Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 7 Wave Motion in Malayalam

Students can Download Physics Part 2 Chapter 3 Wave Motion Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 3 Vishwam Deepamayam

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 3 Chapter 3 Vishwam Deepamayam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Population, Migration, Settlements

You can Download Population, Migration, Settlements Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Population, Migration, Settlements

Population, Migration, Settlements Textual Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List the areas that require analysis of population-related information.

• For planning the food grain production.
• To generate employment opportunities.
• To formulate welfare schemes

Question 2.
What is meant by density of population?
The average population of every square kilometre is called as density of population.

Question 3.
Complete the flow chart

Question 4.
Name the most densely populated state in India.
Bihar

Question 5.
Examine the factors influencing the density of population.
The high density of population in certain places is mainly due to factors like level topography, moderate climate, fertile soil favoring agriculture are availability of fresh water, etc. Other than these, the increasing employment opportunities in the mineral-rich and industrial regions and also the attractive infrastructure and services provided by urban areas also cause high density of population in such regions. Now you might have understood the cause for imbalance in population density and also the significant influence of geographical factors on the same.

Question 6.
Define population growth!
Population growth in the change in population of any particular place over a particular period.

Question 7.
The decadal growth rate of population in India during 2001 – 2011 is ……….
a) 16.7%
b) 17.7%
c) 18.3%
d) 20.6%
17 – 7%

Question 8.
Point out the factors causing change in population.

• Birth rate
• Death rate
• Migration

Question 9.
Define Migration.
Permanent or temporary shifting of residence of people from one place to another is called migration.

Question 10.
Prepare a flow chart showing different levels of migration.

Question 11.
Distinguish between immigration and emigration.
Migration across international boundaries is called international migration. The inward movement of people to a country is called immigration and the outward migration of people from one country to another is called emigration.

Question 12.
Find out the pull factors of migration

• Employment opportunities
• Higher education facilities
• Better living standards

Question 13.
Find out the other push factors causing migrations.

• Resource scarcity
• Unemployment
• Political unrest
• Natural calamities
• Internal conflicts
• Policy changes of governments
• War and similar unrest

Question 14.
Name 2 types of settlements

1. Nucleated settlements
2. Dispersed settlements

Question 15.
Arrange the table

 A B Town More than 10 lakh City Above 50 lakh Metropolis Between 1 lakh and 10 lakh Megacity Less than 1 lakh

 A B Town Less than 1 lakh City Between 1 lakh and 10 lakh Metropolis More than 10 lakh Megacity Above 50 lakh

Question16.
What are the major problems faced by urban centers?

• Slums
• Traffic problems
• Pollution

Question 17.
Based on the data collected from the 2011 census, answer the following questions.
i) What is the population of India?
ii) What is the density of population?
iii) Which Indian state has the highest density of population?
iv) What is the decadal growth rate of population?
v) What is the male-female ratio?
vi) Which state has least populated in the country?
vii) What is the anticipated population in 2028?
i) 121.06 crores
ii) 382/sq.km
iv) 17.7%
v) 943
vi) Sikkim (6.07 lakhs)
vii) By 2028 India will become the most popular country in the world.

Question 18.
What is meant by population?
The total number of people living in a definite area is called population.

Question 19.
The people of the nation is the real wealth of a nation.’ Write an explanation of this.
A country is known outside through the people of that country. It is the people who decide the policy of the country and citizens the natural resources. Hence human resources is the real wealth of a nation.

Question 20.
Is uncontrolled population growth is good for the development of the nation?
A nation is known through its people because the resources are properly utilized and the policies are decided by them. Hence human resources is the real wealth of a nation. So we can say that increase in population is favorable for the nation.

Question 21.
Observe the map showing the distribution of population and answer the question.
i) Which are the states that have high population?
ii) Which are the states that have least population?
ii) Sikkim, Manipur, Meghalaya,Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal.

Question 22.
Observe the map showing the distribution of population and answer the following questions.
i) Density of population is very high in the northern plains. Explain.
ii) In Peninsular plateau the density of population is moderate. Explain.
ii) How was the density of population in the mountain states? Explain.
i) Along the northern plains, the density of population is very high because of the fertility of the soil, road and rail network, etc.
ii) Lack of fertility of the soil and the difficulty in reaching the places are the reasons. At the same time presence of mineral resources have helped the concentration of population in some areas.
iii) In the mountain states, the population is very less due to difficult terrains and the soil is not suitable for cultivation.

Question 23.
How is density of population calculated?
density of popuation = $$\frac{\text { Total Population }}{\text { Land Area }}$$

Question 24.
Even though Ghina is the most populated country, the density of population is less than India. Give the reasons for this.
Density of population is calculated based on the land area. Hence land area is more in China, the density of population is less.

Question 25.
Complete the following table analyzing the density of population.

 Density of population Classification States Less than 100 Very low population density Between 101 & 250 Less density Between 251 & 500 Moderate density Between 501 & 1000 High density Above 1000 Very high

Question 26.
Analyze the factors influencing the density of population of a region and prepare a note.
Level of topography, moderate climate, fertile soil favoring agriculture and availability of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for the concentration of population in certain regions. Other than there increasing employment opportunities in the mineral-rich and industrial regions and also the attractive infrastructure and services provided by urban areas also cause high density of population in some regions.

Question 27.
What is meant by population growth? What is the decaded population growth rate in India?
Increase in the number of people living in a particular area during a definite period of time is called population growth. It is generally calculated in percentages. The decaded growth rate of population in India is 17.7%.

Question 28.
Explain positive and negative population growth.
When there is an increase in population, it is called positive growth of population. There are situations where the population of a place declines. This is termed as negative growth of population.

Question 29.
What are the factors that influence the change in population? How do these factors bring change to population?
Birth rate, death rate and migration. As birth rate increases, the population increases and when the death rate increases the population decreases. Migration lead to decrease in population at one place and increases in another place.

Question 30.
International migration has two aspects. Explain them.
Migration from one country to another country is called international migration. The inward movement of the people is called immigration and the outward movement is called emigration.

Question 31.
There are three international airports in Kerala. What might be the reason for so many airports in this small state?
There is a large-scale international migration from Kerala to the Gulf countries and to Europe. This is the reason why there is an increased number of international airports in Kerala.

Question 32.
Prepare a note analyzing the international migration in India.
Migration within the country are called international migrations and are done mainly for employment opportunities. People tend to migrate to places within the country for better employment and wage.

Question 33.
What may be the cause for the large-scale migration of people to Kerala?
Better employment opportunities and wages are the reasons for the migration of north Indian laborers to Kerala.

Question 34.
Prepare a note elucidating internal migration.
Migration within the country from one state to another state is called interstate migration. When people migrate from within the state is called intrastate migration. Migration from one district to another district is called interdistrict migration. This type of migration are of four types.

1. From village to another village
2. Fromtpwnto another town
3. From village to town
4. From town to village

Question 35.
Employment opportunity is an important reason for migration. Prepare a note substantiating this statement.
Thousands of people have migrated from our country to another country in search of employment opportunities. Employment opportunities in the. developed nations is an important reason. For example, there was a surge in migration to the west Asian countries with petroleum mining.

Question 36.
Other than employment opportunities what are the other factors of migration?
Better educational facilities, better living conditions, availability of resources, business opportunities, opportunities in the tourism sector and favorable climate.

Question 37.
What are the factors behind forced migration?
Scarcity of resources, unemployment, political anarchy, natural calamities, slavery, war, poverty, and hostile climate.

Question 38.
Prepare a comparative note about voluntary migration and forced migration.
The migration of people due to some attractive factors are called voluntary migration. Migration due to adverse circumstances are called forced migration.

Question 39.
Migration may cause crucial changes in the social, cultural and economic sectors of both source regions and destination of the migrants.

• Helps in the sharing of human resources
• Helps in the flow of foreign currency to the parent country.
• Leads to overpopulation in certain regions.
• Causes scarcity of resources.
• Facilitates exchange of technology
• Creates more employment opportunities.
• Weakens social ties among the people.
• Causes the formation of the slums.
• Causes spread of communicable diseases.
• Gets opportunities for higher education.
• Causes imbalance in the sex ratio
• Country loses the service of the educated and the youth
• Results in the exploitation of resources.
• Increases the intensity of environmental pollution

Question 40.
A few major migrations are mentioned in the table. Put a tick (✓) mark in the appropriate column by identifying the types of migration you have familiarized.

Question 41.
What is known as settlements?
The clusters of permanent or temporary human habitats of different sizes are termed as settlements.

Question 42.
List down the factors influencing the settlements.
Favorable climate, availability of water, transport & communication facilities and job opportunities.

Question 43.
Differentiate nucleated settlements and dispersed settlements.
ln places where houses are seen in close vicinity are called nucleated settlements. The settlements where houses are located farther apart are called dispersed settlements.

Question 44.
Based on the favorable factors such as accessibility availability of water etc. nucleated settlements take different shapes. Elucidate.
Linear Pattern: Settlement pattern that develops parallel to features such as roads, rivers, coastlines, etc.
Circular Pattern: Settlement pattern that develops around features such as water bodies, pastures, places of worship, etc.
Star Pattern: Settlement pattern that develops at places where different road coverage.

Question 45.
What are urban settlements?
The settlements that generally have a high population which is mostly dependent on non-agricultural sectors are called urban settlements.

Question 46.
What is urbanization?
The transition of population from rural agrarian economy to urban industrial and service sector economy is termed as urbanization.

Question 47.
Based on what entries is a place classified as urban in India?

• Population above 5,000
• Density of population above 400 per sq.km
• 75% or more of the population should be engaged in non-agricultures activities.

Question 48.
List down some problems due to migration from rural areas to urban areas.
Slums, traffic problems and pollution

Question 49.
Write any two solutions for problems created due to urbanization.
Town planning, rehabilitation, waste management, and awareness programmes.,

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Decimal Forms

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Decimal Forms Text Book Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 26

Question 1.
Write the fractions below in decimal form:

1. $$\frac{3}{20}$$
2. $$\frac{3}{40}$$
3. $$\frac{13}{40}$$
4. $$\frac{7}{80}$$
5. $$\frac{5}{16}$$

1. $$\frac{3}{20}$$
= $$\frac{3×5}{20×5}$$ = $$\frac{15}{100}$$ = 0.15

2. 40 = 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
it is a multiple of 10.
$$\frac{3}{10}$$ = $$\frac{3x5x5}{40x4x5x}$$ = $$\frac{75}{1000}$$ = 0.75

3. 40 = 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
$$\frac{13}{40}$$ = $$\frac{13x5x5}{20}$$ = $$\frac{325}{1000}$$ = 0.325

4. 80 = 2 x 2 x 2 x (2 x 5)
Multiplied by 5 x 5 x 5
It is a multiple of 10.
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
$$\frac{7}{80}$$ = $$\frac{7x5x5x5}{80x5x5x5}$$ = $$\frac{875}{10000}$$ = 0.0875

5. 16 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2
Multiplied by 5 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5
(2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) x (2 x 5) = 1000
It is a multiple of 10.
$$\frac{5}{16}$$ = $$\frac{5x5x5x5x5}{16x5x5x5x5}$$ = $$\frac{3125}{10000}$$ = 0.3125

Question 2.
Find the decimal form of the sums below:

1. $$\frac{1}{80}$$ + $$\frac{1}{25}$$ + $$\frac{1}{125}$$
2. $$\frac{1}{5}$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 2 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 3 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 4 } }$$
3. $$\frac{1}{2}$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 2 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 3 } }$$

1. $$\frac{1}{80}$$ + $$\frac{1}{25}$$ + $$\frac{1}{125}$$
Denominators of all the fractions should be 125
$$\frac{1×25}{5×25}$$ + $$\frac{1×5}{25×5}$$ + $$\frac{1×1}{125×1}$$
= $$\frac{25}{125}$$ + $$\frac{5}{125}$$ + $$\frac{1}{125}$$ = $$\frac{31}{125}$$
125 = 5 x 5 x 5
Multiplied by 2 x 2 x 2
(5 x 2) x (5 x 2) x (5 x 2) = 1000
It is a power of 10
$$\frac{31}{125}$$ = $$\frac{31x2x2x2}{125x2x2x2}$$ = $$\frac{248}{1000}$$ = 0.248

2. $$\frac{1}{5}$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 2 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 3 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 5 }^{ 4 } }$$
Denominators of all the fractions should be 54

3. $$\frac{1}{2}$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 2 } }$$ + $$\frac { 1 }{ { 2 }^{ 3 } }$$
Denominators of all the fractions should be 23

Question 3.
A two – digit number divided by an other two-digit number gives 5.875. What are the numbers?
5875 = $$\frac{5875}{1000}$$
5875 = 5 x 5 x 5 x 47
1000 = 5 x 5 x 5 x 8

5.875 = $$\frac{5875}{1000}$$ = $$\frac{5x5x5x47}{5x5x5x8}$$ = $$\frac{47}{8}$$
But 8 is not a two digit number. So we multiplied both numerator and denominator by 2, we get
$$\frac{47}{8}$$ = $$\frac{94}{16}$$
5.875 = $$\frac{94}{16}$$

Textbook Page No. 30

Question 1.
For each of the fractions below, find fractions with denominators powers of 10 gefting chaser and closer to it and hence write its decimal form:

1. $$\frac{2}{3}$$
2. $$\frac{5}{6}$$
3. $$\frac{1}{9}$$

1. $$\frac{2}{3}$$ = $$\frac{2×10}{3×10}$$ = $$\frac{2}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{3}$$ = $$\frac{2}{10}$$ x (3 + $$\frac{1}{3}$$)

The fraction $$\frac{6}{10}$$, $$\frac{66}{100}$$, $$\frac{666}{1000}$$, ……… and so on get closer and closer to $$\frac{2}{3}$$.
i.e., 0.6, 0.66, 0.666, …………..
$$\frac{1}{2}$$ = 0.666

2. $$\frac{5}{6}$$ = $$\frac{5×10}{6×10}$$ = $$\frac{5}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{6}$$ = $$\frac{5}{10}$$ x (1 + $$\frac{4}{6}$$

The fractions $$\frac{80}{100}$$, $$\frac{830}{1000}$$, $$\frac{8330}{5}$$, ………. and so on get closer and closer to $$\frac{5}{6}$$.
∴ $$\frac{5}{6}$$ = 0.8333………

3. $$\frac{1}{9}$$ = $$\frac{1×10}{9×10}$$ = $$\frac{1}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{9}$$

The fractions $$\frac{1}{10}$$, $$\frac{11}{100}$$, $$\frac{111}{1000}$$, ………… and so on get closer and closer to $$\frac{1}{9}$$.
∴ $$\frac{1}{9}$$ = 0.1111 ……

Question 2.

1. Using algebra, explain why $$\frac{1}{10}$$, $$\frac{11}{100}$$, $$\frac{1}{1000}$$, ………… of any number get closer and closer to $$\frac{1}{9}$$ of that number.
2. Use the general principle got above to single-digit numbers to find the decimal forms of $$\frac{2}{9}$$, $$\frac{4}{9}$$, $$\frac{5}{9}$$, $$\frac{7}{9}$$, $$\frac{8}{9}$$.
3. What can we say in general about decimal forms with a single digit repeating?

1. Let x be the number

The numbers $$\frac{x}{10}$$, $$\frac{11x}{100}$$, $$\frac{111x}{1000}$$, ……… comes closer and closer to $$\frac{x}{9}$$.
So the fraction $$\frac{1}{10}$$, $$\frac{11}{100}$$, $$\frac{111}{1000}$$, ……. comes closer and closer to $$\frac{1}{9}$$.

2. a.
$$\frac{1}{10}$$ part of a number comes closer to its $$\frac{1}{9}$$

b. $$\frac{1}{10}$$ part of a number comes closer to its $$\frac{1}{9}$$

c. $$\frac{1}{10}$$ part of a number comes closer to its $$\frac{1}{9}$$

d. Since $$\frac{1}{9}$$ is closes to $$\frac{1}{10}$$

e. Since $$\frac{1}{9}$$ is closes to $$\frac{1}{10}$$

3. The denominator of a fraction is 9 or multiple of 9 then its decimal froms is always a single digit repetition of their own numerator.

Question 3.

1. Find the decimal form of $$\frac{1}{11}$$.
2. Find the decimal forms of $$\frac{2}{11}$$, $$\frac{3}{11}$$
3. What is the decimal form of $$\frac{10}{11}$$?

1. $$\frac{1}{11}$$ = $$\frac{1×10}{11×10}$$ = $$\frac{1}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{11}$$

Continuing like this,
= 0.090909

2. a. $$\frac{2}{11}$$ = $$\frac{2×10}{11×10}$$ + $$\frac{2}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{11}$$

Continuing like this,
$$\frac{2}{11}$$ = 0.18181818 …….

b. $$\frac{3}{11}$$ = $$\frac{3×10}{11×10}$$ = $$\frac{3}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{11}$$

Continuing like this
$$\frac{3}{11}$$ = 0.272727…..

3. $$\frac{10}{11}$$ = $$\frac{10×10}{11×10}$$ = $$\frac{10}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{11}$$

Continuing like this
$$\frac{10}{11}$$ = 0.90909……….

Question 4.
Write the results of the operations below as decimals:

1. 0.111…. + 0.222 …….
2. 0.333…. + 0.777 …..
3. 0.333…. x 0.666…
4. (0.333….)2
5. $$\sqrt { 0.444…… }$$

1. 0.111 = $$\frac{1}{9}$$
0.222…. = $$\frac{2}{9}$$
0.111 …. + 0.2222 …….. = $$\frac{1}{9}$$ + $$\frac{2}{9}$$ = $$\frac{3}{9}$$
= 0.3333

2. 0.3333 = $$\frac{3}{9}$$
0.7777…. = $$\frac{7}{9}$$
0.3333 ……. + 0.7777…. = $$\frac{1}{9}$$ = $$\frac{2}{9}$$ = $$\frac{3}{9}$$
= 1.1111……….

3. 0.3333 = $$\frac{3}{9}$$
0.6666…. = $$\frac{6}{9}$$
0.3333….. x 0.6666…… = $$\frac{3}{9}$$ x $$\frac{6}{9}$$
= $$\frac{18}{81}$$ = $$\frac{2}{9}$$ = 0.2222……..

4. 0.3333 …….. = $$\frac{3}{9}$$
(0.3333)2 ….. = ($$\frac{3}{9}$$)2
= $$\frac{3×3}{9×9}$$ = $$\frac{1}{9}$$ = 0.1111…………

5. 0.4444 ….. = $$\frac{4}{9}$$

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Decimal Forms Exam Oriented Question and Answers

Question 1.
Write the deciamal form of $$\frac{1}{6}$$
$$\frac{1}{6}$$ = 0.1666…….

Question 2.
Write in deciamals

1. $$\frac{1}{9}$$
2. $$\frac{2}{9}$$
3. $$\frac{1}{7}$$
4. $$\frac{1}{11}$$
5. $$\frac{2}{11}$$
6. $$\frac{1}{12}$$

1. 0.111……
2. 0.222………
3. 0.14285…..
4. 0.090909…..
5. 0.181818….
6. 0.08333……

Question 3.
Find the fraction of denominator is a power of 10 equal to each of the fractions below, and then write their decimal forms:
i. $$\frac{1}{50}$$
ii. $$\frac{3}{40}$$
iii.$$\frac{5}{16}$$
iv. $$\frac{12}{625}$$

Question 4.
Find the fraction of denominator is a power of 10 getting closer and closer to each of the fractions be low, and then write their decimal forms.

1. $$\frac{5}{6}$$
2. $$\frac{3}{11}$$
3. $$\frac{23}{11}$$
4. $$\frac{1}{13}$$

1. $$\frac{5}{6}$$ = $$\frac{5}{10}$$ x $$\frac{10}{6}$$ = $$\frac{1}{10}$$($$\frac{50}{6}$$)

2. $$\frac{3}{11}$$ = $$\frac{3}{100}$$ x $$\frac{100}{11}$$ = $$\frac{3}{100}$$(9 + $$\frac{1}{11}$$)

3. $$\frac{23}{11}$$ = $$\frac{23}{100}$$ x $$\frac{100}{11}$$

4. $$\frac{1}{13}$$ = $$\frac{1}{100}$$ x $$\frac{100}{13}$$

Question 5.

1. Explain using algebra, that the fractions $$\frac{1}{10}$$, $$\frac{11}{100}$$, $$\frac{111}{1000}$$… gets closer and closer to $$\frac{1}{9}$$
2. Using the general principle above on single digit numbers, find the decimal forms of $$\frac{2}{9}$$, $$\frac{4}{9}$$, $$\frac{5}{9}$$, $$\frac{7}{9}$$, $$\frac{8}{9}$$ (Why $$\frac{3}{9}$$ and $$\frac{6}{9}$$ left out in this?)
3. What can we say in general about those decimal forms In which a single digit repeats?

1. Let x be the number

2. $$\frac{2}{9}$$ – $$\frac{2}{10}$$ = $$\frac{2}{90}$$

($$\frac{3}{9}$$, $$\frac{6}{9}$$ These fractions having common factor in the numerator and the denominator)

3. Repeated deciamals.

Question 6.

1. Find the decimal form of $$\frac{1}{4}$$.
2. Write the decimal form of $$\frac{7}{10}$$ + $$\frac{3}{100}$$ + $$\frac{4}{1000}$$.

1. $$\frac{1}{4}$$ = 0.25

2. $$\frac{7}{10}$$ = 0.7
$$\frac{3}{100}$$ = 0.03
$$\frac{4}{1000}$$ = 0.004
$$\frac{7}{10}$$ + $$\frac{3}{100}$$ + $$\frac{4}{1000}$$
= 0.7 + 0.03 + 0.004
= 0.734

Question 7.

1. Write the decimal forms of $$\frac{1}{3}$$ and $$\frac{1}{9}$$.
2. What is the decimal form of (0.3333…..)2?

1. $$\frac{1}{3}$$ = 0.3333…..
$$\frac{1}{9}$$ = 0.1111……

2. (0.3333…..)2 = ($$\frac{1}{3}$$)2 = $$\frac{1}{9}$$ = 0.1111….

Question 8.
Write the decimal forms of $$\frac{3}{25}$$ and $$\frac{1}{8}$$.

Question 9.
a. Write the decimal form of the fractions and $$\frac{1}{2}$$ and $$\frac{2}{5}$$.
b. 1f f is a fraction between and $$\frac{2}{5}$$ What is k?
c. Write the decimal form of the fraction $$\frac{4}{k}$$.

If $$\frac{4}{k}$$ is between $$\frac{1}{2}$$ and $$\frac{2}{5}$$, then $$\frac{4}{k}$$ is between $$\frac{4}{8}$$ and $$\frac{4}{10}$$. Then the number is $$\frac{4}{9}$$.
∴ k = 9

c. $$\frac{4}{9}$$ = 0.4444…….

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Current Electricity

You can Download Current Electricity Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State State Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 6 Current Electricity

Current Electricity Textual Questions and Answers

Activity -1

A positively charged electroscope is connected to the earth through a switch using a conductor.

Question 1.
What kind of charge is present in this electroscope?
Static

Question 2.
What happens to this charge when the switch is turned on?
Charge neutralizes

Question 3.
Will the flow of charge sustain in this arrangement?
The charge will not sustain in this arrangement

Activity – 2

A circuit with a cell, a bulb, and a switch is given in the figure.

Question 4.
Will the flow of electric current sustain in the circuit if it is switched on?
Yes, the flow of electric charge will sustain.

Question 5.
What difference is there in the flow of current in both circuits?
In the first circuit, there is a flow of charge for a short interval of time. There is a continuous flow of charge in the second.

Question 6.
Complete the table based on different situations as shown in figure.

 Situation Direction of flow/motion Ball falling down Downwards from a higher level to a lower level Flow of air From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure Flow of water From a higher level to lower level Flow of heat From a point having higher temperature to that having lower temperature

There should be a difference in energy levels between two points if any type of flow is to occur.

Activity-3

observe the figures

Question 7.
If the value is opened, in which one will there be a flow of water and rotation of the wheel?

Question 8.
Why?
It is due to the gravitational potential difference that there is a flow of water and consequent rotation of the wheel.

Activity-4

A bulb is connected to a switch, using a conductor.

Question 9.
Will the bulb glow if switched on? Why?
The bulb will not glow
There is no potential difference between P and Q. Hence there is no flow of current and the bulb does not flow.

Potential Difference and Current:
There should be a potential difference between two points of a conductor if there is to be flow of current between them. Current flows from a point of high electric potential to a point of low electric potential.

The unit of potential difference is volt (V). Voltameter is the device to measure this. If 1 joule of work is done to move one-coulomb charge from one point to another, then the potential difference between the points is 1 volt.

Activity – 5

The pump has been used in such a way that the some quantity of water that flows from A to B per second is returned to Afrom B in the same period of time.

Question 10.
Why is there a continuous flow of water when the value is opened?
Here, it is due to the working of the pump, which is an external source of power, that the potential difference was maintained and the flow of water was made possible continuously.

Source of emf

An external source is needed to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor and to maintain the flow of electric current through the conductor. That external source is called source of emf.
Eg: Generator, cell, battery, solar cell ………

Question 11.
Write down the energy change in each.
Generator: Mechanical energy → electrical energy
Cell (While discharging): Chemical energy → electrical energy
Battery (While discharging): Chemical energy → electrical energy
Solar cell: Solar energy → electrical energy

Question 12.
Complete the table

 Water circuit Pump Water wheel flow of water Value Electric circuit Cell bulb flow of electric charge Switch

A source of emf is essential to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor and to maintain the flow of current through the conductor.

Activity – 6

Make a circuit given in figure using a voltmeter a 12V, 3W bulb, a cell, and a switch operate it

Question 13.
How should-you connect a voltmeter in a circuit?
The voltmeter should be connected across the points (parallel) where the potential difference is to be mea¬sured.

Question 14.
In what mode are the cells connected within the remote control of a TV?
In series mode

Question 15.
If 4 cells of 1.5 V each are connected in series what is the total voltage?
4 × 1.5 = 6V

Question 16.
How can you connect four cells of 1.5V each to get 3V? What is the advantage of doing so?

If connected in this mode, we get electric current for a long time without variation in voltage.
Combination of cells:
A battery is a combination of two or more cells connected in a suitable manner. Cells can be connected in two ways.
1. Series connection

This is the method of connecting cells one after the other in such a way that the positive of one cell is connected to the negative of another cell.
Salient features:

• The total emf is the sum of the emf of all the cells.
• The current passing through each cell is the same.
• The internal resistance developed in the circuit by the battery increases.
• The current in the external circuit increases under high voltage.

2. Parallel connection

This is the method of connecting similar potes together.
Salient features:

• If all the cells have equal emf then the emf of the circuit is the same as that of a single cell.
• The total current flowing in the circuit splits up and flows through each cell.
• The internal resistance of the circuit is very low.
• More current can be made available for a longer time under low voltage.

Electric Current:
Electric current is the flow of electric charges. Current is the quantity of charge that flows through a conductor in a circuit in one second.

Question 17.
If 10 coulomb charge flows in a circuit in 5s, how much is the charge flowing in the circuit in one second?
Charge, Q = 10C
Time,t = 5s
Charge flowing in one second = $$\frac { 10 }{ 5 }$$ = 2 C/s

Question 18.
If a charge of Q coulomb flows in a time t second, then how much is the quality of charge that flows in one second?
Current (I) = $$\frac{\text { Quantity of charge }}{\text { Time taken }}$$
i.e I = Q/t

Question 19.
What is the unit of current?
Unit of current = $$\frac{\text { Unit of charge }}{\text { Unit of time }}$$
= C/s OR A

Activity -1

Make a circuit containing an ammeter, switch, cell and a bulb connected in series.

Repeat the experiment by increasing the number of cells in series.

Question 20.
What change occurred in the ammeter reading when the number of cells was increased?

Question 21.
What about the intensity of light from the bulb?
Intensity of light increases

Question 22.
How are the current and the intensity of light related to each other?
As current in circuit increases, intensity of light increases.

Question 23.
What is the current in a conductor if 2 C charge flows in 10s?
$$\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}}=\frac{2 \mathrm{c}}{10 \mathrm{s}}=0.2 \mathrm{C} / \mathrm{s}$$
= 0.2 A

Ammeter

Ammeter is a device used to measure the current in a circuit. The positive terminal of it must be con¬nected directly to the positive of the cell and the negative terminal, to the negative of the cell. Ammeter should be connected in series in the circuit The needle of the device moves in accordance with the current in the circuit We can measure the current by checking the position of the needle. Unit of current is ampere (A), it is also written as C/s. mA(milliampere) and µA(microampere) are smaller units of current The symbol of ammeter is

Ohm’S Law

Make a circuit by including a nichrome wire (30cm), cell, switch, ammeter, and voltmeter.
Measure current (I) and potential difference (V). Repeat the activity by increasing the number of cells in series.

Analyze the table and record the findings

Question 24.
What change occurred in the circuit when there was a change in voltage?
As voltage increases, current increases.

Question 25.
Do you see any peculiarity in the value of V/l? v
V/I will be a constant
V ∝ I
V = a constant × I
V/I = a constant
This constant is the resistance of the conductor. This is indicated by the letter R.
∴R = V/I
Ohm’s law:
When temperature remains constant, the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between its ends. In other words, the ratio of potential difference to the current is a constant.
Resistors are conductors used to include a particular resistance in a circuit its symbol is

Question 26.
On the basis of the information gathered from Table 6.5, draw a V-l graph, Mark I in the X – axis and V in the Y – axis.

Question 27.
Is the graph a straight line?
Yes, the graph is a

Question 28.
What is the unit of resistance?
Unit of resistance = $$=\frac{\text { Unit of voltage }}{\text { Unit of Current }}$$
$$\frac{\text { Volt }}{\text { Ampere }}$$ or ohm (Ω )

Question 29.
1 Ω = 1V/1A From this what do you mean by 1 ohm?
If the potential difference between the ends of a conductor is 1V when a current of 1A flows through it, then the resistance of the conductor is 1Ω.

When the potential difference between the ends of conductor is 1 Vand if a current of 1A flows through it, then the resistance of the conductor is 1Ω.
Using the given figure, from equation representing Ohm’s Law.

Question 30.
Complete the following table based on Ohm’s Law

 Voltage (Volt V) Current (1)  ampere (A) Resistance (R)  ohm(Q) 12 …………………. 4 ………………….. 2 3 6 3 …………………..

 Voltage (Volt V) Current (I) ampere (A) Resistance (R) ohm(Q) 12 …… 3 …… 4 …… 6 ….. 2 3 6 3 ……. 2 ……..

Resistors

Arrange a circuit as shown in the figure

Among the conductors fixed on the wooden plank, PA is iron, PB is aluminum, PC, PD and PE are nichrome. Their lengths are the same. PE has double the length. The thickness of PD is double that of the others. Touch the free end J at A, B, C, D and record in the table the ammeter reading at each distance.

Question 31.
Is the intensity of light from the bulb the same in each situation?
No

Question 32.
Is the ammeter reading the same when different conductors of the same length and thickness were included?
No. The ammeter reading was not the same

Question 33.
What change has occurred in the ammeter reading when the area of cross-section of the same conductor is altered?
When the area of cross-section increases ammeter reading also increases.

Question 34.
Is there a change in the ammeter reading when the length of the same conductor is altered? Record,
Ammeter reading decreases with increase in length.

Question 35.
Is the applied potential difference the same in all cases?
Yes. The potential difference applied is the same.

Question 36.
According to Ohm’s Law, V/I must be a constant (resistance, R). If so, what is the reason for the changes in the ammeter readings?
The reason for the change in the ammeter reading is the variation of resistance of the conductors included in the circuit.

Activity -1

Connect a 6V bulb to a 6V source. Using a multimeter, measure the resistance of the bulb when the circuit is switched off. Switch on the bulb for a short time, then switch it off and immediately measure its resistance.

Question 37.
Is the resistance the same in both the situations?
No

Question 38.
When the circuit was switched on, was the temperature of the bulb low or high?
High

Question 39.
Did the resistance increase or decrease when the temperature was increased?
Resistance increased when the temperature was increased.

Question 40.
List the factors affecting the resistance of a conductor?

• Area of cross-section
• Nature of the material
• Length
• Temperature

Activity-2

In the activity conducted above, touch the free end J at E and slowly slide it from E to P

Question 41.
What change occurred in the intensity of light from the bulb?

Question 42.
What may be the reason behind the change?
As the length of the conductor decreases, resistance and current increases.

Question 43.
What is the working principle of a rheostat?
If the potential difference is constant, then the current is inversely proportional to the resistance. For a conductor of uniform area of cross-section, the length of a conductor and the resistance are directly proportional.

Rheostat is a device used to regulate the current in a circuit by changing the resistance

Question 44.
What is the symbol of a rheostat?

Question 45.
Given below is a table related to the resistance of a conductor. Complete the table suitably.

Question 46.
Analysis the completed table and write down the inferences.
The resistance of a conductor increases with the increases in the length of the conductor.
R α l
The resistance of a conductor decreases with increases in the area of cross-section.
R α I/A that is R α I/A
R = a constant × l/A
R = $$\rho \frac{1}{\mathrm{A}}$$
$$\rho$$ = RA/l
P is the resistivity of the material the conductor is made of. The length of a conductor of resistance R Q is 1m and its area of cross-section is 1m2. Calculate the resistivity of the material the conductor is made of. length, l= 1m
Area of cross-section, A = 1m2
Resistivity $$\rho=\frac{R A}{1}=\frac{R \times 1}{1} \quad \rho=R$$
Resistivity of a substance is the resistance of the conductor of unit length and unit area of cross-section. The resistivity of a substance is a constant at fixed temperature. But it will be different for different materials.
Unit of resistivity =

The Unit of resistivity is Qm
Let’s get acquainted with some of the tools related to electric current:
We use many electric devices in our everyday life. Different tools are needed to connect these devices with the electric line and to perform maintenance. They are enlisted here.

Screwdriver

it helps in fixing and removing the screws Screwdrivers are available in different sizes It is used to combine a wide range of screws with +,* shaped edges.

Electric tester

It is used to check whether current is coming into the sockets or other devices in the houses Some of these can be used as screwdriver. The bulb in¬side the tester will glow if there is presence of current.

Wire stripper

It is used to remove insulation of wires while combining insulated electric wires or when they are to be connected to the devices

Pliers

It is used to join wires by twisting them together or for cutting or removing wires. Pliers are available in different shapes and sizes

Gloves

While doing the work related to electric power, gloves are worn in the hand as a protection from electric shock.

Multimeter

It is used to measure current, voltage, and resistance in a circuit and to understand whether the circuit is open, closed or any connection is left. Besides, it also helps to check whether the various elements in an electronic circuit are functioning properly.

Clamp ammeter

It helps to measure the current in a circuit without connecting wires or devices in the circuit.

Insulation tape

When connecting the wires or connecting it with a device, this is used to provide insulation in those parts where it has been damaged.

Spanner

It is used for fixing nut and bolt. They are available in different sizes.

Soldering iron

It is used to solder electronic components in a circuit

Hammer

It is used for fixing and removing nails.

Drill machine

It is used to drill holes on hard surfaces. It can be used to fix and remove screws as well.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
complete the table properly

Question 2.
Given below are the diagrams showing the connection of ammeter and voltmeter in a circuit. Of these, which are correct?

Question 3.
Complete the table. The conductor is made of the same material.

 Length of conductor Area of cross-section of conductor Resistance of the conductor 1 cm 2 cm2 10 Q 2 cm 2cm2 20 Q 1 cm 4cm2 5Q

Question 4.
In an electrical circuit if 100 J work is done to move 10 C electric charge from point A to the point B, find out the potential difference between the points A& B.
100/10 = 10V

Question 5.
6 electric cells are connected in series in an elec¬tronic device which works at 9 V potential difference. Find out emf of one cell.
9/6 = 1.5V

Question 6.
An ammeter that connects to an electronic circuit shows a reading of 2A. Find how many charges flows through the ammeter in 10 s.
Q = I x t = 2 x 10 = 20 coulomb

Question 7.
When a conductor is stretched, its length becomes double. Find out how many times the resistance changes.
4 times.

Question 8.

In the given graphs which is the graph depicting Ohm’s Law? Justify your answer.
(a) v ∝ I, As V increases, I also increase.

Question 9.
A conductor of 5 Q resistance has length 2m and area of cross-section 2 m2. If so, find out the resistivity of the material of the conductor.

Question 10.
Draw a circuit diagram describing how 6 torch cells should be connected to a bulb and a switch to obtain effective voltage of 9 V.

Current Electricity More Questions

Question 1.
The resistance of a 10cm long wire is 120. If this is folded into two parts of equal length and included in a circuit, how much will be the resistance produced?
When folded into two parts, length is halved and area of cross-section is doubled. Due to the decrease in length, resistance is halved. Also due to the decrease in area of cross-section, resistance is again halved.

So effective resistance R = $$12 \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}=3 \Omega$$

Question 2.
Of the following, which one correctly indicates Ohm’s Law?

The second one

Question 3.
A potential difference of 6V is applied across a conductor having 12Ω resistance. How much current will pass through it?
How many times will the current increase if length of the resistor is halved and potential difference is doubled?
I = $$\frac { V }{ R }$$ = $$\frac { 6 }{ 12 }$$ = 0.5A
If length is halved R = 12 × 1/2 = 6
potential difference V = 2 × 6 = 10V
I = $$\frac { V }{ R }$$ = $$\frac { 12 }{ 6 }$$ = 2A
That is I is increased by 4 times.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 7 Kerala: From Eighth to Eighteenth Century

You can Download Kerala: From Eighth to Eighteenth-Century Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 7 Kerala: From Eighth to Eighteenth Century

Kerala: From Eighth to Eighteenth-Century Textual Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The chief of Kudi was …………..
Kudipathi

Question 2.
Prepare a note on Perumal rule and its characteristics.
The Nadus were under the Perumalswho ruled Kerala with their capital at Mahodayapuram (present Kodungaloor). All the 14 nadus from Kolathunadu in the north to the Venad in the south accepted the rule of the Perumal’s. It was during this period that a centralized rule came into being in Kerala for the first time. Rulers from Rajasekharan to Ramakulasekharan ruled during 800 -1122 CE with Mahodayapuram as their capital. Let us examine the characteristics of the rule of the Perumal’s.

• In the matters of administration, the Perumals were assisted by Naluthali, the council of Brahmins.
• Perumal’s had a militia called Ayiram (Thousand).
• Perumal’s levied taxes from the Nadus, Nagaras (Towns), Brahmin Gramas, Temples, etc.

Question 3.

Question 4.
Analyze the political history of Kerala from the eighth to the eighteenth century.
Until the 18th century, the Naduvazhi Swaroopams continued without much change. By the second half of the 18th century is Sultans of Mysore, Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan led military campaigns which created frenzy among the Naduvahis of northern Kerala. Nediyiruppu, Kola and other smaller Swaroopams quickly came under the Mysore Sultans. Fearing the attack from Mysore Sultans many Naduvazhis and Desavazhis fled to Venado. The Perumpadappu Swaroopam of Kochi soon accepted the suzerainty of the Mysore Sultans. Only Travancore resisted the attacks.

It was during this period that Kerala was divided into three regions namely Travancore, Kochi, and Malabar. By the close of the 18th century, the East India Company defeated Tipu Sultan. As a result of this, the Malabar region which was under Tipu Sultan came completely under the British rule. With this, the independent rule of the Naduvazhis of Malabar came to an end. Travancore and Kochi continued to be princely states.

Question 5.
Which were the 3 types of lands based on ownership rights?

1. Cherikkal,
2. Brahmswam
3. Devaswam

Question 6.
Match the following

 A B Cherikkal Temples Brahmswam Brahmins Devaswam Naduvazhis

 A B Cherikkal Naduvazhis Brahmswam Brahmins Devaswam Temples

Question 7.
Prepare a note on the system of tax developed by Mysore sultans.
The system of tax, the Mysore Sultans had developed was based on the total production from the land, of which a share was fixed to be collected as tax. Later the British conducted a land survey, divided the land in terms of acres and cents, and allotted them survey numbers. Similar land surveys were conducted in Kochi and Travancore. In Kochi, it was known as Kettezhuthu and in Travancore, Kandezhuthu. Accordingly, tax was fixed on the assessed land.

Question 8.
Identify different occupational groups during the medieval period.

• People engaged in agriculture and the making of agricultural equipment.
• People involved in handicrafts and the making of metal types of equipment.
• People involved in weaving and oil production.
• People involved in temple rituals.
• Officials connected to the Naduvazhi Swaroopams.

Question 9.
Discuss how the caste system formed in Kerala.
The descendants of those who were engaged in a particular occupation followed the same occupation. People engaged in the same occupation evolved into one caste. The Adiyalars who used to farm during the medieval times occupied the lowest rung in the caste hierarchy whereas the Brahmins were at the top.

Based on the family occupation, all other castes came in between these two categories. On the basis of the caste, the concept of purity and impurity sprang up.
By the beginning of the 19th century, the population of Malabar, Kochi, and Travancore were officially categorized on the basis of caste. Subsequently, caste came to be decided on the basis of birth irrespective of the occupation.

Question 10.
Which were the major trade centers in Kerala during the Medieval period?

• Kodungalloor
• Kozhikode

Question 11.
Examine different kinds of trade prevailed in the medieval period.
Chanthas and Angadies were major regional trade centers. Commodities used daily such as paddy, rice, vegetables, betal nut, salt, fish, etc, were the major items exchanged.
Long-distance trade was mainly with Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Orrisa. Tamil Brahmins and Chettis were the main traders. Rice, Chilli, Cotton, other cloth materials, silk, and horses were brought to Kerala. Black pepper and other spices were taken from here.
The arabs, Chinese, Europeans, etc. were the main foreign traders. Black pepper, ginger, cardamom, cinnamon, other spices, coconut, etc. were taken from here. Gold, copper, silver, china clay pottery, silk, etc. were brought to Kerala.

Question 12.
What do you mean by salais?
The centres where the vedas were taught in the medieval Kerala were known as ‘Salas’

Question 13.
By 14th Century, books were written in
Manipravalam

Question 14.
List the literary works of the missionaries.

• Samkshepavedartham
• Puthan Pana by Arnos Pathiri
• Varthamanapusthakam of Paremakkal Thoma Kathanar.

Questions 15.
Prepare a note on the administrative system of medieval Kerala.
During the period of Perumals, a centralized rule came into being in Kerala. By the 12th century, the Perumal rule came to an end. The Nadus became independent. The positions of power that developed in the Nadus were known as Naduvazhi Swaroopams. Until the 18th century, the Naduvazhi Swaroopams continued without much change.

Question 16.
Malayalam language literature, art, forms, and sciences flourished during the medieval period. Substantiate.
Influence of Malayalam is more evident in the works after the 12th century. By the 14th century, books were written in Manipravalam. Bhakti literature was present in the 17th century. District art forms developed during the period. During the medieval period, there was progress in the fields of Ayurveda, Mathematics, Astrology, and Architecture.

Question 17.
What were the features of Swaroopams?
The positions of power that developed in the Nadus were known as Naduvazhi Swaroopams. Swaroopams were the ruling families with the right of self-rule and the followed matrilineal system of inheritance. The Swaroopams had their own military.

Question 18.
Elucidate what is Anjuvannam and Manigramam?
Anjuvannam and Manigramam are the trade guilds existed in medieval Kerala till the 14th century. They were active in both sea and land trade.

Question 19.
List out various Maryadas existed in medieval Kerala.

Question 20.
Identify the distinct art forms of Kerala that developed during medieval period.

• Mohiniyattam
• Ottanthullal
• Mangamkali
• Parichamuttukali
• Chakyarkoothu
• Kathakali
• Theyyam
• Oppana
• Duffmuttu
• Koodiyattam
• Chavittunatakam

Question 21.
How did Arab-Malayalm develop?
Malayalam was influenced by the language of the people who had come through the sea route for trade. Influence of the Arabs led to the development of Arab- Malayalam literature.

Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Part – A

Question 1.
Name the first iron and steel plant established in South India. (1)
Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Ltd. (VISL)

Question 2.
Which among the following serves as the banker to the central and state governments in India? (1)
a) State Bank of India
b) Indian Bank
b) Bankof India
d) Reserve Bank of India
Reserve Bank of India

Question 3.
Identify the incident that forced Gandhiji to stop non-cooperation movement. (1)
Chauri Chaura incident.

Question 4.
“The result of your political inactivity is that you will be ruled by people inferior to you”. Name the political thinker who made this statement. (1)
Plato

Question 5.
Identify the regions where laterite soils are formed:(1)
a) Regions made of igneous rocks named Basalt
b) Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons
c) Desert regions
d) Plains formed by the river deposition.
(b) Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons.

Question 6.
Compare the Kharif and Rabi cropping seasons in India. (3)
Kharif sowing period June (onset of monsoon) harvesting period Early November (End of monsoon) Major crops rice, maize, millets, cotton, jute, sugar, cane, ground nut.
Rabi Sowing period November (Beginning of winter) harvesting period March (Beginning of summer) Wheat, tobacco, mustard, pulses.

Question 7.
What are the methods of study employed in sociology? (3)
Social survey, Interview, Observation and Case study.

Question 8.
How, is electronic banking (E-banking) helpful to customers? (3)
Money can be sent and bills can be paid anywhere in the world from home

• Saves time
• Low service charge.

Question 9.
Write a short note on Trans Himalayas. (3)
Trans Himalayas include Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zaskar mountain ranges. Mount K2 (8661m) also known as Godwin Austin, the highest peak in India, is in the Karakoram range. The average height of the Trans Himalayas is 6000 metres.

Question 10.
What are the discretionary functions of the state?(3)

• Protection of health
• Provide educational facilities
• Implement welfare activities
• Provide transportation facilities.

Question 11.
Link column ‘A’ with appropriate items from column ‘B’. (4)

 A B Deccan Education Society Dr. Zakir Hussain Viswa Bhrthi university Rabindranath Tagore Jamia Milia Islamia Mahadev Govind Ranade Vallthol Narayana Menon Kerala Kalmandalm

 A B Deccan Education Society Mahadev Govind Ranade Viswa Bhrthi university Rabindranath Tagore Jamia Milia Islamia Dr. Zakir Hussain Vallthol Narayana Menon Kerala Kalmandalm

Question 12.
Explain the different levels of human resource development.(4)
Individuals take efforts to develop their own skills.

• Family creates an environment for the development of the potential of individuals.
• Various institutions and agencies provide facilities for education and training.
• Nation provides the necessary facilities for its people to develop their skills.

Question 13.
What is ‘Mountbatten Plain ? Mention its proposals.(4)
The strategyprepared by Mountbatten Plan.

• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslims wish.
• To divide Punjab and Bengal
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North West Frontier province to Pakistan or not

Question 14.
Explain why the Sepoys and the Kins fought against the British during the First War of Indian Independence, 1857. (4)
Poor salary and abuse by the British officers were the major reasons for their resentment. The rumour that the cartridge in the newly supplied Enfield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs provoked them. It wounded the religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers. The soldiers who were unwilling to use the new cartridges were punished by the officers, the British rule had adversely affected the kings too. In addition to the Doctrine of Lapse, the princely states were convicted of inefficient rule and were annexed by the British. This made the kings to lead the rebellion.

Question 15.
Mark and label the following geo-information in the outline map of India provided. (4)
For marking the places on the map.

b) Karakoram range
c) Eastern Coastal plain
d) Haldia port

Part – B

Question 16.
Evaluate the achievements of India in the fields of missile technology and space mission. (3)
OR
Prepare a short note on Civil Disobedience Movement in Malabar.
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) was established to lead space research. The first rocket-
1. launching station in India was established in Thumba, near Thiruvananthapuram. As a result of the collective efforts of India’s space research experts, first satellite Aryabhatta was successfully launched in 1975. In addition to satellites, space vehicles and rocket launchers were also developed. Jt was because of the far-sightedness of Jawaharlal Nehru that India became the first developing nation to make and launch satellites. There are several agencies that develop satellites in India now, They are:

• National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA)
• Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) India has also advanced much in missile technology. Agni and Prithwi are the missiles developed by India. Dr. Raja Ramanna and Dr. A.P.J-. Abdul Kalam led our experiments in the atomic energy sector.

OR

In 1930s, the Civil Disobedience Movement gained momentum in Malabar. People broke the salt law by making salt under the leadership of K. Kelappan and Mohammed Abdu Rahiman at Payyannurand Kozhikode respectively. The British army brutally attacked the satyagrahis and arrested the leaders. Boycott of foreign goods, picketing liquor shops and popularising Khadi were also part of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question 17.
Name the global pressure belts between which each of the following wind blows: (3)
a) Westerlies
c) Polar winds.
OR
Complete the following table showing the apparent movement of the Sun.

 Period The Apparent Movement i) 21 Match to 21 June From the equator to Tropic of Cancer ii) 22 December to 21 March From the Tropic of Capricorn to the Equator iii) 23 September to 22 December From the equator to Tropic of Capricorn

a) 30° Latitude to 60° latitude
b) 30° Latitude to 0° latitude
c) 90° Latitude to 60°latitude

OR

 Period The Apparent Movement i) 21 Match to 21 June From the equator to Tropic of Cancer ii) 22 December to 21 March From the Tropic of Capricorn to the Equator iii) 23 September to 22 December From the equator to Tropic of Capricorn

Question 18.
Explain the factors that led to the reorganization of states on the basis of languages in India. (3)
OR
Prepare a note on the rise df modern industries in Kerala.
There were demands from different parts of India for the formation of states on the basis of language. In 1920 the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress resolved to form its state committees on the basis of language.’After independence, people agitated for the formation of states along linguistic lines. Potti Sriramalu, a freedom fighter, started satyagraha for the formation of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people, the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress resolved to form its state committees on the basis of language. After independence, people agitated for the formation of states along linguistic lines.

Potti Sriramalu, a freedom fighter, started satyagraha for the formation of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people. After 58 days of fasting, his martyrdom and it intensified the mass agitation. Following this, in 1953, the Government of India formed the state of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people. After this, the demand for linguistic states intensified. The Government of India formed a Commission to reorganise Indian states on the basis of languages,

OR

Modern factories were established in Kerala by the middle of the twentieth century. Majority of them were in Travancore and Kochi. Rulers of Travancore adopted policies promoting modern industries. The British provided technical and financial support to the industries. The establishment of Pallivasal Hydro Electric Project propelled the development of modern industries.

Question 19.
What are the features of bureaucracy? (4)
OR
Write any two problems faced by the society and suggest its solutions.

• Hierarchical organisation
• Permanence
• Appointment on the basis of Qualification
• Political Neutrality
• Professionalism

OR

Water scarcity

• • effective utilisation of water Environmental pollution
• Garbage treatment at source Flood
• Shifting the residence in safe zone
• Corruption
• Awareness agiinstforruption (any two)

Question 20.
Explain the goals of the fiscal policy.
OR
Explain the structure and jurisdiction of the district consumer disputes.redressal forum.
Attain economic stability

• Create employment opportunities
• Control unnecessary expenditure

OR

Functions at district level – president and two members – at least one woman member After collecting evidence based oh the complaint filed by the consumer, verdicts are given where the compensation claimed does not exceed ₹ 20 lakhs.

Question 21.
How are satellite imageries prepared? What is Spatial Resolution? (4)
OR
Analyze the model.reference grids given and find out the following.

i) Locate the spring using 6 figure grid reference method.
ii) Identify the feature with 6 figure grid reference 682 315.
iii) Locate the settlements in 4 figure grid reference method.
iv) Name the method by which elevation and relief is represented in the grids.
The sensors on artificial satellites distinguish objects on the earth’s surface based on their spectral signature and transmit the information in digital format to the terrestrial stations. This is interpreted .with the help of computers and converted in to picture formats. These are called satellite imageries. The size of the smallest object on the earth’s surface that a satellite sensor can distinguish is called the spatial resolution of the sensor.

OR

i) 656325
ii) Tube well
iii) 6830
iv) Contour lines

Question 22.
Explain the Central Vigilance Commission and the Ombudsman.
OR
Expain the role of social science learning in the formulation of civic consciousness.
The Central Vigilance Commission is the institution constitute^ at the national level to prevent corruption. It came into effect in 1964. It is formed to prevent corruption in the central government offices. The Central Vigilance Commissioner is the head of the Central Vigilance Commission. In every department there will be a Chief Vigilance Officer. The duty of the commission is to enquire into yigilance cases and take necessary actions.

Elected representatives and bureaucrats are part of public administration. Complaints can be filed against their corruption, nepotism or financial misappropriation or negligence of duties. Ombudsman is constituted for this purpose. A retired Judge of the High Court is appointed as the Ombudsman. People can directly approach the Ombudsman with complaints. On receiving complaints, the Ombudsman has the power to summon anyone and can order enquiry and recommend actions.

OR
Equips the individuals to respect diversity and to behave with tolerance.

• Helps to understand the different contexts of political, social, economic and environmental problems.
• Equips the individual to suggest comprehensive solutions to different problems.
• Disseminate the message of peace and co-operation to the society.
• Makes the individual civic conscious and action oriented by familiarising the ideal models and activities of civic consciousness.

Question 23.
Explain the circunastances inhere the consumers are exploited of cheated. (4)
OR
Explain any two direct taxes in India.
When the purchased product is damaged or defective.

• Defective services received from government/on – government/ private institutions.
• Appropriation of price over and above the amount legally fixed or marked on the outer casing.
• Violation of the prevention of adulteration law.
• Sale of products which are harmful to life and safety.
• Loss due to trading methods which lead to unfair practices and limited consumer freedom.

OR

Personal Income Tax It is the tax imposed on the income of individuals. The rate of tax increases as the income increases. Income tax is applicable to the income-that is above a certain limit. In India the income tax is collected by the central government as per the Income Tax Act 1961, Corporate tax This , is the tax imposed on the net income.

Question 24.
Elucidate Local time standard time and Greenwich mean time. Estimate thelndian’Standard time when the Greenwidwhichmean time is 12 midnight.
OR
What is monsoon? Explain the role of Trade wipds in the formation of South-est monsoon winds.

• Local time: Local time is the time calculated based on the position of the sun.
• Standard time; Time observed at the standard meridian of a country.
• Greenwich Time: Time observed at 0° longitude is known as the Greenwich Time 5.30 am

OR

Monsoon winds are winds that change direction due to the shift of the pressure belts.
Sun’s rays fall vertically to the North of the Equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this, The southeast trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north Sun’s rays fall vertically to the North of the Equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tr: pic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this. The southeast trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north.

Question 25.
Analyze the causes of the First World War. (6)
OR
Explain the factors that led to the February Revolution in Russia.
Military Alliances : Germany, – Italy and Austria – Hungary formed the Triple Alliance. England, France and Russia formed Triple Entene. These alliances created tension in Europe.’

Aggressive Nationalism: European nations captured other countries and provinces. Formation of Pan Salv movement, Pan German Movement and the Revenge movement were examplesof aggressive nationalism.

Imperial Crisis : Imperial competition among the European nations led to crisis. Moroccan Crisis, Balkan crisis etc. Assassination of Arch Duke Francis Ferdinand. Crown prince of Austria was assassinated on 28 June 1914 at Sarajevo, capital of Bosnia.

Accusing Serbia for this Austria Hungary declared war on 28th July 1914.
OR

Decision of the Russian emperor czar Nicholas II to participate in the First World War ignoring the opposition of the Duma: Scarcity of food by 1917.Soldiers joined the workers in the agitation at Petrograd.
The city of Petrograd was captured by the workers. With this the emperor abandoned the throne and a temporary government under the leadership of Kerensky assumed power. This is known as the February revolution.

Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions :

• The first 15 minutes Is the Cool-off time.
• Answer only on the basis of instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any five questions from Q.No. 1 to 6. Each carries on score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Identify the word pair relation and fill the blanks.
(a) Monkeys: Cercopithecoidea::
Chimpanzee: ………………..
(b) A.I.Oparin: Theory of chemical evolution::
Hugo de Vries: ………………….
a) Hominoidea
b) Mutation theory

Question 2.
Find out the parts that are not related to retina from the following.

Conjuctiva
Iris

Question 3.
“Myelin sheath accelerates the speed of impulses through axon and provides nutrition to it.”
(a) How does myelin sheath form?
Myelin sheath is formed due to the repeated encir- * cling of Schwann cells around the axone.

Question 4.
Identify the relation in the Indicator (A) and complete (B) accordingly.

i. Ribose Sugar
ii. AUGC.

Question 5.
Find out the fungal diseases from the following: Malaria, Ringworm, Filariasis, Athelete’s foot
Ring worm Athlete’s foot

Question 6.
Complete the statement suitably:
“In …….(a)……………. the specialised part in pancreas two types of cells are found. Of these (b)……. cells produce insulin.”
a) Islets of Langerhans
b) Beta cells

Answer any six questions from Q.No. 7 to 13. Each carries on score. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
Make suitable pairs of different white blood cells and the function they perform.

Question 8.
Write the name of pathogens and symptoms of the given diseases:

A: Malaria
Pathogens: Protozoa – plasmodium

Symptoms

• High fever with shivering
• Vomitting, diarrhoea, anemia

B: Tuberculosis
Pathogens: bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Symptoms

• Loss of body weight
• Fatigue
• Continuous dry cough

Question 9.

• Excess blood is lost even though minor, injuries.
• Loss of body balance
• Accumulation of insoluble proteins in the neutral tissues of brain
• Production of dopamine reduces
• Irregular flow of electric charges in brain.

Question 10.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Name the Scientists who devised the experi-mental set up shown above.
(b) Which theory of evolution is substantiated by this experiment?
a) Stanley L.Miller and Harold C.Urey
b) Theory of chemical evolution

Question 11.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a. A: Genetic scissors: Restriction endonuclease
B: Genetic glue : Ligase

b. Yes

• They will have the ability to prouce insulin.
• They change that occured in the genetic constitution will be transferred to the next generation too. In case of mutation the gene might loss the capacity for the production.

Question 12.
List out the four major concepts to be included in a blood donation campaign.

• Blood cannot be made artificially. So we can save life of a person by donating blood. So do-nate blood and save life.
• A healthy person can donate 300 ml of blood within a period of 6 months.
• If the level of blood decreases beyond a certain level, it may cause the death of the individual. During such situation for the sustenance of the life the blood donation by a person becomes inevitable.
• Before transfusion, blood group matching should be ensured.

Question 13.
Mutation cause variations in organisms. It leads to evolution of species:
(a) What is mutation?
(b) Explain two other factors that cause variations in organisms.
a) A sudden heritable change in the genetic con-stitution of an organism is called mutation.
b) Crossing over in chromosomes

Answer any five from Q.No. 14 to 20. Each carries 3 score. (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

(a) Why do the forelimbs of these organisms show differences in external appearance?
(b) What inferences regarding evolution can be drawn from the anatomy of these organs?
(c) Write any two other scientific evidences which proves evolution.
a) Difference in their external appearances are their adaptations to live in their own habitats.
b) Anatomical resemblances justify the interference that all organisms evolved from a common ancestor.
c) Biochemistry and Physiology, Molecular Biology and Evidence from fossils

Question 15.
Observe the illustration.

(a) What does R, r denote in the illustration
(b) Which character is expressed in first generation. Why?
a) Gametes / Allele
b) Red Flower
Hybridization experiment, the allele that controls the dominant character (Red) that is expressed, and other character remains hidden (recessive character-white) in the offsprings of the first generation.

Question 16.
“Smoking harmfully affects internal organs.”
This is a general statement.
Explain how smoking affects brain, heart and lungs.
a) Brain: Stroke, Addiction to nicotine
b) Lungs: Lung cancer, Bronchitis, Emphysema
c) Heart: Hypertension, loss of elasticity of arteries, Decrease in functional efficiency.

Question 17.
There are certain mistakes in the given chart. Find out and correct it.

Question 18.
Analyse the statement and answer the questions. “Antibiotics, the miraculous medicines of 20th century helped a lot to bring many diseases under control. But the use of antibiotics without consulting doctor is not advisable.”
(a) Why antibiotics considered as miraculous medi-cines?
(b) Write two side effects of antibiotics.
a) Antibiotics are drugs obtained from microorgan isms that are used to destroy the growth of other microorganisms that cause diseases. Antibiotics are biochemical substances extracted from living things like bacteria and fungi which can or prevent the spreading of germs. Antibiotics target microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi and parasites.

b) Side effects of antibiotics:

• Regular use develops immunity in pathogens against antibiotics.
• Destroys useful bacteria in body.
• Reduces the quantity of some vitamins, in body.

Question 19.
Correct mistakes if any in the underlined part of the given statements.
(a) Curvature of lens increases when viewing near objects.
(b) Vitreous humor is formed from blood, and is re-absorbed by blood.
(c) Membraneous labyrinth in the inner ear is filled with Perilymph.
(d) Eustachian tube amplifies and transmits the vi-brations of tympanum to the internal ear.
(a) Curvature of lens increases when viewing near objects.
(b) Vitreous humor is formed from blood,and is re-absorbed by blood.
(c) Membraneous labyrinth in the inner ear is filled with endolvmph.
(d) Ear ossicles amplifies and transmits the vibration of tympanum to the internal ear.

Question 20.
Observe the figure and answer the questions:

(a) Identify the partsAand B.
(b) What is the function of ‘A’?
(c) Explain the process that takes place in ‘B’.
a) A: mRNA B: Ribosome
b) mRNA:mRNA carries information from DNA to ribosomes and controls protein synthesis.
c) mRNA molecule that carries information from DNA to ribosomes.
mRNA reaches ribosomes. tRNA carry different kinds of amino acids to ribosomes.
Based on the information in mRNA protein is synthesized in ribosomes adding amino acids.

Answer any two from Q.No. 21 to 23. Each careries 4 score. (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Analyse the given informations related to plant hor mones and answer the questions.
(a) to increase the size of apple
(b) to prevnt dropping of premature fruits.
(c) to increase the production of latex.
(d) to enable flowering of pineapple plants at a time.

(i) Match hormones and their functions properly.
(ii) Write the name and function of any other two hormones occur naturally in plants.
i) a) Gibberellins
b) Auxins
c) Ethyphon
d) Ethylene

ii)

 Plant hormones Functions Cytokinins Promotes cell division, cell growth and differentiation along with auxin. Abscisic acid Control the dormancy of embryo in the seed. Control flowenng Helps to sustair the plant in adverse conditions

Question 22.
Observe the illustration and answer the following questions.

(a) Name the cells (A) and (B).
(b) Explain the role of these cells in making vision possible.
(c) How impulses are generated in these cells when light rays fall on it?
a) A. Rod cells B. Cone cells

 Photo receptors Functions Rod cells Vision in dim light, black and white vision Cone cells Bright light vision, colour vision

b) Working of the cone
When the light falls on cone cells, the photopsin, in them dissociate into retinal and opsin. This chemical change creates impulses.
Working of rod cells :
d cells the pigment rhodopsin in them dissociate into retinal and opsin. This chemical change creates impulses.

c) The sense of vision :
When the pigment photoreceptors dissociate, impulses are forrmed. When get the sense of vision, when these impulses reach the brain through optic nerve.

Question 23.
(a) Redraw the diagram.
Name and label the parts that perform the given functions.

(a) Relay station of impulses.
(b) Controls heartbeat, breathing etc.
(c) Maintains equilibrium of the body.

a) Thalamus
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum

Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Accounts from Incomplete Records

Students can Download Chapter 9 Accounts from Incomplete Records Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Accounts from Incomplete Records

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Single entry system is also known as ………….
(a) Imprest system
(b) Merchandise system
(c) Incomplete system
(d) Cash system
(c) Incomplete system

Question 2.
Incomplete records are usually maintained by ………………………
(b) Society
(c) Company
(d) Government

Question 3.
Credit purchase can be ascertained as the balancing figure in the ………………
(a) Total Debtor Account
(b) Total Creditor Account
(c) Statement of Affairs
(d) Balance Sheet
(b) Total Creditors Account

Question 4.
(a) Total Debtor
(b) Cash Book
(c) Statement of affairs
(d) Both a & b
(d) both a & b.

Question 5.
If capital comparison method of single entry system, the profit or loss is ascertained by
(a) Preparing a statement of affairs
(b) Preparing trading and profit & loss A/c.
(c) Preparing a statement of profit or loss
(d) Both a & c.
(d) Both a and c.

Question 6.
Incomplete record mechanism of bookkeeping is:
(a) Scientific
(b) Unscientific
(c) Unsystematic
(d) Both b and C
(d) Both b and c

Question 7.
Locate the odd one.
(a) Incomplete system
(b) Unsystematic system
(c) Double-entry system
(d) Single entry system
(c) Double-entry system.

Question 8.
……….. account are not kept under single entry system.
Impersonal

Question 9.
………….. account is prepared to ascertain credit sale.
Total Debtors Account

Question 10.
Bill receivable from debtors during the year can be obtained from ………… account.
Bill Receivable

Question 11.
Statement of affairs is prepared to a certain ……………..
Capital

Question 12.
Find the odd one and state the reason.

1. credit sale, sales returns, discount allowed, return outwards.
2. Credit purchase, endorsement of the bill, return inwards, return to suppliers.

1. return outwards – affected by creditors account, all others are affected by debtors A/c.
2. return inwards – affected by debtors a/c, all others are affected by creditors A/c.

Question 13.
Match the following.

• 1 – e
• 2 – c
• 3 – d
• 4 – b
• 5 – a

Question 14.
What does the missing item of the account represent?
Total Debtors A/c

Cash received from Debtors Rs. 32,000

Question 15.
In capital comparison method of single entry system, the profit or loss is ascertained by
(a) Preparing trading and profit and loss A/c.
(b) Preparing statement of affairs.
(c) Preparing statement of profit or loss.
(d) Both b and c.
(d) Both b and c

Question 16.
Given the opening and closing balances of bills receivable and cash received on account of bills receivable, balancing bills receivable account will show,
(a) Credit purchase
(b) Credit sales
(c) Bills received during the year
(c) Bills received during the year.

Question 17.
Given the opening and closing balance of debtors and the figures of credit sales, the balancing figure of total debtors account will give.
(a) Bills honoured during the year.
(b) Closing balance of bills receivable.
(d) Cash sales.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the meaning of incomplete records.
Books of accounts that are not maintained according to the double-entry system are generally referred to as incomplete records. The system is also known as single entry. It is an incomplete, unscientific and unsystematic method of keeping the books of accounts of a trader.

Question 2.
Complete the following table:

• 2. Credit purchase – Total creditors account
• 3. Cash sales – Receipt side of cash book
• 4. Credit sales – Total Debtors Account
• 5. Capital – Statement of Affairs

Question 3.
Afire occured in the godown of Mr. Asok who keeps his books under single entry and his goods were partly destroyed. Since the goods were insured, he lodged a claim of Rs. 1,00,000/- to the insurance company, out of which only Rs. 60,000 was admitted. On what ground can the Insurance company’s decision be justified?
Since, Mr. Asok maintain incomplete records, it is not reliable and scientific. These accounts are not accepted by the Insurance company. It is one of the limitations of single entry.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give any five features of single entry system.

1. It is an unscientific, unsystematic and incomplete system.
2. Mainly personal accounts are prepared by ignoring fully or partially the impersonal accounts.
3. It is used by small traders.
4. Profit or loss under this system is only an estimate.
5. True financial position cannot be ascertained.

Question 2.
Calculate profit or loss from the following information . for the year ended 31.12.2005.

Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31.12.05

Question 3.
Prepare Total Debtors Account from the following information:

Total Debtors Account

Question 4.
Calculation of credit purchase by preparing Total creditors account.

Question 5.
Find.out the capital at the beginning.

Calculation of Capital at the beginning

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The single entry system of accounting is crude and unsystematic, still is popular among small businessmen. Give reasons.
Some businessmen prefer to keep their books under single entry system due to the following reasons.

1. The system is suitable to small traders which have mainly cash transactions and do not have many assets and liabilities to be recorded in details.
2. The system is economical since lesser number of books are maintained.
3. Lack of knowledge about the double-entry system.
4. Ignorance of businessmen as to the statutory requirements of keeping proper books of accounts.
5. Intentional omission to take advantage of taxation.

Question 2.
What are the difference between Balance Sheet and Statement of Affairs?

 Balance Sheet Statement of Affairs 1. It is prepared on the basis of those books which are maintained under the double-entry system. 1. It is prepared on the basis of information from incomplete records 2. It is prepared to show the financial position of the concern. 2. It is usually prepared to find out capital. 3. Value of asset and liabilities in a Balance Sheet are based on ledger balances 3. Value of assets and liabilities in a statement of affairs are based on estimates 4. Omission of assets or liabilities can easily be found out when Balance sheet disagree. 4. It is difficult to locate omission of assets or liabilities in statement of affairs.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the limitations of incomplete records?
Following are the limitations of single entry system

1. It is not based on the double-entry system, arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts can not proved.
2. No clear idea about the financial position.
3. Comparison with previous years performance is not possible due to incomplete information.
4. It encourage fraud, misappropriation etc. among employess.
5. In the absense of nominal accounts, it is difficult to determine the exact profit or loss.
6. It is difficult to obtain loans from bank or other financial institution.

Question 2.
Mention the difference between double-entry system and single entry system or incomplete records.
The following are the difference between the double-entry system and single entry system.

 Single Entry System Double Entry System 1. Dual aspects of transactions are not recorded. 1. Dual aspects of every transaction are recorded. 2. As trial balance is not prepared, arithmetical accuracy can’t be checked. 2. Trial balance is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy. 3. Only an estimate of profit can be made 3. Actual net profit can be Calculated 4. Balance sheet can not be prepared to ascertain the financial position 4. Balance sheet can be prepared to ascertain the financial position 5. This system is suitable for sole trader who have a few transaction 5. This is suitable for all types of business all types of business

Question 3.
Final accounts can be prepared from incomplete records. Explain the procedure.
Though the records are incomplete, the trader has to ascertain the profit or loss of his business and the position regarding assets and liabilities. Two methods are adopted for ascertainment of profit or loss. They are:

1. Ascertainment of profit or loss by statement of affair method.
2. Preparation of profit and loss account and balance sheet under conversion method.

1. Statement of Affair Method:
Under this method, profit or loss can be ascertained by comparing the capital at the beginning and at the end of the financial period. For this purpose, two statements are prepared.

a. Statement of Affairs:
It is a statement prepared by presenting the assets on one side and liabilities on the other side as in the case of a balance sheet. The difference between the totals of the two sides is known as “owners equity or capital”.
Owner equity or capital = Asset – Liabilities

b. Statement of profit or loss:
The statement prepared to ascertain the profit or loss by comparing the opening capital with closing capital is called statement of profit or loss. If the capital at the end of the year exceeds the capital in the beginning of the year, the difference will be treated as “profit.” On the other hand, If the capital in the beginning of the year is more than that at the end of the year, there is “loss.”

2. Conversion Method:
Under single entry system, nominal accounts and real accounts (other than cash) are not maintained. Hence it is not possible to prepare the profit and loss account and balance sheet under the system. In such a situation, financial statements are to be prepared by converting accounts under single entry to that under double entry. This method of preparing financial statements is called conversion method.

Question 4.
From the following particulars, calculate total sales.

Bill Receivable Account

Total Debtors Account

Question 5.
From the following information, calculate the amount total purchase.

Bills Payable A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Sumesh keeps incomplete records. You are required to ascertain the profit or loss for the year ending 3-1.3.2004 from the following information.

He had withdrawn Rs. 5,000 during the year and had introduced Rs. 4,000 from the sale of his personal property.
Statement of Affairs as on 01.04.2003

Statement of Affairs as on 31.03.2004

Statement of Profit or Loss for the year ended 31.03.2004.

Plus One Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Murali keeps his books under single entry. He supplies you with the following information from which you are to find out his profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.2007.

He had withdrawn Rs. 3,000 during the year for a private purpose and had introduced fresh capital Rs. 6,000 on 1.10.2006. Bad and doubtful debts provision at 5% is to be made on debtors. Depreciation on plant and machinery at 10% and furniture at 15 % is to be made. Allow 6% interest on capital.
Statement of Affairs of Mr. Murali

Statement of profit or loss for the year ended 31.3.07

Question 2.
Anil carries on a retailer business and does not keep his books on double entry basis. The following particulars are obtained from his books.

His cash transations during the year were given

During the year Anil had taken goods from the business for private consumption which amounted to Rs. 850. Prepare profit and loss account for the year ending 30-06-2005 and a balance sheet as on that date after charging depreciation @ 10% p.a. on the machinery.
Statement of Affairs as at 1.7.04

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and profit and loss account for the year ended 30.06.05

Balance sheet as on 30.06.05

Question 3.
Shankar maintains his book of account on single entry system. Prepare his final accounts from the information supplied for the year ended 30.9.2008 as follows.
Cash transactions during the year.

Particulars of assets and liabilities are given below:

1. Credit sales for the year Rs. 18,100.
2. Discount allowed to Debtors Rs. 2,100.
3. Return outwards during the year Rs. 500.
4. Salaries outstanding on 30.9.2008 Rs. 3,000.
5. Provision for doubtful debts is to be created to the extent of Rs. 3,000.
6. 5% depreciation is to be provided on furniture and land & buildings.

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Cash Book

Statement of Affairs as at 01.10.2007

Trading and profit and loss A/c for the year ended 30.9.2008.

Balance sheet as on 30.09.2008

Question 4.
Mr. Giri does not keep his books under the double-entry system. The following are his assets and liabilities as on the opening and closing date of 2005.

His Cashbook for the year ended 31.12.05 as follows.

Discount allowed to debtors is Rs. 1,600 and discount allowed by creditors is Rs. 1,300. Bad debts written off is Rs. 400. Provision for bad debts is required at 5%. Depreciation @ 10% is required on furniture. Interest accrued on investments amounts to Rs. 2,200. Prepare Trading and profit and loss A/c and Balance sheet for 2005.
Statement of Affairs as on 01.01.2005

Bills Receivable A/c

Bills Payable A/c

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and Profit & Loss A/c for the year ended 31.12.2005

Balance sheet as on 31.12.2005

Question 5.
Mr. Binu keeps his books under single entry. From the following information, prepare profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December 2004 and a balance sheet as on that date.
Cashbook

Other Information

Total Debtors A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31.12.2004

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.2004

Question 6.
Mrs. Bhavana keeps his books by Single Entry System. You’re required to prepare final accounts of her business for the year ended December 31, 2015. Her records relating to cash receipts and cash payments for the above period showed the following particulars.
Summary of Cash

The following information is also available

All her sales and purchases were on credit. Provide depreciation on plant and building by 10% and machinery by 5%. make a provision for bad debts by 5%.