Class 6

To reduce exam fear, Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 2 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2

Times : 2 hours 15 minutes
Total Score: 60

Instructions:

1. 15 minutes cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
2. Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
A) The symptoms found in some children who participated in the medical camp are given below.
Child 1 -Paleness
Child 2 -Low vision in dim light
Child 3-Wound in mouth
Child 4 -Swelling in the throat

Observe the symptoms of diseases of children mentioned above. Complete the table which shows deficiency diseases and deficient nutrients in each child.

Child 1	Deficiency diseases	Nutrient
	Anaemia	Iron
Child 2
Child 3
Child 4

Answer:

Child 1	Deficiency diseases	Nutrient
	Anaemia	Iron
Child 2	Night blindness	Vitamin A
Child 3	Mouth sores (mouth ulcer)	Vitamin B
Child 4	Goitre	Iodine

B) Write the food items to be included in the diet of a child suffering from night blindness.
Answer:
A child suffering from night blindness should include food items rich in vitamin A, like fish, leafy
vegetables, egg, milk products, amaranthus, moringa leaves, carrots, etc., in their diet.

C) Understand the statement given below and choose the correct reasons.
Statement: Providing iron tablets to children is essential.
Reason: (i) Iron is essential for the proper growth and health of the body.
(ii) To avoid iron deficiency diseases like anaemia.
(iii) To provide fat to body
(iv) It provides fibre to body

Options:
a) (i) Only.
b) (iii) and (iv) only
c) (i) and (ii) only
d) All are correct
Answer:
c) (i) and (ii) only

Question 2.
Observe the pictures.

A) Identify and write what type of cells A and B are.
Answer:
A – Animal cell,
B – Plant cell

B) Identify and name of parts i, ii, and iii.
Answer:
(i) – Nucleus,
(ii) – Cytoplasm,
(iii) – Vacuole

C) What is the function of the cell membrane and vacuole in these cells?
Answer:
Cell membrane – covers the cell, Vacuole – stores water, salts, and waste products.

Question 3.
A) What are the like and unlike poles of magnets?
Answer:
The same poles of different magnets are called like poles, and their different poles are called unlike poles.

B) (i) The picture in which two bar magnets are arranged in different ways is given in the first column.
Analyse the picture and fill in the other columns.

(ii) What feature of the poles helped the table analysis?
Answer:
i)

ii) Like poles of a magnet repel and unlike poles of a magnet attracts.

C) Analyse the given statement and reason and select the correct option.
Statement: When a magnet is broken into pieces, each piece still has two poles.
Reason: A Magnet with single pole does not exist.
a) The statement and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the statement.
b) The statement and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the statement.
c) The statement is true, but the reason is false.
d) The statement is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
The statement and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the statement.

Question 4 contains two parts 4 (A) and 4 (B). Write any one from 4 (A) or 4 (B) completely.

Question 4.
A. Observe the picture

Some activities that take place while riding a bicycle are given below,
i) Pedalling
ii) Applying the brake
iii) Turning the handle
A. How does the force affect the motion in each situation?
Answer:
i) Pedalling – Increases speed
ii) Applying the brake – stops movement
iii) Tuming the handle – changes the direction

B. The teacher said that the sound heard when the children put their ears to each other’s chest was the movement of the heart.
Write two other movements that occur in your body.

Answer:
Movement of eyeballs, Movement of arms

C. Which is the odd one in group?
i) A ball thrown against the wall bounces back.
ii) Increases the speed of the running bus.
iii) A vehicle moving forward reverses backward.
iv) Hits a bowled ball with the cricket bat
Answer:
ii. Increases the speed of the running bus.

OR
B. Observe the following motions.

A. Which of them resemble the different motions of pencil when
a) Sharpening a pencil with a sharpener.
b) Draw a circle with a pencil fixed in a compass.
c) Draw a straight line using a pencil and scale.
Answer:
a) – (2)
b) – (1), (4), (6)
c) – (3), (5)

B. What is the common feature of the motion in a), b) and c)
Answer:
In a)- Motion is about its own fixed axis
In b) -Motion is in a circular path
In c) -Motion is along a straight line

C. Some examples are given below. Choose the ones related to oscillatory motion
(i) Swirling a stone tied at end of a rope
(ii) Movement of pendulum of a pendulum clock
(iii) Motion of a child on a swing
(iv) Satellites orbiting round the Earth.
Options
a) (i) only
b) (ii), (iv) only
c) (iii) only
d) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer:
d) (ii) and (iii) only

Question 5.
Look at the habits of two children.

A. Statement related to benefits of sleep at night is given.
(i) Breathing, heartbeat and digestion slow down, helping the body recover.
(ii) Body gets proper rest
(iii) Muscles rest
(iv) Damaged cells repair themselves.

Choose the correct option
a) (i) and (ii) only
b) All correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
d) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer:
b) All correct

B. What are the health issues caused by excessive use of mobile phones?
Answer:
• Insufficient sleep
• Vision problems
• Body weight gain
• Loss of appetite

C. Name the sleep hormone?
Answer:
Melatonin

D. Sleeping during the day is not a compensation for the loss of sleep at night. Why?
Answer:
The body produces melatonin (the sleep hormone) only at night in darkness. Melatonin production drops in the morning due to light, which wakes us up. Daytime sleep does not give the same deep rest as night sleep.

Question 6 contains two parts 6(A) and 6(B). Write any one from 6(A) or 6(B) completely.

Question 6.
A. Observe the illustration related to the change of state of water.

a) Complete the illustration suitably.
Answer:
a) ii) Releases heat
iii) Releases Heat
iv) Absorbs heat

b) The state of water having least heat energy.
Answer:
Ice

c) Why food items can cook easily in steam than in boiled water?
Answer:
The state of water that has more heat energy than other states is Steam. So food items can cook easily in steam.

OR
B. Science Fest is taking place at Anu’s School. Look at the materials collected for an experiment related to the changes of substances.
Wax, sugar, spirit lamp, salt, spoon, boiling tube, stand, water, beaker, test tube holder, wire gauze
A) Choose materials from the box to show chemical change and design an experiment.
Answer:
Materials required: Sugar, Spirit lamp, Spoon, Boiling tube, Test tube holder.
Experiment: Place a small amount of sugar in a spoon. Hold the spoon with the test tube holder. Carefully heat the spoon with the sugar using the spirit lamp. As you heat the sugar, observe any changes in colour, odour, or formation of gas.

Observation:

1. The sugar will melt when heated.
2. A brown or black-coloured liquid will form as the sugar decomposes.
3. You might get a caramel-like odour.

B) Write two conclusions of this experiment.
Answer:
This experiment demonstrates a chemical change because:

1. New substances are formed (brown liquid) from the original sugar .
2. The physical properties (colour, odour) of the starting materials differ from the final product.
3. This is a permanent change.

Basic Science in Class 6 introduces students to fundamental ideas in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. The curriculum designed by the Kerala Board of Public Examinations encourages students to explore scientific concepts through observation and understanding. Students use Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Question Papers and Answers for practice.

Class 6 Basic Science Annual Exam Question Paper English Medium

Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Pdf English Medium are useful for students who want to prepare systematically for their exams. By solving these Class 6 Basic Science Annual Exam Question Paper English Medium, students can understand the pattern of questions and learn how to write clear answers for theory-based questions.

Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Pdf English Medium

• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 5

Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Pdf Malayalam Medium

• Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Set 1 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Set 2 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Set 3 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Set 4 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Set 5 Malayalam Medium

Std 6 Basic Science Annual Exam Question Paper English Medium provide valuable insight into important chapters and topics. Basic Science Class 6 Annual Exam Question Paper also help students recognize commonly asked questions from earlier exams.

The 6th Standard Basic Science Question Paper often includes short explanations, definitions, and diagram-related questions. Students should read each chapter carefully and revise important points before attempting practice papers.

Regular practice of Basic Science Class 6 Question Paper English Medium makes it easier to understand scientific concepts and answer questions confidently during exams.

To reduce exam fear, Class 6 Basic Science Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Set 1 provide good practice.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Basic Science Model Question Paper Set 1

Times : 2 hours 15 minutes
Total Score: 60

Instructions:

1. 15-minute cool-off time is allotted for reading and understanding the activities.
2. Answer any six questions.

Question 1.
Observe the fruits given below

a) Which fruit is grown from a single flower?
Answer:
Custard apple develops from a single flower with many ovaries → aggregate fruit.

b) Understand the statement given below and choose the correct reason.
Statement: Apple, cashew and strawberry are called pseudo-fruits.
Reason:
i) In pseudo-fruits, parts of the flower other than the ovary take part in fruit formation.
ii) In all fruits, only the ovary develops into the fruit.
iii) In cashew, the pedicel develops into the fruit-like structure.
iv) In apples and strawberries, the thalamus grows and becomes the fruit.

A. Only i is correct.
B. Only iii is correct.
C. i, iii and iv correct.
D. i and iv are correct.
Answer:
C. i, iii and iv correct.

c) Classify the following fruits based on their features. Write the names of the group.

Mango, Guava, Apple, Custard apple, Strawberry, Cashew

Answer:

Simple fruit	Aggregate fruit	Pseudo fruit
Mango	Custard apple	Cashew
Guava	Strawberry	Apple

Question 2.
a) Arrangement of molecules in solids, liquids and gases is shown below. Identify the states A, B and C.

Answer:
A: liquid state,
B: gaseous state,
C: solid state

b) Gases can spread fast. Why?
Answer:
Gases have a lot of space between the molecules and do not have a strong force of attraction between them. They can move quickly in all directions. Hence, gases can spread fast.

c) 4 statements related to states of matter are given below. Which are the correct statements?
i) Solids have a definite shape and definite volume.
ii) Liquids have a definite shape but no definite volume.
iii) Gases can be easily compressed.
iv) Particles in gases are closely packed with strong forces of attraction.
Options:
A. Statements i and iii are correct.
B. Statements ii and iv are correct.
C. Statements i and ii are correct.
D. Statements iii and iv are correct.
Answer:
A. Statements i and iii are correct.

Question 3.
Observe the picture.

a) What are the energy changes that occur when a mixer grinder works?
Answer:
When a mixer grinder works, electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy, sound energy and heat energy.

b) Find the odd one out.
i) Firecracker bursts
ii) Bottle breaks
iii) String of kite breaks
iv) Electric wire breaks
Answer:
i) Fire cracker bursts (Chemical change. Others are physical change)

c) Examine the following changes. Fill in the blanks.

Change	Chemical Change/Physical Change
Camphor burning	Chemical change
Cutting firewood	(ii) ___
MeItinf tar	(ii) ___
Rusting of Iron	(iii) ___

Answer:
i) Physical change
ii) Physical change
iii) Chemical Change

Question 4.
contains two parts: 4 (A) and 4 (B). Write any one from 4 (A) or 4 (B) completely.

a) Why did the teacher disagree with the student’s opinion?
Answer:
Even though too much fat leads to cholesterol and cardiac diseases, fats help us to absorb vitamins. That is, certain vitamins dissolve only in Fat. To get these vitamins, it is essential to include fat in our diet. That is why the teacher disagreed with the student’s opinion.

b) What are the problems of increasing the fat level in food?
Answer:
Fatty foods and fried items contain a high amount of fat in it. High intake of these items increases the level of cholesterol in our blood. If there is excess cholesterol in the blood, it gets deposited in the inner wall of blood vessels and prevents blood flow. This may cause fatal diseases like stroke and heart failure.

c) Some habits to control the fat level in the body are given below. Analyse these statements and identify the correct one.
i. Exercise daily.
ii. Avoid fried food items.
iii. Take protein rich diet.

A. i and ii are correct
C. Only ii is correct.
B. Only i is correct.
D. All are correct.
Answer:
A. i and ii are correct

B. (a) Most of the students were detected with night blindness in a medical camp conducted in a school. The doctor said that this problem can be cured through food. List out the food items suggested by the doctor.
Answer:
Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin A. The food items rich in vitamin A, like carrots, fish, milk products, amaranthus,, egg, and spinach, are suggested by the doctor.

b) Which vitamin is lost when the food is cooked, keeping the vessel open?
Answer:
Vitamin C is lost when the food is cooked, keeping the vessel open.

c) Ramu used plenty of milk and seafood in his diet. But the doctor found that he has a calcium deficiency. Find out the reason behind this problem from the following.
i. Insufficient intake of water.
ii. Insufficient intake of Vitamin C-rich food.
iii. Insufficient exposure to sunlight.
iv. Insufficient intake of protein-rich food.
Answer:
iii. Insufficient exposure to sunlight.

Question 5.
a) A straight line is drawn using a scale. Which of the following motions is similar to the motion of the pen at that time?
i. Movement of wiper of vehicles
ii. Movement of a compass while drawing a circle
iii. Movement of a lift
iv. Motion of a stone thrown away
Answer:
iii. Movement of a lift

b) Understand the statement and the reason given below and choose the correct answer from the following. Statement (S): A lift moving up or down shows linear motion.
Reason (R): Linear motion is the motion of an object along a straight line.
A. The statement is correct. But the reason is not suitable for the statement.
B. The statement is wrong. But the reason is suitable for the statement.
C. The statement is wrong. But the reason is not suitable for the statement
D. The statement is correct. But the reason is suitable for the statement,
Answer:
D. The statement is correct. But the reason is suitable for the statement,

c) Give one example of linear motion from daily life.
Answer:
A car moving on a straight road.

Question 6 contains two parts: 6 (A) and 6 (B). Write any one from 6 (A) or 6 (B) completely.

Question 6.
A. Manu’s BMI is below 17.5, and Anu is having BMI of 23
a) Write the physical condition of Manu and Anu?
Answer:
Manu -Underweight
Anu-Normal weight

b) What is BMI?
Answer:
BMI (Body Mass Index) is a measure used to determine a person’s physical condition based on height and weight.

c) Observe the information given in the table.

BMI	Physical condition
a) Below 18.5	(i) Normal weight
b) 18.5-24.9	(ii) Underweight
c) 25-29.9	(iii) Obesity (First stage)
d) 30-34.9	(iv) Overweight

Which of the following is correct based on the information given in the table?
A. a-ii,b-i,c-iv,d-iii
B. a-ii,b-i,c-iii,d-iv
C. a-i,b-ii,c-iv,d-iii
D. a-iii,b-ii,c-iv,d-i
Answer:

BMI	Physical condition
a) Below 18.5	(ii) Underweight
b) 18.5-24.9	(i) Normal weight
c) 25-29.9	(iv) Overweight
d) 30-34.9	(iii) Obesity (First stage)

B. Observe the picture given below.

a) What are the problems with eating only these food items regularly?
Answer:
Obesity and Overweight
Type 2 Diabetes
Nutrient Deficiencies
Risk of heart attacks
Strokes and hypertension.

b) What habits should be adopted to maintain a healthy lifestyle?
Answer:
Drink adequate amounts of water daily. Replace fried and processed items with meals rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and lean proteins. Regular Exercise. Adequate Sleep

c) Examine the given statement and the reason for it.
Statement: Obesity is a condition in which body weight increases above normal.
Reason: Excessive consumption of sugar, salt, oil, ghee, and fat, along with a lack of exercise, leads to obesity.
By examining the statement and the reason, find out which of the following is correct.
A. Statement and reason are correct
B. Statement and reason are incorrect
C. Statement is correct, and reason is incorrect
D. Statement is incorrect, and reason is correct
Answer:
A. Statement and reason are correct

Mathematics in Class 6 introduces students to many new concepts such as fractions, decimals, geometry, and basic algebra. The syllabus followed in Kerala schools is prepared by the Kerala Board of Public Examinations to help students develop logical thinking and problem-solving skills. Students can prepare better with Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Question Papers and Answers for all subjects. Students use Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Question Papers and Answers for practice.

Maths Question Paper Class 6 Kerala Syllabus

Practicing Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Pdf English Medium is a helpful way for students to become comfortable with different types of mathematical problems. These SCERT Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper are prepared based on the current syllabus and help students understand how questions may appear in the exam.

6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Pdf English Medium

• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Syllabus Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Set 5

SCERT Class 6 Maths Model Question Paper Malayalam Medium

• Class 6 Maths Question Paper Set 1 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Maths Question Paper Set 2 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Maths Question Paper Set 3 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Maths Question Paper Set 4 Malayalam Medium
• Class 6 Maths Question Paper Set 5 Malayalam Medium

Std 6 Maths Model Question Paper are also very useful during revision. Model Question Paper Class 6 Maths State Syllabus show how questions were asked in earlier examinations and help students identify important topics that need more attention.

The Class 6 Maths Kerala Syllabus Annual Exam Question Paper usually includes problem-solving questions, short answers, and step-based calculations. When students practice 6th Standard Maths Model Question Paper regularly, they improve both speed and accuracy while solving problems.

With daily practice and proper revision of Maths Question Paper Class 6 Kerala Syllabus, Mathematics can become one of the most interesting and scoring subjects for Class 6 students.

During exam preparation, 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Kerala Syllabus Set 1 guide students properly.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper Set 1

Time: 2 Hrs 15 min.

Instructions:

• First 15 minutes is allotted as cool-off time. Red the questions carefully and plan the answers during this time
• Answer all six questions. Answer all the sub questions.
• Two questions are there in Question 3 and 4. Attempt any one of them (3 A or 3 B and 4 A or 4 B)

Question 1.
The graph below shows the rainfall of a place in different months:

(a) What is the highest amount of rainfall received in this place? (1)
Answer:
35 cm

(b) In which month is the rainfall the lowest? (1)
Answer:
January, March and December

(c) Between which months does the largest difference in rainfall occur? (1)
Answer:
May, June

(d) On the basis of the graph, prepare two questions? (2)
Answer:
(i) What is the rainfall received in the month of December?
(ii) During which months did the place receive rainfall between 25 cm and 35 cm?

Question 2.
To buy a pen from a shop, one has to pay Rs. 10 for the first pen. Each pen brought after the first one costs Rs.9.
(a) Complete the table given below. (2)

Number of Pens	Price
1	10
2	–
3	–
4	–

Answer:

Number of Pens	Price
1	10
2	19
3	28
4	37

(b) What is the relation between the number of pens and the cost? (1)
Answer:
The total cost is obtained by multiplying the number of pens by 9 and adding 1.

(c) If the number of pens is marked by n and the total cost by p, write the relation between them? (2)
Answer:
Number of pens = n
Total cost = p
p = 9n + 1

Question 3.
(A) (a) In this table below, the fist column contains some numbers and the second column shows the remainders obtained when these numbers are divided by 9. (1)

1	2
(a) 3245	(1) 0
(b) 5876	(2) 2
(c) 3494	(3) 8
(d) 5004	(4) 5

Choose the correct matches from the following:
(A) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1
(B) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
(C) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
(D) a – 4, b – 2, c – 1, d – 3
Answer:
(B) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1

(b) Write 575 as a multiple of 9 and also the sum of its digits. (1)
Answer:
Sum of the digits = 5 + 7 + 5 = 17
575 = 558 + 17
= (62 × 9) + 17

(c) If all four-digit numbers using the digits 3, 4, 7, 8 and 9 are written, how many of them are multiples of 3? Give reason? (2)
Answer:
Sum of the digits = 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 + 9 = 31
Since 31 is not divisible by 3, any four digit number formed using all these digits will not be divisible by 3.
Therefore no four digit numbers formed are multiples of 3.

(d) Write a four digit number that is divisible by 2, 3, 5 and 9 without leaving any remainder. (1)
Answer:
The number in the ones place should be 0. And the sum of the digits should be multiple of 9.
5310 (or 1980, 1080, 1170 1260, 1620 etc.) is a number.

OR

(B) Look at the figure given below:

In the figure angle a and c are equal, and angle b is a right angle. (1)
(a) What is the measure of angle d?
Answer:
Given that, ∠a = ∠c and ∠b = 90° Angles a, b and c are on a straight line.
Therefore a + b + c = 180°
a + 90° + a = 180°
2 a = 90° a = 45°
∠a = 45° = ∠c
∠d = ∠a = 45° (opposite angles)

(b) Check the statements given below for angle e. (1)
(i) It is a right angle.
(ii) It is 45°
(iii) Its measure is equal to the sum of the measures of angle a and c.
(iv) Its measure is equal to the sum of the measures of angle b and c.

Chose the correct option from the following
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iii)

(c) Draw the figure with same measurements and mark the point. Draw a line through the marked point and parallel to the horizontal line. (3)

Answer:

Question 4.
(A) (a) Write 196 as the product of prime factors. (2)
Answer:

196 = 2 × 2 × 7 × 7

(b) Find all the factors of 105? (2)
Answer:
105 = 3 × 5 × 7
Factors of 105 are: 1, 3, 5, 7, 15, 21, 35, 105.

(c) Choose the correct statement from the following? (1)
(A) Sum of the two prime numbers is always a prime number.
(B) The multiples of two prime numbers are also a prime numbers.
(C) The common factors of two prime numbers is 1.
(D) In case of prime numbers, there are no even numbers.
Answer:
(C) The common factors of two prime numbers is 1.

OR

(B)
(a) Is it true that when two numbers are divided by 5 and both give a remainder of 2, the difference of the numbers is a multiple of 5? Why? (2)
Answer:
Yes, the statement is true. When both numbers give the same remainder on division by 5, subtracting one number from the other cancels the remainder. Therefore the difference is exactly divisible by 5, which means the difference of the two numbers is a multiple of 5.

(b) Prove that, when two numbers are divided by 3 and both gives a remainder of 1, then the difference of the numbers is a multiple of 3. (2)
Answer:
Let 4 and 10 be the numbers
When 4 and 10 are both divided by 3 we get a remainder 1.
The difference of two numbers is,
10 – 4 = 6 (multiple of 3)

(c) From the numbers given below, identify of the following are divisible by 3, 9 and 5 with no remainder. (1)
(a) 4327
(b) 3520
(c) 4950
(d) 1490
Answer:
(c) 4950

Question 5.
(a) Suja brought 1 \(\frac{3}{4}\) litres of milk in the morning and 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) litres of milk in the evening. If she used 3\(\frac{1}{4}\) litres of milk, how much milk remains? (2)
Answer:
Milk brought in total = 1\(\frac{3}{4}\) + 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) = 4\(\frac{1}{4}\) litre
Milk used = 3\(\frac{1}{4}\) litre
Remaining milk = 4 \(\frac{1}{4}\) – 3 \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 1 litre

(b) If \(\frac{5}{6}\) metre long rope and \(\frac{3}{4}\) metre long rope are joined end to end find there total length in metre? (2)
Answer:
Length of the first rope = \(\frac{5}{6}\)
Length of the second rope = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
Two ropes are joined end to end = \(\frac{5}{6}+\frac{3}{4}=\frac{10}{12}+\frac{9}{12}\) = 1\(\frac{7}{12}\) metres
Total length = 1 \(\frac{7}{12}\) metres

(c) Find an equivalent fraction of with a denominator 40 from the following. (1)
(a) \(\frac{37}{40}\)
(b) \(\frac{20}{40}\)
(c) \(\frac{25}{40}\)
(d) \(\frac{30}{40}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{25}{40}\)

Question 6.
(a) What part of the circle is shaded in the figure? (1)

Answer:
\(\frac{1}{3}\) part of the circle is shaded.

(b) Draw the given triangle.

Answer:

(c) Look at the picture given below

Choose the correct statement about this picture from the following?
(A) In the figure, one angle is 90°
(B) In the figure, all angles are less than 90°.
(C) In the figure, one angle is greater than 90°.
(D) In the figure all angles are greater than 90°.
Answer:
(C) In the figure, one angle is greater than 90°.

During exam preparation, 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Kerala Syllabus Set 2 guide students properly.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper Set 2

Time: 2 Hrs 15 min.

Instructions:

• First 15 minutes is allotted as cool-off time. Red the questions carefully and plan the answers during this time
• Answer all six questions. Answer all the sub questions.
• Two questions are there in Question 3 and 4. Attempt any one of them (3 A or 3 B and 4 A or 4 B)

Question 1.
The graph below shows the number of children in a school over the last five years.

(a) In which year does the number of children remain stable? (1)
Answer:
2022, 2023 and 2024, 2025

(b) In which year is the number of students the least? (1)
Answer:
2021

(c) What is the difference between the lowest number of student and the highest number of students? (1)
Answer:
1000 – 700 = 300

(d) On the basis of this graph, prepare two more questions? (2)
Answer:
(i) What is the difference between the number of children in the year 2021 and 2023?
(ii) In which year did the highest number of children join the school.

Question 2.
(a) Split 3.874 according to place value. (2)
Answer:
3 ones, 8 tenths, 7 hundredths and 4 thousandths

(b) The value equivalent to 16 metres 4 millimetres is, (1)
(a) 16.4 metre
(b) 16.04 metre
(c) 16.004 metre
(d) 16.400 metre
Answer:
(c) 16.004 metre

(c) Find the sum and difference of the numbers: 24.087 and 16.464 (2)
Answer:
24.087 + 16.464 = 40.551
24.087 – 16.464 = 7.623

Question 3.
(A) A shop gives 9% discount on electronic products.
(a) How much amount should be paid to buy an iron box worth Rs.3000? (2)
Answer:
Discount = \(\frac{9}{100}\) × 3000 = Rs. 270
Amount to be paid = 3000 – 270 = Rs. 2730

(b) What is the discount amount on a T.V worth Rs.25000? (2)
Answer:
Discount amount = \(\frac{9}{100}\) × 25000 = Rs. 2250

(c) Which of the following statements which is not equivalent to: The interest on Rs.1000 is Rs.70. (1)
(A) On Rs. 100, the interest is Rs.7
(B) On Rs.500, the interest is Rs.35
(C) On Rs.10, the interest is 7 paise
(D) On Rs. 10, the interest is 70 paise.
Answer:
(C) On Rs.10, the interest is 7 paise

OR

(B)
(a) The first 3 digits of four digit number which is a multiple of 9 are 9, 8 and 7. What should be the last digit? (1)
Answer:
The first three digits of a four-digit number are 9, 8 and 7.
Sum = 9 + 8 + 7 = 24
The next multiple of 9 after 24 is 27.
Therefore the last digit = 27 – 24 = 3

(b) What should be the remainder when 4824 is divided by 3? Why? (2)
Answer:
Sum of the digits = 4 + 8 + 2 + 4=18 Since 18 is divisible by 3.
Therefore the remainder = 0

(c) From the following which one should give a remainder 2 when it is divided by 9? (1)
(a) 4673
(b) 5284
(c) 3832
(d) 6282
Answer:
(a) 4673

(d) Write a five digit number which is both divisible by 9 and 3.
Answer:
Any number can be written whose sum of its digits is divisible by 9. And a number that is divisible by 9 is always divisible by 3.
That is, 45369, 10899, 11799, 27999, 36018 etc.

Question 4.
(A) The length of the line shown in the figure is 12 centimetres.

(a) If a point is marked 8 centimetre from the left end, what is the length of the line on the right side? (1)
Answer:
4 cm

(b) If a point is marked 4 centimetre from the right end, what is the length of the line on the left side? (1)
Answer:
8 cm

(c) What is the relation between the lengths of the two lines formed in this way? (1)
Answer:
The sum of the lengths of the two lines is equal to the total length 12 cm.

(d) How can this relation be written if the length of the line on the right side is marked as a and the length of the line on the left side is marked as b. (2)
Answer:
If the right side is a and the left side is b, then the relation is:
a + b = 12

OR

(B) (a) Draw the lines in the given figure and draw a line parallel to the slanted line. (4)

Answer:

(b) From the figure given below, identify the correct statement. (1)

(A) a + b = 1800
(B) a + c = 180°
(C) a + b + c = 180°
(D) b + c + d = 180°
Answer:
(B) a + c = 180°

Question 5.
(a) Suma had taken \(\frac{3}{8}\) part of a cake. Find the remaining part of the cake? (1)
Answer:
1 – \(\frac{3}{8}=\frac{5}{8}\)

(b) Which fraction is larger: \(\frac{5}{6}\) or \(\frac{6}{7}\) ? (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{6}{7}\)

(c) Arrange the following fractions in ascending order (from smaller to larger): (2)
\(\frac{3}{5}, \frac{2}{7}, \frac{4}{5}, \frac{5}{8}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{5}, \frac{5}{8}, \frac{4}{5}\)

(d) Which of the following is equivalent to \(\frac{1}{2}\) (1)
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{8}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 6.
(a) Draw the figure given below and shade it. (4)

Answer:

(b) Choose the correct statement about the shaded portion of the circle. (1)

(A) \(\frac{1}{4}\) is the shaded part
(B) \(\frac{1}{5}\) is the shaded part
(C) \(\frac{1}{6}\) is the shaded part
(D) \(\frac{1}{28}\) is the shaded part
Answer:
(C) \(\frac{1}{6}\) is the shaded part

During exam preparation, 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Kerala Syllabus Set 3 guide students properly.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper Set 3

Time: 2 Hrs 15 min.

Instructions:

• First 15 minutes is allotted as cool-off time. Red the questions carefully and plan the answers during this time
• Answer all six questions. Answer all the sub questions.
• Two questions are there in Question 3 and 4. Attempt any one of them (3 A or 3 B and 4 A or 4 B)

Question 1.
(a) Write two fraction equivalent to \(\frac{3}{5}\). (2)
Answer:
\(\frac{3}{5}=\frac{6}{10}\) and \(\frac{3}{5}=\frac{9}{15}\)

(b) Write the simplified form of \(\frac{16}{20}\). (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{16}{20}=\frac{4}{5}\)

(c) 15 litres of milk is equally filled into 6 identical bottles. What is the quantity of milk contained in one bottle. (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{15}{6}\) = 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) litres

(d) Write the equivalent value of-from the following options: (1)
(a) 1\(\frac{3}{4}\)
(b) 1\(\frac{4}{3}\)
(c) 1\(\frac{1}{3}\)
(d) 1\(\frac{1}{4}\)
Answer:
(c) 1\(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 2.
(a) If the length, width and height of a rectangular block are 40 centimetre, 20 centimetre and 10 centimetre respectively. Find its volume? (2)
Answer:
Volume = 40 × 20 × 10 = 8000 cubic centimetre

(b) How many litres of water can a rectangular shaped vessel can contain with the same capacity mentioned above. (2)
Answer:
8000 cu. cm = \(\frac{8000}{1000}\) = 8 litres

(c) Look at the statements given below: (1)
(i) If the length of a rectangular block is doubled, then its volume is also doubled.
(ii) If the length, width and height is doubled, then its volume becomes three times.
(iii) If the width of a rectangular block is doubled, then its volume becomes four times.
(iv) If the length, width and height is doubled, then its volume becomes eight times.

Choose the correct option.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(D) (i) and (iv)

Question 3.
(A) The graph below shows the sale of cars in a company from 2017 to 2024

(a) In which year was the maximum number of cars sold? (1)
Answer:
2024

(b) During which years was the same number of cars sold? (1)
Answer:
2017, 2020 and 2021

(c) What is the difference between the number of cars sold in 2018 and 2019 (1)
Answer:
2 lakh

(d) On the basis of the graph, prepare two questions. (2)
Answer:
(i) What is the growth in sales from 2017 to 2024?
(ii) In which year did the sales of the car reach 37 lakh?

OR

(B) Look at the picture made using matchsticks.

(a) How many matchsticks are used to make any one of these patterns? (1)
Answer:
6

(b) To make two such patems, how many matchsticks are used? (1)
Answer:
11

(c) What is the relation between the number of matchsticks and the number of patterns? (1)
Answer:
The number of matchsticks is equal to one more than the 5 times of the number of patterns.

(d) Write the relation if the number of patterns is represented by h and the number of matchsticks by s. (2)
Answer:
s = 5h + 1

Question 4.
(A) (a) Write 137 as a multiple of 9 and the sum of its digits. (2)
Answer:
137 = 126 + 11 = (14 × 9) + 11

(b) If all four-digit numbers using 3, 5, 9 and 4 are written, how many of them are multiples of 3? (1)
Answer:
Digits used: 3, 5, 9 and 4 Sum = 3 + 5 + 9 + 4 = 21
Since 21 is divisible by 3, all possible arrangements will be divisible by 3.
Number of four digit numbers formed = 24

(c) How many of them are multiples of 9? (1)
Answer:
Since 21 is not divisible by 9, there are no numbers formed that are multiples of 9.

(d) From the numbers given below, which one is divisible by both 3 and 9? (1)
(a) 365
(b) 747
(c) 327
(d) 489
Answer:
(b) 747

OR

(B) (a) Draw the parallelogram using the same measurements. (4)

Answer:

(b) Which of the following statements are correct about the parallelogram given below? (1)
(A) Four sides are equal.
(B) Four angles are equal.
(C) Opposite sides are parallel.
(D) All angles are less than 90°.
Answer:
(C) Opposite sides are parallel.

Question 5.
(a) Instead of dividing 196 by 4, which number can be used to divide 98? (1)
Answer:
196 ÷ 4 = 49
98 – 2 = 49
The number is 2.

(b) Which one of the following is equivalent to 400 – 247? (1)
(a) 401 – 246
(b) 401 – 248
(c) 399 – 248
(d) 402 – 245
Answer:
(b) 401 – 248

(c) Write two equivalent multiples of 28 × 14. (2)
Answer:
28 × 14 = 56 × 7
28 × 14 = 14 × 28

(d) Write any division that is equivalent to 128 ÷ 8. (1)
Answer:
128 ÷ 8 = 16
64 ÷ 4 = 16
256 ÷ 16 = 16

Question 6.
(a) A shop offers a 12% discount. If some items are brought for Rs.3000, what is the discount amount? (3)
Answer:
Discount = 12% of 3000
= \(\frac{12}{100}\) × 3000 = Rs. 360

(b) Which of the statements given below is equivalent to, 10% interest? (1)
(A) For Rs. 1000, the interest is Rs.200
(B) For Rs.500, the interest is Rs.100
(C) For Rs.800, the interest is Rs.80
(D) For Rs.10, the interest is Rs.2
Answer:
(C) For Rs.800, the interest is Rs.80

(c) For Rs.2000 its interest amount is Rs. 160. What is the interest percent? (1)
Answer:
Interest percent = \(\frac{160}{200}\) × 100 = 8%

During exam preparation, 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Kerala Syllabus Set 4 guide students properly.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper Set 4

Time: 2 Hrs 15 min.

Instructions:

• First 15 minutes is allotted as cool-off time. Red the questions carefully and plan the answers during this time
• Answer all six questions. Answer all the sub questions.
• Two questions are there in Question 3 and 4. Attempt any one of them (3 A or 3 B and 4 A or 4 B)

Question 1.
(a) Using a ruler and compass, draw a line of 8 cm length, and then draw an another line parallel to it. (2)
Answer:

(b) From the figure given below, identify the two pairs of angles having equal measures. (2)

Answer:
1, 3 and 2, 4

(c) In the figure the measure of one angle is 70°. (1)

From the values given below, what is the measure of the other angle?
(a) 70°
(b) 180°
(c) 180° + 70°
(d) 180° – 70°
Answer:
(c) 180° + 70°

Question 2.
(a) What part of the rectangle is shaded in the figure given below (1)

Answer:
\(\frac{1}{10}\)

(b) What part of the rectangle is unshaded? (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{9}{10}\)

(c) If the three boxes are shaded, what part of the rectangle is shaded and what part is unshaded? (1)
Answer:
Shaded part = \(\frac{3}{10}\) and unshaded part = \(\frac{7}{10}\)

(d) What is the relation between the shaded and the unshaded part? (1)
Answer:
The sum of the shaded part and the unshaded part give 1.

(e) Flow can we express this relation if the shaded part is marked as ‘s’ and the unshaded part as ‘u’. (1)
Answer:
If the shaded part is s
Unshaded part is u
Then, s + u = 1

Question 3.
(A) (a) From the numbers given below which number is divisible by 9. (1)
(a) 1327
(b) 3436
(c) 5323
(d) 9459
Answer:
(d) 9459

(b) What is the remainder when 58425 is divided by 3? (1)
Answer:
Remainder = 0
Since the sum of the digits is: 5 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 5 = 24 24 is divisible by 3.

(c) What is the remainder when 15437 is divided by 9? (1)
Answer:
Remainder = 2
Since the sum of the digits is: 1 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 7 = 20 20 is not divisible by 9.

(d) If we write a four digit number using the digits 3, 4, 7, 8. Then how many of these numbers will be a multiple of 3? Give reason? (2)
Answer:
No numbers will be a multiple of 3.
Since the sum of the digits: 3 + 4 + 7 + 8 = 22 22 is not divisible by 3.

OR

(B) (a) Write the number equivalent to \(\frac{2}{7}\) with the numerator equal to 14. (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{14}{49}\)

(b) Write the simplified form of \(\frac{30}{66}\). (1)
Answer:
\(\frac{5}{11}\)

(c) In a bottle contains 3 – litres of coconut oil and another bottle contains 4- litres of coconut oil. Find how many litres of coconut oil are there in total. (2)
Answer:
Coconut oil contained in first bottle = 3 \(\frac{1}{2}\) litres
Coconut oil contained in second bottle = 4 \(\frac{3}{4}\) litres
Total quantity of coconut oil = 3 – + 4 – = 8- litres

(d) Which of the following value is equivalent to \(\frac{9}{6}\) (1)
Answer:
1\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4. (A)
(a) The length, width and height of a rectangular block are 4 metre, 3 metre and 1 metre respectively. What is its volume? (2)
Answer:
Volume of a rectangular block = 4 × 3 × 1 = 12 cubic metre

(b) Which one of the following is equivalent to 1 litre? (1)
Answer:
(a) 1000 cubic centimetre

(c) The length, width and height of a glass jar are 20 cm. 15 cm and 8 cm. Find the quantity of water it can contain (2)
Answer:
Volume of the jar = 20 × 15 × 8 = 2400 cubic metre
= 2 litres 400 millilitres

OR

(B)
(a) Draw the figure given below using the same measurements. (2)

Answer:

(b) What part of circle is shaded in the figure?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{8}\) part is shaded

(c) From the following, identify the angle which is less than 90°?

Answer:
(c) (b)

Question 5.
(a) Write the fractional form of 3.07? (1)
Answer:
3.07 = 3\(\frac{7}{100}\) (or \(\frac{307}{100}\))

(b) Look at the statements given below?
(i) 5.45 means 5 ones and 45 hundredths.
(ii) 5.45 means 545 tenths.
(iii) 5.45 means 5 ones 4 hundredths and 5 tenths
(iv) 5.45 means 5 ones 4 tenths and 5 hundredths

Choose the correct option. (1)
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(C) (i) and (iv)

(c) Rema bought a ribbon of length 15.45 metre and Suma bought a ribbon of length 12.05 metre.
(i) What is the total length of the ribbon they bought? (1)
(ii) What is the difference between the lengths of the ribbon they bought? (1)
Answer:
(i) Total length of the ribbon they bought = 15.45 + 12.05 = 27.50 metre
(ii) Difference between the lengths of the ribbon = 15.45 – 12.05 = 3.40 metre

(d) Write 14\(\frac{2}{1000}\) in decimal form. (1)
Answer:
14\(\frac{2}{1000}\) = 14.002

Question 6.
The graph represents the temperature recorded at a place during various months of the same year:

(a) In which month was the highest temperature recorded? (1)
Answer:
May

(b) In which month was the lowest temperature recorded? (1)
Answer:
December

(c) From which month onwards does the temperature starts decreasing? (1)
Answer:
From May onwards

(d) On the basis of the graph, prepare 2 questions. (2)
Answer:
(i) What is the temperature in the month of June?
(ii) During which month does the temperature become the same as in July?

During exam preparation, 6th Standard Maths Question Paper with Answers Kerala Syllabus Set 5 guide students properly.

Kerala Syllabus 6th Standard Maths Question Paper Set 5

Time: 2 Hrs 15 min.

Instructions:

• First 15 minutes is allotted as cool-off time. Red the questions carefully and plan the answers during this time
• Answer all six questions. Answer all the sub questions.
• Two questions are there in Question 3 and 4. Attempt any one of them (3 A or 3 B and 4 A or 4 B )

Question 1.
(a) From the figure, find the measure of the angle marked x. (1)

Answer:
x = 70°

(b) What is the measure of the angle when two lines intersect each other perpendicularly? (1)
Answer:
The measure of the angle is 90°.

(c) Draw the lines in the given figure and draw a line parallel to the slanted line. (2)

Answer:

(d) From the given figure, identify the angles whose sum is 180°.

(a) a, b
(b) a, c
(c) b, d
(d) a, b, c
Answer:
(a) a, b

Question 2.
The scores of a team in a cricket match are given in the graph. It represents the runs scored in each over and the wickets lost by the team.

Find the answers to the questions given below:
(a) Between which over did the team lose its first wicket. (1)
Answer:
5-10

(b) What is the total number of wickets lost in the match? (1)
Answer:
5

(c) In which over does the match ends. (1)
Answer:
45

(d) Based on the graph, prepare any two questions. (2)
Answer:
(i) Within 30 overs, how many wickets did the team lose?
(ii) Between which over does the team scores 150 runs.

Question 3.
(A) (a) Write any two multiplication patterns that are equal to 210 × 120 (2)
Answer:
105 × 240; 420 × 60

(b) Write any two division patterns that are equal to 165 ÷ 15 (2)
Answer:
330 ÷ 30; 55 ÷ 5

(c) Look at the statements given below related to 165 – 10 – 5
(i) It is equal to 165 – 5
(ii) It is equal to 160 – 10
(iii) It is 165 – (10 + 5)
(iv) It is 165 – (10 – 5)

From the above given statements, which of the following are correct. (1)
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(B) (ii) and (iii)

OR

(B) (a) Write 165 as a product of prime numbers.
Answer:
165 = 5 × 3 × 11

(b) Write all the factors of 165.
Answer:
1, 3, 5, 11, 15, 33, 55, 165.

(c) Find the wrong statement about prime numbers.
(i) It has only two factors.
(ii) One of its factor is 1.
(iii) It is a one-digit number.
(iv) The number itself is a factor of it.
Answer:
(iii) It is a one-digit number.

Question 4.
(A) In a shop, we have to pay 30 rupees as a packing charge for one item.
(a) What is the total amount payed for an item costing 100 rupees? (1)
Answer:
100 + 30 = 130 Rs.

(b) What is the total amount payed if the cost of the item is 500 rupees? (1)
Answer:
500 + 30 = 530 Rs.

(c) What is the relation between the cost of the item and total amount paid? (1)
Answer:
The total amount paid is equal to the sum of its cost and the packing charge.

(d) How can we say the relation when the cost of an item is ‘p’ and the total amount is ‘t’. (2)
Answer:
If the cost of the item is p
Total amount is t
Relation is, t = p + 30

OR

(B) (a) A statement and the reason are given below:
Statement: \(\frac{3}{5}\) can be written as \(\frac{8}{10}\) when its denominator becomes 10.
Reason: For a fraction, if a same number is added to both its numerator and denominator, we get another equivalent form of it.
Choose the correct option given below. (1)
(A) Both the statement and reason are correct.
(B) Both the statement and reason are wrong.
(C) Statement is correct but the reason is wrong.
(D) Statement is wrong but the reason is correct.
Answer:
(B) Both the statement and reason are wrong.

(b) Write two different forms of \(\frac{5}{2}\). (2)
Answer:
\(\frac{5}{7}=\frac{10}{14}, \frac{15}{21}\)

(c) If 16 kg of rice is filled equally in to 5 bags, how many kilograms of rice does each bag contain? (2)
Answer:
\(\frac{16}{5}\) = 3\(\frac{1}{5}\) kg

Question 5.
(a) 1000 cubic centimetre is equals to, (1)
(a) 10 litre
(b) 100 litre
(c) 1000 litre
(d) 1 litre
Answer:
(d) 1 litre

(b) If the length, breadth and height of a vessel are 60 cm, 30 cm, and 10 cm respectively, how many litres of water does it holds? (2)
Answer:
18000 cubic cm

(c) Find its capacity in litres and millilitres. (1)
Answer:
18 litre

(d) If the length of a rectangular vessel is doubled then what is the change in its inner measure. (1)
Answer:
If the length is doubled, the inner measure (volume) of the vessel gets doubled

Question 6.
(a) The sum of the digits in a number is 22. If the number is divided by 3, what is its remainder? (1)
Answer:
Remainder = 1

(b) If a number is divided by 9 and the sum of its digits is 32, what is its remainder? (1)
Answer:
Remainder = 5

(c) From the following which number is divisible by 2, 3, 5 and 9 without leaving a remainder? (1)
(a) 3248
(b) 3350
(c) 4826
(d) 5490
Answer:
(d) 5490

(d) Check weather all the numbers formed by using the digits 4, 5, 7, 6 without repetition are multiples of 9. Give reason? . (2)
Answer:
No, the numbers formed are not multiples of 9, because the sum of the digits 4 + 5 + 7 + 6 = 22 not divisible by 9.

Students often refer to Kerala State Syllabus SCERT Class 6 Maths Solutions and Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Data Pictures Questions and Answers Notes Pdf to clear their doubts.

SCERT Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Solutions Data Pictures

Class 6 Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Data Pictures Questions and Answers

Data Pictures Class 6 Questions and Answers Kerala Syllabus

Line Graphs (Page Number 182-183)

Question 1.
The graphs below show the maximum and minimum temperatures recorded during various months of 2023 in the Palakkad district of Kerala.

(i) In which month was the highest temperature recorded? How much was it?
(ii) In which month was the lowest temperature recorded? How much was it?
(iii) In which month was the difference in temperatures the highest? How much was it?
(iv) Why was the temperature low during June-August?
Answer:
(i) March (38°C)
(ii) September to December (21°C)
(iii) March (14°C)
(iv) Because the rainy season

Question 2.
The graph below shows the sales of two-wheelers in India from 2015-2024.

(i) In which year was the largest number of two-wheelers sold?
(ii) During which two years were the largest number of two-wheelers sold?
(iii) Why were the sales very low during 2019-2022?
Answer:
(i) 2019
(ii) 2018-2019
(iii) Lockdown time (COVID time)

Question 3.
A person started a trip by car at five in the morning and reached his destination at ten. The graph below shows the total distance travelled at various points in time.

(i) How much distance did he travel?
(ii) How much time did the trip take?
(iii) During which time did the car travel the greatest distance in one hour?
(iv) How much distance did the car travel between six and seven?
(v) And the distance travelled between eight and nine?
(vi) During what time was the car stopped?
Answer:
(i) 250 km
(ii) 5 hours
(iii) 5 o’ clock to 6 o’ clock
(iv) 65 km
(v) No distance was travelled
(vi) 8 o’ clock to 9 o’ clock

Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus Data Pictures Questions and Answers

Class 6 Maths Data Pictures Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Look at the graph that shows a person’s income for the past month.

What all can be found in this?
The highest income is in April (₹ 50000)
The lowest income is in May and June (₹ 25000)
The difference between the income in February and May is ₹ 5000
After February, there is a good increase in income.

What all can be found from this?
The highest expense is in May, and the lowest expense is in June.
The expenses in February and March are the same.
From March to May, the expenses keep increasing.
In June, the expenses drop sharply.
Now, let us draw these two graphs together.

This graph can be used to compare income and expenses.
The largest difference between income and expenses is in February.
The months in which the expense is higher than the income are February and May.

Class 6 Maths Chapter 12 Notes Kerala Syllabus Data Pictures

→ A pictograph is a way of showing data using pictures or symbols. Each picture stands for a certain number of things, which makes the information easy to understand.

→ A line graph is a graph that uses points and straight lines to show how something changes over time.

→ A data picture means showing information using pictures or symbols so that it becomes easy to understand.

Data means information collected in the form of facts or numbers. To understand data easily, we show it using pictures. Such picture-based representations are called pictographs. Pictographs use symbols or images to show numbers, making the data simple to read and compare. They help us understand information quickly and clearly.

Line Graphs

Bar Graph
We have learned in the previous class how to find information from a table and how to record information into a table. In the same way, we also learned how to represent information using bar graphs. Look at this information. The table shows the number of children in a school over the past few years.

Using this information, we can draw a bar graph.

From this bar graph, we can easily find the information about the number of children.
Now look at this table.
The table shows the amount of rainfall received in a place last year.

Using this information, draw a bar graph and prepare some questions based on the picture.

In which month did it rain the most?
In which month did it rain the least?
In which months did it rain the same amount?
What is the total amount of rainfall in the whole year?
What is the difference between the rainfall in the month with the least rain and the month with the most rain?

Line Graphs
The information given in the table above changes with time. These are usually shown in another method. As we did in the bar chart, the months should be shown in one row, and the amount of rainfall on the other side should keep equal spacing. The amount of rainfall in the table ranges from 5 to 40, so we can take the scale from 0 to 50. Since the rainfall is given at intervals of 5 centimeters, we can take 5, 10, 15, 20… and so on.

This kind of picture is called a line graph. From this graph, we can easily understand several things at a glance. The amount of rainfall decreases from January to February, then gradually increases for the next three months. After that, it decreases for three months, increases again in October, and finally decreases in November and December to the lowest level.
Answer the following questions by looking at the graph:

Question 1.
In which month was the rainfall the highest?
Answer:
June

Question 2.
Which month had the least rainfall?
Answer:
March and December

Question 3.
How many centimeters was the highest rainfall?
Answer:
40 cm

Question 4.
How many centimeters was the lowest rainfall?
Answer:
5 cm

Question 5.
Which months can be called the rainy season?
Answer:
June, July, August

Question 6.
In which months was the rainfall the same?
Answer:
January – September, February – November

What is the special feature of the temperature line graph here?

The temperature gradually increases, reaches the maximum, and then decreases.
After it decreases, there is no month in which it rises again.

Question 1.
What is the highest temperature in degrees Celsius?
Answer:
44°C

Question 2.
In which month was it recorded?
Answer:
May

Question 3.
Which months of the year can be called the summer season?
Answer:
March, April, May

Question 4.
Between which consecutive months did the temperature increase the most?
Answer:
February – March, March – April

Question 5.
And between which consecutive months did it decrease the most?
Answer:
November – December

From this graph, we can find the following:
The highest temperature is 26 degrees Celsius
The lowest temperature is 5 degrees Celsius
The lowest temperature occurs in January and December
The temperature gradually increases from January, reaches its maximum in June, and then starts decreasing.
June and July have the same temperature
May and August also have the same temperature
The smallest difference in temperatures is seen between May – June and July – August
The largest difference in temperature between two consecutive months is between October and November
The least difference is between January – December and June – July

Here, the high temperature and the low temperature are drawn together in a single graph.
By looking at the graph, we can find these facts.
The four months in which the difference between the high temperature and the low temperature is the greatest are from January to April
The four months in which this difference is the smallest are from June to September
The high temperature remained unchanged in two consecutive months – July and August
The low temperature remained unchanged in two consecutive months – June and July. What else can we find?
The lowest temperature is in January and December.
The difference between the highest and lowest temperatures in June is 14°C.
Now let’s write these in a table and check whether the above statements are correct.


What all can be understood from this graph?
The overs are marked at intervals of 5 and the runs are marked at intervals of 50.
India won the match by scoring more runs than New Zealand before reaching 50 overs.
New Zealand lost 7 wickets, and India lost 6 wickets (as shown by the number of red dots)

New Zealand scored more runs in the first 10 overs.
Between the overs 5 – 10, 10 – 15, and 25 – 30, India’s total runs at one stage reached the same point as New Zealand‘s earlier total.
After that, India’s total never fell below New Zealand’s total at any stage of the match.
After the 35th over, India’s score became much higher than New Zealand’s.
After the 25 -30 overs, India lost a wicket in the 40th over.
The first Indian batter scored a century (because India’s first wicket fell after 100 runs, and the first three red dots appear on the red line).
India lost two wickets between the 20th and 25th overs.
The first New Zealand batter scored more than 50 runs.
India lost another wicket between the 25 – 30 overs.