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Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018

March 15, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 with Answers

Board	SCERT
Class	Plus Two
Subject	Physics
Category	Plus Two Previous Year Question Papers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates

There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
Read questions carefully before you answering.
All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
Give equations wherever necessary.
Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

You may use following Physical constants wherever necessary.

Mass of proton 1.66 × 10^-27 kg
Mass of Electron 9.11 × 10^-31 kg
Elementary charge, e = 1.6 × 10^-19C
Velocity of light in vacuum c = 3 × 10⁸m/s
Permittivity of free space ε₀ = 8.85 × 10^-12 F/m

Question Nos. 1 to 7 carry 1 score each. Answer 6 questions. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 1.
Write the physical quantities having the following SI unit.
i) cm
ii) Ωm
Answer:
i) Electric dipole moment
ii) Electrical resistivity

Question 2.
A uniform wire of resistance 40Ω is cut into four equal parts and they are connected in parallel. The effective resistance of the combination is
i) 40Ω
ii) 10Ω
iii) 2.5Ω
iv) 4Ω
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 1

Question 3.
A particle of charge q is moving through a uniform magnetic field of intensity B with a velocity v. Write an expression for the force acting on the particle in vector form.
Answer:
$\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\mathrm{q}(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}})$

Question 4.
The minimum distance between the object and its real image for a concave mirror of focal length f is
i) f
ii) 2f
iii) 4f
iv) zero
Answer:
iv) zero

Question 5.
Variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different intensities I₁, I₂, and I₃ of incident radiation is shown below.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 2
Arrange these intensities in the accending order.
Answer:
I₃ > I₂ > I₁

Question 6.
An electron is revolving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in an orbit of radius nine times the radius of the first orbit. Angular momentum of the electron in this orbit is.
i) $\frac{h}{2 \pi}$
ii) $\frac{9 h}{2 \pi}$
iii) $\frac{3 h}{\pi}$
iv) $\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}$
Answer:
radius of the nucleus r = n²r₀
In this case
∴ n² = 9, n= 3
Angular momentum L = $\frac{\mathrm{nh}}{2 \pi}$
for third orbit L = $\frac{3 h}{2 \pi}$

Question 7.
The voltage-current characteristics of an optoelectronic junction device is shown below.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 3
Identify the device.
Answer:
Solar cell

Question Nos. 8 – 15 carry 2 scores each. Answer any 7 questions. (7 × 2 = 14)

Question 8.
What is the radius of the circular path of an electron moving at a speed of 3 × 10⁷ m/s in a magnetic field of 6 × 10^-4 T perpendicular to it?
Answer:
radius r = $\frac{m v}{q B}$
v = 3 × 10⁷ m/s, m = 9.1 × 10^-31kg
B = 6 × 10^-4, q = 1.6 × 10^-19
r = $\frac{9.1 \times 10^{-37} \times 3 \times 10^{7}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 6 \times 10^{-4}}$ = 0.285 m

Question 9.
a) “Parallel currents attract, and antiparallel currents repel”. State whether this statement is true or false.
b) Define the SI unit of current in terms of force between two current-carrying conductors.
Answer:
a) True
b) Ampere is defined as that current which is maintained in two straight parallel conductors of infinite length placed one meter apart in the vacuum will produce between a force of 2 × 10^-7 Newton per meter length.

Question 10.
A circular metallic loop and a current-carrying conductor are placed as shown in the figure.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 4
If the current through the conductor is increasing from A to B, find the direction of the induced current the loop.
Answer:
Current flows in a clockwise direction

Question 11.
a) The electric field vector of an electromagnetic wave is represented as E_x = E_m Sin(kz – ωt). Write the equation for the magnetic field vector.
b) The ratio of the intensity of the magnetic field to intensity of the electric field has the dimensions of
i) velocity
ii) acceleration
iii) reciprocal of velocity
iv) reciprocal of acceleration
Answer:
a) By = B_m Sin (Kz – ωt)
b) reciprocal of velocity

Question 12.
Write the equations for the following nuclear reactions:
a) β⁺decay of ${ }_{6}^{11} c$ to Boron (B)
b) β ^–decay of ${ }_{15}^{32} c$ to Sulphur (S)
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 11

Question 13.
Write the truth table of the circuit shown below.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 5
Answer:

A	B	Y
0	0	0
0	1	1
1	0	1
1	1	1

Question 14.
A TV transmitting antenna is 100 m tall. How much service area can it cover if the receiving antenna is at the ground level? Radius of earth is 6400 km.
Answer:
Hight of antenna, h = 100 m = 0.1 km
Radius of earth = 6400 km
Transmission range d = $\sqrt{2 R h}$
∴ Maximum area covered A = πd²
= π($\sqrt{2 R h}$)²
= 3.14 × 2 × 6400 × 0.1
= 4019 km²

Question 15.
Two magnetic dipoles P and Q are placed in a uniform magnetic field $\vec{B}$ gas shown.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 6
a) Both the dipoles do not experience any torque. Why?
b) Identify the dipole which is in most stable equilibrium.
Answer:
a) Dipole moment is parallel to magnetic field.
b) Dipole Q

Question Nos. 16 to 22 carry 3 scores each. Answer any 6 questions. (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 16.
The experimental setup for the comparison of two resistances is shown below.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 7
a) The working principle of the above device is
i) Ohm’s law
ii) Kirchhoffs second law
iii) Wheatstone’s principle
iv) Point Rule
b) In figure, Let X is the effective resistance of series combination of two 3Ω resistors and R is the effective of a parallel combination of two 3Ω resistors. The balance point is obtained at C. If the length AB is 100 cm. find the length AC of the wire.
Answer:
a) Wheatston’s principle
b) x = 6 Ω
R = 1.5 Ω
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 12

Question 17.
A magnetic needle has a magnetic moment 6.7 × 10^-7 Am² and moment of inertia 7.5 × 10^-6 kgm². In a uniform magnetic field, it performs 10 complete oscillations in 6.70s. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
Answer:
magnetic moment m = 6.7 × 10^-2 Am²
moment of inertria, I = 7.5 × 10^-6 kgm²

Question 18.
With the help of a ray diagram, show the formation of image of a point object by refraction of light at a spherical surface separating two media of refractive indices n₁ and n₂. Using the diagram derive the relation
$\frac{n_{2}}{v}-\frac{n_{1}}{u}=\frac{n_{2}-n_{1}}{R}$
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 14
Consider a convex surface XY, which separates two media having refractive indices n₁ and n₂. Let C be the centre of curvature and P be the pole. Let an object is placed at ‘O’, at a distance ‘u’ from the pole. I is the real image of the object at a distance ‘V’ from the surface. OA is the incident ray at angle ‘i’ and AI is the refracted ray at an angle ‘r’. OP is the ray incident normally. So it passes without any deviation. From snell’s law,
sin i/sin r = $\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2}}{\mathrm{n}_{1}}$
If ‘i’ and ‘r’ are small, then sin i » i and sin r » r.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 15
From the Δ OAC, exterior angle = sum of the interior opposite angles
i.e., i = α + θ ………(2)
Similarly, from Δ IAC,
α = r + β
r = α – β ………..(3)
Substituting the values of eq(2) and eq(3)in eqn.(1)
we get,
n₁(α + θ) = n₂(α – β)
n₁α + n₁θ = n₂α – n₂β
n₁θ + n2β = n₂α – n₁α
n₁θ + n₂β = (n₂ – n₁)α ………..(4)
From OAP, we can write,

According to New Cartesian sign convection, we can write,
OP = -u, PI = +v and PC = R
Substituting these values, we get
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 17

Question 19.
a) Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident radiation. Mark the threshold frequency in the figure.
b) Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation, show that photoelectric emission is not possible if the frequency of incident radiation is less than the threshold frequency.
Answer:
a)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 18
b) According to Einsten’s Equation
hν = hν₀ + KE
if = ν < ν₀, kinetic energy of electron becomes negative.

Question 20.
a) The energy levels of an atom are as shown in the figure.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 8
Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?
b) Sketch the energy level diagram for hydrogen atom and mark the transitions corresponding to Balmer series.
Answer:
a) In between 0 to -2ev
b)

Question 21.
The decay rate of a radioactive ample is called its activity.
a) What is the SI unit of activity?
b) The half life of ${ }_{92}^{238} U$ against alpha decay is 1.5 × 10^-17 s. Calculate the activity of a sample of ${ }_{92}^{238} U$ having 25 × 10²⁰ atoms.
Answer:
a) becquerel
b) N = 25 × 10²⁰, half life T_1/2 = 1.5 × 10¹⁷s
activity, R = λN
R = $\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{~T}_{1 / 2}} \times \mathrm{N}=\frac{0.693}{1.5 \times 10^{17}} \times 25 \times 10^{20}$
R = 11550 B_q

Question 22.
a) Draw the circuit diagram where a zener diode is used as a direct voltage regulator.
b) In a zener regulated power supply a zener diode with zener voltage 4V is used for regulation. The load current is to be 4 m A and zener current is 20 mA. If the unregulated input is 10V, What should be the value of resistor that is to be connected in series with the diode?
Answer:
a)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 20
b) Zener voltage
V₂ = 4V, I_L = 4 × 10^-3 A, I₂= 20 × 10^-3 A
Unregulated input = 10 v
Voltage across resister = 10 – 4 = 6v
Current through the resister = I_L+ I₂
= (4 + 20) mA
= 24 × 10^-3 A
∴ resistance R = $\frac{V}{I}$
R = $\frac{6}{24 \times 10^{-3}}$ = 250 Ω

Question Nos. 23 to 26 carry 4 scores each. Answer any 3 questions. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 23.
Coulomb’s Law is a quantitative statement about the force between two point charges.
a) Write the mathematical expression of the above law.
b) Two ions carrying equal charges repel with a force of 1.48 × 10^-8 N when they are separated by a distance of 5 × 10^-10m. How many electrons have been removed from each iron?
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 20

Question 24.
a) Potential energy of a system of charges is directly proportional to the product of charges and inversely to the distance between them.
a) Prove the above statement.
b) Two-point charges 3 × 10^-8 C and -2 × 10^-8 C are separated by a distance of 15cm. At what point on the line joining the charges the potential is zero?
Answer:
a) Potential of a system is the work done to assemble the system,
∴ w = qV
= $\mathrm{q}_{1} \times \frac{1}{4 \pi q_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{q}_{2}}{\mathrm{r}}$
In the above equation it is dear that energy is di-rectly proportial to charges and inversely proportional to the distance between them.
b) q₁ = 3 × 10^-8
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 22

Question 25.
The circuit shown can be analysed using Kirchhoff’s rules.
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 9
a) Apply Kirchhoffs first law to the point B.
b) State Kirchhoffs second law.
c) Apply Kirchhoffs second lawtothe mesh ABFGA.
Answer:
a) At the point B,
I₁ = I₂ = I₃
b) In any closed circuit emf is eqaual to sum of potential drops.
c) -I₂ R₃ – I₁ R₂ – I₁R₁ + E₁ = 0

Question 26.
Biot – Savart’s law relates current with the magnetic field produced by it.
a) Write the mathematical expression of the above law in vector form.
b) Using the law derive an expression for intensity of magnetic field at a point at distance x from the centre and on the axis of a circular current loop.
Answer:
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 23
Consider a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and carrying current “I’. Let P be a point on the axis of the coil, at distance x from A and r from ‘O’. Consider a small length dl at A.
The magnetic field at ‘p’ due to this small element dI,
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 24
The dB can be resolved into dB cos Φ (along with Py) and dBsinΦ (along with Px).
Similarly consider a small element at B, which produces a magnetic field ‘dB’ at P. If we resolve this magnetic field we get.
dB sinΦ (along px) and dB cosΦ (along py¹)
dBcosΦ components cancel each other because they are in opposite direction. So only dB sinΦ components are found at P, so the total filed at P is
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 25
Let there be N turns in the loop then,
B = $\frac{\mu_{0} \text { NIa }^{2}}{2\left(\mathrm{r}^{2}+\mathrm{a}^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}$

Question Nos. 27 to 29 carry 5 scores each. Answer any 2 questions. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 27.
A series LCR circuit shows the phenomenon called resonance.
a) Write the condition for resonance and obtain an equation for resonant frequency.
b) Obtain the Q value of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, c = 32µ F and R = 10 Ω.
c) Complete the following table using the suitable words from the bracket for two series LCR circuits.
(Current and applied voltage are in the same phase, currently leads the applied voltage, currently lags the applied voltage)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 10
Answer:
a) Condition for resonance X_L = X_C
(b)

c) i) Cuurrent lags the applied voltage
ii) Current and applied voltage are in same phase.

Question 28.
Telescope is used to provide angular magnification of distant objects.
a) If f₀ is the focal length of the objective and f_e that of the eyepiece, the length of the telescope tube is ………..
b) Draw the ray diagram of a refracting type telescope when it is in normal adjustment.
c) Write any two advantages of reflecting type telescope over refracting type telescopes.
Answer:
a) f₀ + f_e
b)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 27
c) i) There is no chromatic aberration
ii) There is no spherical aberration

Question 29.
A wavefront is defined as a surface of constant phase.
a) The energy of the wave travels in a direction …….. to the wavefront.
b) Explain the Huygen’s principle.
c) Using Huygen’s Principle, prove that angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
Answer:
a) Perpendicular

b) 1) Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2) The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3) The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

c)
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 28
AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront. T is the angle of incidence and Y is the angle of reflection. Let c, be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.

The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is
Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Paper Say 2018 29
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wavefront from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq.(2) should be zero.
∴ $\frac{A O}{C_{1}}$ (sin i – sin r) = 0
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r
This is the law of reflection.

Indian Subcontinent Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 6

March 25, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 6 Indian Subcontinent Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 6 Indian Subcontinent Notes Questions and Answers

Indian Subcontinent Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 6 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
List the different continents by observing the map given below and a globe. Find the continent in which our country is located.

Answer:
Asia, Europe, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica are the seven continents. Our country is in Asian continent.

Question 2.
Identify the countries that belong to Indian subcontinent from the given map.

Answer:
India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Pakistan, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, and Maldives.

Question 3.
Find the location of the Peninsular Plateau with the help of the map.

Answer:
Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Odisha.

Question 4.
Compare the given pictures and identify the life of people in the land forms concerned.

Answer:
The life of people living in various landforms is heavily influenced by the unique geography of their surroundings. In mountainous regions, communities often face challenges such as limited access to resources, rugged terrain, and harsh weather conditions. Even with these obstacles, mountain dwellers have adapted by developing agricultural terracing techniques, strong community ties, and flexible housing structures.

On the other hand, people living in coastal areas experience a different way of life. Their livelihoods relate to the ocean, depending on fishing, maritime trade, and tourism. Coastal communities face threats from natural disasters like hurricanes and rising sea levels due to climate change. However, they have developed strategies such as building seawalls, early warning systems, and sustainable fisheries management to reduce these risks.

Question 5.
Which are the factors that influence the climate of an era?
Answer:

The Latitude.
The Altitude
Physiography
Proximity to ocean
Wind

Question 6.
Why do places like Munnar and Ooty experience cold climates?
Answer:
Munnar and Ooty, located at high altitude and near the Western Ghats Mountain range, experience cold climates due to lower atmospheric pressure and huge vegetation. These regions’ proximity to the mountain range and the presence of shade and moisture contribute to their cold climate, making them popular tourist destinations.

Question 7.
Do regional differences in physiography and climate create any differences in the life of the people?
Answer:
Regional physiography and climate significantly influence people’s lives by affecting natural resources, livelihood options, and cultural practices. Mountainous regions limit agricultural activities, while coastal areas support fishing industries and trade. Extreme climates require adaptations, while moderate climates offer stable environments. Understanding these dynamics is crucial for sustainable development and effective governance.

Question 8.
Are the food habits of the people of north and south India the same?
Answer:
North and South India’s food habits differ significantly due to geography, climate, history, and culture. North India uses wheat as a major crop, resulting in dairy-rich dishes like roti, paratha, and naan. Mughlai cuisine influences the use of aromatic spices and saffron. South Indian cuisine heavily relies on rice, coconut, tamarind, and curry leaves, with a focus on vegetarian fare. Cooking methods also differ, with North Indian cooking involving elaborate techniques and South Indian cooking focusing on fast-paced lifestyles. These regional variations highlight the rich diversity of Indian cuisine.

Question 9.
Is the dress style of the people of Kashmir the same as that of the people of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Kashmir and Tamil Nadu’s dress styles are influenced by their distinct cultural, geographical, and historical backgrounds. Kashmiri attire includes the pheran, while Tamil Nadu’s saree and veshti reflect Dravidian culture. Kashmiri attire is heavier and warm, while Tamil Nadu’s is lighter and breathable. Historical influences include Persian, Mughal, and Central Asian, while Dravidian and European influences are present in Tamil Nadu attire. Jewellery and accessories also differ.

Question 10.
Are the major crops cultivated in the Western Ghats and North Indian plain the same? Identify the crop grown in the Western Ghats from the given pictures.

Answer:
The Western Ghats and North Indian plains have distinct agricultural practices. The Western Ghats, known for its high rainfall and hilly terrain, cultivates crops like rice, spices, and fruits. The North Indian plain, with its diverse climate and fertile alluvial soil, supports major crops like wheat, rice, sugarcane, and pulses. These differences highlight the importance of understanding geographic variability in crop cultivation and its impact on regional agriculture and food production. From the figure the crop grown in the Western Ghats is Cardamom.

Question 11.
Are all the crops are cultivated in the same way?
Answer:
In different parts of the world, there exists various types of farming practices based on physiography, soil fertility, climate, water availability, density of population, extent of agricultural land, value of crops, available technology etc. These include primitive subsistence agriculture, intensive subsistence agriculture, mixed farming, extensive commercial grain cultivation, dairy farming, cultivation of plantation crops and horticulture.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare an essay with the help of reading materials and internet, finding out the countries belonging to the Indian subcontinent, their capitals and cultural features.
Answer:
The Indian subcontinent comprises several countries with diverse cultures and rich heritage. The countries belonging to the Indian subcontinent are India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, and the Maldives. Each of these countries has its unique cultural features that set them apart.
1. India:
Capital: New Delhi
Cultural Features: Diverse languages, religions, cuisines, dance forms, music genres, and art styles. Rich history of ancient civilizations, vibrant festivals like Diwali and Holi, classical dances like Bharatanatyam and Kathak, and traditional practices like yoga and Ayurveda.

2. Pakistan:
Capital: Islamabad
Cultural Features: Influences of Persian, Turkish, and Arab cultures. Rich tradition of poetry, music, and dance. Celebrations like Eid and Basant, traditional crafts like pottery and embroidery, and delicious cuisine like biryani and kebabs.

3. Bangladesh:
Capital: Dhaka
Cultural Features: Synthesis of Hindu, Buddhist, and Muslim cultures. Rich literature including works of Rabindranath Tagore. Traditional music forms like Baul and diverse art forms like Nakshi kantha embroidery.

4. Sri Lanka:
Capital: Colombo
Cultural Features: Blend of Sinhalese, Tamil, and Muslim cultures. Ancient Buddhist heritage with sites like Anuradhapura and Polonnaruwa. Traditional dance forms like Kandyan dance and vibrant festivals like the Esala Perahera.

5. Nepal:
Capital: Kathmandu
Cultural Features: Himalayan country with diverse ethnic groups like Sherpa, Gurung, and Tharu. Rich tradition of art, architecture, and spirituality. Hindu and Buddhist temples like Pashupatinath and Swayambhunath Stupa.

6. Bhutan:
Capital: Thimphu
Cultural Features: Land of Gross National Happiness with strong emphasis on preserving culture and traditions. Rich Buddhist heritage with monasteries like Tiger’s Nest. Traditional festivals like Tshechu and unique cultural practices like archery.

7. Maldives: Capital: Male
Cultural Features: Island nation with a unique blend of South Indian, Sri Lankan, and Arab influences. Rich marine biodiversity and traditional practices like Dhivehi Raivaru music and Boduberu dance.
In conclusion, the countries of the Indian subcontinent exhibit a tapestry of cultures, traditions, and heritage that make them truly unique and fascinating. Each country’s cultural. features reflect its history, beliefs, and values, contributing to the region’s cultural diversity and richness.

Question 2.
Prepare a wallpaper by collecting pictures that showcase the cultural diversity of different countries in the Indian subcontinent.
Answer:
(Hints)
Key concepts to be included in the wallpaper are: Traditional Attire, Art and Craft, Festivals and Celebrations, Cuisine, Architecture, Diverse Landscapes.

Question 3.
Colour and label the countries of Indian subcontinent in the outline map provided.
Answer:

Answer:

Class 7 Social Science Indian Subcontinent Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Continent.
Answer:
Large landmasses are called continents, meaning ‘piece of land’ which containing different physiographic divisions. We can see many landforms like tall mountains, expansive plains, vast deserts, plateaus etc. in the continents.

Question 2.
Define Subcontinent
Answer:
Subcontinents are large continental areas with diverse physiographic divisions and climate as in continents. Pamir plateau geographically separates the southern part of Asian continent from the other parts.

Question 3.
What is Pamir Knot?
Answer:
The Pamir knot, known as the roof of the

Question 4.
What are the significant mountain ranges in South Asia?
Answer:
The significant mountain ranges in South Asia include the Hindukush Mountain range in Pakistan and the Himalayan Mountain range in India, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Question 5.
What is known as North Indian Plain? Write the features of North Indian plains.
Answer:
The North Indian Plain, a vast plain extending from east to west of the subcontinent, is formed by alluvial deposits from the rivers Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra. Features of North Indian Plains:

Fertile soil
Abundant water supply from rivers
Plain landscape
Thickly populated

Question 6.
What is the geographical significance of the Peninsular Plateau in South Asia?
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau, located in the southern part of the North Indian Plain, is estimated to be 150-900 meters above sea level and serves as a distinctive in the Indian physiographic division subcontinent encompassing island nations like Maldives and Sri Lanka as well as smaller groups like Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar.

Question 7.
What is known as apparent movement of the Sun?
Answer:
The phenomenon in which the relative position of the sun changes between the Tropic of Cancer (232° North) and Tropic of Capricorn (232° South) is known as the apparent movement of the sun. Due to the revolution of the earth and the inclination of earth’s axis, it feels that the sun experiences displacement.

Question 8.
How does the sun’s position during summer solstice impact the weather patterns in the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During summer solstice, the sun’s position heats the air, leading to moisture-laden winds from the ocean. This results in widespread rainfall in May and June in the Indian subcontinent.

Question 9.
What causes less rainfall during winter solstice in the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
During winter solstice, the Indian Ocean heats the air, and dry Northeast to Southwest winds blow across the region, causing a decrease in rainfall. However, absorption of water vapour from the Bay of Bengal leads to widespread rainfall on the eastern coast.

Question 10.
What are the main climatic differences experienced between the northern and southern parts of the Tropic of Cancer?
Answer:
The northern part of the Tropic of Cancer experiences a temperate climate, while the southern part experiences a tropical climate.

Question 11.
How does physiography influence the distribution of rainfall in regions like Kerala and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Physiography, specifically the presence of mountains like the Western Ghats, obstructs moisture-laden winds resulting in heavy rainfall in Kerala and low rainfall in Tamil Nadu due to rain shadow effects.

Question 12.
What role do mountains play in creating rain shadow regions?
Answer:
Mountains act as barriers to moisture-laden winds, forcing them to ascend and release precipitation on one side, while creating dry conditions on the other side known as rain shadow regions.

Question 13.
Why does Kerala experience heavy rainfall in the monsoon season compared to Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Kerala’s proximity to the Western Ghats allows it to receive heavy rainfall as the mountains act as a barrier obstructing the southwest monsoon winds, while Tamil Nadu experiences low rainfall due to being in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats on its eastern slopes.

Question 14.
Which are the different cropping seasons in India?
Answer:
Kharif
During Kharif season that coincides with the south – west monsoon. crops that require high temperature and abundant water like paddy, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra and tur are cultivated.

Rabi
Rabi season, from October to February, is a period for cultivating moderately temperature and water intensive crops like wheat, pulses, and mustard.

Zaid
Zaid is the short summer cropping season that begins after Rabi harvest. During this season, watermelon, cucumber, vegetables, fodder crops etc. are grown in areas where irrigation is available.

Question 15.
How are the major crops classified?
Answer:
. Food Crops: They are classified into two: Cereals and Pulses. In India, fine cereals such as rice and wheat and coarse cereals such as bajra. maize and ragi are grown. Gram and Toor dal are the major pulses cultivated in India.
. Cash crops: The crops that are grown commercially on a large scale are called cash crops such as sugar cane, tobacco, cotton, jute and oil seeds.
. Fibre crops: Cotton and jute are the major fibre crops in India. Fibre crops provide us with the fibre we need to make many things like fabrics, bags and sacks.
. Oil seeds: Oilseeds are cultivated to produce edible oil. These include ground nut, rapeseed, mustard, soya bean and sunflower.
. Plantation crops: Crops such as tea, coffee, rubber, spices and tubers are also cultivated in India.

Question 16.
Consider the map given below

a) List out the name of continents.
b) List out the names of oceans.
Answer:
a) Asia, Europe, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica are the seven continents.
b) Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, Artic Ocean, Indian Ocean, and Southern Ocean

Question 17.
Classify the following by giving proper heading.
(India, Europe, North America, Kerala, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maharashtra, Antarctica, Odisha)
Answer:

Continents	Countries in Indian Subcontinents	Indian Peninsular Plateau
North America	India	Maharashtra
Europe	Nepal	Kerala
Antarctica	Sri Lanka	Odisha

Question 18.
What are the main mountain ranges in the Northern part of the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
The Hindukush Mountain range in Pakistan and the Himalayan Mountain range in India, Nepal, and Bhutan.

Question 19.
What geographical feature lies to the south of the Himalayas in the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
A vast plain known as the North Indian Plain or Great plains, formed by alluvial deposits brought by the rivers Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra.

Question 20.
What natural landscape is found in the southern part of the North Indian Plain in the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
A plateau known as the Peninsular Plateau, with an estimated elevation of about 150 to 900 metres above sea level, forming a roughly triangular shape.

Question 21.
Identify the given picture.

a) What is this picture showing?
b) Explain the process.
Answer:
a) Rain Shadow Region
b) Physiography influences climate. Moisture laden winds are obstructed by the mountains,
located against their direction resulting in rainfall. Kerala experiences heavy rainfall in Western Ghats, while Tamil Nadu experiences low rainfall in eastern slopes. Such regions with low rainfall are generally known as rain shadow regions.

Question 22.
Fill in the blanks.

Crop	Water Requirement	Sowing Months	Harvest Months
Rice	Abundant water is needed	(c)	September
(a)	Moderate amount of water is needed	October	March
Watermelon	(b)	April	(d)

Answer:
a) Wheat
b) Irrigation is needed in areas with
c) June
d) June

Question 23.
Match the following

Cropping Season	Crops
Kharif	Wheat, Pulses, Mustard
Rabi	Watermelon, Cucumber, Fodder crops
Zaid	Paddy, cotton, Jute

Answer:

Cropping Season	Crops
Kharif	Paddy, cotton, Jute
Rabi	Wheat, Pulses, Mustard
Zaid	Watermelon, Cucumber, Fodder crops

Question 24.
Draw a flowchart representing the classification of major crops.
Answer:

Std 7 Social Science Indian Subcontinent Notes

There are 7 continents and 5 oceans in our earth.
A continent is a large landmass containing different physiographic divisions.
Subcontinents are large continental areas with diverse physiographic divisions and climate as in continents.
Asia, Europe, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica are the seven continents. Our country is in Asian continent.
India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Maldives are the Indian Subcontinents.
Pamir Knot is known as the roof of the world.
The extensive plain formed by the alluvial deposits brought by the rivers Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra is known as Northern Plain.
Climate of the India subcontinent is generally known as ‘monsoon climate’.
Latitude, altitude, physiography, proximity to ocean and wind are the factors that influence climate.
The agriculture, food, housing, clothing, rituals, celebrations etc. of the people in each area are in accordance with the physiography and climate of that region.
There are definite seasons for sowing and harvesting of each crop. These seasons are known as cropping seasons.
Kharif, Rabi and Zaid are the three cropping seasons.
Major crops are classified into food crops, cash crops, fibre crops, oil seeds and plantation crops.

Our Earth Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 5

March 25, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 5 Our Earth Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 5 Our Earth Notes Questions and Answers

Our Earth Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Observe the picture given below. What information do you get about the interior of the Earth?

Answer:

The interior of the earth is divided into different layers.
The outermost layer is the Crust.
Mantle is the layer below the Crust.
The inner layer is the Core. It is divided into the Inner core and outer core.

Question 2.
Prepare a note on the interior of the earth.
Ans:
Crust
The crust is the outermost and relatively thin layer of the earth. This layer is made up of solid rocks. The crust has two parts, namely continental crust and oceanic crust. The continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust. The average thickness is about 30 kilometres. In mountain areas. continental crust has a thickness of about 70 kilometres, but the average thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 kilometres.

Mantle
The mantle is the layer below the crust. This is relatively thick. It extends up to about 2900 kilometres. The part of the earth that comprises the crust and the upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere. The part a molten state due to the melting of rock particles (magma), is known as the asthenosphere. The portion below the asthenosphere is in solid state.

Core
The layer below the mantle is the core. It is divided into an outer core and an inner core. The outer core is in liquid state, while. the inner core is in solid state. The core is mainly made up of metals like Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). Hence, the core is also known as NIFE. The temperature in the inner core is about 5500 degrees Celsius.

Question 3.
Complete the diagram given below by including the features of each layer of the earth’s interior.
Structure of the Earth – Features

Answer:
Crust

Thin Layer
It has two parts, namely Continental Crust and Oceanic Crust.

Mantle

Thick layer
The part of the earth that comprises the crust and the upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere.

Core

The layer below the mantle
Divide into Outer Core and Inner Core

Question 4.
The features of each layer of the Earth’s interior are given in the table. Draw ‘‘towards the correct ones and ‘‘towards the wrong ones.

The crust is the outermost solid part of the earth, which is made up of rocks.

Lithosphere is made up of crust and upper mantle.

The asthenosphere is the molten part formed by the molten rock particles (magma)

The outer core is in liquid state

The continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

The core is also known as NIFE

Answer:

Question 5.
Illustrate the structure of the earth in a chart by giving separate colour for each layer. Write the features and display it in the class.
Answer:

Crust

Outermost and relatively thin layer of the earth.
The crust has two parts, namely continental crust and oceanic crust.
The average thickness of the Continental Crust is about 30 km, and the Oceanic crust is 5 km.

Mantle

Mantle is the layer below the crust.
It extends up to about 2900 kilometres.
The part of the earth that comprises the crust and upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere.
which is in a molten state due to the melting of rock particles (magma) is known as asthenosphere.

Core

Below the mantle is the core
It is divided into an outer core (liquid state) and an inner core(solid state).
The core is also known as NIFE.
The temperature in the inner core is about 5500 degrees Celsius.

Question 6.
With the title “The Interior Features of the Earth’ prepare notes by including additional information.
Answer:
Understanding the interior features of the Earth helps us learn about its structure and the processes that shape our planet. The Earth is made up of different layers, each with unique characteristics. These layers include the crust, mantle, and core.

Layers of the Earth
The Earth is divided into three main layers: the crust, the mantle, and the core. Each layer has distinct properties and compositions.
a) The Crust
Characteristics:

The outermost layer of the Earth.
Solid and relatively thin compared to other layers.
Made up of rocks like granite and basalt.

Types:

Continental Crust: Thicker (about 30-50 km) and less dense, composed mainly of granitic rocks.
Oceanic Crust: Thinner (about 5-10 km) and more dense, composed mainly of basaltic rocks.
Temperature: Varies from the surface temperature to about 400°C near the bottom.
Fun Fact: The deepest mine in the world, the Mponeng Gold Mine in South Africa, is about 12 km deep, but this is still just a tiny fraction of the way through the crust!

b) The Mantle
Characteristics:

Located beneath the crust and extends to a depth of about 2,900 km.
Semi-solid (viscous) and capable of flowing very slowly.
Composed mainly of silicate minerals rich in iron and magnesium.

Sub layers:

Upper Mantle: Includes the lithosphere (rigid outer part) and the asthenosphere (more plastic and can flow).
Lower Mantle: More rigid due to higher pressure but still able to flow very slowly.

Temperature: Ranges from about 400°C to 4,000°C.
Fun Fact: The mantle is responsible for plate tectonics, which causes earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.

c) The Core
Characteristics:
The innermost layer of the Earth, divided into the outer core and the inner core.
Composed mainly of iron and nickel.

Sub layers:

Outer Core: Liquid, extending from 2,900 km to 5,150 km deep. It generates the Earth’s magnetic field.
Inner Core: Solid, extending from 5,150 km to the Earth’s centre at 6,371 km. Extremely dense and hot.
Temperature: Can reach up to about 5,500°C at the centre.
Fun Fact: The movement of the liquid outer core creates Earth’s magnetic field, which protects us from harmful solar radiation.

Question 7.
Apart from Oxygen and Carbon dioxide what are the other gases present in the atmosphere? Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.
i) Which is the most abundant gas present in the atmosphere?
ii) What is the combined percentage of Nitrogen and Oxygen to the total atmospheric composition?

Answer:
Nitrogen
Argon
Neon
Helium
Krypton
Xenon
Hydrogen
i. Nitrogen
ii. 99%

Question 8.
How Dust Particles reach the atmosphere?
Answer:

Lifted from the earth by wind
Coming out during volcanic eruptions
Ash produced during burning of meteors
Through Transportation

Question 9.
How atmosphere helps in the survival of life on earth?
Answer:

Causes atmospheric phenomena
Protects from harmful sun rays
It acts as a Blanket of Earth.

Question 10.
Write down how each of the following factors helps to sustain life on the earth?
Answer:

Atmospheric air	Respiration and Photosynthesis Maintaining Temperature and Climate Protecting from Harmful Solar Rays Supporting the Water Cycle Enabling Human Activities (Breathing, Energy Generation etc)
Water Particles in the Atmosphere	Water Cycle Temperature Regulation Supporting Plant Life Rain Ecosystem Support
Dust Particles in the atmosphere	Human Health and Agriculture Protection from Solar Rays Influence on Climate and Weather

Question 11.
Observe the following pictures. What activities cause atmospheric pollution?

Answer:

Smoke from Factories
Vehicle Emission
Burning of Plastic
Stubble Burning
Bursting of Fire cracks
Volcanic eruption

Question 12.
What causes an increase in the level of atmospheric pollution in industrial cities?
Answer:

Overuse of Vehicles
Excessive use of CFC (Refrigerator, Air conditioners etc)
Increase of Population
Excessive Use of Fossil Fuels
Deforestation

Question 13.
What can we do to reduce atmospheric pollution? Observe the pictures given below. Write down your findings and present in the class.

Answer:

Afforestation
Using of Solar energy
Using Bicycles
Promote the adoption of Electric and hybrid vehicles
Urban Planning and Green Spaces

Question 14.
Observe the diagram given below and list the layers of the atmosphere

Answer:

Troposphere
Stratosphere
Mesosphere
Thermosphere
Exosphere

Question 15.
Why the troposphere is called the most important layer of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Because Atmospheric phenomena such as cloud formation, rain, snow, wind etc. occur in this layer

Question 16.
Why do the high-altitude regions like Ooty, Munnar, Kodaikanal, etc., feel cold?
Answer:
Because Temperature decreases with an increase in height.

Question 17.
What activities can be done in class and school on Ozone Day? Discuss.
Answer:

Educational Presentations and Workshops
Classroom Discussions and Debates
Art and Poster Competitions
Film Screenings
Interactive Activities and Experiments
Outdoor Activities and Clean-up Campaigns
Awareness Campaigns and Pledges
Collaborative Projects

Question 18.
Prepare identity cards as in the model given below by including the characteristics of the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
Troposphere

Average height of 13 km from the earth’s Surface
The temperature of the atmosphere decreases
Atmospheric phenomena such as cloud formation, rain. snow, wind etc occurs in this layer.

Stratosphere

Average height is about 50 km from the earth’s surface
The temperature decreases
Ozone layer is in the Stratosphere.

Mesosphere

It extends from about 50 km to 80 km above the stratosphere
Decrease in temperature with the increase in height
Meteors that enter the Earth’s atmosphere burn down.

Thermosphere

It lies about 80 to 400 km
The temperature increases with an increase in altitude.
The lower part of the thermosphere is called the Ionosphere

Exosphere

It lies above 400 km
The temperature increases with altitude
Air molecules gradually reduce and dissolve into space

Question 19.
The atmospheric layers and their features are given below. Match them correctly.

Answer:

Exosphere	Air molecules gradually reduce and dissolve into space
Thermosphere	Temperature increases with increase in altitude
Mesosphere	The layer with the lowest temperature The layer where meteors burn to ash
Stratosphere	Zone where ozone is present
Troposphere	The layer in which temperature decreases at a certain rate according to the increase in height Located at an altitude of 80 to 400 kilometre

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s structure and display it in the Social Science lab.
Answer:
(Hints)
Materials Needed:

Large Styrofoam ball (representing Earth)
Paints (blue, green, brown, red, yellow)
Brushes
Craft knife or Styrofoam cutter
Labels or small flags
Toothpicks or small sticks
Glue
Cardboard or foam board (for the base)
Marker

Step 1: Prepare the Styrofoam Ball
Select a Ball: Choose a Styrofoam ball of an appropriate size (e.g., 20-30 cm in diameter) to represent the Earth.
Cut the Ball: Carefully cut the ball in half using a craft knife or Styrofoam cutter. One half will show the Earth’s surface, and the other half will display the internal layers.

Step 2: Paint the Earth’s Surface
Paint the Surface: On one half of the Styrofoam ball, paint the Earth’s surface. Use blue for oceans, green for forests, and brown for mountains and deserts. This half will show the Earth’s exterior.
Details: Add details like continents and major landforms to make it more realistic.

Step 3: Paint the Interior Layers
Base Color: Paint the other half of the ball with a base colour (e.g., a light colour like white or grey).

Layer Representation:
Crust: Paint a thin outer layer brown or dark grey (1-2 cm thick).

Mantle: Paint the next layer (up to about halfway to the centre) in shades of red, orange, or yellow to represent the mantle. Outer Core: Paint the next section yellow or light orange to represent the liquid outer core.

Inner Core: Paint the central sphere red to represent the solid inner core.

Step 4: Label the Layers
Create Labels: Make small labels for each layer: Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core.
Attach Labels: Attach the labels to toothpicks or small sticks. Insert the toothpicks into the appropriate sections of the painted half of the Styrofoam ball.

Step 5: Prepare the Base
Cut the Base: Cut a piece of cardboard or foam board large enough to hold the two halves of the Styrofoam ball.
Mount the Halves: Glue the two halves onto the base. The surface-painted half should be placed upright, while the interior half can be placed next to it, showing the cross-section.

Question 2.
With the help of internet, prepare slides and explain the structure and features of the Earth.
Answer:
(Hints)
Slide 1: Title Slide
Title: The Interior Features of the Earth Subtitle: Understanding the Layers of Our Planet
Image: A cross-section of the Earth

Slide 2: Introduction
Title: Introduction
Content:

Brief overview of the Earth’s structure
Importance of studying the Earth’s interior

Image: Earth from space

Slide 3: The Earth’s Layers
Title: The Earth’s Layers
Content: The Earth is divided into three main layers: the crust, mantle, and core.
Image: Diagram showing the Earth’s layers

Slide 4: The Crust
Title: The Crust
Content:

The outermost layer
Thickness varies (5-70 km)
Composed of continental and oceanic crust

Image: Close-up of the Earth’s crust, showing rocks and soil

Slide 5: The Mantle
Title: The Mantle
Content:

Located below the crust
Extends to a depth of 2,900 km
Semi-solid, with a flowing asthenosphere

Image: Diagram showing the upper and lower mantle.

Slide 6: The Core
Title: The Core
Content:

Divided into outer core and inner core
Outer core: liquid, generates magnetic field
Inner core: solid, composed of iron and nickel

Image: Cross-section showing the core layers

Slide 7: How We Know About the Earth’s Interior
Title: How We Know About the Earth’s Interior
Content:

Volcanic eruptions.
Mining and drilling
Seismic waves

Image: Seismograph and a volcanic eruption

Slide 8: Conclusion

Question 3.
Prepare an essay on atmospheric structure and its features and present it in the class.
Answer:
Introduction
The atmosphere is a protective shield composed of several layers, each with distinct characteristics. It extends from the Earth’s surface to the edge of space and is vital for life as it provides oxygen, protects from harmful solar radiation, and helps regulate temperature.

The Layers of the Atmosphere
The atmosphere is divided into five main layers based on temperature variations: the troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere. Each layer has unique properties and functions.

The Troposphere Characteristics:
Altitude: Extends from the Earth’s surface up to about 8-15 kilometres (5-9 miles).
Temperature: Decreases with altitude, ranging from about 15°C (59°F) at the surface to -60°C (-76°F) at the top.
Composition: Contains roughly 75% of the atmosphere’s mass, including water vapor, oxygen, nitrogen, and other gases.
Features: Weather and climate phenomena occur in this layer, including clouds, rain, and storms.

Importance:
The troposphere is where we live and breathe. It supports life by providing oxygen and regulating weather patterns essential for agriculture and water supply.

The Stratosphere Characteristics:

Altitude: Extends from about kilometers to 50 kilometers (9 to 31 miles).
Temperature: Increases with altitude, from about -60°C (-76°F) at the bottom to 0°C (32°F) at the top.
Composition: Contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
Features: The stratosphere is more stable than the troposphere, with few weather changes.

Importance:
The ozone layer within the stratosphere is crucial for protecting living organisms from harmful UV radiation, which can cause skin cancer and damage DNA.

The Mesosphere Characteristics:

Altitude: Extends from about 50 kilometres to 85 kilometres (31 to 53 miles).
Temperature: Decreases with altitude, reaching as low as -90°C (-130°F) at the top.
Composition: Less dense, with fewer gases and decreasing oxygen levels.
Features: Meteors burn up in this layer, creating shooting stars.

Importance:

The mesosphere acts as a shield, protecting Earth from meteoroids by burning them up before they can reach the surface.

Thermosphere Characteristics:

Altitude: Extends from from about 85 kilometres to 600 kilometres (53 to 373 miles).
Temperature: Increases significantly with altitude, reaching up to 2,500°C (4,532°F) or higher.
Composition: Very low density, with particles of oxygen and nitrogen.
Features: Contains the ionosphere, where auroras occur. This layer is also where the International Space Station orbits.

Importance:
The thermosphere is important for radio communication as it reflects and modifies radio waves. It also contributes to the formation of auroras and stunning natural light displays.

The Exosphere Characteristics:

Altitude: Extends from about 600 kilometres to 10,000 kilometres (373 to 6,214 miles).
Temperature: Extremely variable; particles can be very hot or very cold.
Composition: Sparse particles, mainly hydrogen and helium.
Features: Gradually fades into outer space, with particles escaping into the vacuum of space.

Importance:
The exosphere is the transition between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. It helps to protect the Earth from cosmic radiation and solar winds.

Conclusion
The Earth’s atmosphere is a complex system of layers, each with distinct characteristics and functions. From the troposphere, where weather occurs, to the exosphere, which fades into space, each layer plays a critical role in sustaining life, protecting the planet, and enabling communication. Understanding the structure and features of the atmosphere is essential for appreciating its importance and the need to protect it from pollution and other harmful activities.

Class 7 Social Science Our Earth Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the approximate temperature 3. at the centre of the Earth’s interior?
Answer:
The approximate temperature at the center of the Earth’s interior, in the inner core, is estimated to be around 5,500 to 6,000 degrees Celsius

Question 2.
What are the different sources of information used to study the interior of the Earth?
Answer:
analyzing volcanic materials, studying seismic waves, and examining meteorites, as well as magnetic fields and gravitational data.

Question 3.
Explain the Structure of the Earth
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the distance from the Earth’s surface to its centre?
Answer:
The average distance from the Earth’s surface to its center, or the Earth’s radius, is approximately 6,371 kilometers (3,959 miles).

Question 5.
Define Lithosphere
Answer:
The part of the earth that comprises the crust and upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere.

Question 6.
What is Atmosphere?
Answer:
The part below the lithosphere, which is in a molten state due to the melting of rock particles (magma), is known as the asthenosphere.

Question 7.
…………. are the major gases in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide

Question 8.
What do you mean by Evaporation?
Answer:
Evaporation is the process by which a liquid turns into a gas.

Question 9.
Explain any two layers of Atmosphere
Answer:
The Earth’s atmosphere has several layers, and two of them are the troposphere, the lowest layer where weather occurs, and the stratosphere, containing the ozone layer and where commercial aircraft often fly.

Question 10.
Define Hygroscopic nuclei.
Answer:
The fine dust particles in the atmosphere are called Hygroscopic nuclei.

Question 11.
What are the different sources from Ans: which we get information about the interior of the Earth?
Answer:
Different sources from which we get information on the Earth’s Interior are:

From the materials reaching the Earth’s surface through volcanic eruptions.
From the information collected from mines
By analysing the motion of waves generated during an earthquake.

Question 12.
Differentiate the lithosphere and asthenosphere
Answer:
Lithosphere
The part of the earth that comprises the crust and the upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere. The part below the lithosphere.
Asthenosphere
which is in a molten state due to the melting of rock particles (magma) and is known as the asthenosphere.

Question 13.
Explain the features of the Crust
Answer:

The crust is the outermost and relatively thin layer of the earth.
This layer is made up of solid rocks. The crust has two parts namely continental crust and oceanic crust.
The continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust.
The average thickness is about 30 kilometres.
In mountain areas, the continental crust has a thickness of about 70 kilometres, but the average thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 kilometres.

Question 14.
Explain the features of the Mantle.
Answer:

Mantle is the layer below the crust.
This is relatively thick.
It extends up to about 2900 kilometres.
The part of the earth that comprises the crust and upper part of the mantle is called the lithosphere.
The part below the lithosphere, which is in a molten state due to the melting of rock particles (magma) is known as asthenosphere.
The portion below the asthenosphere is in solid state.

Question 15.
Explain the features of the Core.
Answer:

The layer below the mantle is the core. It is divided into outer core and inner core.
The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.
The core is mainly made up of metals like Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). Hence the core is also known as NIFE.
The temperature in the inner core is about 5500 degree Celsius.

Question 16.
Mark the Interior of the Earth in the given picture.

Answer:
A – Crust
B- Mantle
C-Outer Core
D-Inner Core

Question 17.
Match the following.

A	B
The Crust	It extends up to about 2900 km
The Mantle	Also known as NIFE
The Core	Outer layer

Answer:

A	B
The Crust	Outer layer
The Mantle	It extends up to about 2900 km
The Core	Also known as NIFE

Question 18.
What are the major components of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide etc., are the major gases in the atmosphere. Apart from these, there are other gases, dust particles and water molecules.

Question 19.
Explain the various ways by which dust particles reach the atmosphere.
Answer:
Main sources of the dust particles in the atmosphere are:
by wind
Through volcanic eruptions
Ash formed by burning of meteors

Question 20.
Explain atmosphere and atmospheric pollution.
Answer:
Atmosphere
The gaseous blanket that covers the earth is known as the Atmosphere.
Atmospheric Pollution
The mixing up of smoke, toxic gases and other chemicals in the air that alters the composition of the atmosphere is known as atmospheric pollution.

Question 21.
Explain the term Atmospheric pollution. What activities cause atmospheric pollution?
Answer:
The mixing up of smoke, toxic gases and other chemicals in the air that alters the composition of the atmosphere is known as atmospheric pollution.
Activities are:

Smoke from Factories
Vehicle Emission
Burning of Plastic
Stubble Burning
Bursting of Fire cracks
Volcanic eruption

Question 22.
Which are the layers of Atmosphere?
Answer:

Troposphere
Stratosphere
Mesosphere
Thermosphere
Exosphere

Question 23.
Explain the features of Troposphere?
Answer:

Lower most layer of the atmosphere.
It has an average height of 13 kilometres from the earth’s surface.
The height ranges from about 8 kilometres at the poles to 18 kilometres at the equator (because the temperature is high in the equatorial region)
Dust particles and water vapour are most abundant in this layer.
Atmospheric phenomena, such as cloud formation, rain, snow, wind etc., occur in this layer.
The temperature of the atmosphere decreases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 165 metres from the surface of the earth. This is called Normal Lapse Rate.

Question 24.
Explain the features of the Stratosphere.
Answer:

This layer is just above the troposphere.
The average height is about 50 kilometres from the earth’s surface.
The temperature increases after a specific height.
The ozone layer is in the stratosphere.
It stands at an altitude of about 25 kilometres from the surface.

Question 25.
Explain the features of the Mesosphere.
Answer:

This layer extends from about 50 kilometres to 80 kilometres above the stratosphere.
Decrease in temperature with the increase in height.
At an altitude of about 80 kilometres from the surface, the temperature drops to -100 degrees Celsius.
The lowest temperature in the atmosphere is experienced here.
Meteors that enter the Earth’s atmosphere burn down in this layer.

Question 26.
Explain the features of Thermosphere
Answer:

It lies about 80 to 400 kilometres above the mesosphere.
The temperature increases with an increase in altitude.
The lower part of the thermosphere is called the Ionosphere.

Question 27.
Explain the features of Exosphere.
Answer:

Uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
The presence of air molecules in the exosphere, which lies above 400 kilometres from the surface, gradually decreases, and the layer becomes a part of Outer space.

Question 28.
Define Ionosphere.
Answer:

At an altitude of about 80 to 400 kilometre in the atmosphere, intense solar radiation such as ultraviolet, X rays etc., converts the gas molecules into ions.
This process is called ionization and the region where this process takes place is called the Ionosphere.
Ions can conduct electricity.
Radio waves are electromagnetic waves. Therefore, this region enables long distance transmission of radio waves.

Question 29.
What is the role of Ozone? Write the negative Impacts of Ultra Violet Rays?
Answer:
The presence of ozone gas in the atmosphere protects the earth by blocking the harmful ultraviolet rays from the sun. If ultraviolet rays reach the earth’s surface at an increased rate, it is harmful to living organisms and ecosystems.
Negative Impacts are:

Collapse of the food chain
Crop damage
Stunting of plant growth
Early aging
Blindness, Cataract
Skin cancer

Question 30.
When is Ozone day celebrated and what are the objectives behind that day?
Answer:
September 16 is observed as World Ozone Day. The objective behind observing this day is to create awareness among people about the need to protect ozone layer and to control the use of products that can cause ozone depletion.

Std 7 Social Science Our Earth Notes

The temperature at the centre of the interior is about 5500 degrees Celsius
The distance from the surface to the centre of the earth is about 6371 kilometres.
The information regarding the interior of the earth is formed through scientific studies and inferences.
Different sources from which we get information on the Earth’s Interior are:
From the materials reaching the Earth’s surface through volcanic eruptions. From the information collected from mines
By analysing the motion of waves generated during an earthquake
Layers of the Earth are Crust, Mantle and Core.
The gaseous blanket that covers the earth is known as the Atmosphere.
Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, etc., are the major gases in the atmosphere.
Apart from these, there are other gases, dust particles and water molecules.
As altitude increases, the amount of gases decreases.
Oxygen, the life giving gas for humans and other living things, and Carbon dioxide that helps the survival of plants are obtained from the atmosphere.
The process by which water from the earth’s surface is heated by the sun and reaches the atmosphere as vapour is called Evaporation.
The presence of water vapour in the atmosphere is only up to 90 km from the earth’s surface. Water vapour condenses around fine dust particles in the atmosphere to form clouds. The fine dust particles in the atmosphere are called Hygroscopic nuclei.
Main sources of the dust particles in the atmosphere are:
by wind
Through volcanic eruptions
Ash formed by the burning of meteors
The mixing up of smoke, toxic gases and other chemicals in the air that alters the composition of the atmosphere is known as atmospheric pollution.
Layers of the atmosphere are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Negative Impact of Ultraviolet rays are:
- Collapse of the food chain
- Crop damage
- Stunting of plant growth
- Early aging
- Blindness, Cataract
- Skin cancer

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers

March 15, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf SAY 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper SAY 2019

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1
………………… was discovered by the Mesopotamians around 3000 B.C.
Answer:
Abacus

Question 2.
Each digit of a binary number is called ……………………. .
Answer:
bit

Question 3.
How many bytes are required to store the string “HELLO WORLD”?
Answer:
12 (including 1 bit for null character)

Question 4.
What do you mean by IP Address?
Answer:
An IP(lnternet Protocol) address has 4 parts numeric address separated by dots(.).

Question 5.
Name two input stream functions in C++.
Answer:
get() or gerline().

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16. Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Write short note on First Generation Computers.
Answer:
First generation computers (1940 – 1956)
Vacuum tubes were used in first generation computers. The input was based on punched cards and paper tapes and output was displayed on printouts. The Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator(ENIAC) belongs to first generation was the first general purpose programmable electronic computer built by J. Presper Eckert and John V. Mauchly. It was 30 – 50 feet long, weight 30 tons, 18,000 vacuum tubes, 70,000 registers, 10,000 capacitors and required 1,50,000 watts of electricity. It requires Air Conditioner. They later developed the first commercially successful computer, the Universal Automatic Computer(UNIVAC) in 1952.
Von Neumann architecture
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 1

The mathematician John Von Neumann designed a computer structure that structure is in use nowadays. Von Neumann structure consists of a central processing unit(CPU),Memory unit, Input and Output unit. The CPU consists of arithmetic logical unit(ALU) and control unit(CU). The instructions are stored in the memory and fallows the “Stored Program Concept”. Colossus is the secret code breaking computer developed by a British engineer Tommy Flowers in 1943 to decode German messages.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Programming Languages? Briefly explain.
Answer:
We know that a program is a set of instructions that tell the hardware how to perform a task. This can be written in different languages, such as C, C++, COBOL, PASCAL, JAVA, etc.

Question 8.
If (x)₈ = (101011)₂ = (y)₁₆. Find the values of x and y.
Answer:
(x)₈ = (101011 )₂ = (y)₁₆
i) To convert a binary number into octal first divide the-number into groups of 3 bits and then write down the binary equivalent. Here 101 – 5 and 011 – 3.
(101011 )₂ = (53)₈ So x = 53.

ii) To convert a binary number into hexadecimal first divide the number into groups of 4 bits starting from the right and insert 2 zeroes in the left side and then write down the binary equivalent.
(00101011)₂ =(y)₁₆
Here 0010 – 2 and 1011 – 11(lt is B). So y = 2B.

Question 9.
Write short note on character set of C++.
Answer:
Character set:- To study a language first we have to familiarize the character set. For example to study English language first we have to study the alphabets. Similarly here the character set includes letters(A to Z & a to z), digits(0 to 9), special characters(+, – , ?, *, /, ………) white spaces(non printable) etc..

Question 10.
Define the term variable. Write the correct syntax to declare a variable.
Answer:
A variable is a named storage location inside the
memory. Syntax: Data_Type Variable_name1,Variable_Name2,…;
Eg. int x, y, z;

Question 11.
Write the use and syntax of the following operators in C++:
a) Conditional operator (?:)
b) Size of operator (?:)
Answer:
a) Conditional operator It is a ternary operator hence it needs three operands. The operator is?:. Syntax: expression ? value if true: value if false. First evaluates the expression if it is true the second part will be executed otherwise the third part will be executed.
Eg. If x= 10 and y=3 then
x>y ? cout< Here the output is 10

b) sizeof(): This operator is used to find the size used by each data type.
Eg. sizeof(int) gives 2.

Question 12.
Compare for loop and do-while loop in C++.
Answer:

for loop	do while loop
Entry controlled	Exit controlled
The number of iterations known in advance then for loop is used	The number of iterations not known in advance then do while loop is used
The body will be executed only if the test expression becomes true.	But here the body executes at least once even if the condition is false.

Question 13.
Breifly explain about two types of sorting methods.
Answer:
Sorting – Arranging elements of an array in an order(ascending or descending)

Bubble sortIt is a simple sorting method. In this sorting considering two adjascent elements if it is out of order, the elements are interchanged. After the first iteration the largest(in the case of ascending sorting) or smallest(in the case of descending sorting) will be the end of the array. This process continues.
Selection sortIn selection sort the array is divided into two parts, the sorted part arid unsorted part. First smallest element in the unsorted part is searched and exchanged with the first element. Now there is 2 parts sorted part and unsorted part. This process continues.

Question 14.
Illustrate the concept of two dimensional arrays.
Answer:
Matrix is a concept in mathematics that can be represented by 2D array with rows and columns. A nested loop(a loop contains another loop) is used to store and access elements in an array.

Question 15.
Write short notes on:
a) Bluetooth
b) WiFi
Answer:
1. Bluetooth: This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

2. Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity): It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets, Mobile phones etc.

Question 16.
Describe briefly about any two advantages of Email.
Answer:
Advantages of Email are

High speed
It is cheap
Can send multiple recipients
It reduces usage of paper.
Incoming messages can be saved locally

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 stores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
Explain about any three number systems.
Answer:
Number System: It is a systematic way to represent numbers in different«ways. Each number system has its own Base, that is a number and that number of symbols or digits used.
The various number systems are given below:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 2

Question 18.
Write notes on:
a) ASCII
b) Sign Magnitude
c) Unicode
Answer:
a) ASCII-American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a 7bit code introduced by US Govt, for storing alphanumeric and some special characters in computer memory.

b) Sign Magnitude- It is one method used to represent integers in computer. Normally an integer has two parts sign and magnitude. In SMR MSB(0 for positive and 1 for negative) is used to represent sign and the remaining bits are used to represent magnitude.

c) Unicode – It is an universal code. The limitations to store more characters is solved by the introduction of Unicode.

Question 19.
Define the term E-waste. Explain briefly about any two E-waste disposal methods.
Answer:
e-Waste(electronic waste): It refers to the mal functioning electronic products such as faulty computers, mobile phones, tv sets, toys, CFL etc.

e-Waste disposal methods
a) Reuse: Reusability has an important role of e-Waste management and can reduce the volume of e-Waste
b) Incineration: It is the process of burning e Waste at high temperature in a chimney
c) Recycling of e-Waste: It is the process of making new products from this e-Waste.
d) Land filling: It is used to level pits and cover by l thick layer of soil.

Question 20.
Use the proper symbols to complete the flowchart given below:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 3
Answer:

Question 21.
Define the following terms:
a) Syntax Error
b) Algorithm
c) Debugging
Answer:
a) When the rules or syntax of the language are not followed then syntax error occurred and it is displayed after compilation.
b) The step by step procedure to solve a problem is known as algorithm.
c) The process of detecting and correcting errors is called debugging.

Question 22.
Explain about any three types of tokens used in C++.
Answer:
Token: It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens
1) Keywords
These are reserved words for the compiler. We can’t use for any other purposes Eg: float is used to declare variable to store numbers with decimal point. We can’t use this for any other purpose

2) Identifier : These are user defined words. Eg: variable name, function name, class name, object name etc…

3) Literals (Constants): Its value does not change during execution
1) Integer literals -: Whole numbers without fractional parts are known as integer literals, its value does not change during execution. There are 3 types decimal, ot:tal and hexadecimal.
Eg. For decimal 100, 150, etc
For octal 0100, 0240, etc
For hexadecimal 0 × 100,0 × 1 A,etc

2) Float literals -: A number with fractional parts and its value does not change during execution is called floating point literals.
Eg. 3.14157, 79.78, etc

3) Character literal-: A valid C++ character enclosed in single quotes, its value does not change duHng execution.
Eg. ‘m’, ‘f’ etc

4) String literal -: One or more characters enclosed in double quotes is called string constant. A string is automatically appended by a null character(‘\0’)
Eg. “Mary’s”,’’India”,etc

Question 23.
Describe any three datatypes in C++.
Answer:
Fundamental data types: It is also called built in data type. They are int, char, float, double and void
i) int data type-: It is used to store whole numbers without fractional (decimal point) part. It can be either negative or positive. It consumes 4 bytes (32 bits) of memory.i.e. 2³² numbers. That is 2³¹ negative numbers and 2³¹ positive numbers (0 is considered as +ve ) So a total of 2³² numbers. We can store a number in between – 2³¹ to + 2³¹ – 1.

ii) char data type :- Any symbol from the key board, eg. ‘A’,’?’, ‘9’ It consumes one byte( 8 bits) of memory. It is internally treated as integers, i.e. 2⁸ = 256 characters. Each character is having a ASCII code, ‘a’ is having ASCII code 97 and zero is having ASCII code 48.

iii) float data type:- It is used to store real numbers i.e. the numbers with decimal point. It uses 4 bytes(32 bits) of memory. Eg. 67.89, 89.9 E-15.

Question 24.
Write the syntax and use of following functions in C++ :
a) Strcpy ()
b) pow ()
c) islower()
Answer:
a) strcpy() – It is used to copy a second string into first string.
Syntax: strcpy(string1, string2);
Eg. strcpy(str,” Covid 19”);

b) pow() – To find the power of a number.
Syntax: pow(number1, number2);
Eg. cout<<pow(5, 3); It is equivalent to 53.

c) islower() – To check whether the given character is in lower case or not. If the character is in lower case it returns a value 1 otherwise 0. Syntax: islower(‘n’); It returns 1.

Question 25.
Differentiate between call by value and call by reference methods.
Answer:
1) Call by value: In call by value method the copy of the original value is passed to the function, if the function makes any change will not affect the original value.
Example

# include <iostream.h> 
# include<conio.h>
void swap(int a, int b)
{
int temp;
temp=a;
a=b;
b=temp;
}
main()
{
clrscr();
int a,b;
cout<<“Enter values for a and b:- “; cin>>a>>b;
cout<<“The values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
swap(a,b);
cout<<“\nThe values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
getch();
}

2) Call by reference: In call by reference method the address of the original value is passed to the function, if the function makes any change will affect the original value.
Example

# include <iostream.h> 
# include<conio.h>
void swap(int &a, int &b)
{
int temp;
temp=a;
a=b;
b=temp;
}
main()
{
clrscr();
int a,b;
cout<<“Enter values for a and b:- “; cin>>a>>b;
cout<<“The values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b;
swap(a,b);
cout<<“\nThe values before swap a=”<<a<<“ and
b=”<<b; 
getch(); 
}

Question 26.
Consider the following figure and answer the questions.
My_name
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 5
a) Write the decalration statement for the above array in C++.

b) Write the C++ statement to input the string “WEL-COME” into the array. c) Name the header file required if the elements of the array are to be printed using puts() function.
Answer:
a) char My_name[10];
b) gets(My_name) or cin>>My_name;
c) cstring

Question 27.
Compare the dial up connection and Wired boradband connection.
Answer:

Dial up Connection	Wired Broadband connection
To connect to the internet need to dial ISP	No need to dial
It is slower	It is high speed
Error rate is high	Error rate is low
It is not always on connection	It is always on connection

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 5 Scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
Explain the features of any five input devices of a computer.
Answer:
An input device is used to supply data to the computer. They are given below:
1) Key board : It is the most widely used device to input information,in the form of words, numbers etc.

2) Mouse : It is a pointing device, that controls the movement of the cursor, or pointer as a display screen.

3) Optical Mark Reader (OMR): This device identifies the presence or absence of a pen or pencil mark. It is used to evaluate objective type exams. In this method special preprinted forms are designed with circles can be marked with dark pencil or ink. A high intensity beam in the OMR converts this into computer usable form and de-tects the number and location of the pencil marks. By using this we can evaluate easily and reduce the errors.

4) Bar code / Quick Response (QR) code reader: Light and dark bars are used to record item name, code and price is called Bar Code. This information can be read and input into a computer quickly without errors using Bar Code Readers. It consists of a photo electric scanner and it is used in super market, jewellery, textiles etc.
QR codes are similar to barcodes but it uses two dimensional instead of single dimensional used in Barcode.

5) Joy Stick: It is a device that lets the user move an object quickly on the screen. It has a liver that moves in’all directions and controls the pointer or object. It is used for computer games and CAD / CAM systems.

Question 29.
Explain about the five jump statements in C++.
Answer:
The execution of a program is sequential but we can change this sequential manner by using jump statements. The jump statements are
1. goto statement:- By using goto we can transfer the control anywhere in the program without any condition. The syntax is goto label;

Eg. 
# include <iostream> 
using namespace std; 
int main() 
{ float a,b; 
cout<<"Enter 2 numbers"; cin>>a>>b; 
if(b==0) 
goto end; 
cout<<"The quotient is "<<a/b; 
return 0; 
end:cout<<"Division by zero error"; 
}

2. break statement:- It is used to skip over a part of the code i.e. we can premature exit from a loop such as while, do-while, for or switch.

Syntax:
while (expression)
{
if (condition)
break;
}
Eg.
#include
using namespace std;
main()
{
int i=1;
while(i<10)
{
cout<<i<<endI;
if(i==5)
break;
i++;
}
}
The output is
1
2
3
4
5

3. continue statement:- It bypasses one iteration of the loop.

Syntax:
while (expression)
{
if (condition) 
break;
}
Eg.
#include<iostream> 
using namespace std; 
main()
{
int i=0;
while(i<10) 
{ 
i++;
if(i==5) continue; 
cout<<i<<endI;
} 
}
The output is 
1 
2
3
4
6
7
3 
9
10

4. exit(0) function:- It is used to terminate the program. For this the header file cstdlib must be included.

Question 30.
Define network topology. Explain about the four major topologies.
Answer:
Topology: The way in which the nodes are physically interconnected to form a network.
• Bus topology
• Star topology
• Ring topology
• Mesh topology
Bus topology- In bus topology all the nodes are connected to a main cable called bus. A small device called a terminator is attached to each end of the bus.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 6
Star topology- In star topology each node is directly connected to a hub switch.

Ring topology -In ring topology all nodes are connected using a cable that shapes like a ring or circle Data travels only in one direction in a ring.
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper SAY 2019 with Answers 8
Mesh topology- In mesh topology every node is connected to other nodes.’There will be more than one path between two nodes.

From Injustice to Justice Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 4

March 25, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 4 From Injustice to Justice Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 4 From Injustice to Justice Notes Questions and Answers

From Injustice to Justice Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Aren’t you familiar with the words margin, side, boarder? In what sense are these words commonly used?
Answer:
These words are commonly used for:

Divide
Inequality
Denial
Injustice

Question 2.
Observe the pictures. What are the conditions depicted in the pictures?

Answer:
Conditions depicted in the picture:

War
Flood
Landslides
Sea erosions

Question 3.
Identify other causes of marginalisation and organise a discussion on different types of marginalisation.
Answer:
Marginalisation happens when a group of people are treated differently or excluded because of their race, religion, gender, disability, or even where they live. Marginalisation can have a big impact on people’s lives. It can make them feel lonely, frustrated, and even unsafe. Factors other than marginalisation are :

Exclusion: This happens when someone is deliberately kept out of something, like a club or a party. It’s similar to marginalisation but often more intentional.
Eviction: This is when someone is forced to leave their home, which can be due to things like high rent or natural disasters.
Disasters: These can be natural, like floods or earthquakes, or man-made, like accidents or wars. Disasters can destroy homes, communities, and even livelihoods.

Question 4.
Prepare and present a note on the artistic and cultural life of tribal people.
Answer:
Tribal art is heavily influenced by nature. Animals, plants, and landscapes are common themes, reflecting their deep connection to the environment. Art plays a central role in rituals and ceremonies. Masks, costumes, and body decorations hold spiritual significance and connect them to the spirit world. Music and dance are integral parts of tribal culture. Traditional instruments, rhythmic beats, and lively dances express their joys, sorrows, and stories.

Question 5.
Buildings, pathways, books etc., are generally designed in a way that is favourable and accessible to the non-disabled. What kind of difficulties do the physically challenged face in these places? Discuss in class.
Answer:
Difficulties faced by disabled persons:
a) Stairs without ramps: This is a major obstacle for people who use wheelchairs or have difficulty with stairs.
b) Narrow doorways: These can be difficult to navigate for wheelchairs, walkers, or people with limited ability to move.
c) Uneven surfaces: Cracked sidewalks, potholes, or change in elevation can be dangerous for people using walkers.
d) Small print: This can be difficult for people with visual impairments to read.
e) Lack of audiobooks: People with visual impairments or learning disabilities may

Question 6.
Find out which laws and articles exist in India against caste discrimination. Expand the list.
Answer:
Laws and articles which are against caste discrimination:
Article 15: Prohibits any state from discriminating any citizen on ground of any religion, caste, sex, place of birth etc.
Article 17: It states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Section 153 A: Criminalises the use of language that promotes discrimination or violence against people.
Article 14: The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Article 16: Prohibits discrimination in employment in any government office.

Question 7.
Let’s expand the list by finding the social factors that considers everyone for an ideal society.
More policies for equality
More laws to prevent discrimination
Access to quality education for all
Measures to ensure quality in all sectors of employment
Answer:

Other factors for considering an ideal society are:
Good healthcare facilities
Good infrastructure development

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a short biography by collecting more information about Jyoti Rao Phule, Savitribai Phule, Periyar, Ambedkar etc. With the help of teachers find out more people who overcame marginalisation through education.
Answer:
a) Jyotirao Phule (1827-1890):
Pioneer of Anti-Caste Movement: Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer from Maharashtra. He opposed the caste system, particularly the plight of untouchables (Dalits).

Champion of Women’s Education: Phule, along with his wife Savitribai, opened India’s first school for girls in 1848. He believed education was key to women’s empowerment.

b) Savitribai Phule (1831-1897):
India’s First Female Teacher: Savitribai Phule, Jyotirao’s wife, was a remarkable woman who defied societal norms. She
became India’s first female teacher when she began teaching at the girls’ school opened by her husband.

Advocate for Widows: Savitribai fought for the rights of widows, a marginalised group in Indian society.

c) Periyar E.V. Ramasamy (1879-1973):
Self-Respect Movement: Periyar, from Tamil Nadu, was a vocal advocate for social justice. He founded the “Self-Respect Movement” to challenge the dominance of Brahmins and the caste system.
Women’s Rights: Periyar championed women’s rights, opposing practices like child marriage and sati (widow burning).

d) B.R. Ambedkar (1891-1956):
Dalit Rights Champion: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, a Dalit leader, was a powerful voice against caste discrimination.

Architect of Indian Constitution: Ambedkar played a pivotal role in drafting India’s constitution, ensuring provisions for social justice and uplifting marginalised communities.

Question 2.
Prepare a digital album by finding out the unique contributions of tribal people in the field of agriculture, arts, culture and science.
Answer:
a) Shifting Cultivation: Many tribes practice shifting cultivation, where they rotate plots of land, allowing the soil to recover naturally.

b) Painting: Warli paintings from Maharashtra depict daily life, rituals, and nature with detailed geometric patterns.

c) Textiles: Tribals across India weave vibrant textiles using natural dyes and traditional looms.

Question 3.
Visit the abode of tribal people and understand their social life. These indicators can be used such as lives of their ancestors Art, agriculture, food, contemporary life.
Answer:
While you visit the tribal people you have to keep in mind certain things:

Lives of their ancestors
Art, agriculture, food
Contemporary life
Textiles
Dance and music
Science and knowledge system

Question 4.
Collect biographies, autobiographies and memoirs that describes the experiences of women who survived discrimination, from school library and neighbourhood libraries and organise a book fest in class. Prepare short notes on each book.
Answer:
a) I Know Why the Caged Bird Sings by Maya Angelou (Autobiography)
This powerful memoir details Maya Angelou’s experiences with racism and sexual assault in the American South. It’s a story of finding one’s voice, and the healing power of words.

b) Born Crime by Trevor Noah (Autobiography): Trevor Noah recounts his childhood growing up biracial in South Africa during apartheid. This book explains the brutality of racial difference with humour.

c) Hunger by Roxane Gay (Memoir): Roxane Gay’s memoir shares her experiences with sexual assault, body image, and self- acceptance. It’s a powerful story of overcoming trauma and reclaiming one’s narrative.

Question 5.
Invite people working for differently abled to the school either directly or through digital media and organise a discussion. Ask them about the problems faced by the differently abled in various fields and the possible solutions.
Answer:
Questions to ask people working with differently-abled individuals in various fields:
a) How can educational institutions better support students with disabilities?
b) What are the specific healthcare needs of differently-abled people that are often overlooked?
c) How can public transportation systems be made more accessible for people with physical or sensory disabilities?
d) What are some success stories you’ve seen of differently-abled people overcoming challenges in your field?

Question 6.
What changes need to happen in the current situation for people with disabilities to reach everywhere like others? Based on your school premises prepare a small project for the improvement of physical and academic facilities of differently abled students. Submit it to the local self-government institution with the help of teachers.
Answer:

Wheelchair ramps
Handrails
Braille script and audio library
Physically challenged friendly washrooms
Educating and providing practical sessions on how to take care of specially abled students in case of emergency
Disability-friendly classrooms

Question 7.
How to respond to discrimination? Conduct a class discussion based on the following points
1) The marginalised themselves should come forward.
2) The conditions of the marginalised can be effectively addressed through the collective interventions of the community.
3) Effective intervention can be done using government systems. Add more indicators.
Answer:
Discrimination is a serious issue that can have a huge impact on individuals and communities. When those who experience discrimination speak up, it raises awareness and brings the issue to light. Lack of trust in authority, or feeling unheard can make speaking out difficult. Collective action by a community can put pressure on institutions to address discrimination. Petitions, protests, boycotts, and educational campaigns can all be effective tools. Many countries have laws against discrimination that people can use to file complaints.

Class 7 Social Science From Injustice to Justice Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by marginalisation?
Answer:
Marginalisation is the process of excluding some groups from the places where they deserve equal consideration.

Question 2.
Give any two reasons for which marginalisation takes place?
Answer:
Marginalisation takes place due to natural disasters, manmade disasters.

Question 3.
What are the practices followed as a part of marginalisation?
Answer:
1) Certain social groups were excluded willfully on account of their cast, religion or class.
2) Some groups were denied employment and education.
3) Some were denied opportunities and were not even treated as individuals.
Who faces marginalisation in the society:
a) Women
b) Transgenders
e) Minorities
d) Poverty-stricken people, refugees etc.

Question 4.
Who faces marginalisation in the society?
Answer:
Marginalisation is the process of excluding some groups from the ¡laces where they deserve equal consideration.
Reasons for which marginalisation takes place:
a) Marginalisation takes place by the loss of assets caused due to natural disasters such as floods, earthquakes, landslides, sea erosion etc.,
b) Marginalisation takes place due to manmade disasters such as war, accidents and industrial disasters.
c) Marginalisation also occurs due to the intentional exclusion of people based on their caste, religion, tribe, or gender status. Eg: Denial of opportunity for education.

Question 5.
Who are social reformers?
Answer:
Social reformers are those who fight against the exclusion of gender, caste, religion etc and work to create a more just and equitable society.

Question 6.
Who preached the message of ‘enlightenment through education’?
Answer:
Sree Narayana Guru

Question 7.
Who used the term ‘Dalit’ for the first time?
Answer:
Jyoti Rao Phule

Question 8.
Give the names of four social reformers?
Answer:
Kuriakose Elias Chavara, Ayya Vaikunta Swamikal, Chattampi Swamikal, Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi.

Question 9.
Give the names of some social reformers and their specialities?
Answer:

Social Reformers	Specialities
Kuriakose Elias Chavara	Educating & uplifting people of lower class
yya Vaikunta Swamikal	Eliminating caste-based discrimination
Chattampi Swamikal	Child marriage & other customs were stopped.
Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi	Nurtured women’s education
Poikayil Yohannan	Dalit activist who fought against caste discrimination
Dakshayani Velayudhan	Dalit women who stood up for the rights of women

Question 10.
Who are tribal people?
Answer:
Tribal people are those who live together in specific geographical areas and who create their own knowledge. They follow their own way of life, art, and cultural values.

Question 11.
Name two reformers who worked against the marginalisation of Dalits?
Answer:
Verrier Elwin, Dr. A. Aiyappan

Question 12.
Write a note on tribals?
Answer:

Tribal people are those who live together in specific geographical areas and who create their own knowledge.
They follow their own way of life, art, and cultural values.
The tribal people who had supreme command over the resources of their natural habitat were subsequently marginalised.
In the fields of art, language, literature, medicine and agriculture, the tribals have excellent knowledge and skills, which they have achieved through close contact with nature.

Question 13.
How did reformers like Verrier Elwin, Dr. A. Aiyappan worked against the marginalisation of Dalits?
Answer:
Verrier Elwin:
One of the most important contributors to Indian Anthropology. He worked for the preservation of the unique life of tribal people. He held significant influence in shaping India’s policy towards tribal people.

Dr. A. Aiyappan:
Aiyappan was born on February 5, 1905, at Pavaratty in Thrissur district. He was a prominent anthropologist who studied about Indian cultures. He completed research studies under Malinowski and Raymond Firth from the London School of Economics and made outstanding contnbutions to the study of Ezhava-Gothra community in Kerala.

Question 14.
Briefly explain marginalisation and women?
Answer:

Women are a social group that has been marginalised due to gender status.
During the early days, women were forbidden to engage in artistic activities.
Women were either marginalised or. denied equal rights just because of their gender.
A misconception persisted in the society was that women deserve only lower status in the field of arts, education, work and domestic spheres.

Question 15.
Name three reformers who worked against the marginalisation of Women?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabhai, Ponnen lukose, Janaki ammal

Question 16.
How did reformers like Pandita Ramabai, Poonnen Lukose, Janaki Ammal worked against the marginalisation of women?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabai:
A prominent figure among the social reformers in India who worked for the rights and empowerment of women in the 19th century. Education and welfare of widows were the major areas of activity. She studied about the condition of women in India and led the activities to solve the problems.

Dr. Poonnen Lukose
She did her MBBS from the University of London as Indian universities did not admit women for the same. She became famous as the first woman to graduate in medicine from Kerala. She was the first woman representative in the Travancore Legislative Council.

E.K. Janaki Ammal
The world-renowned botanist was born in Thalasseri, Kerala. She developed high-yielding sugarcane hybrids at the Sugarcane Research Centre in Coimbatore. She was the first Director General of the Botanical Survey of India. In 1977, the Nation honoured her with the Padma Shri award.

Question 17.
Briefly explain marginalisation & differently abled?
Answer:

Differently Abled means a person who lacks normal functioning of physical, mental or psychological processes. It is also defined as learning difficulties or difficulties in adjusting socially, which interfere with a person’s normal growth and development.
Differently abled people, due to their physical characteristics, face many challenges in their daily life compared to others.
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016: This act was enacted to ensure non discrimination and equal social life for the differently abled.

Question 18.
What do you mean by differently abled?
Answer:
Differently Abled means a person who lacks normal functioning of physical, mental or psychological processes. It is also defined as learning difficulties or difficulties in adjusting socially, which interfere with a person’s normal growth and development.

Question 19.
Who is the father of Indian constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 20.
What do Article 14 says?
Answer:
The Constitution of India guarantees equality to all citizens.

Question 21.
Which article stipulates that there shall be no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth.?
Answer:
Article 15

Question 22.
State the reasons for which constitution prohibits discrimination?
Answer:

Discrimination hinders social progress.
Creates economic inequality
Denies safe physical environment
Creates war or conflict.within the society
Citizens tend to shift to other countries in search of jobs and living
Makes the minority group feel less or alienated.

Question 23.
Define the term marginalisation.
Answer:
Marginalisation is the process of excluding some groups from the places where they deserve equal consideration.

Question 24.
State any three reasons for which marginalisation takes place.
Answer:
Three reasons for which marginalisation takes place:
a) Marginalisation takes place by the loss of assets caused due to natural disasters such as floods, earthquakes, landslides, sea erosion etc.,
b) Marginalisation takes place due to manmade disasters such as war, accidents and industrial disasters.
c) Marginalisation also occurs due to the intentional exclusion of people based on their caste, religion, tribe, or gender status. Eg: Denial of opportunity for education.

Question 25.
What are the practices followed for marginalisation?
Answer:
1) Certain social groups were excluded willfully on account of their cast, religion or class.
2) Some groups were denied employment and education.
3) Some were denied opportunities and were not even treated as individuals.

Question 26.
Who faces marginalisation in the society?
Answer:
Marginalisation is faced by:
a) Women
b) Transgenders
c) Minorities
d) Poverty-stricken people, refugees etc.

Question 27.
Give few examples of injustice in our society?
Answer:
Exclusion of individuals from the mainstream, denial of opportunities are some examples of injustice in our society.

Question 28.
Give the names of any two social reformers who worked against the marginalisation of Dalits.
Answer:
Jyoti Rao Phule, Savitribai Phule

Question 29.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Social Reformers	Specialities
Kuriakose Elias Chavara	Educating & uplifting people of lower class
Ayya Vaikunta Swamikal	Eliminating caste-based discrimination
Chattampi Swamikal	Child marriage & other customs were stopped.
Vakkom Abdul Khader Moulavi	Nurtured women’s education
Poikayil Yohannan	Dalit activist who fought against caste discrimination
Dakshayani Velayudhan	Dalit women who stood up for the rights of women

Question 30.
How did Jyoti Rao Phule, Savitribai Phule help Dalits from marginalisation
Answer:
Jyoti Rao Phule: Dalit is the term used to describe a community subjected to caste and religious exploitation. The term was used by Jyoti Rao Phule, who initiated social change during his time. Phule established educational institutions for Women and Dalits.

Savitribai Phule: She was the headmistress of India’s first school for girls in Pune. A night school was established for farmers and workers. Pune University was renamed as Savitribai Phule Pune University in recognition of her great contributions in the field of education.

Question 31.
Who is E.V.Ramasamy Naicker and what movement did he find?
Answer:
E.V.Ramasamy Naicker is the founder of the Self-Respect Movement and was one of the leading anti-caste activists in India. Being a social reformer, he stood against social discrimination based on Brahmin dominance and also emphasised the importance of women’s education.

Question 32.
Write a short note on the greatest reformers who helped against the marginalisation of Dalits.
Answer:
Mahatma Ayyankali:
He worked to provide equal opportunities to the lower caste people. Ayyankali recognised education as a tool for social transformation.

Sree Narayana Guru:
He preached the message of ‘enlightenment through education’. Sree Narayana guru also opposed marginalisation through modern education.

Jyoti Rao Phule:
Dalit is the term used to describe a community subjected to caste and religious exploitation. The term was used by Jyoti Rao Phule who initiated social change during his times. Phule established educational institutions for Women and Dalits.

Savitribai Phule:
She was the headmistress of India’s first school for girls in Pune. A night school was established for farmers and workers. Pune University was renamed as Savitribai Phule Pune University in recognition of her great contributions in the field of education.

Periyar E.V.Ramasamy Naicker:
He is the founder of the Self-Respect Movement and was one of the leading anti-caste activists in India. Being a social reformer, he stood against social discrimination based on Brahmin dominance also emphasised the importance of women’s education.

Question 33.
Name two reformers who worked against marginalisation of tribals?
Answer:
Verrier Elwin and Dr.A.Aiyappan.

Question 34.
Write a short note on tribal people.
Answer:
Tribal people are those who live together in specific geographical areas and who create their own knowledge. They follow their own way of life, art, and cultural values. The tribal people who had supreme command over the resources of their natural habitat were subsequently marginalised. In the fields of art, language, literature, medicine and agriculture, the tribals have excellent knowledge and skills, which they have achieved through a close contact with nature.

Question 35.
How did reformers work against the marginalisation of Tribal people?
Answer:
Some reformers who worked against the marginalisation of Tribals:
Verrier Elwin:
One of the most important contributors to Indian Anthropology. He worked for the preservation of the unique life of tribal people. He held significant influence in shaping India’s policy towards tribal people.

Dr. A. Aiyappan:
Aiyappan was born on February 5, 1905, at Pavaratty in Thrissur district. He was a prominent anthropologist who studied about Indian cultures. He completed research studies under Malinowski and Raymond Firth from the London School of Economics and made outstanding contributions to the study of Ezhava- Gothra community in Kerala.

Question 36.
Write a nore about Nanjiyamma.
Answer:
Nanjiyamma from Irula tribe of Attappadi in Palakkad district won the 2020 National Film Award for the best female singer. She is the first person from tribes to win this award. Her song started with the lines” Kala katha sandanamere vegu voka poothiriko…”

Question 37.
What do you mean by differently abled?
Answer:
Differently Abled means a person who lacks normal functioning of physical, mental or psychological processes. It is also defined as learning difficulties or difficulties in adjusting socially, which interfere with a person’s normal growth and development.

Question 38.
Briefly explain about the reformers who worked against the marginalisation of Women?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabai:
A prominent figure among the social reformers in India who worked for the rights and empowerment of women in the 19th century. Education and welfare of widows were the major areas of activity. She studied about the condition of women in India and led the activities to solve the problems.

E.K. Janaki Ammal
The world-renowned botanist was born in Thalasseri, Kerala. She developed high- yielding sugarcane hybrids at Sugarcane Research Centre in Coimbatore. She was the first Director General of the Botanical Survey of India. In 1977, the Nation honoured her with the Padma Shri award.

Question 39.
Define the term transgender?
Answer:
Transgender means a person whose gender does not match with the gender assigned to that person by birth. This includes trans-men or trans-women.

Question 40.
What are the challenges Nilambur Ayisha faced from the society as a part of marginalisation? What was the reason
Answer:
In the early days, society didn’t approve of women acting in dramas. Ayisha mostly performed in places like North Malabar. She was stoned while playing drama. Also, an attempt was made on her life while she was performing a play at Melakkam in Manjeri. None of these stopped her from being the woman she was.

Question 41.
Identify the prominent personalities:
a) Education and welfare of widows were the major areas of her activity. She studied the condition of women in India and led the activities to solve the problems.
b) She became famous as the first
woman to graduate in medicine from Kerala.
Answer:
a) Pandita Ramabai
b) Dr.Poonnen Lukose

Question 42.
Who was Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ?
Answer:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is the architect of the Constitution of India. He worked hard for the socio-political upliftment of Dalits. He presented the problems of marginalised communities in India through his writings. and stood for their legal protection. He is also known as the father of Indian constitution.

Question 43.
State the reasons for prohibiting discrimination by our constitution.
Answer:

Reasons for prohibiting discrimination by our constitution
Discrimination hinders social progress.
Creates economic inequality
Denies safe physical environment
Creates war or conflict within the society
Citizens tend to shift to other countries in search of jobs and living
Makes the minority group feel less or alienated.

Question 44.
What is Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act?
Answer:
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 was enacted to ensure non-discrimination and equal social life for the differently abled.

Question 45.
Briefly explain articles that come under the constitution of India, which prohibits discrimination.
Answer:
Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Article16: There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.

Article17: Abolition of untouchability

Std 7 Social Science From Injustice to Justice Notes

Marginalisation is the process of excluding some groups from the places where they deserve equal consideration.
Marginalisation takes place due to natural disasters, manmade disasters and also occurs due to the intentional exclusion of people based on their caste, religion, tribe, or gender status.
Social reformers who fought to create a more just and equitable society for Dalits are: Mahatma Ayyankali, Sree Narayana Guru, Jyoti Rao Phule, Savitribai Phule, Periyar E.V.Ramasamy Naicker
Tribal people are those who live together in specific geographical areas and who create their own knowledge.
Social reformers who fought to create a more just and equitable society for Tribals are: Verrier Alwin, Dr.A.Aiyappan
Some reformers who worked against the marginalisation of women: Pandita Ramabai,
Dr. Poonnen Lukose, Janaki Ammal.
Women were either marginalised or denied equal rights just because of their gender.
The Constitution of India guarantees equality to all citizens (Article 14).
The Constitution stipulates that there shall be no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth (Article 15).

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 12 Question Answer Malayalam Medium പ്രകൃതിയുടെ വരദാനം

March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Std 6 Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium and പ്രകൃതിയുടെ വരദാനം Class 6 Social Science Chapter 12 Question Answer Notes Malayalam Medium, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 6 Social Science Chapter 12 Notes Malayalam Medium പ്രകൃതിയുടെ വരദാനം

Gift of Nature Class 6 Notes Malayalam Medium

Question 1.
കർഷകനായ രാഘവൻ പരമ്പരാഗതമായ കൃഷി രീതിയിലൂടെയാണ് കൃഷി ചെയ്യുന്നത്. ജൈവ വളപ്രയോഗം, കന്നുകാലികളെ ഉപയോഗിച്ച് നിലം ഉഴൽ തുടങ്ങിയവ. ഇവിടെ രാഘവൻ ഏതെല്ലാം തരത്തിലുള്ള പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങളെ ആശ്രയിച്ചാണ് കൃഷി ചെയ്യുന്നത് ? അവ ഏതെ ല്ലാമെന്ന് പട്ടികപ്പെടുത്തൂ. എന്താണ് പ്രകൃതി വിഭ വങ്ങൾ ?
Answer:
പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ
പ്രകൃതിയിൽനിന്നു ലഭിക്കുന്നതും മനുഷ്യന് ഉപ യോഗപ്രദവുമായ വസ്തുക്കൾ വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്ന റിയപ്പെടുന്നു. വായു, സൂര്യപ്രകാശം, കാറ്റ്, മര ങ്ങൾ, ജലം തുടങ്ങി എണ്ണിയാലൊടുങ്ങാത്ത വിഭ വങ്ങളാൽ സമ്പന്നമാണ് നമ്മുടെ പ്രകൃതി. വിഭ വങ്ങളെ പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ, പുന സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നിങ്ങനെ തരംതിരിക്കാം. എക്കാലത്തും ലഭ്യമായ വിഭവ ങ്ങളാണ് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ. ഉപ യോഗത്തിനനുസരിച്ച് തീർന്നു പോകുന്ന വിഭവ ങ്ങളാണ് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കാപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങൾ.

പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാൻ കഴിയുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ ഉപ യോഗത്തിനനുസരിച്ച് വീണ്ടും പഴയപോലെയാ കുവാൻ സാധിക്കും. ഉദാഹരണം: തടി, കാറ്റ് മുത ലായവ പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാൻ കഴിയാത്ത വിഭ വങ്ങൾ ഉപയോഗത്തിന് നു സ രിച്ച് തീർന്നു പോകുന്നവയാണ്. ഉദാഹരണം; കൽക്കരി, പ്രകൃ തിവാതകം മുതലായവ. രാഘവാൻ, കൃഷിചെയ്യുന്നതിനായി ഉപയോഗപ്പെ ടുത്തുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ താഴെ പറയുന്നവയാണ്.

മണ്ണ്
ജലം
സൂര്യപ്രകാശം
വായു

Question 2.
മരം, സൂര്യപ്രകാശം, മത്സ്യം, കാറ്റ്, കന്നുകാലി കൾ, ജല എന്നിവ ചില പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങളാണ്. ഇവയെ ജൈവ വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നും അജൈവവിഭ വങ്ങൾ എന്നും തരംതിരിച്ച് പട്ടികപ്പെടുത്തു.
Answer:

Question 3.
താഴെ തന്നിരിക്കുന്നത് രണ്ടു കാറുകളുടെ സവി ശേഷതകളാണ്. ഇവയുടെ ഓരോന്നിന്റെയും സവിശേഷതകൾ കണ്ടെത്തി ശരിയായ കളങ്ങ ളിൽ എഴുതൂ.
കാർ – എ : സൗരോർജത്താൽ പ്രവർത്തിക്കുന്നു. ബി : പെട്രോൾ കൊണ്ട് പ്രവർത്തിക്കുന്നു. സവിശേഷതകൾ കാർ
(1) അന്തരീക്ഷ മലിനീകരണത്തിന് കാരണമാകു ന്നില്ല.
(2) പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവം ഇന്ധന മായി ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നു.
(3) അന്തരീക്ഷത്തിലെ കാർബൺഡയോക്സൈ ഡിന്റെ അളവ് കൂട്ടുന്നു.
(4) ഇത്തരം കാറുകൾ ധാരാളമായി ഉപയോഗി ക്കപ്പെടുന്നു.
(5) ഇത്തരം കാറുകൾ വളരെ പരിമിതമായി മാത്രമേ ഉപയോഗിക്കപ്പെടുന്നുള്ളൂ.
(6) പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവം ഇന്ധനമായി ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നു.

ഇതിൽ ഏതുതരം കാറുകളാണ് പ്രകൃതി സൗഹൃ ദപരമായത് ? നിങ്ങളുടെ നിരീക്ഷണം സാധൂക
രിക്കുക.
Answer:

Question 4
‘വിഭവങ്ങൾ നാം കടമെടുത്തത് ‘ എന്ന ആശയം വിശകലനം ചെയ്ത് നിഗമനങ്ങൾ എഴുതുക. വിഭവ സംരക്ഷണത്തിനായി ഏതെങ്കിലും അഞ്ചു വഴികൾ കണ്ടെത്തി എഴുതുക.
Answer:
ഇന്ന് നാം ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്ന പല വിഭവങ്ങളും ഭാവി തലമുറക്കു കൂടി അവകാശപ്പെട്ടതാണ്. അതിനാൽ തന്നെ ‘വിഭവങ്ങൾ നാം കടമെടു ത്തത്’ എന്ന് പറയാറുണ്ട്. നിലവിൽ ഏകദേശം 3 ബില്ല്യൺ ആളുകൾക്ക് ജീവിതത്തിന്റെ അടി സ്ഥാന ഘടകങ്ങളിൽ ചിലതിന്റെയെങ്കിലും കുറ വുണ്ട്. ശുദ്ധജലം, ശുചിത്വം, പോഷകാഹാരം, വൈദ്യുതി മുതലായ വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ അഭാവം അനുഭവിക്കുന്ന വളരെയധികം പ്രദേശങ്ങൾ ലോകത്തിന്റെ വിവിധ ഭാഗങ്ങളിലുണ്ട്.

ജന സംഖ്യാ വർദ്ധനവിനനുസരിച്ച് വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ അഭാവവും വർദ്ധിച്ചുവരും. ശുദ്ധവും സുരക്ഷിതത്വം ഉറപ്പുവരുത്തുന്നതുമായ അന്തരീക്ഷം എല്ലാ മനുഷ്യരും പ്രതീക്ഷിക്കുന്ന ഒരു കാര്യമാണ്. ഇങ്ങനെയൊരു അന്തരീക്ഷം വേണമെങ്കിൽ തീർച്ചയായും വിഭവങ്ങൾ ആവ ശ്യമാണ്. ഭാവിതലമുറ സുരക്ഷിതത്വത്തിൽ ജീവി ക്കണമെങ്കിൽ അവർക്കു കൂടി അവകാശപ്പെട്ട വിഭ വങ്ങൾ ശ്രദ്ധയോടും കരുതലോടും കൂടെ ഇന്നത്തെ തലമുറ ഉപയോഗിക്കേണ്ടതുണ്ട്.

ഗാന്ധിജിയുടെ വാക്കുകൾ നമുക്ക് ഓർമയിൽ സൂക്ഷിക്കാം. നമുക്ക് എല്ലാവരുടെയും ആവശ്യ ങ്ങളെ തൃപ്തിപ്പെടുത്താനുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളുണ്ട്. എന്നാൽ ഒരാളുടെപോലും അത്യാഗ്രഹത്തെ നറ വേറ്റാനുള്ളതില്ലാതാനും.

വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തിനുള്ള നടപടികൾ

വിഭവങ്ങൾ നീതിപൂർവവും ശ്രദ്ധാപൂർവവും ഉപയോഗിക്കുകയും അവയ്ക്ക് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്ക
പ്പെടാനുള്ള സമയം അനുവദിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക. വിഭവങ്ങൾ പാഴാക്കുന്നതും ദുരുപയോഗം ചെയ്യുന്നതും ഒഴിവാക്കുക.
ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നില്ലാത്തപ്പോൾ ലൈറ്റുകളും ഫാനുകളും ഓഫ് ചെയ്യുക.
മഴവെള്ള സംഭരണികൾ സ്ഥാപിക്കുകയും ജലം സൂക്ഷിച്ച് ഉപയോഗിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക. പരിസ്ഥിതി സംരക്ഷിക്കാനുള്ള ഏറ്റവും നല്ലൊരു മാർഗമാണ് വനവൽക്കരണം.

Question 5.
എന്താണ് വിഭവങ്ങൾ ?
Answer:

പ്രകൃതിയിൽ കാണുന്നതും മനുഷ്യന് ഉപയോ ഗപ്രദവുമായ വസ്തുക്കളെ വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നു പറയുന്നു.
വായു, സൂര്യപ്രകാശം, കാറ്റ്, മരങ്ങൾ, ജലം എന്നിങ്ങനെ നിരവധി വിഭവങ്ങളാൽ സമ്പന്ന മാണ് നമ്മുടെ പ്രകൃതി.
വിഭവങ്ങളെ പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവ ങ്ങൾ പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നിങ്ങനെ തരംതിരിക്കാം.
എക്കാലത്തും ലഭ്യമായ വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് പുന സ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ. ഉപയോഗത്തി നനുസരിച്ച് തീർന്നുപോകുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങൾ.

Question 6.
വിഭവശോഷണം എങ്ങനെ സംഭവിക്കുന്നു?
Answer:
ജനസംഖ്യാ വർദ്ധനവ്, ശാസ്ത്ര-സാങ്കേതിക പുരോഗതി, മെച്ചപ്പെട്ട വാർത്താവിനിമയ സൗക ര്യങ്ങൾ, വ്യവസായവൽക്കരണം എന്നിവ പ്രകൃ തിവിഭവങ്ങളുടെ ആവശ്യകത വർധിപ്പിച്ചു. ഇത് അമിതമായ വിഭവശോഷണത്തിന് വഴിതെളിച്ചു. അനിയന്ത്രിതമായ ഉപഭോഗം മൂലം വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ അളവിലും ഗുണത്തിലുമുണ്ടാകുന്ന കുറവാണ് വിഭവശോഷണം.

Question 7.
വിഭവങ്ങൾ സംരക്ഷിക്കപ്പെടേണ്ടതുണ്ടോ ?
Answer:
വിഭവങ്ങൾ നീതിപൂർവവും ശ്രദ്ധാപൂർവവും ഉപ യോഗിക്കുകയും അവയ്ക്ക് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാ നുള്ള സമയം അനുവദിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക എന്ന താണ് വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തിന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാന തത്ത്വം.

Question 8.
പ്രകൃതിവിഭവങ്ങൾക്ക് ഉദാഹരണങ്ങളും അവ യുടെ ഉപയോഗങ്ങളും കണ്ടെത്തി എഴുതുക.
Answer:

Question 9.
ചുവടെ നൽകിയിട്ടുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളെ എക്കാ ലത്തും ലഭ്യമായവ എന്നും ഉപയോഗത്തിനനു സരിച്ച് തീർന്നു പോകുന്നവയെന്നും തരംതിരിച്ച് പട്ടികയിൽ ഉൾപ്പെടുത്തുക.

Answer:

Question 10.
നാം വിഭവങ്ങൾ അശ്രദ്ധമായി ഉപയോഗിച്ചാൽ ഭാവിയിൽ എന്താണ് സംഭവിക്കുക ? തന്നിരി ക്കുന്ന ചിത്രങ്ങൾ ശ്രദ്ധിക്കൂ. ചിത്രങ്ങൾക്ക് അടി കുറുപ്പ് എഴുതിനോക്കൂ.

Answer:
(1) വാഹനങ്ങളുടെ അമിത ഉപയോഗം
(2) വനഭൂമികൾ തരിശുഭൂമികളായി മാറും
(3) സമുദ്രവിഭവങ്ങളുടെ ശോഷണം
(4) പർവ്വതങ്ങൾ തരിശുഭൂമികളാകുന്നു

Question 11.
നൽകിയിരിക്കുന്ന ഓരോ ചിത്രത്തിലെയും സന്ദർഭങ്ങൾ വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തെ എങ്ങനെ സഹായിക്കുന്നു എന്നു ചർച്ച ചെയ്യുക.

Answer:
വിഭവങ്ങൾ നീതിപൂർവവും ശ്രദ്ധാപൂർവവും ഉപയോ ഗിക്കുകയും അവയ്ക്ക് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാനുള്ള സമയം അനുവദിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക എന്നതാണ് വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തിന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാന തത്ത്വം.

ഫോസിൽ ഇന്ധനങ്ങളുടെ ഉപയോഗം ഇല്ലാത്ത തിനാൽ സൈക്കിൾ സഞ്ചാരം ഊർജസംര ക്ഷണം ഉറപ്പുവരുത്തുന്നു. കൂടാതെ യാതൊരു വിധ മലിനീകരണവും സൈക്കിൾ ഉപയോഗത്തി ലില്ല. സൗരോർജം പുനരുൽപ്പാദിപ്പിക്കാൻ കഴിയുന്ന ഒരു വിഭവമാണ്.

ഫോസിൽ ഇന്ധനങ്ങളിലുള്ള നമ്മുടെ ആശ്രിതത്വം കുറയ്ക്കുന്നതിനുള്ള ഒരു രീതിയുമാണ് സൗരോർജം ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നത്. പ്ലാസ്റ്റിക് ബാഗുകൾക്കു പകരം തുണസഞ്ചികൾ ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്നത് പ്ലാസ്റ്റിക് ഉപയോഗം കുറക്കു ന്നതിനോടൊപ്പം മലിനീകരണത്തിൽ നിന്നും രക്ഷ നേടലാണ്. ഈ വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തിന് ഏറെ പങ്കു വഹിക്കുന്ന ഒരു രീതിയാണ് തുണി സഞ്ചികളുടെ ഉപയോഗം.

“മരം ഒരു വരമാണ് ‘ എന്നാണല്ലോ പറയാറ്. മര ങ്ങൾ നടുന്നത് പരിസ്ഥിതിക്ക് വളരെയേറെ മുതൽകൂട്ടായ ഒരു കാര്യമാണ്. വായുവിനെ തണു പ്പിക്കുന്നതിന് വൃക്ഷങ്ങൾക്ക് ഏറെ പങ്കുണ്ട്. ഫോസിൽ ഇന്ധനങ്ങളെ ആശ്രയിക്കുന്നത് കുറ യ്ക്കാൻ കാറ്റാടിയന്ത്രം സഹായിക്കുന്നു. വിഭവ സംരക്ഷണത്തിൽ വളരെയേറെ സ്വാധീനം ചെലു ത്തുന്ന ഒരു കാര്യമാണ് കാറ്റാടിയന്ത്രം ഉപയോ ഗിച്ച് വൈദ്യുതി ഉൽപാദിപ്പിക്കുന്നത്.

Question 12.
അമിത വിഭവ ഉപയോഗത്തെ സൂചിപ്പിക്കുന്ന പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ, അതിലൂടെ ശോഷണം സംഭവിക്കുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ, ബദൽ മാർഗങ്ങൾ എന്നിങ്ങനെ പട്ടികയിലെ കളങ്ങളെ അനുയോജ്യമാക്കി യോജിപ്പിക്കൂ.

Answer:

പ്രകൃതിയുടെ വരദാനം Class 6 Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
മനുഷ്യന് ഉപയോഗപ്രദമായ വസ്തുക്കളെ…. എന്നു പറയുന്നു ?
Answer:
വിഭവങ്ങൾ

Question 2.
പ്രകൃതിയിൽ നിന്ന് നേരിട്ടു ലഭിക്കുന്നതും ഉപ യോഗയോഗ്യവുമായ വിഭവങ്ങൾ ഏത് ?
Answer:
പ്രകൃതിവിഭവങ്ങൾ

Question 3.
ജീവനുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങൾ : ജൈവവിഭവങ്ങൾ
ജീവനില്ലാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങൾ : ………………………..
Answer:
അജൈവവിഭവങ്ങൾ

Question 4.
ഒറ്റയാനെ കണ്ടെത്തുക
കൽക്കരി, കാറ്റ്, പ്രകൃതിവാതകം,
Answer:
പെട്രോളിയം കാറ്റ് (കാറ്റ് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കാൻ കഴിയുന്ന വിഭവ മാണ്. ബാക്കിയെല്ലാം പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങളാണ്).

Question 5.
അനിയന്ത്രിതമായ ഉപഭോഗം മൂലം വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ അളവിലും ഗുണത്തിലുമുണ്ടാകുന്ന കുറവെന്ത് ?
Answer:
വിഭവശോഷണം

Question 6.
ലോകപരിസ്ഥിതി ദിനം ആചരിക്കുവാനുള്ള തീരു മാനും എടുത്തത് ആരുടെ പ്രസംഗത്തെ അടി സ്ഥാനമാക്കിയാണ് ?
Answer:
ശ്രീമതി ഇന്ദിരാഗാന്ധി

Question 7.
ലോകപരിസ്ഥിതി ദിനം എന്നാണ് ?
Answer:
ജൂൺ 5

Question 8.
വിഭവങ്ങൾ നീതിപൂർവവും ശ്രദ്ധാപൂർവവും ഉപ യോഗിക്കുകയും അവയ്ക്ക് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാ നുള്ള സമയം അനുവദിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക എന്ന താണ് ……………. ന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാനതത്വം.
Answer:
വിഭവസംരക്ഷണം

Question 9.
ലോകഭൗമദിനം എന്ന്
Answer:
ഏപ്രിൽ 22

Question 10.
പ്രകൃതിയെ നിഷ്കരുണം ഉപദ്രവിക്കുന്നതിൽ നിയന്ത്രണം വേണമെന്ന ചിന്തയുടെ ഭാഗമായി നിലവിൽ വന്ന ഏതെങ്കിലുമൊരു നിയമത്തിന്റെ പേരെഴുതുക ?
Answer:
പരിസ്ഥിതി സംരക്ഷണ നിയമം

Question 11.
പെരിയാർ നദീസംരക്ഷണത്തിനുവേണ്ടിയുള്ള ജനമുന്നേറ്റം എന്തിന്റെ രൂപീകരണത്തിനാണ് കാര ണമായത് ?
Answer:
ജല അതോറിറ്റി

Question 12.
വരും തലമുറകൾക്ക് അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറ വേറ്റുന്നതിനുള്ള ശേഷിയിൽ കുറവു വരാതെ തന്നെ ഇന്നത്തെ തലമുറ അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്ന സമീപനം എന്താണ് ?
Answer:
സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം.

Question 13.
സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം എന്ന ആശയം ആദ്യമായി അവതരിപ്പിച്ച കമ്മീഷൻ ഏത് ?
Answer:
ബ്രണ്ട്ലാൻഡ് കമ്മീഷൻ റിപ്പോർട്ട്, 1987,

Question 14.
“നമുക്ക് എല്ലാവരുടെയും ആവശ്യങ്ങളെ തൃപ്തി പ്പെടുത്താനുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളുണ്ട്. എന്നാൽ ഒരാളു ടെപോലും അത്യാഗ്രഹത്തെ നിറവേറ്റാനുള്ളതി ല്ലതാനും”- ആരുടെ വാക്കുകളാണിവ
Answer:
ഗാന്ധിജി

Question 15.
സുസ്ഥിര വികസത്തിലേക്ക് എത്താനുള്ള മാർഗ ങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാം ?
Answer:
വിഭവങ്ങൾ പുനചംക്രമണം ചെയ്യുക, ഉപയോഗം കുറക്കുക, പുനരുപയോഗിക്കുക.

Question 16.
സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം എന്നാൽ എന്ത് ? സുസ്ഥിര വികസനത്തിനായി എന്തു ചെയ്യാം ?
Answer:
വരും തലമുറകൾക്ക് അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറ വേറ്റുന്നതിനുള്ള ശേഷിയിൽ കുറവു വരാതെ തന്നെ ഇന്നത്തെ തലമുറ അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്ന സമീപനമാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം. സുസ്ഥിര വികസനത്തിനായി നമുക്കൊരുമിച്ച് താഴെ പറയുന്ന കാര്യങ്ങൾ ചെയ്യാം.

അടുക്കളയിൽ നിന്നുള്ള ജലം ചെടികൾ നന യ്ക്കാൻ ഉപയോഗിക്കുക.
പൊതുസ്ഥലങ്ങളിൽ മരങ്ങൾ നട്ടുപിടിപ്പിക്കുക.
പാരമ്പര്യേതര ഊർജസ്രോതസ്സുകളായ സൗരോർജം, കാറ്റിൽ നിന്നുള്ള ഊർജം മുത ലായവ പരമാവധി
ഉപയോഗപ്പെടുത്തുക. മഴവെള്ളക്കൊയ്ത്തിനുള്ള സംവിധാനങ്ങൾ ഉറപ്പാക്കുക.
പ്ലാസ്റ്റിക് കവറുകൾക്കു പകരം തുണിസഞ്ചി കൾ ഉപയോഗിക്കുക

Question 17.
ലോക പരിസ്ഥിതി ദിനത്തിന്റെ പ്രാധാന്യം വിശ ദീകരിക്കുക ?
Answer:

എല്ലാ വർഷവും ജൂൺ 5-നാണ് ലോകപരി സ്ഥിതി ദിനം ആഘോഷിക്കുന്നത്. അന്നേദി വസം പരിസ്ഥിതി സംരക്ഷണത്തിന്റെ അവ ബോധം ആളുകളിലെത്തിക്കാൻ വിവിധ പരി പാടികൾ നടത്തുകയും ചെയ്യാറുണ്ട്.
സർക്കാർ സ്ഥാപനങ്ങൾ, ബിസിനസ്സുകൾ, സർക്കാരിതര സ്ഥാപനങ്ങൾ മുതലായവ രെല്ലാം പരിസ്ഥിതി ദിനം ആഘോഷമാക്കാ റുണ്ട്.
വൃക്ഷങ്ങളും കാടുകളും സംരക്ഷിക്കുക, വന പ്രദേശങ്ങൾ വിപുലീകരിക്കുക, ആഗോള പാരി സ്ഥിതിക സന്തുലനവും കാലാവസ്ഥാ സുസ്ഥി രതയും ഉറപ്പാക്കുക തുടങ്ങിയവയാണ് പരി സ്ഥിതി ദിനാചരണത്തിന്റെ ലക്ഷ്യം.
പരിസ്ഥിതിയെ പരിപാലിക്കുന്നതിനുള്ള ഏറ്റവും എളുപ്പവും മികച്ചതുമായ മാർഗങ്ങ ളിൽ ഒന്നാണ് മരങ്ങൾ നട്ടുപിടിപ്പിക്കുക എന്നത്.

Question 18.
ജലം, മണ്ണ്, പെട്രോളിയം, വനം എന്നീ പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ പ്രകൃതിയിൽ നിന്നു അപ്രത്യക്ഷമാ യാൽ എന്തു സംഭവിക്കും ? ചർച്ചചെയ്യു.
Answer:
ജലം, മണ്ണ്, പെട്രോളിയം, വനം മുതലായ പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ പ്രകൃതിയിൽനിന്നും അപ്രത്യക്ഷമാ യാൽ, അത് ഭൂമിയുടെ ആവാസവ്യവസ്ഥയെയും മനുഷ്യരാശിയെയും പ്രതികൂലമായി ബാധിക്കും. ജൈവവൈവിധ്യം കുറയുകയും ഹരിതഗ്രഹ പ്രഭാവത്തിലേക്ക് ഭൂമിയെ നയിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യും.

ജലം: ജലമില്ലാതെ ജീവിതം അസാധ്യമായൊരു കാര്യമാണ്. ശുദ്ധജലം ലഭിച്ചില്ലെങ്കിൽ മനുഷ്യ രും, മൃഗങ്ങളും സസ്യങ്ങളുമെല്ലാം ആഴ്ചകൾക്കു ള്ളിൽ തന്നെ നാശമടയും. കൃഷിയെ പ്രതികൂല മായി ബാധിക്കുകയും ഭക്ഷ്യക്ഷാമത്തിലേക്ക് നയിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യും.

മണ്ണ് : മണ്ണൊലിപ്പും മണ്ണ് ശോഷണവും കാർഷിക ഉൽപ്പാദന ക്ഷമതയെ പ്രതികൂലമായി ബാധിക്കും. ഇത് ഭക്ഷ്യക്ഷാമത്തിലേക്ക് നയിക്കും. മണ്ണിന്റെ ശോഷണം സസ്യങ്ങളുടെ നിലനിൽപ്പിനെയും ബാധിക്കും. ഇത് ആവാസവ്യവസ്ഥയും ജൈവ വൈവിധ്യവും നശിക്കുന്നതിന് കാരണമാകുന്നു.

പെട്രോളിയം: വാഹനങ്ങൾ ഓടുന്ന തിനും വൈദ്യുതിയുടെ ഉൽപാദനത്തിനും ആവശ്യമായ ഒരു വിഭവമാണ് പെട്രോളിയം ഉൽപന്നങ്ങൾ. പെട്രോളിയത്തിന്റെ അഭാവം മനുഷ്യകുലത്തെ മുഴുവൻ ബാധിക്കുന്ന ഒരു പ്രശ്നമാണ്. സൗരോർജം, കാറ്റ്, ജലവൈദ്യുത ഊർജം തുട ങ്ങിയ ബദൽ ഊർജ സ്രോതസ്സുകളെ ആശ്രയി ക്കേണ്ടതായി വരും.

വനങ്ങൾ: വിവിധയിനം സസ്യങ്ങളുടെയും മൃഗ ങ്ങളുടെയും ആവാസ കേന്ദ്രമാണ് വനം. ഭൂമിയുടെ കാലാവസ്ഥയിൽ വനങ്ങളുടെ പങ്ക് വളരെ വലു താണ്. വനങ്ങൾ ഇല്ലാതായാൽ പല ജീവജാല ങ്ങളും നാശമടയും. കാലാവസ്ഥ വ്യതിയാനങ്ങൾ ഉണ്ടാകുന്നതുമൂലം വെള്ളപ്പൊക്കം, വരൾച്ച, കാട്ടുതീ തുടങ്ങിയ പല പ്രശ്നങ്ങളും ഉണ്ടാകും.

ചുരുക്കത്തിൽ ജലം, മണ്ണ്, പെട്രോളിയം, വനം എന്നീ പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ പ്രകൃതിയിൽ നിന്നു അപ്രത്യക്ഷമായാൽ ഭൂമിയിലെ എല്ലാ മേഖലക ളെയും ഗുരുതരമായി ബാധിക്കുന്ന ഒരു പ്രശ്ന മായി ഇത് മാറും. അതിനാൽ ഭാവി തലമുറയുടെ ക്ഷേമത്തിനായി ഈ പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ സംര ക്ഷിക്കുകയും സൂക്ഷിച്ച് കൈകാര്യം ചെയ്യുകയും വേണം.

Question 19.
“പ്രകൃതിയിൽ കാണുന്നതും മനുഷ്യന് ഉപയോ ഗപ്രദമായ വസ്തുക്കളെ വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നു പറ യുന്നു.
(a) പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നാൽ എന്ത് ?
(b) പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾക്ക് നാല് ഉദാഹരണങ്ങൾ എഴുതുക ?
(c) ജൈവവിഭവങ്ങളും അജൈവ വിഭവങ്ങളും തമ്മിൽ എങ്ങനെ വ്യത്യാസപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്നു ?
Answer:
(a) പ്രകൃതിയിൽനിന്ന് നേരിട്ടു ലഭിക്കുന്നതും ഉപ യോഗ യോഗ്യവുമായ വിഭവ ങ്ങ ളാണ് പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ.
(b) ശിലകൾ, ജലം, മണ്ണ്, കാറ്റ്
(c) ജീവനുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളെ ജൈവ വിഭവങ്ങ ളെന്നും ജീവനില്ലാത്തവയെ അജൈവ വിഭ വങ്ങളെന്നും പറയും.

Question 20.
പട്ടിക പൂർത്തീകരിക്കുക.

Answer:

Question 21.
(a) സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം എന്നാൽ
(b) സുസ്ഥിര വികസനത്തിലേക്ക് എത്താനുള്ള മാർഗങ്ങൾ എന്തെല്ലാം ?
Answer
(a) വരും തലമുറകൾക്ക് അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്നതിനുള്ള ശേഷിയിൽ കുറവു വരാതെ തന്നെ ഇന്നത്തെ തലമുറ അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്ന സമീപനമാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം. 1987-ൽ ബ്രണ്ട്ലാൻഡ് കമ്മീഷൻ റിപ്പോർട്ടി ലാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം എന്ന ആശയം ആദ്യമായി അവതരിപ്പിച്ചത്.

(b) വിഭവങ്ങൾ പുനചംക്രമണം ചെയ്യുക, അവ യുടെ ഉപയോഗം കുറയ്ക്കുക, അവ പുനരു പയോഗിക്കുക എന്നിവയാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വിക സനത്തിലേക്ക് എത്താനുള്ള മാർഗങ്ങൾ.

Question 22.
ചേരുംപടി ചേർക്കുക.

Answer:

Question 23.
വംശനാശ ഭീഷണി നേരിടുന്ന സസ്യങ്ങളുടെയും മൃഗങ്ങളുടെയും പട്ടിക ഉണ്ടാക്കുക.
Answer:
ലോകത്തിൽ, വംശനാശഭീഷണി നേരിടുന്ന 10 മൃഗങ്ങൾ

Gift of Nature Class 6 Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium

വായു, സൂര്യപ്രകാശം, കാറ്റ്, മരങ്ങൾ, ജലം തുടങ്ങി എണ്ണിയാലൊടുങ്ങാത്ത വിഭവങ്ങളാൽ സമ്പ ന്നമാണ് നമ്മുടെ പ്രകൃതി. പ്രകൃതിയിൽ കാണുന്നതും മനുഷ്യന് ഉപയോഗപ്രദവുമായ വസ്തുക്കളെ വിഭവ ങ്ങൾ എന്നു പറയുന്നു.

പ്രകൃതിയിൽ നിന്ന് നേരിട്ടു ലഭിക്കുന്നതും ഉപയോഗ യോഗ്യവുമായ വിഭവങ്ങളാണ് പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങൾ. വിഭവങ്ങളെ പുനരുപയോഗിക്കാനാവുന്നതും അല്ലാത്തതുമായി തരം തിരിക്കാം. വിഭവങ്ങൾ, വിഭവശോഷണം, വിഭവസംരക്ഷണം എന്നിവയെക്കുറിച്ച് കൂടുതൽ മനസ്സിലാക്കുവാൻ ഈ പാഠ ഭാഗം നിങ്ങളെ സഹായിക്കും.

പ്രകൃതിയിൽ കാണുന്നതും മനുഷ്യന് ഉപയോഗപ്രദവുമായ വസ്തുക്കളെ വിഭവങ്ങൾ എന്നു പറയുന്നു.
ഭൂമി, വായു, ജലം തുടങ്ങി മനുഷ്യർക്ക് ആവശ്യമുള്ളതും വിലമതിക്കുന്നതുമായ ഒരു ഭൗതിക പദാർത്ഥ മാണ് വിഭവം.
വിഭവങ്ങളെ പുനരുപയോഗിക്കാൻ കഴിയുന്നതും കഴിയാത്തതും എന്നിങ്ങനെ തരം തിരിക്കാം.
പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങൾ എക്കാലത്തും ലഭ്യമായ വിഭവങ്ങളും, പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭ വങ്ങൾ ഉപയോഗത്തിനനുസരിച്ച് തീർന്നുപോകുന്ന വിഭവങ്ങളുമാണ്.
പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടുന്ന വിഭവത്തിന് അത് ഉപയോഗിക്കുന്ന നിരക്കിൽ സ്വയം പഴയപോലെ ആകുവാൻ സാധിക്കും. ഉദാ: തടി, കാറ്റ് മുതലായവ.
പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാത്ത വിഭവത്തിന് പരിമിതമായ വിതരണമുണ്ട്. ഉദാ: കൽക്കരി, പ്രകൃതിവാതകം തുട ങ്ങിയവ.
ജീവനുള്ള വിഭവങ്ങളെ ജൈവ വിഭവങ്ങളെന്നും ജീവനില്ലാത്തവയെ അജൈവ വിഭവങ്ങളെന്നും പറയും.
ജനസംഖ്യാ വർധനവ്, ശാസ്ത്ര-സാങ്കേതിക പുരോഗതി, മെച്ചപ്പെട്ട വാർത്താവിനിമയ സൗകര്യങ്ങൾ, വ്യവസായവൽക്കരണം എന്നിവ പ്രകൃതി വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ ആവശ്യകത വർധിപ്പിച്ചു.
അനിയന്ത്രിതമായ ഉപഭോഗം മൂലം വിഭവങ്ങളുടെ അളവിലും ഗുണത്തിലുമുണ്ടാകുന്ന കുറവാണ് വിഭവ ശോഷണം.
വിഭവങ്ങൾ നീതി പൂർവവും ശ്രദ്ധാപൂർവവും ഉപയോഗിക്കുകയും അവയ്ക്ക് പുനസ്ഥാപിക്കപ്പെടാനുള്ള സമയം അനുവദിക്കുകയും ചെയ്യുക എന്നതാണ് വിഭവസംരക്ഷണത്തിന്റെ അടിസ്ഥാന തത്ത്വം.

വരും തലമുറകൾക്ക് അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്നതിനുള്ള ശേഷിയിൽ കുറവു വരാതെ തന്നെ ഇന്നത്തെ തലമുറ അവരുടെ ആവശ്യങ്ങൾ നിറവേറ്റുന്ന സമീപനമാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം.
1987-ൽ ബ്രണ്ട്ലാൻഡ് കമ്മീഷൻ റിപ്പോർട്ടിലാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനം’ എന്ന ആശയം ആദ്യമായി അവ തരിപ്പിച്ചത്.
വിഭവങ്ങൾ പുനചംക്രമണം ചെയ്യുക, അവയുടെ ഉപയോഗം കുറയ്ക്കുക. അവ പുനരുപയോഗിക്കുക എന്നിവയാണ് സുസ്ഥിര വികസനത്തിലേക്ക് എത്താനുള്ള മാർഗ്ഗങ്ങൾ.

Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 3

March 25, 2025March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 3 Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 3 Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Notes Questions and Answers

Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 3 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
Was it after Independence that we started thinking about a constitution?
Answer:
The process of creating a constitution for India began after independence from British rule in 1947. The Indian National Congress, led by figures like Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, and B.R. Ambedkar, played a crucial crucial role in shaping the constitutional framework for the newly independent nation. The drafting of the Indian Constitution was undertaken by the Constituent Assembly, which was convened in December 1946. The Constituent Assembly worked over several years to draft and finalise the Constitution of India, which was adopted on January 26, 1950, marking the commencement of the Republic of India. So, yes, it was after independence that India began thinking about and ultimately drafting its constitution.

Question 2.
What ideas did Gandhiji wish to have in the future Constitution of India?
Answer:

Sovereignty
Equality
Fraternity
Gender justice
Decentralised economy
Sarvodaya (Welfare of All)
Swadeshi (Self-Reliance)
Nonviolence (Ahimsa)

Question 3.
Observe the figure below and record your conclusions.

Answer:

Individual freedom should be given priority
Civil rights must be ensured
All religions should be given equal importance
Social justice should be ensured
Democratic administration should be strengthened
Importance of nonviolence as a guiding principle for the nation
Self-reliance at both the individual and national levels
Decentralised governance and emphasised the importance of empowering local communities

Question 4.
Indian freedom struggle became the foundation of our constitution. Evaluate.
Answer:
The Indian freedom struggle profoundly influenced the foundation of the Indian Constitution, embedding its core values and principles. The movement emphasis on democratic ideals, social justice, and individual freedoms is reflected in the Constitution’s commitment to democracy, equality, and fundamental rights. The struggle highlighted the need for a federal structure to accommodate India’s diversity and underscored the importance of secularism among communal tensions. Leaders like B.R. Ambedkar, who played pivotal roles in both the struggle and the drafting process, ensured that Constitution addressed social inequalities through provisions for reservations and affirmative action. Thus, the Constitution embodies the aspirations for a just, inclusive, and democratic society rooted in the experiences and ideals of the freedom movement.

Question 5.
Organise a discussion based on the features of the Constitution.
Answer:
(Hints)
Preamble
Participant 1: The Preamble declaring India a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and outlining objectives of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
Fundamental Rights
Participant 2: Fundamental Rights in Part III protect individual liberties and provide checks on government power, ensuring dignity and democratic participation.

Directive Principles of State Policy Participant 3: Directive Principles in Part IV guide the state in policy-making to achieve social justice and reduce inequality, reflecting the goals of the freedom struggle. Federal Structure
Participant 4: The federal system balances power between central and state governments, accommodating India’s diversity and promoting unity.

Secularism
Participant 5: Secularism ensures the state does not favour any religion, maintaining communal harmony and protecting minority rights.

Independent Judiciary
Participant 6: The independent judiciary upholds the rule of law and protects citizen’s rights, acting as a check on the executive and legislative branches.

Parliamentary System
Participant 7: The parliamentary system promotes a responsible government, ensuring accountability to the legislature and reflecting the will of the people.

Question 6.
Check the following statements. Draw against the correct ones and to the wrong ones.

Our courts work under governments.

Certain powers are vested exclusively with the State governments.

Everyone who turns 18 has the right to vote.

No one is above the law.

A person in India has state citizenship in addition to national citizenship.

In a democracy. the people are sovereign.

As we have rights. we have duties, too.

No one has control over our rulers.

Answer:

Question 7.
List out the laws related to children’s rights.
Answer:

Child Labour Prohibition Act
Juvenile Justice Act.
Right to Education Act

Question 8.
Why does our country give great importance to children’s rights? Discuss.
Answer:
The emphasis on children’s rights in our country is a reflection of both ethical principles and practical considerations, rooted in the recognition that children are important members of society who require special protection and care. Here are several key reasons why children’s rights are given great importance:

Ethical and Moral Considerations
a) Inherent Vulnerability: Children are inherently vulnerable and dependent on adults for their survival, development, and well-being. Ensuring their rights protects them from exploitation, abuse, and neglect.

b) Moral Obligation: There are moral duty to ensure that every child has the opportunity to develop to their full potential in a safe and nurturing environment.

Legal and International Obligations
a) UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC): This international treaty commits countries to prioritise children’s rights in legislation and policy.

b) National Legislation: Many countries have specific laws and policies in place. to protect children’s rights, reflecting a commitment to uphold these standards within their legal frameworks.

Social and Economic Benefits

a) Investment in the Future: Children represent the future of any nation. Protecting their rights and ensuring their healthy development translates into a more prosperous, educated, and stable society in the long term.

b) Reducing Social Problems: By addressing issues like child poverty, education, and health, countries can mitigate future social problems such as crime, unemployment, and poor health outcomes.

Developmental and Psychological Considerations
a) Healthy Development: Ensuring that children grow up in an environment where they feel safe, valued, and supported is crucial for their physical, emotional, and cognitive development.

b) Rights to Education and Healthcare: Access to education and healthcare is fundamental for the development of children, helping them to become well- rounded individuals who can contribute positively to society.

Advocacy and Awareness
a) Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs): Various NGOS international bodies actively support for children’s rights, raising awareness and influencing policy to ensure that children’s issues remain a priority.

b) Public Awareness: Increased awareness among the public about the importance of children’s rights has led to greater demand for policies and practices that safeguard these rights.

Historical Context and Learning
a) Lessons from the Past: Historical instances of child exploitation and abuse have highlighted the need for specific protections for children.” Learning from these experiences has driven the development of strong child protection frameworks.

b) Evolving Societal Values: As societies evolve, there is a growing recognition of the importance of treating children as individuals with their own rights rather than just as property or dependents of adults.

Legal Protection and Enforcement
a) Child Protection Services: Establishing dedicated agencies and services for child protection ensures that children’s rights are actively monitored and enforced.

b) Judicial Support: Legal systems are increasingly supportive of children’s rights, with special provisions for handling cases involving children to ensure their best interests are prioritised.
In summary, the importance placed on children’s rights is varied, encompassing ethical, legal, social, and practical dimensions. By safeguarding children’s rights, countries not only fulfil their moral and legal obligations but also invest in a more just, humane, and prosperous future.

Question 9.
Organise a discussion and prepare an awareness pamphlet on the topic “detecting situations that may lead to crimes against children and the preventive measures to avoid such crimes”.
Answer:
(Hints)
Awareness Pamphlet
Front Page:

Title: Protecting Our Children: finding and Preventing Crimes Against Children
Insert a picture of happy, safe children
Slogan: “Every Child Deserves Safety and Love”

Inside Left: Understanding Risk Factors

Types of Crimes Against Children
- Physical abuse
- Sexual abuse
- Neglect
- Emotional abuse
- Exploitation
Common Risk Factors
- Domestic violence
- Substance abuse
- Community violence
- Lack of social support

Inside Right: Detecting Warning Signs

Physical Indicators
- Unexplained injuries
- Poor hygiene, malnutrition
Environmental Indicators
- Unsafe living conditions
- Presence of substances

Back Page: Preventive Measures

Education and Awareness
- Teach children about their rights
- Community programs
Strengthening Families
- Support services for families
- Parenting classes
Community Involvement
- Safe community spaces
- Neighbourhood watch

Contact Information:

Helplines and Hotlines
- National Child Protection Hotline: [Phone Number]
- Local Child Services: [Phone Number]

Question 10.
Prepare placards for the Republic Day rally with messages reflecting constitutional principles.

Answer:
(Hints: Make placards with the help of elders with the following slogans)

“Equal Rights for All: Justice for Everyone!”
“Justice and Equality: Foundations of Our Constitution!”
“Liberty and Justice for All!”
“Your Vote, Your Voice: Strengthen Our Democracy!”
“Secularism is Our Strength!”
“Peace and Harmony: Respect All Religions!”

Question 11.
Look at the figure and write the answers to the questions given in the box.

Answer:

Which ideas were newly added to the constitution in 1976?	Socialism, secularism and integrity
In which year did the Constitution of India come into force?	26th January 1950
What was the first amendment made in the constitution, and in which year?	1951- the number of schedules increased to 9
How long did the Right to Property remain a fundamental right in India?	Nearly 30 years
Is Education a fundamental right in India? Since when?	Yes, from 2002 onwards
How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended so far?	As of June 2024, the Constitution of India has been amended 106 times since it was enacted in 1950

Question 12.
Prepare a timeline using some important constitutional amendments.
Answer:
1. First Amendment Act June 1951
Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes. Added restrictions on freedom of speech and expression in the interests of public order.

2. Seventh Amendment Act November 1956
Reorganized states based on linguistic lines; created Union Territories.

3. Twenty-Fourth Amendment Act, November 1971
Declares Parliament’s power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.

4. Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act April 1971
Limited property rights by allowing the state to take over private property for public use without full compensation.

5. Thirty-Ninth Amendment Act August 1975
Placed the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker beyond judicial scrutiny.

6. Forty-Second Amendment Act December 1976
Known as the “Mini-Constitution,” it added words like “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble, curtailed the power of the judiciary, and extended the duration of legislatures.

7. Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, April 1978
Reversed many provisions of the 42nd Amendment, restored civil liberties, and replaced the Right to Property from a fundamental right to a legal right.

8. Seventy-Fourth Amendment Act June 1992
Provided constitutional status to urban local bodies (Municipalities).

9. Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act December 2002
Made education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years under Article 21A.

10. Ninety-First Amendment Act January 2003
Limited the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the legislative members.

Question 13.
a) What have you understood by reading the below headlines?
b) What could be the reasons?

Answer:
a. It indicates the various challenges while implementing laws.
b.

Varied interests of people
Legislation that does not fully reflect the will of the people
Ignorance of law
Lack of public awareness and education
Corruption
Cultural resistance.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Collect news headlines and pictures related to laws and prepare a collage.
Answer:
(Hints: collect more news headings as given below)

Question 2.
Organise a seminar based on ‘Features of Constitution’.
Answer:
(Hints)
Seminar Title: Understanding the Features of Constitution: Pillars of Democratic Governance Objective: The seminar aims to provide a comprehensive understanding of the key features of a constitution, emphasising their significance in upholding democratic principles and fostering good governance.
Agenda:
Session 1: Introduction to Constitutionalism

Definition and significance of a constitution
Historical evolution of constitutional governance
Role of constitutions in safeguarding rights and promoting the rule of law

Session 2: Key Features of a Constitution

Written vs. unwritten constitutions: a comparative analysis
Separation of powers: executive, legislative, and judicial branches
Fundamental rights and freedoms: guarantees for citizens
Federalism VS. unitary systems:
distribution of powers between central and regional authorities
Checks and balances: mechanisms to prevent abuse of power

Session 3: Case Studies and Comparative Perspectives

Examination of selected constitutions from different countries
Analysis of constitutional challenges and reform initiatives
Lessons learned and best practices in constitutional design

Session 4: Role of Citizens in Constitutional Governance

Civic education and awareness-raising on constitutional rights and responsibilities.
Public participation in constitutional processes: referendum, constitutional assembly, etc.
Civil society and advocacy constitutional reform and implementation.

Session 5: Q&A and Discussion

Open floor for questions, comments, and reflections
Exchange of ideas and experiences among participants
Opportunities for networking and collaboration

Conclusion: The seminar will conclude with a reaffirmation of the importance of understanding and ending with the features of a constitution for the advancement of democracy, human rights, and inclusive governance.

Question 3.
Prepare a constitution for your class based on the ideas in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(Hints)
We, the students of [Name of the Class/School/Institution], in our quest for knowledge, unity, and progress, hereby adopt and enact this Constitution to govern ourselves, uphold justice, promote equality, and secure the blessings of liberty for all.

Article I: Fundamental Rights
• Right to Education: Every student shall have the right to free and compulsory education up to a certain age as determined by the relevant educational authorities.

Freedom of Expression: Students shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression, subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of public order, morality, or the reputation of the institution.

Equality before the Law: All students shall be equal before the law and shall not be discriminated against on the grounds of race, religion, caste, gender, or any other irrelevant factor.

Right to Assembly: Students shall have the right to to assemble and form associations or unions peacefully, provided they adhere to the principles of democracy and non-violence.

Article II: Directive Principles of State Policy

Promotion of Welfare: The institution shall endeavour to promote the welfare of its students by providing adequate facilities for education, health, and recreation.

Equality of Opportunity: The institution shall strive to ensure equal opportunities for all students, irrespective of their background, and take affirmative action. to address historical injustices.

Environmental Protection: The institution shall promote environmental awareness and sustainable practices among its students, staff, and stakeholders.

Article III: Powers and Responsibilities
Executive Authority: The executive authority of the class shall be vested in a Student Council, elected democratically by the students, and responsible for the day-to-day administration of the class affairs.

Legislative Authority: The legislative authority shall be vested in a General Body comprising all students, which shall have the power to enact rules and regulations for the governance of the class, subject to the provisions of this Constitution.

Judicial Authority: The judicial authority shall be vested in a Student Judiciary, independent of the Executive and Legislative branches, responsible for adjudicating disputes and upholding the principles of justice and fairness.

Article IV: Amendment Procedure
Amendments to this Constitution may be proposed by a two-thirds majority of the General Body and shall come into effect upon ratification by a similar majority in a subsequent General Body meeting.

Article V: Supremacy of the Constitution
This Constitution shall be the supreme law of the class, and all students, teachers, and staff shall be bound by its provisions.

Article VI: Ratification
This Constitution shall come into effect upon ratification by a two-thirds majority of the students present in a specially convened assembly for this purpose.
Signature of Ratification:
[Signatures of the Student Council Members]
[Date of Ratification].

Question 4.
Organise an awareness Programme on ‘Child Safety and POCSO Act’ with the help of legalerts.
Answer:
(Hints)
Title: Empowering Communities: Child Safety and the POCSO Act Awareness Programme
Objective: The awareness Programme aims to educate parents, caregivers, educators, and community members about child safety and the provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act. By increasing awareness and understanding of these issues, participants will be better equipped to protect children from abuse and ensure their well-being.

Agenda:
Session 1: Introduction to Child Safety
Overview of child rights and the importance of safeguarding children from harm.
Common types of child abuse and their impact on the physical, emotional, and psychological well-being of children. Role of communities in promoting child safety and creating protective environments.

Session 2: Understanding the POCSO Act Overview of the key provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, including definitions of sexual offences against children and related penalties. Reporting mechanisms and procedures for filing complaints under the POCSO Act. Legal rights and protections afforded to child victims and witnesses during investigation and trial proceedings.

Session 3: Prevention Strategies and Support Services
Strategies for preventing child sexual abuse, including age-appropriate education, communication, and supervision.

Identifying warning signs of abuse and grooming behaviours in children and adults.

Available support services and resources for child victims, survivors, and their families, including counselling and legal aid.

Session 4: Interactive Panel Discussion with Legal Experts

• Panel discussion featuring featuring legal experts, child rights activists, and representatives from child protection agencies. Q&A session with participants to address specific concerns, clarify doubts, and discuss best practices for ensuring child safety and seeking justice under the POCSO Act.

Conclusion: The awareness programme will conclude with a reaffirmation of the collective responsibility to protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation. Participants will be encouraged to take proactive measures within their families, schools, and communities to create safe and supportive environments for children to thrive.

Class 7 Social Science Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the features of the Government of India Act 1935?
Answer:
Features ofGovernnicnt of India Act (1935)

Bicameral legislature in six provinces
Bicameral legislature at the centre
321 sections and 1 0 schedules
Special constituencies for weaker sections, women and workers
Power is divided between the centre and Provinces

Question 2.
What is the main objective of the freedom struggle?
Answer:
The main objectives of the freedom struggle were not only to end foreign rule but also to ensure a better social and political life for every Indian.

Question 3.
Which is the world’s longest written constitution?
Answer:
India

Question 4.
Who is the father of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R Ambedkar

Question 5.
The Indian constitution came into force in ……….
Answer:
26th January 1950

Question 6.
What are the key features of constituent assembly?
Answer:

Diverse features of Indian constitution:

Parliamentary Democracy: The legislature controls the executive of the country.
Popular Sovereignty: All the powers of the nation originate from the people.
Fundamental Rights: Each individual is guaranteed certain fundamental rights by the state.
Fundamental Duties: Responsibilities that every individual owes to the nation and society.
Directive Principles: Directions given to the state to ensure social and economic rights
Rule of Law: All citizens are subject to the law. No one is above the law.
Universal Adult Franchise: Right to vote given to all who attained a particular age.
Independent and Impartial Judiciary: The Judicial System is independent of the legislature and executive.
Federalism: A system in which power is divided between the Centre and the States.
Single citizenship: There is only one citizenship in the country; there is no separate citizenship for states.

Question 7.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
A legal status and relation between an individual and a state that entails specific legal rights and duties. Citizenship is generally used as a synonym for nationality.

Question 8.
What is meant by parliamentary democracy?
Answer:
The legislature controls the executive of the country.

Question 9.
Define fundamental rights and fundamental duties.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights: Fundamental Rights in Part III protect individual liberties and provide checks on government power, ensuring dignity and democratic participation.
Fundamental Duties: Responsibilities that every individual owes to the nation and society.

Question 10.
Define “secularism”.
Answer:
Secularism ensures the state does not favour any religion, maintaining communal harmony and protecting minority rights.

Question 11.
Define POCSO case?
Answer:
Every child has the right to live safely without fear in the society. A child must be able to identify the uncomfortable and unsafe touches, looks, actions. etc., fi-orn any person. They’ should be capable enough to say ‘NO’ to such acts, able to keep away and complain to the authorities. The law states that cases of sexual assault are to be reported (under Section 19) to the Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police. Officers handling POCSO cases are known as Child Welfare Police Officers (CWPO). The Kerala State Commission for Protection of Child Rights has set up a monitoring system (POCSO Monitoring Cell) under Section 44 of the POUSO Act

Question 12.
Officers handling POCSO cases are known as——
Answer:
Child Welfare police officers.

Question 13.
What was the major aim of the convention which was held in 1989?
Answer:
The 1989 Convention on the Rights of the Child aims to prevent sexual violence against children and to ensure appropriate punishment for the perpetrators.

Question 14.
Mention any two laws related to child right?
Answer:
Child labour protection Act and Right to education act

Question 15.
Define Mini constitution.
Answer:

The terms secularism, socialism and integrity were inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution through the 42nd Amendment of 1 976.
Some other changes were also brought in the constitution through this amendment.
Due to the significant changes brought by this amendment, it was also called the Mini Constitution.

Everyone is constitutionally bound to obey the public laws. When new laws are formulated, criticisms and struggles against them are likely to arise, It is natural in a democratic society. Such objections should be approached constitutionally and democratically.

Question 16.
What is constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Constitutional Amendment is the process of making changes in the constitution as per the changing social demands.

Question 17.
Define Education as a Fundamental right.
Answer:
Our constitution changes from time to time. Constitutional Amendment is the process of making changes in the constitution as per the changing social demands. According to Article 368. Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, hut the basic structure of the Constitution should not be amended.

Question 18.
What are the major functions of constitution?
Answer:

Question 19.
When was the first meeting of the assembly held for the formation of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The first meeting of the Assembly was held on 9 December 1946.

Question 20.
What is republic?
Answer:
A Republic is a system in which the head of the state is an educated person. Thus, our constitution insists that the president of the country shall be an elected person.

Question 21.
What is Constitution?
Answer:
Constitution is an authentic document containing the basic ideas, principles and laws of a country. The laws governing a country originate from its constitution. Every country is ruled on the basis of its constitution.

Question 22.
What are the components of the content of the Indian constitution?
Answer:

Preamble
395 Articles
12 schedules
22 parts

Question 23.
Explain the five basic goals mentioned in the preamble.
Answer:

Sovereignty: The complete power to make decisions on external and internal matters.
Socialism: Social justice is ensured by minimising social, economic, political inequalities in society.
Democracy: The government is run by the representatives elected by the people.
Secularism: The citizens’ right to profess and propagate the religion of their preference. The state does not favour any religion. The state has no official religion.
Republic: The head of the state is decided through election.

Question 24.
Write a short note on the preamble.
Answer:
The Preamble reflects the basic ideals and values of our Constitution. Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, prepared the Preamble in his poetic style. It is described as the essence and key of the Constitution. The Preamble clearly states and proclaims the objectives and goals of the Constitution.

Question 25.
What are the features of Govt. Of India Act 1935.
Answer:

Bicameral legislature at the centre
321 sections and 10 schedules
Special constituencies for weaker sections women and workers
Power is divided between the centre and Provinces
Bicameral legislature in six provinces

Question 26.
What is Bicameral Legislature?
Answer:
Countries of a larger size and diversity usually have bicameral legislatures. It is helpful in representing the diversity (people and regions) of the country. In addition, bicameral legislatures play an important role in enabling democratic discussions and debates. State legislatures are responsible to make laws in the states.

Question 27.
Discuss the role of Gandhiji in cons- titutional formation.
Answer:

With the advent of Gandhi, the freedom movement transformed itself into a mass movement. Gandhiji’s influence strengthened the demand for democracy based on social justice.
National movement should be the foundation of our constitution. These views influenced the framing of our constitution.

Question 28.
How the Indian freedom struggle is considered as the basis of our constitution.
Answer:
The Indian freedom struggle profoundly influenced the foundation of the Indian Constitution, embedding its core values and principles. The movement’s emphasis on democratic ideals, social justice, and individual freedoms is reflected in the Constitution’s commitment to democracy, equality, and fundamental rights. The struggle highlighted the need for a federal structure to accommodate India’s diversity and underscored the importance of secularism amidst communal tensions. Leaders like B.R. Ambedkar, who played pivotal roles in both the struggle and the drafting process, ensured that the Constitution addressed social inequalities through provisions for reservations and affirmative action. Thus, the Constitution embodies the aspirations for a just, inclusive, and democratic society rooted in the experiences and ideals of the freedom movement.

Question 29.
Explain the major features of constituent assembly.
Answer:

Framing period- 2 years, 11 months and 17 days
First meeting- 9th December 1946
Chairman of drafting committee Dr B.R Ambedkar
Constitution adopted and signed on 26th November 1949

Question 30.
What are the six fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution?
Answer:

Right to equality
Right to freedom
Right against exploitation
Right to freedom of religion
Cultural and educational rights
Right to constitutional remedies

Question 31.
What is the difference between Fundamental rights and fundamental duties?
Answer:

Fundamental Rights: Each individual is guaranteed certain fundamental rights by the state.
Fundamental Duties: Responsibilities that every individual owes to the nation and society.

Question 32.
Write a short note on fundamental rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution for the success of democracy and the comprehensive development of citizens. The government have the responsibility to ensure these rights to their citizens. If Fundamental Rights are violated, the citizen has the right to approach either the High Court or the Supreme Court. The Constitution entrusts the courts to issue certain writs to protect the rights of the citizen in such circumstances.

Question 33.
What are the Directive principles of state policy?
Answer:
Some of the directive principles of state policy are the following:

Equal wages for equal work for all, irrespective of gender.
Protection of the environment by conserving forests and wildlife.

Question 34.
How far are the Directive Principles useful in ensuring the welfare of Indians?
Answer:
The Directive Principles should be followed for the welfare of the people and the development of the state. While framing laws and policies government are trying to implement them. You have seen that a person can approach the judiciary if his/her Fundamental Rights are violated. However, one cannot approach the court to enforce the Directive Principles. They are put into practice through the willpower of the government and the people.

Question 35.
From which constitution does India borrow the rule of law?
Answer:
The rule of law was developed in its civilised and modern form based on the British constitution.

Question 36.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Features	Countries
1. Parliamentary system	Britain
2. The Rule of law	Britain
3. Fundamental rights	USA
4. Independent judiciary	USA
5. Directive principles of state policy	Irland
6. Fundamental duties	U.S.S.R
7. Constitutional amendment	South Africa
8. Federal system	Canadian

Question 37.
What are the major laws of our constitution?
Answer:
Major laws are

Forest and Wildlife Protection Act
National Security Act
Child Labour Prohibition Act
Disaster Management Act
Food Security Act
Land Reforms Act
Right to Information Act
Juvenile Justice Act
Prevention of Corruption Act
Labour Law
Right to Education Act

Question 38.
Have you seen this picture in schools? What does this picture indicate?

Answer:
Free and compulsory education for all children between 6 and 14 years of age is a Fundamental Right. The Right to Education is included in Article 21(a) of the Constitution. It is the responsibility of the country to ensure quality primary education for all children. Given above is the logo of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan, which is one of the government responsibility.

Question 39.
It is desirable to make changes in the Constitution in accordance with the needs of the society. Justify your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. it is desirable to make changes in the constitution in accordance with the needs of society. The constitutional amendments were effective in co-operating periodical changes. Right to Education became a Fundamental Right through a constitutional amendment made by the Parliament in 2002. The Right to Property was a Fundamental Right in the beginning. However, it was deleted from the list through the 44th Amendment. Like this, amendments helped to solve many problems.

Question 40.
Present the process of the framing of the Constitution in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

The framing of the Indian constitution started.
The constituent assembly began functioning by forming various committees.
The constitution Drafting committee was one among them. it was responsible for preparing the draft constitution. Dr B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the Drafting committee.
The committee headed by Dr. Ambedkar prepared a draft of the Constitution. It was done based on the reports submitted by different committees.
After detailed discussions and debates, the Constituent Assembly approved the Constitution on 26 November 1949.

Question 41.
Match the persons with their roles.

Dr. BR Ambedkar	Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
Dr. Rajendra Prasad	Prepared the Preamble of the Constitution
Dr. Sachidananda Sinha	Chairman of the Drafting Committee
Jawaharlal Nehru	Acting Chairman of the Constituent Assembly

Answer:

Dr. BR Ambedkar	Chairman of the Drafting Committee
Dr. Rajendra Prasad	Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
Dr. Sachidananda Sinha	Acting Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
Jawaharlal Nehru	Prepared the Preamble of the Constitution

Question 42.
Read the following statements and mark the right answer from among the options given.
a) The Constitution is the supreme law of India.
b) New legislation should not be against the Constitution.
i. Only B is true
ii. Only A is true
iii. Neither A nor B is true
iv. Both A and B are true
Answer:
iv. Both A and B are true

Question 43.
What is RTE?
Answer:
The Right to Education. Right to Education became a fundamental Right through a constitutional amendment made by the parliament in 2002. It says that free and compulsory education for all children between 6 and 14 years of age has been made part of the Fundamental Rights.

Question 44.
Mention the stages in the formation of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The framing of the Indian Constitution started with the formation of the Constituent Assembly. The Constituent Assembly began functioning by forming various committees. The Constitution Drafting Committee was one among them. It was responsible for preparing the draft constitution. Dr. B R Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Committee. The committee headed by Dr. Ambedkar prepared a draft of the Constitution. It was done based on the reports submitted by different committees. After detailed discussions and debates, the Constituent Assembly approved the Constitution on 26 November 1949.

Question 45.
Complete the following.
a) Who was the first President of Independent India?
b) Who is known as the architect of the Indian constitution?
c) When did our constitution come into force?
d) Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
c) 26 November 1950
d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 46.
What are the major functions of a constitution?
Answer:

Establishes the rights and duties of citizens.
Defines and delimits the powers of the government.
Defines the basic values and ideals of the nation.
Acts as a safeguard against tyranny and abuse of power.
Preserving unity in diversity.

Std 7 Social Science Constitution: Path and Guiding Light Notes

The first function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.
If the Fundamental Rights are violated, the citizen has the right to approach either the High Court or the Supreme Court.
The Constitution entrusts the courts to issue certain writs to protect the rights of the c in such circumstances.
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, prepared the Preamble in his poetic style. It is described as the essence and key of the Constitution.
The Preamble clearly states and proclaims the objectives and goals of the Constitution.
Our Constitution is the reflection of the ideas and concepts that came up in the debates and discussions all over India during the freedom struggle.
The First War of Independence in 1857 was the first mass movement against the British rule.
The strengthening of nationalism led to the formation of many regional organisations against foreign domination in different parts of India.
The main objectives of the freedom struggle were not only to end foreign rule but also to ensure a better social and political life for every Indian.
Parliamentary Democracy: The legislature controls the executive of the country.
Popular Sovereignty: All the powers of the nation originate from the people.
Fundamental Rights: Each individual is guaranteed certain fundamental rights by the state.
Fundamental Duties: Responsibilities that every individual owes to the nation and society.
Directive Principles: Directions given to the state to ensure social and economic rights.
Federalism: A system in which power is divided between the Centre and the States.
Single citizenship: There is only one citizenship in the country; there is no separate citizenship for states.
The first constitutional amendment in India was on 18th June 1951.
Constitutional Amendment is the process of making changes in the constitution as per the changing social demands.
Any law framed by Centre or State Governments should follow the provisions of our Constitution.
The boundaries within which governments can make and enforce laws are decided by our constitution, which holds the position as the supreme system and source of law.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper March 2019 with Answers

March 14, 2025 by Prasanna

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2019 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019

Time: 2 Hours
Total Score: 60 Marks

Answer all questions from 1 to 5.
Each carry 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The number of symbols used in a number system is ……………………. .
Answer:
Base or Radix

Question 2.
Small and fast memory between processor and RAM is called ……………………. .
Answer:
Cache memory

Question 3.
What is the use of Rhombus symbol in flowchart?
Answer:
Decision making or condition checking

Question 4.
To find the number of characters in a string, ……………………. function is used.
Answer:
strlen()

Question 5.
To check an alphabet is lowercase, …………………… function can be used.
Answer:
islower()

Answer any 9 questions from 6 to 16.
Each carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 6.
Expand the following:
a) ENIAC
b) VLSI
Answer:
a) Electronic Numeric Integrator and Calculator
b) Very Large Scale Integrated

Question 7.
State De’Morgan’s theorems.
Answer:
(A+B)’ = A . B’
(A.B)’ = A’ + B’

Question 8.
Name any four e-Waste disposal methods.
Answer:
e-Waste disposal methods
a) Reuse: Reusability has an important role of e – Waste management and can reduce the volume of e-Waste
b) Incineration: It is the process of burning e Waste at high temperature in a chimney
c) Recycling of e-Waste: It is the process of making new products from this e-Waste.
d) Land filling: It is used to level pits and cover by thick layer of soil.

Question 9.
Compare Entry Controlled loop with Exit Controlled loop.
Answer:
An entry controlled loop first checks the condition and execute(or enters in to) the body of loop only if it is true. But exit control loop first execute the body of the loop once even if the condition is false then check the condition. The for loop and while loop are entry controlled loops but do- while loop is an exit controlled loop.

Question 10.
Find the invalid identifier npmes from the following: A1, d-w, 999, qwA, Z$, AaA1, 8c
Answer:
Invalid identifiers
d-w(Special characters not allowed)
999(Cannot be start with a number)
z$($ not allowed)
8c(Cannot be start with a number)

Question 11.
List the datatype modifiers used in C++.
Answer:
With the help of type modifiers we can change the sign and range of data with same size. The important modifiers are signed, unsigned, long and short.

Question 12.
Write the symbols of the following C++ operators.
a) Conditional operator
b) Extraction operator
c) Increment operator
d) NOT operator
Answer:
a) ?:
b) <<
c) ++
d) !

Question 13.
Write the syntax of if ………………… else statement.
Answer:

if(Test expression)
{
statement block 1;
}
else
{
statement block 2;
}

Question 14.
Compare Linear search with Binary search.
Answer:

Linear	Binary
no need of sorted array	need of sorted array
searching is slower for larger array	It is fester
It starts checking from the first element and checks all elements.	Divide and conquer method used

Question 15.
What do you mean by argument of a function? Explain formal arguments.
Answer:
To invoke a function that requires some data for performing the task, such data is called parameter or argument.
The parameters appear in a function definition are formal arguments.

Question 16.
Write the advantages of social media.
Answer:
Advantages of social media.

Bring people together: It allows people to maintain the friendship
Plan and organize events: It allows users to plan and organize events.
Business promotion: It helps the firms to promote their sales.
Social skills: There is a key role of the formation of society.

Answer any 9 questions from 17 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (9 × 3 = 27)

Question 17.
Explain any three generations of computers.
Answer:
There are five generations of computers from 16 th century to till date.
1) First generation computers (1940 – 1956)
Vacuum tubes were used in first generation computers. The input was based on punched cards and paper tapes and output was displayed on printouts.

2) Second generation computers (1956 – 1963)
Transistors, instead of Vacuum tubes, were used in 2nd generation computers hence size became smaller, less expensive, less electricity consumption and heat emission and more powerful and faster.

3) Third generation computers (1964 – 1971)
Integrated Circuits(IC’s) were used. IC’s or silicon chips were developed by Jack Kilby, an engineer in Texas Instruments. It reduced the size again and increased the speed and efficiency.

4) Fourth generation computers (1971 onwards)
Microprocessors are used hence computers are called microcomputers.

5) Fifth generation computers (future)
Fifth generation computers are based on Artificial Intelligence(AI). Al is the ability to act as human intelligence like speech recognition, face recognition, robotic vision and movement etc.

Question 18.
Draw the logic circuit of Boolean expression X . Y + $\bar{Y}$
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Computer Science Question Paper March 2019 with Answers 1

Question 19.
Convert(11011)₂ to Octal decimal and Hexadecimal number systems.
Answer:
a) To octal-for this divide the number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right and write down the corresponding octal equivalent
011 011 → 33
(11011)₂ = (33)₈

b) To decimal – for this multiply each digit by its corresponding weight and sum it up.
(11011)₂ = (27)₁₀

c) To Hexadecimal – for this divide the number into groups of 4 bits starting from the right and write down the corresponding hexadecimal equivalent
0001 1011 → 1 B
(11011 )₂ =(1B)₁₆

Question 20.
Name the steps involved in problem solving.
Answer:

Problem identification :
Deriving the steps to obtain the solution.
Coding
Translation
Debugging
Execution and Testing
Documentation

Question 21.
Write a short note on C++ character set.
Answer:
The character set of C++ is given below
a) Letters – A to Z and a to z.
b) Digits – 0 to 9
c) Special characters – +,-,*,/ etc
d) White spaces(non printable characters) and other characters

Question 22.
Describe three types of C++ expressions with an example.
Answer:
An expression is composed of operators and operands

Arithmetic – It consists of arithmetic operators and operands eg. a+5, b%10, etc
Relational – It consists of relational operators and operands eg. a>5, b==5, etc
Logical – It combines two or more relational expressions with logical operators. Eg. x>y && x==z

Question 23.
Write an algorithm for selection sort.
Answer:
Selection sort: In selection sort the array is divided into two parts, the sorted part and unsorted part. First smallest element in the unsorted part is searched and exchanged with the first element. Now there is 2 parts sorted part and unsorted part. This process continues.

Algorithm
Step 1. Start
Step 2. Read N(The number of elements)
Step 3. Read N elements into the Array AR
Step 4. Repeat steps.5 to 8, (N-1) times
Step 5. Assume that the first element is the smallest and set into MIN, and its position is POS
Step 6. Repeat Step 7 until the last element of the list
Step 7. Compare MIN with the remaining elements and the smaller one is stored in the MIN(Swap) and its position in POS
Step 8. Revise the list by excluding the first element in the list
Step 9. Print the Sorted Array AR
Step 10. Stop.

Question 24.
Differentiate between put ( ) and write ( ) with an example.
Answer:
put()- This is used to print a character on the screen. Eg. cout.put(“A”);
write() – This is used to print a string with specified length on the screen. Eg. cout.write(str,len);

Question 25.
Describe the merits of modular pro-gramming.
Answer:
Merits of modular programming is

It reduces the size of the program
Less chance of error
It reduces programming complexity
It improves reusability

Question 26.
Write short notes on.
a) Bluetooth
b) Wi-Fi
c) Satellite
Answer:
a) Bluetooth: This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile ,• phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

b) Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity): It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets, Mobile phones etc.

c) Satellites : By using satellite we can communicate from any part of the world to any other. The ground stations are connected via the satellite. The data signals transmitted from earth to satellite (uplink) and from the satellite to the earth (downlink).

Question 27.
What is the role of Firewall and Anti-virus scanner in computer networks?
Answer:
Firewall: It is a system that controls the incoming and out going network traffic by analyzing the data and then provides security to the computer network in an organization from other network (internet).

Antivirus scanners : It is a tool used to scan computer files for viruses, worms and Trojan horses and cure the infected system. If any fault found it stops the file from running and stores the file in a special area called Quarantine(isolated area) and can be deleted later.

Answer any 2 questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 28.
a) Write any two examples of optical storage devices. (1)
b) Rearrange the following memories in descending order depending on their speed.
(Hard disk, RAM, Cache Memory, Registers) (2)
c) List four major functions of operating system. (2)
Answer:
a) CD, DVD, Blue Ray Disc
b) Registers,Cache Memory, RAM, Hard Disk
c) Process management, Memory handling, Device management and file management

Question 29.
a) Explain any three jump statements with examples. (3)
b) Read the following C++ statement and rewrite using if ……….. else.
(a>b)? cout<<a:
cout<<b; (2)
Answer:
a) 1) goto statement By using goto we can transfer the control anywhere in the program without any condition. The syntax is goto label;

Eg.
#include
using namespace std; ”
intmain()
{
float a,b;
cout<<“Enter 2 numbers”; cin>>a>>b;
if(b==0)
goto end;
cout<<“The quotient is “<<a/b;
return 0;
end:cout<<“Division by zero error”;
}

2) break statement:- It is used to skip over a part of the code i.e. we can premature exit from a loop such as while, do-while, for or switch.

Eg.
#include
using namespace std;
main()
{
int i=1;
while(i<10)
{
cout<<i<<endI;
if(i==5)
break;
i++;
}
}

3) continue statement :- It bypasses one iteration of the loop.

Eg.
#include
using namespace std;
main()
{
int i=0;
while(i<10)
{
i++;
if(i==5) continue;
cout<<i<<endI; } } b) it(a>b)
cout<<a;
else
cout<<b;

Question 30.
Explain the network topologies with diagrams.
Answer:
The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.

1) Star Topology: A star topology has a server all other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmit the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B. That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network js easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.

2) Bus Topology: Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantage are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.

3) Ring Topology: Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address. The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. If not, it passes to the next node.

It requires only short cable length. If a single node fails, at least a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.

4) Hybrid Topology: It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology and mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.

a) Tree Topology: The structure of a tree topology is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmission takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.

b) Mesh Topology: In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.

Medieval India: Cultural Movements Class 7 Notes Questions and Answers Social Chapter 2

March 25, 2025March 13, 2025 by Prasanna

By reviewing Kerala Syllabus 7th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Download and Class 7 Social Science Chapter 2 Medieval India: Cultural Movements Questions and Answers Kerala SCERT Solutions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 2 Medieval India: Cultural Movements Notes Questions and Answers

Medieval India: Cultural Movements Class 7 Notes Pdf

Class 7 Social Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus

Question 1.
What is the theme behind these lines?

Answer:
The above lines is from “Perumal Tirumozhi” written by Kulasekhara Alvar. Through these lines, he points out that the spiritual life is more important than the material life.

Question 2.
Make a note on the changes that South Indian Bhakti movement brought about in the social system.
Answer:
Bhakta poets, Alvars and Nayanars travelled from place to place, singing devotional songs in vernacular languages, which helped in spreading devotion among people. The compositions of Bhakta poets had a great- impact on the common people when evil practices and inequality were dominant. The meaningless customary practices that prevailed in the society were questioned. Irrespective of caste, all sections of the society were attracted to the Bhakti movement. The writings of Alvars and Nayanars popularised Hinduism. Many temples were also built during this period.

Question 3.
List out the key features of the social conditions during the Bhakti period
Answer:

Caste discrimination existed
Child Marriage prevailed
Superstitious belief existed
Discrimination against people by birth and occupation existed.

Question 4.
The Vira Shaiva movement questioned the caste system and inequalities. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
The Vira Shaiva movement, also known as the Lingayat movement, started in the 12th century in Karnataka under the leadership of Basavanna. It strongly questioned the caste system and social inequalities. Vira Shaivas believed that devotion to Lord Shiva was the only important thing and not a person’s caste. They rejected rituals and the authority of the Brahmins, promoting the idea that all people are equal in the eyes of God. They also encouraged the involvement of women in religious practices. This movement helped to reduce the rigid caste distinctions and promoted social justice and equality.

Question 5.
Write your findings from Kabir’s Doha and stories.
Answer:

People call god by different names
Kabir made people think against superstitions
Rejecting Materialism
Self-Reliance
Equality and Tolerance

Question 6.
To what extent did Kabir’s ideas help to promote equality and religious harmony among the people? Organise a discussion.
Answer:
(Hint) Organise a discussion by using the given points

How did Kabir’s Doha affect the people?
Kabir’s view of Hindu-Muslim brotherhood
Kabir’s social vision

Question 7.
What ideas did you get from the given story?

Once, Guru Nanak and Bhai Mardana came to rest at Sajjan Thug’s inn. He had a habit of robbing those who stayed there. Knowing this Guru Nanak did not want to rest for the night. Instead, they started singing Shabad prayer songs composed by Guru Nanak. The recital meant it was unjust to loot others’ wealth. Sajjan Thug realized his mistake when he listened to the lyrics of the song. He begged Guru for forgiveness. Guru Nanak advised him to give back all the stolen wealth to the poor and to live honestly. Then on, Sajjan began a life helping those who visited his inn.
Answer:

It is unjust to rob others of their wealth
Apologise if you get it wrong
Be honest in Life
Power of music and Prayer

Question 8.
Make a note on the methods adopted by Guru Nanak to propagate the ideas of religious tolerance and universal brotherhood.
Answer:
Guru Nanak attempted to harmonise the ideas of different religions. He travelled within and outside India to propagate his thoughts. Guru Nanak was against the meaningless religious rituals. He attempted to propagate the message of One God. He promoted the ideals of equality, brotherhood, love, goodness, and religious tolerance. Caste discrimination, idolatry, pilgrimage, etc., were rejected by him. Economic inequality was questioned and people were encouraged to abstain from using intoxicants. He emphasised the importance of the ‘Langar’ or community kitchen where all classes of people could eat together. His ideas later paved the way for the formation of Sikhism. The Social and religious activities of Guru Nanak spread cultural harmony in medieval India.

Question 9.
Discuss the significant role of Mirabai, Akka Mahadevi, etc., in the growth of the Bhakti movement.
Answer:

Women were less recognised and respected in the medieval society.
Conditions remained the same in relation to freedom of worship.
With the advent of the Bhakti movement, many women took to composing and singing hymns and songs to worship the deity of their choice.
Mirabai was a Rajput princess.
She gave up all the worldly comforts and immersed herself in devotion to Krishna, and she composed Krishna Bhajans.
Akka Mahadevi was a prominent figure in the Vira Shaiva movement.
She led discussions against the social and spiritual oppression the women faced in those days.

Question 10.
Doesn’t this incident tell us that Khusru, who was not afraid of death, was afraid of the displeasure of his Sufi Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya? What else did you learn from this story?
Answer:

He believes in the immortal life
He was a Sufi believer
He gave importance to Spiritual life

Question 11.
Prepare the information required to make a flip book on Sufi movement in the format of a flip page.
Answer:
Sufis were those who accepted devotion as a means to approach God
Sufi Masters were the ones who gave importance to spiritual life, abstaining from luxurious life.
Sufi Scholars thought that one of the ways to access God was devotional singing.
Sufism is an Islamic devotional movement which originated in Central Asia.

Question 12.
Prepare a note on how the Bhakti movement helped in growing vernacular languages.
Answer:
Bhakti-Sufi propagators used vernacular languages to spread their ideas among common people. This led to the growth of regional languages. Many devotional poems were composed in languages like Tamil, Punjabi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam etc. Many other literary works in vernacular languages were also composed. Urdu, a combination of Persian and Hindi, is an example of India’s cultural integration. Amir Khusru was one of the most prominent writers of the Urdu language during this period. Kabir has enriched the Hindi language. ‘Mahabharata’, ‘Ramayana’ and other works have been translated into various regional languages. This led to the rejuvenation of language and literature.

Question 13.
What were the changes that happened in the society as a result of Bhakti Sufi movements?
Answer:

Religious tolerance
Attitude against caste discrimination
Attitude to question imposed customs
Promote Peace and Harmony
Social Equality
Monotheism
Fraternity
Unity in Diversity
Thoughts against discrimination against
women
Growth of regional language
Hindu-Muslim Unity

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Organise a discussion on how the Bhakti-Sufi movements contributed to the emergence of a syncretic culture in modern India.
Answer:
(Hints) Organise a classroom discussion by using the given points:

To foster a vision of unity in diversity beyond differences such as caste, region, language, dress and gender differences.
Attitude to embrace differences and unite with them.
Develop world views based on humanism.

Question 2.
‘Ideas and Messages of Basavanna’ Prepare and present a skit and add the script to the school wiki.
Answer:
(Hints) Organise a skit on the basis of the given model.
Skit: “The Wisdom of Basavanna”
Characters:
Narrator
Basavanna
Young Student
Villager
Scene 1: Introduction
(Narrator stands at the centre of the stage.) Narrator: Welcome, everyone, to our skit on the wisdom and teachings of Basavanna, the great 12th- century philosopher and social reformer. Through this performance, we hope to share his messages of equality, devotion, and social justice.

Scene 2:Basavanna and the Young Student
(Basavanna is seated under a tree, reading a manuscript. A young student approaches him.)
Young Student: Guru Basavanna, I have heard many great things about your teachings. Could you please share some of your wisdom with me?
Basavanna: Of course, my child. Always remember, true devotion is not about rituals and ceremonies, but about sincerity and purity of heart. Let me tell you a vachana (poem) I wrote:
“The rich will make temples for Shiva, What shall I, a poor man, do? My legs are pillars, The body the shrine, The head a cupola of gold. Listen, O Lord of the Meeting Rivers, Things standing shall fall, But the moving ever shall stay.”

Young Student: That is beautiful, Guru. What does it mean?

Basavanna: It means that the true temple of God lies within us. It is not in the grand structures built of stone, but in our hearts and our actions. Always strive to be righteous and compassionate.

Scene 3: Basavanna and the Villager (A villager rushes in, looking distressed.)
Villager: Basavanna, our village is plagued with inequality and discrimination. The upper castes refuse to allow the lower castes into the temple. What should we do?

Basavanna: This injustice must be challenged. Remember, all humans are equal, regardless of their caste and gender.

Villager: But how can we change such deep-rooted beliefs?

Basavanna: Change begins with courage and conviction. We must educate and lead by example. We must create a society where everyone is treated with respect and dignity. Let us work together to build a community based on love and equality.

Scene 4: Conclusion
(Narrator steps forward.)
Narrator: And so, the teachings of Basavanna continue to inspire us to this day. His messages of devotion, equality, and social justice are timeless. Let us remember and follow his wisdom in our daily lives, striving to create a world where everyone is treated with respect and kindness. (All characters come to the front of the stage)

Narrator: Thank you for watching our skit on the ideas and messages of Basavanna. Let us carry these lessons with us and make the world a better place. (Everyone exits the stage.)

Question 3.
Prepare an edition/digital album with images and ideas of Bhakti-Sufi propagators with the help of the map given below.

Answer:

Ramananda. a saint from North India, founded the Ramanandi Sampradaya, emphasising devotion to Rama and Sita. He was known for breaking social barriers by accepting disciples from all castes and promoting a more inclusive approach to spirituality.

Guni Nanak. the founder of Sikhism, preached the oneness of God, devotion, equality, and social justice. His hymns form part of the Guru Granth Sahib. emphasising the importance of a simple. religious life dedicated to God and humanity.

Surdas. a blind poet-singer from North India, is celebrated for his devotional songs dedicated to Krishna, particularly focusing on Krishna’s childhood and youthful exploits, which are compiled in the Sursagar.

Tulsidas, a poet-saint from North India, authored the Ramcharitmanas, an epic poem that retells the Ramayana in the vernacular Awadhi, making the story of Rama accessible to the common people and emphasising devotion and rihteousness.

Sant Eknath, a Marathi saint, is known for his works like the Eknathi Bhagavata. He played a significant role in the Warkari movement, stressing love, devotion, and the importance of leading a pious, moral life dedicated to God.

Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, known as “Gharih Nawaz (Benefactor of the Poor), founded the Chishti Order in India. His teachings emphasised love, charity, and social service. and his dargah (shrine) in Ajmer remains a major pilgrimage site, attracting millions annually.

A pivotal figure in the Chishti Order, his khanqah in Delhi was a hub of spiritual guidance and cultural interaction. He promoted the principles of love, peace, and equality, influencing many through his discourses and poetry.

Farid-ud-din Ganj-i-Shakar was another great Sufi Saint of India. Hc was popularly known as Baba Farid. He was a great disciple of Shaikh Muinuddin Chisti. He spent most of his time in Hansi and Ajodhan (in modern Haryana and the Punjab, respectively). He was deeply respected in Delhi. He was surrounded by a large number of people whenever he visited Delhi. His outlook was so broad and humane that some of his verses are later found quoted in the Adi Granth of the Sikhs. He avoided the company of the Sultan and the Amirs.

Rumi, the renowned Sufi poet and mystic. go beyond borders and time to become one of the most influential figures in medieval India. Hispoetic expressions of divine love and spiritual longing resonated deeply with seekers across the Indian subcontinent, attracting a devoted following. Through his mesmerising poetry and timeless teachings. Rumi propagated the essence of Sutism, emphasising the path of love, compassion, and inner transformation. In medieval India, his words ignited hearts, fostering a culture of spiritual inquiry and devotion that continues to inspire seekers to this day. Rumis legacy endures as a beacon of light, guiding souls on their journey toward divine union and inner peace.

Lai Ded. also known as Lalleshwari or Lalla Arifa, was a prominent 14th-century Sufi mystic from Kashmir. She revered both in Hindu and Muslim traditions, reflecting her unique spiritual journey that go beyond religious boundaries. Born in 1320, Lai Ded’s poetry. composed in Kashmiri. is characterised by protound spiritual insights and a quest for the divine, often critiquing the rigidity of orthodox practices. lier verses, known as vukhs. arc still recited and cherished for their deep philosophical meanings and simple yet powerful expressions. Lai Ded’s lifè and works signitcant1y contributed to the spiritual and cultural heritage of Kashmir. fostering a message of love, unity, and spiritual enlightenment.

Class 7 Social Science Medieval India: Cultural Movements Notes Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Where did the Bhakti movement emerge?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 2.
Devotees of Vishnu, known as …………
Answer:
Alvars

Question 3.
Devotees of Shiva, known as ……………
Answer:
Nayanars

Question 4.
The writings of the Nayanars were titled as ………
Answer:
Thirumuraikal

Question 5.
Who established Anubhava Mandapam?
Answer:
Basavanna

Question 6.
The word ‘sufism’ is originated from which word?
Answer:
Scholars suggest that the word Sufism is derived from the word ‘suf’, meaning wool, or from the word ‘Safi’, meaning purity.

Question 7.
How did Sufi scholars believe one could achieve a connection with God?
Answer:
Sufi scholars believed that one of the ways to achieve a connection with God was through devotional singing.

Question 8.
Which Sufi sects, known as Silsilahs, reached India?
Answer:
Among the twelve Sufi sects known as Silsilahs, the Chishti and Suhrawardi silsilahs reached India.

Question 9.
What were Sufi masters and their followers called?
Answer:
The Sufi master was called Pir (Sheikh), and his followers were called Murid.

Question 10.
What were Khanqahs?
Answer:
The Khanqahs were the social centres where the Sufis resided.

Question 11.
How did Bhakti-Sufi propagators spread their ideas among common people?
Answer:
Bhakti-Sufi propagators used vernacular languages to spread their ideas among common people.

Question 12.
What was the impact of using vernacular languages by Bhakti-Sufi propagators?
Answer:
The use of vernacular languages by Bhakti- Sufi propagators led to the growth of regional languages.

Question 13.
In which languages were many devotional poems composed during the Bhakti-Sufi movement?
Answer:
Many devotional poems were composed in languages such as Tamil, Punjabi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.

Question 14.
Write an example of India’s cultural integration in terms of language?
Answer:
Urdu, a combination of Persian and Hindi, is an example of India’s cultural integration.

Question 15.
Who was one of the most prominent writers of the Urdu language during the Bhakti-Sufi period?
Answer:
Amir Khusru was one of the most prominent writers of the Urdu language during this period.

Question 16.
How did Kabir contribute to the Hindi language?
Answer:
Kabir enriched the Hindi language through his works.

Question 17.
Which epic works were translated into various regional languages?
Answer:
The ‘Mahabharata’ and ‘Ramayana’ were translated into various regional languages, leading to the rejuvenation of language and literature.

Question 18.
What critical role did the Bhakti-Sufi movements played in society?
Answer:
The Bhakti-Sufi movements played a critical role in reducing conflicts, bringing people together, and creating an atmosphere of peace and harmony.

Question 19.
How did the Bhakti-Sufi movements succeed in spreading their ideas?
Answer:
The Bhakti-Sufi movements were successful in bringing the ideas of different religions to the common people.

Question 20.
What impact did Bhakti and Sufi ideas had on people of different castes and religions?
Answer:
The influence of Bhakti and Sufi ideas helped people belonging to different castes and religions to co-exist peacefully.

Question 21.
What hallmarks of modern Indian society have evolved from the influence of Bhakti- Sufi movements?
Answer:
The hallmarks of modern Indian society, such as communal harmony, unity in diversity, fraternity, equality, and pluralism, have evolved from the influence of Bhakti-Sufi movements.

Question 22.
In what ways did the Bhakti-Sufi movements contribute to communal harmony?
Answer:
The Bhakti-Sufi movements contributed to communal harmony by promoting the coexistence of people from different religious and caste backgrounds, fostering an environment of mutual respect and understanding.

Question 23.
Define Bhakti Movement?
Answer:
Bhakti is the total submission of one’s life to God. The ideas and activities that arise out of Bhakti are known as the Bhakti movement.

Question 24.
How did the Bhakti movement impact society and religion in South India?
Answer:
The Bhakti movement, led by Alvars and Nayanars, had a profound impact on society and religion in South India. It attracted people from all sections of society. irrespective of caste, spreading devotion and questioning societal norms. The compositions of Bhakta poets, compiled as “Nalayira Divyaprabandham” by Alvars and “Thirumuraikal” by Nayanars, popularised Hinduism and inspired the construction of many temples during this period.

Question 25.
What were the key contributions of Alvars and Nayanars to the Bhakti movement?
Answer:
Alvars and Nayanars were instrumental in popularising the Bhakti movement in South India. As devotees of Vishnu and Shiva respectively, they composed devotional hymns and songs in vernacular languages, spreading the message of devotion and challenging societal norms. Their writings, compiled as “Nalayira Divyaprabandham” and “Thirumuraikal,” had a significant impact on the common people, attracting them to the path of devotion and spiritual inquiry.

Question 26.
What are the major Characteristics of the Bhakti Movement that existed between the 7th and 12th centuries?
Answer:

Composition and singing of devotional songs in vernacular languages
Love and Submission to God
Access to all irrespective of caste
Equal participation of women
Deep devotion to the beloved deity

Question 27.
Who are the Prominent poets of the Bhakti Movement?
Answer:
Devotees of Vishnu (Alvars)

Kulasekhara Alvar
Periyalvar
Nammalvar
Andal

Devotees of Shiva (Nayanars)

Karaikal Ammayar
Appar
Sambandar
Sundarar
Manikkavasagar

Question 28.
Who was Basavanna and what were his contributions?
Answer:
Basavanna was a philosopher, social reformer, and poet who lived in Kannada Desa during the 12th century. He try to raise awareness about the social and religious discrimination prevalent in society and worked towards eliminating them. Basavanna advocated for a vision centered on freedom, equality, and social justice, which he promoted through the Vira Shaiva movement founded by him.

Question 29.
What were the major activities of the Vira Shaiva Movement?
Answer:

Brahminical supremacy and the authenticity of the Vedas were questioned.
People were educated against caste discrimination and discrimination against women.
Monotheism was encouraged.
Convinced the people about the greatness of work and labour.
He opposed child marriage and encouraged marriage after puberty and widow remarriage.

Question 30.
Who was Kabir and what were his Ideas?
Answer:
Kabir was a propagator of the Bhakti movement who lived in Northern India (present-day Uttar Pradesh) in the 15th century.

Kabir propagated his ideas through hymns known as “Dohas”.
He composed his hymns in a language that common people could understand.
Kabir stood for Hindu-Muslim unity and brotherhood.
He reminded that the Hindus and Muslims are two vessels made of the same soil.
He questioned the caste system, untouchability, religious rituals, post- death rites, idol worship etc.
Kabir criticized all kinds of” discrimination based on caste, religion, race, legacy, wealth etc.
Kabir’s thoughts and activities were immensely influenced by Bhakti-Sufi’s ideas.
He rejected religious traditions.
He also ignored the external rituals of religions.
Kabir, who believed in a formless God, propagated Bhakti as a means of salvation.
Kabir travelled from place to place with his disciples to spread his ideas.

Question 31.
Who was Guru Nanak? What were his main Ideas and contributions?
Answer:
Guru Nanak was born in 15th century in the village of Talwandi (now in Pakistan) in Sheikhpura, Punjab.

Guru Nanak attempted to harmonise the ideas of different religions.
He travelled within and outside India to propagate his thoughts.
Guru Nanak was against meaningless religious rituals.
He attempted to propagate the message of One God.
He promoted the ideals of equality, brotherhood, love, goodness, and religious tolerance.
Caste discrimination. idolatry, pilgrimage, etc., were rejected by him. Economic inequality was questioned, and people were encouraged to abstain from using intoxicants.
He emphasised the importance of the “Langar” or Community kitchen where all classes of people could eat together.
“Shabad” was a prayer song composed by Guru Nanak
His ideas later paved the way for the formation of Sikhism

Question 32.
How did the Bhakti movement influence the role and recognition of women in medieval society?
Answer:
In medieval society, women were less recognised and respected. However, with the emergence of the Bhakti movement, many women began composing and singing hymns and songs to worship the deity of their choice. This movement provided them a platform to express their devotion and gain recognition. Prominent women like Mirabai, Karaikkal Ammayar, Andal, and Akka Mahadevi became well-known for their spiritual contributions, challenging social norms and advocating for women’s rights and spiritual equality.

Question 33.
Who were some of the notable female figures in the Bhakti movement, and what were their contributions?
Answer:
Notable female figures in the Bhakti movement included:

Mirabai: A Rajput princess from Chittor, Rajasthan, who gave up worldly comforts to devote herself to Krishna, composing numerous Krishna Bhajans.

Karaikkal Ammayar and Andal: Devotee poetesses from Tamil Nadu known for their compositions expressing deep devotion to their favourite deities.

Akka Mahadevi: A prominent figure in the Vira Shaiva movement who led discussions against the social and spiritual oppression of women.

Bahinabai and Soyarabai From Maharashtra and Lal Ded from Kashmir, who also contributed significantly to the growth of the Bhakti movement.

Question 34.
What were the main objectives and characteristics of the Bhakti movement?
Answer:
The aim of the Bhakti movement was dedication to one’s favourite deity through music and devotion. Most of the Bhakti poets were from the so-called marginalised caste groups, and they questioned the caste system and the privileges enjoyed by the Brahmins. Additionally, the movement allowed women to participate in discussions in the Anubhava Mandapam, where their opinions gained recognition, promoting ideas of equality between men and women. The movement also educated people about the greatness of occupation.

Question 35.
Where did the Sufi Movement originate?
Answer:
Sufism is an Islamic devotional movement that originated in Central Asia. The rulers here began to pay more attention to worldly pleasures like wealth, power and luxurious life. It was against such trends that the Sufi movement emerged. The Sufi movement reached India by the 12th century CE. Among the twelve Sufi sects known as Silsilahs, the Chishti and Suhrawardi silsilahs reached India.CE.

Question 36.
What were the circumstances that led to the emergence of the Sufi Movement?
Answer:
The Sufi Movement emerged in the 12th century as a response to the growing wealth and power of the Islamic empire, which some people felt led to a loss of spiritual values. Sufis sought a deeper, more personal connection with God, emphasising simplicity, devotion, and love. They often lived humble lives, focusing on meditation, prayer, and helping others. This movement spread as Sufi teachers travelled, sharing their spiritual practices and teachings, which attracted many followers seeking a more heartfelt and meaningful religious experience.

Question 37.
What were the main ideas propagated by the Sufis?
Answer:
The main ideas propagated by the Sufis include the importance of love and devotion to God, the pursuit of a personal and direct experience with the divine, and the practice of inner purification and self-discipline. Sufis emphasised that true knowledge and closeness to God come through inner spiritual practices rather than strict adherence to external rituals. They taught values such as humility, monotheism, fraternity, humanity, compassion, and tolerance, and often used poetry, music, and dance to express their mystical experiences and spiritual teachings.

Question 38.
Describe the Sufi Movement?
Answer:
Scholars suggest that the word Sufism is derived from the word ‘suf’, meaning wool, or from the word ‘Safi’, meaning purity. Sufis were those who accepted Bhakti as a means to approach God. Sufi scholars thought one of the ways to achieve this was devotional singing. They travelled among the common people and propagated Sufi principles. Emphasis was given to the concepts of monotheism, fraternity, humanity, and devotion to God. Sufism is an Islamic devotional movement which originated in Central Asia. The Sufi movement reached India by around 12th century CE.

Among the twelve Sufi sects known as Silsilahs, the Chishti and Suhrawardi silsilahs reached India. The Sufi masters were the ones who gave importance to spiritual life abstaining from luxurious life. The Sufi master was called Pir (Sheikh) and his followers were called Murid. The Khanqahs, where the Sufis resided, were the social centres of the time. Qawwalis are devotional songs rendered in a special chanting style called Sama in the Sufi centres. During the Sultanate and Mughal periods, Sufis were able to bring about unity among different religious sects.

Question 39.
Match the following

Prominent Sufi Masters	Regions
Sheikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi	Ajmer
Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya	Sylhet
Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti	Delhi

Answer:

Prominent Sufi Masters	Regions
Sheikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi	Sylhet
Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya	Delhi
Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti	Ajmer

Question 40.
Explain the Growth of Vernacular Languages?
Answer:
Bhakti-Sufi propagators used vernacular languages to spread their ideas among common people. This led to the growth of regional languages. Many devotional poems were composed in languages like Tamil, Punjabi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam etc. Many other literary works in vernacular languages were also composed. Urdu, a combination of Persian and Hindi, is an example of India’s cultural integration. Amir Khusru was one of the most prominent writers of the Urdu language during this period. Kabir has enriched the Hindi language. ‘Mahabharata’, ‘Ramayana’ and other works have been translated into various regional languages. This led to the rejuvenation of language and literature.

Question 41.
Fill in the Blanks

Vernacular language	Literary work	Author
Tamil	Nalayira, Divyaprabandham, Thirumuraikal	a) ………………………
Kannada	b) ……………	Basavanna, Akka Mahadevi, Allama Prabhu
Telugu	c)……………	Nannayya, Thikanna, Yarapragada
Hindi	Padmavat	d) ………………..
e) ………………	Jnanappana, Adhyatmaramayanam , Kilippattu, Muhyudheen Mala	Poonthanam, Thunchath Ramanujan Ezhuthachan, Qasi Muhammad

Answer:
a) Alvars, Nayanars
b) Vachanas
c) Translation of Mahabharata
d) Malik Muhammad Jaisi
e) Malayalam

Question 42.
What role did the Bhakti-Sufi movements play in medieval Indian society?
Answer:
The Bhakti-Sufi movements played a critical role in reducing conflicts, bringing people together, and creating an atmosphere of peace and harmony.

Question 43.
How have the Bhakti-Sufi movements influenced modern Indian society?
Answer:
The hallmarks of modern Indian society, such as communal harmony, unity in diversity, fraternity, equality, pluralism, discrimination against women, growth of regional language, Hindu-Muslim unity, religious tolerance, attitude against caste discrimination and attitude to question imposed customs have evolved from the influence of Bhakti-Sufi movements.

Question 44.
Write the major ideas of Bhakti and Sufi Movements.
Answer:

Aspect	Bhakti Movement	Sufi Movement
Origin	Originated in South India in the 7th century	Originated in India by the 12th century
Key Philosophy	Devotion to a personal god (bhakti)	Mystical union with God through love (Sufism)
Central Beliefs	Love and devotion to a personal deity. Salvation through devotion (bhakti)	Love and devotion to Allah. Inner mystical experience
Social Aspect	Emphasised equality and rejected caste distinctions, Emphasised a personal bond with God	Emphasised equality and fraternity, Rejected social hierarchies and formalism
Religious Practices	Singing hymns (bhajans) Community singing and prayer	Spiritual practices Poetry and music (qawwali)
Key Figures	Guru Nanak, Kabir,Basavanna, Mirabai	Sheikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi, Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya, Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti
Impact on Society	Fostered unity and social harmony, Promoted vernacular languages and literature	Spread Islam through peaceful means, Promoted cultural synthesis and tolerance
Literary Contributions	Rich devotional literature in regional languages	Rich Sufi poetry and literature.
Role of Women	Women saints like Mirabai played significant roles

Question 45.
Why are Bhakti-Sufi movements considered important in the context of Indian society?
Answer:
Bhakti-Sufi movements are considered important because they laid the foundation for key societal values like communal harmony, unity in diversity, and pluralism, which are essential for the peaceful coexistence and progress of Indian society.

Question 46.
What are Qawwalis? Where are they performed?
Answer:
Qawwalis are devotional songs rendered in a special chanting style called Sama, performed in the Sufi centres.

Question 47.
During which periods were Sufis able to bring about unity among different religious sects?
Answer:
During the Sultanate and Mughal periods, Sufis were able to bring about unity among different religious sects.

Question 48.
Write the names of three major Sufi Masters in India and their associated regions.
Answer:

Sheikh Shihabuddin Suhrawardi: Sylhet
Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya: Delhi
Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti: Ajmer

Std 7 Social Science Medieval India: Cultural Movements Notes

Bhakti is the total submission of one’s life to God.
The ideas and activities that arise out of Bhakti are known as Bhakti movement.
The Bhakta poets were devotees of Vishnu, known as Alvars, and devotees of Shiva, known as Nayanars.
The Bhakti movement emerged in Tamil Nadu.
The writings of the Alvars came to be known as “Nalayira Divyaprabandham”.
The writings of the Nayanars were titled as “Thirumuraikal”.
Characteristics of the Bhakti Movement
- Composition and singing of devotional songs in vernacular languages
- Deep devotion to the beloved deity
- Love and Submission to God
- Access to all irrespective of caste
- Equal participation of women
Basavanna was a philosopher, social reformer and poet who lived in Kannada Desa in the 12th century.
He decided to make people aware of the social and religious discrimination that existed in the society and endeavoured to wipe them out.
Kabir, a propagator of the Bhakti movement who lived in Northern India (present-day Uttar Pradesh) in the 15th century.
He questioned the caste system, untouchability, religious rituals, post-death rites, idol worship etc. and rejected religious traditions and external rituals of religions.
Guru Nanak was born in 15th century in the village of Talwandi (now in Pakistan) in Sheikhpura, Punjab
He promoted the ideals of equality, brotherhood, love, goodness, and religious tolerance. Mirabai was a Rajput princess who lived in Chittor, Rajasthan.
Krishna Bhajans were composed by Mirabai.
Karaikkal Ammayar, Andal, Akka Mahadevi, Bahinabai, Soyarabai and Lal Ded also contributed to the growth of the Bhakti movement.
The aim of the Bhakti movement was dedication to one’s favourite deity through music and devotion.
Women were allowed to participate in discussions in the Anubhava Mandapam.
The Bhakti movement was also able to educate people about the greatness of occupation.
Scholars suggest that the word Sufism is derived from the word ‘suf’, meaning wool, or from the word ‘Safi’, meaning purity.
Emphasis was given to the concepts of monotheism, fraternity, humanity, and devotion to God.
Sufism is an Islamic devotional movement which originated in Central Asia.
The Sufi movement reached India by the 12th century CE.
Bhakti-Sufi propagators used vernacular languages to spread their ideas among common people.
This led to the growth of regional languages.
Many devotional poems were composed in languages like Tamil, Punjabi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam etc.
Amir Khusru was one of the most prominent writers of the Urdu language during this period. Bhakti-Sufi movements have played a critical role in reducing conflicts, bringing people together and creating an atmosphere of peace and harmony.
These movements were successful in bringing the ideas of different religions to the common people.
The influence of Bhakti and Sufi ideas helped people belonging to different castes and religions to co-exist.
The hallmarks of modern Indian society, such as communal harmony, unity in diversity, fraternity, equality and pluralism, have evolved from the influence of Bhakti-Sufi movements.

Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers

March 13, 2025 by Prasanna

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Maths Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2018 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Total Scores: 60

Answer any six questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 1.
Consider the Venn diagram given below:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q1
(a) Write A’, B’, (A ∩ B)’ (2)
(b) Verify that (A ∩ B)’ = A’ ∪ B’ (1)
Answer:
(a) A’ = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, B = {1, 2, 7, 8, 9}
(A ∩ B)’ = {1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
(b) A’ ∪ B’ = {1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
Hence (A ∩ B)’ = A’ ∪ B’

Question 2.
For any triangle ABC, prove that $\sin \left(\frac{B-C}{2}\right)=\frac{b-c}{a} \cos \left(\frac{A}{2}\right)$
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q2

Question 3.
Consider the complex number z = 3 + 4i
(a) Write the conjugate of z. (1)
(b) Verify that z$\bar{z}$ = |z|² (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q3

Question 4.
(a) Solve the inequality -5 ≤ $\left(\frac{5-3 x}{2}\right)$ ≤ 8 (2)
(b) Represent the solution on a number line. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q4

Question 5.
4 cards are drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards.
(a) In how many ways can this be done? (1)
(b) In how many ways can this be done if all 4 cards are of the same colour? (2)
Answer:
(a) No. of ways = ⁵²C₄
(b) No. of ways, all 4 are same colour = ²⁶C₄ + ²⁶C₄ = 2 × ²⁶C₄

Question 6.
Consider the equation of the ellipse 9x² + 4y² = 36. Find
(a) Focii (1)
(b) Eccentricity (1)
(c) Length of latus rectum (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q6

Question 7.
Evaluate $\lim _{x \rightarrow-1} \frac{2 x+8}{x^2+x-12}$
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q7

Answer any eight questions 8 to 17. Each carries 4 scores each.

Question 8.
Consider A = {x : x is an integer, 0 < x ≤ 3}
(a) Write A in roster form. (1)
(b) Write the power set of A. (1)
(c) The number of proper subsets of A. (1)
(d) Write the number of possible relations from A to A. (1)
Answer:
(a) A = {1, 2, 3}
(b) P(A) = {φ, {1}, {2}, {3}, {1, 2}, {1, 3}, {2, 3}, {1, 2, 3}}
(c) Number of proper subset = 2³ – 1 = 7
(d) Number of relations = 2^3×3 = 512

Question 9.
Consider the statement P(n): $\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\ldots \ldots .+\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{n}{n+1}$
(a) Show that P(1) is true. (1)
(b) Prove that P(n) is true for all n ∈ N using the principle of Mathematical induction. (3)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q9

Hence, by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 10.
Consider the complex number z = $\frac{1+3 i}{1-2 i}$
(a) Write z in the form a + ib. (1)
(b) Write z in polar form. (3)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q10

Question 11.
Solve the following inequalities graphically:
x – 2y ≤ 3; 3x + 4y ≥ 12; x ≥ 0; y ≥ 1
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q11

Question 12.
(a) How many 3-letter words with or without meaning can be formed using 26 letters in the English alphabet, if no letter is repeated? (1)
(b) Find the number of permutations of letters of the word MATHEMATICS. (2)
(c) How many of them begin with the letter C? (1)
Answer:
(a) No. of words = ²⁶P₃ = 15600
(b) In the word MATHEMATICS, the letters M-2, A-2, T-2, H-1, E-1, I-1, C-1, S-1 are repeated.
No. of permutation = $\frac{11!}{2!\times 2!\times 2!}$
(c) If the words begin with C = $\frac{10!}{2!\times 2!\times 2!}$

Question 13.
Consider the figure given below. A(3, 0) and B (0, 2) are two points on the axes. The line is perpendicular to AB.
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q13
(a) Find the slope of OP. (1)
(b) Find the coordinate of the point P. (3)
Answer:

Question 14.
Equation of the parabola given in the figure is y² = 8x.
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q14
(a) Find the focus and length of latus rectum of the parabola. (2)
(b) The latus rectum of the parabola is a chord to the circle centered at the origin as shown in the figure. Find the equation of the circle. (2)
Answer:
(a) The equation parabola is y² = 8x
⇒ a = 2
Length of latus rectum = 4a = 4 × 2 = 8
(b) A and B are extremities of the latus rectum. Hence the coordinate of A is (a, -2a) = (2, -4) and that of B is (a, 2a) = (2, 4)
Therefore, the radius of the circle is the distance from A or B
Radius = $\sqrt{(2-0)^2+(4-0)^2}=\sqrt{4+16}=\sqrt{20}$
Equation of the circle is x² + y² = 20

Question 15.
Let L be the line x – 2y + 3 = 0
(a) Find the equation of the line L₁ which is parallel to L and passing through (1, -2). (2)
(b) Find the distance between L and L₁. (1)
(c) Write the equation of another line L₂ which is parallel to L, such that the distance from the origin to L and L₂ are the same. (1)
Answer:
(a) Slope of the line L is $\frac{1}{2}$
The slope of parallel line L₁ is $\frac{1}{2}$
Therefore, the equation of line L₁
y – (-2) = $\frac{1}{2}$ (x – 1)
⇒ 2(y + 2) = x – 1
⇒ 2y + 4 = x – 1
⇒ x – 2y – 5 = 0
(b) Distance between L and L₁ = $\left|\frac{-5-3}{\sqrt{(1)^2+(-2)^2}}\right|=\frac{8}{\sqrt{5}}$
(c) The equation of the line L₂ will be on the other side of the origin.
So the equation of L₂ can be obtained by changing the sign of the constant term in the equation of L = x – 2y – 3 = 0

Question 16.
Consider a point A(3, 2, -1) in space
(a) Write the octant in which A belongs to (1)
(b) If B (1, 2, 3) is another point in Space, find the distance between A and B. (1)
(c) Find the coordinate of the point R which divides AB in the ratio 1 : 2 internally. (2)
Answer:
(a) 5th octant.
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q16

Question 17.
a) Write the contrapositive of the statement. (1)
p: If a triangle is equilateral, then it is isosceles.
b) Verify by method of contradiction: ‘√3 is irrational’ (3)
Answer:
(a) If a triangle is not isosceles, then it is not equilateral.
(b) Assume that √3 is rational. Then √3 can be written in the form $\sqrt{3}=\frac{p}{q}$, where p and q are integers without common factors.
Squaring: 3 = $\frac{p^2}{q^2}$
⇒ 3q² = p² …….(1)
⇒ 3 divides p²
⇒ 3 divides p
Therefore, p = 3k for some integer k.
⇒ p² = 9k²
(1) ⇒ 3q² = 9k²
⇒ q² = 3k²
⇒ 3 divides q²
⇒ 3 divides q
Hence p and q have a common factor 3, which contradicts our assumption. Therefore, √3 is irrational.

Answer any 5 questions from 18 to 24. Each carries 6 scores.

Question 18.
(a) If A = {a, b} write A × A × A. (2)
(b) If R = {(x, x³) : x is a prime number less than 10}. Write R in roster form. (2)
(c) Find the domain and range of the function f(x) = 2 + $\sqrt{x-1}$ (2)
Answer:
(a) A × A × A = {(a, a, a), (a, a, b), (a, b, a), (a, b, b), (b, a, a),(b, a, b), (b, b, a), (b, b, b)}
(b) R = {(2, 8), (3, 27), (5, 125), (7, 343)}
(c) Domain = [1, ∞)
Range = [2, ∞)

Question 19.
(a) The minute hand of a watch is 3 cm long. How far does its tip move in 40 minutes? (2)
(Use π = 3.14)
(b) Solve the trigonometric equation sin 2x – sin 4x + sin 6x = 0. (4)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q19

Question 20.
(a) Find the sum of all 3-digit numbers which are multiples of 5. (2)
(b) How many terms of the GP: 3, 3², 3³, …… are needed to give the sum 120? (2)
(c) Find the sum of the first n terms of the series whose nth term is n(n + 3). (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Maths Board Model Paper 2018 with Answers Q20