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Students can Download Social Science Part 2 Chapter 2 The Signature of Time Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Signature of Time in Malayalam Medium

The Signature of Time Textual Questions and Answers in Malayalam

Students can Download Social Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Sun: The Ultimate Source Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Sun: The Ultimate Source in Malayalam Medium

Sun: The Ultimate Source Textual Questions and Answers in Malayalam

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 1 (Adisthana Padavali) Pdf, Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 1 (Adisthana Padavali)

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Notes, Plus Two Botany Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Notes Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Principles Of Biotechnology
The important techniques leads to the origin of modern biotechnology are:

(i) Genetic engineering: Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), and introduce these into host organisms and changing the phenotype of the host organism. (ii) Maintaning the microbial contamination-free condition to promote the growth of desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes, etc.

In traditional hybridisation the new hybrid formed possess undesirable genes along with the desired genes. But the technique of genetic engineering /recombinant DNA creates transgenic organism contains only the desirable genes.

In a chromosome there is a specific DNA sequence called the origin of replication, which is responsible for the initiation of replication. If the foreign (alien) DNA transferred and integrated into the genome of the recipient, it multiply along with the host DNA. This called as cloning (making multiple identical copies of any template DNA).

The concept of linking a gene coding for antibiotic resistance with a plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium was the first step in the construction recombinant DNA. It was the work of Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (1972).

Antibiotic resistant gene was isolated from a plasmid by cutting DNA at specific locations by restriction enzymes. Then the cut piece of DNA is linked with the plasmid DNA (vectors) with the help of enzyme DNA ligase.

In the transfer of the malarial parasite into human body, mosquito acts vector. In the same way, a plasmid can be used as vector to deliver an alien piece of DNA into the host organism. It results in the creation of new combination of circular autonomously replicating DNA, it is known as recombinant DNA.

When this DNA is introduced into Escherichia coli, it could replicate using the new host’s DNA and polymerase enzyme to make multiple copies. The ability of forming multiple copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E.coliis called cloning.
The three basic steps in the creation of GMO are

1. Identification of DNA with desirable genes;
2. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
3. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

Tools Of Recombinant Dna Technology
Important tools are

1. restriction enzymes
2. polymerase enzymes
3. ligases
4. vectors and the
5. host organism.

1. Restriction Enzymes:
The enzymes restricting the growth of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli is used to cut DNA. This is called restriction endonuclease.

Restriction endonuclease- Hind II cut DNA molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs. This is called recognition sequence.

Another restriction endonuclease EcoRI comes from Escherichia coli RY13. In EcoRI, ‘R’ indicates the order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria.

Restriction enzymes belong to nucleases. These are of two kinds; exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas, endonucleases bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones.

Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA. Actually palindromic nucleotide sequences is the same as the word, “MALAYALAM,” read in both forward and backward.
Eg- 5′ ——GAATTC ——3′
3′ —— CTTAAG —— 5
After cutting DNA duplex by an enzyme, it leaves single stranded portions at the ends. These are sticky ends on each strand. This stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA ligase.

Separation and isolation of DNA fragments:
The cut fragments of DNA separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Negatively charged DNA fragments are separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a agarose matrix.

The DNA fragments separate according to their size in agarose gel. So the smaller the fragment size moves farther.

The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV light. It appears as bright orange coloured bands. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.

This step is known as elution. The DNA fragments thus obtained are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.
Agarose gel electrophoresis showing migration of digested and un digested DNA

2. Cloning Vectors:
Plasmids and bacteriophages can replicate within bacterial cells independently without chromosomal DNA. Bacteriophages form a high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cells. Plasmids form 15-100 copies per cell.

If linking an alien piece of DNA with bacteriophage or plasmid DNA, it can multiply its numbers equal to the copy number of the plasmid or bacteriophage. So, this is helpful in the selection of recombinants from non-recombinants.

The features of artificial cloning vector are
(i) Origin of replication (oril):
It is a sequence of cloning vector in which replication starts when any piece of DNA linked to it. This sequence is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.

(ii) Selectable marker:
In addition to ‘ori’, the vector contains selectable marker, which helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.

The genes coding for antibiotic resistance such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are considered as selectable markers for E. coli. The normal E. coli cells do not show the resistance against any of these antibiotics.

(iii) Cloning sites:
For linking the alien DNA into the vector, there must be preferably single recognition sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes because more than one recognition sites within the vector results several fragments.

The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes.

For example, ligation of a foreign DNA at the Bam H I site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322, the recombinant plasmids lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA.

Recombinants selected from non-recombinant by plating the transformants on ampicillin containing medium. The transformants growing on ampicillin containing medium are then transferred on a medium containing tetracycline.

It could not grow in the medium containing tetracycline. But, non recombinants can grow on both medium Therefore antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the transformants.

Another method of selecting recombinants from non-recombinants is their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. For this recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, beta-galactosidase. This results into inactivation of the enzyme, called as insertional inactivation.

If the bacteria does not have an insert, chromogenic substrate present in the medium react with betagalactosidase enzyme gives blue coloured colonies.

If the plasmid have an insert, they do not produce any colour due to insertional inactivation of the gene coding for beta galactosidase, these are identified as recombinant colonies.

(iv) Vectors for cloning genes in plants and animals:
Normally Agrobacterioum tumifaciens (a pathogen of several dicot plants) transfer its ‘T-DNA’to normal plant cells and causes tumor. Similarly retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells and they are used as vectors for delivering genes of interest to humans.

For delivering genes of interest to plants tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens is modified (disarming) as non pathogenic Similarly the retroviruses are disarmed and used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.

3. Competent Host
(For Transformation with Recombinant DNA)
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. For this, bacterial cells must have to be competent to take up DNA.

This is done by treating them with calcium ions and incubating the cells and recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42°C Then putting them back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

Another methods:

1. Micro-injection – recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
2. Biolistics or gene gun -cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. It is suitable for plants.

And the last method uses ‘disarmed pathogen’ vectors, which when allowed to infect the cell, transfer the recombinant DNA into the host.

Processes Of Recombinant Dna Technology
Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps. They are

1. Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA):
Initially the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissue are treated with enzymes such as lysozyme (bacteria), cellulase (plant cells), chitinase (fungus) to open the cell to release DNA along with other macromolecules such as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides, and Other molecules can be removed by appropriate treatments and purified DNA precipitates out afterthe addition of chilled ethanol. It can be observed as collection also lipids.

To get DNA in a pure form and free from other macro-molecules it is treated with enzymes. RNA can be removed by treating with ribonuclease whereas proteins can be removed by treating with protease, of fine threads in the Suspension.

2. Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations:
It is done by incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction enzyme. Here Agarose gel electrophoresis is used to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion. DNA is a negatively charged molecule, hence it moves towards the positive electrode (anode).

After having cut at the source DNA as well as the vector DNA with a specific restriction enzyme, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the cut vector with space are mixed and ligase is added. This results in the preparation of recombinant DNA.

3. Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR:

Polymerase Chain Reaction is helpful to produce multiple copies ( eg-1 billion copies-) of the gene of interest.

It is synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers (chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of DNA) and the enzyme thermostable DNA polymerase (isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus).

This enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction mixture and the genomic DNA as template. If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA (gene of interest) can be amplified. The amplified fragment is used to ligate with vector for further cloning.

(PCR showing denaturation. annealing and extention)

4. Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell/Orqanism:
Recombinant DNA carry gene resistant to antibiotic (e.g., ampicillin) is transferred into E. coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells. If spreading the transformed cells on agar plates containing ampicillin, only the transformants grow and untransformed cells die.

So it is helpful to select a transformed cell in the presence of ampicillin. The ampicillin resistance gene in this case is called a selectable marker.

5. Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product:
The main aim of all recombinant technologies is to produce a desirable protein. Here the foreign gene is expressed under appropriate conditions. If it is necessary to produce target protein i.e recombinant protein on a small scale, rDNA transferred into the host and cloned genes of interest must be grown in the laboratory. Then the protein is extracted and purified.

Stirred tank Bioreactor

A stirred-tank reactor is a cylindrical vessel that helps in the mixing of the reactor contents. The stirrer also facilitates oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.

It consist of agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH control system and sampling ports, so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn periodically.

6. Downstream Processing:
After the desired product formed, it is subjected to a series of processes. These include separation and purification, which are called as downstream processing.

The product is added with preservatives and undergoes clinical trials as in case of drugs. Later the strict quality control testing is done for each product.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Part – A

Answer all the questions

Question 1.
Name the first iron and steel plant established in South India. (1)
Answer:
Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Ltd. (VISL)

Question 2.
Which among the following serves as the banker to the central and state governments in India? (1)
a) State Bank of India
b) Indian Bank
b) Bankof India
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 3.
Identify the incident that forced Gandhiji to stop non-cooperation movement. (1)
Answer:
Chauri Chaura incident.

Question 4.
“The result of your political inactivity is that you will be ruled by people inferior to you”. Name the political thinker who made this statement. (1)
Answer:
Plato

Question 5.
Identify the regions where laterite soils are formed:(1)
a) Regions made of igneous rocks named Basalt
b) Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons
c) Desert regions
d) Plains formed by the river deposition.
Answer:
(b) Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons.

Question 6.
Compare the Kharif and Rabi cropping seasons in India. (3)
Answer:
Kharif sowing period June (onset of monsoon) harvesting period Early November (End of monsoon) Major crops rice, maize, millets, cotton, jute, sugar, cane, ground nut.
Rabi Sowing period November (Beginning of winter) harvesting period March (Beginning of summer) Wheat, tobacco, mustard, pulses.

Question 7.
What are the methods of study employed in sociology? (3)
Answer:
Social survey, Interview, Observation and Case study.

Question 8.
How, is electronic banking (E-banking) helpful to customers? (3)
Answer:
Money can be sent and bills can be paid anywhere in the world from home

• Saves time
• Low service charge.

Question 9.
Write a short note on Trans Himalayas. (3)
Answer:
Trans Himalayas include Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zaskar mountain ranges. Mount K2 (8661m) also known as Godwin Austin, the highest peak in India, is in the Karakoram range. The average height of the Trans Himalayas is 6000 metres.

Question 10.
What are the discretionary functions of the state?(3)
Answer:

• Protection of health
• Provide educational facilities
• Implement welfare activities
• Provide transportation facilities.

Question 11.
Link column ‘A’ with appropriate items from column ‘B’. (4)

A	B
Deccan Education Society	Dr. Zakir Hussain
Viswa Bhrthi university	Rabindranath Tagore
Jamia Milia Islamia	Mahadev Govind Ranade
Vallthol Narayana Menon	Kerala Kalmandalm

Answer:

A	B
Deccan Education Society	Mahadev Govind Ranade
Viswa Bhrthi university	Rabindranath Tagore
Jamia Milia Islamia	Dr. Zakir Hussain
Vallthol Narayana Menon	Kerala Kalmandalm

Question 12.
Explain the different levels of human resource development.(4)
Answer:
Individuals take efforts to develop their own skills.

• Family creates an environment for the development of the potential of individuals.
• Various institutions and agencies provide facilities for education and training.
• Nation provides the necessary facilities for its people to develop their skills.

Question 13.
What is ‘Mountbatten Plain ? Mention its proposals.(4)
Answer:
The strategyprepared by Mountbatten Plan.

• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslims wish.
• To divide Punjab and Bengal
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North West Frontier province to Pakistan or not

Question 14.
Explain why the Sepoys and the Kins fought against the British during the First War of Indian Independence, 1857. (4)
Answer:
Poor salary and abuse by the British officers were the major reasons for their resentment. The rumour that the cartridge in the newly supplied Enfield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs provoked them. It wounded the religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers. The soldiers who were unwilling to use the new cartridges were punished by the officers, the British rule had adversely affected the kings too. In addition to the Doctrine of Lapse, the princely states were convicted of inefficient rule and were annexed by the British. This made the kings to lead the rebellion.

Question 15.
Mark and label the following geo-information in the outline map of India provided. (4)
Answer:
For marking the places on the map.

a) River Narmada
b) Karakoram range
c) Eastern Coastal plain
d) Haldia port

Part – B

Question 16.
Evaluate the achievements of India in the fields of missile technology and space mission. (3)
OR
Prepare a short note on Civil Disobedience Movement in Malabar.
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) was established to lead space research. The first rocket-
1. launching station in India was established in Thumba, near Thiruvananthapuram. As a result of the collective efforts of India’s space research experts, first satellite Aryabhatta was successfully launched in 1975. In addition to satellites, space vehicles and rocket launchers were also developed. Jt was because of the far-sightedness of Jawaharlal Nehru that India became the first developing nation to make and launch satellites. There are several agencies that develop satellites in India now, They are:

• National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA)
• Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) India has also advanced much in missile technology. Agni and Prithwi are the missiles developed by India. Dr. Raja Ramanna and Dr. A.P.J-. Abdul Kalam led our experiments in the atomic energy sector.

OR

In 1930s, the Civil Disobedience Movement gained momentum in Malabar. People broke the salt law by making salt under the leadership of K. Kelappan and Mohammed Abdu Rahiman at Payyannurand Kozhikode respectively. The British army brutally attacked the satyagrahis and arrested the leaders. Boycott of foreign goods, picketing liquor shops and popularising Khadi were also part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 17.
Name the global pressure belts between which each of the following wind blows: (3)
a) Westerlies
b) Trade winds
c) Polar winds.
OR
Complete the following table showing the apparent movement of the Sun.

Period	The Apparent Movement
i) 21 Match to 21 June	From the equator to Tropic of Cancer
ii) 22 December to 21 March	From the Tropic of Capricorn to the Equator
iii) 23 September to 22 December	From the equator to Tropic of Capricorn

Answer:
a) 30° Latitude to 60° latitude
b) 30° Latitude to 0° latitude
c) 90° Latitude to 60°latitude

OR

Period	The Apparent Movement
i) 21 Match to 21 June	From the equator to Tropic of Cancer
ii) 22 December to 21 March	From the Tropic of Capricorn to the Equator
iii) 23 September to 22 December	From the equator to Tropic of Capricorn

Question 18.
Explain the factors that led to the reorganization of states on the basis of languages in India. (3)
OR
Prepare a note on the rise df modern industries in Kerala.
Answer:
There were demands from different parts of India for the formation of states on the basis of language. In 1920 the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress resolved to form its state committees on the basis of language.’After independence, people agitated for the formation of states along linguistic lines. Potti Sriramalu, a freedom fighter, started satyagraha for the formation of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people, the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress resolved to form its state committees on the basis of language. After independence, people agitated for the formation of states along linguistic lines.

Potti Sriramalu, a freedom fighter, started satyagraha for the formation of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people. After 58 days of fasting, his martyrdom and it intensified the mass agitation. Following this, in 1953, the Government of India formed the state of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people. After this, the demand for linguistic states intensified. The Government of India formed a Commission to reorganise Indian states on the basis of languages,

OR

Modern factories were established in Kerala by the middle of the twentieth century. Majority of them were in Travancore and Kochi. Rulers of Travancore adopted policies promoting modern industries. The British provided technical and financial support to the industries. The establishment of Pallivasal Hydro Electric Project propelled the development of modern industries.

Question 19.
What are the features of bureaucracy? (4)
OR
Write any two problems faced by the society and suggest its solutions.
Answer:

• Hierarchical organisation
• Permanence
• Appointment on the basis of Qualification
• Political Neutrality
• Professionalism

OR

Water scarcity

• • effective utilisation of water Environmental pollution
• Garbage treatment at source Flood
• Shifting the residence in safe zone
• Corruption
• Awareness agiinstforruption (any two)

Question 20.
Explain the goals of the fiscal policy.
OR
Explain the structure and jurisdiction of the district consumer disputes.redressal forum.
Answer:
Attain economic stability

• Create employment opportunities
• Control unnecessary expenditure

OR

Functions at district level – president and two members – at least one woman member After collecting evidence based oh the complaint filed by the consumer, verdicts are given where the compensation claimed does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs.

Question 21.
How are satellite imageries prepared? What is Spatial Resolution? (4)
OR
Analyze the model.reference grids given and find out the following.

i) Locate the spring using 6 figure grid reference method.
ii) Identify the feature with 6 figure grid reference 682 315.
iii) Locate the settlements in 4 figure grid reference method.
iv) Name the method by which elevation and relief is represented in the grids.
Answer:
The sensors on artificial satellites distinguish objects on the earth’s surface based on their spectral signature and transmit the information in digital format to the terrestrial stations. This is interpreted .with the help of computers and converted in to picture formats. These are called satellite imageries. The size of the smallest object on the earth’s surface that a satellite sensor can distinguish is called the spatial resolution of the sensor.

OR

i) 656325
ii) Tube well
iii) 6830
iv) Contour lines

Question 22.
Explain the Central Vigilance Commission and the Ombudsman.
OR
Expain the role of social science learning in the formulation of civic consciousness.
Answer:
The Central Vigilance Commission is the institution constitute^ at the national level to prevent corruption. It came into effect in 1964. It is formed to prevent corruption in the central government offices. The Central Vigilance Commissioner is the head of the Central Vigilance Commission. In every department there will be a Chief Vigilance Officer. The duty of the commission is to enquire into yigilance cases and take necessary actions.

Elected representatives and bureaucrats are part of public administration. Complaints can be filed against their corruption, nepotism or financial misappropriation or negligence of duties. Ombudsman is constituted for this purpose. A retired Judge of the High Court is appointed as the Ombudsman. People can directly approach the Ombudsman with complaints. On receiving complaints, the Ombudsman has the power to summon anyone and can order enquiry and recommend actions.

OR
Equips the individuals to respect diversity and to behave with tolerance.

• Helps to understand the different contexts of political, social, economic and environmental problems.
• Equips the individual to suggest comprehensive solutions to different problems.
• Disseminate the message of peace and co-operation to the society.
• Makes the individual civic conscious and action oriented by familiarising the ideal models and activities of civic consciousness.

Question 23.
Explain the circunastances inhere the consumers are exploited of cheated. (4)
OR
Explain any two direct taxes in India.
Answer:
When the purchased product is damaged or defective.

• Defective services received from government/on – government/ private institutions.
• Appropriation of price over and above the amount legally fixed or marked on the outer casing.
• Violation of the prevention of adulteration law.
• Sale of products which are harmful to life and safety.
• Loss due to trading methods which lead to unfair practices and limited consumer freedom.
• Giving misleading advertisement for increasing sales.

OR

Personal Income Tax It is the tax imposed on the income of individuals. The rate of tax increases as the income increases. Income tax is applicable to the income-that is above a certain limit. In India the income tax is collected by the central government as per the Income Tax Act 1961, Corporate tax This , is the tax imposed on the net income.

Question 24.
Elucidate Local time standard time and Greenwich mean time. Estimate thelndian’Standard time when the Greenwidwhichmean time is 12 midnight.
OR
What is monsoon? Explain the role of Trade wipds in the formation of South-est monsoon winds.
Answer:

• Local time: Local time is the time calculated based on the position of the sun.
• Standard time; Time observed at the standard meridian of a country.
• Greenwich Time: Time observed at 0° longitude is known as the Greenwich Time 5.30 am

OR

Monsoon winds are winds that change direction due to the shift of the pressure belts.
Sun’s rays fall vertically to the North of the Equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this, The southeast trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north Sun’s rays fall vertically to the North of the Equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tr: pic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this. The southeast trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north.

Question 25.
Analyze the causes of the First World War. (6)
OR
Explain the factors that led to the February Revolution in Russia.
Answer:
Military Alliances : Germany, – Italy and Austria – Hungary formed the Triple Alliance. England, France and Russia formed Triple Entene. These alliances created tension in Europe.’

Aggressive Nationalism: European nations captured other countries and provinces. Formation of Pan Salv movement, Pan German Movement and the Revenge movement were examplesof aggressive nationalism.

Imperial Crisis : Imperial competition among the European nations led to crisis. Moroccan Crisis, Balkan crisis etc. Assassination of Arch Duke Francis Ferdinand. Crown prince of Austria was assassinated on 28 June 1914 at Sarajevo, capital of Bosnia.

Accusing Serbia for this Austria Hungary declared war on 28th July 1914.
OR

Decision of the Russian emperor czar Nicholas II to participate in the First World War ignoring the opposition of the Duma: Scarcity of food by 1917.Soldiers joined the workers in the agitation at Petrograd.
The city of Petrograd was captured by the workers. With this the emperor abandoned the throne and a temporary government under the leadership of Kerensky assumed power. This is known as the February revolution.

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Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions :

• The first 15 minutes Is the Cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only on the basis of instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any five questions from Q.No. 1 to 6. Each carries on score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Identify the word pair relation and fill the blanks.
(a) Monkeys: Cercopithecoidea::
Chimpanzee: ………………..
(b) A.I.Oparin: Theory of chemical evolution::
Hugo de Vries: ………………….
Answer:
a) Hominoidea
b) Mutation theory

Question 2.
Find out the parts that are not related to retina from the following.

Answer:
Conjuctiva
Iris

Question 3.
“Myelin sheath accelerates the speed of impulses through axon and provides nutrition to it.”
(a) How does myelin sheath form?
Answer:
Myelin sheath is formed due to the repeated encir- * cling of Schwann cells around the axone.

Question 4.
Identify the relation in the Indicator (A) and complete (B) accordingly.

Answer:
i. Ribose Sugar
ii. AUGC.

Question 5.
Find out the fungal diseases from the following: Malaria, Ringworm, Filariasis, Athelete’s foot
Answer:
Ring worm Athlete’s foot

Question 6.
Complete the statement suitably:
“In …….(a)……………. the specialised part in pancreas two types of cells are found. Of these (b)……. cells produce insulin.”
Answer:
a) Islets of Langerhans
b) Beta cells

Answer any six questions from Q.No. 7 to 13. Each carries on score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Make suitable pairs of different white blood cells and the function they perform.

Answer:

Question 8.
Write the name of pathogens and symptoms of the given diseases:

Answer:
A: Malaria
Pathogens: Protozoa – plasmodium

Symptoms

• High fever with shivering
• Profuse sweating, severe headache
• Vomitting, diarrhoea, anemia

B: Tuberculosis
Pathogens: bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Symptoms

• Loss of body weight
• Fatigue
• Continuous dry cough

Question 9.

• Excess blood is lost even though minor, injuries.
• Loss of body balance
• Accumulation of insoluble proteins in the neutral tissues of brain
• Production of dopamine reduces
• Irregular flow of electric charges in brain.

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Name the Scientists who devised the experi-mental set up shown above.
(b) Which theory of evolution is substantiated by this experiment?
Answer:
a) Stanley L.Miller and Harold C.Urey
b) Theory of chemical evolution

Question 11.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

Answer:
a. A: Genetic scissors: Restriction endonuclease
B: Genetic glue : Ligase

b. Yes

• They will have the ability to prouce insulin.
• They change that occured in the genetic constitution will be transferred to the next generation too. In case of mutation the gene might loss the capacity for the production.

Question 12.
List out the four major concepts to be included in a blood donation campaign.
Answer:

• Blood cannot be made artificially. So we can save life of a person by donating blood. So do-nate blood and save life.
• A healthy person can donate 300 ml of blood within a period of 6 months.
• If the level of blood decreases beyond a certain level, it may cause the death of the individual. During such situation for the sustenance of the life the blood donation by a person becomes inevitable.
• Before transfusion, blood group matching should be ensured.

Question 13.
Mutation cause variations in organisms. It leads to evolution of species:
(a) What is mutation?
(b) Explain two other factors that cause variations in organisms.
Answer:
a) A sudden heritable change in the genetic con-stitution of an organism is called mutation.
b) Crossing over in chromosomes

Answer any five from Q.No. 14 to 20. Each carries 3 score. (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Why do the forelimbs of these organisms show differences in external appearance?
(b) What inferences regarding evolution can be drawn from the anatomy of these organs?
(c) Write any two other scientific evidences which proves evolution.
Answer:
a) Difference in their external appearances are their adaptations to live in their own habitats.
b) Anatomical resemblances justify the interference that all organisms evolved from a common ancestor.
c) Biochemistry and Physiology, Molecular Biology and Evidence from fossils

Question 15.
Observe the illustration.

(a) What does R, r denote in the illustration
(b) Which character is expressed in first generation. Why?
Answer:
a) Gametes / Allele
b) Red Flower
Hybridization experiment, the allele that controls the dominant character (Red) that is expressed, and other character remains hidden (recessive character-white) in the offsprings of the first generation.

Question 16.
“Smoking harmfully affects internal organs.”
This is a general statement.
Explain how smoking affects brain, heart and lungs.
Answer:
a) Brain: Stroke, Addiction to nicotine
b) Lungs: Lung cancer, Bronchitis, Emphysema
c) Heart: Hypertension, loss of elasticity of arteries, Decrease in functional efficiency.

Question 17.
There are certain mistakes in the given chart. Find out and correct it.

Answer:

Question 18.
Analyse the statement and answer the questions. “Antibiotics, the miraculous medicines of 20th century helped a lot to bring many diseases under control. But the use of antibiotics without consulting doctor is not advisable.”
(a) Why antibiotics considered as miraculous medi-cines?
(b) Write two side effects of antibiotics.
Answer:
a) Antibiotics are drugs obtained from microorgan isms that are used to destroy the growth of other microorganisms that cause diseases. Antibiotics are biochemical substances extracted from living things like bacteria and fungi which can or prevent the spreading of germs. Antibiotics target microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi and parasites.

b) Side effects of antibiotics:

• Regular use develops immunity in pathogens against antibiotics.
• Destroys useful bacteria in body.
• Reduces the quantity of some vitamins, in body.

Question 19.
Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements.
(a) Curvature of lens increases when viewing near objects.
(b) Vitreous humor is formed from blood, and is re-absorbed by blood.
(c) Membraneous labyrinth in the inner ear is filled with Perilymph.
(d) Eustachian tube amplifies and transmits the vi-brations of tympanum to the internal ear.
Answer:
(a) Curvature of lens increases when viewing near objects.
(b) Vitreous humor is formed from blood,and is re-absorbed by blood.
(c) Membraneous labyrinth in the inner ear is filled with endolvmph.
(d) Ear ossicles amplifies and transmits the vibration of tympanum to the internal ear.

Question 20.
Observe the figure and answer the questions:

(a) Identify the partsAand B.
(b) What is the function of ‘A’?
(c) Explain the process that takes place in ‘B’.
Answer:
a) A: mRNA B: Ribosome
b) mRNA:mRNA carries information from DNA to ribosomes and controls protein synthesis.
c) mRNA molecule that carries information from DNA to ribosomes.
mRNA reaches ribosomes. tRNA carry different kinds of amino acids to ribosomes.
Based on the information in mRNA protein is synthesized in ribosomes adding amino acids.

Answer any two from Q.No. 21 to 23. Each careries 4 score. (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Analyse the given informations related to plant hor mones and answer the questions.
(a) to increase the size of apple
(b) to prevnt dropping of premature fruits.
(c) to increase the production of latex.
(d) to enable flowering of pineapple plants at a time.

(i) Match hormones and their functions properly.
(ii) Write the name and function of any other two hormones occur naturally in plants.
Answer:
i) a) Gibberellins
b) Auxins
c) Ethyphon
d) Ethylene

ii)

Plant hormones	Functions
Cytokinins	Promotes cell division, cell growth and differentiation along with auxin.
Abscisic acid	Control the dormancy of embryo in the seed. Control flowenng Helps to sustair the plant in adverse conditions

Question 22.
Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Name the cells (A) and (B).
(b) Explain the role of these cells in making vision possible.
(c) How impulses are generated in these cells when light rays fall on it?
Answer:
a) A. Rod cells B. Cone cells

Photo receptors	Functions
Rod cells	Vision in dim light, black and white vision
Cone cells	Bright light vision, colour vision

b) Working of the cone
When the light falls on cone cells, the photopsin, in them dissociate into retinal and opsin. This chemical change creates impulses.
Working of rod cells :
d cells the pigment rhodopsin in them dissociate into retinal and opsin. This chemical change creates impulses.

c) The sense of vision :
When the pigment photoreceptors dissociate, impulses are forrmed. When get the sense of vision, when these impulses reach the brain through optic nerve.

Question 23.
(a) Redraw the diagram.
Name and label the parts that perform the given functions.

(a) Relay station of impulses.
(b) Controls heartbeat, breathing etc.
(c) Maintains equilibrium of the body.
Answer:

a) Thalamus
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum

Students can Download Chapter 9 Accounts from Incomplete Records Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Accounts from Incomplete Records

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Single entry system is also known as ………….
(a) Imprest system
(b) Merchandise system
(c) Incomplete system
(d) Cash system
Answer:
(c) Incomplete system

Question 2.
Incomplete records are usually maintained by ………………………
(a) Small traders
(b) Society
(c) Company
(d) Government
Answer:
(a) Small traders

Question 3.
Credit purchase can be ascertained as the balancing figure in the ………………
(a) Total Debtor Account
(b) Total Creditor Account
(c) Statement of Affairs
(d) Balance Sheet
Answer:
(b) Total Creditors Account

Question 4.
Cash received from debtors can be had from ………………. the account.
(a) Total Debtor
(b) Cash Book
(c) Statement of affairs
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(d) both a & b.

Question 5.
If capital comparison method of single entry system, the profit or loss is ascertained by
(a) Preparing a statement of affairs
(b) Preparing trading and profit & loss A/c.
(c) Preparing a statement of profit or loss
(d) Both a & c.
Answer:
(d) Both a and c.

Question 6.
Incomplete record mechanism of bookkeeping is:
(a) Scientific
(b) Unscientific
(c) Unsystematic
(d) Both b and C
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Question 7.
Locate the odd one.
(a) Incomplete system
(b) Unsystematic system
(c) Double-entry system
(d) Single entry system
Answer:
(c) Double-entry system.

Question 8.
……….. account are not kept under single entry system.
Answer:
Impersonal

Question 9.
………….. account is prepared to ascertain credit sale.
Answer:
Total Debtors Account

Question 10.
Bill receivable from debtors during the year can be obtained from ………… account.
Answer:
Bill Receivable

Question 11.
Statement of affairs is prepared to a certain ……………..
Answer:
Capital

Question 12.
Find the odd one and state the reason.

1. credit sale, sales returns, discount allowed, return outwards.
2. Credit purchase, endorsement of the bill, return inwards, return to suppliers.

Answer:

1. return outwards – affected by creditors account, all others are affected by debtors A/c.
2. return inwards – affected by debtors a/c, all others are affected by creditors A/c.

Question 13.
Match the following.

Answer:

• 1 – e
• 2 – c
• 3 – d
• 4 – b
• 5 – a

Question 14.
What does the missing item of the account represent?
Total Debtors A/c

Answer:
Cash received from Debtors Rs. 32,000

Question 15.
In capital comparison method of single entry system, the profit or loss is ascertained by
(a) Preparing trading and profit and loss A/c.
(b) Preparing statement of affairs.
(c) Preparing statement of profit or loss.
(d) Both b and c.
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Question 16.
Given the opening and closing balances of bills receivable and cash received on account of bills receivable, balancing bills receivable account will show,
(a) Credit purchase
(b) Credit sales
(c) Bills received during the year
Answer:
(c) Bills received during the year.

Question 17.
Given the opening and closing balance of debtors and the figures of credit sales, the balancing figure of total debtors account will give.
(a) Bills honoured during the year.
(b) Closing balance of bills receivable.
(c) Cash received from debtors.
(d) Cash sales.
Answer:
(c) Cash received from debtors.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the meaning of incomplete records.
Answer:
Books of accounts that are not maintained according to the double-entry system are generally referred to as incomplete records. The system is also known as single entry. It is an incomplete, unscientific and unsystematic method of keeping the books of accounts of a trader.

Question 2.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

• 2. Credit purchase – Total creditors account
• 3. Cash sales – Receipt side of cash book
• 4. Credit sales – Total Debtors Account
• 5. Capital – Statement of Affairs

Question 3.
Afire occured in the godown of Mr. Asok who keeps his books under single entry and his goods were partly destroyed. Since the goods were insured, he lodged a claim of Rs. 1,00,000/- to the insurance company, out of which only Rs. 60,000 was admitted. On what ground can the Insurance company’s decision be justified?
Answer:
Since, Mr. Asok maintain incomplete records, it is not reliable and scientific. These accounts are not accepted by the Insurance company. It is one of the limitations of single entry.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give any five features of single entry system.
Answer:

1. It is an unscientific, unsystematic and incomplete system.
2. Mainly personal accounts are prepared by ignoring fully or partially the impersonal accounts.
3. It is used by small traders.
4. Profit or loss under this system is only an estimate.
5. True financial position cannot be ascertained.

Question 2.
Calculate profit or loss from the following information . for the year ended 31.12.2005.

Answer:
Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31.12.05

Question 3.
Prepare Total Debtors Account from the following information:

Answer:
Total Debtors Account

Question 4.
Calculation of credit purchase by preparing Total creditors account.

Answer:

Question 5.
Find.out the capital at the beginning.

Answer:
Calculation of Capital at the beginning

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The single entry system of accounting is crude and unsystematic, still is popular among small businessmen. Give reasons.
Answer:
Some businessmen prefer to keep their books under single entry system due to the following reasons.

1. The system is suitable to small traders which have mainly cash transactions and do not have many assets and liabilities to be recorded in details.
2. The system is economical since lesser number of books are maintained.
3. Lack of knowledge about the double-entry system.
4. Ignorance of businessmen as to the statutory requirements of keeping proper books of accounts.
5. Intentional omission to take advantage of taxation.

Question 2.
What are the difference between Balance Sheet and Statement of Affairs?
Answer:

Balance Sheet	Statement of Affairs
1. It is prepared on the basis of those books which are maintained under the double-entry system.	1. It is prepared on the basis of information from incomplete records
2. It is prepared to show the financial position of the concern.	2. It is usually prepared to find out capital.
3. Value of asset and liabilities in a Balance Sheet are based on ledger balances	3. Value of assets and liabilities in a statement of affairs are based on estimates
4. Omission of assets or liabilities can easily be found out when Balance sheet disagree.	4. It is difficult to locate omission of assets or liabilities in statement of affairs.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the limitations of incomplete records?
Answer:
Following are the limitations of single entry system

1. It is not based on the double-entry system, arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts can not proved.
2. No clear idea about the financial position.
3. Comparison with previous years performance is not possible due to incomplete information.
4. It encourage fraud, misappropriation etc. among employess.
5. In the absense of nominal accounts, it is difficult to determine the exact profit or loss.
6. It is difficult to obtain loans from bank or other financial institution.

Question 2.
Mention the difference between double-entry system and single entry system or incomplete records.
Answer:
The following are the difference between the double-entry system and single entry system.

Single Entry System	Double Entry System
1. Dual aspects of transactions are not recorded.	1. Dual aspects of every transaction are recorded.
2. As trial balance is not prepared, arithmetical accuracy can’t be checked.	2. Trial balance is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy.
3. Only an estimate of profit can be made	3. Actual net profit can be Calculated
4. Balance sheet can not be prepared to ascertain the financial position	4. Balance sheet can be prepared to ascertain the financial position
5. This system is suitable for sole trader who have a few transaction	5. This is suitable for all types of business all types of business

Question 3.
Final accounts can be prepared from incomplete records. Explain the procedure.
Answer:
Though the records are incomplete, the trader has to ascertain the profit or loss of his business and the position regarding assets and liabilities. Two methods are adopted for ascertainment of profit or loss. They are:

1. Ascertainment of profit or loss by statement of affair method.
2. Preparation of profit and loss account and balance sheet under conversion method.

1. Statement of Affair Method:
Under this method, profit or loss can be ascertained by comparing the capital at the beginning and at the end of the financial period. For this purpose, two statements are prepared.

a. Statement of Affairs:
It is a statement prepared by presenting the assets on one side and liabilities on the other side as in the case of a balance sheet. The difference between the totals of the two sides is known as “owners equity or capital”.
Owner equity or capital = Asset – Liabilities

b. Statement of profit or loss:
The statement prepared to ascertain the profit or loss by comparing the opening capital with closing capital is called statement of profit or loss. If the capital at the end of the year exceeds the capital in the beginning of the year, the difference will be treated as “profit.” On the other hand, If the capital in the beginning of the year is more than that at the end of the year, there is “loss.”

2. Conversion Method:
Under single entry system, nominal accounts and real accounts (other than cash) are not maintained. Hence it is not possible to prepare the profit and loss account and balance sheet under the system. In such a situation, financial statements are to be prepared by converting accounts under single entry to that under double entry. This method of preparing financial statements is called conversion method.

Question 4.
From the following particulars, calculate total sales.

Answer:
Bill Receivable Account

Total Debtors Account

Question 5.
From the following information, calculate the amount total purchase.

Answer:
Bills Payable A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Sumesh keeps incomplete records. You are required to ascertain the profit or loss for the year ending 3-1.3.2004 from the following information.

He had withdrawn Rs. 5,000 during the year and had introduced Rs. 4,000 from the sale of his personal property.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs as on 01.04.2003

Statement of Affairs as on 31.03.2004

Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31.03.2004.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Murali keeps his books under single entry. He supplies you with the following information from which you are to find out his profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.2007.

He had withdrawn Rs. 3,000 during the year for a private purpose and had introduced fresh capital Rs. 6,000 on 1.10.2006. Bad and doubtful debts provision at 5% is to be made on debtors. Depreciation on plant and machinery at 10% and furniture at 15 % is to be made. Allow 6% interest on capital.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs of Mr. Murali

Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.07

Question 2.
Anil carries on a retailer business and does not keep his books on double entry basis. The following particulars are obtained from his books.

His cash transations during the year were given

During the year Anil had taken goods from the business for private consumption which amounted to Rs. 850. Prepare profit and loss account for the year ending 30-06-2005 and a balance sheet as on that date after charging depreciation @ 10% p.a. on the machinery.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs as at 1.7.04

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and profit and loss account for the year ended 30.06.05

Balance sheet as on 30.06.05

Question 3.
Shankar maintains his book of account on single entry system. Prepare his final accounts from the information supplied for the year ended 30.9.2008 as follows.
Cash transactions during the year.

Particulars of assets and liabilities are given below:

Additional information:

1. Credit sales for the year Rs. 18,100.
2. Discount allowed to Debtors Rs. 2,100.
3. Return outwards during the year Rs. 500.
4. Salaries outstanding on 30.9.2008 Rs. 3,000.
5. Provision for doubtful debts is to be created to the extent of Rs. 3,000.
6. 5% depreciation is to be provided on furniture and land & buildings.

Answer:
Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Cash Book

Statement of Affairs as at 01.10.2007

Trading and profit and loss A/c for the year ended 30.9.2008.

Balance sheet as on 30.09.2008

Question 4.
Mr. Giri does not keep his books under the double-entry system. The following are his assets and liabilities as on the opening and closing date of 2005.

His Cashbook for the year ended 31.12.05 as follows.

Discount allowed to debtors is Rs. 1,600 and discount allowed by creditors is Rs. 1,300. Bad debts written off is Rs. 400. Provision for bad debts is required at 5%. Depreciation @ 10% is required on furniture. Interest accrued on investments amounts to Rs. 2,200. Prepare Trading and profit and loss A/c and Balance sheet for 2005.
Statement of Affairs as on 01.01.2005
Answer:

Bills Receivable A/c

Bills Payable A/c

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and Profit & Loss A/c for the year ended 31.12.2005

Balance sheet as on 31.12.2005

Question 5.
Mr. Binu keeps his books under single entry. From the following information, prepare profit and loss account for the year ended 31^st December 2004 and a balance sheet as on that date.
Cashbook

Other Information

Answer:
Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31.12.2004

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2004

Question 6.
Mrs. Bhavana keeps his books by Single Entry System. You’re required to prepare final accounts of her business for the year ended December 31, 2015. Her records relating to cash receipts and cash payments for the above period showed the following particulars.
Summary of Cash

The following information is also available

All her sales and purchases were on credit. Provide depreciation on plant and building by 10% and machinery by 5%. make a provision for bad debts by 5%.
Answer:
Debtor’s Account

Creditor’s Account

Statements of Affairs as on 31^st December 2015

Trading and Profit & Loss Account as on 31^st December 2015

Balance Sheet as on 31 December 2015

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 3 Chapter 3 Vishwam Deepamayam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Guide Unit 3 Chapter 3 Vishwam Deepamayam

Vishwam Deepamayam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download Decimal Forms Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Decimal Forms

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Decimal Forms Text Book Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 26

Question 1.
Write the fractions below in decimal form:

1. \(\frac{3}{20}\)
2. \(\frac{3}{40}\)
3. \(\frac{13}{40}\)
4. \(\frac{7}{80}\)
5. \(\frac{5}{16}\)

Answer:
1. \(\frac{3}{20}\)
= \(\frac{3×5}{20×5}\) = \(\frac{15}{100}\) = 0.15

2. 40 = 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
it is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{3}{10}\) = \(\frac{3x5x5}{40x4x5x}\) = \(\frac{75}{1000}\) = 0.75

3. 40 = 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{13}{40}\) = \(\frac{13x5x5}{20}\) = \(\frac{325}{1000}\) = 0.325

4. 80 = 2 x 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5 x 5
It is a multiple of 10.
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
\(\frac{7}{80}\) = \(\frac{7x5x5x5}{80x5x5x5}\) = \(\frac{875}{10000}\) = 0.0875

5. 16 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
Multiplied by 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
\(\frac{5}{16}\) = \(\frac{5x5x5x5x5}{16x5x5x5x5}\) = \(\frac{3125}{10000}\) = 0.3125

Question 2.
Find the decimal form of the sums below:

1. \(\frac{1}{80}\) + \(\frac{1}{25}\) + \(\frac{1}{125}\)
2. \(\frac{1}{5}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 2 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 3 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 4 } } \)
3. \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 2 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 3 } } \)

Answer:
1. \(\frac{1}{80}\) + \(\frac{1}{25}\) + \(\frac{1}{125}\)
Denominators of all the fractions should be 125
\(\frac{1×25}{5×25}\) + \(\frac{1×5}{25×5}\) + \(\frac{1×1}{125×1}\)
= \(\frac{25}{125}\) + \(\frac{5}{125}\) + \(\frac{1}{125}\) = \(\frac{31}{125}\)
125 = 5 x 5 x 5
Multiplied by 2 x 2 x 2
(5 x 2) x (5 x 2) x (5 x 2) = 1000
It is a power of 10
\(\frac{31}{125}\) = \(\frac{31x2x2x2}{125x2x2x2}\) = \(\frac{248}{1000}\) = 0.248

2. \(\frac{1}{5}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 2 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 3 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 4 } } \)
Denominators of all the fractions should be 5⁴

3. \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 2 } } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 3 } } \)
Denominators of all the fractions should be 2³

Question 3.
A two – digit number divided by an other two-digit number gives 5.875. What are the numbers?
Answer:
5875 = \(\frac{5875}{1000}\)
5875 = 5 x 5 x 5 x 47
1000 = 5 x 5 x 5 x 8

5.875 = \(\frac{5875}{1000}\) = \(\frac{5x5x5x47}{5x5x5x8}\) = \(\frac{47}{8}\)
But 8 is not a two digit number. So we multiplied both numerator and denominator by 2, we get
\(\frac{47}{8}\) = \(\frac{94}{16}\)
5.875 = \(\frac{94}{16}\)

Textbook Page No. 30

Question 1.
For each of the fractions below, find fractions with denominators powers of 10 gefting chaser and closer to it and hence write its decimal form:

1. \(\frac{2}{3}\)
2. \(\frac{5}{6}\)
3. \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Answer:
1. \(\frac{2}{3}\) = \(\frac{2×10}{3×10}\) = \(\frac{2}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{3}\) = \(\frac{2}{10}\) x (3 + \(\frac{1}{3}\))

The fraction \(\frac{6}{10}\), \(\frac{66}{100}\), \(\frac{666}{1000}\), ……… and so on get closer and closer to \(\frac{2}{3}\).
i.e., 0.6, 0.66, 0.666, …………..
\(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.666

2. \(\frac{5}{6}\) = \(\frac{5×10}{6×10}\) = \(\frac{5}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{6}\) = \(\frac{5}{10}\) x (1 + \(\frac{4}{6}\)

The fractions \(\frac{80}{100}\), \(\frac{830}{1000}\), \(\frac{8330}{5}\), ………. and so on get closer and closer to \(\frac{5}{6}\).
∴ \(\frac{5}{6}\) = 0.8333………

3. \(\frac{1}{9}\) = \(\frac{1×10}{9×10}\) = \(\frac{1}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{9}\)

The fractions \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{11}{100}\), \(\frac{111}{1000}\), ………… and so on get closer and closer to \(\frac{1}{9}\).
∴ \(\frac{1}{9}\) = 0.1111 ……

Question 2.

1. Using algebra, explain why \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{11}{100}\), \(\frac{1}{1000}\), ………… of any number get closer and closer to \(\frac{1}{9}\) of that number.
2. Use the general principle got above to single-digit numbers to find the decimal forms of \(\frac{2}{9}\), \(\frac{4}{9}\), \(\frac{5}{9}\), \(\frac{7}{9}\), \(\frac{8}{9}\).
3. What can we say in general about decimal forms with a single digit repeating?

Answer:
1. Let x be the number

The numbers \(\frac{x}{10}\), \(\frac{11x}{100}\), \(\frac{111x}{1000}\), ……… comes closer and closer to \(\frac{x}{9}\).
So the fraction \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{11}{100}\), \(\frac{111}{1000}\), ……. comes closer and closer to \(\frac{1}{9}\).

2. a.
\(\frac{1}{10}\) part of a number comes closer to its \(\frac{1}{9}\)

b. \(\frac{1}{10}\) part of a number comes closer to its \(\frac{1}{9}\)

c. \(\frac{1}{10}\) part of a number comes closer to its \(\frac{1}{9}\)

d. Since \(\frac{1}{9}\) is closes to \(\frac{1}{10}\)

e. Since \(\frac{1}{9}\) is closes to \(\frac{1}{10}\)

3. The denominator of a fraction is 9 or multiple of 9 then its decimal froms is always a single digit repetition of their own numerator.

Question 3.

1. Find the decimal form of \(\frac{1}{11}\).
2. Find the decimal forms of \(\frac{2}{11}\), \(\frac{3}{11}\)
3. What is the decimal form of \(\frac{10}{11}\)?

Answer:
1. \(\frac{1}{11}\) = \(\frac{1×10}{11×10}\) = \(\frac{1}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{11}\)

Continuing like this,
= 0.090909

2. a. \(\frac{2}{11}\) = \(\frac{2×10}{11×10}\) + \(\frac{2}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{11}\)

Continuing like this,
\(\frac{2}{11}\) = 0.18181818 …….

b. \(\frac{3}{11}\) = \(\frac{3×10}{11×10}\) = \(\frac{3}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{11}\)

Continuing like this
\(\frac{3}{11}\) = 0.272727…..

3. \(\frac{10}{11}\) = \(\frac{10×10}{11×10}\) = \(\frac{10}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{11}\)

Continuing like this
\(\frac{10}{11}\) = 0.90909……….

Question 4.
Write the results of the operations below as decimals:

1. 0.111…. + 0.222 …….
2. 0.333…. + 0.777 …..
3. 0.333…. x 0.666…
4. (0.333….)²
5. \(\sqrt { 0.444…… } \)

Answer:
1. 0.111 = \(\frac{1}{9}\)
0.222…. = \(\frac{2}{9}\)
0.111 …. + 0.2222 …….. = \(\frac{1}{9}\) + \(\frac{2}{9}\) = \(\frac{3}{9}\)
= 0.3333

2. 0.3333 = \(\frac{3}{9}\)
0.7777…. = \(\frac{7}{9}\)
0.3333 ……. + 0.7777…. = \(\frac{1}{9}\) = \(\frac{2}{9}\) = \(\frac{3}{9}\)
= 1.1111……….

3. 0.3333 = \(\frac{3}{9}\)
0.6666…. = \(\frac{6}{9}\)
0.3333….. x 0.6666…… = \(\frac{3}{9}\) x \(\frac{6}{9}\)
= \(\frac{18}{81}\) = \(\frac{2}{9}\) = 0.2222……..

4. 0.3333 …….. = \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(0.3333)² ….. = (\(\frac{3}{9}\))²
= \(\frac{3×3}{9×9}\) = \(\frac{1}{9}\) = 0.1111…………

5. 0.4444 ….. = \(\frac{4}{9}\)

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Decimal Forms Exam Oriented Question and Answers

Question 1.
Write the deciamal form of \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{6}\) = 0.1666…….

Question 2.
Write in deciamals

1. \(\frac{1}{9}\)
2. \(\frac{2}{9}\)
3. \(\frac{1}{7}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{11}\)
5. \(\frac{2}{11}\)
6. \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Answer:

1. 0.111……
2. 0.222………
3. 0.14285…..
4. 0.090909…..
5. 0.181818….
6. 0.08333……

Question 3.
Find the fraction of denominator is a power of 10 equal to each of the fractions below, and then write their decimal forms:
i. \(\frac{1}{50}\)
ii. \(\frac{3}{40}\)
iii.\(\frac{5}{16}\)
iv. \(\frac{12}{625}\)
Answer:

Question 4.
Find the fraction of denominator is a power of 10 getting closer and closer to each of the fractions be low, and then write their decimal forms.

1. \(\frac{5}{6}\)
2. \(\frac{3}{11}\)
3. \(\frac{23}{11}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{13}\)

Answer:
1. \(\frac{5}{6}\) = \(\frac{5}{10}\) x \(\frac{10}{6}\) = \(\frac{1}{10}\)(\(\frac{50}{6}\))

2. \(\frac{3}{11}\) = \(\frac{3}{100}\) x \(\frac{100}{11}\) = \(\frac{3}{100}\)(9 + \(\frac{1}{11}\))

3. \(\frac{23}{11}\) = \(\frac{23}{100}\) x \(\frac{100}{11}\)

4. \(\frac{1}{13}\) = \(\frac{1}{100}\) x \(\frac{100}{13}\)

Question 5.

1. Explain using algebra, that the fractions \(\frac{1}{10}\), \(\frac{11}{100}\), \(\frac{111}{1000}\)… gets closer and closer to \(\frac{1}{9}\)
2. Using the general principle above on single digit numbers, find the decimal forms of \(\frac{2}{9}\), \(\frac{4}{9}\), \(\frac{5}{9}\), \(\frac{7}{9}\), \(\frac{8}{9}\) (Why \(\frac{3}{9}\) and \(\frac{6}{9}\) left out in this?)
3. What can we say in general about those decimal forms In which a single digit repeats?

Answer:
1. Let x be the number

2. \(\frac{2}{9}\) – \(\frac{2}{10}\) = \(\frac{2}{90}\)

(\(\frac{3}{9}\), \(\frac{6}{9}\) These fractions having common factor in the numerator and the denominator)

3. Repeated deciamals.

Question 6.

1. Find the decimal form of \(\frac{1}{4}\).
2. Write the decimal form of \(\frac{7}{10}\) + \(\frac{3}{100}\) + \(\frac{4}{1000}\).

Answer:
1. \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 0.25

2. \(\frac{7}{10}\) = 0.7
\(\frac{3}{100}\) = 0.03
\(\frac{4}{1000}\) = 0.004
\(\frac{7}{10}\) + \(\frac{3}{100}\) + \(\frac{4}{1000}\)
= 0.7 + 0.03 + 0.004
= 0.734

Question 7.

1. Write the decimal forms of \(\frac{1}{3}\) and \(\frac{1}{9}\).
2. What is the decimal form of (0.3333…..)²?

Answer:
1. \(\frac{1}{3}\) = 0.3333…..
\(\frac{1}{9}\) = 0.1111……

2. (0.3333…..)² = (\(\frac{1}{3}\))² = \(\frac{1}{9}\) = 0.1111….

Question 8.
Write the decimal forms of \(\frac{3}{25}\) and \(\frac{1}{8}\).
Answer:

Question 9.
a. Write the decimal form of the fractions and \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{2}{5}\).
b. 1f f is a fraction between and \(\frac{2}{5}\) What is k?
c. Write the decimal form of the fraction \(\frac{4}{k}\).
Answer:

If \(\frac{4}{k}\) is between \(\frac{1}{2}\) and \(\frac{2}{5}\), then \(\frac{4}{k}\) is between \(\frac{4}{8}\) and \(\frac{4}{10}\). Then the number is \(\frac{4}{9}\).
∴ k = 9

c. \(\frac{4}{9}\) = 0.4444…….