Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Section – A

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 1.
Indian towns are classified into three types on the basis of evolution.
Answer:

  1. Ancient Cities: Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Patliputra (Patna), Mathura.
  2. Mediaeval Cities: Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Nagpur.2
  3. Modern Cities: Bombay (Mumbai), Madras (Chennai), Kolkata, Goa.

Question 2.
Identify the two types of water transport.
Answer:
i) Inland Waterways.
ii) Sea Routes.

Question 3.
List out the consequences of air pollution.
Answer:

  1. Air pollution is harmful to the health of the people. It causes diseases like asthma, bronchitis, allergy, lung cancer, etc.
  2. Atmospheric pollution creates misty smoke above cities. This is called urban smog. It has been proved beyond doubt that smog is harmful to the health of people.
  3. Air pollution causes acid rain. Acid rain brings about risky problems to the health of man and atmosphere.
  4. The World Health Organization points out that the greatest killer in South East Asia is air pollution.

Question 4.
State the importance of internet as a com-munication system.
Answer:
It is in the urban areas the internet is used widely. Nowadays it is common to find the use of the internet even in the villages. E-mail, e-commerce and e-banking have become very widespread these days. Through e-mail the user can establish visible contact with others. The growth that has taken place in e- commerce in recent times is mind-boggling. E-banking helps the user to do banking activities sitting right in his home.

The internet is a treasure house of knowledge. It has collected detailed information regarding various subjects and we can easily access it. The Internet enables us to get information least expensively, and in quick time in an easy way. Not only that, it provides the basic facilities to establish visible communicative relations.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 5.
State the importance of availability of labour as a factor influencing industrial location.
Answer:
Any industry needs workers. Without workers industries cannot function. Industries are usually established in places where skilled and unskilled workers are easily available at low costs. Since India has a sufficiently large population, workers are available in large numbers. But skilled workers may not be available in sufficient numbers everywhere. Therefore it becomes necessary to start such industries where skilled workers are available. For example the diamond industry is concentrated in Surat because of the availability of skilled workers. Existing industries are sometimes moved to places where cheap labour is available.

Question 6.
Identify the role of Entrepot ports in Interna- tionai trade. Write two examples for entrepot ports.
Answer:
Entrepots are ports where goods brought from different countries are collected and kept for exporting to other countries. Examples: Singapore, Rotterdam, Copenhagen.

Question 7.
Write a note on Truck Farming.
Answer:
In some areas farmers concentrate only on producing vegetables. Such farming is called truck farming. Between the truck farm and the market the distance should be such that a truck can reach the market in one night. That is why this kind of farming is called truck farming.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 8.
What is crude birth rate? How is it calculated?
Answer:
The death rate also plays a big role in the population change. It is not only when the birth rate is high that the population growth occurs, but also when the birth rate is low. Death rate is calculated by using the simple method of Crude Death Rate (CDR). CDR means in the population of a pface how many persons die for each 1000 persons. This is how it is calculated:
\(\frac{\text { The total Deaths in a year }(\mathrm{D})=\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\text { Mid Year population }(\mathrm{P})}\)
DDR = \(\frac{\mathrm{D} \times 1000}{\mathrm{P}}\)

Question 9.
What is Bilateral trade?
Answer:
Bilateral trade is the trade between two countries. This is a system in which two countries enter into a trade agreement and mutually trade some special products.
For example India enters into an agreement with Japan, to buy Indian made goods and Japan enters an agreement with India to sell Japanese raw materials.

Question 10.
Define population density. Write the equation used to calculate the population density.
Answer:
Population density is the number of people living in a square kilometre in a particular area. There is a limit to the number of people an area can contain. Therefore there is a need to know the ratio between the number of people and area of the land. This ratio is the density of population. The equation for the population density is:
Population Density = \(\frac{\text { Number of People }}{\text { Land Area }}\)
For example let us imagine the place called Bepur is 100 sq.km in area and its population is 150,000. The density of population there is 1500 persons per sq.km.

Section – B

Answer any 8 questions from 11 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 11.
List out the benefits of Integrated Tribal Development Project.(ITDP).
Answer:
The Integrated Tribal Development Programme (ITDP) is being implemented under the Tribal Sub-Plan since the fifth five- year plan. The main objective of the programme is to reduce poverty, improve the educational status and eliminating the exploitation of tribal families. Currently, there are 192 projects in 19 states and union territories. Bharmaur is a tribal area. The region has harsh climatic conditions, low resource base and a very fragile environment. It is one of the most economically and socially backward regions of Himachal Pradesh.

The area is geographically and politically isolated and it has social and economical deprivation. The economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities like sheep and goat rearing. Because of ITDP, the development and establishment of schools, health care facilities, hospitals, potable water, roads, communications and electricity were largely observed in the region. The literacy rate increased. The male-female ratio became better. There were less child marriages. Literacy rate of women increased in a big way. Now they cultivate different crops including cash crops. However they are still using traditional methods in their cultivation.

Question 12.
Elaborate the following:
1. Isochrone
2. Time Distance
3. Cost Distance
Answer:
1. Isochrone: Iso means equal and chrone means time. We choose a means of transport thinking of the distance, time and expense. An isoerhone is a line drawn on a map connecting points at which something arrives at the same time. To join places that can be reached in the same amount of time, lines with same colour are used on the maps.

2. Time Distance: The actual time used to travel in a particular route.

3. Cost distance: The actual expenses incurred to travel in a route.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 13.
Technology indicates the level of cultural development of a society.
Answer:
Technology is developed after carefully studying about natural laws. After finding ways to control fire, which was a prehistoric invention, and the later Stone Age Revolution increased the sources of food. The invention of the wheel helped man to travel on the earth and to exercise some control over it. Many developments in history like the invention of the printing press, telephone and the Internet reduced the physical obstacles in communication and allowed man to conduct his activities on a global basis. Technology has many benefits.

Including today’s global markets, technology has made extensive development in the economic field. Some technological innovations have caused unnecessary and dangerous by-products. Pollution, environmental degradation, depletion of natural resources, etc. are some such unwanted side effects of technology. Moreover technology often influences the values of the society and raises new moral questions. Until recently it was believed that technological development is limited to people and their affairs. But scientific studies carried out in the 21st century show that even some other species and some dolphin communities develop simple tools and transfer their knowledge to the next generations.

Question 14.
Write any six important characteristic features of plantation agriculture.
Answer:
Large capital investment, cheap labour, scientific methods of cultivation, large estates or plantations, managerial and technical support, single crop specialisation, and a good system of transportation etc. are some of the salient features of plantation agriculture.

Question 15.
List out the challenges faced by adolescents in India.
Answer:
Competent youths are a great asset to the nation. But if the youths are not properly guided they will go astray and then they will become a threat to the society. Early marriage among youths, illiteracy, drop-out from schools, lack of nutritious food, death of teenage mothers in childbirth, HIV/AIDS, physical and mental deficiencies, use of psychedelic drugs, alcoholism, criminal tendencies etc. are some of the challenges towards society.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 16.
Efficient use of water is necessary to ensure sustainable development. Suggest a fewways for the Reuse of water.
Answer:
Another way to improve the availability of pure water is recycling and reusing of water. This is the process of reusing the water which has been used once by purifying it or using that water for some other purposes.

The water that is not potable can be used in industries for cooling or, to extinguish fires. Water can economically used by doing this. In the urban areas, the water used for taking bath and cleaning plates and utensils can be again used for watering the garden. The water used for washing vehicles can also be used for watering the garden. This way pure water can be reserved for drinking purposes.

Question 17.
What is Transhumance? Identify the tribal groups engaged in Transhumance.
Answer:
Depending on the climatic changes, the people of some regions move to other regions along with their domestic animals. In the summer season, they move their animals from the plains to the meadows in the hilly regions. But in the winter, they bring them back to the plains. This kind of migration according to seasonal changes is called Transhumance. Gujars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Changpas are the tribafgroups engaged in transhumance.

Question 18.
State the importance of the Northern Atlantic Sea Route.
Answer:
Two Regions in the world that have achieved industrial development are North-Eastern America and North-Western Europe. These regions are connected by the North Atlantic sea route. This sea route has much economic importance. The highest amount of foreign trade takes place along this sea route. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade takes place through this path. As the busiest sea route in the world this is called the Big Trunk Route.

Question 19.
What are the characteristics of fourth phase (post 1981 till present) of population growth of India?
Answer:
The period from 1981 to the present day is the 4th stage of population growth. During this period there was the tendency of gradual decline in the population growth. Although the number of people increased, the rate of population growth was reduced.

The main reason for this is the lower birth rate. The increase in the marriage-able age and the increase in women education helped in reducing the birth rate. Even then the country’s rate of population increase is high. The Wold Development Report points out that by 2025, India’s population is expected to reach 135 crore.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 20.
Write a short note on Retail Trading.
Answer:
Retail Trading is the selling of products to the consumers directly. Retail trading is done through permanent shops or stores. Some trading also takes place outside stores. Street vendors, people selling goods in push carts, people selling things from trucks, people who sell things door to door, trading by giving orders via the rail, the telephone and the internet are examples’ of retail trading not done through stores.

Section – C

Aswer any 5 questions from 21 to 27. Each carries 4 scores. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 21.
Briefly describe the pillars of Human devel-opment.
Answer:
The four main pillars of Human Development are:
a) equity,
b) sustainability,
c) productivity,
d) empowerment.

a) Equity: Equity refers to creating equal access to opportunities and ensures that is available to everybody. The opportunities accessible to people must be equal irrespective of their caste, gender, race, and income. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.

b)Sustainability: Sustainability means durableness in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the expectations of people not only of the present but also of the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

c) Productivity : In the case of human development, productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity should be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Eventually, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, an effort to increase their knowledge, and providing better health facilities automatically lead to better work efficiency.

d) Empowerment: Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and aptitude. Good governance and people-oriented policies are necessary to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically underprivileged groups is of special importance.

Question 22.
Describe the features of High Technology Industry.
Answer:
In high technology industry, the majority of workers have acquired technical expertise (White- Collar workers). Their number will be more than the labourers who actually do the production work. The use of robots, design by computers, production and quality control by electronic control, new developments in the chemical-pharmaceutical products are some of the features High Technology Industry.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 23.
Describe the following with suitable ex-amples:
(a) Administrative Towns and Cities
(b) Industrial Towns
(c) Transport Cities
(d) Mining Towns
Answer:
a) Administrative Towns and Cities:
Administrative Towns and Cities are places from which administration is done. Capital cities and district headquarters come under this category. Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, etc. are examples of administrative towns and cities.

b) Industrial Towns: These are towns that give importance to industries. Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Bhilai, Jamshedpur, Hugli etc. are important industries cities and towns of India. Industry is the life-breath of these cities.

c) Transport Cities: Ports that are engaged in exports and imports and transport cities. Internal transport hubs like Kandla, Kochi, Kozhikode, Visakhapatanam, etc. also come under this category. Agra, Dulia, Mughalsarai, Itarsi, Katni etc. are some of the transport cities.

d) Mining Towns: In’the regions which are rich in mineral wealth and other deposits, mining towns grow up. Raniganj, Jharia, Digboy, Ankaleshwar, Singroli, etc. are examples of mining towns.

Question 24.
Describe any two cropping seasons in India.
Answer:
Two important cropping seasons in India are Kharif and Rabi. The Kharif cropping season starts with the onset of the South-Western monsoons. The harvest is by the end of the monsoons. This season is roughly between June and September. The main Kharif crops are paddy, cotton, jute, maize, bajra, jowar and groundnuts.

The Rabi cropping season starts at the beginning of the Winter season in October- November. The harvest is done in the months – of March April. The reduced temperature of this period is very helpful for the Rabi crops. Wheat, Barley, Oats, Pulses, Mustard and Linseed are the main Rabi crops.

Question 25.
Availability of water influences the distribution of population. Explain any two other geo¬graphical factors influencing population distribution.
Answer:
a) Climate: Climates with extreme cold and extreme heat are not suitable for human habitation. Therefore in scorching deserts, and in the cold regions the population is very little. People don’t like to live in places which have too much rainfall. People are attracted to places where the climate is good, the moderate regions. The Mediterranean regions always had big populations. The reason for that is the pleasant climate there, b) Soil: The fertility of the soil is very important when it comes to agriculture and other related matters. As fertile soils yield good harvests, people like to live in such regions.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 26.
Write a note on ‘the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:
Over-exploitation of mineral resource is equally harmful to man and the environment. So, the mineral resources are to be protected at any cost. Sustainable development is the development which gives due consideration to the protection of nature. The traditional ways of using mineral resources are not at all good. They not only overexploit nature, but they also produce a lot of waste polluting everything. Sustainable development demands that the mineral resources should be preserved for the use of future generations. Preserving those resources is an urgent need. Steps should be taken to do that with a sense of priority.

The energy from sunrays, wind and waves, thermal energy, organic energy etc. are never ending. Instead of using the minerals that can be exhausted, we should use the inexhaustible sources for our energy needs.” In short we should develop non-traditional sources of energy. We also should learn to use easily available metals instead of the rare ones. This will reduce the use of rare metals and thus the rare metals can be made to last long.

We should stop exporting minerals that are rare and strategically important. The available metals then can be used for a long time. In short to protect the mineral wealth we should stop their over-exploitation and overuse. Along with that we must develop alternate sources of energy instead of depending on the traditional sources.

Question 27.
Identify and mark the following geoinformation on the given outline map of India.
(a) The Northern most International Airport in India.
(b) The largest container port in India.
(c) An oil refinery in Kerala.
(d) The oil field off the coast of Mumbai.
Answer:
a) Srinagar/Amritsar
b) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Nhava Sheva
c) Kochi
d) Mumbai High

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2024 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Previous Year Question Paper March 2024

Maximum : 60 Scores
Time : 2 Hours
Cool-ff time : 15 minutes

Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time is….
Answer:
Population growth

Question 2.
The oldest approach to human development is
Answer:
Income approach

Question 3.
The type of mining in which the output is both large and rapid is
Surface Mining/Open-cast mining

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 4.
The theory used to describe and predict the future population of any area is
Answer:
Demographic Transition Theory

Question 5.
The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is termed as
Answer:
Environmental Determinism.

Answer any 8 questions from 6 to 15. Each carries 2 scores. (8 × 2 = 16)

Question 6.
There are several problems faced by Indian agriculture. Two of them are mentioned below. Cite the other ones.
(a) Dependence on erratic monsoon
(b) Low productivity
Answer:

  1. Constraints of Financial Resources and indebtedness
  2. Lack of Land Reforms
  3. Small farm size and fragmentation of landholdings
  4. Lack of Commercialisation
  5. Vast under-employment
  6. Degradation of cultivable Land

Question 7.
Complete the flow chart showing different types of farming.
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 1
Answer:
Types of Farming
(a) Irrigated Farming
(c) Protective Farming
(e) Dryland Farming
(f) Wetland Farming

Question 8.
Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got significance because of enormous growth in the quantity of wastes generated from various sources. Name the two sources of solid wastes.
Answer:

  1. Household or domestic establishments
  2. Industrial or commercial establishments

Question 9.
State any two advantages of non-conventional energy resources.
Answer:
These are the only renewable sources of energy:

  1. These energy sources are more equitably distributed and environment friendly.
  2. It will provide more sustained, eco-friendly cheaper energy after the initial cost is taken care of. Egs.: Solar, wind, wave, Biogas etc.,

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 10.
International trade is the exchange of goods and services among countries across national boundaries. Identify and explain the two types of international trade.
Answer:
Types of International Trade

  • Bilateral Trade
    1. It is done by two countries with each other
    2. They enter into agreement to trade specified commodities amongst them.
  • Multilateral Trade:
    1. It is conducted with many trading countries
    2. The same country can trade with a number of other countries

Question 11.
Prepare a brief note on transhumance.
Answer:
Trnashumance

  1. The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters is known as transhumance.
  2. Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. Eg: Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas in Himalayas.

Question 12.
Write any two characteristics of slash and burn agriculture.
Answer:

  1. The vegetation is cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil.
  2. The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes
  3. After the soil loses its fertility (3-5 Yrs), the farmer shifts to other parts
  4. Widely practiced by many tribes in the tropics in Africa south and central America and South East Asia

Different Names of Shifting Cultivation

  1. Jhumming : North Eastern States of India
  2. Milpa : CentralAmerica and Mexico
  3. Laclang : Indonesia and Malaysia

Question 13.
The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports.
(i) Identify the two types of ports based on the location.
(ii) Write any one example of each.
Answer:
i) Inland Ports and Out Ports
ii) Examples: Inland Ports, Manchester, Memphis, Kolkata
Examples: Outports, Athens and its outport, Piraeus

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 14.
List out any four factors that influence the location of industries.
Answer:

  1. Access to Market
  2. Access to Raw Material
  3. Access to Raw Labour Supply
  4. Access to Sources of Energy
  5. Access to Transportation and Communi-cation Facilities
  6. Government Policy
  7. Access to Agglomeration economies / links between industries.

Question 15.
Identify the following:
(i) The concept reflects a middle path between the two ideas of environmental determinism and possibilism.
(ii) Name the propounder of the concept.
Answer:
(i) Neodeterminism or stop and go determinism
(ii) Griffith Taylor

Answer any 8 questions from 16 to 26. Each caries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 16.
On the basis of evolution in different periods, Indian towns are classified into three. Complete the flow chart.
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 2
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 3

Question 17.
Define the terms given below:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
(b) Place of Origin %
(c) Population density
Answer:
(a) Crude Birth Rate
The number of live births in a year 1,000 of population.
CBR = \(\frac{\mathrm{Bi}}{\mathrm{P}}\) x l000

(b) Place of Origin
When people move from one place to an¬other, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin.

(c) Population density
The ratio between the numbers of people and the size of land.
It is usually measured in persons per sq.km.
Density of population = \(\frac{\text { Population }}{\text { Area }}\)

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 18.
In order to arrest the regional and social disparities in development, the planning commission introduced target area and target group approaches to planning. Find the example of programmes implemented in India by using the given hint.
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 4
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 5

Question 19.
List out the four pillars of human development and explain any one of them in detail.
Answer:
1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
4. Empowerment.

  1. Equity : To making equal access to opportunities available to everybody, irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste.
  2. Sustainability :It means continuity in the availability of opportunities.
  3. Productivity : It means human labour Productivity or Productivity in terms of human work.
  4. Empowerment :  It means to have the power to make choices.

Question 20.
Write any three basic differences between rural and urban settlements.
Answer:

  • Rural Settlement
    1. People are engaged in primary economic activities.
    2. Rural People are less mobile
    3. Social relations among them are intimate
    4. People provides food and raw materials to the Urban area.
  • Urban Settlement
    1. Depend on processing of raw materials, manufacturing of finished goods and a variety of services.
    2. Life is complex and fast
    3. Social relations are formal
    4. Provides goods and services not only to the Urban dwellers but to the people of rural area.

Question 21.
The names of transcontinental railways are given I Column. A. Match the items in column B and C with A.
(A) (B) (C)
Answer:

(A) (B) (C)
Trans-continental Railways Connecting Areas Countries
Union and pacific Railway New York San Francisco USA
Trans Canadian Railway Halifax Vancouver Canada
Trans Siberian Railway St. Petersburg Vladivostok Russia

Question 22.
List out any three measures for the conservation of mineral resources.
Answer:

  1. To use alternate energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, Geothermal energy etc.
  2. Use of Scrap Metals
  3. Use of substitutes of scrap metals
  4. Export of Strategic and Scarce minerals must be reduced.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 23.
Hunting and gathering are the oldest economic activity known. Mention the characteristics of this economic activity.
Answer:

  1. Practiced by people located in very cold and extremely hot climate.
  2. This activity requires a small amount of capital investment.
  3. Operates at very low level of technology
  4. The yield per person is very law and little or no surplus is produced.

Question 24.
Identify the shipping canal depicted in the given map and discuss its features.
Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 5
Answer:
Suez canal

  1. Constructed in 1869 in Egypt
  2. Constructed between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south
  3. Links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red sea.
  4. Length-160 km Depth -11 to 15 m
  5. It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo.

Question 25.
Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. Suggest any three methods for rainwater harvesting.
Answer:

  1. Harvesting through watershed management.
  2. Harvesting through lakes
  3. Harvesting through Service Wells
  4. Harvesting through Recharge wells.

Question 26.
Transport distance can be measured in three ways. Explain them in brief.
Answer:
a) K.M. distance : actual distance of route length
b) time distance : The time taken to travel on a particular route. 1
c) Cost distance : actual cost/ expense needed for travel in one route.

Answer any 4 questions from 27 to 31. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 27.
The population of world is unevenly distributed. Discuss the various geographical factors that contribute for the differences in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Geographical Factors.

  • Availability of water :
    1. It is most important factor for life
    2. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is available.
    3. Water is used for domestic, industrial and navigation purposes.
    4. River’valleys are the most densely populated areas of the world.
  • Landforms:
    1. People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes.
    2. Such areas are favourable forthe production of crops and to build roads and industries.
    3. The Ganga plains are the most densely populated areas of the world while Himalayas are scarcely populated.
  • Climate:
    1. An extreme climate such as very hot or cold deserts are uncomfortable for human habitation.
      Areas with a comfortable climate, attract more people.
  • Soils:
    1. Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities.
    2. The areas with fertile loamy soils have more people living in them as these can support intensive agriculture.

Question 28.
Mention the advantages of water transport.
Answer:

  1. It is the cheapest means of transport.
  2. Most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material
  3. It does not require route construction.
  4. It is a fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
  5. The energy cost of water transportation is tower.
  6. The Water transport is of 2 types inland waterways and oceanic waterways.

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers

Question 29.
India’s population growth during the last century can be classified into four phases. Complete the table using the given details.

Demographic Transition Phases Characteristics
Phase – 1 (a) 1901 – 1921

(b)

(c)

Phase – 2 (a)

(b) Period of steady population growth

(c)

Phase – 3 (a)

(b)

(c) High natural growth of population

Phase – 4 (a)

(b) Growth rate remained high and started slow down gradually

(c)

Answer:

  • Phase 1
    1. Period of Stagnant / Stationary phase
    2. Growth rate was very low.
    3. Both the birth and death rates were very high
    4. Recorded a a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
  • Phase 2
    1. 1921-1951
    2. CBR remained high
    3. High birth rate and low death rate.
  • Phase 3
    1. 1951-81
    2. Period of population explosion
    3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.
  • Phase 4
    1. 1981-till present
    2. A downward trand of CBR
    3. Rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate.

Question 30.
Identify any four types of industries based on raw materials used and write any one example of each.
Answer:
Industries based on Rawmaterials / inputs

  1. Agro based Industries : Eg : Food processing, Sugar, Textiles, Spices, Rubber beverages etc.,
  2. Mineral Based Industries : Eg : Iron and steel industry, Jewellery, cement, Pottery Industries etc.
  3. Chemical Based Industries : Eg : Petro – Chemical Industry, Synthetifibre, Plastic etc.,
  4. Forest Based Industries : Eg : Furniture industry Paper, lac industries.
  5. Animal Based Industries : Eg – Leather Industry Ivory Products Wollen textiles.

Question 31.
Identify and mark the following geo information on the given outline map of India :
(a) The state which records the highest population density according to 2011 census.
(b) The leading manganese producing state.
(c) The largest container port in India.
(d) A land locked harbour in India.
Answer:
a) Bihar
b) Odisha
c) Jawaharlal Nehru Port/Nhava Sheva Port
d) Visakhapatnam

Kerala Plus Two Geography Question Paper March 2024 with Answers - 6

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021

Answer the following questions from 1 to 45 upto a maximum score of 60.

I. Questions 1 to 8 carry 1 score each. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
The name of the wave associated with matter is called …………… .
Answer:
Matter wave

Question 2.
The vertical’ plane passing through the axis of rotation of earth is called …………… .
Answer:
Geographical Meridian

Question 3.
What happens to the ray of light when it travels from rarerto denser medium?
a) Bends towards the normal
b) Bends awayfrom the normal
c) No change
Answer:
Bends towards the normal

Question 4.
Which physical quantify is quantised in Bohr’s second postulate?
Answer:
Angular momentum

Question 5.
Infrared spectrum lies between
a) Radio and microwave
b) Visible and UV
c) Microwave and visible
d) UV and X rays
Answer:
Microwave and visible

Question 6.
When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air:
a) Its wavelength decreases
b) Its wavelength increases
c) Its frequency increases
d) Its frequency decrases
Answer:
Its wavelength decreases

Question 7.
How many electrons constitute 1 coulomb of charge (e = 1.6 × 10-19 C)?
Answer:
Q = ne
1 = n × 1.6 × 10-19
n = \(\frac{1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.625 × 1019
No. of electrons, n = 6.25 × 1018

Question 8.
Name the series of hydrogen spectrum which has least wavelength.
Answer:
Lyman series

Questions from 9 to 22 carry 2 scores each. (14 × 2 = 28)

Question 9.
a) Define electrid potential. (1)
Answer:
Electric potential at a point is the workdone required to bring a unit positive charge from infinity to that point without acceleration.

b) Give the relation between electric intensity and electric potential. srii (1)
Answer:
E = \(\frac{-dV}{dx}\)

Question 10.
a) What is the principle of Potentiometer? (1)
Answer:
Potential difference between two points of a current carrying conductor is directly proportional to length between two points.

b) Write one practical application of Wheatstone’s bridge (1)
Answer:
Wheatstone’s bridge can be used to find unknown resistance.

Question 11.
A wire has a resistance of 16 Ohms. It is bent in the form of a circle. Find the effective resistance between two points on any diameter of the circle. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 3
Each half will have 8Ω resistance and these can be considered to be connected in parallel as shown.
\(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{R_2}\)
Effective resistance, R = \(\frac{R_1 R_2}{R_1+R_2}\) = \(\frac{8 \times 8}{8+8}\)
= \(\frac{64}{16}\) = 4Ω

Question 12.
a) A stationary charge can produce magnetic field. (True/False) (1)
Answer:
False

b) Write down the equation for magnetic Lorentz force. (1)
Answer:
\(\overline{\mathrm{F}}=\mathrm{q}(\bar{v} \times \overline{\mathrm{B}})\)

Question 13.
a) What is the intensity of magnetisation for magnetic materials? (1)
Answer:
Magnetic moment

b) Give the relation between B and H (1)
Answer:
B = μ0 H

Question 14.
State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.(2)
Answer:
(i) Whenever a flux linked with a coil is changed, an emf is induced in the coil.
(ii) The magnitude of induced emf is directly proportional to rate of change of flux.
ε = \(\frac{d \phi}{d t}\)

Question 15.
Draw the ray diagram for a convex lens producing virtual image. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 4

Question 16.
State any two postulates of Bohr atom model: (2)
Answer:
(i) Electrons move around the positively charged nucleus in circular orbjts.
(ii) The electron which remains in a privileged path cannot radiate its energy.

Question 17.
a) State the law of radioactive decay. (1)
Answer:
Rate of disintegration of radio active nuclei is directly proportional to number of atoms
i.e. \(\frac{dN}{dt}\) ∝ N

b) What are the number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus 92U238. (1)
Answer:
Number of protons = 92
number of neutrons = 238 – 92 = 146

Question 18.
In the magnetic meridian of certain place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.26G and the dip angle is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this location? (2)
Answer:
Horizontal component of magnetic filed, BH = 0.2669
dip angle, 0 = 60°
Earths magnetic filed BH = Bcos60
0. 26 = B cos 60°
B = \(\frac{0.26}{\cos 60}\)
= 0.52 G

Question 19.
a) Give the principle of a transformer. (1)
Answer:
Mutual induction

b) Give the two energy losses in transformer. (1)
Answer:
(i) Eddy current loss
(ii) Flux leakage loss

Question 20.
a) Draw the Phasor diagram with V and I for an inductive circuit. (1)
Answer:
VL lags I by π/2.
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 5

b) What is the phase difference between V and I in an inductive circuit. (1)
Answer:
π/2

Question 21.
Give two differences between nuclear fission and fusion. (2)
Answer:

Fission Fusion
Spliting of heavy nuclei in to two lighter nucleus Fusion of two light nuclei in to single nuclei
Alpha and beta particles are emitted Alpha and Beta particles are not emitted

Question 22.
a) What is meant by for hidden energy gap? (1)
Answer:
The energy gap between valence band and conduction band is called forbidden energy gap.

b) Write any one use of zener diode. (1)
Answer:
Zener diode is used as voltage regulator.

Questions from 23 to 34 carry 3 scores each. (12 × 3 = 36)

Question 23.
a) State Guass’s theorem. (1)
Answer:
Total flux over a closed surface is \(\frac{1}{\varepsilon_0}\) times charge enclosed by the surface.

b) Give the equation forelectric flux through the given surface when the angle between electric field and area is 45°. , (1)
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 1
Answer:
flux dϕ = E. ∆ S
= E ∆S cos θ
= E ∆Scos45°
= \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) E ∆S

c) What is the flux through the surface if the surface is parallel to the lines offeree? (1)
Answer:
If the surface is parallel to the electric field line,
θ = 90°
∴ Flux ∆ϕ = ∆S cos 90 = θ

Question 24.
Find the effective capacitance when three capacitors are connected in parallel. (3)
Answer:
Capacitors in parallel
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 6
Let three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 be connected in parallel to p.d of V. Let q1, q2 and q3 be the charges on C1, C2 and C3.
If ‘q’ is the total charge .then’q’can be written as
q = q1 + q2 + q3
But q1 = C1V, q2 = C2V and q3 = C3V
Hence eq (2) can be written as
CV = C1V + C2V + C3V
C = C1 + C2 + C3
Effective capacitance increases in parallel connection.

Question 25.
A solendid of length of 0.5 m has radius 1 cm and is made up 500 turns. It carries a current of 5 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid? (3)
Answer:
l = 0.5 m, r = 1 × 10-2 m, N = 500, I = 5 A
Magnetic field = μ0 nl
When n = \(\frac{N}{l}\) = \(\frac{500}{0.5}\)
n = 1000
B = μ0 × 1000 × 5
= 4π x 10-7 × 1000 × 5
= 6.2 × 10-3 T

Question 26.
a) Name the angle between horizontal component of earth’s magnetic filed and earth’s magnetic field. (1)
Answer:
dip

b) Define twd magnetic elements of the earth. (2)
Answer:
The magnetic elements of the earth are dip, declination and horizontal intensity.

Declination :
Declination at a place is the angle between the geographic meridian and magnetic meridian at that place.

Horizontal intensity:
The horizontal intensity at a place is the horizontal components of the earths field.

Question 27.
a) Name the principle of AC Generator. (1)
Answer:
Electro magnetic induction

b) Derive the equation for instantaneous e.m.f. in an AC Generator. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 7

Question 28.
a) Give two properties of electromagnetic waves.(2)
Answer:
(i) No medium is required for propagation of em wave.
(ii) The ratio of magnitudes of electric and magnetic field vectors in free space is constant.

b) Give one use of radio waves. (1)
Answer:
Radio waves are used in radio and television communication systems.

Question 29.
State Brewster’s law. A glass plate of refractive index. 1.60 is used as a pplarizer. Find the polarising angle. (3)
Answer:
Brewster’s law states that the tangent of the polaring angle is equal to the refractive index of the material of reflector.

n = 1.6, θ = ?
n = tan θ
1. 6 = tan θ
θ = tan-1 (1.6)
θ = 58°

Question 30.
Calculate the work function in electron volt for a metal, given that the photoelectric threshold wavelength is 6800 Å. (3)
Answer:
Threshold wavelength A,θ = 6800 × 10-10 m
Work function E = \(\frac{\mathrm{hc}}{\lambda_0}\)
= \(\frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6800 \times 10^{-10}}\)
= 2.9 × 10-19 J

Question 31.
Derive the equation for the electric field intensity due to an infinite thin sheet of charge using Gauss’s law. (3)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 8
Consider an infinite thin plane sheet of charge of. density σ.
To find electric field at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cylinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot \mathrm{~d} \overrightarrow{\mathrm{~s}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\varepsilon_0} \mathrm{q}\)
\(\mathrm{E} \int \mathrm{ds}\) = \(=\frac{\sigma d s}{\varepsilon_0}\) (Since q = σds)
But electric field passes only through end surfaces, so we get \(\int \mathrm{ds}\) = ‘2ds
ie., E 2ds = \(\frac{\sigma d s}{\varepsilon_0}\)
E = \(\frac{\sigma \mathrm{ds}}{2 \mathrm{ds} \varepsilon_0}\), E = \(\frac{\sigma}{2 \varepsilon_0}\)

Question 32.
Derive the equation for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (3)
Answer:

Potential difference between the two plates is,
V = Ed
= \(\frac{σ}{\varepsilon_0 A} d\)
V = \(\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_0} d\) …….(1)

Capacitance C of the parallel plate capacitor,
C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\) ……..(2)
Sub. eq(1) in eq (2)
C = \(\frac{Q}{\frac{Q}{A \varepsilon_0} d}\)
C = \(\frac{{A \varepsilon_0}}{d}\)

Question 33.
Find the value of current in the circuit shown in the figure.
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 2
Answer:
Effective resistance = \(\frac{1}{R}\) = \(\frac{1}{30}\) + \(\frac{1}{60}\)
= 20Ω
Current I = \(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{2}{20}\) = 0.1 A

Question 34.
a) State Ampere’s circuital law.
Answer:
According to ampere’s law the line integral of magnetic field along any closed path is equal to μ0 times the current passing through the surface.

b) Find the magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid, at its centre, carrying current. (3)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 10
Consider a solenoid having radius Y. Let ‘n’ be the number of turns per unit length and I be the current flowing through it.
In order to find the magnetic field (inside the so-lenoid ) consider an Amperian loop PQRS. Let ‘l ‘ be the length and ‘b’ the breadth Applying Amperes law, we can write
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers 11
Substituting the above values in eq (1 ),we get
Bl = μ0 Ienc ……….(2)
But Ienc = nl I
where ‘n l ’ is the total number of turns that carries current I (inside the loop PQRS)
eq (2) can be written as
B l = μ0nI l
B = μ0nI
If core of solenoid is filled with a medium of relative permittivity μr then
B = μ0 μr n l.

Questions from 35 to 41 carry 4 scores each. (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 35.
a) Give the SI unit of capacitance. (1)
Answer:
Farad

b) Two capacitors of capacitance 2pFand 4pF connected in series to potential difference of 100 Volt. Calculate the potential difference across each capacitor. (3)
Answer:
Effective capacitance C = \(\frac{C_1 C_2}{C_1+C_2}\)
CV = \(\frac{2 \times 4}{2+4}\) = \(\frac{4}{3} \mu \mathrm{~F}\)

Charge Q = CV
= \(\frac{4}{3}\) × 10-6 × 100
= 133.3 pC

Capacitors are connected in series. Hence charge on each is same.
ie., Q = C1V1
133 × 10-6 = 2 × 10-6 × V1

Voltage across first V1 = \(\frac{133}{2}\) = 66.7 V

Voltage across send capacitor V2 = \(\frac{133}{4}\) = 33.3 V

Question 36.
Derive an equation for the magnetic field due to a circular loop carrying current, at any point on the axis using Biot-Savart’s law. (4)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 12
Consider a circular loop of radius ‘a’ and carrying current T. Let P be a point on the axis of the coil, at distance x from A and r from ‘O’. Consider a small length dl at A.
The magnetic field at ‘p’ due to this small element dI,
dB = \(\frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{Idl} \sin 90}{4 \pi \mathrm{x}^2}\)
dB = \(\frac{\mu_0 \text { Idl }}{4 \pi x^2}\) ……..(1)
The dB can be resolved into dB cosϕ (along Py) and dB sinϕ (along Px).
Similarly consider a small element at B, which produces a magnetic field ‘dB’ at P. If we resolve this magnetic field we get.
dB sinϕ (along px) and dB cosϕ (along py1)
dB cosϕ components cancel each other, because they are in opposite direction. So only dB sinϕ components are found at P, so total filed at P is
B = ∫ dB sinϕ
= \(\int \frac{\mu_0 \mathrm{Idl}}{4 \pi \mathrm{x}^2} \sin \phi\)
but from ∆AOP we get, sinϕ = a/x
We get,
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 13

Point at the centre of the loop : When the point is at the centre of the loop, (r = 0)
Then,
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 \text { NI }}{2a}\)
B = \(\frac{\mu_0 R^2 I}{2\left(x^2+R^2\right)^{3 / 2}}\)

Question 37.
a) What is motional e.m.f? (1)
Answer:
e.m.f can be induced due tot he motion of a conductor in a magnetic field. This emf is called motional emf.

b) Derive the equation for the induced emf between the ends of a straight conductor moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. (3)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 14
Consider a rectangular frame MSRN in which the conductor PQ is free to move as shown in figure. The straight conductor PQ is moved towards the left vyith a constant velocity v perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. PQRS forms a closed circuit enclosing an area that change as PQ moves. Let the length RQ = x and RS = l.
The magnetic flux Φ linked with loop PQRS will be Blx.
Since x is changing with time the rate of change of flux Φ will induce an e.m.f. given by
ε = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \phi}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = \(\frac{d}{d t}(B \ell x)\)
= – Bl \(\frac{d x}{d t}\)
ε = Blv
THe induced e.m.f Blv is called motional e.m.f.

Question 38.
Derive the mirror formula for a concave mirror. (4)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 15
Let points P, F, C be pole, focus and centre of curva-ture of a concave mirror. Object AB is placed on the principal axis. A ray from AB incident at E and then reflected through F. Another ray of light from B incident at pole P and then reflected. These two rays meet at M. The ray of light from point B is passed through C. Draw EN perpendicular to the principal axis.

∆IMF and ∆ENF are similar.
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 16

Question 39.
a) State Huygen’s principle. (2)
Answer:
According to Huygen’s principle
1. Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2. The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3. The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

b) Based on Huygen’s wave theory of light, show that angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 17
AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront, ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of reflection. Let c1 be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.
The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is ,
Kerala Plus Two Physics Question Paper March 2021 with Answers 18
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wave front from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq(2) should be zero.
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r

Question 40.
a) What is the use of a rectifier? (1)
Answer:
Rectifier is used to convert AC in to DC

b) With the help of a fiagram explain how diode acts as a rectifier. (3)
Answer:

Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance RL. Input a.c signal is applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D1 and D2 The output is taken across RL.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. So that current flows through D1 and RL.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D1 is reverse biased and D2 is forward biased. So that current flows through D2 and RL.

Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through RL in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across RL for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.

Question 41.
a) Define the principal focus of a convex lens. (1)
Answer:
A narrow beam of parallel rays, parallel and close to the principal axis, after refraction, converges to a point on the principal axis in the case of a convex lens or appears to diverge from a point on the axis in the case of a concave lens. This fixed point is called the principal focus of the lens.

b) Write the phenomenon related to the image formation in a lens. (1)
Answer:
Refraction

c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is combined with a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the focal length of the combination. (2)
Answer:
f1 = 10 × 102 m, f2 = 15 × 102 m
\(\frac{1}{F}\) = \(\frac{1}{f_1}\) + \(\frac{1}{f_2}\)
\(\frac{1}{F}\) = \(\frac{f_1 f_2}{f_1 + f_2}\) = \(\left(\frac{10 \times 15}{10+15}\right) \times 10^{-2}\)
F = 6 × 102 m

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Physics Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Model Paper 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2023

Time : 2 Hours
Total Score: 60

Answer any 5 questions from 1 to 7. Each carries 1 score. (5 × 1 = 5)

Question 1.
Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is NC-1.
Answer:
Electric field intensity (E)

Question 2.
Two capacitors of equal capacitance when connected in series have a capacitance of C1. When connected in parallel, they have a capacitance of C2. What is the value of C1/C2?
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 3.
Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of …………
Answer:
Energy

Question 4.
Name the physical quantity which can be expressed by the ratio of the amplitude of electric field to the magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave.
Answer:
Velocity

Question 5.
“Critical angle depends on the colour of light”. Whether the statement is true or false?
Answer:
True

Question 6.
A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens?
Answer:
Converging lens

Question 7.
The binding energy of a nucleus is a measure of its
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Stability
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(c) Stability

Answer any 5 questions from 8 to 14. Each carries 2 scores. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 8.
What happens to the drift velocity of charge carriers of a wire if its ,
(a) Potential difference is doubled. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity doubled

(b) Length is increased. (1)
Answer:
Drift velocity decreases

Question 9.
(a) S.l. unit of magnetic moment of a dipole is (1)
(a) Am
(b) Am²
(c) JT
(d) JT-2
Answer:
(b) Am²

(b) Figure shows a magnetic substance placed in an external magnetic field. Identify the substance. (1)
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 1
Answer:
Diamagnetic

Question 10.
(a) Can a transformer be used to step up or step down a DC voltage? Justify your answer. (1)
Answer:
No.
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction. A change in current in the primary coil produces instantaneous emf in the secondary coil. In the case of dc, there is no change in current and hence transformer can not be used to step up or step down a dc voltage.

(b) Why do we use soft iron core in a transformer? (1)
Answer:
We use soft iron core. In transformer because of low hysteresis loss.

Question 11.
Match the following
(a) Radio waves – Night vision camera
(b) UV rays – Cellular phone
(c) Micro waves – Water purifier
(d) Infrared – Radar
Answer:
(a) Radio waves – Cellular phone
(b) UV rays – Water purifier
(c) Micro waves – Radar
(d) Infrared – Night vision camera

Question 12.
Sketch the wavefront corresponding to light from the following sources:
(i) A point source (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 5
(ii) A distant source (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 6

Question 13.
(a) In Rutehrford scattering experiment, most of the a particle go unscattered while some of them are scattered through large angles. What can be concluded from this? (1)
Answer:
The most space inside an atom is empty. The entire mass of atom is concentrated in a small volume called nucleus.

(b) What will be the angle of scattering when impact parameter is 0? (1)
Answer:
180°

Question 14.
Calculate binding energy of 20Ca40 from the following data:
mass of proton: 1.007825 a.m.u
mass of neutron: 1.008665 a.m.u
mass of 20Ca40 : 39, 962589 a.m.u
Answer:
Binding energy
= ∆mC² – [zmp + (A – Z)mn – M]C2
A = 40, Z = 20
mp = 1.007825 amu
mn =1.008665 amu
M = 39.962589 amu
Am = Zmp + (A – Z)mn – M
= 20 × 1.007825 + 20 × 1.008665 – 39.962589
= 20.1565 + 20.1733 – 39.962589
= 0.367211 amu
= 0.60957 × 10-22 kg

Eb = AmC2 = 0.60957 × 10-22 × (3 × 108)2
= 5.486 × 10-11 J

Answer any 6 questions from 15 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (6 × 3 = 18)

Question 15.
An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E.
(a) Define dipole moment. (1)
Answer:
Electric dipole moment is the product of magnitude of charge and distance of seperation.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}\) = q × \(\overrightarrow{2 \mathrm{l}}\)

(b) Obtain an expression for torque acting on it. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 7
Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
Equal and opposite forces +qE and -qE act on the two charges. Hence the net force on the dipole is zero. But these two equal and opposite forces whose lines of action are different. Hence there will be a torque.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance (between the line of action of two forces )
τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = P E sin θ
Velocity \(\vec{\tau}\) = \(\vec{P}\) × \(\vec{E}\)

Question 16.
(a) Draw an equipotential surface due to an isolated point charge. (1)
Answer:
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 8

(b) If the electric field intensity at a given point is zero, will the electric potential necessarily be zero at that point? Why? (2)
Answer:
No. inside a charged shell electric field, intensity is zero. But the electric potential is equal to potential on the surface.

Question 17.
(a) How will you convert a galvanometer into voltmeter. (1)
Answer:
A galvanometer can be converted in to voltmeter by connecting a large resistance in series to it.

(b) A galvanometer with a coil resistance 12Ω shows full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the galvanometer into voltmeter of range 0-18 V? (2)
Answer:
RG = 12 Ω
Ig = 3mA = 3 × 10-3A
V = 18V
R = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{g}}}\) – RG
R = \(\frac{18}{3 \times 10^{-3}}\) – 12 = 5988Q

Question 18.
(a) State Gauss’s law in magnetism. (1)
Answer:
Net magnetiv flux through ant closed surface is zero.
\(\int \overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{ds}}\) = 0

(b) Two substances P and Q have their relative permeability slightly greater and less than one respectively. What do you conclude about P and Q? (2)
Answer:
P → Paramagnetic
Q → Diamagnetic

Question 19.
(a) State Huygens principle. (1)
Answer:
According to Huygen’s principle
1. Every point in a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets.
2. The secondary wavelets travel with the same velocity as the original value.
3. The envelope of all these secondary wavelets gives a new wavefront.

(b) Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of reflection. (2)
Answer:
Img 9
AB is the incident wavefront and CD is the reflected wavefront, ‘i’ is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of reflection. Let c1 be the velocity of light in the medium. Let PO be the incident ray and OQ be the reflected ray.
The time taken for the ray to travel from P to Q is ,
Img 10
O is an arbitrary point. Hence AO is a variable. But the time to travel for a wave front from AB to CD is a constant. So eq.(2) should be independent of AO. i.e., the term containing AO in eq(2) should be zero.
sin i – sin r = 0
sin i = sin r
i = r

Question 20.
(a) The variation of stopping potential with frequency of sodium is given below. Calculate its work function. (1)
Answer:
ϕ = hυ
υ0 = 4Hz (check)
∴ ϕ = 6.63 × 10-34 × 4
= 26.52 × 10-34

(b) The work function for two metals are in the ratio 1:2. Find the ratio of threshold wavelength of those metals. (2)
Img 2
Answer:
Img 11

Question 21.
Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working. Also, draw the input and output waveform. (3)
Answer:
Img
Full wave rectifier consists of transformer, two diodes and a load resistance RL. Input a.c signal is applied across the primary of the transformer. Secondary of the transformer is connected to D1 and D2 The output is taken across RL.

Working : During the +ve half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased. So that current flows through D1 and RL.

During the negative half cycle of the a.c signal at secondary, the diode D1 is reverse biased and D2 is forward biased. So that current flows through D2 and RL.

Thus during both the half cycles, the current flows through RL in the same direction. Thus we get a +ve voltage across RL for +ve and -ve input. This process is called full wave rectification.
Img

Answer any 3 questions from 22 to 25. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 22.
(a) In a parallel plate capacitor, how is the capacity of affected when
(i) The distance between the plates is doubled.(1)
Answer:
Halved

(ii) The area of the plates is halved (1)
Answer:
Halved

(b) Figure shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B verses increase of charge Q stored on them. Which of the two capacitors has higher capacitance? Given reason for your answer. (2)
Kerala Plus Two Physics Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers 3
Answer:
C = \(\frac{Q}{V}\) = \(\frac{1}{Slope}\)

Question 23.
(a) Kirchoff’s second law is based on laws of conservation of ……… (1)
(i) Charge
(ii) Energy
(iii) Momentum
(iv) Angular momentum
Answer:
(ii) Energy

(b) Use Kirchoff’s rules to analyse the Wheatstore bridge and arrive at Wheatstones condition for balancing the bridge. (3)
Answer:
Four resistances P,Q,R and S are connected as shown in figure. Voltage ‘V’ is applied in between A and C. Let I1, I2,I3 and I4 be the four currents passing through P, R, Q and S respectively.
Img

Working
The voltage across R.
When key is closed, current flows in different branches as shown in figure. Under this situation
The voltage across P, VAB = I1P
The voltage across Q, VBC = I3Q ………(1)
The voltage across R, VAD = I2R
The voltage across S, VDC = I4S
The value of R is adjusted to get zero deflection in galvanometer. Under this condition,
I1 = I3 and I2 = I4 ………(2)
Using Kirchoffs second law in loop ABDA and BCDB, we get
VAB = VAD …………(3)
and VBC = VDC ……….. (4)
Substituting the values from eq(1) in to (3) and (4), we get
I1P = I2R …………..(5)
and I3Q = I4S ………….(6)
Dividing Eq(5)byEq(6)
\(\frac{I_1 P}{I_3 Q}\) = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{I}_4 \mathrm{~S}}\)
\(\frac{P}{Q}\) = \(\frac{R}{S}\) [since I1 = I3 and I2 = I4]
This is called Wheatstone condition.

Question 24.
(a) Define self-inductance. (1)
Answer:
Self inductance is the magnetic flux linked with the coil of unit current passing through it.
ϕ = LI
when I = 1A, ϕ = L

(b) Derive an expression for self-inductance of a coil. (3)
Answer:
Consider a solenoid (air core) of length l, number of turns N and area cross section A. let ‘n’ be the no. of turns per unit length (n = N/l)
The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid,
ϕ = BAN
ϕ = μ0nlAN (since B = μ0nl)
but ϕ = LI
∴ LI = μ0nIAN
L = μ0nAN
If solenoid contains a core of relative permeability μr
the L = μ0μrnAN

Question 25.
(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope forming an image at the near point of eye. (2)
Answer:
Img

(b) Obtain an expression for the magnification produced by a compound microscope. (2)
Answer:
Working : The object is placed in between F and 2F of objective lens. The objective lens forms real inverted and magnified image (I1M1) on the other side of the lens. This image will act as object or eyepiece. Thus an enlarged, virtual and inverted image is formed, (this image can be adjusted to be at the least distance of distinct vision, D)

Magnification : The magnification produced by the compound microscope
m = \(\frac{\text { size of the image }}{\text { size of the object }}\)
ie, m = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Multiplying and dividing by I1M1 we get,
m = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

but we know, me = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_2 \mathrm{M}_2}{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{~m}_1}\) and m0 = \(\frac{\mathrm{I}_1 \mathrm{M}_1}{\mathrm{OB}}\)

Where m0 & me are the magnifying power of objective lens and eyepiece lens
m = m0 × me ……….. (1)

Eyepiece acts as a simple microscope.
Therefore me = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\) …………(2)

We know magnification of objective lens
m0 = \(\frac{V_0}{u_0}\) ……….. (3)
Where v0 and u0 are the distance of the image and object from the objective lens.
Substituting (2) and (3) in (1), we get
m = \(\frac{- v_0}{u_0}\) (1 + \(\frac{D}{f_e}\))

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers.

Answer the following questions from 1 to 45 upto a maximum score of 80. Questions 1 to 14. answer for 22 scores.

Question 1.
Who was the first Election Commissioner of India?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) T.N. Seshan
c) G.V. Mavalankar
d) SukumarSen
Answer:
d) SukumarSen

Question 2.
What was the major slogan raised by the opposition parties during 1977 Lok Sabha election?
a) Save Democracy
b) Garibi Hatao
c) Jai Jawan Jai Kissan
d) Non-Congressism
Answer:
d) Non-Congressism

Question 3.
Which of the following popular movement used hug¬ging trees as a method of Agitation? (1)
a) Narmada BachaoAndolan
b) Chipko Movement
c) Bharatiya Kissan Union
d) Dalit Panthers
Answer:
b) Chipko Movement

Question 4.
Medha Patkar is associated with ____ popular movement.
a) Anti-Arrack Movement
b) National Fish Workers Forum
c) Narmada BachaoAndolan
d) Chengara land Struggle
Answer:
c) Narmada BachaoAndolan

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 5.
Who among the following was a leader of Mizo-Na- tional Front?
a) Angami Zapu Phizo
b) Lai Denga
c) Rajiv Gandhi
d) Kazi Lhendup Dorji
Answer:
b) Lai Denga

Question 6.
Expand the following:
AASU
Answer:
All Assam Students Union

Question 7.
Which country adopted an “Open Door Policy”? (1)
a) European Union
b) China
c) America
d) Japan
Answer:
b) China

Question 8.
First Earth Summit was held at (1)
a) Rio-de-Janeiro
b) London
c) Paris
d) New York
Answer:
a) Rio-de-Janeiro

Question 9.
Answer the following questions:
a) Write the name of paramilitary force of Hyderabad Nizam.
b) Who is known as Frontier Gandhi? (2)
Answer:
A. Razakar
B. GhanAbdul Gafarkhan

Question 10.
What are the models of development before India at the time of independence?
Answer:
Capitalist Model and Socialist Model

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 11.
Write the name of any four SAARC member countries. (2)
Answer:
India, Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan

Question 12.
Some of the popular movements in India are given below. Pick out the suitable places from the bracket and match them correctly. (2)
a) Bharatiya Kissan Union
b) Chipko Movement
Answer:
A. Bharatiya Kisan Union – Meerut
B. Chipko Movement – Utharkhan

Question 13.
Name the leader who signed the Punjab Accord?(2)
a) Rajiv Gandhi and Laldanga
b) Angami Zapu Phizo and Kazl Lhendup Dorji
c) Indira Gandhi and Bhindranwala
d) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Singh Longowal
Answer:
D. Rajiv Gandhi and harchand Sing h Longowal

Question 14.
Match the following :

A B
Russia Transition Model
Shock Therapy Successor of USSR
Mikhail Gorbachev Currency of USSR
Ruble Perestroika

Answer:

A B
Russia Successor of USSR
Shock Therapy Transition Model
Mikhail Gorbachev Perestroika
Ruble Currency of USSR

Questions from 15 to 24 carries 3 scores each. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 15.
Explain “Two Nation Theory”. Who put forward this theory?
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim
League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Muslims. Therefore, the League demanded a separate state, Pakistan for Muslims.

Question 16.
First three General Elections marked the features of Congrass dominance. What are the factors that con-tributed to the dominance of Congress Party?
Answer:

  1. Congress had led Independence struggle, that legacy helped them in the dominance of congress in the general elections.
  2. Congress was the only party which had strong organisational structure and network all over India.
  3. Charismatic Leadership of Nehru and others.

Question 17.
Write down three major objectives of Jawaharlal Nehru’s foreign policy.
Answer:

  1. Protect territorial integrity and sovereignty of the coun try.
  2. Promote rapid economic development.
  3. Opposition to imperialism, colonialism and racism.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 18.
India is against nuclear proliferation, but India did not sign NPT and CTBT. Give reasons.
Answer:
India is against of atomic weapons for war like purposes. India stood for complete diarmament within the framework of United Nations. At the same time, refuses to sign NPT, and CTBT because it is discriminatory. India was against the stand of nuclear powers to accumilate nuclear weapons in their workshops and deny the same right to underdeveloped or third world countries.

Question 19.
Discuss the two major reasons which lead to the split of Congress Party in 1969.
Answer:

  1. In 1969 there arose a difference between Indira Gandhi and the syndicate.
  2. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died, the Presidential post was vacant. The Syndicate nominated Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi proposed V.V.Giri as the President. The failure of the official candidate of the congress caused the formal division of Congress.
  3. In 1969, the Congress led by the Syndicate was known as Congress (O) and the group was led by Indira Gandhi was called Congress (R).

Question 20.
Explain the reasons for the failure of Janata Govern-ment
Answer:
Janata party was the product of the National Emergency. As a coalition of different political parties, it had not a common vision and a goal. It proved to be a failure to making basic changes in the country. The completion and conflicts among leaders was yet another failure of the party

Question 21.
Write a short note 6n “Chipko Movement”.
Answer:
Chipko movement was started in 1923 in two or three villagers of Uttarkhand. The forest department prevented the villagers from using the forest but gave permission to a sports company to cut down such trees for commercial purposes. This provoked the villagers, when the workers came to cut the trees, the villagers stood near the trees embracing thetn. This protest spread to many parts of Uttarkhand. As a result of this movement, government issued an order prohibiting the cutting down of trees in that region. Along with women and children, Sundar Lai Bahuguna, and Chandiprasad Bhatt were its leaders.

Question 22.
Kashmir issue is not just a dispute between India and Pakistan. It has also internal and external di-mensions. – Discuss.
Answer:
The politics of Jammu and Kashmir always remained controversial and conflict ridden both for external and internal reasons. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley should be part of Pakistan. Internally, there is a dispute about the status of Kashmir within the Indian union. Recently Central Government withdrawned the special provision of Kashmir under Article 370, and divided Kashmir into two union territories.

Question 23.
Write a short note on “Cubian Missile Crisis”.
Answer:
Cuba was a small country, situated very close to United States of America. A big power like America, could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of communist Russia. As Cuba got financial and military support from Russia, it became a strong country, although it was small in size. In 1962, the Russian leader Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cuba. America sent its warships towards Cuba. This incident was known as Cuban Missile Crisis’.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 24.
Point out the consequences of shock therapy.
Answer:

  1. Many big industries under government control were collapsed.
  2. The Russian currency, Rouble was devalued.
  3. GDP was diminished.
  4. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
  5. Social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  6. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Questions from 25 to 33 carry 4 scores each. (9 × 4 = 36)

Question 25.
Explain the challenge of establishing democracy in independent in India.
Answer:
Establishing Democratic system was one of the major challenge in independent I ndia. Free and fair elections were the methods to establish democratic system. The first election was called the greatest
gamble in history by foreign media. A British member of the civil service was said that the future generations would condemn this democratic process as a foolish enterprise. But India succeeded in conducting a free and fair election and we are successful in our democratic experiment.

Question 26.
Briefly explain the nuclear policy of India.
Answer:

  1. India’s nuclear programme was initiated under the guidance of Homi J Bhabha.
  2. India conducted nuclear explotions in 1974 and 1988.
  3. But India is against testing of atomic weapons for war like purposes. India stands for complete disarmament within the framework of UN.
  4. India refuses to sign NPT, CTBT, because it is discriminatory.
  5. India stood for no first use of nuclear energy.
  6. India stands for non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament.

Question 27.
Find out the major consequences of the National emergency of 1975.
Answer:
a) Protest and agitations of government employees were banned.
b) Media was strictly controlled. The media could publish only things the government approved. Many journalists were under preventive detention.
c) Fundamental Rights of the citizens were suspended. Even the courts could not enforce Article 32.
d) Many of the opposition leaders were arrested and kept in jail. The provision of preventive detention was widely used.

Question 28.
“Anti-Arrack movement is not only a movement for banning liquor but also a movement for women empowerment.” Discuss.
Answer:
In 1990’s the women in Nellur district of Andra Pradesh started an agitation against the alcoholism of that region. The habit of drinking arrack created a lot of social-economic issues. The women in Nellur forced a wine shop to close down. The news spread like wild fire into more than 5000 villages. They held meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the authorities. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the state and it would become a success.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 29.
What are the main provisions of Punjab Accord and how far the agreement succeeded in solving Punjab crisis?
Answer:
After the 1984, general election, Rajiv Gandhi became the PM. He started talks with the Akali Dal leaders. In 1985, he signed an accord with the Akali leader Harchand Singh Longowal. This is known as Punjab Accord or the Rajiv-Gandhi Longowal Accord. This helped to bring about normalcy in Punjab. The conditions of the Accord are:

  1. Handover Chandigarh to Punjab.
  2. Appoint a new commission to solve the border disputes between Punjab and Haryana.
  3. Establish a Tribunal to share the waters of Ravi, Beas with Haryana, and Rajastan.
  4. Compensation will be given to damages related with operation Blue star. Even with all these, normalcy did not return immediately. He took nearly 10 years for things to become normal.

Question 30.
List out the features of Shock Therapy.
Answer:
The failure of Sovet Union made many of its constituent countries abandon communism and follow capitalist ways. Russia, the Satellite countries of Soviety Union from Eastern Europe were attracted towards organisations, in the World Bank and IMF.

  1. The main purpose of Shok Terapy was to make communist countries to follow capitalist model.
  2. Private capital would be promoted. ..
  3. Cooperative farming will give way to private farming.
  4. Foreign investment, open market system were promoted.
  5. All economic regulations were excluded.

Results

  1. Many big industries under government control collapsed.
  2. Russian currency Rouble was devalued.
  3. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
  4. Famines, poverty and unemployment was prevalent.
  5. The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  6. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Question 31.
What is the conceptual difference between traditional and non-traditional security?
Answer:
Security implies freedom from threats. There were two aspects of security. They are traditional security and non-traditional security. In the traditional conception of security, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. There are two traditional notions of security. They are internal and external.

Non-traditional notions of security go beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. Non- traditional views of security have been called ‘human security’ or ‘global security’. Human security implies the security of human beings than countries and global security implies the security of world.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 32.
List out different programmes adopted by India for environmental protection.
Answer:

  1. For the protection of environment India has taken the following steps.
  2. According to the auto fuel policy of India, only purified fuel is used for vehicles.
  3. The Energy Act passed in 2001, aims at the appropriate use of energy.
  4. The 2003 Electricity Act requires the use of renewable energy sources.
  5. In 2011-12 the Bio-diesel Mission started production of biodiesel.
  6. ecently schemes have been worked out for the import of natural gas. It has been decided to use the latest technology for purifying coal. Thus India is doing a lot for environmental protection.

Question 33.
What are the political consequences of globalisation?
Answer:
Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes, instead of promoting it. With the coming of MNC’s it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions.

According to the advocates of globalisation, no political power of the government is lost. Since technology has advanced so much, governments can do a lot. Technology helps governments to know the details of its citizens and make the administration efficient.

Questions from 34 to 41 carry 5 scores each. (8 × 5 = 40)

Question 34.
Write a brief note on the challenges to nation building process in India.
Answer:
Independent India faced three kinds of challenges,
a) Integrating India
b) Ensuring the welfare of the people and development
c) Establish the democratic system

a) Integrating India:
When India got freedom, it had more than 500 Princely States. The rulers of these places wanted to get back their sovereignty when the British left. The government approached the Princely States keeping three things in mind.

a) The majority of people of the Princely States wanted to join Indian Union.
b) Giving some kind of self-rule to some Princely States.
c) In the background of the division, we needed States with precision.

Integration:
Except Junagarh, Hyderabad. Kashmir and Manipur, all the Princely States signed in the Instrument of Accession and joined the Indian Union. Then through a referendum, Junagarh joined Indian Union. Because of popular uprising in Hyderabad against the Nizam, the Indian army took some action and got Hyderabad also into the Union. The Congress Group in Manipur wanted to join the Union, but other parties objected. However, the Manipur king was persuaded and he too joined the Union. Kashmir King also signed the Instruction of Accession to save himself from the attacks of Pakistan and thus Kashmir too became part of India.

The division of the country into States on linguistic basis showed that it could accommodate all the diversities. The people can accept the diversities and live in unity. This is the strength of a country. The Telungana protest and the martyrdom of Potti ” Sriramulu should be remembered here.

Ensuring the welfare of people:
India was a poor country. The country has included provisions in the Constitution to ensure protection to the socially backward people, to religious and cultural minorities and to give all the people equality. Through Directive Principles, the Constitution shows us the way to eradicate poverty and to make the marginalized people come into the mainstream society.

Five Year Plans:
The country has a development model based on socialist principles. We have adopted a mixed economy accommodating both public and private sector enterprises. Establishing democratic system: Democracy was a discovery of foreigners. But the big thing was that we chose democracy in spite of the fact that India is a poor country and there are many illiterates here. The first election was called the greatest gamble in history by foreign media. A British member of the Civil Service said that the future generations would condemn this democratic process as a foolish enterprise. The first Election Commission wasformed with Dr. Sukumar Sen as the Commissioner.

Illiterate Indians were supposed to think in terms of caste and creed. But by making a voters’ list based on our secular system and equality, we succeeded in conducting a fair election and we were successful in our democratic experiment Even after 70 years of Independence, we still face some challenges to our democracy. There are new demands for regional autonomy. There is the Maoist threat. There is intolerance, following the integration of Manipur. There is the Kashmir problem. In spite of all these we have been able to maintain our democratic tradition. After the 1975 Emergency, our rulers have been able to maintain the democratic order without any interruption.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 35.
Briefly explain Congress party as a social and ideological coalition.
Answer:
The success of congress was mainly for its social and ideological nature. Different social sections of the people were included in congress such as industrialists, farmers, labourers, city-dwellers, capitalists etc. Thus it became a party representing people at different-levels, religions and languages. Because of the representation of different groups, it became a coalition of different ideologies. It included moderates, extremists, radicals, and people of the left right ideologies. The social and ideological nature of congress helped its success in the first three general elections.

Question 36.
Write the major reasons of 1962 war between India and China.
Answer:

  1. Swathantra party was formed in August 1959.
  2. C.Rajagopalachari, K.M.Munshi, Meenu Massani were its prominent leaders.
  3. Swathantra party opposed centralised planning, state intervention, public sector, etc.
  4. They stood for individual freedom and . privatisation.
  5. They were against the policy of non-alignment and progressive tax regime.
  6. Most of the ideologies of Swathantra party are in favour of capitalist system and they wanted to make India a capitalist country.

Question 37.
Write the major reasons of I 962 war between India and China.
Answer:
The main reasons of Indo-China war in 1962 were boundary disputes and Tibetan issue. The main dispute was about the boundary of the West and East. China claimed the Ladakh Region of Jammu and Kashmirand many areas of Arunachal Pradesh. Between 1957-59, the Chinese occupied the Akasai-chin sector and built the Karakorum Highway.

The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. China imposed their culture on the Tibetans. In 1959, the Dalai Lama, the spiritual leader of the Tibetans, sought refuge in India. In October 1962, the Chinese army occupied some important places of Arunachal Pradesh. The Indian army stopped the Chinese on the western side of Ladakh. Then they announced a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the occupied land Sometimes DODular movements were aaainst the democratic process and development of the country.

Question 38.
“Popular Movements hinder democratic process and development.” Discuss.
Answer:

  1. Protests, dharnas and rallies prevent governments from smooth functioning.
  2. Most moverments were for or against a particular issue. Thus these movements get the support of only some particular groups of people.
  3. For democratic policies, there is a need for broad fellowships and unity. But such broad fellowship is not seen in most of these movements.
  4. These movements can work only for limited objectives. Often there were clashes between these movements and political parties.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 39.
Explain any two major issues of North East.
Answer:
The North-Eastern States have some geographical peculiarities. It was a region that was not closely linked to the rest of the country. It has long international orders, but communications facilities were less there. Its development was neglected to an extent and the problem was made complex by the emigrants that came from other places. In this complex situation, some complex demands were made:

1) Demand for Autonomy :
At the time of independence, except Manipur and Tripura, the entire North-Eastern region was just one State. After independence, the non-Assamese felt that. Assamese language was imposed on them. Therefore they demanded political self-rule. The Adivasi leaders wanted to keep away from Assam. They formed “Eastern India Tribal Union”., Later it was known as “All Party Hill Leaders Conference”. They demanded one Adivasi State, but more Adivasi States like Meghalaya and Mizoram were formed. Even with this, their demand for self-rule did not end. The Bodos, Karbis and Dimasas etc. demanded their own States. The same area was demanded by more than one community. Because of that the only solution was forming tiny States. Some stayed in Assam and gained their right for self-rule. The Karbis and Dimasas were given self-rule at the District level. The Bodos were given their self¬rule council very’recently.

2) SECESSIONIST MOVEMENT:
MIZORAM: India faced demands for secession from two North-Eastern States – Mizoram and Nagaland. After independence, Mizoram region within Assam itself was enjoying self-rule. But many of them thought that they were not part of British India and so there was no reason for them to join India. In 1959 there was a serious famine in the Mizo Hills. But the Assam government could not take appropriate measures to help the suffering people there. This caused the formation of Mizo National Front (MNF) under the leadership of Lai Denga. From 1966, they started an armed struggle to get freedom.

Pakistan aided them and gave them refuge in Eastern Pakistan. In the conflict many ordinary people were killed. This made the local people very angry. In spite of the 20-year long resistance, no party made any gain. Then they had a rethinking. The exiled Lai Denga returned from Pakistan and started talks with Indian authorities. In 1986, a peace accord was signed between him and Rajiv Gandhi. Mizoram thus became a State with some special rights. MNF gave up their resistance.

Question 40.
Towards the end of 1980s, India witnessed several political developments that determined the future of the Indian politics. Explain.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress lost the election. With that election the ‘Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1990s,the government decided to implement the job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Question 41.
List out the principal organs of the UN. Briefly explain any two.
Answer:
The UNO was formed in 24th October 1945 to promote International peace and security. The major organs of United Nations Organisation were

  1. General Assembly
  2. Security Council
  3. Secretariate
  4. International Court of Justice
  5. Economic and Social Council
  6. Trusteeship Council

1) General Assembly:
When all the members of the UN meet together it is called the World Parliament. Each country can send 5 representative in the General Assembly. But each country has only one vote. Once every year the General Assembly will meet.

2) Security Council:
Security council is the executive council of UN. It has 15 members, 10 temporary members and 5 permanent members. USA, UK, USSR, France, China were the permanent members of UN has veto power. The main concern of UN Security Council was international peace and security.

Questions from 42 to 45 carry 8 scores each (4 × 8 = 32)

Question 42.
Explain the process of partition of India and examine its consequences.
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Muslims. Therefore, the Muslim League demanded a seperate nation, Pakistan for the Muslims. There were four major issues in the process of the partition of India.

First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims.There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the west and the other other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian territory.

  1. Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim of population wanted to become part of Pakistan, – Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, who was the leader of the North Western Province, had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the north west province was included in Pakistan.
  2. Third problem was that British India’s Pubjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these provinces there were very many non- muslims.
  3. The fourth issue regarding partition was the minorities lived in the both sides of the boundary of two countries. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

Consequences

  1. The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people in both sides were killed because of their religion and caste.
  2. The cities like Lahore, Amritsar, Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas.
  3. People migrated from one place to other, but during the journey many were attacked and killed, women were brutally raped. In homes, women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour.
  4. Not only the land, but even movable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. The writers were described it as ‘division of hearts’.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 43.
The declaration of emergancy in 1975 affected normal life of people in various ways. Explain the major causes of emergency.
Answer:
On June 25 1975, the President, on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared Emergency.
The main reasons behind the declaration of emergency are following.
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat and Bihar Movements
c) Dispute with the Judiciary
d) Allahabad HC Verdict and popular movements
e) Protest from opposition

a) Economic Reasons: The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘Garibi Hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that.

First of all there was a refugee problem. Secondly, after the war, America stopped its aid to India. Thirdly there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The fourth reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The fifth problem was negative growth in industrial output. Sixthly the salaries of government employees had to be reduced or even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff. All the above things created an economic crisis in the country.

b) Gujarat and Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were congress led states. The main reason was the increase in the unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these states the opposition parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted and congress lost in the election.

In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was’ a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. In the meantime the railway workers also went on a strike. In 1975 Jay
Prakash Narayan orgnaised a march to the parliament. The opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi.

c) Dispute with the Judiciary : Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the constitution. The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, can the Parliament change the fundamental rights? Secondly can the Parliament change ownership of land. Thirdly the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. Parliament amended the constitution, but Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and Judiciary.

d) Allahabad High Court Verdict: On 12 June Justice J.L.Sinha of the Allahabad High Court passed a judgement declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid. This order came on an election petition filed by Raj Narain, a socialist leader and a candidate who had contested against her in 1971. The petition challenged the election of Indira Gandhi on the ground that she had used the services of government servants in her election campaign. But later Supreme Court granted her a partial stay on the High Court order, that she could remain as MP but could not take part in the proceedings of Lok Sabha.

e) Protest from opposition: The opposition parties started widespread protest under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira Gandhi’s resignation. They announced nation wide Satyagraha and asked the army, police and government employees not to obey immoral orders. The political mood of the country had turned against the congress.

Question 44.
Describe the reasons behind the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Hints :
• Political causes
• Economic causes
• Growth of Nationalism
• Gorbachev and Disintegration
Answer:
There are many reasons for the disintegration of USSR. Theyare
a) Political Reasons

  1. In Soviet system there was bureaucratic misrule and misuse of authority.
  2. The control exercised by the Soviet government on its citizens made their life difficult.
  3. Therewas no freedom of expression ordemocracy. The party refused to give people their rights.
  4. Communist party strictly controlled them and reforms were not possible.
  5. Soviet Union was a confederation of 15 Republics. Russia dominated the other Republics and the people of the other Republics were either ignored or suppressed.

b) Economic Reasons
Although the Soviet Union was able to maintain its equality with the US in arms race. It was very costly for them. Western technology was better than Russian Technology. The political and economic needs of the soviet people were not taken care of the Soviet government. Soviet union used most of its resources to develop atomic weapons.

The Reforms of Gorbachev
Th reforms of the Gorbacheve like Glasnost and perestroika were the sudden reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union. Glasnost means openness and Perestroika means re-structuring. These reforms did not bring the expected results. They brought more troubles to the country leading to its disintegration.

Consequences
End of cold war
Disintegration of Soviet Union was the end of cold war and bi-polar polity. It was also the end of power- block rivalry and arms race. The world became unipolar in nature nad the hegemony of US became a reality.

Change in power relations
After the second world war, there were two power blocks competing each other. They are the capitalist block led by USA and the socialist blocks led by USSR. But the disintegration resulted a change in the existing power system.

Emergence of new countries
As a result of the disintegration, there were many new countries emerged and others disappeared. The mighty confederation USSR became fragmented into 15 independent Republics. Like some of the satellite countries of USSR in the eastern European region were divided and that resulted in the formation of new countries.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 45.
The American Hegemony has military, economic and cultural dimensions. Describe three different aspects of U.S. Hegemony.
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:

a) Hard Power
b) Structural Power
c) Soft Power

Hard Power: This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

STRUCTURAL POWER: This dominance is based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The ” first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power: This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture. We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using ‘soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers.

A. Answer any questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Name the Chief Election Commissioner of free India
a) Sukumar Sen
b) T.N. Seshan
c) Sunil Arora
Answer:
a) SukumarSen

Question 2.
Identify the leader of Mizo National Front:
a) Angami Zaphu Phizo
b) Laldenga
c) Longowal
Answer:
b) Laldenga

Question 3.
The Right To Information Act was the result of a popular movement started at Rajasthan in 1990. Identifying the movement.
a) Shetkari Sangathan
b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
c) Mazdoor Kisan Sakhti Sangathan
Answer:
c) Mazdoor Kisan Sakhti Sangathan

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
Identify the first summit of NAM.
a) Belgrade
b) Yalta
c) Bandung
Answer:
a) Belgrade

Question 5.
From which country India adopted the concept of five year plan
a) USA
b) USSR
c) Japan
Answer:
b) USSR

Question 6.
Find out the leader of Soviet Union during the years of distingration
a) V.l. Lenin
b) Jospeh Stalin
c) Mikhail Gorbachev
Answer:
c) Mikhail Gorbachev

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (4 x 1 = 4)

Question 7.
Identify the leader of Narmada BachaoAndolan
a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
b) MedhaPatkar
c) Chandi Prasad Bhat
Answer:
b) MedhaPatkar

Question 8.
Identify the military alliance formed under the leadership of USSR.
a) WARSAW PACT
b) NATO
c) CENTO
Answer:
a) WARSAW PACT

Question 9.
The ‘Earth Summit’ of 1992 was held in
a) Paris
b) New York
c) Rio De Janeiro
Answer:
c) Rio De Janeiro

Question 10.
Identify the first Non-Congress Prime Minister of India.
a) Morarji Desai
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
a) Morarji Desai

Part – II

A. Answer any 3 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 2 scores.

Question 11.
Briefly explain political consequences of globalisation.
Answer:
Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes with the coming of MNC’S it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions. According to the advocates of globalization, no political power of the government is lost. Technology helps governments to know the details of their citizens and make the administration efficient.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 12.
Identify any two objectives of Nehru’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru was the architect of our foreign policy. He followed a policy which was conducive to the maintenance of our sovereignty, protection of our boundaries and rapid economic growth of the country.

Question 13.
List out any two challenges immediately faced by India after Independence.
Answer:
The two major challenges faced by India after independence was:
a) Nation building
b) Establishing democracy in the country

Question 14.
Find out two NAM countries from the list given be-low: (India, China, Egypt, USA)
Answer:
India, Egypt
Hegemony as Structural Power

Question 15.
Briefly explain the context of fourth general election 1967.
Answer:

  1. Inflation and price rise
  2. Internal disturbances
  3. Hindu-Muslim riots
  4. Unemployment

B. Answer any 2 questions from 16 to 18. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
List out any two component of Indians security strat-egy.
Answer:

  1. Increase our military strength so that we can increase our safety and solve our disputes with neighbours.
  2. Protect and strengthen international laws and organisations.

Question 17.
Briefly explain‘Cuban Missile Crisis’.
Answer:
Most North-Western countries became capitalist, anti-communist nations. A big power like USA could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of Russia. In 1962 the Russian President Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cuba. Most American cities then would come under threat from Russia. Later this was known as Cuban Missile Crisis.

Question 18.
Expand the following:
a) NATO
b) ASEAN
Answer:
NATO-North Atlantic Treaty Organisation ASEAN – Association of South East Asian Nations

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 19 to 23. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Explain how Indo-china war of 1962 affected India domestically.
Answer:

  1. Many top ranking officers of the military resigned.
  2. Nehru’s close friend and the then defense minister V.K. Krishna Menon had to resign ’
  3. A no-confidence motion was brought against Nehru government at first time.
  4. In 1964, Communist party split into two, pro- Chinese and pro-Russia. One was CPI (M) and the other CPI.
  5. War strengthened national feeling and prompted the nation to keep its unity and embark upon development projects.

Question 20.
Discuss the major issues which led to the split of Congress party in 1969.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru had great influence in the party because of his dynamic personality. His death created a vacuum in the party. Gradually the central group known as the Syndicate established itself in the Congress. In 1969 there arose a difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died, the Presidential post was vacant.

The Syndicate nominated Indira Gandhi’s long time rival and the then speaker Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi preferred the then Vice-President V.V. Giri to be the next President. V.V. Giri was elected. The failure of the official candidate of the Syndicate caused the formal division of the Congress. The Congress President suspended Indira Gandhi from the Party. Indira claimed that her group was the real Congress. In 1969; the Congress led by the Syndicate was known as Congress (O) and the one led by Indira Gandhi was called Congress (R).

Question 21.
The government of India and Bangladesh have differ-ences over several issues. Write any four of such issues.
Answer:

  1. The disputes over the sharing of the Ganga Brahmaputra river waters has not yet been solved.
  2. Issue of illegal migration .
  3. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory

Question 22.
As a citizen of India how do you support India’s candidature for permanent membership in the Security Councilof UNQ. Justify your argument.
Answer:
The demand of lndia,to be a Permanent Member of the Security Council is quite a logical and legitimate one. India fulfils all the criteria to be a permanent member. It demands permanent membership on the following grounds:

  1. It has the world’s second largest population.
  2. It is the largest democracy in the world.
  3. India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  4. It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  5. India’s economic situation is improving.
  6. India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 23.
Match the following:

A B
Tryst with Destiny’ Speech Sardar Patel
Formation of Andhra State Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Iron Man of India Jawaharlal Nehru
Frontier Gandhi Potti Sri Ramulu

Answer:

A B
Tryst with Destiny’ Speech Sardar Patel
Formation of Andhra State Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Iron Man of India Jawaharlal Nehru
Frontier Gandhi Potti Sri Ramulu

B. Answer any 1 questions from 24 to 25. Each caries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
Write any four provisions of Rajiv Gandhi – Longowal Accord.
Answer:
Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Longowal in 1985. The main provisions are
a) Handover Chandigarh to Punjab
b) Appoint a new commission to solve border disputes
c) Establish a tribunal to solve waters diputes.
d) Compensation and better treatment
e) Withdrawal of AFSPA.

Question 25.
Compare First and Second Five year plans.
Answer:

  • First five year plan
    1. A renowned economist Dr. K.N. Raj prepared the draft plan of first five year plan.
    2. Priority to agriculture
    3. Poverty eradication
    4. Slow progress of the country Second five year plan
    5. PC. Mahalanobis prepared the draft proposal of the
  • Second five year plan
    1. Rapid industrialisation
    2. Priority to heavy industries
    3. Tariff on imported goods

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each caries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 26.
Explain the difficulties in relation to the process of partition of India and its consequences.
Answer:
There were three reasons for that. First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims. There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the West and the other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian Territory.

Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim population wanted to become part of Pakistan. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan, who was the leader of the North-Western Province had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the North West- Province was included in Pakistan.

The third problem was that British India’s Punjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these huge provinces there were very many non- Muslims. Therefore the Provinces were divided into Districts and Panchayats depending on the religious majority of the population there. The result was that on the day of Independence many people did not know to which country they belonged India or Pakistan. It deeply wounded the people.

The problem of the minorities in each country was the worst of all. The. Hindus and Sikhs in the Pakistani areas and the Muslims in Punjab and Bengal were unfortunate preys to this division of the country. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were kille because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the border areas had to live in refugee camps.

The governments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will. In many homes women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour. Children were separated from their parents and guardians. People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps.

Not only the land, but even moveable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that between 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 27.
What is ‘Shock Therapy1? Briefly explain its conse-quences.
Answer:
The failure of the Soviet Union made many of its constituent countries abandon Communism and follow democratic ways. Russia, Asian countries, Easer European countries etc were attracted towards organizations like the World Bank and IMF.

  1. The main purpose yvas to make communist countries follow the capitalist model.
  2. Private capital would be very important.
  3. Cooperative farming will give way to private farming.
  4. Foreign investment, open market system and currency exchange would be possible.
  5. The countries of the erstwhile Soviet Union will have the facility to have contact with Western countries and trade with them.
  6. Using all these, the Western countries made the member countries of the erstwhile Soviet Union come closer to them.

RESULTS:

  1. Many big industries under government control collapsed.
  2. 90% industries were sold to individuals or private companies.
  3. The Russian Currency Rouble was devalued.
  4. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
  5. In Cooperative farming, people had food security.
  6. But now it was not there. Russia had to import food grains.
  7. In Russia, the GDP in 1999 was less than that of 1989.
  8. The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  9. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Question 28.
Three new sources of threats faced by the world are given below. Explain them.
Answer:
Security threats are of a different kind now. They can be categorized as follows:

1. Terrorism:
Political attacks make the life of ordinary citizens difficult. The terrorists want the political circumstances to change. They try to bring about changes by threats or armed attacks. By unleashing violence, they make the people restless. They try to make the dislike and discontentment of the people their weapon against governments.

Their activities include hijacking planes and bombing trains and markets and other places where people assemble. They attacked and destroyed the World Trade Centre in New York on 11 September 2001. The government and the people are more cautious now against terrorists.

2. Global Poverty:
This is another factor of security threat. It is believed that the population in the under-developed countries will triple in 50 years. In countries where the population is low, the per capita income will be high. Therefore the economically advanced countries will prosper further whereas the poor countries will grow poorer. The gap between countries of the North and South will increase. People from the South countries immigrate to the North countries for better life and earning. This also creates a threat for the security of mankind.

3. Contagious Diseases: Contagious diseases are another threat to mankind. AIDS, bird flu, SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) etc. are dangerous contagious diseases. These spread quickly from one country to another. A country’s success or failure in controlling these diseases affects other countries also. Recently swine-flu spread all over the world. It is when a problem becomes a threat to a nation and its people that it becomes an international security threat.

Question 29.
What you mean by ‘Common but Differentiated Re-sponsibilities’ ? List out the steps taken by India for the protection of environment.
Answer:
Common but Differentiated Responsibilities is a principle within the United Nations framework convention on climate change that acknowledges different capabilities and differeing responsibilities of individual countries in climate change. Each country is responsible for climate change and related issues. But the developed countries are more responsible for that. This principle was enshrined in the Earth Summit of 1992 in Rio-de-Janeiro.

For the protection of environment India has taken the following steps:
a. According to the auto fuel policy of India, only purified fuel is used for vehicles.
b. The Energy Act passed in 2001, aims at the appropriate use of energy.
c. The 2003 Electricity Act requires the use of renewable energy sources.
d. In 2011-12, the Bio-diesel Mission acquired 11 million hectors of land for the production of biodiesel.

Recently schemes have been worked out for the import of natural gas. It has been decided to use the latest technology for purifying coal. Thus India is doing a lot for environmental protection.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 6 scores. (2 x 6 = 12)

Question 30.
Explain the origin and struggle of Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan:
This Movement came as a result of the Sardar Sarovar Project. This questioned even the economic policy of the government. It was also a movement against large scale displacement of people for huge developmental projects. People of Kerala had made similar protests against the Vallarpadam Project. Sardar Sarovar Project is a large scale project. The project was to build a number of big and small dams. The project would cover Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra. This project would help Gujarat to have good irrigation and electricity.

Narmada Bachao Andolan was to protect Narmada. The Movement demanded the stoppage of constructions in this river. If this project is completed, 245 villages would be submerged underwater. Some 2.5 lakhs people will have to find new homes. Starting from these villages, the Andolan began to spread. The beginning of the Movement was by demanding to rehabilitate those who would lose their homes. The argument also came up that the local communities should have power over the land, water and forests. They ask why in a democracy some people should become victims for the benefit of some others. It also brings harm to Nature. All these were the causes for the Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 31.
Explain any two developments that influenced indian politics since 1989.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress lost the election. With that election the ‘Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1.990s,the government decided to implement the job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that
threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 32.
Briefly explain the ideologies of Bharatiya Jana Sagh and Swathanthra Party.
Answer:
Bhartiva Jan Sanah:
It was founded in 1951. The important leaders were Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, DeenDayal Upadhyaya and Balraj Madhok. BJS is different from other political . parties because of their ideas and schemes.

  1. They stress the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation.
  2. For India’s progress and growth, they want to fall back upon its culture and traditions.
  3. They want the reunification of India and Pakistan. Thus they have the concept of a greater, undivided India.
  4. They organized many protests insisting that Hindi should be the only official language of India.
  5. They do not want to give any kind of concessions to religious and cultural minorities.
  6. They want India to have atomic weapons.

In the first two elections, the BJS could get only very few votes. In 1952 and 1957 they gained 3 arid 4 seats respectively. In the beginning their supporters were mainly from the Hindi-speaking States – Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Delhi, and UP. The BJP originated from the BJS.

Swatantra Party
It was established in August 1959. Prominent leaders wereC. Rajagopalachari, K.M. Munshi, M.G Ranga and Minoo Masani. The Swatantra Party was formed in the light of the economic policy declared by the Nagpur Conference of the Congress. This Party was formed mainly to solve the economic problems of the country. The following were its policies:

  1. The Government should not make economic controls.
  2. Progress will come only through individual freedom.
  3. Governmental interference in economic matters, Central Planning, Nationalization, Public Sector Undertakings etc. will be against national progress.
  4. Encourage Private Sector.
  5. In the agricultural sector, the Party is against land ceilings, and trading with government interference.
  6. It is against increasing income tax and licensing of industries.
  7. It is against Russia and the Non-Aligned Movement.
  8. It wanted to establish more cordial relations with America.

As the interests of many groups were voiced by this Party, it received some strength. Many rulers of various Principalities, landowners, industrialists and businessmen supported this Party. They were not in favour of nationalization and land reforms. But because of its narrow social base and lack of sincere efforts from its members, it never grew into a popular party.

Part – V

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 35. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
Explain the causes for the declaration of National Emergency in 1975.
Hints:
• Economic Context
• Gujarat and Bihar Movements
• Conflict with Judiciary
• Declaration of Emergency
Answer:
Afterthe 1971 election, Indira became a popular leader with a lot of support from the people. This time there were serious problems in the Party. There were three main reasons:
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat & Bihar Movement
c) Dispute with the Judiciary

a) Economic Reasons:
The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘garibi hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was the refuge problem. Then there was the Bangladesh Crisis, followed by the Indo-Pakjstan War. All these things created financial problems. Secondly, afterthe War, America stopped its aids io India. Thirdly, there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The 4th reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult.

The 5th problem was negative growth in industrial output. Unemployment increased, especially in the rural sector. Sixthly, the salaries of government employees had to be reduced and even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff. All the above things created an economic crisis in the country. There was general discontentment in the country. This gave the Opposition Parties an opportunity to organise protests.

b) Gujarat and Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the Students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were Congress-ruled States. The main reason was the increase in the prices of essential commodities. Shortage of food, unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these States the Opposition Parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. At this time the main opponent of Indira Gandhi and the leader of Congress (O), Morarji Desai, decided to go on an indefinite hunger strike. He did that for demanding elections in Gujarat.

In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted. Congress lost the election. In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. But the Bihar government refused to resign. The entire country discussed the issue. Jay Prakash Narayan wanted to spread the protest to all parts of the country.

In the meantime the railway workers went on a strike. It would make the entire country come to a stand-still. In 1975, Jay Prakash Narayan organized a march to the Parliament. It was the biggest rally tRe capital had ever seen. The Opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi. Both the protests were anti-Congress. Voices also rose against the leadership of Mrs. Gandhi. She believed that all this was done to take revenge on her.

c) Dispute with the Judiciary : Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the Judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the Constitution. Congress argued that the Supreme Court judgement was against democracy and the authority of the Parliament. The Party said that the Court was standing against some welfare measures taken to help the poor people.

The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, Can the Parliament change the Fundamental Rights? The Court said no. Secondly, Can the Parliament change ownership of land? Again the Court said no. Thirdly the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. It amended the Constitution. But the Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and the Supreme Court.

There were two more reasons. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court judged that the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the Constitution. Soon the post of the Chief Justice became vacant. Normally the senior most judge is appointed as the Chief Justice. But keeping aside 3 eligible Judges, the government appointed A.N. Roy as the Chief Justice. This appointment became controversial. Besides, the Uttar Pradesh High Court declared the election of Indira Gandhi as ni^ll and void. All these were the reasons for Mrs Gandhi to declare Emergency in June 1975.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 34.
‘Afterthe end of Cold War, USA exercises hegemony on the world in many ways”. Explain the three dimensions of US hegemony’ You can use the hints’
• Hegemony as Hard Power
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:
a) Hard Power
b) Structural Power
c) Soft Power

Hard Power: This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to Challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

Structural power: This dominance is based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all Countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power: This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture. We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using ‘soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.

Question 35.
China’s economic success since 1978 has made it an alternative centre of power’. Explain the growth of China as a centre of power.
Answer:
The new economic policy has helped China a lot to bring it out of the moribund economic state. Privatization in the agricultural sector made crop ‘ production increase considerably and the rural economic sector improved. Thus there was considerable increase in the rural industrial sector. Chinese economy became better as a result of the increase in industry and rural growth. In 2001, China entered the WTO and thus it was able to trade with outside countries. Its decision to work jointly with the world economic system will definitely affect its economic model. Although some of these things are against Communist ideologies, the Chinese development model has become the cornerstone of its development.

China became the fastest growing economy in the world . It is the development model in China’s planning that helped it to succeed. Heavy investment in the area of production made China grow. The biggest consumer market in the world today is China. In 2001, China became a member of the WTO. China has independent trade treaties with Australia, South Korea, ASEAN, Switzerland and Pakistan.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers.

From Questions 1 to 12 answer for 16 scores.

Question 1.
Name the leader of the Freedom Movement of India who was popularly known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
(d) Sardar Patel
Answer:
(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Question 2.
Match the following:

(a) Socialist Party i) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(b) Communist Party ii) C. Raj ag opal achari
(c) Bharatiya Jana Sangh iii) A.K. Goplan
(d) Swatantra iv) Acharya Narendra Dev

Answer:

(a) Socialist Party i) Acharya Narendra Dev
(b) Communist Party ii) A.K. Goplan
(c) Bharatiya Jana Sangh iii) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
(d) Swatantra iv) C. Raj ag opal achari

Question 3.
Shimla Agreement was signed by and
(a) Lai Bahadur Shastri and General Ayub Khan
Answer:
(c) Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 4.
Who is known as the ‘Architecture of first five year plan’?
Answer:
Dr. K.N. Raj

Question 5.
Which organization led to the formation of Right to Information Act?
Answer:
M.K.S.S

Question 6.
Which commission recommended 27% reservation for OBC candidates in all levels or government?
Answer:
Mandal Commission

Question 7.
Identify the American President who declared “Operation Enduring Freedom”.
Answer:
George Bush

Question 8.
Complete the following table related to ASEAN: (2)
Answer:
(a) ASEAN Security Community
(b) ASEAN Economic community

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a SAARC country?
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Indonesia
(d) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) Indonesia

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 10.
Write the expansion of‘NIEO’.
Answer:
New International Economic Order

Question 11.
Kyoto Protocol deals with which of the following areas?
(a) Migration
(b) Climate Change
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(b) Climate Change

Question 12.
Match the following:

Sheikh Abdullah Mizo National Front
E.V. Ramaswami Operation Blue Star
Indira Gandhi National Conference
Laldeng Dravidar Kazhagam

Answer:

Sheikh Abdullah National Conference
E.V. Ramaswami Dravida Kazhagam
Indira Gandhi Operation Blue Star
Laldeng Mizo National Front

Answer any four questions from 13 to 17. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 13.
What are the factors responsible for the dominance of Congress Party in the first three General Elections?
Answer:

  1. Heritage of national movement.
  2. Organisational set up throughout the country.
  3. Charismatic leaders like Nehru and others.

Question 14.
Explain any three consequences of emergency declared on 25th June, 1975.
Answer:

  1. Widespread arrest of opposition leaders.
  2. Censorship on press.
  3.  Excessive use of preventive detection.

Question 15.
India and Bangladesh have.differences over several issues. Identify any three of them.
Answer:

  1. Ganga-Brahmaputra water sharing.
  2. Illegal migration.
  3. Denial of natural gas to India.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 16.
Explain Non-traditional concept of security.
Answer:

  1. Human security – Security of humans
  2. Rather than physical structures
  3. Global security – Security of all countries

Question 17.
Mention any two outcomes of Rio-Summit.
Answer:

  1. Countries are agreed upon the issues of climate change, afforestation and bio-diversity.
  2. Implementation of agenda 21.

Answer any four questions from 18 to 22. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 18.
Evaluate two positive and two negative consequences of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
Green revolution: Positive effects
(a) Increase in food production especially wheat.
(b) Punjab, Haryana and western UP were the beneficiaries.

Negative effects.
(a) Rich landlords and peasants were the beneficiaries.
(b) Ordinary farmers remained poor and a middle class farmers emerged.

Question 19.
What are the reasons which led to the failure of Janatha Government?
Answer:
Lack of proper leadership and common agenda.
No fundamental change in the policies.
Differences of opinion among parties in the coalition.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 20.
The anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh drew the attention of the country to some serious issues. What were these issues?
Answer:

  1. The women in Nellore district came forward to protest against arrack trade.
  2. The protest demanded the authorities to impose prohibition of arrack in the area.
  3. The women folk of the society and their struggle addressed the issues of domestic violence, dowry, sexual violence and their campaign increased social awareness about womens problems.
  4. The movement demanded equal representation to women’s in politics.

Question 21.
What was the main outcome of Rajiv Gandhi- Longowal Accord in July 1985?
Answer:

  1. Chandigarh would be transferred to Punjab.
  2. A separate commission will look into the border dispute between Punjab and Haryana.
  3. A tribunal will decide the sharing of Ravi-Beas river water among Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
  4. Compensation would be provided to those affected by the military.
  5. Armed forces special Powers Act in Punjab would
  6. be withdrawn.

Question 22.
Assess the role of ASEAN as an economic association.
Answer:

  1. ASEAN was established in 1967 and its headquarters at Jakarta, in Indonesia.
  2. ASEAN was one of the powerful alternative centres of power of the South East Asian Nations.
  3. ASEAN adopted a vision 2020, which was their economic manifesto for the new millennium.
  4. ASEAN has trade relations and agreements with European countries, U.S.A, China and India.
  5. After the formation of ASEAN, the economy of the South East Asian countries became very powerful.

Answer any four questions from 23 to 27. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 23.
India and Pakistan have a largely hostile relationship that is rooted in historical and political events. Identity those incidents that have shaken the relationship between the two after partition.
Answer:
Arms race between the two countries went on uninterrupted.

  1. The Indian side says that Pakistan is helping the Kashmir militants with arms, money and trasings.
  2. Pakistan had helped the pro Khalistan militants.
  3. Sharing of water is another bone of contention between India and Pakistan.
  4. Another issue between two countries is about the demaration line in the Rann of Katch.

Question 24.
Discuss the major issues which led to the formal split of the Congress Party in 1969.
Answer:
On president Zakir Hussain’s death a new president had to be elected. Syndicate nominated Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy as the president candidate. Indira Gandhi asked V.V Giri to file the nomination as an independent candidate. Congress president issued whip asked to vote for Neelam Sanjeev Readdy. Indira Gandhi called conscience vote and supported V.V. Giri. In this election V.V. Giri elected as the president of India. Sanjeeva Reddy defeated and the Congress party had split. The congress led by the syndicate came to be known as the Congress (0) and the group led by Indira Gandhi to be called Congress (R).

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 25.
Explain the three types of U.S. Hegemony. Give exam pies for each.
Answer:
Hegemony as Hard Power:
Hard power implies dominance of super power on ground of military power.
Eg. War on Terror, Operation Iraqi freedom.

Hegemony as structural power:
Structural power implies the dominance of super power on grounds of economic terms.
Eg: Academic degree MBA, Bretton Wood twins and their role in structural policy.

Hegemony as Soft Power:
Soft power impels dominance of super power on grounds of cultural spheres,
eg: Capacity to manufacturing consent, Blue Jeans, Coco-cola, MC-Donald etc.

Question 26.
Explain the main issues in Indian Politics in the period after 1989.
Answer:
1. End of congress system : The election is 1989 marked the end of Congress system .and the emergence of multi-party system. It led to the coalition government also when regional parties played a critical role in forming alliance.

2. Mandal Issue : In 1990 the V.P. Singh government decided to implement the recommendations of second backward class commission popularly known as Mandal Commission. The major recommendation was reservation of 27% seats in educational institution and government jobs for backward classes. Violent anti-Mandal protests broke out in different parts of the country.

3. New Economic Policy : Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh started new economic reforms to change the direction of Indian economic policy. Liberalisation, privatisation, globalisation were the three core aspects of that policy. It was really a radical change in the economic policy of India.

4. Demolition of Babri Majid: The Babri Masjid was demolished in December 1992. The demolition marked many changes in Indian politics. Secular fabric of the country was disturbed and widespread riots took place all over India. The demolition was marked as a’point of time when religious sentiments used for electoral purposes.

Question 27.
What is globalisation? Analyse the political and cultural consequences of globalisation.
Answer:
The concept of globalization is the exchange of ideas, materials and human resources. Now this exchange is possible among nations without much control. Looked at this way, it assumes different levels of political, economic and cultural meanings. In this sense it has merits and demerits. Some societies may be affected only very little, but some may be affected much more. Let us see how it works:

Political results:
Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes. Instead of social welfare, the stress is on the market. With the coming MNCs (Multi National Corporations), it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions. According to the advocates of globalization, no political power of the government is lost. The essential things will remain under the authority of the government. Since technology has advanced so much, governments can do a lot. Technology helps governments to know the details of their citizens and make the administration efficient.

Economic Results:
Globalization has influenced the economic sphere greatly. World Bank, IMF, WTO etc. play big roles. All these are controlled mainly by America and its allies. The world economy itself has come tinder their influence. In this, a re-thinking is necessary. It is high time that we found out who the beneficiaries of globalization are.

As a result of globalization, import controls are reduced or removed. The developed nations can now invest their capital in the developing nations. Investing in the developing nations is more profitable.’ Technologies develop without any limits of borders. But regarding the movement of people, the developed nations have made certain rules. Their countries are kept safe from foreign workers through the policy of Visa. Because of the visa rules, the jobs of their citizens are not taken away by emigrants.

There are arguments in favour and against economic globalization. Although the policy is the same, different places get different results. Those who think of social justice can look at the limitations on government only as a demerit of globalization. Those who are economically backward need some special security not to suffer from the demerits of globalization.

Some people believe that globalization makes the poor people poorer and so it must be stopped. But globalization brings about huge economic growth and the social welfare of many. Large scale commerce makes the economy better. It is not easy to prevent globalization in the forward march of history.

Answer any two questions from 28 to 30. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 28.
‘Partition was not only a division of geographical area but a division of hearts also.’ Based on the above statement, explain the difficulties and consequences of partition.
Answer:
There were three reasons for that. First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims, there were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the West and the other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian Territory.

Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim population wanted to become part of Pakistan. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan, who was the leader of the North Western Province had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the North West Province was included in Pakistan.

The third problem was that British India’s Punjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. Butin these huge provinces there were very many non- Muslims. Therefore the Provinces were divided into Districts and Panchayats depending on the religious majority of the population there. The result was that on the day of Independence many people did not know to which country they belonged – India or Pakistan. It deeply wounded the people.

The problem of the minorities in each country was the worst of all. The Hindus and Sikhs in the Pakistani areas and the Muslims in Punjab arid Bengal were unfortunate preys to this division of the country. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were killed because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the border areas had to live in refugee camps.

The govern ments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will. In many homes v women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour.

Children were separated from their parents and guardians. People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps. Not only the land, but even moveable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that be-tween 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Board Model Paper 2023 with Answers

Question 29.
Describe the causes of Soviet disintegration.
Answer:
There are many reasons for the disintegration of the USSR:
a) Political reasons
b) Economic reasons
c) The reforms of Gorbachev
a) Political Reasons

  1. In the Soviet system there was bureaucratic misrule and misuse of authority. The life of ordinary people was not at all smooth.
  2. Lack of democracy and lack of freedom of expression.
  3. Although on paper Russia was just one of the 15 republics, it either suppressed or controlled the people of all other republics.

b) Economic reasons
To become equal with the US in weapons, USSR spent a lot of its money on weapons. USSR was behind the West in technology and internal structure. It had no ability to protect the political and economic interests of its people.

c) Reforms of Gorbachev
His two important reforms were Glasnost and Perestroika. They did not bring the expected results. They brought more troubles to the country leading to its disintegration.

Question 30.
Evaluate the proposed reforms of structure and process of UNO.
Answer:
There is a need to reform UNOaspertheneedofthe time. The circumstances today are different from those existing at the time of the formation of the UNO. There should be objective solutions to the problems of the world. No country should assume the role of world police.

There should be structural change in the UN to enable it to eradicate terrorism. There should be proper representation of the developing nations in the UN. The demand of India to have permanent membership in the Security Council is a logical and just demand. India wants permanent membership because of the following reasons:

  1. It has the world’s second largest population.
  2. It is the largest democracy in the world.
  3. India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  4. It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  5. India’s economic situation is improving.
  6. India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

From Questions 1 to 12, answer for 16 scores

Question 1.
Who delivered the famous Tryst with Destiny’ speech?
a) Lai Bahadur Shastri
b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a) Kalyanasundaram
b) SukumarSen
c) S.P. SenVerma
d) NegendraSing
Answer:
b) SukumarSen

Question 3.
Who is known as the ‘Milkman’ of India?
a) Lalu Prasad Yadav
b) M.s. Swaminathan
c) varghese Kurian
d) J.C. Kumarappa
Answer:
c) varghese Kurian

Question 4.
The commission appointed in 1977 by Janatha Party government to inquire into the excess committed during emergency.
a) Shah Commission
b) Sarkaria Commission
c) Mandal Commission
d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
a) Shah Commission

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 5.
The Punjab accord was signed by ____ and ____
a) Indra Gandhi and Bhindranwala
b) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand singh Longowal.
c) Rajiv Gandhi and Lai Denga
d) Angami Zaper Phizo and Kazi Lhendup Dorgi
Answer:
b) Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand singh Longowal.

Question 6.
Match the following.

a) Mikhail Gorbachev i) Success of USSR
b) Shock Therapy ii) USSR
c) Russia iii) Peristroika
d) Warsapact iv) Transition model

Answer:

a) Mikhail Gorbachev i) Peristroika
b) Shock Therapy ii) Transition model
c) Russia iii) Success of USSR
d) Warsapact iv) USSR

Question 7.
Expand the following:
Answer:
ASEAN : Association of South-East Asian Nations.
SAFTA  : South Asean Free Trade Agreement.

Question 8.
Name the first Secretary General of United Natons Organisation.
Answer:
Trygve Lie

Question 9.
Arrange the following statement in the appropriate columns given below:
Elimination of existing weapons
Regulates acquisition of development of weapons.

Arms Control Disarmament

Answer:

Arms Control Disarmament
Regulates aquisition or development of weapons. Elimination of existing weapons.

Question 10.
Which among the following is not a part of ‘Global Comomns’
a) Antarctica
b) Outer Space
c) Earth’s Atmosphere
d) Rivers
Answer:
d) Rivers

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 11.
Match the following: (4)

a) India’s Nuclear Policy i) Tibetan Spiritual leader
b) Shimla Agreement iii) No first use
c) Banding Conference iii) Indo-Pak relations
d) Dalai Lama iv) NAM

Answer:

a) India’s Nuclear Policy i) Nofirstuse
b) Shimla Agreement ii) Indo-Pak relations
c) Banding Conference iii) NAM
d) Dalai Lama iv) Tibetan Spiritual leader

Question 12.
Name the person, who took leading role in drafting second five year plan of India.
Answer:
PC. Mahalanobis

Answer any 4 questions from 13 to 18. Each carries 3 scores. (4× 3 = 12)

Question 13.
What are the new sources of threats to both Human Security and Global Security? Write any three.
Answer:
Security threats are of a different kind now. They can be categorized as follows:
1) Terrorism: Political attacks make the life or ordinary citizens difficult. The terrorists went the political circumstances to change. They try to bring about changes by threats or armed attacks.

2) Human Rights Violations: We see that throughout the world there are human right violations. There is no unified thinking in any country about how to protect human rights.

3) Global Poverty: This is another factor of security threat, it is believed that the population in the under developed countries will triple in 50 years. In countries where the population is low, the per capita income will be high. Therefore the economically advanced countries will prosper further whereas the poor countries will grow poorer. The gap between countries of the North and South will increase. People from the South countries immigrate to the North countries for the security of mankind.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 14.
The world face several environmental concerns. Identify any three amongst them.
Answer:

  1. Global warming
  2. Deforestation
  3. Pollution

Question 15.
Post – independent India had to face trifold challenges. Identify them.
Answer:
a) Integrating India
b) Ensuring the welfare of the people and development
c) Establish the democratic system

Question 16.
Jawaharlal Nehru had some objectives while farming the foreign policy of India, prepare a brief note on those objectives.
Answer:

  1. Protect the freedorn and sovereignty of the nation.
  2. Protect the geographical unit of the nation.
  3. Ensure rapid economic growth of the nation.

Question 17.
Explain any three reasons which evolved the emergence of the popular movement, ‘Narada BachaoAndolan’
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan : This Movement came as a result of the Sardar Sarovar Project. This questioned even the economic policy of the government. It was also a movement against large scale displacement of people for huge developmental projects. People of Kerala had made similar protests against the Vallarpadam Project.

Sardar Sarovar Project is a large scale project. The project was to build a number of big and small dams. The project would cover Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra. This project would help Gujarat to have good irrigation and electricity.

Narmada Bachao Andolan was to protect Narmada. The Movement demanded the stoppage of constructions in this river. If this project is completed, 245 villages would be submerged under water. Some 2.5 lakhs people will have to find new homes. Starting from these villages, the Andolan began to spread. The beginning of the Movement was by demanding to rehabilitate those who would lose their homes.

The argument also came up that the local communities should have power over the land, water and forests. They fesk why in a democracy some people should become victims for the benefit of some others. Many large scale schemes have been implemented. Large scale displacement of people would adversely affect them. It also brings harm to Nature. All these were the causes for the Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 18.
Briefly narrate, ‘Cuban Missile Crisis’ and name both Soviet and US leaders associated with the crisis.
Answer:
Cuban missile crisis is also called October crisis of 1962. It was 13 day confrontation between the US and Soviet Union. It was initiated by the american discovery of Soviet ballistic missile depolyment in Cuba. The confrontation is considered the closest the cold war came to escalating into a full scale unclear war.
The outcome is

  1. Withdrawal of soviet nuclear missiles from Cuba.
  2. Withdrawal of US missile frrom Turkey & Italy.
  3. Creation of a nuclear hotline b/n Us & Soviet Union.

Answer any 4 questions from 19 to 24. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 19.
Identify any four factors that supported Congress to dominate, post-independent Indian political scenario.
Answer:
In all the 3 general elections after independence, the Congress won brutal majorities. There were some reasons for that.

  1. Congress had led Independence struggle.
  2. Congress was the only party which had spread all across India.
  3. The popularity of Jawaharlal Nehru

Because of all these reasons, Congress had expected victory. When the final results came, the astounding success of the Congress Party surprised everyone. It made all other parties lag much behind. It won 364 out of the 489 seats. The same was the Case in the States. The exceptions to this were Travancore-Cochin, Madras and Orissa.

In the later two elections (1957,1962) also Congress repeated its success. Some people thought the victory’of the Congress Party was because of the system of our election. This system was pro-Congress. Although 3 out of 4 seats were won by the Congress, it did not have even the support of 50% of the voters. The votes polled by other parties were more than the votes polled by  Congress.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
Discuss the context of Fourth general elections of India, 1967.
Answer:
From 1952 elections, until the 4th election, Congress could gain clear majority in both the Centre and States. But with the 4th election things changed. The financial crisis, succession following the death of Lai Bahadur Sastri, the devaluation of the Indian Rupee, inflation – all these things adversely affected the Congress. It was the first election after the death of Nehru. The Opposition Parties joined together to fight the Congress.

In the circumstances, the election result was a real earthquake. Although Congress could maintain its majority in the Lok Sabha, it was the smallest ma-jority so far. Almost half of the ministers in the Indira Ministry failed to be re-elected. In 7 States Congress lost power. In two other States, because of Defection, Congress could not form governments.

Thus 9 States – Punjab, Haryana, UP, MP, Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala were lost by the Congress. In Madras a regional party, the DMK, came to power with clear majority. This was the first Non-Congress, single party government. In the other 8 States coalition governments were formed. That is how the popular saying emerged.

Question 21.
The anti-arrack movement, in Andhra Pradesh, drew the attention of the country to some serious issues. Mention any four amongst them.
Answer:
In the 1990s, many women in Nellur in Andhra became literate. In the class, women spoke about the drinking habits of their men-folk. Drinking alcohol causes both physical and mental harm. It also adversely affects the economic situation of the family. Men do not go to work. The manufacturers of various kinds of alcoholic beverages make money by using all sorts of illegal means. It is the women that suffer because of the drinking habit of men.

The women in Nellur protested against alcoholism and forced a wine shop to close down. This news spread like wild fire into some 5000 villages. They held meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the Collectors. The arrack auction in Nellur had to be postponed 17 times. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the State. In short, where government s and political parties failed, such social movements won.

Question 22.
Define Shock Therapy and discuss consequences of its.
Answer:
The disintegration of the USSR led many of its member countries to accept democracy. Russia, Asia and Eastern European countries were attracted to the World Bank and IMF. This change is known as the shock treatment.

Results:

  1. Many large scale industries under government control were closed.
  2. 90% industries were ready to be sold to individuals and companies.
  3. Rouble, the Russian currency, lost its value.
  4. Inflation reduced the value of the saving of people.
  5. In collective farming, people had food security. USSR had to import foodstuff.
  6. The G DP of 1999 was less that of 1989.
  7. The social welfare schemes had to be abandoned.
  8. As the subsidies were withdrawn, people became poor.
  9. Educational and intellectual manpower was reduced and people left the country looking for jobs.
  10. Privatization brought inequality among people.

Question 23.
Examin the role and limitations of SAARC as a forum for facilitating co-operation among the South Asian countries.
Answer:
SAARC officially came int& existence in December 1985. 7 countries of South Asia are its members. They are Bhutan, India, Bangladesh, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. This organization was formed with the intention of ensuring cooperation in the spheres of agriculture, rural development, science and technology, culture, health and population control.

MAIN OBJECTIVES OF SAARC:

  1. Ensuring the well-being of the South Asians.
  2. Quicken the economic, social and cultural growth.
  3. Make collective efforts to make the regions self-sufficient.
  4. Mutual help in various areas.
  5. Mutual cooperation.
  6. Work in collaboration with international and regional organizations.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 24.
India’s demand for permanent membership in the UN Security Council is a genuine claim. Substantiate the statement by giving reasons.
Answer:
There is a need to reform UNO as per the need of the time. The circumstances today are different from those existing at the time of the formation of the UNO. There should be objective solutions to the problems of the world. No country should assume the role of world police.

There should be structural change in the UN to enable it to eradicate terrorism. There should be proper representation of the developing nations in the UN. The demand of India to have permanent membership in the Security Council is a logical and just demand. India wants permanent membership because of the following reasons:

  1. It has the world’s second largest population.
  2. It is the largest democracy in the world.
  3. India has participated in the UN activities since its inception.
  4. It has long relations with the UN Peacekeeping force.
  5. India’s economic situation is improving.
  6. India gives regularly to the UN budget. It has never defaulted on any payment.

The above reasons are good enough for India to get a permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Permanent membership has its own significance. India’s importance will increase in world matters. Our foreign policy will influence others.

Answer any 4 questions from 25 to 30. Each caries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 25.
Explain, Green Revolution. Mention two positive and negative outcomes of it.
Answer:
Green Revolution is the name given to the policies of the government which aimed at maximum production in the minimum period in the.agricultural sector. In the 1960s, the agricultural sector was in a very bad shape. Between 1965 and 67 there were huge droughts in many parts of India. This reduced food production and in many areas there was famine¬like condition.

To overcome this crisis, India was forced to seek assistance from countries like America. Following the American policies, we too started some new economic policies. The government wanted self-sufficiency in food and therefore a new agricultural policy was implemented. This policy included farming all lands where irrigation was available, using high yield varieties of seeds and fertilizing the land. Subsidies were given for irrigation and insecticides. It was also decided that the. government would purchase the produce at a minimum price. All these changes together paved the way for what is known as the Green Revolution.

The Green Revolution brought some positive changes in agricultural growth. Food stuff was easily available. Of course, it was the rich merchants and large farm- owners that were the prime beneficiaries. There was a polarization of the rich and poor. This helped the Left Parties to bring together the poor farmers and the masses. As a result, there arose a powerful Left leaning lobby of middle class farmers.

Negative outcomes:

  1. Green revolution mainly focused on the production of wheat.
  2. If increased the use of chemical fertilizers.
  3. It increased gap between the rich and the poor.

Question 26.
Discuss the background and causes which led to the declaration of Emergency in India.
Answer:
After the 1971 election, Indira became a popular leader with a lot of support from the people. This time there were serious problems in the Party. There were three main reasons:
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat & Bihar Movement
c) Dispute with the Judiciary

The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘garibi hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was the refuge problem. Then there was the Bangladesh Crisis, followed by the Indo- Pakistan War. All these things created financial problems. Secondly, after the War, America stopped its aids to India.

Thirdly, there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The 4th reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The 5th problem was negative growth in industrial output. Unemployment increased, especially in the rural sector. Sixthly, the salaries of government employees had to be reduced and even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff.

All the above things created an economic crisis in the country. There was general discontentment in the country. This gave the Opposition Parties an opportunity to organise protests.

Guiaratand Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were Congress-ruled States. The main reason was the increase in the prices of essential commodities. Shortage of food, unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these States the Opposition Parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. At this time the main opponent of Indira Gandhi and the.leader of Congress (O), Morarji Desai, decided to go on an indefinite hunger strike. He did that for demanding elections in Gujarat.

In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted. Congress lost the election. In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need fora revolution in social, economic and political spheres. But the Bihar government refused to resign.

The entire country discussed the issue. Jay Prakash Narayan wanted to spread the protest to all parts of the country. In the meantime the railway workers went on a strike. It would make the entire country come to a stand¬still. In 1975, Jay Prakash Narayan organized a march to the Parliament. It was the biggest rally the capital had ever seen. The Opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi. Both the protests were anti-Congress. Voices also rose against the leadership of Mrs. Gandhi. She believed that all this was done to take revenge on her.

Dispute with the Judiciary:
Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the Judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the Constitution. Congress argued that the Supreme Court judgement was against democracy and the authority of the Parliament. The Party said that the Court was standing against some welfare measures taken to help the poor people. The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, Can the Parliament change the Fundamental Rights?

The Court said no. Secondly, Can the Parliament change ownership of land? Again the Court said no. Thirdly, the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. It amended the Constitution. But the Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and the Supreme Court.

There were two more reasons. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court judged that the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the Constitution. Soon the post of the Chief Justice became vacant. Normally the senior most judge is appointed as the Chief Justice. But keeping aside 3 eligible Judges, the government appointed A.N. Roy as the Chief Justice. This appointment became controversial. Besides, the Uttar Pradesh High Court declared the election of Indira Gandhi as null ancl void. All these were the reasons for Mrs Gandhi to declare Emergency in June 1975.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 27.
India witnesses several regional issues. What lessons we drew from regional aspirations in India?
Answer:
Refer the Chapter: ‘Regional Aspirations’ Especially Questions 28, 29, 30, 31, 32

Question 28.
Towards the end qf 1980’s, five major developments occurred, which brought long lasting imapct on Indian politics. Explain those development.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress lost the electiog. With that election the ‘Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1990s,the . government decided to implement the job
reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic ‘ policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Question 29.
Non-alignment as a strategy evolved in the cold war context. Explain India’s policy of NAM and discuss major criticism levied against it.
Answer:
Non alignment strategy evolved in the cold war context. Explain India’s policy of NAM and diseases major critisism levied against it. Non alignment is one of the basic principles of India’s foreign policy. It is the most valuable contributiion given by India to the international community. India formulated the policy of non alignment in the context of 2 global development.

1) The freedom struggle, in the colonies.
2) The cold war between the capitalist bloc and the socialist bloc.

India’s national movement was notan isolated one. If was a part of the world wide struggle against cololnialilsm and imperialism. The freedom struggle in India influenced the liberation movements of many Asian and African countries.

Even before independence there was cordial relations between the national leaders of India and other colo-nies. All of them stood united in their struggle against colonialism. During the period of freedom struggle. India established cordial relations with overseas In-dians.

When India became independent cold war had already become very strong. It was a period of global conformation of the power blocs under the leadership of Russia and America in the political economic and military level. The super powers tried their level best to really the newly independent states in their own. Several critisism have been leveled against India’s policy of non alilgnment.

  1. The critics say that India’s non alignment policy is unprincipled.
  2. India was also critisized for its contradictary and inconsist and stand.
  3. Some critics point out that India was part of the soviate bloc.

Question 30.
“The European Union has economic, political, diplomatic and military influence in international politics.” What makes European Union a highly influential regional organisation?
Answer:
“The European union has economic, Political, diplomatic and mililtary influence in international Politics”. What makes european union highly influential regional or ganisation? The IInd world war inflicted heavy losses upon european countries. Their economies were linked. The Europeans leaders succeeded in belonging the economic integration of Europe. It was achieved through the formation of certain institutions. The most important among them was European union.

The formation of European economic community in 1957 was the fixed step in the evolution of E.U. Com-munity was also known as common market. Its goal was to expand free trade. In 1992 the members of European economic community renamed their organisation as European Union.

The growth of E.U really amazing with in a very short period. It could becaome the biggest economic and political organisation of the world. The European Union has economic, Political-and diplomatic and military influence. The European union made oustanding performance in the economic sector. It is the biggest economy of the world. In 2005, its G.D.P is 12 trillion dollars, slightly larger than that of the united station. Its currency, the Euro also threat the dominance of American dollar. Its Shace of the world trade is 3 times larger that of the U.S.

E.U soon emerged as world is biggest exporter of commodities and biggest buyer of law materials. It was IInd only to U.S in steel production. E.U has grood political and diplomatic influence. Two member of E.U France and Britain are the Permanent member of U.N secretary council. Besides permanent members, many member of the European Union are non permanent member of secretary council.

The E.U has a great military force. It armed forces are the IInd largest in the world. Its total spending an E.U, Britain and France have nuclear assenals of 550 war heads. Orover, the E.U occupies the IInd im¬portant position in the field of space and communication technology.

Answer any 2 questions from 31 to 33. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 31.
Globalisation is a multidimensional concept. Define globalization and explain i^s political, economic and cultural consequences.
Answer:
Globalization is the exchange of ideas, materials and human resources. Now this exchange is possible among nations without much control. Looked at this way, it assumes different levels of political, economic and cultural meanings. In his sense it has merits and demerits. Some societies may be affected only very little, but some may be affected much more.

Let us see how it works. Politically speaking, the authority of the government gets weaker. It will have to reduce its welfare schemes. Instead of social welfare, the stress is on the market. With the coming MNCs (Multi National Corporations), it becomes difficult for the governments to take independent decisions. Globalization has far-reaching economic and cultural effects.

Cultural Effects:
Globalization has influenced the economic results greatly. World Bank, IMF, WTO, etc. play big roles. All these are controlled mainly by America and its allies. The world economy itself has come under their influence. In this, a rethinking is necessary. It is high time we found out who the beneficiaries of globalization are.

As a result of globalization, import controls are reduced or removed, he developed nations can now invest their capital in the developing countries. Investing in the developing countries is more profitable. Technologies develop without any limits of borers. Bur regarding the movement of people, the developed nations have made certain rules. Their countries are kept safe from foreign workers through the policy of Visa. Because of the visa rules, the jobs of their citizens are not taken away by emigrants.

Cultural Results: Globalization opens the way for the globalization of cultures. Globalization is the flow of things from one country to another. This flow is of different kinds. Ideas can floe from one country to another. It should be the flow of things. It could be flow of people from pne country to another seeking better opportunities and better life.

The effects of globalization do not limit themselves to the economic and political fields alone. It affects even the house we live in, the food we eat, our drinks, our dresses and even the way we think. There are people that globalization might become so effective that there may emerge a uniform global culture. In reality this global culture is nothing but the western culture. This brings a challenge not only to the poor countries but to the entire mankind.

It means the rich heritages of various, divergent and individual culturfes will ultimately lose their lustre and simply be forgotten in the §hine of the global culture. However, some people feel that the adverse effect of cultural globalization is an exaggerated one. To them culture is not something that stands still, but it changes with the progress of time. All cultures absorb the good things from other cultures.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 32.
Partition of India was painful and difficult task. Discuss the difficulties and consequences of partition.
Answer:
The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people on both sides were killed because of their religion and caste. Huge cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas. People were forced to flee their homes, suffering a lot of difficulties on their way. Many of the people in the minorities in the border areas had to live in refugee camps.

The governments and the police were not there to help them. People had to walk or ride in some vehicles from their homes to their new places. During the journey, many were attacked and killed; women were raped. Many were forced to accept the majority religion and marry people against their will. In many homes women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour. Children were separated from their parents and guardians.

People who came to the new land had no houses and they had to live in refugee camps. Not only the land, but even moveable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. People who were living like brethren were divided. It is believed that between 5 to 10 lakh people lost their lives in this tragic division of the country.

“The division of India into India and Pakistan was not only very painful but also very difficult to decide and to implement.” There were three reasons for that. First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims. There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the West and the other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian Territory.

Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim population wanted to become part of Pakistan. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan, who was the leader of the North-Western Province had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the North West Province was included in Pakistan.

The third problem was that British India’s Punjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these huge provinces there were very many non- Muslims. Therefore the Provinces were divided into Districts and Panchayats depending on the religious majority of the population there. The result was that on the day of Independence many people did’not know to which country they belonged India or Pakistan. It deeply wounded the people.

The problem of the minorities in each country was the worst of all. The Hindus and Sikhs in the Pakistani areas and the Muslims in Punjab and Bengal were unfortunate preys to this division of the country. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 33.
The post cold war period witnessed American dominance‘in world politics. Discuss the three strategies exmployed by United State of America to establish and maintain its hegemony in the world.
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:

a) Hard Power
b) Structural Power
c) Soft Power

Hard Power:
This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world, and punish the culprits.

STRUCTURAL POWER:
This dominance is based on the economic structure.. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example,’communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, l.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power:
This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture.
We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2021

Answer the following questions from 1 to 44 upto a maximum score of 80. Questions from 1 to 13. Total scores 22.

Question 1.
Identify the commission which recommended for the formation of states on language basis. (1)
Answer:
State Reorganisation Commission/ Fazal Ali Commission.

Question 2.
Name the political party which put forward two nation theory.
Answer:
Muslim League

Question 3.
Math the following:

a. Sardar Vallabhahai Patel Stand still agreement
b. Bodha Chandra Singh Formation of Andhra Pradesh
c. Nizam Merger agreement
d. Potti Sriramulu Integration of princely states

Answer:

a. Sardar Vallabhahai Patel Integration of princely states
b. Bodha Chandra Singh Merger agreement
c. Nizam Standstill agreement
d. Potti Sriramulu Formation of Andhra Pradesh

Question 4.
Who is known as the’milkman of India1? (1)
Answer:
Varghese Kurien

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 5.
Math the following: (4)

Leaders Parties
a. Acharya Narendra Dev Republican Party
b. C. Rajagopalachari Communist Party
c. A.K. Gopalan Swatantra Party
d. B.R. Ambedkar Socialist Party

Answer:

Leaders Parties
a. Acharya Narendra Dev Socialist Party
b. C. Rajagopalachari Swatantra Party
c. A.K. Gopalan Communist Party
d. B.R. Ambedkar Republican Party

Question 6.
Name the political party which led the popular struggle against the dominance of West Pakistan over East Pakistan.
Answer:
Awami League

Question 7.
Find out the personality who won the Presidential election of 1969.
a) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
b) Morarji Desai
c) Nijalingappa
d) V.V. Giri
Answer:
V.V.Giri

Question 8.
Math the following: (4)

a. Bangladesh Ayoob Khan
b. Panchasheel Principles Mujeeb-ur-Rahman
c. Shimla agreement Zhou Enlai
d. Tashkent agreement Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

Answer:

a. Bangladesh Mujeeb-ur-Rahman
b. Panchasheel Principles Zhou N-Lai
c. Shimla agreement Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
d. Tashkent agreement Ayoob Khan

Question 9.
Which among the following is a militant organisation?
a) Narmada BachaoAndolan
b) Dalit Panthers
c) Bharatiya Kisan Union
d) Chipko Movement
Answer:
Dalit Panthers

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 10.
Which Prime Minister of India was assassinated as revenge to ‘operation blue star1?
a) Rajiv Gandhi
b) MorarjiDesai
c) Sanjay Gandhi
d) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

Question 11.
Identify the leader behind the formation of BSP.
a) Kanshi Ram
b) B.P. Mandal
c) KarpooriTakur
d) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar (1)
Answer:
Kanshi Ram

Question 12.
Name the founder of Bolshevik Comm unist Party. (1)
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 13.
Identify the place where the ‘Earth Summit’ was held in 1992.
a) Paris
b) Kyoto
c) Rio-de Janeiro
d) Montreal
Answer:
Rio-de-Janeiro

Questions from 14 to 23. f=ach carries 3 Scores. (10 × 3 = 30)

Question 14.
Identify the three considerations whch guided the government to the integration of princely states to Indian union.
Answer:
People of most of the princely states are wanted to become part of India.
Government is flexible to give autonomy.
Integration and consolidation of the boundaries of India are important.

Question 15.
Briefly explain the reasons for the Congress domi-nance in the early phase of Indian democracy.
Answer:
Congress had led independence struggle. That legacy helped congress in initial elections.
Congress was the only party which had strong organisational structure and network all over India.
Charismatic leadership of Nehru and others.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 16.
How the Congress dominant system in India is dif-ferent from the single party system in China and Cuba?
Answer:
In China, Cuba and in erstwhile Soviet Union, there was one party dominance as only one party was allowed to function in those countries. But in India things were different. We had multiparty democracy. But staying within the bounds of democracy, congress dominated in Indian politics. Many parties had contested the elections, but congress maintaining its dominance.

Question 17.
What are the major objectives of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

  1. Protect territorial integrity and sovereignty of the country.
  2. Promote rapid economic development.
  3. Opposition to Imperialism, Colonialism and Racism.
  4. Faith in UNO.
  5. Peaceful co-existence
  6. Non-Alignment
  7. Afro-Asian unity

Question 18.
Write a note on ‘Shah Commission’ report.
Answer:
J.C. Shah was a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. The Janata Government set up a commission under the Chairmanship of Shah to look into the charges made against the government during ther emergency period. The Shah Commission made detailed enquiries. The findings, observations and recommendations were approved by the Janata Govermjient. The report was presented both in Loksabha and the Rajyasabha.

Question 19.
Discuss the social and environmental issues addessed by Chipko Movement.
Answer:
Chipko Movement was started in 1973 in two or three villages of Uttarkhand. The forest department prevented the villagers from using the forest but gave permission to a sports company to cut down such trees for commercial purposes. This provoked the villagers, when the workers came to cut the trees, the villagers stood near the trees embracing them. This protest spread to many parts of Uttarkhand. As a result of this movement, government issued as order prohibiting the cutting down of trees in the Himalayan ranges for 15 years.

Question 20.
The Anti Arrack Movement was also a women movement. Why?
Answer:

  1. The anti-arrack movement was mainly a women movement started from Andra Pradesh.
  2. It was stood against domestic violence and the custom of dowry.
  3. It was stood against the sexual abuse at the workplace.
  4. The movement was stood against gender inequality.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 21.
Briefly explain India’s relations with Russia.
Answer:

  1. India and Russia believe in collective security and multi-polarworld.
  2. The two countries signed more than 80 bilateral Agreements.
  3. India stands to benefit from its relationship with Russia on issues like Kashmir, sharing information on international  terrorism.
  4. India is the second largest arms market for Russia.
  5. India has long economic, commercial, cultural relations with Russia.

Question 22.
Explain any three sources of new global security threats.
Answer:

  1. Global terrorism is one of the major threat in the new global security.
  2. Human Rights violations are yet another threat all over the world across boundaries.
  3. Global poverty and famines are threats for the security of mankind.
  4. Contagious diseases like AIDS, SARS, Covid etc. are new forms of threats against global security.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 23.
Explain the impacts of globalisation on culture.
Answer:
Globalization opens the way for the globalisation of cultures. It affects our home, food, dress and even thoughts! There is a fear that it would lead to a single world culture. There is the dominance of western culture through globalisation. The traditional cultures are in danger. But some people of the view that culture is not something that stands still. Every culture accepts things from other cultures.

Questions from 24 to 32. Each carries 4 scores. (9 × 4 = 36)

Question 24.
Explain the foramtion and failure of Janata government of 1977.
Answer:
The 1977 election was a referendum after the emergency. Even before the emergency, public opinion had turned against the Congress government. Emergency made the people turned against the party. The opposition parties joined together and became the Janata party. They rallied under the leadership of Jayprakash Narayan. Morarji Desai became the first non-congress Prime Minister in India. Later janatha experiment became a failure because of the internal conflicts and weak leadership.

Question 25.
Discuss the origin and activities of Dalit Panthers.
Answer:

  1. Dalit Panters was a movement started in 1970’s working for the welfare of Dalits.
  2. It was first started in Maharashtra.
  3. The activities of Dalit panthers were concentrated in areas where Dalits are subjected to discrimination and attacks.
  4. The agenda of the movement is making the society equitable where there is no caste discrimination.
  5. The movement fought against all kinds of caste distinctions, reservation for SC’s and ST’s and fight against the legal prohibition of untouchability.
  6. The movement split into various fragments and its strength was’lost.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 26.
Prepare a note on Narmada Bachao Andolan.
Answer:

  1. Narmada Bachao Andolan was a movement came as a result of Sardar Sarovar Project.
  2. Sardar Sarovar project is a large scale project built a number of big and small dams in the states like Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
  3. Narmada Bhachao Andolan was also a movement against large scale displacement of people because of the construction of huge dams.
  4. Tlie beginning of the movement was by demanding to rehabilitate those who would loss their homes.
  5. The argument also came up that the local communities should have power over the land water and forests.

Question 27.
Discuss any four lessons of national integration in India.
Answer:

  1. Regional demands are the part of the democratic process.
  2. In democracy, suppression is not the solution to solve problems.
  3. Respect in democratic deliberations and negotiations.
  4. If regional representation is not equal in economic development, it will lead to regional imbalances.

Question 28.
Explain Kashmir issue.
Answer:
When India got independence, Jammu-Kashmir was a princely state. Initially, the king Raja Hari Singh refused to join either India or Pakistan as he wanted to remain independent. In October 1947, Pakistan encouraged some tribal groups to capture Kashmir. Then the king sought assistance from India.

The king signed the “Instrument of Accession” and so the Indian army helped the Jammu-Kashmir king. There was also a condition that when things become normal there would be a referendum. India granted Jammu Kashmir autonomy.

Question 29.
Write a short note on Soviet System and its weaknesses.
Answer:
The union of Soviety Socialist Republics (USSR) came into being after the socialist revolution in Russia in 1917. The revolution was inspired by the ideals of socialism, as opposed to capitalism, and the need for an egalitarian society. The soviet system gave primacy to the state and the institution of the party. Abolished private property and design a society based on the principles of equality.

The Soviet system, became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. Lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech etc. are the problems of soviety system.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 30.
Write note on 9/11 attack and the global war on terror.
Answer:
On 11 September 2001, 19 terrorists hijacked 4 American planes and made them fly against some strategic buildings in  America. Two of the hit the twin-towers of the World Trade Centre. One crash landed in Pentagon, which is the headquarters of American defence.

The 4th plane had to land in field of Pennsylvania. 9/11 more than 3000 people were killed and it was considered as the first biggest attack American ever faced after its formation in 1776. After this America started its operation ‘Enduring freedom’. It is aimed against the terrorists like Al-Qaida and the Taliban of Afghanistan.

Question 31.
Discuss the capabilities of European Union to develop as an alternative centre of power.
Answer:

  1. After the disintegration of Soviet Unidn, European Union was formed through the Maastricht Treaty.
  2. It is considered an effort to unify the economic and political matters of Europe.
  3. European Union because the world’s largest economic system.
  4. The currency of EU, Euro is stronger tfian American dollar.
  5. France one of the founder member ot European union, is also a permanent member of UN Security Council.
  6. In military context, European union has the second largest in the world.
  7. EU has its own flag, anthem, founding date, common parliament and common VISA system.

Question 32.
Explain the role of 1971 war in the formation of Bangladesh.
Answer:
In 1970, Pakistan faced a lot of internal problems. During the first election in West Pakistan the party of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto got the majority. But in East. Pakistan, theAwami League led by Majibur Rahman got the majority. The East Pakistanians wanted to be free from West Pakistan. The rulers of West Pakistan were not willing to recognize the Awami League and its victory. 1971, the West Pakistani
army arrested Majibur Rahman and threatened the people of East Pakistan.

The people were wanted their own country called Bangladesh and India supported the demand of a new country. In 1971 Pakistan attacked Punjab, Rajastan, Jammu- Kashmir. With popular support, the Indian army surrounded Dhaka from three sides. Pakistan surrendered and it came to be the beginning of a new country. After the war, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Ali Bhutto signed the Shimla agreement on 3rd July 1972.

Questions from 33 to 40. Each carries 5 scores.

Question 33.
Explain the ideology and programmes of the Swatantra Party.
Answer:

  1. Swathantra party was formed in August 1959.
  2. C.Rajagopalachari, K.M.Munshi, Meenu Massani were its prominent leaders.
  3. Swathantra party opposed centralised planning, state intervention, public sector, etc.
  4. They stood for individual freedom and privatisation.
  5. They were against the policy of non-alignment and progressive tax regime.
  6. Most of the ideologies of Swathantra party are in favour of capitalist system and they wanted to make India a capitalist  country.

Question 34.
Discuss India’s Nuclear policy.
Answer:

  1. India’s nuclear programme was initiated uner the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha.
  2. India conducted nuclear explotions in 1974 and 1988.
  3. But India is against testing of atomic weapons for war like purposes. India stands for complete disarmament within the framework of United Nations:
  4. India refuses to sign, NPT, because it is discriminatory.
  5. India sood for no first use.
  6. Stands for non-discriminatory nuclear disarmament.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 35.
Critically analyse the consequences of National emergency of 1975.
Answer:
Because of internal problems, emergy was declared and the people were in trouble. According to the constitution, during the emergency, the central government has special powers.

  1. Protests and agitations by government employees were banned.
  2. Opposition leaders were arrested.
  3. Media were strictly controlled and suspended freedom of press.
  4. Fundamental Rights were suspended.
  5. Massive use of preventive dentention.
  6. Public agitations were disallowed.

Question 36.
Briefly explain how Punjab crisis was resolved. nJ6raii36n]’ i;U(ra“mo
Answer:

  1. Punjab was came into existence in 1966 on linguistic basis.
  2. Akali dal propogated an idea called Punjab’s Suba and later Punjab was divided into Punjab and Haryana.
  3. In 1970, a group of Akalis demanded political autonomy.
  4. 1973, in Anandapur, they passed a resolution, supporting the idea of a seperate Sikh nation for Sikh community.
  5. They started agitation for an independent Khalistan, which led to Blue Star operation and the assassination of Indira Gandhi.
  6. After the 1984 general election, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister. He started talks with the Akali Dal leaders.
  7. In 1985, he signed an accord with the Akali leader Harchand Singh Longowal. This is known as the Punjab Accordx or Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord. This helped to bring normalcy in Punjab.

Question 37.
Describe various issues related to regional aspirations in North-East region.
Answer:
The North-Eastern states have some geographical peculiarities. It was a region that was not closely linked to the rest of the country. Its development was neglected to an extent and the problem was made complex by the emigrants that came from other places. The major problems of the north-eastern states are:
1. Demand for Autonomy:
At the time of independence, except Manipur and Tripura, the entire North Eastern region was just one state. After independence, the non- Assamese felt that Assamese culture and language was imposed to them. Therefore they demanded political self rule. After long agitations, Meghalaya and Mizoram were formed. The tribal people of the region, the Bodos, Karbis and Dimasas demanded their own states.

2. Secessionist Movement:
India faced demands for secession from two North-Eastern states – Mizoram and Nagaland. Mizo leader Lai Denga and Mizo National Front started an armed struggle for their demand. After an accord with Rajiv Gandhi, Mizoram became a state with some special rights. Lai Denga became the first Chief Minister of Mizoram.

The case of Nagaland was very similar to that ofMizoram. Under the leadership of AngamiZafu Phizo, the Nagas started an agitation for seperate statehood and later made an accord with government. Thus Nagaland became an independent state, but still the issues of Nagas are unresolved.

3. Movement Against outsiders:
There was another problem in the North-Eastern region which faced migration of people from other places. There was rivalry between local people and the emigrants. In Assam the moves against outsiders were very strong.

Question 38.
Explain the Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer:
Most North-Western countries became capitalist, anti-communist nations. A big power like America could not easily tolerate a neighbouring country becoming a close ally of communist Russia. As Cuba got fianancial and diplomatic support from Russia, it became a strong country, although it was small in size. In 1962, the Russian leader, Khrushchev wanted to deploy missiles and other armaments in Cuba. Most of the American cities then would come under threat from Russia. America send troops to Cuba. This was known as Cuban missile crisis,. America wanted to get the Cuban President killed with the help of the CIA. wanted to stop the growth of communism in its neighbourhood.

Question 39.
Briefly explain ‘Shock therapy1 in the post communist regimes and its consequences.
Answer:

  1. The failure of the Soviet Union made many of its constituent countries abandon communism and follow democratic ways. Russia, Asian countries, East European countries were attracted towards organisations like World Bank and IMF.
  2. The main purpose was to make communist countries follow the capitalist model.
  3. Co-operative farming will give way to private farming.
  4. Foreign Investment, open market system, and currency exchange would be possible.
  5. Private capital and market based economic system emerged.

Results

  1. Many big industries under government control collapsed.
  2. The Russian currency Rouble was devalued.
  3. Because of inflation people lost the value of their savings.
  4. GDP was diminished.
  5. The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  6. As subsidies were withdrawn, many people experienced poverty.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 40.
Write arguments for and against India’s demand for permanent membership in UN Security Council.
Answer:
The demand of India to be a permanent member of the Security Council is quite a logical and legitimate one. India fulfils all the criteria to be a permanent rriember. It demands permanent membership on the following grounds.
a) It has the world’s second largest population.
b) It is the largest democracy in the world.
c) India has participated in the UN activities in its beginning.
d) It has long relations with the UN peace keeping force.
e) India gives regularly to the UN budget.

Arguments against
a) There are many other countries in the world are equally eligible like India in the permanent membership.
b) There is no representation from Africa and South America in the permanent membership of UN.

Questions from 41 to 44. Each carries 8 scores. (4 x 8 = 32)

Question 41.
Explain the process and consequences of the partition of India.
Answer:
The division of India was carried out on the basis of the Two-Nation Theory put forward by the Muslim League. According to that theory, in India there were two nations – the Hindus and Muslims. Therefore, the Muslim League demanded a seperate nation, Pakistan for the Muslims. There were four major issues in the process of the partition of India.

1. First of all in British India, there was not a single area which had only Muslims.There were two areas in which the majority was Muslims, one in the west and the other other in the East. Therefore Pakistan was formed consisting of two areas – West Pakistan and East Pakistan. Between them there were large areas of Indian territory.

2. Secondly, not all areas with majority Muslim of population wanted to become part of Pakistan, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, who was the leader of the North Western Province, had objected to the Two-Nation Theory. But ignoring his objection, the north west province was included in Pakistan.

3. Third problem was that British India’s Pubjab and Bengal were areas with Muslim majority. But in these provinces there were very many non- muslims.

4. The fourth issue regarding partition was the minorities lived in the both sides of the boundary of two countries. When the division was decided upon, there was large scale violence against the minorities in both the countries.

Conseouences
1. The division of British India in 1947 into India and Pakistan was a very tragic incident in history. In the border areas many people in both sides were killed because of their religion and caste.

2. The cities like Lahore, Amritsar, Calcutta became religious areas. Muslims avoided going to areas
of Hindus and Sikhs. Similarly Hindus and Sikhs did not want to go near the Muslim areas.

3. People migrated from one place to other, but during the journey many were attacked and killed, women were brutally raped. In homes, women were killed by their own relatives in the name of honour.

5. Not only the land, but even movable properties like tables and chairs were divided. The government and railway workers were divided. The writers were described it as ‘division of hearts’.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 42.
Explain the various reasons for the declaration of National emergency of 1975.
Conflict with judiciary : Allahabad High Court Verdict : Protest from opposition
Answer:
42. On June 25 1975, the President, on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi declared Emergency.  The main reasons  ehind the declaration of emergency are following.
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat and Bihar Movements
c) Dispute with the Judiciary
d) Allahabad HC Verdict’and popular movements
e) Protest from opposition

a) Economic Reasons:
The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘Garibi Hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was a refugee problem. Secondly, after the war, America stopped its aid to India. Thirdly there was a sharp increase in oil prices. The fourth reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The fifth problem was negative growth in industrial output. Sixthly the salaries of government employees had to be reduced or even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff. All the above things created an economic crisis in the country.

b) Gujarat and Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were congress led states. The main reason was the increase in the unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these states the opposition parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted and congress lost in the election.

In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. In the meantime the railway workers also went on a strike. In 1975 Jay Prakash Narayan orgnaised a march to the parliament. The opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi.

c) Dispute with the Judiciary:
Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhi’s dispute with the judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the constitution. The dispute was mainly in three things. Firstly, can the Parliament change the fundamental rights? Secondly can the Parliament change ownership of land. Thirdly the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. Parliament amended the constitution, but Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and Judiciary.

d) Allahabad High Court Verdict : On 12 June Justice J.L.Sinha of the Allahabad High Court passed a judgement declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid. This order came on an election petition filed by Raj Narain, a socialist leader and a candidate who had contested against her in 1971. The petition challenged the election of Indira Gandhi on the ground that she had used the services of government servants in her election campaign. But later Supreme Court granted her a partial stay on the High Court order, that she could remain as MP but could not take part in the proceedings of Lok Sabha.

e) Protest from opposition: The opposition parties started widespread protest under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira Gandhi’s resignation. They announced nation wide Satyagraha and asked the army, police and government employees not to obey imiporal orders. The political mood of the country had turned against the congress.

Question 43.
India after 1989 witnessed five developments which has long,lasting impact on our politics. Briefly explain them.
Answer:
There are many unexpected and unforeseen developments happened in the contemporary politics of India. They were
a) Failure of Congress
b) Mandal issues
c) Changes in Economic policy
d) Demolition of Babp Masjid
e) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi

a) Failure of Congress
First and foremost development of this period was the defeat of congress in the election held in 1989.
This was the end of the congress system.

b) Mandal Issues
Second development was the rise of the ‘Mandal issue’in national politics. In 1990’s the Central Government decided to implement job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations also made for other Backward classes. This resulted a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) Changes in Economic Policy
The economic policy also changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of structural adjustment or the new economic reforms.

d) Demolition of Babri Masjid
A number of events culminated in the demolition of Babri Masjid in December 1992. This event symbolized and triggered various changes in the politics of the country and intensified debates about the nature of Indian Nationalism and Secularism.

e) Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi
Finally, the assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991, led to a change in the leadership of Congress party. After his murder, in the elections of 1991, Congress emerged as the single largest party.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2021 with Answers

Question 44.
Trace the causes and consequences of the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Answer:
There are many reasons for the disintegration of USSR. They are:-
a) Political reasons
b) Economic Reasons
c) Advent of Nationalism
d) The Reforms of Gorbachev

a) Political Reasons

  1. In Soviet system there was bureaucratic misrule and misuse of authority.
  2. The control exercised by the Soviet government on its citizens made their life difficult.
  3. There was no freedom of expression or democracy. The party refused to give people their rights.
  4. Communist party strictly controlled them and reforms were not possible.
  5. Soviet Union was a confederation of 15 Republics. Russia dominated the other Republics and the people of the other Republics were either ignored or suppressed.

b) Economic Reasons
Although the Soviet Union was able to maintain its equality with the US in arms race. It was very costly for them. Western technology was better than Russian Technology. The political and taken care of the Soviet government. Soviet union used most of its resources to develop atomic weapons.

The Reforms of Gorbachev
Th reforms of the Gorbacheve like Glasnost and perestroika were the sudden reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union. Glasnost means openness and Perestroika means re-structuring. These reforms did not bring the expected results. They brought more troubles to the country leading to its disintegration.

Consequences
End of cold war
Disintegration of Soviet Union was the end of cold war and bi-polar polity. It was also the end of power- block rivalry and arms race. The world became unipolar in nature nad the hegemony of US became a reality.

Change in power relations
After the second world war, there were two power blocks competing each other. They are the capitalist block led by USA and the socialist blocks led by USSR. But the disintegration resulted a change in the existing power system.

Emergence of new countries
As a result of the disintegration, there were many new countries emerged and others disappeared. The mighty confederation USSR became fragmented into 15 independent Republics. Like some of the satellite countries of USSR in the eastern European region’ were divided and that resulted in the formation of new countries.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2022

A. Answer any questions from 1 to 6. Each carries 1 Score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan is also known as
a) Bengal Gandhi
b) Kerala Gandhi
c) Frontier Gandhi
Answer:
c) Frontier Gandhi

Question 2.
Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a) T.N.Seshan
b) SukumarSen
c) A. Sam path
Answer:
b) SukumarSen

Question 3.
rom which country we adopted the concept of Five Year Plan?
a) Canada
b) USSR
c) USA
Answer:
b) USSR

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
Find out the person who called for Total Revolution.
a) Morarji Desai
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer:
c) Jayaprakash Narayan

Question 5.
Which of the following country adopted an open door policy?
a) China
b) South Korea
c) Japan
Answer:
a) China

Question 6.
Identify the leader Mizo National Front (MNF).
a) Lai Denga
b) Sheikh Abdullah
c) Agami Zappu Phizo
Answer:
a) Lai Denga

B. Answer all questions from 7 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 7.
During cold war superpowers formed a number of alliances. Find out the US led military alliance from the list given below.
a) Warsaw Pact
b) NATO
c) SEATO
Answer:
b) NATO
c) SEATO

Question 8.
The first Gulf war of 1990 is also known as
a) Operation Iraqi Freedom
b) Operation desert storm
c) Operation blue star
Answer:
b) Operation desert storm

Question 9.
Tamil Eelam is associated with which organisation?
a) NATO
b) LTTE
c) Maoist Group
Answer:
b) LTTE

Question 10.
In 1992 the first earth summit was held under the leadership of UNO. The summit was held at
a) France
b) Rio de-Janeiro
c) New York
Answer:
b) Rio de-Janeiro

Part – II

A. Answer any 3 questions from 11 to 15. Each . carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 11.
Congress Party get dominance in the first three general elections, ist out any two reasons for the dominance.
Answer:

  1. Inherited the legacy of the National Movement
  2. Strong organisational structure all over India.
  3. Charismatic leaders like Nehru, Azad etc.

Question 12.
Find out any two major objectives of Nehru’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

  1. Preserve hard earned sovereignty
  2. Protect territorial integrity
  3. Promote rapid economic development

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 13.
Write a short note on Chipko Movement.
Answer:
Chipko movement was started in 1923 in two or three villages of Uttarkand. The forest department prevented the villagers from cutting down a certain kind of trees Maximum PuSCisders with which they made their working implements but gave permission to a sports manufacturing company to cut down trees for commercial purposes. When the workers came to cut the trees, the villagers stood near the trees embracing them. As a result of the movement, the government issued an order to prohibiting the cutting down of trees in the Himalayan region.

Question 14.
Match the following:

(i) India (a) Gamal Abdul Nazar
(ii) Egypt (b) Nehru
(iii) Indonesia (c) Josip Broz Tito
(iv) Yugoslavia (d) Sukarno

Answer:

(i) India (a) Nehru
(ii) Egypt (b) Gamal Abdul Nazar
(iii) Indonesia (c) Sukarno
(iv) Yugoslavia (d) Josip Broz Tito

Question 15.
Soviet System has certain unique features. Identify any two features of Soviet System.
Answer:

  1. Egalitarian society
  2. Abortion of private property

B. Answer any 2 questions from 16 to 18. Each caries 2 scores. (2 × 2 = 4)

Question 16.
Fill in the blanks.
ASEAN Community comprising three pillars. Namely ASEAN Security Community, ASEAN _____ Community, ASEAN ______ Community.
Answer:
Economic, Socio – cultural

Question 17.
From the list given below identify two permanent members of UN Security Council.
Answer:
USA, India, Brazil, China

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 18.
India’s stand on environmental issue is always posi-tive. Identify two programmes adopted by India for environmental protection.
Answer:

  1. National Auto-full policy
  2. Energy conservation Act-2001
  3. National Mission on Bio-diesel
  4. Electricity Act of 2003
  5. Adoption of clean coal technologies (any two points)

Part – III

A. Answer any 3 questions from 19 to 23. Each caries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 19.
Briefly explain the differences between first and second five year plan.
Answer:

  • First five year plan
    1. A renowned economist Dr. K.N. Raj prepared the draft plan of first five year plan.
    2. Priority to agriculture
    3. Poverty eradication
    4. Hasten slowly.
  • Second five year plan
    1. P.C. Mahalanobis prepared the draft proposal of . the second five year plan
    2. Rapid industrialisation
    3. Priority to heavy industries
    4. Tariff on imported goods

Question 20.
Write a short note on Anti-Arrack movement. jaiaosccDailosrau
Answer:
In the 1990’s a large section of women in Nellur district of Andra Pradesh started an agitation against the drinking habit of their rhen-folk. Drinking alcohol causes both physical and mental harm. It also adversely affect the economic condition of the family. The women in Nellur protested against alcoholism and forced wine shops to close down.

They held : meetings and passed resolutions and sent them to the authorities. The protest in Nellur spread to the rest of the state.

Question 21.
Explain any two security threats faced by the con-temporary world.
Answer:
Terrorism:
Terrorist attacks make the life of ordinary citizens difficult. The try to bring about changes by threats or armed attacks. Their activities include hijacking planes and bombing towns and markets and other places where people assemble. The World Trade Centre attack of New York on 11 September 2001 was an example of extreme terrorism.

Human Rights violations:
We see that throughout the world there are human right violations wars, invasions, subjugations etc. are resulted in human rights issues.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 22.
Explain the consequences of shock therapy.
Answer:

  1. Many large scale industries under government control were closed.
  2. Rouble, the Russian currency, lost its value.
  3. Many big industries under government control collapsed.
  4. Because of inflation people lost the vaiue of their savings.
  5. The social welfare schemes were abandoned.
  6. Privatization made economic inequality among people.

Question 23.
Explain the political and economical consequences of Globalization.’
Answer:

  • Political consequences
    1. Erosion of state capacity
    2. Welfare state giving way to minimalist state
    3. The market determines economic and social priorities
    4. Entry of multi-national companies
    5. Use of technology boost state capacity.
  • Economic policies
    1. Economic ruls of weaker states
    2. Greater economic flows among different countries
    3. Economic rain of weaker states
    4. Promote interdependence and integration.

B. Answer any 1 Question from 24 to 25. Carries 4 scores. (1 × 4 = 4)

Question 24.
Explain Indians relations with Bangladesh.
Answer:

  1. Sharing of Ganga and Brahmaputhra river water..
  2. Issue of Illegal migration
  3. Refusal to allow Indian troops to move through its territory
  4. Extract natural gas.
  5. Coorperation on disaster management and environmental issues.

Question 25.
What are the main provisions of Punjab accord?
Answer:
Punjab Accord was an agreement signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Harchand Longowal in 1985. This was also known as Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord. The main conditions are
a) Handover Chandigarh to Punjab
b) Appoint a new commission to solve border disputes
c) Establish a tribunal to solve water disputes.
d) Compensation and better treatment
e) Withdrawal dfAFSPA.

Part – IV

A. Answer any 3 questions from 26 to 29. Each caries 6 scores. (3 x× 6 = 18)

Question 26.
Indian General election of 1952 became a landmark in the history of democracy all over the world. Explain the challenges faced to conduct the first general election.
Answer:
The first election also was expected in 1950. In a country like India a free and fair election was not easy to conduct. We had 3 major challenges the formation of electoral constituencies, the making of the voters’ list, and participation of the people. For all this, a lot of time was required. The first voting was a really big event.

Such a huge event had never taken place anywhere in the world before. The people with voting rights were nearly 17 crores, but only 15% of them were literate. There fore the Commission had to think about the system of voting. The Election Commission trained nearly 300,000 officials and polling officers.

The election of this country with such a huge amount of illiterate people was very unusual. It was a really big experiment. Until then only developed nations had democratic governments, notably North America and Europe. In Europe, women had no voting rights. In such circumstances, Universal Adult Franchise in India was really a great adventure. Many criticized it.

The first election in India took place between October 1951 and February 1952. Election propaganda, voting, and counting the votes took more than 6 months. There was tough competition. For each seat, an average of 4 candidates competed. More than 50% of the people voted. When the results were declared the winners and losers accepted the verdict. Thus the Indian experiment was a success and India was able to contain the evil tongues that pre¬dicted disaster.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 27.
The process of partition was not an easy process. Explain the causes and process of partition.
Answer:
Causes of partition
a) Two Nation theory part forward by Muslim League
b) Political competition between Indian National congress and Muslim League.
c) The British policy of divide and rule

Process

  1. There was no single belt of muslim majority areas in British India
  2. Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to be in Pakistan.
  3. The Muslim majority areas like Punjab and Bengal had large number of others communities.
  4. Unsolved problem of minorities on the both sides of the borders.

Question 28.
Explain the circumstances that led the split of Congress in 1969.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru had great influence in the party because of his dynamic personality. His death created a vacuum in the party. Gradually the central group known as the Syndicate established itself in the Congress.
In 1969 there arose a difference between Indira Gandhi and the Syndicate. When Dr. Zakir Hussain died, the Presidential post was vacant.

The Syndicate nominated Indira Gandhi’s long time rival and the then speaker Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi preferred the then Vice President VV. Girl to be the next President. V.V. Girl long time rival and the then speaker Sanjiva Reddy to the post. But Indira Gandhi preferred the then VicePresident V.V. Giri to be the next President. V.V. Giri was elected.

The failure of the official candidate of the Syndicate caused the formal division of the Congress. The Congress President suspended Indira Gandhi from the Party. Indira claimed that her group was the real Congress. In 1969, the Congress led by the Syndicate was known as Congress (O) and the one led by Indira Gandhi was called Congress (R).

Question 29.
Explain the internal and external dimensions of Kashmir issue.
Answer:
When India got independence, Jammu-Kashmir was a Princely State. Initially, the King Raja Hari Singh refused to join either India or Pakistan as he wanted to remain independent. The Pakistani leaders believed that since Jammu-Kashmir had a lot of Muslims, it would join Pakistan. The people there were known as Kashmiris. Under the leadership of Sheikh Abdulla there was an agitation to remove the King from power. But he also did not want to join Pakistan. National Conference was a secular organization. It was also pro-Congress. In October 1947 Pakistan encouraged some tribal groups to capture Pakistan. Then the King sought assistance from India.

The King signed the “Instrument of Accession” and so the Indian army helped the Jammu-Kashmir King. There was also a condition that when things become normal there would be a referendum. For the welfare of the people Sheikh Abdulla became the Prime Minister. India granted J&K autonomy.

External and Internal Squabbles:
Because of external and internal problems, J&K is always in the midst of crimes. On one side there is Pakistan claiming the Kashmir Valley. After the 1947 War, a part of Kashmir came under Pakistani control. India calls it illegal occupation. Pakistan calls this area Azad Kashmir. Internally also the Kashmir problems is a headache for the Centre.

According to Article 370, Kashmir is given greater autonomy than other States. This Article is applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir. The special concession causes problems. Many believe that this autonomy given to Kashmir will adversely affect the unity and indivisibility of the country. They feel that Article 970 should be removed. But the Kashmiris feel that the autonomy they got by Article 370 is not enough. Some Kashmiris put forward 3 complaints.

  1. No referendum has taken place so far.
  2. The status promised by Article 370 is only on paper, not in practice. They need more autonomy.
  3. They also say that the kind of democracy implemented in other States of India is not found in J&K.

B. Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 6 scores. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 30.
After 1980’s India witnessed five major developments that brought a long lasting impact in our politics. Explain any three developments.
Answer:
a) In 1989, Congress fost the election. With that election the ’Congress System’ ended.

b) Mandal issue in national politics: In the 1990s,the government decided to implement the job reservations recommended by the Mandal Commission. Reservations were also made for Other Backward Classes. This resulted in a move against the Mandal Commission throughout the country.

c) The economic policy changed according to the change in the government. A new economic policy was implemented in the name of Structural Adjustment.

d) In 1992, the Babri Masjid was demolished as a result of many things. It was an incident that threatened the unity and integration of the country. It happened because of the coming of BJP with its Hindutva agenda.

e) The Murder of Rajiv Gandhi (1991): This brought changes in the leadership of Congress. In the next election, Congress won the maximum seats.

Question 31.
Explain the political, economic and military influ-ences of European Union.
Answer:
After the WW II, many European countries faced serious financial crises. European leaders met together to find out ways of coming out of this problem. At this tim£ the Cold War between the US and USSR had started. America gave a lot of financial help to Europe. It is known as the Marshall Plan. Under NATO, America also signed a security treaty.

In 1948, under the Marshall Plan, “European Economic Cooperation” was founded. Its aim was to help West European countries. It became a fellowship and the member countries decided to cooperate in trade and other economic problems. For political cooperation, in 1949, “Council of Europe” was established. The unity among members finally led to the formation of European Economic Community in 1957. The coming of the European Parliament made the prganization very strong.

The disintegration of the USSR quickened the pace of . the growth of the European Union which was established in 1992. It helped in having a common foreign policy, law and justice and internal affairs. It also brought out a common currency the “Euro”. European Union became the world largest economic system. According to the statistics of 2005, their GDP was 12 trillion dollars.

This is more than the economy of America. Euro is stronger than American dollar. EU has become an important part of the WTO. European Union has great political and diplomatic importance. Britain and France which are its members have permanent membership in the UN Security Council. Therefore the EU can influence in the formation of important policies. For example, the nuclear programme of Iran. Militarily EU has the second.position in the world. Britain and France are also nuclear powers. In space research and communication, the EU occupies the second place.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 32.
Explain the principal organs of U.N.O.
Answer:
It was the realization that war would bring only ruin to mankind that prompted strong nations to think about peace. They realized that a 3rd world war would destroy humankind itself and they so they wanted lasting peace. In San Francisco in California, representatives from 50 countries met from 25 April to 26 June 1945 and formed the UN Charter. On October 24 1945, the UN formally came into existence.

The headquarters of the UN is situated in a 15-acre area in the Manhattan Island. This space was donated by John D. Rockefeller. The first meeting of the UN took place in London in 1946.

Veto Power : Security Council has 5 permanent members. If any of these votes against a resolution, it would be cancelled. This special power given to the permanent members is called veto power.

Secretariat : This carries out the day-today activities of the UN. Its head is the Secretary General, who will be in power for 5 years. He should be a person who does not have any Special loyalty to, or interest in, any particular country. There are Under Secretary- Generals and Asstt. Secretary Generals and Deputy Secretary General.

General Assembly:
When all the members of the UN meet together it is called the World Parliament. Its first meeting was in London in 1964. At present the UN has 193 member countries. In 2002, Montenegro joined the UN as its the 192nd member and later South Sudan joined as the 193rd member. Each country can send 5 representatives to the General Assembly. But each country has only one vote. Once every year the General Assembly will meet. Security Council: Security Council decides on the administrative policies of the UN. Its main concerns are International peace and security. It is the Security Council that decides about the membership of any country. It has 15 members. America, China, Britain, Frances and Russia are the permanent memb’ers. India, Brazil, South Africa, Japan and Germany are countries that are trying to get permanent membership.

Security Council has 5 permanent members and 10 members who are chosen for a period of 2 years. The Chairmanship of the Council will be on a rotating basis each month. Its responsibilities are settling disputes between nations, plan arms control activities, resist attacks and take military action against the attacker, recommend the appointment of the Secretary General, recommend the inclusion of new members in the UN, etc. To take decisions ‘ on any matter there should be at 9 votes in favour including the 5 votes of the permanent members. Economic and Cultural Council: This has 54 members. It channelizes the working of the main agencies of the UN.

International Court of Justice:
This solves the disputes between member nations. Its headquarters is Hague in Netherlands. It consists of 15 judges, who are appointed for a period of nine years. The first Indian to be appointed as ajudge here is Justice Narenda Singh. BN Rao and RS Pathak also served as judges later.

Part – V

Answer any 2 questions from 33 to 35. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 33.
Explain the causes of India – China war of 1962 and its consequences.
Answer:
In the beginning India and China had cordial relations. Our relations have a historical and cultural background. Nehru played a crucial role in making the relations better. India was the first country to recognize China after the Revolution. Nehru tried to help China in international matters. Because of these good relations, on the India-China border there were only paramilitary forces and not regular armymen.

The Panchsheel Agreement was a big landmark out India China relations. It was signed on April 29 by the PMs of both countries, Nehru of India and Chou- en-Lai of China. Nehru visited China and Chou-en- Lai visited India getting the love and respect of people. Nehru had an open-hearted approach to China. But people like Patel thought China was not a country to be believed. Nehru never expected any attack from China. But in 1962, China did attack India.

Two things spoiled the relations between India and China. One was the Tibetan Issue and the other was border disputes. Even in the 1950s when they were friends, India and China had border disputes. China was not ready to accept our suggestions regarding the border. China claimed Ladakh in Kashmir and some areas of Arunachal Pradesh to be theirs. During the period of 1957-59, they also took Aksai Chin sector and built the Karakoram Highway. The second issue was Tibet. In 1950, China annexed Tibet. It was a breach of faith.

In the beginning India kept quiet. But the Chinese started imposing their culture on the Tibetans. In 1959, the Tibetan Spiritual leader, Dalai Lama, sought refuge in India. China then accused India saying that India was acting against the interest of China. In October 1962 China infiltrated into Indian territories which she claimed to be hers. The first attack lasted a week. Chinese army occupied some places in Arunachal Pradesh. The next attack came a month later. But the Indian army stopped the Chinese in the western part of Ladakh. China declared a unilateral ceasefire and retreated from the places it had taken.

Results of the India-China War:
During the war, Russia kept her neutrality. India had to seek support from America and Britain. The war was shameful to the country. But it strengthened national feeling. Nehru’s close friend and the then defence minister V.K. Krishna Menon had to resign. Nehru was criticised for blindly believing China and for his lack of military preparation to prevent the attack. A no confidence motion was brought against his government. In Lok Sabha there were a lot of discussions. In many bye-elections Congress lost.

The Opposition was also affected by the war. In 1964 Communist Party split into two – Pro-Chinese and Pro-Russia. One was CPI (M) and the other was CPI. The War awakened the nation. The North Eastern region was backward. The Chinese war prompted the nation to keep its unity and to embark upon developmental projects.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 34.
Explain the causes of national emergency declared in India On 1975.
• Economic Context
• Gujarat and Bihar movements
• Conflict with Judiciary
• Allahabad High Court Verdict
Answer:
After the 1971 election, Indira became a popular leader with a lot of support from the people. This time there were serious problems in the Party. There were three main reasons:
a) Economic Reasons
b) Gujarat & Bihar Movement
c) Dispute with the Judiciary

Economic Reasons:
The main slogan in the 1971 election was ‘garibi hatao’. But when the government came to power it could not improve the economic condition of the country. There were a number of reasons for that. First of all there was the refuge problem. Then there was the Bangladesh Crisis, followed by the Indo- Pakistan War. All these things created financial problems. Secondly, after the War, America stopped its aids to India. Thirdly, there was a sharp increase in oil prices.

The 4th reason was inflation which made the life of ordinary people very difficult. The 5th problem was negative growth in industrial output. Unemployment increased, especially in the rural sector. Sixthly, the salaries of government employees had to be reduced and even stopped. Seventhly, lack of rain caused serious shortfall in foodstuff.

All the above things created an economic crisis in the country. There was general discontentment in the country. This gave the Opposition Parties an opportunity to organise protests.

Guiarat and Bihar Movement:
The second biggest problem was the students’ protest in Gujarat and Bihar which were Congress- ruled States. The main reason was the increase in the prices of essential commodities. Shortage of food, unemployment and corruption made the students angry. In both these States the Opposition Parties supported the students. In Gujarat, Presidential Rule was imposed. At this time the main opponent of Indira Gandhi and the leader of Congress (O), Moraiji Desai, decided to go on an indefinite hunger strike.

He did that for demanding elections in Gujarat. In June 1975, because of heavy pressure from various sources, election was conducted. Congress lost the election. In Bihar the students invited Jay Prakash Narayan to lead their protest. He accepted the invitation insisting that the protest must be non-violent. He asked for the dismissal of the Bihar government. He argued that there was a need for a revolution in social, economic and political spheres. But the Bihar government refused to resign. The entire country discussed the issue.

Jay Prakash Narayan wanted to spread the protest to all parts of the country. In the meantime the railway workers went on a strike. It would make the entire country come to a stand-still. In 1975, Jay Prakash Narayan organized a march to the Parliament. It was the biggest rally the capital had ever seen. The Opposition saw in him an alternative to Indira Gandhi. Both the protests were anti-Congress. Voices also rose against the leadership of Mrs. Gandhi. She believed that all this was done to take revenge on her.

Dispute with the Judiciary:
Another reason for the declaration of Emergency was Indira Gandhis dispute with the Judiciary. The Supreme Court said that some of the things the government did were against the Constitution. Congress argued that the Supreme Court judgement was against democracy and the authority of the Parliament. The Party said that the Court was standing against some welfare measures taken to help the poor people. The dispute was mainly in three things.

Firstly, Can the Parliament change the Fundamental Rights? The Court said no. Secondly, Can the Parliament change ownership of land? Again the Court said no. Thirdly, the Parliament said that it had the right to reduce fundamental rights. It amended the Constitution. But the Supreme Court objected. All these were the reasons for the dispute between the Government and the Supreme Court.

There were two more reasons. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court judged that the Parliament can’t change the basic structure of the Constitution. Soon the post of the Chief Justice became vacant. Normally the senior most judge is appointed as the Chief Justice. But keeping aside 3 eligible-judges, the government appointed A.N. Roy as the Chief Justice. This appointment became controversial. Besides, the Uttar Pradesh High Court declared the election of Indira (Sandhi as null and void. All these were the reasons for Mrs Gandhi to declare Emergency in June 1975.

Kerala Plus Two Political Science Question Paper March 2022 with Answers

Question 35.
After the cold war USA dominates all spheres of international politics. Discuss the hegemonic power and explain three areas of hegemony.
Answer:
World nations try to gain and maintain dominance over others by using military, economic and cultural power. During the Cold War the fight was between the Soviet Union and America. With the disintegration of the Soviet, Union America remains the only Superpower. Dominance or hegemony is attained through three things:
a) Hard Power
b) Structural Power
c) Soft Power

Hard Power:
This includes military power and the relations between nations. Today America is in the forefront of military power. There is nobody to challenge its military might. It has the capacity to reach any corner of the world any moment. They, spend a major part of their budget to maintain this position. They spend huge sums “of money for research and technological developments. It is technology that keeps America in the forefront. With their military might they are even ready to police the world,.and punish the culprits.

Structural Power :
This dominance is. based on the economic structure. The global economic system relies on America. If America helps the global economic system, it is mainly for their benefits and profits. But America does a lot of good things for the world. For example, communication channels through the oceans. Merchant ships travel through sea routes and America has much authority on the water transport system. It is the American navy that keeps the sea-routes safe for ships.

The next is the Internet. In fact it was an American military project. It was started in 1950. Today the global network functions using satellites. Most of them belong to America. 28% of the world economy is controlled by America. 15% of the international trade is also done by them. In any economic sector, at least one of out of three biggest companies will be American. The world economic structure follows the Breton Woods style of America. The World Bank, I.M.F. and World Trade Organization etc. are examples of American supremacy in world business and finance.

Now comes another example – the MBA degree. It was America that made this course and the degree so popular. It was Americans who discovered that business is a profession that could be taught. The first Business School was established in Pennsylvania in 1881. Its name was Wharton School. Today in all countries MBA has become a prestigious degree.

Soft Power:
This is the ideological and cultural dominance. America has become the model for all other nations and they try to copy America. In weak countries, America is able to make the people like its culture. We all speak highly of the American life style and personal success. America is number one in the world. By using,‘soft power, and not force, America is able to achieve this dominance over the world.