Plus One

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One English Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One English Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Questions 1 to 8. Answer all the questions. Each carries 1 score.

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

But I reconsidered why should I deprive her of the joy this sacrifice would give her? All that this shilling could have given her she was foregoing for the love of her brother. The joy of doing it was beyond all price. The grief in her heart would be eased a little. What good would it do to deprive her of it? I picked up the shilling.

“Maggies, I said, “I shall use this shilling to buy flowers and put them on your brother’s grave”.

Question 1.
The passage is take from ………………..
Answer:
“Price of Flowers” by Prabhat Kumar Mukoppadhyaya.

Question 2.
Which word in the passage indicates the meaning ‘to decide not to have something/to give up something’ ?
Answer:
Foregoing

Question 3.
Why did the narrator decide to take the shilling ?
Answer:
The narrator decided to take the shilling because Maggie worked hard to get this shilling and it showed her love for her brother. By taking the shilling from her, the grief in her heart would be eased a little.

Question 4.
“The joy of doing it was beyond all price”. Why?
Read the following lines of the poem and answer the questions that follow.

“If you can dream – and not make dreams your master;
If you think – and not make thoughts your aim,
If you can meet with Triumph and Disaster
And treat those two imposters just the same:
If you can bear to hear the truth you’ve spoken
Twisted by knaves to make a trap for fools,
Or watch the things you gave your life to, broken,
And stood and build’em up with worn-out tools;
Answer:
Maggie was a poor girl and even to get a shilling she had to work hard. Placing flowers at the grave of her brother who died in India was her way of showing her love for him. The joy she would get by doing that was beyond the price.

Question 5.
What according to the poet are the two imposters?
Answer:
The two impostors are Triumph and Disaster.

Question 6.
What do knaves represent?
Answer:
Knaves represent the people who twist and turn what other people say.

Question 7.
What is the message conveyed in the above lines?
Answer:
The message conveyed by the lines is that you can dream but never make dreams your master. You should be able to face success and failures equally. That means you should have the virtue of equanimity.

Question 8.
Identify the figure of speech in the phrase ‘Triumph and Disaster’.
Answer:
Personification.

Questions 9 to 12. Answer any 3. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 9.
What is the theme of the story, “His First Flight”?
Answer:
The theme of the story “His First Flight” is building confidence and self-reliance in youngsters. We see the young Seagull afraid to take his first flight. But his mother cleverly persuades him to do it and he succeeds.

Question 10.
Do you agree with A. J. Cronin’s remark “the animals were all outside”, Why? Give two reasons.
Answer:
I agree with A.J. Cronin’s remark that ‘the animals were all outside’. People like Miss Jope-Smith and her companion Ronnie were definitely animals. They could not see a man as a man, but as an animal. I don’t think all the 1500 passenger and the crew outside were as bad as these two people. That is why I said I partly, and not wholly, agree.

Question 11.
Sleep is a fascinating biological process. Sleep is an efficient way to ‘service’ the brain, to make sure it works well and long enough. Give two suggestions for a good sleep.
Answer:
a) Don’t let anxieties and worries bother you.
b) Think of the beautiful sights and sounds you had during the day and, if you are believer, pray God to give you a peaceful and sound sleep.

Question 12.
How does the father in the story “Conceptual Fruit” stand out as different from the other members of the family?
Answer:
The father in the story “Conceptual fruit” stands out as different from the other members of the family because he is very sympathetic to Greta, who is a differently-abled girl. She is 16, but she is in a much lower class than her younger brother. Her and mother are not at all kind to her. But her father encourages hqr and tries his best to fulfil her demands.

Questions 13 to 19. Answer any 5. Each carries 4 scores. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 13.
a) One of the sheep ……………………… (has/have a bell on its neck.
b) The teacher together with the students …………………. (has/have) come.
c) Neither the teacher nor the students ………………… (has/have) gone for a walk.
d) If you invite her, she ……………………. (will/would) come.
Answer:
a) has
b) has
c) have
d) will

Question 14.
While planning a trip, we have to consider many things. What the do’s and don’ts related to this? (2 do’s and 2 don’ts)
Answer:
Do’s
a) Make sure you have appropriate clothes to suit the climate of the places.
b) Ensure you have your travel documents and sufficient money with you.

Don’ts
a) Don’t carry too much luggage; less luggage, more comfort.
b) Don’t accept food and drinks from strangers.

Question 15.
“If thou art worn and hard beset
With sorrows that thou wouldst forget,
If thou wouldst read a lesson, that will keep
Thy heart from fainting and thy sould from sleep.
Go to the woods and hills! No tears
Dim the sweet look that nature wears
-What message do you get from these lines?
Answer:
The message the lines give is loud and clear. If you are tired and disturbed by sorrows that you want to forget, if you want to be cheerful and active, then you should go to the woods and hills. There you will always find joy. Tears never dim the sights of Nature. Nature is always cheerful when you are in immersed in the sights of nature, you will never feel tired and unhappy.

Question 16.
a) The police came only after the thief ………………………. (escape)
b) Last year, I ………………………. (walk) back home every evening.
c) He usually wears pants, but now he (wear) a dhothi.
d) Look, the snow ………………….. (fall)!
Answer:
a. had escaped.
b. used to walk (walked)
c. is wearing
d. is falling.

Question 17.
Briefly describe the heroic acts of the crew of the Titanic at the time of the shipwreck.
Answer:
Captain Smith was the Commander. Not even for a moment he thought of saving his life. He stood on the bridge and told his crew that they were British and they should remember their country and do their duty. They said the women and children should go in the life boats. The life boats were lowered and the women and children were sent away to safety. The crew had no hope of saving themselves. The Titanic sank from sight as the band played “Nearer my God to Thee.

Question 18.
Your school is conducting a debate on “Physical Education” which is mandatory for the Higher Secondary Students. If you are to speak for the topic, what points will you put forward? Write four arguments.
Answer:
a) There is a well-known proverb “A sound mind in a sound body.” If you want to have a healthy mind, you should have a healthy body.

b) To make a healthy body physical education is important. Physical education tells you the importance of physical exercises which include walking, jogging and yoga.

c) Physical education gives you knowledge about the type of foods and drinks you should take and the types of foods and drinks you must avoid to remain healthy.

d) It also teaches you to have sufficient sleep, to avoid distressing thoughts and keep your mind refreshed with hope and optimism.

Question 19.
Esther Dyson in “The Cyberspace” says that there is something in the modern psyche that loves new frontiers, a liking to make rules instead of following them. Do you agree with this statement? Express your views in four sentences.
Answer:
I agree with the statement. Cyberspace is a place j where we make the rules and where we can be ourselves. We can think of cyberspace as a vast and unlimited world of virtual real estate. Cyberspace is a voluntary destination or many destinations. You choose a site. That means you can decide where to go and what to see. Cyberspace frees us from the tyranny of power structures. In cyberspace all communities can flourish, no minority vs. majority or the other way round.

Questions 20 to 25. Answer any 5. Each carries 6 scores. (5 × 6 = 30)

Question 20.
“Hasan had no fondness for speech. But despite the silences of our long night vigils, I gathered some fragments of his history.” Attempt a brief character sketch of Hasan.
Answer:
Hasan is the serang of Ranaganji. A serang is a petty officer in a merchant ship who helps with the various matters connected with the voyage, like loading and unloading of the luggage or any such thing. He also supervises the lascars, workmen in the ship. Hasan is a man of excellent qualities We are impressed with his compassion and selfless service.

We see him first when he brings two men to the doctor. The doctor finds out they have small pox. The ship has some 1500 passengers and if they come to know that there is an outbreak of small pox in the ship, there would be panic. So Hasan builds a shelter for them at the back of the ship where they will not be easily seen or contacted by others. He also agrees to take care of them. The great thing about his willingness is that small pox is a contagious disease and death is almost certain if it is not cured fast enough.

He cooks for them and takes care of them. More people, fourteen of them, are diagnosed with the disease.‘But Hasan serves all of them as if they were his own brothers. Hasan is silent person. The doctor collects some information about him. He had neither friends nor family in India. He is a devout Muslim. All his life he acquired nothing substantial. He was not worried about getting any reward. Here we see him following what the Gita teaches. “Work is thy duty, reward is not thy concern.” In his readiness to lay down his life for his brethren, he is following the advice of Jesus who said that There is no greater sacrifice than laying one’s life for his friend.” Thus in him we see the best of all religions. Love seems to be his religion. We see his greatness when we see him sewing the shroud and reading a passage from the Ramayana before casting the dead body of one of the sick persons into the water.

When the ship reaches Colombo, the sick persons with running sores were carried in the arms of Hasan.
It needs real compassion to do that, knowing fully well-that small pox is a killer disease and it easily spreads through contact. Hasan impresses me as a really great man. In my mind he is not just a serang but a sage.

Question 21.
Prepare a short profile on Rabindranath Tagore by using the following hints.

Rabindranath Tagore Born – 7th May 1861 Popular – Poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer and painter Referred to as – “the Bard of Bengal” Awards – Nobel Prize in Literature (1913) Notable works – Gitanjali, Gora, Red Oleanders, Post Office, Chithra, Chandalika, Natir-Puja, Mukta-Dhara Pen name           – Bhanusimha Death    – 7th August 1941

Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7^th May 1961. He was a popular poet, writer, playwright, composer, philosopher, social reformer and painter. He was a versatile genius. He is referred to as “The Bard of Bengal” just like Shakespeare is called “The Bard of England”. That shows the high esteem in which he is held in India. He won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his famous work “Gitanjali”. Apart from Gitanjali, his notableworks are: “Gora”, “Red Oleanders”, “Rost office”, “Chitra”, “Chandalika”, “Natir Puja”, and “Mukhta-Dhara”. His pen name was Bhanusimha. He died on 7 August 1941.

Question 22.
The story “Gooseberries” tells us how Nicholai Ivanich attains his goal and his long cherished dream. If you were a reporters, how would you cover the success story of Nicholai? Write a newspaper report, giving it a suitable title.
Answer:

A Man Realises His Dream

Ivan and Nicholai are brothers, Ivan 2 years older than Nicholai. After their father’s death, they had a hard time. They spent their days and nights in the fields and the wood. They minded the horses, took the bark of the lime trees and fished. Ivan went in for studies and became a veterinary surgeon. Nicholai was at the Exchequer Court when he was 19. Nicholai did not like his job. For years he was thinking of only one thing -how to get back to the country and buy a small farm with a gooseberry bush near the bank of a river or lake.

Ivan loved city life. He did not like Nicholai’s idea of shutting himself up in his farm. It is a common saying that a man needs only 6 feet of land. It is the corpse that wants it, not the man. To leave town and the struggle and swim of life and go and hide yourself in a farmhouse is not life for Ivan. It is egoism, laziness. Nicholai married an elderly, ugly, widow for hermoney. She died and Nicholai bought 300 acres with a farmhouse. He got 20 gooseberry bushes to be planted in his farm. When Ivan visited him, Niholai took him to see his estate. In the evening when they were having tea, the cook laid a plateful of gooseberries on the table. They were from Nicholai’s garden. The gooseberry was hard and sour but there was a lot of happiness in Nicholai. Even in the night Nicholai made trips to the dining table to eat his gooseberries. Gooseberries may be hard and sour to Ivan, but to Nicholai they were like elixir or manna from heaven. People are happy for different reasons. One man’s meat is another man’s poison and one man’s religion is another man’s madness.

Question 23.
Liam O’ Flaherty’s “His First Flight” makes the reader think about the kind of support given by parents to make their children self-reliant and self-confident. After reading the story, you decide to communicate your feelings to your friend abroad.
Draft an e-mail to your friend about it.
Answer:
Ashiquemehboob@gmail.com
I recently read the story “His First Flight” by Liam O’ Flaherty. It talks about the support given by parents to make their children self-reliant and self-confident. Let me share with you my feelings about the story.

In the story “His First Flight” by Liam O’Flaherty we see a good example of fine parenting. Here we see how the mother of a young sea gull who was afraid to fly out of its nest is persuaded by her to venture out. Even when the young seagull saw his brothers and sister running to the end of the ledge, flapping their wings and flying away, he did not have the courage to follow them. His father and mother shouted at him and threatened to starve him. But he was not ready to leave his nest and fly out.

Then the mother knew what to do. She knew the young seagull was starving. She sat on a plateau which could be reached only by flying. There she sat and started tearing a piece of fish at her feet. The sight of the food maddened the hungry young seagull. He made a low sound as if begging his mother to give him a piece. But the mother also made a low sound, showing she heard the cry but did not come near the nest. Then he cried ‘ga, ga, ga’. The mother screamed back at him, mocking him. His mother picked up a piece of fish and flew towards him.

He was happy and was hoping to get his food. But the mother did not come to the nest but stood a little far, in mid air, tempting the young seagull to venture out. Maddened by anger he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into the space. He was terrified for a moment and his heart froze. The next moment he felt his wing spreading outwards. He felt the wind under his stomach and against his wings. He was flying. He was no longer afraid. He flapped his wings and soared upwards. His parents and his siblings joined him in his joyful ‘ga-ga-ga-ga-ga’ noise. He had his first flight. Parents should help the children to be self-reliant.

Question 24.
As a news reporter, you are present at the venue to report the trip of the hot air balloon, Le Horla. Prepare a report about the balloon’s take off.
Answer:
Today, the 8^th of July is an important day for Le Horla and its passengers. Le Horla is a hot air balloon and it is to take off from La Vilette. The balloon is now getting filled up and it is swelling and wriggling like a huge worm. There are some 300 enthusiastic people surrounding it to witness its flight. The passengers are getting in. The captain is Jovis. The others in the basket attached to the balloon are JJeutenant Malet, M. Etierine Beer, M. Paul Bassand and Mr. Patrice Eyries. Before they take off one could see them talking animatedly. The basket was overloaded and so one of them has to come out. Patrice Eyries climbs out of the basket. He walks away dejectedly. All the people standing there felt sorry for poor Eyries. His plan for a great adventure is dashed. M. Joliet asks all the ladies to keep off. When the balloon lifts, sand will be thrown into their hats. He cuts the ropes that hold the balloon to the ground. Le Horla is lifting upward now, just like birds lift off. Up, up and up goes the balloon. People scream in joy. Le Horla climbs above the city of Paris and it slowly disappears! We wish the passengers god luck!

Question 25.
The boy who raised the question in “I will Fly” discovers a new path in his life after his encounter with Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. He writes a letter to his friend, describing the impact of Kalam’s words on him and the changes that came over his character. Draft the letter for the boy.
Answer:

17, Kalina Road
Mumbai
10 Dev 2013

Dear Rahul,
I am writing this letter with a special purpose. Recently I was a participant in the programme called “Sashtrayan” which Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam inaugurated in our village. It was a programme to ensure the preparation of about 2000 students from different schools to be engineers, doctors, scientists, qualified managers and civil servants. Dr. Kalam then spoke on the topic “Science Empowers the Nation”. I was greatly impressed by his speech. He said, “Every youth wants to be unique, that is you. The world around you wants to make you just everybody else.”

I was greatly impressed by this philosophy. We always try to be like others, But after listening to the speech of Dr. Kalam, I wanted to be me. I took His advice seriously and I worked hard. Today I am a marine engineer because I wanted to be one although my parents wanted me to be a doctor. I am proud of my job. I am doing well and my superiors are very pleased with my work. All this happened because of the inspiration Dr. Abdul Kalam gave me.

I want to tell you that you should try to be you. Don’t do any course because your parents want it or your other relatives want it. Do it only if you like it. You should be you!

I shall be glad to hear from you. Say Hi to Sheela.

Yours lovingly,
Svetlana

Questions 26 to 28. Answer any 2. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 26.
Elaborate on the views of Nehru about Mahatma Gandhi in the lesson “And then Gandhi Came”.
Answer:
Gandhi and Nehru were the most important leaders of the freedom struggle. Nehru loved and respected Gandhi very much. Following the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi, Nehru lamented: “The light has gone out of our lives.” To Nehru, Gandhi was the light of India.

In the lesson “Then Gandhi came”, Nehru clearly expresses his views on Gandhi.

When Gandhi came India was in a bad shape. Humiliation, unemployment, poverty and desperation were everywhere. When Gandhiji came things changed. Through his confidence, unusual power, astonishing vitality and exemplary leadership, Gandhi influenced millions of people in India in varying degrees. Some changed completely; others were affected only partly. His call for action was two-fold. One involved in challenging and resisting foreign rule. The other was fighting against our own social evils. ! His principal aims were freedom through peaceful means, national unity, solution of minority problems, improvement of the depressed classes and the ending , of untouchability. The effect of his leadership was electrifying. People were no more willing to suffer under foreign domination. They wanted freedom and they were willing to make any sacrifice for it.

Question 27.
“A travel, in fact, is an eye-opener. It opens up new, refreshing snapshots before us and often helps us change our philosophy of life”. Write a travel essay describing the travel experience you had recently.
Answer:
A travel is certainly is an eye-opener. It opens up new, refreshing snapshots before us and often helps us change our thoughts about life. I had such an experience recently when I visited Munnar. Kerala is popularly called God’s Own Country. It is named as one of the ten paradises of the world by National Geographic Traveller. It has so many tourist attractions and people love it. I would especially mention Munnar which was the main reason for Kerala to get the name “God’s Own Country”.

Munnar is very popular hill station. It was once the summer capital for the British. The gradient and alignment of hills were particularly designed for tea farming. With about 80,000 miles of tea plantation, an equal measure of aromatic vegetation, misty valleys, and low-flying clouds, Munnar has become the best tourist place in Kerala.

Here you have cute bungalows, moderate home-stays and lavish hotels and resorts. The old world colonial feel has its own charms and it certainly makes for a good selfie drive. People can enjoy in the extraordinary blend of luxury and beauty. There you can visit the TATA Tea Museum, Meesapulimala, Blossom Park, Pothamedu View Point, Life of Pi Church, Attukal Waterfalls, Cheeyappara Waterfalls, Top Station, Marayoor Dolmens, Indo Swiss Dairy Farm, Kundala Lake, Lockhart Gap, Mattupetty Dam, Anamudi, and Eravikulam National Park . Do visit Munnar and have a pre-taste of Paradise!

Question 28.
Prepare a critical appreciation of the following poem. (Hints – Summary of the poem-Themes-Poetic devices and style, Evolution of thought – The perspectives of the student)

The Sands of Dee
By Charles Kingsley
O Mary, go and call the cattle home.
And call the cattle home
And call the cattle home
Across the sand of Dee’,
The western wind was wild and dank with foam,
And all alone went she.
The western tide crept up along the sand,
And o’er and o’er the sand,
And round the round the sand,
As far as eye could see.
The rolling mist came down and hid the land:
And never home came she.
‘Oh! is it weed, or fish, or floating hair.
A tress of golden hair.
A drowned maiden’s hair
Above the nets at sea?
Was never salmon yet that shone so fair
Among the stakes of Dee’.
They rowed her in across the rolling foam,
The cruel crawling foam,
The cruel hungry foam,
To her grave beside the sea.
But still the boatmen hear her call the cattle home
Across the sands of Dee.
Answer:
“Sands of Dee” by Charles Kingsley is a folklore that tells the sad story of a little girl named Mary whom her parents send out to bring their cattle home before it rained. Her parents told to go and bring the cattle home. The cattle were grazing across the sands of Dee.

The western wind was very strong and there were strong waves in the sea. But obeying her parents, Mary went alone to bring the cattle home. The western tide crept up along the sand and over the sand which extended as far as eye could see. There was mist which prevented Mary from seeing things clearly. Mary never came back home.

The boatmen then saw a tress of golden hair of the drowned maiden. They took her body and brought it, rowing over the cruel foam, and buried her in a grave beside the sea. It is said that the boatmen still hear her call the cattle home across the sands of Dee.

The poem has 4 stanzas of 6 lines each and it is in rhyme. The rhyming scheme is aaabab. There is repetition in the poem. In the first stanza itself “And call the cattle home” is repeated 3 times. “Call the cattle home across the sands of Dee” in the first stanza is repeated as the final lines of the poem.

We find alliteration in the poem. “Western wind was wild”, and “cruel crawling” are examples for it. We also find inversions in many places like “And never home came she.’’There is metaphor when golden hair of the maiden is compared to salmon. The poem has fine imagery and it brings tears to our eyes thinking of the cruel fate of poor Mary and her parents.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Scores: 80

Answer any 10 questions from ‘a’ to ‘l’ carries 1 score each. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
(a) Which of the following banks is known as ‘World Bank’?
(i) International Monetary Fund
(ii) Asian Development Bank
(iii) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(iv) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(iii) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

(b) Data collected from a newspaper is an example of
(i) Primary data
(ii) Secondary data
(iii) Un-published data
(iv) Raw data
Answer:
(ii) Secondary data

(c) “Jail cost of living” as a measure of the poverty line was used by
(i) Dadabhai Navaroji
(ii) VKRV Rao
(iii) Findley Shiras
(iv) Amartya Sen
Answer:
(i) Dadabhai Navaroji

(d) Choose an example of a commercial energy source
(i) Fuel wood
(ii) Agricultural waste
(iii) Dried dung
(iv) Electricity
Answer:
(iv) Electricity

(e) Tally marks of a distribution represents
(i) Class limit
(ii) Class interval
(iii) Class mid value
(iv) Class frequency
Answer:
(iv) Class frequency

(f) The range of a series represents
(i) Highest number in the series
(ii) Lowest number in the series
(iii) Middle number in the series
(iv) Difference between highest number and lowest number in the series
Answer:
(iv) Difference between highest number and lowest number in the series

(g) Which of the following is an environmental issue?
(i) Unemployment
(ii) Inflation
(iii) Land degradation
(iv) Economic depression
Answer:
(iii) Land degradation

(h) Which of the following diagrams helps to locate the ‘median’?
(i) Histogram
(ii) Ogives
(iii) Frequency Polygon
(iv) Frequency curve
Answer:
(ii) Ogives

(i) Persons who own and operate an enterprise to earn their livelihood are known as
(i) Self-employed
(ii) Casual wage laborers
(iii) Regular salaried employed
(iv) Government servants
Answer:
(i) Self-employed

(j) Which index number indicates the changes in the general price level?
(i) Index for Industrial Production
(ii) Consumer Price Index
(iii) Wholesale Price Index
(iv) Sensex
Answer:
(iii) Wholesale Price Index

(k) Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a Health indicator of a country?
(i) Infant mortality rate
(ii) Incidence of communicable and non-communicable diseases
(iii) Life expectancy
(iv) Employment level
Answer:
(iv) Employment level

(l) Population is statistics means
(i) Totality of items under study
(ii) A sample unit under study
(iii) First 10 units under study
(iv) Last 100 units understudy
Answer:
(i) Totality of items under study

Answer any 6 questions from 2 to 13 carries 2 scores each. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 2.
List any two objectives of the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:

• To establish a rule-based trading regime.
• To enlarge production and trade of services.
• To ensure optimum utilization of world resources.
• To protect the environment.
• To provide equal opportunities to all member countries in the international market.
• To administer all multilateral trade agreements, etc. (Any 2 points)

Question 3.
What is meant by environment?
Answer:
Total planetary inheritance and totality of all resources. It includes all biotic and abiotic factors.
(Or any other valid points of the environment)

Question 4.
Classify the following items into spatial classification and chronological classification.
(i) Population of India
(ii) Rate of unemployment in 2018
(iii) Crude oil price
(iv) GDP of China
Answer:

Spatial Classification	Chronological Classification
Population of India	Rate of Unemployment in 2018
GDP of China	Crude Oil Price in 2020

Question 5.
Identify two discrete variables from the following:
(i) Height of a student
(ii) Number of students in a classroom
(iii) Number of fishes in a tank
(iv) Distance between two places
Answer:
(ii) Number of students in a classroom
(iii) Number of fishes in a tank

Question 6.
Draw scatter diagrams showing perfect positive correlation and negative correlation.
Answer:

• The right diagram shows a perfect positive correlation.
• The right diagram Shows a negative correlation.

Question 7.
Write any two properties of the correlation coefficient.
Answer:

• The value of r is a pure number and has no unit.
• A positive value of r indicates a direct relationship.
• A negative value of r indicates an inverse relationship.
• The value of r lies between -1 and +1, etc.

Question 8.
Construct the index number by Simple Aggregate Method as the base year of 2005 from the data given below.

Item	Prices in 2005	Prices in 2015
Wheat (kg)	20	30
Rice (kg)	30	40
Pulses (kg)	20	25
Clothing (mt)	60	80
Milk (ltr)	25	35

Answer:
Equation = \(\frac{210}{155}\) × 100 = 135.48

Question 9.
Write any two similarities in the development strategies of India, Pakistan, and China.
Answer:

• All three countries had started their development path at the same time.
• All three countries had started similarly planning their development strategies.
• All three countries had similar growth rates and PCI till the 1980’s, etc.

Question 10.
List any two factors that cause land degradation.
Answer:

• Deforestation
• Shifting Cultivation
• Forest Fires and Over-grazing
• Improper Crop Rotation, etc.

Question 11.
Categorze the following items into quantitative data qualitative data.
(i) Intelligence of a student
(ii) Marks of students in economics
(iii) Income of laborers
(iv) Health of laborers
Answer:

Quantitative Data	Qualitative Data
Marks of Students in Economics	Intelligence of a Student
Income of Labourers	Health of Labourers

Question 12.
List any two characteristics of ‘the poor’.
Answer:

• Landless or very small landholding
• Possess fewer assets
• Chronic indebtedness
• Unstable employment
• Starvation and hunger, etc.

Question 13.
List any two means for reducing environmental degradation.
Answer:

• Use of environment supportive fuel
• Recycling and ban on plastic
• Controlling pollution
• Over-exploitation of resources should be reduced, etc.

Answer any 5 questions from 14 to 23 carries 3 scores each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Explain the background that led to the implementation of the New Economic Policy in India in 1991.
Answer:

• Financial crisis/increase in fiscal, revenue, and current account deficit.
• Rise in prices of essential goods
• Foreign exchange crisis
• Refusal of loans by IMF and IBRD
• Decline in Exports
• Political instability, etc.

Question 15.
“Organic farming gets more importance in the present day world”. Give any three reasons.
Answer:

• Substitute costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs.
• Generate income through exports
• Uses eco-friendly technology
• Provides healthy foods
• Restores and maintains ecological balance
• Pesticide-free products
• Organically produced goods have more nutritional value, etc.

Question 16.
One of the functions of the environment is that it provides aesthetics. What are its other functions?
Answer:

• Supplies Resources
• Sustains life by providing genetic and biodiversity
• Assimilate Wastes

Question 17.
Convert the following frequency distribution into exclusive class intervals.

Class	F
0 – 7	15
8 – 14	15
15 – 21	14
21 – 28	11
29 – 35	5

Answer:

Class	Frequency
0.5 – 7.5	15
7.5 – 14.5	15
14.5 – 21.5	14
21.5 – 28.5	11
28.5 – 35.5	5

Question 18.
Explain the Pilot survey and list any two merits of the pilot survey.
Answer:

• A pilot survey is a survey conducted on a small scale before launching an actual survey.
• (Or a Pilot survey helps in providing preliminary ideas about the survey. It is the pre-test of the questionnaire).
• Can assess the suitability of questions
• Can identify shortcomings and drawbacks of the questionnaire.
• Can assess the time needed for the actual survey
• Can assess the cost needed for the actual survey
• Can assess the performance of enumerators, etc.

Question 19.
Write similar economic terms for the following concepts.

1. One who buys goods and services to satisfy their wants.
2. One who produces goods and services
3. One who works for some other person and pays for it.

Answer:

1. Consumer
2. Producer
3. Employee/Worker/Labourer

Question 20.
Explain commercial and non-commercial energy sources with suitable examples.
Answer:

• Commercial energy is used for commercial purposes/Generally exhaustible.
• Noncommercial energy is used for noncommercial purposes/Generally renewable
• Commercial: Coal, Petroleum, Electricity, Lignite
• Noncommercial: Firewood, Dried dung, Agricultural waste

Question 21.
Complete the following table.

Steps towards Making a Project

1. __________________

2. Choice of target groups

3. __________________

4. __________________

5. __________________

6. __________________

7. __________________

Answer:
Steps towards making a Project:

1. Identifying a problem/area of study
2. Choice of target groups
3. Collection of data
4. Organization and presentation of data
5. Analysis and interpretation
6. Conclusion
7. Bibliography

Question 22.
Draw a simple bar diagram using the following data:

Year	2014	2015	2016	2017	2018
Production of Iron	90	140	160	200	250

Answer:
Plotting values and drawing diagram

Question 23.
List any 3 most crucial economic challenges faced by India during the colonial period.
Answer:

• Agricultural stagnation and backwardness.
• Slow rate of economic development.
• Destruction of indigenous industries, etc.

Answer any 3 questions from 24 to 31 carries 4 scores each. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 24.
Write a short note on the causes of poverty in India.
Answer:

• Social, economic and political inequality
• Social exclusion
• Unemployment
• Indebtedness
• Low level of education and skill
• Discrimination
• Lack of social welfare nets
• Unequal distribution of wealth, etc.

Question 25.
Analyze the impact of the economic reform process initiated in 1991 in the realm of the agriculture sector and industrial sector.
Answer:

• Public investment in the agricultural sector has fallen during the period.
• A shift of production from the domestic market to the export market.
• Industrial growth declined.
• Cheaper imports replaced the demand for domestic goods.
• Reduction in import duties on agricultural products.
• Did not generate sufficient employment opportunities.
• Increase in FDI and Fll.
• The rapid increase in foreign exchange reserves, etc.

Question 26.
Calculate Quartile Deviation and Coefficient of Quartile Deviation for the following data.

Wages	Number of Workers
20	5
25	7
30	6
35	10
40	5
45	4
50	4

Answer:

Wages	F	CF
20	5	5
25	7	12
30	6	18
35	10	28
40	5	33
45	4	37
50	4	41

Q1= N + 1/4th item = 10.5th item = 25
Q3 = 3(N + 1/4)th item = 31.5th item = 40
QD = Q3 – Q1/2 = 40 – \(\frac{25}{2}\) = 7.5
Coefficient of QD = Q3 – Q1/Q3 + Q1 = \(\frac{15}{65}\) = 0.23

Question 27.
Briefly explain the importance of statistics in economics.
Answer:

• It enables to presentation of economic facts in precise and definite form.
• Condensing the mass of data into a few numerical measures.
• Used to find out relationships.
• Used to predict changes in economic factors.
• Formulation of plans.
• Helps in the field of production, consumption, distribution, etc. Helps to understand social issues, etc.

Question 28.
Match the items in Column ‘A’ suitably with items in Column ‘B’.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(i) Histogram	Time series graphs
(ii) Ogives	A circle divided into parts
(iii) Pie diagram	Mode can be located
(iv) Arithmetic Line graphs	Cumulative frequency curves

Answer:

A	B
(i) Histogram	Mode can be located
(ii) Ogives	Cumulative frequency curves
(iii) Pie diagram	A circle divided into parts
(iv) Arithmetic Line graphs	Time series graphs

Question 29.
Explain the qualities of a good questionnaire.
Answer:

• The question should not be too long.
• The question should be easy to understand.
• Questions should move from general to specific.
• Questions should be precise and clear.
• The number of Questions should be minimal.
• The type of Question should be two-way, multiple-choice, or open-ended.
• The question should not use double negatives
• Questions should not be ambiguous, etc.

Question 30.
Two major policy reforms were complimented in independent India for promoting equity in the agricultural sector during 1950’s. Explain them.
Answer:

• Land Reform
• Land Ceiling

Question 31.
Explain the role of health infrastructure in Kerala in tackling the COVID-19 pandemic.
Answer:
Availability of hospitals, dispensaries, sub-centers, doctors, nurses, paramedical staff, beds, CFLTC, COVID Vaccination/any relevant points of government initiation for covid control.

Answer any 3 questions from 32 to 37 carries 5 scores each. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 32.
Explain the liberalization policy measure taken by the government in 1991 in the areas of the industrial sector and financial sector.
Answer:

• Industrial licensing was abolished.
• Reservation of small-scale industries removed
• Regulating mechanisms were removed.
• Reduced the role of RBI.
• Establishment of private sector banks.
• Control on price fixation of selected industrial products removed.
• De-reservation of public sector except for defense equipment, etc.
• Banks were permitted to generate resources from India and abroad, etc.

Question 33.
Analyze the challenges faced by the power sector in India.
Answer:

• In sufficient installed capacity and underutilization.
• Huge losses of State Electricity Boards (Transmission and Distribution Loss).
• Very limited role of private sector power generation.
• Public unrest due to high power tariffs, power cuts, etc.
• Shortage of raw materials and coal supplies in thermal power plants.

Question 34.

1. Explain sampling errors.
2. List 3 different the from the following data.

Answer:

1. The difference between actual value and estimated value Sampling bias, Non-response errors.
2. Errors in Data Acquisition, Recording Errors, Arithmetical Errors, Errors due to mishandling questionnaires, etc.

Question 35.
Draw a pie diagram from the following data.

Item	Expenditure
Food	400
Clothing	60
Shelter	300
Education	600
Health	250
Miscellaneous	200

Answer:
Calculation of Angles
Correct drawing of a Pie diagram

Percentage	Angle/Degrees
22.09	79.52
3.31	11.92
16.57	59.65
33.15	119.34
13.81	49.72
11.04	39.74

Question 36.
Explain the factors that contribute to human capital.
Answer:

• Education
• Health
• On-the-job training Migration Information
• Listing the points
• Brief explanation of each

Question 37.
A survey was conducted to study the average consumption of milk by people in an area. 50 families were surveyed. Per month consumption of milk by them is given below.

Construct a frequency distribution with exclusive classes taking class intervals as 10.
Answer:

• Preparation of correct exclusive class
• Tally mark
• Frequency

Answer any 2 questions from 38 to 41 carries 8 scores each. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 38.
Analyze different poverty alleviation programs implemented by the Government of India.
(Hint: 3 Dimentional Approach)
Answer:

• Growth-oriented approach/Trickledown theory.
• Self-employment and wage employment programs.
• Providing minimum basic amenities.
• Any 5 programs under three approaches with an explanation.

Question 39.
(a) What is meant by Sustainable Development?
(b) What are the major strategies for sustainable development?
Answer:
Development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs/or any other relevant meaning of sustainable development.

Question 40.
Consider the data given below:
(a) Draw less than ogive and more than ogive.
(b) Locate Median Graphically.

Age Group	Number of Persons
0 – 10	60
10 – 20	80
20 – 30	12
30 – 40	28
40 – 50	20

Answer:

Age	Less than CF
Less than 10	60
Less than 20	140
Less than 30	152
Less than 40	180
Less than 50	200

More than the CF table

Age	More than CF
More than 0	200
More than 10	140
More than 20	60
More than 30	48
More than 40	20

Drawing less than and more than locate the median

Question 41.
Calculate the Arithmetic Mean and Median from the following data:

Wages	Number of Workers
10 – 20	15
20 – 30	10
30 – 40	5
40 – 50	2
50 – 60	8
60 – 70	10

Answer:

Wages	F	M	FM	CF
10 – 20	15	15	225	15
20 – 30	10	25	250	25
30 – 40	5	35	175	30
40 – 50	2	45	90	32
50 – 60	8	55	440	40
60 – 70	10	65	650	50
	50		1830

Arithmetic Mean Equation
Process of Calculation
Correct Answer = 36.6
Median is the n/2 the item = 25
Median Class is 20 – 30
Equation of Median L + \(\frac{n}{2}\) – \(\frac{Cf}{f}\) × h
Process of Calculation
Correct Answer = 30

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Profit is the reward of
a) Employment
b) Business
c) Profession
d) All of these
Answer:
b) Business

Question 2.
‘One man one vote’ is the principle applicable to _____ form of tjusiness.
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Joint Stock Company
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(d) Co-operative Society

Question 3.
Identify the business which is brought into existence by a Special Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Public Corporation
c) Government Company
d) Private Company
Answer:
b) Public Corporation

Question 4.
Name the warehouse to store imported goods prior to the payment of tax and customs duty.
a) Private warehouse
b) Public warehouse
c) Bonded warehouse
d) Govemment warehouse
Answer:
c) Bonded warehouse

Question 5.
Identify the type of social responsibility in the given statement. ‘Helping the affected people due to natural calamity.’
a) Economic
b) Legal
c) Ethical
d) Discretionary
Answer:
d) Discretionary

Question 6.
Identify the document related with the public subscription of shares.
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Prospectus
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Prospectus

Question 7.
Ploughing back of profit in the business is also known as…
a) Retained earnings
b) Public deposit
c) Trade credit
d) Lease financing
Answer:
a) Retained earnings

Question 8.
MSMED Act 2006 deals with
a) Micro Enterprise
b) Small Enterprise
c) Medium Enterprise
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Question 9.
VPP is associated with business given below.
a) Departmental store
b) Chain store
c) Mail order business
d) Supermarket
Answer:
c) Mail order business

Question 10.
Scope of International business includes
a) Export and Import
b) Licensing and franchising
c) Contract manufacturing
d) All of these
Answer:
d) All of these

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
Write any two characteristics of business activity.
Answer:
Characteristics of Business Activities
i) An economic activity: Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
ii) Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.

Question 12.
What is Government Company?
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

Question 13.
Write any two benefits of e-Banking.
Answer:
a) e-banking provides 24 hours, 365 days a year services to the customers of the bank.
b) Customers can make transactions from office of house or while travelling.
c) It creates a sense of financial discipline.

Question 14.
Explain B2B commerce with one example.
Answer:

1. B2B Commerce: It is that business activity in which two business units make electronic transaction. Eg. making enquiries seeking or placing orders, communicating supply of goods, making payments, and so on.
2. Accept quotations through online, give orders for goods through online.

Question 15.
Name any two documents required in the formation of company.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association
b) Articles of Association
c) Consent of proposed directors

Question 16.
What is working capital requirements?
Answer:
Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 17.
Write any two services provided by retailers to manufacturers.
Answer:

1. Retailers undertake personal selling efforts and thus, help to increase the sale of the products.
2. As retailers are in constant touch with customers, they can provide various market information to the producers.

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
Write the three forms of public sector enterprises.
Answer:
1) Departmental Undertakings
2) Government companies
3) Statutory Corporation

Question 19.
Give any three causes of environmental pollution with one example each.
Answer:

1. Air Pollution – Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.
2. Water pollution – Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and caused serious problem to human life.
3. Land Pollution – Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

Question 20.
Briefly explain the following:
a) Lease financing
b) Factoring
Answer:
(a) Lease Financing: A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the1 other party (lessee). The lessor charges lease rent for asset for some specified period.

Merits

1. The lessee can acquire the asset with a lower investment.
2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are tax deductible. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business.

(b) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

1. It is cheaper than bank credit
2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow.
3. It ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Question 21.
Briefly explain any two types of Itinerant retailers.
Answer:
Types of Itinerant Retailers

1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and mq)/e from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys, vegetables, fruits etc.
2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 22.
Write any three disadvantages of mail order business.
Answer:
Disadvantages

1. It has to spend a large amount for advertisement.
2. There is no direct personal contact between the buyer and the seller. ,
3. They are not suitable for heavy and perishable goods.

Question 23.
Give three benefits of international business,
Answer:
A) Benefits to Nations

1. Earning of foreign exchange : It helps a country to earn foreign exchange which can be used for importing capital goods.
2. More efficient use of resources : External trade enables a country to utilise the available resources in the best possible manner.

B) Benefits to Firms:

1. Prospects for growth: It helps firms to create demands for their products in foreign countries.
2. Enhances competition : External trade enhances healthy competition.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
What is business risk? Mention any two causes of business risk.
Answer:
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events.
Business enterprises may face two types of risk, i.e. speculative risks and pure risks. Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It arises due to change in demand, change in price etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.

1. Natural causes: It includes natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.
2. Human causes: Human causes include dishonesty, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

Question 25.
Distinguish between Active and Nominal Partner.
Answer:
(a) Active partner : A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.
(b) Nominal partner (Quasi partner): A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.

Question 26.
Explain any two functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
I) Primary Functions
1) Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
a) Current deposit
b) Savings deposit
c) Fixed deposit

2) Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
a) Cash Credit
b) Bank Overdraft
c) Discounting of bill of exchange
d) Term Loans

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
1) Agency Functions
a) Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
b) Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.

Question 27.
Who is a promoter? Write any two functions of promoter.
Answer:
(a) The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
(b)

1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

Question 28.
Write any four merits of equity shares.
Answer:
a) Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk.
b) Payment of dividend is not compulsory.
c) Equity capital serves as permanent capital.
d) Equity shares do not carry any charge on the assets of the company.

Question 29.
Differentiate International and Domestic Trade.
Answer:
29. Refer March 2022 Qn. 29

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
What are the difference between Private and Public Company?
Answer:

Basis	Private	Public
a) Members:	Company	Company
b) Minimum number of directors:	Minimum -2 Maximum – 200	Minimum-7 Maximum – Unlimited
c) Minimum paid up capital:	Two	Three
d) Transfer of shares:	₹ 1 lakh	₹ 5 lakh
e) Prospectus:	Restriction on transfer	No restriction

Question 31.
WhatdoyoumeanbyMNC? Write any three features of it
Answer:
Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Features of MNCs

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.

Question 32.
Explain outsourcing. Why outsourcing is needed?
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialised service providers. This helps the managers to concentrate on their core activities. Merits of outsourcing

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on core areas.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices.

Question 33.
Match the following.

a) Obey the law of the country	a) Air pollution
b) Respecting the religious sentiments	b) Water pollution
c) Emission of carbon monoxide	c) Legal responsibility
d) Dumping of waste to streams	d) Noise Pollution
e) Loss of hearing	e) Ethical responsibility

Answer:

a) Obey the law of the country	Legal responsibility
b) Respecting the religious sentiments	Ethical responsibility
c) Emission of carbon monoxide	Air pollution
d) Dumping of waste to streams	Water pollution
e) Loss of hearing	Noise pollution

Question 34.
What is Memorandum of Association? Name any four clauses of it.
Answer:
a) Memorandum of Association – It is the “char-ter”.or “magna carta” of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the frame work beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the com¬pany with outside world. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by the proposed directors.

b) 1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. The pro¬posed name should not be identical with the name of another company. In case of a pub¬lic company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private com¬pany the name should end with the word ‘Pri¬vate Limited’ The name must not suggest any connection a national hero. It should not in- elude the word ‘co-operative’.

2. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of- the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.

3. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 35.
What are the problems faced by small business in India?
Answer:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
What is Industry? Briefly explain the classification of Industry.
Answer:
1.1 Industry
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1.2 Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries’are divided into two.

• Extractive industries:- These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
• Genetic industries:- These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

1.3 Secondary industries : Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production.
Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
   • Analytical industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
   • Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
   • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
   • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. television, car, computer, etc.
2. Construction industries: These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

1.4 Tertiary industries: These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg.  Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Question 37.
What is Partnership? Write any three merits and limications of partnership.
Answer:
Partnership The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of the business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.”

Features

1. Formation : Formation of a partnership is based , on agreement between partners.
2. Liability: The liability of partners is unlimited.
3. Risk bearing : The profit or loss shall be shared among the partners in agreed ratio.

Merits of Partnership

1. Easy formation and closure: A partnership firm can be formed and closed easily without any legal formalities.
2. Balanced decision making : In partnership, decisions are taken by all partners.
3. Division of labour: Division of labour is possible in partnership firm.

Limitations of Partnership

1. Unlimited liability : The liability of partners is unlimited.
2. Limited resources : There is a restriction on the number of partners. Hence capital contributed by them is also limited.
3. Possibility of conflicts : Conflicts among partners may affect the smooth working of the partnership business.

Question 38.
Explain any four principles of Insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

I Answer any eight of the following questions from 1-10. Each carriers one scores. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Transport provides utility to business.
a. Time
b. Place
c. Risk
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Place

Question 2.
Buying and selling of goods and services between nations are called
a. Internal trade
b. Island trade
c. International trade
d. wholesale trade
Answer:
c. International trade

Question 3.
The traders who do not have a fixed place of business is
a. Itinerant retailers b. Fixed shop relations c. Semi-fixed shoppers d. Non of these
Answer:
Itinerant retailers

Question 4.
Fishing belonging to ______ industry.
a. Extractive
b. Genetic
c. Manufacturing
d. Constructive
Answer:
Extractive

Question 5.
The member of an H.U.F. business is called
a. Member
b. Partner
c. Co-parcener
d. Shareholder
Answer:
Co-parcener

Question 6.
Indian Railway is an example of _____ from of public enterprise.
a. Statutory corporation
b. Departmental undertaking
c. Government company
d. Private company
Answer:
Departmental undertaking

Question 7.
The person who is taking an insurance policy is called
a. Insurer
b. Insured
c. Insurance company
d. Insurance policy
Answer:
Insured

Question 8.
Which among the following is the document which acknowledges the debt of a company?
a. Debenture
b. Share
c. Stock
d. Mutual Fund
Answer:
Debenture

Question 9.
Purchase of mobile phone through online by a customer is an example of model of e-commerce.
a. C2C
b. B2C
c. Intra B
d. B2G
Answer:
B2C

Question 10.
Providing scholarship to students by a bank belongs to _______ kind of social responsibility of
a. Ethical
b. Legal
c. Discretionary
d. Economics
Answer:
Discretionary

II Answer any 5 questions from 11-16. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
List out any two features of a joint stock company.
Answer:
1. Separate Legal Entity : Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
2. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
3. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.

Question 12.
What do you mean by social responsibility of business?
Answer:
Social responsibility of business refers to its obhgation to take those decisions and perform those actions which are desirable in terms of the objectives and values of our society. Social responsibility involves an element of voluntary action on the part of business people for the benefit of society.

Question 13.
Who is a promoter?
Answer:
The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Question 14.
Briefly explain the term retained earnings
Answer:
A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 15.
Suggest any two products suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
(a) Chocolates
(b) Soft drinks packets

Question 16.
List any two benefits of e-business.
Answer:

1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
2. Customers can buy goods at any time.
3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.

III Answer any 5 questions from 17-22. Each carriers 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 17.
What is partnership deed? List any four centents of it.
Answer:
Partnership of deed
a. The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions of partnership i called the partnership deed.
b. Contents of deed Name of firm

1. Name of firm
2. Nature of business and location of business
3. Duration of business
4. Investment made by each partner
5. Profit sharing ratio

Question 18.
Briefly explain any three features of a departmental undertaking.
Answer:
Features of lepartrnental Undertaking

1. The enterprise is financed by the Government.
2. The enterprise is subject to audit control.
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt. employees.

Question 19.
Write any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional business	e-business
1. Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high	Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important	Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low

Question 20.
Briefly explain the stages in the formation of public company.
Answer:
The steps involved in the formation of a company are:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation 25
3. Capital subscription
4. Commencement of business

Question 21.
Write a short note on ‘factoring’
Answer:
Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Question 22.
What are export processing zones?
Answer:
They are industrial estates, which form special enclaves separated from the domestic tariff areas. These are usually situated near seaports or airports. They are intended to provide an internationally competitive duty free environment for export production at low cost. They can import capital goods and raw materials for production of export goods without kcense.

Answer any 4 questions from 23-27, Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Briefly describe any four principles of insurance.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance

1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise theinsurer can cancel the contract.
2. 2. Insurable Interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insu red whichever is less.
4. SubrogatIon: According to this prindple, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Question 24.
Write any four differences between Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association.
Answer:

Memorandum of association	Articles of association
It defines the object of the company	It defines rules of internal management of the company.
It is the main document of the company	It is a subsidiary document of the company.
It defines the relationship of the company with outsiders	It defines the relationship of the company with members.
Filing of memorandum is compulsory	Filing of articles is not compulsory for public company.

Question 25.
What is a share ? What is the difference between equity share and preference share?
Answer:
The capital of a company is divided into smaller units called share. Those who subscribe the shares of a company are known as shareholders’. Two types shares may be issued by a company to raise capital.
They are:
a) Equity Shares
b) Preference Shares

Question 26.
List any four differences between domestic business and international business.
Answer:

Equity Shares	Preference Shares
Equity compulsory to issue shares.	Not compulsory to issue preference shares
Rate of dividend varies	Rate of dividend is fixed
Face value is lower	Face value is higher
No priority in dividend and repayment of capital	Priority in dividend and repayment of capital
Cannot be redeemed	Can be redeemed
Risk is high	Risk is low
Voting rights	No voting rights
Participate in the management	Not participate in the management

Question 27.
Briefly explain any four features of a business.
Answer:

1. An economic activity : Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
2. Production of goods and services: It includes the activities concerned with the production or purchase of goods and services.
3. Sale or exchange of goods and services : There should be sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
4. Dealings in goods and services on a regular basis : Business involves dealings in goods and services on a regular basis.

V. Answer any 3 questions from 28-31. Each carriers 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Match the following :

A	B
a. Hindrance of finance	Transport
b. Hindrance of place	Waterhousing
c. Hindrance of time	Insurance
d. Hindrance of risk	Advertising
e. Hindrance of knowldege	Banking

Answer:

A	B
a. Hindrance of finance	Banking
b. Hindrance of place	Transport
c. Hindrance of time	Warehousing
d. Hindrance of risk	Insurance
e. Hindrance of knowldege	Advertising

Question 29.
What are global enterprises ? Describe any four features of them.
Answer:
Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different soirees.
2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.

Question 30.
Briefly explain any five problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:

1. Srpall scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generalLy high.
5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 31.
Match the following :

A	B
a. Responsibility towards owner	Fair wages
b. Responsibility towards customer	Fair return
c. Responsibility towards supplier	Quality products
d. Responsibility towards employees	Prompt payment
e. Responsibility towards government	Payment of tax

Answer:

A	B
a. Responsibility towards owner	Fair return
b. Responsibility towards customer	Quality products
c. Responsibility towards supplier	Prompt payment
d. Responsibility towards employees	Fair wages
e. Responsibility towards government	Payment of tax

Answer any 2 questions from 32-34. Each carriers 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Describe the various functions of Commercial Banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks

I) Primary Functions

1. Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
   • Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by businessmen. It carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
   • Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
   • Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
2. Lending Loans and Advances: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers,
   • Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
   • Bank Overdraft : Overdraft is an .. arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
   • Discounting of bill of exchange: Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
   • Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.

II) Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:

• 1) Agency Functions
  1. Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
  2. Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
  3. Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
  4. Acting as trustees or executors
  5. Providing credit information
• General utility services
  1. Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
  2. issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
  3. Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
  4. Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Question 33.
What is sole proprietorship? Explain any six features of it.
Answer:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.
Features

1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy.
3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.
4. The entire profit of the business goes to the sole proprietor.
5. The sole trader can take quick decisions.
6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.

Question 34.
Describe the following.
a. Consumer co-op-stores
b. Super markets
c. Mail order houses
d. Departmental stores.
Answer:
a. Consumers co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consumers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest price.

b. Super Markets I Super Bazar : Super market is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of super market is the absence of salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence super market is also called ‘Self Service Store.

Features of Super Market

1. They are located at the centre of a town.
2. They sell goods on cash basis only.
3. They deal wide variety of goods.
4. There is no salesman to help consumers

c. In mail order business, the business transactions are done through post or mail. Under this system orders for goods, delivery of goods and payment is made through VPP (Value Payable Post). Under this arrangement, the goods are delivered to the customers only on making full payment for the same. There is no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers.

d. Departmental Stores A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods ¡n different departments under one management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Economics Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Scores: 80
Cool-off time: 15 Minutes

A. Answer any 10 questions from 1 to 12. Each carries 1 Score. (10 × 1 = 10)

Question 1.
Which among the following is a social infrastructure?
(a) Roads
(b) Health System
(c) Power Stations
(d) Railways
Answer:
(b) Health System

Question 2.
Identify the factor responsible for land degradation.
(a) Deforestation
(b) Proper Crop Rotation
(c) Organic Farming
(d) Well Managed Irrigation
Answer:
(a) Deforestation

Question 3.
Pre-testing of the questionnaire is known as
(a) Sample Survey
(b) Population
(c) Census
(d) Pilot Survey
Answer:
(d) Pilot Survey

Question 4.
Which average is affected most by the presence of extreme items?
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Arithmetic Mean
(d) Standard Deviation
Answer:
(c) Arithmetic Mean

Question 5.
Which among the following countries has the highest urbanization?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) China

Question 6.
The range of simple correlation coefficients is
(a) Zero to Infinity
(b) -1 to +1
(c) Zero
(d) +1 to +2
Answer:
(b) -1 to +1

Question 7.
Dadabhai Naoroji was associated with
(a) Sen Index
(b) Jail Cost of Living
(c) Poverty Gap Index
(d) Squared Poverty Gap
Answer:
(b) Jail Cost of Living

Question 8.
Population classified based on gender is an example of
(a) Quantitative Classification
(b) Qualitative Classification
(c) Chronological Classification
(d) Spatial Classification
Answer:
(b) Qualitative Classification

Question 9.
Which among the following facilitates the institutions that come under the health sector?
(a) AICTE
(b) UGC
(c) ICMR
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) ICMR

Question 10.
A consumer price index measures changes in
(a) Retail Price
(b) Wholesale Price
(c) Producer Price
(d) Share Price
Answer:
(a) Retail Price

Question 11.
Which among the following is known as the World Bank?
(a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(b) Bank of England (BoE)
(c) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(d) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer:
(d) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Question 12.
The most important characteristics of India’s foreign trade under the British Colonial rule was
(a) Large Export Surplus
(b) Large Export Deficit
(c) Large Export of Capital Goods
(d) Large Import of Raw Materials
Answer:
(a) Large Export Surplus

Answer any 6 questions from 13 to 21. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 6)

Question 13.
Distinguish between sample survey and census.
Answer:
Sample Survey: Under this method, information is collected from small representative groups. This method is very convenient when the area under study is large.
Census: Under this method, data is collected from all units under study, it is a complete enumeration.

Question 14.
Mention the Aims of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
Answer:
World Trade Organisation is an International Organisation designed to perform the role of an effective controller of International trade. It is designed to perform the following functions/objectives.

• To establish a rule-based trade regime.
• To enlarge production and trade of services.
• To remove tariff and non-tariff barriers.
• To provide greater market access for all countries.

Question 15.
What do you mean by jobless growth?
Answer:
It is expected that growth in GDP will generate new employment opportunities. But in certain circumstances, there will be growth but this growth never results in employment creation. This situation is known as jobless growth.

Question 16.
List any 4 steps towards making a project.
Answer:
Conducting a study on a serious issue involves certain steps.

• Identifying a problem or an area of study
• Selection of target group or sample area
• Collecting data
• Organization and presentation of data
• Analysis and Interpretation
• Conclusion
• Bibliography

Question 17.
Mention any two uses of the Index number.
Answer:
Index numbers are constructed to understand certain important socio-economic issues. It is used to

• To know the trends in the general price level (CPI)
• It is used to formulate Income Policy

Question 18.
What do you mean by continuous variable? Give two examples.
Answer:
Variables are of two types, they are

• Continuous Variable
• Discrete Variable

Continuous Variable: A variable that can take any numerical value is known as a continuous variable.
eg: Height, Weight

Question 19.
List the goals of five-year plans in India.
Answer:
India implemented five-year plans from 1951 onwards. Plans implemented to achieve some important goals. They are:

• Attainment of economic growth
• Modernization of economy
• Attainment of self-reliance
• To attain equity

Question 20.
Classify the following into absolute and relative measures of dispersion:
Range, Coefficient of Variation, Coefficient of Range, Standard Deviation
Answer:
Measures of dispersion can be classified into two. They are absolute measures and relative measures.
Absolute Measures

• Range
• Standard Deviation

Relative Measures

• Coefficient of Variation
• Coefficient of Range

Question 21.
List any two livelihood options for the rural people other than agriculture.
Answer:
As we know still Indian rural population still largely depends on agriculture, but we have some other options:

• Animal Husbandry
• Fisheries
• Horticulture

Answer any 5 questions from 22 to 28. Each carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 22.
Elucidate the role of Statistics in Economics.
Answer:
Statistics plays a vital role in economics. Many complicated economic aspects can be easily understood with the help of statistical tools.
The uses of statistics in economics are given below:

• To present complex economic facts in a precise and definite form.
• Helps to condense mass data into a few numerical measures.
• Helps to establish relationships between different economic variables.
• It helps to make predictions.
• It is used as a policy tool and analytical instrument in many public policies.

Question 23.
Mention any three points one should keep in mind while preparing a questionnaire for data collection.
Answer:
An investigator must be very careful while formulating a questionnaire because it affects the quality of the data. Here we have certain important points that must be followed when one prepares a questionnaire.

• It should not be too long.
• Questions should be very easy to understand.
• Questions should be neatly arranged.
• Questions should be precise and clear.
• Questions should not be ambiguous.
• Questions never lead to answers.

Question 24.
Prepare a short note on the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The green revolution is an innovative practice introduced in Indian agriculture. It aims to rectify some weaknesses of our agriculture sector prevailed then. It aims to increase production through the use of high-yield variety seeds, chemical fertilizer, chemical pesticides, improved irrigation facilities, and timely adoption of modern technologies in agriculture. It has two phases, phase one starts from 1965 to 1975, and the second phase starts from 1975 to 1985. This program was a big success as it resulted in a sharp increase in agriculture production and productivity and helped us to attain self-sufficiency in food production, but it is not free from criticism. Critics point out that this revolution was limited to very few crops and small regions.

Question 25.
Calculate Range and Coefficient of Range:

Class	Frequency
0 – 10	2
10 – 20	4
20 – 30	8
30 – 40	3
40 – 50	1

Answer:
Range = Large Value – Small Value
Here large value is 50.
The small value is zero.
So Range = 50 – 0 = 50
Coefficient of Range = \(\frac{L-S}{L+S}=\frac{50-0}{50+0}=\frac{50}{50}\) = 1

Question 26.
Mention any three issues in the construction of index numbers.
Answer:
Index numbers are a very important statistical tool used in economic analysis. A proper index number will give us a correct and real picture of the problem under consideration. However, it is not easy to construct a perfect index number. So proper care should be given during the construction of the index number. Some of them are given below.

• The purpose of the Index should be very clear.
• Items to be included in the Index number should be selected carefully.
• The base year should be as normal as possible.
• It should have a proper formula.

Question 27.
Classify the following economic activities into the primary sector, secondary sector, and service sector:
(a) Electricity, Gas and Water Supply
(b) Agriculture
(c) Trade
(d) Construction
(e) Transport and Storage
(f) Manufacturing
Answer:
An economy is divided into three sectors, and all economic activities include any one of these three sectors. Here the given items can be classified in this manner.

• Primary Sector – Agriculture
• Secondary Sector – Electricity, Gas, Water Supply
• Service Sector – Transport and Storage, Trade

Question 28.
Construct a Pie diagram from the following data:

Materials used for the construction of a building	Cost of material in percentage
Cement	30
Bricks	40
M Sand	20
Miscellaneous	10

Answer:

Answer any 3 questions from 29 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 29.
Elucidate positive correlation, negative correlation, perfect positive correlation, and perfect negative correlation with the help of a scatter diagram.
Answer:
A scatter diagram is a simple but useful technique for visually examining the type of relationship between two variables.
1. Positive Correlation

When the plotted points show a rising trend from the lower left-hand corner to the upper right-hand corner and if they are very closely held together, this type of association is known as positive correlation.

2. Negative Correlation

Here the plotted points show a falling trend from the upper level-hand corner to the lower right-hand corner.

3. Perfect Positive Correlation

Here the plotted points lie on a straight line rising from the lower left-hand corner to the upper right-hand corner.

4. Perfect Negative Correlation

Here the points lie on a straight line falling from the upper left-hand corner to the lower right-hand corner.

Question 30.
Explain the causes of stagnation in the Indian agriculture sector under British Colonial rule.
Answer:
The agriculture sector in India was stagnant during the British period because of the following reasons.

• Defective land revenue settlement system
• Low levels of technology
• Lack of Irrigation facilities
• Negligible use of fertilizer

Question 31.
(a) Distinguish between the inclusive form of class interval and the exclusive form of class interval.
(b) Identify the type of class interval from the following.

Answer:
(a) Exclusive Method: When the class intervals are so fixed that the upper limit of one class is the lower limit of the next class, it is known as the exclusive method.
Inclusive Method: When the upper-class limit is included in the class itself, it is called the inclusive method.
(b) Inclusive

• 0 – 10
• 11 – 20
• 21 – 30
• 31 – 40

Exclusive

• 0 – 10
• 10 – 20
• 20 – 30
• 30 – 40

Question 32.
Explain the development strategies adopted by China.
Answer:
China adopted some measures to achieve its development goals. They are as follows:

• A responsibility system was introduced in farming instead of a commune system.
• Private initiative and private enterprise were encouraged.
• State-owned enterprises were made to face competition.
• Foreign investment was allowed and encouraged. This policy attracted multinational corporations to China.
• Special economic zones were set up to attract FDI.

Question 33.
Mention the four measures that were initiated to improve the agricultural marketing system in India.
Answer:
India implemented certain measures to improve the agriculture marketing system.
Some of the important measures are given below.

• Regulation of the market to create orderly and transparent marketing conditions.
• Provision of physical infrastructure facilities.
• Cooperative marketing.
• Introduction of minimum support price.
• Creation of buffer stock.

Answer any 3 questions from 34 to 38. Each carries 5 scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 34.
Analyze the sources of human capital formation in India.
Answer:
Human Capital formation is an important process in any nation in the world, without which development is almost impossible. India tries to attain this through the following ways.
1. Education: Educated population is a very important part of

• Raises the quality of life
• Enhances productivity
• Raises social status
• It leads to innovation

2. Health: A healthy population contributes much to the development of a nation. So all nations in the world give much importance to health care. It includes

• Preventive medicines
• Curative medicines
• Social medicine
• Provision of clean drinking water
• Provision for sanitation facilities

3. On-Job Training: The provision of on-job training will help to enhance individual ability and it would increase the productivity of a person.

4. Migration: Migration is an important way through which people can earn more and be familiar with novel ideas and concepts. Migration and its benefits are visible in India and it also plays a crucial role in Kerala’s development.

5. Information: Proper information about education, employment, and healthcare are very important. Expenditure on such information is regarded as an investment in human capital.

Question 35.
Calculate the Standard Deviation and Co-efficient of Variation from the following:
10, 12, 14, 13, 16
Answer:

Question 36.
Prepare a note on sources of energy.
Answer:
Energy sources can be broadly classified into two. They are:

1. Commercial Energy
2. Non-Commercial Energy

Commercial energy is used for commercial purposes.
Coal, petroleum products, natural gas, and electricity are used for commercial activities.
Firewood, agricultural waste, and dried animal dung are non-commercial energy sources.
Energy can also be classified into conventional and non-conventional energy.
Examples of conventional energy sources are coal, petroleum, and electricity.
Examples of non-conventional energy sources are solar energy, wind, tides, waves, and biogas.

Question 37.
Draw ‘less than’ ogive and ‘more than’ ogive from the following data:

Class	Frequency
0 – 10	5
10 – 20	10
20 – 30	15
30 – 40	20
40 – 50	10
50 – 60	10

Answer:

Question 38.
Explain the tax reforms and financial sector reforms as a part of liberalization policy measures introduced in India during the 1990s.
Answer:
India implemented economic reforms in 1991, these reforms included many areas, some of the important areas that come under the new economic policy are given below.
(a) Tax Reforms: Tax reforms were introduced as a part of liberalization and economic reform.
Important tax reforms are the following:

• Reduction in Personal Income Tax
• Reduction in Corporation Tax
• Reduction in Excise Duty
• Reduction in Customs Duty

(b) Financial Sector Reforms: The financial sector includes institutions dealing in banking, insurance, investment banking, capital market operations, and foreign exchange operations.
Important financial sector reforms are:

• Liberalized bank branch licensing.
• Allowed new generation private banks and foreign banks.
• Deregulated deposit and lending rates.
• Reduced CRR and SLR.
• Allowed insurance business in the private sector.
• Liberalized the operation of the capital market.
• Allowed mutual fund operations in the private sector.
• Foreign institutional investors were allowed to invest in the Indian capital market.

Answer any 2 questions from 39 to 41. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 39.
Analyze the strategies for sustainable development.
Answer:
Strategies for sustainable development focus on the prevention of environmental degradation by limiting the demands on environmental resources. This strategy includes the use of non-conventional sources of energy adoption of traditional knowledge and practices, organic farming, etc.
(a) Use of Non-Conventional Sources of Energy: This would reduce the damage to the environment due to excess use of conventional energy sources. This strategy includes

• Use of LPG, Gobar gas in rural areas
• Use of CNG in an urban area
• Use of wind energy
• Use of solar energy
• Constructing mini hydel projects

(b) Traditional Knowledge and Practices: This would help us to reduce the use of hazardous chemical substances. Through this, we can minimize the environmental damage.
eg: Herbs can be used in the preparation of soaps, shampoos, and creams.

(c) Organic Farming: This farming method is eco-friendly. Following this farming method would help to improve the quality of the environment.

(d) Biopest Control: Through this, we can avoid the use of hazardous chemical pesticides.
Adoption of all these above-mentioned things would help us to attain the goal of sustainable development.

Question 40.
Calculate Mean and Median from the following:

Class	Frequency
0 – 20	2
20 – 40	6
40 – 60	16
60 – 80	10
80 – 100	6

Answer:

Question 41.
India adopted a three-dimensional approach to poverty alleviation.
(a) Analyze the programs towards poverty alleviation.
(b) Critically assess these poverty alleviation programs.
Answer:
Poverty is a major challenge faced by the Indian economy. To reduce poverty government has implemented certain measures. It includes

• Self-employment and Wage Employment Programmes
• Food Security Programmes
• Social Security Programmes

I. Self-employment and Wage Employment Programmes
Some of the important self-employment and wage employment programs for poverty alleviation are given below.

• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): It is the most important self-employment program for poverty alleviation. It was started on April 1, 1999. Now it is known as the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), the National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM)was also started for the urban poor.
• Prime Minister’s rfozgar Yojana: It focuses on educated unemployment. Through this government provides financial assistance for self-employment to persons from low-income groups.
• Rural Employment Generation Programme: This program aims at creating self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns. This program is being implemented by the Khadi and Village industries.
• Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana: It is both a self-employment and wage employment programme, focussed on urban areas.
• Jawahar Rozgar Yojana: It aims to provide gainful employment to the unemployed in rural areas.
• Nehru Rozgar Yojana: It aims to provide gainful employment to the unemployed in urban areas.
• National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme: The base of NREGP is the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act of 2005. It guaranteed wage employment to those who are ready to work. Employment is guaranteed for 100 days in a year at a minimum wage rate. Now this program renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme.
• National Food for Work program
• Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana

II. Food Securing Programmes
Food security has the most important role in a nation like India where 28% of its population lives below the poverty line. Following are the food security programs implemented in India.

• Public Distribution System: This system provides food grains at subsidized rates through ration shops.
• Integrated Child Development Scheme: Under this scheme mothers and children below six are given food assistance.
• Mid-Day Meals at Schools: Under this program, children are given free cooked meals in schools.
• Annapoorna Scheme: Through this poor senior citizens can have 10 kg of food grains free of cost. Senior citizens who do not get old-age pensions are eligible.
• Antyodaya Anna Yojana: It targets very poor families. Food grains are given at highly subsidized rates under this scheme.

III. Social Security Programmes
Programs for the informal employment sector are given below.

• Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana: Provides insurance protection to the workmen employed in informal occupations.
• Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme: It gives Rs. 500 to each member aged 65 and above belonging to the BPL family.
• Rashtriya Swastika Bima Yojana: This provides health insurance to members of the BPL family.
• Atal Pension Yojana: This program was intended to provide pensions in the unorganized sector for the age group of 18-40.
• Janasree Bima Yojana: Insurance protection program for BPL families.
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana: This is a life insurance program with a very low cost. Persons with bank accounts in the age group 18-50 are eligible.
• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana: It provides accidental death cum disability cover of Rs. 2 lakh for a premium of only Rs. 12 per year.
• National Social Assistance Programme: This program provides pensions to the elderly poor who do not have anyone to look after them. Widows and poor women are also covered by this scheme.

Critical Assessment of Poverty Alleviation Programmes

• Resources allocated for various programs are not sufficient.
• The implementing agencies are inefficient and corrupt.
• Programmes suffer from leakages.
• Benefits of some programs have been appropriated by the non-poor.

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2020 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

Answer the following questions from 1 to 9. Each carries 1 score. (9 × 1 = 9)

Question 1.
Which among the following is a personal cause of business risk?
a) Strike of employees
b) Famine
c) Change in technology
d) Flood
Answer:
a) Strike of employees

Question 2.
A government company* is any company in which the paid-up capital held by government is not less than——?
a) 49%
b) 50%
c) 51%
d) 26%
Answer:
c) 51%

Question 3.
Which among the following is not a function of warehousing?
a) Break the bulk
b) Price stabilization
c) Consolidation
d) Mail facilities
Answer:
d) Mail facilities

Question 4.
Cash withdrawal by a customer by using ATM is an example of model of e-business transaction.
a) B2B
b) B2C
c) IntraB
d) C2C
Answer:
b) B2C

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks as per hint given :
a) Obeyance of law – legal responsibility of business
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people
Answer:
b) Respecting religious sentiments of people

Question 6.
Which clause of memorandum of association defines the purpose of company is formed ?
a) Object clause
b) Capital clause
c) Liability clause
d) Name clause
Answer:
a) Object clause

Question 7.
The apex bank to provide financial assistance to small business is
a) NCEUS
b) RWED
c) WASME
d) SIDBI
Answer:
d) SIDBI

Question 8.
Identify the type of retail outlets that sell their goods through mail from the following:
a) Mail order house
b) Departmental stores
c) Supermarkets
d) Multiple shops
Answer:
a) Mail order house

Question 9.
The scheme to refund excise duties and customs duties to exporters on production of proof of export of goods to authorities is called
a) Manufacturing under bond scheme
b) duty drawback scheme
c) advance licence scheme
d) export promotion capital goods scheme
Answer:
b) duty drawback scheme

Answer any 6 of the following questions from 10 to 16. Each carries 2 Scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 10.
Write a short note on the following in one or two sentences each.
a) Nominal parter
b) H.U.F
Answer:
a) Nominal Partner
Nominal partner (Quasi Partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm. But, he is liable to third parties for all the debts of the firm. Joint Hindu Family Business (HUF) It refers to a form of organisation where in the business is owned and carried on by the members of a joint Hindu family. It is also known as Hindu Undivided Family Business (H.U.F). It is governed by Hindu succession Act, 1956. It is found only in India.

Question 11.
List any two features of a statutory corporation.
Answer:
Featu res of statutory corporation:

1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
2. It is wholly owned by the state

Question 12.
Name any two types of payment mechanisms used in online shopping.
Answer:
a) Cash on delivery (COD)
b) Cheque
c) Credit Card
d) Debit Card
e) Net Banking
f) DigiyalCash

Question 13.
What do you mean by Retained Earnings?
Answer:
Retained Earnings (Ploughing Back of Profit): A company generally does not distribute all its earnings amongst the shareholders as dividends. A portion of the net earnings may be retained in the business for use in the future. This is known as retained earnings. It is a source of internal financing or self financing or ‘ploughing back of profits’.

Question 14.
Name any two types of products which are suitable for vending machines.
Answer:
Vending Machine is suitable for selling products like soft drinks, newspapers, platform tickets, chocolates, hot beverages, seeds of plants, magazines etc.

Question 15.
Write any two reasons for international business.
Answer:
Reasons for international business

1. Because of unequal distribution of natural resources and differences in productivity levels, a country cannot produce all that they need
2. Labour productivity and production costs differ among nations due to various socio-economic, geographical and political reasons.
3. Availability of various factors of production such as labour, capital and raw materials differ among nations.

Question 16.
Briefly explain ‘joint ventures’ as a mode of entry into international business.
Answer:
Joint Ventures: Joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more independent firms. It can be brought into existence in three major ways.
a. Foreign investor buying an interest in a local firm.
b. Local firm acquiring an interest in an existing foreign firm.
c. Both the foreign and local entrepreneurs jointly forming a new enterprise

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 17 to 21. Each carries 3 Scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 17.
Classify the following industries into Primary, Secondary and Tertiary.
a) Mining
b) Poultry farms
c) Oil refinery
d) Construction of dams
d) Banking
e) Advertising
Answer:

Primary Industry	Sepondary Industry	Tertiary Industry
Mining	Oil refinery	Banking
Poultry firms	Construction of dams	Advertising

Question 18.
Difference between traditional business and e-business. (Any Three)
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e- business

Traditional business	e- business
Its formation is difficult	Its formation is easy
Investment is very high	Investment is low
Physical presence is required	Physical presence is not required
Location is important	Location is not important
Operating cost is high	Operating cost is low
Contact with suppliers and customers is through intermediaries	Direct contact with the suppliers and customers
Business process cycle is long	Business process cycle is shorter
Inter personal touch is high	Personal touch is less
Limited market coverage	Access to the global market
Communication is in hierarchical order	Communication is in non hierarchical order
Transaction risk is less	Transaction risk is high

Question 19.
Who is a promoter of a company? List out any two function of him.
Answer:

1. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.
2. Function of a promoter
   • Identification of business opportunity
   • Feasibility studies
   • Name approval
   • Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association
   • Appointment of professional
   • Preparation of necessary documents

Question 20.
Briefly explain any three features of global enterprises.
Answer:
Features of Global Enterprise:

1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.
2. Foreign collaboration:-Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name etc. with local firms in the host countries.
3. Marketing strategies:- They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.
4. Centralised control: They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control overall branches and subsidiaries.

Question 21.
Write any three differences between a share and debenture.
Answer:

Shares	Debentures
Shareholders are the owners of the company	Debenture holders are the creditors of the tcompany
Shareholders get dividends	Debenture holders get interest
Shareholders have voting right	Debenture holders have no voting right
No security is required to issue shares	Generally debentures are secured
Shares are not redeemable	Debentures are redeemable
It is owner’s fund	It is borrowed fund

Question 22.
Match the following :

(A)	(B)
a) Partnership	1) Co-parcener
b) H.U.F.	2) Service motive
c) Joint Stock Company	3) Partner
d) Co-Op-Society	4) Shareholder

Answer:

(A)	(B)
a) Partnership	1) Partner
b) H.U.F.	2) Co-parcener
c) Joint Stock Company	3) Share holder
d) Co-Op-Society	4) Service motive

Answer any 3 of the questions from 23 to 26. Each carries 4 Scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 23.
What do you mean by a departmental undertaking? Give two examples.
Answer:
Departmental Undertaking: This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. Eg. Railways, Post& Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.
Features

1. The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
2. The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
5. They are accountablefto the concerned ministry.

Question 24.
‘E-business has several benefits’. Explain any four of it.
Answer:

1. e-business is relatively easy to start and requires lower capital.
2. Customers can buy goods at any time from any seller located in different parts of the world.
3. Business transactions can be made easily and speedily.
4. It helps the business units to operate at the national as well as the global level.
5. It helps to reduce clerical and paper work.
6. It helps to eliminate middlemen.

Question 25.
Explain any ‘four’ problems faced by small business in India.
Answer:
Problems pf small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks and other financial institutions.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. Small business is generally operated by people who may not have all the managerial skills required to run the business.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So productivity per Employee is relatively low and employee turnover is generally high.
5. Small business depends excessively on middlemen for marketing the products. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Question 26.
Write short note on the following:
a) Special economic zones
b) Contract manufacturing
Answer:
a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ): It is specifically a delineated dutyfree enclave, which is deemed to be a foreign territory for the purpose of trading and imposing duties. It provided an internationally competitive and duty free environment for the production of export of goods.

b) Contract Manufacturing (Outsourcing): When a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain goods produced as per its specifications it is called contract manufacturing. It is also known as outsourcing and it can take place in following forms.

1. Production of certain components
2. Assembly of components into final products
3. Complete manufacture of the products

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 27-30. Each carries 5 Scores. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 27.
‘We want to consider a lot of factors before starting a business.’ Explain any 5 of it.
Answer:
Choice of business organisation The important factors determining the choice of organization are:

1. Cost and Ease of formation:- From the point of view of cost, sole proprietorship is the preferred form as it involves least expenditure and the legal requirements are minimum. Company form of organisation, is more complex and involves greater costs.
2. Liability: In case of sole proprietorship and partnership firms, the liability of the owners/ partners is unlimited. In cooperative societies and companies, the liability is limited. Hence, from the point of view of investors, the company form of organisation is more suitable as the risk involved is limited.
3. Continuity: The continuity of sole proprietorship and partnership firms is affected by death, insolvency or insanity of theowners. However, such factors do not affect the continuity of cooperative societies and companies. In case the business needs a permanent structure, company form is more suitable.
4. Management ability: If the organisation’s operations are complex in nature and require professionalized management, company form of organisation is a better alternative.
5. Capital: If the scale of operations is large, company form may be suitable whereas for medium and small sized business one can opt for partnership or sole proprietorship.

Question 28.
‘Memorandum of Association ¡s the major document of a company.’ Briefly explain the different clauses of it.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association:

1. The name clause: Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.
   • The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
   • A name which can mislead the public
   • In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ’Private Limited’
2. Registered office clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.
3. Objects clause: This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
4. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by therfl or the amount
   guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
5. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
6. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 29.
‘Business requires capital for long term and short term purposes.’
a) Briefly describe any two sources of long term capital.
b) Write any three merits ¿f ‘factoring’ as a financial service.
Answer:
a) Equity Shares:- Equity shares represents the ownership capital of a company. They do not enjoy any preferential right in the matter of claim of dividend or repayment of capital. Equity shareholders do not get a fixed dividend but are paid on the basis of earnings by the company. They bear the maximum risk. Equity shareholders are the owners of the company. They have right to vote and participate in the management.

Merits

1. Equity shares are suitable for investors who are willing to assume risk for higher returns
2. Payment of equity dividend is not compulsory.
3. Equity capital serves as permanent capital as it is to be repaid only at the time of liquidation of a company.

Debentures: A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.

Merits

1. It is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense

c) Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising shortterm finance for the business in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Merits

1. Obtaining funds through factoring is cheaper than bank credit
2. Factoring provides steady cash inflow so that the company is able to meet its liabilities promptly.
3. It is flexible and ensures cash inflows from credit sales.

Question 30.
Describe how business impart its responsibility towards the following groups:
a) Owners
b) Employees
c) Government
d) Customers
e) Community
Answer:
Social Responsibility towards different interest groups:

• Responsibility towards share holders or owners
  1. Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
  2. Provide regular and accurate information the financial position of the firm.
  3. To ensure the safety of their investment.
• Responsibility Towards the workers :
  1. Providing fair wages
  2. Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
  3. Respect democratic rights of workers to form unions.
• Responsibility toward consumers :
  1. Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
  2. Avoding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
  3. Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
  4. To handle the customers grievance promptly.
• Responsibility Towards Government –
  1. Respect the laws of the country
  2. Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
  3. act according to the well accepted values of the society.
• Responsibility towards community-
  1. Make employment opportunities
  2. Protect the environment from pollution.
  3. To uplift the weaker sections of society

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 Scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
‘A company can be described as an artificial person having a separate leagl entity, perpectual succession and common seal.’
a) List any 2 merits and 2 demerits of it.
b) Differentiate between private company and public company.
Answer:
a)

1. Limited liability: The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held bythem. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.
2.  Transferability of shares: Shares of a public company are freely transferable . It provides liquidity to the investor.

b)

1. Difficulty in formation:-The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.
2. Lack of secrecy:- It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of public company, as company is requited to publish its annual accounts and reports.

c) Difference between a Public Company and Private Company

Basis	Private Company	Public Company
Members:	Minimum – 2 Maximum – 50	Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
Minimum number of directors:	Two	Three
Minimum paid up capital:	Rs 1 lakh	Rs 5 lakh
Transfer of shares:	Restriction on transfer	No restriction
Prospectus:	Need not issue prospectus	Can issue prospectus
Starting of business:	After getting Certificate of incorporation	After getting certificate of Commencement of business

Question 32.
Describe the various functions performed by commercial banks in India.
Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks
1. Acceptance of deposits: A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are

• Current deposit: This type of account is usually opened by business men.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
• Savings deposit: Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay rate of interest as decided by RBI on these deposits. Withdrawal from these accounts has some restrictions.
• Fixed deposit: Fixed accounts are time deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.

2. Lending of funds: The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances out of the money received through deposits. These advances can be made in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, consumer credits and other miscellaneous advances.

• Cash Credit: Under this arrangement, the bank advances loan up to a specified limit against current assets. The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit. Interest is charged on the amount actually withdraw.
• Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.
• Discounting of bill of exchange: Under this, a bank gives money to its customers on the security of a bill of exchange before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
• Term Loans: These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period. Interest will be charged to the entire amount of loan.

3. Secondary Functions: The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
a) Agency Functions

• Cheque facility: Bank collects customers cheque drawn on other bank. There are two types of cheques mainly : Bearer cheques, which are encashable immediately at bank counters Crossed cheques which are to be deposited only in the payees account.
• Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc
• Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
• Acting as trustees or executors
• Providing credit information

b) General utility services

• Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers
• Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
• Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
• Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Bank DraftIt is a financial instrument with the help of which money can be remitted from one place to another. The payee can present the draft on the drawee bank at his place and collect the money. Bank charges some commission for issuing a bank draft.
Pay Order: It is almost like a bank draft. Banks issue pay order for local purpose and issue bank draft for outstations.

Question 33.
‘Wholesaler is the connecting link between producer and retailer.’
a) Explain any four services provide by them to producers.
b) Describe any two types of fixed shop small retailers.
Answer:
a) Departmental stores: A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling amide variety of goods in different departments under one and management. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationary, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store

1. It is a large scale retail organization.
2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
4. It is located at central places of the city
5. The products are arranged in separate departments
6. Sales, control and management are centralized
7. It offers various services and facilities like free home delivery etc

Advantages

1. Central locations:- As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, the departmental stores provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods of their requirements at one place.
3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
4. Economy of large-scale operations: As these stores are organised in a very large-scale, the benefits of large-scale operations are available to them
5. Mutual advertisement:-All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising
6. Risk distribution:- If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
7. Increased sales:- Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its sales.

Limitations

1. Lack of personal attention: Because of the large- scale operations, it is very difficult to provide adequate personal attention to the customers in these stores.
2. Inconvenient location: As a departmental store is generally situated at a central location, it is not convenient for the consumers who reside away from town.
3. High price: A departmental store charges high price for the products because of high operating cost.
4. High operating cost: As these stores give more emphasis on providing services, their operating costs tend to be high.
5. High advertisement cost: The success and prosperity of a departmental store depends on advertisement. Therefore, it should spent large amount on advertisement.6. Lack of effective control: Departmental store works through a large number of departments. It creates so many problems.
6. High risk:- A departmental store keeps a large stock of goods. So changes in fashion, taste, price etc will affect the profitability of the business.

b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops: Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through out the nation.
Features of multiple shops

1. It deals in one or two lines of products.
2. All branches are dealing in similar goods
3. It has centralized management and unified system of control
4. It eliminates middlemen.
5. It works on cash and carry principle
6. It has centralized buying and decentralized selling.
7. There is uniformity in operation in all branches.
8. It deals in goods of daily use and durables.

Advantages

1. It enjoys economies of bulk purchase because the goods for all branches are purchased by head office.
2. There is no risk of bad debts because all sales are on cash basis.
3. The advertisements for all branches are done by the head office. So there is economy in advertisement.
4. Multiple shops are located in towns and cities. They attract a large number of customers.
5. All branches of multiple shops are uniform in style, design and display of goods.
6. All the branches sell quality goods at uniform prices. It creates public confidence.
7. The economy in large scale buying, centralized management etc. reduce the cost of operations.
8. Products having no demand in one branch can be transferred to another branch. It reduces business risk.
9. Multiple shops enjoy the benefits of quick turn over because of country wide location.

Limitations

1. The multiple shops deal only in a limited range of products. So consumers have very little choice.
2. They will not provide any credit facilities to consumers.
3. There is lack of personal touch between the company and consumers because branches are managed by salaried managers.
4. Branch manager is only a salaried employee. He has no initiative to increase the profits.
5. As these shops deal in a limited line of goods, fall in demand will affect the business.

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• Kerala Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Plus One Zoology Model Question Paper Set 5

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Zoology Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium will help you. If you have any query regarding HSS Live Kerala Plus One Zoology Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium are part of SCERT Kerala Plus One Previous Year Question Papers and Answers. Here HSSLive.Guru have given Higher Secondary Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus.

Board	SCERT, Kerala Board
Textbook	NCERT Based
Class	Plus One
Subject	Botany
Papers	Previous Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Category	Kerala Plus One

Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper March 2023
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper June 2022
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper September 2021
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper March 2020
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper March 2019
• Kerala Plus One Botany Board Model Paper 2023
• Kerala Plus One Botany Board Model Paper 2022
• Kerala Plus One Botany Board Model Paper 2021
• Kerala Plus One Botany Board Model Paper 2020
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper March 2018
• Kerala Plus One Botany Question Paper March 2017
• Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper Set 1
• Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper Set 2
• Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper Set 3
• Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper Set 4
• Kerala Plus One Botany Model Question Paper Set 5

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus Plus One Botany Previous Year Model Question Papers and Answers Pdf HSSLive Free Download in both English medium and Malayalam medium will help you. If you have any query regarding HSS Live Kerala Plus One Botany Previous Year Sample Question Papers with Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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