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Students can Download Chapter 6 Staffing Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Staffing

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which functions of management helps in obtaining right people and putting them on the right jobs.
Answer:
Staffing.

Question 2.
Name the process concerned with searching for prospective candidates for vacant job position.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 3.
Name the function which is concerned with discovering the sources of manpower required and tapping these sources.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 4.
It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation Identify the concept.
Answer:
Recmitment.

Question 5.
Selection starts where ends.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a case of external recruitment?
(a) Advertisement
(b) Transfer
(c) Employment
(d) Field trip
Answer:
(b) Transfer.

Question 7.
Since more candidates will be rejected than hired through this process, it is described as a negative process. Identify the process?
Answer:
Selection.

Question 8.
Shifting of an employee from one position to another without changes in status and remuneration is called
Answer:
Transfer.

Question 9.
“It is the breaking up of a job into basic elements or operations and studying in details each of the operations to know the nature and characteristics of the job.” This is called; (job specification, job analysis, job identification, job study)
Answer:
Job analysis.

Question 10.
The management of XY Ltd., asks the labour unions to provide a list of candidates for the vacancy of two persons in the office. Identify the source and explain.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment.

Question 11.
The final year students of National Institute of Management were sent to various industrial concerns for practical training. Identify the type of training and state its relevance.
Answer:
Internship training.

Question 12.
Vestibule training is given
Answer:
Outside the job; inside the factory.

Question 13.
Vijay chemicals selected 15 workers for their chemical plant. They intend to train the workers without effecting normal work. Suggest the best method of training.
Answer:
Vestibule training.

Question 14.
This is a method of training where business units make agreement with professional and vocational institutes to provide practical experience. Identify the method of training mentioned here.
Answer:
Internship training.

Question 15.
Face to face contact between the employer and candidate is called
Answer:
Interview

Question 16.
Which one of the following functions is not related with staffing function?
(a) Recruitment of employees
(b) Selection of employees
(c) Compensation of employees
(d) Motivation of employees
Answer:
(d) Motivation of employees

Question 17.
Mr. Sajan is working as Human Resource Manager of an automobile manufacturing unit. One of the following combinations represents his functions. Identify it.
(a) Recruitment, branding, dividend decision
(b) Selection, training, recruitment
(c) Selection, recruitment, marketing
(d) Training, pricing, promotion
Answer:
(b) Selection, training, recruitment

Question 18.
Mr. Abraham seeks new employees for his business. Name any two external sources of recruitment.
Answer:

1. Advertising
2. Empolyment exchange

Question 19.
Mr. Mohan Kumar, the HR Manager of Global Bank Ltd. wants to appoint 50 computer operators for their different branches in Kerala from internal sources. Name any two internal sources forthe recruitment.
Answer:

1. Transfer
2. Promotion

Question 20.
The cheapest method of recruitment is
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment.

Question 21.
The training method of shifting employee from one job to another is called
Answer:
Job rotation.

Question 22.
Which one of the following is not an On the Job Training method?
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) Case studies
(c) Computer modelling
(d) Programme instructions
Answer:
(a) Apprenticeship training

Question 23.
is a measure of individual’s potential for learning new skills.
Answer:
Aptitude test.

Question 24.
Which among the following statements are fake?
(a) Training is job oriented process and development is career oriented process.
(b) Internal sources of recruitment motivates the existing staff.
(c) Recruitment is a positive process.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Question 25.
Match the following.

A	B
a) Orientation	a) It is a negative process
b) Casual callers	b) Introducing the selected employees
c) Selection	c) External sources of recruitment

Answer:
a → b
b → c
c → a

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by staffing?
Answer:
Meaning:
Staffing is concerned with determining the manpower requirement of enterprise and includes functions like recruitment, selection, placement, promotion, training, growth and development and performance appraisal of employees in the organization.

Question 2.
Staffing is an important function of management in all organisations. Explain, in brief, any 4 reasons.
Answer:
Importance of Staffing

1. Helps in discovering and obtaining competent personnel for various jobs.
2. Makes for higher performance, by putting right person on the right job.
3. Ensures continuous survival and growth of the enterprise.
4. Helps to ensure optimum utilization of human resources.
5. Improves job satisfaction and morale of employees.

Question 3.
What is recruitment?
Answer:
It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for the job in the organisation.

Question 4.
What is selection?
Answer:
Selection:
Selection is the process of identifying and choosing the best person out of a number of prospective candidates for a job.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why recruitment is regarded as a Positive Process and selection is a negative process.
Answer:
Recruitment is Positive Process because it is concerned with attracting qualified and competent individuals to apply for a job while selection is choosing the best among them and rejecting the unsuitable candidates. So selection is regarded as a negative process.

Question 2.
What is training?
Answer:
Training:
Training is any process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees to perform specific jobs are increased.

Question 3.
You know that tests are conducted to know the level of ability, knowledge, interest, aptitude, etc. of a particular candidate. Can you suggest an appropriate test for the following and justify.

1. Data entry operator
2. KSRTC driver
3. Personnel manager

Answer:

1. Trade test
2. Trade test
3. Interest test

Question 4.
What are the functions of Human Resource Management?
Answer:
Functions of Human Resource Management

1. Recruitment, i.e., search for qualified people.
2. Analysing jobs, collecting information about jobs to prepare job descriptions.
3. Developing compensation and incentive plans.
4. Training and development of employees.
5. Maintaining labour relations
6. Handling grievances and complaints.
7. Providing for social security and welfare of employees.
8. Maintaining relation with trade unions.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Matha Ltd. invited applications for 20 sales representatives through an advertisement in a daily newspaper. 106 applications were received out of which nine were rejected due to lack of sufficient experience and qualification. The remaining applicants have undergone a written test and an interview. After this, the most efficient 20 applicants were selected. Identify the two major activities processes mentioned in the above situation and also differentiate between them.
Answer:
The above activities are recruitment and selection. The following are the difference between them.

Recruitment	Selection
1) It is the process of searching for candidates and making them apply for the job	1) It is the process of selection of most suitable candidates
2) It is a positive process	2) It is a negative process
3) It is simple	3) It is complex
4) It is less expensive	4) It is more expensive
5) Recruitment is the first stage	5) Selection follows the recruitment

Question 2.
Excel Sugars is a newly established sugar company where a large number of employees are required for different jobs.

1. As a commerce student can you say which source of recruitment is suitable?
2. Why?

Answer:
Excel Sugars is a newly established business organisation. So Internal sources of recruitment is not possible. The company can select employees from various external sources. External sources of Recruitment
a. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under the direct ‘ recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specrfied date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. These list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, ortheirfriends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated forthe purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 3.
Classify the following as internal and external sources of recruitment

1. Advertisement
2. Transfer
3. Campus recruitment
4. Promotion
5. Employment Exchange
6. Job Contractors

Answer:
Internal sources of recruitmentTransfer, Promotion. External sources of recruitment – Advertisement, Campus recruitment, Employment exchange, Job contractors.

Question 4.
In a classroom debate, Jith argues that recruitment and selection are same. Anoop argues that both are different.

1. Whom do you support? Give justification.
2. If you are supporting Anoop, which one comes first?

Answer:
1. We can support the argument of Anoop Staffing Process.
a. Manpower planning:
It is concerned with forecasting the future manpower needs of the organisation, i.e. finding outnumber and type of employees need by the organisation in future.

b. Recruitment:
Recruitment may be defined as the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation.

c. Selection:
Selection is the process of selecting the most suitable candidates from a large number of applicants.

d. Placement and Orientation:
Placement refers to putting the right person on the right job. Orientation is introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him with the rules and policies of the organisation.

e. Training and Development:
The process of training helps to improve the job knowledge and skill of the employees. It motivates the employees and improve their efficiency.

f. Performance Appraisal:
Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee’s current and past performance as against certain predetermined standards.

g. Promotion and Career Planning:
Promotion means movement of an employee from his present job to a higher level job.

h. Compensation:
Compensation refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees. It may be in the form of direct financial payments like wages, salaries, commissions and indirect payments like employer paid insurance and vacation.

Selection:
Selection is the process of identifying and choosing the best person out of a number of prospective candidates for a job.

2. Recruitment is the first process.

Question 5.
Explain any four methods of Off the Job Training.
Answer:
Off the Job Method:
It refers to those methods under which an individual is provided training away from the work place. It means learning before doing.
The important Off the Job Methods are:

a. Classroom Lectures/Conferences:
The lecture approach is well adapted to convey specific information such as rules, procedures or methods. The use of audio-visuals can often make a formal classroom.

b. Films:
They can provide information and demonstrate skills.

c. Case Study:
Trainee studies the cases to determine problems, analyses causes, develop alternative solutions and select the best solution to implement.

d. Computer Modelling:
It stimulate the work environment by programming a computer to imitate the realities of the job and allows learning to take place without the risk or high cost.

e. Vestibule Training:
Under this method, separate training centres are set up to give training to the new employees. Actual work environment is created in that centre and employees used the same material, equipment, etc. which they use while doing the actual job.

f. Programmed Instruction:
Here information is broken into meaningful units and these units are arranged in a proper way to form a logical and sequential learning package.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between internal sources and external sources of recruitment.
Answer:

Internal Source	External Source
1. It is a quick process	1. It is lengthy process
2. This process is cheaper	2. This process is costly
3. The existing staff is motivated	3. The existing staff is dissatisfied
4. Choice of candidate is limited. Less fresh talent	4. More talented and fresh candidates are available
5. It is less time consuming process	5. It is more time consuming process

Question 2.
Identify the following types of training.

1. Its purpose is to familiarize the existing employees with the latest methods.
2. The employee has to rotate from one job to another.
3. Emphasis is given to learning by doing.
4. A large number of persons are to be trained at the same time for the Same kind of work.
5. It is for introducing a new employee to the organisation.

Answer:

1. Refresher Training
2. Job Rotation
3. Apprenticeship Training
4. Vestibule Training
5. Induction Training

Question 3.
List down the advantages of training to the employees.
Answer:
Benefits to the Employee

1. Training helps in securing promotion and career growth.
2. Increased performance by the individual helps him to earn more.
3. Training helps to reduce the chances of accident and wastages.
4. Training increases the satisfaction of employees

Question 4.
Explain the importance of staffing in management.
Answer:
Importance of Staffing

1. Helps in discovering and obtaining competent personnel for various jobs.
2. Makes for higher performance, by putting right person on the right job.
3. Ensures continuous survival and growth of the enterprise.
4. Helps to ensure optimum utilization of human resources.
5. Improves job satisfaction and morale of employees.

Question 5.
Training helps to increase the efficiency of employees Explain.
Answer:
1. On the Job Method:
Under this method, the employee is given training when he is on the job. It means learning while doing.
The important On the Job Methods are:

a. Apprenticeship Programme:
Under apprenticeship training, a trainee is put under the supervision of a master worker.

b. Coaching:
In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach.

c. Internship Training:
It is a joint programme of training in which vocational and professional institutes enter into an agreement with business enterprises for providing practical knowledge to its students.

d. Job Rotation:
Here the trainee is transferred from one job to another job or from one department to another department so that he can learn the working of various sections.

2. Off the Job Method:
It refers to those methods under which an individual is provided training away from the workplace. It means learning before doing.
The important Off the Job Methods are:

a. Classroom Lectures/Conferences:
The lecture approach is well adapted to convey specific information such as rules, procedures or methods. The use of audio-visuals can often make a formal classroom.

b. Films:
They can provide information and demonstrate skills.

c. Case Study:
Trainee studies the cases to determine problems, analyses causes, develop alternative solutions and select the best solution to implement.

d. Computer Modelling:
It stimulate the work environment by programming a computer to imitate the realities of the job and allows learning to take place without the risk or high cost.

e. Vestibule Training:
Under this method, separate training centres are set up to give training to the new employees. Actual work environment is created in that centre and employees used the same material, equipment, etc. which they use while doing the actual job.

f. Programmed Instruction:
Here information is broken into meaningful units and these units are arranged in a proper way to form a logical and sequential learning package.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain briefly steps involved in staffing.
Answer:
Staffing Process
1. Manpower planning:
It is concerned with forecasting the future manpower needs of the organisation, i.e. finding outnumber and type of employees need by the organisation in future.

2. Recruitment:
Recruitment may be defined as the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation.

3. Selection:
Selection is the process of selecting the most suitable candidates from a large number of applicants.

4. Placement and Orientation:
Placement refers to putting the right person on the right job. Orientation is introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him with the rules and policies of the organisation.

5. Training and Development:
The process of training helps to improve the job knowledge and skill of the employees. It motivates the employees and improve their efficiency.

6. Performance Appraisal:
Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee’s current and past performance as against certain predetermined standards.

7. Promotion and Career Planning:
Promotion means movement of an employee from his present job to a higher level job.

8. Compensation:
Compensation refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees. It may be in the form of direct financial payments like wages, salaries, commissions and indirect payments like employer-paid insurance and vacation.

Question 2.
Aparna textiles decided to open a new Branch in Ernakulam. For the new showroom, they estimated 3 cashiers, 30 salesmen, 10 supervisors.

1. As a commerce student can you suggest the important sources for recruiting for the above vacancies?
2. Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

Answer:
a. Internal Sources:
It refers to the recruitment for jobs from within the organisation. It includes:
1. Transfer:
It involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without change in responsibility or compensation.

2. Promotion:
It refers to shifting of a person from lower position to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibility and more salary.

b. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under direct recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. This list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated for the purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 3.
Mr. Tom the newly appointed personnel manager of Hindustan Ltd. was given full responsibility for hiring people for the company to fill various positions in the production department.

1. He is confused as to which recruitment sources he would use?
2. Can you help him in this regard?

Answer:
a. Internal Sources:
It refers to the recruitment for jobs from within the organisation It includes:
1. Transfer:
It involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without change in responsibility or compensation.

2. Promotion:
It refers to shifting of a person from lower position to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibility and more salary.

b. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under the direct ‘ recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. This list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated for the purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 4.
The banking recruitment board gave an advertisement for selection of candidates to various posts in the bank. A large number of applications has been received. Can you suggest the various steps that have to be followed by the board to choose the right candidates?
Answer:
Process of Selection
1. Preliminary Screening:
Preliminary screening helps the manager to eliminate unqualified job seekers.

2. Selection Tests:
Various tests are conducted to know the level of ability, knowledge, interest, aptitude, etc. of a particular candidate. The various types of tests are:

1. Intelligence Tests: This is one of the important psychological tests used to measure the level of intelligence quotient (IQ) of an individual.
2. Aptitude Test: It is a measure of an individual’s potential for learning new skills.
3. Personality Tests: Personality tests provide clues to a person’s emotions, reactions, maturity and value system, etc.
4. Trade Test: These tests measure the existing skills of the individual.
5. Interest Tests: Interest tests are used to know the pattern of interests or involvement of a person.

3. Employment Interview:
Interview is a formal, in-depth conversation conducted to evaluate the applicant’s suitability for the job.

4. Reference and Background Checks:
Many employers request names, addresses, and telephone numbers of references for the purpose of verifying information and, gaining additional information on an applicant.

5. Final Selection:
The final decision has to be made from among the candidates who pass the tests, interviews and reference checks.

6. Medical Examination:
After selection, the candidates are required to appear for a medical examination for ensuring that he is physically fit for the job.

7. Job Offer:
After a candidate has cleared all the hurdles in the selection procedure, he is formally appointed through an order. It contains the terms and conditions of the employment, pays scale, joining time, etc.

8. Employment Contract:
Basic information that should be included in a written contract of employment are job title, duties, responsibilities, date of joining, pay and allowances, hours of work, leave rules, disciplinary procedure, work rules, termination of employment, etc.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A Circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0cm carries a current of 0.40A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil?
Answer:
Given n = 100, r = 8.0cm = 8 × 10^-2
I = 0.4A, B = ?
At the centre of circular coil

= π × 10⁴T = 3.1 × 10^-4T.

Question 2.
A uniform field equal to 1.5T exists in a cylindrical region of radius 10.0cm, its direction parallel to the axis along east to west. A wire carrying current of 7.0A in the north to south direction passes through this region. What is the magnitude and direction of the force on the wire if

1. The wire intersects the axis?
2. The wire is turned from N-S to north-east-north-west direction.
3. The wire in the N-S direction is lowered from the axis by a distance of 4.0cm?

Answer:
1. F = \(\mathrm{Bl} \ell\) = 1.5 × 7 × \(\frac{20}{100}\) or F = 2.1 N acting vertically downwards.

2. Force will again be 2.1N.

3. F = \(\frac{1.5 \times 7 \times 16}{100}\) = 1.68N.

Question 3.
Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0A and 5.0A in the same direction are separated by a distance of 4.0cm. Estimate the force on a 10cm section of wire A.
Answer:
Given I₁ = 8.0A, l₂ = 5.0A, r = 4.0cm = 0.04m
l = 10cm = 0.10m
Since

(direction is given by Fleming left-hand rule).

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. Find the force on the wire is
Answer:
F = i/B = 1.2 × 0.5 × 2 = 1.2 N

Question 2.
To convert a galvanometer into a ammeter, one needs to connect a.
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series
Answer:
(a) low resistance in parallel

Question 3.
A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field.
(a) torque is formed
(b) e.m.f is induced
(c) both a and b are correct
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) torque is formed

Question 4.
Direction of motion of unit the positive test charge gives direction electric field. Direction of motion of…….gives direction of magnetic field.
Answer:
Unit north pole.

Question 5.
A magnetic system with zero dipole moment
(a) Solenoid
(b) current carrying coil
(c) current loop
(d) toroid
Answer:
(d) Toroid.

Question 6.
Find odd one regarding polarity solenoid, torroid, current carrying loop, bar magnet.
Answer:
Torroid (In this case North and South pole are absent).

Question 7.
The nature of path when a charged particle is projected 30° to the direction of magnetic field. (Helix, cycloid, straight line, parabola).
Answer:
Helix

Question 8.
What is solenoid?
Answer:
An insulated copper wire wound in the form of cylinder is called solenoid.

Question 9.
Write mathematical expression for ampere’s theorem.
Answer:
∫B.dl = µ₀I

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The figure shows a long straight conductor carrying a current I. A magnetic field is produced around the conductor.

What is the magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point ‘P’ which is at a distant ‘x’ from the conductor?
What is the shape of the magnetic line of force?

Answer:
1. B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi x}\). Magnetic field is directed in to the plane of paper.

2. Circular.

Question 2.
A particle of mass 6.65 × 10^-27 kg having positive charge equal to two times of electron, moves with a speed of 6 × 10⁵ m/s in a direction perpendicular to that of a given magnetic field of flux density 0.4 weber/m². Find the acceleration of the particle.
Answer:

q = 2e, v = 6 × 10⁵ m/s
B = 0.4, m = 6.65 × 10^-27 kg
∴ acceleration,

a = 1.15 × 10¹³ m/s².

Question 3.
Classify in to true or false.

1. The magnetic field in the middle of current carrying solenoid depends up on cross sectional area.
2. The magnetic field depends up on current.
3. The magnetic field depends up on the material of the core.
4. The magnetic field depends up on total numbers of turns per unit length.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True

Question 4.
A short straight conductor carries current I

1. Write the expression for magnetic field due to this conductor.
2. Represent graphically the variation of magnetic field with distance from the wire.

Answer:
1. dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{|d| \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\)

2.

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The magnetic field along the axis of a circular coil is found to be B = \(\frac{\mu_{\mathrm{o}} \mathrm{Ia}^{2}}{2\left(\mathrm{r}^{2}+\mathrm{a}^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\)
1. What is the magnetic field along the axis if r>>a
2.

• Compare the above magnetic field with the electric field along the axis of an electric dipole
• What is the equation of magnetic dipole moment?

Answer:
1. B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} / a^{2}}{2 r^{3}}\)

2.

• Electric field due to electric dipole, E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{P}{r^{3}}\) magnetic field due to magnetic dipole B = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{m}{x^{3}}\).
• Magnetic moment m = IA

Question 2.
The circuit diagram for verifying Ohm’s Law is given below, A student unknowingly connects a galvanometer in the place of the ammeter.

1. What will happen to the galvanometer?
2. What modification has to be made in the galvanometer if he still wants to use the galvanometer in place of the ammeter?
3. Assuming voltmeter to be an ideal one, what will happen if the student interchanges the position of the voltmeter and ammeter?

Answer:

1. Galvanometer will be damaged.
2. use a shunt resistance.
3. No current flows, because an ideal voltmeter has infinite resistance.

Question 3.
Consider a galvanometer with a full scale deflection of 1 m A and resistance 100Ω.

1. How is the device connected in the circuit?
2. How can it be converted to an ammeter with full scale deflection 1 ampere?

Answer:
1. Connected in series.

2.

by connecting a shunt resistance. 0.1Ω in parallel with galvanometer, we can convert galvanometer in to ammeter.

Question 4.
Two infinitely long straight parallel wires carry currents I each as shown in fig.

1. Which law helps to find direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor?
2. What is the magnitude, direction of the magnetic fields at A, and C?

Answer:
1. Right hand grip rule.

2. The magnitude, direction of the magnetic fields at A, and C:

• A – outward to the plane of paper
• C-Inward to the plane of paper.

Question 5.
Analyze the figure and answer the following questions.

1. What is the nature of force between these conductors is……….
2. What is the field due to I₁ at second conductor?
3. What is the force experienced per unit length of II^nd conductor?

Answer:

1. Attractive
2. B= \(\frac{\mu_{0} d_{1}}{2 \pi r}\)
3. f = \(\frac{\mu_{0} l_{1} l_{2}}{2 \pi r}\)

Question 6.
“I am very light and present in every matter. When I move along the equator from east to west, I am pushed up. When I am stationary, no force”.

1. Name the force and write its expression.
2. Who am I?
3. What would happen if moved at the poles?

Answer:

1. Lorentz force in earth’s magnetic field F =qvB
2. Electron
3. The earth’s magnetic field at poles is perpendicular to the earth surface. When an electron move, it is pushed to one side, parallel to earth’s surface.

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The internal connections of a moving coil galvanometer is given in the fig (i) and fig (ii)

1. What is the use of moving coil galvanometer?
2. Which figure(i) or figure(ii) is used to measure Voltage?
3. Write an expression for resistance required to convert the moving coil galvanometer in to voltmeter.
4. If a very small resistance (eg, copper wire) is used to convert moving coil galvanometer in to voltmeter, will it work properly?

Answer:

1. Moving coil galvanometer is used to detect the presence of current
2. The instrument shown in figure (2) is used to measure voltage.
3. Resistance is connected in series with galvanometer. R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – G
4. No, A high resistance is required to convert galvanometer in to voltmeter.

Question 2.
When a charged particle enter normal to a uniform magnetic field, it take a circular path.

1. Name the particle accelerator using this principle.
2. Explain the working of that particle accelerator with relevant theory.
3. The neutrons can’t be accelerated using this partide accelerator. Why?

Answer:
1. Cyclotron.

2. Cyclotron:
a. Uses:
It is a device used to accelerate particles to high energy.

b. Principles:
Cyclotron is based on two facts

• An electric field can accelerate a charged particle.
• A perpendicular magnetic field gives the ion a circular path.

c. Working:

At certain instant, let D₁ be positive and D₂ be negative. Ion (+ve) will be accelerated towards D₂ and describes a semicircular path (inside it). When the particle reaches the gap, D₁ becomes negative and D₂ becomes positive.

So ion is accelerated towards D₁ and undergoes a circular motion with larger radius. This process repeats again and again. Thus ion comes near the edge of the dee with high K.E. This ion can be directed towards the target by a deflecting plate.

3. Charge of neutron is zero. Only charged particle can be accelerated using particle accelerated.

Question 3.
A current flows through a circular loop of radius r is shown in the figure.

1. What is the direction of magnetic field at ‘o’? (1)

2. Derive an equation for magnetic field at ‘o’ due to the circular loop carrying current i? (2)

3. If the loop splits into two equal halves as shown in figure. (1)

What will be the magnetic field at the center ‘o’?
Answer:
1. B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} I}{2 r}\) in t0 the plane of paper

2. Magnetic field on the axis of a circular current loop:
Consider a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and carrying current T. Let P be a point on the axis of the coil, at distance x from A and r from ‘O’. Consider a small length dl at A.
The magnetic field at ‘p’ due to this small element dl,
dB =\(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{Idl} \sin 90}{4 \pi \mathrm{x}^{2}}\)

[since sin 90° -1]
The dB can be resolved into dB cosΦ (along Py) and dB sinΦ (along Px). Similarly consider a small element at B, which produces a magnetic field ‘dB’ at P. If we resolve this magnetic field we get.
dB sinΦ (along px) and dB cosΦ (along py¹)
dB cosΦ components cancel each other, because they are in opposite direction. So only dB sinΦ components are found at P, so total filed at P is

from ∆AOP we get x = (r² + a² )^1/2

Let there be N turns in the loop then,

Point at the centre of the loop:
When the point is at the centre of the loop, (r = 0) Then,

3. Zero

Question 4.
A boy connects a galvanometer directly to a cell of emf 1.5v to measure a current through a load 1Ω.

1. Which instrument can be used to measure the current in such a circuit?
2. What changes should be made in the galvanometer to measure such a high current? Explain using a circuit diagram.
3. The boy connected the galvanometer into a high current measuring device and he connected the device parallel to the load. What will be the observation. Justify.

Answer:
1. Ammeter

2.

A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by a low resistance (shunt) connected parallel to it.
Theory:
Let G be the resistance of the galvanometer, giving full deflection fora current I_g. To convert it into an ammeter, a suitable shunt resistance ‘S’ is connected in parallel. In this arrangement, Ig current flows through Galvanometer and remaining (I-I_g) current flows through shunt resistance.
Since G and S are parallel
P.d Across G = p.d across S
I_g × G =(I-I_g)S
S = \(\frac{\lg \mathrm{G}}{\left(1-\mathrm{l}_{\mathrm{g}}\right)}\)
Connecting this shunt resistance across galvanometer we can convert a galvanometer into ammeter.

3. Ammeter is a low resistance device. Hence it draws high current. This high current will damage it.

Question 5.
An electric charge will experience a force in uniform electric field. Similarly a moving charge experience a magnetic force (Lorentz) in magnetic field. The SI unit of magnetic field intensity is defined in terms of Lorentz Force.

1. Write the expression for magnetic Lorentz force.
2. Mention any two difference between electric field arid magnetic field.
3. Give an account of work done by Magnetic Lorentz force on moving charge and corresponding change in K.E.

Answer:
1.

2. Electric field is due to a charge, either in motion or at rest. Magnetic field is due to the motion of charge. Direction of electric force is colinear to electric field. Direction of magnetic force is perpendicularto magnetic field.

3. If velocity (displacement) is perpendicular to Lorentz force the work done will be zero and hence there will no change in K.E.

Question 6.
“Moving coil Galvanorrieter is a device used for detecting very feeble current”.

1. What is the working principle of a moving coil galvanometer?
2. Describe the construction and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
3. When a high current is passed through a moving coil galvanometer, it will get destroyed. How?

Answer:
1. Principle:
A conductor carrying current when placed in a magnetic field experiences a force, (given by Fleming’s left hand rule), τ = NIAB.

2.

A moving coil galvanometer consists of rectangular coil of wire having area ‘A’ and number of turns ‘n’ which is wound on metallic frame and is placed between two magnets. The magnets are concave in shape, which produces radial field.
Working :
Let T be the current flowing the coil, Then the torque acting on the coil. τ = NIAB, Where A is the area of coil and B is the magnetic field.

This torque produces a rotation on coil, thus fiber is twisted and angle (Φ). Due to this twisting a restoring torque (τ = KΦ) is produced in spring. Under equilibrium, we can write
Torque on the coil = restoring torque on the spring
NIAB = KΦ
Φ \(=\left(\frac{\mathrm{BAN}}{\mathrm{K}}\right)\) I
The quantity inside the bracket is constant for a galvanometer.
Φ ∝ I
The above equation shows that the deflection depends on current passing through galvanometer.

3. High current will produce large amount of heat. This heat will destroy coils in the galvanometer.

Question 7.
When a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field it experiences a force.
1. Arrive at the expression forthe force experienced by the conductor. (2)
2. A conductor carrying current I direct out of the plane of the paper is lying in the magnetic field as in Fig. Draw the direction of force experienced by the conductor. (1)

3. If the conductor is lying parallel to the field what will be the force? (2)
Answer:
1. Consider a rod of uniform cross section ‘A’ and length ‘l’ Let ‘n’ be the number of electrons per unit volume (number density). ‘v_d’ be the drift velocityof electrons for steady current ‘I’.
Total number of electrons in the entire volume of rod =nAl
Charge of total electrons = nA l .e
‘e’ is the charge of a single electron.
The Lorentz force on electrons,

2.

3. Zero

Question 8.
A long straight conductor carrying current is placed near a current carrying circular loop as in the figure.

1. If B₁ is the field of the ring and B₂ the field due to straight conductor what will be the direction of B₁ and B₂ at O. (1)

2. The current through the loop and the conductor are 2A and the conductor is at as distance 20cm from the centre of loop. What should be the diameter of the loop so that the net field at O is zero. (3)
Answer:
1. B₁ into the plane and B₂ out of the plane.

2. B₁ is the field of the ring and B₂ the field of due to straight conductor.
B = B₁ – B₂ = 0
B₁ = B₂

2a = 40π × 10^-2m = 1,256m
Diameter d = 1.256 m.

Question 9.
A charged particle is travelling in the figure.

1. Name the force experienced by the charge in the region II. (1)
2. Give the expression for the net force experienced by the charge in the region II. (1)
3. If the charge reaches the region III without any change in its initial direction of motion find the velocity of the charged particle in terms of E and B. (2)

Answer:
1. Lorentz Force

2. F = q (E + v × B)

3. Electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. If the total force on the charge is zero and the charge will move in the fields undeflected. This happens when
qE = qvB or v = \(\frac{E}{B}\).

Question 10.
The medical diagnostic technique called magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) requires that patient lie in a strong magnetic field. It consists of two large solenoids, placed above and below.

1. What is solenoid?
2. Which law help you to find magnetic field due to solenoid? State the law.
3. Obtain an expression for magnetic field due to solenoid using the above law.
4. If the diameter of one of the MRI coil is increased without changing the current, does the magnetic field that it produce at its centre increases, decreases or stay the same? Justify.

Answer:
1. An insulated conducting wire wound in the form of cylinder is called solenoid.

2. Ampere’s circuital law:
Ampere’s circuital theorem states that the line integral of the magnetic field around any closed path in free space is equal to µ₀ times the net current passing through the surface.

3.

Consider a solenoid having radius Y. Let ‘n’ be the number of turns per unit length and I be the current flowing through it.

In order to find the magnetic field (inside the solenoid ) consider an Amperian loop PQRS. Let ‘l‘ be the length and ‘b’ the breadth

Applying Amperes law, we can write

Substituting the above values in eq (1), we get
Bl = µ₀ l_enc (2)
But l_enc = n l I
where ’nl ’ is the total number of turns that carries current I (inside the loop PQRS)
∴ eq (2) can be written as
Bl = µ₀nIl
B = µ₀ nI
If core of solenoid is filled with a medium of relative permittivity µ_r, then
B = µ₀µ_rnl

4. No change. Magnetic field is independent of radius.

Plus Two Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You are supplied with a galvanometer, resistor, and some connecting wires.

1. Using a circuit diagram, show how will you convert the given galvanometer into an ammeter.
2. Find the expression for the shunt resistance in the circuit.
3. A galvanometer is to be converted into an ammeter of range 0 – 1 A. Galvanometer has resistance 100Ω and the current for full scale deflection is 10mA. Find the length of the nichrome wire to be used as shunt.

Given, Resistivity ρ= 1.1 x 10^-6Ωm
Diameter of the wire = 1mm
Answer:
1.

2. Let I_g be the current through the galvanometer of resistance R_G and the shunt resistance be r_s.
Let I be the current to be measured by the converted ammeter.
We can write,
I_gR_G = (I – I_g)r_s
∴ r_s = \(\frac{I_{g} R_{G}}{\left(1-I_{g}\right)}\)

3. Given I = 1A
I_g = 10mA
R_G = 100Ω
Diameter = 1mm

Question 2.
Consider a conductor carrying current ‘I’, P is a point at a distance away from the conductor.

1. What is the direction of magnetic field at P? (1)
2. What are the factors affecting magnetic field at P due the element dl carrying current i? (1)
3. Derive an expression for magnetic field at P, if the current carrying conductor has infinite length? (2)
4. Draw a graph connecting Intensity of magnetic
   field and distance. (1)

Answer:
1. In to the plane of paper

2. dB = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{|d| \sin \theta}{r^{2}}\)

• Current I
• Length of element dl
• sin of angle between element and line joining mid point of element and point.
• Inversely proportional to square of the distance between element and point.

3. Long straight conductor:
Consider a long straight conductor carrying ‘I’ ampere current. To find magnetic field at ‘P’, we construct a circle of radius r (passing through P).

According to Ampere’s circuital law we can write

4.

Question 3.
A student placed a rectangular loop carrying current in between the pole pieces of two magnetics and found that the loop is rotating.

1. What is the net force on the loop?
2. Write the expression for the torque experienced by the loop in vector form.
3. At what position will the coil be in stable equilibrium?
4. A wire of length 4m is bent in the form of a circular coil of single turn. A current 1A is flowing through the wire. If the coil is placed in a magnetic field of 0.4T find the maximum torque experienced by the coil.

Answer:
1. Zero

2.

3. θ = 0, τ = 0, Potential energy is minimum (Area vector of the coil is parallel to the direction of magnetic field.)

4. I = 4m
2πr = 4
r = \(\frac{4}{2 \pi}\)
Area = A = πr²
Maximum torque = NIAB = 1 × 1 × π × \(\left(\frac{4}{2 \pi}\right)^{2}\) × 0.4
= 0.509 Nm

Question 4.
Ampere’s theorem helps to find the magnetic field in a region around a current carrying conductor.

1. Draw the variation of intensity of magnetic field with the distance from the axis of a current carrying conductor.
2. A conductor carrying a current I is bent as shown in the figure. Apply Ampere’s theorem at the regions 1 and 2 shown in the figure.

Answer:
1.

2.

Question 5.
The force acting on a moving charge in a magnetic field is called magnetic Lorents force.

1. Write the equation of force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.
2. Using the equation derive an expression for the force acting on a current carrying conductor of length T in a magnetic field B.
3. “A charge can move in a helical path in a magnetic field”. Do you agree with it? Explain.

Answer:
1.

2. Consider a rod of uniform cross section ‘A’ and length ‘ l ’. Let ’n’ be the number of electrons per unit volume (number density). ‘v_d’ be the drift velocity of electrons for steady current ‘I’.
Total number of electrons in the entire volume of rod = nA l
Charge of total electrons = nA l .e
‘e’ is the charge of a single electron.
The Lorentz force on electrons,

3. Yes, When an electron moves in a magnetic field with an angle θ, the electron undergoes for helical motion. The velocity of electron has two components, usinθ and ucosθ.

The component usinθ produces circular motion and ‘ucosθ’ produces translational motion. The combined effect of circular motion and translation motion will be helical motion.

Question 6.
A long wire is bent into a circular coil of one turn having radius ‘R’ and a current T is passed through it

1. Name the law to find the direction of magnetic field due to this current loop
2. Find an expression for magnetic field produced by this current loop at its centre
3. If the same wire is bent to a smaller radius Y having ‘n’ turns and send same current through it. Find the ratio of magnetic field at the centre in two cases.

Answer:
1. Right hand screw rule.

2. The magnetic field at a distance × from centre of loop is given by

3.

If wire is bend into smaller radius of n turns.

B₂ = n² B₁

Question 7.

A gas chamber is filled with hydrogen and a magnetic field is applied to it, then exposed to γ-ray. The γ-ray hits the hydrogen atom and produces high energy electron, low energy electron and positron (electron having + ve charge). The above photograph represents the trajectory of the particles. [Here magnetic field is applied Out of the plane of photo graph]

1. Which force drives the particle in a circular path and write the mathematical from.
2. Obtain a general expression for radius of the circular path.
3. Analyse the figure and match the columns given below.

Answer:
1. Magnetic Lorentz force

2. The centripetal force required for rotation is given magnetic Lorentz force Hence we can write

3. Analyse the figure and match the columns given below:

• Low energy electrons – B
• High energy electron – C
• Positron – A

Question 8.
A proton, an electron, a neutron, and an alpha particle are entering a region of uniform magnetic field with same velocities. The tracks of these particles are labelled.

1. Identify the tracks of each particle. (1)
2. Write the expression for the force experienced by a charged particle in the magnetic field in vector form. (1)
3. If the proton is moving at 90° to the uniform magnetic field what will be the change in kinetic energy of the proton? Give reason. (1)
4. An electron with energy 1 keV is entering a uniform magnetic field of 0.04T at an angle 60° with the field. Predict the path of the electron and find the characteristics of the path. (2)

Answer:
1. Identify the tracks of each particle:

• Path 1 – proton
• Path 2 – alpha particle
• Path 3 – neutron
• Path 4 – electron

2.

3. Zero. Since the force is perpendicular to the direction of velocity work done is zero.

4. KE = 1 keV = 1 × 10³ × 1.6 × 10^-19 = 1.6 × 10^-16


= 8.39 × 10^-3.

Question 9.
A current carrying conductor is bent in the form of a circular ring and is placed in the plane of the paper.

1. What is the direction of the magnetic field at the centre of the ring? (1)
2. Arrive at the expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of the ring. (3)
3. Another identical ring carrying the same current is brought with its axis perpendicular to the axis of the first as in figure. Find the magneticfield at the common centre. Calculate the angle between the net magnetic field and the axis of any one of the coils. (1)

Answer:
1. Out of the plane of the ring.

2.

Consider a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and carrying current ‘I’. Let P be a point on the axis of the coil, at distance x from A and r from ‘O’. Consider a small length dl at A. The magnetic field at ‘p’ due to this small element dl,

[since sin 90° -1]
The dB can be resolved into dB cosΦ (along Py) and dB sinΦ (along Px). Similarly consider a small element at B, which produces a magnetic field ‘dB’ at P.

If we resolve this magnetic field we get. dB sinΦ (along px) and dB cosΦ (along py¹) dB cosΦ components cancel each other, because they are in opposite direction. So only dB sinΦ components are found at P, so total filed at P is
B = ∫dBsinΦ

but from ∆AOP we get, sinΦ = a/x
∴ We get,

Let there be N turns in the loop then,

At the center of the loop,
r= 0

3. Magnetic fields are as shown in the fig.

The diagonal gives the resultant field.

Question 10.
An electron revolving round the nucleus acts as a magnetic dipole.

1. Which force provides the centripetal force for electron? (1)
2. Write the expression for the magnetic dipole moment of electron in vector form. What is the angle between direction of the magnetic moment and direction of angular momentum? (2)
3. A charge 2mC is moving through a circular path of radius 0.15m with frequency 1000Hz. Find the magnetic moment associated with the charge path. (2)

Answer:
1. Electrostatic force between electron and the nucleus.

2. Vectorially

The magnetic moment of the electron is opposite in direction to the angular momentum.
∴ Angle = 180°.

3. Revolving charge behaves as a current loop. Hence Magnetic field is given as

I = \(\frac{q}{T}\) = qv = 2 × 10^-3 × 100 = 0.2A
Magnetic moment = IA = 0.2 × π × 0.15²
= 0.0141 Am.

Question 11.
You are supplied with a galvanometer, resistor, and some connecting wires.

1. Using a circuit diagram, show how will you convert the given galvanometer into an ammeter. (1)
2. Find the expression for the shunt resistance in the circuit. (2)
3. A galvanometer is to be converted into an ammeter of range 0 -1 A. Galvanometer has resistance 100Ω and the current for full-scale deflection is 10mA. Find the length of the nichrome wire to be used as shunt. (3)

Given, Resistivity ρ = 1.1 × 10^-6Ωm
Diameter of the wire = 1 mm
Answer:
1.

2. Let I_g be the current through the galvanometer of resistance R_G and the shunt resistance be r_s. Let I be the current to be measured by the converted ammeter.
We can write,

3. Given I = IA
I_g = 10mA
R_G = 100Ω
Diameter = 1mm

You can Download Cultural Changee Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Cultural Change

Cultural Change Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Muslim Reformists of the society like ………. criticized polygamy and purdah system.
Answer:
Jahanara Shanavas

Question 2.
……… was a modern social reform movement.
Answer:

Question 3.
The modem social reform movement ………. was founded in Punjab.
Answer:
Arya Samaj

Question 4.
M.N. Srinivas used the term … to show how lower castes imitated the lifestyle of the higher classes.
Answer:
Sanskritization

Question 5.
As a result of 150 years of British rule, there were Changes in the Indian-ness and Indian culture. M.N. Srinivas called these changes …………
Answer:
Westernization

Question 6.
………… started the first school for women in Pune
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule

Question 7.
M.N. Srinivas used the term Sanskritization in 1952 when he was studying about the……….
Answer:
Jati System

Question 8.
Match the following:

a) Rajaram Mohan Roy	Arya Samajam	‘Punjab
b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati	First school for girls	Pune
c) Jyotiba Phule	Brahma Samaj	Westernization
d) Jahanara Shanavas	Sanskritization	Bengal
e) M.N. Srinivas	Muslim social reformist	Opposed Polygamy & purdah

Answer:

a) Rajaram Mohan Roy	Brahma Samajam	Bengal
b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati	Arya Samajam	Punjab
c) Jyotiba Phule	First school for girls	Pune
d) Jahanara Shanavas	Muslim social reformist	Opposed Polygamy & purdah
e) M.N. Srinivas	Sanskritization	Westernization

Question 9.
Who is the author of Induprakash?
a) Vidyasagar
b) Jahanara Shanavas
c) Ranade
d) Satish Sabarwal
Answer:
Answer:
Vidyasagar

Question 10.
Who coined the word Sanskritization?
a) Jyotiba Phule
b) M.N. Srinivas
c) Ranade
d) K.T. Shah
Answer:
M.N. Srinivas

Question 11.
Match the following:

A	B
Ranade	Brahma Samaj
Viresalingam	Prarthana Samaj
Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan	Sources of Knowledge
Raja Ram Mohan Roy	Aligarh Movement

Answer:

A	B
Ran&de	Prarthana Samaj
Viresalingam	Sources of Knowledge
Sir S^yed Ahmed Khan	Aligarh Movement
Raja Ram Mohan Roy	Brahma Samaj

Question 12.
Describe the 3 levels of social change in India during the colonial rule as suggested by the sociologist Sathish Sabarval.
Answer:
a) Communication system
b) organizational forms
c) Nature of ideas
During the colonial period, there were a lot of changes in the communication system. Different technological advances increased the speed of communication. Printing Press, telegraph, microphone, steamships and railway helped people to communicate fast. Using the latest means of communication, reformists in different areas exchanged their views.

They could travel to different parts of the country and propagate their ideas. For example, in 1864, Keshav Chandra Sen from Bengal visited Madras. Pandita Ramabai traveled to different parts of the country. Some reformists even went abroad to visit different places and see things. Christian missionaries reached even the remotest villages in Nagaland, Mizoram, and Meghalaya.

Organizational forms: During this period many modem cultural organizations were formed. In Bengal, there was Brahma Samaj and in Punjab, there was Arya Samaj. In 1914 all India Muslim Women Conference . was established, Indian reformists conducted public, meetings to spread their ideas. They also made use of media like newspapers, bulletins, and journals. Some of the books of the reformists were translated into different Indian languages. For example, the 1868 book “Indu Prakash” by Vidyasagar was translated by Vishnu Sastri into Marathi.

Nature of ideas: The ideas propagated at this time were revolutionary and drastic. The new ideas of liberalism and freedom spread among the people. There were new concepts with regard to marriage and family. Mothers and daughters were assigned

Question 13.
Explain the contributions of women social reformists.
Answer:
In the middle decades the 19th century, the idea of woman education was discussed widely and intensively. Social reformer Jyotiba Phule opened the first school for girls in 1848 in Pune. All social reformers advocate women education. They argued that for the progress of the society, women had to be educated. Many of them believed that many women of the pre-modern India were educated.

But some did not agree with this view. They pointed out that, only a few privileged women had such education in the pre-modem India. However, reformers wanted to give priority to woman education. They started discussing the meanings of tradition and modernity. People like Jyotiba Phule showed that India was a great country before the coming of the Aryans. But people like Bal Gangadhar Tilak stressed the glory India had during the Aryan era. In short, the reformers of the 19th century questioned meaningless rituals and traditions prevalent in the society. At the same time, they pointed out the good traditions.

Thus they started an era of social revolution. There were some questions that reform movements raised. Some movements gave importance to the problems faced by women in the upper castes. But some concentrated on the inequalities of jati system. Some people felt that jati system was against essential Hindu principles. Some argued jati and gender-related persecutions were part of religious dogma.

Muslim reformists raised their voices against polygamy and purdah system. In an All-India Muslim Women Conference, Jahanara Shanavas got ah anti-polygamy resolution passed. Jahanara argued that polygamy was against the teachings of the Koran. She asked educated women to end this injustice. This resolution against polygamy became an issue of great debate and discussion, especially in the Muslim papers. A women-oriented paper – Tahzib-i-Niswan – supported the resolution. But some papers opposed it. Debates were common among communities.

For example, Brahma Samaj strongly opposed ‘Sati’. But some conservative Hindus in Bengal formed an organization called ‘Dharma Sabha’ and demanded that Sati should be continued. They said that reformers have no right to interpret holy books. They complained to the British government against the reformers. Many Dalits turned against the inequalities preached by upper caste’ Hindus. A13-year old girl named Muktabar, a student in Jyotiba Phule’s school . in Pune wrote very strongly against a religion that upheld the rights of a few upper castes and rejected the rest.

Question 14.
Describe the Social Reform Movements of the 19th and 20th century India
Answer:
Colonialism brought many changes to the Indian society. The 19th and 20th century Reform Movements came up to find solutions to the problems faced by the society. There were many useless and harmful social customs and rituals in the society. The worst things were Sati, child marriage, and Jati- discriminations. There were also female infanticide and untouchability. Fights against social ills had started in India even before the colonial period. Buddhism and Bhakti-Sufi Movements had tried to eradicate many evils. There are two special features about the Reformists of the 19th century.

First, they were brought up in the modern background. Secondly, they were influenced by the Western concepts of liberalism and a new reading and interpretation of the traditional literature of India and Indian concepts. In objecting Sati, Rajaram Mohan Roy made use of Western concepts like humanity and natural rights and also the Hindu Sastras. Ranade, the leader of the Prarthana Samaj also made use of Western concepts and Hindu Sastras in justifying widow- remarriage. In his books “The Text of the Hindu Law on the Lawfulness of the Remarriage of Widows” and “Vedic Authorities for Widow Remarriage”, he has shown that Hindu Sastra had approved widow re-marriages.

Modern education was liberal. Its contents included European Renaissance, Religious Reform Movements and Philosophical Thoughts. Their theme was humane, secular and liberal.

Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan was the leader of Aligarh Movement. His interpretation of the Koran stressed free research. He pointed out the similarities between the revelations of the Koran and the natural laws discovered by modem science.
Viresalingam was the leader of the Reform Movement in Andhra Pradesh. His book ‘Sources of Knowledge’ shows his scholarship about modern jurisprudence and oratory. He also translated Julius Huxley’s book.

Question 15.
Give short notes on Westernization, Secularization, Modernization, and Sanskritization.
Answer:
Westernization, Secularization, Modernization, and Sanskritization are different concepts and in different contexts, they are used differently. Even then these
concepts often stand together or in a hierarchical order. This mutual relation between these ideas is quite natural in the Indian context.

Sociology may have its own interpretations about each of them. Colonial modernity is full of paradoxes. Let us take the example of Western education. Western education was brought to India by the British colonial government. This helped the growth of an educated middle class. This middle class had big dreams about western philosophical thoughts and liberal democracy. At the same time, they were ashamed of the colonial rule of their motherland and they upheld the traditional wisdom and scholarship . of ancient India. In the Reform Movement of the 19th century also we had this tendency. In short, the educated middle class and reformists received Western concepts and at the same time, they upheld India’s tradition.

Colonial modernity not only presented new ideas, but it also caused the re-thinking and re-interpretation of Indian traditions. Culture and tradition are living concepts. People study them .and make timely changes. For example, we can think of the traditional dress, sari, worn by Indian women. Today some Indian women wear sari, with a Western touch. The old and the new are fused. They wear saris and at the same time, they use petticoats and blouse.

In India, we have many structural and cultural diversities. India is a land of diversities. These diversities are found in geography, race, language, religion, politics, and culture. It is these diversities that cause different things like Sanskritization, Modernization, Westernization, Secularization and so on to influence the diverse people. First, we talk about Sanskritization. There is a reason for that. Sanskritization had started even before the colonial rule. Through many ways, it continued to exist during and after the colonial rule.

The other three happened during the colonial period. These were brought about by the Western concepts like freedom and individual rights. Awareness of these concepts made Indians feel about the injustice of the colonial rule. It also gave them a sense of shame. It also created in them a desire to go back to their own tradition and heritage.

Question 16.
As a process of cultural change, explain the effect of modernization!
Answer:
Modernization has a long history. Modernization means the path Western Europe and America followed in the 17-19 centuries. Spokespersons for modernization say that other societies also must follow this very same path. From 19^th century, there have been changes in the viewpoints regarding modernization. Modernization was evaluated relating it to creative and desirable values. People and societies wanted to become modem. In the 20th century, this view became strong. The progress in technology and manufacturing process was considered modernization. The shift from traditional society to a more cultured society is also called modernization.

It was considered the opposite of tradition In India, modernity began during the colonial rule. It is this colonial background that marks our modernization and secularization different from those of the Westerners. Modernization and secularization are mutually related. They both are modem concepts. So we discuss them together here. Sociologists have tried to define and interpret the meaning and content of the process of modernization. In their views the following are the features of modernization:

• Modernization denies regional limitations and narrow views, it gives importance to universality and cosmopolitan attitudes.
• it. gives preference to science and reason above emotion and irrationality.
• St treats the individual, and not groups, as the basic unit the society.
• Birth should not be the basis for one’s profession or status. It should be chosen by individuals.
• St should be wisdom that must determine our approach to nature. Fate or destiny has no place here.The identity of a person must be chosen and acquired, not imposed.
• In the bureaucratic system, family, residence, community, etc. should have separate existence.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of secularism. How did it affect Indian Jati system?
Answer:
In the Western world, secularism means the process by which the influence of religions is reduced. Supporters of modernism believe that the influence of religion is getting less in modern societies. The indicators of secularism are people’s distancing themselves from religious institutions (like not going to church or temple), the fall in the influence of religious organizations in social and material thinking of people and people becoming less faithful in their beliefs. But somehow there are terrible religious clashes in many parts of the world. The feeling that the growth of modernity will reduce the influence of religion on people exited long ago. But this is not fully right.

Western and modem thoughts, modern communication systems, etc. did not reduce the influence of religion. On the contrary, some new kind of religious reform organizations are coming up. For the rituals, they gave some non-religious connotations. Rituals have certain non-religious meanings. For example, marriage is an occasion where people get an opportunity to mingle with their colleagues and also bosses. It also gives people an opportunity to show off their wealth – their fine clothes and ornaments. Such festivities have also acquired political and economic implications. For example, the long rows of cars of guests, the VIPs attending the function and the sumptuous meals served, etc. will show the status of the family in the community.

Jati system is also adversely affected by secularism. In traditional India, Jati system worked within a religious framework. Purity-Pollution concept was a basic tenet. Today Jati works as political pressure groups. In contemporary India there are many communal organizations, and political parties are formed on communal basis. To achieve their goals they go on exerting pressure on the nation. This kind of change that has happened is what is called as secularization of Jati.

Question 18.
What are the criticisms that have come up against Sanskritization?
Answer:
The concept of Sanskritization as propounded by M.N. Srinivas has been severely criticized by many. Here some of the criticisms.
a) Sanskritization exaggerates the upward mobility of the lower castes. Sanskritization tried to say that it will help the lower caste to reach the higher steps of the Jati ladder. But it did not bring any structural change. It brought some changes in the position of some people. They made their position better by keeping themselves within the framework of their Jati. In other words, the inequalities still continue.
b) Sanskritization viewed the lifestyle of the higher caste as superior and that of the lower castes as inferior. Therefore it was natural for the lower castes to imitate the superior lifestyle of the higher castes.
c) Sanskritization tries to justify a system based on inequality and exclusion. It speaks as if there is nothing seriously wrong with untouchability and purity-pollution concepts. With such an attitude, a society with equality is unthinkable.

Here is the concept of a low caste person regarding purity- pollution:
“Although goldsmiths are a higher caste than us, our caste-laws prohibit us from accepting food or water from them. We think that goldsmiths are very greedy and to dig out gold they can even wash human excreta. Therefore, although they are of a higher caste, they are more impure than us. We don’t accept any food from even higher caste people who do dirty jobs.” This shows how discriminatory feelings change lives of people. What is seen here is not to bring out a society with equality but to prolong the attitude that accepts discrimination and exclusion. This is an anti-democratic viewpoint.
d) As a result of Sanskritization’s low caste, people accept the conventions and rituals of the higher castes. This results in the isolation of girls and women, dowry stem and discrimination against other castes.
e) Critics also point out that as a result of Sanskritization, the special features of Dalit community and culture have been destroyed. For example, the value of the jobs done by the lower castes was reduced. Such jobs were pictured as shameful. Their traditional knowledge in local medicine and herbs, environment, agriculture, animal husbandry, artisanship, etc. was presented as useless in an industrial age.

Question 19.
Write a note of Westernization.
Answer:
By westernization, we mean the changes that took place here because of our contact with Western culture and the Westerners. Westernization is a process by which western lifestyle is imitated. It wasM.N.Srinivasthatfirsttalkedaboutthisconcept. He defines westernization thus: “Westernization is the changes that happened in the Indian society as a result of the British rule in India for more than 150. years. That word includes changes in technology, institutions, ideas, and values

Westernization is the imitation of the external forms of Western culture. It is not necessary that people accept modern values like democracy and equality. Westernization is of different kinds. One of them is the subculture of the Indian intellectuals. It is this intellectual group of Indians that first got into contact with Western culture. Their western education gave this opportunity.

They accepted the thought processes and lifestyles of the westerners. They also tried to spread it among their people. Thus it gave birth to a westernized subculture. The 19th-century reformists come in this category. But the western thoughts and lifestyle influenced only a small portion of Indians. But some western features had greater impact here. This is the second level of westernization.

The new technology, dress, ways of eating, etc. of the western culture brought changes in the style and habits of most Indians. Most middle-class families gladly welcomed them. Following the westerners, they bought radio,fridge, sofa set, dining table and chairs for their homes. There were also changes in art and literature. Artists like Ravi Varma and writers like Rabindranath Tagore, Chandu Menon, and Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya were influenced by western culture. The style, theme and technique of Ravi Varma pictures were influenced by western as well as traditional art. In 1870, Ravi Varma agreed to make a portrait of the Family of Kizhakke Palat Krishnan Menon.

This picture of a matriarchal family in Kerala resembles very closely to a patriarchal family, with father, mother, and children, of Europe. As part of westernization changes also happened in other spheres. Clashes between generations, as seen today, are of western import! M.N. Srinivas said that lower classes tried Sanskritization whereas the upper classes tried westernization.

In a country with such diversities as India, Srinivasan’s view does not carry much weight. For example, the members of the Thiyya community, especially the elite, deliberately tried to be westernized and wanted to follow British culture. It was part of their efforts to reject Jati system and get into a cosmopolitan lifestyle. In the same way, people belonging to different communities in the North Eastern States were given new opportunities because of their esteem education.

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Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Change and Development in Rural Society

Change and Development in Rural Society Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors of the New Economic Policy?
a) Liberalization
b) Privatization
c) Globalization
d) All the above
Answer:
All the above

Question 2.
Whose was the usage “A change from patronage to exploitation”?
a) Jan Breman
b) M.N. Srinivas
c) K.Santaram
d) M.S. Swaminathan
Answer:
Jan Breman

Question 3.
According to ………… system, real farmer should pay the tax.
Answer:
Zamindari

Question 4.
The Jati which had more members and more land was called ……….. by M.N. Srinivas.
Answer:
Prabala Jati (Strong Jati)

Question 5.
According to the … Act, the land a family can keep was limited
Answer:
Land Ceiling

Question 6.
Match the following

A	B
Halpati System	Competition
Jan Breman	Wheat
Green Revolution	Exploitation of agricultural workers
Globalization	Working like slaves

Answer:

A	B
Halpati System	Working like slaves
Jan Breman	Exploitation of agricultural workers
Green Revolution	Wheat
Globalization	Competition

Question 7.
What is the relation between agriculture and culture?
Answer:
There is close relation between agriculture and culture. The natur@4nd manner of agriculture will differ according to the region in the country. This difference will be reflected in the culture of those regions. The social structure and culture of rural Indian is related to agriculture and the lifestyle of agriculturists.

Question 8.
Critically examine the influence the land reform made in Indian villages during the colonial period.
Answer:
Before the colonial rule, the people who did agriculture were members of the Upper Castes. But they were not owners of the land. The land was in the control of regional kings and zamindars. The zamindars. who were politically strong, were Kshatriyas of such higher caste people. Zamindars were not owners of the land. Their duty was to collect the tax and give it to the government. They got a shore of the tax they collected.

These zamindars collected a got part of the harvest as tax from the farmers. When the British colonized India, they ruled many parts through zamindars. With the intention of maximizing their income, the British brought new land tax systems and reforms. The most important of them were the Zamindari system (Permanent Settlement) and the Ryotwari system. The Zamindars had to pay huge amounts to the government.

So they started collecting big amounts from farmers. The zamindari system was harmful to both zamindars and farmers. As a result agriculture got stunted and ruined. Many farmers left their homes as they could not stand the torments from zamindars. Constant famines, earthquakes, and wars reduced the population considerably.

The British implemented the zamindari system in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. In the regions which they were directly ruling, they brought another land tax system. This is known as ryotwari system. ‘Ryot’ in Telugu means farmer. It was an agreement between the British government and the farmer. There were no middlemen. Farmers gave the tax directly to the government. As per the ryotwari system, the farmers became the owners of the land.

In the ryotwari regions, the tax was comparatively less. So the farmers were ready to invest money in their lands. There was much progress and prosperity in these regions. To know about the present agricultural structure we should know the background of land tax system in the colonial rule. The present system came from the changes that were brought during the colonial period.

Question 9.
Critically examine the land reform laws of India after independence.
Answer:
After independence, the Nehru government started a planned development process. The stress was on agricultural reforms and industrialization. The condition of agriculture in India at that time was pitiable. The country depended on imported foodstuff. People in the villages were in poverty. In the circumstances, the government felt the need to reform the agricultural sector. It realized that there should be drastic changes in the ownership of the land and its distribution. To bring these changes there was a series of land reform bills. The reforms were carried. out at the Centre and in the States.

The first important land reform law was to end the zamindari system. With this, the middlemen between the government and the farmers were ceased to exist. The ownership of the land by zamindars was canceled. The land of the zamindars was taken from them and it was distributed to the farmers who farmed it. With this, the power of zamindars weakened. It improved the condition of the real farmers.

Although zamindari system was ended by this law, landlord-ship, tenancy, share-cropping, etc. did not end. In the agricultural sector, there were many layers and zamindars were the top layer. The top layer was removed but other layers remained. The second series of land reforms tried to end tenancy system. It made a condition that till the tenant paid the rent, he could not be ousted from the land. This law could offer some kind of protection to the tenants. The rent to be given to the landlord was also reduced by this law.

But in many States, this law was not properly implemented. Since the tenants were not given any written documents, the law proved useless in many cases. Only in Wet Bengal and Kerala, the law was effectively implemented. These States were able to restructure the agricultural system by giving the tenants the right to their land. The third land reform law related the maximum land a family could own. The limit for maximum land would depend on each region. For example, in Assam, it could be 50 acres but in Bengal, it might be only 25 acres. The ceiling was determined according to the type of land and fertility of soil.

If the land was well- productive and fertile, the land area one could retain would be smaller than less productive and infertile land. The extra land taken from the families would be taken and distributed among the landless poor. But all this did not happen as planned. Landowners used different techniques to keep their land by using various loopholes of the law Many landowners escaped from the law by giving away their extra lands to their relatives.

Even their servants were given land. Thus they were able to keep control of their land. To escape from the land ceiling laws, in some regions, rich landowners and farmers officially divorced their wives, although they lived together. This way they could keep the land by giving a share to the wives. The efficacy of the land reform laws was not similar in all States. It is true that some changes did happen. But there was hardly any big difference in the inequality prevailing in the agricultural sector. It affected the production of agricultural goods. The land reform laws are important in India. Such reforms will remove the poverty i villages and bring social justice.

Question 10.
Examine the social repercussion of the Green Revolution in India.
Answer:
Green Revolution is part of the programme that the Government implemented in the 1960s and 70s. In the 1960s there was a serious food shortage. To overcome it, government came out with an agricultural plan and this led to the Green Revolution. For this financial assistance was obtained from International Agencies. The government gave farmers high-yield seeds, insecticides and fertilizers at subsidized prices. They were also given agricultural loans. The government gave them guarantee that it would buy the produce at a minimum fixed price.

This was the basis of the Green Revolution. The Green Revolution took place only in places which had irrigation facilities. The new seeds and manner of agriculture needed a lot of water. It concentrated on areas fit for wheat and paddy cultivation. Therefore initially the benefit of this scheme went to Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Green Revolution had a great impact. Since latest technology was used, there was a huge increase in the production. India became self-sufficient in food grains. The Green Revolution was considered as a great achievement of the Government and the scientists who helped in the process. But sociologists say that it also had its negative results. It helped only middle class and high class farmers.

The small scale farmers did not get any benefit from it. To carry out the programme a big capital was needed. Small farmers did not have the capital to buy new breed of seeds, fertilizers and insecticides. They could not afford to use latest technology. The small farmers did not do farming aiming at the market. They did it for their own use. But the middle class and rich fanners did farming with the market in their mind. They produced a lot and sold the extra yield in the market making huge profits. Thus agriculture was commercialized.

Thus in fact, in the first stage of the Green Revolution, the inequalities only increased It also caused the ousting of tenants from their lands. Since agriculture became profitable, the landowners topk their land back from the tenants and that way he tenants lost their means of livelihood. Rich fanners became richer. The tillers, tractors harvesters and threshers that were brought took away the jobs of the poor people who managed their lives doing different jobs in the farms. It was they who ploughed the land, harvested, and threshed. Many of these people went away to cities seeking employment. Thus migration to cities increased.

It is true that because of the high demand for labor, laborers got better wages. But this rise did not help them as the price of essential commodities shot up. There was another thing also. Before the Green Revolution, the laborers got their wages in kind (various agricultural products). But now they got their wages in cash and this made thing s worse for him because of the high prices he had to pay for various products.

The second stage of the Green Revolution was carried out in areas which were dry and where availability of water was less. There were great changes now. Government made arrangements for better irrigation facilities. The way of planting, the kinds of crops, etc. were changed. Agriculture was commercialized. Stress was given to cash crops like cotton. This also increased the insecurity of farmers.

Before the Green Revolution, farmers produced different things for their use. But now they concentrated on one crop. When concentrating on crops there would be problems at times. Fall in the prices, crop failure etc. would be very dangerous then. Some farmers suffered from these dangers. Green Revolution led to regional inequalities. Some places prospered greatly. But others stayed backward. Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh prospered. But Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Telangana, etc, remained poor. The gross inequalities there later led to riots.

Green Revolution also proved harmful to the traditional ways of agriculture. It was hoped that scientific methods would improve the condition of the farmers. New style of farming, new breeds of seeds, chemical fertilizers and insecticides created serious environmental problems. In this situation, scientists and agricultural organizations asked the people to go .back to their traditional methods of cultivation. The high-yield seeds were found harmful to health.

Question 11.
Evaluate the changes that globalization and liberalization brought to the Indian village communities.
Answer:
It was in the 1980s that India started its liberalization policies. It was a policy stressing free market, privatization and globalization. Liberalization made it necessary for India to become part of the World Trade Organization. The purpose was to bring free International trade and open Indian markets for imports. Liberalization policy had a big influence in agriculture and village communities.

Before liberalization, the Indian farmers had the support of the nation and protection in the market from imported goods. But as a result of liberalization and globalization, farmers faced competition from global market. We can see imported fruits and other food items even in the small shops of our villages. But a few years ago such imported things were not available here. There was heavy import duty and so many things were not imported. But globalization removed all such restrictions.

This badly affects the farmers here. For example, India decided to import wheat. This adversely affected the wheat farmers. Some farmers in Punjab and Karnataka entered into contract with Multinational companies to grow some crops like tomato and potato. The companies had agreed to buy these crops for export. There are some dangers in this ‘contract agriculture’. The company decides what should be grown. It is the company that provides seeds, capital, and technology. The company also agrees to buy the product at a fixed price.

This contract-agriculture is common in India. It may look as if it is good for the farmers as it gives them financial guarantee. But the problem here is that the farmers have to depend on the companies for their livelihood. It removes the freedom of the farmer to grow what he likes. He has to work like an employee of the company. Sometimes they have to produce only flowers for export and so they cannot cultivate any food crops.

Local knowledge of agriculture does not have any role here. The farming is to be done as suggested by the company. Through contract-farming, things need by the rich people are produced. Ordinary people have no use of such things. Moreover these crops need a lot of chemical fertilizers and insecticides which will bring .a lot of damage to the environment. Agriculture has now become highly globalized. The multinationals entered this field as sellers of seeds, insecticides, chemical fertilizers and so on. But now they dictate to the farmers what to cultivate and how to cultivate it.

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Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 The Story of Indian Democracy

The Story of Indian Democracy Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When did the ‘Nagarapalika’ Arrangement come into existence?
a) 1 June 1993
b) 1 July 1993
c) 15 August 1993
d) 2 October 1993
Answer:
1 June 1993

Question 2.
Who was connected to the Panchayati Raj in Tribal Regions?
a) Ambedkar
b) K. Shantaram
c) Tiplut Nongbri
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
Tiplut Nongbri

Question 3.
The ultimate interpreter of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Supreme Court

Question 4.
It was the ……… amendment of the Constitution that brought Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
Answer:
73^rd

Question 5.
In 1931 the India National Congress held its Annual Meeting in …….. and it declared the draft plan of the Constitution of free India.
Answer:
Karachi

Question 6.
The cornerstone of Indian democratic system.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution

Question 7.
The suggestion to amend the Constitution about Grama Panchayat mentioned the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution was made by………..
Answer:
K. Shantaram

Question 8.
Gandhiji suggested that self- sufficient villages or ……… were models that could continue even after
Answer:
Gramaswarajyam

Question 9.
The Karachi Meeting of the Indian National Congress took place in ?
Answer:
1931

Question 10.
In the opinion of the social scientist ……… the Panchayats of the Hill Tribes do not conform to the democratic principles in structure and activities.
Answer:
Tiplut Nongbri

Question 11.
According to the 73^rd Amendment of the Constitution ……….. seats in the Panchayats are served for women.
Answer:
33.3%

Question 12.
……… has the right to hear some small civil and criminal cases.
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat

Question 13.
The slogans of the …….. Revolution were Liberty, Equality & Fraternity.
Answer:
French

Question 14.
Article ………. refers to the right to life and freedom.
Answer:
Twenty-one (21)

Question 15.
Problems like troubling women for dowry are solved in ………
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat

Question 16.
In the ………….. problems like troubling women in the name of dowry etc. are solved.
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayats

Question 17.
Match the following

A	B
Gandhiji	Swaraj
Karachi Meeting	Harijan
73rd Amendment	Nagarpalika Arrangement
74th Amendment	Panchayati Raj

Answer:

A	B
Gandhiji	Harijan
Karachi Meeting	Swaraj
73rd Amendment	Panchayati Raj
74th Amendment	Nagarpalika Arrangement

Question 18.
Codify some discussions in the Constitution-Making Committee.
Answer:
K.T. Shah: The nation should give jobs to all able and qualified citizens.
B. Das: The main responsibility of the government is to remove the hunger of people and ensure that social justice and security is given to all.

Ambedkar: As done in some other countries, Constitution is not gimmick to install a certain political party in power. The people will decide who should be in power. Those who get into power will have no freedom to act as they want. They will have to follow the Directive Principles. If they breach them they will have to answer to the voters in the coming elections.

Nehru: Laws can’t stop reforms. Social forces are so strong. If laws and the Parliament can’t absorb changes they won’t be able to control the circumstances. The Tribals and their interests should be protected. They should be protected from greedy neighbors. Their progress should be the aim of the nation.

K. Santaram: Grama Panchayats should be formed. They should be given power and strength to become effective partners in local self-government.

T.A. Ramalingam Chettiar: In the villages, rural industries should be organized on a cooperative basis.
Thakurdas Bhargava: The Nation should organize. agriculture and animal husbandry in modem scientific ways.

Question 19.
Discuss the Amendments to the Indian Constitution which made Panchayati Raj possible.
Answer:
The literal meaning of Panchayati Raj is ‘rule by five persons’. Its aim is to bring democracy at the village level and ensure the participation of ordinary citizens. This basic democratic concept is not something imported from abroad. In India, from time immemorial panchayats had existed. In the administration of villages, jati-panchayats had a big role. But they were not fully democratic.

In Jati Panchayats, strong groups had representation. Lower castes had little representation there. The strong sections who ruled the Panchayats had conservative views. Their decisions were often against law and legal procedures.

There were gross inequalities based on jati, varna, and gender. This prevented proper democratic participation by all. When the Constitution was prepared, there was no mention of any Panchayat there. Many people raised their, voice against it. They showed their sorrow, despair, and anger. But leaders like Ambedkar argued’ that the panchayats would be monopolized by the strong castes and they would exploit the lower castes and the poor.

He felt that the repressed groups will be further exploited through grama panchayats. But Gandhi had a different view. The concept of local self-government was much dear to him. He saw each village as a self-sufficient unit. He thought that each village would be able to manage its own affairs without depending on anybody else. He felt that ‘grama- swarajya’ was something that could continue after independence.

But we had to wait until 1992 to establish democracy at the village level (decentralized rule). In 1992, with the 73^rd Amendment, this was made possible.

The 73^rdAmendment gave panchayat raj institutions constitutional status. Elections to the panchayats were made compulsory every five years. The control of local resources was to be in the hands of Panchayat Samitis.

The 73^rd and 74^th Amendments brought a revolutionary change, in the local self-government institutions one- third seats (33.3%) were reserved for women. In this 1?% were reserved for SC’s and ST’s. These I Amendments have great historical importance. With I this women got representation and partnership. They got the right to take decisions. Thus the 73^rd and 74^th Amendments were strong steps in the direction of women empowerment. 1/3 seats were reserved for women in regional Samiti, grama panchayats, municipalities, corporations, and district Samiti. in the 1993-94 elections for (he local self-governments more than 8 lakh women became partners in the national developmental processes

Question 20.
Explain the powers and responsibilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Answer:
The Constitution demands that panchayats should be given all powers and strength to work as self-government institutions. The State governments have been asked to give a hew life to the panchayats. Here are the powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.
a. Encourage programs for economic development.
b. Encourage programmes to ensure social justice.
c. Taxes, tolls, and fees can be imposed, collected and used.
d. Help the State governments to carry out its responsibilities.

Panchayats also have to carry out social welfare schemes. These include maintaining crematoriums, keeping birth and death records, establish child and maternal welfare centers, maintain pounds to keep wandering cattle, encourage family planning, encourage agricultural activities, etc. Panchayats also have to make roads, public buildings, wells, schools, etc. They should encourage village industries and small irrigation projects, it is the members of Panchayat that supervise government schemes like joint village development schemes and joint child- development schemes.

The main income for the Grama Panchayat is from property tax, professional tax, vehicle tax, land tax, and rent. They also get financial help from district Panchayats. Income and expenditure statements are to be displayed by the Grama Panchayats on the notice boards in front of the office. By this, people at the grass-root level can understand what is happening in their panchayats. They have a right to seek information about the welfare schemes undertaken by the Panchayats and also ask for reasons for taking certain decisions.

In some states, there are Nyaya Panchayats. They have the right to handle small civil and criminal cases They have no right to give punishments. These Nyaya panchayats have been successful in settling quarrels among individuals. They have been successful in preventing dowry-related violence against women.

Question 21.
Explain about the working of the Panchayati Raj among Hill Tribes.
Answer:
Some Tribal areas of the country had certain democratic traditions. In Meghalaya, for example, Tribal groups like Khasis, Jaintias, Garos have their own traditional political institutions. These have been in existence for centuries. They were well-developed institutions. They worked at different levels like village, kulam and State. For example, Khasis had their own Council for each Kulam. It was known as ‘Durbar koor’. The head of the Kulam chaired this Council
a. The 73^rd Amendment does not cover the major portion of Hill Tribe areas.
b. Our policymakers were not keen on interfering with the institutions of the Tribals.

That is why they were kept outside the purview of the 73^rd Amendment, tiplut Nongbri, a sociologist, points out that the structure and activities of the Tribal Institutions may not be democratic. She argued that although they have concepts of equality there are many inequalities in their community. The Tribal institutions were intolerant to women. Social changes have brought changes in these institutions also. Now it has become difficult to know what is traditional and what is not.

Question 22.
Critically examine the influence of pressure groups in democratic politics.
Answer:
The definition of democracy by Abraham Lincoln is world-famous. “It is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.” However, the differences among different groups of people are not addressed here. As we all know all the people are not of one group. There are many groups with different interests. Each group tries to protect its interests. Each group will try to get the attention of the government to its needs.
a. All interest groups are of similar. Therefore it is difficult to compare them.
b. An illiterate farmer or laborer can’t present his problems in a convincing way.

But an educated industrialist or businessman has the capacity to present things in an appropriate manner. People do not present problems individually but collectively as a group. Interest groups form organizations to get their interests protected and to bring government’s attention to the things they like. For example, industrialists have organizations like FICCI and ASSOCHAM. Farmers have organizations like ‘Shetkari Sanghatana’. Workers have their unions. There are also many Tribal Organizations and other environmental, social and religious organizations.

Question 23.
in a democratic government, political parties play a big role. What are political parties?
Answer:
They are organizations that want to form government through elections using legitimate means. They are formed with the intention of getting political power and using that to do things that are of special interest to them. Political parties have some ideas about how the society should be. They represent the interests of different groups. Different groups also try to influence political parties. When some groups feel that their interests are not served, they form new parties. Or they work as pressure groups and try to influence the government. Some political organizations try to get power but they do not get it. Such organizations can be seen only as certain institutions.

Max Weber says that Caste is concerned with economic matters, communal organizations worry about social matters and political parties think about getting power (authority). Each party has certain aims. It will try all it can to achieve these aims.

Not every organization has the power to influence government. It is the strong sections of the society that exert pressure on the rulers. These sections form organizations based on caste, race, and gender. They influence government. Social organizations and interest groups play a big role in democracy.

Question 24.
Discuss the Constitutional laws and social justice.
Answer:
There is an important difference between law and justice. The essence of law is force. Law has means to enforce it. The power of the nation is also behind it. But the essence of justice is righteousness. Law works through a chaff of authority: All laws and authorities come from the Constitution.

Constitution is the basic document that forms the laws of a nation. The basic law of India is the Indian Constitution. All other laws are made and enforced by the authorities specified by the Constitution.

The Constitution has made a chain (Hierarchy) of courts. It is these courts that interpret laws when there is a controversy. The highest court in India is the Supreme Court. It is the Supreme Court that gives the ultimate interpretation of the Constitution.

The Supreme Court has tried in many ways to expand the fundamental rights given in the Constitution. The right to life and the right to freedom are given by the 21^st article. They were expanded to include right to livelihood, health, housing, education, and dignity. In. the different judgments given by the Supreme Court the meaning of ‘life’ has been expanded to include many things. Life is not just physical existence. Such interpretations are beneficial to the exploited and persecuted people. It also helped to free people working as slaves and rehabilitating them. It also prevented activities harmful to the environment, maintenance of primary health and imparting primary education.

Keeping the Directive Principles within the purview of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court declared Right to Equality as a fundamental right. This was a relief to many plantations and agricultural workers. Constitution is not just a pointer telling the people what should be, or should not be, done for social justice. It has the strength to expand the meaning and importance of social justice. Cultural organizations have helped the Courts and authorities to interpret fundamental rights and directive principles to suit the contemporary understanding of things.

Law courts are places where controversial issues come for solutions. Constitution remains as a means of renewing political power and it directs authorities towards social welfare. The Indian Constitution has the strength to help people. It is baaed on the fundamental principles of social justice. The diredive principle regarding grama panchayat was presented in the Look Sabah by K. Santaram. After the 73rd Amendment of 1992 it became a constitutional law.

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Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Structural Change

Structural Change Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When did the tea industry begin in India?
a) 1850
b) 1851
c) 1880
d) 1881
Answer:
1851

Question 2.
Who was the Chairman of the National Planning Committee formed in 1939?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) K.T. Shah
c) M.N. Roy
d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 3.
………. means a specific region, where people live in unity and ruled by a sovereign government.
Answer:
Nation-State

Question 4.
Production of goods with the help of machinery run by steam or electricity is called ………..
Answer:
Industrialization

Question 5.
In 1938 the Indian National Congress formed a National Planning Committee with ………. as its chairman.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehm

Question 6.
………… said that when villages and cities have mutual contacts, Indian villages will be subject to urbanization.
Answer:
M.S.A. Rao

Question 7.
The knowledge of ………. opened a way for Indians to the global market.
Answer:
English

Question 8.
In 1690 an English merchant named ……… made arrangements to take three Indian villages on lease. 1690 …………
Answer:
jobChamock

Question 9.
In 1698, the British built ………. for defence.
Answer:
Fort William

Question 10.
Match the following.

A	B
De-industrialization	Division of Bengal
Swadeshi Movement	Traditional industries
JobChamock	Urbanization
M.S.A. Rao	Hugli

Answer:

A	B
De-industrialization	Traditional industries
Swadeshi Movement	Division of Bengal
JobChamock	Hugli
M.S.A. Rao	Urbanization

Question 11.
What are the features of capitalism?
Answer:
Capitalism is an economic system in which means of production like factory, land, etc. are in the hands of private individuals. Capitalist production of goods is aimed at the market, its aim is profit. “Profit, maximum profit” is the slogan of capitalism. Capitalism has the capacity and energy to grow and spread. These are the tendencies that capitalism showed even at the beginning. To get maximum profit, capitalism modernized production, using technology and labour.

Question 12.
Explain the relation between colonialism and nationalism.
Answer:
They are contradictory concepts. Democratic rights are anti-colonial. Colonial rule is foreign rule. Nationalism shows the freedom of the people and their sovereignty. Our leaders knew this paradox. They declared that freedom is our birthright. They fought for our political and economic freedom.

Question 13.
What is colonialism?
Answer:
Colonialism is the rule imposed by one country on another. Here, colonialism is considered a foreign rule. But actually foreign rule is only a part of colonialism. Colonialism is, in fact, a structure and a system. It is a robbery organized by the capitalist countries to exploit other countries.

Question 14.
Describe how the industrialization process in Britain affected India during the colonial rule.
Answer:
As a matter of fact, British industrialization proved to be destructive to India. It led to the ruin of Indian industries. The urban centres in India were also destroyed. The machine-made goods from England • flooded our markets and our goods could not compete with the cheap goods from England. Slowly the traditional industries in India were ruined. The conquest of the Native States by Britain also affected our industries adversely. Industries that produced top quality goods for the kings and queens and nobles and the rich were closed down. The workshops attached to the palaces also stopped working. Thus there was over-all ruin of Indian industries during the colonial rule.

Question 15.
Compare the industrialization and urbanization of England with India.
Answer:
Sociologists have often discussed the paradoxes in colonialism. They have compared the growth of Western industries and the prosperous Middle Class with the experiences in India. These studies show that industrialization is not merely producing goods using machines. It also includes the rise of new social classes and their interrelationships. Industrialization in India brought many changes in the Indian society and the studies discuss them.

Question 16.
Discuss the role played by independent India in encouraging industrialization.
Answer:
Independent India did a lot to boost industrialization. Even during the freedom struggle, our national leaders were aware of the need for industrializing India. India was exploited by the colonial rulers. The leaders believed that pre-colonial India was rich and prosperous and it was the colonial rule that made India poor and backward. They thought they could build a strong economic base by reviving the old industries.

The Swadeshi Movement, which was a result of the Division of Bengal, exhorted people to boycott British goods and use swadeshi goods. This boosted our industrialization. This tradition was taken up by the government of India, after freedom. People were made aware that only industrialization^pould lift them from the pit of poverty into which they had fallen during the colonial rule.

Leaders understood that only the development of heavy industries, machine manufactured goods, growth of the public sector and the co-operative sector, could bring about industrialization in the country. Nehru said that a modern and prosperous India must be built on giant steel factories, huge dams and power stations. Leaders like Nehru also gave importance to industrialization, it was given priority in the Five Year Plans.

Question 17.
Describe the urbanization process in independent India
Answer:
First of all, we see that people from villages are migrating into towns and cities seeking employment. They leave their family members behind in the villages and stay in cities. Most of these people, nearly 75%, who work in the cities, send money to their relatives in the villages. They also visit their kith and kin 4 or 5 times a year. A good number of people have also migrated to foreign cities. For example, many people from Gujarati villages have gone to cities in Africa and Britain. They build beautiful homes in their villages and invest their money in land and industry. They have also founded educational institutions and other Trusts. Secondly, in the villages close to the industrial cities, there is another kind of influence from urbanization.

For example, when a township like Bhilai was established in the middle of many villages, some villages were completely wiped out. Land belonging to many other villages was also taken by making the people vacate the* homes. To those lands, people from other places migrated. This increased the demand for houses. There developed a market. There were also problems of clash between the locals and those who came from faraway places.
Thirdly, some villages located around the cities were absorbed into the cities making them part of the metropolitan or megacities. Entire lands, which were used for cultivation and grazing, were now used for city development.

Question 18.
Discuss the differences in colonization before the capitalist system and during the capitalist system.
Answer:
Sonne foreigners came to India, looted its wealth and resources and went back to their countries. They attacked and established their authority here before the start of the capitalist system. Britain and some other colonial powers came to India during the capitalist time. There were big differences between the colonization before capitalism and after it. those came to India before capitalism just to loot her wealth. They also took tributes from Indian rulers. They did not interfere with the Indian economic system. They went back to their homes after looting India and collecting tributes. Many of those who attacked India later became Indians, like the Mughals. They also lost their foreign traits.

Question 19.
Write a note on the National Planning Committee.
Answer:
1939, the Indian National Congress formed a National Planning Committee. Its chairman was Jawaharlal Nehru and its General Secretary was K.T. Shaw. Although the Committee started working in 1939 itself, Nehru was arrested by the British. In the meantime, the Second World War started. In spite of all these setbacks, the Committee went ahead with its work. There were 27 sub-committees which were grouped into 8. The Committee gave importance to the following areas:
a) Agriculture
b) Industry
c) Profession and Population
d) Exchange and Finance
e) Transport and Communication
f) Health and Housing
g) Education
h) The role of women in the planned economic system. The Committee made a plan for the comprehensive development of India. Even before India had got its independence, many of the subcommittees submitted ad-hoc reports or their final reports. During the 1948 – 49 period, all these reports were published. In March 1950, the government appointed a Planning Commission. Its Chairman was Nehru. It is this Commission that prepared the Five Year Plan.

Question 20.
Describe the beginning of industrialization in India.
Answer:
Industrialization started in India with the establishment of plantation industry. Indigo, tea and coffee were the main plantation industries. Tea plantations were developed mainly in Assam, Bengal, South India and Himachal Pradesh. Government gave all kinds of help to the British plantation owners. It even collaborated with the owners to hire labourers and to force them to work. The owners used all kinds of unjust means to make the workers do maximum work for their own profits. Democratic laws of human values did not mean anything to these profit-motivated British.

Tea industry in India dates back to 1851. Most of the tea plantations were in Assam. At the beginning of the 20th century, some 6 lakh labourers worked in these plantations. Since the population of Assam was small, labourers from other provinces were brought. They were promised high wages by agents because it was risky to work in plantations due to different kinds of diseases including malaria. But owners were not ready to give high wages. They tried cheating and forced to get labourers into their plantations. To help the owners, government also passed some penal laws.

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Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Suggestions for Project Work

Suggestions for Project Work Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Research?
Answer:
Research is a search. Through research, the boundaries of knowledge are expanded. There are some differences between what we read about research and the actual research. Research is something that do after entering a field. First, we choose a problem or a question. To get the answer we go into the field.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the research method?
Answer:
A most important factor in research is choosing an appropriate method for it. Once the problem or question is selected, the next step is deciding the research method.
There are different research methods. They include interviews, observations, surveys and so, son. Sometimes it is possible that the answer to the research problem may not be found by following just one method. In that case, researchers may have to use more than one research method.

When choosing a research method, some factors need special consideration. These factors include technical criteria to practical considerations. Technical criterion means the relation between the questions and the style. Practical consideration includes the time available for the research, the availability of documents and records, the circumstances at the places where research is to be done and so on.

Question 3.
What are the three methods of data collection?
Answer:
The first method interviews. By conducting interviews with different students in different schools you can collect data. You can ask for their honest opinions. You can compare the answers of one group of students with another group from another school. The second method is observation. You can use this method for research. For this you may have to spend time in different kinds of schools, schools for boys, schools for girls and co-education schools: You should then observe how students behave in these different places. By making close observations, you may be able to get the answer to your research problem.

The third method is survey, For this a questionnaire is prepared. The questionnaire should be made in such a way that students should be able to give their franks opinions about their schools. After that, an equal number of the questionnaire should be distributed to each kind of school. After getting them filled, collect them and analyze the answers.

Question 4.
What are the difficulties faced in a research?
Answer:
Researchers may find certain practical difficulties. Imagine that you are doing a survey as part of the research. First of all, you have to get enough copies of the questionnaire. For this you need money, time and efforts. To distribute the questionnaire among the students you will need permission from their teachers. The first time, you may be denied permission. You may be asked to come back at a later date.

Even if you distribute copies of the questionnaire, many students may not fill them and return them. Sometimes they may leave some questions unanswered. Then you will have to decide how to solve.the problem. Or you may take only those copies which are fully answered, and reject those which are only partly answered. You should be able to face any problem that might come up during your research work.

Question 5.
Describe the features of survey method.
Answer:
Survey is the method of collecting information directly from people by making answer a questionnaire you have prepared. Depending on the subject, the number of persons included in the survey could be small or big. After preparing the questionnaire, there are two ways of getting answers. One is reading the questions to the respondent and getting immediate answers. The other is distributing copies of the questionnaire and collecting them later with answers. There are advantages and disadvantages to the survey method.

The biggest advantage is that you can include many people in the survey. Since there are many respondents representing different groups of people, the researcher may get comprehensive answers, One disadvantage of this method is that you can’t make changes in the questionnaire once it is prepared and copies taken, if the questions are understood in a wrong way by the respondent, it will reflect in the answers. If the respondent gives an interesting answer, the researcher can’t ask more questions to get more things from him. Questionnaires are like photographs taken and they can’t be changed at will.

Question 6.
Describe the interview method.
Answer:
Interview is quite different from survey. In survey, information is collected from different people answering the same type of questions. But in
interview, information comes from individuals. In survey there are many people, interview is limited to a few.

Interviews can be structured (planned) or (unstructured) unplanned. When questions are ready-made, the interview will be structured. But when questions are developed on the spot, depending on the answers of the respondent, it will be called unstructured.

Interviews can be intense. The researcher may have to spend a lot of time with the interviewee. Sometimes a person may have to be interviewed more than once.
Interview is an old method of research. In this, researcher can renew the questions, alter them and include new questions. He can forward by correcting, altering and adding. But the problem here is that only a few people can be interviewed. Only opinions of a few selected people can be obtained. This is the major defect of interview method.

Question 7.
Explain the Observation method,
Answer:
Observation involves orderly observation and precise recording. Here the researcher observes what happens in the circumstances which are related to the chosen subject. This may look an easy method. But practically it is not so. The researcher should be able to decide among the things he observes, without prejudice, what is relevant to the research and what is irrelevant.

Sometimes it is possible that things that did not happen might be more interesting and important than the things actually observed. Imagine your research topic is “How are people belonging to different classes making use of certain public places.” The poor or middle-class people may have never come to these public places: For example how many people might have stayed in “The Gateway Hotel at Marine Drive, Kochi? Imagine how important is the thing that has not happened!

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Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 The Challenges of Cultural Diversity

The Challenges of Cultural Diversity Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Individuals develop their sense of being (identity) through
Answer:
Socialization

Question 2.
A large group of people that successfully claims legal monopolistic rights to use force within a particular region is called ……….. by Max Weber.
a) community
b) country
c) nation-states
d) nation
Answer:
Nation

Question 3.
In 1953, under the leadership of …….. a State Reorganization Commission was appointed,
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) DrB.R.Ambedkgr
c) Faisal Ali
d) Drs. Radhakrishnan
Answer:
Fazal Ali

Question 4.
Who was the Congress leader that fasted demanding a new Andhra State based on language?
a) Sriramulu
b) Faisal Ali
c) Gandhiji
d) Nehru
Answer:
Sriramulu

Question 5.
“Minorities are an explosive power. If it explodes the entire nation will crumble.” who said it?
Answer:
Dr.Ambedkar

Question 6.
Article… says that all groups of people will have the right to protect their language, script and culture,
a) Article 27
b) Article 28
c) Article 29
d) Article 30
Answer:
Twenty-nine (29)

Question 7.
Article … says that all minorities will have the right to establish and run educational institutions to suit their interests.
a) Article 27
b) Article 28
c) Article 29
d) Article 30
Answer:
Thirty (30)

Question 8.
Narrow mindedness based on religious dogma, prompting violence is, …………..
a) communalism
b) Casteism
c) Regionalism
d) Secularism
Answer:
communalism

Question 9.
Match the following.

A	B
FasalAli	Constitution
Sriramulu	State Reorganization Commission
Ambedkar	Andhra Pradesh

Answer:

A	B
FasalAli	State Reorganization Commission
Sriramulu	Andhra Pradesh
Ambedkar	Constitution

Question 10.
What is the meaning of cultural diversity?
Answer:
Diversity means difference. When we say that India is land of cultural diversities we mean that there are different kinds of social groups and communities here. These communities are formed on the basis cultural symbols like language, religion, sect, caste, and jati. When these communities live as part of a nation, there is bound to be cooperation and confrontation.

Question 11.
Why does cultural diversity bring strong challenges?
Answer:
In communities united by language or religion, there will be strong cultural bonds. These bonds are capable of organizing people into strong groups. Challenges are not raised merely by cultural differences. Economic and social inequalities also make problems complex. When steps are taken to end the injustices to one group, other groups often object to such steps. When OBCs were given reservations, the upper caste people came out protesting. Things become worse when limited resources like river water, jobs, and government funds are to be shared.

Question 12.
What are the factors that work against the unity and? indivisibility of India?
Answer:
There are many evil powers that work against the unity of our land. Communal riots, jati-fights, demand for separate countries and regions, etc. are activities against the unity of the country. It is true that many people do not have any patriotic feelings. When we examine the past history of India, we will realize that these kinds of divisive tendencies are not new in the country. Even before independence, such problems existed.

Question 13.
What are the bases of community’s being (identity)?
Answer:
bases of community’s being are birth and inclusion.

Question 14.
What are the features of community being (identity)?
Answer:
Some of the important features of community being are the qualities of being ‘accidental’, unconditional and un-escapable. These qualities emotionally weld an individual to the community. The community gives meaning to the world of the individual and gives the awareness of who he is. That is why when the community is threatened, individuals react emotionally and violently.

The other thing about community is its universality. The members of a particular community will have one land of birth, one mother tongue, one family and one faith. This may not be true for all. But generally, this is the case.

Question 15.
Define nation.
Answer:
A political community with some prerequisites is called a nation. A fixed region, people, a government, and sovereignty are the important factors that make up a nation. A nation has political and legal institutions to control the people who live in that region. Max Weber defines a nation as a large group of people that successfully claims legal, monopolistic rights to use force within a particular region.

Question 16.
“Desom” is different from community. Comment.
Answer:
The question raised here is whether design is different from Tribal group, religious community or regional community. There is no ideological difference between design and community. Any large community can form a de som any time. But it may . not be possible for a particular community to form a de som.

Question 17.
Describe the national policy of integration.
Answer:
India is a land of many languages, regions, and religions with different habits and customs. It is a land of diversity. Integrating the different people here is not an easy task. In some countries, they use force to integrate the people. They suppress regional, religious and linguistic minorities and force them to accept the cultural values and rules of the majority community. This is very unfair. But in India national integration is done keeping the linguistic, regional and religious diversities intact. We seek unity in diversity.

Question 18.
“The right and practical way is allowing the cultural diversities to co-exist.” Give your comment.
Answer:
Countries that suppress minorities alienate them. They develop enmity and hatTed for the nation. Very often such suppressions bring the opposite result, instead of destroying the communal spirit of the suppressed, it increases that spirit. The best way is to allow the cultural difference to co-exist.

Question 19.
Discuss the India approach to communal being.
Answer:
India has a positive approach to communal being since it is a nation of different faiths and beliefs. From the very beginning, India had accepted equal treatment to all manners of people. Although some leaders of the majority community wanted India to be a Hindu nation, the leaders of the country did not approve it. India stresses national integration. The Constitution declares India to be a secular State. But the fact remains that we have not been able to integrate ourselves fully. Even now we have evil things like “Jati’ in our midst.

• India gives strong protection to the religious minorities.
• In India, there is no shortage of ideas or rules. But the difficulty is inputting the rules into practice.
• In spite of our limitations, India is a good example of a secular, democratic State.

Question 20.
Critically examine Regionalism in India.
Answer:
Regionalism has taken deep roots in India. Regionalism comes from one’s loyalty to language, region, religion, culture, and tribe. When all these things are concentrated in one place, the regional tendencies grow fast. The feeling that they are exploited or neglected makes regionalism flare-up. It is hoped that Federalism will be a solution to the problems raised by regionalism.

Question 21.
How were the Indian States formed? Was language the only criterion?
Answer:
Even before independence, the idea that States should be organized on a linguistic basis was discussed. In the 1920s, this idea was approved by the Indian National Congress. Provincial Units of the Congress were made on linguistic basis. Thus there were the unit of Marathi speakers, Oriya speakers and so oh. Gandhiji and other Congress leaders promised that after independence States would be formed on language basis.

But when independence was got, in Congress itself there were different opinions. Some leaders felt that if States are formed on linguistic basis, it would promote regionalism, causing the nation to disintegrate. Nehru, Patel and Rajaji opposed the formation of States on language basis. But a good number of leaders stood firm in their former decision. In this situation of uncertainty, people began to agitate demanding States based on language. Bengalis, Tamils and Telugus joined the agitation.

It was in the Telugu speaking areas that this agitation was the strongest. Sriramulu, a Congress leader and Gandhian, started a fast and he died. His death made the agitation flare-up. People fought on the streets. Finally, the government had to grant Andhra State. In 1953, a State Reorganization Commission under Fazal Ali was appointed. The Commission gave its report. On 1 November 1956, the report was enforced. According to this, 14 States and 5 Centrally administered regions came into existence.

Some leaders including Nehru were afraid that the division of States on linguistic basis might cause disintegration of the country. But things happened the other way. The linguistically formed States helped in unifying the country. It also strengthened democracy. Above all, the language States approved the concept of unity in diversity.

It should, however, be noted that not all states were formed on language basis. In 2000, three States – Chhatisgarh, Uttaranchal, and Jharkhand – were formed. Language did not have a role in their formation. Here the considerations were cultural and economic. India now has 29 States and 2 Central Areas. By merely forming States based on language, regional feelings won’t be satisfied. There is a need for a guarantee for their existence. This is done by the Constitution. It defines clearly the powers jf the States and the Centre.

Question 22.
In India, how has the Constitution allotted administrative subjects?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has divided the subjects into three: Central List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Central Government has full authority to make laws on the subjects in the Central list. The State government can legislate on their subjects. In the Concurrent List, both States and the Centre can legislate. In the Upper House of the Parliament, members are chosen from the State Assemblies. Moreover, when occasion demands, Committees and Commissions are appointed to determine center-state relations.

Question 23.
What are the problems faced by Federalism in India?
Answer:
Although – Federalism is functioning satisfactorily, many problems and arguments are going on. Things got worse from the 1990s, after implementing the liberalization policies. When Indians and foreigners invest in the country, regional equality was not kept. Many States were ignored. Private investors want to invest in the States which are already rich in industries. They do that because in the developed States there will be roads and such other infrastructure facilities essential for industries.

Market economy will only widen the gap between the developed and developing or under-developed States. In short, liberalization has created regional inequalities and increased them. The only solution to this problem is government and the public sector taking the initiative and do things to bring the underdeveloped States at par with the developed ones.

Question 24.
What are some of the basic problems we face?
Answer:
Some of the basic problems we face are:
a) Secularism Vs Communalism
b) Majority Vs Minority
The problems of secularism and communalism are related to the religious stance of the government. India is a secular State and communalism has no place here. The Majority Vs Minority problems are related to issues of number – a huge group on one side and certain smaller groups on the other side. There are suggestions to the government how it should act towards different religious-linguistic cultural groups which are unequal. India has protected the interests of its minorities through the Constitution itself.

Question 25.
Who are the minorities?
Answer:
Sociologically speaking, minorities are not just people less in number, but also those who are disadvantaged in different ways. Therefore rich people with special rights can’t be called minorities. At the most we can say that they are minorities with special rights. Minorities actually mean people who are less in number and also suffer from certain problems. Sociologically speaking, a small number of people with sufferings of some kind can be called a minority. Statistically, other minorities are those who are left- ‘ handed, born on 29 February and so on.

But they are not considered minorities. There are minorities who suffer in one sense but are economically well off, The Parsis and Sikhs in India are minorities but they are well off economically. But culturally, their condition is not very good. Before the vast majority of Hindus, their number is very small.

Question 26.
What is Communalism?
Answer:
Communalism is narrow-mindedness in which a person thinks that only his religion is right and others are wrong. It often leads to clashes. Those who are blinded by communalism consider followers of other religions as low and even as enemies. Communalism is very dangerous as it often leads to clashes between followers of different religions. It was communalism that caused India’s partition.

Communalism comes from the word communal. If we look into the dictionary meaning of ‘communal’ it means ‘shared by all members of a community’ or ‘for common use’. But in India, it has acquired this negative meaning of blind adherence to one’s religion with enmity for other religions. A word with a positive meaning has been changed into negative meaning.

Question 27.
Codify the special features of communalists
Answer:
All communalists believe in a ‘being’ based on religion. They also show hatred towards followers of other religions. Communalists are often violent. They insult and attack people who do not follow their tenets. Communalism gives too much importance to religion. They believe that religion is above everything else. A person’s wealth, profession or political leanings are not at all important. Only his religion is important. The many similarities among religions and their followers are denied by communalists.

Question 28.
Write a note on the communal riots in India
Answer:
Communalism is an evil that spoils India. It is the source for all kinds*iaf conflicts. During communal riots, persons lose their human face and they become instruments in the hands of communal leaders. They become ready to do anything, to kill, rape or loot just to show their hatred for the other community. They justify their heinous crimes saying that they are taking revenge for what the other community had done to their ancestors or relatives in the past of present. Every region of India has become a prey to communal riots. The minority communities have suffered the most in these riots.

• In the riots, government and political parties have a big role.
• • The worst rioting after independence were witnessed in 1984 and 2002. In 1984 the riots were against the Sikh community, following the murder of Indira Gandhi. In 2002, there are anti-Muslim riots in Gujarat, following the burning 6f a train in Godhra. There were communal riots in India even during colonial rule. Many people believe that the riots were the results of the British policy of ‘Divide and Rule’.

Question 29.
What is secularism?
Answer:
Secularism is the principle of the separation of government institutions and persons mandated to represent the state from religious institutions and religious dignitaries. This is a concept that is related to modernity, science and rationalism. Instead of depending on religious dogma to understand the world, secularism suggests alternative methods.

Question 30.
What is the meaning of a ‘secular’ State (Nation)?
Answer:
In India, we use the word ‘secular1 as the opposite of communal. ‘Secular’ nation therefore means a nation that does not show any special liking forany particular religion. It is a concept against the narrow¬mindedness of communalists. Secularism not against any religion, but it does not have any special preference forany religion. All religions are equal in the eyes of a secular nation.

Question 31.
“India is loyal to secularism and at the same time it is also protecting the minorities.” Is this statement true?
Answer:
This statement istme. It may look paradoxical. On the one hand, we say we are secular. On the other hand, we protect the minorities by giving them special considerations. In India, such a policy is essential because of our peculiar situation. We must not forget that we have so many minority groups and unless they are protected they will be in danger. This paradoxical attitude of the Nation is a highly complex matter.

Question 32.
When we do stray away from the aims of the Nation?
Answer:
The nation strays away from its aims when its citizens are denied their legitimate rights. Despotic nations do not respect the human rights of their citizens. They either deny completely or seriously limit freedom of opinion, freedom of the media, political freedom, freedom from injustice, freedom to go to court etc. Corruption, inefficiency, lack of resources and so on spoil the image of a Nation. Because of these negative things, the institutions of the nation do not respond positively to the needs of the people. Thus often the nation moves away from its real aims. So we have to be vigilant.

Question 33.
What are citizen Groups?
Answer:
Citizenry (Citizen group) is whole body of citizens which goes beyond family, community, market, or region. Here individuals come on their own and form organizations and institutions. It is a field where citizens are active. Here individuals take up social problems and try to exert pressure on authorities for the welfare of people. It consists of voluntary organizations, political parties, media houses, labor organizations, religious organizations, and non-governmental organizations. It works for the common good of the citizens.

Question 34.
The Emergency (1975-77) was a big shock to the people of India. Examine this statement.
Answer:
The emergency declared by Indira Gandhi in 1975 was a big shock to the people. People came out strongly against the Emergency. This resulted in the formation of many citizen organizations. Many social organizations also came up during this period. Today the working of citizen organizations has extended to different spheres. Some of them are strong enough to influence national and international agencies.

Question 35.
Write a note on citizen groups and Right to Information.
Answer:
One of the important spheres where citizen groups work is in the area of Right to Information. This started in the villages of Rajasthan. In the 1990s, a Citizens’ Organization named Mazdoor-Kisan Sakti Sangham wanted to get the records showing how the government money for village development was spent. Soon such demands came from different parts of the country. In spite of the strong objections from officials, government was forced to pass the Right to Information Bill. This ensured that the government has obligations to the people and the country and people can demand information on things they want to know.

Question 36.
Give a description about the Right to Information Act.
Answer:
This Act was passed by the Parliament on 15 June 2005. On 13 October, it became law. With this, the people of India, except in Jammu-Kashmir, got the right to get government documents. Before this law came there were some other laws in India regarding the right of people for information. With the coming of the new law, all other laws of the past in this regard have become irrelevant. With this Law, anybody can seek information from authorities. In 30 days the authorities should reply to the requests. The law demands that each official should keep the information related to his office in the computer. This will help people to get quick replies. This Law empowers the citizens:

• To seek any kind of information.
• To get certified copies of documents related to the subject.
• To get copies as print or on disc, tape, floppy or video cassette.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Types of pollination in Commelina is
(a) chasmogamy
(b) geitonogamy
(c) xenogamy
(d) cleistogamy
Answer:
(d) cleistogamy

Question 2.
When pollen is transferred from another of a flower to stigma of the another flower of the of the same plant, it is referred to as
(a) allogamy
(b) xenogamy
(c) geitonogamy
(d) autogamy
Answer:
(c) geitonogamy

Question 3.
For plant breeding purposes: Pollens are stored at -196°C. What is the purpose behind it?
Answer:
Stored pollens can be used as pollen banks in crop breeding programmes.

Question 4.
Pollen tube enters the embryo sac through
(a) Integument
(b) Micropyle
(c) Calaza
(d) Funicle
Answer:
(b) Micropyle

Question 5.
In flowering plants, fertilization occur in
(a) Ovary
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Nucellus
(d) Ovule
Answer:
(b) Embryo sac

Question 6.
The source of food for developing embryo is
(a) Nucellus
(b) Ovule
(c) Endosperm
(d) Anther
Answer:
(c) Endosperm

Question 7.
Out of megaspre tetrad, the functional megaspore is
(a) Any megaspore
(b) Middle megaspore
(c) Micropylar megaspore
(d) Chalazal megaspre
Answer:
(d) Chalazal megaspre

Question 8.
How many megaspore mothe cell are produced in a nuclellus
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 9.
During the development of monosporic development of embryo sac, the nucleus of the functional megaspore divides
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Onetime
(d) Repeatedly
Answer:
(b) Three times

Question 10.
Cross pollination has an advantage of
(a) Mutation
(b) polyploidy formation
(c) Genetic recombination
(d) Crossing over
Answer:
(c) Genetic recombination

Question 11.
Unisexual flowers prevent
(a) Pollination
(b) Breeding
(c) Self-pollination
(d) Cross fertilization
Answer:
(c) Self-pollination

Question 12.
The function of the filiform apparatus is
(a) To nourish the pollen grain
(b) To guide the entry of pollen tube
(c) To develop pollen tube
(d) To carry pollen tube through style
Answer:
(b) To guide the entry of pollen tube

Question 13.
Find the odd one. Hilum, Funicle, Intine, Integuments
Answer:
Intine

Question 14.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
(a) Coleorrhiza – Hollow foliar structure
(b) Perisperm- Remanents of nucellus
(c) Proembryo – mature embryo
Answer:
(b) Perisperm – Remanents of nucellus

Question 15.
Choose the correct answer. The layer of microsporangium that nourishes the developing pollen grains is
(a) Endothecium
(b) Tapetum
(c) Middle layer
(d) Epidermis
Answer:
(b) Tapetum

Question 16.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is.
(a) 7 nucleate 8 celled
(b) 8 nucleate 8 celled
(c) 7 nucleate 7 celled
(d) 8 nucleate 7 celled
Answer:
(d) 8 nucleate 7 celled

Question 17.
The process of formation of fruits without fertilization is called.
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Apomixis
(d) Autogamy
Answer:
(b) Parthenocarpy

Question 18.
Identify the wrong statements regarding post – fertilization development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm
(d) The ovule develops into seed
Answer:
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen

Question 19.
Dicot emdryo consists of
(a) radicle and plumule
(b) radicle;plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm
(c) radicle and plumule, cotyledons and tegmen
(d) radicle andplumule, cotyledons tegmentesta
Answer:
(b) radicle,plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm

Question 20.
These process are necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte from pollen mother cell
(a) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions
(b) one meiotic cell division and one meiotic cell division
(c) two meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division
(d) two meiotic cell division
Answer:
(a) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions

Question 21.
A bilobeddithecus anther has 100 microspore mother cells per micro sporangium. How many male gametophytes this anther can produce?
Answer:
400 male gametophytes

Question 22.
An anther with malfunctioning tapetum often failsto produce viable male gametophytes. Give one reason.
Answer:
Tapetum nourishes developing pollen grains

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pollen grains are well preserved as fossil for many years due to some characteristics

1. Name the chemical substance present in pollen wall promote such preservation
2. Give reasons.

Answer:

1. sporopollenin
2. It is the most resistant organic material and can withstand high temperatures, strong acids, and alkali. No enzymes can degrade sporopollenin.

Question 2.
One time fertilization is the characteristic feature of majority of plants but angiosperm show two times of fertilization

1. Two fusion occurs are different. Name it and write down the number of nuclei involved in such process
2. Name the products and ploidy.

Answer:

1. Syngamy. Two nuclei Triple fusion, three nuclei
2. Zygote (2n), PEN (3n)

Question 3.
Commelina, viola, and oxalis that carries both chasmogamous and Cliestogamy flowers.

1. Find out the main differences between them.
2. Give the significance of Cliestogamy.

Answer:

1. Chasmogamous flowers with exposed anthers and stigma. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.

2. significance of Cliestogamy:

• It ensures self pollination.
• Purity of characters is maintained.

Question 4.

1. Geitonogamy is a functional cross-pollination but not genetically. Justify?
2. In Papaya, Autogamy and Geitonogamy do not occur. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination because transfer pollen takesplace between different flowers of same plant that bear same genetic makeup.

2. Papaya is dioecios plants, because, the male and female flowers are present on different plants, which prevent autogamy and geitonogamy.

Question 5.
Wind pollination is common in grasses and water pollination in vallisneria. Give the features of these plants to facilitate pollination.
Answer:
1. Grasses

• Pollen grains are light weight and non-sticky
• Stigama is feathery.

2. Vallisneria

• Flowers do not produce nector and fragrance.
• Female flowers reach the surface of water by long stalk.

Question 6.
In most plants continuous self pollination leads to inbreeding depression while in others certain devices that help to discourage self pollination. Give any four devices.
Answer:

1. Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not at the same time.
2. Another and stigma are placed at different positions.
3. Self-incompatibility.
4. Production of unisexual flowers.

Question 7.
The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. What is its role?
Answer:
Micropyle facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed during germination.

Question 8.
Draw the diagram of a typical dicot embryo and label the parts like plumule, cotyledons, radicle, and root cap.
Answer:

Question 9.
Observe the developmental stages given below and answer the following.

1. Name the process.
2. Label the stages A, B, C & D

Answer:

1. Embryogenesis (Formation of embryo)
2. A-proembryo B-globular stage C-heart shaped stage D-mature stage

Question 10.
Apomictic seeds are important in agriculture. Do you agree? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes. These seeds are formed without fertilisation hence there is no genetic variation .This feature is helpful to preserve the desirable characters for many years.

Question 11.
Give the technical terms for the following

1. Produce seeds without fertilization
2. Persistent nucellus

Answer:

1. Parthenocarpy
2. Perisperm

Question 12.
Emasculation may not be necessary. Yet bagging is necessary. Justify giving the condition when such a thing can happen.
Answer:
When the flower chosen is unisexual (female), there is no need for emasculation. Yet bagging is necessary to prevent contamination of the stigma with unwanted pollen grains.

Question 13.
Banana is a true fruit and also a parthenocarpic fruit. Justify.
Answer:
Since banana fruit is formed from ovary it is true fruit. It is parthenocarpic because the ovary develops into fruit without fertilization.

Question 14.
Arrange the following terms in the correct development sequence: Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell
Answer:
Sporogenous tissue → Pollen mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Pollen grain.

Question 15.
Some peoples live in area are subjected to allergic disease due to pollen grains.

1. Give an example for plants that produce pollen of above type?
2. Give an example for two disease?

Answer:

1. Parthenium (Carrot grass)
2. Asthma and Bronchitis

Question 16.
Typical angiosperm embryo sac is 7 celled and 8 nucleate. This condition occurs due to the development of megaspore mother cell

1. How many meiotic and mitotic division takes place
2. What you mean by monosporic development?

Answer:

1. Single meiotic division and 3 mitotic division.
2. Single functional megaspore develops into mature embryo sac.

Question 17.
Pollen allergy that causes chronic respiratory disorders in men like asthma and bronchitis. Name the causative plant.
Answer:
Parthenium or carrot grass

Question 18.
Some pollen grains cannot germinate on stigmatic surface due to the loss of viability

1. Name the factors influence the viability of pollen
2. How do the pollen grains can keep up for many years

Answer:

1. Temperature and humidity
2. Pollen grains are kept in Pollen Bank at-196 degree Celsius in liquid nitrogen.

Question 19.
Pollen tube growth occurs through the stylar region and reach micropyie of ovule. Name the special cellular thickening that guides Pollen tube
Answer:
Filiform apparatus

Question 20.
Pollengrains of many plants are found to be allergic.

1. Do they have any benefits other than the involvement in reproduction? Explain
2. Give examples.

Answer:
1. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. In recent years pollen tablets are used as food supplements. It is used in western countries in the form of syrup and tablets. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race horses.

2. Parthenium, acasia

Question 21.
Zygote development leads to the formation of embryo.

1. Name the nutritive tissue that helps in the development of embryo
2. What will be the ploidy of such a tissue

Answer:

1. endosperm
2. endosperm is triploid

Question 22.
Suppose you are given four flowers namely maize, vallisneria, sunflower, and zostera.

1. State the mode of pollination in each flower.
2. Differentiate between cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.

Answer:

1. Maize-wind pollination
Vallisnaria-water pollination Sunflower – insect pollination

2. Cliestogamous – closed flower
Chamogamous – opened flower

Question 23.
A close relationship exist between a species of moth and the plant Yucca, where both species moth and Yucca cannot complete their life cycles without each other. Justify it.
Answer:
The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary of the Yucca flower. Flower in turn gets cross pollinated by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds starts developing.

Question 24.
Coconut and groundnut are oil yielding crops, point out the difference in the structure of seed.
Answer:
Coconut is an endospermous seed. Reserve food materials like fat, oil, etc. are stored in endosperm, in which the prominent part is endosperm and small sized embryo is situated at one end of the endosperm.

Question 25.
Seeds are formed in angiosperms when male and female gametes get fused. But in some plants seeds are produced without the fusion of gametes.

1. Name the process,
2. Comment.

Answer:
1. Apomixis

2. Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction which mimics sexual reproduction. Seeds are produced from a diploid egg cell without reduction division and fertilization. Nucellar tissue surrounding the embryosac develops into an embryo.

Question 26.
In market, seedless grapes are high priced than seeded grapes. Give the method used to develop the former.
Answer:
The seedless grapes are developed through induced parthenocarpy.

Question 27.
Plant A with combined desired characters that are inherited from parents. Plant B with desired characters are pure. Find out the types of pollination leads to accurance of characters in both A & B.
Answer:
In plant A, cross-pollination leads to the occurance of mixing of characters while in Plant B self pollination and self-fertilisation results the pure character.

Question 28.
If the diploid chromosome number of a plant is 24. Find out the number of chromosomes in synergid, Antipodal, and endosperm.
Answer:
Here 2n=24, n=12 so the number of chromosomes in synergids and antipodals are 12 each. But endosperm is triploid, chromosome number is 36.

Question 29.
Pollination is aided by biotic and abiotic agents. Identify the type of pollination in Vallisneria, coconut, and grass.
Answer:

• Vallisneria -water pollination
• Coconut and grass-wind pollination.

Question 30.
Give the technical terms for the following

1. Produce seeds without fertilization
2. Persistent nucellus
3. Cotyledons of grass family
4. Protective sheath of radical.

Answer:

1. Parthenocarpy
2. Perisperm
3. Scutellum
4. Coleorhizae

Question 31.
Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
Answer:
This is because the embryo develops only after the formation of endosperm. So the zygote wait for endosperm formation which supplies food material for developing embryo.

Question 32.
In some plants self-pollination is prevented by genetic mechanism of either pollen or pistil

1. Name the process
2. Why does such process not lead to seed formation?

Answer:

1. Self incompatibility
2. It is because of interaction between the chemicals of the pollen and those of stigma (Pollen-pistil interaction)

Question 33.
If one can induce parthenicarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Answer:
Watermelon, Orange and lemon because in these fruits the seeds are scattered within their edible parts and if seed are removed they become more valuable.

Question 34.
Embryosac or female gametophyte of angiospemn is 7 celled and 8 nucleate How many haploid cells are present in micropylar and chalazal part of female gametophyte of a flowering plant? Name them.
Answer:
Chalazal-Antipodals3, micropylar- Synergids 2, Egg cell 1.

Question 35.
If you squeeze seed of orange you might observe many embryos of different sizes? How is it possible?
Answer:
In orange, nucellar cells surrounding embryosac start dividing, protrude into embryosac and form many embryos.

Question 36.
If the chromosome number of plant species is 16. What would be the chromosome number and ploidy level of

1. microspore mother cell
2. endosperm cells

Answer:

1. Microspore mother cell 16
2. Endosperm cell 24

Question 37.
Observe the flow chart given below. Fill in the blank 1 and 2. Write the relevance of the process indicated as 1.

Answer:

1. Bagging
2. Artificial pollination In bagging the entry of unwanted pollen to stigmatic surface is prevented

Question 38.
Apple and mango are fruits. But they are formed in different ways. How are they formed?
Answer:
Apple is called as false fruit because thalamus develops into fruit. Here ovary is not involved. Mango is a fruit because it is formed from ovary

Question 39.
The synergids have special cellular thickening. Name the thickening and write its function.
Answer:
Filiform apparatus
It guides the pollen tube into the synergid

Question 40.
Analyse the table and fill in the blank.

Answer:

1. Thalamus also contributes to fruit formation
2. True fruit
3. Parthenocarpy
4. Banana

Question 41.

Answer:

1. a – Micropyle
2. b – Embryo sac
3. c – Nucellus
4. d – Chalaza

Question 42.
The embryo sac development in majority of flowering plants is monosporic development. Explain this type of embryo sac development.
Answer:
In this type a single megaspore mother cell of the nucellus differentiates in the ovule. Here Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form four megaspores, out of four, one megaspore becomes functional, while the other three degenerate. The functional megaspore develops into fully matured embryo sac.

Question 43.
Self incompatibility and dioecious condition are two devices for discouraging self pollination in plants. Explain the two.
Answer:
Self incompatibility – In this, pollen fail to germinate on stigma/pistil of the same flower. This is due genetic mechanism of either male parent or female parent. Dioecious condition – It is the occurrence of Male and female flowers on different plants.

Question 44.
Peculiarities of certain parts of the ovule are given below. Name the parts.

1. Protective envelops of the ovule
2. Stalk of the ovule
3. The layer of cells within the integuments
4. Junction between ovule and funicle

Answer:

1. Integuments
2. Funicle
3. Nucellus
4. Hilum

Question 45.
Geitonogamy and xenogamy are two types of pollination. Differentiate between the two.
Answer:
1. Geitonogamy
It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.

2. Xenogamy
It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant.

Question 46.
The inner most wall layer of microsporangium is tapetum. It is multinucleate. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Out of four wall layers of anther, tapetum is the innermost layer that nourishes the developing pollen grains.

Question 47.
Peculiarities of two types of seeds are given below. Identify the two types of seeds and give example for each.

1. Endosperm completely used by embryo.
2. Endosperm not completely used by embryo.

Answer:
1. Non-albuminous/Ex-albuminous
Eg: Pea, Groundunt, etc.

2. Albuminous
Eg: Wheat, Maize, Barley, Castor, etc.

Question 48.
The embryo of monocotyledons and dicotyledons show difference in structure. Explain the structure of dicot embryo.
Answer:
A dicot embryo has an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl.it terminates in plumule. The Cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl, it terminates at its lower end in radicle.

Question 49.
Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.

1. Give two examples of polyembryony.
2. How does polyembryony occur?

Answer:

1. Citrus and mango
2. Some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac is diploid that start dividing and develop into the embryos.

Question 50.
Mature pollen grain has a vegetative cell and a generative cell. Write the peculiarities of the two cells.
Answer:
Vegetative cell – It is the bigger cell possess abundant food reserve, Large irregularly shaped nucleus. Generative cell It is the small cell that floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell possess dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.

Question 51.
Endosperm develops from the primary endosperm nucleus. Explain the process of endosperm development.
Answer:
The PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions that give rise to free nuclei later cell wall formation occurs and becomes cellular eg coconut.

Question 52.
Geitonogamy is similar to autogamy. Justify this statement.
Answer:
In geitonogamy pollen grains come from the same plant. Both Autogamy and geitonogamy are come under self pollination.

Question 53.
Apomixis is an asexual form of reproduction,that mimics sexual reproduction. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:
Apomixis is a kind of asexual reproduction in which seeds are produced without fertilization. By retaining the seed habit, it mimics to sexual reproduction.

Question 54.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks.

1. Exine: Sporopollenin; Intine : …………..
2. Pistils fused: Syncarpous; Pistils free: ………….
3. Zygote : 2n ; Endosperm : …………..

Answer:

1. Cellulose and pectin
2. Apocarpous
3. 3n

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pollen grains in angiosperms ace not motile. They have to be carried to the stigma by external agents.

1. Name the process of transfer of pollen grains.
2. Write the name of three such agents.
3. Explain how it takes place in vallisnaria.

Answer:
1. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called pollination.

2. Wind water and animals

3. In vallisneria the female flowers reach the surface of water by long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released to the surface of water and are carried by water currents to the female flower and fertilization takes place.

Question 2.
Ramu while observing the C.S. of anther of Datura through a microscope, found fourwall layers.

1. Name the layers.
2. Write down its functions.

Answer:
1. layers:

• epidermis
• endothecium
• middle layer
• tapetum

2. The outer three layers perform protective function. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.

Question 3.
In flowering plants microspores are formed by meiosis and are haploid tetrads

1. How will you show the formation of microspores and male gametophyte from microspore mother cells
2. Write down the formation of embryosac and monosporic development?

Answer:
1. In the anther each cell of sporogenous tissue act as microspore mother cells (2n) which undergoes meiosis and forms four microspores (n) which are arranged in a cluster of four cells, ie.

microspore tetrad. When the anther matures the microspore dissociates from each other and develop into pollen grains. The pollen grains represents male gametophyte.

2. The nucellus of the ovule one cell is enlarged and act as megaspore mother cell (2n) which undergoes meiosis and results four megaspores (n) one of the megaspore is functional while the other three degenerates.

Only the functional megaspore develop into the embryo sac. Thus embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is called ‘monosporic’.

Question 4.
Fill up the blanks by observing the first pair.
1. Plumule: Shoot
………….: Root

2. Shoot apex: Coleoptile
Root apex: ………..

3. Ovary: Pericarp
Nucellus: ……………

4. Zygote: Embryo
…………: Endosperm

5. Syngamy: Zygote
……….: PEC

6. Ovule: Seed
…………: Seed coat

Answer:

1. Radicle
2. Coleorhiza
3. Perisperm
4. Primary Endosperm nucleus
5. Triple fusion
6. Integument

Question 5.
Diagrammatic representation of mature embryo sac is given.

1. Identify the cells that are involved in fertilization
2. Write the ploidy condition of that cells before and after fertilization.
3. Point out the role of ‘x’ in the diagram.

Answer:
1. Central cell (with two palar nuclei )and egg

2. Before fertilization – Central cell – 2n/ n+n
After fertilization – Central cell – 3n
Before fertilization – egg – n
After fertilization – egg. 2n.

3. Filiform apparatus – guides the pollen tubes into the synergids at the time of pollen germination prior to fertilization.

Question 6.
Double fertilization is the characteristic feature of angiosperms.

1. What does it mean?
2. Name the products and process.

Answer:1. It is the fertilization takes place two times.
2.

Question 7.
Haploidy, diploidy, and tripoloidy are the ploidy level of angiosperm plant parts from a seed is given below.

1. Find out the chromosome status of each part.

• Integuments outer, inner
• Nucellus
• Secondary nucleus
• Zygote

2. How will you give explanation to reduction of chromosome number from diploid to haploid?

Answer:
1. chromosome status of each part:

• Integuments outer and inner-2n(diploid)
• Nucellus-2n (diploid)
• Secondary nucleus-3n (triploid)
• Zygote-2n (diploid)

2. Chromosome number reduced due to reduction division or meiosis.

Question 8.
A bisexual self pollinating flowering plant has chromosome number 76, in its somatic cells.

1. What will be the chromosome number of its nucellus, synergids, zygote, and endosperm?
2. What is the advantage of cross pollination over self pollination?
3. Give any 2 characteristics of wind pollinated flowers.

Answer:
1. Nucellus is diploid; chromosome no is 76 Synergids are haploid;chromosome no. is 38 Zygoye is diploid; chromosome no. is 76 Endosperm is triploid its chromosome no. is 114.

2. Sexual reproduction brings about genetic recombination and results in the better Survival of the species.

3. The flowers are small and inconspicuous .they are formed in clusters. Lightweight Pollens are produced in large amount. Stigma is long and hairy.

Question 9.
Tender coconut has liquid endosperm inside it. But matured it has only solid endosperm

1. Write down the auction of endosperm.
2. How will you differentiate liquid endosperm from solid endosperm.
3. Name the part of embryo pushes deep into endosperm.

Answer:

1. Provide nutrion.
2. Liquid endosperm- provide nutrition for the development of zygote into mature embryo. Solid endosperm- provide nutrition for the future development of embryo.
3. Suspensor.

Question 10.
60% of angiosperms, pollen grains shed at 2 celled stage, but in some species pollen grains are shed at 3 celled stage.

1. Distinguish between 2 celled and 3 celled stage of pollen grains?
2. Give the significance of germ pore of exine surface

Answer:

1. In 2 celled stage pollen grains contains two cells – bigger vegetative cell and smaller generative cell. In 3 celled stage, pollen grains contains 3 cells vegetative cell and 2 male gametes
2. Germ pore is the opening through which pollen tube come out during pollen germination

Question 11.
In angiosperm 7-celled and 8-nucleate embryosac is formed from single megapore mother cell.

1. Name the process
2. Name the 3 – nuclei found in chalazal part of embryosac
3. Which is the opening of ovule that helps in the entry of pollen tube?

Answer:

1. Megasprogenesis
2. Antipodals
3. Micropyle

Question 12.
Pollen grains in angiosperms are not motile. They have to be carried to the stigma by external agents.

1. Name the process of transfer of pollen grains.
2. Write the name of three such agents.
3. Explain how it takes place in vallisnaria.

Answer:

1. Pollination.
2. Wind, water, and animals
3. In vallisnaria, mature female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk in the same time male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water. Stigma collect the pollen grains and come inside the water.

Question 13.
Flowering plants have major devices to discourage self pollination and to increase cross pollination. Point out any four devices.
Answer:
1. Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised, ie. either the pollen is released before stigma become receptive or stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.

2. In some plants the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.

3. Self pollination is prevented by self-incompatibility which is a genetic mechanism that prevents the pollen of the same flower or flowers of the same plant from fertilizing the ovules.

4. Production of unisexual flowers also prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy. Dioceous plants prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Question 14.
Maize consists of nectar less flowers but in or chids flowers are nectary and attractive.

1. Distinguish the characteristics of both flowers based on the agents involved in the pollen transfer.
2. Some organisms involved in pollination produce foul odor. Name.

Answer:
1. Maize is a wind pollinated plant. The flowers produce large amount of light and non sticky pollen grains which helps in transportation through wind.

They possess well exposed stamens and large and feathery stigma to easily capture pollen grains. There is a single ovule in an ovary and arranged in compact inflorescence.

Orchid is an insect pollinated plant. It produce large conspicuous flowers, the small flowers are produced in clusters.

The large flowers are colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. The insects are attracted by colour and fragrance and are often rewarded by nectar and pollen produced by the flower.

2. Flies and beetles.

Question 15.
Wind is an abiotic agent that helps in pollination. Write any six features of wind pollinated flowers.
Answer:

1. Pollen grains are light
2. Non – sticky pollen grains
3. Well exposed stamens
4. Large, feathery stigma
5. Single ovule in each ovary
6. Numerous flowers packed into inflorescence

Question 16.
Observe the figure given below and explain its structure.

Answer:
It is the structure of pollen grain, it has an outer hard layer called exine that possess prominent apertures called germ pores through which pollen tube come out.

The inner wall layer is continuous called intine. Pollen grain has two cells, a large vegetative cell, and a small generative cell.

Question 17.
Observe the diagram given below.

a) Copy the diagram, and label antipodals and synergids.
b) Explain double fertilization.
Answer:
1.

2. At first, one of the male gametes fuses with egg cell to form a diploid zygote. This is called syngamy. The other male gamete fuses with the polar nuclei to form primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). This is called triple fusion. Thus, two types of fusion occur in the embryo sac called Double fertilization.

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs during this events? Name the structures formed at the end of these two events.
Answer:

Microsporogenesis	Megasorogenesis
1. It is process of formation of microspores from microspore mother cell. 2. It occurs inside the pollen sacs of anthers.	1.  It is the process of formation of megaspores from megaspore mother cell. 2.  It occurs in nucellus part of ovule.

• In both, the events meiosis cell division occurs.
• Microsporogenesis results in the formation of microspores while megasporogenesis forms megaspores.

Question 2.
Arrange the following terms in the correct development sequence: Pollen grain, sporogenous, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Answer:
Sporogenous tissue ’!Pollen mother cell’!Microspore tetrad’!Pollen grain’!Male garnets.

Question 3.
What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophyte?
Answer:
The formation of female gametophyte or embryo sac from a single functional megaspore is called monosporic. The nucleus of functional megaspore undergoes 3 successive mitotic divisions to form haploid nuclei.

Question 4.
With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8-nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Answer:
Embryo sac is an oval multicellular structure which contains 8 nuclei but 7 cells.

Question 5.
What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross¬pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Chasmogamous flowers have exposed anthers and stigma. Cross pollination cannot occur in cleistogamous flowers, as such flowers do not open at all.

Question 6.
Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self pollination in flowers.
Answer:
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to encourage cross pollination.

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from
(a) synergids
(b) maternalsporophytic tissue in ovule
(c) antipodal cells
(d) diploid egg
Answer:
(b) maternalsporophytic tissue in ovule

Question 2.
Wind pollinated flowers are
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
(b) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
(c) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
Answer:
(b) small, producing large number of dry pollen grains

Question 3.
Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false?
(a) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(b) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials
(c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present
(d) sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids
(e) No enzyme that degradessporopollenin is so far known
Answer:
(c) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present

Question 4.
Egg apparatus of angiosperms consist of
(a) one synergid and two egg cells
(b) two synergid and one egg cells
(c) one central cell, two synergid, and three antipodal cells
(d) one egg cell, two polar nuclei, and three antipodal cells
Answer:
(b) two synergid and one egg cells

Question 5.
In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which, multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium. The perfect example for this is
(a) appearance of a furrow in cell membrane
(b) liquid endosperm in coconut
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) fertilization
Answer:
(b) liquid endosperm in coconut

Question 6.
During the formation of embryo sac, the functional megaspore undergoes
(a) two mitotic divisions
(b) two meiotic division
(c) three meiotic division
(d) three mitotic divisions
Answer:
(d) three mitotic divisions

Question 7.
One advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) it leads to greater genetic diversity
(b) seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread
(c) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
(d) each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains
Answer:
(c) seed set is not dependent on pollinators

Question 8.
Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Pollen grains are released from anthers at 2- celled state
(b) Sporogenous cell directly behaves as he megaspore mother cell
(c) Megaspore divides twice to form an eight nucleate embryo sac
(d) Egg and synergids always lie near the micropylar end of ovule
Answer:
(c) Megaspore divides twice to form an eight nucleate embryo sac

Question 9.
Sporopollenin is chemically
(a) homopolysaccharide
(b) fatty substance
(c) protein
(d) heteropolysaccharide
Answer:
(d) heteropolysaccharide

Question 10.
Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(b) Egg cell and antipodal cells
(c) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
Answer:
(b) Egg cell and antipodal cells

Question 11.
What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
(a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid
(b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac
(c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg
Answer:
(a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid

Question 12.
Which of the following plant products is the hardest?
(a) Lignin
(b) Cutin
(c) Suberin
(d) Sporopollenin
Answer:
(d) Sporopollenin

Question 13.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity, is
(a) 4 – nucleate – 2 celled
(b) 8 – nucleate – 7 celled
(c) 4- nucleate – 4 celled
(d) 8 – nucleate – 2 celled
Answer:
(b) 8 – nucleate – 7 celled

Question 14.
Why sometimes, even diploid offspring is produced through parthenogenesis?
(a) When offspring is produced without fertilization of diploid egg cell
(b) When offspring is produced through fertilization of diploid egg cell
(c) When offspring is produced without fertilization of haploid egg cell
(d) When offspring is produced through fertilization of haploid egg cell
Answer:
(a) When offspring is produced without fertilization of diploid egg cell

Question 15.
Pollen grains are stored for long period without losing its viability in
(a) liquid nitrogen
(b) liquidsulphur
(c) liquidsulphur at-1960c
(d) liquidsulphur at-196.50c
Answer:
(a) liquid nitrogen

Question 16.
Filiform apparatus of an embryosac is located at
(a) wall of embryosac
(b) chalazal region
(c) micropylar region
(d) middle of polar nuclei
(e) none of the above
Answer:
(c) micropylar region

Question 17.
Double fertilization is very common in
(a) angiosperm
(b) gymnosperm
(c) pteridophytes
(d) bryophytes
Answer:
(a) angiosperm

Question 18.
In Citms and mango the polyembryony is the special feature of occurance of
(a) more than one embryo
(b) more than one zygote
(c) more than one embyosac
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 19.
Triple fusion takes place in angiosperm is due to
(a) fusion of three polar nuclei
(b) fusion of synergid and polar nuclei
(c) fusion of three haploid nuclei
(d) fusion of gametes
Answer:
(c) fusion of three haploid nuclei

Question 20.
In 40 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at
(a) 2-celled
(b) 3-celled
(c) 4-celled
(d) 5- celled
Answer:
(b) 3-celled

Question 21.
In artificial hybridization bagging is done to
(a) avoid wanted pollen
(b) avoid unwanted pollen
(c) prevent the entry of unwanted pollinators
(d) allow the self pollination
Answer:
(b) avoid unwanted pollen

Question 22.
How many mitotic divisions are required for the formation of mature embryosac
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 23.
The allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory disorders. It is due to
(a) pollen of parthenium
(b) pollen of hibiscus
(c) pollen of Acasia
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Students can Download Chapter 12 Consumer Protection Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year ……………..
(a) 1964
(b) 1956
(c) 1932
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 2.
When did the provisions of consumer Protection Act come into force?
Answer:
1 July 1987

Question 3.
Which is acclaimed to be the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian consumers?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Act 1986

Question 4.
Consumer’s right to information means
(a) Right to advocate consumer’s interest.
(b) Right to be informed about the quality, quantity, price, etc. of the product.
(c) Right to be protected against marketing of hazardous goods.
Answer:
(b) Right to be informed about the quality, quantity, price, etc. of the product.

Question 5.
World consumer rights day is observed on ……………
Answer:
March 15

Question 6.
“Cigaratte smoking is injurious to health”. This information is mandatory in all cigarette packets. From this example identify consumer rights.
Answer:
Right to be Informed

Question 7.
Which consumer right gives the business firm freedom to set up their own consumer service & grievances cell?
Answer:
Right to be heard

Question 8.
Which consumer right entitles the consumer to get relief in case the product or service falls short of his expectation?
Answer:
Right to seek redressal

Question 9.
Which consumer right have access to a variety of products and services?
Answer:
Right to choose

Question 10.
Which consumer right suggests that a consumer must be protected from goods and services hazardous to life and health?
Answer:
Right to safety

Question 11.
Which judicial machineries are available to deal with consumer grievances?
Answer:

1. District Forum
2. State Commission
3. National Commission

Question 12.
Mr. X purchased a car for Rs.15 lakh but he is not satisfied with the quality and performance of the car. The company of the car did not provide any remedy to him. Under which authority of consumer protection Act 1986 can file an appeal?
Answer:
District Forum

Question 13.
Maximum amount of compensation that can be claimed in District consumer forum should not exceed:
Answer:
20 Lakhs

Question 14.
If a consumer is not satisfied with the order of the District forums, where can he appeal?
Answer:
State Commission

Question 15.
Find the odd one and state reason District Forum, State Commission, Law Adalats, National commission
Answer:
Law Adalats. All others are redressel agencies.

Question 16.
Within what period of purchase can the complaint be filed under Consumer Protection Act?
Answer:
Within 3 months

Question 17.
Name the apex institution to seek redressal under Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
National Commission

Question 18.
When the value of compensation claimed is in between 20 lakhs and 1 crore complaints can be filled with:
(a) District Forum
(b) State Commission
(c) National Commission
Answer:
(b) State Commission

Question 19.
ISI mark is given by
(a) Ministry of Finance.
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forest.
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) State Government.
Answer:
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard

Question 20.
…………………… is a means of consumer protection
to provide legal representation to previously represented groups and interest.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 21.
Amit wants to buy Gold Jewellery. As a knowledgeable customer how can he be sure about the quality of the jewellery?
Answer:
Hallmark

Question 22.
Which quality certification mark is used in case of electrical goods?
Answer:
ISI

Question 23.
Name the quality certification mark used is case of food products.
Answer:
F.P.O.

Question 24.
On which type of products can Eco Mark is used?
Answer:
Eco-friendly products

Question 25.
Smt. Sindhu purchased a silk saree costing Rs. 5,000. After first wash, it has lost the colour and caused huge loss to her. She lodged a complaint to the redressal forum. It was held that she will be given a sum of Rs. 5,000 as compensation. Identify the redressal forum she might have lodged the complaint.
Answer:
District Forum

Question 26.

A	B
a) The Consumer Protection Act	a) 1976
b) The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act	b) 1986
c) The Bureau of 1 Indian Standards Act	c) 1986
d) The Standards of Weights and Measures Act	d) 1954

Answer:

A	B
a) The Consumer Protection Act	a) 1986
b) The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act	b)1954
c) The Bureau of Indian Standards Act	c) 1986
d) The Standards of Weights and Measures Act	d) 1976

Question 27.
Demand the bill on purchase is the ………………. of a consumer.
Answer:
Responsibility

Question 28.
Where can a customer appeal within 30 days, if he is not satisfied with the order of National Commission?
Answer:
In Supreme Court

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Bejoy purchases a new computer from Ajitha traders. They give two years replacement guarantee. After six months use, the computer system fails to perform. Mr. Bejoy approaches the traders for replacement. But the traders refuse replacement.

1. Identify the law violated by the traders.
2. Point out redressal agencies where Bejoy should complain against the traders.

Answer:
1. Consumer Protection Act 1986.
2. Mr. Bejoy can approach the following redressal agencies for compensation.

• District Forum
• State Commission
• National Commission.

Question 2.
Mrs. Fathima, a house wife, while cooking food, the pressure cooker exploded, causing a big injury. She lodged a complaint to the redressal forum. Accordingly, the forum’s verdict was to pay a sum of Rs. 10,000/- as compensation.

1. Identify the right which has been violated.
2. In which redressal forums she might have lodged the complaints.

Answer:

1. Right to safety
2. District Forum

Question 3.
Cite a few examples of practices usually adopted by businessmen with view to deceiving the consumers and thereby exploit the poor customers to the maximum.
Answer:
Adulteration, black marketing, false weights, Poor quality of goods, duplication of brands, increasing the price of the product, etc.

Question 4.
If a case is decidedly the District Forum, can it be appealed before the Supreme Court.
Answer:
No. It can be challenged in the State Commission.

Question 5.
Name any two consumer organizations engaged in protecting and promoting consumers interest.
Answer:
Some of the important consumer organisations and NGOs engaged in consumer protection are

• Consumer Co-ordination Council, Delhi.
• Voluntary Organisation in Interest of Consumer Education (VOICE).
• Common Cause, Delhi.
• Consumer Protection Council, Ahmedabad.
• Consumer Guiderice Society of India, Mumbai.
• Consumer’s Association, Kolkatta, etc.

Question 6.
Who is a Consumer?
Answer:
Consumer: Under the Consumer Protection Act, a consumer is defined as

1. Any person who buys any goods for a consideration.
2. Any person who hires or avails of any service, for a consideration.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anju while on her shopping time is always vigilant to see that the products purchased come under “Eco mark”.

1. Why does she look for ‘eco mark’ while shopping? State its merits?
2. Cite a few examples of products which come under eco mark system.

Answer:
The ‘Eco mark’ label ensures consumers environment friendly products. Such products are not harmful to the environment in their manufacture, use and disposal.
E.g. AGMARK for wheat, flour, spices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain, in brief, any 3 reasons as to why consumer protection is needed in India.
Answer:

1. To protect the consumers against products that are unsafe to health and hygiene.
2. To protect the consumer against deceptive and unfair trade practices and to provide him with ad-equate means to get his grievance redressed.
3. To prevent abuse of monopoly position.

Question 3.
Mr. Balu gave a new dictionary as a gift to Manu, one of his friends. Manu found that some of its pages are unreadable due to over spreading of ink. He approached the shop keeper and demanded to replace it. But the shop keeper refused to replace the dictionary on the argument that Manu is not a consumer for him. Suggest your opinion.
Answer:
No. The argument of the shopkeeper is wrong. Manu is also a consumer. The term consumer means:

1. A person who buys any goods for a consideration.
2. A person who hires or avails of any services for a consideration.
3. Anyone who uses goods bought or services hired exclusively for earning livelihood by self employment.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Which is acclaimed to be the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian Consumers?
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:

1. Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
2. Importance of Consumer Protection Act

a. From Consumers’ point of view:

• It is necessary to educate the customers about their rights.
• Consumers need to be organised in the form of consumer organisations which would take care of their interests.
• To protect the consumers from unscrupulous, exploitative and unfair trade practices.

b. From the Point of View of Business:

• Business firms should aim at long-term profit maximization through customer satisfaction.
• Business organisations use resources which belong to the society.
• A business has social responsibilities towards various interest groups.
• It is the moral duty of any business to take care of consumer’s interests and avoid any form of their exploitation.
• A business engaging in any form of exploitative trade practices would invite government intervention or action.

Question 2.
Who can file a complaint under Consumer Protection Act,1986?
Answer:
Complaint before the appropriate consumer forum can be made by

1. Any consumer.
2. The Central Government or any State Government.
3. One or more consumers, on behalf of numerous consumers having the same interest.
4. A legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer.

Question 3.
Explain any four functions of consumer association.
Answer:
Role of Consumer Organisations and Non-governmental Organizations (NGOs.)

1. Educating the general public about consumer rights by organising training programmes, seminars and workshops.
2. Publishing periodicals and other publications.
3. Collecting various samples of different goods and testing their quality.
4. Encouraging consumers to protest against exploitative and unfair trade practices of sellers.
5. Providing legal assistance to consumers by way of providing aid, legal advice, etc.
6. Filing complaints in appropriate consumer courts on behalf of the consumers.
7. Encouraging consumers to boycott defective goods.
8. Encouraging the consumers to purchase consumer friendly products.
9. Taking an initiative in filing cases in consumer courts in the interest of the general public.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various remedies available to a consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
Relief Available to Consumers (Remedies)

1. To remove the defect in goods or deficiency in service.
2. To replace the defective product with a new one, free from any defect.
3. To refund the price paid for the product.
4. To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer.
5. To discontinue the unfair/restrictive trade practice.
6. Not to offer hazardous goods for sale.
7. To withdraw the hazardous goods from sale.
8. To issue corrective advertisement to neutralise the effect of a misleading advertisement.

Question 2.
Consumers are often exploited by profiteering business. What are the measures available to safeguard them?
Answer:
Ways and Means of Consumer Protection
1. Self Regulation by Business:
Many firms have set up their customer service and grievance cells to redress the problems and grievances of their consumers.

2. Business Associations:
The Associations of trade, commerce and business-like Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce of India (FICCl) and Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) have laid down their code of conduct for their members in their dealings with the customers.

3. Consumer Awareness:
A consumer, who is well informed about his rights, responsibilities and the reliefs available to him, would be in a position to raise his voice against any unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation.

4. Consumer Organisations:
Consumer organisations play an important role in educating consumers about their rights and providing protection to them.

5. Government:
The government can protect the interests of the consumers by enacting various legislations.

Question 3.
What are the responsibilities of a consumer?
Answer:
Consumers Responsibilities

1. Be aware about various goods and services available in the market.
2. Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance.
3. Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
4. Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
5. Choose only from legal goods and services.
6. Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services.
7. File a complaint in an appropriate consumer forum in case of poor quality of goods or services.
8. Form consumer societies which would play an active part in educating consumers.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion Vinod argues that Consumers have no right while purchasing or using a product.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain various rights of consumers.

Answer:
Consumer Rights:
1. Right to Safety: The consumer has a right to be protected against goods and services which are hazardous to life and health.

2. Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc.

3. Right to Choose: The consumer has the freedom to choose from a variety of products at competitive prices.

4. Right to be Heard: The consumer has a right to file a complaint and to be heard in case of dissatisfaction with goods or services.

5. Right to seek Redressal: The consumer has a right to get relief in case the product or service falls short of his expectations.

6. Right to Consumer Education: The consumer must be educated about the rights and remedies available under different laws.

Question 2.
Prepare an assignment on various consumer responsibilities.
Answer:
Consumers’ Responsibilities:

1. Be aware about various goods and services available in the market.
2. Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance.
3. Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
4. Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
5. Choose only from legal goods and services.
6. Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services.
7. File a complaint in an appropriate consumer forum in case of poor quality of goods or services.
8. Form consumer societies which would play an active part in educating consumers.