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Students can Download Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics Questions and Answers, Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Open Economy Macroeconomics

Plus Two Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the ‘balancing item’ affecting the inability to record all international transactions accurately?
Answer:
Errors and omissions

Question 2.
The amount of rupees required to buy one US$ is known as ………….
(i) Rupee dollar exchange rate
(ii) Dollar rupee exchange rate
(iii) Real exchange rate
(iv) Real effective exchange rate
Answer:
(i) Rupee dollar exchange rate

Question 3.
Which among the following is a component of BOP account?
Answer:
(i) Current account
(ii) Capital account
(iii) Official reserve
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 4.
WTO was formed in?
(i) 1948
(ii) 1964
(iii) 1991
(iv) 1995
Answer:
(iv) 1995

Question 5.
If export > imports, it represents
(i) Trade surplus
(ii) Trade balance
(iii) Trade deficit
(iv) None of these above
Answer:
(i) Trade surplus

Question 6.
Which of the following would be an appropriate policy to reduce a Balance of Payment / Deficit.
Answer:
(i) An increase in government spending.
(ii) A cut in the level of indirect taxes
(iii) An increase in interest rates
(iv) A decrease in interest rates
Answer:
(iii) An increase in interest rates

Plus Two Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is the exchange rate determined under flexible exchange rate regime?
Answer:
In case of flexible exchange rates, the exchange rate changes to clear the market to equate the demand for and supply of foreign exchange.

Question 2.
List two items of the capital account of balance of payment account?
Answer:

1. Gold movement
2. Reserve, Monetary gold & SDR

Question 3.
When will balance of trade shows a deficit?
Answer:
Balance of trade shows a surplus when exports are greater than imports. That is, Surplus balance of trade = Exports > Imports

Question 4.
Name two sources of demand for foreign exchange.
Answer:
Two sources of demand for foreign exchange are:

1. To purchase goods and services from abroad.
2. To send gifts and grants to foreign countries.

Question 5.
The value of a country’s import of goods is ₹200 crore and value of export of goods is ₹250 crore. Find out its balance of trade.
Answer:
Balance of trade = Value of exports – value of imports = 250 – 200 = ₹50 crore

Question 6.
Identify the items to be included to trade balance to get current account balance.
Answer:

1. Trade services
2. Net transfers

Question 7.
Identify the situation mentioned below.

1. Rupee-dollar exchange rate change from 45 to 50.
2. Rupee-dollar exchange rate changed from 45 to 43.

Answer:

1. Depreciation
2. Appreciation

Question 8.
State the National Income identity for an open economy.
Answer:
Y = C + IG + (X – M)
Where,

• Y = National Income
• C = Comsumption
• I = Investment
• G = Government spending
• X = Export
• M = Import

Question 9.
The consumption function and import function of an economy can be given as,
C = a + b.y
M = M + m.y Identity the letters

1. b
2. a
3. m

Answer:

1. Marginal propensity to consume
2. Autonomous consumption
3. Marginal propensity to import

Question 10.
If MPC = 0.8, and increase in autonomous demand is 200, calculate multiplier and the national output.
Answer:
MPC = b – c = 0.8
Therefore multiplier is
\(\begin{array}{l}
{\frac{1}{1-C} \text { or } \frac{1}{1-b}} \\
{\text { i.e. } \frac{1}{1-0.8}=\frac{1}{0.2}} \\
{=5}
\end{array}\)
National output is 5 × 200 = 1,000

Question 11.
Calculate the open economy multiplier if c = 0.5, m = 0.3. Increase in autonomous demand = 200
Answer:

Question 12.
What happens to the aggregate demand due to

1. A leakage from the circular flow of income
2. A injection to the circular flow of income

Answer:
AD falls due to the leakage from circular flow of income and AD increases due to injection in too the circular flow of income.

Question 13.
List out the expert of services from the following……..
(a) India buys a new technology from France
(b) A Japaneese tourist visits India
(c) An Indian student registers for a UK exam
(d) an Indian doctor going to work in the US.
Answer:
b and d are examples of expert services from India.

Question 14.
Analyse the effect of the following on imports and exchange rate.

1. Appreciation of domestic currency.
2. Depreciation of domestic currency
3. Increase in foreign direct investment.
4. Increase in import duty.

Answer:

1. Increase in Imports, Fall in Exchange Rate
2. Decrease in Imports, Rise in Exchange Rate
3. Increase in Imports, Fall in Exchange Rate
4. Decrease in Imports, Fall in Exchange Rate

Plus Two Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following into visible and invisible.
Steel, computer software, shipping services, wheat, machinery, food articles, banking, IT- enabled services, crude oil, shipping, textiles, Online business.
Answer:

Visibles	Invisibles
Steel	Shipping Services
Textiles	Banking
Wheat	IT Enabled Services
Machinery	Shipping
Food Articles	Insurance
Crude Oil	Online Business

Question 2.
Classify the following into current account and capital account.
Foreign direct investment, borrowing from abroad, export earning from merchandise, export earnings from banking services, earning from tourism, foreign portfolio investment.
Answer:

Current Account	Capital Account
Export earnings from banking services	Foreign direct investment
Earning from tourism	Borrowing from abroad
Export earnings from merchandise	Foreign portfolio investment

Question 3.
The open economy multiplier is smaller than that in a closed economy. Do you agree? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement.
The open economy multiplier is smaller than that in a closed economy because a part of domestic demand falls on foreign goods. An increase in autonomous demand thus leads to a smaller increase in output compared to a closed economy. It also results in a deterioration of the trade balance

Question 4.
Complete the following table.

• Export > Import
• Export = Import
• Export < Import

Answer:

• Export > Import – Trade surplus
• Export = Import – Trade balance
• Export < Import – Trade deficit

Question 5.
Export promotion is one of the key factors for correcting disequilibrium in BOR Is there any other measure for correcting BOP? If yes, suggest 3 measures.
Answer:
Measures to correct BOP disequilibrium,

• Increase in production
• Reduction in imports
• Encouraging foreign investment
• Promotion of exports

Question 6.
What is the MPM (Marginal propensity to import) When M = 60 + 0.67?
Answer:
Marginal propensity to import (MPM) is the fraction of an additional currency of income spent on imports. The concept of MPM is same as the marginal propensity to consume (MPC). Thus, demand for imports is to depend on income and have an autonomous component.

Question 7.
Point out the items included in current account transactions of BOP.
Answer:
The current account includes receipts and payments on account of:

1. export and import of goods and services
2. tourism services
3. foreign investment incomes and out payments
4. private transfer payments
5. inter-government transfer payments.

Question 8.
What is trade deficit? Calculate the trade deficit from the following data.

Answer:
Trade deficit is the difference between export of goods and import of goods in trade in goods in current account. It is the situation where import is greater than export.
Export of goods = 90,660
Import of goods = 1,20,364 – 90,660 = 29,704 crores

Question 9.
a. Recently the government of UK decided to relax the visa norms to Indian visitors.
b. The government of India approved a purchase of weapon for Indian defence from rest of the world for an amount of 82000 crores

1. How does these decisions affect the demand for foreign exchange?
2. Analyse the consequences in the foreign exchange market with the help of a diagram.
   (supply curve of foreign exchange remain the same)

Answer:
1. Demand for foreign exchange increases

2. diagram

Plus Two Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one out. Justify your answer.

1. tea, coir, tourism
2. rice, banking services, insurance service, transport services
3. foreign direct investment, foreign portfolio investment, remittances, borrowings
4. foreign investment, remittances, export earning from goods, export earning from services

Answer:

1. Tourism. Others are visibles
2. Rice. Others are invisibles
3. Remittances. Others are capital receipts
4. Remittances. Others are capital receipts.

Question 2.
Match the following.

A	B
Bretton Woods system	1944
SDR	1967
Fixed Exchange Rate	Pegged Rate
Triffin Dilemma	Dollar accumulation
Flexible Exchange Rate	Floating Rate

Answer:

A	B
Bretton Woods system	Pegged Rate
SDR	Dollar accumulation
Fixed Exchange Rate	1944
Triffin Dilemma	Floating Rate
Flexible Exchange Rate	1967

Question 3.
If c (marginal propensity to consume) = 0.8 and m (marginal propensity to import) = 0.3,

1. Find the open and closed economy multiplier
2. If domestic autonomous demand increases by 100, find the output level in a closed and an open economy.

Answer:
1. Closed economy multiplier
\(=\frac{1}{1-c}=\frac{1}{1-0.8}=\frac{1}{0.2}=5\)
Open economy multiplier
\(=\frac{1}{0.5}=\frac{1}{1-0.8+0.3}=\frac{1}{1-0.5}=\frac{1}{0.5}=2\)

2. If domestic autonomous demand increases by 100, in a closed economy output increases by 500 whereas it increases by only 200 in an open economy.

Question 4.
Differentiate between fixed exchange rate and flexible exchange rate.
Answer:
In a system of flexible exchange rates (also known as floating exchange rates), the exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and supply. Countries have had flexible exchange rate system ever since the breakdown of the Bretton Woods system in the early 1970s. Prior to that, most countries had fixed or what is called pegged exchange rate system, in which the exchange rate is pegged at a particular level.

Sometimes, a distinction is made between fixed and pegged exchange rates. Under a fixed exchange rate system, such as the gold standard, adjustment to BoP surpluses or deficits cannot be brought about through changes in the exchange rate.

Question 5.
What do you mean by managed floating? How far it is a mixture of fixed exchange rate and flexible exchange rates?
Answer:
Without any formal international agreement, the world has moved on to what can be best described as a managed floating exchange rate system. It is a mixture of a flexible exchange rate system (the floating part) and a fixed rate system (the managed part).

Under this system, also called dirty floating, central banks intervene to buy and sell foreign currencies in an attempt to moderate exchange rate movements whenever they feel that such actions are appropriate. Official reserve transactions are, therefore, not equal to zero.

Question 6.
Distinguish between the nominal exchange rate and the real exchange rate. If you were to decide whether to buy domestic goods or foreign goods, which rate would be more relevant?
Answer:
The price of one currency in terms of the other is known as the exchange rate. Nominal exchange rates are bilateral in the sense that they are exchange rates for one currency against another and they are nominal because they quote the exchange rate in money terms, i.e. so many rupees per dollar or per pound.

However, the real exchange rate is the ratio of foreign to domestic prices, measured in the same currency. It is defined as Real exchange rate = ePf/P where P and Pf are the price levels here and abroad, respectively, and e is the rupee price of foreign exchange (the nominal exchange rate).

The real exchange rate is often taken as a measure of a country’s international competitiveness. Therefore, real exchange rate is considered to be more relevant.

Question 7.
Balance of payment is a broader concept than balance of trade. Give explanation to this view.
Answer:
Balance of trade is the record of a country’s visible export and visible imports. It includes only visible trade and excludes invisible trade of services. However, balance of payment is a more comprehensive term which denoted a country’s total monetary transactions with the rest of the world. It includes both visible and invisible trade of goods and, services.

The balance of payments (BoP) records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world. There are two main accounts in the BoP the current account and the capital account.

Question 8.
The current account is differentiated from capital account. Do you agree? Give explanation.
Answer:
Yes. The current account balance is the sum of the balance of merchandise trade, services and net transfers received from the rest of the world. The capital account balance is equal to capital flows from the rest of the world, minus capital flows to the rest of the world.

Question 9.
Illustrate the method of determining equilibrium under flexible exchange rate system. Also, show the effect of increase in demand for imports in the foreign exchange markets.
Answer:
In a system of flexible exchange rates, the exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and supply. In this case of flexible exchange rates without central bank intervention, the exchange rate moves to clear the market, to equate the demand for and supply of foreign exchange. In the following figure equilibrium exchange rate is e* which is determined by the forces of demand and supply.

At the initial equilibrium exchange rate e*, suppose there is now an excess demand for foreign exchange. To clear the market, the exchange rate must rise to the equilibrium value e₁ as shown in the following figure.

The rise in exchange rate (depreciation) will cause the quantity of import demand to fall since the rupee price of imported goods rises with the exchange rate. Also, the quantity of exports demanded will increase since the rise in the exchange rate makes exports. less expensive to foreigners. At the new equilibrium, the supply and demand for foreign exchange is again equal.

Question 10.
Differentiate between devaluation and depreciation.
Answer:
Devaluation means increase in exchange rate. Devaluation is said to occur when the exchange rate is increased by social action under a pegged exchange rate system. Devaluation is used as a tool to bridge the gap of trade deficit.

On the other hand, change in the price of foreign exchange under flexible exchange rate, when it becomes cheaper as compared to domestic currency is known as depreciation.

Question 11.
Compare balance of trade (BOT) and balance of payments (BOP).
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between money value of imports and exports of material goods only whereas BOP is the difference between a country’s receipts and payments in foreign exchange. The difference between the two can be summarized as follows:

BOT	BOP
1. It records only merch­andise transactions	1. It records transactions relating to both goods and services
2. It does not record trans­actions of special nature.	2. It records transactions of capital nature.
3. It is a narrow concept because it is only one part of BOP account	3. It is wider concept because it includes balance of trade, balance of Services, balance of unrequired transfers and balance of capital transactions.
4. It may be favorable, un favorable or equilibrium	4. It always remains in balance in accounting sense because receipt side is always made to be equal to payment side

Question 12.
Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Question 13.
Distinguish between autonomous and accommodating transactions?
Answer:
International economic transactions are called autonomous when transactions are made independently of the state of the BOP. These items are called above the line.

On the other hand, accommodating transactions are determined by the net consequences of the autonomous items, that is whether the BOP is in surplus or deficit. These items are called ‘below the line.

Question 14.
Suppose the equilibrium exchange rate is shown in the figure. What happens to this equilibrium situation when there is increase in demand for foreign exchange?

Answer:
When the demand for foreign exchange increases, there is rise in exchange rate (depreciation). At the higher exchange rate, more quantity of foreign exchange will be transacted. This is shown below.

Question 15.
Distinguish between appreciation and depreciation. Identify what happens to the exchange rate of rupees in 2015 compared to 2014.

Year	Rupee dollar exchange rate
2014	50.
2015	60.

Answer:
Appreciation refers to the increase the exchange rate of a currency. Depreciation refers to the decrease in the rate of exchange of currency. Both appreciation depreciation of exchange rate occurs due to the changes in the supply and demand of currencies. Compared to 2014 there is a depreciation of currency exchange rate in 2015.

Question 16.
The diagram below shows how the rate of exchange is determined in a free market.

Show the effect of the following on the exchange rate.

1. The rate of interest of the country increases.
2. The rate of inflation of the nearby countries.

Answer:
1. When the rate of interest increases the rate of exchange will increase. This is because an increased rate of interest would attract more depositors into the country, the demand for the currency would increase and the rate of interest also will increase as shown in the diagram below.

2. When the inflation of the nearby countries increases the people around would prefer to buy goods from this country. So the demand for the currency would increase leading to an increase in the rate of exchange.

Question 17.
Exchange rate is determined through different methods. Diagrams related with exchange rate are given below.

1. Identify the Exchange rate system corresponding to each diagram
2. Distinguish between the two.

Answer:
1. Diagram A is Flexible Exchange Rate System and Diagram B is Fixed Exchange Rate System

2. In a system of flexible exchange rates (also known as floating exchange rates), the exchange rate is determined by the forces of market demand and supply. Countries have had flexible exchange rate system ever since the breakdown of the Bretton Woods system in the early 1970s.

Prior to that, most countries had fixed or what is called pegged exchange rate system, in which the exchange rate is pegged at a particular level. Sometimes, a distinction is made between fixed and pegged exchange rates. Under a fixed exchange rate system, such as the gold standard, adjustment to BoP surpluses or deficits cannot be brought about through changes in the exchange rate.

Plus Two Economics Open Economy Macroeconomics Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Determine the equilibrium level of income based on the following information.
C = 100 + 0.75 (Y – T)
I = 200 – 2000;
G = 100
T = 80 + 0.20Y
X = 50
M = 20 + 0.10Y
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 6 General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Plus Two Chemistry General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Siderite is chemically _______________.
Answer:
Iron carbonate (Fe₂CO₃)

Question 2.
A mineral is called an ore if
(a) The metal present in the mineral is costly
(b) A metal can be extracted from it
(c) A metal can be profitably extracted from it
(d) A metal cannot be extracted from it.
Answer:
(c) A metal can be profitably extracted from it

Question 3.
Predict whether the following statement is true or false? Calcination is done in presence of plenty of air.
Answer:
false

Question 4.
The Ellingham diagram is a plot of
(a) ∆_fG° vs T
(b) ∆_fH° vs T
(c) ∆_fS° vs T
(d) ∆_fG° vs ∆_fH°
Answer:
(a) ∆_fG° vs T

Question 5.
Which of the following metals can be refined using van Arkel method?
(a) Ni
(b) Si
(c) Cu
(d) Zr
Answer:
(d) Zr

Question 6.
Arrange the five elements which together constitute more than 90% of earth’s crust in the decreasing order of their abundance.
Answer:
Oxygen > Silicon > Aluminium > Iron > Calcium.

Question 7.
Suggest the method for the refining of following metals.

1. Copper
2. Germanium
3. Zirconium

Answer:

1. Copper – Electrolytic refining
2. Germanium – Zone refining
3. Zirconium – van Arkel method

Question 8.
Which one of the following does not occurs as sulphide ore
(a) Zn
(b) Cr
(c) Ag
(d) Fe
(e) Hg
Answer:
(b) Cr

Question 9.
Refining of zirconium is by __________________ method
Answer:
Van Arkel method.

Question 10.
Sphalerite is concentrated by ___________.
Answer:
Froth floation

Question 11.
Litharge is an ore of ___________.
Answer:
Lead

Question 12.
The process used for the extraction of sodium is
Answer:
Down’s process

Plus Two Chemistry General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the terms
Calcination and Roasting with example.
Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the table:

A	B
1. Iron	Haematite
2. Sodium	…………………
3. Chromium	………………….
4 ……………..	SnO2
5 ……………..	CuFeS2

Answer:

A	B
1. Iron	Haematite
2. Sodium	Rock salt
3. Chromium	Chromite ore
4. Tin	SnO2
5. Copper	CuFeS2

Question 3.
Why is the reduction of a metal oxide easier if the metal formed is in liquid state at the temperature of reduction?
Answer:
The entropy is higher if the metal is in liquid state than in solid state. The value of (∆S) of the reduction process is +ve when the metal formed is in liquid state the metal oxide being reduced is in solid state. The value of ∆G^Θ becomes more on -ve side and the reduction becomes easier.

Question 4.
Before final metallurgical operations the concentrated ore is subjected to some preliminary chemical treatments. Two processes employed for this purpose are carried out in reverberatory furnace.

1. Name the two processes.
2. To which form the ore is converted through these processes?

Answer:

1. Calcination and Roasting
2. In both processes ore is converted into oxide form.

Question 5.
Match the following:

Process	Metal Purified
1) Mond’s Process	Zirconium
2) van Arkel process	Silicon
3) Zone refining	Zinc
4) Distillation	Nickel

Answer:

Process	Metal Purified
1) Mond’s Process	Nickel
2) van Arkel process	Zirconium
3) Zone refining	Silicon
4) Distillation	Zinc

Question 6.
What is Ellingham diagram? Mention its application.
Answer:
It is a graph showing the variation of ∆_rG°forthe formation of oxides with temperature. It helps in the choice of reducing agent in the reduction of oxides.

Question 7.
Although thermodynamically feasible, in practice, magnesium metal is not used for the reduction of alumina in the metallurgy of Aluminium. Why?
Answer:
The process would be uneconomic because Mg itself is a costly metal. Moreover, there is one technological difficulty also. The reaction between Mg and Al₂O₃ is exothermic. If the temperature increases to 2000 K then the reverse reaction becomes feasible, i.e., Al starts reducing MgO.

Question 8.
Distinguish between mineral and ore.
Answer:

• Mineral: Various compounds of metals which are found in earth’s crust.
• Ores: The minerals from which metal can be easily and economically extracted.

Question 9.
Which flux can be used to remove a metal oxide impurity from a sulphide ore of noble metal? Substantiate.
Answer:
Silica, SiO₂. Generally, metal oxides are basic in nature. To remove basic impurities an acidic flux like SiO₂ is used.

Question 10.
Match the following:

Answer:

• Aluminium – Leaching – Bauxite
• Copper – Malachite – Brass
• Mond’s process – Nickel – CO

Question 11.
Match the following:

Answer:

• Mond’s process – Vapour phase refining – Nickel
• Sulphide ore – Zinc blende – Froth floatation
• Germanium – Zone refining – Semiconductor
• Calamine – ZnCO₃ – Calcination

Question 12.
Differentiate Cast Iron and pig iron.
Answer:
1. Cast iron:

• It is a form of iron obtained from pig iron.
• lt has 3% carbon content.

2. Pig iron:

• It is the least pure form of iron obtained directly from the blast furnace.
• It contains about 4% carbon and many impurities in smaller amount.

Question 13.
How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Answer:
Copper is leached out using acid or bacteria. The solution containing Cu²⁺ ions is treated with iron scrap or H₂ to recover copper.
Cu²⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → Cu(s) + Fe²⁺(aq)
Cu²⁺(aq) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + 2H⁺(aq)

Question 14.
Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?
Answer:
Carbon is a poor reducing agent for sulphide ores whereas it is good reducing agent for oxide ores.

Question 15.
What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Answer:
Graphite rod acts as anode in the electrometallurgy of aluminium. Graphite anode facilitates reduction of Al₂O₃ to aluminium by electrolysis. Carbon reacts with oxygen liberated at anode producing CO and CO₂

Question 16.
Name the common elements present in the anode mud in electrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so present?
Answer:
The elements antimony, selenium, gold, silver, platinum, etc. are present in the anode mud during refining of copper. These impurities being less electropositive do not undergo oxidation at anode and hence settle down as such.

Plus Two Chemistry General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following are some ores. Calamine (ZnCO₃), Haematite (Fe₂O₃), Cinnabar (HgS), Bauxite (Al₂O₃.2H₂O)

1. Which ore is concentrated by froth floating process?
2. How is Haematite concentrated?
3. Which of the ores is concentrated by leaching?

Answer:

1. Cinnabar (HgS). Sulphide ores are concentrated by this process.
2. By magnetic separation.
3. Bauxite (Al₂O₃.2H₂O)

Question 2.
Some data are given below:
(Iron tank, Carbon lining, Cryolite, Carbon blocks, Electricity)

1. Identify the metal whose metallurgy is associated here.
2. Explain the extraction of this metal.

Answer:

1. Aluminium.
2. The alumina is dissolved in a mixture of molten cryolite. It is then electrolysed in a rectangular steel tank, with carbon lining, which serves as cathode. Anode is a set of thick carbon rods suspended from top into the fused Al₂O₃. The temperature is maintained as 1200 Kand 1310 K. Oxygen is evolved at anode which reacts with carbon of anode producing CO and CO₂. Aluminium formed at the cathode gets collected.

Question 3.

1. What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
2. Match the following :

Metal	Process
1. Al	Mond’s process
2. Si	van Arkel process
3. Zr	Zone refining
4. Ni	Leaching

Answer:
1. Cryolite is used as a solvent to dissolve alumina.
2.

• Al → Leaching
• Si → Zone refining
• Zr → van Arkel process
• Ni → Mond’s process

Question 4.

1. Name the chief ores of Aluminium and Iron.
2. What methods are employed for the concentration of these ores?

Answer:
1. The chief ores of Aluminium and Iron

• Al → Bauxite
• Iron → Haematite

2. Bauxite is concentrated by leaching and haematite is concentrated by magnetic separation.

Question 5.
The choice of reducing agents in a particular case depends on the thermodynamic factor.

1. How far do you agree with this statement?
2. Support your opinion with an example.

Answer:

1. The statement is true. Choice of reducing agents depends strongly on factors like ΔH, ΔS, ΔG and T for the formation of the oxide to be reduced.
2. Electropositive metals like Al, K etc. can be extracted using electricity. Whereas CO is used for reducing haematite in the extraction of iron.

Question 6.
You are provided with samples of impure copper and germanium.

1. Which method would you recommend for the purification of each of these metals?
2. What is ‘‘Copper matte”? How is it formed?

Answer:

1. Coper – Electrolytic refining
   Germanium – Zone refining
2. The copper in the furnace that contains Cu₂S and FeS is called copper matte. It is formed when copper ore is heated in reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica.

Question 7.
As a part of a field trip, students visited a metallurgical plant. They saw that metal is heated in a slopping floor of the furnace.

1. Give the name of this process.
2. Which type of metals are purified by this method?
3. Give example.

Answer:

1. Liquation
2. Metals with low melting point
3. Lead, Tin etc.

Question 8.
Blast furnace produces molten iron which contains impurities such as carbon and sulphur. To make steel, oxygen is blown into the surface of the molten iron. Other elements are then added to give the type of steel required.

1. What is slag?
2. Name the two gases formed when oxygen reacts with the impurities.
3. Name one element which is added to iron to make steel.

Answer:

1. Slag is a substance formed by the reaction of impurities with flux.
2. Carbon dioxide and Sulphur dioxide.
3. Carbon.

Question 9.
What do you mean by refining? Mention the methods also.
Answer:
The process of removal of impurities from the crude metal is called refining. The methods are:

• Distillation
• Liquation
• Electrolytic refining
• Zone refining
• Van Arkel process
• Mond’s process
• Chromatographic methods

Question 10.
Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Answer:
Metals occupying low positions in the electrochemical series can be extracted by hydrometallurgy. The metals occupying higher positions in the electrochemical series cannot be extracted by hydrometallurgy because such metal ions are difficult to be reduced.

Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy because it occupies lower position in the electrochemical series but Zn occupies higher position.

Plus Two Chemistry General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The metals such as Ge, Ga, Si etc. are used as semiconductors. So they are to be obtained at high degree of purity.

1. Name the method to obtain highly pure Si.
2. Ti is purified by using I₂. Name the process.
3. What is Mond’s process?

Answer:

1. Zone refining.
2. van Arkel Process.
3. For the refining of nickel. In this process, nickel is heated in a stream of CO forming a volatile complex, Ni(CO)₄. It is decomposed at high temperature giving pure nickel.

Ni + 4CO → Ni(CO)₄ → Ni + 4CO

Question 2.
Some ores are given below:
(ZnS, Al₂O₃, Fe₂O₃,Cu₂S)
Make a table containing ores, methods of concentration, name of the metal and alloy of the metal.
Answer:

Question 3.

1. The value of enthalpy of formation for Cr₂O₃ is -540 kJ/mol and that of Al₂O₃is -827 kJ/mol. Is the reduction of Cr₂O₃ possible with Al?
2. Name the metallurgical refining techniques used for Ge and Ni.

Answer:
1. Yes. From the enthalpy of formation values of the concerned oxides it is celar that Al is a strong reducing agent than Cr.

2.

Element	Metallurgical technique
Ge	Zone refining
Ni	Mond’s process

Question 4.

1. What is the importance of Ellingham diagram?
2. Using the following Ellingham diagram select the suitable reducing agents that can be used for the reduction of Fe₂O₃ in blast furnace above and below 1000 K.

Answer:
1. Ellingham diagram help us in predicting the feasibility of thermal reduction of ore. The criteria is that at a given temperature Gibbs energy of reaction should be negative.

2. Below 1000 K CO is the good reducing agent while above 1000 K carbon is the good reducing agent. This is because below 1000 K the (CO, CO₂) line is below the (Fe, FeO) line. But, above 1000 Kthe (C, CO₂) line is below the (Fe, FeO) line.

Question 5.
Bauxite is ore of Aluminium.

1. What do you mean by an ore?
2. Name the method which is used to purify Bauxite.
3. Write two examples for ores and their purification methods.

Answer:
1. The mineral from which metal can be easily and economically extracted is called ore.
2. Leaching
3. Two examples for ores and their purification methods

• Hematite → Magnetic separation
• Cinnabar → Froath floatation

Question 6.

1. What is the role of depressant in froth floatation process?
2. Explain with an example.

Answer:

1. Depressants prevent certain type of particles from forming froth during froth floatation process.
2. NaCN acts as a depressant for ZnS but not for PbS. Thus, when an ore containing PbS and ZnS is subjected to froth floatation process NaCN selectively prevents ZnS from coming to the froth but allows PbS to come with the froth. In this way, PbS can be separated from ZnS.

Question 7.

1. Which ore is used for the extraction of Al?
2. What do you mean by extraction of Aluminium?
3. Explain the process of purification of ore with chemical equations.

Answer:

1. Bauxite
2. Removal of earthy impurities (gangue) from bauxite ore and separation of metallic aluminium is called extraction of aluminium.
3. Bauxite is treated with NaOH solution and sodium meta aluminate is formed. The aluminate solution is neutralised by passing CO₂ gas and hydrated Al₂O₃ is precipitated by seeding with freshly prepared samples of hydrated Al₂O₃. Hydrated alumina is filtered, dried and heated to obtain pure Al₂O₃

Plus Two Chemistry General Principle and Processes of Isolation of Elements NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Answer:
Metals occupying low positions in the electrochemical series can be extracted by hydrometallurgy because the metal ions (Mn⁺) of such metals can be easily reduced by treatment with some more electropositive metal. The metals occupying higher positions in the electrochemical series cannot be extracted by hydrometallurgy because the metal ions of such metals are difficult to be reduced.

Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy because it occupies quite lower position in the electrochemical series. On the other hand, zinc cannot be extracted by hydrometallurgy because it occupies higher position in the series and has large negative reduction potential.

Question 2.
How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Answer:
Copper is leached out using acid or bacteria. The solution containing Cu²⁺ ions is treated with iron scrap or H₂ to recover copper.
Cu²⁺(aq) + Fe(s) → Cu(s) + Fe²⁺(aq)
Cu²⁺(aq) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + 2H⁺(aq)

Question 3.
Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?
Answer:
Carbon is a poor reducing agent for sulphide ores whereas it is good reducing agent for oxide ores.

Question 4.
What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Answer:
Graphite rod acts as anode in the electrometallurgy of aluminium. Graphite anode facilitates reduction of Al₂O₃ to aluminium by electrolysis. Carbon reacts with oxygen liberated at anode producing CO and CO₂
At anode:
C (solid) + O^2- (melt) → CO(g) + 2e^–
C(solid) + 2O^2-(melt) → CO₂(g) + 4e^–
At cathode:
Al³⁺(melt + 3e^– → Al(I)

Question 5.
Name the common elements present in the anode mud in electrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so present?
Answer:
The elements antimony, selenium, gold, silver, platinum, etc. are present in the anode mud during refining of copper. These impurities being less electropositive do not undergo oxidation at the anode and hence settle down as such.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Rural Development Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Rural Development

Plus One Economics Rural Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rural developments include:
(i) education and skill developments
(ii) land reforms
(iii) measures for alleviation of poverty
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 2.
Shift of workforce from agriculture to other allied activities like livestock, poultry, fisheries, etc, is known as.
Answer:
Diversification.

Question 3.
Golden revolution is associated with?
(i) Horticulture
(ii) Livestock
(iii) Fisheries
(iv) Pulses
Answer:
(i) Horticulture

Question 4.
How many banks were nationalised in 1969?
(i) 6
(ii) 9
(iii) 14
(iv) 20
Answer:
(iii) 14

Question 5.
White revolution is related to
(i) Bamboo
(ii) Cash crop
(iii) Milk
(iv) Foodgrain
Answer:
(iii) Milk

Question 6.
Blue revolution is related to
(i) Milk
(ii) Fish
(iii) Egg
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(ii) Fish

Question 7.
Which among the following is an advantage of organic fanning
(i) It is labour intensive
(ii) It is environment-friendly
(iii) It uses locally produced organic inputs
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 8.
Complete the following statement.
The credit provisions of SHGs are generally referred to as ………………..
Answer:
Microcredit programs.

Question 9.
“Regulated Market yards benefit farmers as well as consumers”. Do you agree with this statement?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement that the Regulated Market yields benefit farmers as well as consumers.

Plus One Economics Rural Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is TANWA?
Answer:
TANWA stands for Tamil Nadu Women in Agriculture. It is a project initiated in Tamil Naud to train women in latest agricultural techniques. It includes women to actively participate in raising agricultural productivity and family income. They promote small scale household activities like soap manufacturing, doll making etc.

Question 2.
Name few horticultural crops.
Answer:
Names of horticultural crops are:

• Fruits
• Vegetables
• Medicinal plants

Plus One Economics Rural Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the following.
a. Percentage of population living in the rural area is
(i) 25%
(ii) 50%
(iii) 75%
(iv) 90%
b. NABARD is the open bank providing credit to sector
(i) ombined sector
(ii) industrial sector
(iii) agricultural sector
(iv) tertiary sector
c. The Golden revolution was a period of very high productivity in
(i) food grain production
(ii) horticulture
(iii) organic farming
(iv) pisciculture
Answer:
a. (iii) 75%
b. (iii) agricultural sector
c. (ii) horticulture

Question 2.
Why the co-operative marketing could not gain momentum in India?
Answer:
Co-operative marketing has failed to gain adequate success in India because of inadequate coverage of farmer members and lack of appropriate link between marketing and processing management.

Question 3.
What do you mean by organic farming?
Answer:
Eco-friendly technology of cultivation is known as organic farming, it is the farming without using chemical fertilizers or pesticides. It uses natural mannure.

Question 4.
Give reasons for the declining share of agriculture in GDP of India.
Answer:
After the initiation of reforms, the growth rate of agriculture sector has declined to 2.3% during the 1990s which was lower than earlier years. The reasons for this decline are inadequate infrastructure, alternate employment opportunities in the industry or service sector, increase in casualisation of employment in agriculture, etc.

Question 5.
Explain the term ‘golden revolution’.
Answer:
The growth of horticulture sector at a spectacular speed is called ‘Gloden Revolution’. The period between 1991 – 2003 is known as the period of golden revolution. During this period, the investment in horticulture became highly productive and the sector emerged as a sustainable livelihood option. Thus India could become leading producer of mangoes, bananas, coconuts etc.

Question 6.
Name a few traditional industries in India.
Answer:
The traditional industries of India are:

• Pottery
• Crafts
• Handloom
• Textiles
• Bamboo

Question 7.
Prepare a note on ‘Kudumbashree’ in Kerala.
Answer:
Kudumbasree is a women-oriented community-based poverty reduction programme being implemented in kerala. The objective of this group is to encourage savings. The small savings in women’s group creates more employment and productive atmosphere in women’s groups.

Question 8.
Prepare a note on NABARD?
Answer:
NABARD stands for National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. It was established in 1982, July. It has been assigned the role performed by agricultural refinance and development corporation and also the role performed by RBI for rural credit. NABARD provides short term loans for agricultural operation.

Plus One Economics Rural Development Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing? Give examples:
Answer:
Following are the alternative channels available for agricultural marketing.

1. Co-operative Credit Societies
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Regional Rural Banks
4. Commercial Banks
5. NABARD
6. Self Help Groups (SHGs)

Question 2.
Critically appraise Rural banking operations in the light of recent farmers suicides in India.
Answer:
Operation of rural banking had a positive effect on rural farm and non-farm output, income, and employment. Farmers were given a variety of loans for meeting production needs. This helped India to achieve food security and to gain a huge buffer stock of grains.

However our banking system in the rural area could not meet all loan needs of the farmers. Some of the farmers still depend on local moneylenders. This system failed to develop a culture of deposit mobilization. Agriculture loan default was very high.

Question 3.
Mention some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing.
Answer:
The farmers suffer from many problems relating to agricultural marketing. Some obstacles that hinder the mechanism of agricultural marketing are mentioned below.

• faulty weighing
• manipulation of accounts
• forced to sell at lower prices
• lack of proper storage facilities
• lack of infrastructure facilities
• inadequate coverage of farmers by cooperatives
• inefficient financial management

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 5.
‘Rainbow revolution is meant for overall agricultural development’, comment.
Answer:
The rainbow revolution is meant for overall development of Indian agriculture. Under rainbow revolution, the following revolutions are included.

Plus One Economics Rural Development Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State whether true or false.

1. Organic food has higher nutritional value compared to non-organic food
2. Ten commercial banks were nationalized in 1969
3. Golden revolution happened in fisheries
4. SHG stands for Social Health Groups
5. Use of chemical fertilizers lead to pollution.

Answer:

1. True
2. False. Fourteen commercial banks were nationalized in 1969
3. False. Golden revolution happened in horticulture
4. False. SHG stands for Self Help Groups
5. True

Question 2.
“Organic farming and sustainable development are closely related to each other”. Substantiate.
Answer:
In recent years, awareness of the harmful effect of chemical-based fertilizers and pesticides on our health is on a rise. Conventional agriculture relies heavily on chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides etc., which enter the food supply, penetrate the water sources, harm the livestock, deplete the soil and devastate natural eco-systems.

Efforts in evolving technologies which are ecofriendly are essential for sustainable development and one such technology which is eco-friendly is organic farming. In short, organic agriculture is a whole system of farming that restores, maintains and enhances the ecological balance.

There is an increasing demand for organically grown food to enhance food safety throughout the world. Thus it can be stated that organic farming and sustainable development are closely related to each other.

Question 3.
Identify the benefits and limitations of organic farming.
Answer:
A. Benefits of Organic Farming
1. Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs with locally produced organic inputs that are cheaper and thereby generate good returns on investment.

2. Organic agriculture also generates incomes through international exports as the demand for organically grown crops is on a rise. Studies across countries have shown that organically grown food has more nutritional value than chemical farming thus providing us with healthy foods.

3. Since organic farming requires more labour input than conventional farming, India will find organic farming an attractive proposition

4. the organic produce is pesticide-free and produced in an environmentally sustainable way

5. Organic fanning helps in sustainable development of agriculture and India has a clear advantage in producing organic products for both domestic and international markets.

B. Limitations of organic farming
1. Popularizing organic farming requires awareness and willingness on the part of farmers to adapt to new technology.

2. Inadequate infrastructure and the problem of marketing the products are major concerns which need to be addressed apart from appropriate agriculture policy to promote organic farming.

3. It has been observed that the yields from organic farming are less than modem agricultural farming in the initial years. Therefore, small and marginal farmers may find it difficult to adapt to large scale production.

4. Organic produce may also have more blemishes . and a shorter shelf life than sprayed produce. Moreover choice in production of off-season crops is quite limited inorganic farming.

Question 4.
Narrate the importance of agricultural diversification in promoting rural sector?
Answer:
Agricultural diversification is a system of fanning that encourages production of a variety of plant and animals and their products. Non-farm employment provides greater income stability, economies of size also reduces uncertainty of business. It involves maximum number of persons as it is labour intensive in nature.

The majority of small and marginal farmers cultivate mainly low-value subsistence crops. In the absence of farm and non-farm employment opportunities, they are forced to live below poverty line. So this problem is solved with the help of commercialisation and diversification of small farmers within and outside agriculture and their proper integration with local and global markets.

This is helpful not only in liberating the small and marginal farmers from the poverty trap, but also to meet the country’s growing demands for fruits, vegetables, milk and milk products, meat, fishes, eggs, etc. which generally show rising trends with increasing levels of per capita income in the economy.

Question 5.
“Rural development focuses on actions for the development of the areas that are lagging behind in the overall development of the development of the village economy” point out the areas of rural development.
Answer:
Rural development is quite a comprehensive term but it essentially means a plan of action for the development of areas which are lagging behind in socio-economic development. Some of the areas which are challenging and need fresh initiatives for development in India include

a. Development of human resources including:

1. Literacy, more specifically, female literacy, education and skill development
2. Health, addressing both sanitation and public health

b. Land reforms

c. Development of infrastructure development like electricity, irrigation, credit, marketing, transport facilities including construction of village roads and feeder roads to nearby highways, facilities for agriculture research and extension, and information dissemination

d. Introduction of special measures for alleviation of poverty and bringing about significant improvement in the living conditions of the weaker sections of the population emphasizing access to productive employment opportunities.

Question 6.
Explain some measures taken by the government to improve agricultural marketing.
Answer:
Agricultural marketing encompasses all activities in moving farm products from the producers to the final consumers such as storage, transport, processing, etc. In India, agricultural marketing was regarded as operationally inefficient and exploitative in character. Hence to improve the position of agricultural marketing following things are required :

1.  Facilities for storing goods.
2. Adequate and economical transport.
3. Eliminination of intermediaries.
4. Basic information of market conditions to get better prices for the produce.

The above mentioned requirements for efficient agricultural marketing can be also classified into the following.

1. Promotion of cooperative agricultural marketing societies.
2. Developing regulated markets where marketing practices have been standardized so as to provide encouragement to farmers to come to mandis to dispose off their produce and prevent them from exploitation in the hand of Dallas.
3. Granding and standardisation of produce to help the farmer to fetch better prices.
4. Developing warehousing facilities, road transport, etc.
5. Declaration of support price that offers a minimum price to the farmers for their produce.