Bhagya

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers.

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

A. Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
A country with declining population
a) Bangladesh
b) Mexico
c) Japan
d) Austrialia
Answer:
c) Japan

Question 2.
A primary activity
a) Pastoralism
b) Lawyer
c) Doctor
d) I.T. Professional
Answer:
a) Pastoralism

Question 3.
The geographical feature favourable for the formation of circular rural settlement pattern
a) Highway
b) Pond
c) Railway
d) River
Answer:
b) Pond

Question 4.
The most common problem of rural settlement from the following:
a) BusyTransport
b) Acidrain
c) Waste disposal
d) Unmetalled Roads
Answer:
d) Unmetalled Roads

Question 5.
An example of Regional Planning
a) Infrastructure Planning
b) Irrigation Planning
c) Drought Prone Area Programme
d) Transport Development
Answer:
c) Drought Prone Area Programme

Question 6.
The type of development that meets the needs of present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs
a) Sustinable development
b) Economic development
c) Social development
d) Demographic development
Answer:
a) Sustinable development

Question 7.
A Kharif crop
a) Rice
b) Groundnut
c) Vegetables
d) Maize
Answer:
a) Rice

Question 8.
Urban smog leads to
a) Water pollution
b) Land pollution
c) Noise pollution
d) Air pollution
Answer:
d) Air pollution

Question 9.
Which among the following rivers in India is highly polluted?
a) Satlej
b) Yamuna
c) Brahmaputra
d) Godavari
Answer:
b) Yamuna

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each caries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
The Headquarters of ASEAN
a) Jakarta
b) Vienna
c) Portugal
d) Minsk
Answer:
a) Jakarta

Question 11.
Among the following South American Nations, the one which forms a part of OPEC:
a) Argentina
b) Venezuela
c) Peru
d) Chile
Answer:
b) Venezuela

Question 12.
An example of ancient town in India
a) Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Pataliputra
d) Kochi
Answer:
c) Pataliputra

Question 13.
An administrative town in India among the following:
a) Surat
b) Ambala
c) Vishakapattanam
d) Delhi
Answer:
d) Delhi

Part – II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 to 17. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
Define Neodeterminism.
Answer:
Neo determinism was a theory put forward by Griffith Taylor. It was a theory formed between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism. He explains his theory based on traffic signal. When we see the red light we should stop. When the light is green, we can go. The yellow light gives a small interval. That means we get ready to go. Nature gives us many opportunities. By reacting to the opportunities appropriately we can make good use of them. Sometimes we neglect the controls Nature puts on us.

When we use unscientific farming methods, over exploit natural resources and do uncontrolled developmental activities, nature shows the red light. (The loss of soil fertility, deforestation, global warming, hole in the ozone layer, etc.) As long as do not destroy the environment, we can go ahead with our developmental activities. But when the red light shines we should stop our developmental activities. Through his Neo determinism, what Griffith Taylor proposed was a middle path without putting a full stop to our technical development, and at the same time, reacting positively to the signals given by nature.

Question 15.
What do you mean by Balance of Trade?
Answer:
The difference between the values of the goods and services a country exports and imports is the Balance of Trade. This can be positive or negative.

Question 16.
List out any two problems of Urban Settlement.
Answer:

1. Pollution
2. Increase in the population

Question 17.
Mention any two advantages of water transport?
Answer:

1. Transport expenses are less.
2. Less pollution.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
What is digital divide?
Answer:
Digital divide is the divide in the sphere of IT and communication between developed nations and developing nations.

Question 19.
Write any two examples for Nonmetallic fuel minerals.
Answer:

1. Coal
2. Petroleum
3. Natural gas

Question 20.
List out any four media of mass communication.
Answer:

1. Television
2. Radio
3. Cinema
4. Satellite

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each caries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
Describe the three stages of Demographic Transtion Theory.
Answer:
The three stages in the Demographic Transition Theory are:
Stage 1 – High Fluctuating stage
Stage 2 – Expanding Stage
Stage 3 – Low fluctuating stage.

• Stage 1: – High Fluctuating stage
  1. High birth-death rate
  2. The growth of population was very slow
  3. Longevity less
  4. People were illiterate
  5. People were engaged in agriculture
  6. The lack of technical knowhow
  7. The Adivasis in the Rain Forests of Bangladesh come in this group.
• Stage 2: Expanding Stage
  1. In this stage, in the early period, the birth rate was high. Gradually it became less. Along with that death rate was also reduced.
  2. The death rate was reduced because of the improvement in the health and sanitation sectors.
  3. Countries like Peru, Sri Lanka, Kenya etc. include in this group.
• Stage 3: Low Fluctuating stage
  1. Birth and death rate reduced. People got urbanised Progress in education and technical knowhow Canada, Japan, USA etc. come in this group.

Question 22.
(a) What is mining?
(b) Explain the types of mining.
Answer:
a) Mining:
The history of human development has different stages. They are known as Copper Age., ‘ Iron Age, and Bronze Age. This tells us how important the different minerals and metals are to mankind.

1. Initially minerals and metals were used only for making unsophisticated tools, weapons and containers.
2. It was with the Industrial Revolution that mining for metals and mineral was started. From then their importance has been steadily increasing.

b) Types of Mining:
Two types of mining are common – Surface mining and Underground mining. v The type of mining depends on the nature of the mineral ores and the way they are found. Surface mining and underground mining have two different approaches.

A. Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining):

1. Minerals are close to the surface of the earth.
2. This is the easiest way of mining.
3. Less expensive
4. Less risky
5. Profitable.

B) Underground Minina (Shaft Methods)

1. Minerals are located far below the surface of the earth.
2. It is dangerous (Poisonous gases, floods, landslides, cave formation, flaming fire, etc.)
3. Very expensive
4. Very high risk.

Question 23.
(a) What is Migration?
(b) Briefly discuss the ‘push’ and ‘pull’ factors of migration.
Answer:
a) Migration:
Moving from one region to live in another region is called migration. As the result of migration, the population of one region increases and the population of the other region decreases.

b) Push and Pull factors:
Although people have a lot of emotional attachment to the place of their birth, lakhs of people leave their homes to settle in other places. The reasons for this migration can be grouped into two: Push Factors I and Pull factors.

Push factors are those that force people to leave their birth place.
Pull factors are those which attract people to other regions.

1. People migrate to cities because of the poverty in the rural areas.
2. Increase in population.
3. lack of education and health facilities.
4. Earthquake
5. Floods

Question 24.
(a) Make a short note on Watershed Management.
(b) Mention any two objectives of Watershed Management.
Answer:
a) Watershed Management

1. This is a new method by which watersheds are protected from being filled with waste.
2. This is essential for sustainable development.
3. Watershed management and protecting water is essential to man and also other creatures and plants.

b) Two aims of Watershed management:

1. protecting water
2. Sustainable development.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 25.
Sex-ratio is an important information about status of women in a country. Comment on the statement.
Answer:
Sex ratio shows the number of women for 1000 men in a region. In India, the number of women has been less than that of men for years. Therefore the sex ratio in India is negative. The social and economic standing of women of a country can be determined according to the sex ratio. Where female foeticide, female infanticide and atrocities against women are rampant the discrimination between man and woman will be more.

1. Biologically, Nature has blessed women more than men.
2. Women have the exceptional capacity to rise from a fall and get back to the original state of mind.
3. She is able to adjust with the circumstances she finds herself in.
4. She has the capacity to maintain her happiness even in adverse circumstances.
5. Women have more defensive power than men.

Question 26.
(a) What is Human Development?
(b) List out the two indicators of healthy life.
Answer:
a) The concept of Human Development was put forward by the scientist Mehboob-ul-Haq. In his opinion human development means increasing the possibilities for people to choose the life style they like so that they can
live with dignity and for long.

b) Expected longevity
Standard of living

Question 27.
Write any three conservation methods of mineral resources.
Answer:
Protecting Mineral Wealth

1. By overuse the mineral wealth gets lost.
2. We have the responsibility to protect the natural resources for the continued existence and welfare of mankind.
3. We should not implement development plans by bringing harm to the environment.
4. To make sustainable development possible, we have to reserve natural resources for the use of future generations.
5. The traditional energy sources are non-renewable and so they will finish one day. But we have renewable energy sources like solar, geothermal, wind, tidal and biomass, which will never get finished. So we must learn to use more and more renewable energy sources.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 28 to 31. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
Briefly explain the four pillars of Human Development.
Answer:
The four pillars of human development are:

1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
4. Empowerment

1) Eauitv:
Equity is making available to everyone equal opportunities without any discrimination of religion, caste and creed, sex, class, income etc.

2) Sustainability:
This is the continuity in the availability of opportunities. If we are to make sustainable development we should not misuse and abuse all natural resources (environmental, economic and human). If any of the resources is ruined, it will adversely affect the future generations.

3) Productivity:
Productivity means the capacity of man to work and produce. The [eal wealth of a nation it is people. So each person should be given good education and health care so that he can work efficiently.

4) Empowerment:
Empowerment means the ability of a person to choose from infinite possibilities.

Question 29.
(a) What is plantation agriculture?
(b) List any three characteristic features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
a) Plantation Agriculture:
In the past, European countries started agriculture suitable for their colonies which had warm.or hot climate, investing a lot of capital. This is known as plantation agriculture. The Roman Emperors started a plantation agriculture. known as“Latifundia”. From this wine and olive oil were used for exports. In our country the main plantation crops are tea, coffee, rubber, cocoa, cotton, sugar cane, banana and pineapple.

b) Features of Plantation Agriculture:

1. It needs huge investment, a lot of land and technical knowhow.
2. It is market-linked.
3. Availability of easy transport.

Question 30.
(a) What do you mean by the term ‘Manufacturing’?
(b) List any two features of large scale manufacturing.
Answer:
a) Manufacturing Industries: Manufacturing industries process raw materials and make them into value-added goods for various uses by people.

b) Capital
4 Historical factors.

Question 31.
Briefly explain the problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
These are the problems of Indian Agriculture:

1. Dependence of erratic monsoons.
2. Low productivity.
3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness.
4. Lack of land reforms.
5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings.
6. Lack of commercialization.
7. Vast under-employment.
8. Degradation of cultivable land.

1. Dependence on Erratic Monsoon:
Only 33% of the agricultural land in India has irrigation facilities. The remaining land depends on monsoon rains for its water.’Of the south-west monsoon comes earlier or later, the plans of the farmers will be upset. If there is more monsoon rain it will cause floods and if it less, it will bring droughts.

2. Low Productivity:
The quantity of paddy, wheat, cotton and oil seeds we get in India from one hector of land is much less than what they get in Russia, America, Japan etc. Depending only on the rains, if we cultivate grains, pulses, oil seeds etc. in dry areas the harvest will be very little.

3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness:
To use modern farming methods, a lot of capital investment is needed. The poor peasants and farmers in India do not have the financial capacity to invest such capital. When they are in financial problems, the agriculturists take loans from individuals or financial institutions. If the crops are ruined or if the harvest is very low, they get trapped in indebtedness.

4. Lack of land reforms:
The landlord system (Mahalwari, Riotwari, Zamindari) that exited during the British rule was quite exploitative. Although many land reforms were made after independence, because of the. lack of strong political, will, they were not put into practice effectively.

5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings:
In India more than 60% of the farmers have only less than 1 hectare of land in their possession. Because of the increase in population the landholding is getting even less. Agriculture done on such small pieces of land is not profitable.

6. Lack of commercialization:
Most farmers cultivate things only for their own needs. If the agriculture sector is to be profitable and attractive it should be mechanised and commercialised.

7. Vast under-emplovment:
Once the harvest is done, till the next planting season, the farmers will have no work. In places where there are no irrigation facilities, this problem is very acute.

8. Degradation of cultivable land:
Wrong irrigation methods and unscientific agricultural development plans make the soil loses its fertility. Alkalization, calcification, water clogging, continuous farming, lack of proper fertilizers etc, reduce the productivity of the land. Planting different things will also reduce fertility. Places which depend solely on rains are adversely affected by soil and wind erosion especially where the soil is soft and loose and the climate is warm. Because of the unscientific methods used by people the fertility of the land gets reduced.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 and 33. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
Write a short note on Cyber Space.
Answer:
Cyber Space is the notional environment in which communication over computer networks occurs. Taking advantage of fast growing Information Technology and communication network, the developed countries raced ahead in development. But the developing countries are lagging behind in utilising the modern IT and communication facilities. The gap that is seen between the developed and developing countries in the use of IT and the modern cbmmunication facilities is called the Digital Divide. With the help of www, commerce has become global and widespread.

Question 33.
Distinguish between wet land and dry land farming.
Answer:
On the basis of the moisture of the soil during harvest, there are two kinds of farming. The agriculture in dry land is known m as Dry land farming and where there is water it is called Wetland farming.

• Dry land farming:
  1. This farming is practised in places which receive rain below 75 cm in a year.
  2. In this type of farming crops like ragi, millet, pulses, and animal feeds, which can resist drought, are cultivated.
  3. Farmers take steps to collect rain water and maintain the moisture of the land.
• Wet land farming:
  1. In this farming, paddy, jute, sugar cane etc, are cultivated as they need plenty of water.
  2. Farmers also engage in aquaculture. rain below 75 cm in a year.
  3. In this type of farming crops like ragi, millet, pulses, and animal feeds, which can resist drought, are cultivated.
  4. Farmers take steps to collect rain water and maintain the moisture of the land.
• Wet land farming:
  1. In this farming, paddy, jute, sugar cane etc, are cultivated as they need plenty of water.
  2. Farmers also engage in aquaculture.

Part – V

A. Answer any 2 questions from 34 to 36. Each caries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
(a) What do you mean by density of population?
(b) Describe the geographical factors influencing the density and distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
a) Population density is the proportion between the number of people and the area of the land.
b) Geographical factors:

1. availability of water
2. nature of the land
3. climate
4. soil

1. Availability of water:
People like to stay in places where water is easily available in large quantities. Water is inevitable for all human endeavours like agriculture, irrigation, industry, transport, tourism, generation of electricity and so on. That is why all river basins are crowded.

2. Nature of the land:
People like to live in places that are flat or with – slight slopes. Such places are more suitable for agriculture, making roads, build factories and residences.

3. Climate:
In the places which are too cold, too hot, where there is too much rainfall, the density of population will be less. It is not easy for man to live such places with harsh climatic conditions.

4. SoiL.
Fertile soil is essential for agriculture and related work. Soil that is fertile mixed with clay, sand ‘ and organic elements is the most suitable for agriculture.

Question 35.
(a) What is growth of population?
(b) Analyse the four phases of Indian Demographic History.
Answer:
a) Population growth is the increase in the number of people in a certain period in a place. This can be positive or negative.

1. Fixed Population Phase (1901-1921)
2. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
3. Explosive population phase (1951-1981)
4. Reducing Population Phase (1981 -2001)

1. Fixed Population Phase (901-1921):
It is said that population growth in India was at a standstill, showing no growth in the initial stages of the 20th century. The death rate was high. Poor health care services, ignorance of people, the weak distribution of essential commodities etc. were the reasons for the high death rate.

2. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
This is the 2nd phase where the population growth was steady. As health care facilities became easily available, death rate was reduced. The development of communication and transport facilities and the special attention of the government helped the public distribution system to become better. Although the economic depression of the 1920s and the Second World War adversely affected this second phase of population growth, it was steady in this phase.

3. Explosive Population Phase (1951-1981):
The 3rd phase was the period of population explosion in India. In this phase the death rate was drastically reduced and the birth rate drastically increased. The annual growth reached 2.2%-in this phase.

4. Reducing Population Phase (1981-2001):
During this period there was a tendency showing decrease in growth. The marriageable age was raised and the standard of living improved. As women were educated, there were visible changes in the society’s thinking and people’s attitude towards life had welcome changes.

Question 36.
Identify and mark the following geo information in the given Outl ine Map of I ndia.
(a) An ancient I ndian town located in Uttar Pradesh.
(b) The largest Urban Aglomeration in India.
(c) The land-locked port located in Andhra Pradesh.
(d) An Integrated Iron and Steel Plant in India set up in collaboration with Germany.
(e) The largest container port in India.
(f) The Eastern State in India having highest production of Jute.
Answer:
a) Varanasi or Allahabad
b) Greater Mumbai
c) Visakhapatnam
d) Rourkela Steel Plant
e) Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Sheva) located in Navi Mumbai’s Raigad district
f) West Bengal

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Section – A

Answer all questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The period of population explosion in India
a) 1951-1981
b) 1901-1921
c) 1921-1951
d) 1981-2001
Answer:
a) 1951-1981

Question 2.
The language family to which Malayalam belongs.
Answer:
Dravidian language

Question 3.
The busiest airpot in the Western region in India.
a) Kolkata
b) Kochi
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
Answer:
c) Mumbai

Question 4.
Asia’s largest slum is located in India. Identify it.
Answer:
Dharavi

Question 5.
Canal colonies in Indira Gandhi command area in Rajasthan is an example for
a) Linear Settlement
b) Nucleated Settlement
c) Planned Settlement
d) Circular Settlement
Answer:
a) Linear Settlement

Question 6.
The iron and steel plant located in Karnataka,
a) Durgapur
b) Visweswaraiya
c) Bokaro
d) Dubari
Answer:
b) Visvesaraiya

Section – B

Answer any six questions from 7 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 7.
The concept of Neo-determinism (stop and go determinism) is very significant today. Justify this statement.
Answer:
It was the Australian Geographer Griffith Taylor who put forward the concept of Neo Determinism or Stop and Go determinism. The concept says that man should intervene in nature and use natural resources without harming the environment. The theory says that by obeying the laws of nature we can conquer it. When we overexploit natural resources, and as a result natural calamities occur, this theory has much relevance.

Question 8.
Distinguish between positive and negative growth of population.
Answer:
Positive Growth rate:
a) In a fixed period, if birth rate is more than death rate, there is Positive Growth rate.
b) When migrants from outside come in big numbers, there is Positive Growth rate.

Negative Growth rate:
a) In a fixed period, if death rate is more than birth rate, there is Negative Growth rate.
b) When migrants g to other places to live there, there is Negative Growth rate.

Question 9.
Kerala has witnessed natural disasters like landslide and flood frequently. Suggest measures that can be adopted for th effective management of the hill slopes of Western Ghats in Kerala.
Answer:

1. Controlling/banning mining
2. Instead of large scale industries, encourage small scale industries.
3. Propagating environmental eco friendly development.
4. Protecting water resources.

Question 10.
Indo-Gangeticplain is one of the densely populated regions in India. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Fertile soil
2. Irrigation facilities
3. Favourable climate
4. Appropriate transport facilities

Question 11.
Complete the diagram showing the characteristics of Dairy Farming.

Answer:

1. Storage facilities
2. Milking machines

Question 12.
Write a note on Sugar industry in India.
Answer:
Sugar industry is the second largest agriculture based industry in India. India has the number one place in the world for producing the most sugar cane and sugar. 8% of the total world production of sugar is from India. Apart from sugar, molasses and jaggery are also made from sugar cane. This industry gives employment to more than 400,000 persons directly and thousands of farmers indirectly.

Sugar industry is a seasonal industry. Once the sugar cane is cut, its water contents gets lost very fast. So it can’t be stored for long. Naturally the sugar has to be produced at the time of the sugarcane harvest. That is why it is said that the sugar industry is a seasonal industry. In 1903, a sugar factory was established in Bihar, marking sugar production in a modern way in India. Following this, there came many sugar mills in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 13.
One of the world’s single largest tertiary activity is tourism. Discuss the scope of tourism with respect ‘ to tourist attractions in India.
Answer:
Factors like climate, natural beauty, history and arts, culture and financial system influence tourism. India can do a lot in the field of tourism industry.

1. There are many centres India which are endowed with the beauty of nature. For example, we have Kashmir, North-Eastern regions, and Kerala.
2. The tourism centres in India are the gains of culturally rich India.

Question 14.
Prepare a brief note on any one of the mineral belts in India.
Answer:
The mineral wealth of India is concentrated in three regions:

1. North-Eastern Plateau region.
2. South-Western Plateau region.
3. North-Western Region

Section – C

Answer any 5 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 15.
List out the consequences of migration.
Answer:
1. The North-Eastern Plateau Region:
This region includes Chhota Nagpur, Odisha Plateau, West Bengal, and some parts Chhattisgarh. There are large deposits of iron ore, coal, manganese, ‘ bauxite, and mica in these regions. That is why most of the iron and steel industries of India are located in these regions. The large mineral wealth of these regions has attracted these factories.  The consequences of migration are the following:

1) Economic Consequences: The money sent to India by the expatriate and migrant Indians from abroad is a main source of our foreign exchange.

2) Consequences on the population: Because of the migration from rural areas to the urban areas, the urban population increases. It is adults, skilled workers and experts that migrate from villages to the cities. This adversely affects the population structure of the rural areas.

3) Social Consequences: Through migrants there are social changes. From the cities, newer ideas reach the rural areas. Mixed cultures are another consequence of migration.

4) Environmental Consequences: The housing situation in the cities gets upset and slums are formed. Natural resources are overexploited. Therefore in cities there is a dangerous reduction of underground water levels. Atmosphere pollution is rampant. Waste gets accumulated.

Question 16.
Define:
i) Packet station
ii) Positive balance of trade
iii) Free trade
Answer:
i) Packet Station: Packet Stations are also called Ferry Ports. Such ports are used only for transporting people and postal packets etc. over short distances. For that and large boats and ferry boats. Normally such ports are seen on the opposite banks of a river, stream or lake. Examples are Dover in England and Calais in France.

ii) Positive Balance of Trade: Every country exports goods and services and it also imports goods and services. The difference in the value of a country’s exports and imports is called Balance of Trade. When a country’s value of exports is more than the value of its imports it is known as Positive Balance of Trade.

iii) Free trade: When a country opens its financial system for trade to other countries it is called free trade or trade liberalization. Free trade comes into existence when trade controls like tariffs, taxes and import restrictions are reduced or removed. Free trade allows goods produced in different countries to compete with goods produced in the country.

Question 17.
Why is irrigation necessary in India?
Answer:

Nearly 4% of the orId’s water resources are in India. Through rains and snow, India gets 4000 cubic km of water. If we add surface water and the ground water, nearly 1869 cubic kilometres of water is available to us. But only 0% of this water can be profitably used. In short, from the wafer resources in our country only 1122 cubic km of water is useful. In India there are two main water resources – surface waterand Ground water.

Surface water resources:
Rivers, ponds, lakes and reservoirs are the 4 main surface water resources. In India we have 10,360
rivers, and their tributaries. The water that flows in these rivers is 1869 cubic km. But for various reasons only 690 cubic km (32%) is useful for us. The water flow in a river depends on the size of its catchment area and the amount of rain it gets. Rivers like the Ganges, the Brahmaputra and the Sindhu have large catchment areas. In the catchment areas of these rivers precipitation is comparatively high. 60% of the total surface water is the contribution of these rivers. We also make use of the South Indian Rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Ground Water Resources: The renewable ground water in India is 432 cubic km. 46% of this is in the basins of the anges and the Brahmaputra. In India, most of the ground water is used in the north-western regions and some parts in South India. Thus India is rich in water resources. This makes irrigation easy.

Question 18.
i) Name the state in India which ranks first in HDI.
ii) Mention the reasons behind this achievement.
Answer:

• Kerala
• High literacy
  1.  Achievements in the health care sector
  2.  Schools and hospitals with high standards
  3.  Development of human resources

Question 19.
Waste disposal is one of the serious social issues today. Discuss three environmental problems faced by the urban centers and suggest methods to overcome it.
Answer:
An important feature of urban regions is their high population. Proportionate to the increasing number of people and the hurry and haste, the amenities do not grow. It results in slums, unhealthy sanitary conditions and foul-smelling atmosphere. The main problem cities face is the atmospheric pollution because of the waste. It is the solid waste that is the main reason for the pollution in cities. Old and discarded things after use constitute solid waste. Main problems and solutions:

1. Extreme heat – Plant more trees.
2. Air pollution – Encourage electric vehicles for transport.
3. Solid waste – Ban plastic. Encourage the use of biogas.

Question 20.
The non-conventional energy sources will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of. Give an account of any three non-conventional energy sources.
Answer:
The energy of the future should come from non conventional energy sources. The features of non conventional energy sources are the following:

1. Renewable.
2. Environmental friendly.
3. Free from pollution.
4. Available in plenty.
5. Less expensive?

The main non conventional energy sources in India are the following:

• Solar Energy:
  1. Using photovoltaic cells sunlight is converted into electricity.
  2. Water heaters, driers, cookers, watches, calculators, etc. can work with solar energy.
  3. Gujarat and Rajasthan are the States which offer more favourable circumstances for producing solar energy.
• Wind energy:
  1. The ideal place for putting up windmills is wide and open places with strong breezes.
  2. In the States like Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka the circumstances are conducive to the production of wind energy.
  3. The largest windmill farm in Asia is Lamba which is situated in the Kutch area of Gujarat.
  4. In Thoothukudy, in Tamilnadu, also there is a large windmill farm.
• Tidal and Wave energy
  1. From waves and tides, we can make electricity.
  2. The western shore Regions of India are very suitable for producing Tidal and Wave energy.

Question 21.
Differentiate between Rural and Urban composition of population.
Answer:
The population is divided into rural an urban population based on the place in which they live. Since there are many differences between the rural and urban dwellers, such a division is necessary. The life of the village people and city people is different. Their jobs and social conditions are different. In things like age-sex-profession structure, density of population, standard of development, etc. also there are differences.

1. Different countries use different criteria for grouping the people into rural and urban dwellers.
2. Rural areas are those in which the majority of people are engaged in primary activities. In the urban areas the majority of the people are engaged non-primary activities.

The life styles, food habits, professions, social circumstances, density of population, standard of development, etc. are different in the rural and urban dwellers. The rural dwellers engage in primary activities whereas the urban dwellers engage in service-related activities. In the Western countries, in the rural areas there are more men and in the urban areas more women. But in India, Pakistan and Nepal, more men than women dwell in cities.

In America, Canada and Europe it is the women who migrate from villages to cities looking for good jobs. As agriculture is mechanised there, it is the men that stay in the rural areas. But in Asian countries more men migrate to cities from villages. In Asian countries, women do not migrate to cities like men, because women lack of suitable dwelling places, appropriate jobs and safety, and high cost of living.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 22.
Explain the demographic transition theory.
Answer:
This theory points out that when a community moves from rural-agricultural-illiterate level to urban- industrial-literate level, the population there moves from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. These changes that have been happening for ages are generally called demographic transition. Demographic transition theory can be used to explain and forecast the future population of any region.

Demographic transition theory has 3 Stages.

• First Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. This stage is called high fluctuating stage.
  2. Birth and death rate very high. ‘
  3. A lot of contagious diseases.
  4. Inequitable distribution of food.
  5. Increase in births made the population grow.
  6. Most of the people illiterate.
  7. Longevity very little.
  8. Technical knowhow very little.
  9. The Adivasis in Bangladesh rain forests come in this category.
• Second Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Known as the Expanding stage
  2. Although in the beginning, the birth rate is high,, slowly it becomes less.
  3. Death rate steadily decreased.
  4. Progress in the health-sanitatiort spheres.
  5. The different in birth-death rates increased the population.
  6. Peru, Sri Lanka, Kenya etc. come this stage.
• Third Stage in the Demographic Transition theory:
  1. Known as Lowfluctuating stage/
  2. Birth-date rates low.
  3. People are urbanised.
  4. Progress in education and technical knowhow.
  5. Canada, Japan, USA etc. come in this group.

Question 23.
i) What are the merits of water transport?
ii) Name a National Waterway in India and write its terminals.
Answer:

1. This is the easiest way of transporting heavy and large goods to their distant destinations.
2. Less expensive
3. Security expenses less.
4. High fuel efficiency.
5. Less pollution.
6. No traffic blocks
7. Less risky compared other means of transport.
8. Eco-friendly

Water Ways	Distance
NW 1	Allahabad – Haldia
NW 2	Sadia – Dhubri
NW 3	Kottappuram – Kollam

Question 24.
Classify the towns of India on the basis of dominant function with examples for each.
Answer:
Different types of Urban Settlements: Depending on the size and the services available and functions rendered, urban centres are designated as town, city, conurbation, megalopolis, and million city.

1. Town: The concept of ‘town’ can best be understood with reference to ‘village’. Population size is not the only criterion. Functional contrasts between towns and villages may not always be clear-cut, but specific functions such as manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, and professional services exist in towns.

2. City: A city may be regarded as a leading town, which has outstripped its local or regional rivals. In the words of Lewis Mumford, “the city is in fact the physical form of the highest and most complex type of associative life”. Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions. They tend to have transport terminals, major financial institutions and regional administrative offices.

3. Conurbation: The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large
area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns or cities. Greater London, Manchester, Chicago and Tokyo are examples.

4. Megalopolis: This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularised by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies a super- metropolitan’ region extending, as union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in the U.S.A. is the best- known example of a megalopolis.

In a megalopolis the population crosses one crore mark. It was New York which became the first megalopolis, in 1950.Today there are more than 25 megalopolises in the world. Even in developing countries the number of megalopolises is increasing.

5. Million City: When the population of a city crosses the one million mark it is designated as a million city. The number of million cities in the world has been increasing as never before. London reached the million mark in 1800, followed by Paris in 1850, New York in 1860, and by 1950 there were around 80 such cities. By 2005, threw number increased to 438.

Question 25.
Match the following items in column ‘A’ with the most suitable items given in column ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:

A	B	C
i. Plantation agriculture	Jhuming	Resource pooling
ii. Mediterranean agriculture	Denmark, Netherland, Italy	Ashes increase the fertility of soil
iii. Co-operative farming	West Africa, India, Sri Lanka	Highly specialized commercial agriculture
iv. Slash and Burn agriculture	Viticulture	Introduced in European colonies

Answer:

A	B	C
i. Plantation agriculture	West Africa, India, Sri Lanka	Introduced in European colonies
ii. Mediterranean agriculture	Viticulture	Highly specialized commercial agriculture
iii. Co-operative farming	Denmark,Netherland, Italy	Resource pooling
iv. Slash and Burn agriculture	Jhuming	Ashes increase the fertility of soil

Question 26.
The idea of Human Development is supported by the concepts of Equity, Sustainability, Productivity and Empowerment. Write notes on each.
Answer:
Human Development:
The concept of Human Development was put forward by Mehboob-ul-Haq. In his view it is the process which, considering various factors from healthy physical environment to social, political and economic freedom, increases the opportunities for acquiring education, health care, income empowerment etc. and develop opportunities for people to make their choice. The four components of human development are – Equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

(a) Equity : Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. But this does not happen in many societies.

For example in all countries there are students who drop out of school before completing their studies. Most of these drop outs are girls and those belonging to socially and economically backward classes. Example: India. As they don’t have educational qualifications, they lose their opportunities to choose what they want.

(b) Sustainability- Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

We can take the example of sending girls to school. If we don’t give importance to sending them o schools it will affect their future badly. They won’t be able to choose the job they want when they grow up. They will lose many of their opportunities. It will affect the other areas of their life. Their will burn out by doing household chores and some other manual labour. So have a responsibility to make sure that we make everyone in the future generation is competent enough to get the opportunities he/she wants to choose.

(c) Productivity- Productivity here means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

(d) Empowerment- Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Question 27.
Discuss any four factors that determine the location of industries.
Answer:
Factors that determine the location of Industries:
There are many factors that determine the location of Industries. Some of the most important are the following:

1. Nearness to the Market:
The things manufactured in the industries have to be sold. So an important factor in locating the industry is nearness to the market. By market it is meant people who are capable of buying the things produced by the industry. If the population of a place is small the market will be small. In Europe, America, Japan and Australia, which are developed nations the markets are global and big. The people there have great buying power. The densely populated areas in Asia also are good markets. Some industries have international markets: airplane manufacturing industry, arms manufacturing industry, etc.

2. Closeness to the raw materials:
Closeness to the raw materials seriously affects the location of the industry. Factories are to be opened in places where raw materials are easily and cheaply available. There should easy transport methods for the raw material to reach the factories. Factories that use raw materials which are cheap, large in size and which lose weight because of delay (factories manufacturing steel, sugar, cement, etc.) should be close to the sources where the raw materials like iron ore, sugar cane and limestone are available.

1. A main reason for establishing factories close to the sources of the raw materials is the possibility of the raw materials getting spoiled by long transport.
2. Factories manufacturing agricultural and milk products should be close to the sources where agricultural products and milk are easily available.

3. Availability of Labour:
Availability of Labour is another important factor in deciding the location of a industries. Some
Maximum Lpu&(isfiers industries need skilled workers. However, mechanisation and automation have reduced the dependence of industries on labour.

Availability of Energy: Some industries, like the aluminium industry, need a lot of energy. So they should be close to places where there are distribution centres of energy. Earlier the main energy source was coal. Now many industries work using electricity and petroleum.

Availability of transport and communication facilities: To bring raw materials to the factory to transport the finished goods to the markets, well developed transport and communication facilities should be available. Transport cost a big consideration in the location of an industry. In Western Europe and America there are excellent transport systems. That is why in these areas here are many industries.

1. Modern industries can’t exist away from proper transport facilities.
2. Communication facilities are also important for modern industries. They help to exchange information.

4. Government Policy: In deciding on the location of Industries, the government policy also plays a big part. Each government formulates a policy that encourages equitable economic development. So governments try to establish industries in areas which do not have them. Because of this policy, in certain places industries are established.

5. Agglomeration Economies: Around a major industry some mutually related small industries come up. From the nearness of the big industry, the small scale industries . profit. These profits called agglomeration economies. The relations among different industries help in reducing costs and in making bigger profits.

Section – E

Answer any 1 question from 28 to 29. caries 6 scores. (1 × 6 = 6)

Question 28.
Low productivity is one of the problems faced by Indian agriculture. Discuss in detail the other problems,
Answer:
1. Problems of Indian Agriculture:
Only 33% of the agricultural land in India has irrigation facilities. The remaining land depends on monsoon rains for its water. Of the south-west monsoon comes earlier or later, the plans of the farmers will be upset. If there is more monsoon rain it will cause floods and if it less, it will bring droughts. Droughts and floods are the twin threats that challenge Indian agriculture. Drought is the phenomenon of places with less rain. Rarely there can be floods here also. The floods that happened in 2006 in the dry areas of Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan are good examples for this.

2. Low Productivity
The quantity of paddy, wheat, cotton and oil seeds we get in India from one hector of land is much less than what they get in Russia, America, Japan, etc. Depending only on the rains, if we cultivate grains, pulses, oil seeds etc. in dry areas the harvest will be very little.

In India, the pressure on the land is very great. Therefore the availability of agricultural land is getting less. Naturally the productivity here is much less than in many other countries. In places where the agriculture depends solely on rain crops like rough grains, pulses an oil seeds give only low yields.

3. Constraints of financial resources or indebtedness:
To use modern farming methods, a lot of capital investment is needed. The poor peasants and farmers in India do not have the financial capacity to invest such capital. When they are in financial problems, the agriculturists take loans from individuals or financial institutions. If the crops are ruined or if the harvest is very low, they get trapped in indebtedness. There are so many instances of farmers committing suicide as they can’t repay their debts.

4. Lack of land reforms:
The landlord system (Mahalwari, Riotwari, Zamindari) that exited during the British rule was quite exploitative. Although many land reforms were made after independence, because of the lack of strong political, will, they were not put into practice effectively. As the land reforms are not put into practice, the inequality in the distribution of land continues. Because of that farmers are exploited and agricultural development becomes difficult.

5. Small farm-size and fragmentation of land holdings:
In India more than 60% of the farmers have on|y less than 1 hectare of land in their possession. Because of the increase in population the landholding is getting even less. In India agriculture is done on small pieces of land. Agriculture done on such small pieces of land is not profitable. There has been no effort to unify the pieces into large farms in many States. When land is transferred to the next generation the land further gets fragmented. On such small pieces the cost of agriculture is high but the yield is low.

6. Lack of commercialization:
Most farmers cultivate things only for their own needs. If the agriculture sector is to be profitable and attractive it should be mechanised and commercialised. Most of the small scale farmers produce what they need for their families. Only in places which have irrigation facilities, commercialisation of agriculture, that is producing crops aiming the market, is possible.

7. Vast under-emplovment:
Once the harvest is done, till the next planting season, the farmers will have no work. In places where there are no irrigation facilities, this problem is very acute. There seasonal unemployment is acute. Once the harvest is over, till the next plenting season, they have nothing to do. Thus they have to simply remain idle from 4 to 8 months of the year. Even in the agricultural season they don’t have enough work. Many agricultural activities do not need many labourers. In short, farmers have no chance of working throughout the year.

8. Degradation of cultivable land:
Wrong irrigation methods and unscientific agricultural development plans make the soil loses its fertility. Alkalization, calcification, water clogging, continuous farming, lack of proper fertilizers etc, reduce the productivity of the land. Planting different things will also reduce fertility. Places which depend solely on rains are adversely affected by soil and wind erosion especially where the soil is soft and loose and the climate is warm. Because of the unscientific methods used by people the fertility of the land gets reduced.

Overuse of chemical fertilizers and insecticides cause infertility of the soil. Instead of pulses, some farmers started cultivating other crops and then there was multicrop farming which does not allow the land any rest. This also adversely affects the quality of the soil. The land does not get time to draw nitrogen from the atmosphere and make the land naturally fertile.

Question 29.
Classify the industries on the basis of following hints and explain each:
Size
Raw materials
Products
Ownership
Answer:

• Cottage Industry
  1. The smallest industrial unit.
  2. Done with the help of family members.
• Small Scale Industry:
  1. Uses small machines that use energy. Semi-skilled workers work here.
• Large Scale industry
  1. Big capital investment and availability of 1000s of workers are needed.
  2. Modern manufacturing techniques and different raw material are used.

1. Aarobased Industries:
These are industnes that use agricultural products as their raw materials Eg. cotton, jute, silk, edible oil, etc.

2. MIneral based Industries:
These are industries that use minerals mined from the earth as their raw materials. Eg. Making ornaments, won and steel industry.

3. ChemIcal based Industries:
These are industries that use potassium. sulphur, salts, mineral od, etc. as their raw materials. Eg. Plastic, artificial fibres.

4. Forest based incisth:
These are industries that use forest products like timber, bamboo, honey, resins. etc. asthelraw materials. Eg. Paper, furniture industry.

5. AnImal based Industries:
These are industries that use hides and skins of animals, their fur, teeth, horns and bones as their raw materials. Eg. Ivory products, hides and skins Industry. Based on ownership, industries are divided into 3.

1. Public Sector Industries: These are industries that are owned and controlled by the government Eg. Steel Authority of India (SAJ)Ud., Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd.

2. Private Sector Industries: These are Industries that are owned by private individuals. Eg. Tata Iron and Steel Company.

3. Joint Sector Industries: These are industries that are jointly by the public sector and the private sector.
Eg. Oil India Ltd., Maruti Udyog Ltd.

Section – F

Identify and mark the following on the given outline map of India. (6× 1 = 6)

Question 30.
a) A land-locked port in Andhra Pradesh.
b) A software technology park in Kerala.
c) The leading producer of coffee in India.
d) A lignite field in Tamil Nadu.
e) The most densely populated state in India as per 2011 census.
f) A cultural town in Punjab.
Answer:
a) Visakhapatnam
b) Techno Park (Thiruvananthapuram)
c) Karnataka
d) Neyveli
e) Bihar
f) Amritsar

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2022

PART – I

A. Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Si unit of electric charge is ………….. .
Answer:
Coulumb

Question 2.
When alternating current is flowing through an inductor, the phase difference between potential and current is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer:
(c) 90°

Question 3.
Momentum of a photon with wavelength λ is,
(a) hλ
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)
(c) \(\frac{\lambda}{\mathrm{h}}\)
(d) λ + h
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\lambda}\)

Question 4.
According to Bohr, the electron can revolve around the nilcleus only in those orbits where angular momentum is an integral multiple of ………….
Answer:
\(\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 π}\)

Question 5.
Write the number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of \({ }_Z^A X\).
Answer:
No. of protons = Z
No. of nuetrons = A – Z

Question 6.
A stationary charge can produce electromagnetic waves. State true or false.
Answer:
False.

Question 7.
What is the value of magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil having n turns carrying current?
Answer:
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 n I}{2 R}\)

Question 8.
When bulk pieces of conductors are subjected to changing magnetic flux, currents are induced in it. Name the current.
Answer:
Eddy current

Question 9.
The redistribution of energy due to the superposition of two or more light waves is called ………..
Answer:
Interference

Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
When a dielectric is placed between the plates of a capacitor, its capacity,
(a) remains the same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
Answer:
(b) increases

Question 11.
Which of the following material is used to make standard resistance ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Germanium
(d) Manganin
Answer:
(d) Manganin

Question 12.
The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is. (negative/positive/zero)
Answer:
Negative

Question 13.
The blue colour of the sky is due to …………. .
Answer:
Scattering

PART -II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 ta 17. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
State Gauss’s law in magnetism.
Answer:
The net magnetic fiux through any closed surface is zero.

Question 15.
Draw the phasor diagram for an A.C. voltage applied to a series LCR circuit.
Answer:

Question 16.
A gate Is a digital circuit that follows a logical relationship between the input and output.
(a) Which are the universal gates ?
Answer:
NAAD gate and NOR

(b) Why are they called so ?
Answer:
They are so called because all other basic gates can be realised using them.

Question 17.
What are coherent sources ?
Answer:
Two source are said to be coherent if phase difference between the dispalcements produced by each of the waves does not change with the time.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each carries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
A charged particle is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field.
(a) What is the shape of the path followed by the particle ?
Answer:
Circular

(b) If the field is non-uniform, what is its new trajectory ?
Answer:
Spiral

Question 19.
Write any two uses of X-rays. (2)
Answer:
• Used in investigation of structure of solids.
• Diagnostic tool in medicine and in treatment of certain form of cancer.

Question 20.
(a) What is the equation for torque acting on a dipole placed in a uniform electric field ?
Answer:
\(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{P}} \times \overrightarrow{\mathbf{E}}\)

(b) What is the condition for maximum torque ?
Answer:
θ = 90° (The angle between the direction of electric dipole moment and electric field should be 90°).

PART-III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
The resistance is the opposition offered by a material to the flow of current.
(a) The unit of resistance is
Answer:
Ω(Ohm)

(b) Find the equivalent resistance of two resistors R₁ and R₂ connected in parallel.
Answer:
Consider two resistors R₁ and R₂ connected in parallel across a potential of V volt as shown.

The potential across all resistors are equal but current is different.
The current through resistor R₁,
I₁ = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\)
The current through resistor R₂,
I₂ = \(\frac{V}{R_2}\)
Total current through the combination is
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
R is the effective resistance of combination.
Total current through combination is equal to sum of current through each resistor.
I = I₁ + I₂
Substituting we get,
\(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{V}{R_2}\)
Eliminating V, we get
\(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\)

Question 22.
A spherical mirror is a mirror with a curved reflecting surface.
(a) What is the relation between focal length and radius of curvature of a spherical mirror ?
Answer:
f = \(\frac{R}{2}\)

(b) Prove that for a concave mirror forming real image,
\(\frac{1}{u}\) + \(\frac{1}{v}\) = \(\frac{1}{f}\)
Answer:

Let points P, F, C be pole, focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror. Object AB is placed on the principal axis. A ray from AB incident at E and then reflected through F. Another ray of light from B incident at pole P and then reflected. These two rays meet at M. The ray of light from point B is passed through C. Draw EN perpendicular to the principal axis.
∆IMF and ∆ENF are similar.
ie, \(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{NE}}=\frac{\mathrm{IF}}{\mathrm{NF}}\) …………..(1)
but IF = PI – PF and NF = PF (since aperture is small)
hence eq. (1) can be written as
\(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{NE}}=\frac{\mathrm{PI – PF}}{\mathrm{PF}}\) ………….(2)
[∵ NE=AB]
∆ABP and ∆IMP are similar
\(\frac{\mathrm{IM}}{\mathrm{AB}}=\frac{\mathrm{PI}}{\mathrm{PA}}\) ……….(3)
From eq.(2) and eq.(3),weget
\(\frac{\mathrm{PI – PF}}{\mathrm{PF}}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{PI}}{\mathrm{PA}}\)
applying sign convention we get
PI = -v
PF = -F
PA = -u
Substituting these values in eq.(4) we get
\(\frac{-v-f}{-f}\) = \(\frac{-v}{-u}\)
\(\frac{v-f}{vf}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\)
\(\frac{1}{f}\) – \(\frac{1}{v}\) = \(\frac{1}{u}\)

Question23.
(a) Define dip at a place.
Answer:
The angle between earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is called dip.

(b) Calculate the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place where the dip is 60° and the horizontal component is 0.2 × 10^-4 wb/m². (2)
Answer:
θ = 60°
B_h = 0.2 × 10^-4 wb/m²
tan θ = \(\frac{B_V}{B_H}\)
B_v = B_H tan θ
B_v = 0.2 × 10^-4 × tan 60°
= 0.2 × 10^-4 × -√3
= 0.346 × 10^-4 Wb/m²

Question 24.
(a) Write any two characteristics of equipotential surfaces.
Answer:
No work is done to move a charge from one point to another along equipotential surface.

(b) What is the shape of equipotential surface around a point charge ?
Answer:
Direction of electric field is perpendicular the equipotential surface.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27 Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
Photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons from certain metal surfaces when they are exposed to light.
(a) State any two laws of photo electric emission. (2)
Answer:
1) For a given frequency of radiation, number of photoelectrons emitted is proportional to the intensity of incident radiation.
2) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the frequency of incident light but it is independent of the light intensity.
3) Photoelectric effect does not occur if the frequency is below a certain value. The minimum frequency (v₀) required to produce photo electric effect is called the threshold frequency.
4) Photoelectric effect is an instantaneous phenomenon.

(b) What is meant by stopping potential ?
Answer:
The retarding potential at which photo current reaches zero is called stopping potential.

Question 26.
A nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons.
(a) Define mass defect. Write an equation for mass defect.
Answer:
The mass defect (∆m) is the difference in the mass of nucleus and total mass of constituent nucleons.
∆m = (ZM_p + (A-Z)m_n] – M

(b) The nuclear process used in nuclear reactor is ………..
Answer:
nuclear fission

Question 27.
(a) Define ionisation energy.
Answer:
Ionization energy is the minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of atom

(b) Mention any two drawbacks of Rutherford model of atom.
Answer:
i) The Bohr model is applicable to hydrogenic atoms. It cannot be extended to many elec-tron atoms such as helium.
ii) The model is unable to explain the relative intensities of the frequencies in the spectrum.
iii) Bohr model could not explain fine structure of spectral lines.
iv) Bohr theory could not give a satisfactory explanation for circular orbit.

PART – IV

A. Answer any 3 qeustions from 28 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
A capacitor is a system of two conductors separated by an insulator.
(a) Obtain an expression for the equivalent capacitance of two capacitors connected in Series.
Answer:
Let two capacitors C₁ and C₂ be connected in series to a potential of V. V₁ and V₂ are the potential across C₁ and C₂.

The applied voltage can be written as
V = V₁ + V₂
Charge ‘q’ is same in all capacitors.
V₁ = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\)
V₂ = \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
Substituting values in (1), we get
V = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
If C is the effective capacitance of combination.
V = \(\frac{q}{C}\)
Equation (2) can be written as
\(\frac{q}{C}\) = \(\frac{q}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{q}{C_2}\)
Eliminating q, we get
\(\frac{1}{C}\) = \(\frac{1}{C_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{C_2}\)

(b) The potential across a 900 pF capacitor is 100 volts. How much energy is stored by the capacitor? (2)
Answer:
V = 100 V
C = 900μF = 900 × 10^-6 F
Energy stored in a capacitor,
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) CV²
E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) 900 × 10^-6 × (100)² = 4.5 J

Question 29.
A moving coil galvanometer is used as a current detector in a circuit.
(a) What is the working principle of a moving coil galvanometer?
Answer:
A current carrying loop placed in magnetic field experience a torque . T=NIABsin0

(b) How can you convert a moving coil galvanometer into
(i) an ammeter
(ii) a voltmeter
Answer:
(i) A galvanometer can be converted in to ammeter by connecting a small resistance (shunt resistance) parallel to it.

(ii) A galvanometer can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting a high resistance in series to it.

Question 30.
An emf is induced in a coil due to the change of flux in the same coil.
(a) This phenomenon is called ………….
Answer:
Self induction

(b) Derive an expression for the energy stored in an inductor.
Answer:
When the current in the coil is switched on, a back emf (ε = -Ldt/dt) is produced. This back emf opposes the growth of current. Hence work should be done, against this e.m.f.
Let the current at any instant be ‘I’ and induced emf
E = \(\frac{-d \phi}{d t}\)
i.e., vyork done, dw = Eldt dl
= L \(\frac{d I}{d t}\)Idt
dw = LIDI
Hence the total work done (when the current grows from 0 to I₀ is)
w = \(L \int_0^{I_0} I d I\)
w = \(\frac{L}{2}\left[I^2\right]_0^{t_0},\)
w = \(\frac{1}{2} L I_0^2\)

This work is stored as potential energy.
V = \(\frac{1}{2} L I^2\)

Question 31.
A diode is used to rectify alternating voltages.
(1) Which property of diode is used here?
Answer:
A p-n junction diode conducts current when it is 4 forward biased, and does not conduct when it is reverse biased.

(2) Explain a full wave rectifier using necessary circuit diagram.
Answer:
Circuit

Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance R_L. Input a.c signal is ^ applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D₁ and D₂. The output is taken across R_L.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is fprward biased and D₂ is reverse biased. So that current flows through D, and Ru.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is reverse biased and D₂ is forward biased. So that current flows through D₂ and R_L. Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through R_L in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across RL for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 to 33. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
A transfer is used to change alternating voltage from one to another of greater or smaller value.
(a) Which principle is used in transformer ?
Answer:
Mutual Induction

(b) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 volts to a stepdown transformer with primary coil having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at 230 V ?
Answer:
N_P = 4000
V_P = 2300 V
V_S = 230 V
\(\frac{N_S}{N_P}\) = \(\frac{V_S}{V_p}\)
N_S = \(\frac{V_S}{V_p}\) × N_P
= \(\frac{230}{2300}\) × 4000 = 400

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2021

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Each Questions from 1 to 6 carries 1 scores. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 1.
Identify the pull factor of migration:
a) Water shortage
b) Unemployment
c) Educational facitities
d) Epidemics
Answer:
c) Educational facitities

Question 2.
Which among the following is a primary activity?
a) Hunting
b) Trade
c) Transport
d) Tourism
Answer:
a) Hunting

Question 3.
Which of the following streams of internal migration where male migrants dominate in India?
a) Rural-Rural
b) Rural-Urban
c) Urban-Rural
d) Urban-Urban
Answer:
b) Rural-Urban

Question 4.
A health indicator used to measure Human Development in India.
а) Rich resource base
b) Life free from illness
c) Education
d) Employment
Answer:
b) Life free from illness

Question 5.
Name the port located on the River Hugli.
a) Visakhapatnam Port
b) Chennai Port
c) Mumbai Port
d) Kolkata Port
Answer:
d) Kolkata Port

Question 6.
The target area planning sutiable for Rajasthan Desert:
a) Hill Area Development Programme
b) Command Area Development Programme
c) Drought Prone Area Development Programme
d) Tribal Area Development Programme
Answer:
c) Drought Prone Area Development Programme

Each question from 7 to 14 carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 7.
Define Human Geography.
Answer:
Human Geography is the study of the socio-cultural environment created by man through his interaction with the physical environment.

Question 8.
What is Population Pyramid?
Answer:
Population Pyramid is the graph showing the number of men and women of different ages in the population.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Public Sector Industries? Give one example.
Answer:
Public Sector Industries are those which are owned and controlled by the government, e.g. Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO).

Question 10.
Distinguish between quaternary and quinary economic activities.
Answer:
Quaternary economic activities are those services centred on research and development in the areas of gathering, production and exchange of information. These are services that need special knowledge and technical expertise, and they are fast-developing. Quinary economic activities are the activities of the decision makers and policy formulators.

Question 11.
What are Ports of Call? Give one example.
Answer:
Ports of Call are those ports along the chief ocean or sea routes. The ships passing through these routes stop at these ports for refuelling and collecting other necessities like food, water and various others things. An example is the port of Singapore.

Question 12.
List out any two factors affecting the location of rural settlements.
Answer:
Availability of water and materials for making things.

Question 13.
Define the following:
a) Conurbation
b) Megalopolis
Answer:
a) Conurbation is different towns and cities merging together and making a large city complex.
b) Megalopolis is conurbations merging into a huge urban complex with large populations.

Question 14.
Write any two problems of Indian Agriculture.
Answer:
a) Over-dependence on the monsoons.
b) Low productivity.

Each question from 15 to 25 carries 3 scores. (11 × 3 = 33)

Question 15.
Name three components of population change.
Answer:
Birth Rate, Death Rate, Migration.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Growth and Development.
Answer:
Growth is quantitative and beyond values. It can be positive or negative. Development means favourable and positive growth. When the growth is positive, there is development.

Question 17.
‘Equity’ is one of the pillars in the idea of Human Development. Write the other major pillars.
Answer:
Apart from Equity, the other pillars of Human Development are Stability, Productivity, and Empowerment.
Stability: This refers to the availability of continuous opportunities. For stable human development, each generation should have the same amount of opportunities. Each generation should ensure opportunities for the future generations.

Productivity: Productivity refers to the making of things using human labour. By developing the talents and abilities of people, productivity must be increased. Knowledge and health-care will increase productivity.

Empowerment: Empowerment means getting the knowledge and energy to choose opportunities properly. When freedom and abilities increase, this energy is obtained. To empower people, good administration and people-centred policies are necessary. The empowerment of socially and economically backward people should be given special importance.

Question 18.
Write a short note on the characteristic features of plantation agricultrue
Answer:
In plantation agriculture, the main crops are tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, oil palm, sugar cane, banana, and pineapple. Some of the other features of plantation agriculture are:

1. Large estateS/groves
2. high capital
3. technical management
4. scientific agricultural methods
5. single crop production.

Question 19.
Write a short note on underground mining.
Answer:
When mineral ores lie buried deep below the earth’s surface, underground mining becomes necessary. In this type of mining vertical tunnels are made and through them the gathered ores are brought to the surface. For this, lifts, drilling equipment and ventilator facilities etc. are essential. Poisonous gases, fire, floods, landslides etc. can be risky factors in underground mining.

Question 20.
Write any three characteristic features of Inland water transport.
Answer:

1. Least expensive mode of transport.
2. Many possibilities for tourism.
3. Most suitable for transporting heavy goods and large numbers of travellers.
4. Causes less atmospheric pollution.

Question 21.
Define density of population. Distinguish between physiological density and agricultural density.
Answer:
Density is the proportion between the largeness of the area and the population of that area. It is calculated on the basis of how many people are there per square kilometre.
Density = Population/the area of the region.
Physiological density = Total population/net cultivated area.
Agricultural density = Total agricultural population/ net agricultural land.

Question 22.
What are Border Roads? Write its importance.
Answer:
Border roads are the roads built on the international borders. These roads play a big role in uniting the people in isolated places and to ensure their safety. Most countries have such roads to transport things to the border villages and military camps.

Question 23.
Classify the Indian towns on the basis of their evolution.
Answer:
On the basis of their evolution, the Indian cities are divided into three:
Ancient cities, Medieval cities and Modem cities. Ancient cities: These are cities with a historical background of more than 2000 years. Most of these cities developed as cultural centres. Examples are Varanasi, Patliputra and Prayag.

Medieval cities: Most of these developed as capitals of principalities and provinces. Fort cities also are also included in this category. Examples are Delhi, Hyderabad, and Agra.

Modern cities: These are cities developed in India by the British and other Europeans. Commercial port cities like Surat, Daman, Goa, British administrative centres like Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, and Industrial centres like Jamshedpur come in this category.

Question 24.
Write any three merits of rain water harvesting.
Answer:

1. Replenish ground water sources.
2. Resists reduction of water levels.
3. Prevents landslides and floods.
4. Prevents salt water seeping into the areas near seashores.

Question 25.
Write a short note on the Petroleum resources of India.
Answer:
Petroleum mining started in India in Digboi in Assam. Recently new oil deposits were discovered in the western and eastern regions of India. The main oil fields are Digboi, Naharkatia and Moran in Assam, Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Navagam, Kosamba, Lunej in Gujarat, and Mumbai High in Maharashtra. Mumbai High is an offshore oil field, 160 km away from Mumbai.

Each Questions from 26 to 35 carry 4 scores. (10 × 4 = 40)

Question 26.
Explain briefly about the pull factors of migration.
Answer:
The main pull factors of migration are better job opportunities, better life, peace and stability, security of life and property, good climate, etc. Better educational opportunities, better health care facilities, better entertainment facilities also are other pull factors.

Question 27.
Distinguish between the positive growth of population and negative growth of population.
Answer:
When the birth rate is more than the death rate in a given period, there is positive growth of population. Here the population increases. If there is a lot of migration into a country, then also, positive growth of population takes place. When the population decreases in an area in a given period there is negative growth of population. When birth rate is less than death rate, or people migrate in large to other countries, there will be negative growth of population.

Question 28.
Explain the various approaches in Human Development.
Answer:
The various approaches in Human Development are:

1. income approach
2. welfare approach
3. basic needs approach
4. capability approach

Income approach: This was the early time approach to Human Development. This approach states that the freedom an individual enjoys is reflected in his income. If the income level is higher, then it leads to higher human development.

Welfare approach: This approach looks at people as the beneficiary of all development programmes. This approach focuses on higher Government expenditure on health, education, social welfare and basic amenities. By spending more on welfare schemes it is the duty of the government to make human development possible.

Basic Needs approach: The International Labour Organisation (ILO) proposed the basic needs approach. As per this approach, six basic needs of the human needs are identified and they are: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing. These needs are stressed in this approach.

Capability approach: This approach was given by Indian economist, Dr Amartya Sen. As per capability approach, the key to increasing human development is access to resources, building human capabilities in the areas of education, and health.

Question 29.
List the features of Dairy Farming.
Answer:
Characteristic Features of Dairy Farming:

1. High breed milch animals are reared scientifically in the most modern ways.
2. It needs high capital investment.
3. Stable, cattle feed, milking machines, etc. increase the expenses.
4. More importance to breeding and the health of the animals.
5. Many workers are needed.
6. No holiday time, orvacation, asavailable in other kinds of farming.
7. Because it is market-oriented, they are located near big city and industrial centres.

Question 30.
Explain briefly the characteristic features of Nomadic Herding.
Answer:
Features of Nomadic herding:

1. An ancient means of livelihood.
2. Shepherds depend on their animals for their food, clothes, stay, and travel.
3. They move with their animals from one place to another.
4. Each group will have definite grazing areas.
5. In different areas different kinds of animals are reared. It also depends on the climate.
6. Because of definite international borders and new housing regulations, this way of living is becoming less popular.
7. This is concentrated on three areas: a) From the western shores of Africa to Mongolia, China, b) the Tundra Regions of Eurasia, c) Africa- Madagascar.

Question 31.
Write a short note on the significance of Satellite Communication.
Answer:
Significance of Satellite Communication:

1. Internet is the huge electronic chain that links people all over the world.
2. It reduces the expenses for communication and lessens the relevance of time.
3. Through satellites, long distance communication, television and radio broadcasting, and climatic forecasts have become more efficient.
4. E-mail, E-commerce, E-learning, E-governance etc. are made possible.
5. It makes the concept of global village possible.

Question 32.
What do you mean by migration? Differentiate between life time migrant and migrant by last residence.
Answer:
The moving of people from one region to live in another region, permanently or temporarily, is called migration.
If the region recorded in the census is different from ones’ region of birth, such migrants are called life time migrants.
If the region recorded in census is different from the previously recorded region, such migrants are called migrants by last residence

Question 33.
List out the differences between rural and urban settlements.
Answer:

1. Rural settlements depend on primary activities connected with the land for their livelihood.
2. Urban settlements depend more on industrial and service sectors.
   Villages give cities their food items, and raw materials. In return the cities give services to the villages in their jurisdiction.
3. In villages, the relations among people are stronger. But in cities people are always busy; they live a complex life, and their social relations will be merely official.
4. In villages, the population and its density will be less. But in cities, the population and its density will be more.

Question 34.
What are non-conventional sources of energy? Write a short note on any one of them.
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy are solar, wind; energy, geothermal, tidal, and biomass. They are renewable and stable sources of energy. They are distributed everywhere in almost equal measure. They are environmental friendly, and less expensive, except for the initial cost.

Solar energy: Solar technologies convert sunlight into electrical energy either through photovoltaic (PV) panels or through mirrors that concentrate solar v radiation. This energy can be used to generate electricity or be stored in batteries or thermal storage. It is less expensive, environmental friendly and can be easily made.

Question 35.
Write a short note on Mumbai-Pune Industrial region.
Answer:
Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region: This region extends from Thane to Pune and in adjoining districts of Nasik and Sholapur. This region’s development began with the first cotton industry in Mumbai. When the Suez Canal was opened in 1869, the Mumbai port became important and this helped in the growth of this industrial region. Moreover the starting of different chemical industries, and the work of Mumbai High offshore oil fields added energy to this region.

Industries producing engineering products, oil purification, petroleum based products, hides and skins, synthetics, plastics, medicines, chemical fertilizers, electrical goods, ship-building, electronics and software industries grew up here. The main centres here are Mumbai, Colaba, Kalyan, Thane, Trombay, Pune, Nasik and Sholapur.

Each Questions from 36 to 38 carries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 36.
Describe briefly the demographic transition theory.
Answer:
Demographic transition theory can be used to explain and forecast the future population of any region. This theory points out that when a community moves from rural-agricultural-iIIerate level to urban- industrial-literate level, the population there moves from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. These changes that have been happening for ages are generally called demographic transition.

As can be seen in the picture, demographic transition is in three stages. 4 In the early stage birth rate and death rate were high. To compensate for the loss of lives due to contagious diseases and unequal distribution of food, people started producing more children. Since both the death rate and birth rate were high, the population growth was very slow.

During this stage most of the people were illiterate, and did agricultural work. Technical knowledge was very little. Longevity was less. 4 In the second stage, although in the beginningthe birth rate remained high, slowly it began to decrease. Death rate also slowly decreased. The reason was the improvement in the sanitation
and health care sectors. This difference in the birth rate and death rate resulted in the population increasing.

In the final stage, both birth and death rates reseriously reduced. In the birth rate either there is stability or very slow growth. Urbanization, high literacy, and technical knowledge made people to deliberate reduce the size of their families.

Question 37.
Explain briefly the social and economic consequences of migration.
Answer:

• Social consequences of migration:
  1. Migration works as the driving force for social change. Ideas connected with the new technology, family planning, women education etc. move from urban centres to villages.
  2. Migration brings together people of different cultures.
  3. The mental horizons of people become enlarged and their narrow thinking vanishes.
  4. The social emptiness caused by the strangeness of the place and people and boredom etc. are some of negative results of migration. These things may lead some people even to commit crimes and become alcohol and drug addicts.
• Economic Consequences of Migration:
  1. The money sent by the migrants is the main gain for the people from where the people migrate. This is big sources of foreign exchange.
  2. Just like international migration, internal migration also helps in the growth of regions.
  3. The money sent by the migrants is used for food, marriage, agriculture, and house construction by the people who remain at home.

Question 38.
Explain the classification of urban centres based on their function with suitable example.
Answer:
Based on their functions urban centres can be classified as shown below:
a) Administrative towns and cities: The more important administrative institutions are situated here. Examples: New Delhi, Bhopal.

b) Industrial cities: These are cities where industries are concentrated.
Examples are: Murnbai, Salem.

c) Transport Cities: These cities are ports or centres of internal transport.
Examples: Kochi, Agra

d) Commercial cities: They are famous for
Examples: Kolkata, Sahranpur.

e) Mining Cities: These are cities that flourish in mineral rich areas.
Examples: Raniganj, Jharia

f) Defence Cities: They are cities which developed as military centres.
Examples: Ambala, Jalandhar

g) Educational Cities: They started as educational centres or Campus cities.
Examples: Chennai, Bangalore

h) Cultural Cities: They are linked to culture and religion.
Examples: Varanasi, Mathura

i) Entertainment Cities: They cater mainly to the tourist industry.
Examples: Shimla, Mount Abu

Question 39.
Identify the following Geo-information and locate them on the given outline map of India. Each carries 1 score. (7 x 1 = 7)
a) The urban agglomeration which received the higher number of migrants.
b) The state which is the leading producer of Coffee.
c) A market based oil refinery.
d) The largest coal field.
e) The headquarter of Northern Railway Zone.
f) The most polluted tributary of the river Ganga.
g) The state which is the leading producer of Manganese.
Answer:

a) Greater Mumbai
b) Karnataka
c) Barouni
d) Jharia
e) New Delhi
t) Yamuna
g) Odisha

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The economist who introduced the concept of Human Development.
a) Ratzel
b) Mahbub-UI-Haq
c) Semple
d) AmartyaSen
Answer:
b) Mahbub-UI-Haq

Question 2.
The factor that makes the people leave their place of origin.
a) Flood
b) Educational facilities
c) Better job opportunities
d) Better health facilities
Answer:
a) Flood

Question 3.
An agro based industry
a) Iron and steel industry
b) Leather industry
c) Food processing
d) Paper industry
Answer:
c) Food processing

Question 4.
The pattern of rural settlement developed in regions where several roads converge:
a) Circular Pattern
b) Linear Pattern
c) Star like Pattern
d) Double Pattern
Answer:
c) Star like Pattern

Question 5.
The type of planning in which formation and imple-mentation of the schemes aimed at the development of various sectors of the economy.
a) Target area planning
b) Sectoral planning
c) Regional planning
d) Hill area development planning
Answer:
b) Sectoral planning

Question 6.
A water borne disease due to water contamination:
a) Hepatitis
b) Corona
c) Chickenpox
d) AIDS
Answer:
a) Hepatitis

Question 7.
An activity included in the Quaternary sector.
a) Transportation
b) Tourism
C) Policymaking
d) Research and Development
Answer:
d) Research and Development

Question 8.
The concept of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generations.
a) Regional development
b) Sectoral development
c) Sustainable development
d) Human development
Answer:
c) Sustainable development

Question 9.
If the value of export of a country is more than the value of imports, then the balance of Trade is
a) Positive
b) Neutral
c) Negative
d) Zero
Answer:
a) Positive

B. Answer all questions from 10 to 13. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 10.
The factor which does not influence industrial location.
a) Market
b) Labour supply
c) Raw material
d) Soil fertility
Answer:
d) Soil fertility

Question 11.
The biogas released during the fermentation of untreated waste disposal
a) Methane
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Helium
Answer:
a) Methane

Question 12.
The report of the Rio Copference in 1993 was entitled as ……
a) Our common future
b) Agenda-21
c) Limits to growth
d) Small is beautiful
Answer:
b) Agenda-21

Question 13.
The service related to the transmission of words, messages, facts and ideas.
a) Transportation
b) Tourism
c) Communication
d) Trade
Answer:
c) Communication

Part – II

A. Answer any 2 questions from 14 to 17. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 14.
Among the three indicators of Human Development one is health indicator. Identify the other two indica-tors.
Answer:
Social indicators, and Economic indicators.

Question 15.
(i) Find out the concept which reflects a middle path between environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) Who introduced this concept?
Answer:
i) Neo-determinism
ii) Griffith Taylor

Question 16.
Define the term ‘Demographic Cycle’.
Answer:
As a community changes from rural- agricultural- illiterate level to urban-industrial-literate community, its population also changes from high birth-death rate to low birth-death rate. The demographic cycle is used to predict the future population of a country.

Question 17.
List the four streams of internal-migration in India.
Answer:

1. Rural to Urban
2. Urban to Rural
3. Rural to Rural
4. Urban to Urban

B. Answer any 2 questions from 18 to 20. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 18.
Differentiate between Truck farming and Factory farming.
Answer:

• Truck Farming:
  1. Truck farming concentrates on vegetable cultivation only.
  2. It is the process by which immediately after harvesting, without losing the freshness of the vegetables, they are loaded into trucks and taken to the market.
  3. for this kind of farming, seeds with high productivity, irrigation facilities, good fertilizers and insecticides are needed.
• Factory Farming:
  1. This is the type of farming that has progressed in the industrial regions of Western Europe and America.
  2. Cattle are reared in sheds and chicken (poultry) in coops.
  3. The animals and birds are given artificial food and care is taken to prevent illnesses.
  4. The investment is high – To construct buildings, to get the necessary machinery, and making provision for warmth and light, money is needed.
  5. Veterinary service should be available all the 24 hours.
  6. Genetic manipulations and scientific cross breeding are done.

Question 19.
Name the two main fibre crops cultivated in India.
Answer:
Cotton, Jute

Question 20.
Iron and Steel industry is called a basic industry. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Iron and steel are the raw material needed for almostall industries. All industries are based on the iron and steel industry. So this industry is called Basic Industry. Because it needs huge amounts of raw materials and the products are also huge and heavy, it is also called Heavy Industry. The following are the features of this industry.

1. Raw materials – iron, steel, manganese, lime stone.
2. The availability of ores and transport facilities are important in the location factors of this4ndustry.
3. To export the products from the factories port facilities are needed.
4. Marketing facilities are important.
5. It requires heavy capital investment.

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 24. Each caries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 21.
International trade may be categorised into two types. Identify them and mention the differences between – them.
Answer:
1) Bilateral trade
2) Multi-lateral trade

1. Bilateral Trade:
In bilateral trade two countries sign a mutual agreement.
Example: India buys computers and related instruments from Japan and Japan buys raw materials from India.

2. Multi lateral trade:
CDR = Crude Death Rate
When one country trades with many other countries, it becomes Multilateral trade. Countries that are engaged in multilateral trade-are given the status of MFN (Most Favoured Nation).

Question 22.
Identify the concept in human development which leads to better work efficiency. Write any two char-acteristics of that concept.
Answer:
Mining is the excavation of minerals and rocks. Its features:

1. Increased job opportunities.
2. Higher wages.

Question 23.
There is a strong relationship between raw material and location of industry. Comment on it.
Answer:
The availability of raw materials seriously influences the decision about the location of an industry. Factories should be built in places where raw materials are easily and cheaply available. There should be facilities for the easy transport of raw materials from their sources to the factories. Factories that use raw materials which are cheap, large in size and which lose weight because of delay (factories manufacturing steel, sugar, cement, etc.) should be close to the sources Where the raw materials like iron ore, sugar cane and limestones are available.

1. A main reason for establishing factories close to the sources of the raw materials is the possibility of the raw materials getting spoiled by long transport.
2. Factories manufacturing agricultural and milk products should be close to the sources where agricultural products and milk are easily available.

Question 24.
List the advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. Transport that is less expensive.
2. Environmental friendly.
3. There is less pollution.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 25 to 27. Each carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 25.
Define the follovving terms:
(i) Crude Birth Rate
(ii) Crude Death Rate
(iii) Migration
Answer:
1) Crude Birth Rate:
CBR is the rate showing how many births take place in 1000 persons in the population of a given place. Thp formula for calculating CBR is:
CBR = \(\frac{B i}{P}\) x 100 P
CBR = Crude Birth Rate
Bi = the number of babies born that year
P = Half yearly population.

2) Crude Death Rate
CDR is the rate showing how many deaths take place in 1000 persons in the population of a given place. The formula for calculating CDR is:
CDR = \(\frac{D}{P}\) 100
CDR = Crude Death Rate
D = the number of deaths
P = Half yearly population.

3) Migration
Moving from one region to live in another region is called migration. As the result of migration, the population of one region increases and the population of the other region decreases.

Question 26.
How do the rain-water harvesting techniques help in conserving water resources in India?
Answer:
Rain harvesting is the colleting of rain water for different future uses. The rain water is collected, filtered and then directed to tanks, wells, ponds or tube wells. It helps in raising the underground water levels.
Advantages:

1. Less expensive
2. Environmental friendly
3. Helps in raising the underground water levels
4. Prevents soil erosion
5. Prevents floods
6. It prevents salt water from seeping into the regions close the sea
7. Availability of water is ensured even during summer
8. Helps in solving the problem of increased needs of water.

Question 27.
List any three problems of rural settlements in the developing countries.
Answer:

1. Basic ameriities are less.
2. Increased unemployment
3. Poverty

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 28 to 31. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 28.
What are the advantages of Non Conventional Energy Sources?
Answer:

1. Renewable
2. Environmental friendly and suitable
3. Free from pollution
4. Available in plenty
5. Less expensive

Question 29.
Mention the economic importances of Rhine Water way.
Answer:
The Rhine River flows through Germany and the Netherlands. 700 km of its length is suitable for transport. Even big ships can travel there.
1. The Ruhr River joins with the Rhine River and it flows through coal rich regions.

2. There is no wonder that these river basins have become a huge productive sector with coal-related industries.

3. The Dusseldorf port is situated here.

4. This is the busiest water way in the world. Each year more than 20,000 ships and more than 200,000 inland boats travel along this waterway. It is this waterway that links Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and Netherlands with the Atlantic Sea-Route.

Question 30.
The dependence on erratic monsoon is a major problem faced by Indian agriculture, Write a note on it.
Answer:
In India there are irrigation facilities only in 33% of the total agricultural land. The remaining 67% of the agricultural land depends on the monsoons. If the south-west monsoons come early or get delayed, the plans of the farmers will be completely upset. If the monsoon rains are more, they cause floods and if they are less, they cause droughts.

Question 31.
Prepare a brief note on the geographical factors that influence the distribution of population.
Answer:
Geographical Factors
a. Availability of water
b. Nature of the land.
c. Climate
d. Soil

a. Availability of Water:
People like to stay in places where water is easily available in large quantities. Water is inevitable for all human endeavours like agriculture, irrigation, industry, transport, tourism, generation of electricity and so on. that is why all river basins are crowded.

b. Nature of the land:
People like to live in places that are flat or with slight slopes. Such places are more suitable for agriculture, making roads, build factories and residences.

c. Climate:
In the places which are too cold, too hot, or where there is too much rainfall, the density of population will be less. It is not easy for man to live such places with harsh climatic conditions.

d. Soiil
Fertile soil is essential for agriculture and related works. Soil that is fertile mixed with clay, sand and organic elements is the most suitable for agriculture.

B. Answer any 1 question from 32 and 33. Caries 4 scores. . (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 32.
Complete the table by identifying right answers from the given indicators. (New Delhi, Jamshedpur, Satna, Jharia, Ambala, Roorki, Tirupati)

Educational town	Industrial Town	Administrative Town	Minina Town
_____A_____	_____B_____	_____C_____	_____D_____

Answer:

Educational town	Industrial Town	Administrative Town	Minina Town
Roorki	Jamshedpur	Nwe Delhi	Jharia

Question 33.
What are the significances of sex ratio in representing the status of women in a country?
Answer:
Sex ratio shows the number of women for 1000 men. In India, the number of women has been less than that of men for years. Therefore the sex ratio in India is negative. The social and economic standing of women of a country can be determined according to the sex ratio. Where female foeticide, female infanticide and atrocities against women are rampant the discrimination between man and woman will be more.

Part – V

A. Answer any 2 questions from 34 to 36. Each caries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 34.
There are four distinct phases of population growth identified in India over last one century. Prepare a note on the characteristics of the two phases extending between 1921 and 1981.
Answer:
The two phases between 1921 and 1981 are the following:
1. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921-1951)
2. Population Explosion Phase (951-1981)

1. Steady (Stable) Population Phase (1921 – 1951):
This is the 2nd phase where the population growth was steady. As health care facilities became easily available, death rate was reduced. The development of communication and transport facilities and the special attention of the government helped the public distribution system to become better. Although the economic depression of the 1920s and the Second World War adversely affected this second phase of population growth, it was steady in this phase.

2. Population Explosion Phase (1951 -1981):
The 3rd phase was the period of population explosion in India. In this phase the death rate was drastically reduced and the birth rate drastically increased. The annual growth reached 2.2% in this phase

Question 35.
Explain Mining as a primary activity.
Points must include
• Factors affecting mining
• Methods of mining
• Economic importance
Answer:
The factors that affect the profitability of mining activities are categorised into two.
1. Physical factors:
The size of minerals, their grade, the conditions in which they are found.

2. Economic factors:
The demand for the ores, the technical facilities and expertise available for the mining, the financial capacity for developing basic amenities, labourers, expenses for transport. Depending on the nature of ores and the situation in which they are found, mining activities can be divided into Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining) and Underground Mining (Open Shaft Methods).

A. Surface Mining (Open Cast Mining):

1. Ores are close the surface of the earth.
2. This is the easiest way of mining.
3. Less expensive.
4. Less risky.
5. Profitable

B. Underground Minina (Open Shaft Methods):

1. The ores or minerals are far below the earth’s surface.
2. There is high risk. (Poisonous gases, floods, landslides, formation of caves, flames of fire, etc.)
3. This is very expensive.

Question 36.
Identify the following geo infomation and locate them on the given Outline map of India. (6 × 1 = 6)
(A) The port situated in Goa.
(B) The largest coal field In India.
(C) The industrial region where major concentration of jute mills are found.
(D) The northern most metro city in India which is connected by Golden Quadrilateral.
(E) The iron and steel plant initially known as Mysore iron and steel works.
(F) The port situated in Mahanadi delta.
Answer:
(A) Mormugaoport
(B) Jharia
(C) Hugli Industrial Region
(D) Delhi
(E) Visvesaraya Iron and Steel Works Ltd.
(F) Paradip port

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Section – A

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 1.
Indian towns are classified into three types on the basis of evolution.
Answer:

1. Ancient Cities: Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Patliputra (Patna), Mathura.
2. Mediaeval Cities: Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Nagpur.2
3. Modern Cities: Bombay (Mumbai), Madras (Chennai), Kolkata, Goa.

Question 2.
Identify the two types of water transport.
Answer:
i) Inland Waterways.
ii) Sea Routes.

Question 3.
List out the consequences of air pollution.
Answer:

1. Air pollution is harmful to the health of the people. It causes diseases like asthma, bronchitis, allergy, lung cancer, etc.
2. Atmospheric pollution creates misty smoke above cities. This is called urban smog. It has been proved beyond doubt that smog is harmful to the health of people.
3. Air pollution causes acid rain. Acid rain brings about risky problems to the health of man and atmosphere.
4. The World Health Organization points out that the greatest killer in South East Asia is air pollution.

Question 4.
State the importance of internet as a com-munication system.
Answer:
It is in the urban areas the internet is used widely. Nowadays it is common to find the use of the internet even in the villages. E-mail, e-commerce and e-banking have become very widespread these days. Through e-mail the user can establish visible contact with others. The growth that has taken place in e- commerce in recent times is mind-boggling. E-banking helps the user to do banking activities sitting right in his home.

The internet is a treasure house of knowledge. It has collected detailed information regarding various subjects and we can easily access it. The Internet enables us to get information least expensively, and in quick time in an easy way. Not only that, it provides the basic facilities to establish visible communicative relations.

Question 5.
State the importance of availability of labour as a factor influencing industrial location.
Answer:
Any industry needs workers. Without workers industries cannot function. Industries are usually established in places where skilled and unskilled workers are easily available at low costs. Since India has a sufficiently large population, workers are available in large numbers. But skilled workers may not be available in sufficient numbers everywhere. Therefore it becomes necessary to start such industries where skilled workers are available. For example the diamond industry is concentrated in Surat because of the availability of skilled workers. Existing industries are sometimes moved to places where cheap labour is available.

Question 6.
Identify the role of Entrepot ports in Interna- tionai trade. Write two examples for entrepot ports.
Answer:
Entrepots are ports where goods brought from different countries are collected and kept for exporting to other countries. Examples: Singapore, Rotterdam, Copenhagen.

Question 7.
Write a note on Truck Farming.
Answer:
In some areas farmers concentrate only on producing vegetables. Such farming is called truck farming. Between the truck farm and the market the distance should be such that a truck can reach the market in one night. That is why this kind of farming is called truck farming.

Question 8.
What is crude birth rate? How is it calculated?
Answer:
The death rate also plays a big role in the population change. It is not only when the birth rate is high that the population growth occurs, but also when the birth rate is low. Death rate is calculated by using the simple method of Crude Death Rate (CDR). CDR means in the population of a pface how many persons die for each 1000 persons. This is how it is calculated:
\(\frac{\text { The total Deaths in a year }(\mathrm{D})=\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\text { Mid Year population }(\mathrm{P})}\)
DDR = \(\frac{\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\mathrm{P}}\)

Question 9.
What is Bilateral trade?
Answer:
Bilateral trade is the trade between two countries. This is a system in which two countries enter into a trade agreement and mutually trade some special products.
For example India enters into an agreement with Japan, to buy Indian made goods and Japan enters an agreement with India to sell Japanese raw materials.

Question 10.
Define population density. Write the equation used to calculate the population density.
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a square kilometre in a particular area. There is a limit to the number of people an area can contain. Therefore there is a need to know the ratio between the number of people and area of the land. This ratio is the density of population. The equation for the population density is:
Population Density = \(\frac{\text { Number of People }}{\text { Land Area }}\)
For example let us imagine the place called Bepur is 100 sq.km in area and its population is 150,000. The density of population there is 1500 persons per sq.km.

Section – B

Answer any 8 questions from 11 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 11.
List out the benefits of Integrated Tribal Development Project.(ITDP).
Answer:
The Integrated Tribal Development Programme (ITDP) is being implemented under the Tribal Sub-Plan since the fifth five- year plan. The main objective of the programme is to reduce poverty, improve the educational status and eliminating the exploitation of tribal families. Currently, there are 192 projects in 19 states and union territories. Bharmaur is a tribal area. The region has harsh climatic conditions, low resource base and a very fragile environment. It is one of the most economically and socially backward regions of Himachal Pradesh.

The area is geographically and politically isolated and it has social and economical deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities like sheep and goat rearing. Because of ITDP, the development and establishment of schools, health care facilities, hospitals, potable water, roads, communications and electricity were largely observed in the region. The literacy rate increased. The male-female ratio became better. There were less child marriages. Literacy rate of women increased in a big way. Now they cultivate different crops including cash crops. However they are still using traditional methods in their cultivation.

Question 12.
Elaborate the following:
1. Isochrone
2. Time Distance
3. Cost Distance
Answer:
1. Isochrone: Iso means equal and chrone means time. We choose a means of transport thinking of the distance, time and expense. An isoerhone is a line drawn on a map connecting points at which something arrives at the same time. To join places that can be reached in the same amount of time, lines with same colour are used on the maps.

2. Time Distance: The actual time used to travel in a particular route.

3. Cost distance: The actual expenses incurred to travel in a route.

Question 13.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of a society.
Answer:
Technology is developed after carefully studying about natural laws. After finding ways to control fire, which was a prehistoric invention, and the later Stone Age Revolution increased the sources of food. The invention of the wheel helped man to travel on the earth and to exercise some control over it. Many developments in history like the invention of the printing press, telephone and the Internet reduced the physical obstacles in communication and allowed man to conduct his activities on a global basis. Technology has many benefits.

Including today’s global markets, technology has made extensive development in the economic field. Some technological innovations have caused unnecessary and dangerous by-products. Pollution, environmental degradation, depletion of natural resources, etc. are some such unwanted side effects of technology. Moreover technology often influences the values of the society and raises new moral questions. Until recently it was believed that technological development is limited to people and their affairs. But scientific studies carried out in the 21st century show that even some other species and some dolphin communities develop simple tools and transfer their knowledge to the next generations.

Question 14.
Write any six important characteristic features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
Large capital investment, cheap labour, scientific methods of cultivation, large estates or plantations, managerial and technical support, single crop specialisation, and a good system of transportation etc. are some of the salient features of plantation agriculture.

Question 15.
List out the challenges faced by adolescents in India.
Answer:
Competent youths are a great asset to the nation. But if the youths are not properly guided they will go astray and then they will become a threat to the society. Early marriage among youths, illiteracy, drop-out from schools, lack of nutritious food, death of teenage mothers in childbirth, HIV/AIDS, physical and mental deficiencies, use of psychedelic drugs, alcoholism, criminal tendencies etc. are some of the challenges towards society.

Question 16.
Efficient use of water is necessary to ensure sustainable development. Suggest a fewways for the Reuse of water.
Answer:
Another way to improve the availability of pure water is recycling and reusing of water. This is the process of reusing the water which has been used once by purifying it or using that water for some other purposes.

The water that is not potable can be used in industries for cooling or, to extinguish fires. Water can economically used by doing this. In the urban areas, the water used for taking bath and cleaning plates and utensils can be again used for watering the garden. The water used for washing vehicles can also be used for watering the garden. This way pure water can be reserved for drinking purposes.

Question 17.
What is Transhumance? Identify the tribal groups engaged in Transhumance.
Answer:
Depending on the climatic changes, the people of some regions move to other regions along with their domestic animals. In the summer season, they move their animals from the plains to the meadows in the hilly regions. But in the winter, they bring them back to the plains. This kind of migration according to seasonal changes is called Transhumance. Gujars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Changpas are the tribafgroups engaged in transhumance.

Question 18.
State the importance of the Northern Atlantic Sea Route.
Answer:
Two Regions in the world that have achieved industrial development are North-Eastern America and North-Western Europe. These regions are connected by the North Atlantic sea route. This sea route has much economic importance. The highest amount of foreign trade takes place along this sea route. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade takes place through this path. As the busiest sea route in the world this is called the Big Trunk Route.

Question 19.
What are the characteristics of fourth phase (post 1981 till present) of population growth of India?
Answer:
The period from 1981 to the present day is the 4th stage of population growth. During this period there was the tendency of gradual decline in the population growth. Although the number of people increased, the rate of population growth was reduced.

The main reason for this is the lower birth rate. The increase in the marriage-able age and the increase in women education helped in reducing the birth rate. Even then the country’s rate of population increase is high. The Wold Development Report points out that by 2025, India’s population is expected to reach 135 crore.

Question 20.
Write a short note on Retail Trading.
Answer:
Retail Trading is the selling of products to the consumers directly. Retail trading is done through permanent shops or stores. Some trading also takes place outside stores. Street vendors, people selling goods in push carts, people selling things from trucks, people who sell things door to door, trading by giving orders via the rail, the telephone and the internet are examples’ of retail trading not done through stores.

Section – C

Aswer any 5 questions from 21 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 21.
Briefly describe the pillars of Human devel-opment.
Answer:
The four main pillars of Human Development are:
a) equity,
b) sustainability,
c) productivity,
d) empowerment.

a) Equity: Equity refers to creating equal access to opportunities and ensures that is available to everybody. The opportunities accessible to people must be equal irrespective of their caste, gender, race, and income. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.

b)Sustainability: Sustainability means durableness in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the expectations of people not only of the present but also of the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

c) Productivity : In the case of human development, productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity should be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Eventually, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, an effort to increase their knowledge, and providing better health facilities automatically lead to better work efficiency.

d) Empowerment: Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and aptitude. Good governance and people-oriented policies are necessary to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically underprivileged groups is of special importance.

Question 22.
Describe the features of High Technology Industry.
Answer:
In high technology industry, the majority of workers have acquired technical expertise (White- Collar workers). Their number will be more than the labourers who actually do the production work. The use of robots, design by computers, production and quality control by electronic control, new developments in the chemical-pharmaceutical products are some of the features High Technology Industry.

Question 23.
Describe the following with suitable ex-amples:
(a) Administrative Towns and Cities
(b) Industrial Towns
(c) Transport Cities
(d) Mining Towns
Answer:
a) Administrative Towns and Cities:
Administrative Towns and Cities are places from which administration is done. Capital cities and district headquarters come under this category. Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, etc. are examples of administrative towns and cities.

b) Industrial Towns: These are towns that give importance to industries. Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Hugli etc. are important industries cities and towns of India. Industry is the life-breath of these cities.

c) Transport Cities: Ports that are engaged in exports and imports and transport cities. Internal transport hubs like Kandla, Kochi, Kozhikode, Visakhapatanam, etc. also come under this category. Agra, Dulia, Mughalsarai, Itarsi, Katni etc. are some of the transport cities.

d) Mining Towns: In’the regions which are rich in mineral wealth and other deposits, mining towns grow up. Raniganj, Jharia, Digboy, Ankaleshwar, Singroli, etc. are examples of mining towns.

Question 24.
Describe any two cropping seasons in India.
Answer:
Two important cropping seasons in India are Kharif and Rabi. The Kharif cropping season starts with the onset of the South-Western monsoons. The harvest is by the end of the monsoons. This season is roughly between June and September. The main Kharif crops are paddy, cotton, jute, maize, bajra, jowar and groundnuts.

The Rabi cropping season starts at the beginning of the Winter season in October- November. The harvest is done in the months – of March April. The reduced temperature of this period is very helpful for the Rabi crops. Wheat, Barley, Oats, Pulses, Mustard and Linseed are the main Rabi crops.

Question 25.
Availability of water influences the distribution of population. Explain any two other geo¬graphical factors influencing population distribution.
Answer:
a) Climate: Climates with extreme cold and extreme heat are not suitable for human habitation. Therefore in scorching deserts, and in the cold regions the population is very little. People don’t like to live in places which have too much rainfall. People are attracted to places where the climate is good, the moderate regions. The Mediterranean regions always had big populations. The reason for that is the pleasant climate there, b) Soil: The fertility of the soil is very important when it comes to agriculture and other related matters. As fertile soils yield good harvests, people like to live in such regions.

Question 26.
Write a note on ‘the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:
Over-exploitation of mineral resource is equally harmful to man and the environment. So, the mineral resources are to be protected at any cost. Sustainable development is the development which gives due consideration to the protection of nature. The traditional ways of using mineral resources are not at all good. They not only overexploit nature, but they also produce a lot of waste polluting everything. Sustainable development demands that the mineral resources should be preserved for the use of future generations. Preserving those resources is an urgent need. Steps should be taken to do that with a sense of priority.

The energy from sunrays, wind and waves, thermal energy, organic energy etc. are never ending. Instead of using the minerals that can be exhausted, we should use the inexhaustible sources for our energy needs.” In short we should develop non-traditional sources of energy. We also should learn to use easily available metals instead of the rare ones. This will reduce the use of rare metals and thus the rare metals can be made to last long.

We should stop exporting minerals that are rare and strategically important. The available metals then can be used for a long time. In short to protect the mineral wealth we should stop their over-exploitation and overuse. Along with that we must develop alternate sources of energy instead of depending on the traditional sources.

Question 27.
Identify and mark the following geoinformation on the given outline map of India.
(a) The Northern most International Airport in India.
(b) The largest container port in India.
(c) An oil refinery in Kerala.
(d) The oil field off the coast of Mumbai.
Answer:
a) Srinagar/Amritsar
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Nhava Sheva
c) Kochi
d) Mumbai High

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time is….
Answer:
Population growth

Question 2.
The oldest approach to human development is
Answer:
Income approach

Question 3.
The type of mining in which the output is both large and rapid is
Surface Mining/Open-cast mining

Question 4.
The theory used to describe and predict the future population of any area is
Answer:
Demographic Transition Theory

Question 5.
The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is termed as
Answer:
Environmental Determinism.

Answer any 8 questions from 6 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 6.
There are several problems faced by Indian agriculture. Two of them are mentioned below. Cite the other ones.
(a) Dependence on erratic monsoon
(b) Low productivity
Answer:

1. Constraints of Financial Resources and indebtedness
2. Lack of Land Reforms
3. Small farm size and fragmentation of landholdings
4. Lack of Commercialisation
5. Vast under-employment
6. Degradation of cultivable Land

Question 7.
Complete the flow chart showing different types of farming.

Answer:
Types of Farming
(a) Irrigated Farming
(c) Protective Farming
(e) Dryland Farming
(f) Wetland Farming

Question 8.
Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got significance because of enormous growth in the quantity of wastes generated from various sources. Name the two sources of solid wastes.
Answer:

1. Household or domestic establishments
2. Industrial or commercial establishments

Question 9.
State any two advantages of non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:
These are the only renewable sources of energy:

1. These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environment friendly.
2. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of. Egs.: Solar, wind, wave, Biogas etc.,

Question 10.
International trade is the exchange of goods and services among countries across national boundaries. Identify and explain the two types of international trade.
Answer:
Types of International Trade

• Bilateral Trade
  1. It is done by two countries with each other
  2. They enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.
• Multilateral Trade:
  1. It is conducted with many trading countries
  2. The same country can trade with a number of other countries

Question 11.
Prepare a brief note on transhumance.
Answer:
Trnashumance

1. The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.
2. Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. Eg: Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas in Himalayas.

Question 12.
Write any two characteristics of slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:

1. The vegetation is cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
2. The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes
3. After the soil loses its fertility (3-5 Yrs), the farmer shifts to other parts
4. Widely practiced by many tribes in the tropics in Africa south and central America and South East Asia

Different Names of Shifting Cultivation

1. Jhumming : North Eastern States of India
2. Milpa : CentralAmerica and Mexico
3. Laclang : Indonesia and Malaysia

Question 13.
The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports.
(i) Identify the two types of ports based on the location.
(ii) Write any one example of each.
Answer:
i) Inland Ports and Out Ports
ii) Examples: Inland Ports, Manchester, Memphis, Kolkata
Examples: Outports, Athens and its outport, Piraeus

Question 14.
List out any four factors that influence the location of industries.
Answer:

1. Access to Market
2. Access to Raw Material
3. Access to Raw Labour Supply
4. Access to Sources of Energy
5. Access to Transportation and Communi-cation Facilities
6. Government Policy
7. Access to Agglomeration economies / links between industries.

Question 15.
Identify the following:
(i) The concept reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) Name the propounder of the concept.
Answer:
(i) Neodeterminism or stop and go determinism
(ii) Griffith Taylor

Answer any 8 questions from 16 to 26. Each caries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 16.
On the basis of evolution in different periods, Indian towns are classified into three. Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Question 17.
Define the terms given below:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
(b) Place of Origin %
(c) Population density
Answer:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
The number of live births in a year 1,000 of population.
CBR = \(\frac{\mathrm{Bi}}{\mathrm{P}}\) x l000

(b) Place of Origin
When people move from one place to an¬other, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin.

(c) Population density
The ratio between the numbers of people and the size of land.
It is usually measured in persons per sq.km.
Density of population = \(\frac{\text { Population }}{\text { Area }}\)

Question 18.
In order to arrest the regional and social disparities in development, the planning commission introduced target area and target group approaches to planning. Find the example of programmes implemented in India by using the given hint.

Answer:

Question 19.
List out the four pillars of human development and explain any one of them in detail.
Answer:
1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
4. Empowerment.

1. Equity : To making equal access to opportunities available to everybody, irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste.
2. Sustainability :It means continuity in the availability of opportunities.
3. Productivity : It means human labour Productivity or Productivity in terms of human work.
4. Empowerment :  It means to have the power to make choices.

Question 20.
Write any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements.
Answer:

• Rural Settlement
  1. People are engaged in primary economic activities.
  2. Rural People are less mobile
  3. Social relations among them are intimate
  4. People provides food and raw materials to the Urban area.
• Urban Settlement
  1. Depend on processing of raw materials, manufacturing of finished goods and a variety of services.
  2. Life is complex and fast
  3. Social relations are formal
  4. Provides goods and services not only to the Urban dwellers but to the people of rural area.

Question 21.
The names of transcontinental railways are given I Column. A. Match the items in column B and C with A.
(A) (B) (C)
Answer:

(A)	(B)	(C)
Trans-continental Railways	Connecting Areas	Countries
Union and pacific Railway	New York San Francisco	USA
Trans Canadian Railway	Halifax Vancouver	Canada
Trans Siberian Railway	St. Petersburg Vladivostok	Russia

Question 22.
List out any three measures for the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:

1. To use alternate energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, Geothermal energy etc.
2. Use of Scrap Metals
3. Use of substitutes of scrap metals
4. Export of Strategic and Scarce minerals must be reduced.

Question 23.
Hunting and gathering are the oldest economic activity known. Mention the characteristics of this economic activity.
Answer:

1. Practiced by people located in very cold and extremely hot climate.
2. This activity requires a small amount of capital investment.
3. Operates at very low level of technology
4. The yield per person is very law and little or no surplus is produced.

Question 24.
Identify the shipping canal depicted in the given map and discuss its features.

Answer:
Suez canal

1. Constructed in 1869 in Egypt
2. Constructed between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south
3. Links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red sea.
4. Length-160 km Depth -11 to 15 m
5. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.

Question 25.
Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. Suggest any three methods for rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

1. Harvesting through watershed management.
2. Harvesting through lakes
3. Harvesting through Service Wells
4. Harvesting through Recharge wells.

Question 26.
Transport distance can be measured in three ways. Explain them in brief.
Answer:
a) K.M. distance : actual distance of route length
b) time distance : The time taken to travel on a particular route. 1
c) Cost distance : actual cost/ expense needed for travel in one route.

Answer any 4 questions from 27 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 27.
The population of world is unevenly distributed. Discuss the various geographical factors that contribute for the differences in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Geographical Factors.

• Availability of water :
  1. It is most important factor for life
  2. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is available.
  3. Water is used for domestic, industrial and navigation purposes.
  4. River’valleys are the most densely populated areas of the world.
• Landforms:
  1. People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
  2. Such areas are favourable forthe production of crops and to build roads and industries.
  3. The Ganga plains are the most densely populated areas of the world while Himalayas are scarcely populated.
• Climate:
  1. An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts are uncomfortable for human habitation.
     Areas with a comfortable climate, attract more people.
• Soils:
  1. Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities.
  2. The areas with fertile loamy soils have more people living in them as these can support intensive agriculture.

Question 28.
Mention the advantages of water transport.
Answer:

1. It is the cheapest means of transport.
2. Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material
3. It does not require route construction.
4. It is a fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
5. The energy cost of water transportation is tower.
6. The Water transport is of 2 types inland waterways and oceanic waterways.

Question 29.
India’s population growth during the last century can be classified into four phases. Complete the table using the given details.

Demographic Transition Phases	Characteristics
Phase – 1	(a) 1901 – 1921 (b) (c)
Phase – 2	(a) (b) Period of steady population growth (c)
Phase – 3	(a) (b) (c) High natural growth of population
Phase – 4	(a) (b) Growth rate remained high and started slow down gradually (c)

Answer:

• Phase 1
  1. Period of Stagnant / Stationary phase
  2. Growth rate was very low.
  3. Both the birth and death rates were very high
  4. Recorded a a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
• Phase 2
  1. 1921-1951
  2. CBR remained high
  3. High birth rate and low death rate.
• Phase 3
  1. 1951-81
  2. Period of population explosion
  3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.
• Phase 4
  1. 1981-till present
  2. A downward trand of CBR
  3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.

Question 30.
Identify any four types of industries based on raw materials used and write any one example of each.
Answer:
Industries based on Rawmaterials / inputs

1. Agro based Industries : Eg : Food processing, Sugar, Textiles, Spices, Rubber beverages etc.,
2. Mineral Based Industries : Eg : Iron and steel industry, Jewellery, cement, Pottery Industries etc.
3. Chemical Based Industries : Eg : Petro – Chemical Industry, Synthetifibre, Plastic etc.,
4. Forest Based Industries : Eg : Furniture industry Paper, lac industries.
5. Animal Based Industries : Eg – Leather Industry Ivory Products Wollen textiles.

Question 31.
Identify and mark the following geo information on the given outline map of India :
(a) The state which records the highest population density according to 2011 census.
(b) The leading manganese producing state.
(c) The largest container port in India.
(d) A land locked harbour in India.
Answer:
a) Bihar
b) Odisha
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Port/Nhava Sheva Port
d) Visakhapatnam

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023

Time : 2 Hours
Total Score: 60

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is NC^-1.
Answer:
Electric field intensity (E)

Question 2.
Two capacitors of equal capacitance when connected in series have a capacitance of C₁. When connected in parallel, they have a capacitance of C₂. What is the value of C₁/C₂?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 3.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of …………
Answer:
Energy

Question 4.
Name the physical quantity which can be expressed by the ratio of the amplitude of electric field to the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave.
Answer:
Velocity

Question 5.
“Critical angle depends on the colour of light”. Whether the statement is true or false?
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens?
Answer:
Converging lens

Question 7.
The binding energy of a nucleus is a measure of its
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Stability
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(c) Stability

Answer any 5 questions from 8 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 8.
What happens to the drift velocity of charge carriers of a wire if its ,
(a) Potential difference is doubled. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity doubled

(b) Length is increased. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity decreases

Question 9.
(a) S.l. unit of magnetic moment of a dipole is (1)
(a) Am
(b) Am²
(c) JT
(d) JT^-2
Answer:
(b) Am²

(b) Figure shows a magnetic substance placed in an external magnetic field. Identify the substance. (1)

Answer:
Diamagnetic

Question 10.
(a) Can a transformer be used to step up or step down a DC voltage? Justify your answer. (1)
Answer:
No.
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction. A change in current in the primary coil produces instantaneous emf in the secondary coil. In the case of dc, there is no change in current and hence transformer can not be used to step up or step down a dc voltage.

(b) Why do we use soft iron core in a transformer? (1)
Answer:
We use soft iron core. In transformer because of low hysteresis loss.

Question 11.
Match the following
(a) Radio waves – Night vision camera
(b) UV rays – Cellular phone
(c) Micro waves – Water purifier
(d) Infrared – Radar
Answer:
(a) Radio waves – Cellular phone
(b) UV rays – Water purifier
(c) Micro waves – Radar
(d) Infrared – Night vision camera

Question 12.
Sketch the wavefront corresponding to light from the following sources:
(i) A point source (1)
Answer:

(ii) A distant source (1)
Answer:

Question 13.
(a) In Rutehrford scattering experiment, most of the a particle go unscattered while some of them are scattered through large angles. What can be concluded from this? (1)
Answer:
The most space inside an atom is empty. The entire mass of atom is concentrated in a small volume called nucleus.

(b) What will be the angle of scattering when impact parameter is 0? (1)
Answer:
180°

Question 14.
Calculate binding energy of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰ from the following data:
mass of proton: 1.007825 a.m.u
mass of neutron: 1.008665 a.m.u
mass of ₂₀Ca⁴⁰ : 39, 962589 a.m.u
Answer:
Binding energy
= ∆mC² – [zm_p + (A – Z)m_n – M]C²
A = 40, Z = 20
m_p = 1.007825 amu
m_n =1.008665 amu
M = 39.962589 amu
Am = Zm_p + (A – Z)m_n – M
= 20 × 1.007825 + 20 × 1.008665 – 39.962589
= 20.1565 + 20.1733 – 39.962589
= 0.367211 amu
= 0.60957 × 10^-22 kg

E_b = AmC² = 0.60957 × 10^-22 × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 5.486 × 10^-11 J

Answer any 6 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 15.
An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E.
(a) Define dipole moment. (1)
Answer:
Electric dipole moment is the product of magnitude of charge and distance of seperation.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) = q × \(\overrightarrow{2 \mathrm{l}}\)

(b) Obtain an expression for torque acting on it. (2)
Answer:

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
Equal and opposite forces +qE and -qE act on the two charges. Hence the net force on the dipole is zero. But these two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action are different. Hence there will be a torque.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance (between the line of action of two forces )
τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = P E sin θ
Velocity \(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{P}\) × \(\vec{E}\)

Question 16.
(a) Draw an equipotential surface due to an isolated point charge. (1)
Answer:

(b) If the electric field intensity at a given point is zero, will the electric potential necessarily be zero at that point? Why? (2)
Answer:
No. inside a charged shell electric field, intensity is zero. But the electric potential is equal to potential on the surface.

Question 17.
(a) How will you convert a galvanometer into voltmeter. (1)
Answer:
A galvanometer can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting a large resistance in series to it.

(b) A galvanometer with a coil resistance 12Ω shows full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the galvanometer into voltmeter of range 0-18 V? (2)
Answer:
R_G = 12 Ω
I_g = 3mA = 3 × 10^-3A
V = 18V
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – R_G
R = \(\frac{18}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 12 = 5988Q

Question 18.
(a) State Gauss’s law in magnetism. (1)
Answer:
Net magnetiv flux through ant closed surface is zero.
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{ds}}\) = 0

(b) Two substances P and Q have their relative permeability slightly greater and less than one respectively. What do you conclude about P and Q? (2)
Answer:
P → Paramagnetic
Q → Diamagnetic

Question 19.
(a) State Huygens principle. (1)
Answer:
According to Huygen’s principle
1. Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2. The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3. The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

(b) Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of reflection. (2)
Answer:
Img 9
AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront, ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of reflection. Let c1 be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.
The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is ,
Img 10
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wave front from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq(2) should be zero.
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r

Question 20.
(a) The variation of stopping potential with frequency of sodium is given below. Calculate its work function. (1)
Answer:
ϕ = hυ
υ₀ = 4Hz (check)
∴ ϕ = 6.63 × 10^-34 × 4
= 26.52 × 10^-34

(b) The work function for two metals are in the ratio 1:2. Find the ratio of threshold wavelength of those metals. (2)
Img 2
Answer:
Img 11

Question 21.
Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working. Also, draw the input and output waveform. (3)
Answer:
Img
Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance R_L. Input a.c signal is applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D₁ and D₂ The output is taken across R_L.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is forward biased and D₂ is reverse biased. So that current flows through D₁ and R_L.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D₁ is reverse biased and D₂ is forward biased. So that current flows through D₂ and R_L.

Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through RL in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across R_L for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.
Img

Answer any 3 questions from 22 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 22.
(a) In a parallel plate capacitor, how is the capacity of affected when
(i) The distance between the plates is doubled.(1)
Answer:
Halved

(ii) The area of the plates is halved (1)
Answer:
Halved

(b) Figure shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B verses increase of charge Q stored on them. Which of the two capacitors has higher capacitance? Given reason for your answer. (2)

Answer:
C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\) = \(\frac{1}{Slope}\)

Question 23.
(a) Kirchoff’s second law is based on laws of conservation of ……… (1)
(i) Charge
(ii) Energy
(iii) Momentum
(iv) Angular momentum
Answer:
(ii) Energy

(b) Use Kirchoff’s rules to analyse the Wheatstore bridge and arrive at Wheatstones condition for balancing the bridge. (3)
Answer:
Four resistances P,Q,R and S are connected as shown in figure. Voltage ‘V’ is applied in between A and C. Let I₁, I₂,I₃ and I₄ be the four currents passing through P, R, Q and S respectively.
Img

Working
The voltage across R.
When key is closed, current flows in different branches as shown in figure. Under this situation
The voltage across P, V_AB = I₁P
The voltage across Q, V_BC = I₃Q ………(1)
The voltage across R, V_AD = I₂R
The voltage across S, V_DC = I₄S
The value of R is adjusted to get zero deflection in galvanometer. Under this condition,
I₁ = I₃ and I₂ = I₄ ………(2)
Using Kirchoffs second law in loop ABDA and BCDB, we get
V_AB = V_AD …………(3)
and V_BC = V_DC ……….. (4)
Substituting the values from eq(1) in to (3) and (4), we get
I₁P = I₂R …………..(5)
and I₃Q = I₄S ………….(6)
Dividing Eq(5)byEq(6)
\(\frac{I_1 P}{I_3 Q}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{I}_4 \mathrm{~S}}\)
\(\frac{P}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{S}\) [since I₁ = I₃ and I₂ = I₄]
This is called Wheatstone condition.

Question 24.
(a) Define self-inductance. (1)
Answer:
Self inductance is the magnetic flux linked with the coil of unit current passing through it.
ϕ = LI
when I = 1A, ϕ = L

(b) Derive an expression for self-inductance of a coil. (3)
Answer:
Consider a solenoid (air core) of length l, number of turns N and area cross section A. let ‘n’ be the no. of turns per unit length (n = N/l)
The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid,
ϕ = BAN
ϕ = μ₀nlAN (since B = μ₀nl)
but ϕ = LI
∴ LI = μ₀nIAN
L = μ₀nAN
If solenoid contains a core of relative permeability μ_r
the L = μ₀μ_rnAN

Question 25.
(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope forming an image at the near point of eye. (2)
Answer:
Img

(b) Obtain an expression for the magnification produced by a compound microscope. (2)
Answer:
Working : The object is placed in between F and 2F of objective lens. The objective lens forms real inverted and magnified image (I₁M₁) on the other side of the lens. This image will act as object or eyepiece. Thus an enlarged, virtual and inverted image is formed, (this image can be adjusted to be at the least distance of distinct vision, D)

Magnification : The magnification produced by the compound microscope
m = \(\frac{\text { size of the image }}{\text { size of the object }}\)
ie, m = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Multiplying and dividing by I₁M₁ we get,
m = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

but we know, m_e = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{~m}_1}\) and m₀ = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{M}_1}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

Where m₀ & m_e are the magnifying power of objective lens and eyepiece lens
m = m₀ × m_e ……….. (1)

Eyepiece acts as a simple microscope.
Therefore m_e = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\) …………(2)

We know magnification of objective lens
m₀ = \(\frac{V_0}{u_0}\) ……….. (3)
Where v₀ and u₀ are the distance of the image and object from the objective lens.
Substituting (2) and (3) in (1), we get
m = \(\frac{- v_0}{u_0}\) (1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\))

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers.

Answer the following questions from 1 to 45 upto a maximum score of 80. Questions 1 to 14. answer for 22 scores.

Question 1.
Who was the first Election Commissioner of India?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) T.N. Seshan
c) G.V. Mavalankar
d) SukumarSen
Answer:
d) SukumarSen

Question 2.
What was the major slogan raised by the opposition parties during 1977 Lok Sabha election?
a) Save Democracy
b) Garibi Hatao
c) Jai Jawan Jai Kissan
d) Non-Congressism
Answer:
d) Non-Congressism

Question 3.
Which of the following popular movement used hug¬ging trees as a method of Agitation? (1)
a) Narmada BachaoAndolan
b) Chipko Movement
c) Bharatiya Kissan Union
d) Dalit Panthers
Answer:
b) Chipko Movement

Question 4.
Medha Patkar is associated with ____ popular movement.
a) Anti-Arrack Movement
b) National Fish Workers Forum
c) Narmada BachaoAndolan
d) Chengara land Struggle
Answer:
c) Narmada BachaoAndolan

Question 5.
Who among the following was a leader of Mizo-Na- tional Front?
a) Angami Zapu Phizo
b) Lai Denga
c) Rajiv Gandhi
d) Kazi Lhendup Dorji
Answer:
b) Lai Denga

Question 6.
Expand the following:
AASU
Answer:
All Assam Students Union

Question 7.
Which country adopted an “Open Door Policy”? (1)
a) European Union
b) China
c) America
d) Japan
Answer:
b) China

Question 8.
First Earth Summit was held at (1)
a) Rio-de-Janeiro
b) London
c) Paris
d) New York
Answer:
a) Rio-de-Janeiro

Question 9.
Answer the following questions:
a) Write the name of paramilitary force of Hyderabad Nizam.
b) Who is known as Frontier Gandhi? (2)
Answer:
A. Razakar
B. GhanAbdul Gafarkhan

Question 10.
What are the models of development before India at the time of independence?
Answer:
Capitalist Model and Socialist Model

Question 11.
Write the name of any four SAARC member countries. (2)
Answer:
India, Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan

Question 12.
Some of the popular movements in India are given below. Pick out the suitable places from the bracket and match them correctly. (2)
a) Bharatiya Kissan Union
b) Chipko Movement
Answer:
A. Bharatiya Kisan Union – Meerut
B. Chipko Movement – Utharkhan

Question 13.
Name the leader who signed the Punjab Accord?(2)
a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldanga
b) Angami Zapu Phizo and Kazl Lhendup Dorji
c) Indira Gandhi and Bhindranwala
d) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
Answer:
D. Rajiv Gandhi and harchand Sing h Longowal

Question 14.
Match the following :

A	B
Russia	Transition Model
Shock Therapy	Successor of USSR
Mikhail Gorbachev	Currency of USSR
Ruble	Perestroika

Answer:

A	B
Russia	Successor of USSR
Shock Therapy	Transition Model
Mikhail Gorbachev	Perestroika
Ruble	Currency of USSR

Questions from 15 to 24 carries 3 scores each. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 15.
Explain “Two Nation Theory”. Who put forward this theory?
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim
League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Muslims. Therefore, the League demanded a separate state, Pakistan for Muslims.

Question 16.
First three General Elections marked the features of Congrass dominance. What are the factors that con-tributed to the dominance of Congress Party?
Answer:

1. Congress had led Independence struggle, that legacy helped them in the dominance of congress in the general elections.
2. Congress was the only party which had strong organisational structure and network all over India.
3. Charismatic Leadership of Nehru and others.

Question 17.
Write down three major objectives of Jawaharlal Nehru’s foreign policy.
Answer:

1. Protect territorial integrity and sovereignty of the coun try.
2. Promote rapid economic development.
3. Opposition to imperialism, colonialism and racism.

Question 18.
India is against nuclear proliferation, but India did not sign NPT and CTBT. Give reasons.
Answer:
India is against of atomic weapons for war like purposes. India stood for complete diarmament within the framework of United Nations. At the same time, refuses to sign NPT, and CTBT because it is discriminatory. India was against the stand of nuclear powers to accumilate nuclear weapons in their workshops and deny the same right to underdeveloped or third world countries.

Question 19.
Discuss the two major reasons which lead to the split of Congress Party in 1969.
Answer:

1. In 1969 there arose a difference between Indira Gandhi and the syndicate.
2. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died, the Presidential post was vacant. The Syndicate nominated Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi proposed V.V.Giri as the President. The failure of the official candidate of the congress caused the formal division of Congress.
3. In 1969, the Congress led by the Syndicate was known as Congress (O) and the group was led by Indira Gandhi was called Congress (R).

Question 20.
Explain the reasons for the failure of Janata Govern-ment
Answer:
Janata party was the product of the National Emergency. As a coalition of different political parties, it had not a common vision and a goal. It proved to be a failure to making basic changes in the country. The completion and conflicts among leaders was yet another failure of the party

Question 21.
Write a short note 6n “Chipko Movement”.
Answer:
Chipko movement was started in 1923 in two or three villagers of Uttarkhand. The forest department prevented the villagers from using the forest but gave permission to a sports company to cut down such trees for commercial purposes. This provoked the villagers, when the workers came to cut the trees, the villagers stood near the trees embracing thetn. This protest spread to many parts of Uttarkhand. As a result of this movement, government issued an order prohibiting the cutting down of trees in that region. Along with women and children, Sundar Lai Bahuguna, and Chandiprasad Bhatt were its leaders.

Question 22.
Kashmir issue is not just a dispute between India and Pakistan. It has also internal and external di-mensions. – Discuss.
Answer:
The politics of Jammu and Kashmir always remained controversial and conflict ridden both for external and internal reasons. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley should be part of Pakistan. Internally, there is a dispute about the status of Kashmir within the Indian union. Recently Central Government withdrawned the special provision of Kashmir under Article 370, and divided Kashmir into two union territories.

Question 23.
Write a short note on “Cubian Missile Crisis”.
Answer:
Cuba was a small country, situated very close to United States of America. A big power like America, could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of communist Russia. As Cuba got financial and military support from Russia, it became a strong country, although it was small in size. In 1962, the Russian leader Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cuba. America sent its warships towards Cuba. This incident was known as Cuban Missile Crisis’.

Question 24.
Point out the consequences of shock therapy.
Answer:

1. Many big industries under government control were collapsed.
2. The Russian currency, Rouble was devalued.
3. GDP was diminished.
4. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
5. Social welfare schemes were abandoned.
6. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Questions from 25 to 33 carry 4 scores each. (9 × 4 = 36)

Question 25.
Explain the challenge of establishing democracy in independent in India.
Answer:
Establishing Democratic system was one of the major challenge in independent I ndia. Free and fair elections were the methods to establish democratic system. The first election was called the greatest
gamble in history by foreign media. A British member of the civil service was said that the future generations would condemn this democratic process as a foolish enterprise. But India succeeded in conducting a free and fair election and we are successful in our democratic experiment.

Question 26.
Briefly explain the nuclear policy of India.
Answer:

1. India’s nuclear programme was initiated under the guidance of Homi J Bhabha.
2. India conducted nuclear explotions in 1974 and 1988.
3. But India is against testing of atomic weapons for war like purposes. India stands for complete disarmament within the framework of UN.
4. India refuses to sign NPT, CTBT, because it is discriminatory.
5. India stood for no first use of nuclear energy.
6. India stands for non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament.

Question 27.
Find out the major consequences of the National emergency of 1975.
Answer:
a) Protest and agitations of government employees were banned.
b) Media was strictly controlled. The media could publish only things the government approved. Many journalists were under preventive detention.
c) Fundamental Rights of the citizens were suspended. Even the courts could not enforce Article 32.
d) Many of the opposition leaders were arrested and kept in jail. The provision of preventive detention was widely used.

Question 28.
“Anti-Arrack movement is not only a movement for banning liquor but also a movement for women empowerment.” Discuss.
Answer:
In 1990’s the women in Nellur district of Andra Pradesh started an agitation against the alcoholism of that region. The habit of drinking arrack created a lot of social-economic issues. The women in Nellur forced a wine shop to close down. The news spread like wild fire into more than 5000 villages. They held meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the authorities. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the state and it would become a success.

Question 29.
What are the main provisions of Punjab Accord and how far the agreement succeeded in solving Punjab crisis?
Answer:
After the 1984, general election, Rajiv Gandhi became the PM. He started talks with the Akali Dal leaders. In 1985, he signed an accord with the Akali leader Harchand Singh Longowal. This is known as Punjab Accord or the Rajiv-Gandhi Longowal Accord. This helped to bring about normalcy in Punjab. The conditions of the Accord are:

1. Handover Chandigarh to Punjab.
2. Appoint a new commission to solve the border disputes between Punjab and Haryana.
3. Establish a Tribunal to share the waters of Ravi, Beas with Haryana, and Rajastan.
4. Compensation will be given to damages related with operation Blue star. Even with all these, normalcy did not return immediately. He took nearly 10 years for things to become normal.

Question 30.
List out the features of Shock Therapy.
Answer:
The failure of Sovet Union made many of its constituent countries abandon communism and follow capitalist ways. Russia, the Satellite countries of Soviety Union from Eastern Europe were attracted towards organisations, in the World Bank and IMF.

1. The main purpose of Shok Terapy was to make communist countries to follow capitalist model.
2. Private capital would be promoted. ..
3. Cooperative farming will give way to private farming.
4. Foreign investment, open market system were promoted.
5. All economic regulations were excluded.

Results

1. Many big industries under government control collapsed.
2. Russian currency Rouble was devalued.
3. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
4. Famines, poverty and unemployment was prevalent.
5. The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
6. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Question 31.
What is the conceptual difference between traditional and non-traditional security?
Answer:
Security implies freedom from threats. There were two aspects of security. They are traditional security and non-traditional security. In the traditional conception of security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. There are two traditional notions of security. They are internal and external.

Non-traditional notions of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. Non- traditional views of security have been called ‘human security’ or ‘global security’. Human security implies the security of human beings than countries and global security implies the security of world.

Question 32.
List out different programmes adopted by India for environmental protection.
Answer:

1. For the protection of environment India has taken the following steps.
2. According to the auto fuel policy of India, only purified fuel is used for vehicles.
3. The Energy Act passed in 2001, aims at the appropriate use of energy.
4. The 2003 Electricity Act requires the use of renewable energy sources.
5. In 2011-12 the Bio-diesel Mission started production of biodiesel.
6. ecently schemes have been worked out for the import of natural gas. It has been decided to use the latest technology for purifying coal. Thus India is doing a lot for environmental protection.

Question 33.
What are the political consequences of globalisation?
Answer:
Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes, instead of promoting it. With the coming of MNC’s it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions.

According to the advocates of globalisation, no political power of the government is lost. Since technology has advanced so much, governments can do a lot. Technology helps governments to know the details of its citizens and make the administration efficient.

Questions from 34 to 41 carry 5 scores each. (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 34.
Write a brief note on the challenges to nation building process in India.
Answer:
Independent India faced three kinds of challenges,
a) Integrating India
b) Ensuring the welfare of the people and development
c) Establish the democratic system

a) Integrating India:
When India got freedom, it had more than 500 Princely States. The rulers of these places wanted to get back their sovereignty when the British left. The government approached the Princely States keeping three things in mind.

a) The majority of people of the Princely States wanted to join Indian Union.
b) Giving some kind of self-rule to some Princely States.
c) In the background of the division, we needed States with precision.

Integration:
Except Junagarh, Hyderabad. Kashmir and Manipur, all the Princely States signed in the Instrument of Accession and joined the Indian Union. Then through a referendum, Junagarh joined Indian Union. Because of popular uprising in Hyderabad against the Nizam, the Indian army took some action and got Hyderabad also into the Union. The Congress Group in Manipur wanted to join the Union, but other parties objected. However, the Manipur king was persuaded and he too joined the Union. Kashmir King also signed the Instruction of Accession to save himself from the attacks of Pakistan and thus Kashmir too became part of India.

The division of the country into States on linguistic basis showed that it could accommodate all the diversities. The people can accept the diversities and live in unity. This is the strength of a country. The Telungana protest and the martyrdom of Potti ” Sriramulu should be remembered here.

Ensuring the welfare of people:
India was a poor country. The country has included provisions in the Constitution to ensure protection to the socially backward people, to religious and cultural minorities and to give all the people equality. Through Directive Principles, the Constitution shows us the way to eradicate poverty and to make the marginalized people come into the mainstream society.

Five Year Plans:
The country has a development model based on socialist principles. We have adopted a mixed economy accommodating both public and private sector enterprises. Establishing democratic system: Democracy was a discovery of foreigners. But the big thing was that we chose democracy in spite of the fact that India is a poor country and there are many illiterates here. The first election was called the greatest gamble in history by foreign media. A British member of the Civil Service said that the future generations would condemn this democratic process as a foolish enterprise. The first Election Commission wasformed with Dr. Sukumar Sen as the Commissioner.

Illiterate Indians were supposed to think in terms of caste and creed. But by making a voters’ list based on our secular system and equality, we succeeded in conducting a fair election and we were successful in our democratic experiment Even after 70 years of Independence, we still face some challenges to our democracy. There are new demands for regional autonomy. There is the Maoist threat. There is intolerance, following the integration of Manipur. There is the Kashmir problem. In spite of all these we have been able to maintain our democratic tradition. After the 1975 Emergency, our rulers have been able to maintain the democratic order without any interruption.

Question 35.
Briefly explain Congress party as a social and ideological coalition.
Answer:
The success of congress was mainly for its social and ideological nature. Different social sections of the people were included in congress such as industrialists, farmers, labourers, city-dwellers, capitalists etc. Thus it became a party representing people at different-levels, religions and languages. Because of the representation of different groups, it became a coalition of different ideologies. It included moderates, extremists, radicals, and people of the left right ideologies. The social and ideological nature of congress helped its success in the first three general elections.

Question 36.
Write the major reasons of 1962 war between India and China.
Answer:

1. Swathantra party was formed in August 1959.
2. C.Rajagopalachari, K.M.Munshi, Meenu Massani were its prominent leaders.
3. Swathantra party opposed centralised planning, state intervention, public sector, etc.
4. They stood for individual freedom and . privatisation.
5. They were against the policy of non-alignment and progressive tax regime.
6. Most of the ideologies of Swathantra party are in favour of capitalist system and they wanted to make India a capitalist country.

Question 37.
Write the major reasons of I 962 war between India and China.
Answer:
The main reasons of Indo-China war in 1962 were boundary disputes and Tibetan issue. The main dispute was about the boundary of the West and East. China claimed the Ladakh Region of Jammu and Kashmirand many areas of Arunachal Pradesh. Between 1957-59, the Chinese occupied the Akasai-chin sector and built the Karakorum Highway.

The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. China imposed their culture on the Tibetans. In 1959, the Dalai Lama, the spiritual leader of the Tibetans, sought refuge in India. In October 1962, the Chinese army occupied some important places of Arunachal Pradesh. The Indian army stopped the Chinese on the western side of Ladakh. Then they announced a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the occupied land Sometimes DODular movements were aaainst the democratic process and development of the country.

Question 38.
“Popular Movements hinder democratic process and development.” Discuss.
Answer:

1. Protests, dharnas and rallies prevent governments from smooth functioning.
2. Most moverments were for or against a particular issue. Thus these movements get the support of only some particular groups of people.
3. For democratic policies, there is a need for broad fellowships and unity. But such broad fellowship is not seen in most of these movements.
4. These movements can work only for limited objectives. Often there were clashes between these movements and political parties.

Question 39.
Explain any two major issues of North East.
Answer:
The North-Eastern States have some geographical peculiarities. It was a region that was not closely linked to the rest of the country. It has long international orders, but communications facilities were less there. Its development was neglected to an extent and the problem was made complex by the emigrants that came from other places. In this complex situation, some complex demands were made:

1) Demand for Autonomy :
At the time of independence, except Manipur and Tripura, the entire North-Eastern region was just one State. After independence, the non-Assamese felt that. Assamese language was imposed on them. Therefore they demanded political self-rule. The Adivasi leaders wanted to keep away from Assam. They formed “Eastern India Tribal Union”., Later it was known as “All Party Hill Leaders Conference”. They demanded one Adivasi State, but more Adivasi States like Meghalaya and Mizoram were formed. Even with this, their demand for self-rule did not end. The Bodos, Karbis and Dimasas etc. demanded their own States. The same area was demanded by more than one community. Because of that the only solution was forming tiny States. Some stayed in Assam and gained their right for self-rule. The Karbis and Dimasas were given self-rule at the District level. The Bodos were given their self¬rule council very’recently.

2) SECESSIONIST MOVEMENT:
MIZORAM: India faced demands for secession from two North-Eastern States – Mizoram and Nagaland. After independence, Mizoram region within Assam itself was enjoying self-rule. But many of them thought that they were not part of British India and so there was no reason for them to join India. In 1959 there was a serious famine in the Mizo Hills. But the Assam government could not take appropriate measures to help the suffering people there. This caused the formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under the leadership of Lai Denga. From 1966, they started an armed struggle to get freedom.

Pakistan aided them and gave them refuge in Eastern Pakistan. In the conflict many ordinary people were killed. This made the local people very angry. In spite of the 20-year long resistance, no party made any gain. Then they had a rethinking. The exiled Lai Denga returned from Pakistan and started talks with Indian authorities. In 1986, a peace accord was signed between him and Rajiv Gandhi. Mizoram thus became a State with some special rights. MNF gave up their resistance.

Question 40.
Towards the end of 1980s, India witnessed several political developments that determined the future of the Indian politics. Explain.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress lost the election. With that election the ‘Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1990s,the government decided to implement the job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Question 41.
List out the principal organs of the UN. Briefly explain any two.
Answer:
The UNO was formed in 24th October 1945 to promote International peace and security. The major organs of United Nations Organisation were

1. General Assembly
2. Security Council
3. Secretariate
4. International Court of Justice
5. Economic and Social Council
6. Trusteeship Council

1) General Assembly:
When all the members of the UN meet together it is called the World Parliament. Each country can send 5 representative in the General Assembly. But each country has only one vote. Once every year the General Assembly will meet.

2) Security Council:
Security council is the executive council of UN. It has 15 members, 10 temporary members and 5 permanent members. USA, UK, USSR, France, China were the permanent members of UN has veto power. The main concern of UN Security Council was international peace and security.

Questions from 42 to 45 carry 8 scores each (4 × 8 = 32)

Question 42.
Explain the process of partition of India and examine its consequences.
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Muslims. Therefore, the Muslim League demanded a seperate nation, Pakistan for the Muslims. There were four major issues in the process of the partition of India.

First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims.There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the west and the other other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian territory.

1. Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim of population wanted to become part of Pakistan, – Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, who was the leader of the North Western Province, had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the north west province was included in Pakistan.
2. Third problem was that British India’s Pubjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these provinces there were very many non- muslims.
3. The fourth issue regarding partition was the minorities lived in the both sides of the boundary of two countries. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

Consequences

1. The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people in both sides were killed because of their religion and caste.
2. The cities like Lahore, Amritsar, Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas.
3. People migrated from one place to other, but during the journey many were attacked and killed, women were brutally raped. In homes, women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour.
4. Not only the land, but even movable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. The writers were described it as ‘division of hearts’.

Question 43.
The declaration of emergancy in 1975 affected normal life of people in various ways. Explain the major causes of emergency.
Answer:
On June 25 1975, the President, on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared Emergency.
The main reasons behind the declaration of emergency are following.
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat and Bihar Movements
c) Dispute with the Judiciary
d) Allahabad HC Verdict and popular movements
e) Protest from opposition

a) Economic Reasons: The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘Garibi Hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that.

First of all there was a refugee problem. Secondly, after the war, America stopped its aid to India. Thirdly there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The fourth reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The fifth problem was negative growth in industrial output. Sixthly the salaries of government employees had to be reduced or even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff. All the above things created an economic crisis in the country.

b) Gujarat and Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were congress led states. The main reason was the increase in the unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these states the opposition parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted and congress lost in the election.

In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was’ a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. In the meantime the railway workers also went on a strike. In 1975 Jay
Prakash Narayan orgnaised a march to the parliament. The opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi.

c) Dispute with the Judiciary : Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the constitution. The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, can the Parliament change the fundamental rights? Secondly can the Parliament change ownership of land. Thirdly the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. Parliament amended the constitution, but Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and Judiciary.

d) Allahabad High Court Verdict: On 12 June Justice J.L.Sinha of the Allahabad High Court passed a judgement declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid. This order came on an election petition filed by Raj Narain, a socialist leader and a candidate who had contested against her in 1971. The petition challenged the election of Indira Gandhi on the ground that she had used the services of government servants in her election campaign. But later Supreme Court granted her a partial stay on the High Court order, that she could remain as MP but could not take part in the proceedings of Lok Sabha.

e) Protest from opposition: The opposition parties started widespread protest under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira Gandhi’s resignation. They announced nation wide Satyagraha and asked the army, police and government employees not to obey immoral orders. The political mood of the country had turned against the congress.

Question 44.
Describe the reasons behind the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Hints :
• Political causes
• Economic causes
• Growth of Nationalism
• Gorbachev and Disintegration
Answer:
There are many reasons for the disintegration of USSR. Theyare
a) Political Reasons

1. In Soviet system there was bureaucratic misrule and misuse of authority.
2. The control exercised by the Soviet government on its citizens made their life difficult.
3. Therewas no freedom of expression ordemocracy. The party refused to give people their rights.
4. Communist party strictly controlled them and reforms were not possible.
5. Soviet Union was a confederation of 15 Republics. Russia dominated the other Republics and the people of the other Republics were either ignored or suppressed.

b) Economic Reasons
Although the Soviet Union was able to maintain its equality with the US in arms race. It was very costly for them. Western technology was better than Russian Technology. The political and economic needs of the soviet people were not taken care of the Soviet government. Soviet union used most of its resources to develop atomic weapons.

The Reforms of Gorbachev
Th reforms of the Gorbacheve like Glasnost and perestroika were the sudden reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union. Glasnost means openness and Perestroika means re-structuring. These reforms did not bring the expected results. They brought more troubles to the country leading to its disintegration.

Consequences
End of cold war
Disintegration of Soviet Union was the end of cold war and bi-polar polity. It was also the end of power- block rivalry and arms race. The world became unipolar in nature nad the hegemony of US became a reality.

Change in power relations
After the second world war, there were two power blocks competing each other. They are the capitalist block led by USA and the socialist blocks led by USSR. But the disintegration resulted a change in the existing power system.

Emergence of new countries
As a result of the disintegration, there were many new countries emerged and others disappeared. The mighty confederation USSR became fragmented into 15 independent Republics. Like some of the satellite countries of USSR in the eastern European region were divided and that resulted in the formation of new countries.

Question 45.
The American Hegemony has military, economic and cultural dimensions. Describe three different aspects of U.S. Hegemony.
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:

a) Hard Power
b) Structural Power
c) Soft Power

Hard Power: This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

STRUCTURAL POWER: This dominance is based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The ” first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power: This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture. We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using ‘soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.