Plus Two

Students can Download Chapter 9 Structured Query Language Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
______form of SQL is designed for use with in general purpose programming languages such as COBOL, C, etc.
Answer:
Embedded SQL.

Question 2.
What is TCL?
Answer:
Transaction Control Language- component of SQL includes commands for specifying transactions.

Question 3.
Data dictionary is a special file in DBMS. What is it used for?
Answer:
Table details are stored in this file

Question 4.
What does the following statement mean?
Name VARCHAR(30)
Answer:
Field Name can store up to 30 characters. It is a column definition.

Question 5.
Is there any data type available in SQL to store your date of birth information?
Answer:
Ip Yes. DATE data type

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out.
(DEC, NUMBER, INT, DATE)
Answer:
DATE

Question 7.
How do you ensure that the field ‘ name’ will have some value always?
Answer:
using the constraint NOT NULL

Question 8.
How to set the default value of column District in a table to ‘Thrissur’?
Answer:
District VARCHAR(30) DEFAULT ‘ Thrissur’

Question 9.
_______symbol is used as substitution operator in SQL
Answer:
&

Question 10.
Is there any method to find the strings starting with letter ‘a’ from a field in SQL?
Answer:
Use LIKE operator, LIKE ‘a%’

Question 11.
Howto check whether a particular field contains null values or not?
Answer:
Use operator IS NULL

Question 12.
“ORDER BY” clause is used for_______
Answer:
Sorting the results of a query by ascending(Asc) or Descending (Desc).

Question 13.
The built-in functions in SQL that return just a single value for a group of rows in a table are called______
Answer:
Summary functions or aggregate functions.

Question 14.
How to find the number of values in a column in the table?
Answer:
Using the function COUNT()

Question 15.
______is the clause in SQL used for categorization.
Answer:
GROUP BY

Question 16.
Thomas wants to remove a table that he were using. How could you help him doing this?
Answer:
Using DROP TABLE command

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, DROP TABLE)
Answer:
DROP TABLE

Question 18.
Name the aggregate function that can be used to find the total number of records.
Answer:
COUNT()

Question 19.
Which of the following is an essential clause used with SELECT command?
(GROUP BY, ORDER BY, WHERE, FROM)
Answer:
FROM

Question 20.
Which of the following is not a column constraint?
(CHECK, DISTINCT, UNIQUE, DEFAULT)
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 21.
Which of the following is a DDL command?
(SELECT, UPDATE, CREATE TABLE, INSERT INTO)
Answer:
CREATETABLE

Question 22.
What are the logical operators used in SQL?
Answer:
And, Or, Not

Question 23.
The______operator of SQL is used to match a pattern with the help of %. February 2009
(a) BETWEEN
(b) AND
(c) LIKE
(d) OR
Answer:
(c) LIKE

Question 24.
The structure of a table Book is given below.

BookNo	Integer
Title	Varchar (200)
Author	Varchar(100)
Price	Dec(5, 2)

Write SQL query to Insert an additional column Purchase date of date type to the. Books table.
Answer:
Alter table Book add(PurchaseDate Date);

Question 25.
Suppose we want to include a column in a table in which serial numbers are to be stored automatically on adding new records. Which constraint is to be used for that column during table creation?
Answer:
The constraint Autojncrement is used.

Question 26.
Which of the following cannot be used to name a table in SQL? Give the reason.
(a) Studnt50
(b) Table
(c) $Employee
(d) Stock_123
Answer:
(b) Table. This is a keyword hence it cannot be used.

Question 27.
Which of the following commands is used to view the strucutre of a table?
(a) SHOW TABLES
(b) DESC
(C) SELECT
(d) DISPLAY
Answer:
(b) DESC

Question 28.
The command to eliminate the table CUSTOMER from a database is:
(a) REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER

Question 29.
Which SQL command is used to open a database?
(a) OPEN
(b) SHOW
(c) USE
(d) CREATE
Answer:
(c) USE

Question 30.
Which is the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of rows in the selction?
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 31.
Pick odd one out and write reason:
(a) WHERE
(b) ORDER BY
(c) UPDATE
(d) GROUP BY
Answer:
(c) UPDATE. It is a command and others are clauses.

Question 32.
Which of the following clause is not used with SELECT command in SQL?
(a) GROUP BY
(b) WHERE
(c) SET
(d) ORDER BY
Answer:
(c) SET. This clause is used with UPDATE.

Question 33.
______operator in SQL is used with wildcard characters for selection of records,
(a) LIKE
(b) IN
(c) NOT IN
(d) IN and NOT IN
Answer:
(a) LIKE

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is SQL different from other computer high level languages?
Answer:
SQL means Structured Query Language. It is a relational database language, not a programming language like other high level languages. It provides facilities to create a table, insert data into a table, retrieve information from a table, modify data in the table, etc.

Question 2.
Distinguish the SQL keywords UNIQUE and DISTINCT.
Answer:

1. Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column while storing data. It is used with create command.
2. Distinct: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table while retrieving data. It is used with select command.

Question 3.
Identify errors in the following SQL statement and rewrite it correctly. Underline the corrections.
CREATE student TABLE
(admno PRIMARY KEY,
roll no INT,
name CHAR);
Answer:
The correct SQL statement is as follows.
CREATE TABLE student(
admno INT PRIMARY KEY,
roll_no INT,
name CHAR(3));

Question 4.
Suppose a column named Fee does not contain any value for some records in the table named STUDENT. Write SQL statement to fill these blanks with 1000.
Answer:
UPDATE STUDENT SET Fee = 1000 WHERE Fee IS NULL;

Question 5.
Identify the errors in the following SQL statement and give reason for the error.
SELECT FROM STUDENT
ORDER BY Group
WHERE Marks above 50;
Answer:
In this query Group is the key word hence it cannot be used. The correct query is as follows.
SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE Marks > 50 ORDER BY Marks;

Question 6.
Differentiate CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL.
Answer:

• Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
• Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.

Question 7.
Assume that CUSTOMER is a table with columns Cust_code, Cust_name, Mob_No and Email. Write an SQL statement to add the details of a customer who has no e-mail id.
Answer:
INSERT INTO CUSTOMER VALUES(1001, ‘ALVIS’, 9447024365, NULL);

Question 8.
Find the correct clause from the 2^nd column for each SQL command in the1 st column.

Command	Clause
INSERT	SET
SELECT	FROM
UPDATE	INTO
ALTER	ADD

Answer:

Command	Clause
INSERT	INTO
SELECT	FROM
UPDATE	SET
ALTER	ADD

Question 9.
Is ALL a keyword in SQL? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, ALL retains all the duplicate values of a field

Question 10.
Differentiate LIKE ‘a%’ and LIKE ‘a_’
Answer:
%, it replaces a string but _ replaces only one character at a time.LIKE ‘a%’ retrieve all strings of any length that start with letter ‘a.’ while LIKE ‘a_’ retrieve all two letter strings that start with letter ‘a’.

Question 11.
Is multiple sorting possible using ORDER BY clause? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, by giving multiple field names separated by comma in the ORDER BY clause.

Question 12.
While inserting records into a table, Raju finds it is not possible to give more than 20 characters in the ‘name’ field. How can you help Raju solve this problem?
Answer:
Using ALTER TABLE command he can modify the width of field so that it can accommodate more than 20 characters.

Question 13.
After executing a query Mohan gets a message like ‘Table Altered’. What would have he done? Give the syntax.
Answer:
He would have used the ALTER TABLE command.
Syntax, ALTER TABLE <name> ADD/MODIFY (<column>);

Question 14.
During discussion one student said that DELETE and DROP TABLE commands are same. Do you agree with that? Justify.
Answer:
No, DROP TABLE remove a table entirely from the database whereas DELETE command deletes only records from an existing table.

Question 15.

1. Pick odd one out .
   DROP TABLE, DELETE, ALTER TABLE, CREATE VIEW
2. Justify your answer

Answer:

1. DELETE
2. All others are DDL commands

Question 16.

1. Pick odd one out from the following.
   NOT NULL, Group By, Check, Unique, Default
2. Justify your answer

Answer:

1. Group By
2. Group By is not a Constraint.

Question 17.
Consider the following SQL statements.
DELETE Name
From Student
Where name = “Raju”
Find the error in the SQL if any and correct it.
Answer:
Delete from student where name = ‘Raju’

Question 18.
Consider the following Query in SQL.
SELECT Department, avg(salary)
From Employee
Where branch = ‘Kannur’
Group By Department
Having avg (salary) > 7000,
Compare the ‘where’ clause and ‘Having’ Clause using the above query.
Answer:
‘where’ clause applies on single rows but Having clause applies on a group.

Question 19.
Some constraints in SQL are called column constraints. Some constraints are called table constraints. How do they differ?
Answer:
Column constraints are specified while defining each column, table constraints are specified once for the entire table at the end of table definition.

Question 20.

1. Choose the odd one from the following.
   Primary key, Unique, Distinct, Default, Check
2. Justify your choice

Answer:

1. Distinct
2. Distinct is used with select command while others are column constraints of create table command.

Question 21.
Name the most appropriate SQL data type required to store the following data.

1. Name of a student (maximum 70 characters)
2. Date of Birth of a student.
3. RollNo. of a student (in the range 1 to 50)
4. Percentage of marks obtained (correct to 2 decimal places)

Answer:

1. Varchar(70)
2. Date
3. Smallint OR Integer Or decimal(2)
4. Dec(5, 2)

Question 22.

1. From the list given below select the names that cannot be used as a table name.
   Adm_No, Date, Salary 2006, Table, Column_Name, Address.
2. Justify your selection.

Answer:

1. Date, Table
2. There is a data type Date and Table is a key word used to create a table. So these two are not used.

Question 23.
Classify the following SQL elements into two and give proper title for each category.
NOT NULL. AVG. COUNT. CHECK. SUM. DEFAULT
Answer:
1. Aggregate functions:
AVG
COUNT
SUM

2. Column Constraints:
NOT NULL
CHECK
DEFAULT

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As a part of your school project you are asked to create a table Student with the fields RollNo, Name, Date of Birth and Score in IT. The constraints required are RollNo. is the primary key. Name cannot be empty.
Answer:
Create table student(RollNo decimal(2) not null primary key, Name varchar(20) not null, DOB date, Score number(2));

Question 2.
A table Employee consists of fields EmployeeNo, Name, Designation and Salary. Consider that you are forced to give access to this table for an engineer from another company. But for security reasons you need to hide Salary from him.

1. Name the concept that provides this engineer, a facility to work on this table without viewing salary.
2. Write SQL query for implementing this.

Answer:

1. Views
2. Create view Empview as select employee no, Name, Designation from Employee.

Question 3.
Explain the keywords in the following query.
SELECT DISTINCT course FROM Student;
Answer:
SELECT allows to retrieve a subset of rows from the table, DISTINCT avoids duplication of courses from the table STUDENT, FROM is a key word used to specify the name of the table

Question 4.
A table named student is given below.

Write answers for the questions based on the above table.

1. SQL statement to display the different courses available without duplication.
2. SQL statement to display the Name and Batch of the students whose percentage has a null value.
3. Output of the query select count (percentage) from Student.

Answer:

1. Select distinct batch from Student;
2. Select name, batch from Student where percent is null
3. 5

Question 5.
Once the creation of a table is over, one can perform two changes in the schema of the table. What are they? Give syntax.
Answer:
We can alter the table in two ways.

• We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
• We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax, ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 6.
Explain how pattern matching can be done in SQL with an example.
Answer:
Pattern matching can be done using the operator LIKE while setting the condition with pattern matching.

for eg., to display the names of all students whose name begins with letters ‘ma’, we can write the following query, SELECT name FROM STUDENT WHERE name LIKE ‘ma%’; here the character ‘%’ substitutes any number of characters in the value of the specified column. Another character substitutes only one character of the specified column.

Question 7.
During the discussion of study your friend say that table and view are the same. How can you correct him?
Answer:
Tables and views are different. A view is a single virtual table that is derived from other physically existing tables. When we access a view we actually access the base tables.

We can use all the DML commands with the views but care should be taken as operation actually reflects in the base tables. The advantage of view is that without sparing extra storage space, we can use same table as different virtual tables. It also implements sharing along with privacy).

Question 8.
Find the errors if any of the following code. Create table emp (name char, R0IIN0 int(20));
Answer:
Here the argument size of data type char of field name is missing. So we can’t store a character only. The second error is the data type int has no argument. The correct statement is as follows Create table emp (name char(20), RollNo int);

Question 9.
Consider the following variable Declaration in SQL.

• name char (25)
• name Varchar (25)
  1. Considering the utilisation of memory, which variable declaration is more suitable.
  2. Justify your answer

Answer:
1. name varchar (25)

2. Because char data type is fixed length. It allocates maximum memory i.e, here it allocates memory for 25 characters may be there is a chance of memory wastage. But Varchar allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.

Question 10.
Mr. Dilip wants to construct a table and implement some restrictions on the table.

1. Column can never have empty values.
2. One of the columns must be a key to identify the rows etc.

Can you help him to create that table satisfying the above restrictions with an example.
Answer:

1. Use of create table, Not NULL,
2. Primary key

Eg: Create table employee(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key, Name Varchar(70) not null, Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));

Question 11.
Write SQL query to construct a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, grade, etc. As per the following conditions.

1. Reg No should not be empty and using this column any rows in that table can be identified.
2. Student name should have some value.
3. Default value of sex be Female.
4. Grade should be any of the values: A+, A, B+, B, C+, C, D+, D, E

Answer:
Create table Student(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key,Name Varchar(70) not null, sex char default ‘Female’, Grade char(2));

Question 12.
Ramu create Table employee with fields empld, empname, Designation, salary using SQL statements. Later he found that data type of emPId is typed as Integer instead of character and missed a field ‘Department’. Can you help him to solve this problem without recreating ‘employee’ table.
Answer:

• Alter Table Employee Modify(Empld char(4));
• Alter Table Employee Add(Dept char(15));

Question 13.
While creating a table Alvis give “Emp Details” for table name. Is it Possible. Write down the rules for naming a Table.
Answer:
It is not possible because there is a space between Emp and Details. The rules are given below:

1. It must not be a keywond(Key words are reserved words and have predefined meaning)
2. It must begin with alphabets
3. Digits can be used followed by alphabets
4. Special characters cannot be used except under score
5. We cannot give a name of another table

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the table ITEMS.

1. SELECT ITEMCODE, NAME FROM ITEMS WHERE CATEGORY = ‘Stationery’;
2. SELECT * FROM ITEMS WHERE SALES_ PRICE < UNIT_PRICE;
3. SELECT CATEGORY, COUNT(*) FROM ITEMS GROUP BY CATEGORY;’

Answer:
1.

ltem_Code	Name
0001	Pencil
0002	Pen
0003	Notebook
0007	Pen

2.

3.

Category	Count(*)
Stationery	4
Footwear	1
Fruits	2

Question 2.
Write SQL queries to
1. Create a table Employee with the fields given below.

EmpNo	Integer
Name	Character of size 70
Designation	Character size 30
Date of birth	Date
Salary	Decimal (7,2)

2. List the name of all employees whose name’s second letter is ‘a’.
3. List the Name and Designation of employees whose Designation is not ‘Manager’.
4. Increase the salary of all employees by 10 percent.
5. Remove all managers whose salary is less than Rs. 10,000 from the table.
Answer:

1. Create table employee(Name Varchar(70), Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));
2. Select Name from Employee where Name like ‘_a%’;
3. Select Name, Desgn from Employee where Desgn<> ’Manager’;
4. Update Employee set Salary = Salary + Salary * .01;
5. Delete from Employee where Desgn = ‘Manager’ and Salary < 10000;

Question 3.
A table Student consists of fields Roll No, Name, Batch and Percent. Write SQL statements to

1. Display RollNo and Name of students whose percentage is Iessthan90 and greater than 70.
2. Display RollNo and Name of all students in science batch whose percentage is more than
3. Display Names of all students in commerce and science batches.
4. Display the average Percent of students in each batch.
5. Display RollNo and Name in the ascending order of Batch and descending order of Percent.

Answer:

1. Select RollNo.Name from Student where percent < 90 and percent > 70;
2. Select RollNo.Name from Student where Batch = ’Science’ and percent > 90;
3. Select Name from Student where batch = ’Science’ Or batch = ’Commerce’;
4. Select batch, Avg(percent) from Student group by batch;
5. Select RollNo.Name from Student order by batch, percent desc;

Question 4.

1. Classify the following SQL commands. Create table, Insert Into, AlterTable, Delete, Update, Drop Table, Select.
2. List the features of each category.

Answer:
1. DDL – Create Table, Alter Table, Drop Table DML- Insert Into, Delete, Update, Select.

2. DDL – DDL means Data Definition Language. It is used to create the structure of a table, modify the structure of a table and delete the structure of a table.

DML -DML means Data Manipulation Language. It is used to insert records into a table, modify the records of a table, delete the records of a table and retrieve the records from a table.

Question 5.
Explain the available database integrity constraints.
Answer:

1. NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty
2. UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.
3. PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.
4. DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.
5. Auto_increment: This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That is automatically generate serial numbers. Only one auto_increment column per table is allowed.

Question 6.
Consider a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, total score.
Write Sql queries for the following:

1. Enter a Record
2. List the Detail’s of all students
3. Display Details of the student whose name ends with ‘Kumar’.
4. List all Female students who got more than 50 marks.
5. List all students who are studying either science or in Commerce group.
6. List details of those students who are studying Humanities in the Descending order of their names.

Answer:

1. Insert into Student values. (52, ‘JOSE’, ‘Male’, ‘Science’, 500);
2. Select * from Student;
3. Select * from Student where name like ‘%Kumar’;
4. Select * from Student where sex=’Female’ and Total > 50;
5. Select * from Student where course = ‘science’ or course = ‘commerce’;
6. Select * from Student where course=’Humanities’ order by name desc;

Question 7.
Construct a Table Product with the following fields using SQL.
Product code – Consist of Alphanumeric code
Product name – Consist of maximum of 30 Alphabets
Unit price – Numeric values
Quantity – Numeric values
Product price – Numeric Values
Write Query for the following:

1. Enter 5 records in the table (not give values for product prices)
2. Calculate product price (unit price x quantity)
3. List all product whose unit price ranging from 10 to 20
4. Calculate total price of all product.

Answer:
Create table Product(ProdCode Varchar(20) not null primary key, ProdName char(30), UPrice decimal(7, 2), Qty decimal(6), ProdPricedecimal(7, 2));

1. Insert into Product(Product Code,Product Name, Unit Price, Quantity) values (‘101’, ‘LUX’, 29.50, 500); Similarly insert four more records
2. Update Product set ProdPrice = Qty * UPrice;
3. Select ProdName from Product where UPrice between 10 and 20;
4. Select sum(ProdPrice) from Product;

Question 8.
Mr. Wilson wants to store the details of students. The details consists of different types of data. Explain different data types used in SQL to store data.
Answer:
The different data types are:

1. Char (Fixed):
It is declared as char (size). This data type is used to store alpha numeric characters. We have to specify the size. If no size is specified, by default we can store only one character. Eg: name char(20).

2. Variable Character:
It is declared as varchar (size). This data type is also used to store alpha numeric characters. But there is a slight difference.lt allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.
Eg: namevarchar(20)

3. Decimal:
It is declared as Dec(size, scale), where size is the number of digits and scale is the maximum number of digits to the right of the decimal point.
Eg: weight dec(3,2)

4. Integer:
It is declared as int. It does not have any arguments. It takes more memory.
Eg: RollNo int.

5. Small Integer:
It is declared as small int. It takes less memory RollNo int.

6. Date:
It is used to store date.
Eg: DOB date.

7. Time:
It is used to store time.
Eg: Joining_Time Time.

Question 9.
A company wants to create a table to store its employees details. Write SQL Commands for the following :

1. Create a table with EMP table having fields EMPNO primary key varchar(10), Name varchar(20), Salary number(6), Department varchar(3)
2. Insert values to table
3. List all employees whose salary > 10,000
4. Display name and salary in the order of name.

Answer:

1. Create table EMP (EMPNO varchar(10) not null primary key, Name varchar(20), Salary decimal(6), Dept varchar(3));
2. Insert into EMP values (‘1001’, ‘ALVIS’, 50000, ‘Sales’);
3. Select * from EMP where salary > 10000;
4. Select name,salary from EMP order by name;

Question 10.
Create a table ‘Savings’ with the following fields.
Acc No (Integer), Name (char), age (Integer) and balance (Number) where Acc No is the primary key. Write SQL commands for the following.

1. Insert data in all the fields for 3 records
2. Display the list of account holders in the ascending order of their names.
3. Display the list of all account holders having age between 20 and 30
4. Display the name and Acc No of customers having a balance > 10 lakhs

Answer:
Create table Savings(Accno decimal(4) not null primary key, name char(2), age decimal(3), Balance decimal(8,2));

1. Insert into savings values (501, ‘Andrea’, 18,45000)
2. Select * from Savings order by name
3. Select * from Savings where age between 20 and 30
4. Select name.accno from Savings where balance > 100000

Question 11.
Which are the components of SQL? How do they help to manage database?
Answer:
The components of SQL are given below.
DDL commands (3 commands)

• Create table: Used to create a table.
• Alter table: Used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
• Drop table: Used to remove a table from the memory.

DML commands (4 commands)

• Select: Used to select rows from a table. The keyword From is used with this. Where clause is used to secify the conition.
• Insert: Used to insert new records into a table. So the keyword used is INTO.
• Delete: Used to delete records in a table.
• Update: Used to modify the records in a table the keyword used is set.

DCL (Data Control Language) commands

• Grant: It grants permission to the users to the database
• Revoke: It withdraws user’s rights given by using Grant command.

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of marks scored by students in an examination. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all students.
3. List the details of Science group students.
4. Count the number of students in each course.
5. Add a new column named Total to store the total marks.
6. Fill the column Total with the sum of the six marks of each student.
7. Display the highest total in each group.
8. Find the highest, lowest and average score in Subject 6 in Commerce group.
9. Display the names in the alphabetical order in each course.
10. Display the name of the student with the highest total.

Answer:

1.

2.

3. mysql>select * from student1 where course = ’Science’;

4. mysql>select course,count(*) from → student1 group by course;

5. mysql>altertable student1 add(total int);

6. mysql>update studentl set total=mark1 + mark2 + mark3 + mark4 + mark5 + mark6;

7. mysql>select course,max(total) from student1 group by course;

8. mysqt>select max(mark6), min(mark6), avg(mark6) from student1;

9. mysql>select course, name from studentl order by course, name;

10. mysql>select name from studentl where total=(select max(total) from student1);

Question 2.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of items in a computer shop. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements.

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all items in the table.
3. Display the names of items and total price of each.
4. List the items manufactured by a company (specify the name) available in the table.
5. Find the number of items from each manufacturer.
6. Display the details of items with the highest price.
7. List the names of items whose price is more than the average price of all the items.
8. Display the names of items purchased after 1 -1 -2015.
9. Get the details of items manufactured by two or three companies (specify the names) available in the table.
10. Display the details of items from a company (specify the name) with a stock of more than 20 pieces.

Answer:
mysql>create table shop (ItemNo int primary key, name char(30) not null,
DOP date,
UnitPrice float(8, 2),
Qty int,
mfrer char(30));
1. mysql>insert into shop values(1,’Keyboard’, ’2014-08-21’, 300.00, 100, ’Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(2,’Mouse’, ‘2014-08-21 ’, 300.00, 100, ‘Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(3,’Speaker’,’2015-08-21’, 550.00, 100, ’I Ball’);
mysql>insert into shop values(4,’CPU’,’2015-07-21’, 3500.00, 100, ’AMD’);
mysql>insert into shop values(5,’RAM’, ‘2015-08-1’, 1300.00, 100, ’Hynix’);

2. mysql>select * from shop;

3. mysql>select name, UnitPrice*Qty from shop;

4. mysql>select name from shop where mfrer=’Tech Com’;

5. mysql>select mfrer,count(*) from shop group by mfrer;

6. mysql>select * from shop where UnitPrice = (select max(UnitPrice) from shop);

7. mysql>select name from shop where UnitPrice > (select avg(UnitPrice) from shop);

8. mysql> select “from shop where DOP>’2015-1-1’;

9. mysql> select name frogi shop where mfrer=’l Ball’ and Qty>20;

Question 3.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of higher secondary school teachers. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of all female teachers in the table.
3. List the details of male teachers in the Science department.
4. Display the names and basic pay of teachers in the Language department whose basic pay is Rs. 21000/-or more.
5. Display the names and 71 % of basic pay of the teachers.
6. Find the number of teachers in each department.
7. Display the details of teachers whose basic pay is less than the average basic pay.
8. List the male teachers who joined before 1-1-2010.
9. Increment the basic pay of all teachers by Rs. 1000/-.
10. Delete the details of teachers from the Language department.

Answer:
mysql>create table hsst(Teacherld int primary key, name varchar(30) not null,
gender char,
DOJ date,
Dept varchar(15),
BP float(8, 2));
1. mysql>insert into hsst values(1 ,’Jose’,’M’, ‘2002-01-01’,’Science’, 25660);
mysql> insert into hsst values(2,’Christy’,’F’, ‘2012-01-01′,’Commerce’, 20740);
mysql>insert into hsst values(3,’Geejo George’,’M’, ‘2007-01-01’,’Humanities’, 22360);

2. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’F’;

3. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and Dept=’Science’;

4. mysql>select name, BP from hsst where dept=’Language’ and BP >21000;

5. mysql>select name, BP*.71 from hsst;

6. mysql>select Dept,count(*) from hsst group by Dept;

7. mysql>select * from hsst where BP < (select avg(BP) from hsst);

8. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and DOJ<’2010-01-01’;

9. mysql>update hsst set BP=BP+1000;

10. mysql>delete from hsst where Dept= ’Language’;

Question 4.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of customers in a bank. (5 Mark)

Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
2. Display the details of customers having SB account.
3. Display the names of customers with a balance among greater than Rs. 5000/-.
4. Display the details of female customers with a balance amount greater than Rs. 10000/-
5. Count the number of male and female customers.
6. Display the names of customers with the highest balance amount.
7. Display the names of customers whose names end with ‘kumar’.
8. Update the balance amount of a particular customer with a deposit amount of Rs. 2000/-.
9. Display the details of customers with a tax deduction of 2% of the balance amount for those who have Rs. 2,00,000/- in their account.
10. Delete the details of customers with current account.

Answer:
mysql>create table customer
AccNo int primary key,
name varchar(30),
gender char,
DOJ date,
TypeOfAcc char(8),
Balance double(10, 2));
1. mysql>insert into customer values (1001,’Adeline’,’F’,’2008-11-26’,’SB’, 50000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1002,’Aivis’.’M’,’2007-05-19’,’Current’, 500000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1003,’Andrea’,’F’,’2012-07-29’,’SB’, 450000.00);

2. mysql>select * from customer where TypeOfAcc=’SB’;

3. mysql>select name from customer where Balance>5000;

4. mysql>select name from customer where gender=’F’ and Balance>10000;

5. mysql>select gender, count(*) from customer group by gender;

6. mysql>select name from customer where Balance=(select max(Balance) from customer);

7. mysql> select name from customerwhere name like “%kumar”;

8. mysql>update customer set Balance= Balance+ 2000 where Accno= 1001;

9. mysql>select Accno.name, Balance*.02 from customerwhere Balance>=200000;

10. mysql > delete from customerwhere Type Of Acc = ‘Current’;

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Assess Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The command to remove rows from a table ‘CUSTOMER’ is: (1 Mark)
(a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER

Question 2.
If values for some columns are unknown, how is a row inserted? (2 Mark)
Answer:
In this occasion the column list must be included, following the table name.
Eg. INSERT INTO <TABLE NAME> (COLUMN NAME1, COLUMN NAME2,….) VALUES (VALUE1, VALUE2, );

Question 3.
Distinguish between CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
• Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory. It is declared as varchar(size).

Question 4.
What is the difference between PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints? (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.
• Primary key: Similar to unique but it can be used only once in a table.

The strings (i) and (iv) only

Question 5.
What do you mean by NULL value in SQL? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Null is a key word in SQL that represents an empty value.

Question 6.
Which of the following is the correct order of clauses for the SELECT statements? (1 Mark)
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY
(b) SELECT, FROM, ORDER BY, WHERE
(c) SELECT, WHERE, FROM, ORDER BY
(d) SELECT, WHERE, ORDER BY, FROM
Answer:
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY

Question 7.
The SQL operator______is used with pattern matching. (1 Mark)
Answer:
LIKE OPERATOR

Question 8.
Read the following strings : (1 Mark)
(i) ‘Sree Kumar’
(ii) ‘Kumaran’
(iii) ‘Kumar Shanu’
(iv) ‘Sreekumar’
Choose the correct option that matches with the pattern ‘%Kumar’, when used with LIKE operator in a SELECT statement.

1. Strings (i) and (ii) only
2. Strings (i), (iii) and (iv) only ,
3. Strings (i) and (iii) only
4. All the strings

Answer:

Question 9.
List any five built-in functions of SQL and the value returned by each. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Aggregate functions:

1. Sum()- find the total of a column.
2. Avg()- find the average of a column.
3. Min() – find the smallest value of a column.
4. Max() – find the largest value of the column.
5. Count() – find the number of values in a column.

Question 10.
Distinguish between WHERE clause and HAVING clause. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Where clause is used to specify the condition.
Syntax: Select * from student where roll=1;

Having clause is used with Group By to give to form groups of records, not conditions and individual rows.

Question 11.
Write any four DML commands in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:
The four DML commands are:

1. INSERT
2. UPDATE
3. SELECT
4. DELETE

Question 12.
Write the essential clause required for each of the following SQL command. (2 Mark)

1. INSERT INTO
2. SELECT
3. UPDATE

Answer:

1. INSERT INTO – VALUES
2. SELECT – FROM
3. UPDATE – SET

Question 13.
Consider the given table Customer and write the output of the following SQL queries: (5 Mark)

1. SELECT * FROM customer WHERE Amount>25000;
2. SELECT Name FROM customer
   WHERE Branch IN (‘Calicut, ‘Kannur’);
3. SELECT COUNT (*) FROM customer WHERE Amount < 20000;
4. SELECT Name FROM customer WHERE Name like “%m%”;
5. SELECT * FROM customer ORDER BY Amount DESC;

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Question 14.
Distinguish between COUNT (*) and COUNT (column-name). (2 Mark)
Answer:

• Count(): find the number of non null values in a column.
• Count(*): This is used to find the number of records with at least one field.

Question 15.
Considerthe given table ITEMS. (5 Mark)

1. Suggest a suitable primary key for the above table. Give justification.
2. Write SQL statements for the following:
   • To list all stationery items.
   • To list item code, name, and profit of all items.
   • To count the number of items in each category.
   • To list all stationery items in the descending order of their unit price.
   • To find the item with the highest selling price.
   • To create a view that contains the details of all stationery items.

Answer:
1. Item code is the primary key for the table

2. SQL statements:

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

Question 16.
What are the different modifications that can be made on the structure of a table? Which is the SQL command required for this? Specify the clauses needs for each type of modification. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Alter table command is used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
We can alter the table in two ways.

• We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
• We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax,
  ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 17.
A table is created in SQL with 10 records. Which SQL command is used to change the values in a column of specified rows? Write the format. (2 Mark)
Answer:
UPDATE command is used for this.
Syntax : UPDATE <table name> set <column name>=value where condition.

Question 18.
Name the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of values in a column. (1 Mark)
Answer:
DISTINCT.

Question 19.
Distinguish between DISTINCT and UNIQUE in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

• DISTINCT: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table.
• Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.

Question 20.
Pick the odd one out and give reason: (1 Mark)
(a) CREATE
(b) SELECT
(c) UPDATE
(d) INSERT
Answer:
(a) CREATE, It is a DDL command the others are DML commands.

Students can Download Chapter 11 Marketing Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Marketing Management

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It begins even before production of goods and continues even after the sale has taken place. Identify it.
Answer:
Marketing

Question 2.
Modern Marketing Concept Consist of ………………………………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction

Question 3.
Main focus of production concept of marketing is: …………………………
Answer:
Quantity/number of products

Question 4.
means putting identification marks on the package.
Answer:
Labelling

Question 5.
“Mousy cola” a soft drink company used ‘Apple’ as their symbol for advertisement. They duly registered the symbol as per the Act. Identify the symbol as …………….
Answer:
Trademark

Question 6.
When a brand gets registerd and legalized it is called
(a) Branding
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Label
Answer:
(b) Trademark

Question 7.
Setting up of standards or specification of a product and maintaining these standards are ………….
Answer:
Standardisation

Question 8.
“Grand Kerala shopping festival” is concerned with which of the promotion techniques?
(a) Publicity
(b) Advertising
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(c) Sales promotion

Question 9.
During Gnam season Khadi Board declared 20% reduction on all its product. This technique is known as ……..
(a) Refund
(b) Free gift
(c) Rebate
(d) Samples
Answer:
(c) Rebate

Question 10.
Which of the following is not included in the sales promotion technique.
(a) Coupon
(b) Samples
(c) Fair and exhibition
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(d) Personal selling

Question 11.
Face to face interaction between the seller and the prospective buyer for the purpose of making a sale is …………
(a) Promotion
(b) Public Relations
(c) Personal Selling
(d) Grape – Vine Communication
Answer:
(c) Personal Selling

Question 12.
Identify four P’s in marketing mix.
Answer:

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place and
4. Promotion

Question 13.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Price, Promotion

Question 14.
Nonpersonal paid form of sales promotion technique is ………………
(Advertising, Personal Selling, Trade, Marketing)
Answer:
Advertisement

Question 15.
Nonpersonal non paid form of sales promotion technique is …………
Answer:
Publicity

Question 16.
which is not a method of publicity?
(a) News
(b) Medias
(c) Conferences
(d) Exhibitions
Answer:
(d) Exhibitions

Question 17.
Rebate, discount, free gift, etc. are the examples of …………..
Answer:
Sales promotion techniques

Question 18.
Offering more quantity than the quantity recorded in package is called …………
Answer:
Quantity gift

Question 19.
Match the following.

A	B
a) Rebate	a) Pay back the cash, if the customer is not satisfied with the product
b) Money refund	b) Sell the goods at a lesser price than the retail price
c) Discount	c) Give small quantity of product at free
d) Sample	d) Discounted price on retail price of a product

Answer:

A	B
a) Rebate	b) Sell the goods at a lesser price than the retail price
b) Money refund	a) Pay back the cash, if the customer is not satisfied with the product
c) Discount	d) Discounted price on retail price of a product
d) Sample	c) Give small quantity of product at free

Question 20.
What is meant by ‘place’ in marketing mix?
Answer:
Distribution channel, Physical distribution

Question 21.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
Publicity, Sales promotion

Question 22.
Compensation provided by the buyer to the seller is called ………………….
Answer:
Price

Question 23.
Intermediaries in channel of distribution are given below. Draw appropriate channel.
(a) Producer
(b) Agent
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
(e) Consume

1. Zero level channel
2. One level channel
3. Two level channel
4. Three level channel

Answer:

1. a → e
2. a → d → e
3. a → c → d → e
4. a → b → c → d → e

Question 24.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Warehousing, Inventory control

Question 25.
What are the different layers of packages?

Answer:

1. Primary package
2. Secondary package
3. Transportation package

Question 26.
Which is not suitable for good brand name?
(a) It is easy to read and speak.
(b) Similar to existing brand names.
(c) Can be written in various languages.
(d) It can be registered as trademark.
Answer:
(b) Similar to existing brand names

Question 27.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Trademark – Registered brand
(b) Brand name – ……………….
(c) Brand mark – ……………….
Answer:
(b) Indicate the product name
(c) Symbol or word or combination of both which indicate a product.

Question 28.
Make suitable pairs from the following.
(a) Production concept – (a) Quality products
(b) Product concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(c) Sales concept – (c) Customer satisfaction
(d) Marketing concept – (d) Maximum production
Answer:
(a) Production concept – (d) Maximum production
(b) Product concept – (a) Quality products
(c) Sales concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(d) Marketing concept – (c) Customer satisfaction

Question 29.
Differentiate the given concepts in an appropriate way.

Marketing	Selling
a) Wide concept	a) Let the seller beware
b) Satisfaction of seller	b) Product is important
c) Customer is important	c) Narrow concept
d) Let the buyer beware	d) Satisfaction of customers

Answer:

Marketing	Selling
a) Wide concept	a) Satisfaction of seller
b) Customer is important	b) Let the buyer beware
c) Let the seller beware	c) Product is important
d) Satisfaction of customers	d) Narrow concept

Question 30.
Buying a product by spending a lot of time and effort is called ………………..
Answer:
Speciality products

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘Market’.
Answer:
Market: It refers to a place where the buyers and sellers meet each other for sale and purchase of the commodity.

Question 32.
Define Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Question 33.
What do you mean by Marketing Mix?
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Question 34.
Super Bakers intended to introduce a new brand of Bread in the market. Lists out the factors to be taken into account while deciding the labelling of the product.
Answer:
Labelling means putting identification marks on the package. It is a simple tag attached to the product.
Functions of Labelling:

1. It describes the product, its usage, cautions in use, etc. and specify its contents.
2. It helps in identifying the product.
3. It helps grading the products into different categories.
4. It helps in promotion of products.
5. It provides information required by law.

Question 35.
Distinguish between advertisement and publicity.
Answer:

Advertisement	Publicity
1) It is a paid form of communication	1) It is a non-paid form of communication
2) There is an identified sponsor	2) There is no identified sponsor

Question 36.
Write a short note on

1. Consumer goods
2. Industrial goods

Answer:
1. Consumers’ products:
Products, which are purchased by the ultimate consumers for satisfying their personal needs and wants are referred to as consumer products. Consumer products are classified as:

• Shopping efforts involved
• Durability of products

2. Industrial Products:
Industrial products are those products, which are used as inputs in producing other products. The examples of such products are raw materials, engines, lubricants, machines, tools, etc.
Types of industrial products:

1. Materials and Parts – These include goods that enter the manufacture’s products completely.
2. Capital Items – These goods are used in the production of finished goods.
3. Supplies and Business Services – These are short lasting goods and services that facilitate developing or managing the finished product.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 37.
Customer is the King in the Modern concept of marketing. Explain.
Answer:
According to modem marketing concept, the producer gives more importance to the tastes and needs of the consumer. The objective of modem marketing is maximum profit through consumer satisfaction. Now a days, producers produce products according to the needs of the customers. Consumer is the key to marketing and hence consumer is the king.

Question 38.

1. What do you mean by Product Mix?
2. Explain its elements.

Answer:
1. Product:
Product may be defined as anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a want or need. Products may broadly be classified into two categories.
2. Elements:

• Consumers products
• Industrial products

Question 39.
Why Packaging is called as a silent salesman?
Answer:
Packaging is called as a silent salesman because attractive packing encourages people to buy a product just like a salesman.

Question 40.
Explain promotion mix.
Answer:
Promotion Mix:
Promotion mix refers to combination of promotional tools such as Advertising, Personal Selling, Sales Promotion, and Publicity used by an organisation to achieve its communication objectives.

Question 41.

1. What do you mean by Public Relation?
2. State any three features of public relations.

Answer:
1. Public Relation:
It can be defined as publicity through media. The basic purpose of public relation is to create successful relation with the public. It helps to keep different public group satisfied. In order to create public image, the public relation department uses various tools such as.

2. Features of public relations:

• News
• Speeches
• Events
• Written materials
• Public service activities, etc.

Question 42.
‘‘Marketing Mix represents a blending of decisions in four interrelated elements.” Explain.
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 43.
In a classroom debate ‘Smitha’ argues that marketing and selling are same. But ‘Sujith’ argues that marketing and selling are different.

1. Whose argument is relevant?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sujith’s argument is correct.
2. Marketing and selling are different. The differences between marketing and selling are

Marketing	Selling
Marketing is a wider term consisting of number of activities.	It is a narrow concept.
It is concerned with product planning and development.	It is concerned with sale of goods already produced.
It focuses on maximum satisfaction of the customer.	It focuses on the maximum satisfaction of the sellers through the exchange of products.
It aims at profits through consumer satisfaction.	It aims at maximum profit through maximisation of sales.
Marketing begins before actual production.	Selling takes place after the production.
It is customer oriented. Customer is important.	It is product oriented. Product is more important.
The principle of “let the seller beware” is followed,	The principle of “let the buyer” beware is followed.

Question 44.
There are four elements which constitute the core of a marketing system.

1. Suggest a suitable term to describe those elements.
2. Explain any three elements.

Answer:
1. Marketing mix
2. Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 45.
“It rightly says that packaging works as silent salesman”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Packaging is the process of enclosing a product in containers, bottles, boxes, plastic bags, tubes, etc. Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc. while goods in transit or storing in warehouses.

Functions of packaging:

• Packaging helps in identification of the products.
• Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc.
• It facilitates easy transfer of goods to customers.
• Packaging provides convenience in the storage of the product.
• It attracts the consumers to purchase the product.

Question 46.
These are various channel levels which help in the proper distribution of goods from the producers to the consumers. Identify the channel levels.
Answer:
Types of Channels:

1. Direct channel (Zero level): Producer → Consumer
2. One level channel: Producer → Retailer → Consumer
3. Two level channel: Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer
4. Three level channel: Producer → Agent → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer

Question 47.

1. What do you mean by Physical distribution?
2. Explain its components.

Answer:
1. Physical Distribution:
Physical distribution covers all the activities required to physically move goods from manufacturers to the customers.

2. Components of Physical Distribution:

• Order Processing
• Transportation
• Warehousing
• Inventory Control

Question 48.
What are the features of Salesmanship?
Answer:
Personal Selling:
Personal selling involves face to face contact between the seller and prospective customer with an intension of selling some products. It is a personal form of communication.

Features of Personal Selling:

1. It is a direct presentation of the product to the consumers.
2. Develop personal relationships with the prospective customers.
3. The sales presentation can be adjusted according to the specific needs of the individual customers.
4. It is possible to take a direct feedback from the customer.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 49.
Explain different concepts of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing Concepts:
1. The Production Concept:
This concept believed that profits could be maximised by producing at large scale, thereby reducing the cost of production. Here greater emphasis was given on improving the production and distribution.

2. The Product Concept:
According to this concept quality of the product is more important than quantity. Product improvement became the key to profit maximisation of a firm, under the concept of product orientation.

3. The Selling Concept:
This concept focuses on the sale of products through aggressive selling and promotional techniques to persuade the buyers to buy the products.

4. The Marketing Concept:
Marketing concept implies that focus on the satisfaction of customer’s needs is the key to the success of any organisation in the market. Customer’s satisfaction becomes the focal point of all decision making in the organisation.

5. The Societal Marketing Concept:
This concept stresses not only the customer satisfaction but also gives importance to the welfare of the society.

Question 50.
Following are the statements pertaining to functions performed in marketing. Identify the function of marketing from each statement.

1. Physical movement of goods from one place to another.
2. Holding goods from the time of production till the time of their sale.
3. Collection and analysis of relevant facts to solve marketing problems.
4. This includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity.
5. Separating products into different classes on the basis of certain predetermined standards.

Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Warehousing
3. Marketing research
4. Sales Promotion
5. Grading

Question 51.
Give any 6 advantages of branding
Answer:
Advantages of branding:
1. Advantages to the Firm

• Branding helps a firm in distinguishing its product from that of its competitors.
• It helps in advertising and display Programmes.
• Branding enables a firm to charge competitive price for its products than that charged by its competitors.
• It helps in Introduction of new product in the market.

2. Advantages to Customers

• Branding helps the customers in identifying the products.
• Branding ensures a particular level of quality of the product.
• Some brands become status symbols because of their quality. It creates a feeling of proud and satisfaction in the consumers.

Question 52.
Explain the difference between Personal selling and Advertising.
Answer:
Difference between Personal Selling and Advertising

Advertising	Personal Selling
It is an impersonal form of communication.	It is a personal form of communication.
It is inflexible.	It is highly flexible.
Same message is sent to all the customers in a market segment.	The sales talk is adjusted according to the customer’s background and needs.
Advertising lacks direct feedback.	Personal selling provides direct and immediate feedback.
The cost per person is very low.	The cost per person is very high

Question 53.
List down the difference between Marketing and Selling.
Answer:

Marketing	Selling
Marketing is a wider term consisting of number of activities.	It is a narrow concept.
It is concerned with product planning and development.	It is concerned with sale of goods already produced.
It focuses on maximum satisfaction of the customer.	It focuses on the maximum satisfaction of the sellers through the exchange of products.
It aims at profits through consumer satisfaction.	It aims at maximum profit through maximisation of sales.
Marketing begins before actual production.	Selling takes place after the production.
It is customer oriented. Customer is important.	It is product oriented. Product is more important.
The principle of “let the seller beware” is followed,	The principle of “let the buyer” beware is followed.

Question 54.
What are the factors affecting price of a product?
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government underthe Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Question 55.
What are the limitations of advertising?
Answer:
Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Question 56.
“Marketing Mix means a firm’s total marketing programme”.

1. Discuss the components that you would consider while finalizing marketing mix of an organisation.
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:
1. Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

2. Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 57.
Jyoythi Ltd., a manufacturer of leather bag, has decided to undertake production of leather shoes. As a sample, they produced one model of ladies shoe. Suppose you are the marketing manager of the company and are entrusted with the task of fixing the. price for the shoes. What are the factors to be considered by you while fixing the price of this new pair of shoes.
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government under the Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 58.
“The present day marketing is customer oriented . rather than product oriented”. Explain the statement bringing out clearly the nature and objectives of marketing management.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Functions of Marketing:
1. Marketing Research:
Marketing Research is a process of collecting and analysing market information to identify the needs and wants of the customers.

2. Marketing Planning:
Another function of marketing is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.

3. Product Designing and Development:
The products are designed and developed according to the needs and wants of the consumers. It requires decision making on various aspects such as the product to be manufactured, its packing, selling price, quality of the product, etc.

4. Standardisation and Grading:
Standardisation refers to producing goods of predetermined specifications. Grading is the process of classification of products into different groups, on the basis of quality, size, etc.

5. Packaging and Labelling:
Packaging refers to designing and developing the package for the products. Packaging gives protection to goods. Also it attracts the consumers to buy the product. Labelling refers to designing and developing the label to be put on the package.

6. Branding:
A brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, design or some combination of them, used to identify the products of one seller and to differentiate them from those of the competitors.

7. Customer Support Services:
An important function of the marketing management is to develop customer support services such as after sales services, handling customer complaints, etc. which provides maximum satisfaction to the customers.

8. Pricing:
Price of a product refers to the amount of money which customers have to pay to obtain a product. Price is an important factor affecting the success or failure of a product in the market. Price is fixed after taking into account the cost of production, desired profit, competitor’s price, govt, policy, etc.

9. Promotion:
Promotion of products and services involves informing the customers about the firm’s product, its features, etc. and persuading them to purchase these products. It includes Advertising, Personal Selling, Publicity and Sales Promotion.

10. Physical Distribution:
It includes decision regarding channels of distribution and physical movement of the product from the production centre to the consumption centre.

11. Transportation:
Transportation involves physical movement of goods from one place to another. It removes the hindrance of place and creates time utility.

12. Storage or Warehousing:
In order to maintain smooth flow of products in the market, there is a need for proper storage of the products. It stabilizes the prices of products and keep the product without damage until they are sold.

Question 59.
The manager of Impact Enterprises dealing in cosmetics is facing the problem, of poor sales. Suggest and explain the important promotional measures that he can undertake to improve the sales.
Answer:
Techniques of Sales Promotion:

1. Rebate: Offering products at special prices, to clear off excess inventory.
2. Discount: Offering products at less than maximum retail price.
3. Refund: The seller offers to refund a part of the price paid by the customer on production of some proof of purchase.
4. Free gifts: Offering another product as gift along with the purchase of a product.
5. Quantity Gift: Offering extra quantity of the product.
6. Contests: Prize contests are organized for the consumers and winners are given attractive prizes.
7. Money refund: There are certain manufacturers who promise to refund the price of the product, if it does not satisfy the consumer.
8. Samples: Offer of free samples of a product to customers at the time of introduction of a new product.

Question 60.
“Money spent on advertising is wasteful”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer:
Merits of Advertising:
1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders:

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.
3. Advertisement helps to increase the sales of new and existing products.
4. It helps to increase the goodwill of the firm.
5. It helps to face the competition in the market.
6. It increases profit of the firm through large sales.

2. Advantages to Consumers:

• It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
• Consumers can purchase the better products easily.
• It helps in maintaining high standard of living.
• It educates the consumers about the various uses of products.

3. Advantages to the Society:

1. Advertisement helps to create more employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.
3. It is a source of encouragement to artists.
4. It plays an important role in economic development of the country.
5. It reduces number of middlemen and consumers get quality products at lower cost.

Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to mono poly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The process of removing an adsorbed substance from a surface on which it is adsorbed is called ___________.
Answer:
desorption

Question 2.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Physical adsorption of a gas is directly related to its critical temperature.
(b) Chemical adsorption decreases regularly as the temperature is increased.
(c) Adsorption is an exothermic process.
(d) A solid with a rough surface is a better adsorbent than the same solid with a smooth surface.
Answer:
(c) Adsorption is an exothermic process.

Question 3.
The substances that enhance the activity of a catalyst are called _____________.
Answer:
promoters

Question 4.
The enzyme present in malt which converts starch to maltose is ____________.
Answer:
diastase

Question 5.
The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called ________________.
Answer:
electrophoresis

Question 6.
Hair cream is an example of ____________.
Answer:
Emulsion

Question 7.
Gold solution can be prepared by
Answer:
Reduction of gold (III) Chloride with formalin/ Bredig’s method

Question 8.
The correct ascending order of adsorption of the fol-lowing gases on the same mass of charcoal at the same temperature and pressure is
(a) CH₄ < H₂ < SO₂
(b) H₂ < CH₄ < SO₂
(c) SO₂ < CH₄ < H₂
(d) H₂ < SO₂ < CH₄
Answer:
(b) H₂ < CH₄ < SO₂

Question 9.
In the adsorption of a gas on solid, Freundlich iso-therm is obeyed. The slope of the plot is zero. Then the extent of adsorption is _________.
Answer:
Independent of pressure.

Question 10.
Adsorption is accompanied by _______ in enthalpy and _______ in entropy.
Answer:
decrease, decrease.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:

Question 2.
Some facts related to adsorption are given below. Classify them into those suitable for Physisorption and Chemisorption.

1. Weak attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
2. Strong attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
3. Reversible process.
4. Irreversible process.
5. Multilayers are formed.
6. Monolayer is formed.
7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol
8. Heat of adsorption is 40-400 kJ/mol

Answer:

Physical adsorption	Chemical adsorption
1. Weak attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.	2. Strong attractive force between adsorbent and adsorbate.
3. Reversible process.	4. Irreversible process.
5. Multilayers are formed.	6. Monolayer is formed.
7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol.	7. Heat of adsorption is 20-40 kJ/mol.

Question 3.
What is the influence of temperature in physical and chemical adsorption? Explain it with the help of a graph.
Answer:
In the case of physical adsorption, rate of adsorption x/m is inversely proportional to temperature.

In the case chemical adsorption, rate of adsorption intially increases with increase in temperature, reaches a maximum value and thereafter decreases with increase in temperature.

Question 4.
‘Activity’ and ‘Selectivity’ are two terms related to solid catalysts. Distinguish between these two terms with proper illustrations.
Answer:

• Activity – It is ability of the catalyst to give the product easily.
• Selectivity – It is the ability of a catalyst to direct to yield a particular product, e.g. starting with H₂ and CO, and using different catalysts, we get different products.

Question 5.
Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.
Answer:
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Since finely divided substance has large surface area, hence, adsorption occurs to a greater extent.

Question 6.
What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Answer:
Activation of adsorbent increases the adsorption power of the adsorbent. By increasing the surface area of the adsorbent,

1. Removing the gases already adsorbed and
2. Making the surface of adsorbent rough.

Question 7.
What role does adsorption play in heterogeneous catalysis?
Answer:
In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactants are generally gases whereas catalyst is a solid. The reactant molecules are adsorbed on the surface of the solid catalyst. As a result, the concentration of the reactant molecules on the surface increases and hence the rate of reaction increases.

Question 8.
Write notes on the Brownian movement and Tyndall effect.
Answer:
1. Brownian movement:

• zig-zag movement of colloidal particles.

2. Tyndal effect:

• Scattering of light by colloidal particles which illuminates the path of beam in the colloidal dispersion.

Question 9.
Gas mask is used in coal mines. Why? What is the principle behind it?
Answer:
In order to adsorb poisonous gases. The principle involved is adsorption.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Colloids can be converted into precipitates on the addition of electrolytes.

1. Name the above phenomenon.
2. What do you mean by coagulating value?

Answer:

1. Coagulation.
2. The minimum concentration of an electrolyte in millimoles per liter required to cause precipitation of a sol in two hours is called coagulating value.

Question 2.
Observe the given figure.

1. Is there any mistake in the figure?
2. If a high potential is applied between the upper ends of the wire what will be the result?

Answer:

1. Yes, In this figure, the lower ends of the electrodes immersed in water are touching each other.
2. If a high potential is applied between the upper ends of the wire, the circuit will be complete. There will be no colloid formation.

Question 3.
Name the method of preparation in which the following examples are involved.

1. AS₂O₃ + 3H₂S → AS₂S₃ + 3H₂O
2. SO₂ + 2H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O
3. FeCl₃ + 3H₂O → Fe(OH)₃ + 3HCl

Answer:

1. Double decomposition
2. Oxidation
3. Hydrolysis

Question 4.
Emulsions are liquid-liquid colloidal systems.

1. What are the two types of emulsions?
2. Explain the difference between milk and butter.

Answer:

1. It is a colloidal form in which liquid is dispersed in liquid.
2. Milk is an oil in water type emulsion and butter is a water in oil type emulsion.

Question 5.
In a debate a student argued that “Colloid is neither a true solution nor a suspension.”

1. Do you agree with this argument?
2. List the properties of colloids.

Answer:
1. Yes
2. properties of colloids:

• Colligative properties
• Mechanical properties
• Optical properties
• Electrical properties

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 7.
Complete the following:

1. Lyophilic sol – starch; Lyophobic sol …………..
2. Deltas are formed where rivers and seawater meets. Do you agree with this statement? Explain.

Answer:

1. Lyophobic sol – gold sol (or any other correct example).
2. Yes. River water is a colloid of clay. Seawater contains a number of electrolytes. When river water meets the seawater, the electrolytes present in seawater coagulate the colloid of clay resulting in its deposition with the formation of delta.

Question 8.

1. Arrange the following electrolytes in the increasing order of coagulating power for the coagulation of Fe(OH)₃sol.
   Na₃(PO₄)₂, NaCl, K₄[Fe(CN)₆], CaSO₄
   
2. Name the underlying principle.

Answer:

1. NaCl < CaSO₄ < Na₃(PO₄) < K₄[Fe(CN)₆.
2. Hardy-Schulze rule.

Question 9.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids differ from these two types of colloids?
Answer:
Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation of a large number of small atoms/molecules. The aggregates thus formed have size in the colloidal range, e.g. Gold sol.

Macromolecular colloids contain large size molecules which have the dimensions of colloids, e.g. Starch. Associated colloids behave as electrolytes at low concentration but exhibit colloidal behaviour at higher concentration, e.g. Soap.

Question 10.
Explain what is observed

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol?
2. An electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol?
3. Electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Answer:

1. Scattering of light by the colloidal particles takes place and the path of light become illuminated. This is called Tyndall effect.
2. The positively charged colloidal particles of Fe(OH)₃ sol get coagulated by the oppositely charged ion provided by the electrolyte.
3. On passing direct current, colloidal particles move towards the oppositely charged electrode where they lose their charge and get coagulated.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A graph wrongly plotted between temperature and rate of adsorption for chemical adsorption is given below:

a. Draw it correctly.
b. Draw the graph of rate of adsorption and temperature for physical process.
c. Write three or four factors influencing the adsorption of a gas on a solid.
Answer:

c. Three or four factors influencing the adsorption of a gas on a solid

• Nature of adsorbent
• Nature of adsorbate
• Temperature
• Pressure

Question 2.
Gold sol is to be prepared from rods of gold.

1. Which method do you suggest?
2. Explain.
3. Distinguish between sol and gel with suitable examples for each.

Answer:
1. Electrical disintegration method – Bredig’s Arc Method.

2. An electric arc is struck between electrodes of the metal immersed in dispersion medium. The heat produced vapourises the metal which then condenses to form colloids.

3. Difference between sol and gel with suitable examples:

• Sol – Colloids in which dispersed phase is solid and dispersion medium is liquid, e.g. Paints, Cell fluids.
• Gel – Colloids in which dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is solid, e.g. Cheese, Butter.

Question 3.
For a question, ‘What is emulsion? a student wrote ‘It is a colloidal form in which a liquid is dispersed in solid.

1. Is it correct?
2. What do you mean by emulsion?
3. How can we increase the stability of an emulsion?

Answer:

1. No.
2. It is a colloidal form in which a liquid is dispersed in another liquid.
3. Stability of emulsion can be increased by using emulsifying agents (certain substances like proteins, gums, soaps, detergents, lampblack, etc.)

Question 4.
Analyse the following statements:
Statement 1: Negatively charged Arsenic sulphide can be effectively precipitated using Al³⁺ ion than Na⁺ ion.
Statement 2: There is no difference in the precipitation of arsenic sulphide by Al³⁺ ion and Na⁺ ion.

1. Which statement is correct? Justify.
2. Name the law behind your opinion.
3. State the law.

Answer:

1. Statement 1. Precipitating power of an ion is directly proportional to its valency.
2. Hardy-Schulze rule.
3. A colloid can be precipitated by an ion having opposite charge to that of the colloid. Greaterthe valency of coagulating ion added greater its power to precipitate.
   eg: AI³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > SO₄^2- > Na⁺ > PO₃⁺ > Cl^–

Question 5.
What is observed in the following situations?

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloid.
2. When an electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric hydroxide sol.

Answer:

1. Tyndall cone is observed due to Tyndall effect. Scattering of light by colloidal particles is called Tyndall effect.
2. The coagulation of ferric hydroxide sol is observed. This is in accordance with Hardy-Schulze rule.

Question 6.
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon.

1. Give an example for adsorption.
2. Name the following plot. What do x/m and P_s stands for?

Answer:

1. Adsorption of Cl₂ on charcoal.
2. Freundlich adsorption isotherm, x/m represents rate of adsorption (‘x’ is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass ‘m’ of the adsorbent) and P_s is the pressure at which maximum adsorption takes place (saturation pressure).

Question 7.
Explain the following terms:

1. Peptization
2. Electrophoresis

Answer:

1. Peptization – It is the process of converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution.
2. Electrophoresis – The migration of colloidal particles, under the influence of an electric field is called electrophoresis.

Question 8.

1. Define the terms ‘Kraft temperature’ and ‘Critical micelle concentration’.
2. Explain the cleansing action of soap.

Answer:
1. Kraft temperature (T_k) – The temperature above which micelle formation occurs. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) – The concentration above which micelle formation occurs.

2. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of higher fatty acids. At a particular concentration the soap molecules will rearrange in such a way that its polar end is towards water and non-polar end towards oil.

These molecules aggregate to form ionic micelles around the oil/dirt particles. Since the polar groups can interact with water, the micelles are pulled in water and are removed from the dirty surface. Thus soap helps in emulsification and washing away of oils and fats.

Question 9.
Colloid of gold is prepared by striking an electric arc between gold electrodes kept in water.

1. What is this method known as? Why is it regarded as a dispersion method?
2. What is the charge of gold sol? How do particles acquire this charge?

Answer:
1. Bredig’s arc method. This process involves dispersion as well as condensation. When an electric arc is struck between the metal electrodes immersed in the dispersion medium, due to the intense heat produced the metal gets dispersed by vapourisation which then condenses to form particles of colloidal size.

2. Negative change. Due to electron capture by gold sol particles during electrodispersion of gold.

Question 10.
When excess of an electrolyte is added, the colloidal particles are precipitated.

1. Give the reason for precipitation.
2. Arrange the following ions in the increasing order of the flocculating power in coagulation of negative sol. K⁺, Ca²⁺, Fe³⁺

Answer:
1.  A colloid can be precipitated by an ion having opposite charge to that of the colloid. Greater the valency of coagulating ion added greater its power to precipitate.
eg: Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > SO₄^2- > Na⁺ > PO₃⁺ > Cl^–

2. K⁺ < Ca²⁺ < Fe³⁺

3. These are arranged based on Hardy-Shulze rule.

Question 11.
Many food items are colloids in one form or the other.

1. To which category of colloids does cheese belongs?
2. Explain how sols are classified depending upon the nature of the interaction between the dispersed phase and dispersion medium. Give suitable examples.

Answer:

1. Cheese belongs to gel (Liquid in solid type colloid).
2. Based on the nature of interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium sols are divided into two categories:

a. Lyophilic colloids:
These are solvent-loving colloidal sols which are directly formed by mixing the dispersed phase with the dispersion medium. These are reversible, quite stable and cannot be easily coagulated, e.g. gum, gelatine, starch, rubber.

b. Lyophobic colloids:
These are solvent-hating sols which can be prepared only by special methods. These are irreversible, not stable and are easily coagulated on addition of small amounts of electrolytes. e.g. sols of metals and their sulphides.

Question 12.
Anhydrous CaCl₂ and silica gel differ in their behaviour towards moisture.

1. Identify the phenomenon taking place in both cases.
2. How is adsorption affected with pressure? Explain.

Answer:
1. Anhydrous CaCl₂ absorbs moisture. The phenomenon is absorption. Silica gel absorbs moisture. The phenomenon is adsorption.
2. The rate of adsorption increases with increase in pressure. Freudlich’s adsorption expression is given by
as \(\frac{x}{m}\) = kp^1/n (n > 1)
The graphical representation is,

At high pressure rate of adsorption attains a maximum value and after that pressure is having no influence. At low pressure, rate of adsorption is directly proportional to the pressure.

Question 13.
Gelatin in icecream prevents the formation of large crystals of ice.

1. What is the role of gelatin here?
2. Justify the property of gelatin here as lyophilic colloid.

Answer:
1. Gelatin acts as a protective colloid.

2. Gelatin is a lyophilic (liquid loving) colloid and can act as a protective colloid. The colloid can be formed by simply mixing gelatin with ice cream. Also, it is very stable and difficult to get coagulated. Here gelatin forms a layer around the particles of ice cream and prevent the later from forming large crystals.

Question 14.
Milk is a colloid.

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. What is the difference between dispersed phase and dispersion medium?
3. What do you mean by lyophilic colloid?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. The medium in which dispersion takes place is called dispersion medium and the substance which undergo dispersion is called dispersed phase.
3. If there is strong attractive force between the dispersed phase and dispersed medium that colloid is called lyophilic colloid.

Question 15.
Many industrial processes use catalysts.

1. What are catalysts?
2. What do you mean by the terms ‘promoters’ and, ‘poisons’ in catalysis?
3. Suggest an example for a catalytic promoter.

Answer:

1. Catalysts are substances, which alter the rate of a chemical reaction and themselves remain unchanged.
2. Promoters are substances that enhance the activity of a catalyst. Catalytic poisons are substances which decrease the activity of a catalyst.
3. In Haber’s process for manufacture of ammonia, molybdenum (Mo) acts as a promoter for iron catalyst.

Question 16.

1. Classify the above reactions into Homogeneous and Heterogeneous catalysis.
2. What is shape-selective catalysis?

Answer:

1. (1) and (2) are heterogeneous catalysis and (3) is homogeneous catalysis.
2. The catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore structure of the catalyst and the size of the reactant and product molecules is called shape-selective catalysis.

Zeolites are good shape-selective catalysts because of their honeycomb-like structure. The reactions taking place in zeolites depend upon the size and shape of reactant and product molecules as well as upon the pores and cavities of the zeolites.

Question 17.
You are supplied with the following chemicals NaCl, BaCl₂, AlCl₃.

1. Which of these would you prefer most to coagulate a sample of As₂S₃ sol?
2. Arrange the following electrolytes in the increasing order of coagulating power.
   NaCl, BaCl₂, AlCl₃
3. Name and state the rule based on which you have arrived at the coagulating power of these substances.

Answer:

1. AlCl₃
2. NaCl < BaCl₂ < AlCl₃
3. Hardy – Schulze rule. It states that greater the valence of the flocculating ion greater is its power to cause precipitation.

Plus Two Chemistry Surface Chemistry NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.
Answer:
Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Since finely divided substance has large surface area, hence, adsorption occurs to a greater extent.

Question 2.
What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Answer:
Activation of adsorbent implies increase in the adsorption power of the adsorbent. It involves increase in the surface area of the adsorbent and is achieved by the following methods:

• by finely dividing the adsorbent into small grains.
• by removing the gases already adsorbed.
• by making the surface of adsorbent rough by chemical or mechanical methods.

Question 3.
What role does adsorption play in heterogeneous catalysis?
Answer:
In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactants are generally gases whereas catalyst is a solid. The reactant molecules are adsorbed on the surface of the solid catalyst by physisorption or chemisorption. As a result, the concentration of the reactant molecules on the surface increases and hence the rate of reaction increases.

Alternatively, one of the reactant molecules undergo fragmentation on the surface of the solid catalyst producing active species which react faster. The product molecules in either case have no affinity for the solid catalyst and are desorbed making the surface free for fresh adsorption. This theory is called adsorption theory.

Question 4.
What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids?
Answer:
Multimolecular colloids are formed by the aggregation of a large number of small atoms/molecules. The aggregates thus formed have size in the colloidal range, e.g. Gold sol.

Macromolecular colloids contain large size molecules which have the dimensions of colloids, e.g. Starch. Associated colloids are formed by surface active molecules having polar as well as non-polar ends.

They behave as electrolytes at low concentration but beyound critical micelle concentration and above the Kraft temperature, they associate together to form ionic micelles whose size lies in the colloidal range, e.g. Soap.

Question 5.
Explain what is observed

1. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol?
2. An electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol?
3. Electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Answer:

1. Scattering of light by the colloidal particles takes place and the path of light become illuminated. This is called Tyndall effect.
2. The positively charged colloidal particles of Fe(OH)₃ sol get coagulated by the oppositely charged ion provided by the electrolyte.
3. On passing direct current, colloidal particles move towards the oppositely charged electrode where they lose their charge and get coagulated.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Controlling Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Controlling

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which function of management consists of the following elements?

1. Determination of standards
2. Measuring performance
3. Comparing performance with standards
4. Taking corrective actions

Answer:
Controlling

Question 2.
The first step in the control process which a manager has to do is ………………………
Answer:
Setting standards

Question 3.
If managers try to control everything, they may end up controlling nothing. Identify the relevant management principle underlying this statement.
Answer:
Management by exception (MBE)

Question 4.
Identify the principle which indicates that only significant deviations from standards require the attention of management.
Answer:
Management by Exception (MBE)

Question 5.
An efficient control system helps to
(a) Accomplish organisational objectives
(b) Boost employee morale
(c) Judge accuracy of standards
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 6.
Pick out one statement which is not limitation of controlling.
(a) Standards cannot be fixed properly.
(b) Controlling has little control on external factors.
(c) It is costly and time-consuming process.
(d) Controlling is applicable at all levels of management.
Answer:
(d) Controlling is applicable at all levels of management.

Question 7.
Choose the right statement.
(a) Planning – Staffing are the two sides of the same coin.
(b) Planning – Controlling are the two sides of the same coin.
(c) Organising – Staffing are the two sides of the same coin.
(d) Directing-Planning are the two sides of the same coin.
Answer:
(b) Planning – Controlling are the two sides of the same coin.

Question 8.
Write two examples for modern controlling techniques.
Answer:

• Return on Investment method
• PERT & CPM

Question 9.
Choose the right tool for controlling.
(a) Critical Path Method (CPM)
(b) Common Policy Method (CPM)
(c) Production Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
(d) Personality Evaluation and Rare Technique (PERT)
Answer:
(a) Critical Path Method (CPM)

Question 10.
Return on Investment = ………………
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { Net Income }}{\text { Total Investment }}\)

Question 11.
Comparing the values in a financial statement is called ……………..
(a) Return on Investment
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Responsibility Accounting
(d) PERT & CPM
Answer:
(b) Ratio Analysis

Question 12.
Entrusting the responsibility of expenses to different departments is called …………………
Answer:
Responsibility accounting

Question 13.
Modem controlling techniques used to both planning and controlling are ……………………
Answer:
PERT & CPM

Question 14.
What is management audit?
(a) Evaluate the efficiency of management.
(b) Analyse the financial statement by using ratios.
(c) Charge the expenses to departments and evaluate the responsibilities.
(d) No profit No loss.
Answer:
(a) Evaluate the efficiency of management.

Question 15.
Comparing Investment & Profit is ………………
Answer:
Return on Investment

Question 16.
Traditional method of controlling which helps to motivate employees is …………………..
Answer:
Personal observation

Question 17.
……………… is a network technique useful in planning and controlling.
Answer:
Critical Path Method (CPM)

Question 18.
B.E.P. =
Answer:
Break Even Point = \(\frac{\text { Fixed cost }}{\text { Selling Price per Unit – Variable Cost per Unit }}\)

Question 19.
…………………. is a technique of managerial control in which standards are expressed in terms of money.
Answer:
Budgetary Control

Question 20.
………………. is a computer based managerial control technique.
Answer:
Management Information System (MIS)

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the significance of standard?
Answer:
Helpful in analysing deviation. It is compulsary to fix a standard in order to compare the actual performance.

Question 2.
What is deviation in controlling?
Answer:
It is the difference between actual performance and standard performance.

Question 3.
Rearrange the following in a correct sequence of steps in controlling.

Answer:

Question 4.
In the controlling process only these deviations from standard which seem exceptionally are brought to the attention of top management. Identify the relevant principle behind this.
Answer:
Management by exception / Control by exception.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by budgetary control?
Answer:
Budgetary Control:
Budgetary control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 2.
“They are the two blades of a scissor; one cannot work without the other”.

1. Identify the management functions referred to this context.
2. Explain the nature of relationships between these managerial functions.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
5. Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
6. Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Question 3.
Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

• Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
• Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
• Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
• Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
• Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
• Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Question 4.
‘Planning is useless without control and control is aimless without plans.’

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
5. Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
6. Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between Traditional & Modem Controlling Techniques.

1. Return on Investment
2. Ratio Analysis
3. Budgetery Control
4. Management Audit
5. Statistical Data
6. Responsibility Accounting
7. Break Even Analysis
8. PERT & CPM
9. Personal Observation

Answer:

Traditional Controlling Techniques	Modern Controlling Techniques
1) Personal Observation	1) Return on Investment
2) Statistical Data	2) Ratio Analysis
3) Break Even Analysis	3) Responsibility Accounting
4) Budgetary Control	4) Management Audit
	5) PERT & CPM

Question 2.
Explain the limitations of Controlling.
Answer:
Limitations of Controlling:

1. Difficulty in setting quantitative standards:
Control system loses some of its effectiveness when standards cannot be defined in quantitative terms.

2. Little control on external factors:
Generally an enterprise cannot control external factors such as government policies, technological changes, competition, etc.

3. Resistance from employees:
Control is often resisted by employees. They see it as a restriction on their freedom.

4. Costly affair:
Control is a costly affair as it involves a lot of expenditure, time and effort.

Question 3.
List down the importance of Controlling.
Answer:
Importance of Controlling:

1. Accomplishing organisational goals:
The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals and brings to light the deviations, if any, and indicates corrective action.

2. Judging accuracy of standards:
A good control system enables management to verify whether the standards set are accurate.

3. Making efficient use of resources:
By exercising control, a manager seeks to reduce wastage of resources.

4. Improving employee motivation:
A good control system motivates the employees and helps them to give better performance.

5. Ensuring order and discipline:
Controlling creates an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organisation.

6. Facilitating co-ordination:
An efficient system of control helps to co-ordinate all the activities in the organisation.

Question 4.
Explain the different Techniques of Managerial Control.
Answer:
Techniques of Managerial Control:
1. Traditional Techniques:

a. Personal Observation:
It creates psychological pressure on the employees to perform well as they are aware that they are being observed personally on their job.

b. Statistical Reports:
Statistical analysis in the form of averages, percentages, ratios, correlation, etc. present useful information to the managers regarding performance of the organisation.

c. Break Even Analysis:
Break even analysis is a technique used by managers to study the relationship between costs, volume and profits. The sales volume at which there is no profit, no loss is known as break even point. It helps in estimating profits at different levels of activities.
B.E.P = \(\frac{F}{s-v}\)
F = Fixed cost
S = Selling price per unit
V = Variable cost per unit

d. Budgetary Control:
Budgetary control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards.

2. Modem Techniques:

a. Return on Investment:
Return on Investment (ROI) can be used to measure overall performance of an organisation. It helps to know the invested capital has been used effectively for generating reasonable amount of return.

Return on investment = \(\frac{\text { Net Income }}{\text { Total Investment }}\)

b. Ratio Analysis:
Ratio Analysis refers to analysis of financial statements through computation of ratios.

c. Responsibility Accounting:
Responsibility accounting is a system of accounting in which different sections, divisions, and departments of an organisation are set up as ‘Responsibility Centres’. The head of the centre is responsible for achieving the target set for his centre. E.g. Cost centre, Revenue centre, Profit centre, Investment centre, etc.

d. Management Audit:
Management audit may be defined as evaluation of the functioning, performance, and effectiveness of management of an organisation.

e. PERT and CPM:
PERT (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique) and CPM (Critical Path Method) are important network techniques useful in planning and controlling.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Controlling is a systematic function of management. Explain.
Answer:
Controlling Process:
Controlling is a systematic process involving the following steps.

• Setting performance standards
• Measurement of actual performance
• Comparison of actual performance with standards
• Analysing deviations
• Taking corrective action

1. Setting Performance Standards:
Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured. Standards can be set in both quantitative as well as qualitative terms.

2. Measurement of Actual Performance:
After establishing standards, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.

3. Comparing Actual Performance with Standards:
This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standard. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.

4. Analysing Deviations:
The deviations from the standards are assessed and analysed to identify the causes of deviations.

5. Taking Corrective Action:
The final step in the controlling process is taking corrective action. No corrective action is required when the deviations are within acceptable limits.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Arrays Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Arrays

Plus Two Computer Application Arrays One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From the following which is not true for an array
(a) It is easy to represent and manipulate array variable
(b) Array uses a compact memory structure
(c) Readability of program will be increased
(d) Array elements are dissimilar elements
Answer:
(d) Array elements are dissimilar elements.

Question 2.
Consider the following declaration. int mark (50).
Is it valid? If no give the correct declaration.
Answer:
It is not valid. The correct declaration is as follows, int mark[50]. Use square brackets instead of parenthesis.

Question 3.
Consider the following declaration. int mark[200].
The index of the last element is____.
Answer:
199.

Question 4.
Consider the following declaration int mark[200]
The index of the first element is_____
Answer:
0.

Question 5.
Consider the following int age[4]={15, 16, 17, 18};
From the following which type of initialisation is this.
(a) direct assignment
(b) along with variable declaration
(c) multiple assignment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) along with variable declaration

Question 6.
From the following which is used to read and display array elements
(а) loops
(b) if
(c) switch
(d) if else ladder
Answer:
(a) loops

Question 7.
Write down the corresponding memory consumption in bytes

1. int age[10]=_____
2. charname[10] =_____
3. intage[10][10]=____

Answer:

1. 4*10 = 40 bytes (4 bytes for one integer)
2. 1*10=10 (one byte for each character)
3. 4*10*10 = 400 (4 * 100 elements)

Question 8.
Consider the following intage[4] = {12, 13, 14};
cout<<age[3]; What will be the output?
(а) 14
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) 0

Question 9.
The elements of 2-dimensional array can be read using_____loop
Answer:
nested loop.

Question 10.
_____is the process of reading / visiting elements of an array
Answer:
traversal.

Question 11.
Anjaly wants to read the 10 marks that already stored in an array and find the total. This process is known as_____
(a) insertion
(b) deletion
(c) traversal
(d) linear search
Answer:
(c) traversal

Question 12.
The elements of an array of size ten are numbered from____to___.
Answer:
0 to 9.

Question 13.
Element mark[6] is which element of the array?
(a) The sixth
(b) the seventh
(c) the eighth
(d) impossible to tell
Answer:
(b) the seventh

Question 14.
When a multidimensional array is accessed, each array index is
(a) Separated by column.
(b) Surrounded by brackets and separated by commas.
(c) Separated by commas and surrounded by brackets.
(d) Surrounded by brackets.
Answer:
(d) surrounded by brackets

Question 15.
Write a C++ statement that defines a string variable called ‘name’ that can hold a string of upto 20 characters.
Answer:
char name[21];

Question 16.
_____is a collection of elements with same data type
Answer:
Array

Question 17.
Following are some of the statements regarding array. Identify the correct statement.
(a) Array is a collection of elements of same data type.
(b) Array cannot be initialised during the time of declaration.
(c) Array allocates continuous memory.
(d) An array element can be accessed using index or subscript.
Answer:
(a) Array is a collection of elements of same data type.

Question 18.
Which of the following is the correct declaration of an array?
(a) int a(10);
(b) int 10[a];
(c) a[1] int;
(d) inta[10];
Answer:
(d) int a[10];

Question 19.
Which is the last subscript of the array int m[25]?
(a) 24
(b) 25
(c) 0
(d) 26
Answer:
(a) 24

Question 20.
The memory size of the data type float is 4 bytes. What is the total bytes required for the array declaration float salary[10];?
(a) 10
(b) 4
(c) 40
(d) 400
Answer:
(c) 4*10 = 40.

Question 21.
int num[100]; The above statement declares an array named num that can store maximum_____integer numbers.
(a) 99
(b) 100
(c) 101
(d) Any number
Answer:
(b) 100

Question 22.
If int a[10]; is array, then which element of the array will be referenced as a[4].
Answer:
Fifth element.

Question 23.
Consider the following array declaration int A[ ] = {4, 5, 8}; int B[ ]={2, 10};
Write a valid C++ statement for finding the difference between the last element of the array ‘B’ and the first element of the array ‘A’.
Answer:
B[1] – A[0]; ORA[0] – B[1];

Question 24.
Consider the following code and predict the output.
int sum=0;
int a[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
for(i=0;i<4;++i)
{
sum=sum+a[i];
}
cout<<sum;
Answer:
10.

Question 25.
Which data type is used to declare a variable to hold string data?
Answer:
The data type char is used for this.

Question 26.
The terminating character of string array is______
Answer:
\0 or NULL character.

Question 27.
Write a statement for storing the string “NO SMOKING” using a character array with name ‘ARR’
of minimum size.
Answer:
char APR[11] = ”NO SMOKING”;

Plus Two Computer Application Arrays Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Given some array declaration. Pick the odd man out.
Float a[+40], int num[0-10], double [50]. char name[50], amount[20] of float.
Answer:
char name[50]. It is a valid array decalaration the remaining are not valid.

Question 2.
Whether the statement char text[] = “COMPUTER”; is True / False ? Justify.
Answer:
It is a single-dimensional array. If the user doesn’t specify the size the operating system allocates the number of characters + one (for null character for text) bytes of memory. So here OS allocates 9 bytes of memory.

Question 3.
Suppose you are given Total mark of 50 students in a class

1. How will you store these values using ordinary variable?
2. Is there any other efficient way to store these values? Give reason

Answer:
We have to declare 50 variables individually to store total marks of 50 students. It is a laborious work. Hence we use array, it is an efficient way to declare 50 variables.

With a single variable name we can store multiple elements. Eg: int mark[50]. Here we can store 50 marks. The first mark is in mark[0], second is in mark[1], …etc the fiftieth mark is in mark[49].

Question 4.
Consider the statement charstr[ ] = “PROGRAM” What will be stored in last location of this array. Justify
Answer:
The last location is the null character(\0) because each string must be appedend by a null character.

Question 5.
Explain the needs for arrays
Answer:
Array is collection of same type of elements. With the same name we can store more elements. The elements are distinguished by using its index or subscript. To store 50 marks of 50 students we have to declare 50 variables, it is a laborious work.

Hence the need for arrays arise. By using array this is very easy as follows int mark[50]. Here the index of first element is 0, then 1, 2, 3, etc upto 49.

Question 6.
Consider the following code and predict the output.
int a[5]= {6, 8, 10,20,40};
cout<<“\n”<<a[3];
cout<<“\n”<<a[1]+1[4];
Answer:
20(The fourth element).
48(Sum of second element 8 and fifth element 40, i.e 8 + 40 =48).

Question 7.
Suppose you need to store the value 10, 20, 30, 40 and 50 into an array. Write different methods to do this problem. Answer:
Method 1:
int a[5]={10, 20, 30, 40, 50};

OR

int a[ ]={10, 20, 30, 40, 50};

Method 2:
int a[5];
a[0]=10;
a[1]=20;
a[2]=30;
a[3]=40;
a[4]=50;

Question 8.
What would be the appropriate array declaration to store the following?

1. Name of a student
2. Age of 20 students
3. Mark of 6 subject
4. Average mark of 10 students in 5 subjects

Answer:

1. charname[20];
2. intage[20];
3. intmark[6];
4. float mark[10];

Question 9.
Consider the following code and predict the output.
int A[5] = {11, 12, 13, 14, 15};
int i;
for (i=4;i>=0;–i)
{
cout<<“\n”<<A[i];
}
Answer:
It prints the array in reverse order as follows.
15
14
13
12
11.

Question 10.
Predict the output of the following code segment.
int K[ ] = {1, 2, 3, 4};
for (int i=0; i<4; i++)
cout<<K[i] * K[i]<<“\t”;
Answer:
The output is as follows
1 4 9 16
Hint: 1(1*1) 4(2*2) 9(3*3) 16(4*4).

Question 11.
Consider the following code and predict the output.
Justify your answer.
int A[10] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
int sum=0, i;
for(i=0;i<10;++i)
{
if (A[i]%2==0)
{
sum=sum+A[i];
}
}
cout<<“\nSum=”<<sum;
Answer:
The output is 30. That is sum of all even numbers in the array.

Question 12.
Predict the output of the following C++ statement.
char str[8] = “WELCOME”;
cout<<“\n’’<,str[3];
cout<<“\n”<<str;
Answer:
The output is as follows
C(The fourth character)
WELCOME.

Question 13.
How many bytes will be allocated in the memory for storing the string “MY SCHOOL”? Justify your answer.
Answer:
A total of 10 bytes. 9 bytes is used to store 9 characters in the string MY SCHOOL(including 1 byte for space) and 1 byte is used to store the NULL character.

Plus Two Computer Application Arrays Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Total mark of 50 students in a class are given in an array. A bonus of 10 marks is awarded to all of them. Write the program code for making such a modification.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 2.
Write the program code for counting the number of vowels from your school name
Answer:
# include
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 3.
Write the program code for counting the number of words from the given string.” Directorate of Higher Secondary Examination”
Answer:
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

OR

(Program for more than one space between words)
# include
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 4.
Given a word like “ECNALUBMA” Write the program code for arranging it in into a meaningful word Answer:
# include
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 5.
Explain different types of arrays.
Answer:
1. Single dimensional:
It contains only one index or subscript. The index starts from 0 and ends with size-1.
Eg. int n[50]; charname[10];

2. Multidimensional:
It contains more than one index or subscript. The two dimensional array contains two indices, one for rows and another for columns. The row index starts from 0 and end at row size-1 and column index starts at 0 and ends at colunn size-1.
Eg. int n[10][10] can store 10 * 10 =100 elements. The index of the first element is n[0][0] and index of the 100^th element is n[9][9].

Question 6.
Write a program to read the 5 marks of a students and display the marks and total. Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 7.
Explain different array operations in detail.
Answer:

1. Traversal:- All the elements of an array is visited and processed is called traversal
2. Search:- Check whether the given element is present or not
3. Sorting:-Arranging elements in an order is called sorting.

Question 8.
Given a word “COMPUTER”, write a C++ program to reverse the word without using any string functions.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 9.
Write statements to declare an array and initialize it with the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and print 5, 4, 3, 2, 1.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()
int a[5]={1, 2, 3, 4, 5},i;
for(i=4;i>=0;i-)
cout<<a[i]<<“,”;
}

Question 10.
Consider the following array declaration. Write statements to count how many numbers are greater than zero.
int p[ ] = {-5, 6, -7, 0, 8, 9};
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 11.
Write a C++ program to read 10 integer values and find the largest number among them using array.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 12.
Write a C++ program to accept a string from the keyboard and find its length without using function. For example if “WELCOME” is accepted, the output will be 7.
Answer:
# include
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 13.
Considerthe following C++ statements

1. charword[20];
   cin>>word;
   cout<<word;
2. char word[20];
   gets(word);
   puts(word);

If the string entered is “HAPPY NEW YEAR”. Predict the output in both cases and justify your answers.
Answer:

1. HAPPY. When we use cin to accept string then space is the delimiter. The string after space is truncated.
2. HAPPY NEW YEAR. gets() reads all the characters (including space) upto the user presses the enter key.

Question 14.
Consider the following C++ statements
char str[] = “NO/nSMOKING”;
cout<<str;

1. What is the output of the above code?
2. How many bytes will be allocated in the memory for the variable str?

Answer:

1. NO
   SMOKING. The output is in 2 lines.
2. A total of 11 bytes is used to store this string.

1 byte for \n. 1 byte for \0(The null character that is automatically appended) and 9 bytes for the remaining characters (N, 0, S, M, 0, K, l, N AND G).

Question 15.
Write a C++ program to store the given string in an array and display it in reverse order without using string function. For example if ABCD is given, the output should be DCBA.
Answer:
# include
#include
using namespace std;
int main()

Plus Two Computer Application Arrays Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Collect the heights of 12 students from your class in which 7 students are male and others are female students. Suppose these male and female students be seated in two separate benches and you are given a place which is used for sitting these 12 students in linear form. How will you combine and make them sit without mixing male/female students? Write a program for the same.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 2.
Write a program to read 3 marks of 5 students and find the total and display it
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 3.
Write a program to read a string and a character and find the character by using linear search.
Answer:
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 4.
Write a program to read a string and find the no. of vowels consonents and special characters.
Answer:
# include
#include
#include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 5.
Write a program to accept marks of 10 students and find out the largest and smallest mark from the list.

OR

Write a C++ program to store the scores of 10 batsmen of a school cricket team and find the largest and smallest score.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 6.
Write a C++ program to read 6 marks of a student and find total and average mark.
Answer:
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Question 7.
Write a C++ proram to accept a sentence and count the number of times the letter ‘s’ occurs in it. For example if the sentence is This is my school’, the output should be 3.
Answer:
# include
# include
using namespace std;
int main()

Students can Download Chapter 8 Database Management System Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Plus Two Computer Science Database Management System One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Select the property which is desirable for a database.
(a) Redundancy
(b) Inconsistency
(c) Integrity
(d) Complexity
Answer:
(c) Integrity

Question 2.
Pick the odd man out.
Answer:
(a) Create
(b) Select
(c) Update
(d) Insert
Answer:
(a) Create

Question 3.
______ is the ability to modify a schema definition in one level without affecting the schema definition in the next higher level.
Answer:
Data Independence

Question 4.
For accessing data from a database, provides an interface with programming languages.
Answer:
SQL(orDML)

Question 5.
Give an example for RDBMS package.
Answer:
Packages such as Oracle, My SQL, etc.

Question 6.
Name the key that acts as a candidate key but not a primary key.
Answer:
Alternate key

Question 7.
With the help of ______ the process of storing, retrieving and modifying data are greatly simplified.
Answer:
DBMS

Question 8.
If _____ is controlled , DBMS can guarantee that database is never inconsistent.
Answer:
Redundancy.

Question 9.
The property of a DBMS that guarantees that the database is never inconsistent.
Answer:
Redundancy.

Question 10.
_____ and ______ are the two types of integrity checks.
Answer:
Range checks, Value checks.

Question 11.
Which component of DBMS provides interfaces with programming Languages ________.
Answer:
DML

Question 12.
The level of database abstraction that describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
Answer:
Physical level.

Question 13.
The level of database abstraction that describes what data are stored in the database.
Answer:
Logical level.

Question 14.
Database Administrators (DBA) are more concerned with level ____ of Abstraction.
Answer:
Logical level

Question 15.
The programmers are connected with ______ .level of abstraction.
Answer:
Logical level.

Question 16.
The teller at a bank sees only that part of the database that has information on customer accounts. Which level of Database abstraction he is at?
Answer:
View level.

Question 17.
As part of project work, Ashish defines the type of data and the relationship among them. He is at _____ level of database abstraction.
Answer:
Logical.

Question 18.
_____ is the other name for logical level
Answer:
Conceptual level

Question 19.
if the modifications made on storage format does not affect the structure of data, then we achieve ___ data independence.
Answer:
Physical data independence.

Question 20.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) network model
(b) hybrid model
(c) relational model
(d) hierarchical model
Answer:
(b) hybrid model

Question 21.
“I am a data model. My records can have more than one parent record” Who am I?
Answer:
Network model.

Question 22.
Name the language that enables user to access or manipulate data as organized by RDBMS.
Answer:
DBML

Question 23.
A Database Administrator is able to modify the structure a programmer changes data types and length of a database without affecting certain fields in a database of a bank and the program. Identify the data independence associated in it.
Answer:
Logical data Independence

Question 24.
Name the language that used to define a database scheme.
Answer:
DDL

Question 25.
Name the person who has central control over the database and programs in DBMS
(a) Naive user
(b) Programmer
(c) Database Administrator
(d) System Analyst
Answer:
(c) Database Administrator

Question 26.
Oracle DBMS package is based on _____ model.
Answer:
Relational

Question 27.
Match the following.

Answer:
a – ii
b – iii
c – i

Question 28.
Name the Relational operation which selects certain columns from the table while discarding others.
Answer:
Project.

Question 29.
How to define the Domain of a column ‘subject 1’of MARKS relation.
Answer:
Range of values from 0 to 100

Question 30.
State whether true or False.
A view is a kind of table whose contents are taken from other tables.
Answer:
True.

Question 31.
State True or False.
A view can be queried, inserted into, updated and deleted from.
Answer:
True.

Question 32.
Name an efficient way to provide only required data to users hiding other data from the database.
Answer:
View.

Question 33.
Pick the key which can not be used to uniquely identify a tuple on a relation:
(Candidate Key, Primary Key, Alternate Key, Super Key, None of these)
Answer:
None of these.

Question 34.
π (pi) Greek letter is used to denote ______ operation in relational algebra.
Answer:
Project.

Question 35.
Which relational Algebra operation returns all possible combinations of tuples from two relations.
Answer:
Cartesian product.

Question 36.
Pick the odd one out.
(Select, Cartesian product, Union, intersection)
Answer:
Select – unary operator.

Question 37.
What will be the cardinality of the resultant table if after the following operation if the cardinality of STUDENT is 5 and INSTRUCTOR is 3?
Student × Instructor
Answer:
15.

Question 38.
Consider two relations FOOTBALL AND CRICKET, How to get the names of players play only cricket not also FOOTBALL.
Answer:
CRICKET – FOOTBALL.

Question 39.
Why we call a Foreign Key so?
Answer:
it is a candidate Key in another table, A foreigner.

Question 40.
______ is range of values from which actual values are appearing in a given column are drawn.
Answer:
Domain

Question 41.
Name the table that does not contain data of its own, but is derived from a base table.
Answer:
View

Question 42.
Name a way to uniquely identify a tuple in a relation.
Answer:
By using primary key.

Question 43.
Give two Unary operations performed on a relation in Relational Algebra.
Answer:
Select, Project.

Question 44.
Data redundancy is not a desirable property. But All redundancy can not or should not be eliminated. Do you agree with this statement? Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Because sometimes there can be technical or business reasons for maintaining several distinct copies of same data.

Question 45.
Anju is able to do all the internal operations in a DBMS. What type of user is she? What are the other type of users?
Answer:
DBA, Other type users are Appl Programmer and Naive users.

Question 46.
Which of the following statements are true?
(1) DBMS facilitates storage, retrieval, and management of databases.
(2) We must keep more copies of the same data in databases.
(3) Data inconsistency is eliminated in DBMS.
(4) DBMS allows sharing of data but does not ensure security.
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Both (1) and (3) are true
(b) Statements (1), (3) and (4) are true
(c) Statements (1), (2) and (4) are true
(d) All statements are true
Answer:
(a) Both (1) and (3) are true

Question 47.
Which of the following refers to duplication of data in files?
(a) Data redundancy
(b) Data inconsistency
(c) Data integrity
(d) Data security
Answer:
(a) Data redundancy

Question 48.
The following are some responsibilities of database users. Which of them belongs to Database Administrator?
(1) Design the conceptual schema of the database.
(2) Develops programs to interact with the database.
(3) Interacts with the database through queries.
(4) Ensures authorised and secured access of data
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Both (1) and (3)
(b) Except (2) and (3)
(c) (1), (2) and (4)
(d) All four
Answer:
(b) Except (2) and (3)

Question 49.
Which of the keys in a relation do not allow null values? Choose the most appropriate option from the following.
(a) Primary key
(b) Candidate key
(c) Both primary key and candidate key
(d) Either primary key or candidate key
Answer:
(c) Both primary key and candidate key

Question 50.
Choose the level of database abstraction that describes what data is stored in the database and what relationships exist among them,
(a) External
(b) Logical
(c) Physical
(d) View
Answer:
(b) Logical

Question 51.
Which of the following operations can extract the specified columns of a table?
(a) Selection
(b) Projection
(c) Intersection
(d) Set Difference
Answer:
(b) Projection

Plus Two Computer Science Database Management System Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The schema of a table is EMPLOYEE (emp_code, emp_name, designation, salary). Write down the relational expressions for the following:
a) To get the name and designation of all employees.
b) To get the details of employees whose salary is above 25000.
c) To get the names of employees who designation is Manager.
d) To get the details of Managers with salary less than 25000.
Answer:

Question 2.
Data sharing is an essential feature of DBMS. How data sharing reduces the data inconsistency in a database? Data sharing is an essential feature of DBMS. How data sharing reduces the data inconsistency in a database?
Answer:
Instead of storing more than one copy of the same data, it stores only one copy. This can be shared by several users. If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then in-consistency cannot occur.

Question 3.
Pick the odd one out and justify your answer:
(a) Column
(b) Attribute
(c) Field
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(d) Tuple. The other three terminologies indicate the same characteristic of a table.

Question 4.
Suppose a table (relation) contains the details of customers in a bank. Which attribute of the customer will be set as primary key for the table? Give reason for your opinion.
Answer:
Account number can be set as primary key since account number is different. different customers. That is it is unique hence it can be set as primary key.

Question 5.
How many distinct tuples and attributes are there in relation with cardinality 22 and degree 7.
Answer:

• Cardinality is the number of rows (tuples)
• Hence number Of tuples is 22
• Degree is the number of columns (attributes)
• Hence number of attributes 7

Question 6.
Distinguish primary key and alternate key.
Answer:

• Primary key: It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row.
• Alternate key: A candidate key other than the primary key.

Question 7.
Write an example for relational data model.
Answer:

Question 8.
Observe the following table and choose the correct match from the following options.

Column A	Column B
1. Cardinality 2. Degree 3. Relation 4. Tuple	A. Row of a table B. Table C. Number of rows D. Number of columns E. Attribute

(a) 1 → B, 2 → D, 3 → E, 4 → C
(b) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → E, 4 → A
(c) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → A
(d) 1 → D, 2 → C, 3 → B, 4 → E
Answer:
(c) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → A

Question 9.
Consider the table with the following fields Name, RollNumberand Mark for a set of students. Suggest a field among them, which is suitable for primary key. Justify your answer.
Answer:
field RollNOmber is suitable for the primary key. The name and mark can have same values so they are not suitable for the primary key.

Question 10.
Raju is confused with the statement ‘logical data independence is more difficult to achieve than physical data independence. How can you help Raju to understand the statement?
Answer:
Because Appl. Programs heavily dependent on the logical structure of data. So any change in structure means chance of rewriting Appl. Programs.

Question 11.
Match the following.

A	B
a. DBA	i. querying and updating
b. Application programmer	ii. ensures consistency
c. Naive users	iii. defines conceptual view

Answer:
a – ii
b – iii
c – i.

Question 12
Match the following.

A	B
a. The hierarchical model	i. data as tables
b. Network model	ii. Network as storage medium
c. Relational model	iii. Child record can have more than one parent
	iv. Tree structure

Answer:
a – iv
b – iii
c – i.

Question 13.
Your friend tells you that only relational model is used nowadays as DBMS. Will you agree with that? Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Other two models are complex. In.RDMS, no redundancy, and relationships can be formed easily.

Question 14.
The telephone number of Gokul is entered in Library file as 802111 and in admission register file as 802171.

1. Can you correlate this problem with a concept in DBMS?
2. Can you propose a solution to avoid this?

Answer:
Consistency problem, Remove data redundancy

Question 15.
What is DBMS?
Answer:
A DBMS is used to store large volumes of data and it is used to retrieve data whenever needed, edit the existing data, update the data and it is possible to delete also.

Question 16.
“View provides an excellent way to access data from data.” Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Views can have data from more than one table, view can be queried, inserted into, deleted from and updated like a normal table.

Question 17.
A relation is given below
STUDENT

Mark the following:
Tuple, Attributes, Cardinality, Degree
Answer:

• Tuple – It is the Rows
• Attributes – It is the columns
• Cardinality – 3 (Number of Rows)
• Degree – 4 (Number of Columns)

Question 18.
State whether true or False.

1. Primary key cannot be composite key.
2. Only a candidate key can become a Primary Key.
3. Foreign key of a table js a candidate key in another table.
4. A super key uniquely identifies a row in a relation.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

Question 19.
Explain the meaning of following operations.
Answer:
select the tuples whose department is sales and who have salary > 5000.

Question 20.

Is it possible to find the players who play both FOOTBALL AND CRICKET by applying any of the Relational Algebra Operations? Explain.
Answer:
Intersection operation.
FOOTBALL ∩ CRICKET

Question 21.
How will you differentiate Primary key and Super Key?
Answer:

• primary key – one of the candidate keys chosen to uniquely identify the rows of a table.
• Super key – Combination of a Primary key with any other attribute or group of attributes.

Question 22.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible. If the cardinality of result T1 ∪ T2 is 13, then what is the cardinality of T1 ∩ T2? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Cardinality of table T1 is 10 means it has 10 rows Cardinalty of table T2 is 8 means it has 8 rows Normally T1 ∪ T2 is 10 + 8 = 18 But Here T1 ∪ T2 is 13 means after eliminating duplication of 5 rows this happened. This means 5 rows are common That is T1 ∩ T2 is 5.

Question 23.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible.

1. What will be the maximum possible cardinality of T1 ∪ T2?
2. What will be the minimum possible cardinality of T1 ∩ T2?

Answer:
1. Degree(CD) – The number of Columns is the Degree
Cardinality (RC) – the number of Rows is the Cardinality
T1 ∪ T2 = Sum of cardinalities of Table1 and Table2.
i. e.T1 ∪ T2 = 10 + 8 = 18

2. T1 ∩ T2 is the common rows(tuples) in T1 and T2 If there is no common tuples then T1 ∩ T2is o hence the cardinality is 0.

Plus Two Computer Science Database Management System Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For catering to the needs of users, a database is implemented through three general levels. Name the three levels and discuss them.
Answer:
1. Physical Level is the lowest level. it describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium. At physical level complex, low-level data structures are described in detail.

2. Logical level describes what data are stored in the database and what relationships exist among data. Here database is described in terms of simple structures. Records are defined in this level. Programmers work at this level.

3. View level is the highest level of data abstraction. It is concerned with the way in which the users view the database. It describes only part of the database.

Question 2.
Consider the following table arid write relational algebra operations for the following DEPOSIT.

1. To display those tuples from DEPOSIT relation where amount is greater than 25,000.
2. To display only AccNo and Amount of all depositors.

Answer:

Question 3.

Show the output of the following relational operations.
a) R1 – R2
b) R1 ∩ R2
c) R1 ∪ R2
Answer:

Question 4.
Developers hide the complexity of Database system three several levels of abstraction. What are they?
Answer:
Physical – logical – view level.
(how data) (what data) (view data)

Physical Level is the lowest level. It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium. At physical level complex, low-level data structures are described in detail.

Logical level describes what data are stored in the database and what relationships exist among data. Here database is described in terms of simple structure. Records are defined in this level. Programmers work at this level.

View level is the highest level of data abstraction. It is concerned with the way in which the users view the database. It describes only part of the database.

Question 5.
How data are organized in a database.
Answer:

• Field: Smallest unit of data. Eg: RolINo, Name
• Record: Collection of related fields. Eg: The information of a particular student.
• File: Collection of related records. Eg: The information of 10 students.

Question 6.
Salih checks his account details using an ATM machine.

1. Identify the levels of abstraction associated with this?
2. Specify other levels.

Answer:

1. View level
2. Logical level Physical level

Question 7.
Match the following.

A	B
1. Database Administrator	a. Not concerned with or even aware of details of the DBMS
2. Application Programmer	b. Person who has central control over definition and DBMS
3. Users	c. Computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through Application programs

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – a.

Question 8.
Match the following.

A	B
Domain	Table
Tuple	No. of rows in a relation
Attribute	No. of columns in a relation
Cardinality	Rows in a relation
Degree	A pool of values
Relation	Column in a Table

Answer:

A	B
Domain	A pool of values
Tuple	Rows in a relation
Attribute	Column in a Table
Cardinality	No. of rows in a relation
Degree	No. of columns in a relation
Relation	Table

Question 9.
Explain the major components of DBMS.
Answer:
Components of DBMS

1. Databases – It is the main component.
2. Data Definition Language (DDL) – It is used to define the structure of a table.
3. Data Manipulation Language (DML) – It is used to add, retrieve, modify and delete records in a database.
4. Users- With the help of programs users interact with the DBMS.

Question 10.
Categorise the users of DBMS and write their functions.
Answer:
Users of Database

1. Database Administrator – It is a person who has central control over the DBMS.
2. Application Programmer – These are computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through programs.
3. Naive users – He is an end user. He does not know the details of DBMS.

Question 11.
A table with three columns is given below. For each relational operation given in the 1st column find the best matches from 2^nd and 3^rd columns.

Answer:
1. Select → c) o → (ii)
2. Union → d) ∪ → (iv)
3. Set difference → b) – → (i)

Question 12.
Observe the given table BOOK and write down the outputs of the following relational expressions:

Answer:
a. This query returns all the tuples(rows) that contain BPB in column Publisher.

b. This query returns the column Book_Title with price < 200.
Book Title
Computer Fundamentals C++ Programming Mystery of Chemistry.

Plus Two Computer Science Database Management System Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cardinality of table A is 10 and of table, B is 8 and the two relations are union compatible.
What will be the maximum possible cardinality of (A ∪ B) and (A ∩ B)?
What will be the minimum possible cardinality of (A ∪ B) and (A ∩ B)?
Give justifications for your answers.
Answer:
1. Both relations contain different tuples (rows).
2. The 8 tuples (rows) of table B are same as that of table A.
Case 1.
If both relations contain different tuples then the maximum possible cardinality of A ∪ B is 10 + 8 = 18
Case 2.
If 8 tuples of table B are same as that of table A then the maximum possible cardinality of A C B is 8.
Case 3
If 8 tuples of table B are same as that of table A then the minimum possible cardinality of A ∪ B is 10.
Case 4.
If both relations contain different tuples then the mini-mum possible cardinality of A ∩ B is 0.

Question 2.
There are different data models of which one is currently used in all business transactions. Specify it and discuss in detail.
Answer:
Relational data model is currently used in all business transactions. It is based on the concept introduced by E F Codd. It is composed of one or more tables. Tables are made up of rows and columns. Here tables are called relations, rows are called tuples and the columns are called attributes. The advantages of this model is neither data redundancy nor complexity.
Eg:

Customer	Address
Gita	Add1
Lata	Add2
Ram	Add 3

Question 3.
You have to present a seminar on the topic “Keys in RDBMS”. Prepare the seminar report.
Answer:

1. Candidate Key: It is a set of attributes that uniquely identifies a row. There may be more than candidate key and maybe a combination of more than one attribute.
2. Primary Key: A primary key is one of the Candidate Keys. It is a set of one or more attributes that can uniquely identify tuples in a relation.
3. Alternate Key: The Candidate key that is not the. primary key is called the alternate key.
4. Super Key: A combination of a primary key with any other attribute or group of attributes is called a super key.
5. Foreign Key: A single attribute or a set of attributes, which is a candidate key in another table, is called foreign key.

Question 4.

Consider the relations STUDENT and GRADE given above and predict the output of the following relational operations in table format.

Answer:

Question 5.
Explain any 4 Relational Algebra Operations.
Answer:
1. SELECT operation:
SELECT operation is used to select tuples in a relation that satisfies a selection condition. Greek letter a (sigma) is used to denote the operation. Syntax – σ _condition(relation)
eg. σ_{salary < 10000} (EMPLOYEE) – selects tuple whose salary is less than 10000 from EMPLOYEE relation.

2. PROJECT operation:
PROJECT operation selects certain columns from the table and discards the other columns. Greek letter7i(pi) is used to denote PROJECT operation. Syntax – π_condition(relation)
eg. π_{name, salary} (EMPLOYEE) displays only the name and salary of all employees

3. UNION operation:
This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by ∪. duplicate tuples are eliminated. Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order.
e.g. SCIENCE ∪ COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

4. INTERSECTION operation:
This operation returns a relation consisting of all the tuples appearing in both of the specified relations. It is denoted by ∩. It can takes place only on compatible relations.
e.g. FOOTBALL ∩ CRICKET returns the players who are in both football and cricket teams.

Question 6.
Why should you choose a database system instead of simply storing data in conventional files?
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS over conventional files:

1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Efficient data access – It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

4. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

5. Standards can be enforced – The data in the database follows some standards.
Eg: a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

6. Security restrictions can be applied – The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.

7. Integrity can be maintained – It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.

8. Crash recovery – Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Question 7.
We have admission register, attendance register, marks register, etc. in our school to keep various details of students. Briefly describe how DBMS can replace these registers by stating any five merits.
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS
1. Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

4. Standards can be enforced – The data in the database follows some standards.
Eg: a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

5. Security restrictions can be applied – The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized persons.

6. Integrity can be maintained – It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.

7. Efficient data access – It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

8. Crash recovery – Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10^-7C and 3 × 10^-7 C placed 30cm apart in air?
Answer:
Given q₁ = 2 × 10^-7C, q₁ = 3 × 10^-7 C
r = 30cm = 0.3m
Force of repulsion

Question 2.
When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar phenemenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.
Answer:
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the charges developed on the glass rod and the piece of silk are equal and opposite. Similar is the case in other pair of bodies. So electric charge is neither be produced nor destroyed but simply transferred from one body to another, hence is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.

Question 3.
An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10⁹ cm is aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 10⁴NC^-1. Calculate the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole.
Answer:
Given
p = 4 × 10^-9cm, θ = 30°, E = 5 × 10⁴ NC^-1, τ = ?
Since τ = pEsinθ
= 4 × 10⁹ × 5 × 10⁴ × sin 30°
= 20 × 10^-5 × 1/2 = 10^-4Nm.

Question 4.
A Polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3 × 10⁷C.

1. Estimate the number of electrons transferred from which to which?
2. Is there a transfer of mass from wool to polythene?

Answer:
1. Charge on one electron
∴ Number of electrons in the given charge

= 1.875 × 10¹² = 2 × 10¹²

2. Since woold gets negative charge on rubbing with polythene, wool must gain electrons from polythene.
∴ Ideally speaking there must be a transfer of mass due to transfer of electrons but since the mass of electron is very small, this transfer of mass may be negligible (=2 × 10¹⁸kg).

Question 5.
A uniformly charged conducting spheres of 2.4m diameter has a surface change density of 80.0m cm^-2.

1. Find the charge on the sphere.
2. What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere?

Answer:
Given σ = 80.0µcm^-2 = 80 × 10^-6cm^-2
D = 2.4m, r=1.2m
1. Charge on the sphere,
q = σ × 4πr²
= 80 × 10^-6 × 4 × 3.142 ×(1.2)²
= 1.45 × 10^-3C.

2. Electric flux,
Φ = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{1.45 \times 10^{-3}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 16 × 10⁸ NC^-1m²

Question 6.
An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 10⁴ NC^-1 at a distance of 2cm. Calculate the linear charge density.
Answer:
Given E = 9 × 10⁴ NC^-1, r = 2cm = 0.02m

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A point charge Q is place at the center of a cube of side, i the electric flux emerging the cube is.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

Question 2.
A hollowing insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10p. what will be the electric field at the center of the sphere if its radius is 2 meters?
(a) 20 μ Cm^-2
(b) 5 Cm
(c) zero
(d) 8 Cm
Answer:
(a) 20 μ Cm^-2

Question 3.
A charge Q μ C is placed at the center of a cube, the flux coming out from each face will be.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{Q}{6 \varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)
Explanation: For complete cube Φ = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)
For each face Φ = \(\frac{1}{6}\) \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out of the following based on electric field intensity.
(i) Point charge
(ii) Uniformly charged sphere
(iii) Uniformly charged cube
(iv) Uniformly charged sheet
Answer:
(iv) Uniformly charged sheet (The electric field does not depend on distance)

Question 5.
“Electrostatic force is medium dependent that is why NaCI dissolves in water” comment on this statement.
Answer:
Dielectric constant of water is 81. Hence the force between Na⁺ and cl^– reduces by 81 times.

Question 6.
Classify into true or false

1. In a charged conductor charges reside inside and out side the conductor
2. In a charged conductor net field is zero inside the conductor.

Answer:

1. False
2. True

Question 7.
Electrostatic force is a_____force
(i) Conservative
(ii) non conservative
(iii) medium independent
(iv) dissipative Conservative
Answer:
(i) Conservative

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside, even when there is lightning and thunder. Comment on this.
Answer:
Inside a spherical shell electrical field is zero. This is called electrostatic shielding. Hence it is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside.

Question 2
There are two types of charges namely positive and negative.

1. List any two basic properties of electric charge.
2. Can a body have a charge of 0.8 × 1o^-19 C? Which basic property of electric charge is the reason for your answer?

Answer:
1. Quantization of electric charge. Conservation of electric charge.

2. No. According to quantisation of charge, total charge is Q = ne when ‘n’ is an intiger. Here
n = \(\frac{0.8 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.5 n is a fractional value.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A cubical iron block is given a charge of +40m C and placed in vacuum.

1. Give the direction of electric field at the centre of one face.
2. Calculate the net flux due to the charged cube through one face.
3. Will there be any change in the flux if it is placed underwater of dielectric constant 81. Justify.

Answer:
1. Normally outwards from the surface.
Total flux = \(\frac{40 \times 10^{-3}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 4.51 × 10⁹Nm²C^-1

2. Through one face = \(\frac{4.51 \times 10^{9}}{6}\) = 0.75 × 10⁹Nm²C^-1

3. Electric flux decreases because flux depends on permittivity of medium.

Question 2.
When a rubber sheet is rubbed with woolen carpet, the carpet is found to acquire a positive charge of 8 × 10^-7C
1. In the above process charging is by

• conduction
• friction
• induction
• polarization

2. Among Rubber shoe and woolen carpet which one acquire both mass and charge during rubbing? Explain.
Answer:
1. In the above process charging is by:

• Friction

2. Carpet is found to be positive body which means that electrons are lost from carpet to rubber shoe. Hence rubber shoe acquires charge and mass.

Question 3.
A glass rod rubbed with silk found to have acquired a positive charge 6.4 × 10^-7C.
1. In the above process charging is by

• Induction
• Conduction
• Friction
• Electromagnetic induction

2. Regarding above process which statement is false

• glass rod loss some mass
• silk gain negative charge but no mass
• Silk gain charge arid mass
• Total charge of the silk glass system is zero

3. Will the above process obey law of quantization of electric charge? Clarify your answer by finding numbers of electrons transferred to silk.
Answer:
1. In the above process charging is by:

• Friction

2. Regarding above process which statement is false:

• Silk gains charge and mass

3. yes
Number of electrons transferred to Silk,
n = \(\frac{q}{e}=\frac{6.4 \times 10^{-7}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 4 × 10¹²

Question 4.
In a NaCI molecule there is an attractive force between Na+ ion and Cl^– ion

1. Which law help us to find this attractive force? State the law.
2. State the law and write it’s mathematical form
3. Why NaCI molecule is easily soluble in water? [Hint;- Dielectric constant of water is 81]

Answer:
1. Coulombs law.

2. The force between two changes is directly proportional to product of their charges and inversely proportional to square of the distance between them. Force on q₁ due q₂.

3. Force between two charges depends on the medium in between them.
i.e. F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} k} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
For water molecule K=81. Hence the force between two charge in water decreases by 81 times. As result NaCl molecule is easily soluble in water.

Question 5.
There are two types of charges namely positive and negative.
1. List any two basic properties of electric charge. (1)

2. Can a body have a charge of 0.8 × 10^-19 C? Which basic property of electric charge is the reason for your answer? (1)

3. Name the basic property of electric charge that you can see in the equation. (1)
Rn₈₆ → P0₈₄ + He₂

Answer:
1. Quantization of electric charge. Conservation of electric charge.

2. No. According to quantisation of charge, total charge is Q = ne when ‘n’ is an intiger. Here
n = \(\frac{0.8 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.5 n is a fractional value.

Question 6.
The rectangular block shown in the figure attracts the flowing water.

Identify the rectangular block as a magnet or electrically charged body. Justify your answer.
Answer:

• Electrically charged body.
• Charged body attracts water flow.

Question 7.
Figure represent an infinite sheet of charge of surface charge density σ. You have to find electric field intensity at P due to this infinite charge.

1. Can you apply Coulomb’s inverse square law to find electric field at P?
2. Find electric field intensity at P due to this sheet

Answer:
1. No.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged infinite plane sheet:

Consider an infinite thin plane sheet of change of density σ.
To find electric field at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cylinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,

But electric field passes only through end
surfaces ,so we get ∫ ds = 2ds

E is directed away from the charged sheet, if σ is positive and directed towards the sheet if σ is negative.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two charges +3µC and -3µC are separated by a very small distance of 5mm.
1. What is the name of the above arrangement?

2. If the above arrangement is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity 3 × 10^-5 N/C with its axis perpendicular to the field direction. What is the torque acting on it?

3. If the arrangement is placed in a non uniform electric field, what happens?

Answer:
1. Electric dipole.

2. τ = P × E
= PE (θ = 90°) = q2aE
= 3 × 10^-6 × 5 × 10^-3 × 3 × 10^-5 Nm(∴ 2a = 5 × 10^-3)

3. The dipole undergoes for both translation and rotational motion.

Question 2.
NaCI when placed in a uniform electric field 20VM^-1, both Na⁺ and Cl^– ions experience a force (average distance between Na⁺ and Cl^– is 1.3A°).

1. In what way the NaCI will orient in the electric field.
2. Arrive an expression for torque experienced by the dipole.
3. Calculate the maximum torque experience by the NaCl molecule in the electric field.

Answer:
1. ‘Na’ is orienting towards -ve side and cl ions towards +ve side.

2.

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = p E sin θ
Vectorialy

3. τ = q2a.E
τ = 1.6 × 10^-19 × 1.3 × 10^-10 × 20 Nm
= 41.6 × 10^-29 Nm.

Question 3.
A metal sphere of radius R carrying q (+ve) charges is shown in the figure.

1. Draw the electric lines of force related to this metal sphere.

2. Derive the strength of electric field at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of sphere.

3. “A sphere of radius 1cm can hold a charge of 1 coulomb” Comment on the statement.
[Hint:- The dielectric strength of air is 3 × 10⁶ v/m]
Answer:
1.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged thin spherical shell:
Consider a uniformly changed hollow spherical conductor of radius R. Let ‘q’ be the total charge on the surface.

To find the electric field at P (at a distance r from the centre), we imagine a Gaussian spherical surface having radius r.
Then, according to Gauss’s theorem we can write,

The electric field is constant, at a distance ‘r’. So we can write,

Case -1: Electric field inside the shell is zero.
Case – II: At the surface of shell r = R
∴ E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{R^{2}}\)

3. The Electric field intensity due to Ic,

E = 9 × 10¹³v/m.
This Electric field is higher than the dielectric strength of air (3 × 10⁶v/m). Hence the charge will leak through air.

Question 4.
Two metal plates A and B are connected to cell of emf 2V is shown in the figure

1. Redraw the diagram and draw lines of forces to represent electric field.
2. Calculate the value of electric field between A and B.
3. A charged particle starting from rest moves in the opposite direction of electric field, is it an electron or proton?
4. Calculate acceleration of above particle.

Answer:
1. Diagram and draw lines of forces to represent electric field:

2. E = \(\frac{v}{d}=\frac{2}{1 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 2 × 10³ v/m.

3. Electron. Electron flows from lower potential to higher potential ie. flows from -ve terminal to +ve terminal.

4. F = eE , ma = eE

a = 3.5 × 10¹⁴ m/sec².

Question 5.
Two closed surface S₁ and S₂ enclose two charges q₁ and q₂ as shown in the figure.

1. State the law in electrostatic that relates the electric flux passing through the surface with the charge enclosed. (1)
2. If q₁ = +6µC and q₂ = -4µC find the ratio of the flux passing through surfaces S₁ and S₂. (2)
3. Let the surface S₂ expands to double its area while S₁ remains as such. What will happen to the above ratio? (1)

Answer:
1. The net flux of electric field passing through a closed surface is equal to 1/ε₀ times the charge enclosed by the surface.

2. By Gauss’ theorem flux passing through a

3. Remains the same (because electric flux is independent of the size and shape of the enclosed surface).

Question 6.
A spherical shell of radius R is uniformly charged to a surface charge density σ.

1. State the theorem which can be used to find the electric field outside the shell.
2. Using the theorem arrive at an expression for electric field at a distance r from the centre of the spherical shell.
3. It is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside, even when there is lightning and thunder. Comment on this. (HSES.Q.P)

Answer:
1. Gauss’s theorem states that the total electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged thin spherical shell:
Consider a uniformly changed hollow spherical conductor of radius R. Let ‘q’ be the total charge on the surface.

To find the electric field at P (at a distance r from the centre), we imagine a Gaussian spherical surface having radius r.
Then, according to Gauss’s theorem we can write,

The electric field is constant, at a distance ‘r’. So we can write,

Case -1: Electric field inside the shell is zero.
Case – II: At the surface of shell r = R
∴ E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{R^{2}}\).

3. Inside a spherical shell electrical field is zero. This is called electrostatic shielding. Hence it is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside.

Question 7.
q₁, q_2, and q₃ are three point charges located in free space

1. What is the force between q₁ and q₂, if q₃ is absent?
2. What is the force between q₁ and q₂ if q₃ is present?
3. State the principle used to find total force on q₁ and calculate total force F₁ on q₁
4. Draw the vector diagram representing individual forces and total force on q₁.

Answer:
1.

2.

3. Total force on q₁ can be found using super position principle ie.


Where r₁₂ is the distance between q₁ and q₂ and r₁₃ is the force between q₁ and q₃

Question 8.
Variation of field with distance of a charged conducting shell is given below. R is the radius of the sphere
1. field is maximum at

• centre of the sphere
• at r<R
• at r>R
• at r = R (surface)

2. From the graph find value of field at centre. Give on practical application of this result

3. Draw the potential -distance graph in the above case

Answer:
1. at r = R

2. E = 0

• It is safe to be sit inside car during lightning
• Sensitive electrical instruments can be pro-tected from external electric field by placing inside a metal box.

3.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two-point charges q₁ and q₂ are separated by a distance ‘r’ in space
1. What happens to the force between the charges;

• When the magnitude of the point charges increases
• When the distance of separation decreases

2. Three-point charges +2µC each are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. Find the magnitude of the force between charge q₁ and q₁ [F₁₂] and q₁ and q₃ [F₁₃].

3. Draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{13}\) at A and find the total force acting on q₁.
Answer:
1. The force between the charges:

• Force increases
• Force decreases

\(F=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q_{1} \times q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

2. Force between q₁ and q₂

= 36 × 10^-3 N.

3.

= 62.35 × 10^-6 N.

Question 2.
Match the following

Answer:
(a) E = constant
(b) E ∝ 1/r
(c) E ∝ 1/r³
(d) E ∝ 1/r²
(e) E = O

Question 3.
An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field . of Intensity E as shown in the figure.

1. What are the forces on +q and -q?
2. What is the net force on the system?
3. Copy the diagram, mark the forces and derive an expression for torque.
4. If the dipole is placed in a non uniform electric field what nature of motion does it show?

Answer:
1. Force on ⁺q, F₊ = ⁺qE (along the direction of electric field)
Force on -q, F_– = -qE (Opposite to the direction of electronic field)

2. Net force on the system is zero.

3.

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = p E sin θ
Vectorialy

4. In nonuniform electric field, total force is not zero. Hence the dipole undergoes for both translational and rotational motion.

Question 4.
In electrostatics, Electric charge is a feature of particles like protons, electrons, etc. that decides the
force of interaction among them.
1. Write the name of the law that is used to measure the above force of interaction.

2. Express the above law in vector form.

3. Two charged spheres when placed in air attract with a force F. Keeping the distance between the charges constant, the spheres are immersed in a liquid of relative permittivity K. Then the spheres will.

• attract with a force KF
• repel with a force KF
• attract with a force F/K
• repel with a force F/K

4. Two small aluminum spheres are separated by 80cm. How many electrons are to be transferred from one sphere to the other so that they attract with a force of 10⁴N.
Answer:
1. Coulomb’s law in electrostatics

2.

3. Attract with a force F/K

4. If n electrons are transferred, charge on each sphere Q = ne

n = 5.27 × 10¹⁵

Question 5.
Intensity of electric field is a vector quantity.
1. Define intensity of electric field at a point.

2. Two small spheres A and B carrying charges 2µC and 6µC respectively are separated by a fixed distance. Intensity of electric field at the location of B due to A is E. Intensity of electric field at the location of A due B is

• E
• 3E
• 6E
• 12E

3. Two-point charges +4nC and +5nC are placed at x = 0.2m and x = 0.3m respectively along the x-axis. Find the magnitude and direction of intensity of electric field at the origin.
Answer:
1. Intensity of electric field at point is the electrostatic force experienced by unit positive charge placed at that point.

2. 3E

3.

Intensity of electric field at the origin due to the negative charge

E_(-) = 500NC^-1 along -ve x axis
Intensity of electric field at the origin due to the positive charge

E₍₊₎ = 900NC^-1 along -ve x axis
Net intensity of electric field at the origin
E = E₍₊₎ + E_(-) = 500 + 900 = 1400 NC^-1 along -ve x axis.

Question 6.
You find a sealed box on your door step. You suspect that the box contain charged metal spheres packed in insulating material.

1. Which law explains relation between charge of spheres and electric flux.
2. State the law.
3. Give a mathematical proof for this law.
4. Using this law, can you estimate the total charge inside the box without opening the box?

Answer:
1. Gauss’s theorem

2. Gauss’s theorem states that electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.
Gauss’s theorem may be expressed as

3. Gauss’S Law:
Gauss’s theorem states that the total electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.
Gauss’s theorem may be expressed

Proof:

Consider a charge +q .which is kept inside a sphere of radius ‘r’.
The flux at ‘P’ can be written as,

But electric field at P, E =


Important points regarding Gauss’s law:

• Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
• Total charge enclosed by the surface must be added (algebraically). The charge may be located anywhere inside the surface.
• The surface that we choose for the application of Gauss’s law is called the Gaussian surface.
• Gauss’s law is used to find electric field due to system of charges having some symmetry.

4.

Question 7.

• Write an expression to find electric flux passing through small element ds
• Which law helps to find total flux passing through a closed surface? State the law.
• Using this law, derive an expression for electric field due to thin uniformly charged shell.
• How can we protect delicate instruments from external electric field?

Answer:
1.

2. Gauss’s law:
Guass’s law states that total flux over a closed surface is 1/s0 times net charge enclosed by the surface.

3. Field due to A uniformly charged infinite plane sheet:

Consider an infinite thin plane sheet of change of density σ.
To find electric field at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cylinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,

But electric field passes only through end
surfaces ,so we get ∫ ds = 2ds

E is directed away from the charged sheet, if σ is positive and directed towards the sheet if σ is negative.

4. Delicate instruments can be protected from ex-ternal electric field by keeping it in a metal cavity.

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Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Business Environment

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the factor which comes under social environment of a business. (Tax rates, Labour laws, Demographic features, political).
Answer:
Demographic features.

Question 2.
Growing consumerism is
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 3.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of economic environment of a business firm. (Degree of competition, Customs, and traditions, Business cycle, Capital market)
Answer:
Customs and traditions.

Question 4.
‘Disinvestment’ comes under environment.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Question 5.
Name the process which makes a detailed analysis about the business environment.
Answer:
Environmental Scanning.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of social environment?
(a) Money supply in the economy
(b) Consumer Protection Act
(c) The Constitution of the country
(d) Composition of family
Answer:
(d) Composition of family

Question 7.
Liberalisation means
(a) Integration among economies
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions
(c) Policy of planned disinvestments
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions.

Question 8.
Which among the following is not a component of the economic environment?
(a) Economic system
(b) Stability of government
(c) Interest rates and tax rates
(d) Foreign trade balance
Answer:
(b) Stability of government

Question 9.
Which among the following is not a component of social environment?
(a) Attitude of people
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Educational system
(d) Employment rate
Answer:
(d) Employment rate

Question 10.
Pick out the factor which does not form part of the economic environment of a business firm.
(a) tax rate
(b) disinvestment
(c) internet banking
(d) economic policy
Answer:
(c) internet banking

Question 11.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of social environment of a business firm.
(a) Degree of competition
(b) Customs & traditions
(c) Business cycle
(d) Demographic distribution
(i) a & b (ii) b & c (iii) b & d (iv) a & c
Answer:
(iv) a & c.

Question 12.
There are a number of legislations which regulate the day to day operations of business in India.

1. Identify the type of environment referred in this context.
2. Name any 2 legislations which regulate the business activities.

Answer:
1. Legal Environment
2. Two legislations which regulate the business activities:

• Trade Marks Act 1968
• Essential Commodities Act 1955

Question 13.
Which of the following business environment affects the growth of IT industry in Ernakulam?
(a) Social environment
(b) Technological environment
(c) Political environment
(d) Legal environment
Answer:
(b) Technological environment

Question 14.
Identify the factor which does not come under the economic environment of business.
(a) Inflation rate
(b) Employment rate
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(c) Literacy rate

Question 15.
Identify the type of environmental change in the following case “Digital camera in place of film cameras.”
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 16.
Find the odd one.
(a) Unstable Government
(b) Import-Export policy
(c) Taxation Policy
(d) Licencing Policy
Answer:
(a) Unstable Government

Question 17.
Find the odd one out.
lifestyles, tradition, culture, disinvestment
Answer:
disinvestment.

Question 18.
Granting autonomy of operations to the private sector and foreign companies is called
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 19.
The process by which an organization monitors its environment is called
Answer:
Environment Scanning.

Question 20.
environment consists of new approaches to production.
Answer:
Technological environment.

Question 21.
environment describes the characteristics of society.
Answer:
Social Environment

Question 22.
Find the odd one among the following
(a) Industrial & Labour Laws
(b) Consumer Organisation
(c) Commercial Laws
(d) Constitutional provision
Answer:
(b) Consumer Organisation

Question 23.
“In this modern era it has become possible to book railway tickets through Internet from home, office, etc” Identify the environment.
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 24.
The present nuclear family system totally changed our lifestyle. Moreover, women’s liberation movements have added to the freedom of women in society. Identify the business environment referred to in this context.
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 25.
On November 1, 2008, Reserve Bank of India reduced the cash reserve ratio to 5.5% to improve the availability of credit. Identify the environment to which it relates.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalisation:
Liberalization of economy means to free it from direct control imposed by the government. Liberalisation of the Indian industry has taken place with respect to the following.

1. Abolishing licensing requirement in most of the industries
2. Freedom in deciding the scale of business activities
3. Removal of restrictions on the movement of goods and services
4. Freedom in fixing the prices of goods and services
5. Reduction in tax rates
6. Simplifying procedures for imports and exports
7. Attract foreign capital and technology to India.

Question 2.
Explain the two methods of Privatisation.
Answer:
Privatisation:
Privatisation means transfer of the public sector enterprises to the private sector. The role of private sector is encouraged. This can be done in two ways.

1. Disinvestment of a part of the shares held by the government in public sector units,
2. Dereservatiion of areas formerly reserved for the public sector.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the dimensions of the Business environment.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mr. Babu Raj, an engineering graduate who wants to know the factors of legal environment approaches you. Give him an idea about the legal environment affecting business.
Answer:
A business has to work within the framework of the legal systems of the country. Legal environment includes the Acts that have been passed by the Parliament and State Legislature. The important laws that affect business include The Contract Act, Companies Act, Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Essential Commodities Act, etc.

Question 3.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization:
Globalisation means the integration of the various economies of the world-leading towards the emergence of a cohesive global economy. Features of Globalisation:

1. Free flow of goods and services across nations
2. Free flow of capital across nations
3. Free flow of information and technology
4. Free movement of people across borders

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following factors of business environment under appropriate heads.

1. Attitude of People
2. Economic Policies
3. Acts and Laws
4. Information Technology

Answer:

Question 2.
“Understanding family lifestyle and customs is important for the food processing industries”.

1. Observe this statement and identify the type of business environment referred to this context.
2. State its significance in business.

Answer:
1. Social environment.

2. Social environment:
The social factors include attitude of people, cultural heritage, customs and beliefs of people, literacy rate, educational system, demographic distribution, etc. The socio-cultural environment very much influences the business to follow a code of conduct. A business concern must understand the society in its various dimensions for its success.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following environmental factors into Economic, Social and Legal factors.

1. Tax Rates
2. Labour Laws
3. Level of Education
4. Human Rights
5. Foreign Trade
6. Demographic Composition
7. Liberalisation
8. Customs and Belief
9. trademark

Answer:

Question 2.
“It is the forces outside the control of a business”

1. What is it?
2. List out the importance of such forces.

Answer:
1. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

2. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

3. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

4. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

5. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

6. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Question 3.
“The success of a business depends on correctly forecasting the environmental factors.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its importance

Answer:
1. Yes. The business environment refers to the totality of all factors which are external and beyond the control of business enterprise.

2. The importance of Business Environment are:
a. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

b. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

c. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

d. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental. scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

e. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

f. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Identify the various environmental factors influencing the operations of a company in your locality.
2. Also, classify them and present in a suitable diagram.

Answer:

1. Economic Environment:
Interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of people, stock market indices and the value of rupee are some of the economic factors that can affect the business enterprise.

2. Social Environment:
The social environment of business includes social forces like customs and traditions, values, social trends, literacy rate, educational levels, lifestyle, etc.

3. Technological Environment:
Technological environment consists of new products, new technologies, new approaches to product, new methods, and equipment, etc.

4. Political Environment:
Political environment includes constitution, political parties, and their ideology, types of govt., political stability, attitude towards business, etc,

5. Legal Environment:
Legal environment includes various legislations passed by the central, state or local governments.

Question 2.
List out the impact of Government policy changes in business and industry.
Answer:
Impact of Government Policy Changes on Business and Industry:
The government policy of liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation has made a definite impact on the working of enterprises in business and industry in terms of the following.

1. Competition for Indian firms has increased.
2. The customer’s wider choice in purchasing better quality of goods and services.
3. Rapid technological advancement has changed/ improved the production process.
4. Enterprises are forced to continuously modify their operations.
5. Need for Developing Human Resources arise.
6. There is a shift from production oriented concept to market oriented concept.

 

Students can Download Chapter 10 The s Block Elements Questions and Answers, Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 The s Block Elements

Plus One Chemistry The s Block Elements One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The element placed at the bottom of the alkali metal family is expected to
a) Have maximum ionisation enthalpy
b) Be the least reducing agent
c) Be the least electropositive element
d) Be the most easily ionisable
Answer:
d) Be the most easily ionisable

Question 2.
Which of the following have lowest thermal stability?
a) Li₂CO₃
b) Na₂CO₃
c) K₂O₃
d) Rb₂CO₃
Answer:
a) Li₂CO₃

Question 3.
The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is
a) Ca₂SiO₄.½H₂O
b) Ca₂SiO₄.2H₂O
c) CaSO₄.½H₂O
d) CaSO₄.2H₂O
Answer:
c) CaSO₄.½H₂O

Question 4.
A mixture of NaOH and CaO is known as _________ .
Answer:
Soda lime

Question 5.
Which of the following is least soluble in water?
a) BeSO₄
b) BaSO₄
c) CaSO₄
d) SrSO₄
Answer:
BaSO₄

Question 6.
Pick out the odd one and write reason for it.
Ca(OH)₂, Mg(OH)₂, Ba(OH)₂, Be(OH)₂ Sp
Answer:
Be(OH)₂. The others hydroxides are basic but Be(OH)₂ is amphoteric.

Question 7.
The stability of alkaline earth metal carbonate
Answer:
Increases from Be to Ba

Question 8.
Mg₂C₃ on hydrolysis gives _________
Answer:
Propyne

Question 9.
The raw materials required for the manufacture of cement clinker are
Answer:
limestone & clay

Question 10.
A sodium potassium alloy is used as a _________ .
Answer:
coolant in nuclear reactor.

Question 11.
Li₂CO₃ decomposes at a lower temperature whereas Na₂CO₃ at highertemperature _________ .
Answer:
Li⁺ is very small

Plus One Chemistry The s Block Elements Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the false statements and rewrite them.
a) Alkali metals possess both +1 & +2 oxidation states.
b) Lithium is found to be the strongest reducing agents among the alkali metals.
c) Manufacturing of rayon is known as viscose process.
d) Washing soda is used to remove temporary hardness of water.
Answer:
a) False. Alkali metals possess only +1 oxidation state.
b) True
c) True
d) False. Washing soda is used to remove the permanent hardness.

Question 2.
a) Write the scientific name of slaked lime.
b) What is its role in white wash?
c) What do you mean by slaking of lime?
d) What happens when slaked lime is treated with dry chlorine?
Answer:
a) Calcium hydroxide
b) It is disinfectant hence it is used in white wash.
c) Calcium hydroxide is obtained by adding water to quick lime. This process is called slaking of lime.
d) Calcium hydroxide reacts with dry chlorine to form calcium hypochlorite, a constituent of bleaching powder.
2Ca(OH)₂ + 2Cl₂ → CaCl₂ + CaOCl₂ + 2H₂O

Question 3.
1. Which metal is present in chlorophyll?
2. What is the role of calcium in our body?
Answer:
1. Mg
2. About 90% of body calcium is present in bones and teeth. It also plays important roles in neuromuscular function, intemeuronal transmission, cell membrane integrity and blood coagulation.

Question 4.
A compound is used as drying agent as such or as soda lime with NaOH and it is used on a very large scale as a building material.
a) Which is this compound?
b) How can we prepare this compound?
c) What are the properties of this compound?
Answer:
a) Calcium oxide
b) It can be prepared by heating lime stone in a rotary kiln at 1070-1270 K.
c) Pure calcium oxide is an amorphous white solid of very high melting point. It is sparingly soluble in water. Calcium oxide readily absorbs moisture and carbon dioxide.

Question 5.
Listen the chemical reaction,

1. Write the common name of the reactant.
2. What is the temperature corresponding to A?
3. What is B (product)? Write its chemical formula.

Answer:

1. Gypsum
2. 393 K
3. Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄. ½H₂O) or (CaSO₄)₂.H₂O

Question 6.
Explain with the help of chemical equations what happens when

1. lime stone is heated?
2. water is dropped on quick lime?
3. gypsum is heated to 393 K?

Answer:

1. When lime stone is heated, it is converted into CaO and CO₂.

2. When water is dropped on quick lime calcium hydroxide is formed.
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
3. When gypsum is heated to 393 K, Plaster of Paris is obtained.

Question 7.
Alkali metal halides are all high melting, colourless crystalline solids.

1. Write any other physical property of alkalimetal halides.
2. How alkali metal halides are prepared?

Answer:
1. All the alkali metal halides are soluble in water except LiF. They have high negative enthalpies of formation. The melting and boiling points always follow the trend: fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide.

2. Alkali metal halides are prepared by the reaction of the appropriate oxide, hydroxide or carbonate with aqueous hydrohalic acid.

Question 8.
What is Plaster of Paris? How is it prepared? What is its use?
Answer:
The chemical formula of plaster of Paris is (CaSO₄)₂.H₂O.
It is prepared by heating gypsum at 393 K.

It is a hemihydrate of calcium sulphate.
It is a white powder. On mixing with an adequate quantity of water it forms a plastic mass that gets into a hard solid in 5 to 10 minutes.

Plaster of Paris is used

• for making moulds for pottery, ceramics, etc.
• for making models, statues and decorative materials.
• for immobilising the affected part of organ where there is a bone fracture or sprain.

Question 9.
Give the biological importance of Na and K.
Answer:
Biological importance of sodium: The Na⁺ ions participate in the transmission of nerve signals, in regulating the flow of water across cell membranes and in the transport of sugars and amino acids into cells. Biological importance of potassium: The K⁺ ions activate many enzymes, participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and, with sodium, are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

Question 10.
1. Name the element showing anomalous behaviour in group 2.
2. Give reason forthis anomalous behaviour,
3. List any two similarities between Be and Al.
Answer:
1. Be

2. Be has exceptionally small atomic and ionic size, it has high ionisation enthalpy, it cannot exhibit coordination number more than four as in its valence shell there are only four orbitals. There are no d-orbitals.

2. i) Both Be and Al are not readily attacked by acids because of the presence of an oxide film on the surface of the metal.
ii) The chlorides of both Be and Al have Cl^– bridged chloride structure in vapour phase.

Plus One Chemistry The s Block Elements Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A compound of calcium is used for immobilising the fractured bones of body.

1. Write down the common name and molecular formula of the compound.
2. Which property of the compound helps to make plaster?
3. What do you mean by dead burnt plaster? How does it form?

Answer:
1. Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄. ½H₂O) or (CaSO₄)₂.H₂O

2. When we add water to Plaster of Paris, there is slight increase in volume and this helps Plaster of Paris to take the shape of any mould in which it is present.

3. When Plaster of Paris is heated above 393 K, Plaster of Paris loses water of crystallization to form anhydrous calcium sulphate, CaSO₄. It is known as dead burnt plaster which does not set in presence of water.

Question 2.
Lithium is group 1 element. It shows some similarities with group 2 element magnesium.
1. Write the name of the relationship.
2. Explain this relationship.
3. What is the reason for this relationship?
4. Give other example for this relationship.
Answer:
1. Diagonal relationship.

2. The first element of alkali group shows some similarities with the second element of the second group, which is diagonally present. This relation is called diagonal relationship.

3. Diagonal relationship is due to the following reasons:

• Similarity in their polarising powers due to similar charge/radius ratio.
• Almost similar electronegativity of the 2 elements.

4.

• Berylium and Aluminium
• Boron and Silicon

Question 3.
Mentionafewimportarrtusesofthefollowing compounds.

1. Epsom salt
2. Marbl
3. Sodium hydroxide

Answer:
1. Epsom salt:
It is used as a mordant in dyeing. Used in medicine in purgative. Used in tanning industry.

2. Marble:
It is used to make quick lime, cement etc. Used as a raw material in the Solvay process. Used as a building material.

3. Sodium hydroxide:
It is used as a laboratory reagent. Used in petroleum refining. Used in viscose process.

Question 4.
Cement is a complex mixture of silicates and aluminates.
1. What is the function of gypsum in cement?
2. Explain setting of cement.
Answer:
1. The purpose of adding gypsum is only to slow down the process of setting of the cement so that it gets sufficiently hardened.

2. When the cement is mixed with water, it forms a gelatinous mass which sets slowly to a hard mass having 3 dimensional network structure with -Si- O-Si and -Si-O-AI- chains. This is an exothermic process and is called setting of cement.

Question 5.
The alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to an oxidising flame.
1. What is the reason for this?
2. Give the flame colour of Na and K.
3. Name the alkali metal which imparts crimson red colour to the oxidizing flame.
Answer:
1. When the heat energy is supplied to alkali metal or its salt, the electrons are excited to higher energy levels. When these excited electrons come back to their original energy levels, they emit radiations which fall in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum and they appear coloured.

2. Na-Yellow, K-Violet

3. Li

Question 6.
a) How will you prepare Ca(OH)₂ and CaCO₃ from quicklime.
b) Give any two uses of quick lime.
Answer:
a) By adding water to quick lime we can prepare Ca(OH)₂. This process is called slaking.
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
When CO₂ is passed thruogh lime water we can prepare CaCO₃.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O

b) 1. As an important primary material for manufacturing cement.
2. In the manufacture of Na₂CO₃ from NaOH.

Question 7.
Lithium shows similarities in properties with Magnesium.
a) Namethe above phenomenon.
b) Give any two similarities of Lithium with Magnesium.
c) How is bleaching powder prepared?
Answer:
a) Diagonal relationship

b) 1) Both Lithium and Magnesium are harder and lighter than other elements in the respective groups.
2) The oxides of both (Li₂O and MgO) do not combine with excess O₂ to give any superoxide.

c) It is prepared by passing Cl₂ gas through dry slaked lime.
2Ca(OH)₂ + 2Cl₂ → CaCl₂ + CaOCl₂ + 2H₂O

Plus One Chemistry The s Block Elements Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What is the name of the method that is used in manufacturing of sodium hydroxide?
2. Explain the method.
3. Write the equations of the reactions involved in this process.
Answer:
1. Castner-Kellner method

2. The Castner-Kellner cell consists of a large tank. The bottom of the tank is filled with mercury. The tank is made into 3 compartments by 2 partitions. The outer compartments are filled with NaCl solution and the middle compartment is filled with a very dilute solution of NaOH. The mercury layer of the bottom of cell in the outer compartments acts as cathode and the mercury in the middle compartments acts as anode. As a result of electrolysis Na and Cl₂ are produced in the outer compartments. Na gets coated with mercury, and sodium amalgam is produced in the outer compartments. Due to the action of eccentric wheels at the bottom of the tank, the tank can be tilted. As a result of this Na is carried into the middle compartment and is then allowed to react with water in the middle compartment. As a result of this reaction NaOH is produced. When the concentration of NaOH in the middle compartment is raised to 40%, it is taken out from the tank. On cooling, crystals of NaOH separate out.

3. NaCl → Na⁺ + Cl^–
At cathode: Na⁺ + e^– → Na
Na + Hg → Na/Hg (Sodium amalgam)
At anode: Cl^– → Cl + e^–
Cl + Cl → Cl₂ (g)

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 3.
A piece of metallic sodium is added to liquid ammonia.

1. What is the observation?
2. What is the reason for this?
3. What happens when the solution is kept for some time?
4. What happens if the solution is concentrated?

Answer:

1. The solution turns into blue.
2. The blue colour of the solution is due to the presence of solvated electrons.
3. On standing, the solution slowly liberates hydrogen resulting in the formation of amide.
4. When the concentration of the solution increases the colour turns bronze and the solution becomes diamagnetic.

Question 4.
1. Some compounds of sodium and calcium are given below. Match them.

2. On passing CO₂ through lime water, milkiness appears. On further passing CO₂ milkiness disappears. What is the Chemistry behind it?
Answer:
1.

2. When CO₂ is passed through lime water it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ +H₂O
When CO₂ is passed through lime water for a long time, it becomes colourless due to the formation of water soluble calcium bicarbonate.
CaCO₃ + H₂O + CO₂ → CaOHCO₃)₂

Question 5.
Cement is an important building material employed in different kinds of construction works.

1. What are the major raw materials for making cement?
2. How is cement prepared?
3. What are the important ingredients of Portland cement?
4. Explain the Chemistry involved in the setting of cement.

Answer:
1. Limestone, Clay

2. When clay and lime are strongly heated together they fuse and react to form cement clinker. This clinker is mixed with 2-3% by weight of gypsum to form cement.

3. Dicalcium silicate (Ca₂SiO₄) – 26%, tricalcium silicate (Ca₃SiO₅) – 51% and tricalcium aluminate (Ca₃Al₂O₆) – 11%

4. When mixed with water, the setting of cement takes place to give a hard mass. This is due to the hydration of the molecules of the constituents and their rearrangement.

Question 6.
1. Match the following :

2. Study the list of elements given below:
Na, Mg, Li, B, C
Select the pairs showing diagonal relationship.
3. Write the chemical equation showing the reaction of sodium metal with water.
Answer:
1.

2. Li, Mg
3. 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 7.
a) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of solubility in water:
i) Mg(OH)₂, Be(OH)₂, Ba(OH)₂, Ca(OH)₂, Sr(OH)₂
ii) SrSO₄, MgSO₄, BeSO₄, BaSO₄, CaSO₄,
b) i) Write the difference between lime water and milk of lime.
ii) Complete the following reaction.

Answer:
a) i) Be(OH)₂ < Mg(OH)₂< Ca(OH)₂< Sr(OH)₂< Ba(OH)₂
ii) BaSO₄ < SrSO₄< CaSO₄< MgSO₄< BeSO₄

b) i) A clear solution of calcium hydroxide in water is called lime water. A suspension of calcium hydroxide in water is called milk of lime,

Plus One Chemistry The s Block Elements NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain why alkali and alkaline earth metals cannot be obtained by chemical reduction methods? (2)
Answer:
Alkali and alkaline earth metals are themselves very strong reducing agents and reducing agents stronger than them are not easily available. Therefore, these metals cannot be obtained by chemical reduction methods.

Question 2.
Why are potassium and caesium, rather than lithium used in photoelectric cells? (2)
Answer:
Potassium and caesium have much lower ionisation enthalpy than that of lithium. As a result, these metals on exposure to light, lose electrons much more easily than lithium. Hence, potassium and caesium rather than lithium are used in photoelectric cells.

Question 3.
When an alkali metal dissolves in liquid ammonia the solution can acquire different colours. Explain the reasons for this type of colour change. (2) Answer:
When an alkali metal is dissolved in liqiud ammonia it produces a blue coloured conducting solution due to formation of ammoniated cation and ammoniated electron as given below:

When the concentration is above 3 M, the colour of solution is copper-bronze. This colour change is because the concentrated solution contains clusters of metal ions and hence possess metallic lustre.

Question 4.
Beryllium and magnesium do not give colour to flame whereas other alkaline earth metals do so, why? (2)
Answer:
Due to the small size, the ionisation enthalpies of Be and Mg are much higher than those of other alkaline earth metals. This means that the valence electrons in beryllium and magnesium are more tightly held by the nucleus. Therefore, they need large amount of energy for excitation of electrons to higher energy levels. Since such a large amount of energy is not available in bunsen flame, therefore, these metals do not impart any colour to the flame.

Question 5.
Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by Solvay process. Why? (2)
Answer:
Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by Solvay process because potassium biocarbonate being highly soluble in water does not get precipitated in carbonation tower when CO₂ is passed through a concentrated solution of KCI saturated with ammonia.

Question 6.
Why Li₂CO₃ decomposes at lower temperature whereas Na₂CO₃ at higher temperature? (2)
Answer:
Li⁺ ion is smaller in size. It forms more stable lattice with smaller anion oxide, O^2- than with CO₃^2- ion. Therefore, Li₂CO₃decomposes into Li₂O at lower temperature on the other hand, Na⁺ ion being larger in size forms more stable lattice with larger anion CO₃^2- than with O^2- ion. Therefore, Na₂CO₃ is quite stable and decomposes into Na₂0 at very high temperature.

Question 7.
How would you explain? (3)
1. BeO is insoluble but BeSO₄ is soluble in water.
2. BaO is soluble but BaSO₄ is insoluble in water.
3. Lil is more soluble than Kl in ethanol.
Answer:
1. BeO has higher lattice enthalpy than hydration enthalpy and hence is insoluble in water. BeSO₄ on the contrary, is soluble because the lattice enthalpy is less due to bigger sulphate ion.

2. In barium oxide, BaO, due to larger size of barium ion the lattice enthalpy is less than hydration enthalpy and hence it is soluble in water. On the other hand, in BaSO₄ dueto largersize of barium as well as sulphate ion, the magnitude of hydration enthalpy is much smallerthan the lattice enthalpy and hence it is insoluble in water.

3. In Kl the chemical bond is ionic in character. On the other hand, due to small size of lithium ion and its high polarising power, the bond in Li is predominantly covalent in character. Hence, Li is more soluble than Kl in ethanol.

Question 8.
Which of the alkali metals is having least melting point? Justify. (2)
a) Na
b) K
c) Rb
d) Cs
Answer:
d) Cs.
As the atomic size of the metal increases, the strength of metallic bonding decreases and hence its melting point decreases. Since the size of Cs is the largest, therefore its melting point is the lowest.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Use of Spread Sheet in Business Application Questions and Answers, Plus Two Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Use of Spread Sheet in Business Application

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following options in a financial function indicates the interest for a period?
(a) FV
(b) PV
(c) N per
(d) Rate
Answer:
(b) PV

Question 2.
Which of the following arguments in a financial function represents the total number of payments?
(a) FV
(b) PV
(c) N Per
(d) Rate
Answer:
(c) N-Per

Question 3.
What Category of functions is used in this formula: = PMT(C 10/12, C8, C9, 1)
(a) Logical
(b) Financial
(c) Payment
(d) Statistical
Answer:
(b) Financial

Question 4.
LibreOffice Calc is a program
(a) Word Processor
(b) Browser
(c) Spread Sheet
(d) Calculator
Answer:
(c) Spread Sheet

Question 5.
……………… is the statement prepared to show detailed salary calculation
(a) Employee Job Card
(b) Payroll
(c) Loan Repayment Schedule
(d) Worksheet Payroll
Answer:
(b) payroll

Question 6.
………………… calculates the monthly installment of loan amount
(a) Loan Repayment Schedule
(b) Loan analysis sheet
(c) Loan card
(d) Payroll statement
Answer:
(a) Loan Repayment schedule

Question 7.
Depreciation is provided on
(a) Current Assets
(b) Fixed Assets
(c) Current Liabilities
(d) Long term Liabilities
Answer:
(b) Fixqd Assets

Question 8.
Depreciation =
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { cost of the asset- Scrap Value }}{\text { Life of the asset }}\)

Question 9.
……………………. is the gradual & permanent diminution in the value of assets due to wear and tear, use or abuse or efflux of time.
Answer:
Depreciation

Question 10.
Under …………… method of depreciation, the asset account will be reduced to zero.
(a) Fixed Instalment method
(b) Reducing installment
(c) Depreciation Fund Method
(d) Revaluation method
Answer:
(a) Fixed Instalment Method

Question 11.
Decrease in the value of fixed assets is called ……………..
Answer:
Depreciation

Question 12.
If the cost of asset is 10000, Scrap value at the end of 10 years will be 2000, what will be the amount of annual depreciation?
Answer:
Depreciation = \(\frac{10000-2000}{10}\) i.e., 800

Question 13.
Depreciation = (Acquisition cost – ………………. ) ÷ Life time
(a) Salvage value
(b) Carriage expenses
(c) Sales price
(d) Installation charges
Answer:
(a) Salvage value

Question 14.
The ……… of an asset is the value, which is realisable at the end of its useful life
(a) Depreciation
(b) Scrap value
(c) Written down value
(d) Acquisition cost
Answer:
(b) Scrap value

Question 15.
Odd one out
(a) Basic Pay
(b) Grade Pay
(c) House Rent Allowance
(d) Provident Fund
Answer:
(d) Provident Fund (It is a deduction)

Question 16.
_________ is a statutory deduction deducted monthly towards income tax liability of an employee
Answer:
Tax Deducted at Source (TDS)

Question 17.
Gross Salary – Total Deduction = ______
Answer:
Net Salary

Question 18.
In PMT function, Type is, whether payment is made at the beginning of the month, the value = ……(a)…… or at the end of the month, the value = …….(b)……
Answer:
(a) 1
(b) 0

Question 19.
Rate of Depreciation under straight line Method = ………
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { Amount of Depreciation (Yearty Depreciation) }}{\text { Total Depreciable Amount (Cost) }} \times 100\)

Question 20.
The function PMT is used to prepare …………….
(a) Pay Roll statement
(b) Depreciation statement
(c) Loan repayment statement
(d) Interest on Investment statement
Answer:
(c) Loan repayment statement

Question 21.
Match the following

A	B
(1) SLN	(a) Written down value method of depreciation
(2) DB	(b) Monthly salary statement
(3) Salvage value	(c) Fixed Instalment method of depreciation
(4) Payroll	(d) Acquisition Cost – Total Depreciation

Answer:
1 → c; 2 → a; 3 → d; 4 → b

Question 22.
Which among the following is not a component of PayRoll statement
(a) Professional Tax
(b) Present Value
(c) HRA
(d) Dearness Allowance
Answer:
(b) Present Value

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the different methods for calculating depreciation on fixed Assets?
Answer:
Methods of calculation of depreciation

1. Straight Line Method (SLM)
2. Written Down Value Method (WDV)

Question 2.
What commands are used to

1. Insert a column and
2. Delete a column in Libre Office Calc

Answer:

1. Insert a column
2. Delete a column

Question 3.
Develop the command to calculate the Group Insurance Premium and Tax Deducted at source (TDS) by using the ‘IF’ function.

1. Rate of GI Rs. 200/-. for BP below Rs. 10,000/- and for others Rs. 300/- assuming that BP of employee is given in cell F2
2. TDS 10% of Gross Pay for employees having Gross Pay below Rs, 25000/- and for others 20%, assuming that the gross pay of the employee is given in cell F2.

Answer:

1. = IF (B2 < 10000,200,300)
2. = IF (F2 < 25000, F2*10%, F2*20%)

Question 4.
Name the two basic method of depreciation functions used in LibreOffice Calc
Answer:

1. SLN
2. D8

Question 5.
Why is FV taken as Zero (0) in the PMT calculation?
Answer:
At the end of the loan period, the balance amount payable will be zero assuming that the repayments are made on regular basis. Therefore the future value FV is taken as zero.

Question 6.
Write the command to calculate the State Life Insurance (SLI) Premium of an Employee using the ‘IF’ function.
The condition is:- SLI Premium Rs. 250 for basic pay below Rs. 10,000/- for others Rs.500/- (Hint: Basic pay (BP) is given the cell B3)
Answer:
IF (B3 < 10000, 250, 500)

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give some examples for PayRoll components.
Answer:

1. Basic Pay
2. Dearness Allowance
3. House Rent Allowance
4. Provident Fund
5. Professional Tax
6. ESI

Question 2.
Basic Pay, Dearness Allowance, House Rent allowance, Professional Tax, Provident fund contribution are given to prepare the PayRoll statement. Give the equation to calculate Net Salary.

• Gross salary = Basic Pay + Dearness Allowance + House Rent Allowance
• Total Deduction = Professional Tax + Provident fund contribution
• Net Salary = Gross Salary – Total Deduction

Answer:
Net Salary Calculation:
Step 1 – Calculate Gross salary by using the given formula.
Gross salary /Gross Pay = Basic Pay + Grade Pay + Dearness Pay+ Dearness Allowance + House Rent Allowance + Any other Earnings.

Step 2 – Calculate Total Deduction by using the following formula.
Total Deduction = Professional Tax+ Provident Fund + Tax deducted at source + Loan Recovery + Any other deductions

Step 3- Calculate net salary by the given formula.
Net Salary = Gross salary – Total Deduction

Question 3.
What is the difference between WDV method and SLN method of depreciation?
Answer:
Written Down Value Method (WDV):
This method is also known as Diminishing balance method or Reducing balance method. Under this method, a fixed percentage is written off every year on the book value of the asset at the beginning of the year.

Here the amount of depreciation goes on decreasing and therefore, the book value of asset will not become zero after its working life.
Amount of depreciation = Written Down Value of asset x Rate of depreciation

Straight Line Method:
Under this method a fixed amount is deducted from the value of an asset year after year on account of depreciation and debited to profit and loss account. This method is also called Fixed Instalment method, or Original Cost method. Under this method value of asset will be reduced to zero.
Depreciation = \(\frac{\text { cost of the asset-Scrap Value }}{\text { Life of the asset }}\)

Question 4.
List down the Parameters of the function PMT
Answer:
LOAN REPAYMENT SCHEDULE:
Loan is a sum of borrowed money for a specified period at a pre-specified rate of interest. The loan is repaid through a number of periodic repayment instalments over the loan repayment period. LibreOffice Calc function PMT is used to calculate the loan repayment schedule. The parameters of the function PMT are as follows.

Parameter – Explanation

• Rate – Interest rate
• Nper – Total Number of payments for the loan
• PV – Present value(Loan amount)
• FV – Future value, which is taken a zero, is the balance at the end of the loan period
• Type – Whether payment is made at the beginning (value = 1) or at the end (value = 0) of the period.

Question 5.
Classify the assets under computerised asset accounting.
Answer:
Assets are classified into the following categories:

1. Goodwill
2. Land: Freehold and leasehold
3. Building: Factory, office & residential building
4. Plant & Machinery
5. Furniture and fixtures
6. Vehicles
7. Work in progress (Capital)
8. Other assets

Question 6.
List out common Payroll components regarding salary computation and its payment.
Answer:
Earnings:

1. Basic pay
2. DearnessAllowances
3. House Rent Allowances
4. Transport Allowances
5. Other allowances.

Deductions:

• Provident Fund
• Professional Tax
• Tax deducted at source
• E.S.I. Premium

Question 7.
What are the common accounting applications done with the help of Libre Office Calc?
Answer:

1. Payroll Accounting
2. Asset Management
3. Loan Repayment Schedule

Question 8.
Write the formula in Libre Office Calc to find the Professional Tax in cell B2 where annual income is given in cell A2. Profession Tax is 5% for income in between Rs. 100000 and Rs.200000 and 8% for income more than Rs. 2,00,000. No tax for income below Rs. 1,00,000.
Answer:
= IF(B2 > 200000, B2*8%, IF(B2>100000, B2*5%,))

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write command to calculate state life Insurance Premium (SLI) of employee using the ‘IF’ function.
Condition
Premium Rs. 350/- below Basic Pay of Rs. 25000 and for others Rs. 450/- (BP is given in cell A3)
Answer:
= IF(A3 < 25000, 350, 450)

Question 2.
Briefly explain the procedure of preparation of salary bill and disbursement of cash.
Answer:
Preparation of Salary Bill:
The preparation of salary bill should provide for the following:
1. Maintaining payroll related data such as Employee No., Name, attendance, Basic Pay, DA, and other allowances, deductions to be made etc.

2. Periodic Payroll Computations:
It includes the calculation of various earnings and deductions.

3. Preparation of salary statement and employee’s salary slip.

4. Generation of advice to bank:
It contains the net salary to be transferred to individual bank account of employees and other salary related statutory payments such as provident fund, tax, etc.

Question 3.
The column headings of payroll to be prepared through Libre Office Calc is given below.

1. Write the formula to calculate DA, HRA, Gross pay, TDS and Net pay of Jexin Jose the first employee, in the second row of the worksheet.
2. Give the command to fill the calculation automatically for the remaining ‘10’ employees in the firm.

Answer:
1. DA → C2 =B2 * 20%
HRA → D2 = B2 * 5%
GP → E2 = B2 + C2+ D2
TDS → F2 = E2 * 10%
NP → G2 = E2 – F2

2. Fill the calculation for the remaining ‘10’ employees in the firm.

Question 4.
Distinguish between straight line method and diminishing balance method of depreciation
Answer:

Straight line Method	Diminishing balance Method
1. A Fixed amount is deducted from the value of an asset.	1. The amount of depreciation goes on reducing year after year.
2. Depreciation is computed on the original cost of the asset.	2. Depreciation is calculated on the written down value of the asset.
3. The value of the asset is reduced to zero at the end of effective working life.	3. The value of the asset will not become zero after its effective working life.
4. The method is also known as Fixed Instalment method or original cost method.	4. This method is also known as reducing balance method or written down value method.

Question 5.
Mr. Jyothis, a Plus two commerce student, entered the following details in a worksheet of LibreOffice Calc.

Write the command to calculate Net Salary
Answer:

Fill down the calculation to remaining 4 employees

Question 6.
Develop the commands to calculate the group insurance premium (Gl) and Tax Deducted at source (TDS) by using the ‘IF’ function.

1. Rate of GI Rs. 200/- for BP below Rs: 8000/- and for others Rs. 300/-, assuming that BP of employee is given in B2.
2. TDS 10% of Gross pay, for employees having Gross pay below Rs. 15,000/- and for others, 20%, assuming that the gross pay of the employee is given in F2.

Answer:

1. IF (B2 < 8000, 200, 300)
2. IF (F2 < 15000, F2*10%, F2*20%)

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How the assets are classified in computerised Asset Accounting? What are the different methods of calculating depreciation on such assets?
Answer:
In computerised Asset Accounting, Assets are classified into the following categories.

1. Goodwill
2. Land (Normally, depreciation is not provided on freehold land)
3. Building
4. Plant and Machinery
5. Furniture and Fixtures
6. Vehicles
7. Work in progress (Capital)
8. Others

The different methods of calculating depreciation are:

• Straight Line Method (SLM)
• Written Down Value Method (WDV)

Question 2.
Which built in function of LibreOffice Calc can be used to compute monthly instalments of repayment of loan? Give the parameters of this function.
Answer:
PMT function can be used to prepare Loan Repayment Schedule in LibreOffice Calc.
The parameters of PMT function are:-

Parameter – Explanation

• Rate – Interest on Loan
• Nper – Number of payments for the loan
• PV – Present value; (ie the loan amount)
• FV – Future value, which is taken a zero
• Type – If the payment is made at the beginning of the month, the value = 1 or at the end of the month, the value = 0

Question 3.
From the following particulars prepare a payroll of employees of a firm by using LibreOffice Calc

• DA – 40% of basic pay
• HRA – 8% of basic pay
• Contribution to PF – 10% of basic pay.

Answer:

• DA = Basic pay *40%
• HRA = Basic pay *8%
• PF = Basic pay *10%
• Gross Pay = Basic Pay + DA + HRA
• Net Pay = Gross pay – PF

Question 4.
From the following particulars, prepare a payroll of employees of a firm by using LibreOffice Calc.

• DA = 70% of Basic pay
• HRA = 10% of Basic pay
• Contributions to PF at 15% of Basic pay.

Answer:
Step 1 – Enter the following

Cell	Content
A1	Name of employee
B1	Basic pay
C1	DA
D1	HRA
E1	GROSS SALARY
F1	PF
G1	Net Salary

Step 2

Cell	Formula
C2	= B1 * 70%
D2	= B1 * 10%
E2	= B2 + C2 + D2
F2	= B1 * 15%
G2	= E2 – F2

Step 3 – Copy this formula to the remaining cells

Plus Two Accountancy Use of Spread Sheet in Business Practical Lab Work Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a Pay Roll statement of Viswanath Enterprises from the table given below and additional information.

1. DA is provided at 90% of Basic Pay
2. HRA: Rs. 500 for manager, 400 for accountant and 200 for others.
3. PF is deducted @ 20% on Basic + DA

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following text/formula in respective cells

Step 3 – Enter the given details

Cell	Formula
E2	= D2 * 90%
F2	= IF(C2 = “Manager”, 500, IF(C2 = “Accountant”, 400, 200))
G2	= SUM (D2: F2)
H2	= SUM(D2: E2) * 20%
K2	= SUM(H2: J2)
L2	= G2 – K2

Step 4 – Copy the formula down up to the last employee.
Output:

Question 2.
Mr. Shibu wants to take a housing loan of Rs. 2,00,000 repayable in 60 equal monthly installments over the next 5 years. Assuming that the installments are paid in the beginning of each month. Find out the amount of monthly installments. Use PMT Function.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open blank work sheet in LibreOffice Calc.
Applications → Office → Libre Office Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following data in appropriate cells

Output:

Monthly Installments

-4,404.84

Question 3.
Riya took a industrial loan of Rs. 300000, repayable in 4 years (equal monthly installments). The annual rate of interest is 10%. Assuming that the installments are paid at the end of each month. Find out the amount of monthly installments. Use PMT Function.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a blank work sheet in LibreOffice Calc.
Application → Office → Libre Office Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following data in appropriate cells.

Output:

Monthly Installments

-7608.78

Question 4.
From the following particulars of employees in Anu Traders, prepare the Pay Roll.

Name	Basic pay
Thomson	8760
Nilson	9340
Shibu	10100
Shijo	7690
Shyjan	8350
Rejo	11200

Additional information:

1. DA – 50% of BP
2. HRA – 10% of BP
3. A monthly subscription to PF – 15% of BP
4. Group insurance premium -120 from each employee.

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new worksheet in LibreOffice Calc

Step 2 – Enter the following details in the following cells.

Step 3 – Enter the following details in the respective cells

Cell	Formula
C3	= B3 * 50%
D3	= B3 * 10%
E3	= SUM(B3: D3)
F3	= B3 * 15%
H3	= F3 + G3
13	= E3 – H3

Step 4 – Copy the formula down up to the last employee.
Output:

Name	Net Salary
Thomson	12582
Nilson	13423
Shibu	14525
Shijo	11030.50
Shyjan	11987.50
Rejo	16120

Question 5.
The salary information of a company named Seasons India Ltd. is given below. Prepare Payroll.

DA – 50% of Basic pay, CCA – 5% of Basic pay, PF 8% of Basic pay.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc

Step 2 – Enter the following details in the following cells.

Step 3 – Enter the following formula in respective cells

Cell	Formula
C2	= B3 * 50%
E2	= B3 * 5%
F2	= SUM(B3: E3)
G2	= B3 * 8%
H2	= F3 – G3

Step 4 – Copy the formula down up to the last employee
Output:

Name of Employee	Net Salary
Adarsh	12760
Alwin Paul	12613
Amal Mohan	12760
Amarnath	12098.50
Anurag	14230

Question 6.
Mr.Anil Kumar a plus two commerce student entered the following details in a worksheet of LibreOffice Calc.

But, he faces some difficulty in completing the task. Can you help him by giving necessary commands or formula for filling the bank columns in the given spread sheet.
Answer:
Give the Following Formula:

Cell	Formula
C3	= B3 * 15%
D3	= B3 * 5%
E3	= B3 * 2%
F3	= B3 + C3 + D3 + E3
G3	= B3 * 10%
H3	= F3 – G3

Copy these formula to the remaining cell. Edit – Fill – Down or use Drag option.
Output:

Question 7.
Prepare the payroll of Amal Bros, for the month of January 2016.

• DA – 36% of Basic Pay
• HRA – Rs 500
• CCA – 6% of Basic pay

Deduction:

1. PF subscription – 8% of BP.
2. Group insurance premium Rs. 200 below basic pay Rs. 6000 and for others Rs. 350.
3. Tax deducted at source 10% of Gross Pay for employees below gross pay of Rs. 10000 arid for others 20%. Also, find out the total salary payable to employees for the month.

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a blank work sheet in LibreOffice Calc

Step 2 – Enter the following details in the following cells.

Step 3 – Enter the following formula in the respective cell

Cell	Formula
C2	= B2 * 36%
E2	= B2 * 6%
F2	= SUM(B2: E2)
G2	= B2 * 8%
12	= IF(B2 < 6000, 200, 350)
J2	= IF(F2 < 10000, F2 * 10%, F2 * 20%)
K2	= SUM(G2: J2)
L2	= F2 – K2

Step 4 – Copy the formula down up to the last employee.
Output:

Name of Employee	Net Salary
Jaizal Grace	7134
Haizal Rose	7218.80
Joshwin Zian	6688
Anlino Zinan	6359.80

Question 8.
Prepare a pay roll of Jayakumar Associates for the month of June 2016 from the following details

Additional Information’s

1. DA – 50% of Basic pay earned
2. HRA – Manager – 30%, Accountant – 20%, clerk 10%, no HRA for saleswoman/Salesman and driver.
3. Transport allowance – 1500 for saleswoman, 2500 for salesman and 1000 for driver
4. PF contribution – 6% of BP for all employees except the driver.

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc

Step 2 – Enter the following text/formula in the following way

Step 3 – Enter the given formula in F2
F2 = 30 – E2
Copy the formula down to the last employee

Step 4 – Enter the given formula in G2
G2 = D2*F2 ÷ 30
Copy the formula down to the last employee.

Step 5 – Enter the text for formula in the following cells.

Step 6 – Copy the formula down to the last employee.
Output:

Question 9.
Megha Associates purchased a new Machinery on 1/1/2010 for Rs. 8000 and spent Rs. 2000 for its installation. The expected salvage value is Rs. 2000 at the end of its useful life of 10 years. Calculate the amount of depreciation under straight line method.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following details as follows

Output:

Depreciation

1800

Question 10.
On 1.1.2010, Vahida Enterprises purchased a new machinery for Rs. 150000 and incurred Rs. 10000 for its installation. Preoperative expense amounted to Rs. 5000. The expected salvage value at the end of its useful life of 8 years is Rs. 2000. Calculate depreciation by straight line method by using spread sheet.
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following details in respective cells.

Output:

Depreciation

20375

Question 11.
On 1^st April 2000, a company purchased a Machinery for Rs. 20,00,000, The installation charge is 50,000, pre-operation expenses are 1,50,000 and its salvage value is calculated Rs. 1, 00,000. Life of machinery is estimated to 15 years. Calculate depreciation under straight line method.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following data/formula in the following way.

Output:

Depreciation

1,40,000

Question 12.
From the following details, calculate depreciation under written down value method by using spread sheet.

1. Purchase fo Machinery – 10-6-2012
2. Cost of the Machinery – 300000
3. Machinery installed on – 15-6-2012
4. Installation Expenses – 2000
5. Pre operating cost – 13000
6. Salvage value after 8 years – 18000
7. 1^st year end date – 31/3/2013

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the given data/ formula as follows.


Output:

Depreciation

79012.50

Question 13.
From the following details, calculate depreciation of machinery under written down value method using spreadsheet.

Name of asset	Machinery
Date of purchase	10-5-2009
Date of installation	20-5-2009
Purchase cost	200000
Installation cost	30000
Pre operating cost	20000
Salvage value	10,000
Expected life of asset	8 years
1st year end date	31/3/2010

Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the given data in respective cells.

Output:

Depreciation

75854.17

Question 14.
From the following details, calculate depreciation underwritten down value Method.

Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following data in the respective cells.

Output:

Depreciation – Filling Machine	2,31,882.75
Depreciation – Packing Machine	31,205.63

Question 15.
On 1-2-2015, Vikram borrowed Rs. 6,00,000 from Canara bank at 9.6% interest. The period of loan is 36 months. Calculate monthly installment assuming the installments are made at the beginning of each month.
procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter data/formula as follows:

Output:

Monthly Loan installment

54567.32

Question 16.
Mr. Chandramohan has taken a loan of Rs. 300,000 from a bank at an interest rate of 10% p.a. The loan is to be repaid in 36 monthly installments over the next 3 years. Assuming that the monthly installments are paid at the end of each month. Calculate the amount of interest paid by him in the 2^nd year only. Use CUMIPMT Function.
Procedure:
Step 1 – Open a new blank worksheet in LibreOffice Calc.

Step 2 – Enter the following details and formula in different cells as given below.

Output:

Interest for the 2nd year

16491.63