouchability is against natural laws.

The ideas of Al-Biruni exercised powerful influence in the study of Sanskrit books. The rules regarding
Varna System were formulated favouring the Brahmins. In real life Varna was not so strict. For example, the antyaja (who were born outside the Varna System) were expected to work for the agriculturists and zamindars for small wages. Although they were socially suppressed, they were induded in the economic activities.

Question 35.
Analyse the role of Mahatma Gandhi in India’s freedom struggle.
Areas to be considered:
• Early struggles
• Non-Cooperation Movement
• The Salt Satyagraha
Answer:
Gandhjji’s first Satyagraha was that of Champaran in Bihar. The indigo farmers there were exploited by the European estate owners. The farmers were forced to cultivate indigo in place of other crops. Then they were forced to sell the indigo at the prices determined by the estate owners. In 1917, Gandhi went to Champaran and studied in details about the pathetic situation of the farmers there. Authorities asked Gandhi to go away from the place but he did not obey.

He continued his research. He wanted to ensure that the farmers could cultivate what they wanted and not what others wanted. Ultimately, the government appointed a Commission. The Commission approved most of the demands of the farmers. Gandhi succeeded in his first attempts at Satyagraha. In 1918, Gandhiji led two protest movements. One was in Ahmedabad and the other was in Kheda. Gandhi interfered in a dispute between the workers and the owners of a cloth mill inAhmedabad. In 1919 the workers embarked on a strike demanding fast unto death demanding increased wages to the workers and better working conditions for them. The mill owners were ready to negotiate. The wages of the workers were increased by 35%.

In Kheda Gandhi fought for the farmers. Because of a serious draught, farmers in Kheda had a serious problem as their crops were damaged. Gandhi told the farmers not to give taxes until some reductions in the taxes were made. Finally the government approved the demand of the farmers and Gandhi ended his satyagraha. The Champaran, Kheda and Ahmedabad satyagahas of Gandhi were a preparation for his entry into Indian National Movement. These activities helped him in understanding the problems of the people.

The Non Cooperation Movement was the first strong moment of Gandhi against the British. It was part of Gandhi’s concept of non-violence. In the beginning he co-operated with the British. But some developments in 1919 made Gandhi change his attitude. The Rowlett Acts, Jalian Wala Bagh tragedy, the Khilafat Movement etc. were some of them.

The Non-Cooperation Movement had three aims:

1. Find a solution to the Punjab problem.
2. Solve the Khilafat issue.
3. Gain swaraj.

The exhortations of Gandhiji had great effect. Students boycotted government institutions. Thousands of workers in cities and towns went on strike. Official’ records show that in 1921 there were 396 strikes involving 6 lakh workers. 7 lakh working days were lost. In the Non-Cooperation Movement, women and farmers took active part. Many women came out of their purdah to take part in the protests.

1. The Movement spread even to villages. The forest dwellers in Andhra Pradesh broke the forest laws. Farmers of Awadh and Bihar took part in the struggle by refusing to pay taxes. The farmers of Kumaon (Uttarakhand) refused to carry the goods of the Colonial officers.
2. Often these protests were done against the instructions of regional leaders. Instead of taking orders from higher authorities, they refused to cooperate with the Colonial administration.

The Chauri-Chaura incident was big jolt to the Movement. Gandhi was forced to stop the Movement. Violence in Chauri-Chaura occurred when police fired at a procession of farmers. The enraged farmers attacked the Chauri-Chaura police station and burnt it. 22 policemen were killed. This shocked Gandhiji. He realized that people were not yet ready to fight using non-violence. On 22 February 1922, he decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement. He said that no provocation would justify the killing of the 22 policemen.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant milestone. In the biography of Mahatma Gandhi, Louis Fischer (American) says that the Non-Cooperation Movement was big turning point in the history of India and also the life of Gandhi. It combined denial, sacrifice and self-control. Fischer says it was some kind of training for Autonomy.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two History Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two History Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Question 1.
Match Column ‘A’ with appropriate items from Column ‘B’.

A	B
KunwarSing	Delhi
Bahadurshah-ll	Kanpur
Rani Lakshmi Bai	Arrah (Bihar)
Nana Sahib	Jhansi

Answer:

A	B
KunwarSing	Arrah (Bihar)
Bahadurshah-ll	Delhi
Rani Lakshmi Bai	Jhansi
Nana Sahib	Kanpur

Answer any 4 questions from 2 to 7. Each carries 1 score.

Question 2.
Identify, the nation of Plato.
(a) China
(b) Iran
(c) India
(d) Greece
Answer:
(d) Greece

Question 3.
Name the author of Humayun Nama.
(a) Gulbadan Begum
(b) Abul Fazl
(c) Humayn
(d) Nurjahan
Answer:
(a) Gulbadan Begum

Question 4.
Which among the following Tinai is the coastal zone?
(a) Marutham
(b) Mullai
(c) Neithal
(d) Palai
Answer:
(c) Neithal

Question 5.
Identify the founder of Modern Travancore.
(a) Marthanda Varma
(b) Saktan Thampuran
(d) VeluThampi
(e) Pazhazzi Raja
Answer:
(a) Marthanda Varma

Question 6.
Identify the land ruled by Saktan Thampuran
(a) T ravancore
(b) Kochi
(c) Kozhikode
(d) Kannur
Answer:
(b) Kochi

Question 7.
In which year Vasco da Gama reached Calicut?
(a) 1497
(b) 1600
(c) 1604
(d) 1498
Answer:
(d) 1498

Question 8.
Arrange the following in chronological order: (4 × 1 = 4)
• Vaikom Satyagraha
• Kundara Proclamation
• Guruvayur Satyagraha
• Pazhassi Revolt
Answer:
Pazhassi Revolt-(1793 – 1805)
Kundara Proclamation (1809)
Vaikom Satyagraha (1924 – 25)
Guruvayoor Satyagraha (1931 -32)

Question 9.
Mark the following places on the outline map of ancient India provided. (4 × 1 = 4)
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Dholavira
(d) Kalibangan
Answer:
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Dholavira
(d) Kalibangen

Answer any 8 questions from 10 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 10.
Write any two causes for the decline of the Harappan Civilization.
Answer:
Deforestation, Climatic change, Floods, change in the course of river/drying up river, overuse of land.

Question 11.
Distinguish between Endogamy and Ex-ogamy.
Answer:
Endogamy- Marriage\Vithinthe Gotra Exogamy – Marriage outside the Gotra.

Question 12.
Mention any two elements to be considered while analysing texts like Mahabharata.
Answer:
Language, content, Author, Date

Question 13.
Name the founders of the Vijayanagara em-pire.
Answer:
Harihara, Bukka

Question 14.
Write the names of any two dynasties of Vijayanagara empire.
Answer:
Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, Aravidu

Question 15.
Write a short note on Mahanavamidibba.
Answer:
It is a massive platform rising from a base about 11,000 sq.ft, to a heights of 40 ft. There is evidence to that it supported a wooden structure. The base of platform is covered with relief carvings. Celebrations like Mahanavami are connected to Mahanavami Dibba. Mahanavami means the Great Ninth Day. This feast is known by different names in different regions. In North India it is ‘Dussehra’, in Bengal it is ‘Durga Pooja’ and in South India it is ‘Navaratri’. The Vijayanagara kings exhibited their glory and authority during this festival.

Mahanavami is celebrated with many rituals. Idol worship, veneration to the royal horse, animal sacrifice etc. were part of the rituals. The celebrations are made more enjoyable through dance performances, wrestling, processions with adorned horses, elephants,

chariots and soldiers. Nayakas and regional chiefs owing loyalty to the main King come with gifts for their king and his guests. All these rituals had their symbolic meanings. On the last day of the festival, a huge function was conducted in an open place. In that the King examines, his army and also those of the Nayaks.On this occasion, the nayaks give tribute to the king. Along with the tribute, the nayaks also gave the king plenty of expensive gifts.

Question 16.
Bring out the names of any two capitals of the Mughals.
Answer:
Agra, Fatehpursikri, Lahore, Shajahanbad

Question 17.
List out any two suggestions of the Cabinet Mission.
Answer:
These were the recommendations:

1. Formation of an Indian Union including the British Provinces and the native states. India should remain one.
2. Defence, Foreign Affairs and Communication should be handled by the Centre. Other matters may be administered by the Province and native states.
3. The existing Provinces would be grouped into A, B and C. In A group there will be Provinces with Hindu majority. In the B group, there will be Provinces of Muslim majority from the North West region. In Group C, Muslim Majority Provinces of the North East, including Assam, will be included.
4. A Constitution making Committee will be made. This Committee will be elected by the Provincial Assemblies.
5. Until the Constitution is prepared, an Adhoc government will be formed in the Centre. It will consist of leaders of different political parties.

Partition soon became inevitable. Most Congress leaders were against it. But they had to finally agree to it. They knew that although it was undesirable it was inevitable. There were only two people who vehemently opposed partition – Gandhi and Frontier Gandhi (Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan).

Question 18.
What do you mean by Direct Action Day?
Answer:
After withdrawing its support to the Cabinet Mission plan, the Muslim Leagure decided on ‘Direct Action’ for winning its Pakistan, demand. It announced 16 August 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’. On this day riots broke out in Calcutta, lasting several days and leaving several thousands of people dead. By March 1947 violence spread to many parts of northern India.

Answer any 2 questions from 19 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 19.
List out any three limitations of inscriptional evidences.
Answer:

1. Fade letters
2. Inscriptions may be damaged or letter missing.
3. No exact meaning
4. Many inscriptions have not survived the revageoftime.
5. Out look of those who commissioned it.

Question 20.
Prepare a short note on Kabir.
Answer:
Kabir occupies a significant place among the poet saints. The verses of Kabir have been complied in three district traditions – Kabir, Bijak, Kabir Granthavali and Adi Granth Sahib. Kabir poem have survived in several languages and dialects. Some of them are composed in Sant bhasha and Ulatbansi. He used different traditions to describe the ultimate reality. These include Islam: he described the ulti¬mate reality as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir. He also good terms drawn from Vedantic traditions alakh, Nirakar, Brahman, Atman, etc. The term such as Shabda or Shunya were drawn from Yogic tradition.

Diverse and sometimes conflicting ideas are expressed in these poems. Some of his poem used Islamic ideas of monotheism and iconoclasm to attack Hindu polytheism and idol worship. Legacy of Kabir was claimed by several groups. Hagiographies within the Vaishnava tradition suggest that he was born a Hindu but was raised by a poor muslim family belonging to the community of weavers, who were relatively recent converts to Islam.

Question 21.
Write a short note in Kitab Khana.
Answer:
In Mughal India, the centre of manuscript pro¬duction was the imperial kitabkhana. Although kitebkhana can be translated as library, it was a scriptorium, that is, a place where the emperor’s collection of maniscripts was kept and new manscripts were produced.

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 26. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 22.
Explain the views of Megasthanese on the military administration of the Mauryas.
Answer:
Megasthenes says that to make the work of the army easy, there was a Committee with 6 sub-committees. Each subcommittee had the following responsibilities.

• 1 – supervised the navy.
• 2 – supervised transport and arrangements for food.
• 3 – was in charge of the footmen.
• 4 – controlled the cavalry.
• 5 – was in charge of the chariots.
• 6 – took care of the elephants.

The 2nd subcommittee had extensive duties. It had to prepare bullock carts for moving goods, ensure that the soldiers and animals got proper food, and employ servants and helpers to take care of the needs of soldiers.

Question 23.
Elucidate the structure of a stupa.
Answer:
Buddhism – semi circular mound – Anda- Harimika-Yashti-Chchetri

Question 24.
Explain the features of the Amaranayaka system of the Vijayanagara empire.
Answer:
In Vijayanagara Empire there was the system of “Amara Nayaka”. This system had many of the features of the “Iqta system’ of the Delhi Sultans. Amara Nayakas were military commanders. Vijayanagara kings gave them some regions to govern. These regions were called ‘Amara’.

The governing of these regions was done by the Amaranayaks. They collected taxes of different kinds from the famers, traders, artisans and big merchants. A big portion of the income was used for their personal needs. The other part was spent in maintaining horses and elephants. A small portion was also spent on maintaining temples and irrigation. Amaranayakas rendered military help to the kings of Vijayanagara. It was by using this military might that the kings brought the Southern Peninsula under their control.

Amaranayakas were to give the king tribute every year. They also had to visit the king and give him gifts to show their loyalty to him. To show that the king had power over them, he used to transfer amaranayakas to different places. Even then by the 17th century the amaranayakas became powerful and some of them started challenging the authority of the king. Some even established independent states. This caused the slow disintegration of Vijayanagara.

Question 25.
Who wrote Akbar Nama? Prepare a short note on it.
Answer:
Abul Fazl was the writer of Akbarnama. Abul was born and brought up in Agra. He was well- versed in Arabic, Persian, Greek Philosophy and Sufism. He was a scholarly debater and had independent thinking. He severely criticised the views of conservative ulamas. Akbar was attracted by these qualities of Abul Fazl and so he appointed him as his advisor and spokesman. Akbar’s intention was to release the nation from the control of orthodox ulamas. As a palace historian, Abul Fazl was able to formulate ideas related to the adminis¬tration. Akbar liked him very much.

Akbar Nama is divided into three books of which the first two are chronicles. The third book is Akbari. The first two volumes ! contain the history of mankind from Adam to S one celestial cycle of Akbar’s life. The second volume closes in the forty-sixth regnal years of Akbar. The objective of Akbar Nama I was to provide a detailed account of Akbar’s regin. At fhe same time it gives a detailed picture of all aspects of Akbar’s empire – geographic, social, administrative and cultural without reference to chronology.

Question 26.
Explain any two early struggles of Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha-1917- Bihar-Indigo peasents Kheda peasent satyagraha -1918 – Gujarath Ahmedabad mill strike -1918 – Gujarath

Answer any 2 questions from 27 to 29. Each carries 5 scored. (2× 5 = 10)

Question 27.
Analyse the causes for the rise of Megadha as a powerful Mahajanapada.
Answer:
Fertile land, Iron deposits, use of elephants in war, Ganges and its tributaries, powerful rulers, strategic position of capitals.

Question 28.
Explain the main teaching of Buddha.
Answer:

1. Entire world is animated
2. Ahimsa
3. Cycle of karma
4. Asceticism
5. Penance

Question 29.
Assess the main principles of Virashaiva tradition in Karnataka.
Answer:
From 9th century to the 13 century, some powerful Chola Kings ruled the country. They sup¬ported the Brahmin-Piety traditions. They made land-gifts. They built Vishnu and Siva temples. It was they who built some of the most imposing Siva temples at Chidambaram, Thanjavur and Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Some very beautiful bronze idols of Siva were also made at this period. It was the Nayanars who gave encouragement to the sculptors. The Chola Kings encouraged the Nayanars and Azhvars. There were some economic motives behind this. It was the Vellalar farmers who made the economic base for the Chola rule. Naturally the rulers wanted the support of the Vellalar farmers, who respected Azhvars and Nayanars. That is why the Chola Kings gave their full support to the Azhvars and Nayanars.

Chola kings often claimed divine support. They tried to proclaim their glory by building huge and beautiful temples. These temples were adorned with idols made of stone and metals. The tried to translate the dreams of the popular poets of the hymns into reality. The Kings also encouraged recitations of the Saiva hymns in Tamil in their temples. They also took the initiative to collect these hymns and make it into a book form (Thevaram). The Chola King named Paranthakan I, got the metallic idols of Appar, Sanbandhar and Sundarar made and they were placed in a Siva Temple. An inscription dated 945 shows this. During festivals, the idols were carried in processions.

In the 12th century, a new pious movement came up in Karnataka. A Brahmin named Basavanna (1106-1168) was the leader of this movement. Virashaiva Movement is also called Lingayat. In the beginning Basavanna was a believer of Jainism. He had also served as a minister under King Bijala of Chalukya. Because of serious differences of opinion, Basavanna decided to quit Jainism and with his son-in-law he formed the Virashaiva Movement. His followers were called Virasaivas or Lingayats.

Tantric is connected with the adoration of Devis (goddesses). Rituals of this kind were in existence in many parts of the subcontinent. Both men and women could participate in them. When these traditions were carried out, differences of Jati and Varna were ignored. In other words, there was no discrimination of gender, Varna or Jati in Tantric. The Tantric ideas greatly influenced Saivism and Buddhism. The followers of Tantric rituals ignored the authority of the Vedas. They tried to uphold their favourite God Vishnu or Siva. They were in conflict with the principles of Buddhism and Jainism.

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 30.
Explain the main features of Harappan town planning based on the following hints:
• Citadel
• Lower Town
• Great Bath
• Domestic architecture
Answer:
History has left behind a number of evidences that Harappan civilization was an urban civili zation.
The greatest site of Harappan civilization is Mohenjo Daro. This was discovered after Harappa. It is from Mohenjo Daro that evidences of town planning, dwellings and seals of the Harappan civilization were discovered. This big city is situated in the Larkana District of Sindh on the shore of River Sindhu. The meaning of Mohenjo Daro is “The Mound of the Dead”. The excavations done here brought to light the remains of a well planned city. This city was divided into two parts – The Citadel and the Lower Town.

The Citadel : Citadel is a small manmade platform. It is located on the western side of the city. Citadel is the highest part of the city. There are two reasons for the unusual height of the citadel. First of all it is built on a higher ground. Secondly its buildings are constructed on the bricks made of earth. The citadel is protected by building walls around it. There are many big buildings in the citadel. They have been used various special purposes. The main buildings of the citadel are The Warehouse, and the Great Bath.

The Warehouse : The biggest building of Mohenjo Daro is its warehouse of bam. The lower part of this building is built with bricks. It can still be seen. The upper portion of the warehouse is made of wood. With the passage of most of it is ruined. The warehouse was used to store the leftover food grains.

The Great Bath : The most important structure in the citadel of Mohenjo Daro is the Great Bath. It is in rectangular shape. The pond is in the yard which is surrounded by corridors on all four sides. To get into the pond there are steps on the northern and southern sides. The bottom of the pond is made watertight using bricks and lime paste. This prevents the water from seeping down and making the pond dry. There are rooms on 3 sides of the pond. There was a big well in one of the rooms.

The water for the pond was brought from this well. There were provisions for filling the pond with water and to make the dirty water flow out into drains. Historians think that the Great Bath had a religious importance. They think that this Great Bath was used for ritual baths. The Great Bath shows the importance the Harappans gave to cleanliness. It also shows their engineering and technical skills.

Lower Town : Domestic Architecture: The Lower Town was just below the citadel. This was also protected by walls. People lived here. ‘ Here we can see good examples of domestic architecture. The houses were made of bricks. The houses were ordered in the Grid System. The houses were built along both sides of the road, with adequate space between houses. The doors and windows were opened to face the central yard. It is believed that the yard was used for cooking and also weaving.

The houses did not have doors and windows that faced the street. All the houses had bathrooms. They were paved with bricks. The drainage system was excellent. Houses were different in size. There were single room and double room houses. There were also houses with more than two storeys. To get to the top stories there were staircases.

Big houses had wells. It was dug in a room in such a way that even outsiders could draw water from it. Experts estimate that Mohenjo Daro had some 700 wells. Houses were built on raised platforms. The settlements were well planned. The bricks were made to certain specifications. The same kind of bricks was used in most constructions.

The drainage system: The drainage system in the Harappan citiep was excellent. The drain of each house was linked to the drainage canal outside. The drainage canals were covered with bricks or sheets of rock. In some places they covered the drainage canals with limestone slabs. It was possible to clean the canals by removing the top coverings. There were manholes in the public drainage.

It is believed that the drainage was made first and then came the houses. The drainage system shows the engineering skill of the Harappan people.-It shows they had a town administration. It also shows how much importance they gave to hygiene and health. The drainage system was not limited to big cities. Even the settlements in places like Lothal had drainages.

Question 31.
Prepare an essay on the revolt of 1857 held in Awadh.
Hints:
• Importance of Awadh
• Grievances of the Talukdars
• Grievances of the Peasants
• Grievances of the Sepoys
Answer:
The taking over of Awadh by the British made I; the local kings, talukdars, peasants and sepoys very unhappy and angry. By taking over Awadh, not only the Nawab but also many talukdars lost their jobs. The talukdars had many estates and fortresses in the villages of Awadh. They had been in control of these lands for generations. They had much power in the villages. They also used to keep small army units with them. Some even had armies numbering up to 12,000 soldiers. Even the small ones had 200 footmen.

The British refused to accept the autonomy and authority of the talukdars. Soon after they took over Awadh, they dispersed the armies of the talukdars and destroyed their fortresses. The land tax system also was not liked by the talukdars. The British enforced the new tax system in 1856. This was called the Summary Settlement of 1856. This was enforced with the concept that the talukdars had no permanent ownership of the land. The British saw them as encroachers who got the ownership of the land using all kinds cheating and even force.

The British wanted to avoid the talukdars and make settlements with the real owners of the land. They thought this would reduce exploitation of the farmers and increase the government’s income. But in reality none of these happened. The officials soon realized that the tax imposed on the farmers was much more than their capacity to pay. In short the Summary Settlement was a failure. It satisfied neither the farmers nor the talukdars.

As talukdars lost their positions, their social status was lost. The relations between them and the farmers were ruined. Before the take¬over by the British there was cordiality between the talukdars and the farmers. Although the talukdars were strict, they often behaved like the guardians of peasants. They helped peasants in their needs. They also gave peasants loans during festivals. Peasants also showed loyalty to talukdars. But the coming of the British spoiled all these. The farmers got no consideration from the British. The British charged them heavy tax and used strict methods to collect it. During crop failure, or times of trouble, or feasts, the British never helped the peasants.

The ousted talukdars wanted to get back their lost estates and power. They became the strongest enemies of the British. In places like Awadh, where the revolt was the worst, the talukdars and the farmers were in the forefront of the revolt. Many of the talukdars were loyal to the Nawab. They joined Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the Nawab, in her fight against the British. Even in failure, the talukdars did not abandon the Begum. The taking over of Awadh by the British made the sepoys also unhappy. Many o f.them were from Awadh itself. They did not like the idea of their birthplace getting into the hands of the British.

The Sepoys had many problems and complaints. They had small salaries. The places they had to stay and the food they got were not of good quality. It was also difficult to get leave. The chances of promotion were limited. They did not get any foreign service allowance for working outside India. The journeys across the seas were not liked by many, because some religions prohibited such journeys. They also were unhappy because the British did not allow many of them to wear headcovers and also beards.

Question 32.
Analyse the major struggles for independence held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Areas to considered:
• Non-Cooperation Movement
• Salt Satyagraha
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi made India’s national move-ment into a mass movement. The Non-coop-eration movement was the first mass move-ment organised by Gandhiji in India under In-dian National Congress. He hoped that by coupling non-cooperation with Khilafat, India’s two major religious communities, Hindus and Muslims, could collectively bring an end to colonial rule.

As part of the Non-cooperation movement students stopped going to schools and colleges run by the government. The working class went on strike in many towns and cities. The countryside was seething with discontent too. Hill tribes in northen Andhra violated forest laws. Farmers in Awadh did not pay taxes. Peasant in Kumaun refused to carry loads for colonial officials. Peasants, workers, and others interpreted and acted upon the call to ‘non cooperate’ with colonial rule in ways that best suited their interests, rather than conform to the dictates laid down from above.

It entailed denial, renunciation and self discipline. It was training for self rule. As a consequence of the Non-cooperation movement the British Raj was shaken to its foundations for the first time since the Revolt of 1857. Then in February 1922, a group of peasants attacked and torched a police station in the hamlet of Chaurichaura in the United provinces. Several constables perished in the conflagration. This act of non violence prompted Gandhiji to call off the altogether. During the non cooperation movement thousands of Indians were put in jail.

Another mass movement organised by Gandhiji under the leadership of the Congress was the Salt Satyagraha. Mahatma Gandhi announced that he would lead a march to break one of the most widely disliked laws in British India, which gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt. His picking on the salt monopoly was another illustration of Gandhiji’s tactical wisdom.

On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards the ocean. He reached his destination three weeks later, making a fistful of salt as he did and thereby making himself criminal in the eyes of the law. Meanwhile, parallel salt marches were being conducted in other parts of the country.

This event brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. It was the salt march which forced upon the British the realisation that their Raj would not last for ever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians. By the Gandhi-lrwin pact of 1931 Gandhiji called off the civil disobedience movement and agreed to participate in the second round table conference. As a result all prisoners were released and salt manufacture was allowed along the coast.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Physics
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

You may use following Physical constants wherever necessary.

Mass of proton 1.66 × 10^-27 kg
Mass of Electron 9.11 × 10^-31 kg
Elementary charge, e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
Velocity of light in vacuum c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Permittivity of free space ε₀ = 8.85 × 10^-12 F/m

Question Nos. 1 to 7 carry 1 score each. Answer 6 questions. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 1.
Write the physical quantities having the following SI unit.
i) cm
ii) Ωm
Answer:
i) Electric dipole moment
ii) Electrical resistivity

Question 2.
A uniform wire of resistance 40Ω is cut into four equal parts and they are connected in parallel. The effective resistance of the combination is
i) 40Ω
ii) 10Ω
iii) 2.5Ω
iv) 4Ω
Answer:

Question 3.
A particle of charge q is moving through a uniform magnetic field of intensity B with a velocity v. Write an expression for the force acting on the particle in vector form.
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\mathrm{q}(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})\)

Question 4.
The minimum distance between the object and its real image for a concave mirror of focal length f is
i) f
ii) 2f
iii) 4f
iv) zero
Answer:
iv) zero

Question 5.
Variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different intensities I₁, I₂, and I₃ of incident radiation is shown below.

Arrange these intensities in the accending order.
Answer:
I₃ > I₂ > I₁

Question 6.
An electron is revolving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in an orbit of radius nine times the radius of the first orbit. Angular momentum of the electron in this orbit is.
i) \(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
ii) \(\frac{9 h}{2 \pi}\)
iii) \(\frac{3 h}{\pi}\)
iv) \(\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}\)
Answer:
radius of the nucleus r = n²r₀
In this case
∴ n² = 9, n= 3
Angular momentum L = \(\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}\)
for third orbit L = \(\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}\)

Question 7.
The voltage-current characteristics of an optoelectronic junction device is shown below.

Identify the device.
Answer:
Solar cell

Question Nos. 8 – 15 carry 2 scores each. Answer any 7 questions. (7 × 2 = 14)

Question 8.
What is the radius of the circular path of an electron moving at a speed of 3 × 10⁷ m/s in a magnetic field of 6 × 10^-4 T perpendicular to it?
Answer:
radius r = \(\frac{m v}{q B}\)
v = 3 × 10⁷ m/s, m = 9.1 × 10^-31kg
B = 6 × 10^-4, q = 1.6 × 10^-19
r = \(\frac{9.1 \times 10^{-37} \times 3 \times 10^{7}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 6 \times 10^{-4}}\) = 0.285 m

Question 9.
a) “Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents repel”. State whether this statement is true or false.
b) Define the SI unit of current in terms of force between two current-carrying conductors.
Answer:
a) True
b) Ampere is defined as that current which is maintained in two straight parallel conductors of infinite length placed one meter apart in the vacuum will produce between a force of 2 × 10^-7 Newton per meter length.

Question 10.
A circular metallic loop and a current-carrying conductor are placed as shown in the figure.

If the current through the conductor is increasing from A to B, find the direction of the induced current the loop.
Answer:
Current flows in a clockwise direction

Question 11.
a) The electric field vector of an electromagnetic wave is represented as E_x = E_m Sin(kz – ωt). Write the equation for the magnetic field vector.
b) The ratio of the intensity of the magnetic field to intensity of the electric field has the dimensions of
i) velocity
ii) acceleration
iii) reciprocal of velocity
iv) reciprocal of acceleration
Answer:
a) By = B_m Sin (Kz – ωt)
b) reciprocal of velocity

Question 12.
Write the equations for the following nuclear reactions:
a) β⁺decay of \({ }_{6}^{11} c\) to Boron (B)
b) β ^–decay of \({ }_{15}^{32} c\) to Sulphur (S)
Answer:

Question 13.
Write the truth table of the circuit shown below.

Answer:

A	B	Y
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	1

Question 14.
A TV transmitting antenna is 100 m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level? Radius of earth is 6400 km.
Answer:
Hight of antenna, h = 100 m = 0.1 km
Radius of earth = 6400 km
Transmission range d = \(\sqrt{2 R h}\)
∴ Maximum area covered A = πd²
= π(\(\sqrt{2 R h}\))²
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.1
= 4019 km²

Question 15.
Two magnetic dipoles P and Q are placed in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) gas shown.

a) Both the dipoles do not experience any torque. Why?
b) Identify the dipole which is in most stable equilibrium.
Answer:
a) Dipole moment is parallel to magnetic field.
b) Dipole Q

Question Nos. 16 to 22 carry 3 scores each. Answer any 6 questions. (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 16.
The experimental setup for the comparison of two resistances is shown below.

a) The working principle of the above device is
i) Ohm’s law
ii) Kirchhoffs second law
iii) Wheatstone’s principle
iv) Point Rule
b) In figure, Let X is the effective resistance of series combination of two 3Ω resistors and R is the effective of a parallel combination of two 3Ω resistors. The balance point is obtained at C. If the length AB is 100 cm. find the length AC of the wire.
Answer:
a) Wheatston’s principle
b) x = 6 Ω
R = 1.5 Ω

Question 17.
A magnetic needle has a magnetic moment 6.7 × 10^-7 Am² and moment of inertia 7.5 × 10^-6 kgm². In a uniform magnetic field, it performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70s. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
Answer:
magnetic moment m = 6.7 × 10^-2 Am²
moment of inertria, I = 7.5 × 10^-6 kgm²

Question 18.
With the help of a ray diagram, show the formation of image of a point object by refraction of light at a spherical surface separating two media of refractive indices n₁ and n₂. Using the diagram derive the relation
\(\frac{n_{2}}{v}-\frac{n_{1}}{u}=\frac{n_{2}-n_{1}}{R}\)
Answer:

Consider a convex surface XY, which separates two media having refractive indices n₁ and n₂. Let C be the centre of curvature and P be the pole. Let an object is placed at ‘O’, at a distance ‘u’ from the pole. I is the real image of the object at a distance ‘V’ from the surface. OA is the incident ray at angle ‘i’ and AI is the refracted ray at an angle ‘r’. OP is the ray incident normally. So it passes without any deviation. From snell’s law,
sin i/sin r = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{n}_{1}}\)
If ‘i’ and ‘r’ are small, then sin i » i and sin r » r.

From the Δ OAC, exterior angle = sum of the interior opposite angles
i.e., i = α + θ ………(2)
Similarly, from Δ IAC,
α = r + β
r = α – β ………..(3)
Substituting the values of eq(2) and eq(3)in eqn.(1)
we get,
n₁(α + θ) = n₂(α – β)
n₁α + n₁θ = n₂α – n₂β
n₁θ + n2β = n₂α – n₁α
n₁θ + n₂β = (n₂ – n₁)α ………..(4)
From OAP, we can write,

According to New Cartesian sign convection, we can write,
OP = -u, PI = +v and PC = R
Substituting these values, we get

Question 19.
a) Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident radiation. Mark the threshold frequency in the figure.
b) Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation, show that photoelectric emission is not possible if the frequency of incident radiation is less than the threshold frequency.
Answer:
a)

b) According to Einsten’s Equation
hν = hν₀ + KE
if = ν < ν₀, kinetic energy of electron becomes negative.

Question 20.
a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown in the figure.

Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?
b) Sketch the energy level diagram for hydrogen atom and mark the transitions corresponding to Balmer series.
Answer:
a) In between 0 to -2ev
b)

Question 21.
The decay rate of a radioactive ample is called its activity.
a) What is the SI unit of activity?
b) The half life of \({ }_{92}^{238} U\) against alpha decay is 1.5 × 10^-17 s. Calculate the activity of a sample of \({ }_{92}^{238} U\) having 25 × 10²⁰ atoms.
Answer:
a) becquerel
b) N = 25 × 10²⁰, half life T_1/2 = 1.5 × 10¹⁷s
activity, R = λN
R = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}_{1 / 2}} \times \mathrm{N}=\frac{0.693}{1.5 \times 10^{17}} \times 25 \times 10^{20}\)
R = 11550 B_q

Question 22.
a) Draw the circuit diagram where a zener diode is used as a direct voltage regulator.
b) In a zener regulated power supply a zener diode with zener voltage 4V is used for regulation. The load current is to be 4 m A and zener current is 20 mA. If the unregulated input is 10V, What should be the value of resistor that is to be connected in series with the diode?
Answer:
a)

b) Zener voltage
V₂ = 4V, I_L = 4 × 10^-3 A, I₂= 20 × 10^-3 A
Unregulated input = 10 v
Voltage across resister = 10 – 4 = 6v
Current through the resister = I_L+ I₂
= (4 + 20) mA
= 24 × 10^-3 A
∴ resistance R = \(\frac{V}{I}\)
R = \(\frac{6}{24 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 250 Ω

Question Nos. 23 to 26 carry 4 scores each. Answer any 3 questions. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 23.
Coulomb’s Law is a quantitative statement about the force between two point charges.
a) Write the mathematical expression of the above law.
b) Two ions carrying equal charges repel with a force of 1.48 × 10^-8 N when they are separated by a distance of 5 × 10^-10 m. How many electrons have been removed from each iron?
Answer:

Question 24.
a) Potential energy of a system of charges is directly proportional to the product of charges and inversely to the distance between them.
a) Prove the above statement.
b) Two-point charges 3 × 10^-8 C and -2 × 10^-8 C are separated by a distance of 15cm. At what point on the line joining the charges the potential is zero?
Answer:
a) Potential of a system is the work done to assemble the system,
∴ w = qV
= \(\mathrm{q}_{1} \times \frac{1}{4 \pi q_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{q}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}}\)
In the above equation it is dear that energy is di-rectly proportial to charges and inversely proportional to the distance between them.
b) q₁ = 3 × 10^-8

Question 25.
The circuit shown can be analysed using Kirchhoff’s rules.

a) Apply Kirchhoffs first law to the point B.
b) State Kirchhoffs second law.
c) Apply Kirchhoffs second lawtothe mesh ABFGA.
Answer:
a) At the point B,
I₁ = I₂ = I₃
b) In any closed circuit emf is eqaual to sum of potential drops.
c) -I₂ R₃ – I₁ R₂ – I₁R₁ + E₁ = 0

Question 26.
Biot – Savart’s law relates current with the magnetic field produced by it.
a) Write the mathematical expression of the above law in vector form.
b) Using the law derive an expression for intensity of magnetic field at a point at distance x from the centre and on the axis of a circular current loop.
Answer:

Consider a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and carrying current “I’. Let P be a point on the axis of the coil, at distance x from A and r from ‘O’. Consider a small length dl at A.
The magnetic field at ‘p’ due to this small element dI,

The dB can be resolved into dB cos Φ (along with Py) and dBsinΦ (along with Px).
Similarly consider a small element at B, which produces a magnetic field ‘dB’ at P. If we resolve this magnetic field we get.
dB sinΦ (along px) and dB cosΦ (along py¹)
dBcosΦ components cancel each other because they are in opposite direction. So only dB sinΦ components are found at P, so the total filed at P is

Let there be N turns in the loop then,
B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \text { NIa }^{2}}{2\left(\mathrm{r}^{2}+\mathrm{a}^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

Question Nos. 27 to 29 carry 5 scores each. Answer any 2 questions. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 27.
A series LCR circuit shows the phenomenon called resonance.
a) Write the condition for resonance and obtain an equation for resonant frequency.
b) Obtain the Q value of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, c = 32µ F and R = 10 Ω.
c) Complete the following table using the suitable words from the bracket for two series LCR circuits.
(Current and applied voltage are in the same phase, currently leads the applied voltage, currently lags the applied voltage)

Answer:
a) Condition for resonance X_L = X_C
(b)

c) i) Cuurrent lags the applied voltage
ii) Current and applied voltage are in same phase.

Question 28.
Telescope is used to provide angular magnification of distant objects.
a) If f₀ is the focal length of the objective and f_e that of the eyepiece, the length of the telescope tube is ………..
b) Draw the ray diagram of a refracting type telescope when it is in normal adjustment.
c) Write any two advantages of reflecting type telescope over refracting type telescopes.
Answer:
a) f₀ + f_e
b)

c) i) There is no chromatic aberration
ii) There is no spherical aberration

Question 29.
A wavefront is defined as a surface of constant phase.
a) The energy of the wave travels in a direction …….. to the wavefront.
b) Explain the Huygen’s principle.
c) Using Huygen’s Principle, prove that angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
Answer:
a) Perpendicular

b) 1) Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2) The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3) The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

c)

AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront. T is the angle of incidence and Y is the angle of reflection. Let c, be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.

The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is

O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wavefront from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq.(2) should be zero.
∴ \(\frac{A O}{C_{1}}\) (sin i – sin r) = 0
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r
This is the law of reflection.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two History Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two History Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Question 1.
Match column ‘A’ with appropriate items from Column ‘B’.

A	B
Rani Lakshmibai	Delhi
Kunwar Singh	Kanpur
Bahadur Shah	Jhansi
Nana Sahib	Arrah

Answer:

A	B
Rani Lakshmibai	Jhansi
Kunwar Singh	Arrah
Bahadur Shah	Delhi
Nana Sahib	Kanpur

Answer any 4 questions from 2 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 2.
Who was the founder of the Khalsa Panth?
a) Guru Nanak
b) GuruArjan
c) Guru Gobind Singh
d) Guru Tegh Bahadur
Answer:
c) Guru Gobind Singh

Question 3.
Identify the author of Padmavat:
a) Kabir
b) Malik Muhammad Jayasi
c) Ramananda
d) Baba Farid
Answer:
b) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Question 4.
Who is popularly known as ‘Garib Nawaz?
a) Khwaja Muinuddin
b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
c) Akbar
d) Shaikh Nizamuddin
Answer:
a) Khwaja Muinuddin

Question 5.
Which of the following group is connected with the Vachanas?
a) The Alvars
b) The Sikhs
c) The Nayanars
d) The Virashaivas
Answer:
d) The Virashaivas

Question 6.
The Code of Conduct associated with temples in ancient Kerala:
a) Kaccam
b) Sabhai
c) Viruti
d) Noduttal
Answer:
a) Kaccam

Question 7.
Point out the Travancore ruler who defeated the Dutch in the battle of Colachal.
a) Kunjali Marakkar
b) Sakthan Thampuran
c) Marthanda Varma
d) Tipu Sultan
Answer:
c) Marthanda Varma

Question 8.
Arrange the following in chronological order: (4 x 1 = 4)
♦ The Kurichiya Revolt
♦ The Pazhassi Revolt
♦ Temple Entry Proclamation
♦ Kundara Proclamation
Answer:

1. The Pazhassi Revolt (1793-1805)
2. Kundara Proclamation (1809)
3. The Kurichiya Revolt (1812)
4. Temple Entry Proclamation (1936)

Question 9.
Mark the following places on the outline map of ancient India provided:(4 × 1 = 4)
♦ Bodh Gaya
♦ Sarnath
♦ Sanchi
♦ Amaravati
Answer:

1. BodhGaya
2. Sarnath
3. Sanchi
4. Amaravati

Answer any 8 questions from 10 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 10.
Why were Stupas built?
Answer:
Stupas are mounds where the relics of Buddha were buried. Asoka distributed the relics of Buddha to every important town and ordered to construct stupas over them.

Question 11.
Define Ziyarat and Qawwali.
Answer:

1. Ziyarat-Pilgrimage to the tomb shrine of a sufiguru.
2. Qawwali – Performance of music during Ziyarat.

Question 12.
Write a short note on Milkiyat.
Answer:
Personal land of the Zamindar. It was cultivated for the private use of Zamindars.

Question 13.
Define the terms jama and hasil.
Answer:

1. Jama-Assessed tax
2. Hasil – Collected tax

Question 14.
Who were jotedars?
Answer:
Jotedars were rich peasants in Bengal who controlled local trade and money lending.

Question 15.
Name the two hill folks who lived around the Rajmahal Hills during the early 19th century.
Answer:

1. Paharias
2. Santhals

Question 16.
Mention any two rumours connected with the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1.  New cartridges were greased with the fat of cow and pig.
2. The British mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the atta sold in the market.
3. The British is conspiring to destroy the caste and religion of the Hindus and Muslims.

Question 17.
Name any two pictures associated with the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. Relief of Lucknow
2. InMemoriam
3. Justice
4. Miss wheeler
5. Rani Lakshmi Bai
6. The clemency of canning
7. Execution of Mutineers in Peshawar
8. The British Lion’s vengeance on the Bengal Tiger.

Question 18.
Name any two Tinais mentioned in the Sangam poems.
Answer:

1. Kurinchi
2. Mullai
3. Palai
4. Marutham
5. Neital

Answer any 2 questions from 19 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 19.
Mention any three causes for the decline of Harappan Civilization.
Answer:

1. Deforestation
2. Climatic change
3. Excessive floods
4. Over use of the land
5. Shifting the course/ drying up of the river

Question 20.
Name any three chronicles of the Mughal period.
Answer:

1. Akbar Nama
2. Badshah Nama
3. Humayun Nama
4. AlemgirNama

Question 21.
Point out the three early local campaigns of Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

1. Champaran Satyagraha -1917-Bihar
2. Kheda Satyagraha-1918-Gujarath
3. Ahmedabad Mill Strike -1918 – Gujarath

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 26. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 22.
What are the limitations of inscriptional evidences?
Answer:

1. Technical limitations: letters are very faintly engraved.
2. Inscriptions may be damaged or letters missing.
3. Not sure about the exact meaning of the words used in the inscriptions.
4. Not all have been deciphered, published and translated.
5. Many have not survived the ravage of time.
6. Significance of the recorded events.
7. Project the perspective of the person who commisioned them.

Question 23.
Explain the ideal occupations of four varnas
Answer:

1. Brahmanas – Study and teach vedas, perform sacrifices and give and receive gifts.
2. Kshatriyas – Engage in warfare, protect people and administer justice, study the vedas, get sacrifices performed and give gifts.
3. Vaishyas – Engage in agriculture, pastoralism and trade
4. Shudras – Serve the three higher varnas.

Question 24.
Describe the Amara Nayaka System existed in the Vijayanagara Empire.
Answer:
In Vijayanagara Empire there was the system of “Amara Nayaka”. This system had many Of the features of the “Iqta system’ of the Delhi. Sultans. Amara Nayakas were military commanders. Vijayanagara kings gave them some regions to govern. These regions were called ‘Amara’.

The governing of these regions was done by the Amaranayaks. They collected taxes of different kinds from the famers, traders, artisans and big merchants. A big portion of the income was used for their personal needs. The other part was spent in maintaining horses and elephants. A small portion was also spent on maintaining temples and irrigation. Amaranayakas rendered military help to the kings of Vijayanagara.

It was by using this military might that the kings brought the Southern Peninsula under their control. Amaranayakas were to give the king tribute every year. They also had to visit the king and give him gifts to show their loyalty to him. To show that the king had power over them, he used to transfer amaranayakas to different places. Even then by the 17th century the amaranayakas became powerful and some of them started challenging the authority of the king. Some even established independent states. This caused the slow disintegration of Vijayanagara.

Question 25.
Why did the Taluqdars of Awadh revolt against the British?
Answer:
The governing of these regions was done by the Amaranayaks. They collected taxes of different kinds from the famers, traders, artisans and big merchants. A big portion of the income was used for their personal needs. The other part was spent in maintaining horses and elephants. A small portion was also spent on maintaining temples and irrigation. Amaranayakas rendered military help to the kings of Vijayanagara. It was by using this military might that the kings brought the Southern Peninsula under their control.

Amaranayakas were to give the king tribute every year. They also had to visit the king and give him gifts to show their loyalty to him. To show that the king had power over them, he used to transfer amaranayakas to different places. Even then by the 17th century the amaranayakas became powerful and some of them started challenging the authority of the king. Some even established independent states. This caused the slow disintegration of Vijayanagara.

Question 26.
How did the partition of India affect women?
Answer:
The British wanted to avoid the talukdars and make settlements with the real owners of the land. They thought this would reduce exploitation of the farmers and increase the government’s income. But in reality none of these happened. The officials soon realized that the tax imposed on the farmers was much more than their capacity to pay. In short the Summary Settlement was a failure. It satisfied neither the farmers nor the talukdars.

As the talukdars lost their positions, their social status was lost. The relations between them and the farmers were ruined. Before the take-over by the British, there was cordiality between the talukdars and the farmers. Although the talukdars were strict, they often behaved like the guardians of the peasants. They helped the peasants in their needs. They also gave the peasants loans during festivals. The peasants also showed loyalty to the talukdars. But the coming of the British spoiled all these. The peasants got no consideration from the British.

The British charged them heavy tax and used strict methods to collect it. During crop failure, or times of trouble, or feasts, the British never helped the peasants. The ousted talukdars wanted to get back their lost estates and power. They became the strongest enemies of the British. In places like Awadh, where the revolt was the worst, the talukdars and the farmers were in the forefront of the revolt. Many of the talukdars were loyal to the Nawab.

They joined Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of the Nawab, in her fight against the British. Even in failure, the talukdars did not abandon the Begum. The taking over of Awadh by the British made the sepoys also unhappy. Many o f them were from Awadh itself. They did not like the idea of their birthplace getting into the hands of the British.

Historians have analyzed the feelings of the common people during and after the Partition. Many have written about the terrible experiences of many women. The worst victims of the Partition were women. Many of them were raped. Many were kidnapped and sold. They were forced to live a new life with strangers in a strange land. Somehow many of them suffered indescribable difficulties. But some adjusted with the new situation.

The governments of India and Pakistan did not bother to realise the complexities of human relations. Both governments decided to exchange women belonging to their respective countries – the Pakistani women in India had to go to Pakistan and Indian women in Pakistan had to come to India. Following this, a countrywide search was made to locate the women abducted frofri both sides. Those who were found were sent back to their countries. Nobody bothered to seek the opinion of the women involved in this exchange. Thus women were denied to take decisions about their own lives. According to statistics, a total of 30,000 women were rescued this way – 22,000 women from India and 8000 women from Pakistan. This rescue operation lasted until 1954.

Answer any 2 questions from 27 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 27.
How did the Harappan people procure raw materials for craft production?
Answer:
They collected their raW materials from the subcontinent. They used the following strategies:
i) Establishment of Settlements: They established settlements in the areas where raw materials were easily available. For example they made settlements in places like Nageswar and Balakotfrom where they could get shells. They made settlement in Shortughai (Afghanistan) where lapis lazuli were easily available. They made settlements in Lothal where carnelian and limestone were easily got.

SETTLEMENTS	RAW MATERIALS
Nageswar, Balakot	Shells
Shortughai	Lapis lazuli (Afghanistan)
Lothal	Carnelian (from Bharuch) Limestone (From South Rajasthan and North Gujarat) Copper (From the Khetri mines in Rajasthan)

Question 28.
Why did Magadha become the first among the Sixteen Mahajanapadas?
Answer:
There are many reasons that made Magadha overcome its enemies and become number one. They are the following:

1. Magadha was a fertile region. The fertile silt helped agriculture and increased production. They were able to produces surpluses.
2. There were iron ore mines close to the capital and Magadha controlled them. They could make high class weapons using iron from these mines.
3. An essential part of the Magadhan army was elephants. They were plenty in the forests of Magadha. Magadha used elephants on a large scale in battles.
4. Ganges and its tributaries helped the Magadhans to travel quickly and cheaply and this helped them a lot.
5. Rajagaha, the first capital of Magadha, and Pataliputra, the second capital, were situated in strategic places. They offered Magadha protection from outside attacks.
6. Policies of powerful rulers like Ajatasatru, Bimbisara and Mahapadma Nanda and their ministers.

Question 29.
The Mughal rule contributed very much to the cultural plurality of India. Elucidate.
Answer:
Age of cultural synthesis:- The Indian cultural tradition had synthesized with Turkish and Iranian culture. This blend can be seen in architecture, painting, language, literature, music, customs and manners. Persian influence can be seen in literature and language too. The usages and words from Arabic and Persian languages enriched various Indian languages. Many Indian texts like Ramayana and Mahabharata were translated into Persian. This synthesis, spread to other fields like dress, flood, festivals, etc.

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 30.
‘Mohenjodaro was a planned urban centre.’ Substantiate.
Hints:
♦ Citadel and lower town
♦ The Great bath
♦ Drainage system
♦ Domestic Architecture
Answer:
Mohenjo Daro is the most important site of the Harappan Culture. This was discovered after Harappa. It was from Mohenjo Daro that details regarding town planning, houses and seals of the Harappan Culture were got. This big city is situated in the Larkana District of Sind, on the shores of Sindhu River. The word Mohenjo Daro means the Mound of the Dead. The excavations made here brought to light the remains of a great city. The city was divided into two: The citadel and the Lower Town.

The Citadel (Fortress) is on a manmade platform. This is built on the western side of the city. This is the highest part of the city. There are two reasons for its height. Firstly, it is built on higher ground. Secondly, the buildings are put up on a platform made of earthen bricks. The fortress is protected with walls around it. Therefore it looks different from the Lower Town. In the fortress, there are tall buildings. They are public buildings. They were used for special public activities. The Warehouse and the Great Bath were the main structures in the fortress.

The Warehouse was the biggest building in Mohenjo Daro. The bottom part of the Warehouse is made of bricks. They still remain there. The upper part was built with wood. It got destroyed long ago. The Warehouse was used to store the left-over grain.

The most important structure in the fortress (citadel) of Mohenjo Daro is the Great Bath. It is in rectangular shape. The pond is in the yard which is surrounded by corridors on all four sides. To get into the pond there are steps on the northern and southern sides. The bottom of the pond is made watertight using bricks and lime paste. This prevents the water from seeping down and making the pond dry.

There are rooms on 3 sides of the pond. There was a big well in one of the rooms. The water for the pond was brought from this well. There were provisions for filling the pond with water and to make the dirty water flow out into drains. Historians think that the Great Bath had a religious importance. They think that this Great Bath was used for ritual baths.

The Great Bath shows the importance the Harappans gave to cleanliness. It also shows their engineering and technical skills. The plight of Harappa was really bad. Although Harappa was the first site to be discovered, thieves took away all he bricks. This sad plight was noticed by Alexander Cunningham. He pointed out that a huge amount of bricks was taken away. Thus most of the ancient buildings were lost. But Mohenjo Daro was better protected.

Most Harappan settlements had two parts – a higher western part and a lower eastern part. The western part is called the citadel or fortress. It was protected by walls. But there are some differences in some places. In Lothal, the citadel had no walls around. But it was built very high.

The Lower Town was just below the citadel. This was also protected by walls. People lived here. Here we can see good examples of domestic architecture. The houses were made of bricks. The houses were ordered in the Grid System. The houses were built along both sides of the road, with adequate space between houses. The doors and windows were opened to face the central yard. It is believed that the yard was used for cooking and also weaving.

The houses did not have doors and windows that faced the street. All the houses had bathrooms. They were paved with bricks. The drainage system was excellent. Houses were different in size. There were single room and double room houses. There were also houses with more than two storeys. To get to the top stories there were staircases.

Big houses had wells. It was dug in a room in such a way that even outsiders could draw water from it. Experts estimate that Mohenjo Daro had some 700 wells.Houses were built on raised platforms. The settlements were well planned. The bricks were made to certain specifications. The same kind of bricks were used in most constructions.

The drainage system in the Harappan cities was excellent. The drain of each house was linked to the drainage canal outside. The drainage canals were covered with bricks or sheets of rock. In some places they covered the drainage canals with limestone slabs. It was possible to clean the canals by removing the top coverings. There were manholes in the public drainage. It is believed that the drainage was made first and then came the houses. The drainage system shows the engineering skill of the Harappan people. It shows they had a town administration. It also shows how much importance they gave to hygiene and health. The drainage system was not limited to big cities. Even the settlements in places like Lothal had drainages.

Question 31.
Prepare an essay on Albiruni based on the following hints:
♦ Kitab-ul-Hind
♦ Barriers faced by Al Biruni
♦ Description of the caste system
Answer:
Al-Biruni was born at Khwariezm in Uzbekistan. Khwariezm was an important centre of knowledge and so he got the best education possible. He was a linguist – a scholar in many languages. He knew Syriac, Arabic, Persian, Hebrew and Sanskrit. He was not familiar with Greek. But he had read the books of Plato and other Geek philosophers through Arabic translations. In 1017 Sultan Mahmud Ghazni attacked Khwarezm.

He made many people prisoners and took them to Ghazni. Al-Biruni was one of them. Although he came to Ghazni as a prisoner, he began to like the place. He entered the services of Mahmud Ghazni and remained in Ghazni until he died at the age of 70. It was in Ghazni that Al- Biruni developed an interest in India. Sanskrit work on astronomy,

mathematics, and medicine, had been translated into Arabic from the eighteenth century on wards. When the Punjab became a part of the Ghaznavid empire, contact with local popu¬lation helped to create an environment of mu¬tual trust and understanding. He spent years in the company of Brahmin priests and scholars, learning Sanskrit and studying religion and philosophical texts.

Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic, is simple and lucid. It is a voluminous text, di¬vided into 80 chapters on subjects such as religion, philosophy, festivals, astronomy, al¬chemy, manners and customs, social life, weights and measures, iconography, laws and metrology. He adopted a distinctive structure in each chapter. He began the chapter with a question. Then a description was made on the basis of Sanskrit tradition. The chapter was concluded with a comparison with other cultures.

Some present-day scholars argued that this almost geometric structure, remark¬able for its precision and predictability. It re¬flects his mathematical orientation. = Al-Biruni was conscious of the problems involved in understanding strange countries. He has mentioned three things that proved difficult:

a) The first problem was language – Sanskrit was quite different from Arabic and Persian languages. It was not easy to translate the concepts from one language into another.
b) The second problem was the differences in religions and rituals.
c) The third problem was the secluded people who were interested only in their things. They looked at foreigners with suspicion and were not willing to mingle with them freely.

Al-Biruni accepted the Class distinctions as put forward by Brahmins. But he did not approve of the untouchability practised by them. He said that things that were impure would always try to get back their purity and succeed. For example, the sun purifies the air. The salt in sea-water prevents it from getting polluted. Without this natural purification, life would be impossible on this earth. He argued that untouchability is against natural laws.

The ideas of Al,-Biruni exercised powerful influence in the study of Sanskrit books. The rules regarding Varna System were formulated favouring the Brahmins. In real life Varna was not so strict. For example, the antyaja (who were born outside the Varna System) were expected to work for the agriculturists and zamindars for small wages. Although they were socially suppressed, they were included in the economic activities.

Question 32.
Analyse the following movements held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
♦ Non-Cooperation Movement
♦ Salt Satyagraha
♦ Quit India Movement
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation Movement was the first strong moment of Gandhi against the British. It was part of Gandhi’s concept of non-violence. In the beginning he co-operated with the British. But some developments in 1919 made Gandhi change his attitude. The Rowlett Acts, Jalian Wala Bagh tragedy, the Khilafat Movement etc. were some of them. The Non-Cooperation Movement had three aims:

1. Find a solution to the Punjab problem.
2. Solve the Khilafat issue.
3. Gain swaraj.

The exhortations of Gandhiji had great effect. Students boycotted government institutions. Thousands of workers in cities and towns went on strike. Official records show that in 1921 there were 396 strikes involving 6 Iakh workers. 7 lakh working days were lost. In the Non-Cooperation Movement, women and farmers took active part. Many women came out of their purdah to take part in the protests.

1. The Movement spread even to villages. The forest dwellers in Andhra Pradesh broke the forest laws. Farmers of Awadh and Bihar took part in the struggle by refusing to pay taxes. The farmers of Kumaon (Uttarakhand) refused to carry the goods of the Colonial officers.
2. Often these protests were done against the instructions of regional leaders. Instead of taking orders from higher authorities, they refused to cooperate with the Colonial administration.

The Chauri-Chaura incident was big jolt to the Movement. Gandhi ‘was forced to stop the Movement. Violence in Chauri-Chaura occurred when police fired at a procession of farmers. The enraged farmers attacked the Chauri-Chaura police station and burnt it. 22 policemen were killed. This shocked Gandhiji. He realized that people were not yet ready to fight using non-violence, On 22 February 1922. he decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement. He said that no provocation would justoy The killing of the 22 policemen.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant milestone. In the biography of Mahatma Gandhi, Louis Fischer (American) says that the Non-Cooperation Movement was big turning point in the history of India and also the life of Gandhi. It combined denial, sacrifice and self-control. Fischer says it was some kind of training for autonomy. The Lahore session of Indian national congress decided to start the civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhi. Gandhi planned a new way of struggle against the British.

This was the Civil Disobedience Movement. He said he would start it by breaking the Salt Law. Salt Law was one of the laws that Indians hated most. This law made the making and selling of salt a government monopoly. Although each household needed salt, the government did not allow anybody to make it even for personal use. People were forced to buy salt at a high price from shops. Government also doubled the salt tax. The anger of the people increased. Gandhi knew that salt tax was more harmful to people than other taxes.

Gandhi’s move to breach the salt law was a strategic one. He knew by this he could make the people fight against the government. On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards ocean. He reached the destination three weeks later, making fistful of salt as he did and there by making himself a criminal in the eyes of the law.

Meanwhile, parallel salt marches were conducted in other parts of India. Across large parts of India peasants breached the hated colonial forest laws. In some towns, factory workers went on strike while lawyers boycotted British courts and students refuse to attend government run-education institutions. Nearly 6000 Indians including Gandhiji were arrested.

The progress of Salt March can also be traced from another source. It is ‘Time’ an American News Magazine. In its first report ‘Time’ was doubtful whether the Salt March reach its destination. It claimed that Gandhiji sank to the ground at the end of the second day’s walking. But within a week ‘Time’ was forced to change its mind. Later they looked up on Gandhiji as a saint and statement. Salt march was notable for three reasons.

1. First, it was this event that brought Ma-hatma Gandhi to world attention. It was widely covered by the European and American press.
2. Second it was the first national activity in which women participated in large numbers.
3. Third, it was the salt march which forced up on the British the realisation that the raj would not last forever.

The British government continued a series of Round Table Conferences in London. The first Round Table Conference was held in 1930. Gandhiji or any prominent Congress leaders did not participate in the conference. Gandhiji was released from jail in 1931 and the following month had several meetings with the victory. This led to the Gandhi Irwin Pact by the terms of which Gandhiji withdrawn.

After the failure of Cripps Mission, Gandhiji decided to start his third phase of struggle against British rule. This is known as Quit India Movement. It started in August 1942. The immediate cause of this Movement was the failure of the Cripps Mission. Gandhi demanded that the British should leave India peacefully and in a timely manner.

Congress accepted that idea. On 8 August 1942, Congress met at Bombay and passed a resoluion asking the British to quit India. The resolution made it clear that to make the British go away, a struggle would be organized under Gandhi. This struggle is known as Quit India Movement. Gandhi asked the people to come into the open with the slogan ‘Do or Die’.

a) It was a popular movement. Thousands of ordinary people came with their support. Youths were ready to quit colleges and go to jail.
b) It showed the willingness of the people to suffer for freedom and to go to any extent to achieve freedom.
c) It made the British realize that their days were numbered. It forced them to negotiate the transfer of power.
d) It brought world’s attention to the Indian struggle for freedom.

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Kerala Plus Two Geography Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers.

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer the following questions from 1 to 39 upto a maximum score of 60. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 1.
The concept of Human Development was introduced by
a) Dr. Mahbub-UI-Haq
b) Thomas Malthus
c) Griffith Taylor
d) Semple
Answer:
a) Dr. Mahbub-UI-Haq

Question 2.
The name of farming operation in which farmers spe-cialize in vegetables only is known as
a) Jhuming
b) Viticulture
c) Truck Farming
d) Milpa
Answer:
b) Viticulture

Question 3.
Identify the mining method to mine the mineral ore from deep below the surface.
a) Open-Cast Mining
b) In-situ Mining
c) Open Pit Mining
d) Underground Mining
Answer:
d) Underground Mining

Question 4.
Urban agglomeration received the largest number of in-migrants in India.
a) Chennai
b) Varanasi
c) Greater Mumbai
d) Patna
Answer:
c) Greater Mumbai

Question 5.
The highest literate state in India
a) Kerala
b) Maharashtra
c) Tamil Nadu
d) West Bengal
Answer:
a) Kerala

Question 6.
An example of metallic mineral is
a) Mica
b) Iron
c) Graphite
d) Limestone
Answer:
b) Iron

Questions from 7 to 14 carry 2 scores each. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 7.
What is environmental determinism?
Answer:
Because of limited technical knowhow and primitive social conditions, the man-nature relations were, more or less, Nature determined. This human- environment relation is called by environmental determinism.

Question 8.
Mention the use of population pyramid.
Answer:
In a country the graph showing the proportional number of men and women of different ages is the population pyramid. Through this, the birth-death rates of various stages can also be seen.

Question 9.
Classify industries based on output.
Answer:
On the basis of products, industries are of two kinds:

1. Basic industries.
2. Consumer goods industries.

Question 10.
What are Quaternary activities?
Answer:
Services which need special knowledge and technical knowhow, and centred on research- development are called Quaternary Services. Examples: E-software engineers, doctors.

Question 11.
Define positive Balance of Trade.
Answer:
When in a country the export value is more than the import value, it will be called positive balance of trade.

Question 12.
Identify any two functions of an urban centre.
Answer:
Administration, transport, education, industry, mining, tourism (any 2).

Question 13.
What do you mean by life time migrant?
Answer:
When census is taken, if a person’s place of birth recorded there is different from his actual place of birth, he will be known as life time migrant.

Question 14.
Write any two local names of hamlet settlements in India.
Answer:
Panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani (any 2).

Questions from 15 to 25 cary 3 scores each. (11 × 3 = 33)

Question 15.
Answer the following:
a) Crude Birth Rate
b) Crude Death Rate
c) How Crude Birth Rate is calculated?
Answer:
a) Crude Birth Rate: In population, how many are born in 1000 people,is the Crude Birth Rate.
b) Crude Death Rate: In population, how many die in 1000 people is the Crude Death Rate.
CDR = Number of deaths/Tota’ population x 100
c) We can find the CBR by dividing the births in a certain period by the number of population and then multiplying it by 1000.
CDR = Total births/Population x 1000.

Question 16.
Write brief notes on the following:
a) Natural growth of population
b) Positive growth of population
c) Negative growth of population
Answer:
a) Natural Growth of Population : This is the difference in the births and deaths in a fixed period.
Natural Growth of Population = Births – Deaths.

b) Positive growth of population : If in a fixed period there are more births than deaths, there will be Natural Growth of Population there. If the incoming migrants are more than the outgoing migrants, there will be positive growth of population.

c) Negative growth of population : If, in a fixed period, births are less than deaths, there will be Negative growth of populatipn. If the outgoing migrants are more than the incoming migrants, then also there will be Negative growth of population.

Question 17.
List out the three basic aspects of Human Development.
Answer:

1.  The standard of living of the people in a country.
2. The opportunities before them.
3. The freedom they enjoy.

Question 18.
Write down the characteristic features of shifting cultivation.
Answer:
The trees in the forest are cut down and they are burned. The ash fertilizes the soil. A small area is cultivated. People use small, primitive tools. After some years, when the fertility of the soil is gone, the farmers move to another place and continue doing the same.

Question 19.
Name any three Trans-Continental Railways in the World.
Answer:

1. Trans-Siberian Railway
2. Australian Inter-Continental Railway
3. Trans Canadian Railway

Question 20.
Briefly explain the merits of Air transportation.
Answer:

1. The fastest means of transport.
2. Ideal for long distance travels and moving expensive goods.
3. The only way to reach places where there are no roads.
4. Today there is no place in the world which can’t be reached in 35 hours, maximum.

Question 21.
Write the branches and speech areas of Dravidian Languages.
Answer:

1. Southern Dravidian – Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,Kerala.
2. Mid-Dravidian – Andhra Pradesh, Madhya . Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra.
3. Northern Dravidian – Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh

Question 22.
Write the examples of ancient, medieval and modern towns in India.
Answer:

1. Ancient Cities – Varan asi, Prayag.
2. Medieval Cities – Delhi, Hyderabad
3. Modern Cities – Mumbai, Kolkata

Question 23.
Match the following :

A	B
Kharif	Wheat
Rabi	Vegetables
Zaid	Rice

Answer:

A	B
Kharif	Rice
Rabi	Wheat
Zaid	Vegetables

Question 24.
Irrigation is necessary for Indian Agriculture.’Explain.
Answer:

1. The uncertainties in the place and time of the monsoon rains, make irrigation essential.
2. A major part of the country does not get enough rain and is affected by droughts.
3. In the dry season without ensuring irrigation, cultivation is impossible.
4. For crops like paddy and sugar cane, a lot of water is needed.
5. Irrigation makes more than one crop possible in a year as with irrigation the agricultural period gets extended.
6. Seeds with high productivity need irrigation.

Question 25.
List out any three advantages of Non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:

1. Equitable distribution
2. Environmental friendly
3. Generally less expensive
4. Renewable (any three)

Questions from 26 to 35 carry 4 scores each. (10 × 4 = 40)

Question 26.
Explain the geographical factors influencing the distribufion of population.
Answer:
Geographical factors influencing the distribution of population:

1. Availability of Water: People prefer to live in places where plenty of clean water is available. Since water is needed for use at home, industry, agriculture and cattle, river basins are densely populated.
2. Landscape: People like to live in places that are flat or with slight slopes._Such places are more suitable for agriculture, making roads, build factories and residences. Places with hills and mountains have less people. People prefer plains to live.
3. Climatejn the places which are too cold, too hot, or where there is too much rainfall, the density of population will be less. It is not easy for man to live such places with harsh climatic conditions.
4. Soil: Fertile soil is essential for agriculture and related work. Soil that is fertile mixed with clay, sand and organic elements is the most suitable for agriculture.

Question 27.
Write the first two stages explained in Demographic Transition Theory.
Answer:

• First Stage in Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Birth and death rate very high.
  2. A lot of contagious diseases.
  3. Inequitable distribution of food.
  4. Increase in births made the population grow.
  5. Most of the people illiterate.
  6. Longevity very little.
  7. Technical knowhow very little.
• Second Stage in Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Although in the beginning, the birth rate is high, slowly it becomes less.’
  2. Death rate steadily decreased.
  3. Progress in the health-sanitation spheres.
  4. The different in birth-death rates increased the population.

Question 28.
Write a short note on the impacts of population change.
Answer:
A small rise in the population is good for the growing economic condition. But unlimited increases cause problems. Depletion of resources is the main problem. Decreasing population is also not good. Drastic lessening in the population will reduce the human resources of the country.

Question 29.
List out the features of Plantation Agriculture.
Answer:
Features of Plantation Agriculture

1. The main Plantation crops are tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, coconut etc.
2. It needs large estates, high capital investment, technical management, scientific methods of agriculture, mono-crop specialty, and a large number of workers.
3. There should be good transport facilities to link the estates with factories.

Question 30.
Write down the advantages of Road transportation.
Answer:

1. Most suitable for short distances.
2. House-to-house service is possible.
3. Plays a big role in the entertainment, commerce, trade, etc. in the country.
4. Highways help in obstacle free vehicle movement.
5. Border roads help in uniting the people in the borders areas and ensure their safety and the needs of the army.

Question 31.
What are the consequences of migration? Explain any one.
Answer:
Consequences of Migration

1. Economic Consequences
2. Consequences on the population
3. Social Consequences
4. Environmental Consequences

Economic Consequences: The money sent by the migrants to their birthplace is very beneficial for the people there. The main source of income of many States is the remittance they get from the migrants abroad. This plays a big role in the foreign exchange reserves of the country. The money sent by internal migrants help in the growth of the places of their birth. Such money is used for house construction, marriage, education, agriculture, industries, etc.

Question 32.
Some of the causes of migration are given below. List them as ’Push’ and ’Puli’ factors of migration. (Poverty, Better wage profession, Earthquake, High health care facilities)
Answer:
Push Factors Pull Factors
Poverty Employment with high wages
Earthquake Better health care facilities

Question 33.
How does the Census of India classify the Indian towns on the basis of population size?
Answer:

1. Class 1 Cities: Population more than 1 lakh.
2. Class 2 Cities: 50,000 to 99,999 people
3. Class 3 Cities: 20,000 to 49,999 people
4. Class 4 Cities: 10,000 to 19,999 People
5. Class 5 Cities: 5000 to 9999 people
6. Class 6 Cities: Below 5000 people.

Note: Only if the population of a place is more than 25,000 we call it a city. Below 25,000 we call the place a town.

Question 34.
Write a short note on conservation strategies of mineral resources.
Answer:
Since solar, wind, tidal energy etc. is renewable we should use it more than the energy from traditional sources like coal, oil and natural gas. We should encourage recycling of metallic remains. We should look for substitutes for rare minerals. We also must reduce the export of strategic and rare minerals.

Question 35.
Write down the locational factors of Cotton Textile Industry.
Answer:

1. Availability of plenty of cotton, or nearness to cotton fields.
2. Favourable climate.
3. Availability of skilled labourers.
4. Possibility of importing machinery.
5. Possible for export or nearness to a port.
6. Availability of energy.

Questions from 36 to 38 carry 6 scores each. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 36.
What is Human Development? Explain the pillars of Human Development.
Answer:
Human Development is the process which, considering various factors from healthy physical environment to social, political and economic freedom, increases the opportunities for acquiring education, health care, income empowerment etc. and deveLop opportunities for people to make their choice. The four components of human development are – Equity. ejstainabulit productivity and empowerment.
(a) Equity- Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal irreWedive of their gender, race, Income and in the Indian case, caste.

(b Sustainabllity- Sustainabulity means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environment, frianciel and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Mise of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

(c) Productivity. Productivity here means human labour productivity or productivity In terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabuhities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real weth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their kno4edge, or provide better heelth facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

(d) Empowerment. Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are reiired to empower people. The emprment of seeially and economically disadvantaged groups is of spea& importance.

Question 37.
Describe briefly the following human activities:
a) Nomadic Herding
b) Commercial Live-stock rearing
Answer:
a) Nomadic herding: This is an ancient means of livelihood. The nomads depend on their animals for their food, clothes, stay, and travel. They move with their animals from one place to another. Each group will have definite grazing areas. In different areas different kinds of animals are reared. It also depends on the climate. Because of definite international borders and new housing regulations, this way of living is becoming less popular. This is concentrated on three areas:

a) From the western shores of Africa to Mongolia, China.
b) The Tundra Regions of Eurasia.
c) Africa- Madagascar.

In the summer, they into the grassland on the mountains and in the cold season they return to the plains. This nomadic movement is called Trans-Humans.

b) Commercial Livestock Rearing: This is the well planned, scientific rearing of livestock and it involves huge capital investment. There will be permanent pastures. Basically it is a European way of rearing livestock. When the grass gets finished in one part of the pasture, the animals are moved to another part. The same kind of animals are reared here, mainly, sheep, cattle and goats. Their meat, fur and skins are scientifically processed and marketed. Great importance is given the breeding, high quality breed of animals, controlling diseases and animal healthcare. In New Zealand, Australia, Argentina, Uruguay, the USA, etc., Commercial Livestock Rearing is given much importance.

Question 38.
Explain the features of any two types of Rural Settlements in India.
Answer:
The rural settlements in India are mainly divided into 4:

1. Nucleated settlement (Compact Settlement)
2. Fragmented settlement (Semi Compact Settlement
3. Hamlet settlement
4. Dispersed settlement

1. Nucleated settlement (Compact Settlement): Here the houses are close to one another. In
this settlement common dwelling area, agricultural lands around, barren area, pastures, etc. are separated. The houses are in rows and the streets between the rows of houses take the shape of a square, circular or linear pattern. Often these nucleated settlements are the results of security problems. In the North Indian silt plains and North-Eastern States these types of settlements are common. In Rajasthan where
water is available, this kind of settlements can be seen.

2. Semi-Compact Settlements: In some areas of dispersed settlements, in certain areas there is a tendency for dwellings coming close to one another. When in the rural communities, one or two communities decide to live away from the centre of the village, this kind of settlement is formed. The people at the lower strata of the society, and labour class, etc. live in the margins of the village. In some parts of Rajasthan and in the Gujarat Plains, these kinds of settlements can be widely seen.

Question 39.
Identify the following Geo-information and locate them on the given outline map of India. Each carries 1 score. (7 x 1 = 7)
a) Largest out Migrant state
b) Location of first geothermal energy plant
c) Largest Bauxite producing state
d) Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area
e) National Waterway 3 (N.W.3)
f) A port at the entrance of Zuari
g) Asia’s largest slum
Answer:

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Manikaran (Himactial Pradesh)
c) Odistia
d) Western Rajasthan
e) KoIIam-Kottappjram (Kerala)
f) Mormugao
g) Ohaavi

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers.

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

A. Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
A country with declining population
a) Bangladesh
b) Mexico
c) Japan
d) Austrialia
Answer:
c) Japan

Question 2.
A primary activity
a) Pastoralism
b) Lawyer
c) Doctor
d) I.T. Professional
Answer:
a) Pastoralism

Question 3.
The geographical feature favourable for the formation of circular rural settlement pattern
a) Highway
b) Pond
c) Railway
d) River
Answer:
b) Pond

Question 4.
The most common problem of rural settlement from the following:
a) BusyTransport
b) Acidrain
c) Waste disposal
d) Unmetalled Roads
Answer:
d) Unmetalled Roads

Question 5.
An example of Regional Planning
a) Infrastructure Planning
b) Irrigation Planning
c) Drought Prone Area Programme
d) Transport Development
Answer:
c) Drought Prone Area Programme

Question 6.
The type of development that meets the needs of present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs
a) Sustinable development
b) Economic development
c) Social development
d) Demographic development
Answer:
a) Sustinable development

Question 7.
A Kharif crop
a) Rice
b) Groundnut
c) Vegetables
d) Maize
Answer:
a) Rice

Question 8.
Urban smog leads to
a) Water pollution
b) Land pollution
c) Noise pollution
d) Air pollution
Answer:
d) Air pollution

Question 9.
Which among the following rivers in India is highly polluted?
a) Satlej
b) Yamuna
c) Brahmaputra
d) Godavari
Answer:
b) Yamuna

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each caries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
The Headquarters of ASEAN
a) Jakarta
b) Vienna
c) Portugal
d) Minsk
Answer:
a) Jakarta

Question 11.
Among the following South American Nations, the one which forms a part of OPEC:
a) Argentina
b) Venezuela
c) Peru
d) Chile
Answer:
b) Venezuela

Question 12.
An example of ancient town in India
a) Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Pataliputra
d) Kochi
Answer:
c) Pataliputra

Question 13.
An administrative town in India among the following:
a) Surat
b) Ambala
c) Vishakapattanam
d) Delhi
Answer:
d) Delhi

Part – II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 to 17. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
Define Neodeterminism.
Answer:
Neo determinism was a theory put forward by Griffith Taylor. It was a theory formed between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism. He explains his theory based on traffic signal. When we see the red light we should stop. When the light is green, we can go. The yellow light gives a small interval. That means we get ready to go. Nature gives us many opportunities. By reacting to the opportunities appropriately we can make good use of them. Sometimes we neglect the controls Nature puts on us.

When we use unscientific farming methods, over exploit natural resources and do uncontrolled developmental activities, nature shows the red light. (The loss of soil fertility, deforestation, global warming, hole in the ozone layer, etc.) As long as do not destroy the environment, we can go ahead with our developmental activities. But when the red light shines we should stop our developmental activities. Through his Neo determinism, what Griffith Taylor proposed was a middle path without putting a full stop to our technical development, and at the same time, reacting positively to the signals given by nature.

Question 15.
What do you mean by Balance of Trade?
Answer:
The difference between the values of the goods and services a country exports and imports is the Balance of Trade. This can be positive or negative.

Question 16.
List out any two problems of Urban Settlement.
Answer:

1. Pollution
2. Increase in the population

Question 17.
Mention any two advantages of water transport?
Answer:

1. Transport expenses are less.
2. Less pollution.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
What is digital divide?
Answer:
Digital divide is the divide in the sphere of IT and communication between developed nations and developing nations.

Question 19.
Write any two examples for Nonmetallic fuel minerals.
Answer:

1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Natural gas

Question 20.
List out any four media of mass communication.
Answer:

1. Television
2. Radio
3. Cinema
4. Satellite

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each caries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
Describe the three stages of Demographic Transtion Theory.
Answer:
The three stages in the Demographic Transition Theory are:
Stage 1 – High Fluctuating stage
Stage 2 – Expanding Stage
Stage 3 – Low fluctuating stage.

• Stage 1: – High Fluctuating stage
  1. High birth-death rate
  2. The growth of population was very slow
  3. Longevity less
  4. People were illiterate
  5. People were engaged in agriculture
  6. The lack of technical knowhow
  7. The Adivasis in the Rain Forests of Bangladesh come in this group.
• Stage 2: Expanding Stage
  1. In this stage, in the early period, the birth rate was high. Gradually it became less. Along with that death rate was also reduced.
  2. The death rate was reduced because of the improvement in the health and sanitation sectors.
  3. Countries like Peru, Sri Lanka, Kenya etc. include in this group.
• Stage 3: Low Fluctuating stage
  1. Birth and death rate reduced. People got urbanised Progress in education and technical knowhow Canada, Japan, USA etc. come in this group.

Question 22.
(a) What is mining?
(b) Explain the types of mining.
Answer:
a) Mining:
The history of human development has different stages. They are known as Copper Age., ‘ Iron Age, and Bronze Age. This tells us how important the different minerals and metals are to mankind.

1. Initially minerals and metals were used only for making unsophisticated tools, weapons and containers.
2. It was with the Industrial Revolution that mining for metals and mineral was started. From then their importance has been steadily increasing.

b) Types of Mining:
Two types of mining are common – Surface mining and Underground mining. v The type of mining depends on the nature of the mineral ores and the way they are found. Surface mining and underground mining have two different approaches.

A. Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining):

1. Minerals are close to the surface of the earth.
2. This is the easiest way of mining.
3. Less expensive
4. Less risky
5. Profitable.

B) Underground Minina (Shaft Methods)

1. Minerals are located far below the surface of the earth.
2. It is dangerous (Poisonous gases, floods, landslides, cave formation, flaming fire, etc.)
3. Very expensive
4. Very high risk.

Question 23.
(a) What is Migration?
(b) Briefly discuss the ‘push’ and ‘pull’ factors of migration.
Answer:
a) Migration:
Moving from one region to live in another region is called migration. As the result of migration, the population of one region increases and the population of the other region decreases.

b) Push and Pull factors:
Although people have a lot of emotional attachment to the place of their birth, lakhs of people leave their homes to settle in other places. The reasons for this migration can be grouped into two: Push Factors I and Pull factors.

Push factors are those that force people to leave their birth place.
Pull factors are those which attract people to other regions.

1. People migrate to cities because of the poverty in the rural areas.
2. Increase in population.
3. lack of education and health facilities.
4. Earthquake
5. Floods

Question 24.
(a) Make a short note on Watershed Management.
(b) Mention any two objectives of Watershed Management.
Answer:
a) Watershed Management

1. This is a new method by which watersheds are protected from being filled with waste.
2. This is essential for sustainable development.
3. Watershed management and protecting water is essential to man and also other creatures and plants.

b) Two aims of Watershed management:

1. protecting water
2. Sustainable development.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 25.
Sex-ratio is an important information about status of women in a country. Comment on the statement.
Answer:
Sex ratio shows the number of women for 1000 men in a region. In India, the number of women has been less than that of men for years. Therefore the sex ratio in India is negative. The social and economic standing of women of a country can be determined according to the sex ratio. Where female foeticide, female infanticide and atrocities against women are rampant the discrimination between man and woman will be more.

1. Biologically, Nature has blessed women more than men.
2. Women have the exceptional capacity to rise from a fall and get back to the original state of mind.
3. She is able to adjust with the circumstances she finds herself in.
4. She has the capacity to maintain her happiness even in adverse circumstances.
5. Women have more defensive power than men.

Question 26.
(a) What is Human Development?
(b) List out the two indicators of healthy life.
Answer:
a) The concept of Human Development was put forward by the scientist Mehboob-ul-Haq. In his opinion human development means increasing the possibilities for people to choose the life style they like so that they can
live with dignity and for long.

b) Expected longevity
Standard of living

Question 27.
Write any three conservation methods of mineral resources.
Answer:
Protecting Mineral Wealth

1. By overuse the mineral wealth gets lost.
2. We have the responsibility to protect the natural resources for the continued existence and welfare of mankind.
3. We should not implement development plans by bringing harm to the environment.
4. To make sustainable development possible, we have to reserve natural resources for the use of future generations.
5. The traditional energy sources are non-renewable and so they will finish one day. But we have renewable energy sources like solar, geothermal, wind, tidal and biomass, which will never get finished. So we must learn to use more and more renewable energy sources.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 28 to 31. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
Briefly explain the four pillars of Human Development.
Answer:
The four pillars of human development are:

1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
4. Empowerment

1) Eauitv:
Equity is making available to everyone equal opportunities without any discrimination of religion, caste and creed, sex, class, income etc.

2) Sustainability:
This is the continuity in the availability of opportunities. If we are to make sustainable development we should not misuse and abuse all natural resources (environmental, economic and human). If any of the resources is ruined, it will adversely affect the future generations.

3) Productivity:
Productivity means the capacity of man to work and produce. The [eal wealth of a nation it is people. So each person should be given good education and health care so that he can work efficiently.

4) Empowerment:
Empowerment means the ability of a person to choose from infinite possibilities.

Question 29.
(a) What is plantation agriculture?
(b) List any three characteristic features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
a) Plantation Agriculture:
In the past, European countries started agriculture suitable for their colonies which had warm.or hot climate, investing a lot of capital. This is known as plantation agriculture. The Roman Emperors started a plantation agriculture. known as“Latifundia”. From this wine and olive oil were used for exports. In our country the main plantation crops are tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, cotton, sugar cane, banana and pineapple.

b) Features of Plantation Agriculture:

1. It needs huge investment, a lot of land and technical knowhow.
2. It is market-linked.
3. Availability of easy transport.

Question 30.
(a) What do you mean by the term ‘Manufacturing’?
(b) List any two features of large scale manufacturing.
Answer:
a) Manufacturing Industries: Manufacturing industries process raw materials and make them into value-added goods for various uses by people.

b) Capital
4 Historical factors.

Question 31.
Briefly explain the problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
These are the problems of Indian Agriculture:

1. Dependence of erratic monsoons.
2. Low productivity.
3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness.
4. Lack of land reforms.
5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings.
6. Lack of commercialization.
7. Vast under-employment.
8. Degradation of cultivable land.

1. Dependence on Erratic Monsoon:
Only 33% of the agricultural land in India has irrigation facilities. The remaining land depends on monsoon rains for its water.’Of the south-west monsoon comes earlier or later, the plans of the farmers will be upset. If there is more monsoon rain it will cause floods and if it less, it will bring droughts.

2. Low Productivity:
The quantity of paddy, wheat, cotton and oil seeds we get in India from one hector of land is much less than what they get in Russia, America, Japan etc. Depending only on the rains, if we cultivate grains, pulses, oil seeds etc. in dry areas the harvest will be very little.

3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness:
To use modern farming methods, a lot of capital investment is needed. The poor peasants and farmers in India do not have the financial capacity to invest such capital. When they are in financial problems, the agriculturists take loans from individuals or financial institutions. If the crops are ruined or if the harvest is very low, they get trapped in indebtedness.

4. Lack of land reforms:
The landlord system (Mahalwari, Riotwari, Zamindari) that exited during the British rule was quite exploitative. Although many land reforms were made after independence, because of the. lack of strong political, will, they were not put into practice effectively.

5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings:
In India more than 60% of the farmers have only less than 1 hectare of land in their possession. Because of the increase in population the landholding is getting even less. Agriculture done on such small pieces of land is not profitable.

6. Lack of commercialization:
Most farmers cultivate things only for their own needs. If the agriculture sector is to be profitable and attractive it should be mechanised and commercialised.

7. Vast under-emplovment:
Once the harvest is done, till the next planting season, the farmers will have no work. In places where there are no irrigation facilities, this problem is very acute.

8. Degradation of cultivable land:
Wrong irrigation methods and unscientific agricultural development plans make the soil loses its fertility. Alkalization, calcification, water clogging, continuous farming, lack of proper fertilizers etc, reduce the productivity of the land. Planting different things will also reduce fertility. Places which depend solely on rains are adversely affected by soil and wind erosion especially where the soil is soft and loose and the climate is warm. Because of the unscientific methods used by people the fertility of the land gets reduced.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 and 33. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
Write a short note on Cyber Space.
Answer:
Cyber Space is the notional environment in which communication over computer networks occurs. Taking advantage of fast growing Information Technology and communication network, the developed countries raced ahead in development. But the developing countries are lagging behind in utilising the modern IT and communication facilities. The gap that is seen between the developed and developing countries in the use of IT and the modern cbmmunication facilities is called the Digital Divide. With the help of www, commerce has become global and widespread.

Question 33.
Distinguish between wet land and dry land farming.
Answer:
On the basis of the moisture of the soil during harvest, there are two kinds of farming. The agriculture in dry land is known m as Dry land farming and where there is water it is called Wetland farming.

• Dry land farming:
  1. This farming is practised in places which receive rain below 75 cm in a year.
  2. In this type of farming crops like ragi, millet, pulses, and animal feeds, which can resist drought, are cultivated.
  3. Farmers take steps to collect rain water and maintain the moisture of the land.
• Wet land farming:
  1. In this farming, paddy, jute, sugar cane etc, are cultivated as they need plenty of water.
  2. Farmers also engage in aquaculture. rain below 75 cm in a year.
  3. In this type of farming crops like ragi, millet, pulses, and animal feeds, which can resist drought, are cultivated.
  4. Farmers take steps to collect rain water and maintain the moisture of the land.
• Wet land farming:
  1. In this farming, paddy, jute, sugar cane etc, are cultivated as they need plenty of water.
  2. Farmers also engage in aquaculture.

Part – V

A. Answer any 2 questions from 34 to 36. Each caries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
(a) What do you mean by density of population?
(b) Describe the geographical factors influencing the density and distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
a) Population density is the proportion between the number of people and the area of the land.
b) Geographical factors:

1. availability of water
2. nature of the land
3. climate
4. soil

1. Availability of water:
People like to stay in places where water is easily available in large quantities. Water is inevitable for all human endeavours like agriculture, irrigation, industry, transport, tourism, generation of electricity and so on. That is why all river basins are crowded.

2. Nature of the land:
People like to live in places that are flat or with – slight slopes. Such places are more suitable for agriculture, making roads, build factories and residences.

3. Climate:
In the places which are too cold, too hot, where there is too much rainfall, the density of population will be less. It is not easy for man to live such places with harsh climatic conditions.

4. SoiL.
Fertile soil is essential for agriculture and related work. Soil that is fertile mixed with clay, sand ‘ and organic elements is the most suitable for agriculture.

Question 35.
(a) What is growth of population?
(b) Analyse the four phases of Indian Demographic History.
Answer:
a) Population growth is the increase in the number of people in a certain period in a place. This can be positive or negative.

1. Fixed Population Phase (1901-1921)
2. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
3. Explosive population phase (1951-1981)
4. Reducing Population Phase (1981 -2001)

1. Fixed Population Phase (901-1921):
It is said that population growth in India was at a standstill, showing no growth in the initial stages of the 20th century. The death rate was high. Poor health care services, ignorance of people, the weak distribution of essential commodities etc. were the reasons for the high death rate.

2. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
This is the 2nd phase where the population growth was steady. As health care facilities became easily available, death rate was reduced. The development of communication and transport facilities and the special attention of the government helped the public distribution system to become better. Although the economic depression of the 1920s and the Second World War adversely affected this second phase of population growth, it was steady in this phase.

3. Explosive Population Phase (1951-1981):
The 3rd phase was the period of population explosion in India. In this phase the death rate was drastically reduced and the birth rate drastically increased. The annual growth reached 2.2%-in this phase.

4. Reducing Population Phase (1981-2001):
During this period there was a tendency showing decrease in growth. The marriageable age was raised and the standard of living improved. As women were educated, there were visible changes in the society’s thinking and people’s attitude towards life had welcome changes.

Question 36.
Identify and mark the following geo information in the given Outl ine Map of I ndia.
(a) An ancient I ndian town located in Uttar Pradesh.
(b) The largest Urban Aglomeration in India.
(c) The land-locked port located in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) An Integrated Iron and Steel Plant in India set up in collaboration with Germany.
(e) The largest container port in India.
(f) The Eastern State in India having highest production of Jute.
Answer:
a) Varanasi or Allahabad
b) Greater Mumbai
c) Visakhapatnam
d) Rourkela Steel Plant
e) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) located in Navi Mumbai’s Raigad district
f) West Bengal

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Section – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The period of population explosion in India
a) 1951-1981
b) 1901-1921
c) 1921-1951
d) 1981-2001
Answer:
a) 1951-1981

Question 2.
The language family to which Malayalam belongs.
Answer:
Dravidian language

Question 3.
The busiest airpot in the Western region in India.
a) Kolkata
b) Kochi
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
Answer:
c) Mumbai

Question 4.
Asia’s largest slum is located in India. Identify it.
Answer:
Dharavi

Question 5.
Canal colonies in Indira Gandhi command area in Rajasthan is an example for
a) Linear Settlement
b) Nucleated Settlement
c) Planned Settlement
d) Circular Settlement
Answer:
a) Linear Settlement

Question 6.
The iron and steel plant located in Karnataka,
a) Durgapur
b) Visweswaraiya
c) Bokaro
d) Dubari
Answer:
b) Visvesaraiya

Section – B

Answer any six questions from 7 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
The concept of Neo-determinism (stop and go determinism) is very significant today. Justify this statement.
Answer:
It was the Australian Geographer Griffith Taylor who put forward the concept of Neo Determinism or Stop and Go determinism. The concept says that man should intervene in nature and use natural resources without harming the environment. The theory says that by obeying the laws of nature we can conquer it. When we overexploit natural resources, and as a result natural calamities occur, this theory has much relevance.

Question 8.
Distinguish between positive and negative growth of population.
Answer:
Positive Growth rate:
a) In a fixed period, if birth rate is more than death rate, there is Positive Growth rate.
b) When migrants from outside come in big numbers, there is Positive Growth rate.

Negative Growth rate:
a) In a fixed period, if death rate is more than birth rate, there is Negative Growth rate.
b) When migrants g to other places to live there, there is Negative Growth rate.

Question 9.
Kerala has witnessed natural disasters like landslide and flood frequently. Suggest measures that can be adopted for th effective management of the hill slopes of Western Ghats in Kerala.
Answer:

1. Controlling/banning mining
2. Instead of large scale industries, encourage small scale industries.
3. Propagating environmental eco friendly development.
4. Protecting water resources.

Question 10.
Indo-Gangeticplain is one of the densely populated regions in India. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Fertile soil
2. Irrigation facilities
3. Favourable climate
4. Appropriate transport facilities

Question 11.
Complete the diagram showing the characteristics of Dairy Farming.

Answer:

1. Storage facilities
2. Milking machines

Question 12.
Write a note on Sugar industry in India.
Answer:
Sugar industry is the second largest agriculture based industry in India. India has the number one place in the world for producing the most sugar cane and sugar. 8% of the total world production of sugar is from India. Apart from sugar, molasses and jaggery are also made from sugar cane. This industry gives employment to more than 400,000 persons directly and thousands of farmers indirectly.

Sugar industry is a seasonal industry. Once the sugar cane is cut, its water contents gets lost very fast. So it can’t be stored for long. Naturally the sugar has to be produced at the time of the sugarcane harvest. That is why it is said that the sugar industry is a seasonal industry. In 1903, a sugar factory was established in Bihar, marking sugar production in a modern way in India. Following this, there came many sugar mills in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 13.
One of the world’s single largest tertiary activity is tourism. Discuss the scope of tourism with respect ‘ to tourist attractions in India.
Answer:
Factors like climate, natural beauty, history and arts, culture and financial system influence tourism. India can do a lot in the field of tourism industry.

1. There are many centres India which are endowed with the beauty of nature. For example, we have Kashmir, North-Eastern regions, and Kerala.
2. The tourism centres in India are the gains of culturally rich India.

Question 14.
Prepare a brief note on any one of the mineral belts in India.
Answer:
The mineral wealth of India is concentrated in three regions:

1. North-Eastern Plateau region.
2. South-Western Plateau region.
3. North-Western Region

Section – C

Answer any 5 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 15.
List out the consequences of migration.
Answer:
1. The North-Eastern Plateau Region:
This region includes Chhota Nagpur, Odisha Plateau, West Bengal, and some parts Chhattisgarh. There are large deposits of iron ore, coal, manganese, ‘ bauxite, and mica in these regions. That is why most of the iron and steel industries of India are located in these regions. The large mineral wealth of these regions has attracted these factories.  The consequences of migration are the following:

1) Economic Consequences: The money sent to India by the expatriate and migrant Indians from abroad is a main source of our foreign exchange.

2) Consequences on the population: Because of the migration from rural areas to the urban areas, the urban population increases. It is adults, skilled workers and experts that migrate from villages to the cities. This adversely affects the population structure of the rural areas.

3) Social Consequences: Through migrants there are social changes. From the cities, newer ideas reach the rural areas. Mixed cultures are another consequence of migration.

4) Environmental Consequences: The housing situation in the cities gets upset and slums are formed. Natural resources are overexploited. Therefore in cities there is a dangerous reduction of underground water levels. Atmosphere pollution is rampant. Waste gets accumulated.

Question 16.
Define:
i) Packet station
ii) Positive balance of trade
iii) Free trade
Answer:
i) Packet Station: Packet Stations are also called Ferry Ports. Such ports are used only for transporting people and postal packets etc. over short distances. For that and large boats and ferry boats. Normally such ports are seen on the opposite banks of a river, stream or lake. Examples are Dover in England and Calais in France.

ii) Positive Balance of Trade: Every country exports goods and services and it also imports goods and services. The difference in the value of a country’s exports and imports is called Balance of Trade. When a country’s value of exports is more than the value of its imports it is known as Positive Balance of Trade.

iii) Free trade: When a country opens its financial system for trade to other countries it is called free trade or trade liberalization. Free trade comes into existence when trade controls like tariffs, taxes and import restrictions are reduced or removed. Free trade allows goods produced in different countries to compete with goods produced in the country.

Question 17.
Why is irrigation necessary in India?
Answer:

Nearly 4% of the orId’s water resources are in India. Through rains and snow, India gets 4000 cubic km of water. If we add surface water and the ground water, nearly 1869 cubic kilometres of water is available to us. But only 0% of this water can be profitably used. In short, from the wafer resources in our country only 1122 cubic km of water is useful. In India there are two main water resources – surface waterand Ground water.

Surface water resources:
Rivers, ponds, lakes and reservoirs are the 4 main surface water resources. In India we have 10,360
rivers, and their tributaries. The water that flows in these rivers is 1869 cubic km. But for various reasons only 690 cubic km (32%) is useful for us. The water flow in a river depends on the size of its catchment area and the amount of rain it gets. Rivers like the Ganges, the Brahmaputra and the Sindhu have large catchment areas. In the catchment areas of these rivers precipitation is comparatively high. 60% of the total surface water is the contribution of these rivers. We also make use of the South Indian Rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Ground Water Resources: The renewable ground water in India is 432 cubic km. 46% of this is in the basins of the anges and the Brahmaputra. In India, most of the ground water is used in the north-western regions and some parts in South India. Thus India is rich in water resources. This makes irrigation easy.

Question 18.
i) Name the state in India which ranks first in HDI.
ii) Mention the reasons behind this achievement.
Answer:

• Kerala
• High literacy
  1.  Achievements in the health care sector
  2.  Schools and hospitals with high standards
  3.  Development of human resources

Question 19.
Waste disposal is one of the serious social issues today. Discuss three environmental problems faced by the urban centers and suggest methods to overcome it.
Answer:
An important feature of urban regions is their high population. Proportionate to the increasing number of people and the hurry and haste, the amenities do not grow. It results in slums, unhealthy sanitary conditions and foul-smelling atmosphere. The main problem cities face is the atmospheric pollution because of the waste. It is the solid waste that is the main reason for the pollution in cities. Old and discarded things after use constitute solid waste. Main problems and solutions:

1. Extreme heat – Plant more trees.
2. Air pollution – Encourage electric vehicles for transport.
3. Solid waste – Ban plastic. Encourage the use of biogas.

Question 20.
The non-conventional energy sources will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of. Give an account of any three non-conventional energy sources.
Answer:
The energy of the future should come from non conventional energy sources. The features of non conventional energy sources are the following:

1. Renewable.
2. Environmental friendly.
3. Free from pollution.
4. Available in plenty.
5. Less expensive?

The main non conventional energy sources in India are the following:

• Solar Energy:
  1. Using photovoltaic cells sunlight is converted into electricity.
  2. Water heaters, driers, cookers, watches, calculators, etc. can work with solar energy.
  3. Gujarat and Rajasthan are the States which offer more favourable circumstances for producing solar energy.
• Wind energy:
  1. The ideal place for putting up windmills is wide and open places with strong breezes.
  2. In the States like Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka the circumstances are conducive to the production of wind energy.
  3. The largest windmill farm in Asia is Lamba which is situated in the Kutch area of Gujarat.
  4. In Thoothukudy, in Tamilnadu, also there is a large windmill farm.
• Tidal and Wave energy
  1. From waves and tides, we can make electricity.
  2. The western shore Regions of India are very suitable for producing Tidal and Wave energy.

Question 21.
Differentiate between Rural and Urban composition of population.
Answer:
The population is divided into rural an urban population based on the place in which they live. Since there are many differences between the rural and urban dwellers, such a division is necessary. The life of the village people and city people is different. Their jobs and social conditions are different. In things like age-sex-profession structure, density of population, standard of development, etc. also there are differences.

1. Different countries use different criteria for grouping the people into rural and urban dwellers.
2. Rural areas are those in which the majority of people are engaged in primary activities. In the urban areas the majority of the people are engaged non-primary activities.

The life styles, food habits, professions, social circumstances, density of population, standard of development, etc. are different in the rural and urban dwellers. The rural dwellers engage in primary activities whereas the urban dwellers engage in service-related activities. In the Western countries, in the rural areas there are more men and in the urban areas more women. But in India, Pakistan and Nepal, more men than women dwell in cities.

In America, Canada and Europe it is the women who migrate from villages to cities looking for good jobs. As agriculture is mechanised there, it is the men that stay in the rural areas. But in Asian countries more men migrate to cities from villages. In Asian countries, women do not migrate to cities like men, because women lack of suitable dwelling places, appropriate jobs and safety, and high cost of living.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 22.
Explain the demographic transition theory.
Answer:
This theory points out that when a community moves from rural-agricultural-illiterate level to urban- industrial-literate level, the population there moves from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. These changes that have been happening for ages are generally called demographic transition. Demographic transition theory can be used to explain and forecast the future population of any region.

Demographic transition theory has 3 Stages.

• First Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. This stage is called high fluctuating stage.
  2. Birth and death rate very high. ‘
  3. A lot of contagious diseases.
  4. Inequitable distribution of food.
  5. Increase in births made the population grow.
  6. Most of the people illiterate.
  7. Longevity very little.
  8. Technical knowhow very little.
  9. The Adivasis in Bangladesh rain forests come in this category.
• Second Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Known as the Expanding stage
  2. Although in the beginning, the birth rate is high,, slowly it becomes less.
  3. Death rate steadily decreased.
  4. Progress in the health-sanitatiort spheres.
  5. The different in birth-death rates increased the population.
  6. Peru, Sri Lanka, Kenya etc. come this stage.
• Third Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Known as Lowfluctuating stage/
  2. Birth-date rates low.
  3. People are urbanised.
  4. Progress in education and technical knowhow.
  5. Canada, Japan, USA etc. come in this group.

Question 23.
i) What are the merits of water transport?
ii) Name a National Waterway in India and write its terminals.
Answer:

1. This is the easiest way of transporting heavy and large goods to their distant destinations.
2. Less expensive
3. Security expenses less.
4. High fuel efficiency.
5. Less pollution.
6. No traffic blocks
7. Less risky compared other means of transport.
8. Eco-friendly

Water Ways	Distance
NW 1	Allahabad – Haldia
NW 2	Sadia – Dhubri
NW 3	Kottappuram – Kollam

Question 24.
Classify the towns of India on the basis of dominant function with examples for each.
Answer:
Different types of Urban Settlements: Depending on the size and the services available and functions rendered, urban centres are designated as town, city, conurbation, megalopolis, and million city.

1. Town: The concept of ‘town’ can best be understood with reference to ‘village’. Population size is not the only criterion. Functional contrasts between towns and villages may not always be clear-cut, but specific functions such as manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, and professional services exist in towns.

2. City: A city may be regarded as a leading town, which has outstripped its local or regional rivals. In the words of Lewis Mumford, “the city is in fact the physical form of the highest and most complex type of associative life”. Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions. They tend to have transport terminals, major financial institutions and regional administrative offices.

3. Conurbation: The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large
area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns or cities. Greater London, Manchester, Chicago and Tokyo are examples.

4. Megalopolis: This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularised by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies a super- metropolitan’ region extending, as union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in the U.S.A. is the best- known example of a megalopolis.

In a megalopolis the population crosses one crore mark. It was New York which became the first megalopolis, in 1950.Today there are more than 25 megalopolises in the world. Even in developing countries the number of megalopolises is increasing.

5. Million City: When the population of a city crosses the one million mark it is designated as a million city. The number of million cities in the world has been increasing as never before. London reached the million mark in 1800, followed by Paris in 1850, New York in 1860, and by 1950 there were around 80 such cities. By 2005, threw number increased to 438.

Question 25.
Match the following items in column ‘A’ with the most suitable items given in column ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:

A	B	C
i. Plantation agriculture	Jhuming	Resource pooling
ii. Mediterranean agriculture	Denmark, Netherland, Italy	Ashes increase the fertility of soil
iii. Co-operative farming	West Africa, India, Sri Lanka	Highly specialized commercial agriculture
iv. Slash and Burn agriculture	Viticulture	Introduced in European colonies

Answer:

A	B	C
i. Plantation agriculture	West Africa, India, Sri Lanka	Introduced in European colonies
ii. Mediterranean agriculture	Viticulture	Highly specialized commercial agriculture
iii. Co-operative farming	Denmark,Netherland, Italy	Resource pooling
iv. Slash and Burn agriculture	Jhuming	Ashes increase the fertility of soil

Question 26.
The idea of Human Development is supported by the concepts of Equity, Sustainability, Productivity and Empowerment. Write notes on each.
Answer:
Human Development:
The concept of Human Development was put forward by Mehboob-ul-Haq. In his view it is the process which, considering various factors from healthy physical environment to social, political and economic freedom, increases the opportunities for acquiring education, health care, income empowerment etc. and develop opportunities for people to make their choice. The four components of human development are – Equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

(a) Equity : Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. But this does not happen in many societies.

For example in all countries there are students who drop out of school before completing their studies. Most of these drop outs are girls and those belonging to socially and economically backward classes. Example: India. As they don’t have educational qualifications, they lose their opportunities to choose what they want.

(b) Sustainability- Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

We can take the example of sending girls to school. If we don’t give importance to sending them o schools it will affect their future badly. They won’t be able to choose the job they want when they grow up. They will lose many of their opportunities. It will affect the other areas of their life. Their will burn out by doing household chores and some other manual labour. So have a responsibility to make sure that we make everyone in the future generation is competent enough to get the opportunities he/she wants to choose.

(c) Productivity- Productivity here means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

(d) Empowerment- Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Question 27.
Discuss any four factors that determine the location of industries.
Answer:
Factors that determine the location of Industries:
There are many factors that determine the location of Industries. Some of the most important are the following:

1. Nearness to the Market:
The things manufactured in the industries have to be sold. So an important factor in locating the industry is nearness to the market. By market it is meant people who are capable of buying the things produced by the industry. If the population of a place is small the market will be small. In Europe, America, Japan and Australia, which are developed nations the markets are global and big. The people there have great buying power. The densely populated areas in Asia also are good markets. Some industries have international markets: airplane manufacturing industry, arms manufacturing industry, etc.

2. Closeness to the raw materials:
Closeness to the raw materials seriously affects the location of the industry. Factories are to be opened in places where raw materials are easily and cheaply available. There should easy transport methods for the raw material to reach the factories. Factories that use raw materials which are cheap, large in size and which lose weight because of delay (factories manufacturing steel, sugar, cement, etc.) should be close to the sources where the raw materials like iron ore, sugar cane and limestone are available.

1. A main reason for establishing factories close to the sources of the raw materials is the possibility of the raw materials getting spoiled by long transport.
2. Factories manufacturing agricultural and milk products should be close to the sources where agricultural products and milk are easily available.

3. Availability of Labour:
Availability of Labour is another important factor in deciding the location of a industries. Some
Maximum Lpu&(isfiers industries need skilled workers. However, mechanisation and automation have reduced the dependence of industries on labour.

Availability of Energy: Some industries, like the aluminium industry, need a lot of energy. So they should be close to places where there are distribution centres of energy. Earlier the main energy source was coal. Now many industries work using electricity and petroleum.

Availability of transport and communication facilities: To bring raw materials to the factory to transport the finished goods to the markets, well developed transport and communication facilities should be available. Transport cost a big consideration in the location of an industry. In Western Europe and America there are excellent transport systems. That is why in these areas here are many industries.

1. Modern industries can’t exist away from proper transport facilities.
2. Communication facilities are also important for modern industries. They help to exchange information.

4. Government Policy: In deciding on the location of Industries, the government policy also plays a big part. Each government formulates a policy that encourages equitable economic development. So governments try to establish industries in areas which do not have them. Because of this policy, in certain places industries are established.

5. Agglomeration Economies: Around a major industry some mutually related small industries come up. From the nearness of the big industry, the small scale industries . profit. These profits called agglomeration economies. The relations among different industries help in reducing costs and in making bigger profits.

Section – E

Answer any 1 question from 28 to 29. caries 6 scores. (1 × 6 = 6)

Question 28.
Low productivity is one of the problems faced by Indian agriculture. Discuss in detail the other problems,
Answer:
1. Problems of Indian Agriculture:
Only 33% of the agricultural land in India has irrigation facilities. The remaining land depends on monsoon rains for its water. Of the south-west monsoon comes earlier or later, the plans of the farmers will be upset. If there is more monsoon rain it will cause floods and if it less, it will bring droughts. Droughts and floods are the twin threats that challenge Indian agriculture. Drought is the phenomenon of places with less rain. Rarely there can be floods here also. The floods that happened in 2006 in the dry areas of Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan are good examples for this.

2. Low Productivity
The quantity of paddy, wheat, cotton and oil seeds we get in India from one hector of land is much less than what they get in Russia, America, Japan, etc. Depending only on the rains, if we cultivate grains, pulses, oil seeds etc. in dry areas the harvest will be very little.

In India, the pressure on the land is very great. Therefore the availability of agricultural land is getting less. Naturally the productivity here is much less than in many other countries. In places where the agriculture depends solely on rain crops like rough grains, pulses an oil seeds give only low yields.

3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness:
To use modern farming methods, a lot of capital investment is needed. The poor peasants and farmers in India do not have the financial capacity to invest such capital. When they are in financial problems, the agriculturists take loans from individuals or financial institutions. If the crops are ruined or if the harvest is very low, they get trapped in indebtedness. There are so many instances of farmers committing suicide as they can’t repay their debts.

4. Lack of land reforms:
The landlord system (Mahalwari, Riotwari, Zamindari) that exited during the British rule was quite exploitative. Although many land reforms were made after independence, because of the lack of strong political, will, they were not put into practice effectively. As the land reforms are not put into practice, the inequality in the distribution of land continues. Because of that farmers are exploited and agricultural development becomes difficult.

5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings:
In India more than 60% of the farmers have on|y less than 1 hectare of land in their possession. Because of the increase in population the landholding is getting even less. In India agriculture is done on small pieces of land. Agriculture done on such small pieces of land is not profitable. There has been no effort to unify the pieces into large farms in many States. When land is transferred to the next generation the land further gets fragmented. On such small pieces the cost of agriculture is high but the yield is low.

6. Lack of commercialization:
Most farmers cultivate things only for their own needs. If the agriculture sector is to be profitable and attractive it should be mechanised and commercialised. Most of the small scale farmers produce what they need for their families. Only in places which have irrigation facilities, commercialisation of agriculture, that is producing crops aiming the market, is possible.

7. Vast under-emplovment:
Once the harvest is done, till the next planting season, the farmers will have no work. In places where there are no irrigation facilities, this problem is very acute. There seasonal unemployment is acute. Once the harvest is over, till the next plenting season, they have nothing to do. Thus they have to simply remain idle from 4 to 8 months of the year. Even in the agricultural season they don’t have enough work. Many agricultural activities do not need many labourers. In short, farmers have no chance of working throughout the year.

8. Degradation of cultivable land:
Wrong irrigation methods and unscientific agricultural development plans make the soil loses its fertility. Alkalization, calcification, water clogging, continuous farming, lack of proper fertilizers etc, reduce the productivity of the land. Planting different things will also reduce fertility. Places which depend solely on rains are adversely affected by soil and wind erosion especially where the soil is soft and loose and the climate is warm. Because of the unscientific methods used by people the fertility of the land gets reduced.

Overuse of chemical fertilizers and insecticides cause infertility of the soil. Instead of pulses, some farmers started cultivating other crops and then there was multicrop farming which does not allow the land any rest. This also adversely affects the quality of the soil. The land does not get time to draw nitrogen from the atmosphere and make the land naturally fertile.

Question 29.
Classify the industries on the basis of following hints and explain each:
Size
Raw materials
Products
Ownership
Answer:

• Cottage Industry
  1. The smallest industrial unit.
  2. Done with the help of family members.
• Small Scale Industry:
  1. Uses small machines that use energy. Semi-skilled workers work here.
• Large Scale industry
  1. Big capital investment and availability of 1000s of workers are needed.
  2. Modern manufacturing techniques and different raw material are used.

1. Aarobased Industries:
These are industnes that use agricultural products as their raw materials Eg. cotton, jute, silk, edible oil, etc.

2. MIneral based Industries:
These are industries that use minerals mined from the earth as their raw materials. Eg. Making ornaments, won and steel industry.

3. ChemIcal based Industries:
These are industries that use potassium. sulphur, salts, mineral od, etc. as their raw materials. Eg. Plastic, artificial fibres.

4. Forest based incisth:
These are industries that use forest products like timber, bamboo, honey, resins. etc. asthelraw materials. Eg. Paper, furniture industry.

5. AnImal based Industries:
These are industries that use hides and skins of animals, their fur, teeth, horns and bones as their raw materials. Eg. Ivory products, hides and skins Industry. Based on ownership, industries are divided into 3.

1. Public Sector Industries: These are industries that are owned and controlled by the government Eg. Steel Authority of India (SAJ)Ud., Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.

2. Private Sector Industries: These are Industries that are owned by private individuals. Eg. Tata Iron and Steel Company.

3. Joint Sector Industries: These are industries that are jointly by the public sector and the private sector.
Eg. Oil India Ltd., Maruti Udyog Ltd.

Section – F

Identify and mark the following on the given outline map of India. (6× 1 = 6)

Question 30.
a) A land-locked port in Andhra Pradesh.
b) A software technology park in Kerala.
c) The leading producer of coffee in India.
d) A lignite field in Tamil Nadu.
e) The most densely populated state in India as per 2011 census.
f) A cultural town in Punjab.
Answer:
a) Visakhapatnam
b) Techno Park (Thiruvananthapuram)
c) Karnataka
d) Neyveli
e) Bihar
f) Amritsar

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2022

PART – I

A. Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Si unit of electric charge is ………….. .
Answer:
Coulumb

Question 2.
When alternating current is flowing through an inductor, the phase difference between potential and current is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer:
(c) 90°

Question 3.
Momentum of a photon with wavelength λ is,
(a) hλ
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)
(c) \(\frac{\lambda}{\mathrm{h}}\)
(d) λ + h
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)

Question 4.
According to Bohr, the electron can revolve around the nilcleus only in those orbits where angular momentum is an integral multiple of ………….
Answer:
\(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 π}\)

Question 5.
Write the number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of \({ }_Z^A X\).
Answer:
No. of protons = Z
No. of nuetrons = A – Z

Question 6.
A stationary charge can produce electromagnetic waves. State true or false.
Answer:
False.

Question 7.
What is the value of magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil having n turns carrying current?
Answer:
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 n I}{2 R}\)

Question 8.
When bulk pieces of conductors are subjected to changing magnetic flux, currents are induced in it. Name the current.
Answer:
Eddy current

Question 9.
The redistribution of energy due to the superposition of two or more light waves is called ………..
Answer:
Interference

Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
When a dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor, its capacity,
(a) remains the same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 11.
Which of the following material is used to make standard resistance ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Germanium
(d) Manganin
Answer:
(d) Manganin

Question 12.
The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is. (negative/positive/zero)
Answer:
Negative

Question 13.
The blue colour of the sky is due to …………. .
Answer:
Scattering

PART -II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 ta 17. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
State Gauss’s law in magnetism.
Answer:
The net magnetic fiux through any closed surface is zero.

Question 15.
Draw the phasor diagram for an A.C. voltage applied to a series LCR circuit.
Answer:

Question 16.
A gate Is a digital circuit that follows a logical relationship between the input and output.
(a) Which are the universal gates ?
Answer:
NAAD gate and NOR

(b) Why are they called so ?
Answer:
They are so called because all other basic gates can be realised using them.

Question 17.
What are coherent sources ?
Answer:
Two source are said to be coherent if phase difference between the dispalcements produced by each of the waves does not change with the time.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
A charged particle is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field.
(a) What is the shape of the path followed by the particle ?
Answer:
Circular

(b) If the field is non-uniform, what is its new trajectory ?
Answer:
Spiral

Question 19.
Write any two uses of X-rays. (2)
Answer:
• Used in investigation of structure of solids.
• Diagnostic tool in medicine and in treatment of certain form of cancer.

Question 20.
(a) What is the equation for torque acting on a dipole placed in a uniform electric field ?
Answer:
\(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{P}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\)

(b) What is the condition for maximum torque ?
Answer:
θ = 90° (The angle between the direction of electric dipole moment and electric field should be 90°).

PART-III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
The resistance is the opposition offered by a material to the flow of current.
(a) The unit of resistance is
Answer:
Ω(Ohm)

(b) Find the equivalent resistance of two resistors R₁ and R₂ connected in parallel.
Answer:
Consider two resistors R₁ and R₂ connected in parallel across a potential of V volt as shown.

The potential across all resistors are equal but current is different.
The current through resistor R₁,
I₁ = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\)
The current through resistor R₂,
I₂ = \(\frac{V}{R_2}\)
Total current through the combination is
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
R is the effective resistance of combination.
Total current through combination is equal to sum of current through each resistor.
I = I₁ + I₂
Substituting we get,
\(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\)
Eliminating V, we get
\(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\)

Question 22.
A spherical mirror is a mirror with a curved reflecting surface.
(a) What is the relation between focal length and radius of curvature of a spherical mirror ?
Answer:
f = \(\frac{R}{2}\)

(b) Prove that for a concave mirror forming real image,
\(\frac{1}{u}\) + \(\frac{1}{v}\) = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
Answer:

Let points P, F, C be pole, focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror. Object AB is placed on the principal axis. A ray from AB incident at E and then reflected through F. Another ray of light from B incident at pole P and then reflected. These two rays meet at M. The ray of light from point B is passed through C. Draw EN perpendicular to the principal axis.
∆IMF and ∆ENF are similar.
ie, \(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{NE}}=\frac{\mathrm{IF}}{\mathrm{NF}}\) …………..(1)
but IF = PI – PF and NF = PF (since aperture is small)
hence eq. (1) can be written as
\(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{NE}}=\frac{\mathrm{PI – PF}}{\mathrm{PF}}\) ………….(2)
[∵ NE=AB]
∆ABP and ∆IMP are similar
\(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{AB}}=\frac{\mathrm{PI}}{\mathrm{PA}}\) ……….(3)
From eq.(2) and eq.(3),weget
\(\frac{\mathrm{PI – PF}}{\mathrm{PF}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{PI}}{\mathrm{PA}}\)
applying sign convention we get
PI = -v
PF = -F
PA = -u
Substituting these values in eq.(4) we get
\(\frac{-v-f}{-f}\) = \(\frac{-v}{-u}\)
\(\frac{v-f}{vf}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\)
\(\frac{1}{f}\) – \(\frac{1}{v}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\)

Question23.
(a) Define dip at a place.
Answer:
The angle between earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is called dip.

(b) Calculate the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place where the dip is 60° and the horizontal component is 0.2 × 10^-4 wb/m². (2)
Answer:
θ = 60°
B_h = 0.2 × 10^-4 wb/m²
tan θ = \(\frac{B_V}{B_H}\)
B_v = B_H tan θ
B_v = 0.2 × 10^-4 × tan 60°
= 0.2 × 10^-4 × -√3
= 0.346 × 10^-4 Wb/m²

Question 24.
(a) Write any two characteristics of equipotential surfaces.
Answer:
No work is done to move a charge from one point to another along equipotential surface.

(b) What is the shape of equipotential surface around a point charge ?
Answer:
Direction of electric field is perpendicular the equipotential surface.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27 Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
Photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons from certain metal surfaces when they are exposed to light.
(a) State any two laws of photo electric emission. (2)
Answer:
1) For a given frequency of radiation, number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
2) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the frequency of incident light but it is independent of the light intensity.
3) Photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency is below a certain value. The minimum frequency (v₀) required to produce photo electric effect is called the threshold frequency.
4) Photoelectric effect is an instantaneous phenomenon.

(b) What is meant by stopping potential ?
Answer:
The retarding potential at which photo current reaches zero is called stopping potential.

Question 26.
A nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons.
(a) Define mass defect. Write an equation for mass defect.
Answer:
The mass defect (∆m) is the difference in the mass of nucleus and total mass of constituent nucleons.
∆m = (ZM_p + (A-Z)m_n] – M

(b) The nuclear process used in nuclear reactor is ………..
Answer:
nuclear fission

Question 27.
(a) Define ionisation energy.
Answer:
Ionization energy is the minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of atom

(b) Mention any two drawbacks of Rutherford model of atom.
Answer:
i) The Bohr model is applicable to hydrogenic atoms. It cannot be extended to many elec-tron atoms such as helium.
ii) The model is unable to explain the relative intensities of the frequencies in the spectrum.
iii) Bohr model could not explain fine structure of spectral lines.
iv) Bohr theory could not give a satisfactory explanation for circular orbit.

PART – IV

A. Answer any 3 qeustions from 28 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
A capacitor is a system of two conductors separated by an insulator.
(a) Obtain an expression for the equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in Series.
Answer:
Let two capacitors C₁ and C₂ be connected in series to a potential of V. V₁ and V₂ are the potential across C₁ and C₂.

The applied voltage can be written as
V = V₁ + V₂
Charge ‘q’ is same in all capacitors.
V₁ = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\)
V₂ = \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
Substituting values in (1), we get
V = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
If C is the effective capacitance of combination.
V = \(\frac{q}{C}\)
Equation (2) can be written as
\(\frac{q}{C}\) = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
Eliminating q, we get
\(\frac{1}{C}\) = \(\frac{1}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_2}\)

(b) The potential across a 900 pF capacitor is 100 volts. How much energy is stored by the capacitor? (2)
Answer:
V = 100 V
C = 900μF = 900 × 10^-6 F
Energy stored in a capacitor,
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) CV²
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) 900 × 10^-6 × (100)² = 4.5 J

Question 29.
A moving coil galvanometer is used as a current detector in a circuit.
(a) What is the working principle of a moving coil galvanometer?
Answer:
A current carrying loop placed in magnetic field experience a torque . T=NIABsin0

(b) How can you convert a moving coil galvanometer into
(i) an ammeter
(ii) a voltmeter
Answer:
(i) A galvanometer can be converted in to ammeter by connecting a small resistance (shunt resistance) parallel to it.

(ii) A galvanometer can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in series to it.

Question 30.
An emf is induced in a coil due to the change of flux in the same coil.
(a) This phenomenon is called ………….
Answer:
Self induction

(b) Derive an expression for the energy stored in an inductor.
Answer:
When the current in the coil is switched on, a back emf (ε = -Ldt/dt) is produced. This back emf opposes the growth of current. Hence work should be done, against this e.m.f.
Let the current at any instant be ‘I’ and induced emf
E = \(\frac{-d \phi}{d t}\)
i.e., vyork done, dw = Eldt dl
= L \(\frac{d I}{d t}\)Idt
dw = LIDI
Hence the total work done (when the current grows from 0 to I₀ is)
w = \(L \int_0^{I_0} I d I\)
w = \(\frac{L}{2}\left[I^2\right]_0^{t_0},\)
w = \(\frac{1}{2} L I_0^2\)

This work is stored as potential energy.
V = \(\frac{1}{2} L I^2\)

Question 31.
A diode is used to rectify alternating voltages.
(1) Which property of diode is used here?
Answer:
A p-n junction diode conducts current when it is 4 forward biased, and does not conduct when it is reverse biased.

(2) Explain a full wave rectifier using necessary circuit diagram.
Answer:
Circuit

Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance R_L. Input a.c signal is ^ applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D₁ and D₂. The output is taken across R_L.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is fprward biased and D₂ is reverse biased. So that current flows through D, and Ru.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is reverse biased and D₂ is forward biased. So that current flows through D₂ and R_L. Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through R_L in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across RL for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 to 33. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
A transfer is used to change alternating voltage from one to another of greater or smaller value.
(a) Which principle is used in transformer ?
Answer:
Mutual Induction

(b) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 volts to a stepdown transformer with primary coil having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V ?
Answer:
N_P = 4000
V_P = 2300 V
V_S = 230 V
\(\frac{N_S}{N_P}\) = \(\frac{V_S}{V_p}\)
N_S = \(\frac{V_S}{V_p}\) × N_P
= \(\frac{230}{2300}\) × 4000 = 400

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2021

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Each Questions from 1 to 6 carries 1 scores. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 1.
Identify the pull factor of migration:
a) Water shortage
b) Unemployment
c) Educational facitities
d) Epidemics
Answer:
c) Educational facitities

Question 2.
Which among the following is a primary activity?
a) Hunting
b) Trade
c) Transport
d) Tourism
Answer:
a) Hunting

Question 3.
Which of the following streams of internal migration where male migrants dominate in India?
a) Rural-Rural
b) Rural-Urban
c) Urban-Rural
d) Urban-Urban
Answer:
b) Rural-Urban

Question 4.
A health indicator used to measure Human Development in India.
а) Rich resource base
b) Life free from illness
c) Education
d) Employment
Answer:
b) Life free from illness

Question 5.
Name the port located on the River Hugli.
a) Visakhapatnam Port
b) Chennai Port
c) Mumbai Port
d) Kolkata Port
Answer:
d) Kolkata Port

Question 6.
The target area planning sutiable for Rajasthan Desert:
a) Hill Area Development Programme
b) Command Area Development Programme
c) Drought Prone Area Development Programme
d) Tribal Area Development Programme
Answer:
c) Drought Prone Area Development Programme

Each question from 7 to 14 carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 7.
Define Human Geography.
Answer:
Human Geography is the study of the socio-cultural environment created by man through his interaction with the physical environment.

Question 8.
What is Population Pyramid?
Answer:
Population Pyramid is the graph showing the number of men and women of different ages in the population.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Public Sector Industries? Give one example.
Answer:
Public Sector Industries are those which are owned and controlled by the government, e.g. Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO).

Question 10.
Distinguish between quaternary and quinary economic activities.
Answer:
Quaternary economic activities are those services centred on research and development in the areas of gathering, production and exchange of information. These are services that need special knowledge and technical expertise, and they are fast-developing. Quinary economic activities are the activities of the decision makers and policy formulators.

Question 11.
What are Ports of Call? Give one example.
Answer:
Ports of Call are those ports along the chief ocean or sea routes. The ships passing through these routes stop at these ports for refuelling and collecting other necessities like food, water and various others things. An example is the port of Singapore.

Question 12.
List out any two factors affecting the location of rural settlements.
Answer:
Availability of water and materials for making things.

Question 13.
Define the following:
a) Conurbation
b) Megalopolis
Answer:
a) Conurbation is different towns and cities merging together and making a large city complex.
b) Megalopolis is conurbations merging into a huge urban complex with large populations.

Question 14.
Write any two problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
a) Over-dependence on the monsoons.
b) Low productivity.

Each question from 15 to 25 carries 3 scores. (11 × 3 = 33)

Question 15.
Name three components of population change.
Answer:
Birth Rate, Death Rate, Migration.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Growth and Development.
Answer:
Growth is quantitative and beyond values. It can be positive or negative. Development means favourable and positive growth. When the growth is positive, there is development.

Question 17.
‘Equity’ is one of the pillars in the idea of Human Development. Write the other major pillars.
Answer:
Apart from Equity, the other pillars of Human Development are Stability, Productivity, and Empowerment.
Stability: This refers to the availability of continuous opportunities. For stable human development, each generation should have the same amount of opportunities. Each generation should ensure opportunities for the future generations.

Productivity: Productivity refers to the making of things using human labour. By developing the talents and abilities of people, productivity must be increased. Knowledge and health-care will increase productivity.

Empowerment: Empowerment means getting the knowledge and energy to choose opportunities properly. When freedom and abilities increase, this energy is obtained. To empower people, good administration and people-centred policies are necessary. The empowerment of socially and economically backward people should be given special importance.

Question 18.
Write a short note on the characteristic features of plantation agricultrue
Answer:
In plantation agriculture, the main crops are tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, oil palm, sugar cane, banana, and pineapple. Some of the other features of plantation agriculture are:

1. Large estateS/groves
2. high capital
3. technical management
4. scientific agricultural methods
5. single crop production.

Question 19.
Write a short note on underground mining.
Answer:
When mineral ores lie buried deep below the earth’s surface, underground mining becomes necessary. In this type of mining vertical tunnels are made and through them the gathered ores are brought to the surface. For this, lifts, drilling equipment and ventilator facilities etc. are essential. Poisonous gases, fire, floods, landslides etc. can be risky factors in underground mining.

Question 20.
Write any three characteristic features of Inland water transport.
Answer:

1. Least expensive mode of transport.
2. Many possibilities for tourism.
3. Most suitable for transporting heavy goods and large numbers of travellers.
4. Causes less atmospheric pollution.

Question 21.
Define density of population. Distinguish between physiological density and agricultural density.
Answer:
Density is the proportion between the largeness of the area and the population of that area. It is calculated on the basis of how many people are there per square kilometre.
Density = Population/the area of the region.
Physiological density = Total population/net cultivated area.
Agricultural density = Total agricultural population/ net agricultural land.

Question 22.
What are Border Roads? Write its importance.
Answer:
Border roads are the roads built on the international borders. These roads play a big role in uniting the people in isolated places and to ensure their safety. Most countries have such roads to transport things to the border villages and military camps.

Question 23.
Classify the Indian towns on the basis of their evolution.
Answer:
On the basis of their evolution, the Indian cities are divided into three:
Ancient cities, Medieval cities and Modem cities. Ancient cities: These are cities with a historical background of more than 2000 years. Most of these cities developed as cultural centres. Examples are Varanasi, Patliputra and Prayag.

Medieval cities: Most of these developed as capitals of principalities and provinces. Fort cities also are also included in this category. Examples are Delhi, Hyderabad, and Agra.

Modern cities: These are cities developed in India by the British and other Europeans. Commercial port cities like Surat, Daman, Goa, British administrative centres like Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, and Industrial centres like Jamshedpur come in this category.

Question 24.
Write any three merits of rain water harvesting.
Answer:

1. Replenish ground water sources.
2. Resists reduction of water levels.
3. Prevents landslides and floods.
4. Prevents salt water seeping into the areas near seashores.

Question 25.
Write a short note on the Petroleum resources of India.
Answer:
Petroleum mining started in India in Digboi in Assam. Recently new oil deposits were discovered in the western and eastern regions of India. The main oil fields are Digboi, Naharkatia and Moran in Assam, Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Navagam, Kosamba, Lunej in Gujarat, and Mumbai High in Maharashtra. Mumbai High is an offshore oil field, 160 km away from Mumbai.

Each Questions from 26 to 35 carry 4 scores. (10 × 4 = 40)

Question 26.
Explain briefly about the pull factors of migration.
Answer:
The main pull factors of migration are better job opportunities, better life, peace and stability, security of life and property, good climate, etc. Better educational opportunities, better health care facilities, better entertainment facilities also are other pull factors.

Question 27.
Distinguish between the positive growth of population and negative growth of population.
Answer:
When the birth rate is more than the death rate in a given period, there is positive growth of population. Here the population increases. If there is a lot of migration into a country, then also, positive growth of population takes place. When the population decreases in an area in a given period there is negative growth of population. When birth rate is less than death rate, or people migrate in large to other countries, there will be negative growth of population.

Question 28.
Explain the various approaches in Human Development.
Answer:
The various approaches in Human Development are:

1. income approach
2. welfare approach
3. basic needs approach
4. capability approach

Income approach: This was the early time approach to Human Development. This approach states that the freedom an individual enjoys is reflected in his income. If the income level is higher, then it leads to higher human development.

Welfare approach: This approach looks at people as the beneficiary of all development programmes. This approach focuses on higher Government expenditure on health, education, social welfare and basic amenities. By spending more on welfare schemes it is the duty of the government to make human development possible.

Basic Needs approach: The International Labour Organisation (ILO) proposed the basic needs approach. As per this approach, six basic needs of the human needs are identified and they are: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing. These needs are stressed in this approach.

Capability approach: This approach was given by Indian economist, Dr Amartya Sen. As per capability approach, the key to increasing human development is access to resources, building human capabilities in the areas of education, and health.

Question 29.
List the features of Dairy Farming.
Answer:
Characteristic Features of Dairy Farming:

1. High breed milch animals are reared scientifically in the most modern ways.
2. It needs high capital investment.
3. Stable, cattle feed, milking machines, etc. increase the expenses.
4. More importance to breeding and the health of the animals.
5. Many workers are needed.
6. No holiday time, orvacation, asavailable in other kinds of farming.
7. Because it is market-oriented, they are located near big city and industrial centres.

Question 30.
Explain briefly the characteristic features of Nomadic Herding.
Answer:
Features of Nomadic herding:

1. An ancient means of livelihood.
2. Shepherds depend on their animals for their food, clothes, stay, and travel.
3. They move with their animals from one place to another.
4. Each group will have definite grazing areas.
5. In different areas different kinds of animals are reared. It also depends on the climate.
6. Because of definite international borders and new housing regulations, this way of living is becoming less popular.
7. This is concentrated on three areas: a) From the western shores of Africa to Mongolia, China, b) the Tundra Regions of Eurasia, c) Africa- Madagascar.

Question 31.
Write a short note on the significance of Satellite Communication.
Answer:
Significance of Satellite Communication:

1. Internet is the huge electronic chain that links people all over the world.
2. It reduces the expenses for communication and lessens the relevance of time.
3. Through satellites, long distance communication, television and radio broadcasting, and climatic forecasts have become more efficient.
4. E-mail, E-commerce, E-learning, E-governance etc. are made possible.
5. It makes the concept of global village possible.

Question 32.
What do you mean by migration? Differentiate between life time migrant and migrant by last residence.
Answer:
The moving of people from one region to live in another region, permanently or temporarily, is called migration.
If the region recorded in the census is different from ones’ region of birth, such migrants are called life time migrants.
If the region recorded in census is different from the previously recorded region, such migrants are called migrants by last residence

Question 33.
List out the differences between rural and urban settlements.
Answer:

1. Rural settlements depend on primary activities connected with the land for their livelihood.
2. Urban settlements depend more on industrial and service sectors.
   Villages give cities their food items, and raw materials. In return the cities give services to the villages in their jurisdiction.
3. In villages, the relations among people are stronger. But in cities people are always busy; they live a complex life, and their social relations will be merely official.
4. In villages, the population and its density will be less. But in cities, the population and its density will be more.

Question 34.
What are non-conventional sources of energy? Write a short note on any one of them.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy are solar, wind; energy, geothermal, tidal, and biomass. They are renewable and stable sources of energy. They are distributed everywhere in almost equal measure. They are environmental friendly, and less expensive, except for the initial cost.

Solar energy: Solar technologies convert sunlight into electrical energy either through photovoltaic (PV) panels or through mirrors that concentrate solar v radiation. This energy can be used to generate electricity or be stored in batteries or thermal storage. It is less expensive, environmental friendly and can be easily made.

Question 35.
Write a short note on Mumbai-Pune Industrial region.
Answer:
Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region: This region extends from Thane to Pune and in adjoining districts of Nasik and Sholapur. This region’s development began with the first cotton industry in Mumbai. When the Suez Canal was opened in 1869, the Mumbai port became important and this helped in the growth of this industrial region. Moreover the starting of different chemical industries, and the work of Mumbai High offshore oil fields added energy to this region.

Industries producing engineering products, oil purification, petroleum based products, hides and skins, synthetics, plastics, medicines, chemical fertilizers, electrical goods, ship-building, electronics and software industries grew up here. The main centres here are Mumbai, Colaba, Kalyan, Thane, Trombay, Pune, Nasik and Sholapur.

Each Questions from 36 to 38 carries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 36.
Describe briefly the demographic transition theory.
Answer:
Demographic transition theory can be used to explain and forecast the future population of any region. This theory points out that when a community moves from rural-agricultural-iIIerate level to urban- industrial-literate level, the population there moves from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. These changes that have been happening for ages are generally called demographic transition.

As can be seen in the picture, demographic transition is in three stages. 4 In the early stage birth rate and death rate were high. To compensate for the loss of lives due to contagious diseases and unequal distribution of food, people started producing more children. Since both the death rate and birth rate were high, the population growth was very slow.

During this stage most of the people were illiterate, and did agricultural work. Technical knowledge was very little. Longevity was less. 4 In the second stage, although in the beginningthe birth rate remained high, slowly it began to decrease. Death rate also slowly decreased. The reason was the improvement in the sanitation
and health care sectors. This difference in the birth rate and death rate resulted in the population increasing.

In the final stage, both birth and death rates reseriously reduced. In the birth rate either there is stability or very slow growth. Urbanization, high literacy, and technical knowledge made people to deliberate reduce the size of their families.

Question 37.
Explain briefly the social and economic consequences of migration.
Answer:

• Social consequences of migration:
  1. Migration works as the driving force for social change. Ideas connected with the new technology, family planning, women education etc. move from urban centres to villages.
  2. Migration brings together people of different cultures.
  3. The mental horizons of people become enlarged and their narrow thinking vanishes.
  4. The social emptiness caused by the strangeness of the place and people and boredom etc. are some of negative results of migration. These things may lead some people even to commit crimes and become alcohol and drug addicts.
• Economic Consequences of Migration:
  1. The money sent by the migrants is the main gain for the people from where the people migrate. This is big sources of foreign exchange.
  2. Just like international migration, internal migration also helps in the growth of regions.
  3. The money sent by the migrants is used for food, marriage, agriculture, and house construction by the people who remain at home.

Question 38.
Explain the classification of urban centres based on their function with suitable example.
Answer:
Based on their functions urban centres can be classified as shown below:
a) Administrative towns and cities: The more important administrative institutions are situated here. Examples: New Delhi, Bhopal.

b) Industrial cities: These are cities where industries are concentrated.
Examples are: Murnbai, Salem.

c) Transport Cities: These cities are ports or centres of internal transport.
Examples: Kochi, Agra

d) Commercial cities: They are famous for
Examples: Kolkata, Sahranpur.

e) Mining Cities: These are cities that flourish in mineral rich areas.
Examples: Raniganj, Jharia

f) Defence Cities: They are cities which developed as military centres.
Examples: Ambala, Jalandhar

g) Educational Cities: They started as educational centres or Campus cities.
Examples: Chennai, Bangalore

h) Cultural Cities: They are linked to culture and religion.
Examples: Varanasi, Mathura

i) Entertainment Cities: They cater mainly to the tourist industry.
Examples: Shimla, Mount Abu

Question 39.
Identify the following Geo-information and locate them on the given outline map of India. Each carries 1 score. (7 x 1 = 7)
a) The urban agglomeration which received the higher number of migrants.
b) The state which is the leading producer of Coffee.
c) A market based oil refinery.
d) The largest coal field.
e) The headquarter of Northern Railway Zone.
f) The most polluted tributary of the river Ganga.
g) The state which is the leading producer of Manganese.
Answer:

a) Greater Mumbai
b) Karnataka
c) Barouni
d) Jharia
e) New Delhi
t) Yamuna
g) Odisha