Plus Two

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The economist who introduced the concept of Human Development.
a) Ratzel
b) Mahbub-UI-Haq
c) Semple
d) AmartyaSen
Answer:
b) Mahbub-UI-Haq

Question 2.
The factor that makes the people leave their place of origin.
a) Flood
b) Educational facilities
c) Better job opportunities
d) Better health facilities
Answer:
a) Flood

Question 3.
An agro based industry
a) Iron and steel industry
b) Leather industry
c) Food processing
d) Paper industry
Answer:
c) Food processing

Question 4.
The pattern of rural settlement developed in regions where several roads converge:
a) Circular Pattern
b) Linear Pattern
c) Star like Pattern
d) Double Pattern
Answer:
c) Star like Pattern

Question 5.
The type of planning in which formation and imple-mentation of the schemes aimed at the development of various sectors of the economy.
a) Target area planning
b) Sectoral planning
c) Regional planning
d) Hill area development planning
Answer:
b) Sectoral planning

Question 6.
A water borne disease due to water contamination:
a) Hepatitis
b) Corona
c) Chickenpox
d) AIDS
Answer:
a) Hepatitis

Question 7.
An activity included in the Quaternary sector.
a) Transportation
b) Tourism
C) Policymaking
d) Research and Development
Answer:
d) Research and Development

Question 8.
The concept of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generations.
a) Regional development
b) Sectoral development
c) Sustainable development
d) Human development
Answer:
c) Sustainable development

Question 9.
If the value of export of a country is more than the value of imports, then the balance of Trade is
a) Positive
b) Neutral
c) Negative
d) Zero
Answer:
a) Positive

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
The factor which does not influence industrial location.
a) Market
b) Labour supply
c) Raw material
d) Soil fertility
Answer:
d) Soil fertility

Question 11.
The biogas released during the fermentation of untreated waste disposal
a) Methane
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Helium
Answer:
a) Methane

Question 12.
The report of the Rio Copference in 1993 was entitled as ……
a) Our common future
b) Agenda-21
c) Limits to growth
d) Small is beautiful
Answer:
b) Agenda-21

Question 13.
The service related to the transmission of words, messages, facts and ideas.
a) Transportation
b) Tourism
c) Communication
d) Trade
Answer:
c) Communication

Part – II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 to 17. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
Among the three indicators of Human Development one is health indicator. Identify the other two indica-tors.
Answer:
Social indicators, and Economic indicators.

Question 15.
(i) Find out the concept which reflects a middle path between environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) Who introduced this concept?
Answer:
i) Neo-determinism
ii) Griffith Taylor

Question 16.
Define the term ‘Demographic Cycle’.
Answer:
As a community changes from rural- agricultural- illiterate level to urban-industrial-literate community, its population also changes from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. The demographic cycle is used to predict the future population of a country.

Question 17.
List the four streams of internal-migration in India.
Answer:

1. Rural to Urban
2. Urban to Rural
3. Rural to Rural
4. Urban to Urban

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
Differentiate between Truck farming and Factory farming.
Answer:

• Truck Farming:
  1. Truck farming concentrates on vegetable cultivation only.
  2. It is the process by which immediately after harvesting, without losing the freshness of the vegetables, they are loaded into trucks and taken to the market.
  3. for this kind of farming, seeds with high productivity, irrigation facilities, good fertilizers and insecticides are needed.
• Factory Farming:
  1. This is the type of farming that has progressed in the industrial regions of Western Europe and America.
  2. Cattle are reared in sheds and chicken (poultry) in coops.
  3. The animals and birds are given artificial food and care is taken to prevent illnesses.
  4. The investment is high – To construct buildings, to get the necessary machinery, and making provision for warmth and light, money is needed.
  5. Veterinary service should be available all the 24 hours.
  6. Genetic manipulations and scientific cross breeding are done.

Question 19.
Name the two main fibre crops cultivated in India.
Answer:
Cotton, Jute

Question 20.
Iron and Steel industry is called a basic industry. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Iron and steel are the raw material needed for almostall industries. All industries are based on the iron and steel industry. So this industry is called Basic Industry. Because it needs huge amounts of raw materials and the products are also huge and heavy, it is also called Heavy Industry. The following are the features of this industry.

1. Raw materials – iron, steel, manganese, lime stone.
2. The availability of ores and transport facilities are important in the location factors of this4ndustry.
3. To export the products from the factories port facilities are needed.
4. Marketing facilities are important.
5. It requires heavy capital investment.

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each caries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
International trade may be categorised into two types. Identify them and mention the differences between – them.
Answer:
1) Bilateral trade
2) Multi-lateral trade

1. Bilateral Trade:
In bilateral trade two countries sign a mutual agreement.
Example: India buys computers and related instruments from Japan and Japan buys raw materials from India.

2. Multi lateral trade:
CDR = Crude Death Rate
When one country trades with many other countries, it becomes Multilateral trade. Countries that are engaged in multilateral trade-are given the status of MFN (Most Favoured Nation).

Question 22.
Identify the concept in human development which leads to better work efficiency. Write any two char-acteristics of that concept.
Answer:
Mining is the excavation of minerals and rocks. Its features:

1. Increased job opportunities.
2. Higher wages.

Question 23.
There is a strong relationship between raw material and location of industry. Comment on it.
Answer:
The availability of raw materials seriously influences the decision about the location of an industry. Factories should be built in places where raw materials are easily and cheaply available. There should be facilities for the easy transport of raw materials from their sources to the factories. Factories that use raw materials which are cheap, large in size and which lose weight because of delay (factories manufacturing steel, sugar, cement, etc.) should be close to the sources Where the raw materials like iron ore, sugar cane and limestones are available.

1. A main reason for establishing factories close to the sources of the raw materials is the possibility of the raw materials getting spoiled by long transport.
2. Factories manufacturing agricultural and milk products should be close to the sources where agricultural products and milk are easily available.

Question 24.
List the advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. Transport that is less expensive.
2. Environmental friendly.
3. There is less pollution.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
Define the follovving terms:
(i) Crude Birth Rate
(ii) Crude Death Rate
(iii) Migration
Answer:
1) Crude Birth Rate:
CBR is the rate showing how many births take place in 1000 persons in the population of a given place. Thp formula for calculating CBR is:
CBR = \(\frac{B i}{P}\) x 100 P
CBR = Crude Birth Rate
Bi = the number of babies born that year
P = Half yearly population.

2) Crude Death Rate
CDR is the rate showing how many deaths take place in 1000 persons in the population of a given place. The formula for calculating CDR is:
CDR = \(\frac{D}{P}\) 100
CDR = Crude Death Rate
D = the number of deaths
P = Half yearly population.

3) Migration
Moving from one region to live in another region is called migration. As the result of migration, the population of one region increases and the population of the other region decreases.

Question 26.
How do the rain-water harvesting techniques help in conserving water resources in India?
Answer:
Rain harvesting is the colleting of rain water for different future uses. The rain water is collected, filtered and then directed to tanks, wells, ponds or tube wells. It helps in raising the underground water levels.
Advantages:

1. Less expensive
2. Environmental friendly
3. Helps in raising the underground water levels
4. Prevents soil erosion
5. Prevents floods
6. It prevents salt water from seeping into the regions close the sea
7. Availability of water is ensured even during summer
8. Helps in solving the problem of increased needs of water.

Question 27.
List any three problems of rural settlements in the developing countries.
Answer:

1. Basic ameriities are less.
2. Increased unemployment
3. Poverty

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 28 to 31. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
What are the advantages of Non Conventional Energy Sources?
Answer:

1. Renewable
2. Environmental friendly and suitable
3. Free from pollution
4. Available in plenty
5. Less expensive

Question 29.
Mention the economic importances of Rhine Water way.
Answer:
The Rhine River flows through Germany and the Netherlands. 700 km of its length is suitable for transport. Even big ships can travel there.
1. The Ruhr River joins with the Rhine River and it flows through coal rich regions.

2. There is no wonder that these river basins have become a huge productive sector with coal-related industries.

3. The Dusseldorf port is situated here.

4. This is the busiest water way in the world. Each year more than 20,000 ships and more than 200,000 inland boats travel along this waterway. It is this waterway that links Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and Netherlands with the Atlantic Sea-Route.

Question 30.
The dependence on erratic monsoon is a major problem faced by Indian agriculture, Write a note on it.
Answer:
In India there are irrigation facilities only in 33% of the total agricultural land. The remaining 67% of the agricultural land depends on the monsoons. If the south-west monsoons come early or get delayed, the plans of the farmers will be completely upset. If the monsoon rains are more, they cause floods and if they are less, they cause droughts.

Question 31.
Prepare a brief note on the geographical factors that influence the distribution of population.
Answer:
Geographical Factors
a. Availability of water
b. Nature of the land.
c. Climate
d. Soil

a. Availability of Water:
People like to stay in places where water is easily available in large quantities. Water is inevitable for all human endeavours like agriculture, irrigation, industry, transport, tourism, generation of electricity and so on. that is why all river basins are crowded.

b. Nature of the land:
People like to live in places that are flat or with slight slopes. Such places are more suitable for agriculture, making roads, build factories and residences.

c. Climate:
In the places which are too cold, too hot, or where there is too much rainfall, the density of population will be less. It is not easy for man to live such places with harsh climatic conditions.

d. Soiil
Fertile soil is essential for agriculture and related works. Soil that is fertile mixed with clay, sand and organic elements is the most suitable for agriculture.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 and 33. Caries 4 scores. . (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
Complete the table by identifying right answers from the given indicators. (New Delhi, Jamshedpur, Satna, Jharia, Ambala, Roorki, Tirupati)

Educational town	Industrial Town	Administrative Town	Minina Town
_____A_____	_____B_____	_____C_____	_____D_____

Answer:

Educational town	Industrial Town	Administrative Town	Minina Town
Roorki	Jamshedpur	Nwe Delhi	Jharia

Question 33.
What are the significances of sex ratio in representing the status of women in a country?
Answer:
Sex ratio shows the number of women for 1000 men. In India, the number of women has been less than that of men for years. Therefore the sex ratio in India is negative. The social and economic standing of women of a country can be determined according to the sex ratio. Where female foeticide, female infanticide and atrocities against women are rampant the discrimination between man and woman will be more.

Part – V

A. Answer any 2 questions from 34 to 36. Each caries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
There are four distinct phases of population growth identified in India over last one century. Prepare a note on the characteristics of the two phases extending between 1921 and 1981.
Answer:
The two phases between 1921 and 1981 are the following:
1. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
2. Population Explosion Phase (951-1981)

1. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921 – 1951):
This is the 2nd phase where the population growth was steady. As health care facilities became easily available, death rate was reduced. The development of communication and transport facilities and the special attention of the government helped the public distribution system to become better. Although the economic depression of the 1920s and the Second World War adversely affected this second phase of population growth, it was steady in this phase.

2. Population Explosion Phase (1951 -1981):
The 3rd phase was the period of population explosion in India. In this phase the death rate was drastically reduced and the birth rate drastically increased. The annual growth reached 2.2% in this phase

Question 35.
Explain Mining as a primary activity.
Points must include
• Factors affecting mining
• Methods of mining
• Economic importance
Answer:
The factors that affect the profitability of mining activities are categorised into two.
1. Physical factors:
The size of minerals, their grade, the conditions in which they are found.

2. Economic factors:
The demand for the ores, the technical facilities and expertise available for the mining, the financial capacity for developing basic amenities, labourers, expenses for transport. Depending on the nature of ores and the situation in which they are found, mining activities can be divided into Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining) and Underground Mining (Open Shaft Methods).

A. Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining):

1. Ores are close the surface of the earth.
2. This is the easiest way of mining.
3. Less expensive.
4. Less risky.
5. Profitable

B. Underground Minina (Open Shaft Methods):

1. The ores or minerals are far below the earth’s surface.
2. There is high risk. (Poisonous gases, floods, landslides, formation of caves, flames of fire, etc.)
3. This is very expensive.

Question 36.
Identify the following geo infomation and locate them on the given Outline map of India. (6 × 1 = 6)
(A) The port situated in Goa.
(B) The largest coal field In India.
(C) The industrial region where major concentration of jute mills are found.
(D) The northern most metro city in India which is connected by Golden Quadrilateral.
(E) The iron and steel plant initially known as Mysore iron and steel works.
(F) The port situated in Mahanadi delta.
Answer:
(A) Mormugaoport
(B) Jharia
(C) Hugli Industrial Region
(D) Delhi
(E) Visvesaraya Iron and Steel Works Ltd.
(F) Paradip port

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Section – A

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 1.
Indian towns are classified into three types on the basis of evolution.
Answer:

1. Ancient Cities: Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Patliputra (Patna), Mathura.
2. Mediaeval Cities: Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Nagpur.2
3. Modern Cities: Bombay (Mumbai), Madras (Chennai), Kolkata, Goa.

Question 2.
Identify the two types of water transport.
Answer:
i) Inland Waterways.
ii) Sea Routes.

Question 3.
List out the consequences of air pollution.
Answer:

1. Air pollution is harmful to the health of the people. It causes diseases like asthma, bronchitis, allergy, lung cancer, etc.
2. Atmospheric pollution creates misty smoke above cities. This is called urban smog. It has been proved beyond doubt that smog is harmful to the health of people.
3. Air pollution causes acid rain. Acid rain brings about risky problems to the health of man and atmosphere.
4. The World Health Organization points out that the greatest killer in South East Asia is air pollution.

Question 4.
State the importance of internet as a com-munication system.
Answer:
It is in the urban areas the internet is used widely. Nowadays it is common to find the use of the internet even in the villages. E-mail, e-commerce and e-banking have become very widespread these days. Through e-mail the user can establish visible contact with others. The growth that has taken place in e- commerce in recent times is mind-boggling. E-banking helps the user to do banking activities sitting right in his home.

The internet is a treasure house of knowledge. It has collected detailed information regarding various subjects and we can easily access it. The Internet enables us to get information least expensively, and in quick time in an easy way. Not only that, it provides the basic facilities to establish visible communicative relations.

Question 5.
State the importance of availability of labour as a factor influencing industrial location.
Answer:
Any industry needs workers. Without workers industries cannot function. Industries are usually established in places where skilled and unskilled workers are easily available at low costs. Since India has a sufficiently large population, workers are available in large numbers. But skilled workers may not be available in sufficient numbers everywhere. Therefore it becomes necessary to start such industries where skilled workers are available. For example the diamond industry is concentrated in Surat because of the availability of skilled workers. Existing industries are sometimes moved to places where cheap labour is available.

Question 6.
Identify the role of Entrepot ports in Interna- tionai trade. Write two examples for entrepot ports.
Answer:
Entrepots are ports where goods brought from different countries are collected and kept for exporting to other countries. Examples: Singapore, Rotterdam, Copenhagen.

Question 7.
Write a note on Truck Farming.
Answer:
In some areas farmers concentrate only on producing vegetables. Such farming is called truck farming. Between the truck farm and the market the distance should be such that a truck can reach the market in one night. That is why this kind of farming is called truck farming.

Question 8.
What is crude birth rate? How is it calculated?
Answer:
The death rate also plays a big role in the population change. It is not only when the birth rate is high that the population growth occurs, but also when the birth rate is low. Death rate is calculated by using the simple method of Crude Death Rate (CDR). CDR means in the population of a pface how many persons die for each 1000 persons. This is how it is calculated:
\(\frac{\text { The total Deaths in a year }(\mathrm{D})=\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\text { Mid Year population }(\mathrm{P})}\)
DDR = \(\frac{\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\mathrm{P}}\)

Question 9.
What is Bilateral trade?
Answer:
Bilateral trade is the trade between two countries. This is a system in which two countries enter into a trade agreement and mutually trade some special products.
For example India enters into an agreement with Japan, to buy Indian made goods and Japan enters an agreement with India to sell Japanese raw materials.

Question 10.
Define population density. Write the equation used to calculate the population density.
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a square kilometre in a particular area. There is a limit to the number of people an area can contain. Therefore there is a need to know the ratio between the number of people and area of the land. This ratio is the density of population. The equation for the population density is:
Population Density = \(\frac{\text { Number of People }}{\text { Land Area }}\)
For example let us imagine the place called Bepur is 100 sq.km in area and its population is 150,000. The density of population there is 1500 persons per sq.km.

Section – B

Answer any 8 questions from 11 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 11.
List out the benefits of Integrated Tribal Development Project.(ITDP).
Answer:
The Integrated Tribal Development Programme (ITDP) is being implemented under the Tribal Sub-Plan since the fifth five- year plan. The main objective of the programme is to reduce poverty, improve the educational status and eliminating the exploitation of tribal families. Currently, there are 192 projects in 19 states and union territories. Bharmaur is a tribal area. The region has harsh climatic conditions, low resource base and a very fragile environment. It is one of the most economically and socially backward regions of Himachal Pradesh.

The area is geographically and politically isolated and it has social and economical deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities like sheep and goat rearing. Because of ITDP, the development and establishment of schools, health care facilities, hospitals, potable water, roads, communications and electricity were largely observed in the region. The literacy rate increased. The male-female ratio became better. There were less child marriages. Literacy rate of women increased in a big way. Now they cultivate different crops including cash crops. However they are still using traditional methods in their cultivation.

Question 12.
Elaborate the following:
1. Isochrone
2. Time Distance
3. Cost Distance
Answer:
1. Isochrone: Iso means equal and chrone means time. We choose a means of transport thinking of the distance, time and expense. An isoerhone is a line drawn on a map connecting points at which something arrives at the same time. To join places that can be reached in the same amount of time, lines with same colour are used on the maps.

2. Time Distance: The actual time used to travel in a particular route.

3. Cost distance: The actual expenses incurred to travel in a route.

Question 13.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of a society.
Answer:
Technology is developed after carefully studying about natural laws. After finding ways to control fire, which was a prehistoric invention, and the later Stone Age Revolution increased the sources of food. The invention of the wheel helped man to travel on the earth and to exercise some control over it. Many developments in history like the invention of the printing press, telephone and the Internet reduced the physical obstacles in communication and allowed man to conduct his activities on a global basis. Technology has many benefits.

Including today’s global markets, technology has made extensive development in the economic field. Some technological innovations have caused unnecessary and dangerous by-products. Pollution, environmental degradation, depletion of natural resources, etc. are some such unwanted side effects of technology. Moreover technology often influences the values of the society and raises new moral questions. Until recently it was believed that technological development is limited to people and their affairs. But scientific studies carried out in the 21st century show that even some other species and some dolphin communities develop simple tools and transfer their knowledge to the next generations.

Question 14.
Write any six important characteristic features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
Large capital investment, cheap labour, scientific methods of cultivation, large estates or plantations, managerial and technical support, single crop specialisation, and a good system of transportation etc. are some of the salient features of plantation agriculture.

Question 15.
List out the challenges faced by adolescents in India.
Answer:
Competent youths are a great asset to the nation. But if the youths are not properly guided they will go astray and then they will become a threat to the society. Early marriage among youths, illiteracy, drop-out from schools, lack of nutritious food, death of teenage mothers in childbirth, HIV/AIDS, physical and mental deficiencies, use of psychedelic drugs, alcoholism, criminal tendencies etc. are some of the challenges towards society.

Question 16.
Efficient use of water is necessary to ensure sustainable development. Suggest a fewways for the Reuse of water.
Answer:
Another way to improve the availability of pure water is recycling and reusing of water. This is the process of reusing the water which has been used once by purifying it or using that water for some other purposes.

The water that is not potable can be used in industries for cooling or, to extinguish fires. Water can economically used by doing this. In the urban areas, the water used for taking bath and cleaning plates and utensils can be again used for watering the garden. The water used for washing vehicles can also be used for watering the garden. This way pure water can be reserved for drinking purposes.

Question 17.
What is Transhumance? Identify the tribal groups engaged in Transhumance.
Answer:
Depending on the climatic changes, the people of some regions move to other regions along with their domestic animals. In the summer season, they move their animals from the plains to the meadows in the hilly regions. But in the winter, they bring them back to the plains. This kind of migration according to seasonal changes is called Transhumance. Gujars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Changpas are the tribafgroups engaged in transhumance.

Question 18.
State the importance of the Northern Atlantic Sea Route.
Answer:
Two Regions in the world that have achieved industrial development are North-Eastern America and North-Western Europe. These regions are connected by the North Atlantic sea route. This sea route has much economic importance. The highest amount of foreign trade takes place along this sea route. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade takes place through this path. As the busiest sea route in the world this is called the Big Trunk Route.

Question 19.
What are the characteristics of fourth phase (post 1981 till present) of population growth of India?
Answer:
The period from 1981 to the present day is the 4th stage of population growth. During this period there was the tendency of gradual decline in the population growth. Although the number of people increased, the rate of population growth was reduced.

The main reason for this is the lower birth rate. The increase in the marriage-able age and the increase in women education helped in reducing the birth rate. Even then the country’s rate of population increase is high. The Wold Development Report points out that by 2025, India’s population is expected to reach 135 crore.

Question 20.
Write a short note on Retail Trading.
Answer:
Retail Trading is the selling of products to the consumers directly. Retail trading is done through permanent shops or stores. Some trading also takes place outside stores. Street vendors, people selling goods in push carts, people selling things from trucks, people who sell things door to door, trading by giving orders via the rail, the telephone and the internet are examples’ of retail trading not done through stores.

Section – C

Aswer any 5 questions from 21 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 21.
Briefly describe the pillars of Human devel-opment.
Answer:
The four main pillars of Human Development are:
a) equity,
b) sustainability,
c) productivity,
d) empowerment.

a) Equity: Equity refers to creating equal access to opportunities and ensures that is available to everybody. The opportunities accessible to people must be equal irrespective of their caste, gender, race, and income. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.

b)Sustainability: Sustainability means durableness in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the expectations of people not only of the present but also of the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

c) Productivity : In the case of human development, productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity should be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Eventually, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, an effort to increase their knowledge, and providing better health facilities automatically lead to better work efficiency.

d) Empowerment: Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and aptitude. Good governance and people-oriented policies are necessary to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically underprivileged groups is of special importance.

Question 22.
Describe the features of High Technology Industry.
Answer:
In high technology industry, the majority of workers have acquired technical expertise (White- Collar workers). Their number will be more than the labourers who actually do the production work. The use of robots, design by computers, production and quality control by electronic control, new developments in the chemical-pharmaceutical products are some of the features High Technology Industry.

Question 23.
Describe the following with suitable ex-amples:
(a) Administrative Towns and Cities
(b) Industrial Towns
(c) Transport Cities
(d) Mining Towns
Answer:
a) Administrative Towns and Cities:
Administrative Towns and Cities are places from which administration is done. Capital cities and district headquarters come under this category. Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, etc. are examples of administrative towns and cities.

b) Industrial Towns: These are towns that give importance to industries. Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Hugli etc. are important industries cities and towns of India. Industry is the life-breath of these cities.

c) Transport Cities: Ports that are engaged in exports and imports and transport cities. Internal transport hubs like Kandla, Kochi, Kozhikode, Visakhapatanam, etc. also come under this category. Agra, Dulia, Mughalsarai, Itarsi, Katni etc. are some of the transport cities.

d) Mining Towns: In’the regions which are rich in mineral wealth and other deposits, mining towns grow up. Raniganj, Jharia, Digboy, Ankaleshwar, Singroli, etc. are examples of mining towns.

Question 24.
Describe any two cropping seasons in India.
Answer:
Two important cropping seasons in India are Kharif and Rabi. The Kharif cropping season starts with the onset of the South-Western monsoons. The harvest is by the end of the monsoons. This season is roughly between June and September. The main Kharif crops are paddy, cotton, jute, maize, bajra, jowar and groundnuts.

The Rabi cropping season starts at the beginning of the Winter season in October- November. The harvest is done in the months – of March April. The reduced temperature of this period is very helpful for the Rabi crops. Wheat, Barley, Oats, Pulses, Mustard and Linseed are the main Rabi crops.

Question 25.
Availability of water influences the distribution of population. Explain any two other geo¬graphical factors influencing population distribution.
Answer:
a) Climate: Climates with extreme cold and extreme heat are not suitable for human habitation. Therefore in scorching deserts, and in the cold regions the population is very little. People don’t like to live in places which have too much rainfall. People are attracted to places where the climate is good, the moderate regions. The Mediterranean regions always had big populations. The reason for that is the pleasant climate there, b) Soil: The fertility of the soil is very important when it comes to agriculture and other related matters. As fertile soils yield good harvests, people like to live in such regions.

Question 26.
Write a note on ‘the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:
Over-exploitation of mineral resource is equally harmful to man and the environment. So, the mineral resources are to be protected at any cost. Sustainable development is the development which gives due consideration to the protection of nature. The traditional ways of using mineral resources are not at all good. They not only overexploit nature, but they also produce a lot of waste polluting everything. Sustainable development demands that the mineral resources should be preserved for the use of future generations. Preserving those resources is an urgent need. Steps should be taken to do that with a sense of priority.

The energy from sunrays, wind and waves, thermal energy, organic energy etc. are never ending. Instead of using the minerals that can be exhausted, we should use the inexhaustible sources for our energy needs.” In short we should develop non-traditional sources of energy. We also should learn to use easily available metals instead of the rare ones. This will reduce the use of rare metals and thus the rare metals can be made to last long.

We should stop exporting minerals that are rare and strategically important. The available metals then can be used for a long time. In short to protect the mineral wealth we should stop their over-exploitation and overuse. Along with that we must develop alternate sources of energy instead of depending on the traditional sources.

Question 27.
Identify and mark the following geoinformation on the given outline map of India.
(a) The Northern most International Airport in India.
(b) The largest container port in India.
(c) An oil refinery in Kerala.
(d) The oil field off the coast of Mumbai.
Answer:
a) Srinagar/Amritsar
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Nhava Sheva
c) Kochi
d) Mumbai High

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time is….
Answer:
Population growth

Question 2.
The oldest approach to human development is
Answer:
Income approach

Question 3.
The type of mining in which the output is both large and rapid is
Surface Mining/Open-cast mining

Question 4.
The theory used to describe and predict the future population of any area is
Answer:
Demographic Transition Theory

Question 5.
The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is termed as
Answer:
Environmental Determinism.

Answer any 8 questions from 6 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 6.
There are several problems faced by Indian agriculture. Two of them are mentioned below. Cite the other ones.
(a) Dependence on erratic monsoon
(b) Low productivity
Answer:

1. Constraints of Financial Resources and indebtedness
2. Lack of Land Reforms
3. Small farm size and fragmentation of landholdings
4. Lack of Commercialisation
5. Vast under-employment
6. Degradation of cultivable Land

Question 7.
Complete the flow chart showing different types of farming.

Answer:
Types of Farming
(a) Irrigated Farming
(c) Protective Farming
(e) Dryland Farming
(f) Wetland Farming

Question 8.
Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got significance because of enormous growth in the quantity of wastes generated from various sources. Name the two sources of solid wastes.
Answer:

1. Household or domestic establishments
2. Industrial or commercial establishments

Question 9.
State any two advantages of non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:
These are the only renewable sources of energy:

1. These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environment friendly.
2. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of. Egs.: Solar, wind, wave, Biogas etc.,

Question 10.
International trade is the exchange of goods and services among countries across national boundaries. Identify and explain the two types of international trade.
Answer:
Types of International Trade

• Bilateral Trade
  1. It is done by two countries with each other
  2. They enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.
• Multilateral Trade:
  1. It is conducted with many trading countries
  2. The same country can trade with a number of other countries

Question 11.
Prepare a brief note on transhumance.
Answer:
Trnashumance

1. The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.
2. Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. Eg: Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas in Himalayas.

Question 12.
Write any two characteristics of slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:

1. The vegetation is cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
2. The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes
3. After the soil loses its fertility (3-5 Yrs), the farmer shifts to other parts
4. Widely practiced by many tribes in the tropics in Africa south and central America and South East Asia

Different Names of Shifting Cultivation

1. Jhumming : North Eastern States of India
2. Milpa : CentralAmerica and Mexico
3. Laclang : Indonesia and Malaysia

Question 13.
The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports.
(i) Identify the two types of ports based on the location.
(ii) Write any one example of each.
Answer:
i) Inland Ports and Out Ports
ii) Examples: Inland Ports, Manchester, Memphis, Kolkata
Examples: Outports, Athens and its outport, Piraeus

Question 14.
List out any four factors that influence the location of industries.
Answer:

1. Access to Market
2. Access to Raw Material
3. Access to Raw Labour Supply
4. Access to Sources of Energy
5. Access to Transportation and Communi-cation Facilities
6. Government Policy
7. Access to Agglomeration economies / links between industries.

Question 15.
Identify the following:
(i) The concept reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) Name the propounder of the concept.
Answer:
(i) Neodeterminism or stop and go determinism
(ii) Griffith Taylor

Answer any 8 questions from 16 to 26. Each caries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 16.
On the basis of evolution in different periods, Indian towns are classified into three. Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Question 17.
Define the terms given below:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
(b) Place of Origin %
(c) Population density
Answer:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
The number of live births in a year 1,000 of population.
CBR = \(\frac{\mathrm{Bi}}{\mathrm{P}}\) x l000

(b) Place of Origin
When people move from one place to an¬other, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin.

(c) Population density
The ratio between the numbers of people and the size of land.
It is usually measured in persons per sq.km.
Density of population = \(\frac{\text { Population }}{\text { Area }}\)

Question 18.
In order to arrest the regional and social disparities in development, the planning commission introduced target area and target group approaches to planning. Find the example of programmes implemented in India by using the given hint.

Answer:

Question 19.
List out the four pillars of human development and explain any one of them in detail.
Answer:
1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
4. Empowerment.

1. Equity : To making equal access to opportunities available to everybody, irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste.
2. Sustainability :It means continuity in the availability of opportunities.
3. Productivity : It means human labour Productivity or Productivity in terms of human work.
4. Empowerment :  It means to have the power to make choices.

Question 20.
Write any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements.
Answer:

• Rural Settlement
  1. People are engaged in primary economic activities.
  2. Rural People are less mobile
  3. Social relations among them are intimate
  4. People provides food and raw materials to the Urban area.
• Urban Settlement
  1. Depend on processing of raw materials, manufacturing of finished goods and a variety of services.
  2. Life is complex and fast
  3. Social relations are formal
  4. Provides goods and services not only to the Urban dwellers but to the people of rural area.

Question 21.
The names of transcontinental railways are given I Column. A. Match the items in column B and C with A.
(A) (B) (C)
Answer:

(A)	(B)	(C)
Trans-continental Railways	Connecting Areas	Countries
Union and pacific Railway	New York San Francisco	USA
Trans Canadian Railway	Halifax Vancouver	Canada
Trans Siberian Railway	St. Petersburg Vladivostok	Russia

Question 22.
List out any three measures for the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:

1. To use alternate energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, Geothermal energy etc.
2. Use of Scrap Metals
3. Use of substitutes of scrap metals
4. Export of Strategic and Scarce minerals must be reduced.

Question 23.
Hunting and gathering are the oldest economic activity known. Mention the characteristics of this economic activity.
Answer:

1. Practiced by people located in very cold and extremely hot climate.
2. This activity requires a small amount of capital investment.
3. Operates at very low level of technology
4. The yield per person is very law and little or no surplus is produced.

Question 24.
Identify the shipping canal depicted in the given map and discuss its features.

Answer:
Suez canal

1. Constructed in 1869 in Egypt
2. Constructed between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south
3. Links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red sea.
4. Length-160 km Depth -11 to 15 m
5. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.

Question 25.
Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. Suggest any three methods for rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

1. Harvesting through watershed management.
2. Harvesting through lakes
3. Harvesting through Service Wells
4. Harvesting through Recharge wells.

Question 26.
Transport distance can be measured in three ways. Explain them in brief.
Answer:
a) K.M. distance : actual distance of route length
b) time distance : The time taken to travel on a particular route. 1
c) Cost distance : actual cost/ expense needed for travel in one route.

Answer any 4 questions from 27 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 27.
The population of world is unevenly distributed. Discuss the various geographical factors that contribute for the differences in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Geographical Factors.

• Availability of water :
  1. It is most important factor for life
  2. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is available.
  3. Water is used for domestic, industrial and navigation purposes.
  4. River’valleys are the most densely populated areas of the world.
• Landforms:
  1. People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
  2. Such areas are favourable forthe production of crops and to build roads and industries.
  3. The Ganga plains are the most densely populated areas of the world while Himalayas are scarcely populated.
• Climate:
  1. An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts are uncomfortable for human habitation.
     Areas with a comfortable climate, attract more people.
• Soils:
  1. Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities.
  2. The areas with fertile loamy soils have more people living in them as these can support intensive agriculture.

Question 28.
Mention the advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. It is the cheapest means of transport.
2. Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material
3. It does not require route construction.
4. It is a fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
5. The energy cost of water transportation is tower.
6. The Water transport is of 2 types inland waterways and oceanic waterways.

Question 29.
India’s population growth during the last century can be classified into four phases. Complete the table using the given details.

Demographic Transition Phases	Characteristics
Phase – 1	(a) 1901 – 1921 (b) (c)
Phase – 2	(a) (b) Period of steady population growth (c)
Phase – 3	(a) (b) (c) High natural growth of population
Phase – 4	(a) (b) Growth rate remained high and started slow down gradually (c)

Answer:

• Phase 1
  1. Period of Stagnant / Stationary phase
  2. Growth rate was very low.
  3. Both the birth and death rates were very high
  4. Recorded a a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
• Phase 2
  1. 1921-1951
  2. CBR remained high
  3. High birth rate and low death rate.
• Phase 3
  1. 1951-81
  2. Period of population explosion
  3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.
• Phase 4
  1. 1981-till present
  2. A downward trand of CBR
  3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.

Question 30.
Identify any four types of industries based on raw materials used and write any one example of each.
Answer:
Industries based on Rawmaterials / inputs

1. Agro based Industries : Eg : Food processing, Sugar, Textiles, Spices, Rubber beverages etc.,
2. Mineral Based Industries : Eg : Iron and steel industry, Jewellery, cement, Pottery Industries etc.
3. Chemical Based Industries : Eg : Petro – Chemical Industry, Synthetifibre, Plastic etc.,
4. Forest Based Industries : Eg : Furniture industry Paper, lac industries.
5. Animal Based Industries : Eg – Leather Industry Ivory Products Wollen textiles.

Question 31.
Identify and mark the following geo information on the given outline map of India :
(a) The state which records the highest population density according to 2011 census.
(b) The leading manganese producing state.
(c) The largest container port in India.
(d) A land locked harbour in India.
Answer:
a) Bihar
b) Odisha
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Port/Nhava Sheva Port
d) Visakhapatnam

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
“Macro Economics” emerged as a separate branch of Economics after the publication of the book
a) Wealth of Nations
b) Principles of Economics
c) The General Theory
d) Nature and significance of Economic Science
Answer:
c) The General Theory

Question 2.
GNP-Depreciation is
a) NNP
b) NDP
c) Gross Value Added
d) National Income
Answer:
a) NNP

Question 3.
The demand curve of normal goods shifts rightward, when
a) Income increases
b) Population increases
c) Taste and preference increases
d) All of the above
Answer:
d) All of the above

Question 4.
Cost per unit of the output is
a) Variable cost
b) Marginal cost
c) Average cost
d) Fixed cost
Answer:
c) Average cost

Question 5.
‘Market price’ implies
a) Factor Cost – Depreciation
b) Factor Cost + Net Indirect Tax
c) Factor Cost + Depreciation
d) Factor Cost – Net Indirect Tax
Answer:
b) Factor Cost + Net Indirect Tax

Question 6.
Point on the supply curve at which firm earns only normal profit is
a) Break-even point
b) Shutdown point
c) Both(a) & (b)
d) None of the above
Answer:
a) Break-even point

Question 7.
If the Cash Reserve Ratio is 10%, the value of money multiplier will be
a) 2.5
b) 7.5
c) 10
d) 5
Answer:
c) 10

Question 8.
Money is
a) A medium of exchange
b) A unit of account
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) None
Answer:
c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 9.
Slope of the Indifference curve
a) Marginal Rate of Substitution
b) Marginal Opportunity Cost
c) \(\frac{-P_1}{P_2}\)
d) None
Answer:
a) Marginal Rate of Substitution

Question 10.
Difference between value of export and import is
a) Balance of Payment
b) Balance of Trade
c) Current Account Surplus
d) Capital Account Surplus
Answer:
b) Balance of Trade

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
Define production possibility curve. Name the slope of the PPC.
Answer:
The Production Possibility Curve (PPC) is a graphical representation of all possible combinations of two goods or services that can be produced in an economy with a given level of resources and technology. It is also known as the production possibility frontier (PPF). The shape of PPC is concave to the origin.
Slope = Marginal Opportunity cost.

Question 12.
State how the following factors affect the supply curve of a firm:
a) Technological Progress
b) A rise in input price
Answer:
a) rightward shift
b) Leftward shift

Question 13.
Name the four major Macro Economic Sectors in an economy.
Answer:
Household, firms, govt sector, external sector are the major sector of an economy.

Question 14.
Distinguish between ’Stock’ and ‘Flow’ variables, with one example each.
Answer:
Stock is measured at a point in time, e.g., wealth, capital, etc.
Flow is measured over a period of time. E.g., income, speed, etc.

Question 15.
Define ’budget’. State any two objectives of the budget.
Answer:
Budget is the annual financial statement of a government related to its receipts and expenditures.

Objectives of the budget –

1. Allocation function. (Related to the provision of public and merit good)
2. Redistribution function. (Taxes are distributed to poor section from rich)
3. Stabilisation function (Govt, stabilise the booms and depression in the economy)

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 16.
Match column A with B & C.

A	B	C
Micro Economics	Pricing of a Firm	Desirability of a Mechanism
Macro Economics	What ought to be	Salary of a worker
Normative Economics	Inflation	Per capita income

Answer:

A	B	C
Micro Economics	Pricing of a Firm	Salary of a worker
Macro Economics	Inflation	Per capita income
Normative Economics	What ought to be	Desirability of a Mechanism

Question 17.
(a) Name the term used to denote the power of the commodity to satisfy wants. (1)
(b) Write any two features of it. (2)
Answer:
a) Utility

b)

• It can be measured numerically called as a cardinal utility.
• It can be ranked or compared known as ordinal utility.

Question 18.
(a) Differentiate between AR & MR. (2)
(b) Prove that AR = P (1)
Answer:
a) AR = revenue per unit of output sold;
AR = TR/q:
MR = a ratio of change in total revenue to a unit change in output sold;
MR = Δ TR/Δ q

b) Average Revenue (AR) is defined as total revenue (TR) divided by the quantity sold (Q):
AR = TR/Q
Price (P) is defined as the amount of money paid by the buyer to the seller for each unit of a good or service:
P = Total Revenue / Quantity [TR/Q]
Since total revenue (TR) is equal to price (P) multiplied by quantity (Q), we have: TR = P × Q
Now, we substitute TR = P × Q into the formula for AR:
AR = TR /Q
AR = P × Q / Q
Cancelling out Q from the numerator and denominator,
we get:
AR = P

Question 19.
Draw the diagram showing circular flow in a two sector model.
Answer:

Question 20.
(a) What is consumption function? (1)
(b) From the following equation of consumption function, identify \(\bar{C}\) & c :(2)
C = \(\bar{C}\) + cY
Answer:
a) consumption function shows the relationship between consumption and income.
b) \(\bar{C}\) = autonomous consumption c = mpc

Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 21.
A consumer bought 5 kg of onion at a price of ₹ 30/kg. But, when the price increased to ₹ 40, he bought only 2 kg.
a) Calculate the price elasticity of demand. (2)
b) Name any two factors affecting elasticity of demand for a good. (2)
Answer:
A) ed = (Δ q/Δ p) × ( p/q)
\(\frac{3}{10}\) × \(\frac{30}{5}\) = \(\frac{90}{50}\) = 1.8

B) nature of goods, availability of substitutes, income, etc..

Question 22.
Write any four short run costs with equations.
Answer:

• TC = TFC + TVC
• TFC = TC – TVC
• TVC = TC – TFC
• AFC = TFC/q
• AVC = TVC/q
• SAC = TC/q or AFC + AVC
• SMC = Δ TC/Δ q or Tcn-Tcn-1

Question 23.
Elucidate the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
Features of perfect competition market:

• Large number of buyers and sellers.
• Homogeneous products.
• Firm is ‘price taker’.
• Perfect knowledge of buyers and sellers about market conditions.
• Freedom of entry and exit of firms.

Question 24.
(a) Find the equilibrium income from the following information:
Autonomous expenditure (\(\bar{A}\)) = 90 crores; MPC = 80%
(b) How the equilibrium income is determined in an economy? Explain with diagram.
Answer:
a) Y = \(\bar{A}\) / (1 – c)
1 – c = 1 – 0.8 = .2
= \(\frac{90}{2} \)= 450

OR

Determination of Equilibrium Level of Income: The equilibrium level of income in an economy is determined by the aggregate demand and aggregate supply. The equilibrium level of income is based on income, and employment is provided in the chart.

In the above chart, income and employment are indicated on the X axis and consumption and investment on the Y axis. Aggregate Demand (AD) is indicated with the straight line curve C+l. It is the sum total of consumption expenditure and investment expenditure. The 450 line Y passes through point O, showing the aggregate supply. Here, Y equals C+S. The point at which AD equals AS at point E is called effective demand. At this point, the income and expenditure of the entrepreneurs become equal.

Question 25.
(a) Distinguish between revenue receipts and capital receipts. (2)
(b) Write two examples each for revenue and capital receipts. (2)
Answer:
A) Revenue receipts: Receipts that neither create liability nor create assets to the government. They are non-redeemable receipts. Such receipts include Tax revenue and Non-Tax revenue sources.
Capital receipts: Receipts that create liability or reduce assets to the government.

b) Revenue receipts: Direct taxes – income taxes, corporation tax, wealth tax, etc…
Indirect taxes – customs duty, service tax, excise duty, etc.
Non-tax revenue sources – Interest, Profit & dividend, Fees, Fine, Penalties etc.
Capital receipts – Borrowings, Disinvestment, Recoveries of loans, etc.

Answer any 4 questions from 26 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
State the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The Law of Variable Proportions: When more and more units of a variable input are added to the fixed input, the marginal product will increase only up to a certain point. There after, the marginal product declines. This phenomenon is known as the Law of Variable Proportions. It is also known as returns to a factor. The shape of TP, AP and MP suggests that they are specifically passing through three phases.

They are:
First phase: In the first stage, both AP and MP increase. As a result, TP also increases at an increasing rate. This stage is known as the stage of increasing return to a factor. AP reaches the maximum level in this stage.

Second phase: Both AP and MP decrease at this stage. The TP increases at a decreasing rate. More importantly, TP reaches a maximum, and MP touches zero. This stage is also known as the stage of diminishing returns to a factor.

Third phase: At this stage, the MP becomes negative. As a result, TP also starts declining. The decline of AP is continuous. In the graph, when TP reaches maximum and MP touches zero. When MP becomes negative, TP starts declining. This stage is known as the stage of negative returns to a factor.

Question 27.
Examine the profit maximisation conditions of the firm under perfect competition.
Answer:
Every producer produces goods and services to maximise profit. Profit is the difference between Total Revenue and Total Cost. It can be written as PROFIT (π )= TOTAL REVENUE (TR) – TOTAL COST (TC).

• A firm under perfect competition reaches maximum profit (equilibrium) when the following conditions are satisfied.
• The price, P, must equal MC(P = MC)
• Marginal cost must be non-decreasing at equilibrium.
• For the firm to continue to produce, in the short run, the price must be greater than the average variable cost (p > AVC); in the long run, the price must be greater than the average cost (p > AC). The profit maximisation of a firm under perfect Competition in the short run is illustrated with the following diagram.

In the diagram, AVC, AC, and MC represent the Average Variable Cost Curve, Average cost curve, Marginal cost curve, respectively. At point A, MC Curve interest price line (P = MC). After that, the Point MC Curve is rising. At point A Price is greater than AC, so point A is considered as the equilibrium point. At point A, the firm enjoys maximum profit. Profit is the difference between TR and TC. At point A, TR = P × Q. Here P = OP × OQ= OPEQ. TC = AC × Q = OBAQ . PROFIT = TR – TC = OPEQ – OBAQ = BPEA.

Question 28.
What will happen to the equilibrium price and output, when
a) Demand increases (2 1/2)
b) Supply decreases (2 1/2)
(Explain your answer with the help of diagrams.)
Answer:
a) rightward shift of DD; equilibrium price & output increase Fig:(A).
b) leftward shift of ss; equilibrium price increases, equilibrium output decreases Fig: (B).

Question 29.
Find saving, ape, mpe, aps and mps in the given table.

Answer:

Question 30.
Explain how the exchange rate is determined in flexible exchange rate system.
Answer:
In a system of flexible exchange rates, the exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and supply. In this case of flexible exchange rates without central bank intervention, the exchange rate moves to clear the market, to equate the demand for and supply of foreign exchange. In the following figure equilibrium exchange rate is e*, which is determined by the forces of demand and supply.

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
a) Write any three properties of indifference curves. (3)
b) Explain the optimal choice of the consumer, with the help of a diagram. (5)
Answer:
a) negative slope, convex to origin, never intersects, never tangent to each other.

b) A consumer is said to be in equilibrium when he attains maximum satisfaction from his limited income. At the consumer’s equilibrium Indifference curve should be tangent to the budget line, and the slope of the indifference curve is equal to the slope of the budget line.

Point ‘E’ shows an optimal choice of the consumer.

Question 32.
(a) What is GDP? Differentiate between nominal and real GDP. (3)
(b) Can the GDP of a country be taken as an index of the welfare of the people of that country? Explain. (5)
Answer:
a) The total monetary value of all final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of a country in a financial year.
GDP at current year prices is called as nominal GDP. But GDP at base year prices is called as real GDP.

b) Yes, GDP increases welfare and also increases limitations; unequal distribution of income and wealth, externalities, value of non-marketed goods & services

Distribution of GDP – How uniform is it: This is because the rise in GDP maybe concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firm.

Non-Monetary exchanges: Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms.
Externalities: If refers to benefit (or harm) a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid.

Question 33.
(a) “Control of Money Supply” is one of the functions of central bank. Mention other functions. (3)
(b) Examine the various tools used by the Reserve Bank of India to control money supply in India. (5)
Answer:
Quantitative Measures

• Open market operations
• Bank rate policy
• Varying reserve requirement

Qualitative measures: 1. Moral suasion The instruments that RBI uses for conducting monetary policy are as follows.

Open Market Operations: It refers to the sale and purchase of government securities by the central bank. RBI purchases government securities to the general public in a bid to increase the stock of high-powered money in the economy.

Bank Rate Policy: As mentioned earlier, RBI can affect the reserve deposit ratio of commercial banks by adjusting the value of the bank rate – which is the rate of interest commercial banks have to pay RBI – if they borrow money from it in case of shortage of reserves. A low (or high) bank rate encourages banks to keep a smaller (or greater) proportion of their deposits as reserves since borrowing from RBI is now less (or more) costly than before.

Varying Reserve Requirements: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) also work through the route. A high (or low) value of CRR or SLR helps to increase (or decrease) the value of the reserve deposit ratio, thus diminishing (or increasing) the value of the money multiplier and money supply in the economy in a similar fashion

Sterilisation by RBI: RBI often uses its instruments of money creation to stabilise the stock of money in the economy from external shocks. This operation of RBI is known as sterilisation.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

From questions 1 to 11, answer for 16 scores.

Question 1.
The party that won the second largest number of Lok Sabha seats in the first election was the ___________ .
(a) Bharathiya Jana Sangh
(b) Indian National Congress
(c) Communist Party of India
(d) Socialist Party
Answer:
(c) Communist Party of India

Question 2.
Name the leader who is associated with the Slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ ?
(a) Nehru
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer:
(b) Indira Gandhi

Question 3.
The commission appointed in 1977 by Janatha Government to inquire into the excesses committed during emergency.
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Sri Krishna Commission
(c) Mandal Commission
(d) Shah Commission
Answer:
(d) Shah Commission

Question 4.
Who was the first non-Congress Prime Minister in India ?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) V.P. Singh
(c) Deva Gowda
(d) A.B. Vajpayee
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 5.
Identify the leader of Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement.
(a) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(b) Tikait
(c) Medha Patkar
(d) Chandi Prasad Bhat
Answer:
(c) Medha Patkar

Question 6.
Complete the table by using hints given below: (K.N. Raj, P.C. Mahalanobis, Priority given to agrarian sector, Rapid Industrialisation)

1st Five Year Plan	2nd Five Year Plan

Answer:

1st Five Year Plan	2nd Five Year Plan
K.N. Raj	P.C. Mahalanobis
Priority given to agrarian Sector	Rapid Industrialisation

Question 7.
Punjab accord was signed between __________ and __________ .
Answer:
Harchand Singh Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi

Question 8.
Complete the table:

Answer:
ASEAN – Economic Community
ASEAN – Socio-Cultural’Community

Question 9.
The UN Security Council has ___________ permanent and __________ non-permanent members.
Answer:
5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members.

Question 10.
Match the following:

NATO	India
Warsaw Pact	USA
NAM	USSR

Answer:

NATO	USA
Warsaw Pact	USSR
NAM	India

Question 11.
Match the following :

First Gulf War	Al-Quida centres in Sudan and Afghanistan
Global War on Terror	Operation Desert storm
Second Gulf War	Operation enduring Freedom
Operation Infinite reach	Operation Iraqi Freedom

Answer:

First Gulf War	Operation Desert Storm
Global War on Terror	Operation Enduring Freedom
Second Gulf War	Operation Iraqi Freedom
Operation Infinite Reach	Al-Quida centres in Sudan and Afghanistan

Answer any 4 questions from 12 to 16. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 12.
Identify the causes of the dominance of Congress Party in the first three general elections in India.
Answer:
a) Legacy of national freedom movement.
b) Organisational structure all over the country.
c) Presence of charismatic leadership.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Green Revolution.
Answer:
Green revolution is the name given to the policies of the government which aimed at maximum production in the minimum period in the agricultural sector with the use of high yield varieties of seeds, modem equipment’s, fertilizers and pesticides and with proper irrigation facilities.

Question 14.
Prepare a note on Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Answer:
Narmada bachao Andolan was basically a movement against Sardar Sarovar project which aimed to build a number of big and small dams in the states like Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra. The movement focused against large scale displacement of people for huge developmental projects.

Question 15.
Write your arguments in favour of India’s claim for the permanent membership in the U.N. Security Council.
Answer:

1. Largest democratic country in the world
2. India has participated in the UN activities since its beginning.
3. India has long relations with the UN peace keeping force
4. India gives regularly to the UN budget

Question 16.
Explain the Political Consequences of Globalization.
Answer:
Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets Weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes with the coming of MNCs.it becomes difficult for the governments to have independent decision. According to the advocates of globalization, no political power of the government is lost. Technology „ helps governments to know the details of their citizens and make the administration efficient.

Answer any 4 questions from 17 to 21. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 17.
Explain the features of first general election in India.
Answer:
The election commission came into existence in 1950 with Sukumar Sen as the Chief Election Commissioner to conduct general elections in India. The first general election was held in 1951 – 52. In a country like India a free and fair election was not easy to conduct we had three major challenges the formation of electoral constituencies, the making voters list, and the participation of the people. The people with voting rights were nearly 17 crores but only 15% of them were literate. The election commission trained nearly 300000 officials and poling officers. Election propaganda, voting and counting of votes took more than 6 months. For each seat, an average of four candidates completed more than 50% of the people voted.

Question 18.
Examine the major issues which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 1969.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru had great influence in the party because of his dynamic personality. His death created a vacuum in the party. Gradually the central group known as the Syndicate established itself in the Congress.

In 1969 there arose a difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died, the Presidential post was vacant. The Syndicate nominated Indira Gandhi’s long time rival and the then speaker Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi preferred the then Vice-President V.V. Giri to be the next President. V.V. Giri was elected. The failure of the official candidate of the Syndicate caused the formal division of the Congress: The Congress President suspended Indira Gandhi from the Party. Indira claimed that her group was the real Congress. In 1969, the Congress led by the Syndicate was known as Congress (O) and the one led by Indira Gandhi was called Congress (R).

Question 19.
Write a short note on the ethnic conflicts in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
The civil war that was going on in Sri Lanka ended with the killing of Veluppilla Prabhakaran and some other LTTE leaders. All this time democracy was functioning there. After independence, it was the Sinhala community that had the upper hand in Sri Lanka. They were not sympathetic towards the Tamils who actually migrated from India long ago.

The Sinhala nationalists were against giving any concessions to the Tamils there. In their view Sri Lanka is the motherland only for them. It was this enmity that forced the Tamils to rise in revolt against the Sinhalese. The Tamils organised the LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eazham). From 1983, the LTTE began armed struggle against the Sinhalese. This racial problem became a headache to India as well. The Tamil people of India exerted great pressure on the Central Government to help the Tamils in Sri Lanka. In 1987 India signed an agreement with Sri Lanka. According to that there should be cordial relations between the Tamils and the Sri Lankan government. But the Indian government had to fight against LTTE. Sri Lanka thought India was interfering in its internal affairs. In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force had to come back to India without achieving any result.

Sri Lankan problem became very violent. Scandinavian countries like Norway and Iceland tried to bring peace, but they failed. In May 2009, the Sri Lankan army attacked the LTTE army and killed Veluppilla Prabhakaran and his associates.

Question 20.
Explain any four new sources of global security threats.
Answer:
Security threats are of a different kind now. They can be categorized as follows:
1. Terrorism: Political attacks make the life of ordinary citizens difficult. The terrorists want the political circumstances to change. They try to bring about changes by threats or armed attacks. By unleashing violence, they make the people restless. They try to make the dislike and discontentment of the people their weapon against governments. Their activities include hijacking planes and bombing trains and markets and other places where people assemble. They attacked and destroyed the World Trade Centre in New York on 11 September 2001. The government and the people are more cautious now against terrorists.

2. Human Rights: We see that throughout the world there are human right violations. There is no unified thinking in any country about how to protect human rights. Recent incidents of human right violations are the annexation of Kuwait by Iraq, the ethnic cleansing in Ruanda and the mass killings of the people of Eastern Timor by the Indonesian army. All these prompted world leaders to have a talk. The talk was about whether the UN should interfere in such matters. The matter is still unresolved.

3. Global Poverty: This is another factor of security threat. It is believed that the population in the under-developed countries will triple in 50 years. In countries where the population is low, the per capita income will be high. Therefore the economically advanced countries will prosper further whereas the poor countries will grow poorer. The gap between countries of the North and South will increase. People from, the South countries immigrate to the North countries for better life and earning. This also creates a threat for the security of mankind.

4. Contagious Diseases: Contagious diseases are another threat to mankind. AIDS, bird flu, SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) etc. are dangerous contagious diseases. These spread quickly from one country to another. A country’s success or failure in controlling these diseases affects other countries also. Recently swine-flu spread all over the world. It is when a problem becomes a threat to a nation and its people that it becomes an international security threat.

Question 21.
India is participating in Global efforts to reduce Green House gas emissions through a number of programmes and policies. Write any four policies.
Answer:
For the protection of environment India has taken the following steps:
a. According to the auto fuel policy of India, only purified fuel is used for vehicles.

b. The Energy Act passed in 2001, aims at the appropriate use of energy.

c. The 2003 Electricity Act requires the use of renewable energy sources.

d. In 2011 – 12, the Bio-diesel Mission acquired 11 million hectors of land for the production of biodiesel.

Recently schemes have been worked out for the import of natural gas. It has been decided to use the latest technology for purifying coal. Thus India is doing a lot for environmental protection.

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 26. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 22.
Explain the economic and political context for the declaration of National emergency in 1975.
Answer:
After the 1971 election, Indira became a popular leader with a lot of support from the people. This time there were serious problems in the Party. There were three main reasons:
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat & Bihar Movement

a) The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘garibi hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was the refuge problem. Then there was the Bangladesh Crisis, followed by the IndoPakistan War. All these things created financial problems. Secondly, after the War, America stopped its aids to India. Thirdly, there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The 4th reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The 5th problem was negative growth in industrial output. Unemployment increased, especially in the rural sector. Sixthly, the salaries of government employees had to be reduced and even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff.

All the above things created an economic crisis in the country. There was general discontentment in the country. This gave the Opposition Parties an opportunity to organise protests.

b) Political Reasons: The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were Congress-ruled States. The main reason was the increase in the prices of essential commodities. Shortage of food, unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these States the Opposition Parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidentiaf Rule was imposed. At this time the main opponent of Indira Gandhi and the leader of Congress (0), Morarji Desai, decided to go on an indefinite hunger strike. He did that for demanding elections in Gujarat. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted. Congress lost the election. In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitatton insisting that the protest must be non-violent.

He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. But the Bihar government refused to resign. The entire country discussed the issue. Jay Prakash Narayan wanted to spread the protest to all parts of the country. In the meantime the railway workers went on a strike. It would make the entire country come to a standstill. In 1975, Jay Prakash Narayan organized a march to the Parliament. It was the biggest rally the capital had ever seen. The Opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi. Both the protests were anti-Congress. Voices also rose against the leadership of Mrs. Gandhi. She believed that all this was done to take revenge on her.

Question 23.
Explain the external and internal disputes in Jammu and Kashmir.
Answer:
When India got independence, JammuKashmir was a Princely State. Initially, the King Raja Hari Singh refused to join either India or Pakistan as he wanted to remain independent. The Pakistani leaders believed that since JammuKashmir had a lot of Muslims, it would join Pakistan. The people there were known as Kashmiris. Under the leadership of Sheikh Abdulla there was an agitation to remove the King from power. But he also did not want to join Pakistan. National Conference was a secular organization. It was also pro-Congress. In October 1947 Pakistan encouraged some tribal groups to capture Pakistan. Then the King sought assistance from India.

The King signed the “Instrument of Accession” and so the Indian army helped the Jammu- Kashmir King. There was also a condition that when things become normal there would be a referendum. For the welfare of the people Sheikh Abdulla became the Prime Minister. India granted J&K autonomy.

External and Internal Squabbles: Because of external and internal problems, J&K is always in the midst of crises. On one side there is Pakistan claiming the Kashmir Valley. After the 1947 War, a part of Kashmir came under Pakistani control. India calls it illegal occupation. Pakistan calls this area Azad Kashmir. Internally also the Kashmir problems is a headache for the Centre. According to Article 370, Kashmir is given greater autonomy than other States. This Article is applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir. The special concession causes problems. Many believe that this autonomy given to Kashmir will adversely affect the unity and indivisibility of the country. They feel that Article 370 should be removed. But the Kashmiris feel that the autonomy they got by Article 370 is not enough. Some Kashmiris put forward 3 complaints.

1. No referendum has taken place so far.
2. The status promised by Article 370 is only on paper, not in practice. They need more autonomy.
3. They also say that the kind of democracy implemented in other States of India is not found in J&K.

Question 24.
Since 1989 India witnessed five developments that were to make a long lasting impact on our Politics. Briefly explain them.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress lost the election. With that election the ‘Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1990s,the government decided to implement the job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Question 25.
Explain the Cuban missile crisis.
Answer:
Most North-Western countries became capitalist, anti-Communist nations. A big power like America could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of Communist Russia. As Cuba got financial and diplomatic support from Russia, it became a strong country, although it was small in size. It faced America without fear. In 1962, the Russian leader Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cuba. Most American cities then would come under threat from Russia. Later this was known as the Cuban Missile Crisis. In the circumstances, America was forced to take strict measures against Russia. America wanted to get the Cuban President killed with the help of the CIA. It wanted to stop the growth of Communism it its neighbourhood.

Question 26.
Discuss the capabilities of European Union as contemporary centres of power.
Answer:
After the WW II, many European countries faced serious financial crises. European leaders met together to find out ways of coming out of this problem. At this time the Cold War between the US and USSR had started. America gave a lot of financial help to Europe. It is known as the Marshall Plan. Under NATO, America also signed a security treaty.

In 1948, under the Marshall Plan, “European Economic Cooperation” was founded. Its aim was to help West European countries. It became a fellowship and the member countries decided to cooperate in trade and other economic problems. For political cooperation, in 1949, “Council of Europe” was established. The unity among members finally led to the formation of European Economic Community in 1957. The coming of the European Parliament made the organization very strong. The disintegration of the USSR quickened the pace of the growth of the European Union which was established in 1992. It helped in having a common foreign policy, law and justice and internal affairs. It also brought out a common currency the “Euro”.

European Union became the world largest’ economic system. According to the statistics of 2005, their GDP was 12 trillion dollars. This is more than the economy of America. Euro is stronger than American dollar. EU has become an important part of the WTO.

European Union has great political and diplomatic importance. Britain and France which are its members have permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Therefore the EU can influence in the formation of important policies. For examjDle, the nuclear programme of Iran. Militarily EU has the second position in the world. Britain and France are also nuclear powers. In space research and communication, the EU occupies the second place.

Answer any 2 questions from 27 to 29. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 27.
Explain the process and consequences of partition of India.
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Musfims. Therefore the Muslim League demanded a separate nation, Pakistan, for the Muslims. The formation of Pakistan was based on the majority of the population of an area. Thus the areas which had Muslim majority became Pakistan and the remaining areas remained as Indian Territory. It was not easy to implement such a division. There were three reasons for that.

First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims. There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the West and the other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian Territory. Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim population wanted to become part of Pakistan. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan, who was the leader of the North-Western Province, had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the North West Province was included in Pakistan.

The third problem was that British India’s Punjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these huge provinces there were very many non-Muslims. Therefore the Provinces were divided into Districts and Panchayats depending on the religious majority of the population there. The result was that on the day of Independence many people did not know to which country they belonged – India or Pakistan. It deeply wounded the people. The problem of the minorities in each country was the worst of all. The Hindus and Sikhs in the Pakistani areas and the Muslims in Punjab and Bengal were unfortunate preys to this division of the country. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were killed because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the border areas had to live in refugee camps. The governments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will. In many homes women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour. Children were separated from their parents and guardians. People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps.

Not only the land, but even moveable proper¬ties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that between 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

Question 28.
Explain the causes and consequences of India China war in 1962.
Answer:
In the beginning India and China had cordial relations. Our relations have a historical and cultural background. Nehru played a crucial role in making the relations better. India was the first country to recognize China after the Revolution. Nehru tried to help China in international matters. Because of these good relations, on the India-China border there were only paramilitary forces and not regular armymen.

The Panchsheel Agreement was a big landmark out India-China relations. It was signed on April 29 by the PMs of both countries, Nehru of India and Chou-en-Lai of China. Nehru visited China and Chou-en-Lai visited India getting the love and respect of people.

Nehru had an open-hearted approach to China. But people like Patel thought China was not a country to be believed. Nehru never expected any attack from China. But in 1962, China did attack India.

Two things spoiled the relations between India and China. One was the Tibetan Issue and the other was border disputes. Even in the 1950s when they were friends, India and China had border disputes. China was not ready to accept our suggestions regarding the border. China claimed Ladakh in Kashmir and some areas of Arunachal Pradesh to be theirs. During the period of 1957 – 59, they also took Aksai Chin sector and built the Karakoram Highway. The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. It was a breach of faith. In the beginning India kept quiet. But the Chinese started imposing their culture on the Tibetans.

In 1959, the Tibetan Spiritual leader, Dalai Lama, sought refuge in India. China then accused India saying that India was acting against the interest of China. In October 1962 China infiltrated into Indian territories which she claimed to be hers. The first attack lasted a week. Chinese army occupied some places in Arunachal Pradesh. The next attack came a month later. But the Indian army stopped the Chinese in the western part of Ladakh. China declared a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the places it had taken.

Results of the India-China War: During the war, Russia kept her neutrality. India had to seek support from America and Britain. The war was shameful to the country. But it strengthened national feeling.

Nehru’s close friend and the then defence minister V.K. Krishna Menon had to resign. Nehru was criticised for blindly believing China and for his lack of military preparation to prevent the attack. A no-confidence motion was brought against his government. In Lok Sabha there were a lot of discussions. In many bye-elections Congress lost.

The Opposition was also affected by the war. In 1964 Communist Party split into two – Pro- Chinese and Pro-Russia. One was CPI (M) and the other was CPI.

The War awakened the nation. The North Eastern region was backward. The Chinese war prompted the nation to keep its unity and to embark upon developmental projects.

Question 29.
Explain the causes of disintegration of Soviet Union.
Hints:
• Political causes
• Economic causes
• Emergence of Nationalism in Republics
• Reforms of Gorbachev
Answer:
There are many reasons for the disintegration of the USSR:
a) Political reasons
b) Economic reasons
c) The reforms of Gorbachev

a) Political Reasons

1. In the Soviet system there was bureaucratic misrule and misuse of authority. The life of ordinary people was not at all smooth.
2. Lack of democracy and lack of freedom of expression.
3. Although on paper Russia was just one of the 15 republics, it-either suppressed or controlled the people of all other republics.

b) Economic reasons
To become equal with the US in weapons, USSR spent a lot of its money on weapons. USSR was behind the West in technology and internal structure. It had no ability to protect the political and economic interests of its people.

c) Reforms of Gorbachev
His two important reforms were Glasnost and Perestroika. They did not bring the expected results. They brought more troubles to the country leading to its disintegration.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Answer the questions from 1 – 45, upto a total score of 80.

I. Questions from 1 to 9 carry 1 score each. (9 × 1 = 9)

Question 1.
Survival, Profit and …………………. are the organisational objectives of a business.
a) growth
b) development
c) gain
d) None of these
Answer:
a) growth

Question 2.
‘One subordinate must receive orders from only one superior at a time’. Which principle of management is referred here?
a) Unity of direction
b) Equity
c) Unity of command
d) Order
Answer:
c) Unity of command

Question 3.
Granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits is called …………………
a) Delegation
b) Co-ordination
c) Controlling
d) Planning
Answer:
a) Delegation

Question 4.
Recruitment is a ………………. process.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) All of these
Answer:
a) Positive

Question 5.
Which among the following is a non-financial incentive?
a) Bonus
b) Profit sharing
c) Pay and allowances
d) Status
Answer:
d) Status

Question 6.
The starting point of communication process is ………………………
a) Sender
b) Receiver
c) Message
d) Encoding
Answer:
a) Sender

Question 7.
‘Only exceptional matters are to be reported to top level management’ is denoted by the term …………………..
a) Ultrawires
b) Management by exception
c) Span of control
d) Span of management
Answer:
b) Management by exception

Question 8.
The management function that ensures ‘all things are going on according to plan’ is ………………….
a) Planning
b) Directing
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
Answer:
d) Controlling

Question 9.
The apex authority to seek redressal for a consumer in India is ………………………
a) National Commission
b) District Forum
c) Supreme Court
d) State Commission
Answer:
c) Supreme Court

II. Questions from 10 to 17 carry 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 10.
Briefly describe the management principle ‘Discipline’.
Answer:
Discipline: it is the obedience to organizational rules and employment agreement which are necessary for working of the organization.

Question 11.
What is environmental scanning?
Answer:
The study of various factors of business environment such as economic, social, political, legal, technological etc. is known as environmental scanning.

Question 12.
Name any two elements of delegation.
Answer:

1. Authority
2. Responsibility
3. Accountability

Question 13.
List any two merits of training to employees.
Answer:
Benefits to the Employee

1. Training helps in securing promotion and career growth.
2. Increased performance by the individual helps him to earn more.
3. Training helps to reduce the chances of accident and wastages.

Question 14.
Give any two reasons for organisational barriers of communication.
Answer:
a) Organisational policy: If the organisational policy is complex, it restricts the free flow of communication.
b) Rules and regulations: Rigid Rules and regulations may be a hurdle to communication
c) Status: Status differences of people in communication chain also adversely affect the effectiveness of communication.
d) Complex organisational structure: If there are number of managerial levels, communication gets delayed and distorted.

Question 15.
Briefly explain any one modern technique of managerial control.
Answer:
a) Ratio Analysis: Ratio Analysis refers to analysis of financial statements through computation of ratios.

b) Responsibility Accounting: Responsibility accounting is a system of accounting in which different sections, divisions and departments of an organisation are set up as ‘Responsibility Centres’. The head of the centre is responsible for achieving the target set for his centre. E.g. Cost centre, Revenue centre, Profit centre, Investment centre, etc.

Question 16.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Fixed Capital: Fixed capital refers to the capital needed for the the acquisition of fixed assets to be used for a longer period.

Question 17.
List any two instruments used in a money market.
Answer:

1. Treasury Bill
2. Commercial Paper
3. Call Money

III. Questions from 18 to 23 carry 3 scores each. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 18.
Write a note on ‘Coordination’.
Answer:
Co-ordination : The process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments is known as co-ordination. Co-ordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management.

Characteristics of Co-ordination

1. Co-ordination integrates group efforts of different departments
2. Co-ordination ensures unity of action
3. Co-ordination is a continuous process

Question 19.
Briefly explain any two features of Management.
Answer:
Characteristics/Nature of Management
a) Management is goal oriented.

b) Management is universal in character.

c) Management is multidimensional, which include

1. Management of works
2. Management of people
3. Management of operations

d) It is a continuous process.

e) It is a group activity.

f) It is a dynamic function.

g) It is an intangible force.

Question 20.
What are standing plans? Give one example.
Answer:
Standing plan: A standing plan is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time. E.g.: Objectives, policies, procedures, methods and rules.

Question 21.
Classify the following needs into Basic Physiological, Safety needs, Belonging needs and Esteem needs:
a) Recognition
b) Friendship
c) Job Security
d) Hunger
e) Stability of Income
f) Self-respect
Answer:

a) Recognition	Types of Needs
b) Friendship	Esteem needs
c) Job Security	Belonging needs
d) Hunger	Safety needs
e) Stability of Income	Basic or Physiological
f) Self-respect	needs
a) Recognition	Safety needs

Question 22.
List any three qualities of a good brand name.
Answer:

1. The brand name should be short, easy to pronounce, spell, recognise and remember.
2. A brand should suggest the product’s benefits and qualities.
3. A brand name should be distinctive.

Question 23.
Breifly explain any two rights of a consumer under Consumer Protection Act.
Answer:

1. Right to Safety: The consumer has a right to be protected against goods and services which are hazardous to life and health.
2. Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc.

IV. Questions from 24 to 31 carry 4 scores each. (8 × 4 = 32)

Question 24.
Breifly describe any two features of management as an art.
Answer:
Management as an Art: Management is an art. Art is the skilful and personal application of existing knowledge to achieve desired results.

The basic features of an art are as follows:

1. Existence of theoretical knowledge
2. Personal skill
3. Based on practice and creativity

Management can be said to be an art since it satisfies the following criteria.
a) A manager uses his personal skill and knowledge in the area of management.
b) Management is one of the most creative arts as it is concerned with getting work done through others by motivating them.
c) Like other arts, managerial efficiency is developed through practice.
That is why management can be said as an art.

Question 25.
Write short note on the following:
a) Globalisation
b) Privatisation
Answer:
a) Globalisation: Globalisation means the integration of the various economies of the world leading towards the emergence of a cohesive global economy.

Features of Globalisation:
a) Free flow of goods and services across nations
b) Free flow of capital across nations
c) Free flow of information and technology
d) Free movement of people across borders

b) Privatisation: Privatisation means transfer of the public sector enterprises to the private sector. The role of private sector is encouraged.

This can be done in two ways.
a) Disinvestment of a part of the shares held by the government in public sector units.
b) Dereservatiion of areas formerly reserved for the public sector.

Question 26.
Briefly describe any two features of Planning.
Answer:
Features of Planning

1. Planning is goal oriented
2. It is the primary function of management
3. It is required at all levels of management
4. Planning is a continuous process
5. Planning is futuristic (forward looking)
6. It is a decision making function
7. It is a mental process

Question 27.
List any four differences between Divisional and Functional structure of organisations.
Answer:
Differences between Functional and Divisional Structure

Functional Structure	Divisional Structure
1. Formation is based on functions	1. Formation is based on product lines.
2. Functional specialisation	2. Product specialisation
3. Difficult to fix responsibility on a department	3. Easy to fix responsibility for performance
4. It is economical	4. It is costly
5. Suitable for small, organisation	5. Suitable for big organisation

Question 28.
Explain any two on the job training methods.
Answer:
a) Apprenticeship Programme: Under apprenticeship training, a trainee is put under the supervision of a master worker.

b) Coaching: In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach.

c) Internship Training: It is a joint programme of training in which vocational and professional institutes enter into an agreement with business enterprises for providing practical knowledge to its students.

d) Job Rotation: Here the trainee is transferred from one job to another job or from one department to another department so that he can learn the working of various sections.

Question 29.
Match the following:

A	B
a) Exchange value of a product or service	Product
b) A bundle of utilities	Promotion
c) Tools to enhance sales	Place/Physical distribution
d) Making products available to consumers	Price

Answer:

A	B
a) Exchange value of a product or service	Price
b) A bundle of utilities	Product
c) Tools to enhance sales	Promotion
d) Making products available to consumers	Place/Physical distribution

Question 30.
List any four factors effecting the working capital of a company.
Answer:

• Nature of Business: A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital as compared to a manufacturing organisation.
• Scale of Operations: A large scale organisation requires large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.
• Business Cycle: In the boom period larger amount of working capital is needed to meet the demand. In case of depression, demand for goods declines so less working capital is required.
• Seasonal Factors: During peak season demand of a product will be high and thus high working capital will be required as compared to lean season.
• Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

Question 31.
Name any four protective functions of SEBI.
Answer:
Protective Functions
a) Prohibition of fraudulent and unfair, trade practices.
b) Controlling insider trading, price rigging etc. and imposing penalties for such practices.
c) Undertaking steps for investor protection.
d) Promotion of fair practices and code of conduct in securities market.

V. Questions From 32 to 40 carry 5 scores each. (9 × 5 = 45)

Question 32.
Classify the following personnels under different levels of management (Top level, middle level and lower level):
a) Chairman
b) Supervisor
c) Foreman
d) Managing Director
d) Production manager
Answer:
Top Level
a) Chairman
d) Managing Manager

Middle Level
e) Production Manager

Lower Level
b) Supervisor
c) Foreman Director

Question 33.
Draw a diagram showing the technique of functional foremanship by F.W. Tylor.
Answer:

Question 34.
What do you mean by Business Environment? Explain any two dimensions of it.
Answer:
a) Meaning of Business Environment: The term ‘business environment’ means the sum total of all individuals, institutions and other forces that are outside the control of a business enterprise, but that may affect its performance.

b)

1. Economic Environment: Interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of people, stock market indices and the value of rupee are some of the economic factors that can affect the business enterprise.
2. Social Environment: The social environment of business includes the social forces like customs and traditions, values, social trends, literacy rate, educational levels, lifestyle, etc.
3. Technological Environment: Technological environment consists of new products, new technologies, new approaches to product, new methods and equipments, etc.

Question 35.
Draw a chart showing Divisional Structure of an organisation.
Answer:
Divisional Structure: Grouping of activities on the basis of different product manufactured are known as divisional structure of organisation. Each division has a divisional manager responsible for performance. Each division is multifunctional because within each division functions like production, marketing, finance etc. are performed together to achieve a common goal.

Question 36.
Fill appropriately as per hint given:
a) Political ideology of government – Political environment
b) Change in life style – ?
c) Consumer Protection Act
d) Stability of Government – ?
e) Change in exchange rate – ?
f) Shift from typewriters to computers – ?
Answer:
a) Political environment
b) Social environment
c) Legal environment
d) Political environment
e) Economic environment
f) Technological environment

Question 37.
Write a note on any two internal sources of recruitment.
Answer:
Internal Sources: It refers to the recruitment for jobs from within the organisation. It includes:

1. Transfer: It involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without change in responsibility or compensation.
2. Promotion: It refers to shifting of an employee from lower position to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibility and more salary.

Question 38.
State the theory of need hierarchy by Abraham Maslow.
Answer:
Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation
Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. His theory was based on human needs. Various human needs are:

1. Physiological Needs: These are the basic needs which include food, clothes, hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex. If physiological needs are not satisfied, the higher level needs will not be emerged.
2. Safety/Security Needs: These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. These needs include job security, stability of income, pension plans, etc.
3. Social Needs: These needs refer to affection, sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship. Informal organisation helps to satisfy the social needs of an individual.
4. Esteem Needs: These include factors such as . self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and
   attention.
5. Self Actualisation Needs: It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. Self actualisation is the need to maximise one’s potential, whatever it may be. These needs include growth, self-fulfilment and achievement of goals.

Question 39.
Illustrate the various steps in controlling process.
Answer:
Controlling Process: Controlling is a systematic process involving the following steps.
1. Setting performance standards
2. Measurement of actual performance
3. Comparison of actual performance with standards
4. Analysing deviations
5. Taking corrective action

1. Setting Performance Standards: Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured. Standards can be set in both quantitative as well as qualitative terms.

2. Measurement of Actual Performance: After establishing standards, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.

3. Comparing Actual Performance with Standards: This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standard. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.

4. Analysing Deviations: The deviations from the standards are assessed and analysed to identify the causes of deviations.

5. Taking Corrective Action: The final step in the controlling process is taking corrective action. No corrective action is required when the deviations are within the acceptable limits.

Question 40.
Match the following:

A	B
a) Selection process of employees	Policy
b) Promotion based on seniority only	Programme
c) Casual leave of 2 per month for employee	Method
d) Conference for managers	Rule
e) Time wage system	Procedure

Answer:

A	B
a) Selection process of employees	a) Procedure
b) Promotion based on seniority only	b) Policy
c) Casual leave of 2 per month for employee	c) Rule
d) Conference for managers	d) Programme
e) Time wage system	e) Method

VI. Questions from 41 to 45 carry 8 scores each. (5 × 8 = 40)

Question 41.
Describe the various steps in planning process.
Answer:
Planning Process (Steps in Planning)

1. Setting Objectives: The first step in planning is setting objectives. Objectives may be set for the entire organisation and for each department. The objective must be specific and clear.
2. Developing premises: Planning is based on certain assumptions about the future. These assumptions are called planning premises. Forecasting is important in developing planning premises.
3. Identifying alternative courses of action: The next step in planning is to identify the alternative courses of action to achieve the objectives.
4. Evaluating alternative Courses: The pros and cons of various alternatives must be evaluated in terms of their expected cost and benefits.
5. Selecting an alternative: After evaluating the alternatives the manager will select that alternative which gives maximum benefit at minimum cost.
6. Implement the plan: Implementation of plan means putting plans into action so as to achieve the objectives of the business.
7. Follow up action: Plans are to be evaluated regularly to check whether they are being implemented and activities are performed according to schedule.

Question 42.
Explain any four external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
External Sources: Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment. The important external sources of recruitment are:
1) Direct Recruitment: Under the direct recruitment, a noticd is placed on the noticeboard of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Jobseekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2) Casual callers: Many reputed business organisations! keep a database of unsolicited applicants in tneir office. These lists can be used for recruitment.

3) Advertisement: Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4) Employment: Exchange: Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5) Placement Agencies and Management Consultants: These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6) Campus Recruitment: Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7) Recommendations of Employees: Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8) Labour Contractors: Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

Question 43.
Briefly explain any eight management Principles by Henry Fayol.
Answer:

• Division of Work: This principle states that a complex work should be divided into small tasks, and each task should be assigned to a particular employee. Division of work leads to specialization.
• Authority and Responsibility: Authority is the right to give orders to the subordinates and responsibility is the obligation to perform the work in the manner directed by authority. There should be a balance between authority and responsibility.
• Discipline: It is the obedience to organizational rules and employment agreement which are necessary for working of the organization.
• Unity of Command: The principle of unity of command states that each employee should receive orders from one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees.
• Unity of Direction: Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head- and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.
• Subordination of Individual Interest to General Interest: The Interest of an organization should take priority over the interests of any one individual employee.
• Remuneration of Employees: Remuneration should bejust, equitable and fair to both employees and the organization.
• Centralization and Decentralization: Centralisation means concentration of authority at the top management. Decentralisation means dispersal of authority to the lower levels in the organisation. There should be a balance between centralisation and decentralization.

Question 44.
Briefly describe any eight qualities to be possessed by a good leader.
Answer:
Qualities of a Good Leader

1. Physical Features: Physical features like height, weight, health, appearance determine the physical personality of a leader.
2. Knowledge: A good leader should have required knowledge and competence.
3. Honesty: A leader should possess high level of honesty.
4. Initiative: A leader should have courage and initiative.
5. Communication Skills: A leader should have the capacity to clearly explain the ideas.
6. Motivation Skills: The leader should have the ability to motivate the subordinates by satisfying their needs.
7. Self Confidence: A leader should have high level of self confidence.

Question 45.
Describe the four P’s in Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix

• Product: Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.
• Price: Price is the amount of money paid by the custorrlers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.
• Place: Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.
• Promotion: Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023

Time : 2 Hours
Total Score: 60

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is NC^-1.
Answer:
Electric field intensity (E)

Question 2.
Two capacitors of equal capacitance when connected in series have a capacitance of C₁. When connected in parallel, they have a capacitance of C₂. What is the value of C₁/C₂?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 3.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of …………
Answer:
Energy

Question 4.
Name the physical quantity which can be expressed by the ratio of the amplitude of electric field to the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave.
Answer:
Velocity

Question 5.
“Critical angle depends on the colour of light”. Whether the statement is true or false?
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens?
Answer:
Converging lens

Question 7.
The binding energy of a nucleus is a measure of its
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Stability
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(c) Stability

Answer any 5 questions from 8 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 8.
What happens to the drift velocity of charge carriers of a wire if its ,
(a) Potential difference is doubled. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity doubled

(b) Length is increased. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity decreases

Question 9.
(a) S.l. unit of magnetic moment of a dipole is (1)
(a) Am
(b) Am²
(c) JT
(d) JT^-2
Answer:
(b) Am²

(b) Figure shows a magnetic substance placed in an external magnetic field. Identify the substance. (1)

Answer:
Diamagnetic

Question 10.
(a) Can a transformer be used to step up or step down a DC voltage? Justify your answer. (1)
Answer:
No.
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction. A change in current in the primary coil produces instantaneous emf in the secondary coil. In the case of dc, there is no change in current and hence transformer can not be used to step up or step down a dc voltage.

(b) Why do we use soft iron core in a transformer? (1)
Answer:
We use soft iron core. In transformer because of low hysteresis loss.

Question 11.
Match the following
(a) Radio waves – Night vision camera
(b) UV rays – Cellular phone
(c) Micro waves – Water purifier
(d) Infrared – Radar
Answer:
(a) Radio waves – Cellular phone
(b) UV rays – Water purifier
(c) Micro waves – Radar
(d) Infrared – Night vision camera

Question 12.
Sketch the wavefront corresponding to light from the following sources:
(i) A point source (1)
Answer:

(ii) A distant source (1)
Answer:

Question 13.
(a) In Rutehrford scattering experiment, most of the a particle go unscattered while some of them are scattered through large angles. What can be concluded from this? (1)
Answer:
The most space inside an atom is empty. The entire mass of atom is concentrated in a small volume called nucleus.

(b) What will be the angle of scattering when impact parameter is 0? (1)
Answer:
180°

Question 14.
Calculate binding energy of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰ from the following data:
mass of proton: 1.007825 a.m.u
mass of neutron: 1.008665 a.m.u
mass of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰ : 39, 962589 a.m.u
Answer:
Binding energy
= ∆mC² – [zm_p + (A – Z)m_n – M]C²
A = 40, Z = 20
m_p = 1.007825 amu
m_n =1.008665 amu
M = 39.962589 amu
Am = Zm_p + (A – Z)m_n – M
= 20 × 1.007825 + 20 × 1.008665 – 39.962589
= 20.1565 + 20.1733 – 39.962589
= 0.367211 amu
= 0.60957 × 10^-22 kg

E_b = AmC² = 0.60957 × 10^-22 × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 5.486 × 10^-11 J

Answer any 6 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 15.
An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E.
(a) Define dipole moment. (1)
Answer:
Electric dipole moment is the product of magnitude of charge and distance of seperation.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) = q × \(\overrightarrow{2 \mathrm{l}}\)

(b) Obtain an expression for torque acting on it. (2)
Answer:

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
Equal and opposite forces +qE and -qE act on the two charges. Hence the net force on the dipole is zero. But these two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action are different. Hence there will be a torque.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance (between the line of action of two forces )
τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = P E sin θ
Velocity \(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{P}\) × \(\vec{E}\)

Question 16.
(a) Draw an equipotential surface due to an isolated point charge. (1)
Answer:

(b) If the electric field intensity at a given point is zero, will the electric potential necessarily be zero at that point? Why? (2)
Answer:
No. inside a charged shell electric field, intensity is zero. But the electric potential is equal to potential on the surface.

Question 17.
(a) How will you convert a galvanometer into voltmeter. (1)
Answer:
A galvanometer can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting a large resistance in series to it.

(b) A galvanometer with a coil resistance 12Ω shows full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the galvanometer into voltmeter of range 0-18 V? (2)
Answer:
R_G = 12 Ω
I_g = 3mA = 3 × 10^-3A
V = 18V
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – R_G
R = \(\frac{18}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 12 = 5988Q

Question 18.
(a) State Gauss’s law in magnetism. (1)
Answer:
Net magnetiv flux through ant closed surface is zero.
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{ds}}\) = 0

(b) Two substances P and Q have their relative permeability slightly greater and less than one respectively. What do you conclude about P and Q? (2)
Answer:
P → Paramagnetic
Q → Diamagnetic

Question 19.
(a) State Huygens principle. (1)
Answer:
According to Huygen’s principle
1. Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2. The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3. The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

(b) Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of reflection. (2)
Answer:
Img 9
AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront, ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of reflection. Let c1 be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.
The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is ,
Img 10
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wave front from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq(2) should be zero.
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r

Question 20.
(a) The variation of stopping potential with frequency of sodium is given below. Calculate its work function. (1)
Answer:
ϕ = hυ
υ₀ = 4Hz (check)
∴ ϕ = 6.63 × 10^-34 × 4
= 26.52 × 10^-34

(b) The work function for two metals are in the ratio 1:2. Find the ratio of threshold wavelength of those metals. (2)
Img 2
Answer:
Img 11

Question 21.
Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working. Also, draw the input and output waveform. (3)
Answer:
Img
Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance R_L. Input a.c signal is applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D₁ and D₂ The output is taken across R_L.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is forward biased and D₂ is reverse biased. So that current flows through D₁ and R_L.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is reverse biased and D₂ is forward biased. So that current flows through D₂ and R_L.

Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through RL in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across R_L for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.
Img

Answer any 3 questions from 22 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 22.
(a) In a parallel plate capacitor, how is the capacity of affected when
(i) The distance between the plates is doubled.(1)
Answer:
Halved

(ii) The area of the plates is halved (1)
Answer:
Halved

(b) Figure shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B verses increase of charge Q stored on them. Which of the two capacitors has higher capacitance? Given reason for your answer. (2)

Answer:
C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\) = \(\frac{1}{Slope}\)

Question 23.
(a) Kirchoff’s second law is based on laws of conservation of ……… (1)
(i) Charge
(ii) Energy
(iii) Momentum
(iv) Angular momentum
Answer:
(ii) Energy

(b) Use Kirchoff’s rules to analyse the Wheatstore bridge and arrive at Wheatstones condition for balancing the bridge. (3)
Answer:
Four resistances P,Q,R and S are connected as shown in figure. Voltage ‘V’ is applied in between A and C. Let I₁, I₂,I₃ and I₄ be the four currents passing through P, R, Q and S respectively.
Img

Working
The voltage across R.
When key is closed, current flows in different branches as shown in figure. Under this situation
The voltage across P, V_AB = I₁P
The voltage across Q, V_BC = I₃Q ………(1)
The voltage across R, V_AD = I₂R
The voltage across S, V_DC = I₄S
The value of R is adjusted to get zero deflection in galvanometer. Under this condition,
I₁ = I₃ and I₂ = I₄ ………(2)
Using Kirchoffs second law in loop ABDA and BCDB, we get
V_AB = V_AD …………(3)
and V_BC = V_DC ……….. (4)
Substituting the values from eq(1) in to (3) and (4), we get
I₁P = I₂R …………..(5)
and I₃Q = I₄S ………….(6)
Dividing Eq(5)byEq(6)
\(\frac{I_1 P}{I_3 Q}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{I}_4 \mathrm{~S}}\)
\(\frac{P}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{S}\) [since I₁ = I₃ and I₂ = I₄]
This is called Wheatstone condition.

Question 24.
(a) Define self-inductance. (1)
Answer:
Self inductance is the magnetic flux linked with the coil of unit current passing through it.
ϕ = LI
when I = 1A, ϕ = L

(b) Derive an expression for self-inductance of a coil. (3)
Answer:
Consider a solenoid (air core) of length l, number of turns N and area cross section A. let ‘n’ be the no. of turns per unit length (n = N/l)
The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid,
ϕ = BAN
ϕ = μ₀nlAN (since B = μ₀nl)
but ϕ = LI
∴ LI = μ₀nIAN
L = μ₀nAN
If solenoid contains a core of relative permeability μ_r
the L = μ₀μ_rnAN

Question 25.
(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope forming an image at the near point of eye. (2)
Answer:
Img

(b) Obtain an expression for the magnification produced by a compound microscope. (2)
Answer:
Working : The object is placed in between F and 2F of objective lens. The objective lens forms real inverted and magnified image (I₁M₁) on the other side of the lens. This image will act as object or eyepiece. Thus an enlarged, virtual and inverted image is formed, (this image can be adjusted to be at the least distance of distinct vision, D)

Magnification : The magnification produced by the compound microscope
m = \(\frac{\text { size of the image }}{\text { size of the object }}\)
ie, m = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Multiplying and dividing by I₁M₁ we get,
m = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

but we know, m_e = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{~m}_1}\) and m₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{M}_1}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

Where m₀ & m_e are the magnifying power of objective lens and eyepiece lens
m = m₀ × m_e ……….. (1)

Eyepiece acts as a simple microscope.
Therefore m_e = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\) …………(2)

We know magnification of objective lens
m₀ = \(\frac{V_0}{u_0}\) ……….. (3)
Where v₀ and u₀ are the distance of the image and object from the objective lens.
Substituting (2) and (3) in (1), we get
m = \(\frac{- v_0}{u_0}\) (1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\))

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Part – I

A. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
__________ comes under middle level management.
a) Production Manager
b) Managing Director
c) Foreman
d) Supervisor
Answer:
a) Production Manager

Question 2.
___________ environment is beyond the control of the organisation.
a) Internal
b) External
c) Micro
d) None of these
Answer:
b) External

Question 3.
’Putting people to jobs; denote ___________ function of management.
a) Planning
b) Organising
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
Answer:
c) Staffing

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
a) Procedure
b) Budget
c) Policies
d) Rules
Answer:
b) Budget

Question 5.
____________ refers to the mix of owner’s fund and borrowed fund.
a) Capital budget
b) Capital structure
c) Fixed capital
d) Working capital
Answer:
b) Capital structure

Question 6.
___________ environment includes customs and traditions.
a) Economic
b) Legal
c) Technological
d) Social
Answer:
d) Social

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
The primary of management is ___________ .
a) Planning
b) Controlling
c) Organising
d) Staffing
Answer:
a) Planning

Question 8.
_______ helps to increase the knowledge and skills to do a job.
a) Training
b) Development
c) Interest test
d) Personality test
Answer:
a) Training

Question 9.
__________ function of management ensures that activites in an organisation are performed as per the plans.
a) Planning
b) Controlling
c) Co-ordination
d) Organising
Answer:
b) Controlling

Question 10.
‘Competition should be replaced by co-operation is a principle of ___________ .
a) General management
b) Scientific management
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Scientific management

Part – II

A. Answer any 3 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 11.
Complete the table.

Organisational objectives	Survival
Social objectives	?
Personal objectives	?

Answer:

Organisational objectives	Survival
Social objectives	Provide quality goods for fair prices
Personal objectives	Provide fair remuneration

Question 12.
Write any two examples of money market instruments.
Answer:
a) call money
b) commercial paper

Question 13.
Write any 4 rights of a consumer.
Answer:
a) Right to safety
b) Right to choose
c) Right to be informed
d) Right to be heard

Question 14.
Identify the elements of delegation mentioned in the following statements:
a) Right to give orders and enforce obedience.
b) Obligation to perform assigned duty.
Answer:
a) Authority
b) Responsibility

Question 15.
Differentiate between money market and capital market (2 points).
Answer:

Capital Market	Money Market
1) Market deals only Iona term fund.	1) Market deals only short term fund.
2) It arranges large amount of fund.	2) It arranges small amount of fund.
3) Return is high.	3) Return is low.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 16 to 18. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
Write any two examples each for Financial and non- financial incentives.
Answer:
(a) Financial incentives – Bonus, Commission
(b) Non Financial Incentives – Employee recognition programme, Employee participation.

Question 17.
List out the benefits of training and development to an organisation.
Answer:

1. It enhances employee productivity both in terms of quantity and quality, leading to higher profits.
2. Training reduces absenteeism and employee turnover.
3. It helps to obtaining effective response to the changing environment.

Question 18.
Write the impact of Government Policy changes on business and industry. (two points)
Answer:

1. Competition for Indian firms has increased.
2. The customer’s wider choice in purchasing better quality of goods and services.
3. Rapid technological advancement has changed/ improved the production process.

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 19 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
List out the steps in the Process of controlling.
Answer:

1. Setting Performance Standards: Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured. Standards can be set in both quantitative as well as qualitative terms.
2. Measurement of Actual Performance: After establishing standards, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.
3. Comparing Actual Performance with Standards: This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standard. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.
4. Analysing Deviations: The deviations from the standards are assessed and analysed to identify the causes of deviations.
5. Taking Corrective Action: The final step in the controlling process is taking corrective action. No corrective action is required when the deviations are within the acceptable limits.

Question 20.
a) Explain marketing mix.
b) Complete the following diagram.

Answer:
(a) Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

(b)

1. Price
2. Place

Question 21.
Write a short note on the following:
1) Economic environment
2) Legal environment
Answer:
(1) Economic Environment: Interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of people, stock market indices and the value of rupee are some of the economic factors that can affect the business enterprise.

(2) Legal Environment: Legal environment includes various legislations passed by the central, state or local Government.

Question 22.
a) Identify the method of training mentioned in the following:
1) Learning while doing – ______?______
2) Learning before doing – ______?______
b) Classify the following under suitable methods of training:
Coaching, Films, Job rotation, Case study
Answer:
(a)

1. On the job training
2. Off the job training

(b)

1. Coaching – On the job method
2. Films – Off the job method
3. Job rotation – On the job method
4. Case study – Off the job method

Question 23.
Match the following:

Act of overseeing something	Leadership
Act of stimulating people to actions	Communication
Act of.sharing information	Supervision
Ability to influence people	Motivation

Answer:
(a) Act of overseeing something – Supervision
(b) Act of stimulating people to actions – Motivation
(c) Act of sharing information – communication
(d) Ability to influence people – Leadership

B. Answer any 1 Question from 24 to 25. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
Briefly explain effectiveness and efficiency.
Answer:
Efficiency and effectiveness of Management
Efficiency and effectiveness are both commonly used management terms. Efficiency means whatever we produce or perform; it should be done in a perfect way. Efficiency refers to doing things in a right manner. It is defined as the output to input ratio and focuses on getting the maximum output with minimum resources. Effectiveness has a broader approach, which means the extent to which the actual results have been achieved to fulfill the desired outcome, ie, doing accurate things. Being Effective is about doing the right things, while being Efficient is about doing things right.

Question 25.
State the limitations of planning.
Answer:
Limitations of Planning

1. Planning makes the activities rigid.
2. Long term plans are insignificant in the rapidly changing business environment.
3. It reduces creativity.
4. It involves cost.
5. It involves a lot of time.
6. Planning does not guarantee success.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each carries 6 scores.

Question 26.
Explain the various levels of management.
Answer:
Levels of Management: There are three levels in the hierarchy of an organisation.
They are:

1. Top – Level Management
2. Middle – Level Management
3. Lower – Level Management

1. Top Level Management: It consists of Chairman, Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.
Functions of Top Level Management

1. Lays down the objectives of the business
2. Prepares strategic plans and policies
3. Appoint middle level managers

2. Middle Level Management: All the functional department heads and branch managers come under the category of middle level managers. E.g. Production manager, Sales manager, Finance manager, etc.
Functions of Middle Level Management

1. Carry out the plans formulated by the top managers.
2. To act as a link between Top Level Management and Lower Level Management
3. Assign necessary duties and responsibilities to the subordinates.

2. Lower / Supervisory / Operational Level Management: This level includes foremen, supervisors, finance and accounts officers, sales officers, etc. This level of managers have direct contact with employees.
Functions of Lower Level Management

1. Plan day – to – day activities.
2. Assign workers to different jobs
3. Solve the problems of workers

Question 27.
a) Name the organisation mentioned in the following statements:
1) Organisation created by authority relation-ship – ______?______
2) Organisation created by personal relation-ships – ______?______
b) Also write any four differences between them.
Answer:
(a) (1) Formal organisation
(2) Informal organisation

(b) Difference between formal organisation and informal organisation.

Formal organisation	Informal organisation
1) It is deliberately created by top level management.	1) It arises automatically as a result of social interaction among the employees.
2) It has pre-determined purpose.	2) It has no predetermined purpose.
3) It is highly rigid.	3) It is more flexible.
4) Communication is allowed through the scalar chain.	4) Communication is allowed through all channel networks.
Formal organisation	Informal organisation

Question 28.
List out the qualities of a good leader.
Answer:
Qualities of a Good Leader

1. Physical Features: Physical features like height, weight, health, appearance determine the physical personality of a leader.
2. Knowledge: A good leader should have required knowledge and competence.
3. Honesty: A leader should possess high level of honesty.
4. Initiative: A leader should have courage and initiative.
5. Communication Skills: A leader should have the capacity to clearly explain the ideas.
6. Motivation Skills: The leader should have the ability to motivate the subordinates by satisfying their needs.
7. Self Confidence: A leader should have high level of self confidence.

Question 29.
Explain the major financial decisions of an organisation.
Answer:
Finance Functions: The finance function is concerned with three broad decisions which are:

1. Finance Decision: It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision: The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short-term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.
Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision: Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 30.
Write the nature of principles of management. (3 points)
Answer:
Nature of Principles of Management: Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action. The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles have universal application in all types of organizations.
2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.
3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

Question 31.
State the importance of communication. (4 points)
Answer:
Importance of Communication

1. Acts as basis of co-ordination: Communication acts as the basis of co-ordination.
2. Helps in smooth working of an enterprise: It is only communication, which makes smooth working of an enterprise possible.
3. Actsasbasisof decision making: Communication provides needed information for decision making.
4. Increases managerial efficiency: Communication lubricates the entire organisation and keeps the organisation at work with efficiency.
5. Promotes co-operation and industrial peace: Communication promotes co-operation and mutual understanding between the management and workers.

Question 32.
Explain the following:
1) Convenience products
2) Shopping products
3) Speciality products
Answer:
1) Convenience Products : Those consumer products, which are purchased frequently, immediately and with least time and efforts are referred to as convenience goods. Eg. ice creams, medicines, newspaper, stationery items, toothpaste, etc.

2) Shopping Products: Shopping products are those consumer goods, which buyers devote considerable time, to compare the quality, price, style, suitability, etc., at several stores, before making final purchase. Eg. clothes, shoes, jewellery, furniture, etc.

3) Speciality Products: Speciality products are.those consumer goods which have certain special features because of which people make special efforts in their purchase. The buyers are willing to spend a lot of time and efforts on the purchase of such products. The demand for these goods is inelastic.

Part – V

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 35. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
Explain the following principles of management:
1) Unity of command
2) Unity of direction
3) Scalar chain
4) Order
Answer:
1. Unity of Command: The principle of unity of command states that each employee should receive orders from one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees.

2. Unity of Direction: Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head Studies and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

3. Scalar Chain: The formal lines of authority from highest to lowest ranks are known as scalar chain. According to this principle, communication should pass through the established chain of command. It ensures unity of command and effective communication.

4. Order: According to Fayol, “People and materials must be in suitable places. That means, a place for everything and everything must be in its place.

Question 34.
Describe the process of planning.
Answer:
Planning Process (Steps in Planning)

1. Setting Objectives: The first step in planning is setting objectives. Objectives may be set for the entire organisation and for each department. The objective must be specific and clear.
2. Developing premises: Planning is based on certain assumptions about the future. These assumptions are called planning premises. Forecasting is important in developing planning premises.
3. Identifying alternative courses of action: The next step in planning is to identify the alternative courses of action to achieve the objectives.
4. Evaluating alternative Courses: The pros and cons of various alternatives must be evaluated in terms of their expected cost and benefits.
5. Selecting an alternative: After evaluating the alternatives the manager will select that alternative which gives maximum benefit at minimum cost.
6. Implement the plan: Implementation of plan means putting plans into action so as to achieve the objectives of the business.
7. Follow up action: Plans are to be evaluated regularly to check whether they are being implemented and activities are performed according to schedule.

Question 35.
Explain any four commonly used external sources of recruitment.
Answer:
1) Direct Recruitment: Under the direct recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2) Casual callers: Many reputed business, organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. These lists can be used for recruitment.

3) Advertisement: Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4) Employment Exchange: Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5) Placement Agencies and Management Consultants: These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Find the odd one.
(a) Chief Executive Officer
(b) Chief Operating Officer
(c) Chairman
(d) Supervisor
Answer:
(d) Supervisor

Question 2.
It seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.
(a) Motion study
(b) Fatigue study
(c) Time study
(d) Method study
Answer:
(b) Fatigue study

Question 3.
Manager’s plans are based on certain assumptions.They are denoted by ……………………
(a) Planning premises
(b) Alternatives
(c) Follow-up action
(d) Implementing
Answer:
(a) Planning premises

Question 4.
Identify the term used to denote “the right of an individual to give orders and to take action within the scope of his position.”
(a) Responsibility
(b) Accountability
(c) Authority
(d) Decentralisation
Answer:
(c) Authority

Question 5.
Process of finding possible candidates for a job or function.
(a) Training
(b) Recruitment
(c) Selection
(d) Promotion
Answer:
(b) Recruitment

Question 6.
Identify the process of converting the message into communication symbols such as words, pictures etc.
(a) Feedback
(b) Encoding
(c) Decoding
(d) Message
Answer:
(b) Encoding

Question 7.
Identify the principle which indicates that “only significant deviations which go beyond the permissible limit should be brought to the notice of management.”
(a) Setting performance standard
(b) Measuring perforance
(c) Control by exception
(d) Critical point control
Answer:
(c) Control by exception

Question 8.
Which one of the following does not affect financing decision?
(a) Cost
(b) Risk
(c) Budget
(d) Floatation cost
Answer:
(c) Budget

Question 9.
Advertising falls under which one of the following elements of marketing mix?
(a) Place
(b) Price
(c) Product
(d) Promotion
Answer:
(d) Promotion

Question 10.
Which one of the following apex body of redressal agency under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
(a) District forum
(b) State Commission
(c) National Commission
(d) High Court
Answer:
(c) National Commission

Answer any 5 questions from 11 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Complete the Chart

Answer:
a) Social objectives
b) Personal objectives

Question 12.
What is meant by business environment?
Answer:
The term ‘business environment1 means the sum total of all individuals, institutions and other forces that are outside the control of a business enterprise but that may affect its performance.

Question 13.
Plans can be classified into several types depending on the use and the length of the period. List them.
Answer:

1. Single use plan: A single use plan is developed for a one-time event or project. Such plans are not to be repeated in future. E.g. budgets, programmes, strategies, etc.
2. Standing plan: A standing plan is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time.
   E g.:-Objectives, policies, procedures, methods and rules.

Question 14.
Every organization will be characterized by both centralization and decentralisation. Differentiate between centralization and decentralization.
Answer:
Centralization and Decentralization: Centralisation means concentration of authority at the top management. Decentralisation means dispersal of authority to the lower levels in the organisation. There should be a balance between Centralisation and decentralization.

Question 15.
List out the four elements of directing.
Answer:

1. Supervision
2. Motivation
3. Leadership
4. Communication

Question 16.
“Planning and Controlling are interrelated.” Comment.
Answer:
Relationship between Planning and Controlling

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.

Answer any 5 questions from 17 to 22. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 5)

Question 17.
Explain the technique of functional foremanship.
Answer:
Functional foremanship: Functional foremanship is a technique in which planning and execution are separated. He classified 8 specialist foremen into two departments viz. Planning and Production department. Both departments have four foremen each. Functional foremanship is based on the principle of division of work.

Question 18.
Every organization uses several tests for selection of employees. Mention any three.
Answer:
a) Intelligence Tests: This is one of the important psychological tests used to measure the level of intelligence quotient (IQ) of an individual.

b) Aptitude Test: It is a measure of individual’s potential for learning new skills.

c) Personality Tests: Personality tests provide clues to a person’s emotions, reactions, maturity and value system, etc.

Question 19.
Explain any three limitations of controlling.
Answer:

1. Difficulty in setting quantitative standards: Control system loses some of its effectiveness when standards cannot be defined in quantitative terms.
2. Little control on external factors: Generally an enterprise cannot control external factors such as government policies, technological changes, competition, etc.
3. Resistance from employees: Control is often resisted by employees. They see it as a restriction on their freedom.

Question 20.
Finance function is concerned with taking three important decisions. What are they?
Answer:
1. Finance Decision: It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision: The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short-term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.

Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision: Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question 21.
Briefly explain different types of consumer products.
Answer:
Consumers’ Products : Products, which are purchased by the ultimate consumers for satisfying their personal needs and wants are referred to as consumer products.
Consumer products are classified as
a) Shopping efforts involved
b) Durability of products

Question 22.
Observe the following diagram:

(a) Identify the communication network.
(b) Briefly explain.
Answer:
a) Wheel Network
b) Wheel: In wheel network, all subordinates under one superior communicate through him only. The subordinates are not allowed to communicate among themselves.

Answer any 4 questions from 23 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
“Management is a profession.” Give your views, (any four)
Answer:
Management as a Profession: Profession means an occupation for which specialised knowledge and skills are required. The main features of profession are as follows.

1. Well defined body of knowledge
2. Formal education and training
3. Professional Associations

Management is a profession because:
a) Management is based on a systematic body of knowledge comprising well defined principles.

b) A manager acquires management skills through formal education and training.

c) All professions are affiliated to a professional association which regulates entry and frame code of conduct relating to the profession.

Question 24.
Complete the following chart and explain each element:

Answer:

Question 25.
Match the following:

A	B
1. Debentrues	(a) Owner’s fund
2. Equity share	(b) Borrowed funds
3. Working capital	(c) Debt-equity ratio
4. Capital structure	(d) Current asset

Answer:

A	B
1. Debentrues	(b) Borrowed funds
2. Equity share	(a) Owner’s fund
3. Working capital	(d) Current asset
4. Capital structure	(c) Debt-equity ration

Question 26.
“Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides several rights to consumers.” Explain any four rights.
Answer:

1. Right to Safety: The consumer has a right to be protected against goods and services which are hazardous to life and health.
2. Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc.
3. Right to Choose: The consumer has the freedom to choose from a variety of products at competitive prices.
4. Right to be Heard: The consumer has a right to file a complaint and to be heard in case of dissatisfaction with goods or services.

Question 27.
Observe the following diagram:

(a) Identify the organization structure.
(b) Explain three advantages of it.
Answer:
a) Functional organisation

b)

1. It promotes division of work which leads to specialisation.
2. It promotes control and coordination within a department.
3. It helps in increasing managerial and operational efficiency and this results in increased profit.

Answer any 3 questions from 28 to 31. Each carries 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Briefly explain Fayol’s management principles. (any live)
Answer:

1. Division of Work: This principle states that a complex work should be divided into small tasks, and each task should be assigned to a particular employee. Division of work leads to specialization.
2. Authority and Responsibility: Authority is the right to give orders to the subordinates and responsibility is the obligation to perform the work in the manner directed by authority. There should be a balance between authority and responsibility.
3. Discipline: it is the obedience to organizational rules and employment agreement which are necessary for working of the organization.
4. Unity of Command: The principle of unity of command states that each employee should receive orders from one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees.
5. Unity of Direction: Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

Question 29.
What is marketing mix? Explain its elements.
Answer:
Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements /4 P’s of Marketing Mix

• Product: Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.
• Price: Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.
• Place: Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.
• Promotion: Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 30.
Explain five factors affecting the working capitail requirement of an organization.
Answer:
Factors affecting Working Capital

• Nature of Business: A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital as compared to a manufacturing organisation.
• Scale of Operations: A large scale organisation requires large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.
• Business Cycle: In the boom period larger amount of working capital is needed to meet the demand. In case of depression, demand for goods declines so less working capital is required.
• Seasonal Factors: During peak season demand of a product will be high and thus high working capital wiH be required as compared to lean season.
• Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

Question 31.
Write a short note on:
(a) Objectives
(b) Strategy
(c) Policy
(d) Procedure
(e) Programme
Answer:
a) Objectives: Objectives are the ends, towards which activity is aimed at for the accomplishment of organizational goals. Objective should be measurable in quantitative terms.

b) Strategy: Strategy is a comprehensive plan for – accomplishing an organization objectives. This comprehensive plan will include determining long term objectives, adopting a particular course of action and allocating resources.

c) Policy: Policy is a broad statement formulated to provide guidelines in decision making.

d) Procedure: Procedure is a chronological sequence or steps to be undertaken to enforce a policy.

e) Programme: Programme includes all the activities necessary for achieving a given objective.Programmes are the combination of goals, policies, procedures and rules.

Answer any 2 questions from 32 to 34. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Explain the external sources of recruitment, (any eight)
Answer:
External Sources: Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.

The important external sources of recruitment are:

• Direct Recruitment: Under the direct recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Jobseekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.
• Casual callers: Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. These lists can be used for recruitment.
• Advertisement: Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.
• Employment Exchange: Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.
• Placement Agencies and Management Consultants: These agencies compile biodata of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.
• Campus Recruitment: Business enterprises may conduct campus|recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.
• Recommendations of Employees: Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.
• Labour Contractors: Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.
• Web Publishing: There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated for the purpose of providing information for the job seekers.

Question 33.
Explain barriers of effective communication.
Answer:
Barriers to Communication
1) Semantic barriers: Semantic barriers are concerned with problems and obstructions in the process of encoding and decoding of message into words or impressions. Semantic barriers are:-
a) Badly expressed message: The badly expressed messages may be an account of inadequate vocabulary, usage of wrong words, omission of needed words, etc.
b) Symbols with different meanings: People may interpret the same message differently depending upon their attitude, education, social and cultural backgrounds.

2) Psychological Barriers: Emotional or psychological factors act as barriers to communicators. Psychological barriers are:
a) Premature evaluation: People evaluate the meaning of message before the sender completes his message.
b) Lack of attention: The preoccupied mind of receiver and the resultant non-listening of message acts as a major psychological barrier.

3) Organisational Barriers Organisation’s policies, Number of levels of management, rigid rules, etc., are the examples of organisational barriers.
a) Organisational policy: If the organisational policy is complex, it restricts the free flow of communication.
b) Rules and regulations: Rigid Rules and regulations may be a hurdle to communication

4) Personal barriers
It includes fear of challenge to authority, lack of confidence, lack of incentives, etc.
a) Fear of challenge to authority: If a superior perceives that a particular communication may affect his authority, then he withhold such communication.
b) Lack of confidence: If superiors do not have confidence on the competency of subordinates, they may not seek their advice.

Question 34.
“It is the paid from of communication and impersonal method of promotion.”
(a) Identify the concept.
(b) Explain four merits and three demerits of it.
Answer:
a) Advertisement

b) 1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.

2. Advantages to Consumers

1. It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
2. Consumers can purchase the better products easily.

3. Advantages to the Society

1. Advertisement helps to create more ‘ employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.

c) Disadvantages /Objections to Advertising

1. Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
2. Most of the advertisements are misleading.
3. Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand,
4. Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Part – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (9 × 1 = 9)

Question 1.
interaction of domestic economy with the rest of the world economy is termed as ……………………… .
a) Liberalisation
b) Globalisation
c) Privatisation
d) Demonetisation
Answer:
b) Globalisation

Question 2.
……………………….. organisation structure leads product specialisation.
Answer:
Divisional Structure

Question 3.
Choose the correct equation relating to working capital.
a) Current Assets + Fixed Assets
b) Current Assets – Current Liabilities
c) Current Assets – Fixed Liabilities
d) Current Assets + Current Liabilities
Answer:
b) Current Assets – Current Liabilities

Question 4.
Find the odd one relating to the features of management principles.
a) Universal
b) Flexible
c) Behavioural
d) Rigidity
Answer:
d) Rigidity

Question 5.
Mr. Babu is the Chief Executive Officer of Premier Ltd. Name the level of management he belongs.
a) Top level
b) Middle level
c) Supervisory level
d) Lower level
Answer:
a) Top level

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given:
The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act: 1954
The Consumer Protection Act:…?
Answer:
1986

Question 7.
Which is called as “Silent Salesman” in a market?
a) Grading
b) Trade Mark
c) Packaging
d) Branding
Answer:
c) Packaging

Question 8.
PERT stands for …………………
Answer:
Programme Evaluation Review Technique

Question 9.
Name the organisational structure which increases managerial and operational efficiency.
Answer:
9. Functional Structure

Answer any 4 questions from 10 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 10.
List any two Selection Teste used for selecting an employee.
Answer:
(1) Intelligence Test
(2) Aptitude Test
(3) Personality Test
(4) Trade Test
(5) Interest Trest

Question 11.
Find the odd one. Give reason.
(a) Motivation
(b) Leadership
(c) Communication
(d) Staffing
Answer:
Staffing. All others are elements of directing

Question 12.
“Management is a Science.”- Give any two reasons to justify this statement.
Answer:
a) Management has systematised body of knowledge like science.
b) Management principles are developed through scientific enquiry and experimentation
c) Management principles are universally applicable.

Question 13.
Identify the management principles in the following statements.
(a) Management should promote a team spirit among employees.
(b) There should be a place for everything in the organisation.
Answer:
a) Espirit De Corps (Union is strength)
b) Order

Question 14.
Explain how planning facilitates decision making.
Answer:
Planning provides the basis for control. Planning specifies the standard with which the actual performance is compared to find out deviation and taking corrective action.

Answer any 4 questions from 15 to 19. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 15.
State any three consumer responsibilities.
Answer:

1. Be aware about various goods and services available in the market.
2. Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance.
3. Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
4. Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.

Question 16.
Mention any three features of a good brand name.
Answer:

1. The brand name should be short, easy to pronounce, spell, recognise and remember.
2. A brand should suggest the product’s benefits and qualities.
3. A brand name should be distinctive.
4. Brand name should be adaptable to packing or labelling requirements, to different advertising media and to different languages.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of financial planning.
Answer:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are
a) To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
b) To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

Question 18.
List out any three non-financial incentives.
Answer:
Non-Financial Incentives : Incentives which are not measurable in terms of money are called Non- Financial Incentives. These incentives are essential for satisfying physiological, social and emotional needs. Some of the important non-financial incentives are:
a) Status: status means ranking of positions in the organisation. Physiological, social and esteem needs of an individual are satisfied by status given to their job.

b) Organisational Climate: It includes individual autonomy, reward orientation, consideration to employees, etc. These characteristics influence the behaviour of individuals in the organization.

c) Career Advancement Opportunity: Managers should provide opportunity to employees to A improve their skills and be promoted to the higher level jobs.

d) Job Enrichment: It is a method of motivating employee by making the task to be performed by him more interesting and challenging.

Question 19.
Name the types of plan and give an example from the following:
(a) Statement of expected result expressed in numerical terms.
(b) Specific statement that informs what is to be done and what is not to be done.
Answer:
a) Budget: eg. Cash budget, Sales budget
b) Rule. eg. No Smoking, Remove your shoes

Answer any 5 questions from 20 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 20.
State any four differences between an entrepreneur and a manager.
Answer:

Entrepreneur	Manager
The main motive of an entrepreneur is to start a venture by setting up an enterprise.	The main motive of a manager is to render his services in an enterprise already set up by someone.
An entrepreneur is the owner of the enterprise	A manager is the servant in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur assumes all risks and uncertainty	A manager does not bear any risk involved in the enterprise.
An entrepreneur gets profit.	A manager gets salary.

Question 21.
Explain the ‘Production Concept’ in marketing.
Answer:
The Production Concept: This concept believed that profits could be maximised by producing at large scale, thereby reducing the cost of production. Here greater emphasis was given on improving the production and distribution.

Question 22.
Planning and Controlling are inter-related. Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Relationship between Planning and Controlling

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
5. Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.

Question 23.
“This source of recruitment develop dissatisfaction among existing staff.”
(1) Identify the source of recruitment.
(2) Explain any four sources under this category.
Answer:
a) External sources of recruitment

b)

• Direct Recruitment: Under the direct recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Jobseekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.
• Casual callers: Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. These list can be used for recruitment.
• Advertisement: Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.
• Employment Exchange: Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

Question 24.
Identify the process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments. Write any three features of it.
Answer:
a) Co-ordination

b)

1. Co-ordination integrates group efforts of different departments
2. Co-ordination ensures unity of action
3. Co-ordination is a continuous process
4. Co-ordination is an all pervasive function
5. Co-ordination is the responsibility of all managers
6. Co-ordination is a deliberate function

Question 25.
Explain any two money market instruments.
Answer:
1) Treasury Bill: they are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short-term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par. They are issued in the form of promissory notes. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills. They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2) Commercial Paper: Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

Answer the question 26. (5)

Question 26.
Match the following.

A	B
On the job Training	External Sources
Transfer	Negative Process
Campus Recruitment	Internship Training
Selection	Conference
Off the Job Training	Internal Sources

Answer:

A	B
On the job Training	Internship Training
Transfer	Internal Sources
Campus Recruitment	External Sources
Selection	Negative Process
Off the Job Training	Conference

Answer any 2 questions from 27 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 27.
Explain the term ‘Mental Revolution’ in relation to Scientific Management.
Answer:
Taylor’s Scientific Management: Fredrick Winslow Taylor (1856 – 1915) is known as the Father of Scientific Management. His book ‘Principles of Scientific Management’was published in 1911.

In the words of Taylor, “Scientific management means knowing exactly what you want men to do and seeing that they do it in the best and cheapest way”.

Harmony, not discord: As per this principle, there should be complete harmony between the management and workers. Taylor called for complete mental revolution on the part of both management and workers. Both the parties should realize each other’s importance and work towards the profits of the firm.

Question 28.
Explain any five impacts of government policy changes in Indian Business and Industry.
Answer:
Impact of Government Policy Changes on Business and Industry: The government policy of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has made a definite impact on the working of enterprises in business and industry in terms of the following.

1. Competition for Indian firms has increased.
2. The customer’s wider choice in purchasing better quality of goods and services.
3. Rapid technological advancement has changed/ improved the production process.
4. Enterprises are forced to continuously modify their operations.
5. Need for Developing Human Resources arise.

Question 29.
It is a network of Personal arid Social relations among employees without any conscious purpose. Explain the concept referred here.
Answer:
Informal Organisation: informal organisation refers to relationship between individuals in the organisation based on interest, personal attitude, emotions, likes, dislikes etc. The network of social groups based on friendship is called informal organisation.

1. It originates from within the formal organisation as a result of personal interaction among employees.
2. It has no written rules and procedures.
3. It does not have fixed lines of communication.
4. It is not deliberately created by the management.

or
Informal Communication: Communication that takes place without following the formal lines of communication is said to be informal communication. It results from the social interaction among the members. It satisfies the social needs of members in the organisation. The network of informal communication is known as Grapevine. It is so called because the origin and direction of flow of communication cannot be easily traced out.

Types of Informal Communication / Grapevine Network

1. Single Strand Network: In single strand network, each person communicates to the other in sequence.
2. Gossip Network: In gossip network, each person communicates with all on non-selective basis.
3. Probability Network: In probability network, the individual communicates randomly with other individual.
4. Cluster Network: In cluster, the individual communicates with only those people whom he trusts.

Answer any 2 questions from 30 – 32. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 30.
Explain the factors affecting working capital requirements of a company. (Any Eight points)
Answer:
Factors affecting Working Capital

• Nature of Business: A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital as compared to a manufacturing organisation.
• Scale of Operations: A large scale organisation . requires large amount of working capital as
  compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.
• Business Cycle: In the boom period larger amount of working capital is needed to meet the demand. In case of depression, demand for goods declines so less working capital is required.
• Seasonal Factors: During peak season demand of a product will be high and thus high working capital will be required as compared to lean season.
• Production Cycle: Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.
• Credit Policy: A liberal credit policy results in higher amount of debtors, increasing the requirement of working capital.
• Operating Efficiency: If cash, debtors and inventory are efficiently managed, working capital requirement can be reduced.
• Availability of Raw Materials: If the raw materials are easily available in the market and there is no shortage, huge amount need not be blocked in inventories, so it needs less working capital.

Question 31.
Prepare a Seminar report on the topic “Barriers to Communication”.
Answer:
Barriers to Communication
1) Semantic barriers: Semantic barriers are concerned with problems and obstructions in the process of encoding and decoding of message into words or impressions. Semantic barriers are:-
a) Badly expressed message: The badly expressed messages may be an account of inadequate vocabulary, usage of wrong words, omission of needed words, etc.
b) Symbols with different meanings: People may interpret the same message differently depending upon their attitude, education, social and cultural backgrounds.

2) Psychological Barriers: Emotional or psychological factors act as barriers to. communicators. Psychological barriers are:
a) Premature evaluation: People evaluate the meaning of message before the sender completes his message.
b) Lack of attention: The preoccupied mind of receiver and the resultant non-listening of ‘ message acts as a major psychological barrier.

3) Organisational Barriers Organisation’s policies, Number of levels of management, rigid rules, etc., are the examples of organisational barriers.
a) Organisational policy: If the organisational policy is complex, it restricts the free flow of communication.
b) Rules and regulations : Rigid Rules and regulations may be a hurdle to communication

4) Personal barriers
It includes fear of challenge to authority, lack of confidence, lack of incentives, etc.
a) Fear of challenge to authority: If a superior perceives that a particular communication may affect his authority, then he with hold such communication.
b) Lack of confidence: If superiors do not have confidence on the competency of subordinates, they may not seek their advice.

Question 32.
A TV manufacturing company spends huge amount in advertisement to increase the number of its customers.
Illustrate the merits and demerits of advertisement as a promotion technique.
Answer:
Merits of Advertising
1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.

2. Advantages to Consumers

1. It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
2. Consumers can purchase the better products easily.

3. Advantages to the Society

1. Advertisement helps to create more employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.

Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising

1. Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
2. Most of the advertisements are misleading.
3. Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand.
4. Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
5. Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the inferior products.
6. It undermines social and ethical values.