Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Profit is the reward of
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Business

Question 2.
‘One man one vote’ is the principle applicable to _____ form of tjusiness.
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Joint Stock Company
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(d) Co-operative Society

Question 3.
Identify the business which is brought into existence by a Special Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Public Corporation
c) Government Company
d) Private Company
Answer:
b) Public Corporation

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
Name the warehouse to store imported goods prior to the payment of tax and customs duty.
a) Private warehouse
b) Public warehouse
c) Bonded warehouse
d) Govemment warehouse
Answer:
c) Bonded warehouse

Question 5.
Identify the type of social responsibility in the given statement. ‘Helping the affected people due to natural calamity.’
a) Economic
b) Legal
c) Ethical
d) Discretionary
Answer:
d) Discretionary

Question 6.
Identify the document related with the public subscription of shares.
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Prospectus

Question 7.
Ploughing back of profit in the business is also known as…
a) Retained earnings
b) Public deposit
c) Trade credit
d) Lease financing
Answer:
a) Retained earnings

Question 8.
MSMED Act 2006 deals with
a) Micro Enterprise
b) Small Enterprise
c) Medium Enterprise
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 9.
VPP is associated with business given below.
a) Departmental store
b) Chain store
c) Mail order business
d) Supermarket
Answer:
c) Mail order business

Question 10.
Scope of International business includes
a) Export and Import
b) Licensing and franchising
c) Contract manufacturing
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
Write any two characteristics of business activity.
Answer:
Characteristics of Business Activities
i) An economic activity: Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
ii) Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.

Question 12.
What is Government Company?
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

Question 13.
Write any two benefits of e-Banking.
Answer:
a) e-banking provides 24 hours, 365 days a year services to the customers of the bank.
b) Customers can make transactions from office of house or while travelling.
c) It creates a sense of financial discipline.

Question 14.
Explain B2B commerce with one example.
Answer:

  1. B2B Commerce: It is that business activity in which two business units make electronic transaction. Eg. making enquiries seeking or placing orders, communicating supply of goods, making payments, and so on.
  2. Accept quotations through online, give orders for goods through online.

Question 15.
Name any two documents required in the formation of company.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Consent of proposed directors

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 16.
What is working capital requirements?
Answer:
Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 17.
Write any two services provided by retailers to manufacturers.
Answer:

  1. Retailers undertake personal selling efforts and thus, help to increase the sale of the products.
  2. As retailers are in constant touch with customers, they can provide various market information to the producers.

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
Write the three forms of public sector enterprises.
Answer:
1) Departmental Undertakings
2) Government companies
3) Statutory Corporation

Question 19.
Give any three causes of environmental pollution with one example each.
Answer:

  1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
  2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
  3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

Question 20.
Briefly explain the following:
a) Lease financing
b) Factoring
Answer:
(a) Lease Financing: A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the1 other party (lessee). The lessor charges lease rent for asset for some specified period.

Merits

  1. The lessee can acquire the asset with a lower investment.
  2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are tax deductible. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business.

(b) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

  1. It is cheaper than bank credit
  2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow.
  3. It ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 21.
Briefly explain any two types of Itinerant retailers.
Answer:
Types of Itinerant Retailers

  1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and mq)/e from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys, vegetables, fruits etc.
  2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 22.
Write any three disadvantages of mail order business.
Answer:
Disadvantages

  1. It has to spend a large amount for advertisement.
  2. There is no direct personal contact between the buyer and the seller. ,
  3. They are not suitable for heavy and perishable goods.

Question 23.
Give three benefits of international business,
Answer:
A) Benefits to Nations

  1. Earning of foreign exchange : It helps a country to earn foreign exchange which can be used for importing capital goods.
  2. More efficient use of resources : External trade enables a country to utilise the available resources in the best possible manner.

B) Benefits to Firms:

  1. Prospects for growth: It helps firms to create demands for their products in foreign countries.
  2. Enhances competition : External trade enhances healthy competition.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
What is business risk? Mention any two causes of business risk.
Answer:
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events.
Business enterprises may face two types of risk, i.e. speculative risks and pure risks. Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It arises due to change in demand, change in price etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.

  1. Natural causes: It includes natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.
  2. Human causes: Human causes include dishonesty, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

Question 25.
Distinguish between Active and Nominal Partner.
Answer:
(a) Active partner : A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.
(b) Nominal partner (Quasi partner): A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 26.
Explain any two functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions
1) Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
a) Current deposit
b) Savings deposit
c) Fixed deposit

2) Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
a) Cash Credit
b) Bank Overdraft
c) Discounting of bill of exchange
d) Term Loans

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
1) Agency Functions
a) Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
b) Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.

Question 27.
Who is a promoter? Write any two functions of promoter.
Answer:
(a) The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
(b)

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
  3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

Question 28.
Write any four merits of equity shares.
Answer:
a) Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk.
b) Payment of dividend is not compulsory.
c) Equity capital serves as permanent capital.
d) Equity shares do not carry any charge on the assets of the company.

Question 29.
Differentiate International and Domestic Trade.
Answer:
29. Refer March 2022 Qn. 29

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
What are the difference between Private and Public Company?
Answer:

Basis Private Public
a) Members: Company Company
b) Minimum number of directors: Minimum -2 Maximum – 200 Minimum-7 Maximum – Unlimited
c) Minimum paid up capital: Two Three
d) Transfer of shares: ₹ 1 lakh ₹ 5 lakh
e) Prospectus: Restriction on transfer No restriction

Question 31.
WhatdoyoumeanbyMNC? Write any three features of it
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
  2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 32.
Explain outsourcing. Why outsourcing is needed?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialised service providers. This helps the managers to concentrate on their core activities. Merits of outsourcing

  1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
  2. It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
  3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.

Question 33.
Match the following.

a) Obey the law of the country a) Air pollution
b) Respecting the religious sentiments b) Water pollution
c) Emission of carbon monoxide c) Legal responsibility
d) Dumping of waste to streams d) Noise Pollution
e) Loss of hearing e) Ethical responsibility

Answer:

a) Obey the law of the country Legal responsibility
b) Respecting the religious sentiments Ethical responsibility
c) Emission of carbon monoxide Air pollution
d) Dumping of waste to streams Water pollution
e) Loss of hearing Noise pollution

Question 34.
What is Memorandum of Association? Name any four clauses of it.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association – It is the “char-ter”.or “magna carta” of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the frame work beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the com¬pany with outside world. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by the proposed directors.

b) 1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. The pro¬posed name should not be identical with the name of another company. In case of a pub¬lic company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private com¬pany the name should end with the word ‘Pri¬vate Limited’ The name must not suggest any connection a national hero. It should not in- elude the word ‘co-operative’.

2. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of- the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.

3. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 35.
What are the problems faced by small business in India?
Answer:

  1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
  2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
  3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
  4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
  5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
What is Industry? Briefly explain the classification of Industry.
Answer:
1.1 Industry
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1.2 Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries’are divided into two.

  • Extractive industries:- These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
  • Genetic industries:- These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

1.3 Secondary industries : Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production.
Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

  1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
    • Analytical industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
    • Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
    • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
    • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. television, car, computer, etc.
  2. Construction industries: These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

1.4 Tertiary industries: These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg.  Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 37.
What is Partnership? Write any three merits and limications of partnership.
Answer:
Partnership The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of the business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.”

Features

  1. Formation : Formation of a partnership is based , on agreement between partners.
  2. Liability: The liability of partners is unlimited.
  3. Risk bearing : The profit or loss shall be shared among the partners in agreed ratio.

Merits of Partnership

  1. Easy formation and closure: A partnership firm can be formed and closed easily without any legal formalities.
  2. Balanced decision making : In partnership, decisions are taken by all partners.
  3. Division of labour: Division of labour is possible in partnership firm.

Limitations of Partnership

  1. Unlimited liability : The liability of partners is unlimited.
  2. Limited resources : There is a restriction on the number of partners. Hence capital contributed by them is also limited.
  3. Possibility of conflicts : Conflicts among partners may affect the smooth working of the partnership business.

Question 38.
Explain any four principles of Insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
  2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
  4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

I Answer any eight of the following questions from 1-10. Each carriers one scores. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Transport provides utility to business.
a. Time
b. Place
c. Risk
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Place

Question 2.
Buying and selling of goods and services between nations are called
a. Internal trade
b. Island trade
c. International trade
d. wholesale trade
Answer:
c. International trade

Question 3.
The traders who do not have a fixed place of business is
a. Itinerant retailers b. Fixed shop relations c. Semi-fixed shoppers d. Non of these
Answer:
Itinerant retailers

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 4.
Fishing belonging to ______ industry.
a. Extractive
b. Genetic
c. Manufacturing
d. Constructive
Answer:
Extractive

Question 5.
The member of an H.U.F. business is called
a. Member
b. Partner
c. Co-parcener
d. Shareholder
Answer:
Co-parcener

Question 6.
Indian Railway is an example of _____ from of public enterprise.
a. Statutory corporation
b. Departmental undertaking
c. Government company
d. Private company
Answer:
Departmental undertaking

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 7.
The person who is taking an insurance policy is called
a. Insurer
b. Insured
c. Insurance company
d. Insurance policy
Answer:
Insured

Question 8.
Which among the following is the document which acknowledges the debt of a company?
a. Debenture
b. Share
c. Stock
d. Mutual Fund
Answer:
Debenture

Question 9.
Purchase of mobile phone through online by a customer is an example of model of e-commerce.
a. C2C
b. B2C
c. Intra B
d. B2G
Answer:
B2C

Question 10.
Providing scholarship to students by a bank belongs to _______ kind of social responsibility of
a. Ethical
b. Legal
c. Discretionary
d. Economics
Answer:
Discretionary

II Answer any 5 questions from 11-16. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
List out any two features of a joint stock company.
Answer:
1. Separate Legal Entity : Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
2. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
3. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.

Question 12.
What do you mean by social responsibility of business?
Answer:
Social responsibility of business refers to its obhgation to take those decisions and perform those actions which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society. Social responsibility involves an element of voluntary action on the part of business people for the benefit of society.

Question 13.
Who is a promoter?
Answer:
The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 14.
Briefly explain the term retained earnings
Answer:
A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 15.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
(a) Chocolates
(b) Soft drinks packets

Question 16.
List any two benefits of e-business.
Answer:

  1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
  2. Customers can buy goods at any time.
  3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.

III Answer any 5 questions from 17-22. Each carriers 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 17.
What is partnership deed? List any four centents of it.
Answer:
Partnership of deed
a. The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership i called the partnership deed.
b. Contents of deed Name of firm

  1. Name of firm
  2. Nature of business and location of business
  3. Duration of business
  4. Investment made by each partner
  5. Profit sharing ratio

Question 18.
Briefly explain any three features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of lepartrnental Undertaking

  1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
  2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
  3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
  4. Its employees are govt. employees.

Question 19.
Write any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional business e-business
1. Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high Operating cost is low

Question 20.
Briefly explain the stages in the formation of public company.
Answer:
The steps involved in the formation of a company are:

  1. Promotion
  2. Incorporation 25
  3. Capital subscription
  4. Commencement of business

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 21.
Write a short note on ‘factoring’
Answer:
Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Question 22.
What are export processing zones?
Answer:
They are industrial estates, which form special enclaves separated from the domestic tariff areas. These are usually situated near seaports or airports. They are intended to provide an internationally competitive duty free environment for export production at low cost. They can import capital goods and raw materials for production of export goods without kcense.

Answer any 4 questions from 23-27, Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Briefly describe any four principles of insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise theinsurer can cancel the contract.
  2. 2. Insurable Interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insu red whichever is less.
  4. SubrogatIon: According to this prindple, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Question 24.
Write any four differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:

Memorandum of association Articles of association
It defines the object of the company It defines rules of internal management of the company.
It is the main document of the company It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of memorandum is compulsory Filing of articles is not compulsory for public company.

Question 25.
What is a share ? What is the difference between equity share and preference share?
Answer:
The capital of a company is divided into smaller units called share. Those who subscribe the shares of a company are known as shareholders’. Two types shares may be issued by a company to raise capital.
They are:
a) Equity Shares
b) Preference Shares

Question 26.
List any four differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Equity Shares Preference Shares
Equity compulsory to issue shares. Not compulsory to issue preference shares
Rate of dividend varies Rate of dividend is fixed
Face value is lower Face value is higher
No priority in dividend and repayment of capital Priority in dividend and repayment of capital
Cannot be redeemed Can be redeemed
Risk is high Risk is low
Voting rights No voting rights
Participate in the management Not participate in the management

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four features of a business.
Answer:

  1. An economic activity : Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
  2. Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.
  3. Sale or exchange of goods and services : There should be sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
  4. Dealings in goods and services on a regular basis : Business involves dealings in goods and services on a regular basis.

V. Answer any 3 questions from 28-31. Each carriers 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Match the following :

A B
a. Hindrance of finance Transport
b. Hindrance of place Waterhousing
c. Hindrance of time Insurance
d. Hindrance of risk Advertising
e. Hindrance of knowldege Banking

Answer:

A B
a. Hindrance of finance Banking
b. Hindrance of place Transport
c. Hindrance of time Warehousing
d. Hindrance of risk Insurance
e. Hindrance of knowldege Advertising

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 29.
What are global enterprises ? Describe any four features of them.
Answer:
Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different soirees.
  2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
  4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.

Question 30.
Briefly explain any five problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:

  1. Srpall scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
  2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
  3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
  4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generalLy high.
  5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 31.
Match the following :

A B
a. Responsibility towards owner Fair wages
b. Responsibility towards customer Fair return
c. Responsibility towards supplier Quality products
d. Responsibility towards employees Prompt payment
e. Responsibility towards government Payment of tax

Answer:

A B
a. Responsibility towards owner Fair return
b. Responsibility towards customer Quality products
c. Responsibility towards supplier Prompt payment
d. Responsibility towards employees Fair wages
e. Responsibility towards government Payment of tax

Answer any 2 questions from 32-34. Each carriers 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Describe the various functions of Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks

I) Primary Functions

  1. Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
    • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen. It carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
    • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
    • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
  2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers,
    • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
    • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an .. arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
    • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
    • Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

  • 1) Agency Functions
    1. Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
    2. Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
    3. Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
    4. Acting as trustees or executors
    5. Providing credit information
  • General utility services
    1. Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
    2. issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
    3. Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
    4. Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 33.
What is sole proprietorship? Explain any six features of it.
Answer:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.
Features

  1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
  2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy.
  3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.
  4. The entire profit of the business goes to the sole proprietor.
  5. The sole trader can take quick decisions.
  6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 34.
Describe the following.
a. Consumer co-op-stores
b. Super markets
c. Mail order houses
d. Departmental stores.
Answer:
a. Consumers co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consumers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest price.

b. Super Markets I Super Bazar : Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘Self Service Store.

Features of Super Market

  1. They are located at the centre of a town.
  2. They sell goods on cash basis only.
  3. They deal wide variety of goods.
  4. There is no salesman to help consumers

c. In mail order business, the business transactions are done through post or mail. Under this system orders for goods, delivery of goods and payment is made through VPP (Value Payable Post). Under this arrangement, the goods are delivered to the customers only on making full payment for the same. There is no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers.

d. Departmental Stores A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods ¡n different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Answer the following questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (9 × 1 = 9)

Question 1.
Which among the following is a personal cause of business risk?
a) Strike of employees
b) Famine
c) Change in technology
d) Flood
Answer:
a) Strike of employees

Question 2.
A government company* is any company in which the paid-up capital held by government is not less than——?
a) 49%
b) 50%
c) 51%
d) 26%
Answer:
c) 51%

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a function of warehousing?
a) Break the bulk
b) Price stabilization
c) Consolidation
d) Mail facilities
Answer:
d) Mail facilities

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 4.
Cash withdrawal by a customer by using ATM is an example of model of e-business transaction.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) IntraB
d) C2C
Answer:
b) B2C

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given :
a) Obeyance of law – legal responsibility of business
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people
Answer:
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people

Question 6.
Which clause of memorandum of association defines the purpose of company is formed ?
a) Object clause
b) Capital clause
c) Liability clause
d) Name clause
Answer:
a) Object clause

Question 7.
The apex bank to provide financial assistance to small business is
a) NCEUS
b) RWED
c) WASME
d) SIDBI
Answer:
d) SIDBI

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 8.
Identify the type of retail outlets that sell their goods through mail from the following:
a) Mail order house
b) Departmental stores
c) Supermarkets
d) Multiple shops
Answer:
a) Mail order house

Question 9.
The scheme to refund excise duties and customs duties to exporters on production of proof of export of goods to authorities is called
a) Manufacturing under bond scheme
b) duty drawback scheme
c) advance licence scheme
d) export promotion capital goods scheme
Answer:
b) duty drawback scheme

Answer any 6 of the following questions from 10 to 16. Each carries 2 Scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 10.
Write a short note on the following in one or two sentences each.
a) Nominal parter
b) H.U.F
Answer:
a) Nominal Partner
Nominal partner (Quasi Partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm. But, he is liable to third parties for all the debts of the firm. Joint Hindu Family Business (HUF) It refers to a form of organisation where in the business is owned and carried on by the members of a joint Hindu family. It is also known as Hindu Undivided Family Business (H.U.F). It is governed by Hindu succession Act, 1956. It is found only in India.

Question 11.
List any two features of a statutory corporation.
Answer:
Featu res of statutory corporation:

  1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
  2. It is wholly owned by the state

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 12.
Name any two types of payment mechanisms used in online shopping.
Answer:
a) Cash on delivery (COD)
b) Cheque
c) Credit Card
d) Debit Card
e) Net Banking
f) DigiyalCash

Question 13.
What do you mean by Retained Earnings?
Answer:
Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 14.
Name any two types of products which are suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending Machine is suitable for selling products like soft drinks, newspapers, platform tickets, chocolates, hot beverages, seeds of plants, magazines etc.

Question 15.
Write any two reasons for international business.
Answer:
Reasons for international business

  1. Because of unequal distribution of natural resources and differences in productivity levels, a country cannot produce all that they need
  2. Labour productivity and production costs differ among nations due to various socio-economic, geographical and political reasons.
  3. Availability of various factors of production such as labour, capital and raw materials differ among nations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 16.
Briefly explain ‘joint ventures’ as a mode of entry into international business.
Answer:
Joint Ventures: Joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more independent firms. It can be brought into existence in three major ways.
a. Foreign investor buying an interest in a local firm.
b. Local firm acquiring an interest in an existing foreign firm.
c. Both the foreign and local entrepreneurs jointly forming a new enterprise

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 17 to 21. Each carries 3 Scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Classify the following industries into Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.
a) Mining
b) Poultry farms
c) Oil refinery
d) Construction of dams
d) Banking
e) Advertising
Answer:

Primary Industry Sepondary Industry Tertiary Industry
Mining Oil refinery Banking
Poultry firms Construction of dams Advertising

Question 18.
Difference between traditional business and e-business. (Any Three)
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e- business

Traditional business e- business
Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
Investment is very high Investment is low
Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
Location is important Location is not important
Operating cost is high Operating cost is low
Contact with suppliers and customers is through intermediaries Direct contact with the suppliers and customers
Business process cycle is long Business process cycle is shorter
Inter personal touch is high Personal touch is less
Limited market coverage Access to the global market
Communication is in hierarchical order Communication is in non hierarchical order
Transaction risk is less Transaction risk is high

Question 19.
Who is a promoter of a company? List out any two function of him.
Answer:

  1. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
  2. Function of a promoter
    • Identification of business opportunity
    • Feasibility studies
    • Name approval
    • Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association
    • Appointment of professional
    • Preparation of necessary documents

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
Briefly explain any three features of global enterprises.
Answer:
Features of Global Enterprise:

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.
  2. Foreign collaboration:-Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name etc. with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Marketing strategies:- They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.
  4. Centralised control: They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control overall branches and subsidiaries.

Question 21.
Write any three differences between a share and debenture.
Answer:

Shares Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company Debenture holders are the creditors of the tcompany
Shareholders get dividends Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares Generally debentures are secured
Shares are not redeemable Debentures are redeemable
It is owner’s fund It is borrowed fund

Question 22.
Match the following :

(A) (B)
a) Partnership 1) Co-parcener
b) H.U.F. 2) Service motive
c) Joint Stock Company 3) Partner
d) Co-Op-Society 4) Shareholder

Answer:

(A) (B)
a) Partnership 1) Partner
b) H.U.F. 2) Co-parcener
c) Joint Stock Company 3) Share holder
d) Co-Op-Society 4) Service motive

Answer any 3 of the questions from 23 to 26. Each carries 4 Scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 23.
What do you mean by a departmental undertaking? Give two examples.
Answer:
Departmental Undertaking: This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. Eg. Railways, Post& Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.
Features

  1. The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
  2. The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control
  3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
  4. Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
  5. They are accountablefto the concerned ministry.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 24.
‘E-business has several benefits’. Explain any four of it.
Answer:

  1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
  2. Customers can buy goods at any time from any seller located in different parts of the world.
  3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.
  4. It helps the business units to operate at the national as well as the global level.
  5. It helps to reduce clerical and paper work.
  6. It helps to eliminate middlemen.

Question 25.
Explain any ‘four’ problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems pf small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

  1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks and other financial institutions.
  2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
  3. Small business is generally operated by people who may not have all the managerial skills required to run the business.
  4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So productivity per Employee is relatively low and employee turnover is generally high.
  5. Small business depends excessively on middlemen for marketing the products. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 26.
Write short note on the following:
a) Special economic zones
b) Contract manufacturing
Answer:
a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ): It is specifically a delineated dutyfree enclave, which is deemed to be a foreign territory for the purpose of trading and imposing duties. It provided an internationally competitive and duty free environment for the production of export of goods.

b) Contract Manufacturing (Outsourcing): When a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain goods produced as per its specifications it is called contract manufacturing. It is also known as outsourcing and it can take place in following forms.

  1. Production of certain components
  2. Assembly of components into final products
  3. Complete manufacture of the products

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 27-30. Each carries 5 Scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 27.
‘We want to consider a lot of factors before starting a business.’ Explain any 5 of it.
Answer:
Choice of business organisation The important factors determining the choice of organization are:

  1. Cost and Ease of formation:- From the point of view of cost, sole proprietorship is the preferred form as it involves least expenditure and the legal requirements are minimum. Company form of organisation, is more complex and involves greater costs.
  2. Liability: In case of sole proprietorship and partnership firms, the liability of the owners/ partners is unlimited. In cooperative societies and companies, the liability is limited. Hence, from the point of view of investors, the company form of organisation is more suitable as the risk involved is limited.
  3. Continuity: The continuity of sole proprietorship and partnership firms is affected by death, insolvency or insanity of theowners. However, such factors do not affect the continuity of cooperative societies and companies. In case the business needs a permanent structure, company form is more suitable.
  4. Management ability: If the organisation’s operations are complex in nature and require professionalized management, company form of organisation is a better alternative.
  5. Capital: If the scale of operations is large, company form may be suitable whereas for medium and small sized business one can opt for partnership or sole proprietorship.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 28.
‘Memorandum of Association ¡s the major document of a company.’ Briefly explain the different clauses of it.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association:

  1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.
    • The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
    • A name which can mislead the public
    • In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ’Private Limited’
  2. Registered office clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.
  3. Objects clause: This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by therfl or the amount
    guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
  6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 29.
‘Business requires capital for long term and short term purposes.’
a) Briefly describe any two sources of long term capital.
b) Write any three merits ¿f ‘factoring’ as a financial service.
Answer:
a) Equity Shares:- Equity shares represents the ownership capital of a company. They do not enjoy any preferential right in the matter of claim of dividend or repayment of capital. Equity shareholders do not get a fixed dividend but are paid on the basis of earnings by the company. They bear the maximum risk. Equity shareholders are the owners of the company. They have right to vote and participate in the management.

Merits

  1. Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk for higher returns
  2. Payment of equity dividend is not compulsory.
  3. Equity capital serves as permanent capital as it is to be repaid only at the time of liquidation of a company.

Debentures: A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.

Merits

  1. It is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
  2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
  3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense

c) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising shortterm finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

  1. Obtaining funds through factoring is cheaper than bank credit
  2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow so that the company is able to meet its liabilities promptly.
  3. It is flexible and ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 30.
Describe how business impart its responsibility towards the following groups:
a) Owners
b) Employees
c) Government
d) Customers
e) Community
Answer:
Social Responsibility towards different interest groups:

  • Responsibility towards share holders or owners
    1. Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
    2. Provide regular and accurate information the financial position of the firm.
    3. To ensure the safety of their investment.
  • Responsibility Towards the workers :
    1. Providing fair wages
    2. Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
    3. Respect democratic rights of workers to form unions.
  • Responsibility toward consumers :
    1. Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
    2. Avoding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
    3. Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
    4. To handle the customers grievance promptly.
  • Responsibility Towards Government –
    1. Respect the laws of the country
    2. Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
    3. act according to the well accepted values of the society.
  • Responsibility towards community-
    1. Make employment opportunities
    2. Protect the environment from pollution.
    3. To uplift the weaker sections of society

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 Scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
‘A company can be described as an artificial person having a separate leagl entity, perpectual succession and common seal.’
a) List any 2 merits and 2 demerits of it.
b) Differentiate between private company and public company.
Answer:
a)

  1. Limited liability: The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held bythem. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.
  2.  Transferability of shares: Shares of a public company are freely transferable . It provides liquidity to the investor.

b)

  1. Difficulty in formation:-The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.
  2. Lack of secrecy:- It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of public company, as company is requited to publish its annual accounts and reports.

c) Difference between a Public Company and Private Company

Basis Private Company Public Company
Members: Minimum – 2 Maximum – 50 Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
Minimum number of directors: Two Three
Minimum paid up capital: Rs 1 lakh Rs 5 lakh
Transfer of shares: Restriction on transfer No restriction
Prospectus: Need not issue prospectus Can issue prospectus
Starting of business: After getting Certificate of incorporation After getting certificate of Commencement of business

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 32.
Describe the various functions performed by commercial banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are

  • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by business men.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
  • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay rate of interest as decided by RBI on these deposits. Withdrawal from these accounts has some restrictions.
  • Fixed deposit: Fixed accounts are time deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.

2. Lending of funds: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances out of the money received through deposits. These advances can be made in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, consumer credits and other miscellaneous advances.

  • Cash Credit: Under this arrangement, the bank advances loan up to a specified limit against current assets. The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit. Interest is charged on the amount actually withdraw.
  • Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.
  • Discounting of bill of exchange: Under this, a bank gives money to its customers on the security of a bill of exchange before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
  • Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period. Interest will be charged to the entire amount of loan.

3. Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
a) Agency Functions

  • Cheque facility: Bank collects customers cheque drawn on other bank. There are two types of cheques mainly : Bearer cheques, which are encashable immediately at bank counters Crossed cheques which are to be deposited only in the payees account.
  • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc
  • Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
  • Acting as trustees or executors
  • Providing credit information

b) General utility services

  • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers
  • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
  • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
  • Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Bank DraftIt is a financial instrument with the help of which money can be remitted from one place to another. The payee can present the draft on the drawee bank at his place and collect the money. Bank charges some commission for issuing a bank draft.
Pay Order: It is almost like a bank draft. Banks issue pay order for local purpose and issue bank draft for outstations.

Question 33.
‘Wholesaler is the connecting link between producer and retailer.’
a) Explain any four services provide by them to producers.
b) Describe any two types of fixed shop small retailers.
Answer:
a) Departmental stores: A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling amide variety of goods in different departments under one and management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationary, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store

  1. It is a large scale retail organization.
  2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
  3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
  4. It is located at central places of the city
  5. The products are arranged in separate departments
  6. Sales, control and management are centralized
  7. It offers various services and facilities like free home delivery etc

Advantages

  1. Central locations:- As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
  2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, the departmental stores provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods of their requirements at one place.
  3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
  4. Economy of large-scale operations: As these stores are organised in a very large-scale, the benefits of large-scale operations are available to them
  5. Mutual advertisement:-All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising
  6. Risk distribution:- If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
  7. Increased sales:- Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its sales.

Limitations

  1. Lack of personal attention: Because of the large- scale operations, it is very difficult to provide adequate personal attention to the customers in these stores.
  2. Inconvenient location: As a departmental store is generally situated at a central location, it is not convenient for the consumers who reside away from town.
  3. High price: A departmental store charges high price for the products because of high operating cost.
  4. High operating cost: As these stores give more emphasis on providing services, their operating costs tend to be high.
  5. High advertisement cost: The success and prosperity of a departmental store depends on advertisement. Therefore, it should spent large amount on advertisement.6. Lack of effective control: Departmental store works through a large number of departments. It creates so many problems.
  6. High risk:- A departmental store keeps a large stock of goods. So changes in fashion, taste, price etc will affect the profitability of the business.

b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops: Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through out the nation.
Features of multiple shops

  1. It deals in one or two lines of products.
  2. All branches are dealing in similar goods
  3. It has centralized management and unified system of control
  4. It eliminates middlemen.
  5. It works on cash and carry principle
  6. It has centralized buying and decentralized selling.
  7. There is uniformity in operation in all branches.
  8. It deals in goods of daily use and durables.

Advantages

  1. It enjoys economies of bulk purchase because the goods for all branches are purchased by head office.
  2. There is no risk of bad debts because all sales are on cash basis.
  3. The advertisements for all branches are done by the head office. So there is economy in advertisement.
  4. Multiple shops are located in towns and cities. They attract a large number of customers.
  5. All branches of multiple shops are uniform in style, design and display of goods.
  6. All the branches sell quality goods at uniform prices. It creates public confidence.
  7. The economy in large scale buying, centralized management etc. reduce the cost of operations.
  8. Products having no demand in one branch can be transferred to another branch. It reduces business risk.
  9. Multiple shops enjoy the benefits of quick turn over because of country wide location.

Limitations

  1. The multiple shops deal only in a limited range of products. So consumers have very little choice.
  2. They will not provide any credit facilities to consumers.
  3. There is lack of personal touch between the company and consumers because branches are managed by salaried managers.
  4. Branch manager is only a salaried employee. He has no initiative to increase the profits.
  5. As these shops deal in a limited line of goods, fall in demand will affect the business.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020

PART – A

Answer any 7 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 1.
Water gas is a mixture of
(a) CO + H2
(b) CO + N2
(c) CO2 + H2
(d) CO2 + N2
Answer:
(a) CO + H2

Question 2.
The element that has outer electronic configuration 3d54s1 belongs to
(a) s-block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
Answer:
(c) d-block

Question 3.
The number of radial nodes of 4p orbital is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2 (n – l – 1)

Question 4.
The species that can form both conjugate acid and conjugate base among the following is
(a) H2O
(b) BF3
(c) HCl
(d) CO2
Answer:
(a) H2O

Question 5.
Liquids having larger difference in boiling points are separated by
(a) Distillation
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation
(d) Vacuum distillation
Answer:
(a) Distillation

Question 6.
The oxidation number of an atom in the elementary form is ………….
Answer:
Zero

Question 7.
The unit of coefficient of viscosity in c.g.s. system is
Answer:
Poise or gcm-1S-1

Question 8.
The class of organic compound differe by a Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 1group between adjacent members are called
Answer:
Homologous series

Question 9.
The combination of smoke and fog is known as ……….
Answer:
Smog

PART B

Answer any 10 questions from 10 – 22. Each carries 2 scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 10.
(a) Classify the following matter as homogenous mixture, heterogenous mixture, element and compounds. (1)
Answer:
Homogenous mixture – air
Heterogenous mixture – Muddy water
Element – gold Compound – water

(b) Define limiting reagent of a reaction. (1)
Answer:
Limiting reagent is that reagent which is completely used up in the reaction.

Question 11.
Write any two characteristic properties of canal rays. (2)
Answer:
1. They move in straight line
2. They affect photographic plate

Question 12.
(a) Identify the group and period of an element having atomic number (Z) 25 in the periodic table. (1)
Answer:
Period – 4, Group – 7

(b) Predict the formula of the stable binary com-pound that would be formed by the combination of the following pairs of elements: (1)
(i) Lithium and Oxygen
(ii) Aluminium and iodine
Answer:
(i) Li2O
(ii) AlI3

Question 13.
Explain the general periodic trend of first ionization enthalpy along a period and group in the periodic table. (2)
Answer:
In a period as we move from left to right first ionisation enthalpy increases. In a group as we move down first ionisation energy decreases.

Question 14.
A gas occupy 400ml volume at 47°C and 800mm of Hg pressure. What will be its pressure at a height where the temperature is 27°C and volume of the gas is 450ml? (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 7
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 8

Question 15.
Define extensive and intensive properties. Give examples for each. (2)
Answer:
Extensive properties are properties which depend upon mass.
eg: mass, volume, internal, energy, enthalpy heat capacity.

Intensive properties are properties which are independent of mass.
eg: Temp, density, pressure

Question 16.
Derive the relation between equilibrium constants Kc and Kp for a general reaction.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 2 at equilibrium. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 9

Question 17.
(a) What are saline hydrides? (1)
Answer:
Saline hydrides or ionic hydrides are formed by the reaction of Hydrogenation with first or second group elements, ie. alkali metals and alkaline earth metals.

(b) Why hard water is unsuitable for laundry pur-pose? (1)
Answer:
It does not form lather with soap.

Question 18.
List any two points of difference between Lithium and other alkali metals. Give reasons. (2)
Answer:
Li is harder.
Li can form monoxide

Question 19.
(a)What is borone bead test? (1)
Answer:
On heating Borax first loses water molecules and swells up. On further heating it turns into a transparent liquid which solidifies into glass like material known as borax bead.

(b) SiCl4 can be hydrolysed but CCl4 cannot. Why? (1)
Answer:
In CCl4 there is no vacant d orbitals. So it cannot be hydrolysed. But in Si; there are vacant d orbitals.

Question 20.
(a) Why AlCl3 exist as dimers? (1)
Answer:
AlCl3 is an electron deficient compund and is unstable. So it forms dimer.

(b) Write the basic structural unit of silicons and silicates.
Answer:
Silicone – (R2SiO)n
Silicates – SiO4-
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 10

Question 21.
Give the complete and bondline structure of pent-e-en-2-ol. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 11

Question 22.
Drawnttiei Newman projections for staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane. (2)
Answer:
Structure Formula
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 12

Answer any 7 questions from 23 – 31. Each carries 3 scores. (7 × 3 = 21)

Question 23.
(a) Hydrogen and Oxygen combines to form H2O and H2O2. Which law of chemical combination is illustrated here? (1)
Answer:
Law of multiple proportion.
When two elements combine to form more than one compound the fixed masses of element combine with the other bear a simple whole no. ratio.

(b) The balanced chemical equation for combustion of CH4 is
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Calculate the amount of water formed by the combustion of 32g of CH4? (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 13

Question 24.
(a) Give two examples of compounds having expanded octet. (1)
Answer:
PCl5, SF6

(b) Draw the Lewis dot symbols of (2)
(i) Cl2
(ii) NF3
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 14

Question 25.
(a)Write the name of Van der Waal’s force between (1)
(i) Non-polar molecules.
(ii) Molecules having permanent dipoles.
Answer:
1. London forces
2. Dipole – Dipole interaction

(b) State Dalton’s law of partial pressures. (1)
Answer:
Total pressure exerted by a mixture of non reactive gases is equal to the sum of partial pressures of the individual gases.

(c) At higher altitudes, pressure cooker is used for cooking. Give Reasons. (1)
Answer:
At higher altitudes atmospheric pressure is very low. Water boils at low temp.

Question 26.
(a) Write the mathematical expression of First Law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
∆U = q + w

(b) Define standard enthalpy of formation. (1)
Answer:
It is the enthalpy change when one mole of a compound is formed from its constituent efements in their standard state.

(c) Write the condition of temperature for a process to be spontaneous whose ∆H and ∆S values are positive. (1)
[Hint: ∆G = ∆H – T∆S]
Answer:
∆H – T∆S = ∆G
For a process to be spontaneous ∆G should be negative.
If ∆H & ∆S are positive ∆G is negative only at high temperature

Question 27.
(a) Justify that the following reaction is a redox reaction.
H2S(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + S(s) (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 15
Sulphur gets Oxidised and Cl2 gets redused.
Both oxidation and reduction occurs.

(b) Write the Stock notation of MnO2. (1)
Answer:
Mn(IV)O2

Question 28.
(a) What is calogen? (1)
Answer:
Calgon – Sodium hexametaphosphate

(b) Explain the methods used for the removal of temporary hardness of water. (2)
Answer:
Boiling – Hard water is boiled and the precipitate is filtered.
Clark process – Calculated amount of Ca(OH)2 is treated with hard water.

Question 29.
(a) What is the purpose of adding gypsum during the manufacture of cement? (1)
Answer:
To decrease the setting time of cement

(b) Match the following.
Tablee
Answer:
Tablee

Question 30.
(a) What is Lindlar’s catalyst?
Answer:
Partially deactivated palladised charcoal.

(b) Identify A, B and C.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 3
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 16

(c) Complete the following reaction:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 4
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 17

Question 31.
Define the following terms:
(i) Freons
(ii) BOD
(iii) Green house effect, nnalmoyon (oiisonio
Answer:
(i) Freons – Chlorofluorocarbons

(ii) BOD – Biochemical oxygen demand
The amount of oxygen required to degrade organic matter.

(iii) Green house effect
When number of the trees in the earth decreases, the amount of CO2 in the earth increases. As a result temperature in the earth increases. Because of this ice burgs melts and seal level rises. This is known as Green House Effect.

Answer any 3 questions from 32 – 35. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 32.
(a) Write the n and I values of a 4d electron. (1)
Answer:
n = 4, l = 2

(b) Give the names of series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen and their region in the electro¬magnetic spectrum. (2)
Answer:
(b) Lyman – u.v.
Balmer – Visible
Paschen – IR
Bracket – IR
Pfund – IR

(c) State Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. (1)
Answer:
Pairing occurs only after all the degenerate orbitals are completely half filled.

Question 33.
(a) Predict the hybridisation of phosphorous atom in PCl5 molecule. (1)
Answer:
PCl5 – sp3d

(b) Account for the high reactivity of PCl5 molecule. (1)
Answer:
In PCl5 there are two types of bonds. (1) Two axial bonds and 3 equatorial bonds.
Axial bonds are longer and are more reactive.

(c) Draw the MO energy level diagram of O2 molecule. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 18
BO = ½(nb – na)
= ½(10 – 6) = 2

Question 34.
(a) Predict the nature of solution produced by the hyrolysis of sodium acetate. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 19

(b) Calculate the pH of a solution having H+ ion concentration 3.8 × 103 m. (2)
Answer:
pH = -log[H+] = -log(3.8 × 10-3)

(c) Explain the effect of pressure in the following equilibrium using Le Chatelier principle:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 5
Answer:
Co + 3H2 → CH4 + H2O
No.of moles of reactants is more than no.of moles of product. So high pressure is favoured.

Question 35.
(a) Write the IUPAC name of
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 6
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 20

(b) Write the functional isomers of molecule having molecular formula C3H6O. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper March 2020 with Answers 21

(c) How will you detect the presence of chlorine in an organic compound using Lassigne’s test.(1)
Answer:
A little of the salt is mixed with metallic sodium in an ignition tube and heated. When it becomes red hot it is plunged into water taken in a China dish boiled and filtered. This is known as Lassaignes extract.

A little of the Lassaigne’s extract is acidified with dil. HNO3 and 1 ml AgNO3 is added white ppt is obtained. This white ppt indicates presence of chloride ion.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

Answer the following questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Warehousing provides utility.
(a) Time
(b) Place
(c) Risk
(d) Finance
Answer:
(a) Time

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given.
(a) State Bank of india – Public sector Bank.
(b) HDFC Bank
Answer:
Private Sector

Question 3.
Respecting religious sentiments of society is an example of kind of social responsibility of business.
(a) Ethical
(b) Legal
(c) Economic
(d) Discriminating
Answer:
Ethical

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 4.
List any ‘one’ method of payment mechanism in online transactions.
Answer:
Cheque, COD etc.

Question 5.
Identify the document which acknowledge debt of a company.
(a) Share
(b) Debenture
(c) Stock
(d) All of these
Answer:
Debenture

Question 6.
Name any one institution for supporting small business in India.
Answer:
NABARD, DIC etc.

Question 7.
Trade between two persons belong to the same country is called
(a) External trade
(b) Internal trade
(c) Foreign trade
(d) International trade
Answer:
Internal Trade

Question 8.
Which among the following is a mode of entry into international business?
(a) Contract manufacturing
(b) Joint ventures
(c) Wholly owned subsidiaries
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

II. Answer any 3 questions from 9 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 9.
Mohan, a teacher in Ernakuiam bought a carfor Rs. 5 lakhs. After two months he sold it to Raju for Rs.6 lakhs. Is it a business activity? Why?
Answer:

  1. No. It is not a business activity.
  2. Regularity in dealings is required in a business.

Question 10.
List any two privileges of a Private Company.
Answer:
Privilages of a private company are

  1. Minimum number of members is 2.
  2. No need to issue prospectus.
  3. No need to keep index of members.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 11.
List out the stages in the formation of a Private Company.
Answer:
Stages of formation of a company are
a. Promotion
b. Incorporation

Question 12.
What do you mean by working capital?
Answer:
Working capital means amount of capital invested in current assets.

Question 13.
Briefly explain any two problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems of small businesses are

  1. Lack of adequate/inance
  2. Lack of raw materials
  3. Poor managerial skill
  4. Low quality of products

Question 14.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending machine products are

  1. Newspaper
  2. Soft drinks
  3. Sanitary Napkins
  4. Chocolates

III. Answer any 3 questions from 15 to 20. Each carries 3 scores.(3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Write any three feature’s of a Co-op. society.
Answer:
Features of Co-operative Societies are:

  1. Voluntary membership : The membership of a co-operative society is voluntary.
  2. Legal status : Registration of a co-operative society is compulsory.
  3. Limited liability: The liability of the members of a co-operative society is limited.
  4. Service motive: “Self help through mutual help” or “each for all and all for each” is the foundation of co-operative society.

Question 16.
List out any ‘three’ merits of a Statutory Corporation.
Answer:

  1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament.
  2. It is wholly owned by the Central Govt.
  3. It has a separate legal entity.
  4. It is usually independently financed.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 17.
Who is a promoter? List out any two functions of him.
Answer:

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
  3. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.
  4. Appointment of professional: Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

Question 18.
Describe the term ‘retained earnings’.
Answer:
a) Retained Earnings
b) Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 19.
Write ashort note on ‘District Industries Centre.
Answer:
The District Industries Centers (DICs): DICs were established in May 1978. District Industries Centers is the institution at the district level which provides all the services and support facilities to the entrepreneurs for setting up small and village industries. Identification of suitable schemes, preparation of feasibility reports, arranging for credit etc, are the main activities undertaken by these centres.

Question 20.
Differentiate between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
a) Licensing
Licensing is a contractual arrangement in which one firm grants access to its technology to another firm in a foreign country. The firm that grants permission is known as licensor and the firm that receives the rights is called the licensee,
b) Franchising
Franchising is similar to licensing. But it is used in connection with the provision of services. The parent * company is called the franchiser and the other party to the agreement is called franchisee.

IV. Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 30. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 21.
Classify the following industries in to extractive, genetic, manufacturing and constructions.
(a) Mining
(b) Poultry farming
(c) Building a dam
(d) Sugar production
Answer:
a) Mining – Extractive
b) Poultry Farming – Genetic
c) Building a dam – Construction
d) Sugar production – Manufacturing

Question 22.
Match the following:-

A B
(a) Partnership Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society Member

Answer:

A B
(a) Partnership Partner
(b) Joint Stock Company Share holder
(c) Sole Proprietorship Sole trader
(d) Co-op. society Member

Question 23.
Explain any four features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of Department Undertakings

  1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
  2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
  3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
  4. Its employees are govt, employees.

Question 24.
What you mean by e-banking? Give two examples fore-banking services.
Answer:
a) E-banking means the conduct of banking transactions using the computer network.
b) Eg: ATM, Electronic Fund Transfer

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 25.
Write a short note on the following:
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Government warehouses
Answer:
a) Bonded warehouses : These warehouses are used to keep the imported goods before the payment of import duties.
b) Government warehouses: These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. For example, Food Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation, and Central Warehousing Corporation.

Question 26.
What is outsourcing of services? List out any two „ benefits of it.
Answer:

  1. Business Process Outsourcing
  2. Merits of outsourcing
    • It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
    • It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
    • It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.
    • It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four causes of environmental pollution.
Answer:
Causes of PollutionMany industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.

  1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
  2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
  3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.
  4. Noise Pollution : Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Question 28.
Describe any four clauses of memorandum of association.
Answer:

  1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the co pany is proposed to be situated.
  2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares
    held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 29.
Write four differences between share and debenture..
Answer:

Shares Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company Debenture holders are the creditors of the company
Shareholders get dividends Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares Generally debentures are secured

Question 30.
List out any four ‘differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Domestic Business International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 5 questions from 31 to 40. Each carries 5 scores. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 31.
Match the following.

A B
(a) Hindrance of place Insurance
(b) Hindrance of risk Transport
(c) Hindrance of finance Advertising
(d) Hindrance of knowledge Warehousing Features
(e) Hindrance of time Banking

Answer:

A B
(a) Hindrance of place Transport
(b) Hindrance of risk Insurance
(c) Hindrance of finance Banking
(d) Hindrance of knowledge Advertising
(e) Hindrance of time Warehousing Features

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 32.
Briefly explain any five features of a Joint Stock Company.
Answer:

  1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
  3. Formation : The formation of a company is>a time consuming and complicated process.
  4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insblvency or insanity of shareholders..
  5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.

Question 33.
Explain any two principles of insurance applicable to life insurance.
Answer:
a) Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract, b) Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.

Question 34.
Describe the following:
(a) e-Commerce
(b) cash on delivery
Answer:
a) E-commerce covers a firms interactions with its customers and suppliers over the internet.
b) Payment on e-commerce transactions at the time of delivery of goods.

Question 35.
How business import its responsibility to the following interest groups?
(a) Owner
(b) Worker
(c) Consumer
(d) Government
(e) Community
Answer:

  1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners :To provide a fair return on the investment.
  2. Responsibility towards the workers To provide fair wages.
  3. Responsibility towards consumers : Supply quality goods and sen/ices at reasonable prices.
  4. Responsibility towards Government : Respect the Laws of the country.
  5. Responsibility towards community : Make employment opportunities.

Question 36.
Write any five differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:
a) A social responsibility is the obligation of businessman which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society, b) Discretionary responsibility:- This refers to voluntary obligation that an enterprise assumes.

Question 37.
What are departmental Stores? briefly explain any three features of it.
Answer:

Memorandum of Association Articles of Association
It defines the object of the company It defines rules of Internal management of the company
It is the main document of the company It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of Memorandum is compulsory Filing of Articles is not compulsory for public company
Alteration of Memorandum is very difficult It can be altered by passing a special resolution.

Question 38.
Differentiate between Public Company and Private Company.
Answer:
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store:

  1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
  2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
  3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
  4.  It is located at central places of the city.
  5. The products are arranged in separate departments.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 39.
What are global enterprises? List out any three features of it.
Answer:

Basis Private Public Company
a) Members Company Minimum – 7

Maximum – Unlimited

b) Minimum number of directors: Minimum-2 Maximum – 200 Three
c) Minimum paid up capital: Two X 5 lakh
d) Transfer of shares: X 1 lakh No restriction
e) Prospectus: Restriction on transfer Can issue prospectus

Answer any 2 questions from 41 to 44. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 40.
What is Commerce? briefly describe the various functions of Commerce.
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
  2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
  4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
  5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 41.
What is Partnership Deed? What are its contents?
Answer:
Commerce
Commerce is defined as all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange of goods. It includes all those activities, which are necessary for the free flow of goods and services from the producer to the consumer. Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade. Commerce = Trade + auxiliaries to trade Functions of commerce

Various Hindrances Remedies
Hindrance of person Trade
Hindrance of place Transportation
Hindrance of time Warehousing
Hindrance of risk Insurance
Hindrance of knowledge Advertising
Hindrance of finance Banking

Question 42.
Illustrate the various functions,performed by Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Partnership Deed: The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership is called the partnership deed.
 Contents of deed

  1. Name of firm
  2. Nature of business and location of business
  3. Duration of business
  4. Investment made by each partner
  5. Profit sharing ratip
  6. Rights, duties and powers of the partners
  7. Salaries and withdrawals of the partners
  8. Terms governing admission, retirement and expulsion of a partner
  9. Interest on capital and interest on drawings
  10. Procedure for dissolution of the firm
  11. Preparation of accounts and their auditing
  12. Method of solving disputes

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 43.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions

  1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank . accepts following types of deposits. They are:
    • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
    • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
    • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
  2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
    • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
    • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
    • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
    • Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

  1. Agency Functions
    • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
    • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
    • Purchase and sale Of shares and debentures
    • Acting as trustees or executors
    • Providing credit information
  2. General utility services
    • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
    • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank , draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
    • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
    • Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 44.
Identify the large scale retailing business unit selling wide variety of consumer products on the basis of self service? List out any six features of it.
Answer:
Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘ Self Service Store’.

  1. Features of Super Market
    • They are located at the centre of a town.
    • They sell goods on cash basis only.
    • They deal wide variety of goods.
    • There is no salesman to help consumers
  2. Advantages
    • Consumers can purchase everthing from supermarket.
    • There is no bad debt as sales are on cash basis only.
    • They are located at the centre of a town.
    • Consumers can select goods according to their taste and preferences.
    • Variety of goods is available in a super market.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Commerce includes trade and ……
(a) Industry
(b) Auxiliaries to trade
(c) Business
(d) Outsourcing
Answer:
(b) Auxiliaries to trade

Question 2.
A ……. partner is one who allows the use of his/ her name by a firm, but does not contribute to its capital.
(a) Active
(b) Sleeping
(c) Nominal
(d) Secret
Answer:
(c) Nominal

Question 3.
Find the odd one out.
(a) FCI
(b) RBI
(c) Indian Railway
(d) ONGC
Answer:
(c) Indian Railway

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
The warehouses which are licensed by the government to accept imported goods before the payment of tax and customs duty are called
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Private warehouses
(c) Government warehouses
(d) Public warehouses
Answer:
(a) Bonded warehouses

Question 5.
Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles causes pollution.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Noise
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Name any two documents to be submitted before Registrar of Companies for getting a company registered.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association, Articles of Association

Question 7.
_____ is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period varying from 90 days to 364 days.
(a) Equity share
(b) Trade credit
(c) Debentures
(d) Commercial paper
Answer:
Commercial Paper

Question 8.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 9.
This type of retail shop operates on the principle of ‘ self service. Identify the type of retail shop referred here.
Answer:
Supermarket/Super Bazar

Question 10.
Name the document which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to designated destination.
Answer:
Bill of Lading

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
List out any four multiple objectives of business.
Answer:
(a) Market standing
(b) Innovation
(c) Productivity
(d) Earning Profit

Question 12.
What is joint venture?
Answer:
When two business organisations join hands for mutual benefit by pooling their resources and expertise, it is a joint venture.

Question 13.
List out any four basic features of Business service.
Answer:
(a) Intangibility
(b) Inconsistency
(c) Inseparability
(d) Involvement
(e) No Inventory

Question 14.
Write any four payment mechanism available in online shopping.
Answer:
(a) Cash on Delivery
(b) Cheque
(c) Credit Card
(d) Debit Card
(e) Google Pay
(f) Phoen Pe

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 15.
Narrate any two functions performed by a promoter.
Answer:
Functions of a Promoter

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.

Question 16.
Briefly explain trade credit as a short-term source of finance.
Answer:
Trade Credit: Trade credit is a shortterm source of financing. The credit extended by one trader to another for purchasing goods or services is known as trade credit. Trade credit facilitates the traders to purchase goods without immediate payment.

Question 17.
Name any four types of itinerant retailers.
Answer:
(a) Hawkers
(b) Peddlers
(c) Market Traders
(d) Street: Traders

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
State the meaning of Government Company. Write any two limitations of Government Company.
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

  1. Government companies are suffering from, interference by political parties.
  2. The government companies have to depend upon the government for deciding policy matters, resulting in delaying the decisions.

Question 19.
Explain social responsibility of business towards the following interest groups:
(a) Consumers
(b) Employers
(c) Shareholders or owners
Answer:
(a) Consumers – Provide quality goods at reasonable price.
(b) Employees – Provide job security and fair wages
(c) Shareholders – Provide adequate return on investment.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 20.
Eventhough lease financing is one of the important sources of finance, it suffers from some limitations. List out any three such limitations.
Answer:
Limitations

  1. Lease agreement imposes some restrictions on the use of assets.
  2. If the lease agreement is not renewed, it will af-fect the business.
  3. The Lessee never becomes the owner of the as-set.

Question 21.
Bata Shoe Store is an example of this type of fixed shop large retailers. Identify and explain this type of retailer.
Answer:
(a) Multiple shops or chain store
(b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops
Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through- out the nation.

Question 22.
Briefly explain any three important foreign trade promotion measures and schemes.
Answer:
Foreign Trade Promotion Measures and Schemes

  1. Duty drawback scheme: it refers to the refund of customs and excise duties paid on imported inputs used in the manufacture of export goods.
  2. Export manufacturing under bond scheme: U nder this facility firms can produce goods without payment of excise and other duties. The firms can avail this facility after giving an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes.
  3. Exemption from payment of GST : Goods meant for export purposes are not subject to GST. Income derived from export operations had been exempt from payment of income tax.

Question 23.
Write any three advantages of departmental store.
Answer:
Advantages

  1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located &t central places they attract a large number of customers.
  2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
  3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
Briefly explain the nature of business risk.
Answer:
Nature of Business Risks

  1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
  2. It is an essential part of business.
  3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business.
  4. Profit is the reward for risk taking.

Question 25.
Write any four merits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
Merits of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
  3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
  4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 26.
Write a short note on different types of banks.
Answer:

  1. Commercial Banks: Commercial Banks are banking institutions that accept deposits and grant loans and advances to their customers. There are two types of commercial banks, public . sector and private sector banks.
    • Public Sector Bank: Public sector banks are owned and managed by the Government. Eg. SBI, PNB, IOB etc:
    • Private Sector Bank: Private sector banks are owned and managed by private parties. Eg. HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, etc.
  2. Co-operative Banks: Co-operative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Co-operative Societies Act. They managed on the principles of co-operation, “self help and mutual help”.
  3. Specialised Banks : Specialised banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks which provide financial aid to industries, joint venture projects and foreign trade.
  4. Central Bank : The Central bank supervises, controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government bank. It controls and co-ordinates currency and credit policies of any country. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country.

Question 27.
Match the following:

A B
(a) Memorandum of – Association Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation Rules regarding internal management

Answer:

A B
(a) Memorandum of – Association Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation Rules regarding internal management

Question 28.
State any two merits and demerits of debentures.
Answer:
Merits

  1. Debenture holder do not have voting right
  2. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
  3. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management

Limitations

  1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
  2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
  3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.

Question 29.
Write any four differences between Domestic and International business.
Answer:

Domestic Business International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
On the basis of nature of operation, co-operative societies are of different types. Describe any five types of co-operative society.
Answer:
Types of Co-operative Societies

  1. Consumer’s co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consum-ers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest priced
  2. Producer’s co-operative societies : These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers. It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members.
  3. Marketing co-operative societies : Such societies are established to help small producers in selling their products. It collects the output of members and sells them at the best possible price. Profits are distributed to members.
  4. Farmer’s co-operative societies : These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers. Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilisers, machinery and other modern techniques for use in the cultivation of crops.
  5. Credit co-operative societies : Credit co-operative societies are established for providing easy credit to the members, at low rates of interest.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 31.
State the features of Global enterprises.
Answer:

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
  2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
  4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
  5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 32.
Write any five differences between traditional business and e-business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional Business e-business
1. Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high Operating cost is low

Question 33.
Describe the various basic elements of business I ethics.
Answer:
Elements of Business Ethics

  1. Top management commitment: The higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing the moral values of the organisation.
  2. Publication of a Code: ‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles & values. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, etc.
  3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism: A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.
  4. Employees Involvement: To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.
  5. Measuring Results: Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

Question 34.
Memorandum of Association of a company contains different clauses. List out and explain such clauses.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association

  1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
  2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
  5. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their’ intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 35.
What are the major problems faced by small scale industries in India?
Answer:
Problems of small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

  1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
  2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
  3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
  4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
  5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
Explain the types of Industries with the help of a chart.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers- 1

Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1. Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries are divided into two.

  • Extractive industries: These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
  • Genetic industries: These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

2. Secondary industries: Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

  1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
    • Analytical Industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
    • Synthetical Industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
    • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
    • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. telesion, car, computer, etc.
  2. Construction industries : These industries are involved’ in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

3. Tertiary industries : These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg. Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 37.
Explain the features of Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
Features

  1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association. i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
  3. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
  4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.
  5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.
  6. LIability: The liability of the shareholders is limited.
  7. Common seal : The Company has a common seal.
  8. Transferability of shares: Shares of a joint stock company are freely transferable.

Question 38.
Explain in detail of any four principles of insurance with suitable examples.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance1.

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
  2. Insurable interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
  4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Answer any 8 of the following questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
What is the reward of business activity?
(a) Salary
(b) Fees
(c) Profit
(d) Wages
Answer:
(c) Profit

Question 2.
The eldermost member of HUF business is known as _____
(a) Shareholder
(b) Karta
(c) Coparceners
(d) Partner
Answer:
(b) Karta

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 3.
Identify the public enterprise where at least 51 % share held by Government.
(a) Departmental Undertaking
(b) PublicCorporations
(c) Government Company
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Government Company

Question 4.
Identify the bank which controls the operations of all commercial banks in the country.
(a) Co-operative Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Specialised Bank
(d) Nationalised Bank
Answer:
(b) Central Bank

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Point of Sale
(b) Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) Digital Cash
(d) Cash Payment at the counter
Answer:
(d) Cash Payment at the counter

Question 6.
Identify the resources required for the successful implementation of E-business.
(a) Computer
(b) Trained workforce
(c) Website
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 7.
Emission of toxic gases leads pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution

Question 8.
Identify the internal sources of finance from the following:
(a) Retained earning
(b) Debenture
(c) Term loans
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(a) Retained earning

Question 9.
The term VPP is associated with _____ business.
(a) Departmental store
(b) Chain store
(c) Super bazaar
(d) Mail order
Answer:
Mail order

Question 10.
Buying and selling of goods and service between two countries may be _____
(a) Domestic trade
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Home trade
(d) lnternal trade
Answer:
Foreign trade

Answer any 5 of the following questions from 11 to 16. Each carries 2 score. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Briefly explain the following :
(a) Nomina! Partner
(b) Active Partner
Answer:
a) Nominal partner (Quasi partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.
b) Active partner: A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 12.
Write two differences between Traditional Business and E-business.
Answer:

Traditional Business e-business
1. Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important Location is not important

Question 13.
Complete the following as per the hint given :
(a) Produce goods and service that society want and sell them at a profit
(b) Responsibility to operate within the laws of the country.
(c) Helping people of affected area of natural calamity.
Answer:
a) Economic Responsibility
b) Legal Responsibility
c) Discretionary Responsibility

Question 14.
Complete the diagram:
Answer:
a) Promotion
b) Incorporation

Question 15.
What is Factoring?
Answer:
Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the busintess in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 16.
Mention any two kinds of itinerant traders.
Answer:

  1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and move from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys,.vegetables, fruits etc.
  2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed-days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 17.
Write any three differences between Private company and Public company.
Answer:

Basis Private Company Public Company
a) Members Minimum – 2
Maximum – 200
Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
b) Minimum paid up capital Rs. 1 lakh Rs. 5 lakh
c) Transfer of shares Restriction on Transfer No restriction
d) Name: End with “Private Limited” or (P) Ltd. End with “Limited” or Ltd.

Question 18.
Write three forms in which a public enterprise can be formed.
Answer:
Three forms of public enterprises are
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Statutory Corporations
c) Govt, companies

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 19.
Complete the diagram with given hints:
Answer:

B2B Business to Business Giving order for raw material
C2C Customer to Customer Selling old books by one customer to another customer
B2C Business to Customer Selling goods to customers
Intra B Transactions within the business Transfer of goods from one branch to another branch

Question 20.
Write any three functions of promoter.
Answer:

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
  3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.
  4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decke about the members who wiLl be signing the Memorandum

Question 21.
Write short notes on:
(a) Fixed Capital Requirement
(b) Working Capital Requirement
Answer:

  1. Fixed capital requirements: In order to start a business, funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery etc. This is called fixed capital requirement.
  2. Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 22.
Write any three procedure for export trade.
Answer:
Export Procedure

  1. Receipt of enquiry and sending quotations: The prospective buyer of a product sends an enquiry to different exporters.
  2. The exporter sends a reply to the enquiry in the form of a quotation.
  3. Receipt of order or indent: If the buyer is satisfied with the exporter, he places the order or indent for the goodi
  4. Assessing importer’s creditworthiness and securing a guarantee for payments: After receipt of the indent, the exporter demand a letter of credit from the importer.

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 23 to 27. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Classify the following activiities into primary and secondary industry:
(a) Timbering
(b) Breeding of animals
(c) Construction of dam-
(d) Production of goods
(e) Mining
(f) Assembling of components
Answer:

Primary Industries Secondary Industries
1. Timbering 1. Construction of dam
2. Breeding of animals 2. Production of goods
3. Mining 3. Assembling of components

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 24.
Explain any four functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:

  • Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
    1. Current deposit: This type of account is usu¬ally opened bybusinessmen.lt carries no inter¬est. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
    2. Savings deposit : Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
    3. Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
  •  Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
    1. Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
    2. Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
    3. Discounting of bill of exchange : Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
    4. Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.
    5. Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
      • Agency Functions
      • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
      • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
      • Purchase and sale of shares and debentures.
    6. General utility services
      • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
      • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
      • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures

Question 25.
Explain any four clauses of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:

  1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
  2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an
    activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 26.
What is Preference Share? Distinguish it from Equity Share.
Answer:
a) Preference Share: The capital raised by issue of preference shares is called preference share capital. The preference shareholders enjoy a preferential right over equity shareholders in two ways:
a) The right to get a fixed rate of dividend.
b) The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 27.
Write any for differences of Foreign trade and Domestic trade.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 11.2

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 28 to 31. Each carries 5 score. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Identify five hindrances in the process of exchange of goods and services and activities undertaken to remove these hindrances.
Answer:
Auxiliaries to Trade (Aids to trade) Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade or auxiliaries to trade.
Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers - 1

  1. Transportation: Transport facilitates movement of products from the place of production to the place of consumption.
  2. Communication: Communication helps the producers, traders and consumers to exchange information with one another.
  3. Banking: Banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance.
  4. Insurance: The goods may be destroyed while in production process or in transit. Insurance provides protection in all such risks.
  5. Warehousing: The goods should be stored till the time they are sold. This function is performed by warehouses.
  6. Advertising: Advertising helps in providing information about goods and services.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 29.
What is MNC? Explain any four features of MNC.
Answer:
a) Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Question 30.
Write any five problems faced by small business units.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 9.7

Question 31.
Match the following :

Column – A Column – B
Return on investment Responsibility to government
Fair wages Responsibility to suppliers
Payment of taxes Responsibility to owners
Quality products Responsibility to employees
Prompt payment Responsibility to customers

Answer:

Column – A Column – B
Return on investment Responsibility to owners
Fair wages Responsibility to employees
Payment of taxes Responsibility to government
Quality products Responsibility to customers
Prompt payment Responsibility to suppliers

Answer any 2 of the following questions from 32 to 34. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Briefly explain any four merits and four demerits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
a) Sole Proprietorship: Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.

b) Merits of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
  3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
  4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

c) Limitations of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Limited capital: A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.
  2. Lack of continuity : Death or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.
  3. Limited managerial ability : A sole proprietor may not be an expert in management.
  4. Unlimited liability : The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.

Question 33.
(a) What is Insurance?
(b) Explain any six principles of insurance.
Answer:
a) Insurance is an agreement between two parties whereby one party undertakes, in exchange for a consideration, to pay the other party an agreed sum of money to compensate the loss, damage or injury caused as a result of some unforeseen events.

b)

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
  2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an.insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
  4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.
  5. Causa proxima : When the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause for the loss alone will be considered by the insurance company for admitting the claim.
  6. Contribution : In certain cases, the same subject matter is insured with one or more insurer. In case there is a loss, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by him.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 34.
“Everything under one roof” Identify the business organization mentioned here. Write any four features and three merits of it.
Answer:
Departmental Store
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one  anagement. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store. Features of a departmental store.

  1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
  2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
  3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
  4. It is located at central places of the city.
  5. The products are arranged in separate departments.
  6. Sales, control and management are centralized,

Advantages

  1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
  2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
  3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
  4. Mutual advertisement: All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising.
  5. Risk distribution: If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
  6. Increased sales: Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its.sales.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Questions from 1 to 14, answer for 16 scores.( 16)

Question 1.
A money bill can be originated in (1)
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Either house of Parliament
Answer:
a) Lok Sabha

Question 2.
Find out the author of the book ‘On Liberty’. (1)
a) H.J.Laski
b) Rousseau
c) J.S.Mill
Answer:
c) J.S.Mill

Question 3.
Which of the following is a permanent executive? (1)
a) Chief Minister
b) Chief Secretary
c) Governor
Answer:
b) Chief Secretary

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 4.
The total membership of Rajya Sabha is (1)
a) 545
b) 140
c) 250
Answer:
c) 250

Question 5.
Constitution of India borrowed many of its provisions from other countries. Write the name of countries from which the following provisions are borrowed. (4)

Provisions Countries
Parliamentary
Fundamental
Directive
Quasi-federal form

Answer:

Provisions Countries
Parliamentary Britain
Fundamental USA
Directive Ireland
Quasi-federal form Canada

Question 6.
Which articie in the Indian constitution enables Supreme Court to issue writs for the protection of fundamental rights? (1)
Answer:
Article 226

Question 7.
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister
c) Vice President of India
Answer:
Vice President of India

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 8.
Arrange the following under proper heads.
• Defence
• Forests
• Warand peace
• Prison
• Police
• Education

Union List State List Concurrent List

Answer:

Union List State List Concurrent List
Defence Prison Forests
War and peace Police Education

Question 9.
The Constitution of India was prepared by _____ (1)
a) Constituent assembly
b) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 10.
Find out the odd one. (1)
a) Right to equality
b) Right against exploitation
c) Right to property
Answer:
Right to property

Question 11.
The 7th constitutional amendment deals with
a) Panchayati Raj
b) Fundamental duties
c) Nagar Palikas
Answer:
NagarPatikas

Question 12.
Human Rights day is celebrated on (1)
a) December 10
b) November 14
c) November 26
Answer:
December 10

Question 13.
______ is the highest court of appeal in India. (1)
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 14.

IAS District Police Chief
IPS Ambassador
IFS Accountant General
IRS District Collector

Answer:

IAS District Collector
IPS District Police Chief
IFS Ambassador
IRS Accountant General

Question 15.
Write the three methods for amending the Constitution of India.
Answer:

  1. Simple majortiy
  2. Special majority
  3. Special majority with ratification of half of states

Question 16.
List out two special powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

  1. A money bill can be introduced only in the Loksabha
  2. Motions of no-confidence against the government can only be introduced and passed in the Loksabha.

Question 17.
Write any three criticisms against Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Unwidely
  2. Unrepresentative
  3. Alien Documen

Question 18.
Write a short note on the Political equality.
Answer:
To ensure political equality in a society, people should have the opportunities to take part in active politics. Right to vote, contest in the deations, hold public office, to criticise the government to form political parties are come under political equality.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 19.
Which are the three important principles of justice?
Answer:

  1. Equal consideration to equals
  2. Proportionate justice
  3. Recognising special needs

Question 20.
Write any three Contemporary Challenges to peace.
Answer:

  1. Terrorism
  2. Racism
  3. Communalism

Question 21.
Write a note on Economic Rights.
Answer:
They are related to economic security and the right to earn one’s livelihood they include right to work, right to get decent wages, right to leisure, right so have social security and right to earn wealth.

Question 22.
Why did India adopt FPTP System?
Answer:
India adopted the FPTP System for the following reasons:

  1. It is a simple system without much complication.
  2. Because of the size and population it is most suitable.
  3. Voters have the freedom to choose the candidate of their choice.
  4. It is excellent for the formation of stable governments.

Question 23.
What is ‘Judicial review1?
Answer:
Judicial review is the power of the court to examine the constitutional validity of the laws passed by legislations. If the laws are contrary to the constitution the judiciary has the right to dedare such laws null and void.

Question 24.
Write a note on Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Part IV of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principles of states policy. These are borrowed from the Irish constituion. They are not justiciable directive principles can be divided into Jandhan principles, Socialist principles and Liberal principles.

Answer any 4 questions from 25 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 25.
Explain the significance of the study of Political theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories, advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution.and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future.

The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives. Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 26.
Briefly explain the original and the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction
In the following cases the supreme court has original jurisdiction.
a) Conflicts between the centre and one or more states.

b) Conflicts between the centre and a state or states are on one side and a state or states on the opposite side.

c) Conflicts between states

d) Cases connected with the election of the president and vice president.

Appellate Jurisdiction
The supreme court is the highest appellate jurisdiction can be divided into constituional, civil and criminal cases.

Question 27.
Briefly explain Social and Environmental Cost of development.
Answer:
The social costs of development are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to be sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated elsewhere. Because of the loss of their homes and land, the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional job skills. They also lose their cultural moorings. For example, for the development of the Kannur airport many families had to be evacuated. The ecological costs of development are beyond calculation. Still environmental destruction goes on.

Here are some of the ill-effects of development:

  1. Air and water pollution.
  2. Increase in global warming (increase in the warmth of the atmosphere because of the emission of green gases).
  3. Depletion of the Ozone layer (CFCs – Chlorofluoro-carbons – used in air-conditioners etc. cover the atmosphere and this results in the depletion.)
  4. Overuse of fertilizers and insecticides poison the soil.
  5. The ruin caused to the flora and fauna.
  6. Overuse of non-renewable sources of energy and the resultant environmental damage.
  7. Deforestation and its ill-effects.

Question 28.
Write the differences between Indian Secularism and Western Secularism.
Answer:

Western Secularism Indian secularism
Religion and government strictly keep distance and do not mutually interfere. Nation makes principle based interferences in religious affairs.
Individual and his rights are given utmost importance. Rights of individual and also of religious groups will be protected.
Equality among different religious groups is stressed. Equality among different religious groups is stressed.
Care is not given to rights based on religious communities. Care is given to minority rights.
Religious reforms are not supported by the government. Nation supports religious reforms.
The Nation won’t help religious institutions. Nation helps religious institutions.

Question 29.
Write a note on the powers and positions of the President of India.
Answer:
The President is the head of the state. All executive powers of the Union are vested in him. The powers of the President may be breadly classified into executive, legislative, judicial, financial and emergency. He has certain discredionary powers also. Eventhrough the President enjoy environment powers, can excercise all the powers only in accordance with the advice given by the council of ministors.

Question 30.
Explain universal citizenship and global citizenship.
Answer:
Through the influence of globalization, open market system is strengthened and the distance between nations is lessened. Because of the growth of technology the world has become a global village. In the circumstances, importance of global (universal) citizenship is enhancing day by day. The growth in communication has blurred the importance of the boundaries between nations and increased a sense of mutual relation among the people of the world. A nation can’t solve all the problems it faces all by itself. Problems that spread across boundaries are to be solved by the cooperation different governments and people. Because of all this, the advocates of global citizenship say that it Is Inevitable and all should work for its realization.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 31.
Briefly explain the ‘Harm Principle’ put forward by J.S. Mill.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice. They are as follows:
1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.

2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:
a) For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.

b) We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration. Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Question 32.
Explain the structure of Indian Judiciary.
Answer:
Supreme court, High court, District courts and subordinate courts are the major courts in India. The apex courts in India is supreme courts and the apex courts in the states are High courts. District courts are the highest courts in districts. Subordinate courts working under district courts the munisiff’s and magistrate courts handle civil and criminal cases are subordinate courts.

Question 33.
Write a note on inter religious domination and intra religious domination.
Answer:
Inter religious dominations means the situations where are religiou,s dominate and suppresses other religion Eg: Anti sikh riots in India in 1984. While intra religious domination means the situations where a community religion dominates its owm members for example Dalits are illtreated by upper castes in India.

Answer any 4 questions from 34 to 41. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 34.
Explain different stages of law-making process in India.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to passthrough 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.
a) First Reading: This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favourof the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial, there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reading.

b) Second Reading: This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated forgetting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

c) The Committee Stage: This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

d) Report Stage: This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may take quite some time. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

e) Third Reading: This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 35.
Briefly explain functions of a Constitution.
Answer:
a) Give basic laws to bring about unity among the members of the society. Ensure that the laws are obeyed by all.
b) Decide who is the authority to take decisions in the society.
c) Limit the powers of the government.
d) Enable the government to realise the goals and desires of the society.
e) Give a fundamental identity to the people.

Question 36.
Explain any five provisions in Indian Constitution which provides for a strong Central Government.
Answer:
All the most important subjects are in the unions list

  1. Government are appointed by the centre
  2. The centre has the right to dedare emergency
  3. The centre has residuary powers
  4. Single citizenship

Question 37.
Explain’the functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Major functions of the Election Commission of India:
a) Preparing the voters’ list correctly and scientifically. Giving appropriate instructions for its preparations and supervising its making.

b) Conducting the election of the President, Vice President, MPs and MLAs.

c) Preparing time tables for elections.

d) The Commission has the right to cancel the polling of a particular booth or even the entire constituency if malpractices are detected. Threatening the voters, burning booths, taking away ballot boxes etc. are very big crimes. If such things happen, the election in that constituency can be cancelled. If such things happen only in some booths, the polling there can be cancelled. On 23 November 1984, the Election Commission ordered re-polling in 78 booths all over the country.

e) The Commission appoints Returning Officers, and Asstt. Returning Officers.

f) The Commission allots different political parties their symbols.

g) It is the Commission that approves political parties to contest in the election. It decides what kind of recognition is to be given to each political party, whether State Level or National Level. In the November 1989 Lok Sabha elections, the Commission recognized 9 parties as National level Parties.

h) The Commission ensures that only those who have voting rights vote. It also has to prevent impersonation during voting.

i) It is the duty of the Commission to establish booths at convenient places so that voters won’t have to travel long distances.

j) The Commission has to make sure that ballot boxes are collected after the election and kept away securely. It also has to ensure that the counting of votes is done fairly and declare the results.

k) The Commission brings out the code of conduct for the political parties and independent candidates.

l) It also has to control and guide the Officers appointed by the Union Government and State Governments to conduct elections.

m) All election results are declared by the Election Commission.

Question 38.
Explain various forms of structural violence.
Answer:
Structural violence is the violence that originates from social institutions and practices. Casteism, Class distinction, male domination, colonialism, tribalism, racism, communalism etc. can produce structural violence.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 39.
Explain the role of Prime Minister in a Parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
Prime Minister
In the Cabinet administrative system, the PM has a big role. The Indian PM has the same status as the British PM. The PM is the first among equals. In Latin they say ‘primus inter pares’. But the other Ministers are not his subordinates. According to Sir Ivor Jennings, the PM is like the solar system where all the other planets go round the sun. Morley says the PM is the  foundation of the Cabinet Arch. Prof. Lasky says that the PM holds the arch up or makes it fall.

The PM has many responsibilities. His area of jurisdiction is also great. Constitutionally, the President appoints the PM. But the President has no choice here. It is simply a mechanical act. The President is obliged to appoint the leader of the Party which has the majority or highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha. But if no Party has a clear majority, the President may invite the leader of any Party whom he thinks can form the Cabinet. The President appoints other Ministers on the recommendations of the PM.

Although the PM is free in the appointment of the Cabinet, he will have to take into consideration many things. He will have to give deserving representation to yarious States, religious communities, minorities, economic interests, political groups and so on. But he has also to consider competence and consensus. The PM can demand the resignation of any Minister at any time. If a Minister refuses to resign, the PM can ask the President to remove him. The precedSht is that if a Minister does not agree with any Policy matter, he should resign. People like Shanmukham Shetty, Dr. John Mathai, Shyamaprasad Mukherjee and V.V. Giri etc. had resigned their posts as ministers.

The PM can shuffle the departments of the Ministers. When a PM resigns, the entire Cabinet resigns with him. Differences among the ministers and departments are solved by the PM. He supervises all departments. He decides the agenda of the Cabinet. He presides over Cabinet meetings. He is the link between the President and the Cabinet. It is through the PM the President gets to know what the government is doing. The secretariat of the PM helps him in doing his work.

The PM has four different positions. He is the leader of his party in the Parliament. By that he controls the members of his party. Secondly he is the leader of the Lok Sabha. It is he who represents the Lok Sabha and talks for it. Thirdly, he is the head of the cabinet. That way he is the person with the highest powers in the country. Fourthly he is the link between the President and the Cabinet. He has responsibility towards his party, Parliament and the Nation.

He coordinates the work of different departments. In fact a national election is the election of a PM. As the leader of the nation, the PM is looked upon with respect. Sir Ivor Jennings feels that the status of the PM depends on the person who occupies the position, his competence and his efforts and the leverage the other Ministers allow him. Charismatic leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru might overshadow other Ministers. If the PM is not competent enough, the Cabinet will be under the control of his colleagues and the Party.

Question 40.
Explain John Rawls’ theory of justice.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice. They are as follows:
1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.

2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:

a) For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.

b) We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration. Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 41.
Briefly explain any five functions of Parliament in India.
Answer:

  1. Legislation (law-making)
  2. Controlling the Executive
  3. Financial responsibilities
  4. Representation
  5. Discussions
  6. Administrative responsibilities
  7. Election responsibilities
  8. Judicial responsibilities

Answer any 2 questions from 42 to 45. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 42.
Explain the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
The +1 Political Science students of Kasargod Government HSS organized a seminar on the topic ‘Fundamental Rights’. Prior to the seminar, the students were divided ‘into 6 groups and they discussed the topic. The leaders of each group presented the ideas of their group.

Contents:
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel
  5. Right to have shelter
  6. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  7. Protection from undue punishment
  8. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  9. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26 – To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Question 43.
Explain the changes brought about by the 73rd Constitutional amendment in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Answer:

  1. The 73rd Amendment Act made the Panchayat Raj a Constitutional system.
  2. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  3. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  4. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  5. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  6. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  7. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  8. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs. One-third of the chairmen will be ladies. Reservations are by rotation. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed. The Act makes provision for the appointmentof an independent State Election Commission. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission. The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 44.
Explain the factors that promote the formation of a nation.
Answer:
Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors of the political theory prevalent in the nation. The nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Indian nationalism is the feeling that we all are Indians. Without nationalism, no new nation can originate or survive. It is nationalism that supplies the basis for the building up of a nation. Loyalty to the nation, its strength, its power and its working and the legality etc. are emotions that are generated in the minds of people. In the background of nationalism, the common behaviour of a nation can be analysed. Nationalism includes national styles, national expectations, national goals, national conflicts, national anthem, national flower, national flag and national symbol. Toynbee has said that Nationalism is the religion of the modern nation. Factors that nourish Nationalism:

a) Shared Beliefs: It is some beliefs that help the formation of a nation. Nation is not a concrete thing like a building, river or forest that we can see and touch. Nation is a concept built around certain beliefs of the people. When we say that a people are a nation, we do not mean their physical behaviour. Nation is a vision and a collective fellowship of people who wish to have their own separate identity. It is like a group of a team. They work for a common goal in a common fellowship. A nation can exist only as long as the people are deeply rooted in unity.

b) History: A people who consider themselves as a nation have a sense of a continuous historical existence. It is something that they can look back with pride and look forward to with hope. They have a common history based collective memories, legends and historical documents. Thus they acquire individuality as a nation. We can take our Indian nationalist leaders as examples. We point out our ancient civilization, cultural heritage and other past achievements, thus making a unique identify of our own.

c) Territory: Territory is another essential aspect of a nation. A nation has a separate area of land. There people will have lived together for long, shared their past, bringing a common identity to them. It helps them to think that they are one nation. That is why they can talk about their own country of birth.

d) Shared political ideals: Apart from the sense of a common history and some territory of their own, the people of a nation are persuaded to think of unity because of their common vision and goal for the future. They have some ideals quite peculiar to them and these also make a nation different from others.

e) Common Political Identity: Many people think that just because individuals have a common political vision regarding the society and the government, they can’t form a nation.’ They feel that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a ^ common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic values, too much of religion may prove a threat.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 45.
Explain the following conflicting areas of Indian federalism.
• Centre-State relations
• Demand for autonomy
• Role of Governor and President’s rule
• Inter-state conflicts
Answer:
India is a Federation. All the features of a federation are found in the Indian Constitution.
a) Written and Rigid Constitution
b) Division of Authority
c) Independent Federal Judiciary

The Indian Constitution stands for a strong federal system. It created a strong federal system. The following show strong Central control:
a) All the most important subjects are in the Union list.
b) Governors are appointed by the Centre.
c) The Centre has the right to declare emergency.
d) The Centre has Residuary Powers.

The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and blood to it. Therefore the changing political processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism.

Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamouring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states. The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict.

Demand for New States : This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telungana State.

Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened. Many States and Political Parties demand more autonomy for States. But autonomy means different things to different States and Parties.

By Division of authority what some States want is more powers to be given to them. Many States and Political Parties demand more self-rule for their States. Another demand is that States must have their own sources of income and they should have greater control over their natural resources. Some States wanted autonomy so that they can control their resources.

A third demand is that Centre should not interfere with the State administration. The States can’t tolerate the intervention by the Centre. The fourth reason for self-rule is linked to cultural and language matters. The opposition to Hindi in Tamil Nadu and the imposition of Punjabi in Punjab are causes of protest. The domination of the Hindi speaking States over the other States often causes rifts. Some States protested saying that Hindi was being forcefully imposed on them.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

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Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

From questions 1 to 10 answer for 16 Scores.

Question 1.
Find out the Article which empowers the supreme court to issue writs in case of violation of Fundamental Rights.
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 30
Answer:
Article 32

Question 2.
Which of the following country follow proportional representation system for general elections?
(a) U.K.
(b) Israel
(c) U.S.A. (1)
Answer:
Israel

Question 3.
The Prime Minister of India is apponted by
(a) Vice President
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President of India (1)
Answer:
President of India

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
In India F.P.T.P System is adopted for elections to
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President of India (1)
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Complete the chart showing the structure of Judiciary in India. (2)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers- 1
Answer:
a) Supreme court
b) Subordinate courts

Question 6.
Some statements about Indian Parliament is given below. Write whether they are true or false.
(a) Lok Sabha is a permanent house.
(b) Members of Lok Sabha is directly elected by people.
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\) of members of Rajya Sabha complete their term after every two years.
(d) At present there are 543 Lok Sabha Constituencies in India.
Answer:
a) False
b) True
c) True
d) True

Question 7.
Some administrative subjects are given below. Write them properly in the table. (Banking, Trade Unions, Education, Adultration, Foreign Affairs, Ports) (3)

Union list Concurrent list

Answer:

Union list Concurrent list
Banking Trade Unions
Foreign Affairs Education
Ports Adulteration

Question 8.
Name the authors of the books given below.
(a) Long Walk to Freedom
(b) Freedom from Fear
(c) On Liberty
Answer:
a) Long walk to freedom- Nelson Mandela
b) Freedom from fear-Aung San-Sukhi
c) On liberty- J.S. Mil

Question 9.
Classifythe rights given below as Political Rights and Economic Rights.
(Right to Vote, Right to Adequate Wage, Right to Reasonable Conditions of Work, Right to Form Political Parties, Right to Hold Public Office, Right to Employment) (3)
Answer:

Political Rights Economic Rights
Right to Vote Right to Adequate Wage
Right to Form Political Parties Right to Reasonable Conditions of Work
Right to Hold Public Office Right to Employment

Question 10.
Match coloumn  A with B

A B
Constitution Adopted Provision
British Constitution Independence of Judiciary
Canadian Constitution Liberty, Equality Fraternity
United States Constitution Law Making Procedure
French Constitution Quasi Federal Form of Government

Answer:

A B
Constitution Adopted Provision
British Constitution Law Making Procedure
Canadian Constitution Quasi Federal Form of Government
United States Constitution Independence of Judiciary
French Constitution Liberty, Equality Fraternity

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 17. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
Write three discretionary powers of President of India.
Answer:

  1. Send back the advice given by the council of ministers for reconsideration.
  2. Veto powers – With hold or refuse a bill
  3. Appointment of the Prime Minister, when no party claims clear majority in Lok Sabha

Question 12.
Write the three classification of amendments made so far to Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Technical or administrative in nature
  2. Differing interpretation
  3. Amendment through political consensus

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 13.
State any three provisions for ensuring of independence of judiciary in India.
Answer:
The following are the major provisions to ensure the independence of judiciary in India.

  1. Appointment of Judges
  2. Absense of financial interdependence
  3. Protection from individual criticism

Question 14.
List out three measures for promoting equality.
Answer:

  1. Establishing formal equality
  2. Equality through different considerations.
  3. Affirmative action,

Question 15.
Write any three factors that constitute a nation.
Answer:
Three factors constitute a Nation

  1. Shared belief
  2. History
  3. Territory

Question 16.
State any three forms of structural violence.
Answer:

  1. Colonialism
  2. Patriarchy
  3. Communalism

Question 17.
Write the significance of studying political theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories, advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future. The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives.

Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Answer any four questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 18.
Discuss any four functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:

  1. Preparation of voter’s list
  2. Conduct election of President, Vice-Presidents, lok sabha and state legislative assemblies.
  3. Prepare time table for election
  4. Appointment of polling officials for election
  5. Declaration of election results.

Question 19.
Explain negative and positive liberty.
Answer:
Freedom means free from all kinds of control. If this is put into practice, there will be jungle law which is might is right. The strong will dominate the weak j and the strongest man will have to be revered by all in the society. Since this negative concept of freedom is not acceptable, the nation has to control freedom. i The positive concept of freedom is the removal of obstacles. Negative freedom will lead the nation to . an undesirable state. Positive freedom will help in the progress of the nation and the protection of the rights of all individuals.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 20.
Discuss any four changes brought by 73rd Constitutional Amendment in Panchayat Raj Institutions.
Answer:

  1. After the 73rd Amendment, the power of the State governments to enact laws on local government was restricted. The
  2. States were now forced to make laws in conformity with the Amendment.
  3. After the 73rd Amendment, direct election came into effect.
  4. After the 73rd Amendment, the condition came that if the local governments are dissolved, within 6 months fresh elections must be conducted.
  5. After the 73rd Amendment, there was reservation for women and SCs and STs.
  6. After the 73rd Amendment, the duty of conducting elections to the local governments was vested in a State Election Commission.
  7. After the 73rd Amendment, in the local committees, dominance of the dominant castes and feudal lords came to an end to a certain limit.

Question 21.
Explain the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
The Prime Minister forms the council of ministers according to the capability of the ministers, he assigns duty to them.

  1. The Prime Minister allocates the department to . the ministers and it he does not find the working ; satisfactory can change the departments of the ministers.
  2. The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of the cabinet, he prepares the agenda for the meetings and controls it.
  3. The Prime Minister work as a link between the president andcouncil of ministers.

Question 22.
Write a short note on legal rights.
Answer:
Legal rights are the rights recognized and enforceable by law. Legal rights are different from a moral or natural right because it is protected by law. Legal rights are of three types. They are civil rights, political rights and Economic Rights. Legal rights are equally available to all the citizens without the discrimination of caste , creed, sex and place of birth.

Question 23.
Explain universal citizenship and its relevance.
Answer:
Through the influence of globalization, open market system is strengthened and the distance between nations is lessened. Because of the growth of technology the world has become a global village. In the circumstances, importance of global (universal) citizenship is enhancing day by day.

Answer any four questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 24.
Briefly describe five functions performed by a Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Constitution allows co-ordination and assurance
  2. Specification of decision making power
  3. Limitations on the power of government
  4. Aspirations and goals of a society
  5. Fundamental identity of the people (Any three points may be considered)

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 25.
Analyse the original jurisdiction and appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction: In the following cases the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction.
a) Conflicts between the Centre and one or more States.
b) In conflicts where the Centre and a State or States are on one side and a State or States on the opposite side.
c) Conflicts between States.
d) In issues connected with the election of the President and Vice President.
e) To implement Fundamental Rights as per Article 32.

Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest Appellate Court in India. Its Appellate Jurisdiction can be divided into 3 Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.

Constitutional Cases:
If the High Court testifies that the problem has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, appeal can be given to the Supreme Court. Even if the High Court refuses to certify such a thing, if the Supreme Court feels that the case has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, the SC can issue Special Leave of Appeal. The Supreme Court can, on its own initiative, or on the request of the Attorney General, can ask the High Courts to move matters of public interest to the SC.

Civil Cases:
If the high Court that testifies to the effect that the matter needs the decision of the SC, the case can be transferred to the SC.

Criminal Cases
In the following circumstances appeals against High Court Judgements can be made in the SC:
If an accused is left unpunished, a person or organizations can file an appeal if it is felt that leaving the accused unpunished will cause some difficulty to the public. Here the Court is approached for protecting public interest. Since the Court is approached for public interest, such cases are called ‘Public Interest litigation’. Such cases usually come up in situation where there is a lack of drinking water, problems of the poor, pollution, etc. Today this has become the most energetic weapon in the hands of the Judiciary.

Public Interest Litigation:
a) Anybody who is interested in public interest, to defend the rights of others, to solve public problems, can approach the Court.

b) Since litigatton is very costly in India, for defending people’s rights, this helps.
In the Constitution it is stated that only the persons whose fundamental rights are violated can approach the court. But this condition has been made loose by the Supreme Court by letting Public Interest Litigation. Through this anybody can approach the court to defend the fundamental rights of others.

Question 26.
Explain any two conflicting areas in Indian Federal System.
Answer:
The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and „ blood to it. Therefore the changi ng pol itical processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism.
Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamouring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states.

The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict.

Demand for New States: This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telungana State.
Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 27.
Discuss John Rawls’s concept of Justice.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice, They are as follows:

  1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.
  2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:
    • For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.
    • We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration.

Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Question 28.
Describe the social and environmental cost of development.
Answer:
The social costs of envelopment are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to be sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated elsewhere. Because of the loss of their homes and land, the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional job skills. They also lose their cultural moorings. For example, for the development of the Kannur airport many families had to be evacuated. The ecological costs of development are beyond calculation. Still environmental destruction goes on. Here are,some of the ill-effects of development:

  1. Air and water pollution.
  2. Increase in global warming (increase in the warmth of the atmosphere because of the emission of green gases).
  3. Depletion of the Ozone layer (CFCs – Chlorofluoro-carbons – used in air-conditioners etc. cover the atmosphere and this results in the depletion.)
  4. Overuse of fertilizers and insecticides poison the soil.
  5. The ruin caused to the flora and fauna.
  6. Overuse of non-renewable sources of energy and the resultant environmental damage.
  7. Deforestation and its ill-effects.

Question 29.
Briefly explain any five political philosophy of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Political philosopy of Indian Constitution

  1. Individual freedom : Our Constitution is very much concerned with Individual freedom. For example we have the Fundamental Rights.
  2. Social Justice : The mission of the nation is ensuring Social Justice. The different articles of the Constitution are the means for this. For example Article 16.
  3. Respect for Diversity and Minority Rights: The Constitution guarantees the educational and cultural rights of the minorities in India.
  4. Secularism: This is the cornerstone of the Indian Constitution. It treats all religions equally.
  5. Universal Franchise: The Constitution ensures that all adults of 18 and above have their voting rights without any discrimination.
  6. Federalism : India is a Federation. The Centre- State relations are defined clearly.
  7. National Identity: Our Constitution nurtures both national identity as well as a regional identify simultaneously.

Answer any two questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 30.
Describe any four criticisms raised against Indian Secularism.
Answer:
Different levels of criticism have emerged against our secularism. Three of the more important ones are given below:
a) Anti-Religious : Some people argue that secularism is anti-religious. The reason for this belief is the fact that secularism is against the dominance of established powerful religions. But this and anti-religion are quite different. Some people also argue that secularism is a threat to individual’s religion. This also is wrong. Secularism nourishes religious freedom. It is not a threat to a person’s religion or his beliefs. But secularism is against certain questionable practices like propagating violence, intolerance and fanaticism. Secularism encourages the good things in religion but opposes the bad things.

b) Western Import: Another criticism is that Indian secularism is related to Christianity. It means secularism is something Western and it is inappropriate with Indian circumstances. Thiss a strange argument. Don’t we see thousands of things around us which are not Indian? If people say that when a country is secular it should have its own goal it is good and relevant. Western secularism came as a challenge to the religious leaders who tried to control the social and political matters of the nation. Then how can it be said that Western secularism is connected to Christianity? Moreover Western secularism asks religion and government to keep their hands off each other. For the idea of separating the state form religion, different societies give different interpretations. A secular government keeps a respectable distance from religion. It is done to maintain peace among different communities. At the same time the government will interfere for the protection of minority rights.

c) Minoritism : This is another criticism that is levelled against Indian secularism. It is true that Indian secularism stands for the rights of minorities. Let’s look at this example: 4 people are travelling in a train. One wants to smoke. Another person objects. The other two are smokers and so they keep quiet. So there is a problem. If a decision is to be taken democratically, and the matter put to vote, the person objecting to smoking will lose. It may look just. But is it just if we look from the angle of the person who objected to smoking? He may be allergic to smoke. Here the voting system does not work. Here the right of minority should be protected.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 31.
Analyse the various device used by the legislature to control the executive in India.
Answer:
In the parliamentary form of government, the executive is responsible to the legislative and is under its control.
a) No confidence motion: The executive remains in office till it enjoys the confidence of the legislative, especially the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a co-confidence motion, the whole council of ministers bound to resign.

b) Finance control: The legislative has complete control over the finances and the annual budget is passed by it. The controller and Auditor General (CAG) is accountable to the legislatures of different states and also the parliament.

c) Deliberation and discussion: During the law making process members get an opportunity to deliberate on the policy direction and the ways in which policies are implemented. The question hour and zero hour etc. are the most effective method of keeping right on the executives and the administrative agencies of the government. The calling attention notice, adjournment motion, censure motion etc. are the approval or refusal of laws other tools or instruments.

A bill can become a law only with the approval of the parliament. If the government has majority in Lok Sabha but not in the Rajya Sabha, the govt, is bound to make concession in the bill. It also supervises the activities of the executive with the helping its committees like committee on government assurance, committee on petitions etc.

Question 32.
Explain the various Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel Right to have shelter
  5. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  6. Protection from undue punishment
  7. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  8. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The rightto accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26 – To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:
1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.

2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture. It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

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Kerala Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

From questions 1 to 11, answer for 16 scores.(16)

Question 1.
Following are some of the provisions borrowed to Indian constitution from the constitution of other countries. Find out relevant countries. (4)

Provisions Countries
Concept of Rule of law
Principle of liberty, equality, fraternity
Fundamental Rights
Directive Principles of state policy

Answer:

Provisions Countries
Concept of Rule of law Britain
Principle of liberty, equality, fraternity France
Fundamental Rights USA
Directive Principles of state policy Ireland

Question 2.
Which day is observed as Human Rights day? (1) (August 15, January 10, October 2, December 10)
Answer:
December 10

Question 3.
Mention the article which empowers High Courts to issue writs. (1)
Answer:
Article 226

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 4.
Identify the commission which recommended constitutional status to local governing bodies in India (Sarkarla Commission, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, Mandal Commission, RK. Thungon Committee) (1)
Answer:
P.K. Tungon Committee

Question 5.
Classify the following and write them in respective columns: (3)
• Police
• Education
• Defence
• Banking
• Jail
• Forest

Union list State list Concurrent list

Answer:

Union list State list Concurrent list
Defence Police Education
Banking Jail Forest

Question 6.
Identify the German Philosopher who glorified war.(1) (Rousseau, Friedrich Nietzsche, Voltaire, Vilfredo Pareto)
Answer:
Fridrich Nietzsche

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate positions. (3)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 1
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 3

Question 8.
Which of the following task is not performed by Election Commission? (1)
i) Preparing electoral rolls
ii) Nominating the candidates
iii) Setting up polling booths
iv) Implementing model code of conduct
Answer:
(ii) Nominating the candidates

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 9.
Who was the first Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
SukumarSen

Question 10.
Idendity the autobiography of Nelson Mandela. (1)
1) Satanic Verses
2) Freedom from fear
3) Long walk to freedom
4) My Experiments with Truth
Answer:
Long walk to freedom

Question 11.
Complete the given pyramid showing the structure of Indian Judiciary.
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 2
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 4

Answer any 4 questions from 12 to 17. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 12.
Constitution amendment is the procedure through which any addition or change is made in the constitution. Examine tree provisions for amending the constitution of India.
Answer:
Through Simple majority in the parliament

  1. Through Special (2/3rd) majority in the Parliament.
  2. Through special (2/3rd) majority in the parliament + half of the state’s majority

Question 13.
India had adopted the concept of Secularism, different from western concept. Point out any three differences between the two.
Answer:

Westem Secularism Indian secularlsm
Religion and government strictly keep distance and do not mutually interfere. Nation makes principle-based interferences in religious affairs.
Individual and his rights are given almost importance Rights of individuals and also of religious groups will be protected.
Equality among different religious Equality among different religious groups is stressed
Care is not given to rights based on religious communities Care is given to minority rights.
Religious reforms are not supported by the government. Nation support religious reforms.
The nation wont help religious institutions Nation helps reigious institutions.

Question 14.
Liberty has two aspects. Negative liberty and positive liberty. Explain
Answer:
Freedom means free from all kinds of control. If this is put into practice, there will be jungle law which is might is right. The strong will dominate the weak and the strongest man will have to be revered by all in the society. Since this negative concept of freedom is not acceptable, the nation has to control freedom. The positive concept of freedom is the removal of obstacles. Negative freedom will lead the nation to an undesirable state. Positive freedom will help in the progress of the nation and the protection of the rights of all individuals.

Question 15.
State is not a temporary community of individuals. It is different from groups and communities. Explain how the state is different from communities.
Answer:

  1. No face to face relationship
  2. No blood relationship
  3. No common descend

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 16.
There were two development models existed in the world at the time of India’s independence. Explain.
Answer:

  1. Socialist Model
  2. Capitalist Model

Question 17.
Write a short note on social, political and economic equalities.
Answer:
Political Equality : To ensure political equality in a society, people should have the opportunities to take
part in active politics. Only if they have the right to play their role in the affairs the nation, there will be political equality there.

Economic Equality : The meaning of Economic Equality is that all citizens must be able to enjoy the nation’s resources equally. This is important for the eradication of poverty.

Social Equality : This means that all in the society have equal social status. Nobody should have special rights. All should have opportunities to develop their personality. In short, nobody should be given any special consideration in name of caste, religion, race or riches.

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 18.
Religious domination may be intra religious or inter-religious. Explain.
Answer:
Inter religious domination A situation where one religious dominates and suppresses other religious Intra – religious domination A situation where a community / religious dominates its own members.

Question 19.
Explain judicial activism and examine its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Judicial activism has caused some bitter feuds and confrontations among the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary in India. When the Executive and legislature become weak, the Judiciary openly intervenes for the protection of the rights of the people. It is good for democracy but it has its weaknesses. Here are the merits and demerits of judicial activism.

Merits
a) Through public interest litigation, the powers of the Courts increased and the people’s faith in them also increased.
b) Judicial activism helped to reduce expenses for litigation.
c) Judicial activism forced the Executive to carry’ , out its responsibilities.

Demerits
a) Increased work load for the Courts.
b) It caused open clash between the Executive and Judiciary.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
The provisions relating to citizenship is included in part two and subsequent laws passed by Parliament. Point out means for acquiring Indian citizenship.
Answer:
According to the Indian Citizenship Act, there are 5 ways to acquire Indian Citizenship. They are:

  1. By birth: Anybody born in India on 21 January 1950 or later will be an Indian citizen.
  2. Citizenship by heredity: Anybody born outside India on 21 January 1950 or later will be given Indian citizenship if his father was an Indian citizen at the time of his birth.
  3. Citizenship by Registration: The following can get Indian citizenship through registration:
    • People of Indian origin who have stayed in India continuously for 6 months before submitting the application for registration.
    • People of Indian origin who are staying outside undivided India.
    • Wives of the Indian citizens.
    • Minor children of Indian citizens.
    • Adult citizens of Commonwealth Countries or the Republic of Ireland.
  4. Citizenship through Long Stay: A foreigner can get Indian citizenship through long stay here subject to certain conditions.
  5. Citizenship through regions becoming part of India: If any region becomes part of India, the government has the authority to declare the people of that region as Indian citizens.

Question 21.
Explain the use and importance of studying Political Theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories,’advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future. The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives.

Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Question 22.
In the debate on the limit of freedom, the ‘harm principle’ is very relevant. Explain harm principle put forward by J.S. Mill.
Answer:
The Harm Principle was proposed by J.S. Mill in his famous book “On Liberty”. It says: “The only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilized community, against his will, is to prevent harm to others.”

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 23.
Nationalism has two phases – constructive and destructive. Explain with examples.
Answer:
Nationalism has two faces – creative nationalism and destructive nationalism. Creative Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors that make up a nation. The creative nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Militant and aggressive nationalism is the opposite of creative nationalism. The WW II was the result of the militant and aggressive nationalism of the Nazis and Fascists.

CREATIVE NATIONALISM AGGRESSIVE (DESTRUCTIVE) NATIONALISM
Creates loyalty Creates hatred.
Unites people Divides people.
Develops sense of freedom & liberates people. Causes conflicts and wars.
Encourages democracy & self rule Develops isolation.
Encourages economic growth Looks at other people with suspicion.
Encourages cultural growth. Develops instability.
Encourages diversity in social, economic and political spheres. Creates many small nations.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 24.
India is one of the countries, where free and fair election is held. But there are some drawbacks in our electoral system. Give suggestions to reform the present electoral system.
Answer:
Suggestions

  1. Reservation to women
  2. FPTP to PR
  3. Reduce money power and muscle power
  4. State funding
  5. Bogus voting eliminate

Question 25.
Explain the different stages of law making procedure in Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to pass through 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.

First Reading : This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favourable of the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial, there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reacting.

Second Reading : This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated for getting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

The Committee Stage : This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

Report Stage : This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may take quite some time. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

Third Reading : This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 26.
The Indian constitution gave shape to a federation with a strong central government. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Federalism is the system by which powers of the nation are divided between the Centre and the States. If all the powers of the nation are concentrated in the Central government, such a system will be called Unitary government. America is a Federal system. But China is a unitary system.

The Indian Constitution follows the federal system. This is what article 1 states: “India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States.” When India became free on 15 August 1947, the integration of the Princely States became necessary. Our Federation did not come into existence through an agreement among existing States. It is a creation of the self identity of the Indian people through the Constitution. Strong federation is suitable do to following.

  1. Teritorial integrity in the hand of Parliament.
  2. Emergency powers
  3. Effective financial power
  4. Appointment of governors
  5. Power to legislate on state list
  6. Integrated administrative system

Question 27.
Briefly explain the functions of constitution.
Answer:
a) Give basic laws to bring about unity among the members of the society. Ensure that the laws are obeyed by all.
b) Decide who is the authority to take decisions in the society.
c) Limit the powers of the government.
d) Enable the government to realise the goals and desires of the society.
e) Give a fundamental identity to the people.

Question 28.
So many criticism are raised against the constitution of India. On the basis of this statement, analyse the criticism against the constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is not beyond criticism. There have been many criticisms, but two of the most important are the following:

a) Unwieldy : The basis of this criticism is the feeling that a constitution must be brief and precise. But since the Indian circumstances are different from others, this criticism does not have any validity.

b) It is not representative enough: The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen with limited franchise. Universal franchise could not be used there. The Indian Constituent Assembly was formed according to the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission and therefore we could not make it completely democratically representational. It was because in the Assembly there were representations from the Princely States and Territories directly under British control.

Question 29.
Briefly explain the forms of structural violence.
Answer:
Structural violence is the violence that originates from social institutions and practices. Casteism, Class distinction, male domination, colonialism, tribalism, racism, communalism etc. can produce structural violence.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 5

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 30.
Briefly explain the fundamental Rights enshrined in the constitution of India.
Answer:
1) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  • Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  • Protection from Discrimination
  • Equality of Opportunity in employment
  • Eradication of Untouchability
  • Non-award of Titles

2) Right to Freedom:

  • Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  • Right to call to attend meetings
  • Right to organize
  • Right to travel
  • Right to have shelter
  • Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  • Protection from undue punishment
  • lndividual freedom and freedom to live
  • Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

3) Right against Exploitation:

  • Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  • Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  • Child labour is prohibited.

4) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26-To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article 27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

5) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

6) Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 31.
The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments brought revolutionary changes in the structure and functions of local governments. Identify major changes implemented through these amendments.
Answer:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment made Panchayati Raj Constitutional. Social justice: This means all the people in the society.

  1. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  2. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  3. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  4. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zlla Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  5. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  6. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  7. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs.
One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.

  1. Reservations are by rotation.
  2. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed.
  3. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.
  4. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.

The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 32.
The concept of Justice has three important principles. Briefly explain justice and the three principles with suitable examples using following hints.
• Equal treatment for equals
• Proportionate justice
• Recognition of special needs
Answer:
John Rawls.
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 6

  1. Social justice: This means all the people in the society are equal. Everybody in the nation should be given equal opportunities and equal consideration. The essence of social justice is seeing everyone equally without any discrimination in the name of caste, religion, colour and gender.
  2. Economic Justice : These are the basic factors of economic justice: All the primary needs of the citizens should be fulfilled. There should circumstances where all can live comfortably. They should get adequate wages for their work. Social security must be assured. Equal pay for equal work.
  3. Political Justice : This means an atmosphere where people have free and fair participation in the political system of the nation. Right to universal adult franchise. Non-discrimination in the appointments to government jobs.