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Students can Download Chapter 8 Environmental Issues Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Environmental Issues

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
CPCB stand for
(a) Central pollution consistent board
(b) Central particulate collection & analysis board
(c) Central pollution Control Board
(d) Central phenomenon coexisting Board (pollution)
Answer:
(c) Central pollution Control Board

Question 2.
Catalytic converters may contain expensive metals like……….as catalytic in automobiles
(a) Platinum
(b) Palladium
(c) Rhodium
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 3.
The participation of local communities helps to conserve the forest in sustainable manner. Name the recently started project of Govt, of India.
Answer:
In 1980s Government of India has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM).

Question 4.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter:
(a) 2.50 micrometers
(b) 5.00 micrometers
(c) 10.00 micrometers
(d) 7.5 micrometers
Answer:
(a) 2.50 micrometers

Question 5.
Match the items in column I and column II and choose the correct option:

Column I	Column II
A. UV	i)  Biomagnification
B. Biodegradable Organic matter	ii)  Eutrophication
C. DDT	iii) Snow blindness
D. Phosphates	iv) BOD

(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-i
Answer:
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Question 6.
Three-mile Island, Chernobyl incidents are typical example for………pollution
(a) Sound
(b) Radioactivity
(c) Water
(d) Physical
Answer:
(b) Radioactivity

Question 7.
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option

i) EnvironmeriPProtection Act	A. 1974
ii) Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act	B. 1987
iii) Water Act	C.  1986
iv) Amendment of Air Act to include noise	D. 1981

The correct matches is:
(a) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
(b) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
(c) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(d) i-C, ii-D, iii-B. iv-A
Answer:
(a) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B

Question 8.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unbumt hydrocarbons into:
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carbon mono oxide
(c) methane
(d) carbon dioxide and methane
Answer:
(a) carbon dioxide and water

Question 9.
In the modern world there are different types of substance that may cause pollution. A prominent waste in the modern computer world is “e-waste” The “e-waste” stand for
(a) Eliminated waste
(b) Eroded waste
(c) Electronic waste
(d) Enriched waste
Answer:
(c) Electronic waste

Question 10.
Humans, as well as other animals, have been dumping their wastes into the environment for thousands of years. What is the reason that this appears to be such a problem today?
Answer:
The human population is increasing rapidly, produc-ing more wastes, and a significant amount of the wastes are non-biodegradable.

Question 11.
Air pollution is maximally caused by
(a) Household detergents and pesticides
(b) Automobile exhausts and chemicals from industry
(c) Sewage and pesticides
(d) Sewage and industrial effluents
Answer:
(b) Automobile exhausts and chemicals from industry

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below. Identify the equipment and write its use.

Answer:
Scrubber: A Scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide.

Question 13.
Government of India has instituted an award for individuals or communities from rural areas who have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wild life. Name that award.
Answer:
Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Question 14.
Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system of handling human excreta, using dry composting toilets. Write the advantages of this method.
Answer:
It is Hygienic .efficient, cost effective and human excreta can be recycled into a natural fertilizer.

Question 15.
Choose the correct answer. Substances that cause biomagnification are
(a) Mercury and DDT
(b) Mercury and Phosphorus
(c) DDT and Phosphorus
(d) Phosphorus and nitrogen
Answer:
(a) Mercury and DDT

Question 16.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blank. Green house effect: carbon dioxide; ozone depletion:…………..
Answer:
Chlonofluorocarbons.

Question 17.
Choose the correct statement regarding biomagnification in an aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Decrease in concentration of the toxicant in successive tropic levels.
(b) Higher concentration of toxicant is seen in the first trophic level.
(c) Bird population is least affected.
(d) Causes decline in bird population.
Answer:
(d) Causes decline in bird population.

Question 18.
In 1986 Govt, of India passed Environment Act. Write the purpose of its implementation.
Answer:
To protect and improve the quality of our environment (air, water, and soil).

Question 19.
The participation of local communities helps to conserve the forest in sustainable manner. Name the recently started project of Govt, of India.
Answer:
In 1980s Government of India has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM).

Question 20.
Give the term for reradiating of heat radiations by atmosphere dust, water vapours, CO-₂ CH-₄, O₂, etc.
Answer:
Green house effect

Question 21.
How CFCS cause the depletion of Ozone shield?
Answer:
By producing active chlorine which breaks ozone.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand CPCB – Write its significance.
Answer:
CPCB – Central Pollution Control Board.
CPCB – Aims for controlling particulate matter in the air. According to CPCB the particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less than in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing greatest harm to human health.

Question 2.
Working condition of electrostatic precipitator is given. By analysing the figure explain the process.

Answer:
At high voltage the electrons produced are attached to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. These charged dust particles are attracted by collecting plates. Then reducing the velocity of air between the plates which help the dust to fall.

Question 3.
Pollutant free Metropolitan cities can be raised by the use of CNG.

1. Expand CNG?
2. What are the?

Answer:
1. CNG is compressed natural gas.

2. advantages of CNG:

• CNG is better than diesel
• It burns most efficiently
• CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel
• It cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel.

Question 4.
Montreal protocol is a procedure signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987.

1. Identify the environmental issue related to this.
2. Which is the chemical causing the environmental problem?

Answer:

1. Ozone hole
2. Chloro fluro carbons release active chlorine atoms which results in degradation of the ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 5.
“Pollutant free Metroes” – Can this be achieved in future?

OR

Pollutant free Metropolitan cities can be raised by the use of CNG. What does CNG implies? Can you suggest the priorities and limitations of CNG?

Answer:
CNG is compressed natural gas. It burns more efficiently than Petrol and diesel, thus brings down the amount of pollutants from automobiles (unburnt hydrocarbons).

CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel. It cannot be siphoned out by thieves and adultered like petrol or diesel.

The problem in using CNG as fuel is the difficulty of laying down pipelines to deliver CNG through distribution points.

Question 6.
If motor vehicles are equipped with catalytic converter the pollution rate can be reduced.

1. Give reason.
2. Catalytic converters have its limitations. Mention the limitations.

Answer:
1. Catalytic converters are used in motor vehicles to reduce pollutants. Catalytic converters convert unburnt hydrocarbons into CO₂ and water. The catalytic converter uses expensive metals like Platinum, Palladium or rhodium as catalysts.

2. These catalysts are inactivated if leaded petrol is used.

Question 7.
Particulate and gaseous pollutants along with harmless gases are released from the thermal power plants.

1. Name any two harmless gases released.
2. Name the most widely used device of removing particulate pollutants from the air. Explain how the device is used.

Answer:
1. NO₂ & O₂.

2. Electrostatic precipitator
It has electrodes which are maintained at several 1000 watts which releases electrons. These electron attach to dust particle giving them a net -ve charge. The collecting plates attract the charged dust particle. The velocity of air between the plates are lowered to allow dust to fall.

Question 8.
Higher BOD could lower the D.O.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Higher BOD lower the D.O. content of water. D.O. is the dissolved 02 content of water. When organic content is increased in water the D.O. is consumed for its oxidation by bacteria which is referred as BOD (Biochemical Oxygen demand) when B.O.D. is greater the D.O. becomes low.

Question 9.
Pesticide DDT was used to control insect such as mosquitoes and agricultural pests. But DDT persisted in the environment and transported from one trophic level to higher trophic levels.

1. Name the phenomenon and explain it.
2. What happens to the concentration of DDT in each trophic level?

Answer:
1. Biomagnification.
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.

2. Non biodegradable toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted and it is passed to the next higher trophic level.

Question 10.
Sewage from common hospitals if disposed to water bodies may cause the outbreak of serious water-borne diseases.

1. Mention 2 water-borne diseases.
2. Which is the popular method used to remove hospital waste?

Answer:

1. Dysentry, typhoid, jaundice, etc.
2. Incineration

Question 11.
Match the following.

Column I	Column II
a) Catalytic converter	(i) Solid wastes
b) Polyblend	(ii) Agrochemicals
c) Organic farming	(iii) Plastic wastes
d) Sanitary hand fills	(iv) Air pollution

Answer:

1. Catalytic converters – Air pollution
2. Polyblend – Plastic wastes
3. Organic farming – Agro chemicals
4. Sanitary land fills – Solid wastes

Question 12.
Solid waste can create a major problems in metro cities.

1. Which is the best way for the safe disposal of the solid waste
2. Classify solid waste into 3 groups, which is the alternative remedy for the use of plastic

Answer:
1. Sanitary land fills.

2. The Solid wastes can be categorised into 3 types

• bio degradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

The biodegradable waste material can be disposed in deep pits for natural break down. Recycling of material is made easy by the separation done by rag pickers.

Non-biodegradable waste should reduced by using eco-friendly packaging & natural fiber carry bags. State government can play important role by applying laws for reducing the use of plastics.

Question 13.
Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero waste procedure, where waste products from one process are cycled and act as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production.

For example if dung is used as manure for the crop, the crop waste can be used to create compost which in turn can be used as fertilizer after generating energy needs of the farm.

Question 14.
Analyse the situation given below and comment on it. “Fertilizers from a paddy field flows to nearby pond.’’
Answer:
Presence of large-amount of nutrients caused by sewage disposal causes excessive growth of planktonic algae which imparts distinct color & decreases quality of water & increases mortality of fishes.

Question 15.
Rag pickers do a great job for our nation. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The Solid wastes can be categories into 3 types

• biodegradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

The biodegradable waste material can be disposed in deep pits for natural break down. Recycling of material is made easy by the separation done by rag pickers.

Question 16.
Ecologist argued that organic fertilizers are better for the soil than the chemical fertilizers, (hint – organic fertilizers:- green manures, cattle dung, biofertilizers). Write your opinions.
Answer:
Organic fertilizers are better for the soil as they do not cause pollution of soil and water. Chemical fertilizers which drained into the water bodies will cause eutrophication and algal blooms.

They also cause increase in BOD and lead to the destruction aquatic flora & fauna. Organic fertilizers are cheaper they tend to remain in the soil for long period.

Question 17.
Ahmed khan in Bangalore proved himself a good citizen in using his talents in solving a social issue. Comment on his contribution.
Answer:
Ahamed khan in Bangalore who is a plastic sac manufacturer effectively use poly blend – a fine powder produced from recycled plastic & mixed it with bitumen that is used to lay roads.

By doing so he could enhance the water repellent property of bitumen & which in turn help to road life by three times. It also reduced pollution caused by plasticis. It is an example for the effective way for recycling non biodegradable – plastic.

Question 18.
The concentration of DDT like toxins are higher in man and eagle.

1. Name the process.
2. Give the reason

Answer:
1. Biomagnification

2. Non bio degradable chemical which accumulate in the body of organism and is passed on to the organisms belonging to the next trophic level. Human beings & Eagle belong to the last trophic level of the food chain. Hence the bio magnification threaten human life.

Question 19.

1. Identify the process
2. Find out the reason for these.

Answer:
1. Biomagnification.

2. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels. It starts at 0.003 ppm in water, it can ultimately can reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds, through biomagnification.

High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes the thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, causing decrease in bird populations.

Question 20.
Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure. Do you agree with the statement. Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero waste procedure, where waste products from one process are cycled and act as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production.

Question 21.
Solid waste can create a major problems in metro cities.

1. Which is the best way for the safe disposal of the solid waste
2. Classify solid waste into 3 groups, which is the alternative remedy for the use of plastic

Answer:
1. Sanitary land fills

2. The Solid wastes can be categorised into 3 types

• biodegradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

Non-biodegradable waste should reduced by using eco-friendly packaging & natural fiber carry bags.

Question 22.
Ahmed khan in Bangalore proved himself a good citizen in using his talents in solving a social issue. Comment on his contribution.
Answer:

• Ahmed Khan in Bangalore has found a solution for problem of accumulating plastic waste.
• Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay roads.
• Bitumen is a water repellant substance helps to increase road life.
• The raw material for creating Polyblend is any plastic film waste that brought about by rag pickers.

Question 23.
In north- eastern state of India major hectors of Forest land is degraded by a mode of cultivation.

1. Name the cultivation method
2. Explain the procedure of this cultivation

Answer:
1. Jhum cultivation.

2. In Jhum cultivation or slash & burn cultivation, forest land is converted to agricultural land by cutting and burning trees, ash obtained is used as fertilizer for crop cultivation and other land is used for grazing cattle. The process repeated and it leads to deforestation.

Question 24.
What are Euro II norms?
Answer:

1. Sulphur be controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in the petrol.
2. Aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at 42% of concerned fuel.

Question 25.
It has been recorded that the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere has increased by 0.6°C.

1. What has caused this increase?
2. Explain its consequences.

Answer:
1. Increase in the level of green house gases causes global warming.

2. Its consequences:

• Polar ice caps and glaciers will melt
• rise in sea level

Question 26.
Air pollution causes serious health problems in men, in industries ECP is a fitted in place of exhaust coming from smokestack to control pollution.

1. Which is the device used to control Sulphur Dioxide pollution?
2. Name the agency of Government of India monitor air pollution.

Answer:

1. Scrubber
2. CPCB (Central pollution control board)

Question 27.
Higher concentration of DDT is found in third trophic level than first trophic level

1. Name the phenomenon associated with the accumulation of DDT
2. Bird population is decreased by the accumulation of DDT. How is it occurs?

Answer:

1. biomagnification
2. DDT affects the calcium metabolism of birds, causes the thinning of egg shell and premature breaking that it result the reduction in bird population.

Question 28.
Many low lying land become submerged in coming centuries due to the increasing temperature of atmosphere

1. Name two greenhouse gases causes global warming
2. Write down the measures to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases

Answer:
1. Carbon dioxide and chioro fluoro carbon

2. Measures to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases:

• Cutting down the use of fossil fuels
• Reduce deforestation activities.

Question 29.
Plastic film waste that is used to made modified recycle plastic by Ajmal Khan in collaboration with RV College of Engineering

1. Name the product formed after the recycling of film waste
2. Name the water repellent substances is mixed with modified a plastic to lay down Road in Bangalore city Corporation

Answer:

1. Polyblend
2. Bitumen

Question 30.
There is a balance between production and degeneration of ozone in the stratosphere.

1. Name the gas that disturbs this balance.
2. Explain how this balance is disrupted?

Answer:

1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
2. In stratosphere ,UV rays act on CFCs and release active Cl atoms, that degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen.

Question 31.
The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can be estimated by measuring BOD.

1. Expand BOD
2. Write the impact of the discharge of sewage into a river

Answer:

1. BOD – Biochemical Oxygen Demand
2. Polluted water contains microorganisms they consume lot of oxygen from water for the biodegradation of organic material that Causes sharp decline in dissolved oxygen.

Question 32.
Radiation by nuclear waste is extremely dangerous to organisms.

1. Write any two dangers.
2. Write the recommendations for the storage of nuclear waste.

Answer:

1. Causes mutation at a very high rate At high doses nuclear radiation is lethal
2. Nuclear waste must be stored after sufficient pre-treatment. It must be done in suitable shielded containers buried within the rocks, about 500m deep below the earth’s surface.

Question 33.
There is a balance between production and degeneration of ozone in the stratosphere.

1. Name the gas that disturbs this balance.
2. Explain how this balance is disrupted?

Answer:

1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
2. In stratosphere, UV rays act on CFCs and release active Cl atoms, that degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen.

Question 34.
Algal bloom and eutrophication are the two effects of water pollution. Write the differences between the two.
Answer:
1. Algal bloom:
Excessive growth of planktonic algae due to the presence of large amount of nutrients in water.

2. Eutrophication: Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.

Question 35.
Match the items of column A with B.

Answer:

Question 36.
A number of human activities contribute to deforestation.

1. Write any one such activity.
2. Write the consequences of deforestation.

Answer:
1. Cutting trees for timber and firewood.

2. consequences of deforestation:

• Increase carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere
• Loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction
• Disturbs hydrologic cycle
• Causes soil erosion

Question 37.
In 1980s the Government of India has introduced JFM to conserve forests.

1. Expand JFM.
2. Write its significance.

Answer:

1. Joint Forest Management.
2. Participation by local communities for protecting and managing forest and these communities get benefit of various forest products.

Question 38.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases into the atmosphere. Write its working in reducing pollution.
Answer:
As the exhaust from the automobiles passes through the catalytic converter, hydrocarbons are converted into harmless carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide is changed into carbon dioxide.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As a part of project work, a group of students collected water samples from different locations. Water samples and its BOD contents are given below.

1. Analyse the data given below and find out the sample which is highly polluted.
2. Give reason. Expand BOD.

Sample	BOD
A	20%
B	12%
C	8.5%
D	8%

Answer:

1. Sample. A is highly polluted.
2. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen demand).- refers to the amount of O₂ that is consumed when organic matter is oxidised by bacteria. If greater the BOD of water, the rate of pollution is high.

Question 2.
Global warming leads to so many hazards in the environment.

1. What are the green house gases?
2. How does it leads to global warming
3. Suggest any three methods to control it.

Answer:
1. Green house gases- CFC, N₂O, CH₄, CO.

2. In the atmosphere green house gases causes re radiation of infrared radiation & results in the over heating of earth. This is called global warming. Global warming causes changes in the climate Eg. EL Nino effect, Increased melting of polar ice caps rise in sea levels & submerging of coastal areas.

3. Suggest any three methods to control it:

• Cutting down the use of fossil fuel,
• Improving efficiency of energy usage,
• Reducing deforestation, planting trees

Question 3.
Ramu is comparing the graph given in the magazine and recognized that the content of aromatic hydrocarbons, CO, and NOx were decreased from 1997 to 2006 period. Give the reason of your findings.
Answer:
The new auto fuel policy introduced by the government of India is to reduce the sulphur,carbon monoxide and aromatics content in petrol and diesel fuels. The above mentioned things can be put in practice by different engine norms.

1. Bharat Stage II (equivalent to Euro-llnorms)
2. Euro III emission specifications
3. Euro-IV

Question 4.
A factory drains its waste water into the nearby lake. It has caused algal bloom.

1. How was the algal bloom caused?
2. What would be the consequences?
3. Name the phenomenon that caused it?

Answer:

1. Nutrients of waste water causes extensive growth of planktonic algae or free floating algae (algal bloom).
2. Algae use oxygen .biochemical oxygen demand go high, high fish mortality, deterioration of water quality.
3. Eutrophication.

Question 5.
The existence of human beings is under great threat due to the uncontrolled emission of green house gases. Can you suggest any 2 remedial measures to reduce this effect?
Answer:
The emission of green house gases can be reduced by cutting down use of fossil fuel, improving the efficiency of energy usage, reducing deforestation planting trees & slows down the growth of human population.

Question 6.
The balance between the formation and degradation of ozone disrupt due to the overuse of chloro fluoro carbons.

1. Name the degraded product of chlorofluorocarbon causes of ozone depletion
2. Which is the unit used to measure ozone thickness in stratosphere
3. Give two diseases affects men due to ozone depletion

Answer:
1. Active chlorine
2. Dobson (Du)
3. Two diseases affects men due to ozone depletion:

• snow blindness
• cataract

Question 7.
In Kerala, the major source of atmospheric pollution comes from automobile sector.

1. Expand CNG
2. State some novel practical steps to minimize this type of pollution.
3. Which is the govt, agency monitor pollution?

Answer:
1. CNG -Compressed Natural Gas.

2. Air pollution can be controlled by using lead free petrol & by using catalytic converters. The catalytic converters convert unburned hydro carbons into CO₂, H₂O, CO & nitric oxide are converted to CO₂ & N₂ gas.

3. CPCB (Central pollution control board).

Question 8.
Ozone balance has been disrupted due to enhancement of ozone degradation by CFC’s.

1. Enumerate the role of Cl in O₃ depletion.
2. Give a note on Montreal protocol.

Answer:
1. Ozone is found in the stratosphere It acts as shield by absorbing UV radiation from the sun. UV rays are injurious to living organisms since DNA & proteins of living organism are affected by UV rays. The refrigerators use CFC.

The CFC’s discharged into the atmosphere it reaches the stratosphere. In stratosphere UV rays act on them releasing chlorine atom. Chlorine degrade ozone and releasing molecular oxygen. As the chlorine atom are not consumed in this reaction they remain in the stratosphere & will have permanent & continuing effect on ozone level.

2. Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone depletion an international treaty known as Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal(canada) in 1987 & is effective from 1989. This protocol emphasizes to control the emission of ozone depleting substances.

Question 9.
Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin. What is the cause of snow blindness.
Answer:
Due to ozone hole the UVB rays reach the earth and its high dose causes inflamation of cornea called snow blindness, cataract, etc. Such an exposure permanently damage the cornea.

Question 10.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Amrita devi bishnoi wild life protection award (in the name of lady who sacrificed her life for protecting trees), chipko movement( women belonging to garhwal showed courage by hugging trees to protect them from axe of contractors).

Question 11.
If the ESP is not fitted across the way of exhaust come out from thermal power plant. How does it affect humans.
Answer:
The particulate matter present in exhaust spread the air and causes respiratory problems like asthma, chronic bronchitis, hay fever, etc.

Question 12.
Two years ago, the lake was pure, clean and rich in variety of organisms. While now it is colourless, rich in algae and have a dirty smell. Name the pollutants and the phenomenon.
Answer:
The pollutans are phosphatic and nitrogenous in organic fertilisers. The phenomenon is called eutrophication.

Question 13.
Hundred metre surroundings of hospitals and schools are considered as silent zone. Justify it.
Answer:
It is considered as silent zone because in hospitals sound intensity increases the heart beat altering respiratory patterns of patients etc.but in schools it affects the teaching and learning process.

Question 14.
In 1990, the ozone thickness in a particular area was 190 Du while in 2001 and 2005 it was decreased to 150 Du and 135 Du respectively.

1. What is the causes of fall of Du level.
2. Which is the good ozone situated and named so?

Answer:
1. Itis due to the increased emission of chlorofluro carbons. It causes the upset of balance between formation and degradation of ozone and results in ozone depletion or thinning of ozone layer.

2. Ozone found in stratosphere filter uv rays coming into the earth.

Question 15.
CO and SO₂ are pollutants but they are different from, DDT. BHC etc. Do you agree. Give justifications of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The former pollutants are gaseous, biodegradable and inorganic but latter are organic and non biodegradable.

Question 16.
What you meant by the auto fuel policy of Govt, of India? Name the latest reformed engine norm.
Answer:
The aim of auto fuel policy is to decrease the emission of sulphur, carbon monoxide and aromatics content in petrol and diesel fuels. Euro-IVnorms- April 1, 2010.

Question 17.
Now a days the acuumulation of plastic waste is the major problem because such wastes are non biodegradable. In some places it is used for beneficial purpose

1. Name the mixtures used by Ahmed Khan to lay down roads in Bangalore.
2. How was it minimized the accumulation of solid wastes?

Answer:

1. Polyblend and bitumen.
2. The raw material for creating Polyblend is any plastic film waste. So the accumulation of plastic wastes can be controlled.

Question 18.
Thermal Power plants are inevitable in an industrial and densely populated country like our-what harm they do to the environment? Also mention any precaution that could be taken to save our environment.
Answer:
Hot effluents of thermal power plants are generally released in the nearby water bodies. This causes rise in temperature of such water bodies which causes deoxygenation of water leading to decomposition of organic wastes and killing of aquatic animals. Thermal water pollution can be checked by employing dry or wet cooling towers.

Question 19.
Accumulation of solid waste (e-waste) is the major problem in developed countries.

1. What do you mean by e-waste?
2. Give its ill effects.

Answer:

1. It is formed of irreparable computers and other electronic goods.
2. During manual recycling of such waters in the developing countries the workers are exposed to toxic compounds present in them.

Question 20.
It is said that the use of refrigerators cause ozone depletion.

1. How is it possible?
2. Explain the process of ozone depletion.
3. Name any one treaty signed in the international level to control this phenomenon.

Answer:
1. The refrigerators emit CFC (Chloro flora carbon).

2. The CFC’s discharged into the atmosphere reaches the stratosphere. In stratosphere UV rays act on them releasing chlorine atom, chlorine Degrade ozone releasing molecular oxygen. As the chlorine atom are not consumed in this reaction they remain in the stratosphere and have permanent and continuing effect on ozone level.

3. Montreal protocol and Kyoto protocol.

Question 21.
Mention the two major environmental issues of global nature.
Answer:

1. Increasing greenhouse effect.
2. Depletion of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 22.
Thermal power plants are inevitable in an industrial and densely populated country like ours. What harm do they do to the environment? Also mention any precaution that could be taken to save our environment.
Answer:

1. They release particulate and gaseous air pollutants, hot thermal waste kills organisms sensitive to high temperature, indigenous flora ad fauna lose.
2. Use of electrostatic precipitator.

Question 23.
1. On seeing bad state of roads in your locality, as a student, you have recommended to the Municipal corporation to use polyblend.

• What is poly blend? Point out its raw material.
• How will it be advantageous?

2. What are e-wastes? Explain the method of their disposal.
Answer:
1.

• It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic. This mixture is mixed with bitumen used to lay roads. Raw material – Plastic film waste
• Blends of polyblend and bitumen, when used to lay roads, enhances the bitumen’s water repellent properties and helps to increase road life.

2. Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as e-wastes. Burried in landfills or incinerated.

Question 24.
Eutrophication is the main problem in of rivers due to the adding of more and more nitrates and phosphates.

1. How does it affect aquatic water body
2. What is algal bloom?
3. How does it related to D.O. in water bodies.

Answer:

1. It change the colour and quality of water and causes the mortality of fish
2. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in waters also causes excessive growth of planktonic(free-floating) algae, called an algal bloom
3. This results in the decrease of D.O. in water.

Question 25.
DDT content in the water of a lake, that supplies drinking water to the nearby villages, is found to 0.0Q3ppm. The kingfishers of that area are reported to have2ppm DDT.

1. Why has the concentration increased in these birds?
2. What harm will this cause to bird population?
3. Name the Phenomenon.

Answer:
1. Increase in concentration of DDT (non biodegradable) from the water bodies (0.003ppm) to the final consumers like kingfishers (2ppm) is due to increase in cone, of DDT in successive tropic levels (eg. Phytoplankton → Zooplanktons → Fishes → King Fishers) of food chain.

2. It affects ca metabolism and finally premature breaking of egg and declining bird population.

3. Biomagnification.

Question 26.
Observe the figure below.

1. Identify the greenhouse gases 1,2 and write their percentage of contribution to total global warming.
2. Write any four measures to control global warming.

Answer:
1. greenhouse gases 1,2 and write their percentage of contribution to total global warming:

• CO₂ – 60%
• CFCs 14%

2. four measures to control global warming:

• Cutting down use of fossil fuel
• Improving efficiency of energy usage
• Reducing deforestation
• Planting trees

Question 27.
Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water cause excessive growth of plankton.

1. Name this process.
2. Write the dangers caused by this process.

Answer:
1. Algal bloom.

2. Dangers caused by this process:

• Imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies
• Deterioration of the water quality
• Fish mortality
• Toxic to human beings and animals.

Question 28.
Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes accelerate the aging process of lakes.

1. Name this phenomenon.
2. Write any four harmful effects of this process.

Answer:
1. Cultural or Accelerated eutrophication.

2. Any four harmful effects of this process:

• Over stimulate the growth of algae
• Cause unpleasant odor
• depletes dissolved oxygen
• Death of fish

Question 29.
CNG is better than diesel. Substantiate this statement writing any four advantage of CNG. Expand CNG.
Answer:
1.

• CNG bums most efficiently
• Cheaper than petrol or diesel
• Cannot be siphoned off by thieves
• cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel

2. Compressed Natural Gas

Question 30.
Observe the flow chart given below.

1. Fill in the blanks 1 and 2.
2. Identify the process illustrated in the flow chart.

Answer:
1.

• Small fish (DDT 0.5 ppm)
• Large fish (DDT 2 ppm)

2. Biomagnification

Question 31.
People in the town of Areata created an integrated waste water treatment within a natural system. Explain the method.
Answer:
The cleaning of waste water is conducted in two stages. In the first stage conventional sedimentation, filtering, and chlorine treatment are given.

Through this step all materials present in water can be removed except dangerous pollutants like dissolved heavy metals.

In the second stage this heavy metal containing water is passed through a series of six connected marshes over 60 hectares of marshland.

In marshy area, plants, algae, fungi, and bacteria were seeded, they can neutralise, absorb and assimilate the pollutants as the water flows through the marshes, after this process water gets purified naturally.

Question 32.
Match the items of column A with B and C.

Answer:

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the items given in column A and B.

Column A	Column B
a) Catalytic inverter	i) Particulate Matter
b) Electrostatic precipitator	ii) carbon monoxide and Nitrogen oxides
c) Earmuffs	iii) High noise level
d) Landfills	iv) Solid wastes.

Answer:
(a) – (ii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iii)
(d) – (iv)

Question 2.
Write critical notes on following:

1. Eutrophication
2. Biological magnification
3. Ground-water depletion and ways for its replenishment.

Answer:
1. Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.

2. Biomagnification, also known as bio amplification or biological magnification, is any concentration of a toxin, such as pesticides, in the tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.

3. The level of ground water is falling day by day due to high demand in urban areas as well as in agriculture. Due to over use of surface water, people rely on ground water for irrigation, drinking, and industrial use.

About 85% of rural water supply and more than 50% of urban and industrial supply is mined. This results in depletion of ground water.

Ground water can be replenished by-

1. Rain water harvesting
2. Reduction in consumption and waste.

Question 3.
Why ozone hole forms over Antarctica? How will enhanced ultraviolet radiation affect us?
Answer:
Decline in the thickness of ozone layer over a restricted area is called ozone hole. It was first discovered over Antarctica. Antarctica air is completely isolated from the rest of the world by natural circulation of wind called as Polar Vertex.

CFCs released in the atmosphere slowly enters the stratosphere and wind push them towards the poles. Environmental conditions prevailing in Antarctica during winter months are conductive for the formation of ozone hole.

During winter months, lack of sunlight and low temperature facilitates the formation of ice clouds, which provide the catalytic surface for the reaction of chlorine.

Effect of Ultraviolet Rays

1. UV-B radiations are very harmful.Coronea of eye absorbs these radiations and becomes inflamed. This disorder is known as ‘snow blindness’ cataract and leads to diminishing of eye sight.
2. UV-B radiations damage skin cells and cause skin cancer.

Question 4.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Women and tribal communities have played a significant role in protection and conservation of forests. Amritha devi Devi Bishnoi Wild Lide Protection Award, has instituted by government of India for individuals and rural communities for their contribution in protection of wild life.

In 1731, a woman Amritha Devi showed exemplary courage by hugging a tree to prevent its cutting. Her three daughters and hundreds of other Bishnoi followed her. They were killed by soldiers of Jodhpur.

Question 5.
What measures, as ah individual, you would like to reduce environmental pollution?
Answer:

1. I will use those articles which are either disposable or can be recycled.
2. I would help in tree plantation in my school and surroundings.
3. I will minimize the use of fossil fuels.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The maximum biological magnification of DDT through food web is seen in.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Algae
(c) Man
(d) Higher plants
Answer:
(c) Man

Question 2.
Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
(a) Increased O₂ content
(b) Increased algae content
(c) Decreased algae content
(d) Decreased O₂ content
Answer:
(d) Decreased O₂ content

Question 3.
Match the following:-

A	B
1. The insecticide Act	A. 1968
2. The water (prevention and control of pollution) Act	B. 1974
3. The air (prevention and control of pollution)Act	C. 1981
4. The environment (prevention)Act	D. 1986

(a) 1 – d, 2 – c,  3 – b, 4 – a
(b) 1 – a, 2 – d,  3 – c,  4 – b
(c) 1 – a, 2 – b,  3 – c,  4 – d
(d) 1 – c, 2 – d,  3 – a, 4 – b
Answer:
(c) 1 – a, 2 – b,  3 – c,  4 – d

Question 4.
Nitrogen oxides produced from the emission of automobiles and power plants are the source of fine air borne particles which lead to
(a) photochemical smog
(b) dry acid deposition
(c) industrial smog
(d) wet acid deposition
Answer:
(d) wet acid deposition

Question 5.
Drinking of mineral water with very low level of pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) For long periods may
(a) produce immunity against mosquito
(b) cause leukemia (blood cancer) in
(c) cause cancer of the intestine
(d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat
Answer:
(d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat

Question 6.
The soil pollutants that affect the food chain and food web by killing microorganisms and plants are
(a) nitrogen oxides
(b) pathogens chemical fertilizers
(c) agricultural waste
(d) pesticides
Answer:
(d) pesticides

Question 7.
In a coal-fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
(a) SO
(b) NOX
(c) SPM
(d) CO
Answer:
(c) SPM

Question 8.
Green-house effect is due to the presence of
(a) ozone layer in the atmosphere
(b) moisture layer in the atmosphere
(c) CO₂ layer in the atmosphere
(d) infrared light reaching the earth
Answer:
(c) CO₂ layer in the atmosphere

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs pf organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
(a) Ficusreligiosa, Lantana camara
(b) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(c) water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
(d) Nile perch, Ficusreligiosa
Answer:
(b) Lantana camara, water hyacinth

Question 10.
A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
(b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
(c) death of fish due to lake of oxygen
(d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms
Answer:
(c) death of fish due to lake of oxygen

Question 11.
A substantial fall in C02 and S02 level has been found in Delhi between 1997 and 2005 due to
(a) use of purified, unleaded petrol
(b) use of purified, unleaded diesel
(c) use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in public transports
(d) use of LiquifiedPetroleam Gas (LPG) in public transports
Answer:
(c) use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in public transports

Question 12.
Electrostatic precipitator is used to remove
(a) CO
(b) particulate matter
(c) lead
(d) secondary pollutant
Answer:
(b) particulate matter

Question 13.
CNG is used to control
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) thermal pollution
Answer:
(b) air pollution

Question 14.
Major pollutant present in automobile exhaust is
(a) lead
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) hydrocarbon
Answer:
(b) CO

Question 15.
If there is no green house gases present in an atmosphere, the average temperature of earth surface is
(a) 100c
(b) 1000 c
(c) 00 c
(d) -150 c
Answer:
(d) -150 c

Question 16.
Deforestation activities and forest fires leads to the rise in global temperature, it is due to
(a) increase in CO level
(b) decrease in CO level
(c) increase in CO₂ level
(d) decrease in CO₂ level
Answer:
(c) increase in CO₂ level

Question 17.
A geing of lake is mainly caused by the accumulation of nutrients such as
(a) N₂ & P
(b) N₂ & P
(c) P & Ca
(d) Ca & N₂
Answer:
(b) N₂ & P

Question 18.
Appearance of hole in strato spheric ozone layer is caused by the emission of green gases, it is due to the reaction between
(a) O₃ and Cl
(b) O₃ and F
(c) O₂ and F
(d) O₂ and Cl
Answer:
(a) O₃ and Cl

Question 19.
The pollutant that seriously affect the marble monuments mainly contains the chemical have the nature is
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) acidic

Question 20.
Chlorinated hydrocarbons enters through one trophic level and its concentration is increased as ppm in successive trophic levels, its nature is
(a) biodegradable
(b) non biodegradable
(c) degradable on combustion
(d) not degradable on combustion
Answer:
(b) non biodegradable

Question 21.
Increase in noise level above particular dB affect the hearing abilities, that is
(a) 20 dB
(b) 60 dB
(c) 80 dB
(d) 150dB
Answer:
(d) 150dB

Students can Download Chapter 13 Nuclei Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei

Plus Two Physics Nuclei NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Obtain the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus (\(_{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N }\)) Given m \(_{ 7 }^{ 14 }{ N }\) = 14.00307 u.
Answer:
Here Z = 7 and A = 14, A – Z = 14 – 7 = 7
∴ Mass defect
= [Z m_H + (A – Z)m_n – M_n] u
= (7 × 1.00783 + 7 × 1.00867 – 14.00307) u
= (7.05481 + 7.06069-14.00307) u = 0.11243 u
Since I u = 931.5 MeV
∴ B.E. of 14N = 0.11243 × 931 Mev
= 104.7 MeV.

Question 2.
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope \(_{ 79 }^{ 197 }\)Au and the silver isotope \(_{ 47 }^{ 107 }\)Ag
Answer:
Here A₁ = 197 and A₂ = 107

Question 3.
How long an electric lamp of 100 W can be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of deuterium? The fusion reaction as.

Answer:
Number of deuterium atoms is 2 kg
= \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{2}\) × 2000 = 6.023 × 10²⁶
Energy released when 6.023 × 10²³ nuclei of deuterium fuse together

= 15.42 × 10¹³J = 15.42Ws
Power of lamp = 100 W
If the lamp glows fortime t, then electric energy consumed = 100 t
∴ 100 t = 15.42 × 10³³
∴ t = 0.1542 × 10¹³s
\(=\frac{0.1542 \times 10^{13}}{365 \times 86400} y\)
or t = 4.0 × 10⁴y.

Question 4.
From the relation R = R₀ A^{\(\frac{1}{3}\)}, Where R₀ is a constant and A is the mass number of a nucleus show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant (i.e. Independent of A).
Answer:
Density of nucleus(p) It is defined as the nuclear mass per unit volume.

Thus the nuclear density is of the order of 10¹⁷kgm^-3 and is independent of its mass number. Therefore, all nuclei have the same approximate density.

Plus Two Physics Nuclei One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(a) nuclei break up at high temperature
(b) atoms get ionized at high temperature
(c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(d) molecules break up at high temperature
Answer:
(c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei.

Question 2.
Give the relation between half-life and mean life
Answer:
t_1/2 = 0.693τ.

Question 3.
Write down the expression for nuclear radius
Answer:
R = R₀A_1/3.

Question 4.
Complete the given nuclear reaction

Answer:

Plus Two Physics Nuclei Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A beam of radio active radiation is unaffected in a combined electric and magnetic field in mutually perpendicular direction. A boy argues that, it is essentially a gamma ray. Do you agree with him. Justify your answer.
Answer:
It need not be gama ray. It can be α or β ray as the electric and magnetic field are in mutually perpendicular direction.

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out of the following.
a.

1. Curie
2. Roentgen
3. Becquerel
4. Rutherford

b.

1. γ – decay
2. β – decay
3. β⁺ – decay
4. α – decay

Answer:
a. odd one:
2. Roentgen.

b. odd one:
1. γ – decay

Question 3.
Figure below represents radiation coming out from a radioactive element.

1. Identify the radiation B. Give reason.
2. If the electric field is replaced by magnetic field perpendicular and into the plane of the paper, identify the particle deflecting towards right (C).

Answer:

1. Gamma-ray. It has no change
2. C which is β ray

Question 4.
Two radioactive substances P and Q have half-life 6 months and 3 months respectively. Find the ratio of the activity of these two materials after one year.
Answer:
Activity R = λN
R₁ = λ₁N₁
R₂ = λ₂N₂

R₁: R₂ = 1: 1

Question 5.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 6.
Suppose you are a health physicist and you are being consulted about a spill occurred in a radio chemistry lab. The isotope spilled out in the lab was 500 micro cure of ¹³¹Ba which has half-life of 12 – days.

1. What is the decay constant of ¹³¹Ba
2. Your recommendation is to clear the lab until the radiation level is down to 1 micro curie. How length will the lab have to be closed.

Answer:
1.

2. 9 × 12 = 108 days.

Question 7.
Classify the following statement in to nuclear fission and nuclear fusion

1. Products are radio active
2. Can be controlled
3. Reaction is spontaneous
4. Can’t proceed as a chain reaction

Answer:

1. fission
2. fission
3. fission
4. fusion

Question 8.

Answer:

Plus Two Physics Nuclei Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Nuclear fusion can liberate more energy than nuclear fission. But nuclear fusion is not commonly used in energy production. Why?
2. Match the following.

A	B
1. Nuclear fission	β – decay
2. Nuclear fusion	Hydrogen spectrum
3. Transition between atomic energy level	Nuclei with low atomic numbers
4. Electron emission from nucleus	Generally possible for nuclei with high atomic number
	Photoelectric emission

Answer:
1. Nuclear fusion is a thermonuclear reaction. It occurs at high temperature (10⁶k) and it is difficult to attain such a high temperature. Hence fusion is not commonly used in energy production.

2.

A	B
1. Nuclear fission	Generally possible for nuclei with high atomic number
2. Nuclear fusion	Nuclei with low atomic numbers
3. Transition between atomic energy level	Hydrogen spectrum
4. Electron emission from nucleus	β – decay

Question 2.
β – Particles does not exist inside a nucleus. But it is emitted from the nucleus!

1. What is β Particle
2. What happens to nucleus of a atom, when a particle is emitted? Explain
3. Why β particle is emitted from the nucleus?

Answer:

1. It is electron
2. When α is emitted, mass number decreases to 4 and atomic decreases by 2.
3. To get stability, β is emitted from the nucleus.

Question 3.
Nuclear radius depends on the mass number of the element.

1. Write down the expression for nuclear radius.
2. Prove that the density of the nucleus is independent of mass number A.

Answer:
1. R = R₀ A^1/3.

2. Density of nucleus = (mass of the nucleus)/ (volume of the nucleus)

This shows that nuclear density is independent of mass number.

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 5.
The fission of one nucleus of ₉₂U²³⁹ release 200 Mev of energy.

1. What is meant by fission
2. Express 200 Mev energy in joule
3. How many fission of ₉₂U²³⁹ should occur per send for producing a power of 1 Mev

Answer:
1. The splitting of heavy nucleus into two nucleus is called fission.

2. E = 200Mev
= 200 × 10⁶ev
E = 200 × 10⁶ × 1.6 × 10^-19J
= 3.2 × 10^-11J.

3. Number of fission

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
Size of the nucleus increases with number of nucleons. As size increases, volume increase (ie mass number increases).

1. Based on the above facts find an expression for radius of nucleus.
2. Calculate radius of ₁₃Al²⁷ nucleus. The constant R₀ = 1.2 fermi.

Answer:

1. R = R₀A^1/3
2. R = 1.2 × (27)^1/3 fermi = 3.6 fermi.

Question 8.
Binding energy curve shows the variation of Binding energy per nucleon of nuclei with mass number.
1. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for mass number……. (1)
2. The figure shows dis integration of Deuteron. (2)

What should be the frequency of the incident photon to break Deuteron into proton and neutron?
Mass of proton m_p = 1,007276u.
Mass of neutron m_n = 1,008665u
Mass of deuteron = 2.013553u
Answer:
1. 56

2. Mass defect = (1.007276 + 1.008665) – 2.013553 = 0.002388u
Binding Energy = 0.002388 × 931 MeV = 2.223
MeV Energy supplied to the photon
= 2.223 × 10⁶ × 1.6 × 10^-19
= 3.56 × 10^-13J
Frequency of photon

Question 9.
The figure shows the potential energy of a pair of nuclear particles and their distance of separation in Fermi (fm).

1. Fill in the blanks.

2. What conclusion do you obtain about the nature of nuclear force from the graph.
Answer:
1.

2. The nuclear force is a short range force.

Plus Two Physics Nuclei Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Atomic mass of \(_{ 8 }^{ 16 }{ O }\) is found to be 16.0000u

1. what is the mass of \(_{ 8 }^{ 16 }{ O }\) nucleus
   (Hint: mass of an electron = 0.00055u)
2. determine the total mass of the constituents particles of the \(_{ 8 }^{ 16 }{ O }\) nuclei.
   (Hint : Mass of neutron = 1.00864 u, Mass of proton = 1.007274 u)
3. Give a general expression for mass defect and explain what is binding energy?
4. Binding energy per nucleon is lower for both very light nuclei (Z ≤ 10) and very heavy nuclei (Z ≥ 70) Justify a nuclear fission and fusion

Answer:
1. Mass of nucleus = (8 × 1.00864 + 8 × 1.007274) amu.

2. (8 × 1.00864 + 8 × 1.007214 + 8 × 0.0055)amu

3. ∆m = [ZM_p + (A-Z) M_n – M)
The energy equivalent to mass defect is called binding energy.

4. When two light nuclei are combined to form a heavy nucleus, the binding per nucleon increases. Hence the stability of atom increases. When heavy nucleus split into two light nuclei; B.E. for nucleon also increases.

Question 2.
Classify the following into alpha, beta, and gama

1. Similar to fast moving electron
2. It is an electromagnetic wave
3. Similar to helium nucleus
4. Travel with 1/10^th the velocity of light
5. Travel with 99/100^th the velocity of light
6. Travel with the velocity of light
7. Positively charged
8. Negatively charged

Answer:

1. beta particle – 1, 3, 8
2. Gama ray – 2, 6
3. alpha particle – 3, 4, 7

Question 3.
a. Two protons and two neutrons may bound to form a single particle it is called

1. α particle
2. β particle
3. deuteron
4. triton

b. If such a particle is emitted what changes will occur in the nucleus
c. The penetrating power of the particle is very small in air. Why?
d. If the particle is projected upward in a uniform magnetic field with direction perpendicular to plane in ward, towards which plate (A or B) it is deflected? To find this which law is applied?

Answer:
a.
1. α particle.

b. Mass number decreases to 4 and atomic number decreases to 2

c. penetrating power of the particle is very small in air:
(i) Mass of α particle is 4. Hence penetrating power of the particle is small.

d. Towards A (left) Flemings left hand rule is used.

Question 4.
Nuclear radius depends on the mass number of the element.

1. Write down the expression for nuclear radius. (1)
2. Prove that the density of the nucleus is independent of mass number A. (2)
3. Read the following statement and choose the correct option.

“Electric dipole moment is zero for nuclei in stationary state.” (1)
Assertion:
All nuclei have spherical symmetry about the centre of mass.
Reason:
The zero dipole moment for stationary nuclei is due to the symmetry about the centre of mass.

• Assertion and reason are true.
• Assertion is false reason is true
• Assertion is true reason is false
• Assertion and reason are false.

Answer:
1. R = R₀A^1/3.

2. Density of nucleus = (mass of the nucleus)/(volume of the nucleus)

This shows that nuclear density is independent of mass number.

3.
(ii) Assertion is false reason is true.

Question 5.

1. Which process is represented by the equation?
2. What happens to the parent nucleus after the process?
3. After this process the nucleus will be in a higher energy state. How will it come to ground state?
4. If a proton splits in a nucleus what are the changes. Represent it with an equation.

Answer:

1. β – emission.
2. Atomic increases to one unit. But mass number remains constant
3. The parent atom comes to ground state by emitting gamma ray.
4. P → n + e⁺ + ν
   Atomic number decreases by one unit. But mass number remains constant.

Plus Two Physics Nuclei Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rutherford and Soddy’s laws of radioactivity explain the rate of decay of radioactive material.

1. Arrive at the expression for the number of radio active atoms of a radioactive material remaining after an interval of time. (2)
2. Draw the curve showing the variation of log\(\left(\frac{N}{N_{0}}\right)\) with time. (1)
3. Two radioactive substances P and Q have half life 6 months and 3 months respectively. Find the ratio of the activity of these two materials after one year. (2)

Answer:
1. According to Law of Radioactive decay,

Integrating
InN = -λt + C ………(1)
C is the constant of integration. To get value of C, let us assume that initially (t=0) the number of nuclei be N₀.
∴ C = In N₀
Substituting for C in equation (1) we get,
In N – In N₀ = -λt

\(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{N}_{0}}\) e^-λt
N = N₀e^-λt

2.

3. Activity R = λN
R₁ = λ₁N₁
R₂ = λ₂N₂

Question 2.
a. In the given figure a radioactive source is placed inside a lead block. Identify the rays incident on the photographic plates.

b. Which of the following statement is correct.

1. Gamma rays consist of high energy neutrons.
2. Alpha rays are equivalent to singly ionized He atoms.
3. Protons and neutrons have exactly the same mass.
4. Beta rays are same as cathode rays.

c. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted in the following reaction.

Answer:
a.

• 1 – Alpha
• 2-Gamma
• 3 – Beta

b.
4. Beta rays are same as cathode rays

c.

Difference in mass number = 32
Mass number of one alpha particle = 4
Hence number of alpha particles = 8
Change in atomic number = 10
Change in atomic number due to alpha particles = 16
Charge of beta particles = -1
Hence number of beta particles emitted = 6

Question 3.
The figure shows a nuclear reactor based on thermal neutron fission.

1. The energy of thermal neutrons is……..ev. (1)
2. Name the parts labelled X and Y in the figure. (1)
3. Write the function of X and Y (1)
4. The multiplication factor has great significance in nuclear reactor. Give reason. (2)

Answer:
1. 0.025eV.

2. Control rods.

3. Control rods are used in nuclear reactors to control the fission rate of Uranium and Plutonium.

4. The ratio, K, of number of fission produced by a given generation of neutrons to the number of fission of the preceding generation is called the multiplication factor, it is the measure of the growth rate of the neutrons in the reactor.

For K = 1, the operation of the reactor is said to be critical. Unless the factor K is brought down very close to unity, the reactor will become supercritical and can even explode.

Students can Download Chapter 9 Structured Query Language Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
______form of SQL is designed for use with in general purpose programming languages such as COBOL, C, etc.
Answer:
Embedded SQL.

Question 2.
What is TCL?
Answer:
Transaction Control Language- component of SQL includes commands for specifying transactions.

Question 3.
Data dictionary is a special file in DBMS. What is it used for?
Answer:
Table details are stored in this file

Question 4.
What does the following statement mean?
Name VARCHAR(30)
Answer:
Field Name can store up to 30 characters. It is a column definition.

Question 5.
Is there any data type available in SQL to store your date of birth information?
Answer:
Ip Yes. DATE data type

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out.
(DEC, NUMBER, INT, DATE)
Answer:
DATE

Question 7.
How do you ensure that the field ‘ name’ will have some value always?
Answer:
using the constraint NOT NULL

Question 8.
How to set the default value of column District in a table to ‘Thrissur’?
Answer:
District VARCHAR(30) DEFAULT ‘ Thrissur’

Question 9.
_______symbol is used as substitution operator in SQL
Answer:
&

Question 10.
Is there any method to find the strings starting with letter ‘a’ from a field in SQL?
Answer:
Use LIKE operator, LIKE ‘a%’

Question 11.
Howto check whether a particular field contains null values or not?
Answer:
Use operator IS NULL

Question 12.
“ORDER BY” clause is used for_______
Answer:
Sorting the results of a query by ascending(Asc) or Descending (Desc).

Question 13.
The built-in functions in SQL that return just a single value for a group of rows in a table are called______
Answer:
Summary functions or aggregate functions.

Question 14.
How to find the number of values in a column in the table?
Answer:
Using the function COUNT()

Question 15.
______is the clause in SQL used for categorization.
Answer:
GROUP BY

Question 16.
Thomas wants to remove a table that he were using. How could you help him doing this?
Answer:
Using DROP TABLE command

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, DROP TABLE)
Answer:
DROP TABLE

Question 18.
Name the aggregate function that can be used to find the total number of records.
Answer:
COUNT()

Question 19.
Which of the following is an essential clause used with SELECT command?
(GROUP BY, ORDER BY, WHERE, FROM)
Answer:
FROM

Question 20.
Which of the following is not a column constraint?
(CHECK, DISTINCT, UNIQUE, DEFAULT)
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 21.
Which of the following is a DDL command?
(SELECT, UPDATE, CREATE TABLE, INSERT INTO)
Answer:
CREATETABLE

Question 22.
What are the logical operators used in SQL?
Answer:
And, Or, Not

Question 23.
The______operator of SQL is used to match a pattern with the help of %. February 2009
(a) BETWEEN
(b) AND
(c) LIKE
(d) OR
Answer:
(c) LIKE

Question 24.
The structure of a table Book is given below.

BookNo	Integer
Title	Varchar (200)
Author	Varchar(100)
Price	Dec(5, 2)

Write SQL query to Insert an additional column Purchase date of date type to the. Books table.
Answer:
Alter table Book add(PurchaseDate Date);

Question 25.
Suppose we want to include a column in a table in which serial numbers are to be stored automatically on adding new records. Which constraint is to be used for that column during table creation?
Answer:
The constraint Autojncrement is used.

Question 26.
Which of the following cannot be used to name a table in SQL? Give the reason.
(a) Studnt50
(b) Table
(c) $Employee
(d) Stock_123
Answer:
(b) Table. This is a keyword hence it cannot be used.

Question 27.
Which of the following commands is used to view the strucutre of a table?
(a) SHOW TABLES
(b) DESC
(C) SELECT
(d) DISPLAY
Answer:
(b) DESC

Question 28.
The command to eliminate the table CUSTOMER from a database is:
(a) REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER

Question 29.
Which SQL command is used to open a database?
(a) OPEN
(b) SHOW
(c) USE
(d) CREATE
Answer:
(c) USE

Question 30.
Which is the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of rows in the selction?
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 31.
Pick odd one out and write reason:
(a) WHERE
(b) ORDER BY
(c) UPDATE
(d) GROUP BY
Answer:
(c) UPDATE. It is a command and others are clauses.

Question 32.
Which of the following clause is not used with SELECT command in SQL?
(a) GROUP BY
(b) WHERE
(c) SET
(d) ORDER BY
Answer:
(c) SET. This clause is used with UPDATE.

Question 33.
______operator in SQL is used with wildcard characters for selection of records,
(a) LIKE
(b) IN
(c) NOT IN
(d) IN and NOT IN
Answer:
(a) LIKE

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is SQL different from other computer high level languages?
Answer:
SQL means Structured Query Language. It is a relational database language, not a programming language like other high level languages. It provides facilities to create a table, insert data into a table, retrieve information from a table, modify data in the table, etc.

Question 2.
Distinguish the SQL keywords UNIQUE and DISTINCT.
Answer:

1. Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column while storing data. It is used with create command.
2. Distinct: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table while retrieving data. It is used with select command.

Question 3.
Identify errors in the following SQL statement and rewrite it correctly. Underline the corrections.
CREATE student TABLE
(admno PRIMARY KEY,
roll no INT,
name CHAR);
Answer:
The correct SQL statement is as follows.
CREATE TABLE student(
admno INT PRIMARY KEY,
roll_no INT,
name CHAR(3));

Question 4.
Suppose a column named Fee does not contain any value for some records in the table named STUDENT. Write SQL statement to fill these blanks with 1000.
Answer:
UPDATE STUDENT SET Fee = 1000 WHERE Fee IS NULL;

Question 5.
Identify the errors in the following SQL statement and give reason for the error.
SELECT FROM STUDENT
ORDER BY Group
WHERE Marks above 50;
Answer:
In this query Group is the key word hence it cannot be used. The correct query is as follows.
SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE Marks > 50 ORDER BY Marks;

Question 6.
Differentiate CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL.
Answer:

• Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
• Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.

Question 7.
Assume that CUSTOMER is a table with columns Cust_code, Cust_name, Mob_No and Email. Write an SQL statement to add the details of a customer who has no e-mail id.
Answer:
INSERT INTO CUSTOMER VALUES(1001, ‘ALVIS’, 9447024365, NULL);

Question 8.
Find the correct clause from the 2^nd column for each SQL command in the1 st column.

Command	Clause
INSERT	SET
SELECT	FROM
UPDATE	INTO
ALTER	ADD

Answer:

Command	Clause
INSERT	INTO
SELECT	FROM
UPDATE	SET
ALTER	ADD

Question 9.
Is ALL a keyword in SQL? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, ALL retains all the duplicate values of a field

Question 10.
Differentiate LIKE ‘a%’ and LIKE ‘a_’
Answer:
%, it replaces a string but _ replaces only one character at a time.LIKE ‘a%’ retrieve all strings of any length that start with letter ‘a.’ while LIKE ‘a_’ retrieve all two letter strings that start with letter ‘a’.

Question 11.
Is multiple sorting possible using ORDER BY clause? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, by giving multiple field names separated by comma in the ORDER BY clause.

Question 12.
While inserting records into a table, Raju finds it is not possible to give more than 20 characters in the ‘name’ field. How can you help Raju solve this problem?
Answer:
Using ALTER TABLE command he can modify the width of field so that it can accommodate more than 20 characters.

Question 13.
After executing a query Mohan gets a message like ‘Table Altered’. What would have he done? Give the syntax.
Answer:
He would have used the ALTER TABLE command.
Syntax, ALTER TABLE <name> ADD/MODIFY (<column>);

Question 14.
During discussion one student said that DELETE and DROP TABLE commands are same. Do you agree with that? Justify.
Answer:
No, DROP TABLE remove a table entirely from the database whereas DELETE command deletes only records from an existing table.

Question 15.

1. Pick odd one out .
   DROP TABLE, DELETE, ALTER TABLE, CREATE VIEW
2. Justify your answer

Answer:

1. DELETE
2. All others are DDL commands

Question 16.

1. Pick odd one out from the following.
   NOT NULL, Group By, Check, Unique, Default
2. Justify your answer

Answer:

1. Group By
2. Group By is not a Constraint.

Question 17.
Consider the following SQL statements.
DELETE Name
From Student
Where name = “Raju”
Find the error in the SQL if any and correct it.
Answer:
Delete from student where name = ‘Raju’

Question 18.
Consider the following Query in SQL.
SELECT Department, avg(salary)
From Employee
Where branch = ‘Kannur’
Group By Department
Having avg (salary) > 7000,
Compare the ‘where’ clause and ‘Having’ Clause using the above query.
Answer:
‘where’ clause applies on single rows but Having clause applies on a group.

Question 19.
Some constraints in SQL are called column constraints. Some constraints are called table constraints. How do they differ?
Answer:
Column constraints are specified while defining each column, table constraints are specified once for the entire table at the end of table definition.

Question 20.

1. Choose the odd one from the following.
   Primary key, Unique, Distinct, Default, Check
2. Justify your choice

Answer:

1. Distinct
2. Distinct is used with select command while others are column constraints of create table command.

Question 21.
Name the most appropriate SQL data type required to store the following data.

1. Name of a student (maximum 70 characters)
2. Date of Birth of a student.
3. RollNo. of a student (in the range 1 to 50)
4. Percentage of marks obtained (correct to 2 decimal places)

Answer:

1. Varchar(70)
2. Date
3. Smallint OR Integer Or decimal(2)
4. Dec(5, 2)

Question 22.

1. From the list given below select the names that cannot be used as a table name.
   Adm_No, Date, Salary 2006, Table, Column_Name, Address.
2. Justify your selection.

Answer:

1. Date, Table
2. There is a data type Date and Table is a key word used to create a table. So these two are not used.

Question 23.
Classify the following SQL elements into two and give proper title for each category.
NOT NULL. AVG. COUNT. CHECK. SUM. DEFAULT
Answer:
1. Aggregate functions:
AVG
COUNT
SUM

2. Column Constraints:
NOT NULL
CHECK
DEFAULT

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As a part of your school project you are asked to create a table Student with the fields RollNo, Name, Date of Birth and Score in IT. The constraints required are RollNo. is the primary key. Name cannot be empty.
Answer:
Create table student(RollNo decimal(2) not null primary key, Name varchar(20) not null, DOB date, Score number(2));

Question 2.
A table Employee consists of fields EmployeeNo, Name, Designation and Salary. Consider that you are forced to give access to this table for an engineer from another company. But for security reasons you need to hide Salary from him.

1. Name the concept that provides this engineer, a facility to work on this table without viewing salary.
2. Write SQL query for implementing this.

Answer:

1. Views
2. Create view Empview as select employee no, Name, Designation from Employee.

Question 3.
Explain the keywords in the following query.
SELECT DISTINCT course FROM Student;
Answer:
SELECT allows to retrieve a subset of rows from the table, DISTINCT avoids duplication of courses from the table STUDENT, FROM is a key word used to specify the name of the table

Question 4.
A table named student is given below.

Write answers for the questions based on the above table.

1. SQL statement to display the different courses available without duplication.
2. SQL statement to display the Name and Batch of the students whose percentage has a null value.
3. Output of the query select count (percentage) from Student.

Answer:

1. Select distinct batch from Student;
2. Select name, batch from Student where percent is null
3. 5

Question 5.
Once the creation of a table is over, one can perform two changes in the schema of the table. What are they? Give syntax.
Answer:
We can alter the table in two ways.

• We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
• We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax, ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 6.
Explain how pattern matching can be done in SQL with an example.
Answer:
Pattern matching can be done using the operator LIKE while setting the condition with pattern matching.

for eg., to display the names of all students whose name begins with letters ‘ma’, we can write the following query, SELECT name FROM STUDENT WHERE name LIKE ‘ma%’; here the character ‘%’ substitutes any number of characters in the value of the specified column. Another character substitutes only one character of the specified column.

Question 7.
During the discussion of study your friend say that table and view are the same. How can you correct him?
Answer:
Tables and views are different. A view is a single virtual table that is derived from other physically existing tables. When we access a view we actually access the base tables.

We can use all the DML commands with the views but care should be taken as operation actually reflects in the base tables. The advantage of view is that without sparing extra storage space, we can use same table as different virtual tables. It also implements sharing along with privacy).

Question 8.
Find the errors if any of the following code. Create table emp (name char, R0IIN0 int(20));
Answer:
Here the argument size of data type char of field name is missing. So we can’t store a character only. The second error is the data type int has no argument. The correct statement is as follows Create table emp (name char(20), RollNo int);

Question 9.
Consider the following variable Declaration in SQL.

• name char (25)
• name Varchar (25)
  1. Considering the utilisation of memory, which variable declaration is more suitable.
  2. Justify your answer

Answer:
1. name varchar (25)

2. Because char data type is fixed length. It allocates maximum memory i.e, here it allocates memory for 25 characters may be there is a chance of memory wastage. But Varchar allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.

Question 10.
Mr. Dilip wants to construct a table and implement some restrictions on the table.

1. Column can never have empty values.
2. One of the columns must be a key to identify the rows etc.

Can you help him to create that table satisfying the above restrictions with an example.
Answer:

1. Use of create table, Not NULL,
2. Primary key

Eg: Create table employee(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key, Name Varchar(70) not null, Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));

Question 11.
Write SQL query to construct a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, grade, etc. As per the following conditions.

1. Reg No should not be empty and using this column any rows in that table can be identified.
2. Student name should have some value.
3. Default value of sex be Female.
4. Grade should be any of the values: A+, A, B+, B, C+, C, D+, D, E

Answer:
Create table Student(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key,Name Varchar(70) not null, sex char default ‘Female’, Grade char(2));

Question 12.
Ramu create Table employee with fields empld, empname, Designation, salary using SQL statements. Later he found that data type of emPId is typed as Integer instead of character and missed a field ‘Department’. Can you help him to solve this problem without recreating ‘employee’ table.
Answer:

• Alter Table Employee Modify(Empld char(4));
• Alter Table Employee Add(Dept char(15));

Question 13.
While creating a table Alvis give “Emp Details” for table name. Is it Possible. Write down the rules for naming a Table.
Answer:
It is not possible because there is a space between Emp and Details. The rules are given below:

1. It must not be a keywond(Key words are reserved words and have predefined meaning)
2. It must begin with alphabets
3. Digits can be used followed by alphabets
4. Special characters cannot be used except under score
5. We cannot give a name of another table

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the table ITEMS.

1. SELECT ITEMCODE, NAME FROM ITEMS WHERE CATEGORY = ‘Stationery’;
2. SELECT * FROM ITEMS WHERE SALES_ PRICE < UNIT_PRICE;
3. SELECT CATEGORY, COUNT(*) FROM ITEMS GROUP BY CATEGORY;’

Answer:
1.

ltem_Code	Name
0001	Pencil
0002	Pen
0003	Notebook
0007	Pen

2.

3.

Category	Count(*)
Stationery	4
Footwear	1
Fruits	2

Question 2.
Write SQL queries to
1. Create a table Employee with the fields given below.

EmpNo	Integer
Name	Character of size 70
Designation	Character size 30
Date of birth	Date
Salary	Decimal (7,2)

2. List the name of all employees whose name’s second letter is ‘a’.
3. List the Name and Designation of employees whose Designation is not ‘Manager’.
4. Increase the salary of all employees by 10 percent.
5. Remove all managers whose salary is less than Rs. 10,000 from the table.
Answer:

1. Create table employee(Name Varchar(70), Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));
2. Select Name from Employee where Name like ‘_a%’;
3. Select Name, Desgn from Employee where Desgn<> ’Manager’;
4. Update Employee set Salary = Salary + Salary * .01;
5. Delete from Employee where Desgn = ‘Manager’ and Salary < 10000;

Question 3.
A table Student consists of fields Roll No, Name, Batch and Percent. Write SQL statements to

1. Display RollNo and Name of students whose percentage is Iessthan90 and greater than 70.
2. Display RollNo and Name of all students in science batch whose percentage is more than
3. Display Names of all students in commerce and science batches.
4. Display the average Percent of students in each batch.
5. Display RollNo and Name in the ascending order of Batch and descending order of Percent.

Answer:

1. Select RollNo.Name from Student where percent < 90 and percent > 70;
2. Select RollNo.Name from Student where Batch = ’Science’ and percent > 90;
3. Select Name from Student where batch = ’Science’ Or batch = ’Commerce’;
4. Select batch, Avg(percent) from Student group by batch;
5. Select RollNo.Name from Student order by batch, percent desc;

Question 4.

1. Classify the following SQL commands. Create table, Insert Into, AlterTable, Delete, Update, Drop Table, Select.
2. List the features of each category.

Answer:
1. DDL – Create Table, Alter Table, Drop Table DML- Insert Into, Delete, Update, Select.

2. DDL – DDL means Data Definition Language. It is used to create the structure of a table, modify the structure of a table and delete the structure of a table.

DML -DML means Data Manipulation Language. It is used to insert records into a table, modify the records of a table, delete the records of a table and retrieve the records from a table.

Question 5.
Explain the available database integrity constraints.
Answer:

1. NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty
2. UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.
3. PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.
4. DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.
5. Auto_increment: This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That is automatically generate serial numbers. Only one auto_increment column per table is allowed.

Question 6.
Consider a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, total score.
Write Sql queries for the following:

1. Enter a Record
2. List the Detail’s of all students
3. Display Details of the student whose name ends with ‘Kumar’.
4. List all Female students who got more than 50 marks.
5. List all students who are studying either science or in Commerce group.
6. List details of those students who are studying Humanities in the Descending order of their names.

Answer:

1. Insert into Student values. (52, ‘JOSE’, ‘Male’, ‘Science’, 500);
2. Select * from Student;
3. Select * from Student where name like ‘%Kumar’;
4. Select * from Student where sex=’Female’ and Total > 50;
5. Select * from Student where course = ‘science’ or course = ‘commerce’;
6. Select * from Student where course=’Humanities’ order by name desc;

Question 7.
Construct a Table Product with the following fields using SQL.
Product code – Consist of Alphanumeric code
Product name – Consist of maximum of 30 Alphabets
Unit price – Numeric values
Quantity – Numeric values
Product price – Numeric Values
Write Query for the following:

1. Enter 5 records in the table (not give values for product prices)
2. Calculate product price (unit price x quantity)
3. List all product whose unit price ranging from 10 to 20
4. Calculate total price of all product.

Answer:
Create table Product(ProdCode Varchar(20) not null primary key, ProdName char(30), UPrice decimal(7, 2), Qty decimal(6), ProdPricedecimal(7, 2));

1. Insert into Product(Product Code,Product Name, Unit Price, Quantity) values (‘101’, ‘LUX’, 29.50, 500); Similarly insert four more records
2. Update Product set ProdPrice = Qty * UPrice;
3. Select ProdName from Product where UPrice between 10 and 20;
4. Select sum(ProdPrice) from Product;

Question 8.
Mr. Wilson wants to store the details of students. The details consists of different types of data. Explain different data types used in SQL to store data.
Answer:
The different data types are:

1. Char (Fixed):
It is declared as char (size). This data type is used to store alpha numeric characters. We have to specify the size. If no size is specified, by default we can store only one character. Eg: name char(20).

2. Variable Character:
It is declared as varchar (size). This data type is also used to store alpha numeric characters. But there is a slight difference.lt allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.
Eg: namevarchar(20)

3. Decimal:
It is declared as Dec(size, scale), where size is the number of digits and scale is the maximum number of digits to the right of the decimal point.
Eg: weight dec(3,2)

4. Integer:
It is declared as int. It does not have any arguments. It takes more memory.
Eg: RollNo int.

5. Small Integer:
It is declared as small int. It takes less memory RollNo int.

6. Date:
It is used to store date.
Eg: DOB date.

7. Time:
It is used to store time.
Eg: Joining_Time Time.

Question 9.
A company wants to create a table to store its employees details. Write SQL Commands for the following :

1. Create a table with EMP table having fields EMPNO primary key varchar(10), Name varchar(20), Salary number(6), Department varchar(3)
2. Insert values to table
3. List all employees whose salary > 10,000
4. Display name and salary in the order of name.

Answer:

1. Create table EMP (EMPNO varchar(10) not null primary key, Name varchar(20), Salary decimal(6), Dept varchar(3));
2. Insert into EMP values (‘1001’, ‘ALVIS’, 50000, ‘Sales’);
3. Select * from EMP where salary > 10000;
4. Select name,salary from EMP order by name;

Question 10.
Create a table ‘Savings’ with the following fields.
Acc No (Integer), Name (char), age (Integer) and balance (Number) where Acc No is the primary key. Write SQL commands for the following.

1. Insert data in all the fields for 3 records
2. Display the list of account holders in the ascending order of their names.
3. Display the list of all account holders having age between 20 and 30
4. Display the name and Acc No of customers having a balance > 10 lakhs

Answer:
Create table Savings(Accno decimal(4) not null primary key, name char(2), age decimal(3), Balance decimal(8,2));

1. Insert into savings values (501, ‘Andrea’, 18,45000)
2. Select * from Savings order by name
3. Select * from Savings where age between 20 and 30
4. Select name.accno from Savings where balance > 100000

Question 11.
Which are the components of SQL? How do they help to manage database?
Answer:
The components of SQL are given below.
DDL commands (3 commands)

• Create table: Used to create a table.
• Alter table: Used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
• Drop table: Used to remove a table from the memory.

DML commands (4 commands)

• Select: Used to select rows from a table. The keyword From is used with this. Where clause is used to secify the conition.
• Insert: Used to insert new records into a table. So the keyword used is INTO.
• Delete: Used to delete records in a table.
• Update: Used to modify the records in a table the keyword used is set.

DCL (Data Control Language) commands

• Grant: It grants permission to the users to the database
• Revoke: It withdraws user’s rights given by using Grant command.

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of marks scored by students in an examination. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all students.
3. List the details of Science group students.
4. Count the number of students in each course.
5. Add a new column named Total to store the total marks.
6. Fill the column Total with the sum of the six marks of each student.
7. Display the highest total in each group.
8. Find the highest, lowest and average score in Subject 6 in Commerce group.
9. Display the names in the alphabetical order in each course.
10. Display the name of the student with the highest total.

Answer:

1.

2.

3. mysql>select * from student1 where course = ’Science’;

4. mysql>select course,count(*) from → student1 group by course;

5. mysql>altertable student1 add(total int);

6. mysql>update studentl set total=mark1 + mark2 + mark3 + mark4 + mark5 + mark6;

7. mysql>select course,max(total) from student1 group by course;

8. mysqt>select max(mark6), min(mark6), avg(mark6) from student1;

9. mysql>select course, name from studentl order by course, name;

10. mysql>select name from studentl where total=(select max(total) from student1);

Question 2.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of items in a computer shop. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements.

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all items in the table.
3. Display the names of items and total price of each.
4. List the items manufactured by a company (specify the name) available in the table.
5. Find the number of items from each manufacturer.
6. Display the details of items with the highest price.
7. List the names of items whose price is more than the average price of all the items.
8. Display the names of items purchased after 1 -1 -2015.
9. Get the details of items manufactured by two or three companies (specify the names) available in the table.
10. Display the details of items from a company (specify the name) with a stock of more than 20 pieces.

Answer:
mysql>create table shop (ItemNo int primary key, name char(30) not null,
DOP date,
UnitPrice float(8, 2),
Qty int,
mfrer char(30));
1. mysql>insert into shop values(1,’Keyboard’, ’2014-08-21’, 300.00, 100, ’Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(2,’Mouse’, ‘2014-08-21 ’, 300.00, 100, ‘Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(3,’Speaker’,’2015-08-21’, 550.00, 100, ’I Ball’);
mysql>insert into shop values(4,’CPU’,’2015-07-21’, 3500.00, 100, ’AMD’);
mysql>insert into shop values(5,’RAM’, ‘2015-08-1’, 1300.00, 100, ’Hynix’);

2. mysql>select * from shop;

3. mysql>select name, UnitPrice*Qty from shop;

4. mysql>select name from shop where mfrer=’Tech Com’;

5. mysql>select mfrer,count(*) from shop group by mfrer;

6. mysql>select * from shop where UnitPrice = (select max(UnitPrice) from shop);

7. mysql>select name from shop where UnitPrice > (select avg(UnitPrice) from shop);

8. mysql> select “from shop where DOP>’2015-1-1’;

9. mysql> select name frogi shop where mfrer=’l Ball’ and Qty>20;

Question 3.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of higher secondary school teachers. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all female teachers in the table.
3. List the details of male teachers in the Science department.
4. Display the names and basic pay of teachers in the Language department whose basic pay is Rs. 21000/-or more.
5. Display the names and 71 % of basic pay of the teachers.
6. Find the number of teachers in each department.
7. Display the details of teachers whose basic pay is less than the average basic pay.
8. List the male teachers who joined before 1-1-2010.
9. Increment the basic pay of all teachers by Rs. 1000/-.
10. Delete the details of teachers from the Language department.

Answer:
mysql>create table hsst(Teacherld int primary key, name varchar(30) not null,
gender char,
DOJ date,
Dept varchar(15),
BP float(8, 2));
1. mysql>insert into hsst values(1 ,’Jose’,’M’, ‘2002-01-01’,’Science’, 25660);
mysql> insert into hsst values(2,’Christy’,’F’, ‘2012-01-01′,’Commerce’, 20740);
mysql>insert into hsst values(3,’Geejo George’,’M’, ‘2007-01-01’,’Humanities’, 22360);

2. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’F’;

3. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and Dept=’Science’;

4. mysql>select name, BP from hsst where dept=’Language’ and BP >21000;

5. mysql>select name, BP*.71 from hsst;

6. mysql>select Dept,count(*) from hsst group by Dept;

7. mysql>select * from hsst where BP < (select avg(BP) from hsst);

8. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and DOJ<’2010-01-01’;

9. mysql>update hsst set BP=BP+1000;

10. mysql>delete from hsst where Dept= ’Language’;

Question 4.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of customers in a bank. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of customers having SB account.
3. Display the names of customers with a balance among greater than Rs. 5000/-.
4. Display the details of female customers with a balance amount greater than Rs. 10000/-
5. Count the number of male and female customers.
6. Display the names of customers with the highest balance amount.
7. Display the names of customers whose names end with ‘kumar’.
8. Update the balance amount of a particular customer with a deposit amount of Rs. 2000/-.
9. Display the details of customers with a tax deduction of 2% of the balance amount for those who have Rs. 2,00,000/- in their account.
10. Delete the details of customers with current account.

Answer:
mysql>create table customer
AccNo int primary key,
name varchar(30),
gender char,
DOJ date,
TypeOfAcc char(8),
Balance double(10, 2));
1. mysql>insert into customer values (1001,’Adeline’,’F’,’2008-11-26’,’SB’, 50000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1002,’Aivis’.’M’,’2007-05-19’,’Current’, 500000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1003,’Andrea’,’F’,’2012-07-29’,’SB’, 450000.00);

2. mysql>select * from customer where TypeOfAcc=’SB’;

3. mysql>select name from customer where Balance>5000;

4. mysql>select name from customer where gender=’F’ and Balance>10000;

5. mysql>select gender, count(*) from customer group by gender;

6. mysql>select name from customer where Balance=(select max(Balance) from customer);

7. mysql> select name from customerwhere name like “%kumar”;

8. mysql>update customer set Balance= Balance+ 2000 where Accno= 1001;

9. mysql>select Accno.name, Balance*.02 from customerwhere Balance>=200000;

10. mysql > delete from customerwhere Type Of Acc = ‘Current’;

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Assess Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The command to remove rows from a table ‘CUSTOMER’ is: (1 Mark)
(a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER

Question 2.
If values for some columns are unknown, how is a row inserted? (2 Mark)
Answer:
In this occasion the column list must be included, following the table name.
Eg. INSERT INTO <TABLE NAME> (COLUMN NAME1, COLUMN NAME2,….) VALUES (VALUE1, VALUE2, );

Question 3.
Distinguish between CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
• Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory. It is declared as varchar(size).

Question 4.
What is the difference between PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints? (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.
• Primary key: Similar to unique but it can be used only once in a table.

The strings (i) and (iv) only

Question 5.
What do you mean by NULL value in SQL? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Null is a key word in SQL that represents an empty value.

Question 6.
Which of the following is the correct order of clauses for the SELECT statements? (1 Mark)
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY
(b) SELECT, FROM, ORDER BY, WHERE
(c) SELECT, WHERE, FROM, ORDER BY
(d) SELECT, WHERE, ORDER BY, FROM
Answer:
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY

Question 7.
The SQL operator______is used with pattern matching. (1 Mark)
Answer:
LIKE OPERATOR

Question 8.
Read the following strings : (1 Mark)
(i) ‘Sree Kumar’
(ii) ‘Kumaran’
(iii) ‘Kumar Shanu’
(iv) ‘Sreekumar’
Choose the correct option that matches with the pattern ‘%Kumar’, when used with LIKE operator in a SELECT statement.

1. Strings (i) and (ii) only
2. Strings (i), (iii) and (iv) only ,
3. Strings (i) and (iii) only
4. All the strings

Answer:

Question 9.
List any five built-in functions of SQL and the value returned by each. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Aggregate functions:

1. Sum()- find the total of a column.
2. Avg()- find the average of a column.
3. Min() – find the smallest value of a column.
4. Max() – find the largest value of the column.
5. Count() – find the number of values in a column.

Question 10.
Distinguish between WHERE clause and HAVING clause. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Where clause is used to specify the condition.
Syntax: Select * from student where roll=1;

Having clause is used with Group By to give to form groups of records, not conditions and individual rows.

Question 11.
Write any four DML commands in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:
The four DML commands are:

1. INSERT
2. UPDATE
3. SELECT
4. DELETE

Question 12.
Write the essential clause required for each of the following SQL command. (2 Mark)

1. INSERT INTO
2. SELECT
3. UPDATE

Answer:

1. INSERT INTO – VALUES
2. SELECT – FROM
3. UPDATE – SET

Question 13.
Consider the given table Customer and write the output of the following SQL queries: (5 Mark)

1. SELECT * FROM customer WHERE Amount>25000;
2. SELECT Name FROM customer
   WHERE Branch IN (‘Calicut, ‘Kannur’);
3. SELECT COUNT (*) FROM customer WHERE Amount < 20000;
4. SELECT Name FROM customer WHERE Name like “%m%”;
5. SELECT * FROM customer ORDER BY Amount DESC;

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question 14.
Distinguish between COUNT (*) and COUNT (column-name). (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Count(): find the number of non null values in a column.
• Count(*): This is used to find the number of records with at least one field.

Question 15.
Considerthe given table ITEMS. (5 Mark)

1. Suggest a suitable primary key for the above table. Give justification.
2. Write SQL statements for the following:
   • To list all stationery items.
   • To list item code, name, and profit of all items.
   • To count the number of items in each category.
   • To list all stationery items in the descending order of their unit price.
   • To find the item with the highest selling price.
   • To create a view that contains the details of all stationery items.

Answer:
1. Item code is the primary key for the table

2. SQL statements:

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

Question 16.
What are the different modifications that can be made on the structure of a table? Which is the SQL command required for this? Specify the clauses needs for each type of modification. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Alter table command is used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
We can alter the table in two ways.

• We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
• We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 17.
A table is created in SQL with 10 records. Which SQL command is used to change the values in a column of specified rows? Write the format. (2 Mark)
Answer:
UPDATE command is used for this.
Syntax : UPDATE <table name> set <column name>=value where condition.

Question 18.
Name the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of values in a column. (1 Mark)
Answer:
DISTINCT.

Question 19.
Distinguish between DISTINCT and UNIQUE in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

• DISTINCT: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table.
• Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.

Question 20.
Pick the odd one out and give reason: (1 Mark)
(a) CREATE
(b) SELECT
(c) UPDATE
(d) INSERT
Answer:
(a) CREATE, It is a DDL command the others are DML commands.

Students can Download Chapter 11 Marketing Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Marketing Management

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It begins even before production of goods and continues even after the sale has taken place. Identify it.
Answer:
Marketing

Question 2.
Modern Marketing Concept Consist of ………………………………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction

Question 3.
Main focus of production concept of marketing is: …………………………
Answer:
Quantity/number of products

Question 4.
means putting identification marks on the package.
Answer:
Labelling

Question 5.
“Mousy cola” a soft drink company used ‘Apple’ as their symbol for advertisement. They duly registered the symbol as per the Act. Identify the symbol as …………….
Answer:
Trademark

Question 6.
When a brand gets registerd and legalized it is called
(a) Branding
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Label
Answer:
(b) Trademark

Question 7.
Setting up of standards or specification of a product and maintaining these standards are ………….
Answer:
Standardisation

Question 8.
“Grand Kerala shopping festival” is concerned with which of the promotion techniques?
(a) Publicity
(b) Advertising
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(c) Sales promotion

Question 9.
During Gnam season Khadi Board declared 20% reduction on all its product. This technique is known as ……..
(a) Refund
(b) Free gift
(c) Rebate
(d) Samples
Answer:
(c) Rebate

Question 10.
Which of the following is not included in the sales promotion technique.
(a) Coupon
(b) Samples
(c) Fair and exhibition
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(d) Personal selling

Question 11.
Face to face interaction between the seller and the prospective buyer for the purpose of making a sale is …………
(a) Promotion
(b) Public Relations
(c) Personal Selling
(d) Grape – Vine Communication
Answer:
(c) Personal Selling

Question 12.
Identify four P’s in marketing mix.
Answer:

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place and
4. Promotion

Question 13.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Price, Promotion

Question 14.
Nonpersonal paid form of sales promotion technique is ………………
(Advertising, Personal Selling, Trade, Marketing)
Answer:
Advertisement

Question 15.
Nonpersonal non paid form of sales promotion technique is …………
Answer:
Publicity

Question 16.
which is not a method of publicity?
(a) News
(b) Medias
(c) Conferences
(d) Exhibitions
Answer:
(d) Exhibitions

Question 17.
Rebate, discount, free gift, etc. are the examples of …………..
Answer:
Sales promotion techniques

Question 18.
Offering more quantity than the quantity recorded in package is called …………
Answer:
Quantity gift

Question 19.
Match the following.

A	B
a) Rebate	a) Pay back the cash, if the customer is not satisfied with the product
b) Money refund	b) Sell the goods at a lesser price than the retail price
c) Discount	c) Give small quantity of product at free
d) Sample	d) Discounted price on retail price of a product

Answer:

A	B
a) Rebate	b) Sell the goods at a lesser price than the retail price
b) Money refund	a) Pay back the cash, if the customer is not satisfied with the product
c) Discount	d) Discounted price on retail price of a product
d) Sample	c) Give small quantity of product at free

Question 20.
What is meant by ‘place’ in marketing mix?
Answer:
Distribution channel, Physical distribution

Question 21.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
Publicity, Sales promotion

Question 22.
Compensation provided by the buyer to the seller is called ………………….
Answer:
Price

Question 23.
Intermediaries in channel of distribution are given below. Draw appropriate channel.
(a) Producer
(b) Agent
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
(e) Consume

1. Zero level channel
2. One level channel
3. Two level channel
4. Three level channel

Answer:

1. a → e
2. a → d → e
3. a → c → d → e
4. a → b → c → d → e

Question 24.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Warehousing, Inventory control

Question 25.
What are the different layers of packages?

Answer:

1. Primary package
2. Secondary package
3. Transportation package

Question 26.
Which is not suitable for good brand name?
(a) It is easy to read and speak.
(b) Similar to existing brand names.
(c) Can be written in various languages.
(d) It can be registered as trademark.
Answer:
(b) Similar to existing brand names

Question 27.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Trademark – Registered brand
(b) Brand name – ……………….
(c) Brand mark – ……………….
Answer:
(b) Indicate the product name
(c) Symbol or word or combination of both which indicate a product.

Question 28.
Make suitable pairs from the following.
(a) Production concept – (a) Quality products
(b) Product concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(c) Sales concept – (c) Customer satisfaction
(d) Marketing concept – (d) Maximum production
Answer:
(a) Production concept – (d) Maximum production
(b) Product concept – (a) Quality products
(c) Sales concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(d) Marketing concept – (c) Customer satisfaction

Question 29.
Differentiate the given concepts in an appropriate way.

Marketing	Selling
a) Wide concept	a) Let the seller beware
b) Satisfaction of seller	b) Product is important
c) Customer is important	c) Narrow concept
d) Let the buyer beware	d) Satisfaction of customers

Answer:

Marketing	Selling
a) Wide concept	a) Satisfaction of seller
b) Customer is important	b) Let the buyer beware
c) Let the seller beware	c) Product is important
d) Satisfaction of customers	d) Narrow concept

Question 30.
Buying a product by spending a lot of time and effort is called ………………..
Answer:
Speciality products

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘Market’.
Answer:
Market: It refers to a place where the buyers and sellers meet each other for sale and purchase of the commodity.

Question 32.
Define Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Question 33.
What do you mean by Marketing Mix?
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Question 34.
Super Bakers intended to introduce a new brand of Bread in the market. Lists out the factors to be taken into account while deciding the labelling of the product.
Answer:
Labelling means putting identification marks on the package. It is a simple tag attached to the product.
Functions of Labelling:

1. It describes the product, its usage, cautions in use, etc. and specify its contents.
2. It helps in identifying the product.
3. It helps grading the products into different categories.
4. It helps in promotion of products.
5. It provides information required by law.

Question 35.
Distinguish between advertisement and publicity.
Answer:

Advertisement	Publicity
1) It is a paid form of communication	1) It is a non-paid form of communication
2) There is an identified sponsor	2) There is no identified sponsor

Question 36.
Write a short note on

1. Consumer goods
2. Industrial goods

Answer:
1. Consumers’ products:
Products, which are purchased by the ultimate consumers for satisfying their personal needs and wants are referred to as consumer products. Consumer products are classified as:

• Shopping efforts involved
• Durability of products

2. Industrial Products:
Industrial products are those products, which are used as inputs in producing other products. The examples of such products are raw materials, engines, lubricants, machines, tools, etc.
Types of industrial products:

1. Materials and Parts – These include goods that enter the manufacture’s products completely.
2. Capital Items – These goods are used in the production of finished goods.
3. Supplies and Business Services – These are short lasting goods and services that facilitate developing or managing the finished product.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 37.
Customer is the King in the Modern concept of marketing. Explain.
Answer:
According to modem marketing concept, the producer gives more importance to the tastes and needs of the consumer. The objective of modem marketing is maximum profit through consumer satisfaction. Now a days, producers produce products according to the needs of the customers. Consumer is the key to marketing and hence consumer is the king.

Question 38.

1. What do you mean by Product Mix?
2. Explain its elements.

Answer:
1. Product:
Product may be defined as anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a want or need. Products may broadly be classified into two categories.
2. Elements:

• Consumers products
• Industrial products

Question 39.
Why Packaging is called as a silent salesman?
Answer:
Packaging is called as a silent salesman because attractive packing encourages people to buy a product just like a salesman.

Question 40.
Explain promotion mix.
Answer:
Promotion Mix:
Promotion mix refers to combination of promotional tools such as Advertising, Personal Selling, Sales Promotion, and Publicity used by an organisation to achieve its communication objectives.

Question 41.

1. What do you mean by Public Relation?
2. State any three features of public relations.

Answer:
1. Public Relation:
It can be defined as publicity through media. The basic purpose of public relation is to create successful relation with the public. It helps to keep different public group satisfied. In order to create public image, the public relation department uses various tools such as.

2. Features of public relations:

• News
• Speeches
• Events
• Written materials
• Public service activities, etc.

Question 42.
‘‘Marketing Mix represents a blending of decisions in four interrelated elements.” Explain.
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 43.
In a classroom debate ‘Smitha’ argues that marketing and selling are same. But ‘Sujith’ argues that marketing and selling are different.

1. Whose argument is relevant?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sujith’s argument is correct.
2. Marketing and selling are different. The differences between marketing and selling are

Marketing	Selling
Marketing is a wider term consisting of number of activities.	It is a narrow concept.
It is concerned with product planning and development.	It is concerned with sale of goods already produced.
It focuses on maximum satisfaction of the customer.	It focuses on the maximum satisfaction of the sellers through the exchange of products.
It aims at profits through consumer satisfaction.	It aims at maximum profit through maximisation of sales.
Marketing begins before actual production.	Selling takes place after the production.
It is customer oriented. Customer is important.	It is product oriented. Product is more important.
The principle of “let the seller beware” is followed,	The principle of “let the buyer” beware is followed.

Question 44.
There are four elements which constitute the core of a marketing system.

1. Suggest a suitable term to describe those elements.
2. Explain any three elements.

Answer:
1. Marketing mix
2. Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 45.
“It rightly says that packaging works as silent salesman”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Packaging is the process of enclosing a product in containers, bottles, boxes, plastic bags, tubes, etc. Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc. while goods in transit or storing in warehouses.

Functions of packaging:

• Packaging helps in identification of the products.
• Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc.
• It facilitates easy transfer of goods to customers.
• Packaging provides convenience in the storage of the product.
• It attracts the consumers to purchase the product.

Question 46.
These are various channel levels which help in the proper distribution of goods from the producers to the consumers. Identify the channel levels.
Answer:
Types of Channels:

1. Direct channel (Zero level): Producer → Consumer
2. One level channel: Producer → Retailer → Consumer
3. Two level channel: Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer
4. Three level channel: Producer → Agent → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer

Question 47.

1. What do you mean by Physical distribution?
2. Explain its components.

Answer:
1. Physical Distribution:
Physical distribution covers all the activities required to physically move goods from manufacturers to the customers.

2. Components of Physical Distribution:

• Order Processing
• Transportation
• Warehousing
• Inventory Control

Question 48.
What are the features of Salesmanship?
Answer:
Personal Selling:
Personal selling involves face to face contact between the seller and prospective customer with an intension of selling some products. It is a personal form of communication.

Features of Personal Selling:

1. It is a direct presentation of the product to the consumers.
2. Develop personal relationships with the prospective customers.
3. The sales presentation can be adjusted according to the specific needs of the individual customers.
4. It is possible to take a direct feedback from the customer.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 49.
Explain different concepts of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing Concepts:
1. The Production Concept:
This concept believed that profits could be maximised by producing at large scale, thereby reducing the cost of production. Here greater emphasis was given on improving the production and distribution.

2. The Product Concept:
According to this concept quality of the product is more important than quantity. Product improvement became the key to profit maximisation of a firm, under the concept of product orientation.

3. The Selling Concept:
This concept focuses on the sale of products through aggressive selling and promotional techniques to persuade the buyers to buy the products.

4. The Marketing Concept:
Marketing concept implies that focus on the satisfaction of customer’s needs is the key to the success of any organisation in the market. Customer’s satisfaction becomes the focal point of all decision making in the organisation.

5. The Societal Marketing Concept:
This concept stresses not only the customer satisfaction but also gives importance to the welfare of the society.

Question 50.
Following are the statements pertaining to functions performed in marketing. Identify the function of marketing from each statement.

1. Physical movement of goods from one place to another.
2. Holding goods from the time of production till the time of their sale.
3. Collection and analysis of relevant facts to solve marketing problems.
4. This includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity.
5. Separating products into different classes on the basis of certain predetermined standards.

Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Warehousing
3. Marketing research
4. Sales Promotion
5. Grading

Question 51.
Give any 6 advantages of branding
Answer:
Advantages of branding:
1. Advantages to the Firm

• Branding helps a firm in distinguishing its product from that of its competitors.
• It helps in advertising and display Programmes.
• Branding enables a firm to charge competitive price for its products than that charged by its competitors.
• It helps in Introduction of new product in the market.

2. Advantages to Customers

• Branding helps the customers in identifying the products.
• Branding ensures a particular level of quality of the product.
• Some brands become status symbols because of their quality. It creates a feeling of proud and satisfaction in the consumers.

Question 52.
Explain the difference between Personal selling and Advertising.
Answer:
Difference between Personal Selling and Advertising

Advertising	Personal Selling
It is an impersonal form of communication.	It is a personal form of communication.
It is inflexible.	It is highly flexible.
Same message is sent to all the customers in a market segment.	The sales talk is adjusted according to the customer’s background and needs.
Advertising lacks direct feedback.	Personal selling provides direct and immediate feedback.
The cost per person is very low.	The cost per person is very high

Question 53.
List down the difference between Marketing and Selling.
Answer:

Marketing	Selling
Marketing is a wider term consisting of number of activities.	It is a narrow concept.
It is concerned with product planning and development.	It is concerned with sale of goods already produced.
It focuses on maximum satisfaction of the customer.	It focuses on the maximum satisfaction of the sellers through the exchange of products.
It aims at profits through consumer satisfaction.	It aims at maximum profit through maximisation of sales.
Marketing begins before actual production.	Selling takes place after the production.
It is customer oriented. Customer is important.	It is product oriented. Product is more important.
The principle of “let the seller beware” is followed,	The principle of “let the buyer” beware is followed.

Question 54.
What are the factors affecting price of a product?
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government underthe Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Question 55.
What are the limitations of advertising?
Answer:
Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Question 56.
“Marketing Mix means a firm’s total marketing programme”.

1. Discuss the components that you would consider while finalizing marketing mix of an organisation.
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:
1. Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

2. Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 57.
Jyoythi Ltd., a manufacturer of leather bag, has decided to undertake production of leather shoes. As a sample, they produced one model of ladies shoe. Suppose you are the marketing manager of the company and are entrusted with the task of fixing the. price for the shoes. What are the factors to be considered by you while fixing the price of this new pair of shoes.
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government under the Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 58.
“The present day marketing is customer oriented . rather than product oriented”. Explain the statement bringing out clearly the nature and objectives of marketing management.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Functions of Marketing:
1. Marketing Research:
Marketing Research is a process of collecting and analysing market information to identify the needs and wants of the customers.

2. Marketing Planning:
Another function of marketing is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.

3. Product Designing and Development:
The products are designed and developed according to the needs and wants of the consumers. It requires decision making on various aspects such as the product to be manufactured, its packing, selling price, quality of the product, etc.

4. Standardisation and Grading:
Standardisation refers to producing goods of predetermined specifications. Grading is the process of classification of products into different groups, on the basis of quality, size, etc.

5. Packaging and Labelling:
Packaging refers to designing and developing the package for the products. Packaging gives protection to goods. Also it attracts the consumers to buy the product. Labelling refers to designing and developing the label to be put on the package.

6. Branding:
A brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, design or some combination of them, used to identify the products of one seller and to differentiate them from those of the competitors.

7. Customer Support Services:
An important function of the marketing management is to develop customer support services such as after sales services, handling customer complaints, etc. which provides maximum satisfaction to the customers.

8. Pricing:
Price of a product refers to the amount of money which customers have to pay to obtain a product. Price is an important factor affecting the success or failure of a product in the market. Price is fixed after taking into account the cost of production, desired profit, competitor’s price, govt, policy, etc.

9. Promotion:
Promotion of products and services involves informing the customers about the firm’s product, its features, etc. and persuading them to purchase these products. It includes Advertising, Personal Selling, Publicity and Sales Promotion.

10. Physical Distribution:
It includes decision regarding channels of distribution and physical movement of the product from the production centre to the consumption centre.

11. Transportation:
Transportation involves physical movement of goods from one place to another. It removes the hindrance of place and creates time utility.

12. Storage or Warehousing:
In order to maintain smooth flow of products in the market, there is a need for proper storage of the products. It stabilizes the prices of products and keep the product without damage until they are sold.

Question 59.
The manager of Impact Enterprises dealing in cosmetics is facing the problem, of poor sales. Suggest and explain the important promotional measures that he can undertake to improve the sales.
Answer:
Techniques of Sales Promotion:

1. Rebate: Offering products at special prices, to clear off excess inventory.
2. Discount: Offering products at less than maximum retail price.
3. Refund: The seller offers to refund a part of the price paid by the customer on production of some proof of purchase.
4. Free gifts: Offering another product as gift along with the purchase of a product.
5. Quantity Gift: Offering extra quantity of the product.
6. Contests: Prize contests are organized for the consumers and winners are given attractive prizes.
7. Money refund: There are certain manufacturers who promise to refund the price of the product, if it does not satisfy the consumer.
8. Samples: Offer of free samples of a product to customers at the time of introduction of a new product.

Question 60.
“Money spent on advertising is wasteful”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer:
Merits of Advertising:
1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders:

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.
3. Advertisement helps to increase the sales of new and existing products.
4. It helps to increase the goodwill of the firm.
5. It helps to face the competition in the market.
6. It increases profit of the firm through large sales.

2. Advantages to Consumers:

• It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
• Consumers can purchase the better products easily.
• It helps in maintaining high standard of living.
• It educates the consumers about the various uses of products.

3. Advantages to the Society:

1. Advertisement helps to create more employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.
3. It is a source of encouragement to artists.
4. It plays an important role in economic development of the country.
5. It reduces number of middlemen and consumers get quality products at lower cost.

Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to mono poly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The process of removing an adsorbed substance from a surface on which it is adsorbed is called ___________.
Answer:
desorption

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Physical adsorption of a gas is directly related to its critical temperature.
(b) Chemical adsorption decreases regularly as the temperature is increased.
(c) Adsorption is an exothermic process.
(d) A solid with a rough surface is a better adsorbent than the same solid with a smooth surface.
Answer:
(c) Adsorption is an exothermic process.

Question 3.
The substances that enhance the activity of a catalyst are called _____________.
Answer:
promoters

Question 4.
The enzyme present in malt which converts starch to maltose is ____________.
Answer:
diastase

Question 5.
The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called ________________.
Answer:
electrophoresis

Question 6.
Hair cream is an example of ____________.
Answer:
Emulsion

Question 7.
Gold solution can be prepared by
Answer:
Reduction of gold (III) Chloride with formalin/ Bredig’s method

Question 8.
The correct ascending order of adsorption of the fol-lowing gases on the same mass of charcoal at the same temperature and pressure is
(a) CH₄ < H₂ < SO₂
(b) H₂ < CH₄ < SO₂
(c) SO₂ < CH₄ < H₂
(d) H₂ < SO₂ < CH₄
Answer:
(b) H₂ < CH₄ < SO₂

Question 9.
In the adsorption of a gas on solid, Freundlich iso-therm is obeyed. The slope of the plot is zero. Then the extent of adsorption is _________.
Answer:
Independent of pressure.

Question 10.
Adsorption is accompanied by _______ in enthalpy and _______ in entropy.
Answer:
decrease, decrease.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:

Question 2.
Some facts related to adsorption are given below. Classify them into those suitable for Physisorption and Chemisorption.

1. Weak attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
2. Strong attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
3. Reversible process.
4. Irreversible process.
5. Multilayers are formed.
6. Monolayer is formed.
7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol
8. Heat of adsorption is 40-400 kJ/mol

Answer:

Physical adsorption	Chemical adsorption
1. Weak attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.	2. Strong attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
3. Reversible process.	4. Irreversible process.
5. Multilayers are formed.	6. Monolayer is formed.
7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol.	7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol.

Question 3.
What is the influence of temperature in physical and chemical adsorption? Explain it with the help of a graph.
Answer:
In the case of physical adsorption, rate of adsorption x/m is inversely proportional to temperature.

In the case chemical adsorption, rate of adsorption intially increases with increase in temperature, reaches a maximum value and thereafter decreases with increase in temperature.

Question 4.
‘Activity’ and ‘Selectivity’ are two terms related to solid catalysts. Distinguish between these two terms with proper illustrations.
Answer:

• Activity – It is ability of the catalyst to give the product easily.
• Selectivity – It is the ability of a catalyst to direct to yield a particular product, e.g. starting with H₂ and CO, and using different catalysts, we get different products.

Question 5.
Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.
Answer:
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Since finely divided substance has large surface area, hence, adsorption occurs to a greater extent.

Question 6.
What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Answer:
Activation of adsorbent increases the adsorption power of the adsorbent. By increasing the surface area of the adsorbent,

1. Removing the gases already adsorbed and
2. Making the surface of adsorbent rough.

Question 7.
What role does adsorption play in heterogeneous catalysis?
Answer:
In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactants are generally gases whereas catalyst is a solid. The reactant molecules are adsorbed on the surface of the solid catalyst. As a result, the concentration of the reactant molecules on the surface increases and hence the rate of reaction increases.

Question 8.
Write notes on the Brownian movement and Tyndall effect.
Answer:
1. Brownian movement:

• zig-zag movement of colloidal particles.

2. Tyndal effect:

• Scattering of light by colloidal particles which illuminates the path of beam in the colloidal dispersion.

Question 9.
Gas mask is used in coal mines. Why? What is the principle behind it?
Answer:
In order to adsorb poisonous gases. The principle involved is adsorption.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Colloids can be converted into precipitates on the addition of electrolytes.

1. Name the above phenomenon.
2. What do you mean by coagulating value?

Answer:

1. Coagulation.
2. The minimum concentration of an electrolyte in millimoles per liter required to cause precipitation of a sol in two hours is called coagulating value.

Question 2.
Observe the given figure.

1. Is there any mistake in the figure?
2. If a high potential is applied between the upper ends of the wire what will be the result?

Answer:

1. Yes, In this figure, the lower ends of the electrodes immersed in water are touching each other.
2. If a high potential is applied between the upper ends of the wire, the circuit will be complete. There will be no colloid formation.

Question 3.
Name the method of preparation in which the following examples are involved.

1. AS₂O₃ + 3H₂S → AS₂S₃ + 3H₂O
2. SO₂ + 2H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O
3. FeCl₃ + 3H₂O → Fe(OH)₃ + 3HCl

Answer:

1. Double decomposition
2. Oxidation
3. Hydrolysis

Question 4.
Emulsions are liquid-liquid colloidal systems.

1. What are the two types of emulsions?
2. Explain the difference between milk and butter.

Answer:

1. It is a colloidal form in which liquid is dispersed in liquid.
2. Milk is an oil in water type emulsion and butter is a water in oil type emulsion.

Question 5.
In a debate a student argued that “Colloid is neither a true solution nor a suspension.”

1. Do you agree with this argument?
2. List the properties of colloids.

Answer:
1. Yes
2. properties of colloids:

• Colligative properties
• Mechanical properties
• Optical properties
• Electrical properties

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 7.
Complete the following:

1. Lyophilic sol – starch; Lyophobic sol …………..
2. Deltas are formed where rivers and seawater meets. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.

Answer:

1. Lyophobic sol – gold sol (or any other correct example).
2. Yes. River water is a colloid of clay. Seawater contains a number of electrolytes. When river water meets the seawater, the electrolytes present in seawater coagulate the colloid of clay resulting in its deposition with the formation of delta.

Question 8.

1. Arrange the following electrolytes in the increasing order of coagulating power for the coagulation of Fe(OH)₃sol.
   Na₃(PO₄)₂, NaCl, K₄[Fe(CN)₆], CaSO₄
   
2. Name the underlying principle.

Answer:

1. NaCl < CaSO₄ < Na₃(PO₄) < K₄[Fe(CN)₆.
2. Hardy-Schulze rule.

Question 9.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids differ from these two types of colloids?
Answer:
Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation of a large number of small atoms/molecules. The aggregates thus formed have size in the colloidal range, e.g. Gold sol.

Macromolecular colloids contain large size molecules which have the dimensions of colloids, e.g. Starch. Associated colloids behave as electrolytes at low concentration but exhibit colloidal behaviour at higher concentration, e.g. Soap.

Question 10.
Explain what is observed

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol?
2. An electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol?
3. Electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Answer:

1. Scattering of light by the colloidal particles takes place and the path of light become illuminated. This is called Tyndall effect.
2. The positively charged colloidal particles of Fe(OH)₃ sol get coagulated by the oppositely charged ion provided by the electrolyte.
3. On passing direct current, colloidal particles move towards the oppositely charged electrode where they lose their charge and get coagulated.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A graph wrongly plotted between temperature and rate of adsorption for chemical adsorption is given below:

a. Draw it correctly.
b. Draw the graph of rate of adsorption and temperature for physical process.
c. Write three or four factors influencing the adsorption of a gas on a solid.
Answer:

c. Three or four factors influencing the adsorption of a gas on a solid

• Nature of adsorbent
• Nature of adsorbate
• Temperature
• Pressure

Question 2.
Gold sol is to be prepared from rods of gold.

1. Which method do you suggest?
2. Explain.
3. Distinguish between sol and gel with suitable examples for each.

Answer:
1. Electrical disintegration method – Bredig’s Arc Method.

2. An electric arc is struck between electrodes of the metal immersed in dispersion medium. The heat produced vapourises the metal which then condenses to form colloids.

3. Difference between sol and gel with suitable examples:

• Sol – Colloids in which dispersed phase is solid and dispersion medium is liquid, e.g. Paints, Cell fluids.
• Gel – Colloids in which dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is solid, e.g. Cheese, Butter.

Question 3.
For a question, ‘What is emulsion? a student wrote ‘It is a colloidal form in which a liquid is dispersed in solid.

1. Is it correct?
2. What do you mean by emulsion?
3. How can we increase the stability of an emulsion?

Answer:

1. No.
2. It is a colloidal form in which a liquid is dispersed in another liquid.
3. Stability of emulsion can be increased by using emulsifying agents (certain substances like proteins, gums, soaps, detergents, lampblack, etc.)

Question 4.
Analyse the following statements:
Statement 1: Negatively charged Arsenic sulphide can be effectively precipitated using Al³⁺ ion than Na⁺ ion.
Statement 2: There is no difference in the precipitation of arsenic sulphide by Al³⁺ ion and Na⁺ ion.

1. Which statement is correct? Justify.
2. Name the law behind your opinion.
3. State the law.

Answer:

1. Statement 1. Precipitating power of an ion is directly proportional to its valency.
2. Hardy-Schulze rule.
3. A colloid can be precipitated by an ion having opposite charge to that of the colloid. Greaterthe valency of coagulating ion added greater its power to precipitate.
   eg: AI³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > SO₄^2- > Na⁺ > PO₃⁺ > Cl^–

Question 5.
What is observed in the following situations?

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloid.
2. When an electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric hydroxide sol.

Answer:

1. Tyndall cone is observed due to Tyndall effect. Scattering of light by colloidal particles is called Tyndall effect.
2. The coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol is observed. This is in accordance with Hardy-Schulze rule.

Question 6.
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon.

1. Give an example for adsorption.
2. Name the following plot. What do x/m and P_s stands for?

Answer:

1. Adsorption of Cl₂ on charcoal.
2. Freundlich adsorption isotherm, x/m represents rate of adsorption (‘x’ is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass ‘m’ of the adsorbent) and P_s is the pressure at which maximum adsorption takes place (saturation pressure).

Question 7.
Explain the following terms:

1. Peptization
2. Electrophoresis

Answer:

1. Peptization – It is the process of converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution.
2. Electrophoresis – The migration of colloidal particles, under the influence of an electric field is called electrophoresis.

Question 8.

1. Define the terms ‘Kraft temperature’ and ‘Critical micelle concentration’.
2. Explain the cleansing action of soap.

Answer:
1. Kraft temperature (T_k) – The temperature above which micelle formation occurs. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) – The concentration above which micelle formation occurs.

2. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids. At a particular concentration the soap molecules will rearrange in such a way that its polar end is towards water and non-polar end towards oil.

These molecules aggregate to form ionic micelles around the oil/dirt particles. Since the polar groups can interact with water, the micelles are pulled in water and are removed from the dirty surface. Thus soap helps in emulsification and washing away of oils and fats.

Question 9.
Colloid of gold is prepared by striking an electric arc between gold electrodes kept in water.

1. What is this method known as? Why is it regarded as a dispersion method?
2. What is the charge of gold sol? How do particles acquire this charge?

Answer:
1. Bredig’s arc method. This process involves dispersion as well as condensation. When an electric arc is struck between the metal electrodes immersed in the dispersion medium, due to the intense heat produced the metal gets dispersed by vapourisation which then condenses to form particles of colloidal size.

2. Negative change. Due to electron capture by gold sol particles during electrodispersion of gold.

Question 10.
When excess of an electrolyte is added, the colloidal particles are precipitated.

1. Give the reason for precipitation.
2. Arrange the following ions in the increasing order of the flocculating power in coagulation of negative sol. K⁺, Ca²⁺, Fe³⁺

Answer:
1.  A colloid can be precipitated by an ion having opposite charge to that of the colloid. Greater the valency of coagulating ion added greater its power to precipitate.
eg: Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > SO₄^2- > Na⁺ > PO₃⁺ > Cl^–

2. K⁺ < Ca²⁺ < Fe³⁺

3. These are arranged based on Hardy-Shulze rule.

Question 11.
Many food items are colloids in one form or the other.

1. To which category of colloids does cheese belongs?
2. Explain how sols are classified depending upon the nature of the interaction between the dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Give suitable examples.

Answer:

1. Cheese belongs to gel (Liquid in solid type colloid).
2. Based on the nature of interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium sols are divided into two categories:

a. Lyophilic colloids:
These are solvent-loving colloidal sols which are directly formed by mixing the dispersed phase with the dispersion medium. These are reversible, quite stable and cannot be easily coagulated, e.g. gum, gelatine, starch, rubber.

b. Lyophobic colloids:
These are solvent-hating sols which can be prepared only by special methods. These are irreversible, not stable and are easily coagulated on addition of small amounts of electrolytes. e.g. sols of metals and their sulphides.

Question 12.
Anhydrous CaCl₂ and silica gel differ in their behaviour towards moisture.

1. Identify the phenomenon taking place in both cases.
2. How is adsorption affected with pressure? Explain.

Answer:
1. Anhydrous CaCl₂ absorbs moisture. The phenomenon is absorption. Silica gel absorbs moisture. The phenomenon is adsorption.
2. The rate of adsorption increases with increase in pressure. Freudlich’s adsorption expression is given by
as \(\frac{x}{m}\) = kp^1/n (n > 1)
The graphical representation is,

At high pressure rate of adsorption attains a maximum value and after that pressure is having no influence. At low pressure, rate of adsorption is directly proportional to the pressure.

Question 13.
Gelatin in icecream prevents the formation of large crystals of ice.

1. What is the role of gelatin here?
2. Justify the property of gelatin here as lyophilic colloid.

Answer:
1. Gelatin acts as a protective colloid.

2. Gelatin is a lyophilic (liquid loving) colloid and can act as a protective colloid. The colloid can be formed by simply mixing gelatin with ice cream. Also, it is very stable and difficult to get coagulated. Here gelatin forms a layer around the particles of ice cream and prevent the later from forming large crystals.

Question 14.
Milk is a colloid.

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. What is the difference between dispersed phase and dispersion medium?
3. What do you mean by lyophilic colloid?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. The medium in which dispersion takes place is called dispersion medium and the substance which undergo dispersion is called dispersed phase.
3. If there is strong attractive force between the dispersed phase and dispersed medium that colloid is called lyophilic colloid.

Question 15.
Many industrial processes use catalysts.

1. What are catalysts?
2. What do you mean by the terms ‘promoters’ and, ‘poisons’ in catalysis?
3. Suggest an example for a catalytic promoter.

Answer:

1. Catalysts are substances, which alter the rate of a chemical reaction and themselves remain unchanged.
2. Promoters are substances that enhance the activity of a catalyst. Catalytic poisons are substances which decrease the activity of a catalyst.
3. In Haber’s process for manufacture of ammonia, molybdenum (Mo) acts as a promoter for iron catalyst.

Question 16.

1. Classify the above reactions into Homogeneous and Heterogeneous catalysis.
2. What is shape-selective catalysis?

Answer:

1. (1) and (2) are heterogeneous catalysis and (3) is homogeneous catalysis.
2. The catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore structure of the catalyst and the size of the reactant and product molecules is called shape-selective catalysis.

Zeolites are good shape-selective catalysts because of their honeycomb-like structure. The reactions taking place in zeolites depend upon the size and shape of reactant and product molecules as well as upon the pores and cavities of the zeolites.

Question 17.
You are supplied with the following chemicals NaCl, BaCl₂, AlCl₃.

1. Which of these would you prefer most to coagulate a sample of As₂S₃ sol?
2. Arrange the following electrolytes in the increasing order of coagulating power.
   NaCl, BaCl₂, AlCl₃
3. Name and state the rule based on which you have arrived at the coagulating power of these substances.

Answer:

1. AlCl₃
2. NaCl < BaCl₂ < AlCl₃
3. Hardy – Schulze rule. It states that greater the valence of the flocculating ion greater is its power to cause precipitation.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.
Answer:
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Since finely divided substance has large surface area, hence, adsorption occurs to a greater extent.

Question 2.
What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Answer:
Activation of adsorbent implies increase in the adsorption power of the adsorbent. It involves increase in the surface area of the adsorbent and is achieved by the following methods:

• by finely dividing the adsorbent into small grains.
• by removing the gases already adsorbed.
• by making the surface of adsorbent rough by chemical or mechanical methods.

Question 3.
What role does adsorption play in heterogeneous catalysis?
Answer:
In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactants are generally gases whereas catalyst is a solid. The reactant molecules are adsorbed on the surface of the solid catalyst by physisorption or chemisorption. As a result, the concentration of the reactant molecules on the surface increases and hence the rate of reaction increases.

Alternatively, one of the reactant molecules undergo fragmentation on the surface of the solid catalyst producing active species which react faster. The product molecules in either case have no affinity for the solid catalyst and are desorbed making the surface free for fresh adsorption. This theory is called adsorption theory.

Question 4.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids?
Answer:
Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation of a large number of small atoms/molecules. The aggregates thus formed have size in the colloidal range, e.g. Gold sol.

Macromolecular colloids contain large size molecules which have the dimensions of colloids, e.g. Starch. Associated colloids are formed by surface active molecules having polar as well as non-polar ends.

They behave as electrolytes at low concentration but beyound critical micelle concentration and above the Kraft temperature, they associate together to form ionic micelles whose size lies in the colloidal range, e.g. Soap.

Question 5.
Explain what is observed

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol?
2. An electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol?
3. Electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Answer:

1. Scattering of light by the colloidal particles takes place and the path of light become illuminated. This is called Tyndall effect.
2. The positively charged colloidal particles of Fe(OH)₃ sol get coagulated by the oppositely charged ion provided by the electrolyte.
3. On passing direct current, colloidal particles move towards the oppositely charged electrode where they lose their charge and get coagulated.