Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

Answer any 8 questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
Commerce includes trade and ……
(a) Industry
(b) Auxiliaries to trade
(c) Business
(d) Outsourcing
Answer:
(b) Auxiliaries to trade

Question 2.
A ……. partner is one who allows the use of his/ her name by a firm, but does not contribute to its capital.
(a) Active
(b) Sleeping
(c) Nominal
(d) Secret
Answer:
(c) Nominal

Question 3.
Find the odd one out.
(a) FCI
(b) RBI
(c) Indian Railway
(d) ONGC
Answer:
(c) Indian Railway

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
The warehouses which are licensed by the government to accept imported goods before the payment of tax and customs duty are called
(a) Bonded warehouses
(b) Private warehouses
(c) Government warehouses
(d) Public warehouses
Answer:
(a) Bonded warehouses

Question 5.
Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles causes pollution.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Noise
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 6.
Name any two documents to be submitted before Registrar of Companies for getting a company registered.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association, Articles of Association

Question 7.
_____ is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period varying from 90 days to 364 days.
(a) Equity share
(b) Trade credit
(c) Debentures
(d) Commercial paper
Answer:
Commercial Paper

Question 8.
Expand NABARD.
Answer:
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 9.
This type of retail shop operates on the principle of ‘ self service. Identify the type of retail shop referred here.
Answer:
Supermarket/Super Bazar

Question 10.
Name the document which serves as an evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to designated destination.
Answer:
Bill of Lading

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 12. Each carries 2 scores. (4 × 2 = 8)

Question 11.
List out any four multiple objectives of business.
Answer:
(a) Market standing
(b) Innovation
(c) Productivity
(d) Earning Profit

Question 12.
What is joint venture?
Answer:
When two business organisations join hands for mutual benefit by pooling their resources and expertise, it is a joint venture.

Question 13.
List out any four basic features of Business service.
Answer:
(a) Intangibility
(b) Inconsistency
(c) Inseparability
(d) Involvement
(e) No Inventory

Question 14.
Write any four payment mechanism available in online shopping.
Answer:
(a) Cash on Delivery
(b) Cheque
(c) Credit Card
(d) Debit Card
(e) Google Pay
(f) Phoen Pe

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 15.
Narrate any two functions performed by a promoter.
Answer:
Functions of a Promoter

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.

Question 16.
Briefly explain trade credit as a short-term source of finance.
Answer:
Trade Credit: Trade credit is a shortterm source of financing. The credit extended by one trader to another for purchasing goods or services is known as trade credit. Trade credit facilitates the traders to purchase goods without immediate payment.

Question 17.
Name any four types of itinerant retailers.
Answer:
(a) Hawkers
(b) Peddlers
(c) Market Traders
(d) Street: Traders

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 18.
State the meaning of Government Company. Write any two limitations of Government Company.
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 2013. According to the Indian Companies Act 2013, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

  1. Government companies are suffering from, interference by political parties.
  2. The government companies have to depend upon the government for deciding policy matters, resulting in delaying the decisions.

Question 19.
Explain social responsibility of business towards the following interest groups:
(a) Consumers
(b) Employers
(c) Shareholders or owners
Answer:
(a) Consumers – Provide quality goods at reasonable price.
(b) Employees – Provide job security and fair wages
(c) Shareholders – Provide adequate return on investment.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 20.
Eventhough lease financing is one of the important sources of finance, it suffers from some limitations. List out any three such limitations.
Answer:
Limitations

  1. Lease agreement imposes some restrictions on the use of assets.
  2. If the lease agreement is not renewed, it will af-fect the business.
  3. The Lessee never becomes the owner of the as-set.

Question 21.
Bata Shoe Store is an example of this type of fixed shop large retailers. Identify and explain this type of retailer.
Answer:
(a) Multiple shops or chain store
(b) Chain Stores or Multiple Shops
Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under a centralised management and dealing in similar line of goods. Branches are located through- out the nation.

Question 22.
Briefly explain any three important foreign trade promotion measures and schemes.
Answer:
Foreign Trade Promotion Measures and Schemes

  1. Duty drawback scheme: it refers to the refund of customs and excise duties paid on imported inputs used in the manufacture of export goods.
  2. Export manufacturing under bond scheme: U nder this facility firms can produce goods without payment of excise and other duties. The firms can avail this facility after giving an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes.
  3. Exemption from payment of GST : Goods meant for export purposes are not subject to GST. Income derived from export operations had been exempt from payment of income tax.

Question 23.
Write any three advantages of departmental store.
Answer:
Advantages

  1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located &t central places they attract a large number of customers.
  2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
  3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 24.
Briefly explain the nature of business risk.
Answer:
Nature of Business Risks

  1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
  2. It is an essential part of business.
  3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business.
  4. Profit is the reward for risk taking.

Question 25.
Write any four merits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
Merits of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
  3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
  4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 26.
Write a short note on different types of banks.
Answer:

  1. Commercial Banks: Commercial Banks are banking institutions that accept deposits and grant loans and advances to their customers. There are two types of commercial banks, public . sector and private sector banks.
    • Public Sector Bank: Public sector banks are owned and managed by the Government. Eg. SBI, PNB, IOB etc:
    • Private Sector Bank: Private sector banks are owned and managed by private parties. Eg. HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank, etc.
  2. Co-operative Banks: Co-operative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Co-operative Societies Act. They managed on the principles of co-operation, “self help and mutual help”.
  3. Specialised Banks : Specialised banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks which provide financial aid to industries, joint venture projects and foreign trade.
  4. Central Bank : The Central bank supervises, controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government bank. It controls and co-ordinates currency and credit policies of any country. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country.

Question 27.
Match the following:

A B
(a) Memorandum of – Association Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation Rules regarding internal management

Answer:

A B
(a) Memorandum of – Association Invitation to public by a company to subscribe its shares or debentures
(b) Articles of Association Birth Certificate of a company
(c) Prospectus Define objectives of a company
(d) Certificate of Incorporation Rules regarding internal management

Question 28.
State any two merits and demerits of debentures.
Answer:
Merits

  1. Debenture holder do not have voting right
  2. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
  3. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management

Limitations

  1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
  2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
  3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.

Question 29.
Write any four differences between Domestic and International business.
Answer:

Domestic Business International Business
Buyers and sellers are from the same country Buyers and sellers are from different countries
Various middlemen are usually citizens of the same country Various middlemen are from different nations
The factors of production move freely within the country There are restrictions on free mobility of factors of production across countries
Markets are homogeneous in nature International markets lack homogeneity

Answer any 4 questions from 30 to 35. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 30.
On the basis of nature of operation, co-operative societies are of different types. Describe any five types of co-operative society.
Answer:
Types of Co-operative Societies

  1. Consumer’s co-operative societies : These are formed to protect the interests of consum-ers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the producers and sells goods to the members at the lowest priced
  2. Producer’s co-operative societies : These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers. It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members.
  3. Marketing co-operative societies : Such societies are established to help small producers in selling their products. It collects the output of members and sells them at the best possible price. Profits are distributed to members.
  4. Farmer’s co-operative societies : These societies are established to protect the interests of farmers. Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilisers, machinery and other modern techniques for use in the cultivation of crops.
  5. Credit co-operative societies : Credit co-operative societies are established for providing easy credit to the members, at low rates of interest.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 31.
State the features of Global enterprises.
Answer:

  1. Huge capital resources: Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources.
  2. Foreign collaboration: Global enterprises usually enter into foreign collaborations with local firms in the host countries.
  3. Advanced technology: Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology.
  4. Product innovation: Multinational companies are able to conduct researches so that they can develop new products.
  5. Marketing strategies: They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period.

Question 32.
Write any five differences between traditional business and e-business.
Answer:
Differences between Traditional business and e-business

Traditional Business e-business
1. Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important Location is not important
5. Operating cost is high Operating cost is low

Question 33.
Describe the various basic elements of business I ethics.
Answer:
Elements of Business Ethics

  1. Top management commitment: The higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing the moral values of the organisation.
  2. Publication of a Code: ‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles & values. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, etc.
  3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism: A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.
  4. Employees Involvement: To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.
  5. Measuring Results: Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

Question 34.
Memorandum of Association of a company contains different clauses. List out and explain such clauses.
Answer:
Contents of Memorandum of Association

  1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
  2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.
  5. Association clause: In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their’ intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 35.
What are the major problems faced by small scale industries in India?
Answer:
Problems of small business Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

  1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks.
  2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
  3. They may face the problem of lack of managerial skills.
  4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So employee turnover is generally high.
  5. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.

Answer any 2 questions from 36 to 38. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 36.
Explain the types of Industries with the help of a chart.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers- 1

Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are Primary Industries, Secondary Industries and Tertiary Industries.

1. Primary industries : Primary industries are concerned with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Primary industries are divided into two.

  • Extractive industries: These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing etc.
  • Genetic industries: These industries are engaged in breeding of animals, birds and plants. E.g. dairy farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

2. Secondary industries: Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:

  1. Manufacturing industries : Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of timber into furniture, rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,
    • Analytical Industry which analyses and separates different products from the same raw materials. E.g. Oil refinery.
    • Synthetical Industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement.
    • Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
    • Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. telesion, car, computer, etc.
  2. Construction industries : These industries are involved’ in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

3. Tertiary industries : These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg. Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 37.
Explain the features of Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
Features

  1. Incorporated association: A company is an incorporated association. i.e. Registered and governed under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
  2. Separate legal entity: Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members.
  3. Formation : The formation of a company is a time consuming and complicated process.
  4. Perpetual succession: Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.
  5. Control: The management and control of the company is in the hands of Board of Directors who are elected by the shareholders.
  6. LIability: The liability of the shareholders is limited.
  7. Common seal : The Company has a common seal.
  8. Transferability of shares: Shares of a joint stock company are freely transferable.

Question 38.
Explain in detail of any four principles of insurance with suitable examples.
Answer:
Principles of Insurance1.

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
  2. Insurable interest : The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
  4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Business Studies  Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Answer any 8 of the following questions from 1 to 10. Each carries 1 score. (8 × 1 = 8)

Question 1.
What is the reward of business activity?
(a) Salary
(b) Fees
(c) Profit
(d) Wages
Answer:
(c) Profit

Question 2.
The eldermost member of HUF business is known as _____
(a) Shareholder
(b) Karta
(c) Coparceners
(d) Partner
Answer:
(b) Karta

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 3.
Identify the public enterprise where at least 51 % share held by Government.
(a) Departmental Undertaking
(b) PublicCorporations
(c) Government Company
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Government Company

Question 4.
Identify the bank which controls the operations of all commercial banks in the country.
(a) Co-operative Bank
(b) Central Bank
(c) Specialised Bank
(d) Nationalised Bank
Answer:
(b) Central Bank

Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Point of Sale
(b) Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) Digital Cash
(d) Cash Payment at the counter
Answer:
(d) Cash Payment at the counter

Question 6.
Identify the resources required for the successful implementation of E-business.
(a) Computer
(b) Trained workforce
(c) Website
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 7.
Emission of toxic gases leads pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution

Question 8.
Identify the internal sources of finance from the following:
(a) Retained earning
(b) Debenture
(c) Term loans
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(a) Retained earning

Question 9.
The term VPP is associated with _____ business.
(a) Departmental store
(b) Chain store
(c) Super bazaar
(d) Mail order
Answer:
Mail order

Question 10.
Buying and selling of goods and service between two countries may be _____
(a) Domestic trade
(b) Foreign trade
(c) Home trade
(d) lnternal trade
Answer:
Foreign trade

Answer any 5 of the following questions from 11 to 16. Each carries 2 score. (5 × 2 = 10)

Question 11.
Briefly explain the following :
(a) Nomina! Partner
(b) Active Partner
Answer:
a) Nominal partner (Quasi partner) : A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm.
b) Active partner: A partner who contributes capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 12.
Write two differences between Traditional Business and E-business.
Answer:

Traditional Business e-business
1. Its formation is difficult Its formation is easy
2. Investment is very high Investment is low
3. Physical presence is required Physical presence is not required
4. Location is important Location is not important

Question 13.
Complete the following as per the hint given :
(a) Produce goods and service that society want and sell them at a profit
(b) Responsibility to operate within the laws of the country.
(c) Helping people of affected area of natural calamity.
Answer:
a) Economic Responsibility
b) Legal Responsibility
c) Discretionary Responsibility

Question 14.
Complete the diagram:
Answer:
a) Promotion
b) Incorporation

Question 15.
What is Factoring?
Answer:
Factoring: Factoring is a method of raising short-term finance for the busintess in which the business can take advance money from the bank against the amount to be realised from the debtors. By this method, the firm shifts the responsibility of collecting the outstanding amount from the debtors on payment of a specified charge.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 16.
Mention any two kinds of itinerant traders.
Answer:

  1. Peddlers and Hawkers: They carry the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and move from place to place to sell their products at the doorsteps of the customers. They generally deal in low-value products such as toys,.vegetables, fruits etc.
  2. Market traders: They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed-days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These traders deal in single line of goods such as toys, readymade garment, crockery etc.

Question 17.
Write any three differences between Private company and Public company.
Answer:

Basis Private Company Public Company
a) Members Minimum – 2
Maximum – 200
Minimum – 7 Maximum – Unlimited
b) Minimum paid up capital Rs. 1 lakh Rs. 5 lakh
c) Transfer of shares Restriction on Transfer No restriction
d) Name: End with “Private Limited” or (P) Ltd. End with “Limited” or Ltd.

Question 18.
Write three forms in which a public enterprise can be formed.
Answer:
Three forms of public enterprises are
a) Departmental undertaking
b) Statutory Corporations
c) Govt, companies

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 19.
Complete the diagram with given hints:
Answer:

B2B Business to Business Giving order for raw material
C2C Customer to Customer Selling old books by one customer to another customer
B2C Business to Customer Selling goods to customers
Intra B Transactions within the business Transfer of goods from one branch to another branch

Question 20.
Write any three functions of promoter.
Answer:

  1. Identification of business opportunity: The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.
  2. Feasibility studies: Secondly the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the profitability of the proposed activity.
  3. Name approval: After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.
  4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association: Promoters have to decke about the members who wiLl be signing the Memorandum

Question 21.
Write short notes on:
(a) Fixed Capital Requirement
(b) Working Capital Requirement
Answer:

  1. Fixed capital requirements: In order to start a business, funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery etc. This is called fixed capital requirement.
  2. Working Capital requirements: A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes etc.

Question 22.
Write any three procedure for export trade.
Answer:
Export Procedure

  1. Receipt of enquiry and sending quotations: The prospective buyer of a product sends an enquiry to different exporters.
  2. The exporter sends a reply to the enquiry in the form of a quotation.
  3. Receipt of order or indent: If the buyer is satisfied with the exporter, he places the order or indent for the goodi
  4. Assessing importer’s creditworthiness and securing a guarantee for payments: After receipt of the indent, the exporter demand a letter of credit from the importer.

Answer any 4 of the following questions from 23 to 27. Each carries 4 score. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 23.
Classify the following activiities into primary and secondary industry:
(a) Timbering
(b) Breeding of animals
(c) Construction of dam-
(d) Production of goods
(e) Mining
(f) Assembling of components
Answer:

Primary Industries Secondary Industries
1. Timbering 1. Construction of dam
2. Breeding of animals 2. Production of goods
3. Mining 3. Assembling of components

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 24.
Explain any four functions of Commercial Banks.
Answer:

  • Acceptance of deposits : A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are:
    1. Current deposit: This type of account is usu¬ally opened bybusinessmen.lt carries no inter¬est. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.
    2. Savings deposit : Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay nominal rate of interest on these deposits.
    3. Fixed deposit: Fixed deposit accounts are term deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.
  •  Lending Loans and Advances : The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, etc. to customers.
    1. Cash Credit: The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit.
    2. Bank Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where businessmen are allowed to withdraw over and above their deposits in the current account.
    3. Discounting of bill of exchange : Banks give money to its customers before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.
    4. Term Loans : These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period.
    5. Secondary Functions : The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
      • Agency Functions
      • Bank collects customers’ cheque drawn on other bank.
      • Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc.
      • Purchase and sale of shares and debentures.
    6. General utility services
      • Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers.
      • Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
      • Underwriting issues of shares and debentures

Question 25.
Explain any four clauses of Memorandum of Association.
Answer:

  1. Registered office clause or Situation Clause: This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated.
  2. Objects clause: It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an
    activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.
  3. Liability clause: It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.
  4. Capital clause: This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through the issue of shares.

Question 26.
What is Preference Share? Distinguish it from Equity Share.
Answer:
a) Preference Share: The capital raised by issue of preference shares is called preference share capital. The preference shareholders enjoy a preferential right over equity shareholders in two ways:
a) The right to get a fixed rate of dividend.
b) The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 27.
Write any for differences of Foreign trade and Domestic trade.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 11.2

Answer any 3 of the following questions from 28 to 31. Each carries 5 score. (3 × 5 = 15)

Question 28.
Identify five hindrances in the process of exchange of goods and services and activities undertaken to remove these hindrances.
Answer:
Auxiliaries to Trade (Aids to trade) Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade or auxiliaries to trade.
Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers - 1

  1. Transportation: Transport facilitates movement of products from the place of production to the place of consumption.
  2. Communication: Communication helps the producers, traders and consumers to exchange information with one another.
  3. Banking: Banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance.
  4. Insurance: The goods may be destroyed while in production process or in transit. Insurance provides protection in all such risks.
  5. Warehousing: The goods should be stored till the time they are sold. This function is performed by warehouses.
  6. Advertising: Advertising helps in providing information about goods and services.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 29.
What is MNC? Explain any four features of MNC.
Answer:
a) Global Enterprises (Multinational Companies) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their operations in several countries. Their branches are called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, advanced technology and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Suzuki etc.

Question 30.
Write any five problems faced by small business units.
Answer:
Refer Exam point guide 9.7

Question 31.
Match the following :

Column – A Column – B
Return on investment Responsibility to government
Fair wages Responsibility to suppliers
Payment of taxes Responsibility to owners
Quality products Responsibility to employees
Prompt payment Responsibility to customers

Answer:

Column – A Column – B
Return on investment Responsibility to owners
Fair wages Responsibility to employees
Payment of taxes Responsibility to government
Quality products Responsibility to customers
Prompt payment Responsibility to suppliers

Answer any 2 of the following questions from 32 to 34. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 32.
Briefly explain any four merits and four demerits of sole proprietorship.
Answer:
a) Sole Proprietorship: Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organisation which is owned, managed and controlled by a single person.

b) Merits of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Easy formation : The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  2. Quick Decision : The sole trader can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.
  3. Motivation : The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the owner. It motivates him to work hard.
  4. Secrecy : A sole trader is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

c) Limitations of Sole Proprietorship

  1. Limited capital: A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.
  2. Lack of continuity : Death or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.
  3. Limited managerial ability : A sole proprietor may not be an expert in management.
  4. Unlimited liability : The liability of a sole trader is unlimited.

Question 33.
(a) What is Insurance?
(b) Explain any six principles of insurance.
Answer:
a) Insurance is an agreement between two parties whereby one party undertakes, in exchange for a consideration, to pay the other party an agreed sum of money to compensate the loss, damage or injury caused as a result of some unforeseen events.

b)

  1. Utmost good faith (uberrimaefidie) : The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract.
  2. Insurable interest: The insured must have an.insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance.
  3. Indemnity : All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured whichever is less.
  4. Subrogation : According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss, the right of ownership of damaged property passes on to the insurer.
  5. Causa proxima : When the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause for the loss alone will be considered by the insurance company for admitting the claim.
  6. Contribution : In certain cases, the same subject matter is insured with one or more insurer. In case there is a loss, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by him.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 34.
“Everything under one roof” Identify the business organization mentioned here. Write any four features and three merits of it.
Answer:
Departmental Store
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one  anagement. Each department deals in separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store. Features of a departmental store.

  1. It is a large scale retail organisation.
  2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
  3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
  4. It is located at central places of the city.
  5. The products are arranged in separate departments.
  6. Sales, control and management are centralized,

Advantages

  1. Central locations: As these stores are usually located at central places they attract a large number of customers.
  2. Convenience in buying: By offering large variety of goods under one roof, they provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods.
  3. Attractive services: A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.
  4. Mutual advertisement: All the departments are under one roof, so there is economy in advertising.
  5. Risk distribution: If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated from the profit of other departments.
  6. Increased sales: Central location, mutual advertisement etc. will help a departmental store to increase its.sales.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Questions from 1 to 14, answer for 16 scores.( 16)

Question 1.
A money bill can be originated in (1)
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Either house of Parliament
Answer:
a) Lok Sabha

Question 2.
Find out the author of the book ‘On Liberty’. (1)
a) H.J.Laski
b) Rousseau
c) J.S.Mill
Answer:
c) J.S.Mill

Question 3.
Which of the following is a permanent executive? (1)
a) Chief Minister
b) Chief Secretary
c) Governor
Answer:
b) Chief Secretary

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 4.
The total membership of Rajya Sabha is (1)
a) 545
b) 140
c) 250
Answer:
c) 250

Question 5.
Constitution of India borrowed many of its provisions from other countries. Write the name of countries from which the following provisions are borrowed. (4)

Provisions Countries
Parliamentary
Fundamental
Directive
Quasi-federal form

Answer:

Provisions Countries
Parliamentary Britain
Fundamental USA
Directive Ireland
Quasi-federal form Canada

Question 6.
Which articie in the Indian constitution enables Supreme Court to issue writs for the protection of fundamental rights? (1)
Answer:
Article 226

Question 7.
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha?
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister
c) Vice President of India
Answer:
Vice President of India

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 8.
Arrange the following under proper heads.
• Defence
• Forests
• Warand peace
• Prison
• Police
• Education

Union List State List Concurrent List

Answer:

Union List State List Concurrent List
Defence Prison Forests
War and peace Police Education

Question 9.
The Constitution of India was prepared by _____ (1)
a) Constituent assembly
b) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 10.
Find out the odd one. (1)
a) Right to equality
b) Right against exploitation
c) Right to property
Answer:
Right to property

Question 11.
The 7th constitutional amendment deals with
a) Panchayati Raj
b) Fundamental duties
c) Nagar Palikas
Answer:
NagarPatikas

Question 12.
Human Rights day is celebrated on (1)
a) December 10
b) November 14
c) November 26
Answer:
December 10

Question 13.
______ is the highest court of appeal in India. (1)
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 14.

IAS District Police Chief
IPS Ambassador
IFS Accountant General
IRS District Collector

Answer:

IAS District Collector
IPS District Police Chief
IFS Ambassador
IRS Accountant General

Question 15.
Write the three methods for amending the Constitution of India.
Answer:

  1. Simple majortiy
  2. Special majority
  3. Special majority with ratification of half of states

Question 16.
List out two special powers of Lok Sabha.
Answer:

  1. A money bill can be introduced only in the Loksabha
  2. Motions of no-confidence against the government can only be introduced and passed in the Loksabha.

Question 17.
Write any three criticisms against Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Unwidely
  2. Unrepresentative
  3. Alien Documen

Question 18.
Write a short note on the Political equality.
Answer:
To ensure political equality in a society, people should have the opportunities to take part in active politics. Right to vote, contest in the deations, hold public office, to criticise the government to form political parties are come under political equality.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 19.
Which are the three important principles of justice?
Answer:

  1. Equal consideration to equals
  2. Proportionate justice
  3. Recognising special needs

Question 20.
Write any three Contemporary Challenges to peace.
Answer:

  1. Terrorism
  2. Racism
  3. Communalism

Question 21.
Write a note on Economic Rights.
Answer:
They are related to economic security and the right to earn one’s livelihood they include right to work, right to get decent wages, right to leisure, right so have social security and right to earn wealth.

Question 22.
Why did India adopt FPTP System?
Answer:
India adopted the FPTP System for the following reasons:

  1. It is a simple system without much complication.
  2. Because of the size and population it is most suitable.
  3. Voters have the freedom to choose the candidate of their choice.
  4. It is excellent for the formation of stable governments.

Question 23.
What is ‘Judicial review1?
Answer:
Judicial review is the power of the court to examine the constitutional validity of the laws passed by legislations. If the laws are contrary to the constitution the judiciary has the right to dedare such laws null and void.

Question 24.
Write a note on Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Part IV of the Indian constitution deals with the directive principles of states policy. These are borrowed from the Irish constituion. They are not justiciable directive principles can be divided into Jandhan principles, Socialist principles and Liberal principles.

Answer any 4 questions from 25 to 33. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 25.
Explain the significance of the study of Political theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories, advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution.and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future.

The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives. Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 26.
Briefly explain the original and the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction
In the following cases the supreme court has original jurisdiction.
a) Conflicts between the centre and one or more states.

b) Conflicts between the centre and a state or states are on one side and a state or states on the opposite side.

c) Conflicts between states

d) Cases connected with the election of the president and vice president.

Appellate Jurisdiction
The supreme court is the highest appellate jurisdiction can be divided into constituional, civil and criminal cases.

Question 27.
Briefly explain Social and Environmental Cost of development.
Answer:
The social costs of development are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to be sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated elsewhere. Because of the loss of their homes and land, the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional job skills. They also lose their cultural moorings. For example, for the development of the Kannur airport many families had to be evacuated. The ecological costs of development are beyond calculation. Still environmental destruction goes on.

Here are some of the ill-effects of development:

  1. Air and water pollution.
  2. Increase in global warming (increase in the warmth of the atmosphere because of the emission of green gases).
  3. Depletion of the Ozone layer (CFCs – Chlorofluoro-carbons – used in air-conditioners etc. cover the atmosphere and this results in the depletion.)
  4. Overuse of fertilizers and insecticides poison the soil.
  5. The ruin caused to the flora and fauna.
  6. Overuse of non-renewable sources of energy and the resultant environmental damage.
  7. Deforestation and its ill-effects.

Question 28.
Write the differences between Indian Secularism and Western Secularism.
Answer:

Western Secularism Indian secularism
Religion and government strictly keep distance and do not mutually interfere. Nation makes principle based interferences in religious affairs.
Individual and his rights are given utmost importance. Rights of individual and also of religious groups will be protected.
Equality among different religious groups is stressed. Equality among different religious groups is stressed.
Care is not given to rights based on religious communities. Care is given to minority rights.
Religious reforms are not supported by the government. Nation supports religious reforms.
The Nation won’t help religious institutions. Nation helps religious institutions.

Question 29.
Write a note on the powers and positions of the President of India.
Answer:
The President is the head of the state. All executive powers of the Union are vested in him. The powers of the President may be breadly classified into executive, legislative, judicial, financial and emergency. He has certain discredionary powers also. Eventhrough the President enjoy environment powers, can excercise all the powers only in accordance with the advice given by the council of ministors.

Question 30.
Explain universal citizenship and global citizenship.
Answer:
Through the influence of globalization, open market system is strengthened and the distance between nations is lessened. Because of the growth of technology the world has become a global village. In the circumstances, importance of global (universal) citizenship is enhancing day by day. The growth in communication has blurred the importance of the boundaries between nations and increased a sense of mutual relation among the people of the world. A nation can’t solve all the problems it faces all by itself. Problems that spread across boundaries are to be solved by the cooperation different governments and people. Because of all this, the advocates of global citizenship say that it Is Inevitable and all should work for its realization.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 31.
Briefly explain the ‘Harm Principle’ put forward by J.S. Mill.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice. They are as follows:
1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.

2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:
a) For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.

b) We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration. Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Question 32.
Explain the structure of Indian Judiciary.
Answer:
Supreme court, High court, District courts and subordinate courts are the major courts in India. The apex courts in India is supreme courts and the apex courts in the states are High courts. District courts are the highest courts in districts. Subordinate courts working under district courts the munisiff’s and magistrate courts handle civil and criminal cases are subordinate courts.

Question 33.
Write a note on inter religious domination and intra religious domination.
Answer:
Inter religious dominations means the situations where are religiou,s dominate and suppresses other religion Eg: Anti sikh riots in India in 1984. While intra religious domination means the situations where a community religion dominates its owm members for example Dalits are illtreated by upper castes in India.

Answer any 4 questions from 34 to 41. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 34.
Explain different stages of law-making process in India.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to passthrough 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.
a) First Reading: This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favourof the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial, there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reading.

b) Second Reading: This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated forgetting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

c) The Committee Stage: This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

d) Report Stage: This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may take quite some time. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

e) Third Reading: This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 35.
Briefly explain functions of a Constitution.
Answer:
a) Give basic laws to bring about unity among the members of the society. Ensure that the laws are obeyed by all.
b) Decide who is the authority to take decisions in the society.
c) Limit the powers of the government.
d) Enable the government to realise the goals and desires of the society.
e) Give a fundamental identity to the people.

Question 36.
Explain any five provisions in Indian Constitution which provides for a strong Central Government.
Answer:
All the most important subjects are in the unions list

  1. Government are appointed by the centre
  2. The centre has the right to dedare emergency
  3. The centre has residuary powers
  4. Single citizenship

Question 37.
Explain’the functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:
Major functions of the Election Commission of India:
a) Preparing the voters’ list correctly and scientifically. Giving appropriate instructions for its preparations and supervising its making.

b) Conducting the election of the President, Vice President, MPs and MLAs.

c) Preparing time tables for elections.

d) The Commission has the right to cancel the polling of a particular booth or even the entire constituency if malpractices are detected. Threatening the voters, burning booths, taking away ballot boxes etc. are very big crimes. If such things happen, the election in that constituency can be cancelled. If such things happen only in some booths, the polling there can be cancelled. On 23 November 1984, the Election Commission ordered re-polling in 78 booths all over the country.

e) The Commission appoints Returning Officers, and Asstt. Returning Officers.

f) The Commission allots different political parties their symbols.

g) It is the Commission that approves political parties to contest in the election. It decides what kind of recognition is to be given to each political party, whether State Level or National Level. In the November 1989 Lok Sabha elections, the Commission recognized 9 parties as National level Parties.

h) The Commission ensures that only those who have voting rights vote. It also has to prevent impersonation during voting.

i) It is the duty of the Commission to establish booths at convenient places so that voters won’t have to travel long distances.

j) The Commission has to make sure that ballot boxes are collected after the election and kept away securely. It also has to ensure that the counting of votes is done fairly and declare the results.

k) The Commission brings out the code of conduct for the political parties and independent candidates.

l) It also has to control and guide the Officers appointed by the Union Government and State Governments to conduct elections.

m) All election results are declared by the Election Commission.

Question 38.
Explain various forms of structural violence.
Answer:
Structural violence is the violence that originates from social institutions and practices. Casteism, Class distinction, male domination, colonialism, tribalism, racism, communalism etc. can produce structural violence.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 39.
Explain the role of Prime Minister in a Parliamentary form of government.
Answer:
Prime Minister
In the Cabinet administrative system, the PM has a big role. The Indian PM has the same status as the British PM. The PM is the first among equals. In Latin they say ‘primus inter pares’. But the other Ministers are not his subordinates. According to Sir Ivor Jennings, the PM is like the solar system where all the other planets go round the sun. Morley says the PM is the  foundation of the Cabinet Arch. Prof. Lasky says that the PM holds the arch up or makes it fall.

The PM has many responsibilities. His area of jurisdiction is also great. Constitutionally, the President appoints the PM. But the President has no choice here. It is simply a mechanical act. The President is obliged to appoint the leader of the Party which has the majority or highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha. But if no Party has a clear majority, the President may invite the leader of any Party whom he thinks can form the Cabinet. The President appoints other Ministers on the recommendations of the PM.

Although the PM is free in the appointment of the Cabinet, he will have to take into consideration many things. He will have to give deserving representation to yarious States, religious communities, minorities, economic interests, political groups and so on. But he has also to consider competence and consensus. The PM can demand the resignation of any Minister at any time. If a Minister refuses to resign, the PM can ask the President to remove him. The precedSht is that if a Minister does not agree with any Policy matter, he should resign. People like Shanmukham Shetty, Dr. John Mathai, Shyamaprasad Mukherjee and V.V. Giri etc. had resigned their posts as ministers.

The PM can shuffle the departments of the Ministers. When a PM resigns, the entire Cabinet resigns with him. Differences among the ministers and departments are solved by the PM. He supervises all departments. He decides the agenda of the Cabinet. He presides over Cabinet meetings. He is the link between the President and the Cabinet. It is through the PM the President gets to know what the government is doing. The secretariat of the PM helps him in doing his work.

The PM has four different positions. He is the leader of his party in the Parliament. By that he controls the members of his party. Secondly he is the leader of the Lok Sabha. It is he who represents the Lok Sabha and talks for it. Thirdly, he is the head of the cabinet. That way he is the person with the highest powers in the country. Fourthly he is the link between the President and the Cabinet. He has responsibility towards his party, Parliament and the Nation.

He coordinates the work of different departments. In fact a national election is the election of a PM. As the leader of the nation, the PM is looked upon with respect. Sir Ivor Jennings feels that the status of the PM depends on the person who occupies the position, his competence and his efforts and the leverage the other Ministers allow him. Charismatic leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru might overshadow other Ministers. If the PM is not competent enough, the Cabinet will be under the control of his colleagues and the Party.

Question 40.
Explain John Rawls’ theory of justice.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice. They are as follows:
1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.

2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:

a) For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.

b) We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration. Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 41.
Briefly explain any five functions of Parliament in India.
Answer:

  1. Legislation (law-making)
  2. Controlling the Executive
  3. Financial responsibilities
  4. Representation
  5. Discussions
  6. Administrative responsibilities
  7. Election responsibilities
  8. Judicial responsibilities

Answer any 2 questions from 42 to 45. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 42.
Explain the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
The +1 Political Science students of Kasargod Government HSS organized a seminar on the topic ‘Fundamental Rights’. Prior to the seminar, the students were divided ‘into 6 groups and they discussed the topic. The leaders of each group presented the ideas of their group.

Contents:
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel
  5. Right to have shelter
  6. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  7. Protection from undue punishment
  8. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  9. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26 – To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Question 43.
Explain the changes brought about by the 73rd Constitutional amendment in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Answer:

  1. The 73rd Amendment Act made the Panchayat Raj a Constitutional system.
  2. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  3. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  4. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  5. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  6. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  7. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  8. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs. One-third of the chairmen will be ladies. Reservations are by rotation. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed. The Act makes provision for the appointmentof an independent State Election Commission. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission. The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 44.
Explain the factors that promote the formation of a nation.
Answer:
Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors of the political theory prevalent in the nation. The nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Indian nationalism is the feeling that we all are Indians. Without nationalism, no new nation can originate or survive. It is nationalism that supplies the basis for the building up of a nation. Loyalty to the nation, its strength, its power and its working and the legality etc. are emotions that are generated in the minds of people. In the background of nationalism, the common behaviour of a nation can be analysed. Nationalism includes national styles, national expectations, national goals, national conflicts, national anthem, national flower, national flag and national symbol. Toynbee has said that Nationalism is the religion of the modern nation. Factors that nourish Nationalism:

a) Shared Beliefs: It is some beliefs that help the formation of a nation. Nation is not a concrete thing like a building, river or forest that we can see and touch. Nation is a concept built around certain beliefs of the people. When we say that a people are a nation, we do not mean their physical behaviour. Nation is a vision and a collective fellowship of people who wish to have their own separate identity. It is like a group of a team. They work for a common goal in a common fellowship. A nation can exist only as long as the people are deeply rooted in unity.

b) History: A people who consider themselves as a nation have a sense of a continuous historical existence. It is something that they can look back with pride and look forward to with hope. They have a common history based collective memories, legends and historical documents. Thus they acquire individuality as a nation. We can take our Indian nationalist leaders as examples. We point out our ancient civilization, cultural heritage and other past achievements, thus making a unique identify of our own.

c) Territory: Territory is another essential aspect of a nation. A nation has a separate area of land. There people will have lived together for long, shared their past, bringing a common identity to them. It helps them to think that they are one nation. That is why they can talk about their own country of birth.

d) Shared political ideals: Apart from the sense of a common history and some territory of their own, the people of a nation are persuaded to think of unity because of their common vision and goal for the future. They have some ideals quite peculiar to them and these also make a nation different from others.

e) Common Political Identity: Many people think that just because individuals have a common political vision regarding the society and the government, they can’t form a nation.’ They feel that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a ^ common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic values, too much of religion may prove a threat.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 45.
Explain the following conflicting areas of Indian federalism.
• Centre-State relations
• Demand for autonomy
• Role of Governor and President’s rule
• Inter-state conflicts
Answer:
India is a Federation. All the features of a federation are found in the Indian Constitution.
a) Written and Rigid Constitution
b) Division of Authority
c) Independent Federal Judiciary

The Indian Constitution stands for a strong federal system. It created a strong federal system. The following show strong Central control:
a) All the most important subjects are in the Union list.
b) Governors are appointed by the Centre.
c) The Centre has the right to declare emergency.
d) The Centre has Residuary Powers.

The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and blood to it. Therefore the changing political processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism.

Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamouring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states. The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict.

Demand for New States : This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telungana State.

Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened. Many States and Political Parties demand more autonomy for States. But autonomy means different things to different States and Parties.

By Division of authority what some States want is more powers to be given to them. Many States and Political Parties demand more self-rule for their States. Another demand is that States must have their own sources of income and they should have greater control over their natural resources. Some States wanted autonomy so that they can control their resources.

A third demand is that Centre should not interfere with the State administration. The States can’t tolerate the intervention by the Centre. The fourth reason for self-rule is linked to cultural and language matters. The opposition to Hindi in Tamil Nadu and the imposition of Punjabi in Punjab are causes of protest. The domination of the Hindi speaking States over the other States often causes rifts. Some States protested saying that Hindi was being forcefully imposed on them.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

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Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

From questions 1 to 10 answer for 16 Scores.

Question 1.
Find out the Article which empowers the supreme court to issue writs in case of violation of Fundamental Rights.
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 30
Answer:
Article 32

Question 2.
Which of the following country follow proportional representation system for general elections?
(a) U.K.
(b) Israel
(c) U.S.A. (1)
Answer:
Israel

Question 3.
The Prime Minister of India is apponted by
(a) Vice President
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President of India (1)
Answer:
President of India

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
In India F.P.T.P System is adopted for elections to
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President of India (1)
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Complete the chart showing the structure of Judiciary in India. (2)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers- 1
Answer:
a) Supreme court
b) Subordinate courts

Question 6.
Some statements about Indian Parliament is given below. Write whether they are true or false.
(a) Lok Sabha is a permanent house.
(b) Members of Lok Sabha is directly elected by people.
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\) of members of Rajya Sabha complete their term after every two years.
(d) At present there are 543 Lok Sabha Constituencies in India.
Answer:
a) False
b) True
c) True
d) True

Question 7.
Some administrative subjects are given below. Write them properly in the table. (Banking, Trade Unions, Education, Adultration, Foreign Affairs, Ports) (3)

Union list Concurrent list

Answer:

Union list Concurrent list
Banking Trade Unions
Foreign Affairs Education
Ports Adulteration

Question 8.
Name the authors of the books given below.
(a) Long Walk to Freedom
(b) Freedom from Fear
(c) On Liberty
Answer:
a) Long walk to freedom- Nelson Mandela
b) Freedom from fear-Aung San-Sukhi
c) On liberty- J.S. Mil

Question 9.
Classifythe rights given below as Political Rights and Economic Rights.
(Right to Vote, Right to Adequate Wage, Right to Reasonable Conditions of Work, Right to Form Political Parties, Right to Hold Public Office, Right to Employment) (3)
Answer:

Political Rights Economic Rights
Right to Vote Right to Adequate Wage
Right to Form Political Parties Right to Reasonable Conditions of Work
Right to Hold Public Office Right to Employment

Question 10.
Match coloumn  A with B

A B
Constitution Adopted Provision
British Constitution Independence of Judiciary
Canadian Constitution Liberty, Equality Fraternity
United States Constitution Law Making Procedure
French Constitution Quasi Federal Form of Government

Answer:

A B
Constitution Adopted Provision
British Constitution Law Making Procedure
Canadian Constitution Quasi Federal Form of Government
United States Constitution Independence of Judiciary
French Constitution Liberty, Equality Fraternity

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 17. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
Write three discretionary powers of President of India.
Answer:

  1. Send back the advice given by the council of ministers for reconsideration.
  2. Veto powers – With hold or refuse a bill
  3. Appointment of the Prime Minister, when no party claims clear majority in Lok Sabha

Question 12.
Write the three classification of amendments made so far to Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Technical or administrative in nature
  2. Differing interpretation
  3. Amendment through political consensus

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 13.
State any three provisions for ensuring of independence of judiciary in India.
Answer:
The following are the major provisions to ensure the independence of judiciary in India.

  1. Appointment of Judges
  2. Absense of financial interdependence
  3. Protection from individual criticism

Question 14.
List out three measures for promoting equality.
Answer:

  1. Establishing formal equality
  2. Equality through different considerations.
  3. Affirmative action,

Question 15.
Write any three factors that constitute a nation.
Answer:
Three factors constitute a Nation

  1. Shared belief
  2. History
  3. Territory

Question 16.
State any three forms of structural violence.
Answer:

  1. Colonialism
  2. Patriarchy
  3. Communalism

Question 17.
Write the significance of studying political theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories, advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future. The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives.

Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Answer any four questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 18.
Discuss any four functions of Election Commission of India.
Answer:

  1. Preparation of voter’s list
  2. Conduct election of President, Vice-Presidents, lok sabha and state legislative assemblies.
  3. Prepare time table for election
  4. Appointment of polling officials for election
  5. Declaration of election results.

Question 19.
Explain negative and positive liberty.
Answer:
Freedom means free from all kinds of control. If this is put into practice, there will be jungle law which is might is right. The strong will dominate the weak j and the strongest man will have to be revered by all in the society. Since this negative concept of freedom is not acceptable, the nation has to control freedom. i The positive concept of freedom is the removal of obstacles. Negative freedom will lead the nation to . an undesirable state. Positive freedom will help in the progress of the nation and the protection of the rights of all individuals.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 20.
Discuss any four changes brought by 73rd Constitutional Amendment in Panchayat Raj Institutions.
Answer:

  1. After the 73rd Amendment, the power of the State governments to enact laws on local government was restricted. The
  2. States were now forced to make laws in conformity with the Amendment.
  3. After the 73rd Amendment, direct election came into effect.
  4. After the 73rd Amendment, the condition came that if the local governments are dissolved, within 6 months fresh elections must be conducted.
  5. After the 73rd Amendment, there was reservation for women and SCs and STs.
  6. After the 73rd Amendment, the duty of conducting elections to the local governments was vested in a State Election Commission.
  7. After the 73rd Amendment, in the local committees, dominance of the dominant castes and feudal lords came to an end to a certain limit.

Question 21.
Explain the powers and functions of the Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
The Prime Minister forms the council of ministers according to the capability of the ministers, he assigns duty to them.

  1. The Prime Minister allocates the department to . the ministers and it he does not find the working ; satisfactory can change the departments of the ministers.
  2. The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of the cabinet, he prepares the agenda for the meetings and controls it.
  3. The Prime Minister work as a link between the president andcouncil of ministers.

Question 22.
Write a short note on legal rights.
Answer:
Legal rights are the rights recognized and enforceable by law. Legal rights are different from a moral or natural right because it is protected by law. Legal rights are of three types. They are civil rights, political rights and Economic Rights. Legal rights are equally available to all the citizens without the discrimination of caste , creed, sex and place of birth.

Question 23.
Explain universal citizenship and its relevance.
Answer:
Through the influence of globalization, open market system is strengthened and the distance between nations is lessened. Because of the growth of technology the world has become a global village. In the circumstances, importance of global (universal) citizenship is enhancing day by day.

Answer any four questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 24.
Briefly describe five functions performed by a Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Constitution allows co-ordination and assurance
  2. Specification of decision making power
  3. Limitations on the power of government
  4. Aspirations and goals of a society
  5. Fundamental identity of the people (Any three points may be considered)

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 25.
Analyse the original jurisdiction and appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction: In the following cases the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction.
a) Conflicts between the Centre and one or more States.
b) In conflicts where the Centre and a State or States are on one side and a State or States on the opposite side.
c) Conflicts between States.
d) In issues connected with the election of the President and Vice President.
e) To implement Fundamental Rights as per Article 32.

Appellate Jurisdiction:
The Supreme Court is the highest Appellate Court in India. Its Appellate Jurisdiction can be divided into 3 Constitutional, Civil and Criminal.

Constitutional Cases:
If the High Court testifies that the problem has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, appeal can be given to the Supreme Court. Even if the High Court refuses to certify such a thing, if the Supreme Court feels that the case has some serious element of interpreting the Constitution, the SC can issue Special Leave of Appeal. The Supreme Court can, on its own initiative, or on the request of the Attorney General, can ask the High Courts to move matters of public interest to the SC.

Civil Cases:
If the high Court that testifies to the effect that the matter needs the decision of the SC, the case can be transferred to the SC.

Criminal Cases
In the following circumstances appeals against High Court Judgements can be made in the SC:
If an accused is left unpunished, a person or organizations can file an appeal if it is felt that leaving the accused unpunished will cause some difficulty to the public. Here the Court is approached for protecting public interest. Since the Court is approached for public interest, such cases are called ‘Public Interest litigation’. Such cases usually come up in situation where there is a lack of drinking water, problems of the poor, pollution, etc. Today this has become the most energetic weapon in the hands of the Judiciary.

Public Interest Litigation:
a) Anybody who is interested in public interest, to defend the rights of others, to solve public problems, can approach the Court.

b) Since litigatton is very costly in India, for defending people’s rights, this helps.
In the Constitution it is stated that only the persons whose fundamental rights are violated can approach the court. But this condition has been made loose by the Supreme Court by letting Public Interest Litigation. Through this anybody can approach the court to defend the fundamental rights of others.

Question 26.
Explain any two conflicting areas in Indian Federal System.
Answer:
The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and „ blood to it. Therefore the changi ng pol itical processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism.
Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamouring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states.

The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict.

Demand for New States: This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telungana State.
Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 27.
Discuss John Rawls’s concept of Justice.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice, They are as follows:

  1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.
  2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:
    • For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.
    • We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration.

Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Question 28.
Describe the social and environmental cost of development.
Answer:
The social costs of envelopment are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to be sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated elsewhere. Because of the loss of their homes and land, the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional job skills. They also lose their cultural moorings. For example, for the development of the Kannur airport many families had to be evacuated. The ecological costs of development are beyond calculation. Still environmental destruction goes on. Here are,some of the ill-effects of development:

  1. Air and water pollution.
  2. Increase in global warming (increase in the warmth of the atmosphere because of the emission of green gases).
  3. Depletion of the Ozone layer (CFCs – Chlorofluoro-carbons – used in air-conditioners etc. cover the atmosphere and this results in the depletion.)
  4. Overuse of fertilizers and insecticides poison the soil.
  5. The ruin caused to the flora and fauna.
  6. Overuse of non-renewable sources of energy and the resultant environmental damage.
  7. Deforestation and its ill-effects.

Question 29.
Briefly explain any five political philosophy of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Political philosopy of Indian Constitution

  1. Individual freedom : Our Constitution is very much concerned with Individual freedom. For example we have the Fundamental Rights.
  2. Social Justice : The mission of the nation is ensuring Social Justice. The different articles of the Constitution are the means for this. For example Article 16.
  3. Respect for Diversity and Minority Rights: The Constitution guarantees the educational and cultural rights of the minorities in India.
  4. Secularism: This is the cornerstone of the Indian Constitution. It treats all religions equally.
  5. Universal Franchise: The Constitution ensures that all adults of 18 and above have their voting rights without any discrimination.
  6. Federalism : India is a Federation. The Centre- State relations are defined clearly.
  7. National Identity: Our Constitution nurtures both national identity as well as a regional identify simultaneously.

Answer any two questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores.

Question 30.
Describe any four criticisms raised against Indian Secularism.
Answer:
Different levels of criticism have emerged against our secularism. Three of the more important ones are given below:
a) Anti-Religious : Some people argue that secularism is anti-religious. The reason for this belief is the fact that secularism is against the dominance of established powerful religions. But this and anti-religion are quite different. Some people also argue that secularism is a threat to individual’s religion. This also is wrong. Secularism nourishes religious freedom. It is not a threat to a person’s religion or his beliefs. But secularism is against certain questionable practices like propagating violence, intolerance and fanaticism. Secularism encourages the good things in religion but opposes the bad things.

b) Western Import: Another criticism is that Indian secularism is related to Christianity. It means secularism is something Western and it is inappropriate with Indian circumstances. Thiss a strange argument. Don’t we see thousands of things around us which are not Indian? If people say that when a country is secular it should have its own goal it is good and relevant. Western secularism came as a challenge to the religious leaders who tried to control the social and political matters of the nation. Then how can it be said that Western secularism is connected to Christianity? Moreover Western secularism asks religion and government to keep their hands off each other. For the idea of separating the state form religion, different societies give different interpretations. A secular government keeps a respectable distance from religion. It is done to maintain peace among different communities. At the same time the government will interfere for the protection of minority rights.

c) Minoritism : This is another criticism that is levelled against Indian secularism. It is true that Indian secularism stands for the rights of minorities. Let’s look at this example: 4 people are travelling in a train. One wants to smoke. Another person objects. The other two are smokers and so they keep quiet. So there is a problem. If a decision is to be taken democratically, and the matter put to vote, the person objecting to smoking will lose. It may look just. But is it just if we look from the angle of the person who objected to smoking? He may be allergic to smoke. Here the voting system does not work. Here the right of minority should be protected.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Board Model Paper 2022 with Answers

Question 31.
Analyse the various device used by the legislature to control the executive in India.
Answer:
In the parliamentary form of government, the executive is responsible to the legislative and is under its control.
a) No confidence motion: The executive remains in office till it enjoys the confidence of the legislative, especially the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a co-confidence motion, the whole council of ministers bound to resign.

b) Finance control: The legislative has complete control over the finances and the annual budget is passed by it. The controller and Auditor General (CAG) is accountable to the legislatures of different states and also the parliament.

c) Deliberation and discussion: During the law making process members get an opportunity to deliberate on the policy direction and the ways in which policies are implemented. The question hour and zero hour etc. are the most effective method of keeping right on the executives and the administrative agencies of the government. The calling attention notice, adjournment motion, censure motion etc. are the approval or refusal of laws other tools or instruments.

A bill can become a law only with the approval of the parliament. If the government has majority in Lok Sabha but not in the Rajya Sabha, the govt, is bound to make concession in the bill. It also supervises the activities of the executive with the helping its committees like committee on government assurance, committee on petitions etc.

Question 32.
Explain the various Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India.
Answer:
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel Right to have shelter
  5. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  6. Protection from undue punishment
  7. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  8. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The rightto accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26 – To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:
1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.

2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture. It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

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Kerala Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2020

From questions 1 to 11, answer for 16 scores.(16)

Question 1.
Following are some of the provisions borrowed to Indian constitution from the constitution of other countries. Find out relevant countries. (4)

Provisions Countries
Concept of Rule of law
Principle of liberty, equality, fraternity
Fundamental Rights
Directive Principles of state policy

Answer:

Provisions Countries
Concept of Rule of law Britain
Principle of liberty, equality, fraternity France
Fundamental Rights USA
Directive Principles of state policy Ireland

Question 2.
Which day is observed as Human Rights day? (1) (August 15, January 10, October 2, December 10)
Answer:
December 10

Question 3.
Mention the article which empowers High Courts to issue writs. (1)
Answer:
Article 226

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 4.
Identify the commission which recommended constitutional status to local governing bodies in India (Sarkarla Commission, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, Mandal Commission, RK. Thungon Committee) (1)
Answer:
P.K. Tungon Committee

Question 5.
Classify the following and write them in respective columns: (3)
• Police
• Education
• Defence
• Banking
• Jail
• Forest

Union list State list Concurrent list

Answer:

Union list State list Concurrent list
Defence Police Education
Banking Jail Forest

Question 6.
Identify the German Philosopher who glorified war.(1) (Rousseau, Friedrich Nietzsche, Voltaire, Vilfredo Pareto)
Answer:
Fridrich Nietzsche

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate positions. (3)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 1
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 3

Question 8.
Which of the following task is not performed by Election Commission? (1)
i) Preparing electoral rolls
ii) Nominating the candidates
iii) Setting up polling booths
iv) Implementing model code of conduct
Answer:
(ii) Nominating the candidates

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 9.
Who was the first Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
SukumarSen

Question 10.
Idendity the autobiography of Nelson Mandela. (1)
1) Satanic Verses
2) Freedom from fear
3) Long walk to freedom
4) My Experiments with Truth
Answer:
Long walk to freedom

Question 11.
Complete the given pyramid showing the structure of Indian Judiciary.
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 2
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 4

Answer any 4 questions from 12 to 17. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 12.
Constitution amendment is the procedure through which any addition or change is made in the constitution. Examine tree provisions for amending the constitution of India.
Answer:
Through Simple majority in the parliament

  1. Through Special (2/3rd) majority in the Parliament.
  2. Through special (2/3rd) majority in the parliament + half of the state’s majority

Question 13.
India had adopted the concept of Secularism, different from western concept. Point out any three differences between the two.
Answer:

Westem Secularism Indian secularlsm
Religion and government strictly keep distance and do not mutually interfere. Nation makes principle-based interferences in religious affairs.
Individual and his rights are given almost importance Rights of individuals and also of religious groups will be protected.
Equality among different religious Equality among different religious groups is stressed
Care is not given to rights based on religious communities Care is given to minority rights.
Religious reforms are not supported by the government. Nation support religious reforms.
The nation wont help religious institutions Nation helps reigious institutions.

Question 14.
Liberty has two aspects. Negative liberty and positive liberty. Explain
Answer:
Freedom means free from all kinds of control. If this is put into practice, there will be jungle law which is might is right. The strong will dominate the weak and the strongest man will have to be revered by all in the society. Since this negative concept of freedom is not acceptable, the nation has to control freedom. The positive concept of freedom is the removal of obstacles. Negative freedom will lead the nation to an undesirable state. Positive freedom will help in the progress of the nation and the protection of the rights of all individuals.

Question 15.
State is not a temporary community of individuals. It is different from groups and communities. Explain how the state is different from communities.
Answer:

  1. No face to face relationship
  2. No blood relationship
  3. No common descend

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 16.
There were two development models existed in the world at the time of India’s independence. Explain.
Answer:

  1. Socialist Model
  2. Capitalist Model

Question 17.
Write a short note on social, political and economic equalities.
Answer:
Political Equality : To ensure political equality in a society, people should have the opportunities to take
part in active politics. Only if they have the right to play their role in the affairs the nation, there will be political equality there.

Economic Equality : The meaning of Economic Equality is that all citizens must be able to enjoy the nation’s resources equally. This is important for the eradication of poverty.

Social Equality : This means that all in the society have equal social status. Nobody should have special rights. All should have opportunities to develop their personality. In short, nobody should be given any special consideration in name of caste, religion, race or riches.

Answer any 4 questions from 18 to 23. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 18.
Religious domination may be intra religious or inter-religious. Explain.
Answer:
Inter religious domination A situation where one religious dominates and suppresses other religious Intra – religious domination A situation where a community / religious dominates its own members.

Question 19.
Explain judicial activism and examine its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Judicial activism has caused some bitter feuds and confrontations among the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary in India. When the Executive and legislature become weak, the Judiciary openly intervenes for the protection of the rights of the people. It is good for democracy but it has its weaknesses. Here are the merits and demerits of judicial activism.

Merits
a) Through public interest litigation, the powers of the Courts increased and the people’s faith in them also increased.
b) Judicial activism helped to reduce expenses for litigation.
c) Judicial activism forced the Executive to carry’ , out its responsibilities.

Demerits
a) Increased work load for the Courts.
b) It caused open clash between the Executive and Judiciary.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 20.
The provisions relating to citizenship is included in part two and subsequent laws passed by Parliament. Point out means for acquiring Indian citizenship.
Answer:
According to the Indian Citizenship Act, there are 5 ways to acquire Indian Citizenship. They are:

  1. By birth: Anybody born in India on 21 January 1950 or later will be an Indian citizen.
  2. Citizenship by heredity: Anybody born outside India on 21 January 1950 or later will be given Indian citizenship if his father was an Indian citizen at the time of his birth.
  3. Citizenship by Registration: The following can get Indian citizenship through registration:
    • People of Indian origin who have stayed in India continuously for 6 months before submitting the application for registration.
    • People of Indian origin who are staying outside undivided India.
    • Wives of the Indian citizens.
    • Minor children of Indian citizens.
    • Adult citizens of Commonwealth Countries or the Republic of Ireland.
  4. Citizenship through Long Stay: A foreigner can get Indian citizenship through long stay here subject to certain conditions.
  5. Citizenship through regions becoming part of India: If any region becomes part of India, the government has the authority to declare the people of that region as Indian citizens.

Question 21.
Explain the use and importance of studying Political Theory.
Answer:
The study of political theories is very important. They are essential for all kinds of people like political workers, bureaucrats who make policies, students of political theories,’advocates and judges who interpret the Constitution and laws, public workers who expose exploitation and fight for new rights and the students who learn about political concepts. Firstly, all the students will have to choose a profession in the future. The knowledge about political theories is relevant to all professions. All those who study mathematics will not become mathematicians or engineers. But, obviously, knowledge about mathematics is essential in our everyday lives.

Secondly, students of today are also going to be adults with voting rights tomorrow. They will have to take decisions on many issues. Knowledge about political theories and institutions will help them to act responsibly. Thirdly, Political theories motivate them to examine our ideas and emotions regarding political matters. Fourthly, Political theories help them to think systematically about political concepts.

Question 22.
In the debate on the limit of freedom, the ‘harm principle’ is very relevant. Explain harm principle put forward by J.S. Mill.
Answer:
The Harm Principle was proposed by J.S. Mill in his famous book “On Liberty”. It says: “The only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilized community, against his will, is to prevent harm to others.”

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 23.
Nationalism has two phases – constructive and destructive. Explain with examples.
Answer:
Nationalism has two faces – creative nationalism and destructive nationalism. Creative Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors that make up a nation. The creative nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Militant and aggressive nationalism is the opposite of creative nationalism. The WW II was the result of the militant and aggressive nationalism of the Nazis and Fascists.

CREATIVE NATIONALISM AGGRESSIVE (DESTRUCTIVE) NATIONALISM
Creates loyalty Creates hatred.
Unites people Divides people.
Develops sense of freedom & liberates people. Causes conflicts and wars.
Encourages democracy & self rule Develops isolation.
Encourages economic growth Looks at other people with suspicion.
Encourages cultural growth. Develops instability.
Encourages diversity in social, economic and political spheres. Creates many small nations.

Answer any 4 questions from 24 to 29. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 24.
India is one of the countries, where free and fair election is held. But there are some drawbacks in our electoral system. Give suggestions to reform the present electoral system.
Answer:
Suggestions

  1. Reservation to women
  2. FPTP to PR
  3. Reduce money power and muscle power
  4. State funding
  5. Bogus voting eliminate

Question 25.
Explain the different stages of law making procedure in Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to pass through 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.

First Reading : This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favourable of the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial, there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reacting.

Second Reading : This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated for getting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

The Committee Stage : This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

Report Stage : This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may take quite some time. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

Third Reading : This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 26.
The Indian constitution gave shape to a federation with a strong central government. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Federalism is the system by which powers of the nation are divided between the Centre and the States. If all the powers of the nation are concentrated in the Central government, such a system will be called Unitary government. America is a Federal system. But China is a unitary system.

The Indian Constitution follows the federal system. This is what article 1 states: “India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States.” When India became free on 15 August 1947, the integration of the Princely States became necessary. Our Federation did not come into existence through an agreement among existing States. It is a creation of the self identity of the Indian people through the Constitution. Strong federation is suitable do to following.

  1. Teritorial integrity in the hand of Parliament.
  2. Emergency powers
  3. Effective financial power
  4. Appointment of governors
  5. Power to legislate on state list
  6. Integrated administrative system

Question 27.
Briefly explain the functions of constitution.
Answer:
a) Give basic laws to bring about unity among the members of the society. Ensure that the laws are obeyed by all.
b) Decide who is the authority to take decisions in the society.
c) Limit the powers of the government.
d) Enable the government to realise the goals and desires of the society.
e) Give a fundamental identity to the people.

Question 28.
So many criticism are raised against the constitution of India. On the basis of this statement, analyse the criticism against the constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is not beyond criticism. There have been many criticisms, but two of the most important are the following:

a) Unwieldy : The basis of this criticism is the feeling that a constitution must be brief and precise. But since the Indian circumstances are different from others, this criticism does not have any validity.

b) It is not representative enough: The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen with limited franchise. Universal franchise could not be used there. The Indian Constituent Assembly was formed according to the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission and therefore we could not make it completely democratically representational. It was because in the Assembly there were representations from the Princely States and Territories directly under British control.

Question 29.
Briefly explain the forms of structural violence.
Answer:
Structural violence is the violence that originates from social institutions and practices. Casteism, Class distinction, male domination, colonialism, tribalism, racism, communalism etc. can produce structural violence.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 5

Answer any 2 questions from 30 to 32. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 30.
Briefly explain the fundamental Rights enshrined in the constitution of India.
Answer:
1) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  • Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  • Protection from Discrimination
  • Equality of Opportunity in employment
  • Eradication of Untouchability
  • Non-award of Titles

2) Right to Freedom:

  • Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  • Right to call to attend meetings
  • Right to organize
  • Right to travel
  • Right to have shelter
  • Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  • Protection from undue punishment
  • lndividual freedom and freedom to live
  • Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

3) Right against Exploitation:

  • Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  • Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  • Child labour is prohibited.

4) Right to Freedom of Religion:

  1. The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
  2. The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.
    • Article 25 – The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
    • Article 26-To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
    • Article 27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
    • Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

5) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

6) Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers

Question 31.
The 73rd and 74th constitutional amendments brought revolutionary changes in the structure and functions of local governments. Identify major changes implemented through these amendments.
Answer:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment made Panchayati Raj Constitutional. Social justice: This means all the people in the society.

  1. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  2. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  3. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  4. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zlla Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  5. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  6. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  7. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs.
One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.

  1. Reservations are by rotation.
  2. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed.
  3. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.
  4. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.

The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 32.
The concept of Justice has three important principles. Briefly explain justice and the three principles with suitable examples using following hints.
• Equal treatment for equals
• Proportionate justice
• Recognition of special needs
Answer:
John Rawls.
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2020 with Answers - 6

  1. Social justice: This means all the people in the society are equal. Everybody in the nation should be given equal opportunities and equal consideration. The essence of social justice is seeing everyone equally without any discrimination in the name of caste, religion, colour and gender.
  2. Economic Justice : These are the basic factors of economic justice: All the primary needs of the citizens should be fulfilled. There should circumstances where all can live comfortably. They should get adequate wages for their work. Social security must be assured. Equal pay for equal work.
  3. Political Justice : This means an atmosphere where people have free and fair participation in the political system of the nation. Right to universal adult franchise. Non-discrimination in the appointments to government jobs.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Sep 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021

Time : 2 Hours
Maximum : 60 Scores

Answer any 6 questions from 1to12. Each carries 2 scores. (6 × 2 = 12)

Question 1.
Write the orbital representation for the following quantum numbers:
(a) n = 3,I = 1
(b) n = 5, I = 0
Answer:
(a) 3p
(b) 5s

Question 2.
Identify the correct electronic configuration of Cu (z = 29) from the following and give reason for your answer,
(a) Cu – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1
(b) Cu – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6 3d9 4s2
Answer:
(a) Cu – 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks:

Molecule Structure Bond angle
BF3 …………. 120°
BeCl2 Linear …………..

Answer:

Molecule Structure Bond angle
BF3 Trigonal planar 120°
BeCl2 Linear 180°

Question 4.
Write any two postulates of Kinetic Molecular Theory of gases.
Answer:
1. Molecules are always in random motion.
2. During their motion they collide with each other and with the side of the container.

Question 5.
Write Hess’s law of constant heat summation.
Answer:
The total enthalpy change for a process is same whether it takes place in single step or several step.

Question 6.
Write expression for equilibrium constant (Kc) for the following reactions:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 1
Answer:
(a) KC = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}_3\right]^2}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_2\right]\left[\mathrm{H}_2\right]^3\)

(b) KC = \(\frac{[\mathrm{HI}]^2}{\left[\mathrm{H}_2\right]\left[\mathrm{I}_2\right]}\)

Question 7.
What are buffer solutions? Give an example for buffer solution.
Answer:
Solutions which resist change in pH.
eg. Acidic buffer
CH3COOH + CH3COONa .
acetic acid + sodium acetate

Question 8.
(i) Write the chemical name of Baking Soda. (1)
Answer:
Sodium bicarbonate [NaHCO3]

(ii) Name the product formed when Washing Soda is heated above 373 K. (1)
Answer:
Na2CO3 or Soda ash or Anhydrous sodium carbonate

Question 9.
Write the position isomers of an alcohol with molecular formula C3H8O.
Answer:
C3H8O
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 7

Question 10.
Write the complete structural formula and condensed structural formula of 2-Methyl pentane.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 8

Question 11.
Write A and B in the following reactions:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 2
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 9

Question 12.
Write the geometrical isomers of But-2-ene.
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 10

Answer any 8 questions from 13 to 28. Each carries 3 scores. (8 × 3 = 24)

Question 13.
(i) WriteAvogadro number. (1)
Answer:
6.022 × 1023

(ii) How many moles of water molecules are present in 180 g of water? (molecular mass of water = 18 g). (2)
Answer:
No. of moles = \(\frac{wt}{Mwt}\) = \(\frac{180}{18}\) = 10 moles

Question 14.
(i) Define Molarity. (1)
Answer:
No. of moles of solute particles dissolved in 1000 ml of solution.
M = \(\frac{n_B}{V}\) × 1000
nB – no of moles of solute
V – vol. of solution in l

(ii) State law of multiple proportions. (2)
Answer:
It state that when two elements combine to form more than one compounds the different masses of one of the element combines with fixed mass of other bear a simple hole no ratio by mass.

Question 15.
Account for the following:
(a) Atomic radius increases from top to bottom in a group.
Answer:
As we move down the group new shells are added and the size is increased.

(b) Electron gain enthalpy of F is lower than that of Cl.
Answer:
It is because 2p orbital of F atom is smaller compared to 3p of Cl atom. In chlorine one more, electron can be added to 3p orbital with less repulsion.

Question 16.
(i) Depending upon the type of atomic orbital being filled with electrons, the elements are classified into four blocks. Name these four blocks of elements. (1)
Answer:
s block – last electron enters to s orbital
p block – last electron enters to p orbital
d block – last electron enters to d orbital
f block – last electron enters to f block orbital

(ii) State the modern periodic law of elements. (2)
Answer:
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

Question 17.
(i) What is bond order according to M.O. theory? (1)
Answer:
No. of bonds between the atoms.
½(nb-na) (No. of electron in bonding molecular orbital – no. of electron in anti bonding molecular orbital)

(ii) He2 molecule does not exist, why? (2)
Answer:
Because bond order between two He atom is zero ie. No boncl between two He atoms so  He2 cannot exist.

Question 18.
(i) Compressibility factor for ideal gas is (1)
Answer:
1 (one)

(ii) At 25°C and 760 mm of Hg pressure a gas occupies 600 mL volume. What will be its pressure at a height where temperature is 20°C and volume of the gas is 660 mL? (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 11
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 12

Question 19.
(i) Geographical representation of a gas law is given below.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 3
(a) Name the gas law represented in graph.(1)
(b) State the above gas law. (1)
Answer:
(a) Boyles law
(b) At constant temperature the pressure of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional to volume.

(ii) Write ideal gas equation. (1)
Answer:
PV = nRT

Question 20.
(i) Name the thefrnodynamic system with exchange of energy and matter with surroundings. (1)
Answer:
Open system

(ii) State 1st law of thermodynamics. (2)
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed

Question 21.
(i) Define extensive property. (1)
Answer:
Extensive properties are those properties which depend upon amount of mass.

(ii) Identify extensive property from the following:
density, mass, pressure, volume. (2)
Answer:
Mass, volume.

Question 22.
(i) Oxidation number of oxygen atom in O2 molecule is ………….. (1)
Answer:
Zero

(ii) In a reaction
2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
Identify oxidising agent and reducing agent. (2)
Answer:
Oxidising agent – Cu2O,
reducing agent – Cu2S

Question 23.
(i) Represent the following compounds using stock notation:
(a) MnO
(b) FeO (1)
Answer:
(a)Mn(II)O
(b)Fe(II)O

(ii) What is oxidation and reduction in terms of oxidation number? (2)
Answer:
Oxidation – increase in oxidation number
Reduction – decrease in oxidation number

Question 24.
(i) Syn gas is a mixture of
(a) CO + H2
(b) CO2 + H2
(c) CO + N2
(D) CO2 + N2 (1)
Answer:
(a) CO + H2

(ii) Write the difference between hard water and soft water. (1)
Answer:
Hard water do not lather with soap.
Soft water lather with soap easily.

(iii) Why Hydrogen peroxide is stored in wax lined glass vessels in dark? (1)
Answer:
Other wise H2O2 react with silica of glass and decomposes to oxygen.

Question 25.
(i) What are molecular hydrides? (1)
Answer:
Hydrides formed with p block elements.

(ii) Classify the following molecular hydrides into electron deficient, electron precise and electron rich hydrides:
NH3, CH4, B2H6, HF
Answer:
Electron deficient hydride : B2H6
Electron precise hydride : CH4
Electron rich hydrides : NH3, HF

Question 26.
(i) Name an alkali metal which forms superoxides.(1)
Answer:
Potassium – K

(ii) Write any two anomalous properties of Lithium.(2)
Answer:

  • Lithium forms monoxide
  • Lithium is hard

Question 27.
(i) Match the following:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 15
Answer:

I. Limestone a. Calcium Carbonate
II. Slaked lime b. Calcium Hydroxide
III. Plaster of Paris c. Calcium Sulphate H2O
IV. Quick lime d. Calcium Oxide

(ii) Cement clinker is mixed with gypsum to form cement. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to form cement? (1)
Answer:
To control the setting time of cement.

Question 28.
(i) Write IUPAC names of the following: (2)
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 4
Answer:
(a) 2 – Methyl pentan-3-ol
(b) 4 – Oxo pentanoic acid

(ii). Identify groups with +R electron displacement effect from the following: (1)
-Cl, -COOH, -NO2, -NH2
Answer:
-NH2, -Cl

Answer any 6 questions from 29 to 40. Each carries 4 scores. (6*4 = 24)

Question 29.
(i) State Heisenberg uncertainty principle. (2)
Answer:
It is impossible to measure both position and momentum of a moving microscopic particle.
Simultaneously and accurately

(ii) Name any four spectral lines of hydrogen atom.(2)
Answer:
Lyman series, Balmer series, Paschen series, Bracket series, Pfund series.

Question 30.
(i) Write the conclusions of Rutherford Alpha ray scattering experiment. (2)
Answer:
1. All atom has a small positively charged . nucleus at its centre.
2. Electrons are revolving round the nucleus.

(ii) Write two demerits of Rutherford atom model.(2)
Answer:
Demerits of Rutherford atom model are:
1. It couldn’t explain the stability of an atom.
2. It couldn’t explain the electronic structure of an atom.

Question 31.
(i) Write any two postulates of VSEPR theory. (2)
Answer:
1. The valence electron repel each other.
2. The repulsions are in the order lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp

(ii) Hydrogen bonds are of two types, which are they? Write one example for each. (2)
Answer:
(a) Intermolecular-H-bonding eg.
H20, HF, NH3
(b) Intramolecular – H bonding eg.
O-nitrophenol

Question 32.
(i) Hybridisation of Carbon in CH4 is
(A) sp2
(B) sp
(C) sp3
(D) sp3d (1)
Answer:
(C) sp3

(ii) Write any two characteristics of hybridisation.(1)
Answer:
(a) The number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to the number of atomic orbitals undergo hybridisation.
(b) The hybrid orbitals are always equivalent in energy and in identical shape.

(iii) O2 molecule is paramagnetic, explain using M.O. theory. (2)
Answer:
Due to the presence of unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital.

Question 33.
(i) Predict the effect of change of pressure in the following equilibrium: (2)
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 5
Answer:
No influence of pressure. Because no. of moles of reactant molecules and product molecules are equal.

(ii) Name and state the law used to predict effect of change in pressure in an equilibrium. (2)
Answer:
LeChatlier’s principle statment
It states that if a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in concentration temperature, or pressure then the equillibrium shifts automatically in the direction that tends to nullify the effect of the change.

Question 34.
(i) Write Arrhenius concept of Acids and Bases. (2)
Answer:
According Arrhenius concept of Acids and Bases Compounds with H+ are called acids.
eg. HCl, HNO3
Compounds with OH are called bases
eg. NaOH, KOH

(ii) Write conjugate acid and conjugate base of the following:
(a) H2O
(b) NH2 (2)
Answer:
(a) H3O+ conjugate acid
OH conjugate base

(b) NH4+ conjugate acid
NH2 congugate base

Question 35.
(i) What is diborane? (1)
Answer:
Hydride of boron

(ii) Name two types of bonds present in diborane molecule. (1)
Answer:

  • Covalent bond 4 B-H bonds
  • two 3 centered 2 electron bond or banana bond or two B-H-B bonds

(iii) Name two manmade silicates. (2)
Answer:
Asbestose, cements, glass

Question 36.
(i) Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas. Why? (2)
Answer:
Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin to form carboxy haemoglobin. Which do not carry oxygen to the cell. This leads to death.

(ii) Name any two crystalline allotropes of carbon.(2)
Answer:
Diamond, Graphite

Question 37.
(i) Name any two elements detected by Lassaigne’s test. (2)
Answer:
Nitrogen, Halogen, Sulphur

(ii) Write two difference between Homolysis and Heterolysis. (2)
Answer:

Homolysis Heterolysis
Fission occurs in such a way that epch atom in the bond gets one electron Fission occurs in such a way that electrons are with one atom only
As a result of homqlysis free radicals are formed. As a result of heterolysis, positive and negative ions are formed.

Question 38.
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 6
(a) Identify A and B. (1)
(b) Which is the major product in the above reaction? (1)
(c) Name and state the rule which decides the major product in the above reaction. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 13

Markownikoffs rule.
The negative part of the addendum will move to the carbon atom which contains less number of hydrogen.

Question 39.
(i) Draw Newman’s projection formula for the conformers of ethane molecule. (2)
Answer:
Kerala Plus One Chemistry Question Paper Sep 2021 with Answers 14

(ii) Which conformer of ethane is more &Sbte?”Give reason. (2)
Answer:
Staggered.
Due to less repulsion between electrons.

Question 40.
(i) Name two gases responsible for greenhouse effect. (2)
Answer:
CO, CH4

(ii) List two harmful effects of Acid rain. (2)
Answer:
Skin cancer, skin burning, pH change aquatic life affects.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf September 2021 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Paper September 2021

Questions from 1 to 11, answer for 16 scores.(16)

Question 1.
Name the First Chief Election Commissioner of Free India. (1)
Answer:
SukumarSen

Question 2.
Fundamental Rights are included in part of the Constitution. (II, III, IV).
Answer:
III

Question 3.
Identify the process by which the President of India is removed. (1)
a. Impeachment,
b. Quorum,
c. Jerrymandering
Answer:
Impeachment

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 4.
is an example of All India Service. (1)
(a) Indian Administrative Service
(b) Indian Foreign Service
(c) Indian Revenue Service
Answer:
Indian Administrative Service

Question 5.
Name the case in which the Judiciary advanced the
theory of basic structure. (1)
a) Golak Nath Case
b) Kesavananda Bharati Case
c) Minerva Mill Case
Answer:
Kesavananda Bharati case

Question 6.
Identify the Amendment related to Urban Local Government (Nagarapalikas)
Answer:
74th

Question 7.
Complete the chart showing the Civil Services in India.
Answer:
All India Serive, State Service

Question 8.
Certain subjects related to Union list, State List and Concurrent list are given below. Arrange them appropriately in the table. (War and Peace, Education, Agriculture, Police, Banking, Forest)

Union List State List Concurrent List

Answer:

Union List State List Concurrent List
War and peace Agriculture Education
Banking Police Forest

Question 9.
Identify the following rights and write them in the appropriate columns. (Right to life, Right to vote, Right to work, Right to get adequate wages, Right to property, Right to contest elections)

Political Right Economic Right Civil Right

Answer:

Political Right Economic Right Civil Right
Right to vote Right to work Right to life
Right to contest elections Right to get adequate wages Right to property

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 10.
Some books and authors are given in the table. Match them properly.

Books Authors
On Liberty Nelson Mandela
Freedom from Fear Mahatma Gandhi
Hind Swaral J .S.MilI
Long Walk to Freedom Auna San Suu Kyi

Answer:

Books Authors
On Liberty J .S.MilI
Freedom from Fear Auna San Suu Kyi
Hind Swaral Mahatma Gandhi
Long Walk to Freedom Nelson Mandela

Answer any four questions from 12 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
Some borrowed provisions of Indian Constitution from other countries are given below. Arrange them properly in the table.
[(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity (c) Law making procedure (d) Directive Principles of State Policy]

Country Borrowed Provisions
Britain
USA (America)
France
Ireland

Answer:

Country Borrowed Provisions
Britain Law making procedure
USA (America) Fundamental rights
France Liberty, equity and paternity
Ireland Directive principles of state policy

Answer any four questions from 12 to 21. Each carries 3 scores. (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 12.
What is the significance of studying Political theory?
Answer:

  1. The study of Political Theory mould better citizens get aware of the rights and duties.
  2. To develop basic knowledge about political ideals and institutions.
  3. Make the citizens aware of the Political concepts helps students in various intellectual activities.

Question 13.
Our Constitution can be amended in three different methods. Write these methods.
Answer:

  1. Simple majortiy
  2. Special majority
  3. Special majority with ratification of states

Question 14.
Identify the major criticisms levelled against Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Unwidely
  2. Unrepresentative
  3. Alien document

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 15.
Explain the discretionary powers of the President of India.
Answer:

  1. The president can send back the advices given by the council of ministers for reconsideration.
  2. President can without or send back the bill for reconsideration.
  3. Discretion in choosing the Prime Minister when there is a hung Parliment.

Question 16.
What do you mean by independence of judiciary?
Answer:

  1. Independence of Judiciary means the judiciary must be able to discharge its duties and responsibilities without fear, freely and impartially.
  2. The other organs of the govt must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary.
  3. The other organs of the govt should not interfere with the decisions of the juciciary.

Question 17.
Write three measures for promoting equality.
Answer:

  1. Establishing formal eqality
  2. Equality through different treatment
  3. Affirmative action

Question 18.
Mention three limitations of Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Indian Constitution has a centralised idea of national unity.
  2. Constitution keeps silence regarding some important issues of gender justice, particularly within the family.
  3. Certain basic socio-economic rights were relegated to the section on directive principles, rather than made an integral feature of fundamental rights.

Question 19.
Write any two merits and. two demerits of judicial activism.
Answer:

  1. Merits
    • Expanded the idea of rights hence judiciary became more people friendly.
    • Democratized the judicial system
    • Involvement of judiciary in portection of rights of the poor environment etc.
  2. Demerits
    • It has overburdened the courts
    • Create ‘issues in the relation between legislative, ‘ executive and judiciary.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 20.
Briefly explain the relationship between Rights and Duties.
Answer:
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Firstly rights us to think not just of our own personal needs compel and interest but to defend somethings as being good for all of us. Secondly it compelled an individual to respect the rights of others. Thirdly, we must balance our rights when they come into conflict.

Question 21.
Indian Constitution is a living document-comment.
Answer:

  1. Indian Constitution keeps responding to the situations and circumstances arising from time to time.
  2. Indian Constitution responds to experiences
  3. Constitution is dynamic open to interpretations evolving ober time to time.

Answer any 4 questions from 22 to 30. Each carries 4 scores. (4 × 4 = 16)

Question 22.
Narrate the Harm principle of J.S. Mill.
Answer:
The concept of Harm principle was developed by John Stuart Mill. He explains the idea of harm principle in his book ‘on liberty’. J.S. Mill divided the human activity into self regarding activities and other regarding activities. Self regarding activities affect the individual concerned and other regarding actions affect others. If the other regarding actions may harm to others, it should be restricted. This is known as Harm Principle.

Question 23.
Explain the original and appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction
In the following cases the supreme court has original jurisdiction.

  1. Conflicts between the centre and one or more states.
  2. Conflicts between the centre and a state or states are on one side and a state or states on the opposite side.
  3. Conflicts between states
  4. Issues connected with the election of the president and vice president.

Applelate Jurisdiction
The supreme court is the highest Applleate court in India. Its applleate jurisdiction can be divided into three constitutional, civil and criminal cases.

Question 24.
Explain the role of Prime Minister in India.
Answer:

  1. Prime Minister has a significant role in the cabinet Administrative system.
  2. The Prime Minister is the first among equals, in Latin it means ‘Primus inter pares’.
  3. The Prime Minister is the leader of his party in the parliament. By that he controls the members of his party.
  4. Prime Minister is the leader of the Lok Sabha.
  5. Prime Minister head of the cabinet.
  6. Prime Minister is a link between the president and the cabinet.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 25.
Suggest any four measures for reforming Indian Electocal System.
Answer:

  1. Flection system should be changed from first post past system to proportional representation system.
  2. Ensure special provision for representation of women.
  3. Candidates with criminal case should be barred from contesing election.
  4. Complete ban on the use of caste and religious appeals in the campaign.
  5. State funding of election expenses.

Question 26.
Prepare a note on social cost of development.
Answer:
The social costs of development are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated else where. Because of the loss of their homes and land the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional jobs and cultural life too.

Question 27.
List out the special powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

  1. Lok Sabha
    • Money Bills first introduced and it has the power to reject money bills.
    • No-confidence motion introduced in Lok Sabha.
  2. Raiva Sabha
    • Approved of Rajya Sabha is necessary to shift a subject from state list to other.
    • Any resolution seeking the creation of All India Services can only be initiated in Rajya Sabha.

Question 28.
Briefly explain any two dimensions of equality.
Answer:
Political Equality. Political equality implies that all citizens have similar political right, an equal voice in the government and equal voice in the government and equal access to all offices of the government. Political equality involves right to vote, right to contest elections, right to hold public offices and right to criticise the government.

Economic Equality: Economic equality means all should enjoy the wealth of the state eqully. It also implies abolition of poverty. Right to work, right to adequate wages, equal pay for equal work, right to leisure, right to social security etc are examples of economic equality.

Question 29.
Write any four functions of a Legislature.
Answer:

  1. Legislative functions: The major function of the legislative is to make laws. It involves first reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage and third reading.
  2. Control of executive: Through discussions and debates, approving of rejecting the laws, control through finances, and no-confidence motion etc are different ways to control of executive.
  3. Financial functions: Presenting financial and non-financial bills and making laws passing resolutions on the budget and financial accounts are major financial functions.
  4. Electoral functions: Elects the president and vice -president

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 30.
Compare parliamentary executive and presidential executive.
Answer:

  1. Parliamentary Executive
    • In a parliamentary executive the nominal executive is the head of the state and real executive is the head of the government.
    • The executive is responsible to the legislature.
    • Ministers have collective responsibility to the parliament.
  2. Presidential Executive
    • In presidential executive, the head of the state and head of the government is the same person.
    • The pari iament has no control over the president.
    • The executive and legislative stand separately

Answer any 4 questions from 31 to 38. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 31.
Explain briefly five functions of a Constitution.
Answer:
Co-ordination and assurance

  1. Specification of decision making power
  2. Limitations on the power of the government
  3. Aspirations and goals of a society
  4. Fundamental identity of the people.

Question 32.
Prepare a note on Universal Citizenship and Global Citizenship.
Answer:

  • Universal citizenship
    1. Although many states may support the idea of universal and indusive citizenship, each of them also fixes criteria for the grant of citizenship.
    2. These would generally be written into the constitution and laws of the country. The problem of stateless people is an important one confronting the world today.
  • Global citizenship
    1. Global citizenship connects the people of different parts of the world through the means of communication.
    2. Global citizenship acquires sympathies to help the victims of flood, war, terrorism etc.
    3. Gloal citizenship, though does not exist it is a sense to be linked to each other across national boundaries.

Question 33.
The Constitution of India create a strong Central Government. Briefly explain five provisions that make Central Government more strong.
Answer:

  1. Existence of a state including its territorial integarity is in the hands of the parliament.
  2. Strong emergency powers
  3. Effective financial powers and responsibilities of the control government.
  4. Role of govemnors.
  5. Powers of the central government to make legislation on matters from state list.
  6. Integrated administrative system.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 34.
Compare Indian Secularism and Western Secularism.
Answer:
Indian Secularism

  1. Religious reforms will be encouraged.
  2. Equality among different seats of a religion is stressed.
  3. Completely avoid the mutual interference of religion and government.
  4. Equality among religious groups is very important.
  5. Individual and his rights are the most crucial.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the law making procedure in India.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to pass through 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.

a) First Reading: This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favour of the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial,”there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reading.

b) Second Reading: This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated for getting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

c) The Committee Stage: This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

d) Report Stage: This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may take quite sometime. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

e) Third Reading: This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Question 36.
Briefly explain different forms of structural violence.
Answer:

  1. Caste System: The traditional caste system treated certain groups of people as untouchable. This leads to social exclusion and inequality.
  2. Patriarchy: Partiarchy entails a form of social organisation that results in the systematic subordination or discrimination against women. Colonalism: Colonalism is a prolonged and direct subjugation of people by an alien country.
  3. Racism and communalism: These two are involved the stigmatisation and oppression of an entire racial group or community.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 37.
Explain the following political philosophies of Indian Constitution.
(a) Individual freedom
(b) Social justice
Answer:
Individual freedom: Freedom means providing an atmosphere where a person has opportunities to develop his individuality. It is when a person can take independent decisions and act independently we say there is freedom. A person should not be controlled by external forces also means when persons are able to increase their capabilities and qualities.

Social Justice: Social justice means that all the members of the society are equal. Social justice ensures that all the people in the nation are given equal opportunities and equal consideration. Social justice does not approve any discrimination on the basis of religion, caste, colour or gender.

Question 38.
Explain John Rawl’s theory of justice.
Answer:
John Rawls is an American philosopher. In his book The Theory of Justice’, he put forward 2 principles regarding the Theory of Justice. They are as follows:

  1. In the broad framework of basic freedom, according to the freedom of all individuals, each person should have equal opportunity.
  2. Social and economic inequalities should be tackled in two ways:

a) For the maximum benefit of those who are least favoured, there should be reservations.

b) We should be guided by our discretionary powers and not morality when it comes to the distribution of government jobs so that the underprivileged get extra consideration. Rawls does not give us predetermined moral criteria or goals., He give s us freedom to determine what is the best in the given circumstances. This is what makes Rawls’ theory very significant and an inevitable means of approaching the problem of law and justice.

Answer any 2 questions from 39 to 42. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 39.
Prepare an essay on Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
Answer:
The +1 Political Science students of Kasargod Government HSS organized a seminar on the topic ‘Fundamental Rights’. Prior to the seminar, the students were divided into 6 groups and they discussed the topic. The leaders of each group presented the ideas of their group.

Contents:
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel
  5. Right to have shelter
  6. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  7. Protection from undue punishment
  8. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  9. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:
a) The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
b) The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.

Article 25 – Theiright to accept any religion and propagate it.
Article 26 – To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
Article 27 – The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted. Article 28 – To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

f) Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of theirfundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2021 with Answers

Question 40.
Briefly explain the features of 73rd Constitutional amendment.
Answer:
The 73rd Amendment Act made the Panchayat Raj a Constitutional system.

  1. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  2. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  3. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  4. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  5. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  6. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government. Based on the  population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs.

One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.

  1. Reservations are by rotation.
  2. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed.
  3. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.
  4. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.

The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper September 2021 with Answers

Question 41.
Indian Parliament controls the executive through’ various measures. Explain in detail, these measures by considering the following hints. Hints:
• Deliberation and Discussion
• Approval or refusal of laws
• Financial control
• No confidence motion
Answer:

  1. Discussions and debates.
  2. Approving of rejecting the laws.
  3. Control through finances
  4. Motion of No-Confidence

Question 42.
Discuss any four factors which help the formation of a nation.
Answer:
Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors of the political theory prevalent in the nation. The nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Indian nationalism is the feeling that we all are Indians. Without nationalism, no new nation can originate or survive. It is nationalism that supplies the basis for the building up of a nation. Loyalty to the nation, its strength, its power and its working and the legality etc. are emotions that are generated in the minds of people. In the background of nationalism, the com mon behaviour of a nation can be analysed. Nationalism includes national styles, national expectations, national goals, national conflicts, national anthem, national flower, national flag and national symbol. Toynbee has said that Nationalism is the religion of the modern nation.

Factors that nourish Nationalism:
a) Shared Beliefs: It is some beliefs that help the formation of a nation. Nation is not a concrete thing like a building, river or forest that we can that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic values, too much of religion may prove a threat.

see and touch. Nation is a concept built around certain beliefs of the people. When we say that a people are a nation, we do not mean their physical behaviour. Nation is a vision and a collective fellowship of people who wish to have their own separate identity. It is like a group of a team. They work for a common goal in a common fellowship. A natiftn can exist only as long as the people are deeply rooted in unity.

b) History: A people who consider themselves as a nation have a sense of a continuous historical existence. It is something that they can look back with pride and look forward to with hope. They have a common history based collective memories, legends and historical documents. Thus they acquire individuality as a nation. We can take our Indian nationalist leaders as examples. We point out our ancient civilization, cultural heritage and other past achievements, thus making a unique identify of our own.

c) Territory: Territory is another essential aspect of a nation. A nation has a separate area of land. There people will have lived together for long, shared their past, bringing a common identity to them. It helps them to think that they are one nation. That is why they can talk about their own country of birth.

d) Shared political ideals: Apart from the sense of a common history and some territory of their own, the people of a nation are persuaded to think of unity because of their common vision and goal for the future. They have some ideals quite peculiar to them and these also make a nation different from others.

e) Common Political Identity: Many people think that just because individuals have a common ‘political vision regarding the society and the government, they can’t form a nation. They feel that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic values, too much of religion may prove a threat.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf June 2022 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Paper June 2022

From questions 1 to 11 answer for 16 Scores. (16)

Question 1.
Members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of years. (4, 5, 6)
Answer:
6

Question 2.
Identify the agency which conducts elections to local self-governments in India.
(a) Election Commission of India
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Local Self Government Department
Answer:
(b) State election commission

Question 3.
Which of the following is the book of Nelson Mandela?
(a) Freedom from fear
(b) Long walk to freedom
(c) The Satanic verses
Answer:
(b) Long walk to freedom

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 4.
The concept ‘Veil of ignorance’ is presented by ______ .
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) Plato
(c) John Rawls (1)
Answer:
(c) John Rawls

Question 5.
The German Philosopher who glorified war
(Friedrich Nietzsche, Walter Benjamin, Immanuel Kant)
Answer:
Friedrich Nietzsche

Question 6.
Give the expansion of UNDP (1)
Answer:
United Nations Development Programme

Question 7.
Complete the flow chart: (2)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2023 with Answers - 1
Answer:
Central services, State services

Question 8.
Complete the flow chart: (2)
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2023 with Answers - 2
Answer:
Appellate, Advisory/write

Question 9.
Arrange the following items in the appropriate columns:
(Agriculture, Defence, Education, Banking, Prison, Forest)

Union list State list Concurrent list

Answer:

Union list State list Concurrent list
Defence, Banking Agriculture, Prison Education, forest

Question 10.
Match the following:
First Past the Post – Britain Fundamental Rights – USA Quasi Federal Form – Canadian Directive Principles – Irish

A B
First Past the Post USA
Fundamental Rights Britain
Quasi Federal Form Irish
Directive Principles Canadian

Answer:

A B
First Past the Post Britain
Fundamental Rights USA
Quasi Federal Form Canadian
Directive Principles Irish

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 11.
Fill in appropriate columns:
(Right to vote, Reasonable conditions of work, Right to adequate wage, Right to contest election.) (4)

Political Rights Economic Rights

Answer:

Political Rights Economic Rights
Right to vote Reasonable condition of work
Right to contest election Right to adequate wages

Answer any four questions from 12 to 18. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 12.
Explain any three functions of Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Constitution allows co-ordination and assurance
  2. Specification of decision making power
  3. Limitations on the power of government
  4. Aspirations and goals of a society
  5. Fundamental identity of the people (Any three points may be considered)

Question 13.
Find out the three reasons behind the adoption of the First Past Post System in India.
Answer:

  1. First Past Post System is a simple system of election without any complexities.
  2. The voter had the right to elect any candidate for his choice.
  3. The First Past Post System is suitable for a vast country like India.

Question 14.
Write any three discretionary powers of President of India.
Answer:

  1. Send back the advice given by the council of ministers for reconsideration.
  2. Veto power – Withhold or refuse a bill
  3. Appointment of the Prime Minister, when no party claims clear majority in Lok Sabha

Question 15.
Why do we need two houses of Parliament in India? Explain.
Answer:

  1. Large size and diversity of the country
  2. Representation of all geographical areas
  3. Possible to have every decision reconsidered

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 16.
Identify any three differences between Western Secularism and Indian Secularism.
Answer:

  1. Indian Secularism
    • State supported religions reforms
    • Religious freedom to minorities
    • State gives financial aid to religion
  2. Western secularism
    • Complete separation of state and religion
    • Absence of state intervention in religious matters
    • Less attention to community based rights.

Question 17.
Explain any three forms of Structural Violence.
Answer:

  1. Untouchability: The traditional caste system treated certain groups of people as asprisya or untouchable. The practice of untouchability leads to social exclusion and deprivation of one section of society.
  2. Patriarchal society: Patriarchy entails a form social organization that results in the systematic subordination and discrimination against women. Racism: Racism and communalism involve the stigmatization and oppression of an entire racial group or community.

Question 18.
Discuss the Social Cost of Development.
Answer:
The social costs of development are quite high. Because of the construction of huge dams, industrial works, mining and such other things many people had to be sent away from their abodes and they had to be rehabilitated elsewhere. Because of the loss of their homes and land, the people lose their means of livelihood and poverty is the result. They lose their traditional job skills. They also lose their cultural moorings. For example, for the development of the Kannur airport many families had to be evacuated.

Answer any four questions from 19 to 24. Each carries 4 scores.

Question 19.
Write the article in the Indian Constitution which deals with amendment procedure. Explain the three methods of amendment procedure of Indian Constitution.
Answer:

  1. Article 368 of the constitution
  2. Simple majority – eg: formation of new states and formation and dissolving of state legislative councils etc.
  3. Special majority – eg: fundamental rights, directive principles.
  4. Special majority + majority of not less than half of the state legislative assemblies eg. Selection of president, Executive powers of the center and states etc.

Question 20.
Identify the importance of studying Political Theory.
Answer:
We study the following in political theory:
a) Political theory handles ideas and principles that formulate the Constitution, government and social life.
b) It examines the importance of ideas like Rule of Law, Division of Authority and Judicial Review.
c) It explains the meaning of freedom, equality, democracy and secularism.
d) It also discusses the origin of government, development, formation, activities, the relations between people and the government and people’s rights and responsibilities.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 21.
Explain differences between negative liberty and positive liberty.
Answer:
Freedom means free from all kinds of control. If this is put into practice, there will be jungle law which is might is right. The strong will dominate the weak and the strongest man will have to be revered by all in the society. Since this negative concept of freedom is not acceptable, the nation has to control freedom. The positive concept of freedom is the removal of obstacles. Negative freedom will lead the nation to an undesirable state. Positive freedom will help in the progress of the nation and the protection of the rights of all individuals.

Question 22.
What is equality? Identify three dimensions of equality
Answer:
Equality is the situation where everybody gets the same rights. Equality wants all persons to be equal before the law and everybody should be given the same kind of legal protection.

a) Political Equality : To ensure political equality in a society, people should have the opportunities to take part in active politics. Only if they have the right – to play their role in the affairs the nation, there will be political equality there. They should have following rights:

  1. To participate in the election of the government.
  2. To contest in the elections.
  3. The right to hold public office.
  4. The right to creatively criticise the government through the print and electronic media and through speeches.
  5. The right to criticise the government using any legal medium.
  6. The right to form political parties.

b) Economic Equality: The meaning of Economic Equality is that all citizens must be able to enjoy the nation’s resources equally. This is important for the eradication of poverty. To achieve Economic Equality, the following should be ensured:

  1. Make circumstances so that all citizens can earn their livelihood.
  2. All citizens should have enough income to meet their needs.
  3. There should be no gross inequality in wealth in the society.
  4. There should be no economic exploitation of man by man.
  5. The distribution of the means of production and wealth should be controlled, aiming at the welfare of all in the society.

c) Social Equality : This means that all in the society have equal social status. Nobody should have special rights. All should have opportunities to develop their personality. In short, nobody should be given any special consideration in name of caste, religion, race or riches. The Human Rights Declaration by the UN is good for ensuring social equality.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 23.
Explain the concept of Justice. Identify three Principles of Justice.
Answer:
Justice means equal consideration to all individuals in society. Justice implies that equal opportunity and equal treatment irrespective of caste, colour, creed, sex and place of birth. The three principle of justice are:
a) Equal treatment for Equals
b) Proportionate Justice
c) Recognition of special needs

Question 24.
All citizens may be granted equal rights, but all may not be able to equally exercise them. Explain this with conditions of slum dwellers and tribal people.
Answer:
The issuing conditions of Slum dwellers and tribal people are very pathetic, even all citizens may be granted equal rights.
Poor conditions of rooms, lack of toilets, water facility. Lack of proper sanitation and insecurity are the problem of slum dwellers. Absence of proper education and medical facilities, poor living conditions, social stigma, Alcoholism etc. are the problems of the tribal community.

Answer any four questions from 25 to 30. Each carries 5 scores. (4 × 5 = 20)

Question 25.
Indian election system have many drawbacks. Give your suggestions to reform the electoral system in India.
Answer:
The major suggestions to reform the electoral system of India are:-
a) Change First Past Post System to Proportional Representation System
b) More women representation in elections
c) Control the use of money in elections
d) The role of caste, religion in elections may be restricted.
e) Ban the excessive involvement of criminals from politics

Question 26.
A bill has to pass through various stages before it becomes a law. Explain the law making procedure in Indian Parliament.
Answer:
Legislative Procedure in India: The procedure for passing the bills in the Parliament is explained in articles 107 to 122. According to that each bill has to pass through 5 phases including 3 readings in the Houses.

a) First Reading : This is the presentation of the bill. After getting the permission of the House, a member presents the bill with a statement. If the bill faces opposition, the one who presented the bill and the one objecting it is given opportunity to explain their stands. If the majority votes in favour of the Bill, it is published in the Government Gazette. If the bill is not very controversial, there is a precedent that there is no discussion in the first reading.

b) Second Reading : This is the 2nd phase. At this stage, all the important points of the bill are discussed. The presenter will ask the House to consider it urgently. Or he may request the bill to be sent to a Select Committee or a Joint Committee of both the Houses for consideration. He may also ask the bill to be circulated for getting public opinion. Normally the bill is sent to a Select Committee.

c) The Committee Stage : This is the 3rd stage. The members to this Committee are appointed by the House. The Committee Chairman decides the time, date and venue of the meeting. The Select Committee will have members from the Opposition. The Members study the bill clause by clause and prepares a report to be presented in the House.

d) Report Stage : This is the 4th stage. The presenter asks the House to discuss the bill on the day it is scheduled for discussion. The Report may be unanimous or with differences in opinion. In the light of the Report, the House discusses each condition in the bill. This discussion may, take quite some time. Each item in the bill is discussed extensively and then it is put to vote. During this time serious changes may happen in the bill and therefore this is the most crucial stage.

e) Third Reading : This is the last stage. On the appointed day the bill is presented in the House for final approval. No serious change is brought at this stage. Changes may be orally presented and quickly resolved. At the end of the discussion ‘ the bill is put to vote. If the bill receives favourable vote from the majority of members present and voting, the bill is deemed to have passed. Then the bill is sent to the second House.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 27.
Indian Judiciary is considered as independent and impartial. Discuss the provisions which ensures the Independence of Judiciary in India.
Answer:
The following are the major provisions to ensure the independence of judiciary in India.

  1. Appointment of Judges
  2. Fixed tenure
  3. Absence of financial interdependence
  4. Protection from criticism
  5. Independence of judiciary from executive and legislature

Question 28.
Explain the major features of 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment made Panchayati Raj Constitutional.

  1. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village-Block- District level Panchayats in all the States.
  2. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  3. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  4. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zila Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  5. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the tjilock Panchayat.
  6. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  7. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation forSCs and STs.

One-third of the seats are reserved for ladies. Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs.

  1. One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.
  2. Reservations are by rotation,
  3. The duration for all Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new. committees are to be formed.
  4. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission, o- It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.

The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Question 29.
Explain the factors wNch conffibute the development of nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors of the political theory prevalent in the nation. The nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Factors that nourish Nationalism:

a) Shared Beliefs: It is some beliefs that help the ‘ formation of a nation. Nation is not a concrete thing like a building, river or forest that we can see and touch. Nation is a concept built around certain beliefs of the people. When we say that a people are a nation, we do not mean their physical behaviour. Nation is a vision and a collective fellowship of people who wish to have their own separate identity. It is like a group of a team. They work for a common goal in a common fellowship. A nation can exist only as long as the people are deeply rooted in unity.

b) History: A people who consider themselves as a nation have a sense of a continuous historical existence. It is something that they can look back with pride and look forward to with hope. They have a common history based collective memories, legends and historical documents. Thus they acquire individuality as a nation. We can take our Indian nationalist leaders as examples. We point out our ancient civilization, cultural heritage and other past achievements, thus making a unique identify of our own.

c) Territory: Territory is another essential aspect of a nation. A nation has a separate area of land. There people will have lived together for long, shared their past, bringing a common identity to them. It helps them to think that they are one nation. That is why they can talk about their own country of birth.

d) Shared political ideals: Apart from the sense of a common history and some territory of their own, the people of a nation are persuaded to think of unity because of their common vision and goal for the future. They have some ideals quite peculiar to them and these also make a nation different from others.

e) Common Political Identity: Many people think that just because individuals have a common political vision regarding the society and the government, they can’t form a nation. They feel that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the Same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic values, too much of religion may prove a threat.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 30.
Explain the major criticisms levelled against Indian Secularism.
Answer:
“Criticism of Indian Secularism”.
a) Anti-Reliaious: Some people argue that secularism is anti-religious. The reason for this belief is the fact that secularism is against the dominance of established powerful religions. But this and anti-religion are quite different. Some people also argue that secularism is a threat to individual’s religion. This also is wrong. Secularism nourishes religious freedom. It is not a threat to a person’s religion or his beliefs. But secularism is against certain questionable practices like propagating violence, intolerance and fanaticism. Secularism encourages the good things in religion but opposes the bad things.

b) Western Import: Another criticism is that Indian secularism is related to Christianity. It means secularism is something Western and it is inappropriate with Indian circumstances. This s a strange argument. Don’t we see thousands of things around us which are not Indian?

If people say that when a country is secular it should have its own goal it is good and relevant. Western secularism came as a challenge to the religious leaders who tried to control the social and political matters of the nation. Then how can it be said that Western secularism is connected to Christianity? Moreover Western secularism asks religion and government to keep their hands off each other. For the idea of separating the state form religion, different societies give different interpretations. A secular government keeps a respectable distance from religion. It is done to maintain peace among different communities. At the same time the government will interfere for the protection of minority rights.

c) Minoritism: This is another criticism that is levelled against Indian secularism. It is true that Indian secularism stands for the rights of minorities. Let’s look at this example: 4 people are travelling in a train. One wants to smoke. Another person objects. The other two are smokers and so they keep quiet. So there is a problem. If a decision is to be taken democratically, and the matter put to vote, the person objecting to smoking will lose. It may look just. But is it just if we look from the angle of the person who objected to smoking? He may be allergic to smoke. Here the voting system does not work. Here the right of minority should be protected.

d) Vote Bank Politics: Another criticism is that Indian secularism encourages vote bank politics. From experience, this criticism is not fully unjustified. It has to be assessed correctly. It is natural that in a democracy politicians seek votes. It is part of their work. They might give some promises to get the votes of certain sections. There is no point in blaming them for that. The real question is why they seek the votes.

It is for selfish interests? Is it for getting into power? Or is it because of their desire to do something for the welfare of certain sections? If the politicians win after getting the votes of some sections and if they fail to do something for them, they will accuse the politicians. In fact if politicians seek the minority votes and win and if they do something for the welfare of the minorities, it should be seen as the success of secularism. One of the goals of secularism is protecting the rights of the minorities.

e) Inerventionist: Critics argue that Indian secularism has a controlling nature and it interferes in the religious freedom of various communities. This is a wrong interpretation of Indian secularism. It is true that Indian secularism does not deny the idea that government should not interfere in religious matters. But it does not approve over-interference in religious affairs. Indian secularism keeps a principled-distance from ‘ religion. This means government may or may not interfere in religious affairs. This interference is not by the use of force. t

f) Impossible Project: Critics say that it is difficult for people with so much of religious differences to live together in peace and therefore secularism is impractical and thus invalid. This is a wrong argument. The history of Indian civilization and that of the Ottoman Empire show that peaceful co-existence is possible even with different religions. Indian secularism has become a model for other countries to emulate. The effects of globalization have helped here. With increased globalization there has been an increased migration of people all over the world. From the ex-colonies people migrated into the Western world. This made religious diversities become strong in Europe, America and some parts of West Asia.

Answer any two questions from 31 to 33. Each carnes 8 scores.

Question 31.
Most of the democratic countries provide a list of rights in their constitution. Describe the Fundamental Rights guaranteed to Indian Citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made dear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is j very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to caINto attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel
  5. Right to have shelter
  6. Right to work, trade, commerce and industry
  7. Protection from undue punishment
  8. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  9. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Articles 23 and 24 guarantees the Right against Exploitation.
  2. Article 23 batls immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  3. Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:
a) The Indian Constitution envisages the nation to be secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
b) The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.

Article 25 : The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
Article 26 : To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
Article 27: The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
Article 28 : To conduct religious instructions in certain institutions.

d) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, & culture.

1) Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d)Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Question 32.
There are many conflicting areas in Federal System in India. Explain them based on the given points.
(a) Centre State relations
(b) Demand for autonomy
(c) Demand for new states
(d) Inter state conflicts
Answer:
The Constitution is merely framework of Federalism. It is the political processes that supply the flesh and blood to it. Therefore the changing political processes are the most important factor that influences Indian federalism. Demand for administrative autonomy: Many States of India are clamouring for greater autonomy. Often this causes rifts between the Centre and the states.

The role of Governors and President’s rule: The role of Governors has caused many rifts between the Centre and the states. Often the Governors have to work as yes-men to the Central Government. Presidential rule in case of Constitutional Emergency is also a matter of conflict. Demand for New States: This is another headache for the Federalism. For example, the demand for Telungana State. Inter-State Conflicts: Sometimes these conflicts grow to such levels that federalism itself is threatened.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper June 2022 with Answers

Question 33.
The political philosophy is contained in Preamble. The most important and precious part of the Constitution is the Preamble. It is the key to the Constitution and the yard stick to measure it. The philosophical and fundamental features of the Constitution are uncovered in the Preamble. The social and economic goals are also seen here. The Indian Constitution is not a mere book of rules. It contains moral values and viewpoints. It has a political philosophy of its own. The ideas in the Constitution should be in the background of the discussions that took place in the Constitutional Assembly.

a) Individual freedom : Our Constitution is very much concerned with Individual freedom. For example we have the Fundamental Rights.

b) Social Justice : The mission of the nation is ensuring Social Justice. The different articles of the Constitution are the means for this. For example Article 16.

c) Respect for Diversity and Minority Rights: The Constitution guarantees the educational and cultural rights of the minorities in India.

d) Secularism: This is the cornerstone of the Indian Constitution. It treats all religions equally.

e) Universal Franchise: The Constitution ensures that all adults of 18 and above have their voting rights without any disfcrimination.

f) Federalism : India is a Federation. The Centre- State relations are defined clearly.

g) National Identity: Our Constitution nurtures both national identity as well as a regional identify simultaneously.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Reviewing Kerala Syllabus Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf March 2023 helps in understanding answer patterns.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2023

Time: 21/2 Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

From questions 1 to 10, answer for 16 scores.

Question 1.
The Constitution of India came into force on
(1949 November 26,1950 January 26,1952 December 26)
Answer:
1950 January 26

Question 2.
The system of proportional representation is used for elections to _____ .
(Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly) (1)
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 3.
Identify the state having bicameral legislature.
(Kerala, Assam, Maharashtra, Punjab)
Answer:
Maharashtra

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 4.
Name the case in which the Judiciary advanced the theory of basic structure of the Constitution.
Answer:
Keshavanand Bharati case

Question 5.
The theory ‘Veil of ignorance’ is associated with whom ?
(Karl Marx, J.S. Mill, John Rawls, Plato)
Answer:
John Rawls

Question 6.
Complete the chart:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers - 1
Answer:
Central service,State service

Question 7.
Complete the pyramid showing the structure of Indian Judiciary:
Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers - 2
Answer:
a) Supreme Court
b) District Court
c) Subordinate Court

Question 8.
Match the following : (3)

Cauvery Punjab and Haryana
Belgaum Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Chandigarh Maharashtra and Karnataka

Answer:

Cauvery Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Belgaum Maharashtra and Karnataka
Chandigarh Punjab and Haryana

Question 9.
Match the following : (4)

Long walk to Freedom Aung San Suu Kyi
Freedom from fear Aubrey Menon
Water Nelson Mandela
Ramayana Retold Deepa Mehta

Answer:

Long walk to Freedom Nelson Mandela
Freedom from fear Aung San Suu Kyi
Water Deepa Mehta
Ramayana Retold Aubrey Menon

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 10.
Fill in the column by using the items given below:
(Right to life, Right to vote, Right to work, Right to Leisure, Right to contest election, Right to property)
Answer:

  • Political Rights
    1. Right to vote
    2. Right to contest election Economic Rights
    3. Right to work
    4. Right to Leisure
  • Civil Rights
    1. Right to life
    2. Right to property

Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 11.
What are the main criticisms levelled against Indian Constitution?
Answer:

  1. Unwieldy
  2. Unrepresentative.
  3. Western Import.
  4. Not suitable for Indian conditions

Question 12.
Write a note on the significance of the study of Political Theory.
Answer:

  1. To Know Political Concepts.
  2. To know about State and Government.
  3. To know the principles like justice, equality and liberty etc.
  4. Systematic thinking.

Question 13.
Briefly explain three dimensions of equality.
Answer:

  1. Political Equality
    Political equality implies that all citizens have similar political rights, equal voice in government equal access to all offices to govt. Right to vote, Contest Election, Criticise Govt., Hold public office, Petition.etc.
  2. Economics Equality Economic equality means all should enjoy the wealth of the state equally Right to work, Equal pay, Leisure, Social Security, Form trade Union etc.
  3. Social Equality
    Social equality means that all are equal units of society. There shall be no discrimination.

Question 14.
Explain three Principles of Justice,
Answer:

  1. Equal treatment for equals:
    • Consider everyone in Society as Equal. This justifies equal treatment and equal rights.
  2. Proportionate Justice:
    • Consider Equals Equally, Unequal Unequally. People are rewarded in proportion to the scale and quality of their efforts.
  3. Recognition of special needs:
    • This principle of justice is the recognition of special needs of the people while distributing rewards. Physical disabilities, Old age, Lack of access to education, Backwardness etc. should be considered for Special Treatment

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 15.
What are the different forms of structural violence ? Explain.
Answer:

  1. Caste System – Exploitation and Untouchability.
  2. Colonialism – Israel domination over Palestine.
  3. Racism – Negro Slavery in USA, Apartheid in South Africa.
  4. Communalism – Conflicts between different religious groups.

Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each carries 4 scores.

Question 16.
Briefly explain about the law making procedure in India.
Answer:

  1. • First Reading.
    1. Introduction of the bill
    2. Second Reading
  2. Basic Principles of the bill are discussed
    1. Committee Stage – Reporting stage
  3. Bill referred to a Select Committee – Detailed examination of the Bill
    1. Third Reading
    2. Final Stage Only verbal amendments
  4.  Approval of President.

Question 17.
What are the safeguards in the Indian Constitution to ensure independence of the judiciary?
Answer:

  1. Mode of appointment
  2. Fixed tenure
  3. No financial dependency
  4. Protection from individual criticism

Question 18.
Identify the Article in the Indian Constitution which deals with amendment procedure. Explain the three methods of amendment procedure of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Article 368 of the constitution.

  1. Simple majority : Some sections of the constitution can be easily amended with a simple majority in the parliament. Eg. Adding new states, formation of new states etc.
  2. Special majority : To amend some sections 2/3 majority is needed.
  3. Special majority with ratification of states than half of the States are required for amending certain provisions.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 19.
Briefly explain any two political philosophies of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
a) Individual freedom : Our Constitution is very much concerned with individual freedom. For example we have the Fundamental Rights.

b) Social Justice: The mission of the nation is ensuring Social Justice. The different articles of the Constitution are the means for this. For example Article 16.

c) Respect for Diversity and Minority Rights: The Constitution guarantees the educational and cultural rights of the minorities in India.

d) Secularism : This is the cornerstone of the Indian Constitution. It treats all religions equally.

e) Universal Franchise : The Constitution ensures that all adults of 18 and above have their voting rights without any discrimination.

f) Federalism : India is a Federation. The Centre-State relations are defined clearly.

g) National Identity : Our Constitution nurtures both national identity as well as a regional identify simultaneously.

Question 20.
What are the ways to attain Indian Citizenship?
Answer:
According to the Indian Citizenship Act, there are 5 ways to acquire Indian Citizenship. They are:

  1. By birth: Anybody born in India on 21 January 1950 or later will be an Indian citizen.
  2. Citizenship by heredity: Anybody born outside India on 21 January 1950 or later will be given Indian citizenship if his father was an Indian citizen at the time of his birth.
  3. Citizenship by Registration: The following can get Indian citizenship through registration:

a) People of Indian origin who have stayed in India continuously for 6 months before submitting the application for registration.
b) People of Indian origin who are staying outside undivided India.
c) Wives of the Indian citizens.
d) Minor children of Indian citizens.
e) Adult citizens of Commonwealth Countries or the Republic of Ireland.

iv) Citizenship through Long Stay: Aforeigner can get Indian citizenship through long stay here subject to certain conditions.
v) Citizenship through regions becoming part of India: If any region becomes part of India, the government has the authority to declare the people of that region as Indian citizens.

Answer any 4 questions from 21 to 25. Each carries 5 scores.

Question 21.
Explain the functions of a constitution,
Answer:

  1. Constitution allows coordination and assurances: The first function of the constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that permit minimal co-ordination among the members of a society.
  2. Specification of decision making powers: The second function of a constitution is to specify which institution has the power to frame and take decision.
  3. Limitation on the powers of the government: The third function of the constitution is to limit the powers of the government. These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never trespass them.
  4. Aspirations and goal of the society: The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfil the aspirations of the society. It should try to create a just society.
  5. Fundamental identity of the people: An important function of the constitution is to give a fundamental identity to the people.

Question 22.
What are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
Answer:
Conducting free and fair election. Preparing electoral roll. Conducting the election of the President, Vice-President, Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 23.
Briefly explain the powers of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:

  1. Head of the Government.
  2. Chairman of the cabinet.
  3. Prime minister forms ministry and decodes the size of portfolio of ministry.
  4. Leader of the party.
  5. Link between president and cabinet.

Question 24.
The Constitution of India creates a strong central government. Explain the provisions that make Central Government stronger.
Answer:

  1. Power of the centre to create new states.
  2. Change the name of the states.
  3. Office of the Governor.
  4. Emergency provisions.
  5. Division of powers.

Question 25.
Explain the differences between Indian Secularism and Western Secularism.
Answer:

Western Secularism Indian secularism
Completely avoid the mutual interference of religion and government. With the support of the government, religious reforms will be encouraged.
Equality among religious groups is very important. Equality among different sects of a religion is stressed.
Care in the affairs of minority rights. Rights based on religious communities won’t be given any importance
Individual and his rights are the most crucial. Rights of individual and also of religious groups will be protected.

Answer any 2 questions from 26 to 28. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 26.
Prepare an essay on Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights
a) Right to Equality: This is the basic tenet of the Indian Constitution. It has been made clear in the Preamble itself. In the past, there was no equality in the Indian society. So the Right to Equality is very important. About the Right to Equality there are clear statements in the 3rd chapter, Articles between 14 and 18. The Right to Equality include the following:

  1. Equality before Law, Equal Protection of Laws
  2. Protection from Discrimination
  3. Equality of Opportunity in employment
  4. Eradication of Untouchability
  5. Non-award of Titles

b) Right to Freedom

  1. Right to talk freely and to express one’s opinion
  2. Right to call to attend meetings
  3. Right to organize
  4. Right to travel Right to have shelter
  5. Righttowork, trade, commerce and industry
  6. Protection from undue punishment
  7. Individual freedom and freedom to live
  8. Protection against illegal arrests and imprisonment

c) Right against Exploitation:

  1. Article 23 bans immoral acts, slavery and bonded labour.
  2.  Child labour is prohibited.

d) Right to Freedom of Religion:
a) The Indian Constitutioh envisages the nation to be.secular and democratic. So it gives religious freedom.
b) The Right to Religion is described in Articles 25-28.

Article 25: The right to accept any religion and propagate it.
Article 26: To make religious institutions and to acquire property.
Article 27: The money used for religious purposes is tax exempted.
Article 28: To conduct religious istructions in certain institutions.

e) Cultural and Educational Rights:

  1. All minorities can establish educational . institutions and run them.
  2. Minorities are given protection in their language, script, and culture.

f) Right to Constitutional Remedies: It is not enough to list a number of rights in the Constitution. For citizens to practise them and protect them against their violations there should be provisions. Right to Constitutional Remedies helps citizens to enjoy their rights. Dr. Ambedkar called this Right as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution. This Right ensures that citizens are guaranteed of their fundamental rights. This gives Constitutional protection to the fundamental rights.

WRITS (Court Orders):
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Writ of Prohibition
d) Certiorari
e) Quo Warranto

Question 27.
Explain the changes brought by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
Answer:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment made Panchayati Raj Constitutional.

  1. It brought a 3-tier system by having Village- Block-District level Panchayats in all the States.
  2. The block level can be avoided if the State has less than 20 lakh population.
  3. The Grama Sabha Concept is also included in the Amendment.
  4. The Chairmen of the Block Panchayat and Zita Parishad will be elected by the concerned Panchayat members.
  5. The local MLAs and MPs will be ex-officio members of the Block Panchayat.
  6. The Chairman of the Grama Sabha will be elected as per the law approved by the State Government.
  7. Based on the population of the place, in all the 3 levels there will be proportionate representation for SCs and STs.

One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.
Proportionate to the population, some Chairmen should be SCs and STs.

  1. One-third of the chairmen will be ladies.
  2. Reservations are by rotation.
  3. The duration for ail Panchayat Raj Institutions is 5 years. After dissolution, elections must be done within 6 months and new committees are to be formed.
  4. The Act makes provision for the appointment of an independent State Election Commission.
  5. It is the Governor who appoints the State Election Commission.

The Act also makes provision for the appointment of a Financial Commission once in 5 years to look into the financial status of the Panchayats and give the Government suggestions.

Kerala Plus One Political Science Question Paper March 2023 with Answers

Question 28.
What are the factors which help in the formation of Nationalism ? Explain.3
Answer:
Nationalism is an emotional and spiritual power that unifies all factors of the political theory prevalent in the nation. The nationalism we see in India is unity in diversity. Indian nationalism is the feeling that we all are Indians. Without nationalism, no new nation can originate or survive. It is nationalism that supplies the basis for the building up of a nation.

Loyalty to the nation, its strength, its power and its working and the legality etc. are emotions that are generated in the minds of people. In the background of nationalism, the common behaviour of a nation can be analysed. Nationalism includes national styles, national expectations, national goals, national conflicts, national anthem, national flower, national flag and national symbol. Toynbee has said that Nationalism is the religion of the modern nation.

Factors that nourish Nationalism:
a) Shared Beliefs: It is some beliefs that help the formation of a nation. Nation is not a concrete thing like a building, river or forest that we can see and touch. Nation is a concept built around certain beliefs of the people. When we say that a people are a nation, we do not mean their physical behaviour. Nation is a vision and a collective fellowship of people who wish to have their own separate identity. It is like a group of a team. They work for a common goal in a common fellowship. A nation can exist only as long as the people are deeply rooted in unity.

b) History : A people who consider themselves as a nation have a sense of a continuous historical existence. It is something that they can look back with pride and look forward to with hope. They have a common history based collective memories, legends and historical documents. Thus they acquire individuality as a nation. We can take our Indian nationalist leaders as examples. We point out our ancient civilization, cultural heritage and other past-achievements, thus making a unique identify of our own.

c) Territory: Territory is another essential aspect of a nation. A nation has a separate area of land. There people will have lived together for long, shared their past, bringing a common identity to them. It helps them to think that they are one nation. That is why they can talk about their own country of birth.

d) Shared political ideals: Apart from the sense of a common history and some territory of their own, the people of a nation are persuaded to think of unity because of their common vision and goal for the future. They have some ideals quite peculiar to them and these also make a nation different from others.

e) Common Political Identity: Many people think that just because individuals have a common political vision regarding the society and the government, they can’t form a nation. They feel that something like a common language or common heredity is necessary to have the drive to form a nation. A common language or a common religion might bring about a common cultural identity. When people celebrate the same feasts on the same day and actively take part in the festivities, they feel some kind of unity. But it is possible that in a democratic set up and democratic.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Teachers recommend solving Kerala Syllabus Plus One Sociology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Pdf Board Model Paper 2021 to improve time management during exams.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers.

Time : 2 1/2 Hours
Total Scores : 80

I. Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 8. Each carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
_______ is a position of an individual in a society or in a group.
Answer:
Status

Question 2.
Bhopal tragedy is an example of disaster.
Answer:
Man-made environmental tragedies

Question 3.
_______ is the dynamic’behavioural aspects of a status.
Answer:
Role

Question 4.
Complete the chart:
Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers- 1
Answer:
Informal

Question 5.
The groups whose life styles are emulated are known as _______.
Answer:
Reference Group

Question 6.
______ the application of one’s own cultural values in evaluating the behaviour and belief of people from other culture.
Answer:
Ethnocentrism

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 7.
Identifying the cartoon of a politician is an example of _____.
Answer:
Cognitive ability

Question 8.
Give an example for revolutionary social change.
Answer:
The French Revolution

II. Answer any three questions from 9 to 14. Each carries scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 9.
What is Psychology?
Answer:

  1. This is the science dealing with the behaviour of a person.
  2. Psychology is the study related to a person.
  3. The subject matters of psychology are a person’s study, intelligence, memory, inspirations, nervous system, reaction time, hopes, expectations, dreams and anxieties.

Question 10.
Explain the term kinship.
Answer:
Kinship is the relation one gets either through marriage or through blood relation. The basis of kinship is marriage or blood connection.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 11.
Write any two characteristics of culture.
Answer:

  1. The style or methods of thoughts, attitudes, beliefs.
  2. The total life style of a people

Question 12.
Give two limitations of interview method.
Answer:

  1. The nature of interview might be disrupted because of the changes in the mental attitude of the respondent. Sometimes the concentration of the interviewer might be lost.
  2. The structure of an interview is unstable and beyond prediction.
  3. When the interview is recorded some important information could be lost.

Question 13.
What is ecology?
Answer:
Ecology is the branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms, including human beings, to one another and to their physical surroundings. Mountains, rivers, plains, oceans, and all the flora & fauna are part of Ecology.
Scientific studies about these this is Environmental Science. Ecology is a branch of it.

Question 14.
Explain the term gentrification.
Answer:
Gentrification is the process by which members of a lower class become members of the middle class or the upper class. This is a phenomenon that happens in urban regions.

III. Answer any 3 questions from 15 to 20. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
a) Name the sociologist who coined the concept sociological imagination.
b) Explain sociological imagination.
Answer:
a) C. Wright Mills
b) It describes how individuals and the society are mutually related.

  1. It is clear awareness about the relation between personal experience and the broader social and historical context.
  2. It is the ability to view a thing socially.
  3. A person with social imagination can take decisions as per the circumstances and thus he is able to move forward.
  4. This helps in the observation of the society based on facts.

Question 16.
Select the appropriate terms from the bracket for the question below.
(Polygyny, Polyandry, Family of orientation, Family of procreation, Monogamy, Polygamy)
a) One man marries one woman at a time.
b) One woman marries more than one man at a time.
c) The family in which an individual is bom.
Answer:
a) Monogamy – One man marries one woman at a time.
b) Polyandry – A woman marries more than one man at a time.
c) Family of Orientation – the family in which an individual is bom.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 17.
Explain the three dimensions of culture.
Answer:
Culture has three dimensions-cognitive, normative and’material.

  1. Cognitive: It is the process by which we give meanings to things after having become aware of them by seeing and hearing them.
  2. Normative: This indicates rules of behaviour.
  3. Material: Any activity using material things is included in this.

Question 18.
List out the basic form of advantages which privilage groups enjoy.
Answer:
a) Opportunities in life
b) Social status
c) Political influence

Question 19.
Why environmental problems are also social problems?
Answer:

  1. Environmental problems often become social problems.
  2. This is connected with social inequality. Therefore environmental problems affect different groups in different ways.
  3. It is social status and power that help people to save themselves from Environmental problems.
  4. But the solutions they find often increase social inequalities.
  5. Some environmental problems are universal. They affect all.

Question 20.
What is the difference between achieved status and ascribed status?
Answer:
The social status one gets by birth and without his will is called ascribed status. Examples – Age, case, gender, race, kinship. All the status one gets through them is ascribed status. In simple and traditional societies, status is ascribed. Acquired status is what one willingly acquires through his capabilities, achievements, values and choices.

IV. Answer any 3 questions from 21 to 26. Each carries 4 scores. (3 × 4 = 12)

Question 21.
Differentiate between Com monsense Knowledge and Sociological Knowledge.
Answer:

Sociological Knowledge Common sense Knowledge
Makes use of scientificmethods. No scientific frame or review of information.
Asks specific questions. No possibility for self reflexivity.
Uses precise methods for studies and collecting data. The findings of Common sense
Findings are subjected to scientific studies and analyses. Knowledge are not questioned.
All knowledge can be questioned. It is not compulsory to believe in Common sense Knowledge.
Tries to find out the truth about knowledge. It can be right or wrong.

Question 22.
Classify the following items into appropriate columns: (Open system, Closed system, Ascribed status, Achieved status, Birth, Rigid, Income, Flexible)
Answer:

Caste Class
Closed system Open System
Ascribed status Acquired status Birth Income
Rigid Flexible

Question 23.
Distinguish between objectivity and subjectivity.
Answer:
Objectivity has no prejudices. It is impartial. Conclusions are based only on facts. When we make an objective approach we can’t give’any consideration to our personal feelings or emotions. Subjectivity is based on personal values and preferences. A person’s emotions and interests are reflected here. A person’s feelings, emotions and interests will be reflected there

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 24.
Write any four challenges to social order in urban areas.
Answer:

  1. Gated community
  2. Gentrification
  3. Homogenization of community
  4. Density of population

Question 25.
Explai n the concept welfare state proposed by A. R. Desai.
Answer:

  1. Welfare state is a creative (positive) state.
  2. It s a democratic state.
  3. It is a state in which there is mixed economy.

Question 26.
Match the following:

A B
Karl Marx Social fact
Emile Durkheim Alienation
Max Weber Rational thinking
Enlightment Social action

Answer:

A B
Karl Marx Alienation
Emile Durkheim Social Fact
Max Weber Social action
Enlightment Rational thinking

V. Answer any 3 questions from 27 to 32. Each carries 5 scores. (3× 5 = 15)

Question 27.
List out the similarities and differences between Sociology and Anthropology.
Answer:

Sociology Anthropology
1. Studies about contemporary societies. 1. Studies primitive societies or simple societies.
2. It is the study of modern and complex societies. It teaches more about Bureaucracy, religion, caste, social dynamism, all of which are part of society. 2. Special studies were based regions where there are simple societies, e.g. Andaman Islands, Melanesia, etc.
3. It makes use of 3. The study method of social anthropologists is field work. They stay with the people about whom they want to study and make researches about their race and other important details.
research methods like survey, questionnaire, etc. to gather data for analysis and making conclusions. , 4. Anthropology studies a society in its entirety. They study all aspects of the society and they study an make appropriate interpretations.
4. Sociologists make complete studies about social institutions like family, marriage, etc. Anthropology

Question 28.
Match the following:

A B
Primary Group School
Secondary Group Family
Peer Group Doctor Doctor
Ascribed status Same age group
Achieved status Caste

Answer:

A B
Primary Group Family
Secondary Group School
Peer Group Doctor Same age Group
Ascribed status Caste
Achieved status Doctor

Question 29.
Distinguish between endogamy and exogamy as rules of marriage.
Answer:

  • Endoaamv
    1. A method in which life partner is chosen from the same community.
    2. Marriage outside the community is not allowed. Example: Marriages of caste, race, tribe groups.
  • Exoaamv
    1. A method in which a person marries from a different community.
    2. This is just opposite to endogamy. This is practised in groups based on caste, religion, race, or region.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 30.
Prepare a short note on cosmopolitanism.
Answer:

  1. Cosmopolitanism recognises and respects the differences in other cultures.
  2. A person with cosmopolitan attitude does not assess people who have other values and beliefs with the criteria of his own culture.
  3. People with cosmopolitan attitude respect and imbibe some of the good things in other cultures and thus make their own culture richer.
  4. It encourages cultural exchanges and borrowings.

Question 31.
Explain the basic features of bureaucracy.
Answer:
a) The working of the officials.
b) Hierarchical division of official positions.
c) Belief in the written documents.
d) Running the Office.
e) Behaviour in the office.

Question 32.
Write short note on:
a) Competition
b) Conflict
Answer:

  • Competition
    1. It is a universal phenomenon.
    2. It is sociological process.
    3. The modern society and the capitalist economy are based on competition.
    4. Capitalists give greater importance to profit and efficiency.
  • Conflict
    1. It is the shortage of resources in the society that leads to conflicts.
    2. The efforts to get resources and control them lead to conflicts.
    3. The fight among different interests is called conflict.

IV. Answer any 3 questions from 33 to 38. Each carries 6 scores. (3 × 6 = 18)

Question 33.
Examine the scope of Sociology.
Answer:
The scope pf sociology is very big.

  1. It studies different types of social relations – at the individual, social, and global level.
  2. The study of sociology helps to have clear cut attitudes.
  3. Sociology gives greater importance to factual knowledge.
  4. It releases people from the narrow-mindedness created by race, class, region, religion, etc.
  5. It discusses social problems like unemployment, caste conflicts, laws that deny the rights of forest dwellers, the entry of foreign universities in the country, etc. and suggests steps to solve them.
  6. It discusses the need for social solidarity.
  7. It discusses various and regional and international issues and things like social- cultural changes, relations, stratification, group, status, population, social organisations, etc.

Question 34.
Explain the role of any three agencies in Social Control.
Answer:
There are many agencies that ensure social control. Family, Peer groups, school and mass media are some of them.

Family:
Socialization starts from the family. Some children live with their parents and siblings in the nuclear family whereas other children live in extended families with many members. In a nuclear family, the parents are the main socializing agents. But in joint or extended families grandparents, uncles etc. also become socializing agents.

  1. In traditional societies, the family into which a child is born decides its social status.
  2. The area of the family into which a child is born and the social class there seriously affect its socialization models. Children imbibe their behaviour and manners from their parents and the people in the neighbourhood.
  3. Some children accept the attitudes of their without questions. This is true especially in the contemporary times.

Peer Groups:
Peer groups are another agency for socialization. Children of the same age who are friendly with one another are the peer groups. Children of 4 or 5 years of age spend a lot of time with their peers.

  1. Peer means equal. The friendliness among children will be based on equality.
  2. Physically stronger children might try to dominate the weaker ones. Still there will be friendship among them and the consequent give and take.

Parents often use their authority to enforce discipline among their children. But in the peer groups they do mutual cooperation. Peer group influence plays a big role in a person’s life. In moulding his nature, life style, attitudes and behaviour, it plays a big role. Schools:
Study in school is a formal process. There is a fixed curriculum there. Even then schools are an important agency of socialization. The knowledge and values the teachers give the students help in their socialization process.

  1. Sociologists point out that along with the curriculum, there is a hidden syllabus which helps their studies.
  2. In India and South Africa, in some schools, the . girls there are expected to keep the classrooms swept and clean.
    In some schools there have been protests against this practice. They showed their protest by making the boys and girls do certain things which are not expected from them by the society.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 35.
Prepare a short note on survey method.
Answer:
In sociology survey is the most-used research method. Information is collected from a group of selected people and in this way a detailed view about the subject becomes available. The people selected for making the study are called respondents.

Question 36.
Explain that resource depletion is a major environ-mental problem.
Answer:

  1. Overuse of natural resources which can’t be recreated or renewed brings about resource depletion.
  2. The petroleum that is taken from underground depletes fast.
  3. Overexploitation of water and earth and the lowering of the underground water cause serious resource depletion.
  4. The topsoil has been formed as a result of the work of many, many years. Its loss causes soil erosion, stagnant water pools like marshy land and saltif ication of the surface.

Question 37.
Explain the six features of caste system emphasised by G.S. Ghurye.
Answer:
a) Segmental division of society.
b) Hierarchy or stratification
c) Civil & religious disabilities and privileges.
d) Lack of unrestricted choice of occupation.
e) Restriction on food, drinks & social contacts
I) Marriage restrictions.

Question 38.
Distinguish between Mechanical Solidarity and Or-ganic Solidarity.
Answer:

Mechanical Solidarity Organic Solidarity
This is a feature of primitive societies. It is a feature of complex industrial society.
Similarity is the reason for unity. Dissimilarity (Diversity) is the reason for unity.
Exits in small communities. Exists in larger communities.
Self-sufficient Not self-sufficient
Differences between them will be less. Division of labour is more.
Division of labour is less. People live depending on others.
Believes, emotionality, sense of righteousness make them united. Individual are given importance.
Laws are subject to corrections and changes.

VII. Answer any 2 questions from 39 to 42. Each carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 39.
a) Explain the concept family (2)
b) Examine the different forms of family based on rule of residence, authority and tradition. (6)
Answer:
a) • Family is the basic unit of the society.
• The most important primary group in the society is family.
• Family is a universal institution and it is stable. Marriage, kinship etc. are important in all societies.

b) Different forms of families:
• Depending on the nature of dwelling, we divide families into two: Matrilocal families and Patrilocal families.
• In matrilocal families the couple stays with the parents of the bride.
• In patrilocal families the couple stays with the parents of the bridegroom.

  • Depending on authority, families are divided into two:
    1. Patriarchal families, Matriarchal families.
    2. In patriarchal families man has the authority.
    3. In matriarchal families woman has the authority. Here the mother has all the authorities.
  • Depending on the Line of Descent, families are divided into two:
    1. Matrilineal and Patrilineal
    2. In matrilineal families, the line of descent is through the mother.
    3. In patrilineal families, the line of descent is through the father.

Question 40.
Prepare an eassy on the role of different agencies of Socialisation.
Answer:

  1. The most important process in a person’s life is socialization.
  2. This is a process that lasts from birth to the death of a person.

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers- 2

Question 41.
Explain any four causes for social change.
Answer:
Social changes can be categorised on the basis of their sources/reasons. The reasons can be internal or external.
Reasons for Social Change

  • Environmental
  • Technical
  • Economic
  • Political
  • Cultural

Kerala Plus One Sociology Board Model Paper 2021 with Answers

Question 42.
a) Explain participant observation.
b) Write three merits and demerits of participant observation.
Answer:
a) Participant observation is very common in sociology and social anthropology.

b) In this method, a social scientists or a researcher immerses himself in the daily activities of the participants in order to record the behaviour in as many scenarios as possible. The researchers can observe the daily life of the people: their exchanges with each other, their formal and informal conversations, habits, etc. Participant observation is quite different from the other methods of research. The field work here includes mutual contacts between the researcher and the participants for a very long time.

Sociologists or researchers spend a year or more with the group of people about whom they are making the studies or doing the research. The sociologists that are not part of the group about which they are studying fully immerse themselves in the culture and various activities of the group. They learn their language and become participants in their daily life. By this, they are able to collect information about their inborn abilities, knowledge and expertise.

The aim of participant observation is learning the entire life style of the group which the researcher is studying. The social scientist and the social anthropologist study the things as if they are in a new world. Participant observation is often called field work. Field work came from the natural sciences like botany, zoology and geology. The scientists in these fields do not confine themselves to the laboratories. They go to the fields and study everything about rocks, insects, plants and animals. That is who the name field work came.