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Students can Download Chapter 5 The Government: Budget and The Economy Questions and Answers, Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 The Government: Budget and The Economy

Plus Two Economics The Government: Budget and The Economy One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Balanced budget multiplier will be always equal to:
(i) 0
(ii) 1
(iii) ∞
(iv) -1
Answer:
(ii) 1

Question 2.
Which among the following is a tax revenue?
(i) Fees
(ii) Fine
(iii) GST
(iv) Profit
Answer:
(iii) GST

Question 3.
IF MPC = 0.5,What is the value of tax multiplier
(i) 0.5
(ii) 0
(iii) 1
(iv) 2
Answer:
(iii) 1

Question 4.
Identify indirect tax from the following
(i) Income tax
(ii) Profession tax
(iii) Wealth tax
(iv) Customs duty
Answer:
(iv) Customs duty.

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a major item of revenue expenditure?
(i) defence service
(ii) subsidies
(iii) interest payment
(iv) acquisition of land
Answer:
(iv) acquisition of land

Plus Two Economics The Government: Budget and The Economy Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following aspects into a table as Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure
Subsidies, Grants to state, Loans to foreign government, Capital projects of plants, investment in shares, Loans to state government, Salary to government staff, interest payment.
Answer:

Revenue expenditure	Capital Expenditure
Subsidies Salary to government staff Interest payment. Grants to state	Loans to a foreign government Capital projects of plants Loans to the state government Investment in shares

Question 2.
State the objectives of government budget.
Answer:

• To achieve economic growth
• To reduce inequalities of income and wealth
• To achieve economic stability

Question 3.
Find the odd man out and reason.

1. Excise duty, fees, fines, penalties.
2. Income tax, sales tax, customs duty, excise duty.

Answer:

1. Excise duty. Others are non-tax revenue
2. Income tax. Others are indirect taxes.

Question 4.
Which of the following is revenue receipt
(a) Taxes
(b) Revenue from fees, penalties
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) All the above

Question 5.
Classify the following into revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. (2)
(a) Interest payment on debit.
(b) Investment in share
(c) Land and advances by central government to state.
(d) Grant given to state government.
Answer:

• a & d Revenue expenditure
• b & c Capital expenditure

Question 6.
MGNREGA aims to increase the purchasing power of the lower income group.

1. How does this affect the value of mpc and Aggregate Demand of our economy?
2. Can the government reduce economic inequality through this scheme? How?

Answer:

1. High value of mpc and AD increases
2. Yes. Income of poor sections increases

Question 7.
Which of the following diagrams represent proportional taxation? Substantiate your answer.

Answer:
C. Because of tax rate increases in proportion to the change in income.

Question 8.
Name the economic terms.

1. The receipts of the government which are non- redeemable
2. The receipts of the government which creates liability

Answer:

1. Revenue Receipts
2. Capital Receipts

Question 9.
Prove that the value of Balanced Budget Multiplier is equal to one.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{1-c}+\frac{-c}{1-c}\)

Plus Two Economics The Government: Budget and The Economy Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Do you agree to the saying the revenue expenditure should not exceed revenue receipts. Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree to the saying the revenue expenditure should not exceed revenue receipts. The fact is that the revenue expenditure is non-developmental expenditure. Therefore, borrowing for meeting revenue expenditure has to be avoided.

Question 2.
“The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabilizer”. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabilizer – a shock absorber because it makes disposable income, and thus consumer spending, less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes.

This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending. During a recession when GDP falls, disposable income falls less sharply, and consumption does not drop as much as it otherwise would have fallen had the tax liability been fixed. This reduces the fall in aggregate demand and stabilizes the economy.

Question 3.
‘Deficits are not desirable for a government’ discuss the issue of deficit reduction.
Answer:
Government deficit can be reduced by an increase in taxes or reduction in expenditure. In India, the government has been trying to increase tax revenue with greater reliance on direct taxes (indirect taxes are regressive in nature -they impact all income groups equally).

There has also been an attempt to raise receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs. However, the major thrust has been towards reduction in government expenditure. This could be achieved through making government activities more efficient through better planning of programmes and better administration.

Question 4.
The Government of India is spending huge amount of money on various activities. This paved the way for the growth of public expenditure and external borrowings. Do you support external borrowings for meeting public expenditure? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
1. It is true that the Government of India is spending huge amount of money on various activities such as defence, urbanization, development programmes, welfare activities, etc.

2. It is desirable for the modem state to spend more for the welfare of the people. However, huge expenses have caused burden for the government.

3. Therefore, I do not support external borrowings for meeting public expenditure. This is because; borrowing from abroad will again bring another burden on the government in the form of interest payment.

Question 5.
Are fiscal deficits necessarily inflationary?
Answer:
Fiscal deficits are generally treated as inflationary. Increase in govt, expenditure and cuts in taxes both leads to government deficit. Increased govt, expenditure and reduced taxes tend to increase the aggregate demand. Generally firms are not able to produce higher quantities that are demanded at the going prices.

This leads to inflationary pressure. However, there is a solution to this inflationary pressure. Economy can utilizatfle unutilized resources and raise production. Therefore, the deficit cannot be inflationary when an economy has unutilized the resources.

Question 6.
Classify the following into public and private goods. List out two features of public goods. Road, cars, clothes, national defence.
Answer:

1. Road, national defence are public goods
2. Cars, clothes are private goods

Two features of public goods are nonrivalry in consumption and non excludability.

Question 7.
Reducing inequalities is an objective of Indian Five year plans. Observe the following tax proportions in the total tax revenue.

1. Which of the above tax proportions help to reduce the economic inequality in society? How?
2. Direct taxes are progressive and Indirect taxes are regressive in nature. Substantiate.

Answer:

1. A, The higher income group contribute more.
2. In progressive taxes more income contributed by the richer sections In regressive taxes more income contributed by the poor sections.

Question 8.
The government of India spent ₹27000 crores under the scheme MGNREGA in 2015-16. Suppose the mpc of India is 0.6. Calculate the impact of this spending on the equilibrium income of the economy.
Answer:
Equilibrium income = Autonomous Govt, expenditure × multiplier Here, multiplier (k) is
\(\frac{1}{1-\mathrm{mpc}}=\frac{1}{1-0.6}=\frac{1}{0.4}=2.5\)
∴ Equilibrium income = 27000 × 2.5 = 67500.

Plus Two Economics The Government: Budget and The Economy Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following aspects into a table as tax revenue and nontax Revenue. Fees and fines, Dividends from PSU, Income tax, Special assessment, Escheats, Excise duties, Customs duties, wealth tax.
Answer:

Tax Revenue	Non- tax Revenue
Income tax Excise duties Customs duties Wealth tax	Fees and fines Dividends from PSU Special assessment Escheats

Question 2.
If the marginal propensity to consume
a) Govt. Expenditure multiplier
b) Tax multiplier
Answer:

Question 3.
Match column B and C with column A.

Answer:

Question 4.
Find the odd one out

1. income tax, sales tax, wealth tax, excise duty
2. fine, corporate tax, fees
3. dividends, fees and fines, borrowings, grants
4. balanced budget, supplementary budget, surplus, budget.

Answer:

1. Income tax. Others are indirect taxes
2. Corporate tax. Others are non-tax revenues
3. Borrowings. Others are non-tax revenues
4. Supplementary budget. This is prepared during abnormal times.

Question 5.
Assume that marginal propensity to consume is 0.5, and change in government expenditure is ₹400. Calculate
a) government expenditure multiplier
b) equilibrium income
Answer:

Question 6.
Discuss the issue of deficit reduction.
Answer:
if the government increases taxes or decreases expenditure then the fiscal deficit gets reduced. Indian government is trying to reduce the fiscal deficit by increasing tax revenue by selling the share of PSUs and by reducing the government expenditure.

The deficit reduction influences the different sectors of an economy in different ways. The government is trying to fill the gap of reduced fiscal deficit by making government activities more efficient through better planning of programmes and better administration.

The cutting back government programmes in vital areas like agriculture, education, health, poverty alleviation has adverse effect on the economy. The same fiscal measures can lead to a large or small deficit government by the state of the economy. During recession period GDP falls which reduces tax revenue which increase the fiscal deficit.

Question 7.
Point out the main objectives of public expenditure.
Answer:
The main objectives of public expenditure are pointed out below

1. for satisfaction of collective needs of the people
2. forsmooth functioning of government machinery
3. for economic and social welfare of the people
4. for creation of infrastructure
5. for controlling depressionary tendencies
6. for accelerating the speed of economic development
7. for reducing regional disparities of growth.

Question 8.
Explain why the tax multiplier is smaller in absolute value than the government expenditure multiplier.
Answer:
The tax multiplier is smaller in absolute value compared to the govt, expenditure multiplier. This is because, the govt, expenditure directly affect the total expenditure and taxes enter the multiplier, process and put impact on the disposable income.

Disposable income influences the consumption expenditure of households. Therefore, the tax multiplier is always less in absolute value than the govt, expenditure multiplier.

For example, assume that MPC = 0.75, then
Govt, expenditure multiplier \(=\frac{1}{1-c}\), C stands for MPC
\(=\frac{1}{1-0.75}=\frac{1}{0.25}=4\)
Tax multiplier = \(\frac{-c}{1-c}=\frac{-0.75}{1-0.75}=\frac{-0.75}{0.25}\)
= -3 (absolute value is 3)
Thus, it is clear from the example, that tax multiplier is smallerthan govt. expenditure multiplier.

Question 9.

Answer:

Question 10.
Match column B and C with Column A.

Answer:

Question 11.
If MPC = 0.5, calculate
a) Tax multiplier
b) Govt, expenditure multiplier
Answer:

Question 12.
Classify the following budget receipts into revenue receipts and capital receipts.
Borrowing, tax revenue, fines and penalties, fees, Recovery of loans, disinvestment, special assessment, small savings.
Answer:
1. Revenue receipts

• Tax revenue
• Fees
• Fines and penalties
• Special assessment

2. Capital receipts

• Borrowings
• Disinvestment
• Recovery of loans
• Small Savings

Question 13.
Distinguish between deficit and debt. Asses to what extent a government can borrow.
Answer:
Budget deficit is the difference between the yearly revenue and expenditure of the government. Debt is the accumulated deficit. The government can finance the budgetary deficit by borrowing, taxation or printing new currencies. To what extent the government can borrow is based on two issues.

1. Whether the debt is a burden
2. How the debt is financed.

When the government borrows it transfers the burden of reduced consumption to future generation. The future tax would increase, hence a fall in disposable income and consumption in future. If the government borrows too much the saving available to private sector may fall.

It is also argued that the consumer spending is based not only on their current income but also on their expected future income. There is another argument, debt does not matter because we owe to ourselves. This is because although there is a transfer of resources between generation, purchasing power remain within the nation. Any debt from foreign involves a burden.

Question 14.
Calssify the following into allocation, distribution and stabilization function of the government. (5)

1. The government increases the defence expenditure. .
2. The government reduces the subsidies on chemical fertilizers.
3. The government increases the rate of interest.
4. The government increases investment.
5. The government spends on building new roads.
6. The government increases the income tax.

Answer:

• 1, 5 allocation function
• 2, 6 distribution function
• 3, 4 stabilization function

Allocation function refers to the provision of public goods by the government. Stabilization function refers to the reduction of fluctuations in the economy by influency of the aggregate demand.

Question 15.
“Provision of Public good is inevitable to maintain social justice.”
Evaluate the statement in light of the experience of our State in General Education and Public Health.
Answer:
Health and Education Indicators of Kerala. Government can achieve this which Market economy can’t.
\(=\frac{1-c}{1-c}=1\)

Plus Two Economics The Government: Budget and The Economy Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Calculate

1. fiscal deficit,
2. revenue deficit and
3. primary deficit

on the basis of the facts given below.
Borrowing – 40,000
Budget deficit – 60,000
Revenue receipts – 60,000
Interest payments – 20,000
Revenue expenditure – 80,000
Answer:
1. Fiscal deficit = Budget deficit + borrowing
= 60000 + 40000 = 1,00,000

2. Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts
= 80000 – 60000 = 20,000

3. Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
= 100000 – 20000 = 80,000

Question 2.
Construct a flow chart showing budget receipts and expenditure of the government.
Answer:
Budget Receipts and Expenditure of the government

Question 3.
Conduct a discussion on different concepts of deficits.
Answer:
When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. There are various measures that capture government deficit and they have their own implications for the economy. The important concepts of deficits are discussed below.

1. Revenue Deficit:
The revenue deficit refers to the excess of government’s revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.

2. Fiscal Deficit:
Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing.
Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts

3. Primary Deficit:
We must note that the borrowing requirement of the government includes interest obligations on accumulated debt. To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the fiscal deficit minus the interest payments.
Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – net interest liabilities.

Question 4.
Represent in the diagram the effect of the following on the equilibrium level of income

1. Effect of higher government expenditure
2. Effect of a reduction in taxes

Answer:
1. Effect of higher government expenditure
When there is higher government expenditure, the aggregate expenditure curve will shift upward. This will lead to an increase in equilibrium level of income. This effort is shown in the diagram.

2. Effect of a reduction in taxes
When there is a tax cut, there will be an increase in consumption and output. Therefore, the equilibrium level Of income increases as shown in the diagram.

Question 5.
The equilibrium of an economy is given below.

1. What is fiscal policy?
2. Identify the level of equilibrium in an economy and show the seperate diagram the effect of an increased govt, expenditure and an increased tax on the level of output.

Answer:
1. The policy of the government related to taxation and govt, expenditure is known as fiscal policy.
2. OY is the equilibrium level of output. The effects of an increased govt, expenditure is shown in the diagram below.

Govt, expenditure is one of the components of AD. AD = C + I + G + (x – m)
So the AD curve shifts upward when there is an increase in the govt, expenditure. As a result the equilibrium changes from e to e₁. The level of output increases from y to y₁.

It can be seen from the diagram that the increase in govt, expenditure is from A to A₁ But the output increased from y to y₁ This is because of multiplier effect. The effect of an increased tax on the level of output is given in the diagram below.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Money and Banking Questions and Answers, Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Money and Banking

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
At liquidity trap, speculative demand for money becomes:
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) infinity
(d) negative
Answer:
(c) infinity

Question 2.
RBI was established in:
(a) 1930
(b) 1935
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 3.
Money Multiplier = ?
(a) M – H
(b) M + H
(c) \(\frac{M}{H}\)
(d) \(\frac{H}{M}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{M}{H}\)

Question 4.
High powered money is equal to:
(a) DD + CU
(b) CU + R
(c) DD + R
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) CU + R

Question 5.
Identify the agency responsible for issuing Rs. 1 currency note in India.
(a) RBI
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Commerce
(d) Niti Aayog
Answer:
(b) Ministry of Finance

Question 6.
When r = min Speculative Demand for Money becomes
(a) Zero
(b)One
(c) Infinity
(d)GreaterthanOne
Answer:
(c) Infinity

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
M₁ = CU + DD.
M₂ = M₁+ Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks.
M₃= M₁ + Net time deposits of commercial banks.
M₄ = M₃ + Total deposits with Post Office savings.
Answer:
M₄ and M₂ are narrow money.
M₃ and M₄ are broad money.

Question 2.
The RBI is known as the lender of last resort. Give reason for this.
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India plays a crucial role here. In case of a crisis, it stands by the commercial banks as a guarantor and extends loans to ensure the solvency of the latter. This system of guarantee assures individual account holders that their banks will be able to pay their money back in case of a crisis and there is no need to panic thus avoiding bank runs. This role of the monetary authority is known as the lender of last resort.

Question 3.
What do you mean by double coincidence of wants? To which system is it associated with?
Answer:
By double coincidence of wants, we mean the need to have mutually exchangeable goods and the compulsion for exchange. This system is associated with the barter system.

Question 4.
Make pairs.
Credit money, gold coins, full bodied money, representative full-bodied money, cheques, paper money.
Answer:

• Credit money – cheques
• Full bodied money – gold coins
• Representative full bodied money – paper money

Question 5.
Give examples for fiat money and legal tender money.
Answer:

• Fiat money: Money with no intrinsic value Eg. Currency notes, coins.
• Full-bodied money: Money whose face value is equal to the intrinsic value Eg. Gold coins, silver coins.
• Legal tender money: Money issued by the monetary authority or the government which cannot be refused by anyone. Eg. Currency notes.

Question 6.
The speculative demand function is infinitely elastic. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, speculative demand for money is infinitely elastic.

Question 7.
Mr. Ramu sells his coconut to purchase tapioca from his neighbour Mr. Bhaskara.

1. What type of transaction is this?
2. Suggest other types of transaction in an economy

Answer:

1. Barter System
2. Money transaction

Question 8.
The price of 1 kg rice is ₹50. Identity the functions of money mentioend in the above statement.
(a) Medium of exchange
(b) Unit of account
(c) Store of value
(d) means of deffered payment
Answer:
(b) Unit of account

Question 9.
An individual exchanges coconut for rice.

1. Identify the system of exchange mentioned in the above statement.
2. List out anyone drawback of such system

Answer:

1. Barter system
2. Absence of double coincidence of wants

Question 10.
Explain the relationship between the aggregate transaction demand for money and the nominal GDP.
Answer:
There is a positive relationship between the value of transaction and nominal GDP. AN increase in the nominal GDP implies and increase in the total value of transaction and a greater transaction demand for money.

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match columns B and C with A.

Answer:

Question 2.
Classify the following into the functions of central bank and commercial banks.
Note issue, accepting deposits, lender of last resort, lending money, credit creation, discounting bill of exchange, adviser to the government, publication of reports.
Answer:

Functions of the central bank	Functions commercial banks
Note issue lender of last resort adviser to the government publication of reports	accepting deposits lending money credit creation discounting bill of exchange

Question 3.
‘Every loan creates a credit’. How can you connect this with the function of commercial bank?
Answer:
Banks can create credit. When a person goes to the bank and asks for a loan by providing required security, the bank grants the loan. The loan amount is not directly paid to the borrower in cash. Instead, it is deposited into an account operated by the borrower. Thus, every loan creates a deposit. This is known as credit creation.

Question 4.
How do changes in cash reserve ratio affect the availability of credit? Explain.
Answer:
The commercial banks have to keep a fraction of its deposits as reserves in the form of cash with the central bank. When this cash reserve ratio is increased, the liquidity of banks reduces and so does their credit creating capacity. This lowers excess demand in an economy. To increase demand, the cash reserve ratio is lowered so that the banks can create more credit.

Question 5.
Point out the instruments of monetary policy.
Answer:
The instruments of monetary policy of RBI are:

• Open market operations
• Bank rate
• Varying reserve requirements
• Margin requirements
• Moral suation
• Direct action

Question 6.
The transaction demand for money is written as, \(\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{T}}^{\mathrm{d}}\)= K.T. What does \(\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{T}}^{\mathrm{d}}\), K and T denote?
Answer:
In the equation\(\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{T}}^{\mathrm{d}}\)= K.T.

• \(\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{T}}^{\mathrm{d}}\) stands for stock of demand for money.
• K stands for a positive fraction.
• T stands for total value of transactions in the economy.

Question 7.
Define money. What are the main functions of money?
Answer:
Functions of Money:
Nowadays, no economies can sustain without money. Money performs the functions of medium of exchange, measure of value, store of value and the standard of deferred payments. The functions of money are classified into primary functions, secondary functions, and contingent functions.

1. Primary functions
2. Secondary functions

Question 8.
Write down the equation of speculative demand for money. Prove that when r = r_max the speculative demand for money is zero.
Answer:

Question 9.
Identify and explain the situation shown in the diagram.

Answer:
Liquidity Trap:
A situation in the economy may arise when everyone will hold their wealth in money balance. If additional money is injected into the economy, it will not be used to purchase bonds. It will be used to satisfy the people’s drawing for money balance without lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called ‘liquidity trap’.

Question 10.
K = 1/2, GDP Deflator =1.2, Real GDP = 1000. Cal¬culate Transaction Demand for Money.
Answer:
\(\begin{aligned}
&=\frac{1}{2} \times 1.2 \times 1000\\
&=\frac{1200}{2}=600
\end{aligned}\)

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Make a tabular presentation of the measure of money supply in India.
Answer:
The total stock of money in circulation among the public at a particular point of time is called money supply. RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M₁ M₂ M₃and M₄. They are defined as follows.

Measure	Constituents of money supply
M1	Currency + Demand Deposits + other deposits
M2	M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
M3	M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks
M4	Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates)

Question 2.
Define money multiplier. Derive the formula of money multiplier.
Answer:
We define money multiplier as the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money in an economy, viz. MIH. Clearly, its value is greater than 1. We need not always go through the round effects in order to compute the value of the money multiplier. By definition, money supply is equal to currency plus deposits.

M = CU + DD = (1 + cdr) DD where, cdr = CU/DD. Assume, for simplicity, that treasury deposit of the Government with RBI is zero. High powered money then consists of currency held by the public and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks’ deposits with RBI. Thus H = CU + R = cdr.DD + rdr.DD = (cdr+ rdr)DD Thus the ratio of money supply to high powered money.

\(\mathrm{M} / \mathrm{H}=\frac{1+\mathrm{cdr}}{\mathrm{cdr}+\mathrm{rdr}}>1\) as rdr < 1
This is precisely the measure of the money multiplier.

Question 3.
Classify the following into appropriate titles.
Answer:

• national clearinghouse
• agency function
• credit creation
• banker’s bank
• lending money
• custodian of foreign exchange reserves oil
• discounting bills of exchange
• lender of last resort
• adviser of government

Answer:
1. Functions of central bank

• Banker’s bank
• Custodian of foreign exchange reserves
• Lender of last resort
• Adviser of government Functions of

2. commercial banks

• National clearing house
• Agency function
• Credit creation
• Lending money
• Discounting bills of exchange

Question 4.
Prepare a note on High Powered Money.
Answer:
The total liability of the monetary authority of the country, RBI, is called the monetary base or high powered money. It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of commercial banks) and deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with RBI.

If a member of the public produces a currency note to RBI the latter must pay her value equal to the figure printed on the note. Similarly, the deposits are also refundable by RBI on demand from deposit – holders. These items are claims which the general public, government or banks have on RBI and hence are considered to be the liability of RBI.

High powered money then consists of currency held by the public and reserves of the commercial banks, which include vault cash and banks’ deposits with RBI. Thus H = CU + R.

The following figure shows the High Powered Money in relation to Total Money Supply.

Question 5.
Rewrite statement if they are wrong.

1. The most liquid form of asset is shares of companies.
2. Demand deposit^usually carry high interest rates.
3. The responsibility of note issue in India is with the State Bank of India.
4. Canara Bank in India is a private sector bank.

Answer:

1. The most liquid form of asset is money
2. Demand deposits usually carries no interest
3. The responsibility of note issue in India is with RBI
4. Canara Bank is a private sector bank.

Question 6.
Suppose a bond promises ₹500 at the end of two years with no intermediate return. If the rate of interest is 5 percent per annum, what is the price of the bond?
Answer:
Let the price of the bond = x
Then,

Question 7.
Identify the condition for money market equilibrium.
Answer:
Money market is in equilibrium when money supply and money demand are equal, that is Ms = Md Here money supply is determined by RBI ie. Ms = Ms.

Money demand has 2 components namely Transaction demand (Mtd) and Speculative demand (Msd)
Therefore, the equilibrium condition is, Ms = Mtd + msd

Question 8.
Explain why speculative demand for money is inversely related to the rate of interest.“The speculative money demand function is infinitely elastic”. Prove this statement with the help of a diagram showing the relation between the speculative demand for money and liquidity trap.
Answer:
Total demand for money in an economy is composed of transaction demand and speculative demand. The speculative demand for money is inversely related to the market rate of interest. When the rate of interest is high then everyone expects it to fall in future as there is surety about future capital gain.

Thus everyone becomes ready to convert the speculative money balance into bonds. When rate of interest falls and reach its minimum level, everyone put whatever wealth they acquire in the form of money and the speculative demand for money is infinite.

Question 9.
Distinguish between the CDR and RDR, CDR, RDR
Answer:
Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in bank deposit.
Cdr= CU\DD

The Reserve Deposit Ration (RDR) banks hold a part of the money people keep in this bank deposit as reserve money. Reserve money consists of two things. Vault cash in banks and deposits of commercial banks with RBI. It is the proportion of total deposits commercial banks keep as reserve

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The central bank adjusts the monetary instruments in relations with the economic situations.

1. Do you agree to this statement?
2. Also, define the terms

Answer:

1. Yes, I do agree to this statement
2. The terms

1. Bank Rate:
The rate of interest payable by commercial banks to RBI if they borrow money from the latter in case of a shortage of reserves.

2. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
The fraction of their deposits which the commercial banks are required to keep with RBI.

3. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
The fraction of their total demand and time deposits in which the commercial banks are required by RBI to invest in specified liquid assets.

4. Repo rate:
The rate at which commercial banks borrow from the central bank.

5. Reverse Repo Rate:
The rate at which the central bank borrow from the commercial banks.

Question 2.
Give appropriate terms for the following.

1. The total liability of the monetary authority of India.
2. System of exchange of goods for goods.
3. My = K.T.
4. The proportion of the total deposits commercial banks keep as resources in RBI
5. Revenue expenditure – Revenue Receipts on lays
6. Total expenditure – (Revenue receipt + Nondebt creating capital receipts)

Answer:

1. High powered money
2. Barter system
3. Transaction demand for money
4. Cash reserve ratio
5. Revenue deficit
6. Fiscal deficit

Question 3.
Draw a flow chart showing broad classification of commercial banks in India.
Answer:

Question 4.
Prepare a table pointing out major differences between commercial banks and central bank.
Answer:

Question 5.
Anand, a 12^th class student went to SBT and met the manager. He asked manager about major functions performed by the bank. What may be the answer given by the manager?
Answer:
Functions of commercial banks
A. Accepting deposits of 3 kinds

• Current account deposits
• Fixed-term deposits
•  Saving account deposits

B. Giving loans and advances

• Cash credit
• Demand loans
• Short term loans

C. Agency functions

• Transfer of funds
• Collection of funds
• Payments of various items
• Purchase and sale of shares and securities
• Collection of dividends
• Trustees and executors of property
• Letter of references

D. Financing of foreign trade
E. Supply of liquidity
F. Performing general utility functions

Question 6.
The data is related to the money supply in India

1. Distinguish M1 and M3.
2. Identify the aggregate monetary resources in 2002 and calculate the percentage change in 2003.

Answer:
1. M1 = Cu + DD
Cu = Currency and coin held by the people.
DD = Demand deposit in commercial banks. M3 = M1 + Net time deposit of commercial banks,

2. M3 is the aggregate monetary resources that is in 2002 it is 1498355.
The percentage change in 2003
\(=\frac{1725222-1498355}{1498355} \times 100=15.14\)

Plus Two Economics Money and Banking Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar paper on functions of Central Bank.
Respected teacher and dear friends,
I am supposed to present a seminar paper on ‘the functions of the central bank’. In this paper, I would like to include the definition of a central bank in the first part and its functions in the second part of my seminar paper. In the words of R.P. Kent, ‘a central bank is an institution charged with the responsibility of maintaining the expansion and contraction of money in the interest of general public welfare”.

Functions of central bank The central bank in every country performs some common functions which are pointed out below (explain them in detail).

1. Note issue
2. Banker’s bank
3. Banker, agent, and adviserto the government
4. Custodian of foreign exchange reserves
5. Lender of last resort
6. Controller of credit and money supply
7. Publication of reports.

Thus it is clear that a central bank performs various functions in order to control the economy as a whole.

Question 2.
Consumer prices in India increased 4.88% in November 2017.

1. Name the policy and its three instruments that are used to control inflation.
2. Explain how these three policy instruments are used to control the inflation.

Answer:
Monetary policy is the policy used to control inflation. Its three instruments are
1. Open market operation:
The RBI sells and buys government securities in the open market. This is known as open market operation. At the time of high inflation, RBI sells government securities to the public. The money from the economy flow to the RBI. Since the money in the economy falls the demand for goods and services too will fall and the price will come down. So the inflation is controlled.

2. Changes in the bank rate:
When inflation is high RBI will raise the bank rate. At higher bank rate people will demand less loans, they will save more. This will lead to a reduction in the demand, the price level too will fall. An increased bank rate also will lead to a fall in the money supply.

3. Varying the reserve requirement:
At the time of high inflation, the RBI can make necessary changes in the various reserve requirements like CRR, CDR, SLR etc. At the time of inflation RBI raises the CRR, that means more money has to be kept in the RBI. This will reduce the money supply in the economy. So the demand will come down and the general price level too.

Question 3.
Mr. Ramu is a farmer. He has a surplus of rice which he wishes to exchange for clothing. But he may not be able to find any person who demand rice with a surplus of clothing. This is one of the problems in Barter System.

1. Can you identify other drawbacks of the Barter System?
2. How did invention of money help to overcome these drawbacks of Barter System?

Answer:
1. drawbacks of Barter System.

• Lack of double coincidence of wants
• Difficulty in store of value
• Difficulty in measuring value

2. Functions of Money:
Nowadays, no economy can sustain without money. Money performs the functions of medium of exchange, measure of value, store of value and the standard of deferred payments. The functions of money are clas¬sified into primary functions, secondary functions, and contingent functions.

A. Primary functions:
1. Medium of exchange:
The most important function of money is that it acts as a medium of exchange. It acts as a link between the buyer and the seller. Money mostly solves the issues of barter economy.

2. Standard of value:
Money acts as a conve-nient unit of account. When we purchase or sell goods, its value can be expressed in monetary terms. We express the value of goods in terms of money. Examples are : price per Kg of sugar is Rs. 30, price per meter of cloth is Rs. 25 and price per liter of milk is Rs. 20, etc.

B. Secondary functions:
1. Standard of deferred payments:
Deferred ‘ payments are those payments which are to be made in the future. Money is used as a unit of deferred payments. It helps in credit transactions. The money helps the consumer to purchase goods and services when they require it and the payment can be made in the future.

2. Store of value:
The money can be stored as an instrument for storing the value. The purchasing power of money can be transferred to the future from the current period. Thus, wealth can be stored in liquid form.

3. Transfer of value:
Transfer of value indicates the movement of value of goods from one place to another which are durable and immovable in nature. Money helps in the movement of transfer of value. For instance, the goods or property of a person can transfer to another person in terms of money.

C. Contingent function:
Money performs contingent functions as well. The initiative of the money in terms of development of a nation is termed as contingent function of money. The following are the contingent functions of money.

1. Distribution of national income:
The contribution of various sectors of the economy towards national income is measured in terms of money. Money is used to measure national income and the productivity of various sectors of the economy.

2. Basis of credit:
The industrial activities of a nation are totally depended on the availability of credit facilities. The credit facilities are to-tally depended on the availability of money.

3. Solvency:
The ability or the capacity of a firm or an institution to repay its debt is known as solvency. If a person is financially sound enough to clear off his debt is known as a solvent. On the other hand, if a person fails to clear off his debt is known as a bankrupt.

4. Utilization of resources:
Money is a common measuring of rod. Money helps the producer to measure the value of his output. Money helps the fuller utilization of resources.

Question 4.
a. Identify and explain the theory behind the diagram.

b. When the economy reaches to Liquidity trap, how does it affect the Speculative demand for money?
Answer:
a. Liquidity Preference theory Keynes defines the rate of interest as the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time. According to him, the rate of interest is determined by the demand for and supply of money.

Demand for money:
Liquidity preference means the desire of the public to hold cash. According to Keynes, there are three motives behind the desire of the public to hold liquid cash:

1. the transaction motive,
2. the precautionary motive, and
3. the speculative motive.

1. Transactions Motive:
The transactions motive relates to the demand for money or the need of cash for the current transactions of individual and business exchanges. Individuals hold cash in order to bridge the gap between the receipt of income and its expenditure. This is called the income motive.

The businessmen also need to hold ready cash in order to meet their current needs like payments for raw materials, transport, wages, etc. This is called the business motive.

2. Precautionary motive:
Precautionary motive for holding money refers to the desire to hold cash balances for unforeseen contingencies. Individuals hold some cash to provide for illness, accidents, unemployment and other unforeseen contingencies.

Similarly, businessmen keep cash in reserve to tide over unfavorable conditions or to gain from unexpected deals.
Keynes holds that the/ransaction and precautionary motives are relatively interesting inelastic, but are highly income elastic. The amount of money held under these two motives (M₁ is a function (L)) of the level of income (Y) and is expressed as M₁ = L₁ (Y)

3. Speculative Motive:
The speculative motive relates to the desire to hold one’s resources in liquid form to take advantage of future changes in the rate of interest or bond prices. Bond prices and the rate of interest are inversely related to each other.

If bond prices are expected to rise, i.e., the rate of interest is expected to fall, people will buy bonds to sell when the price later actually rises. If, however, bond prices are expected to fall, i.e., the rate of interest is expected to rise, people will sell bonds to avoid losses.

According to Keynes, the higher the rate of interest, the lower the speculative demand for money, and lower the rate of interest, the higher the speculative demand for money. Algebraically, Keynes expressed the speculative demand for money as M₂ = L₂(r)
Where,
L₂ is the speculative demand for money, and r is the rate of interest. Geometrically, it is a smooth curve which slopes dovynward from left to right. Now, if the total liquid money is denoted by M, the transactions plus precautionary motives by Mi and the speculative motive by M₂, then M = M₁ + M₂.

Since M₁= (Y) and M₂= L₂ (r), the total liquidity preference function is expressed as M = L (Y, r). Supply of Money : The supply of money refers to the total quantity of money in the country. Though the supply of money is a function of the rate of interest to a certain degree, yet it is considered to be fixed by the monetary authorities. Hence the supply curve of money is taken as perfectly inelastic represented by a vertical straight line.

Determination of the Rate of Interest: Like the price of any product, the rate of interest is determined at the level where the demand for money equals the supply of money. In the following figure, the vertical line QM represents the supply of money and L the total demand for money curve. Both the curve intersect at E2 where the equilibrium rate of interest OR is established. ,

If there is any deviation from this equilibrium position an adjustment will take place through the rate of interest, and equilibrium E₂will be re-established. At the point, E₁the supply of money OM is greater than the demand for money OM₁.

Consequently, the rate of interest will start declining from OR₁ till the equilibrium rate of interest OR is reached. Similarly at OR₂level of interest rate, the demand for money OM₂is greater than the supply of money OM. As a result, the rate of interest OR₂will starts rising till it reaches the equilibrium rate OR.

It may be noted that, if the supply of money is increased by the monetary authorities, but the liquidity preference curve L remains the same, the rate of interest will fall. If the demand for money increases and the liquidity preference curve shifts upward, given the supply of money, the rate of interest will rise.

b. Speculative demand for money becomes infinitely elastic.

Students can Download Chapter 12 Atoms Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 Atoms

Plus Two Physics Atoms NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines?
Answer:
Since

For Paschen series, n₁ = 3 and n₂ = ∞

Question 2.
The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10^-11 m. What are the radii of the n = 2 and m = 3 orbits?
Answer:
Given r₁ = 5.3 × 10^-11m
n₁ = 1, n₂ = 2, r₂ = ?
n₃ = 3, r₃ = ?
Since r ∝ n²
∴ r₁ ∝ n₁²
And r₂ ∝ n₂²

or r₂ = 4 × r₁ = 4 × 5.3 × 10^-11
or e₂ = 2.12 × 10^-10m
Also r₃ ∝ n₃²

or r₃ = 9r₁ = 9 × 5.3 × 10^-11
or r₃ = 4.77 × 10^-10m.

Question 3.
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. What series of wavelength will be emitted?
Answer:
First excitation energy
E = E₂ – E₁ = -3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV
Second excitation energy
E = E₃ – E₁ = -1.51 -(-13.6) = 12.09 eV
Third excitation energy
E = E₄ – E₁ = -0.85 – (-13.6) = 12.75 eV
Second incident beam has energy = 12.5 eV
So only first two lines in the Lyman series of wave-length 103 nm and 122 nm will be emitted.
Also E₃ – E₂ = -1.51 – (-3.4) = 4.91 eV
i.e, first line in the Balmer series of wavelength 656nm will also be emitted.

Question 4.
In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterises the earth’s revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 10¹¹ m with orbital speed 3 × 10⁴ ms^-1.
Answer:
Here r= 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
v = 3 × 10⁴ ms^-1, m = 6 × 10²⁴kg, n = ?

Plus Two Physics Atoms One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A radioactive nucleus emits beta particle. The parent and daughter nuclei are
(a) isotopes
(b) isotones
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
Answer:
(d) isobars

Question 2.
Consider an electron in the n^th orbit of a hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. The circumference of the orbit can be expressed in terms of de Broglie wavelength λ of that electron as
(a) (0.529) nλ
(b) \(\sqrt{n} \lambda\)
(c) (13.6)λ
(d) nλ
Answer:
(d) nλ

Question 3.
The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Find the energy corresponding to a transition between 3^rd and 4^th orbit.
Answer:
E = E₄ – E₃

= -0.85 + 1.51 = 0.66 eV.

Question 4.
If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is
(a) 10.2 eV
(b) 0 eV
(c) 3.4 eV
(d) 6.8 eV
Answer:
(c) 3.4 eV
Explanation:

= 3.4 eV.

Question 5.
In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to
(a) infinite energy
(b) maximum energy
(c) minimum energy
(d) zero energy
Answer:
(c) minimum energy.

Question 6.
Write down the Balmerformula for wavelength of H_a line.
Answer:

Plus Two Physics Atoms Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Given Rydberg constant as 1.097 × 10^-7m^-1. Find the longest and shortest wavelength limit of Baler Series.
Answer:
\(\bar{v}=\frac{1}{\lambda}=R_{H}\left[\frac{1}{n_{1}^{2}}-\frac{1}{n_{2}^{2}}\right]\)
Longest wavelength n₁ = 2 and n₂ = 3

Shortest Wavelength n₁ = 2 and n₂ = α

Plus Two Physics Atoms Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Bohr combined classical and early quantum concept and gave his theory in the form of three postulates.

1. The total energy of an electron in ground state of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What is the significance of negative sign?
2. The radius of innermost electron orbit of hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10¹¹m. What are the radii of n = 2 and n = 3 orbits?

Answer:
1. Negative sign implies that the electrons are strongly bounded to the nucleus.

2. r_n = n²a₀ = 5.3 × 10^-11m
r₁ = a₀ = 5.3 × 10^-11m
r₂ = 4a₀ = 21.2 × 10^-11m
r₃ = 9a₀ = 47.7 × 10^-11m.

Students can Download Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The element of the 3d series which is not regarded as a transition element is ____________ .
Answer:
Zinc

Question 2.
Say TRUE or FALSE:
Cr²⁺ compounds are strong oxidising agents
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Which of the following has the least magnetic moment?
(a) Cu²⁺
(b) Ni²⁺
(c) Co²⁺
(d) Fe²⁺
Answer:
(a) Cu²⁺

Question 4.
The oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇ is _________
Answer:
+ 6

Question 5.
Lanthanoid contraction implies
(a) Decrease in density.
(b) Decrease in mass.
(c) Decrease in ionic radii.
(d) Decrease in radioactivity.
Answer:
(c) Decrease in ionic radii.

Question 6.
Which of the following species are paramagnetic?
(a) Fe²⁺
(b) Zn
(c) Hg²⁺
(d) Ti⁴⁺
Answer:
(a) Fe²⁺

Question 7.
The approximate percentage of iron in misch metal is____
Answer:
5

Question 8.
The maximum oxidation state shown by Mn in its compounds is _____
Answer:
+ 7

Question 9.
The acidic, basic or amphoteric nature of Mn₂O₇, V₂O₅ and CrO are respectively
Answer:
acidic, amphoteric and basic

Question 10.
The correct order of oxidising power of the following is
(a) Cr₂O₇^2- > MnO₄^– > VO₂⁺
(b) MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺
(c) VO₂⁺ >MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2-
(d) MnO₄^– > VO₂⁺ > Cr₂O₇^2-
(e) Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺ > MnO₄^–
Answer:
(b) MnO₄^– > Cr₂O₇^2- > VO₂⁺

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transition metals can form complexes.

1. Is the statement true?
2. Justify.
3. Give two examples of complexes.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Transition elements form complex compounds due to the comparatively smaller size of the metal ion, their high ionic charges and the availability of d-orbital for the bond formation.
3. [Fe(CN)₆]^3-, [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

Question 2.
Consider the statement: Scandium is a transition element but zinc is not.

1. Do you agree with his statement?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Scandium has incompletely filled 3d orbitals in its ground state (3d⁰), it is regarded as a transition element. On the other hand, zinc atom has completely filled d orbitals (3d¹⁰) in its ground state as well as in its oxidised state. Hence it is not regarded as a transition element.

Question 3.
Transition elements show variable oxidation state.

1. Give reason.
2. Illustrate with an example.

Answer:

1. The variable oxidation states of transition elements is due to the participation of ns and (n-1) d electrons in bonding,
2. E.g.: The outer configuration of Mn is 3d⁵,4s² it exhibits all the oxidation states from +2 to +7.

Question 4.
Cu+ is colourless while Cu²⁺ is coloured in aqueous solution.

1. Is it true?
2. What are the reasons for this?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. In Cu+ it is 3d¹⁰,4s⁰ and there is no d-d transition. Hence no colour. But in Cu²⁺ it is 3d⁹, 4s⁰ it has d-d transition and hence it has colour.

Question 5.
The highest oxidation state of a metal is exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only.

1. Do you agree?
2. If yes, give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Due to very high electronegativity and small size oxygen and fluorine can oxidise the metal to its highest oxidation state.

Question 6.
What is misch metal? Give its use.
Answer:
‘Misch metal’ is an alloy which consists of a lanthanoid metal (~ 95%) and iron (~ 5%) and traces of S, C, Ca and Al. It is used in Mg-based alloy to produce bullets, shell and lighter flint.

Question 7.
Some ions of transition metals are given below. Categorize them into those which are coloured or not. Justify your answer.
Ti³⁺, V²⁺, Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Ti⁴⁺, Cu²⁺, Zn²⁺, Cu⁺
Answer:

Coloured ions	Colourless ions
Ti3+	Sc3+
V2+	Ti4+
Mn2+	Zn2+
Ca2+	Cu+

• In Ti³⁺, V²⁺, Mn²⁺, Ca²⁺ d-d transition is possible. Hence they have colour.
• In Sc³⁺ and Ti⁴⁺(3d⁰), Zn²⁺ and Cu⁺(3d¹⁰) d-d transition is not possible.

Question 8.
Why are Mn²⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ toward oxidation to their +3 state?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵ , which is stable due to half-filled sub-shell. Hence, Mn²⁺ is not easily oxidised to Mn³⁺. On the other hand, Fe²⁺ has electronic configuration 3d⁶ . After losing one electron it changes to Fe³⁺ which has stable 3d⁵ electronic configuration. Hence, Fe²⁺ is relatively easily oxidised to Fe³⁺

Question 9.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
Except Sc, the most common oxidation state of the first row transition elements is +2 which arises from the loss of two 4s electrons. The +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of first transition elements with increasing atomic number because 3d orbitals acquires only one electron in each of the five 3d orbitals.

Question 10.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the nontransition elements?
Answer:
Transition elements have partially filled d-dubshell belonging to penultimate energy level whereas non-transition elements do not have any partially filled d-subshell. In non-transition elements, the last electron enters the s or p-subshell whereas in transition elements the last electron enters the d-subshell of penultimate energy level.

Question 11.
Predict which of the following will be coloured aqueous solution?
Ti³⁺ , V³⁺ cu⁺, Sc³⁺ , Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and CO²⁺ and MnO₄^–. Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Any ion that has partially filled d-orbitals is coloured due to d-d transition in visible light. MnO₄^– has purpule colour due to charge-transfer. Cu⁺ (d¹⁰ ) and Sc³⁺ (d⁰) are white since there is no d-d transition.

Question 12.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce³⁺ ion and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Answer:
Ce (Z = 58) = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹5d¹6s²
Ce³⁺ = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹
It has one unpaired electron.
µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) B.M.
µ = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}=\sqrt{3}\) B.M = 1.732 B.M.

Question 13.
Among the following transition metal compounds which are coloured. Why?
TiO, TiO₂, ZnSO₄, MnCl₂, CrCl₃
Answer:

• TiO → Coloured
• MnCl₂ → Coloured
• CrCl₃ → Coloured

Question 14.
In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest. Why?
Answer:
Zinc has weaker interparticle forces due to fully filled d-subshell (3d¹⁰).

Question 15.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:
i. 5

ii. 4.90 BM

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain why

1. Transition metals have higher density than alkaline earth metals?
2. Transition metals are less electropositive than alkaline earth metals?
3. Transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation?

Answer:
1. Transition metals have smaller atomic size and stronger interparticle attractive forces (metallic bond) than alkaline earth metals and hence have higher density than alkaline earth metals.

2. Transition metals due to their smaller atomic size and greater effective nuclear charge, have higher ionisation energy than alkaline earth metals and hence are less electropositive.

3. Transition elements have very strong interatomic bonds due to their small size and also due to the presence of large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms. As a result, they have very high enthalpies of atomisation.

Question 2.
Two students wrote the electronic configuration of Chromium (Z = 24) as shown below:
Student A: [Ar] 4s², 3d⁴
Student B : [Ar] 4s¹ 3d⁵

1. Pick out the correct electronic configuration and justify.
2. Calculate the spin only magnetic moments of Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and find out which is more paramagnetic.

Answer:
1. [Ar] 3d⁵4s¹ . Due to the extra stability of the half-filled 3d level.

2. Sc³⁺ – n = 0 µ = 0 BM
Mn²⁺ – n = 5 µ = \(\sqrt{5(5+2)}=\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM
Fe³⁺ – n = 5 µ = \(\sqrt{5(5+2)}=\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Some information regarding a particular compound is given below.
A deep purple black crystal which is moderately soluble in water at room temperature and it is prepared from pyrolusite.

1. Identify the compound.
2. Give the chemical reactions involved in the preparation of this compound.
3. Upon heating to 746 K, what happens to this compound? Give the equation.

Answer:

1. KMnO₄
2. 2MnO₂ + 4KOH + O₂ → 2K₂MnO₄ + 2H₂O 3MnO₄^2- + 4H⁺→ 2MnO₄^– + MnO₂ + 2H₂O
3. Potassium permanganate on strong heating gives potassium manganate, manganese dioxide and oxygen.
   2KMnO₄→ K₂MnO₄ + MnO₂ + O₂

Question 2.
Consider the statement: All transition elements form coloured compounds.

1. Do you agree?
2. Name three transition elements which cannot form coloured compounds.
3. What is the reason for colour of transition metal compounds?

Answer:

1. No.
2. Zn, Cd and Hg.
3. The colour of transition compound is due to d-d transition. The colour observed corresponds to the complementary colour of the light absorbed.

Question 3.
Complete the table:

Answer:

Question 4.
The size of the atoms from Lanthanum to Lutetium, shows a steady and slow decrease in atomic size.

1. Do you agree with it?
2. What are the causes for this?
3. What are the consequences of this phenomenon?

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. It is due to Lanthanoid contraction. In Lanthanoid series the 4f electrons are being added in the antipenultimate shell. The 4f electrons have very poor shielding effect because of diffused shape of 4f orbitals and the effective nuclear charge experienced by each 4f electrons increases. Hence there is a regular decrease in radii with increase in atomic number.

3. Consequences of lanthanoid contraction are:

• Difficulty in separation of lanthanoids due to similarity in chemical properties.
• Similarity in size of elements belonging to same group of second & third transition series.

Question 5.
Zn, Cd, Hg are pseudo transition elements.

1. What do you mean by pseudo transition elements?
2. Write the outer electronic configuration of transition elements.
3. Write any four properties of transition elements,

Answer:
1. Pseudo transition elements have completely filled d orbitals and will not exhibit the characteristic properties of true transition elements.

2. The outer electronic configuration of transition elements is (n-1) d^{1 – 10} ns^{1 – 2}.

3. Four properties of transition elements.

• They form coloured compounds.
• They exhibit variable oxidation state.
• They form complex.
• They are good catalysts.

Question 6.
In a demonstration experiment, the teacher prepared the following solutions.
Solution 1: ZnSO₄ in water
Solution 2: CuSO₄ in water

1. Which of the above solutions is coloured?
2. Explain the Chemistry behind it.

Answer:
1. Solution 2: CuSO₄ in water is coloured.

2. In CuSO₄, Cu is in +2 oxidation state. Cu²⁺ has 3d⁹ electronic configuration and it can undergo d-d transition and hence has colour(blue). In ZnSO₄, zinc is in +2 oxidation state. Zn²⁺ has the 3d¹⁰ configuration. It has no d-d transition and hence it is colourless.

Question 7.

1. What is the effect of heat on KMnO₄
2. Give any two examples to show the oxidising property of KMnO₄.

Answer:
1. On heating, KMnO₄ decomposes at 513 K into potassium manganate and oxygen gas is evolved.

2. Two examples to show the oxidising property of KMnO₄

• In acid medium it oxidises iodide to iodine.
  10I^– + 2MnO₄^– + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 8H₂O + 5I₂
• In neutral or faintly alkaline solutions it oxidises iodide to iodate.
  2MnO₄^– + H₂O + I^– → 2MnO₂ + 2OH^– + IO₃^–

Question 8.
(a) Hf and Zr have similar ionic radii though they belongs to the 3^rd and 4^th transition series. Explain the reason for the anomalous behaviour.
(b) MnO₄^– & MnO₄^2- are the ions of manganese. They differ in colour and magnetic nature.

1. How do this difference occured?
2. Support your answer with their structure.

Answer:
(a) This is a consequence of lanthanide contraction.

(b) Differ in colour and magnetic nature.
1. This is due to difference in number of electrons in d- subshell.
2.

Question 9.
Pyrolusite on heating with KOH in the presence of air gives a dark green compound (A). The solution of (A) on treatment with H₂SO₄ gives a purple coloured compound (B).
a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write the balanced chemical equation.
b) Write two reactions to show the oxidising nature of ‘B’.
Answer:

Question 10.
Give the method of preparation and two examples for the oxidizing property of K₂Cr₂O₇.
OR
Some d-block elements are given below:
Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni
Identify the element which shows maximum paramagnetic behaviour.
Answer:
K₂ Cr₂ O₇ is prepared from chromate ore Fe Cr₂ O₄.
Step I: The powdered ore is heated with molten alkali to form soluble sodium chromate.

4 Fe Cr₂ O₄ + 16 NaOH + 7O₂ → 8Na₂CrO₄ + 2Fe₂O₃ + 8H₂O

Step II: Sodium chromate (Na₂CrO₄) is filtered and acidified with dil.H₂SO₄ to form sodium dichromate.

2Na₂CrO₄ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂Cr₂O₇ + Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Step III: Na₂Cr₂O₇ solution is treated with KCI to form

K₂ Cr₂ O₇.
Na₂Cr₂O₇ + 2 KCI —» K₂ Cr₂ O₇ + 2NaCI

OR

Magnetic moment, µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM
Cr; n=6 µ = \(\sqrt{48}\) = 6.93 BM
Mn; n=5 µ = \(\sqrt{35}\) = 5.92 BM
Fe; n=4 µ = \(\sqrt{24}\) = 4.90 BM
Co; n=3 µ = \(\sqrt{15}\) = 3.87BM
Ni; n=2 µ = \(\sqrt{8}\) = 2.83 BM
∴ Cr has maximum paramagnetic behaviour.

Question 11.

1. Even though usually transition elements exhibit +2 oxidation states, it changes from 0 to +8 in different compounds. What is the reason for it?
2. In the first transition series the atomic radius is decreasing from Sc to Cr and remains constant from Cr to Cu. From Cu to Zn it increases. Why?
3. The atomic radii of second and third transition series are same. Why?

Answer:
1. The variable valency is due to the following reason. The energy difference between inner ‘d’ level and outers level is so small. Therefore electrons from ‘d’ level as well as ‘s’ level can take part in reaction.

2. Sc to Cr – Atomic radius decreases due to increase in nuclear charge. Cr to Cu – Due to a balance between the increased nuclear charge and increased screening effect atomic radii become almost constant.

Cu to Zn – Repulsive interactions between the paired electrons in d-orbitals become very dominant towards the end of the period and cause the expansion of electron cloud and thus result in increased atomic size.

3. Lanthanoid, Contraction.

Question 12.
a) Calculate the magnetic moments of the following ions and predict its magnetic property.
Ti³⁺ (Z = 22)
Ni²⁺ (Z = 25)
Fe³⁺ (Z = 26)
Zn²⁺ (Z = 30)
Answer:

Question 13.
TiO, TiO₂, ZnSO₄, MnCl₂, CrCl₃
Arrange the above metal ions in the increasing order of their magnetic moment. (3)
Answer:

The increasing order of magnetic moment is TiO₂ = ZnSO₄ < TiO < CrCl₃, MnCl₂

Question 14.
How magnetic moment is calculated? How will you identify magnetism of an element from its electronic configuration?
Answer:
By using the ‘spin-only’ formula, n = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM where ‘n’ is the number of unpaired electrons and ‘µ’ is the magnetic moment in Bohr Magneton (BM). If the element contains an unpaired electron it is paramagnetic. If all the electrons are paired and

Plus Two Chemistry The d and f Block Elements NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are Mn²⁺ compounds more stable than Fe²⁺ toward oxidation to their +3 state?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵, which is stable due to half-filled sub-shell. Hence, Mn²⁺ is not easily oxidised to Mn³⁺. On the other hand, Fe²⁺ has electronic configuration 3d⁶. After losing one electron it changes to Fe³⁺ which has stable 3d⁵ electronic configuration. Hence, Fe²⁺ is relatively easily oxidised to Fe³⁺

Question 2.
Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Answer:
Except Sc, the most common oxidation state of the first row transition elements is +2 which arises from the loss of two 4s electrons. The +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of first row transition elements with increasing atomic number because 3d orbitals acquire only one electron in each of the five 3d orbitals (i.e., each d-orbital remains half-filled) and inter electronic repulsion is the least and nuclear charge increases.

In second half of first row transition elements, electron starts pairing up in 3d orbitals and hence there is inter electronic repulsion. (Ti²⁺ to Mn²⁺ electronic configuration changes from 3d² to 3d⁵ but in second half i.e., Fe²⁺ to Zn²⁺ it changes from 3d⁶ to 3d¹⁰.)

Question 3.
In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non-transition elements?
Answer:
Transition elements have partially filled d-subshell belonging to penultimate energy level whereas non-transition elements do not have any partially filled d- subshell. In non-transition elements, the last electron enters the s or p-subshell whereas in transition elements the last electron enters the d-subshell of penultimate energy level.

Question 4.
Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution?
Ti³⁺, V³⁺, Cu⁺, Sc³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and CO²⁺ and MnO^4-. Give reasons for each.
Answer:
Any ion that has partially filled d-orbitals is coloured due to d-d transition in visible light. Ti³⁺ (d¹), V³⁺ (d²) Mn²⁺ (d⁵), Co²⁺ (d⁸) are coloured. MnO^4- has purpule colour due to charge-transfer. Cu⁺ (d¹⁰) and Sc³⁺ (d⁰) are white since there is no d-d transition.

Question 5.
Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce³⁺ ion and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Answer:
Ce (Z = 58) = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹5d¹6s²
Ce³⁺ = ₅₄[Xe]4f¹
It has one unpaired electron.
µ = \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) B.M.
where n = number of unpaired electrons.
∴ Magnetic moment of Ce³⁺,
μ = \(\sqrt{1(1+2)}\) = \(\sqrt{3}\) BM
= 1.732 BM

Students can Download Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Alkolic KOH is a specific reagent for
(a) dehydration
(b) dehalogenation
(c) dehydrohalogenation
(d) dehydrogenation
Answer:
(c) dehydrohalogenation

Question 2.
Chloroform is slowly oxidised by air in the presence of light to an extremely poisonous gas called ………………
Answer:
carbonyl chloride/phosgene

Question 3.
Which of the following represents a gem di halide?
(a) ethylene dichloride
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane
(c) 1,3-dichloropropane
(d) 1,2-dichloropropane
Answer:
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane

Quesiton 4.
Here ‘A’ is
(a) phenol
(b) sodium phenoxide
(c) benzene
(d) cyclohexyl chloride
Answer:
(b) sodium phenoxide

Question 5.
There are _________ structural isomers of C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
Four

Question 6.
Name the insecticide prepared from chloral and chloro benzene.
Answer:
DDT

Question 7.
The reaction between arylhalide and alkylhalide in the presence of sodium and dry ether.
Answer:
Wurtz-Fittig reaction

Question 8.
Name the substance which is used as anaesthetic.
Answer:
Chloroform

Question 9.
Name an alkyl magnesium halide.
Answer:
Methyl magnesium chloride (CH₃MgCI) – Grignard reagent

Question 10.
Compounds in which the halogen atom is directly attached to an aromatic ring carbon.
Answer:
Aryl halides

Question 11.
Even though alkylhalides are polar in nature, they are insoluble in water. Comment on it.
Answer:
This is because alkylhalides can neither make or break hydrogen bonds with water molecules.

Question 12.
From the following select those compounds which are used for the preparation of alkyl halide?

NH3, SOCI2, Na, aq.KOH, HCI, alc.KOH, CH3-CH2-CI, anhyd.ZnCI2.

Answer:
SOCI₂, HCI, and ZnCI₂

Question 13.
When (-) 2methyl butan-1-ol is heated with con. HCI +1-chloro-2 methyl butane is obtained. This reaction is an example of
(a) retension
(b) invission
(c) racemisation
(d) resolution
Answer:
(a) retension

Question 14.
If alkaline hydrolysis of a tertiary alkyl halide by aqeous alkali, if concentration of alkali is doubled then the reaction rate at constant temperature will be ___________
Answer:
will be tripled.

Question 15.
The organic compound used as feedstock in the synthesise of chlorofluorocarbon is ___________
Answer:
CCI₄

Question 16.
DDT is prepared from _____________
Answer:
Chlorobenzene and B.H.C

Question 17.
Chlorination of benzene in the presence of halogen is an example of ____________
Answer:
aromatic electrophilic substitution

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the preparation of extra pure alkyl halide from ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
When ethyl alcohol is heated with thionyl chloride, chloroethane is obtained. Here the byproducts are in gaseous state and hence this method is used for the preparation of extra pure alkyl halide.
CH₃-CH₂-OH + SOCI₂ → CH₃CH₂CI + HCI + SO₂

Question 2.
A student was treating iodoform with silver nitrate and he got yellow precipitation. Then he used chloroform instead of Iodoform.

1. Will he get the earlier result?
2. Why?

Answer:

1. No
2. C-I bond in iodoform is weaker than C-CI bond of chloroform. So C-I bond of iodoform is easily broken to form yellow precipitate of AgI when heated with AgNO₃ solution.

Question 3.

Choral, Sodium carbonate, Bleaching power, Iodine, Ethyl alcohol.

From the box, write the raw materials of chloroform and Iodoform.
Answer:
Chloroform – ethyl alcohol and bleaching powder Iodoform – Sodium carbonate, ethyl alcohol and iodine

Question 4.
During a class room discussion a student 1 argued: “When chlorobenzene is allowed to react with metallic sodium in the presence of dry ether medium, diphenyl is obtained”. Then student 2 countered: “This reaction will take place in the presence of ale. KOH”.

1. Whom you will support?
2. Name the reaction? Explain it.

Answer:

1. Student 1
2. Fittig reaction

When aryl halide is allowed to heat with sodium in dry ether medium, diaryl is obtained, or

Question 5.
Analyse the following statements:
Statement 1: Alkyl halides are polar compounds.
Statement 2: Alkyl halides are insoluble in water because alkyl halides are non-polar compounds. What is your opinion? Explain it.
Answer:
Even though alkylhalides are polar compounds, they are insoluble in water. Because they can neither form hydrogen bonds with water nor break the hydrogen bonds existing between water molecules.

Question 6.
Which of the following has the highest dipole moment?

1. CH₂CI₂
2. CHCI₃
3. CCI₄

Answer:
Dipole moment of CH₂CI₂ (1.60 D) is the highest. The dipole moment of CCI₄ is zero while that of CHCI₃ is 1.03 D. The dipolement of CHCI₃ is less than that of CH₂CI₂ because the bond dipole of third C-CI bond opposes the resultant of bond dipoles of the other two C-CI bonds.

Question 7.
A hydrocarbon C₅H₁₀ does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C₅H₉CI in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Since the hydrocarbon gives only one monochloro compound, it indicates that all the hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon are equivalent. Thus, the compound is cyclopentane.

Question 8.
Which of the following has the highest dipole moment? CH₂CI₂, CHCI₃, CCI₄. Justify.
Answer:
The dipole moment of CH₂CI₂ (1.6 D) is the highest. The dipole moment of CCI₄ is zero while that of CHCI₃ is 1.03 D. The dipole moment of CHCI3 is less than that of CH₂CI₂ because the bond dipole of third C-CI bond opposes the resultant of bond dipoles of the other two C-CI bonds.

Question 9.
Which alkyl halide from the following pair would you expect to react more rapidly by SN² reaction mechanism? Justify your answer. CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-Br or CH₃-CH₂-CH(Br)-CH₃
Answer:

Presence of bulky groups around carbon atoms induce an inhibitory effect. Bulky group hinders the approaching nucleophiles in SN² mechanisam.

Question 10.
Explain the stereochemical aspects of SN¹ and SN² reactions selecting suitable example.
Answer:
S_N¹ reaction:
In the case of optically active alkyl halides, S_N¹ reactions are accompanied by racemisation. This is because the attack of the nucleophile may be accomplished from either side resulting in a mixture of products, one having the same configuration and the other having opposite configuration.

S_N² reaction:
In the case of optically active alkyl halides, there is inversion of configuration. This is because the nucleophile attaches itself on the side opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present

Question 11.
Arrange the following compounds in the order of reactivity towards SN² displacement. 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane, 1-Bromopentane 2-Bromopentane
Answer:
1-Bromopentane > 2-Bromo-pentane > 2-Bromo-2- methyl butane

Question 12.
What happens when methyl bromide is treated with sodium in presence of dry ether? Write the chemical equation and name the reaction.
Answer:
Ethane is formed.

called Wurtz reaction.

Question 13.
Chloroform is stored in black coloured bottles. Why?
Answer:
In presence of sunlight chloroform undergoes oxidation to form carbonyl chloride (phosgene).

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Raju heated the test tube containing ale. KOH and primary amine with one compound. A foul smell is obtained.

1. What is the compound?
2. Name the foul smelling product obtained.
3. Name the reaction.

Answer:

1. Chloroform
2. Isocyanide/Carbyl amine
3. Carbyl amine reaction/lsocyanide test

Question 2.
Nitration is one of the ring substitution reactions.

1. How it will be carried out?
2. What are the products obtained when chloro-benzene is heated with the nitrating mixture?
3. What is the difference if the same compound is heated with fuming H₂SO₄?

Answer:
1. By heating with nitrating mixture (mixture of conc.HN0₃ and conc.H₂O₄)

2. A mixture of 1-Chloro-2-nitrobenzene (minor product) and 1-Chloro-4-nitrobenzene (major product) is obtained.

3. If chloro benzene is heated with fuming H₂So₄ sulphonation will take place resulting in the formation of a mixture of 2-Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid (minor product) and 4- Chlorobenzene sulphonic acid (major product).

Question 3.
Consider the reaction: RX + Mg → RMgX

1. Identify the compound ‘RMgX’.
2. Explain the reaction.

Answer:

1. Grignard Reagent
2. When alkyl halides are treated with magnesium in the presence of dry ether, alkyl magnesium halide is obtained.

Question 4.
Chloroform kept in brown coloured bottles filled up to the neck.

1. What is the reason for this?
2. Few drops of 1% ethyl alcohol is added to chloroform to be kept for long. Give reason.

Answer:
1. In the presence of sunlight chloroform undergoes oxidation to form carbony chloride or phosgene, a highly poisonous gas.

This reaction can be avoided by storing it in dark bottles, completely filled upto brim. The use of brown bottles cuts off active light radiations and filling upto brim keeps out air. So chloroform is kept in brown bottles.

2. Addition of a little ethanol fixes the toxic COCI₂ as non-poisonous diethyl carbonate.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:

1. CH₃CH₂I
2. Ethyl Iodide
3. CH₃-CHBr-CH₃
4. 2-Bromopropane
5. Iso-butyl chloride
6. 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane

Question 6.
In a Chemistry class, teacher explained that when benzene diazonium chloride is allowed to react with cuprous chloride and HCI, Chloro benzene is obtained. Then teacher asked

1. If we use copper powder instead of cuprous chloride. What will be the product?
2. Write the name of the reaction.
3. Write the equation which shows the reaction between benzene diazonium chloride with copper powder and HCI.

Answer:
1. Chlorobenzene is obtained.

2. Gattermann reaction.

3.

Question 7.
In a Lab, one student took a compound in test tube and he added iodine and alkali. He notices a yellow precipitate.

1. Write the name of the test.
2. Which type of compounds give this test?
3. According to the above answer, ethyl alcohol or methyl alcohol, which one gives this test?

Answer:

1. Iodoform test
2. Iodoform test is given by those compounds which are having CH₃CO – group or CH₃CHOH group.
3. Ethyl alcohol gives Iodoform test becuase it has CH₃CHOH group.

Question 8.

For the preparation of chlorobenzene, Nikhil wrote the equation ‘A’ and Nishanth wrote the equation ‘B’.

1. Which of the above equation is correct? Why?
2. Write the name of the reactions ‘A’ and ‘B’
3. Explain any one reaction.

Answer:

1. 1. Both the reactions (A) and (B) are correct.
   2. (A) -Sandmeyer reaction (B) – Gattermann reaction
   3. Sandmeyer reaction – When benzene diazonium chloride is allowed to react with cuprous chloride and HCI, chlorobenzene is obtained, benzene diazonium chloride + cuprous chloride
      

Question 9.
a. In the following pairs of compounds which would undergo SN₂ reaction faster?
(CH₃)₃C-Brand CH₃-CH₂-Br
b. i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH + SOCI₂ → ……..

Answer:
a. CH₃CH₂Br. SN₂ reaction is faster in the case of primary alkyl halides since the transition state is more stable.
b. i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CI
ii) CH₃-CH₂ -CH₂ – CH₂Br (Anti-Markownikoff’s addition)

Question 10.

1. Nucleophilic substitution of haloalkane takes place through two different mechanisms, SN¹ and SN². Why do inversion of configuration take place in SN²?
2. What is racemic mixture?
3. Comment on the optical activity of recemic mixture.

Answer:

1. is because the nucleophile attaches itself on the side opposite to the one where the halogen atom is present.
2. Equimolar mixture of ‘d’ and T forms of an optically active compound is called racemic mixture.
3. Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to external compensation. A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal proportions will have zero optical rotation, as the rotation due to one isomer will be cancelled by the rotation due to the other isomer.

Question 11.
Write equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
i) 1 – butanol
ii) 1 – chlorobutane
iii) but -1- ene
Answer:
i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH+ HI → CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂I + H₂O

Question 12.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N2 reaction with – OH?

1. CH₃Br or CH₃I
2. (CH₃)₃CCI or CH₃CI

Answer:

1. CH₃I will react faster because C-I bond undergoes cleavage more easily as compared to C-Br bond.
2. CH₃CI will react faster because in it the carbon carrying halogen is sterically less hindered.

Question 13.
Identify the product X, Y, and Z in the following reaction.

Answer:

• X = CH₃CH₂CI
• Y = CH₃CH₂CN
• Z = CH₃CH₂CONH₂

Question 14.
Identify the compounds X, Y, and Z in the following.

Answer:

• X = CH₃ – CH₂Br
• Y = CH₃CH₂OH
• Z = CHI₃

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
CH₃-CH = CH₂ + HCI

1. What are the possible products?
2. Of these which one is the major product?
3. Name the rule which helps you to answer the above question.
4. Explain the rule.

Answer:
1.

2. 2-Chloropropane is major.
3. Markownikoffs rule.
4. When a hydrogen halide is added to an unsymmetrical alkenethe halogen atom of alkyl halide will go to double-bonded carbon atom containing lesser number of hydrogen atom.

Question 2.
Two compounds are given

1. What is the difference between these two compounds?
2. Write the name of reaction they undergo and explain it.

Answer:

1. 1^st compound is cyanide. 2^nd compound is isocyanide
2. Nucleophilic substitution reactions.

The reactions in which a stronger nucleophile substitutes or displaces a weaker nucleophile are called nucleophilic substitution reactions.

Question 3.

1. Name ‘A’.
2. What is the role of ‘A’?
3. Name the product obtained.
4. What is this reaction called?

Answer:

1. Dry ether
2. Dry ether is used to prevent explosion
3. Diphenyl
4. Fittig reaction

Question 4.


Answer:

Question 5.
a) Haloalkanes give β-elimination.
i) Prepare CH₂ = CH₂ from CH₃ – CH₂X and alchoholic KOH.
ii) Give the major product of the β-elimination of

Name the related rule.

b) In the following pairs of halogen compounds which would undergo SN² reaction faster? Justify.

Answer:


It is primary halide and therefore undergoes S_N² reaction faster.

An iodide is a better leaving group because of its large size. It will be released at a faster rate in the presence of attacking nucleophile.

Question 6.

1. Which among the following compounds undergo SN¹ substitution easily – 3° or 1° alkyl halide? Give reason. Justify.
2. Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions. Give reason.

Answer:

1. 3°- alkyl halide. Because the 3° carbocation is more stable than a 1° carbocation.
2. Grignard reagents react with water and get decomposed (hydrolysed). Hence they should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.

Question 7.
a. In the following pair of halogen compounds which undergo SN² reactions faster.

1. C₆H₂ – CH₂ – CI and C₆ H₃ -CI
2. CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CI and CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – I

b.

Answer:
a. Undergo SN² reactions faster

1. C₆H₅CH₂CI
2. CH₃ -CH₂ -CH₂ -I (R-I bond is weaker than R-CI bond)

b.

i) CH₃ -CH₂ -CH₂ -CH₂ Br
ii) CH₃-CH₂-CN

Question 8.

Complete the reaction.
b) R- CH₂– CI, R₂CHCI, R₃CCI. Arrange these alkylhalide in the order of reactivity towards SN¹ and SN² mechanism.

Answer:

Question 9.
Write the isomers of compound having molecular formula C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
For the molecular formula C₄H₉Br four isomers are possible.
(i) CH₃-CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃ (1-Bromobutane)

Plus Two Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A hydrocarbon C₅H₁₀ does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C₅H₁₀CI in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Since the hydrocarbon gives only one monochloro compound, it indicates that all the hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon are equivalent. Thus, the compound is cyclopentane.

Question 2.
Write the isomers of compound having molecular formula C₄H₉Br.
Answer:
For the molecular formula C₄H₉Br four isomers are possible.
(i) CH₃-CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃ (1-Bromobutane)

Question 3.
Write equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
i) 1 – butanol
ii) 1 – chlorobutane
iii) but – 1 – ene
Answer:
i) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH+ HI → CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂I + H₂O

Question 4.
Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in S_N2 reaction with OH^–?
Answer:

• CH₃I will react faster because C-I bond undergoes cleavage more easily as compared to C-Br bond.
• CH₃CI will react faster because in it the carbon carrying halogen is sterically less hindered.

Question 5.
Out of C₆H₅CH₂CI and C₆H₅CHCIC₆H₅which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?
Answer:
C₆H₅CH₂CIC₆H₅ is more easily hdrolysed because in this case the reaction proceeds through more stable intermediate carbocation.

The intermediate carbocation in this case is stabilised by resonance effect of two phenyl groups whereas in the other case it is stabilised by resonance effect of only one phenyl group.