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HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium are part of SCERT Kerala Plus One Previous Year Question Papers and Answers. Here we have given Higher Secondary Kerala Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus.

Board	SCERT, Kerala Board
Textbook	NCERT Based
Class	Plus One
Subject	Chemistry
Papers	Previous Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Category	Kerala Plus One

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2023
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper June 2022
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2019
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2023
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2022
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2021
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2020
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Board Model Paper 2019
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2018
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2017
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Improvement Question Paper 2018
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Plus One Chemistry Model Question Paper Set 4

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium will help you. If you have any query regarding HSS Live Kerala Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Physics Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium are part of SCERT Kerala Plus One Previous Year Question Papers and Answers. Here HSSLive.Guru has given Higher Secondary Kerala Plus One Physics Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on the CBSE NCERT syllabus.

Board	SCERT, Kerala Board
Textbook	NCERT Based
Class	Plus One
Subject	Physics
Papers	Previous Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Category	Kerala Plus One

Kerala Plus One Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2023
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper June 2022
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper Sep 2021
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2020
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2019
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper SAY 2019
• Kerala Plus One Physics Board Model Paper 2023
• Kerala Plus One Physics Board Model Paper 2022
• Kerala Plus One Physics Board Model Paper 2021
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2018
• Kerala Plus One Physics Question Paper March 2017
• Kerala Plus One Physics Improvement Question Paper 2018
• Kerala Plus One Physics Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Plus One Physics Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Plus One Physics Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Plus One Physics Model Question Paper Set 4

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Physics Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium will help you. If you have any queries regarding HSS Live Kerala Plus One Physics Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020

PART – A

Answer any 7 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Water gas is a mixture of
(a) CO + H₂
(b) CO + N₂
(c) CO₂ + H₂
(d) CO₂ + N₂
Answer:
(a) CO + H₂

Question 2.
The element that has outer electronic configuration 3d54s1 belongs to
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Answer:
(c) d-block

Question 3.
The number of radial nodes of 4p orbital is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2 (n – l – 1)

Question 4.
The species that can form both conjugate acid and conjugate base among the following is
(a) H₂O
(b) BF₃
(c) HCl
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(a) H₂O

Question 5.
Liquids having larger difference in boiling points are separated by
(a) Distillation
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Vacuum distillation
Answer:
(a) Distillation

Question 6.
The oxidation number of an atom in the elementary form is ………….
Answer:
Zero

Question 7.
The unit of coefficient of viscosity in c.g.s. system is
Answer:
Poise or gcm^-1S^-1

Question 8.
The class of organic compound differe by a group between adjacent members are called
Answer:
Homologous series

Question 9.
The combination of smoke and fog is known as ……….
Answer:
Smog

PART B

Answer any 10 questions from 10 – 22. Each carries 2 scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 10.
(a) Classify the following matter as homogenous mixture, heterogenous mixture, element and compounds. (1)
Answer:
Homogenous mixture – air
Heterogenous mixture – Muddy water
Element – gold Compound – water

(b) Define limiting reagent of a reaction. (1)
Answer:
Limiting reagent is that reagent which is completely used up in the reaction.

Question 11.
Write any two characteristic properties of canal rays. (2)
Answer:
1. They move in straight line
2. They affect photographic plate

Question 12.
(a) Identify the group and period of an element having atomic number (Z) 25 in the periodic table. (1)
Answer:
Period – 4, Group – 7

(b) Predict the formula of the stable binary com-pound that would be formed by the combination of the following pairs of elements: (1)
(i) Lithium and Oxygen
(ii) Aluminium and iodine
Answer:
(i) Li₂O
(ii) AlI₃

Question 13.
Explain the general periodic trend of first ionization enthalpy along a period and group in the periodic table. (2)
Answer:
In a period as we move from left to right first ionisation enthalpy increases. In a group as we move down first ionisation energy decreases.

Question 14.
A gas occupy 400ml volume at 47°C and 800mm of Hg pressure. What will be its pressure at a height where the temperature is 27°C and volume of the gas is 450ml? (2)
Answer:

Question 15.
Define extensive and intensive properties. Give examples for each. (2)
Answer:
Extensive properties are properties which depend upon mass.
eg: mass, volume, internal, energy, enthalpy heat capacity.

Intensive properties are properties which are independent of mass.
eg: Temp, density, pressure

Question 16.
Derive the relation between equilibrium constants K_c and K_p for a general reaction.
at equilibrium. (2)
Answer:

Question 17.
(a) What are saline hydrides? (1)
Answer:
Saline hydrides or ionic hydrides are formed by the reaction of Hydrogenation with first or second group elements, ie. alkali metals and alkaline earth metals.

(b) Why hard water is unsuitable for laundry pur-pose? (1)
Answer:
It does not form lather with soap.

Question 18.
List any two points of difference between Lithium and other alkali metals. Give reasons. (2)
Answer:
Li is harder.
Li can form monoxide

Question 19.
(a)What is borone bead test? (1)
Answer:
On heating Borax first loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating it turns into a transparent liquid which solidifies into glass like material known as borax bead.

(b) SiCl₄ can be hydrolysed but CCl₄ cannot. Why? (1)
Answer:
In CCl₄ there is no vacant d orbitals. So it cannot be hydrolysed. But in Si; there are vacant d orbitals.

Question 20.
(a) Why AlCl₃ exist as dimers? (1)
Answer:
AlCl₃ is an electron deficient compund and is unstable. So it forms dimer.

(b) Write the basic structural unit of silicons and silicates.
Answer:
Silicone – (R₂SiO)_n
Silicates – SiO^4-

Question 21.
Give the complete and bondline structure of pent-e-en-2-ol. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula

Question 22.
Drawnttiei Newman projections for staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula

Answer any 7 questions from 23 – 31. Each carries 3 scores. (7 × 3 = 21)

Question 23.
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen combines to form H₂O and H₂O₂. Which law of chemical combination is illustrated here? (1)
Answer:
Law of multiple proportion.
When two elements combine to form more than one compound the fixed masses of element combine with the other bear a simple whole no. ratio.

(b) The balanced chemical equation for combustion of CH₄ is
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
Calculate the amount of water formed by the combustion of 32g of CH₄? (2)
Answer:

Question 24.
(a) Give two examples of compounds having expanded octet. (1)
Answer:
PCl₅, SF₆

(b) Draw the Lewis dot symbols of (2)
(i) Cl₂
(ii) NF₃
Answer:

Question 25.
(a)Write the name of Van der Waal’s force between (1)
(i) Non-polar molecules.
(ii) Molecules having permanent dipoles.
Answer:
1. London forces
2. Dipole – Dipole interaction

(b) State Dalton’s law of partial pressures. (1)
Answer:
Total pressure exerted by a mixture of non reactive gases is equal to the sum of partial pressures of the individual gases.

(c) At higher altitudes, pressure cooker is used for cooking. Give Reasons. (1)
Answer:
At higher altitudes atmospheric pressure is very low. Water boils at low temp.

Question 26.
(a) Write the mathematical expression of First Law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
∆U = q + w

(b) Define standard enthalpy of formation. (1)
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change when one mole of a compound is formed from its constituent efements in their standard state.

(c) Write the condition of temperature for a process to be spontaneous whose ∆H and ∆S values are positive. (1)
[Hint: ∆G = ∆H – T∆S]
Answer:
∆H – T∆S = ∆G
For a process to be spontaneous ∆G should be negative.
If ∆H & ∆S are positive ∆G is negative only at high temperature

Question 27.
(a) Justify that the following reaction is a redox reaction.
H₂S_(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2HCl_(g) + S_(s) (2)
Answer:

Sulphur gets Oxidised and Cl₂ gets redused.
Both oxidation and reduction occurs.

(b) Write the Stock notation of MnO₂. (1)
Answer:
Mn(IV)O₂

Question 28.
(a) What is calogen? (1)
Answer:
Calgon – Sodium hexametaphosphate

(b) Explain the methods used for the removal of temporary hardness of water. (2)
Answer:
Boiling – Hard water is boiled and the precipitate is filtered.
Clark process – Calculated amount of Ca(OH)₂ is treated with hard water.

Question 29.
(a) What is the purpose of adding gypsum during the manufacture of cement? (1)
Answer:
To decrease the setting time of cement

(b) Match the following.
Tablee
Answer:
Tablee

Question 30.
(a) What is Lindlar’s catalyst?
Answer:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal.

(b) Identify A, B and C.

Answer:

(c) Complete the following reaction:

Answer:

Question 31.
Define the following terms:
(i) Freons
(ii) BOD
(iii) Green house effect, nnalmoyon (oiisonio
Answer:
(i) Freons – Chlorofluorocarbons

(ii) BOD – Biochemical oxygen demand
The amount of oxygen required to degrade organic matter.

(iii) Green house effect
When number of the trees in the earth decreases, the amount of CO₂ in the earth increases. As a result temperature in the earth increases. Because of this ice burgs melts and seal level rises. This is known as Green House Effect.

Answer any 3 questions from 32 – 35. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 32.
(a) Write the n and I values of a 4d electron. (1)
Answer:
n = 4, l = 2

(b) Give the names of series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen and their region in the electro¬magnetic spectrum. (2)
Answer:
(b) Lyman – u.v.
Balmer – Visible
Paschen – IR
Bracket – IR
Pfund – IR

(c) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (1)
Answer:
Pairing occurs only after all the degenerate orbitals are completely half filled.

Question 33.
(a) Predict the hybridisation of phosphorous atom in PCl₅ molecule. (1)
Answer:
PCl₅ – sp³d

(b) Account for the high reactivity of PCl₅ molecule. (1)
Answer:
In PCl₅ there are two types of bonds. (1) Two axial bonds and 3 equatorial bonds.
Axial bonds are longer and are more reactive.

(c) Draw the MO energy level diagram of O₂ molecule. (2)
Answer:

BO = ½(nb – na)
= ½(10 – 6) = 2

Question 34.
(a) Predict the nature of solution produced by the hyrolysis of sodium acetate. (1)
Answer:

(b) Calculate the pH of a solution having H⁺ ion concentration 3.8 × 10³ m. (2)
Answer:
pH = -log[H⁺] = -log(3.8 × 10^-3)

(c) Explain the effect of pressure in the following equilibrium using Le Chatelier principle:

Answer:
Co + 3H₂ → CH₄ + H₂O
No.of moles of reactants is more than no.of moles of product. So high pressure is favoured.

Question 35.
(a) Write the IUPAC name of

Answer:

(b) Write the functional isomers of molecule having molecular formula C₃H₆O. (1)
Answer:

(c) How will you detect the presence of chlorine in an organic compound using Lassigne’s test.(1)
Answer:
A little of the salt is mixed with metallic sodium in an ignition tube and heated. When it becomes red hot it is plunged into water taken in a China dish boiled and filtered. This is known as Lassaignes extract.

A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with dil. HNO₃ and 1 ml AgNO₃ is added white ppt is obtained. This white ppt indicates presence of chloride ion.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

Answer the following questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Warehousing provides utility.
(a) Time
(b) Place
(c) Risk
(d) Finance
Answer:
(a) Time

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given.
(a) State Bank of india – Public sector Bank.
(b) HDFC Bank
Answer:
Private Sector

Question 3.
Respecting religious sentiments of society is an example of kind of social responsibility of business.
(a) Ethical
(b) Legal
(c) Economic
(d) Discriminating
Answer:
Ethical

Question 4.
List any ‘one’ method of payment mechanism in online transactions.
Answer:
Cheque, COD etc.

Question 5.
Identify the document which acknowledge debt of a company.
(a) Share
(b) Debenture
(c) Stock
(d) All of these
Answer:
Debenture

Question 6.
Name any one institution for supporting small business in India.
Answer:
NABARD, DIC etc.

Question 7.
Trade between two persons belong to the same country is called
(a) External trade
(b) Internal trade
(c) Foreign trade
(d) International trade
Answer:
Internal Trade

Question 8.
Which among the following is a mode of entry into international business?
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Joint ventures
(c) Wholly owned subsidiaries
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

II. Answer any 3 questions from 9 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 9.
Mohan, a teacher in Ernakuiam bought a carfor Rs. 5 lakhs. After two months he sold it to Raju for Rs.6 lakhs. Is it a business activity? Why?
Answer:

1. No. It is not a business activity.
2. Regularity in dealings is required in a business.

Question 10.
List any two privileges of a Private Company.
Answer:
Privilages of a private company are

1. Minimum number of members is 2.
2. No need to issue prospectus.
3. No need to keep index of members.

Question 11.
List out the stages in the formation of a Private Company.
Answer:
Stages of formation of a company are
a. Promotion
b. Incorporation

Question 12.
What do you mean by working capital?
Answer:
Working capital means amount of capital invested in current assets.

Question 13.
Briefly explain any two problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems of small businesses are

1. Lack of adequate/inance
2. Lack of raw materials
3. Poor managerial skill
4. Low quality of products

Question 14.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending machine products are

1. Newspaper
2. Soft drinks
3. Sanitary Napkins
4. Chocolates

III. Answer any 3 questions from 15 to 20. Each carries 3 scores.(3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Write any three feature’s of a Co-op. society.
Answer:
Features of Co-operative Societies are:

1. Voluntary membership : The membership of a co-operative society is voluntary.
2. Legal status : Registration of a co-operative society is compulsory.
3. Limited liability: The liability of the members of a co-operative society is limited.
4. Service motive: “Self help through mutual help” or “each for all and all for each” is the foundation of co-operative society.

Question 16.
List out any ‘three’ merits of a Statutory Corporation.
Answer:

1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament.
2. It is wholly owned by the Central Govt.
3. It has a separate legal entity.
4. It is usually independently financed.

Question 17.
Who is a promoter? List out any two functions of him.
Answer:

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
3. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.
4. Appointment of professional: Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

Question 18.
Describe the term ‘retained earnings’.
Answer:
a) Retained Earnings
b) Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 19.
Write ashort note on ‘District Industries Centre.
Answer:
The District Industries Centers (DICs): DICs were established in May 1978. District Industries Centers is the institution at the district level which provides all the services and support facilities to the entrepreneurs for setting up small and village industries. Identification of suitable schemes, preparation of feasibility reports, arranging for credit etc, are the main activities undertaken by these centres.

Question 20.
Differentiate between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
a) Licensing
Licensing is a contractual arrangement in which one firm grants access to its technology to another firm in a foreign country. The firm that grants permission is known as licensor and the firm that receives the rights is called the licensee,
b) Franchising
Franchising is similar to licensing. But it is used in connection with the provision of services. The parent * company is called the franchiser and the other party to the agreement is called franchisee.

IV. Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 30. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 21.
Classify the following industries in to extractive, genetic, manufacturing and constructions.
(a) Mining
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Building a dam
(d) Sugar production
Answer:
a) Mining – Extractive
b) Poultry Farming – Genetic
c) Building a dam – Construction
d) Sugar production – Manufacturing

Question 22.
Match the following:-

A	B
(a) Partnership	Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company	Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship	Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society	Member

Answer:

A	B
(a) Partnership	Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company	Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship	Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society	Member

Question 23.
Explain any four features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of Department Undertakings

1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt, employees.

Question 24.
What you mean by e-banking? Give two examples fore-banking services.
Answer:
a) E-banking means the conduct of banking transactions using the computer network.
b) Eg: ATM, Electronic Fund Transfer

Question 25.
Write a short note on the following:
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Government warehouses
Answer:
a) Bonded warehouses : These warehouses are used to keep the imported goods before the payment of import duties.
b) Government warehouses: These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. For example, Food Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation, and Central Warehousing Corporation.

Question 26.
What is outsourcing of services? List out any two „ benefits of it.
Answer:

1. Business Process Outsourcing
2. Merits of outsourcing
   • It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
   • It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
   • It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.
   • It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four causes of environmental pollution.
Answer:
Causes of PollutionMany industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.

1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.
4. Noise Pollution : Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Question 28.
Describe any four clauses of memorandum of association.
Answer:

1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the co pany is proposed to be situated.
2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares
   held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 29.
Write four differences between share and debenture..
Answer:

Shares	Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company	Debenture holders are the creditors of the company
Shareholders get dividends	Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right	Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares	Generally debentures are secured

Question 30.
List out any four ‘differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Domestic Business	International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country	Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country	Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country	There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature	International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 5 questions from 31 to 40. Each carries 5 scores. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 31.
Match the following.

A	B
(a) Hindrance of place	Insurance
(b) Hindrance of risk	Transport
(c) Hindrance of finance	Advertising
(d) Hindrance of knowledge	Warehousing Features
(e) Hindrance of time	Banking

Answer:

A	B
(a) Hindrance of place	Transport
(b) Hindrance of risk	Insurance
(c) Hindrance of finance	Banking
(d) Hindrance of knowledge	Advertising
(e) Hindrance of time	Warehousing Features

Question 32.
Briefly explain any five features of a Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
3. Formation : The formation of a company is>a time consuming and complicated process.
4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insblvency or insanity of shareholders..
5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.

Question 33.
Explain any two principles of insurance applicable to life insurance.
Answer:
a) Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract, b) Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.

Question 34.
Describe the following:
(a) e-Commerce
(b) cash on delivery
Answer:
a) E-commerce covers a firms interactions with its customers and suppliers over the internet.
b) Payment on e-commerce transactions at the time of delivery of goods.

Question 35.
How business import its responsibility to the following interest groups?
(a) Owner
(b) Worker
(c) Consumer
(d) Government
(e) Community
Answer:

1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners :To provide a fair return on the investment.
2. Responsibility towards the workers To provide fair wages.
3. Responsibility towards consumers : Supply quality goods and sen/ices at reasonable prices.
4. Responsibility towards Government : Respect the Laws of the country.
5. Responsibility towards community : Make employment opportunities.

Question 36.
Write any five differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:
a) A social responsibility is the obligation of businessman which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society, b) Discretionary responsibility:- This refers to voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes.

Question 37.
What are departmental Stores? briefly explain any three features of it.
Answer:

Memorandum of Association	Articles of Association
It defines the object of the company	It defines rules of Internal management of the company
It is the main document of the company	It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders	It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of Memorandum is compulsory	Filing of Articles is not compulsory for public company
Alteration of Memorandum is very difficult	It can be altered by passing a special resolution.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Public Company and Private Company.
Answer:
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store:

1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
4.  It is located at central places of the city.
5. The products are arranged in separate departments.

Question 39.
What are global enterprises? List out any three features of it.
Answer:

Basis	Private	Public Company
a) Members	Company	Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
b) Minimum number of directors:	Minimum-2 Maximum – 200	Three
c) Minimum paid up capital:	Two	X 5 lakh
d) Transfer of shares:	X 1 lakh	No restriction
e) Prospectus:	Restriction on transfer	Can issue prospectus

Answer any 2 questions from 41 to 44. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 40.
What is Commerce? briefly describe the various functions of Commerce.
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 41.
What is Partnership Deed? What are its contents?
Answer:
Commerce
Commerce is defined as all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange of goods. It includes all those activities, which are necessary for the free flow of goods and services from the producer to the consumer. Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade. Commerce = Trade + auxiliaries to trade Functions of commerce

Various Hindrances	Remedies
Hindrance of person	Trade
Hindrance of place	Transportation
Hindrance of time	Warehousing
Hindrance of risk	Insurance
Hindrance of knowledge	Advertising
Hindrance of finance	Banking

Question 42.
Illustrate the various functions,performed by Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Partnership Deed: The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership is called the partnership deed.
 Contents of deed

1. Name of firm
2. Nature of business and location of business
3. Duration of business
4. Investment made by each partner
5. Profit sharing ratip
6. Rights, duties and powers of the partners
7. Salaries and withdrawals of the partners
8. Terms governing admission, retirement and expulsion of a partner
9. Interest on capital and interest on drawings
10. Procedure for dissolution of the firm
11. Preparation of accounts and their auditing
12. Method of solving disputes

Question 43.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions

1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank . accepts following types of deposits. They are:
   • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
   • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
   • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
   • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
   • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
   • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
   • Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

1. Agency Functions
   • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
   • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
   • Purchase and sale Of shares and debentures
   • Acting as trustees or executors
   • Providing credit information
2. General utility services
   • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
   • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank , draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
   • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
   • Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 44.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘ Self Service Store’.

1. Features of Super Market
   • They are located at the centre of a town.
   • They sell goods on cash basis only.
   • They deal wide variety of goods.
   • There is no salesman to help consumers
2. Advantages
   • Consumers can purchase everthing from supermarket.
   • There is no bad debt as sales are on cash basis only.
   • They are located at the centre of a town.
   • Consumers can select goods according to their taste and preferences.
   • Variety of goods is available in a super market.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Scores: 80

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Which of the following is adopted by the government to promote equity in the agricultural sector after independence in India?
(a) Advancement in technology
(b) Self-Reliance
(c) Land Reforms
(d) Diversification
Answer:
(c) Land Reforms

Question 2.
Which of the following is an Indirect Tax?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Goods and Service Tax
(c) Corporation Tax
(d) Property Tax
Answer:
(b) Goods and Service Tax

Question 3.
Who used ‘Jail Cost of Living’ to discuss the poverty line in Pre-independent India?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) R.C. Desai
Answer:
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 4.
Horticulture relates to:
(a) Production of Milk and Milk Products
(b) Production of Fruits, Vegetables, Flowers etc.
(c) Production of Fish
(d) Animal Husbandry
Answer:
(b) Production of Fruits, Vegetables, Flowers etc.

Question 5.
Primary Sector includes:
(a) Construction
(b) Trade
(c) Manufacturing
(d) Mining and Quarrying
Answer:
(d) Mining and Quarrying

Question 6.
Population in statistics means:
(a) Total number of people in the country
(b) Total number of people in the world
(c) Totality of the items under study area
(d) Selected items in the study area
Answer:
(c) Totality of the items under study area

Question 7.
Which of the following is a frequency diagram?
(a) Histogram
(b) Pie-diagram
(c) Simple bar diagram
(d) Multiple bar diagram
Answer:
(a) Histogram

Question 8.
The measure of central tendency which divides the series into two equal parts:
(a) Quartiles
(b) Arithmetic mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode
Answer:
(c) Median

Question 9.
Which of the following is the most frequently observed value in a series?
(a) Percentiles
(b) Range
(c) Frequency
(d) Mode
Answer:
(d) Mode

Question 10.
Which index number is known as the cost of living index?
(a) Wholesale Price Index
(b) Consumer Price Index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) Sensex
Answer:
(b) Consumer Price Index

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
List any four causes of poverty in India.
Answer:
Poverty is one of the biggest challenges faced by India.
4 Causes of Poverty

• Inequality
• Unemployment
• Overpopulation
• Lack of capital formation

Question 12.
What are the two aspects of diversification in agricultural productive activities?
Answer:

• To bring change in cropping patterns.
• To shift the workers from agriculture to other allied activities.

Question 13.
List any two merits of the Pilot Survey.
Answer:

• To understand the quality of the questionnaire.
• It helps to know the cost and time required for the actual survey.

Question 14.
Calculate a simple aggregative price index for the following data:

Item	Base Period Price	Current Period Price
A	4	6
B	6	6
C	4	5
D	2	5

Answer:

Question 15.
List any four steps towards making a project.
Answer:
Project is a useful device to understand important problems faced by society and it also helps us to seek solutions.
4 Steps towards making a project

• Identifying a problem
• Choice of a target group
• Collection of data
• Organisation and Presentation of data

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 16.
Write the suitable economic term for the following:

1. \(\frac{\text { Total number of workers in India }}{\text { Population in India }} \times 100\)
2. Workers who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood.
3. Process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried employment to casual wage work.

Answer:

1. Worker Population Ratio
2. Self Employed
3. Casualisation of Workforce

Question 17.
Complete the chart showing the functions of the environment.

Functions of Environment

Provides Aesthetic Services _______________________ ________________________ ________________________

Answer:

• It supplies resources.
• It assimilates wastes.
• It sustains life.

Question 18.
List any three areas, where an economist can use statistical tools.
Answer:

• To solve economic problems.
• To formulate economic planning.
• Used in the formulation of economic policies.

Question 19.
Distinguish between continuous variable and discrete variable with one suitable example for each.
Answer:
Variables that can take only certain values can be termed discrete variables.
eg: Population
Variables that can take any numerical values can be termed continuous variables.
eg: Height

Question 20.
Construct a pie chart from the following data:

Item of Expenditure	Percentage
Labour Charge	60
Wood	15
Iron	5
Bricks	12
Cement	4
Supervision	4

Answer:

Item of Expenditure	Percentage	Degree
Labour Charge	60	216
Wood	15	54
Iron	5	18
Bricks	12	43.2
Cement	4	14.4
Supervision	4	14.4
	100	360

Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 21.
Write a note on the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The term green revolution refers to the huge progress made in Indian agriculture through the inception of some preplanned programs termed strategies. The components of the green revolution are the use of high-yielding varieties of seeds, extended irrigation facilities, chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and the availability of institutional credit.

Question 22.
(a) What do you mean by Agricultural Marketing System?
(b) List any three measures initiated to improve agricultural marketing in India.
Answer:
(a) Agricultural marketing is a process that involves assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading, and distributing different agricultural commodities across the country.
(b) Establishment of regulated markets.
Cooperative marketing.
Provision of infrastructural facilities.

Question 23.
Match Column ‘A’ suitably with Column ‘B’:

A	B
(i) Commune System	Students and professionals are sent to work and learn on the side
(ii) High Fertility Rate	Massive industrialization of the country
(iii) The Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution	Collective cultivation of land
(iv) Great Leap Forward	Pakistan

Answer:

A	B
(i) Commune System	Collective cultivation of land.
(ii) High Fertility Rate	Pakistan
(iii) The Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution	Students and professionals are sent to work and learn in the countryside.
(iv) Great Leap Forward	Massive industrialization of the country.

Question 24.
Draw scatter diagrams showing the following correlation:
(a) Perfect Positive Correlation
(b) Negative Correlation
(c) Negative Non-linear Correlation
(d) Positive Correlation
Answer:
(a) Perfect Positive Correlation

(b) Negative Correlation

(c) Negative Non-linear Correlation

(d) Positive Correlation

Question 25.
List any four issues in the construction of an Index Number.
Answer:

• Purpose of index number
• Selection of the base year
• Selection of items
• Sources of data

Answer any 4 questions from 26 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 26.
Explain the sources of human capital formation in India.
Answer:
Human capital formation is an important prerequisite to attain economic development, we can make it possible through the following ways.

• Investment in education
• Investment in health
• Investment in on-the-job training
• Migration
• Expenditure on information

Question 27.
From the data given below, find the median graphically.

Number of Shares	Shareholders
0 – 10	60
10 – 20	80
20 – 30	12
30 – 40	28
40 – 50	20

Answer:

Number of Shares	Shares Holders	Less than Value	LCF	More than Values	MCF
0 – 10	60	10	60	0	200
10 – 20	80	20	140	10	140
20 – 30	12	30	152	20	60
30 – 40	28	40	180	30	48
40 – 50	20	50	200	40	20

Question 28.
Prepare a frequency distribution table from the data given below by taking class width as 7 by the exclusive method:

Answer:

Question 29.
(a) What are the methods that a researcher uses to collect primary data?
(b) Write the advantages of any one method.
Answer:
Primary data can be collected through the following methods.

1. Personal interview
2. Mailing questionnaire
3. Telephone interview

1. Merits of Personal Interview

• The response rate is very high
• Use all types of questions
• Possible to use open-ended questions
• Possible to make more clarifications

2. Merits of Mailing Questionnaire

• Least expensive
• The best method in case of sensitive questions.
• Gives enough time to answer the question.
• Maintains anonymity of respondents.
• The only method to reach remote areas.

Question 30.
(a) What do you mean by sustainable development?
(b) Explain the strategies for sustainable development.
Answer:
(a) It is an approach where the present generation meets their needs without reducing the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
(b) Strategies followed to attain sustainable development.

1. Use of non-conventional sources of energy
   • LPG, gobar gas in rural area
   • CNG in Urban areas
   • Wind energy
   • Solar energy
2. Mini hydel projects
3. Traditional knowledge and practices
4. Organic farming
5. Bio composting
6. Bio pest control

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
Calculate Mean, Median, and Mode from the data given below:

Marks in Economics	Number of Students
0 – 10	5
10 – 20	15
20 – 30	18
30 – 40	12
40 – 50	20
50 – 60	15
60 – 70	7
70 – 80	3

Answer:

Question 32.
Analyze the Liberalization policy measures introduced in India as a part of the New Economic Policy in 1991.
Answer:
India introduced economic reforms in 1991, this program is famously known as the LPG program.

1. Liberalisation
2. Privatisation
3. Globalisation

Liberalization: Withdrawal of strict restrictions and regulations imposed on economic activities can be termed as liberalization.
Liberalization policy measures introduced in India.

1. Deregulation of the Industrial Sector
   1. Delicensing
   2. Dereservation
   3. Dereservation of Goods for Small-Scale Industries
   4. Amendment of MRTP Act and FERA
2. Financial Sector Reforms
3. Tax Reforms
4. Foreign Exchange Reforms
5. Trade and Investment Policy Reforms

Question 33.
“Govt adopted a three-dimensional approach towards poverty alleviation in India.”
(a) What are the three approaches?
(b) Analyse them.
Answer:
Poverty is one of the biggest challenges faced by modern India. To solve this problem government implemented many programs, which are given below.
1. Growth-Oriented Approach: This government expects poverty reduction when the economy experiences high growth (trickle-down).
2. Generation of income and employment through the creation of assets:

• Self-employment and wage employment programs
• Food security programs
• Social securing programs

(i) Self-employment and Wage Employment Programmes

• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
• Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana
• Rural Employment Generation Programme
• Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana
• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
• Nehru RozgarYojana
• National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme

(ii) Food Security Programmes

• Public Distribution System
• Integrated Child Development Schemes
• Mid-Day Meals at School
• Annapoorna Scheme
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana

(iii) Social Security programs

• Aam Aadmi Bimayojana
• Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme
• Rashtriya Swastika Bimayojana
• Atal Pension Yojana
• Janasree Bima Yojana
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
• National Social Assistance program

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Commerce includes trade and ……
(a) Industry
(b) Auxiliaries to trade
(c) Business
(d) Outsourcing
Answer:
(b) Auxiliaries to trade

Question 2.
A ……. partner is one who allows the use of his/ her name by a firm, but does not contribute to its capital.
(a) Active
(b) Sleeping
(c) Nominal
(d) Secret
Answer:
(c) Nominal

Question 3.
Find the odd one out.
(a) FCI
(b) RBI
(c) Indian Railway
(d) ONGC
Answer:
(c) Indian Railway

Question 4.
The warehouses which are licensed by the government to accept imported goods before the payment of tax and customs duty are called
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Private warehouses
(c) Government warehouses
(d) Public warehouses
Answer:
(a) Bonded warehouses

Question 5.
Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles causes pollution.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Noise
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Name any two documents to be submitted before Registrar of Companies for getting a company registered.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association, Articles of Association

Question 7.
_____ is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period varying from 90 days to 364 days.
(a) Equity share
(b) Trade credit
(c) Debentures
(d) Commercial paper
Answer:
Commercial Paper

Question 8.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Question 9.
This type of retail shop operates on the principle of ‘ self service. Identify the type of retail shop referred here.
Answer:
Supermarket/Super Bazar

Question 10.
Name the document which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to designated destination.
Answer:
Bill of Lading

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
List out any four multiple objectives of business.
Answer:
(a) Market standing
(b) Innovation
(c) Productivity
(d) Earning Profit

Question 12.
What is joint venture?
Answer:
When two business organisations join hands for mutual benefit by pooling their resources and expertise, it is a joint venture.

Question 13.
List out any four basic features of Business service.
Answer:
(a) Intangibility
(b) Inconsistency
(c) Inseparability
(d) Involvement
(e) No Inventory

Question 14.
Write any four payment mechanism available in online shopping.
Answer:
(a) Cash on Delivery
(b) Cheque
(c) Credit Card
(d) Debit Card
(e) Google Pay
(f) Phoen Pe

Question 15.
Narrate any two functions performed by a promoter.
Answer:
Functions of a Promoter

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.

Question 16.
Briefly explain trade credit as a short-term source of finance.
Answer:
Trade Credit: Trade credit is a shortterm source of financing. The credit extended by one trader to another for purchasing goods or services is known as trade credit. Trade credit facilitates the traders to purchase goods without immediate payment.

Question 17.
Name any four types of itinerant retailers.
Answer:
(a) Hawkers
(b) Peddlers
(c) Market Traders
(d) Street: Traders

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
State the meaning of Government Company. Write any two limitations of Government Company.
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

1. Government companies are suffering from, interference by political parties.
2. The government companies have to depend upon the government for deciding policy matters, resulting in delaying the decisions.

Question 19.
Explain social responsibility of business towards the following interest groups:
(a) Consumers
(b) Employers
(c) Shareholders or owners
Answer:
(a) Consumers – Provide quality goods at reasonable price.
(b) Employees – Provide job security and fair wages
(c) Shareholders – Provide adequate return on investment.

Question 20.
Eventhough lease financing is one of the important sources of finance, it suffers from some limitations. List out any three such limitations.
Answer:
Limitations

1. Lease agreement imposes some restrictions on the use of assets.
2. If the lease agreement is not renewed, it will af-fect the business.
3. The Lessee never becomes the owner of the as-set.

Question 21.
Bata Shoe Store is an example of this type of fixed shop large retailers. Identify and explain this type of retailer.
Answer:
(a) Multiple shops or chain store
(b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops
Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through- out the nation.

Question 22.
Briefly explain any three important foreign trade promotion measures and schemes.
Answer:
Foreign Trade Promotion Measures and Schemes

1. Duty drawback scheme: it refers to the refund of customs and excise duties paid on imported inputs used in the manufacture of export goods.
2. Export manufacturing under bond scheme: U nder this facility firms can produce goods without payment of excise and other duties. The firms can avail this facility after giving an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes.
3. Exemption from payment of GST : Goods meant for export purposes are not subject to GST. Income derived from export operations had been exempt from payment of income tax.

Question 23.
Write any three advantages of departmental store.
Answer:
Advantages

1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located &t central places they attract a large number of customers.
2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
Briefly explain the nature of business risk.
Answer:
Nature of Business Risks

1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
2. It is an essential part of business.
3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business.
4. Profit is the reward for risk taking.

Question 25.
Write any four merits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
Merits of Sole Proprietorship

1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

Question 26.
Write a short note on different types of banks.
Answer:

1. Commercial Banks: Commercial Banks are banking institutions that accept deposits and grant loans and advances to their customers. There are two types of commercial banks, public . sector and private sector banks.
   • Public Sector Bank: Public sector banks are owned and managed by the Government. Eg. SBI, PNB, IOB etc:
   • Private Sector Bank: Private sector banks are owned and managed by private parties. Eg. HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, etc.
2. Co-operative Banks: Co-operative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Co-operative Societies Act. They managed on the principles of co-operation, “self help and mutual help”.
3. Specialised Banks : Specialised banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks which provide financial aid to industries, joint venture projects and foreign trade.
4. Central Bank : The Central bank supervises, controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government bank. It controls and co-ordinates currency and credit policies of any country. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country.

Question 27.
Match the following:

A	B
(a) Memorandum of – Association	Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association	Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus	Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation	Rules regarding internal management

Answer:

A	B
(a) Memorandum of – Association	Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association	Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus	Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation	Rules regarding internal management

Question 28.
State any two merits and demerits of debentures.
Answer:
Merits

1. Debenture holder do not have voting right
2. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
3. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management

Limitations

1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.

Question 29.
Write any four differences between Domestic and International business.
Answer:

Domestic Business	International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country	Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country	Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country	There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature	International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
On the basis of nature of operation, co-operative societies are of different types. Describe any five types of co-operative society.
Answer:
Types of Co-operative Societies

1. Consumer’s co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consum-ers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest priced
2. Producer’s co-operative societies : These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers. It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members.
3. Marketing co-operative societies : Such societies are established to help small producers in selling their products. It collects the output of members and sells them at the best possible price. Profits are distributed to members.
4. Farmer’s co-operative societies : These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers. Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilisers, machinery and other modern techniques for use in the cultivation of crops.
5. Credit co-operative societies : Credit co-operative societies are established for providing easy credit to the members, at low rates of interest.

Question 31.
State the features of Global enterprises.
Answer:

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 32.
Write any five differences between traditional business and e-business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional Business	e-business
1. Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high	Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important	Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low

Question 33.
Describe the various basic elements of business I ethics.
Answer:
Elements of Business Ethics

1. Top management commitment: The higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing the moral values of the organisation.
2. Publication of a Code: ‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles & values. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, etc.
3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism: A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.
4. Employees Involvement: To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.
5. Measuring Results: Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

Question 34.
Memorandum of Association of a company contains different clauses. List out and explain such clauses.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association

1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
5. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their’ intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 35.
What are the major problems faced by small scale industries in India?
Answer:
Problems of small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
Explain the types of Industries with the help of a chart.
Answer:

Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1. Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries are divided into two.

• Extractive industries: These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
• Genetic industries: These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

2. Secondary industries: Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
   • Analytical Industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
   • Synthetical Industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
   • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
   • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. telesion, car, computer, etc.
2. Construction industries : These industries are involved’ in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

3. Tertiary industries : These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg. Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Question 37.
Explain the features of Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
Features

1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association. i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
3. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.
5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.
6. LIability: The liability of the shareholders is limited.
7. Common seal : The Company has a common seal.
8. Transferability of shares: Shares of a joint stock company are freely transferable.

Question 38.
Explain in detail of any four principles of insurance with suitable examples.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance1.

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
2. Insurable interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Answer any 8 of the following questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
What is the reward of business activity?
(a) Salary
(b) Fees
(c) Profit
(d) Wages
Answer:
(c) Profit

Question 2.
The eldermost member of HUF business is known as _____
(a) Shareholder
(b) Karta
(c) Coparceners
(d) Partner
Answer:
(b) Karta

Question 3.
Identify the public enterprise where at least 51 % share held by Government.
(a) Departmental Undertaking
(b) PublicCorporations
(c) Government Company
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Government Company

Question 4.
Identify the bank which controls the operations of all commercial banks in the country.
(a) Co-operative Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Specialised Bank
(d) Nationalised Bank
Answer:
(b) Central Bank

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Point of Sale
(b) Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) Digital Cash
(d) Cash Payment at the counter
Answer:
(d) Cash Payment at the counter

Question 6.
Identify the resources required for the successful implementation of E-business.
(a) Computer
(b) Trained workforce
(c) Website
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 7.
Emission of toxic gases leads pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution

Question 8.
Identify the internal sources of finance from the following:
(a) Retained earning
(b) Debenture
(c) Term loans
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(a) Retained earning

Question 9.
The term VPP is associated with _____ business.
(a) Departmental store
(b) Chain store
(c) Super bazaar
(d) Mail order
Answer:
Mail order

Question 10.
Buying and selling of goods and service between two countries may be _____
(a) Domestic trade
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Home trade
(d) lnternal trade
Answer:
Foreign trade

Answer any 5 of the following questions from 11 to 16. Each carries 2 score. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Briefly explain the following :
(a) Nomina! Partner
(b) Active Partner
Answer:
a) Nominal partner (Quasi partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.
b) Active partner: A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.

Question 12.
Write two differences between Traditional Business and E-business.
Answer:

Traditional Business	e-business
1. Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high	Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important	Location is not important

Question 13.
Complete the following as per the hint given :
(a) Produce goods and service that society want and sell them at a profit
(b) Responsibility to operate within the laws of the country.
(c) Helping people of affected area of natural calamity.
Answer:
a) Economic Responsibility
b) Legal Responsibility
c) Discretionary Responsibility

Question 14.
Complete the diagram:
Answer:
a) Promotion
b) Incorporation

Question 15.
What is Factoring?
Answer:
Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the busintess in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Question 16.
Mention any two kinds of itinerant traders.
Answer:

1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and move from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys,.vegetables, fruits etc.
2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed-days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 17.
Write any three differences between Private company and Public company.
Answer:

Basis	Private Company	Public Company
a) Members	Minimum – 2 Maximum – 200	Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
b) Minimum paid up capital	Rs. 1 lakh	Rs. 5 lakh
c) Transfer of shares	Restriction on Transfer	No restriction
d) Name:	End with “Private Limited” or (P) Ltd.	End with “Limited” or Ltd.

Question 18.
Write three forms in which a public enterprise can be formed.
Answer:
Three forms of public enterprises are
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Statutory Corporations
c) Govt, companies

Question 19.
Complete the diagram with given hints:
Answer:

B2B	Business to Business	Giving order for raw material
C2C	Customer to Customer	Selling old books by one customer to another customer
B2C	Business to Customer	Selling goods to customers
Intra B	Transactions within the business	Transfer of goods from one branch to another branch

Question 20.
Write any three functions of promoter.
Answer:

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.
4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decke about the members who wiLl be signing the Memorandum

Question 21.
Write short notes on:
(a) Fixed Capital Requirement
(b) Working Capital Requirement
Answer:

1. Fixed capital requirements: In order to start a business, funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery etc. This is called fixed capital requirement.
2. Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 22.
Write any three procedure for export trade.
Answer:
Export Procedure

1. Receipt of enquiry and sending quotations: The prospective buyer of a product sends an enquiry to different exporters.
2. The exporter sends a reply to the enquiry in the form of a quotation.
3. Receipt of order or indent: If the buyer is satisfied with the exporter, he places the order or indent for the goodi
4. Assessing importer’s creditworthiness and securing a guarantee for payments: After receipt of the indent, the exporter demand a letter of credit from the importer.

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 23 to 27. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Classify the following activiities into primary and secondary industry:
(a) Timbering
(b) Breeding of animals
(c) Construction of dam-
(d) Production of goods
(e) Mining
(f) Assembling of components
Answer:

Primary Industries	Secondary Industries
1. Timbering	1. Construction of dam
2. Breeding of animals	2. Production of goods
3. Mining	3. Assembling of components

Question 24.
Explain any four functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:

• Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
  1. Current deposit: This type of account is usu¬ally opened bybusinessmen.lt carries no inter¬est. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
  2. Savings deposit : Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
  3. Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
•  Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
  1. Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
  2. Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
  3. Discounting of bill of exchange : Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
  4. Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.
  5. Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
     • Agency Functions
     • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
     • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
     • Purchase and sale of shares and debentures.
  6. General utility services
     • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
     • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
     • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures

Question 25.
Explain any four clauses of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:

1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an
   activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 26.
What is Preference Share? Distinguish it from Equity Share.
Answer:
a) Preference Share: The capital raised by issue of preference shares is called preference share capital. The preference shareholders enjoy a preferential right over equity shareholders in two ways:
a) The right to get a fixed rate of dividend.
b) The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 27.
Write any for differences of Foreign trade and Domestic trade.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 11.2

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 28 to 31. Each carries 5 score. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Identify five hindrances in the process of exchange of goods and services and activities undertaken to remove these hindrances.
Answer:
Auxiliaries to Trade (Aids to trade) Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade or auxiliaries to trade.

1. Transportation: Transport facilitates movement of products from the place of production to the place of consumption.
2. Communication: Communication helps the producers, traders and consumers to exchange information with one another.
3. Banking: Banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance.
4. Insurance: The goods may be destroyed while in production process or in transit. Insurance provides protection in all such risks.
5. Warehousing: The goods should be stored till the time they are sold. This function is performed by warehouses.
6. Advertising: Advertising helps in providing information about goods and services.

Question 29.
What is MNC? Explain any four features of MNC.
Answer:
a) Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Question 30.
Write any five problems faced by small business units.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 9.7

Question 31.
Match the following :

Column – A	Column – B
Return on investment	Responsibility to government
Fair wages	Responsibility to suppliers
Payment of taxes	Responsibility to owners
Quality products	Responsibility to employees
Prompt payment	Responsibility to customers

Answer:

Column – A	Column – B
Return on investment	Responsibility to owners
Fair wages	Responsibility to employees
Payment of taxes	Responsibility to government
Quality products	Responsibility to customers
Prompt payment	Responsibility to suppliers

Answer any 2 of the following questions from 32 to 34. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Briefly explain any four merits and four demerits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
a) Sole Proprietorship: Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.

b) Merits of Sole Proprietorship

1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

c) Limitations of Sole Proprietorship

1. Limited capital: A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.
2. Lack of continuity : Death or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.
3. Limited managerial ability : A sole proprietor may not be an expert in management.
4. Unlimited liability : The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.

Question 33.
(a) What is Insurance?
(b) Explain any six principles of insurance.
Answer:
a) Insurance is an agreement between two parties whereby one party undertakes, in exchange for a consideration, to pay the other party an agreed sum of money to compensate the loss, damage or injury caused as a result of some unforeseen events.

b)

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an.insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.
5. Causa proxima : When the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause for the loss alone will be considered by the insurance company for admitting the claim.
6. Contribution : In certain cases, the same subject matter is insured with one or more insurer. In case there is a loss, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by him.

Question 34.
“Everything under one roof” Identify the business organization mentioned here. Write any four features and three merits of it.
Answer:
Departmental Store
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one  anagement. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store. Features of a departmental store.

1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
4. It is located at central places of the city.
5. The products are arranged in separate departments.
6. Sales, control and management are centralized,

Advantages

1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
4. Mutual advertisement: All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising.
5. Risk distribution: If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
6. Increased sales: Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its.sales.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Hindi Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2019 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Hindi Board Model Paper 2019 with Answers

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

General Instructions to Candidates:

• There is a ‘Cool-off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use the ‘Cool-off time’ to get familiar with questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• Read the instructions carefully.
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

सूचना : सही मिलान कीजिए:

प्रश्न 1.
अ) Save – सार्वजनिक
आ) Resource – प्रक्रम
इ) Trash – कुंजीपटल
ई) Internet – संगणक
उ) Keyboard – कूड़ेदान
ऊ) Public – सहेजें
ऋ) Computer – अंतर्जाल
ए) Programme – संसाधन
उत्तर:
अ) Save – सहेजें
आ) Resource – संसाधन
इ) Trash – कूड़ेदान
ई) Internet – अंतर्जाल
उ) Keyboard – कुंजीपटल
ऊ) Public – सार्वजनिक
ऋ) Computer – संगणक
ए) Programme – प्रक्रम

सूचना : कवितांश पढ़ें और 2 से 4 तक के प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए ।

मनु नहीं मतु पुत्र है यह सामने, जिसकी
कल्पना की जीभ में धार होती है,
बाण ही होते विचारों के नहीं केवल
स्वप्न के भी हाथ में तलवार होती है ।
स्वर्ग के सम्राम को जाकर खबर कर दे
रोज़ ही आकाश चढ़ते जा रहे हैं ये ;
रोकिए, जैसे बने, इन स्वप्नवालों को
स्वर्ग की ही ओर बढ़ते आ रहे हैं ये ।

प्रश्न 2.
यह कवितांश के रचनाकार कौन है ? (1)
(जयशंकर प्रसाद, पवन करण, रामधारीसिंह दिनकर)
उत्तर:
रामधारी सिंह दिनकर

प्रश्न 3.
मनुपुत्र के विचार कैसे होते हैं ? (1)
उत्तर:
बाण होते है ।

प्रश्न 4.
प्रगतिशील काव्य के तत्वों के आधार पर आस्वादन टिप्पणी लिखिए । (6)
उत्तर:
श्री रामधारी सिंह दिनकर हिंदी काव्य जगत के सशक्त कवि है । आप राष्ट्रकवि के नाम से भी विख्यात है । प्रगतिशील कविता के सभी गुण आपके कविताओं में देख सकते है ।

मानव की प्रगति ही इस कविता का मूल मंत्र है। काल्पनिक कविता से ऊपर उठकर यथार्थता के धरातल पर खड़े होकर मानव की प्रगति के बारे में कवि यहाँ व्याख्या करते हैं। केवल स्वप्न पर न चढ़कर आगे-आगे अग्रसर होते हुए मानव चलते है । कल्पना, विचार, स्वप्न यह तीनों को निस्सार न मानकर इसके बल पर अग्रसर होते हैं मानव । कवि कहते हैं कि मानव रोज़ ही आकाश की ओर चढ़ते जा रहे है, यानी मानव नयी नयी आविष्कारों के सहारे आकाश को भी अपने कब्जे ले रहे है, आध्यात्मिक पक्ष से भौतिक पक्ष प्रगतिशील कविता का अंतरधार है । इसलिए कवि अंतिम पंक्तियों में कहते हैं कि स्वर्ग को भी ललकारनेवाला है मानव ।

प्रगतिशील कविता के गुण कवि सरल शब्दों के सहारे चित्रित किया है। उचित पद कविता को प्रभावशाली बनाता है, यह आधुनिक समाज में प्रासंगिक रचना है ।

सूचना: 5 से 8 तक के प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीन का एक या दो वाक्यों में उत्तर लिखिए । (3 × 2 = 6)

प्रश्न 5.
‘पत्थर की बैंच
जिसपर अंकित हैं आँसू, थकान
विश्राम और प्रेम की स्मृतियाँ’
पत्थर की बैंच पर क्या अंकित है ?
उत्तर:
पत्थर की बैंच पर आँसु, थकान, विश्राम और प्रेम की स्मृतियाँ अंकित है ।

प्रश्न 6.
‘हम दूकानों लूटने या मोटरें तोड़ने नहीं निकले हैं- हमारा मकसद इससे कहीं ऊँचा है।”
यहाँ इब्राहिम अली किस लक्ष्य की सूचना देता है ?
उत्तर:
यहाँ इब्राहिम अली स्वतंत्रता की सूचना देता है ।

प्रश्न 7.
‘आगे वह कुछ नहीं सुन सका । एक सन्नाटे ने उसे अपने आगोश में ले लिया…. । किसको सन्नाटे ने अपने वश में कर लिया ?
उत्तर:
बाबूजी को सन्नाटे ने अपने वश में कर लिया ।

प्रश्न 8.
‘अंतरिक्ष छिडकेगा कन-कन
निशि में मधुर तुहिन को
रात में अंतरिक्ष क्या करती है ?
उत्तर:
रात में अंतरिक्ष मधुर तुहिन को छिड़कता है ।

सूचनाः 9 से 13 तक के प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं चार का उत्तर चार-पाँच वाक्यों में लिखिए । (4 × 4 = 16 )

प्रश्न 9.
जीवनवृत्त पढ़िएः

जीवन-वृत्त नाम : पवन करण जन्म : 9c जून १९६४ जन्मस्थान : ग्वालियर मध्यप्रदेश प्रमुख रजनाएँ : इस तरह मैं, स्त्री मेरे भीतर, अस्पताल के बाहर टेलिफोन विशेषता : अपने परिवेश एवं जनसाधारण के कवि पुरस्कार : रामविलास शर्मा पुरस्कार, केदार सम्मान

उत्तर:

पवन करण

प्रसिद्ध कवि श्री पवन करण का जन्म 18 जून 1964 में मध्यप्रदेश के ग्वालियर में हुआ था। आपके प्रमुख रचनायें – ‘इस तरह मैं’, ‘स्त्री मेरे भीतर’ और ‘अस्पताल के बाहर टेलिफौन’ आदि है । अपने परिवेश एवं जनसाधारण के कवि के रूप में विख्यात श्री पवन करण – रामविलास शर्मा पुरस्कार और केदार सम्मान से सम्मानित हुए है ।

प्रश्न 10.
दोहा पढ़िएः
दुख में सुमिरन सब करे, सुख में करै न कोय ।
जो सुख में सुमिरन करे, तो दुख काहे होय । ।
दुख और सुख में ईश्वर का स्मरण करना चाहिए ।
दोहे के आधार पर अपना विचार लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
प्रसिद्ध भक्तकालीन कवि कबीरदाल के एक विख्यात दोहा है यह । दुःख और सुख जीवन से अटूट संबंध रखते है | हम दुःख के समय ईश्वर को पुकारते है । सुख में हम यह भूल जाते है। कबीर का विचार है कि अगर हम सुख में भी ईश्वर के बारे में सोचते तो हमें दुःख होते ही नहीं या दुख भी सुख के समान हो जाएगा। अर्थात् हमें सुख- और दुख दोनों में ईश्वर का स्मरण करना चाहिए ।

प्रश्न 11.
ये कथन पढ़िए:
• हम दुकानें लूटने या मोटरें तोड़ने नहीं निकले हैं ।
• हमारे भाईबंद ऐसे हुकमों की तामील करने से साफ इनकार कर देंगे ।
• हमें अपने भाइयों से लड़ाई नहीं करनी है।
इस कथन के आधार पर इब्राहिम अली के चरित्र – पर टिप्पणी लिखिए ।
उत्तर:
इब्राहिम अली जुलूस एकाँकी का प्रमुख पात्र है। वह स्वतंत्रता सेनानियों के दल के नेता है । महात्मा गाँधी से प्रेरणा पाकर वह स्वतंत्रता संग्राम में भाग लेता है । वह अहिंसा व्रतधारी है। तोड़ना, नाश करना आदि अहिंसा के विरुद्ध है और वह यह करना नहीं चाहता। सभी भारतीय एक न एक दिन स्वतंत्रता संग्राम में भाग लेंगे – यह उम्मीद रखते हैं। एक न एक दिन सभी समस्याओं से मुक्ति मिलेगा – एक आदर्शवादी है वह । सहानुभूति और परोपकार उसके चरित्र में देख सकते हैं। वह किसी से डरते नहीं ।

प्रश्न 12.
मधऋतु कविता की पंक्तियाँ पढ़िए-
इस एकांत सृजन में कोई
कुछ बाधा मत डालो
जो कुछ अपने सुंदर से हैं
दे देने दो इनको ।
‘वसंत सृन का कमय है।’ कवितांश का विश्लेषण करके अपना मत लिखिएछ
उत्तर:
छायावादी कवियों में प्रमुख श्री जयशंकर प्रसाद मधुऋतु कविता में वसंतकाल की सभी विशेषताओं को बड़ी मार्मिक ढंग से चित्रण करते हैं । कवि कहते हैं कि यह सृजन का समय है। सृजन में पूर्ण रूप से अर्पण करना ज़रूरी है। एकांतता भी आवश्यक है । अपने पास जो सबसे सुंदर और अच्छे है वे सब सृजन कार्य में प्रयुक्त करना ज़रूरी है। सृजनात्मकता एक पुण्य होता है, और वसंतकाल इसका सठीक समय है ।

प्रश्न 13.
दुःख कहानी का अंश पढ़िएछ
‘मिट्टी के तेल की ढिबरी के प्रकाश में देखा वह दृश्य उनकी आँखों के सामने से न हटता ।’ दिलीप खोमचेवाले लड़के के घर का दृश्य भूल नहीं सकता है । उस दृश्य के बारे में एक टिप्पणी लिखिए ।
• बच्चे से भेंट
• माँ की परेशानी
• माँ बेटे का प्यार
उत्तर:
यशपाल द्वारा लिखी गयी ‘दुख’ कहानी एक कालजयी कहानी है। संसार में सबकुछ आपेक्षिक है। फिर भी हम कुछ बातों को ज्यादा प्रमुखता देते हैं। दिलीप अपनी पत्नी हेमा के दुख से खोमचेवाले लड़के और उसकी माँ के दुख को ज्यादा मार्मिक समझते है । रास्ते में दिलीप के मुलाकात एक खोमचेवाले बच्चे से होते है और कौतूहल के कारण दिलीप उस लड़के के साथ उसके घर जाते है। घर की हालत, गरीबी, भूख और उसकी माँ यह सब दिलीप को एक अजीब सा अनुभव देता है। रोटी के लिए तरस्ते बच्चे और भूखे रहकर भी बेटे की भूख को मिटाने के लिए कोशिश करती माँ, माँ- बाटे के प्यार, पैसे देने पर उन लोगों की कृतज्ञता आदि दिलीप के दिल को तड़पाते हैं। भूख से पीड़ित होने पर भी अपनी मर्यादा न भुलानेवाली औरत का दृश्य भूलना असंभव बन जाते हैं ।

सूचना : ‘आनंद की फुलझडियाँ’ निबंध का अंश पढ़िए और प्रश्न संख्या 14, 15 के उत्तर लिखिए ।

‘रुपया कमाना सबके हाथ की बात नहीं है, न शिक्षा पाकर डिग्रियाँ हासिल करना सबकी पहुँच में है, लेकिन हम सब चाहें तो आनंद और सुख की रश्मियाँ बिखेरकर दुनिया के दुख को कुछ न कुछ हल्का ज़रूर कर सकते हैं और जिन लोगों से हमारा संबंध है, उनके जीवन में कुछ-न-कुछ प्रसन्नता तो ज़रूर ही ला सकते हैं। लड़ाई, गरीबी, महँगाई और गुलामी से हमारा जीवन तो वैसे ही मुसीबतों से भरा पड़ा है। फिर भी हम उसमें कुछ सुख और आह्लाद फैलाकर जिंदगी की लड़ाई को सहने लायक और जीवन को जीने लायक तो बना ही सकते हैं बशर्त हम उसका ज़रा ध्यान रखें। काम बिलकुल मुश्किल नहीं है। हमें सिर्फ ज़रा ध्यान देने की ज़रूरत है और उसका नतीजा ? वह तो हम फैरन देख सकेंगे ।

प्रश्न 14.
हमारा जीवन क्यों मुसीबतों से भरा पड़ा है ? (2)
उत्तर:
लड़ाई, गरीबी महँगाई और गुलामी के कारण हमारा जीवन मुसीबतों से भरा पड़ा है ।

प्रश्न 15.
खंड का संक्षेपण कीजिए और शीर्षक दीजिए। (6)
उत्तर:

आनंद

जीवन में कई प्रकार के समस्याओं के कारण मुसीबत होते हैं। सिर्फ भौतिक बातों को ध्यान न देकर दूसरों के बारे में सोचे तो आनंद पैदा करना बहुत आसान है। छोटे-छोटे बातों में ध्यान देंगे तो सुख और आह्लाद फैलाना मुश्किल नहीं है ।

सूचना: 16 से 19 तक के प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं तीने के उत्तर लिखिए । (3 × 6 = 18)

प्रश्न 16.
‘वह किसी अपराधी की भाँति सिर झुकाए रिक्शे के साथ-साथ चल रहा था।’ नये रिक्शावाले ने इस घटना के बारे में अपने मित्र को एक पत्र लिखा, वह पत्र तैयार कीजिए ।
• बाबूजी को दफ्तर ले जाना
• असलम की कहानी सुनाना
• रिक्शे से उतर पड़ना
• अपने अपराध को समझाना
उत्तर:

नई दिल्ली,
6 – मार्च – 2005

प्रिय मित्र यादव,
नमस्कार ।

तुम कैसे हो ? काम-धाम ठीक तो है न? घर में सब ठीक तो है न? सब लोगों से मेरा पूछताछ बताना, ईश्वर की कृपा से यहाँ भी सह ठीक तो है ।

मैं एक अजीब बात बताने के लिए यह खत लिख रहा हूँ। कल मेरा मित्र असलम की मृत्यु हुई। वह गरीबी के कारण, बीमार होने पर भी, रिक्षा चलाकर अपनी घर संभालते थे। हम सभी रिक्षावाले उसकी सहायता करते थे फिर भी बीमारी ने उसके जीवन हड़प लिया। पिछले कई दिनों में असलम की गाड़ी में दफ्तर चलनेवाली एक बाबुजी मेरे रिक्षा में बैठा। रास्ते में वह असलम के बारे में पूछा तो मैंने बताया कि कल वह मर गया । मैं असलम की बीमारी और पिछले दिन की घटना के बारे में बता रहे थे । बाबुजी बड़े सोच में पड़ गये। कुछ दूर चलने के बाद वह चौंककर गाड़ी से उतरा, चढ़ाई खतम होते वक्त तक वह मेरे रिक्षा के साथ पैदल चला ।

मुझे पता चला कि उसको बहुत दुःख है । शायद वह सोच रहे होंगे कि कल वह असलम की सहायता करते तो बच जाते। उसको पश्चाताप हुआ है । मुझे यह सब अजीब सा लगा। आज भी लोग ऐसे करते हैं । यह संसार बहुत बुरा तो नहीं है मित्र ।

तुम्हारा मित्र,
रामू

प्रश्न 17.
‘मैं इन्हें इस उम्मीद से फेंक रही हूँ कि इनमें से कुछ भी अगर जड़ पकड़ लेंगे तो लोगों का इससे कुछ फायदा होगा ।” यह सुनकर यात्रीगण दंग रह जाते हैं । तब सहयात्री और संभ्रांत महिला के बीच का संभावित वार्तालाप तैयार कीजिए ।
• महिला की रेलगाड़ी से सफर
• मुट्ठी से कुछ चीज़ बाहर फेंकना
• लोक कल्याण की भावना
उत्तर:
सहयात्री : अरे यह आप क्या करते हो? क्या आपके मुट्टी में ?
संभ्रांत महिला : यह कुछ फलों और फूलों का बीज है और …………………
सहयात्री : हाँ, और आप क्यों इस बाहर फेंक रहे है?
संभ्रांत महिला : मेरा विचार है कि इसमें कुछ न कुछ जड़ पकड़ लेंगे। इस विचार से मैं यात्रा के वक्त ये बीज लाया हूँ ।
सहयात्री : इससे आपको क्या फायदा है ?
संभ्रांत महिला : मुझे तो शायद नहीं होगा, लेकिन कई लोगों को फायदा हो सकते है। फूल खिले तो देखनेवालों को आनंद मिलेगा, फल लगे तो मनुष्यों और पशुपक्षियों की फायदा होंगे ।
सहयात्री : क्या आप इस रास्ते से कभी-कभी आते हैं ?
संभ्रांत महिला : नहीं तो इसकी कोई ज़रूरत नहीं । मैं इस गाड़ी में यात्रा करते वक्त कई पेड़ और पौधे देखे, वह सब किसी न किसी लोगों ने लगाया है। इस प्रकार मेरा कर्म का फल ओर लोगों को मिले ।
सहयात्री : आप यह बहुत बढ़िया काम करते हैं। इस प्रकार के लोगों के कारण ही संसार इतना सुंदर होते हैं ।
संभ्रांत महिला : यह कोई बड़ी बात नहीं है। अगर हम ज़रा ध्यान देंगे तो यह बहुत आसानी ‘से कर सकते हैं ।
सहयात्री : आपसे मुलाकात होकर मुझे बहुत खुशी हुई, धन्यवाद ।
संभ्रांत महिला : मुझे भी गर्व है कि लोग सच्चाई देखते है तो उसे समझते है, धन्यवाद ।

प्रश्न 18.
हिंदी के मशहूर लेखक पवनकरण की कविताओं का एक नया संकलन 2019 अपैल 10 को अभय प्रकाशन कानपुर, उत्तरप्रदेश द्वारा दिल्ली में आयोजित सम्मेलन में प्रकाशित करेगा। उसके लिए आकर्षक पोस्टर तैयार कीजिए ।
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 19.
अंग्रेज़ी वार्तालाप का हिंदी में अनुवाद कीजिए ।
Inspector : Get down, you are on wrong way.
Student : Sir I am sorry I did not see the signal
Inspector: You must careful in crossing the road
Student : Yes sir.
Inspector : Where are you studying ?
Student : I am studying in Govt. H.S.S.Kollam
Inspector : I shall visit your school and take a class on traffic rules
Student : You are welcome
(Get down – नीचे उतरना, Signal – सिग्नल (संकेत),
Careful – सावधान Crossing – पार करना, Traffic rules – यातायात नियम )
उत्तर:
दारोगा : नीचे उतरो तुम गलत रास्ते पर हो ।
छाञ : माफ़ कीजिए साहब, मैं संकेत नहीं देखा ।
दारोगा : सड़क पार करते समय तुम्हें सावधान रहना चाहिए ।
छात्र : जी साहब ।
दारोगा : तुम कहाँ पढ़ रहे हो ?
छात्र : मैं सरकारी उच्च माध्यमिक विद्यालय कोल्लम में पढ़ रहा हूँ ।
दारोगा : मैं आपके विद्यालय में आकर यातायात के नियमों के बारे में एक कक्षा चलायेंगे ।
छात्र : आपको तहे दिल से स्वागत ।

सूचना : 20 से 22 तक के प्रश्नों में से किन्हीं दो का उत्तर लिखिए । (2 × 8 = 16)

प्रश्न 20.
‘मेरी स्मृति में जब भी वे आँखें जाग उठती हैं, मेरी पूरी चेतना ग्लानि, बेचैनी और अपराध बोध से भर उठती है।’ छोटा भाई अपनी आत्मकथा में बड़े भाई का जिक्र करता है। वह आत्मकथांश तैयार कीजिए ।
• भाई के साथ खड़ब्बल खेलना
• बड़े भाई की उपेक्षा
• बड़े भाई को दंड दिलाना
• क्षमा माँगने में असमर्थ रहना

ये सुर्खियाँ पढ़िएः


उत्तर:
आत्मकथा

जीवन कितना अजीब है। वर्षों पहले हुई कई घटनायें आज भी हमारे जीवन में कितना प्रभाव डालते हैं। कुछ घटनाओं को हम भूलना चाहते हैं लेकिन जितने भी कोशिश करें भूल नहीं पाते। मेरे जीवन में भी एक ऐसी घटना है ।

मैं बहुत छोटा था । मेरे घर में माँ बाप और बड़े भाई ही थे । बड़ा भाई बहुत सुंदर था और उसमें बहुत सारे गुण भी थे। वह अपाहिज था । उसको बहुत सारे दोस्त थे ।

मैं बिलकुल उसके उलटा था। मुझे सबसे ज़्यादा दुःख इस पर था कि बड़े भाई और दोस्त खेलते तो मैं अकेला पड़ जाता था। भाई मेरा सहायता करता था, फिर भी कभी कभी मैं अकेला ही होता था। एक बार सब खड़ब्बल खेल रहे थे । इस खेल में ताकत की ज़रूरी थी। इसलिए मैं इस खेल में शामिल न हो पाया। मुझे अकेलापन और नाराजगी महसूस होने लगे थे। मैं कई बार भाई की ओर देखा लेकिन वह खेल में इतना व्यस्त था कि मुझे बिलकुल भूल चुके थे ।

मैं गुस्से से मेरे पास के खडब्बल को एक चट्टान पर फेंक रहा था। वह चट्टान पर टकराकर उछला और सीधे मेरे माथे पर आकर लगा। मैं चीखा और भाई मेरी ओर दौडे। लेकिन मैं उसे दंड दिलाना चाहता था और घर जाकर कहा कि भाई ने खडब्बल से मारा। उसे खूब पीट मिली। लेकिन मैं सच नहीं बताया । वह दर्द से मुझे याचना कर रहा था। वह याचना करते हुए आँखें आज भी मेरे सामने है। वर्षों बीत गये। आज मैं उससे क्षमा माँगना चाहता हूँ लेकिन असमर्थ हूँ ।

प्रश्न 21.
बाढ़ से पीड़ित लोगों के लिए राज्य सरकार की ओर से की गई सेवाओं (Services) की सूचना पाने के लिए श्री. बिजोय बी. तलश्शेरी, कण्णूर द्वारा सार्वजनिक सूचना अधिकारी राजस्व विभाग ( Revenue Department) सचिवालय, तिरुवनंतपुरम, केरल को एक सूचना अधिकार पत्र लिखता है । वह पत्र तैयार कीजिए ।
उत्तर:
सूचना अधिकार पत्र

10
दस रुपए

सेवा में
सार्वजनिक सूचना अधिकारी,
राजस्व विभाग,
सचिवालय, तिरुवनन्तपुरम, केरल ।

आवेदक का नाम
व पता : श्री बिजोय बी
तलश्शेरी, कण्णूर ।

सूचना का विषय : बाढ़ से पीड़ित लोगों को सरकार की ओर से की गई सेवाओं के बारे में जानकारी ।
सूचना का विवरण

1.  केरल में जलप्रलय में कितने लोगों की मृत्यु हुई और उन लोगों के घरवालों को सहायता के लिए कितने रुपये दिये गये ?
2. कितने लोग बेघर हो गये उन लोगों को घर बनाने के लिए कितने पैसे दिये गये ?
3. सरकार द्वारा पीड़ित लोगों की सहायता करने के लिए किसी योजना बनाई है तो उसमें कितने पैसे इकट्टा हुआ है ?

सूचना डाक या दस्ती में : डाक द्वारा

आवेदक
श्री बिज़ोय बी

तल्लश्शेरी

प्रश्न 22.
सूचना के आधार पर किसी मन पसंद फिल्म की समीक्षा कीजिए:
• फिल्म का कथासार
• अभिनय की खूबियाँ / कमियाँ
• निदेशक की भूमिका
• पटकथा, संवाद, छायांकन, संपादन
• अपना दृष्टिकोण
उत्तर:

तारे ज़मीन पर

मेरा मनपसंद फिल्म है तारे ज़मीन पर । आठ साल का बालक ईशान अवस्थी और उसका अध्यापक रामशंकर निकुंभ की कहानी है यह । बालक ईशान जब बोर्डिंग स्कूल पहुँचता है तब से मुरझा जाता है । अनुशासन पर उसके माँ-बाप जितना ज़ोर देता है बालक एकदम विमुख बन जाता है । स्कूल में रामशंकर निकुंभ नामक अध्यापक जब उससे मिलता है उसके आदत बदलने लगता है । छात्र के प्रत्येक खूबियों को अध्यापक पहचानता है और उसे प्रेरणा भी देता है ।

ईशान की भूमिका में दर्शील सफारी और अध्यापक की भूमिका में आमिर खान ने अपनी अपनी भूमिका अच्छी तरह निभाई है । टिस्का चोपड़ा, विपिन शर्मा और अन्य अध्यापक लोगों ने भी अपनी अपनी भूमिका के साथ न्याय किया है । फिल्म का निदेशन, छायांकन, पटकथा, संवाद, गीत और पात्रों का अभिनय सब एक से बढ़कर एक रहा है ।

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Accountancy Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Time: 2 Hours
Maximum Score: 60

I. Answer all questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 Score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Purchased goods for cash is recorded in _________________
(a) Purchases book
(b) Purchases returns book
(c) Cash book
(d) Sales book
Answer:
(c) Cash book

Question 2.
The statement prepared to ascertain the arithmetical accuracy of ledger accounts is _________________
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Trial Balance
(c) Accounting Equation
(d) Statement of Affairs
Answer:
(b) Trial Balance

Question 3.
Which among the following is not an advantage of a computerized accounting system?
(a) Quality reports
(b) High cost of training
(c) Highly reliable
(d) Accuracy
Answer:
(b) High cost of training

Question 4.
Find the odd one:
(a) Sundry debtors
(b) Bills receivables
(c) Bank overdraft
(d) Closing stock
Answer:
(c) Bank overdraft

Question 5.
The purpose of preparing a bank reconciliation statement is _________________
(a) to know the bank balance as per the cash book.
(b) to know the bank balance as per the book.
(c) to identify the causes of the difference between cash book and pass book balances.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) to identify the causes of the difference between cash book and pass book balances.

Question 6.
The amount of depreciation charged under the straight line method.
(a) increases every year
(b) same as every year
(c) equal to its scrap value
(d) decreases every year
Answer:
(b) same as every year

Question 7.
The person to whom the payment of a Bill of Exchange is made is known as _________________
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payee
(d) Endorser
Answer:
(c) Payee

III. Answer any 4 questions from 8 to 15, each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 8.
Goods are withdrawn by the proprietor for his personal use. Write the debit and credit aspects in this transaction.
Answer:
Debit Aspect – Drawings
Credit Aspect – Purchase

Question 9.
Briefly explain the imprest system with an example.
Answer:
The book maintained by the petty cashier to record small payments of a repetitive nature is made by him during a particular period called the Petty cash book. It is usually maintained under an imprest system. Under the mprest system, the petty cashier is given a definite sum of money, say Rs. 500, at the beginning of a certain period. This amount is called the ‘imprest amount’. The petty cashier goes on making all small payments out of this imprest amount and when he has spent a substantial portion of the preset amount, say Rs. 300, he gets reimbursement of the amount spent from the main cashier. Thus, he again has the full imprest amount at the beginning of the next period. The reimbursement may be made on a weekly, fortnightly, or monthly basis, depending on the frequency of small payments.

Question 10.
State the basic objectives of preparing financial statements.
Answer:
Objectives of preparing Financial Statements:

• To ascertain the financial position of a concern.
• To present a true and fair view of the financial performance of the business.
• These statements depict the effectiveness of a company’s management.
• To disclose information about the earning capacity of the business.

Question 11.
Describe the accounting treatment of closing stock given in the adjustment while preparing financial statements.
Answer:
When closing stock is given in adjustment, it will be shown on the credit side of the trading account and after that it will be shown on the asset side of the balance sheet.

Question 12.
State the meaning of prepaid expenses. Give one example.
Answer:
Expenses which have been paid in advance, whose benefit will be available in future, are called Prepaid expenses. On the balance sheet, prepaid expenses are first recorded as an asset. After the benefits of the assets are realized overtime, the amount is then recorded as an expense.
Example: Insurance premium for Rs. 4000 is paid upto 30th June 2020. The accounting year ends on 31st March 2020. This means that an insurance premium of Rs. 1000 (4000 × \(\frac{1}{3}\) = 1000) for three months (April to June) has been paid in advance.

Question 13.
Complete the series as per the hint:
(a) Investment by the owner in the firm: Capital
(b) Cost incurred to earn revenue: _________________
(c) Assets held for a long period: _________________
Answer:

(a) Investment by the owner in the firm	Capital
(b) Cost incurred to earn revenue	Expense
(c) Asset held for a long period	Non-current/fixed asset

Question 14.
State any two limitations of a computer system.
Answer:
Disadvantages of Computer System:

• Lack of common sense
• Lack of IQ
• Lack of decision-making skills
• Computer system lacks common sense

Question 15.
Choose the correct accounting concepts given in the brackets for the following statements.
(Business entity, Going concern, Accounting period)
(a) The interval of time at which the financial statements of an enterprise are prepared.
(b) The business firm would continue to carry out its operations indefinitely.
Answer:
(a) Accounting Period
(b) Going Concern

III. Answer any 2 questions from 16 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 16.
State any three primary objectives of an Accounting.
Answer:
Objectives of Accounting:

• Keeping records of business transactions
• Ascertainment of profit or loss
• Ascertainment of Financial Position
• Provide Information to Various Parties

Question 17.
Show the effect of the Accounting equation on the following transactions:
(a) Started business with ₹ 1,00,000
(b) Purchased goods for cash ₹ 20,000
(c) Sold goods to Priya on credit ₹ 40,000
Answer:

Question 18.
Compute cost of goods sold from the following:
Opening Stock – ₹ 30,000
Purchases – ₹ 1,00,000
Carriage – ₹ 2,000
Closing Stock – ₹ 30,000
Answer:
Cost of Goods Sold = Opening Stock + Purchase + Direct Expenses – Closing Stock
= 30,000 + 1,00,000 + 2,000 – 30,000
= 1,32,000 – 30,000
= 1,02,000

Question 19.
State any three important needs for providing depreciation.
Answer:
The following are the needs for providing depreciation:

• To ascertain the true results of the business.
• To ascertain the true value of the asset.
• To avoid excess payment of income tax.
• To ascertain the accurate cost of production.
• To create funds for the replacement of assets.
• To fulfill legal requirements.

Question 20.
State any three features of a bill of exchange.
Answer:
The following are the features of the bill of exchange:

• A bill of exchange must be in writing.
• It is an order to make a payment.
• The order to make payment is unconditional.
• The maker of the bill of exchange must sign it.
• The payment to be made must be certain.
• The date on which payment is made must also be certain.

Answer any 2 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (2 × 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Briefly explain the qualitative characteristics of Accounting information.
Answer:
Qualitative Characteristics of Accounting Information:

• Reliability: Accounting information must be reliable. Reliable information should be free from error and bias and verifiable.
• Relevance: The information should be relevant and it must be available in time.
• Understandability: Relevant Accounting information must be capable of being understood by all its users.
• Comparability: Accounting information should facilitate intra-firm and inter-firm comparisons.
• Timeliness: Information must be available timely. If not, it loses its ability to influence decisions.

Question 22.
Prepare petty cash book from the following transactions. The imprest amount is ₹ 300.

Answer:
Petty Cash Book

Question 23.
Write any four differences between Journal and Ledger.
Answer:
Difference between Journal and Ledger

Journal	Ledger
1. All transactions are first recorded in the journal.	1. All transactions recorded in the journal are Later transferred to the ledger.
2. In the journal transactions are recorded in Chronological order.	2. In the ledger transactions are recorded in Analytical order.
3. Final accounts cannot be prepared With the help of a journal.	3. Final accounts can be prepared with the help of a ledger.
4. The process of recording entries in the journal is Called journalizing.	4. The process of recording entries in the Ledger is called posting.
5. Balancing is noted in the journal.	5. All ledger accounts are Balanced.

Question 24.
Write the adjusting entry for the following:
(a) Wages outstanding ₹ 4,000
(b) Rent received in advance ₹ 2,000
Answer:

Question 25.
Find out the amount of credit sales from the following:
Debtors as on 1-4-20 – ₹ 30,000
Debtors as on 31-3-21 – ₹ 40,000
Cash received from debtors – ₹ 2,00,000
Discount allowed – ₹ 3,000
Answer:
Total Debtors A/c

V. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 31. Each carries 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 26.
Record the following transactions in the double-column cash book for June 2021:

Answer:
Double Column Cash Book

Question 27.
Briefly explain any five causes of differences between cash book and pass book balances due to timing differences.
Answer:
Causes of difference between bank balance as cashbook and passbook.

• A cheque was issued but not presented for payment.
• The cheque was deposited into the bank but not yet collected and credited.
• Bank charges debited by the bank are recorded only in the passbook.
• Interest and dividends collected and credited by the bank recorded only in the passbook
• A customer directly deposited into a bank account is recorded only in the passbook.
• Payment made by the bank on behalf of the customer is recorded only in the passbook.

Question 28.
Prepare Trial Balance from the following ledger balances:
Cash ₹ 25,000
Sundry debtors ₹ 20,000
Furniture ₹ 15,000
Sundry creditors ₹ 8,000
Bills payable ₹ 7,000
Purchases ₹ 30,000
Sales ₹ 40,000
Salary ₹ 5,000
Interest (Cr) ₹ 10,000
Capital ₹ 30,000
Answer:
Trial Balance as on _________________

Question 29.
Arrange the following items under the heads of Direct expenses, Direct income, Indirect expenses, Indirect income, Assets, and Liabilities:
Purchases
Cash in hand
Insurance
Depreciation
Bills payable
Bank Overdraft
Wages
Machinery
Interest (Cr.)
Sales
Answer:

Direct Expenses	Direct Income	Indirect Expenses	Indirect Income	Assets	Liabilities
Purchase Wages	Sales	Insurance Depreciation	Interest (Cr.)	Cash in Hand Machinery	Bills Payable, Bank Overdraft

Question 30.
Match the following:

Part A	Part B
1. Prepaid insurance	(a) Trading Account
2. Depreciation	(b) Capital
3. Opening Stock	(c) Profit and Loss Account
4. Commission received in advance	(d) Asset
5. Drawings	(e) Liability

Answer:

Part A	Part B
1. Prepaid Insurance	a. Asset
2. Depreciation	b. Profit and Loss Account
3. Opening Stock	c. Trading Account
4. Commission Received in Advanced	d. Liability
5. Drawings	e. Capital

Question 31.
State any five differences between Manual Accounting and Computerized Accounting.
Answer:
The following table shows the difference between Manual Accounting and Computerised Accounting:

Manual Accounting	Computerized Accounting
1. Transactions are recorded manually.	1. Transactions are recorded using the computer.
2. Transactions are recorded in volumes of books.	2. Transactions are recorded in a well-designed database.
3. Retrieval of data is very difficult.	3. Retrieval of data is very easy.
4. It takes a lot of time.	4. It saves a lot of time.
5. Closing entries are necessary.	5. Closing entries are not necessary.
6. The possibility of errors is high.	6. The possibility of errors is less in computerized accounting.

VI. Answer any 2 questions from 32 to 35. Each I carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Record the following transactions in the appropriate special journals:

Answer:
Cash Book

Purchase Day Book

Sales Day Book

Question 33.
Explain the following Accounting concepts:
1. Duality
2. Matching
3. Business Entity
4. Money measurement
Answer:
1. Duality Concept:
The dual aspect is the foundation or basic principle of accounting. This concept states that every transaction has dual aspects – a giving aspect and a receiving aspect. The giving aspect of a transaction is called Credit and the receiving aspect of a transaction is called Debit. Based on the duality principle, an accounting equation is developed, ie Asset = Liabilities + Capital

2. Matching Concept:
According to this concept expense should be I matched to the revenue of the appropriate accounting period to determine correct profit/loss for the accounting period. As per this principal expense or revenue are recognized on the basis of period to which they relate and not when these are paid or received. It is because of this principle the adjustment is made for outstanding expense, accrued income, prepaid expenses, unearned income etc.

3. Business Entity Concept:
Business entity concept assumes that business has a distinct and separate entity from its owner. Owners are considered as creditors of the business to the extent of their capital. This principle states that the affairs of business will not be mixed up with the private affairs of the owner.

4. Money Measurement Concept:
According to this concept, only those transactions that can be measured in terms of money only are are recorded in the books of accounts. The qualitative aspects of the business like efficiency of management, favourable location etc. are important for the business, but they cannot be recorded in the books of accounts because they cannot be evaluated in terms of money.

Question 34.
Journalize the following transactions and prepare the ledger of the cash account:


Answer:
Journal

Question 35.
From the following Trial, balance prepares Trading and Profit and Loss Account and Balance Sheet as of 31-03-2021.

Adjustments:
1. Closing stock was valued at ₹ 12,000
2. Salary outstanding ₹ 1,000
3. Interest received in advance ₹ 500
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the Year ended 31-03-2021

Balance Sheet as of 31-03-21