Class 8

Parents often use SCERT Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Notes Pdf Unit 1 Chapter 1 A Long Walk with Granny Questions and Answers Activities Notes to assist their kids with homework.

Class 8 English A Long Walk with Granny Question Answer Activities

A Long Walk with Granny Questions and Answers Class 8

8th Standard English A Long Walk with Granny Question Answer

Question 1.
Why couldn’t Granny see properly through her glasses?
എന്തുകൊണ്ടാണ് മുത്തശ്ശിക്ക് അവരുടെ കണ്ണടയിലൂടെ ശരിക്ക് കാണാൻ കഴിയാഞ്ഞത്?
Answer:
Granny couldn’t see properly because her glasses were very old. They had many scratches and spots on them. Also, her eyesight had become weaker over the ten years she had used them.

Question 2.
Why didn’t Granny want to be parted from Mani?
എന്തുകൊണ്ടാണ് മുത്തശ്ശി മണിയിൽ നിന്ന് വേർപിരി യാൻ ആഗ്രഹിക്കാഞ്ഞത്?
Answer:
Granny didn’t want to be parted from Mani because she loved him a lot. She had taken care of him like a mother since he was a one-year-old baby after his own mother died.

Question 3.
Do you think Granny was confident about walking to Nain? Give reasons.
നൈനിലേക്ക് നടന്നുപോകുന്ന കാര്യത്തിൽ മുത്ത ശ്ശിക്ക് ആത്മവിശ്വാസമുണ്ടായിരുന്നു എന്ന് നിങ്ങൾ കരു തുന്നുണ്ടോ? കാരണങ്ങൾ നൽകുക.
Answer:
Yes, Granny was very confident about walking. She gave two reasons:

1. She said that even if her eyes were getting weak, her legs were still very strong.
2. She also said that the journey was only ten miles, and they had walked that much the day before.

Question 4.
Why does Mani’s father call Granny’s journey to Mussoorie, a shopping trip?
എന്തുകൊണ്ടാണ് മണിയുടെ അച്ഛൻ മുത്തശ്ശിയുടെ മുസൂറിയിലേക്കുള്ള യാത്രയെ ഒരു ഷോപ്പിംഗ് ട്രിപ്പ് എന്ന് വിളിച്ചത്?
Answer:
When Granny agreed to go to Mussoorie, she started making a list of many things to buy, like seeds, a bell for the cow, a pullover for Mani’s father, and shoes for Mani. Because she planned to buy so many things, Mani’s father jokingly called her journey a “shopping trip” instead of a trip to the eye hospital.

Question 5.
Why couldn’t Mani keep up with Granny on the walk?
എന്തുകൊണ്ടാണ് നടത്തത്തിനിടയിൽ മണിക്ക് മുത്ത ശ്ശിക്കൊപ്പം എത്താൻ കഴിയാഞ്ഞത്?
Answer:
Mani couldn’t keep up with Granny because he stopped on the way to pick wild blackberries from a bush. Granny did not stop and kept walking at her usual speed.

Question 6.
Landslides are becoming more frequent now, aren’t they? Make a list of recent natural calamities. Discuss the possible causes of these.
ഉരുൾപൊട്ടലുകൾ ഇക്കാലത്ത് പതിവാകുകയാണല്ലോ, അല്ലേ? സമീപകാലത്തുണ്ടായ പ്രകൃതി ദുരന്തങ്ങളുടെ ഒരു പട്ടിക തയ്യാറാക്കുക.
Answer:
Yes, natural calamities like landslides are becoming more frequent. Here is a list of some natural calamities:
Floods (വെള്ളപ്പൊക്കം)
Landslides (ഉരുൾപൊട്ടൽ)
Cyclones (ചുഴലിക്കാറ്റ്)
Drought (വരൾച്ച)
Possible causes for these are:
For Landslides: Heavy rain makes the soil on hills loose. Cutting down too many trees (deforestation) also makes the soil weak and causes it to slide down.

For Floods: Very heavy rain for many days can cause rivers to overflow. Sometimes, throwing throwing plastic and waste blocks the drains, which also leads to floods in cities.

Climate Change: Pollution from factories and vehicles is making the earth warmer. This changes our weather and leads to either too much rain (floods) or very little rain (drought).

Question 7.
Sometimes journeys are delayed on account of breakdowns or natural calamities. Narrate your experiences of any of these.
ചിലപ്പോൾ വാഹനങ്ങൾ കേടാകുന്നത് കൊണ്ടോ പ കൃതി ദുരന്തങ്ങൾ കൊണ്ടോ യാത്രകൾ വൈകാറുണ്ട്. ഇത്തരത്തിലുള്ള നിങ്ങളുടെ ഏതെങ്കിലും അനുഭവം വിവരിക്കുക
Answer:
Once, my family and I were going to Wayanad in our car. It started raining very heavily. As we were going up the mountain road, we saw that a big tree had fallen and completely blocked the road. All the cars had to stop. We were delayed by three hours. We waited patiently until the fire force came and cut the tree into small pieces to clear the hot road.

Question 8.
The doctor says he will send Granny’s glasses to the museum. What does he mean?
(ഡോക്ടർ മുത്തശ്ശിയുടെ കണ്ണട മ്യൂസിയത്തിലേക്ക് അയക്കുമെന്ന് പറയുന്നു. എന്താണ് അദ്ദേഹം അതു കൊണ്ട് അർത്ഥമാക്കുന്നത്?)
Answer:
When the doctor says he will send Granny’s glasses to the museum, he is making a joke. He means that the glasses are so old and useless that they belong in a museum where very old things are kept. It was his way of telling Granny that she should have changed her glasses many years ago.

Question 9.
What was Granny’s reaction when she saw Mani clearly?
(മണിയെ വ്യക്തമായി കണ്ടപ്പോൾ മുത്തശ്ശിയുടെ പ്ര തികരണം എന്തായിരുന്നു?)
Answer:
When Granny saw Mani clearly for the first time in many years, she was very happy and full of joy. She exclaimed “Mani!” and clapped her hands. Then, she lovingly told him how nice he looked, but also said that he needed a haircut, a wash, new buttons, and new shoes.

A Long Walk with Granny Class 8 Question Answer – Let’s Rewind

Question 1.
Why does Granny finally agree to travel to Mussoorie?
എന്തുകൊണ്ടാണ് മുത്തശ്ശി ഒടുവിൽ മുസൂറിയിലേക്ക് പോകാൻ സമ്മതിക്കുന്നത്?
Answer:
Granny finally agrees to travel to Mussoorie because she learns that her grandson, Mani, will be going with her. She did not want to travel alone or leave Mani behind. When Mani himself offered to take her, she became ready and happy for the journey.

Question 2.
Granny’s courage and determination are evident in the story. Substantiate this statement with instances.
മുത്തശ്ശിയുടെ ധൈര്യവും നിശ്ചയദാർഢ്യവും കഥയി ൽ വ്യക്തമാണ്. ഉദാഹരണങ്ങൾ സഹിതം ഈ പ്രസ് താവനയെ സാധൂകരിക്കുക.)
Answer:
We can see Granny’s courage and determination in many parts of the story.

1. First, even at the age of seventy, she agrees to undertake a long, two-day journey.
2. Second, when the bus is stopped by a landslide, she is not scared. She readily agrees to walk ten miles over the mountain to reach Mussoorie.
3. Third, she walks confidently through hills and forests, saying her legs are strong, which shows her strong will.

Question 3.
How does Mani support Granny during their journey? What does this reveal about his character?
(യാത്രയിലുടനീളം മണി എങ്ങനെയാണ് മുത്തശ്ശിയെ പിന്തുണയ്ക്കുന്നത്? ഇത് അവന്റെ സ്വഭാവത്തെക്കു റിച്ച് എന്ത് വെളിപ്പെടുത്തുന്നു?
Answer:
Mani supports Granny in many loving ways during their journey.

• He offers to take her to the hospital when his father can’t.
• He carries her bedding-roll for her.
• He offers his shoulder for her to rest on while sleeping in the bus.
• He always thinks about her comfort, telling her they can rest whenever she is tired.

This reveals that Mani is a very loving, caring, and responsible grandson who is deeply attached to his grandmother.

Question 4.
‘A shoulder to rest on is a blessing indeed.’ Don’t you agree? How does the story highlight the bond between generations?
ചായാൻ ഒരു തോൾ തീർച്ചയായും ഒരു അനുഗ്രഹ മാണ്. നിങ്ങൾ യോജിക്കുന്നുണ്ടോ? തലമുറകൾ തമ്മി ലുള്ള ബന്ധത്തെ ഈ കഥ എങ്ങനെയാണ് എടുത്തു കാണിക്കുന്നത്?
Answer:
Yes, I agree completely. It means that having someone to give us emotional and physical support during difficult times is a great comfort and a true blessing.

The story highlights the beautiful bond between generations through Granny and Mani.

• Granny raised and cared for Mani his whole life.
• Now, Mani takes care of his grandmother on their difficult journey. He provides physical support by carrying things and giving her his shoulder, and emotional support by staying with her. They love and depend on each other, showing a strong and beautiful connection that crosses generations.

A Long Walk with Granny Activities

Class 8 English A Long Walk with Granny Activities Pdf – Let’s recall and recreate

Activity 1

A. Read the following excerpt from, ‘A Long Walk with Granny.’
The rain stopped and the sun came out. Below them, the light green of the fields stood out against the dark green of the forests, and the hills were bathed in golden sunshine.

B. Granny and Mani stand on the summit of the peak on their way to Nain. They look around. Mani is really amazed by the beauty of the scene. Imagine this is the view.

This is how he describes the place to a friend.

The view of the snow-capped peaks, the rocky terrain and the crystal-clear water in the river nearby were just breathtaking. A beam of light coming through the white clouds spread its brilliance all around. The tall dark green trees seemed glowing too. The misty morning was giving way to a brighter day. The vast valley was filled with wonderful green shades, all of which were mesmerising.

Now, let’s list the words/phrases that helped Mani describe the place in the table below. One has been done for you.

Answer:

Describing words/ Phrases	Nouns described
snow-capped	peak
rocky	terrain
crystal-clear	water
tall dark green	trees
misty	morning
vast	valley

C. Now let’s try to describe the place given below using suitable descriptive adjectives.

Answer:
This is a picture of a beautiful meadow. A narrow path goes through the lush green grass. On the left, there is a lovely green tree, and on the right, there is a bright, golden-yellow tree. The sky above is blue with fluffy white clouds. The whole place looks very peaceful and calm.

Class 8 English A Long Walk with Granny Question Answer – Activity 2

A. Granny and Mani return after their thrilling experience of walking and exploring the surroundings. At home, Mani shares his experience with his father. Write the likely narrative.
നടത്തത്തിന്റെയും ചുറ്റുപാടുകൾ കണ്ടതിന്റെയും ആവേശക രമായ അനുഭവത്തിന് ശേഷം മുത്തശ്ശിയും മണിയും തിരിച്ചെ ത്തുന്നു. വീട്ടിൽ വെച്ച്, മണി തന്റെ അനുഭവം അച്ഛനുമായി പങ്കുവെക്കുന്നു. ആ വിവരണം എഴുതുക.
Answer:
Father, you won’t believe the adventure Granny and I had! The journey to Mussoorie was so exciting. On the way, our bus had to stop because of a huge land- slide. The road was blocked! But Granny was so brave. We decided to walk the rest of the way, just like we did the day before. We stayed in a dharamsala near a temple. The next day, we met the doctor. He gave Granny new glasses, and now she can see everything clearly! She was so happy when she saw me properly. On the way back, she looked out of the window and was amazed to see the distant villages and even a rainbow. It was a long walk, but it was the best journey ever.

B. The eye-specialist couldn’t forget Granny and his interaction with her. He recollects the encounter in his diary. Write the likely diary entry.
നേത്രരോഗ വിദഗ്ദ്ധന് മുത്തശ്ശിയെയും അവരുമായുള്ള സംഭാഷണവും മറക്കാൻ കഴിഞ്ഞില്ല. അദ്ദേഹം ആ കൂടിക്കാഴ്ചയെക്കുറിച്ച് തന്റെ ഡയറിയിൽ ഓർത്തെഴുതുന്നു. ആ ഡയറിക്കുറിപ്പ് എഴുതുക.
Answer:
Wednesday, June 11, 2025
Dear Diary,

Today, I met a very memorable patient. An old woman came with her young grandson, Mani. When I saw her glasses, I was shocked! They were so old and scratched, they belonged in a museum. I joked with her about it. She was a woman of great spirit and courage. When I was testing her eyes, she gave the funniest answers. When she finally wore the new glasses and saw her grandson’s face clearly for the first time in years, the look of pure joy on her face was priceless. It’s days like these that make my job so special. I will not forget her soon.

C. Have you recently visited a tourist spot or a place that caught your attention with its beauty? Attempt a descriptive paragraph on the spot you visited.
നിങ്ങൾ ഈയടുത്ത് ഏതെങ്കിലും വിനോദസഞ്ചാര കേന്ദ്രമോ അതിന്റെ ഭംഗികൊണ്ട് നിങ്ങളുടെ ശ്രദ്ധ പിടി ച്ചുപറ്റിയ സ്ഥലമോ സന്ദർശിച്ചിട്ടുണ്ടോ? നിങ്ങൾ സന്ദർ ശിച്ച ആ സ്ഥലത്തെക്കുറിച്ച് ഒരു വർണ്ണനാപരമായ ഖണ്ഡി ക എഴുതുക.
Answer:
Last Sunday, I visited Kozhikode beach my family. The beach looked beautiful in the evening light. The vast sea stretched out before me, and the waves made a loud roaring sound as they hit the shore. The sand was soft and golden under my feet. I saw the sun setting in the west, painting the sky with bright orange and red colours. The old, rusty sea piers stood like silent giants in the water. We ate some delicious hot snacks from a small shop while enjoying the cool, salty sea breeze. It was a very beautiful and memorable evening.

Expert Teachers at HSSLive.Guru has created Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Textbook Solutions Notes Question Answers Pdf Download English Medium of SCERT Class 8 English Solutions, 8th Standard English Activities are part of Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Textbooks Solutions. Here we have given SCERT 8th Class English Textbook Solutions of Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Notes Pdf Part 1 and Part 2.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Textbook Answers

SCERT Class 8 English Solutions

Class 8 English Notes Kerala Syllabus Part 1

8th Standard English Unit 1 Question Answer Bonds of Life

• Chapter 1 A Long Walk with Granny Questions and Answers
• Chapter 2 The Seven Ages of Man Questions and Answers
• Chapter 3 Little Things Matter Questions and Answers

8th Standard English Unit 2 Question Answer Wings of Hope

• Chapter 1 Hope is the Thing with Feathers Questions and Answers
• Chapter 2 A Prescription for Life Questions and Answers
• Chapter 3 The Day My World Changed Questions and Answers

8th Standard English Unit 3 Question Answer The Trail of Science

• Chapter 1 Talking of Science Questions and Answers
• Chapter 2 Engine Trouble Questions and Answers
• Chapter 3 The Astronomer Questions and Answers

Hsslive Guru Class 8 English Part 2

8th Standard English Unit 4 Question Answer Fabric of Togetherness

• Chapter 1 Get Together Questions and Answers
• Chapter 2 A Tryst with Destiny Questions and Answers
• Chapter 3 Thank You Ma’am Questions and Answers

8th Standard English Unit 5 Question Answer Echoes from Afar

• Chapter 1 A Tale of Two Gifts Questions and Answers
• Chapter 2 Caged Bird Poem Questions and Answers
• Chapter 3 Village of the Watermills Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Summary

• A Long Walk with Granny Summary
• The Seven Ages of Man Summary
• Little Things Matter Summary
• Hope is the Thing with Feathers Summary
• A Prescription for Life Summary
• The Day My World Changed Summary
• Talking of Science Summary
• Engine Trouble Summary
• The Astronomer Summary
• Get Together Summary
• A Tryst with Destiny Summary
• Thank You Ma’am Summary
• A Tale of Two Gifts Summary
• Caged Bird Poem Summary
• Village of the Watermills Summary

SCERT 8th Class English Textbook Solutions (Old Syllabus)

Unit 1 Hues and Views

• Chapter 1 The Mysterious Picture (Charles De Coster)
• Chapter 2 The Boy Who Drew Cats (Hasegawa Takejiro)
• Chapter 3 Taj Mahal (Rabindranath Tagore)
• Chapter 4 We’re the World (Michael Jackson and Lionel Richie Jr.)

Unit 2 Wings and Wheels

• Chapter 1 A Shipwrecked Sailor (Gabriel García Márquez)
• Chapter 2 From A Railway Carriage  (R L Stevenson)
• Chapter 3 Marvellous Travel (Joshua Fernandez)
• Chapter 4 The Little Round Red House (Carolyn Sherwin Bailey)

Unit 3 Seeds and Deeds

• Chapter 1 The Light on the Hills (Lucy Clifford)
• Chapter 2 Rosa Parks Sat Still (Rosa Parks)
• Chapter 3 The Sower (Victor Marie Hugo)
• Chapter 4 The Village Blacksmith (H W Longfellow)

Unit 4 Flowers and Showers

• Chapter 1 Song of the Flower (Khalil Gibran)
• Chapter 2 First Showers (Nalini Sharma)
• Chapter 3 The Nightingale and the Rose (Oscar Wilde)
• Chapter 4 A Day in the Country (Anton Chekhov)

Unit 5 Share and Care

• Chapter 1 The School for Sympathy (E.V Lucas)
• Chapter 2 The Merchant of Venice (William Shakespeare)
• Chapter 3 My Grandmother’s House (Kamala Das)
• Chapter 4 Solitude (Ella Wheeler Wilcox)

English Question Paper Class 8 Kerala Syllabus

Class 8 English Previous Year Question Paper Kerala Syllabus

• 8th Standard English Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24
• 8th Standard English First Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard English Second Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard English Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard English Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22

Learn Grammar concepts easily by using our English Grammar Notes website as it is free and easy to download and also we have provided you with the connected rules.

We hope the given Hsslive Std 8 English Textbook Answers, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Question Answers will help you. If you have any queries regarding SCERT Kerala State Board Syllabus 8th Standard English Textbooks Answers Guide Pdf of Kerala Class 8 Part 1 and 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Expert Teachers at HSSLive.Guru has created Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Guide Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Chapter wise Questions and Answers, Notes are part of Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Textbooks Solutions. Here HSSLive.Guru has given SCERT Kerala State Board Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions Pdf of Kerala Class 8 Part 1 and 2.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions in English Medium

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Guide

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions Part 1

• Class 8 Maths Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus – Squares Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus – Equal Triangles Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus – Square Identities Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus – Polygons Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 5 Kerala Syllabus – Solutions of Equations Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus – New Numbers Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 7 Kerala Syllabus – Bisectors Class 8 Questions and Answers

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions Part 2

• Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Kerala Syllabus – Ratio Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus – Circles Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 10 Kerala Syllabus – Decimal Forms Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 11 Kerala Syllabus – Parallelograms Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus – Trapeziums Class 8 Questions and Answers
• Class 8 Maths Chapter 13 Kerala Syllabus – Statistics Class 8 Questions and Answers

Class 8 Maths Question Paper Pdf Kerala Syllabus

• 8th Standard Maths Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24
• 8th Standard Maths First Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard Maths Second Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard Maths Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard Maths Annual Exam Question Paper 2021-22
• 8th Standard Maths Model Question Paper Set 1
• 8th Standard Maths Model Question Paper Set 2

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions in Malayalam Medium

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Guide Malayalam Medium

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions Part 1 Malayalam Medium

• Chapter 1 തുല്യതികോണങ്ങൾ
• Chapter 2 സമവാക്യങ്ങൾ
• Chapter 3 ബഹുഭുജങ്ങൾ
• Chapter 4 സർവസമവാക്യങ്ങൾ
• Chapter 5 പണവിനിമയം

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Solutions Part 2 Malayalam Medium

• Chapter 6 ചതുർഭുജങ്ങളുടെ നിർമിതി
• Chapter 7 അംശബന്ധം
• Chapter 8 ചതുർഭുജപ്പരപ്പ്
• Chapter 9 ന്യൂനസംഖ്യകൾ
• Chapter 10 സ്ഥിതിവിവരക്കണക്ക്

Class 8 Maths Previous Year Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Malayalam Medium

• 8th Standard Maths First Term Question Paper 2023-24
• 8th Standard Maths Second Term Question Paper 2023-24
• 8th Standard Maths Annual Exam Question Paper 2023-24
• 8th Standard Maths First Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard Maths Second Term Question Paper 2022-23
• 8th Standard Maths Annual Exam Question Paper 2022-23

We hope the given Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Guide Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Chapter wise Questions and Answers, Notes will help you. If you have any queries regarding SCERT Kerala State Board Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Textbooks Answers Guide Pdf of Kerala Class 8 Part 1 and 2, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 7 Media and Social Reflections Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Media and Social Reflections Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 7 Kerala Syllabus

Media and Social Reflections Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
What is the general term for the various forms of communication that can be used to communicate to many people at once?
a. Personal media
b. Mass media
c. Social media
d. Digital media
Answer:
b. Mass media

Question 2.
Which of the following is not included in the mass media?
a. Newspapers
b. Magazines
c. Radio
d. Personal diary
Answer:
d. Personal diary

Question 3.
Who plays a major role in developing reading and writing skills in individuals?
a. Media
b. Computer
c. Mobile phone
d. Tablet
Answer:
a. Media

Question 4.
Communication is possible only from print media to readers. Why is this?
a. It allows two-way communication.
b. It allows one-way communication.
c. It is sensory
d. It has no physical form.
Answer:
b. It allows one-way communication

Question 5.
What type of communication do broadcast media such as radio and television enable?
a. Unidirectional
b. Bidirectional
c. Multidirectional
d. Sensory
Answer:
a. Unidirectional

Question 6.
What are the platforms that came into existence with the advent of the Internet known as?
a. Traditional media
b. Broadcast media
c. Print media
d. Digital platforms
Answer:
d. Digital platforms

Question 7.
Which media plays a major role in shaping public opinion, promoting social interactions, and influencing cultural and political movements?
a. Print media
b. Social media
c. Broadcast media
d. None of these
Answer:
b. Social media

Question 8.
Which media have limited reciprocity because they enable one-way communication?
a. New media
b. Digital media
c. Traditional media
d. Social media
Answer:
c. Traditional media

Question 9.
What is the name given to simple, generalised beliefs or ideas about individuals based on race, gender, culture, colour, etc.?
a. Public opinion
b. Social norms
c. Stereotypes
d. Socialisation
Answer:
c. Stereotypes

Question 10.
What are crimes committed using or targeting computers, mobile phones, digital cameras, etc. known as?
a. Cybercrimes
b. Financial crimes
c. social crimes
d. Cultural crimes
Answer:
a. Cybercrimes

Question 11.
Why is it said that media plays an important role in developing reading and writing skills in
individuals?
Answer:
Individuals are exposed to written language through newspapers, magazines, blogs, and social media, which encourages reading. Social media, blogs, and online forums help individuals reflect and share their thoughts.

Question 12.
How many types of media can be classified based on their uses?
Answer:
Four (Print media, broadcast media, digital media, social media)

Question 13.
Why is it said that print media is still relevant in the digital age?
Answer:
They provide comprehensive news, features, and literary works to society. A reliable and immersive reading experience is available through print media.

Question 14.
What is the significance of saying that communication in broadcast media is one-way?
Answer:
The possibility of mutual interaction in broadcast programs is limited due to the delay in recording comments.

Question 15.
What is the main change in media due to the advent of digital platforms with the advent of the internet?
Answer:
Social interaction has increased. These have provided opportunities for sharing and discussing information content.

Question 16.
Why has social media become an integral part of modern life?
Answer:
Interpersonal relationships and social interaction are increasingly found on social media.

Question 17.
Describe the role of the media in shaping public opinion.
Answer:
In a democracy, the government considers the opinion of the public before formulating new policies. The public is asked to submit suggestions through various media. Public opinion is shaped through the media during election times and international policymaking.

Question 18.
Why was the Information Technology Act 2000 (IT Act 2000) passed by Parliament?
Answer:
To ensure strict legal action and punishment for those involved in cybercrimes.

Question 19.
Name two benefits of practicing digital etiquette.
Answer:
It enables polite communication and reduces cybercrime.

Question 20.
What is mass media? Give examples.
Answer:
Mass media are various forms of communication that can reach many people simultaneously. These include newspapers, magazines, radio, television, the Internet, and social media.

Question 21.
What is the role of media in developing reading and writing skills?
Answer:
Individuals are exposed to written language through newspapers, magazines, blogs, and social media, which encourage reading. Social media, blogs, and online forums help individuals reflect and share their thoughts.

Question 22.
What are the two main features of print media?
Answer:

1. They provide comprehensive news, features, and literary works to society.
2. They provide a reliable and immersive reading experience through print media.
3. They are useful for storing and rereading.
4. Communication is possible only from print media to readers (in one direction).

Question 23.
What are the limitations of broadcast media in communication?
Answer:
Broadcast media such as radio and television convey ideas in only one direction. The possibility of reciprocity is limited due to the delay in recording the opinions of broadcast programs.

Question 24.
How has digital media increased social interaction?
Answer:
Social interaction through media has increased as websites, online news, and blogs have begun to bring real-time information to the public. These have provided opportunities for sharing and discussing information content.

Question 25.
What are the two main characteristics of social media?
Answer:

1. Interpersonal relationships and social interaction are more prevalent on social media.
2. Social media are online platforms that allow users to create, share, and interact with content such as text, images, and videos.

Question 26.
What is the main difference between traditional media and new media in communication?
Answer:
While traditional media enables one-way communication, new media facilitates smooth interaction in both directions.

Question 27.
What is socialisation?
Answer:
Socialization is the process by which we learn from our environment from a young age how to live and behave in society.

Question 28.
Explain the importance of media in developing reading and writing skills.
Answer:
Media plays an important role in developing reading and writing skills in individuals. Individuals come into contact with written language through newspapers, magazines, blogs, and social media. This encourages reading. Sensitive platforms, such as social media, blogs, and online forums, help individuals reflect on and share their thoughts. Media, libraries, book clubs, and online writing communities foster reading, writing, and culture. The media contributes to social progress by reaching out to people and creating awareness through various literacy programs.

Question 29.
How the media can be classified? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Based on usage, media can be classified into four main types:
a. Print media: Newspapers, books
b. Broadcast media: Radio, television
c. Digital media: Websites, online newspapers, blogs
d. Social media: Photo-video sharing platforms, online discussion forums.

Question 30.
Explain the differences between traditional media and new media.
Answer:
a. Communication: While traditional media is one-way communication, new media allows for two-way communication.

b. Interaction: Interaction is limited in traditional media, but it is high in new media, with increased
interactivity and participation.

c. Form: Traditional media has a physical form (newspaper, radio, television), while new media has a digital form (devices with internet access).

d. Availability: Traditional media is not always accessible due to time and place constraints, but new media is available internationally without such limitations.

Question 31.
What is the role of the media in shaping public opinion?
Answer:
In a democratic system, the government considers the opinion of the public before formulating new policies. The public is asked to submit suggestions through various media. Public opinion is formed through the media during elections and in international policy-making. In this way, the media acts as an important tool in shaping public opinion and gaining public approval.

Question 32.
How does the media influence consumption behaviour?
Answer:
The media is a repository of food advertisements and cooking shows. Advertisements related to many such sectors can be found in the media. By providing advertisements, informing about job opportunities, and increasing consumerism, the media boosts the growth of the global economy. Advertisements and other programs through the media have an impact on shaping our consumption behaviour.

Question 33.
What are stereotypes? How are they reflected in society?
Answer:
Stereotypes are statements with generalized assumptions. Stereotypes are simple, generalized beliefs or ideas about individuals based on race, gender, culture, color, etc. Such stereotypes are reflected in the media in various forms. For example, “men are the breadwinners and protectors of the family”, “women’s place is in the kitchen”, etc. are stereotypes that exist in society.

Question 34.
Explain the relationship between media and social engagement.
Answer:
Digital tools such as social media, websites, and online campaigns are used to reach the public on social, political, or environmental issues. Social media platforms facilitate public engagement by providing avenues for communication and rapid resource mobilization. Examples include hashtag campaigns, awareness programs, and fundraising.

Question 35.
How does technology help media grow?
Answer:
Technology and media are interrelated. Advances in technology have led to the emergence of new forms of media. Developments in this field have led to the emergence of new media such as social media platforms, online news portals, and streaming services. This has led to major changes in the production, distribution, and consumption of information and communication. Technology increases the accessibility of media.

Question 36.
What are the benefits of practicing digital etiquette?
Answer:
Digital etiquette promotes positive and effective online interaction. It should be xeeognized as a social norm. By practicing digital etiquette:
a. Respectful communication is possible.
b. Clarity and understanding are achieved in communication.
c. Positive online communities are formed.
d. Cybercrime is reduced.
e. Leads society to safer digital spaces.
f. Supports digital literacy.

Question 37.
Explain the relationship between Media & Socialisation.
Answer:
Social norms, moral lessons, knowledge and entertainment are imparted through stories and poems. Socialisation is the process by which we learn how to live and behave in society from our surroundings from a young age. Family, school, friends, media, and other factors all contribute to the socialisation process. Media influences how we interact in society, decides what we want, and forms our personality. Social values, norms, etc., that are passed down from one generation to the next are also communicated through media.

Question 38.
Analyse the influence of media on public opinion formation.
Answer:
In a democracy, the government considers the public’s opinion before formulating new policies. The public is asked to submit suggestions through various media. Public opinion is formed through the media during elections and international policy-making. In this way, the media serves as a crucial tool in shaping public opinion and gamering public approval,’ However, the programs that appear in some media are biased and reactionary. The dissemination of inaccurate and unclear ideas through new media fuels these trends. For example, during the COVID-19 outbreak, fake, medical treatments and myths were spread by some social media, which led to the formation of wrong public opinion. Creating and spreading such false news is punishable under the Information Technology Act (IT Act 2000).

Question 39.
What are the problems caused by excessive use of social media?
Answer:
Excessive use of social media leads to many problems. Primarily, it negatively impacts the learning, physical, and mental health of students. Uncontrolled use creates distance in personal and social relationships. Although they can engage in brief interactions, they fail to engage in meaningful and deep relationships.

Question 40.
Explain the influence of media on consumption behaviour.
Answer:
The media is a repository of food advertisements and cooking programs. Advertisements related to many, such sectors can be found in the media. By providing advertisements, informing consumers about job opportunities, and promoting consumerism, the media contributes to the growth of the global economy. Advertisements and other programs through the media have an impact on shaping our consumption behaviour.

Question 41.
How do Artificial Intelligence, Big Data, and Algorithms impact the media?
Answer:
Artificial Intelligence (AI): Artificial intelligence technology helps in creating news content.and delivering relevant news and information to consumers. It is also useful in identifying fake news and misleading information.

Big Data: Big Data helps the media to collect and analyse large amounts of information about consumers’ interests, preferences, and behaviours. This helps in personalizing confent and reaching a wider audience. Algorithm: Algorithms decide how to present information to consumers. It determines what content a person sees on social media and online news platforms.

Question 42.
Explain the relationship between Cyber Crimes and the Information Technology Act (IT Act).
Answer:
Cybercrimes are crimes committed using or targeting computers, mobile phones, digital cameras, etc. These include online fraud, theft of personal information, spreading fake news, online, harassment, and digital violence. The Indian Parliament passed the Information Technology Act 2000 (IT Act 2000) to ensure strict legal action and punishment for those involved in cybercrimes. This law helps curb cybercrimes and ensure security in digital spaces.

Question 43.
Analyze the relationship between media and cultural change.
Answer:
Media can both promote and inhibit cultural change. Information and cultures from different parts of the world are easily exchanged through the media. This gives people an understanding of different cultures and promotes cultural diversity. However, some media can establish a kind of cultural dominance and pave the way for trends such as Westernisation.

Question 44.
How to deal with stereotypes in the media?
Answer:

• Critical awareness: Approach media content critically and identify stereotypes.
• Use a variety of media: Use a variety of media sources to understand different perspectives.
• Media literacy: Learn about media literacy and develop the ability to recognize fake news and stereotypes.
• Response: Respond to media outlets that spread stereotypes and demand corrections.
• Education: Educate people about stereotypes through education and awareness.

Question 45.
Explain the importance of ethics in the media.
Answer:
The media has a great influence on society. Therefore, it has certain ethical responsibilities. Honesty, impartiality, objectivity, respect for privacy, and social responsibility are the main elements of media ethics. These include not spreading false information, conducting unbiased reporting, and respecting the privacy of individuals. Adhering to media ethics helps increase the credibility of the media and ensure their positive impact on society.

Question 46.
What is the social importance of media? Explain.
Answer:

• Promotes reading and writing: Through newspapers, magazines, blogs, and social media, individuals are exposed to written language, which encourages reading. Social media, blogs, and online forums help individuals reflect and share their thoughts.
• Socialisation: Socialisation is the process of learning how to live and behave in society from a young age. The media plays a major role in this process.
• Shapes public opinion: Public opinion is often shaped through the media during election times and  international policymaking.
• Influences consumption behaviour: Through advertisements and programs, the media has an impact on shaping our consumption behaviour.
• Social interactions: The media helps to bring social issues to the public and to foster public interactions.
• Cultural changes: Information and cultures from different parts of the world are easily exchanged through the media, which promotes cultural diversity.
• Media literacy: Media literacy is crucial for evaluating the accuracy and reliability of information and detecting fake news.

Question 47.
Can you say that traditional media and new media have equal relevance in society? Justify your opinion.
Answer:
Yes, traditional media and new media have equal relevance in society.

• Importance of traditional media: Print media provides comprehensive news, features and literary works. Radio and television bring information even to remote villages. These provide a reliable and immersive reading experience.
• Importance of new media: With the advent of the internet, digital platforms came into existence. This helps in bringing real-time information to the people and increasing social interaction. Social media increases personal M&fiotiships and social interaction. New media helps in spreading information rapidly and connecting globally.
• Completeness: While traditional media provides in-depth analysis, new media provides information at a rapid pace. By complementing each other, complete information and communication is possible.

Question 48.
What are the harms caused by cybercrimes in society? What are the measures to be taken to prevent them?
Answer:
Harms: Financial loss: Individuals and organisations can suffer huge financial losses through online fraud and hacking.

• Privacy violation: The Leakage of personal information poses a threat to privacy.
• Mental problems: Cyberbullying and online harassment can cause mental health problems.
• Fake news: Spreading misleading information can cause social problems.
• National security threat: The Leakage of critical information can pose a significant national security threat.
• Preventive measures: Information Technology Act: Strictly implement laws such as the Information Technology Act 2000 (IT Act 2000).
  Awareness: Educate the public about cybercrimes.
• Cybersecurity measures: Use strong passwords, install antivirus Software, and avoid clicking on suspicious links.
• Digital etiquette: Encourage respectful behaviour in online spaces.
• Surveillance: Strengthen surveillance in cyberspace.
• Reporting: Report cybercrimes to the authorities immediately.

Question 49.
As a media student, please share your ideas on how to promote media literacy and digital etiquette.
Answer:
As a media student, there are several things I can do to promote media literacy and digital etiquette:

• Awareness classes: Conduct classes on media literacy and digital etiquette in schools, colleges, and community centres. Emphasise identifying fake news and teaching online safety.
• Social media campaigns: Conduct awareness campaigns on social media using short videos, posters, and infographics. Use hashtags to spark debate on these topics.
• Blog/Website: Start a blog or website that publishes information, tips, and studies on media literacy and digital etiquette.
• Workshops: Organise interactive workshops for students and adults. This will help provide practical training.
• Participation: Actively participate in events such as Media Literacy Day and Cyber Safety Day, and create awareness among the public.
• Modelling: Follow digital etiquette in personal online behaviour and be a role model for others.
• Learning materials: Prepare and distribute learning materials ’such as pamphlets, booklets, and video tutorials.
• Collaboration: Organise larger outreach programs in collaboration with local media outlets and NGOs.
• Research: Conduct research on media patterns and cybercrime and share its results with the public.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Resource Utilisation and Sustainability Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Resource Utilisation and Sustainability Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus

Resource Utilisation and Sustainability Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Which is the oldest gold mine in India?
a) Huti mine
b) Kolar Gold Mine
c) Johnson Mine
d) Bellary Mine
Answer:
b) Kolar Gold Mine

Question 2.
Who discovered the village of Urigam in Karnataka in 1804?
a) John Warren
b) James Cook
c) Robert Clive
d) Vasco da Gama
Answer:
a) John Warren

Question 3.
When was the Kolar Gold Field (KGF) renamed?
a) 1850
b) 1880
c) 1900
d) 1956
Answer:
b) 1880

Question 4.
Which is an example of non-renewable resource?
a) Solar Energy
b) The wind
c) Iron
d) Water
Answer:
c) Iron

Question 5.
Which is the first fully solar-powered airport in India?
a) Delhi
b) Kochi
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
Answer:
b) Kochi

Question 6.
When was the Bombay High oil field discovered?
a) 1950
b) 1974
c) 1985
d) 1990
Answer:
b) 1974

Question 7.
In which year was Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) established?
a) 1907
b) 1919
c) 1923
d) 1956
Answer:
a) 1907

Question 8.
Which state is the largest producer of the iron and steel industry in India?
a) Karnataka
b) Odisha
c) Gujarat
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
b) Odisha

Question 9.
What is the main objective of sustainable development?
a) Excessive use of resources
b) To conserve resources for future generations
c) Industrial growth
d) The urbanisation
Answer:
b) To conserve resources for future generations

Question 10.
What is the importance of a Kolar gold mine?
Answer:

1. The oldest industrial cities in India.
2. From 1880 to 1956, the Kolar Gold Field produced more than 800 tonnes of gold.

Question 11.
Two examples of renewable resources?
Answer:

1. Solar energy
2. The wind

Question 12.
Write any two characteristics of metallic minerals.
Answer:

1. Hard and lustrous.
2. It may contain iron.

Question 13.
What are the two main features of Mumbai High?
Answer:

1. Large oil field located 160 km away in the Arabian Sea.
2. One of the Largest offshore oil fields in India.

Question 14.
Which are the two major iron and steel industries in India?
Answer:
Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) and Bhilai Steel Plant

Question 15.
What is meant by the term Resource?
Answer:
Anything that is environmentally available, technologically accessible, culturally acceptable and capable of meeting our needs is called a resource. Resources include not only material things like water, air and soil but also non-material things like knowledge and health. Humans are considered resources as they can create many resources using their abilities, skills and technology.

Question 16.
What are minerals? How are they classified based on their composition and physical characteristics?
Answer:
Minerals are naturally forming organic and inorganic substances with chemical and physical properties. Minerals can be classified into two types based on their composition and physical characteristics.

1. Metallic Minerals
2. Non-Metallic Minerals

Question 17.
Write the names of two metallic minerals.
Answer:
Iron ore and bauxite

Question 18.
What is meant by heavy industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industries are also called heavy industries due to the large amount of raw materials used and the size and weight of the products from them.

Question 19.
What is meant by resource conservation?
Answer:
Conservation of resources is the process of ensuring their availability by avoiding over-exploitation through judicious use. The objectives of conservation of resources are to conserve resources for future generations, maintain the balance of the environment, and minimise impacts on nature and human beings.

Question 20.
Define mining. What are the two main types of mining?
Answer:
Mining is the process of finding and extracting valuable materials from the Earth’s surface or underground. Mining is classified into surface mining and underground mining.

Question 21.
What is a manufacturing industry? Give an example.
Answer:
In the manufacturing industry, the raw materials are processed using machines to make highly valuable products for marketing in local and distant markets.Eg: Iron and steel Industry

Question 22.
What are the three significances of the iron and steel industry in India?
Answer:

1. Supports the other industries and service sectors.
2. Increase the country’s income.
3. Creating employment opportunities.

Question 23.
Write any three resource conservation methods.
Answer:

1. Water conservation
2. Forest conservation
3. Energy conservation

Question 24.
What are the three factors affecting the distribution of mineral resources in India?
Answer:

1. Geographical location
2. Mining facilities
3. Transportation systems

Question 25.
What are the three categories into which minerals are classified?
Answer:

1. Metallic minerals containing iron
2. Metallic minerals not containing iron
3. Organic and Inorganic minerals

Question 26.
Why is man considered a resource?
Answer:
Humans are considered resources as they can create many resources using their abilities, skills and technology. Depending on human needs any object can be turned into a resource with time and technology. Likewise, human skills are also used as resources. This is called human resource.

Question 27.
Explain the difference between renewable and non-renewable resources with examples.
Answer:

Renewable Resources	Non-Renewable Resources
• Resources that do not get depleted after use and can be reused are renewable resources. • These are resources that are continuously produced in nature and are always readily available to man. • Examples: Sunlight, wind, and waves	• Non-renewable resources have been formed over millions of years and they decrease in quantity with use. • Examples: iron, gold, coal, and petroleum.

Question 28.
What is ore? Briefly write about the process of extracting minerals from the Earth’s crust.
Answer:
Minerals found in the Earth’s crust in the form of ores become usable only after mining and processing. Minerals which will be mixed with impurities are mined from the earth in raw form. This is called ore. These ores can be converted into valuable minerals only through refining processes. Mining is the process of finding and extracting valuable materials from the Earth’s surface or underground. Mining is classified into surface mining and underground mining.

Question 29.
Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic industry?
Answer:
Among the mineral-based industries, the iron and steel industry is the foundation of industrial development. The iron and steel industry is called a basic industry as it provides the raw materials and products required for other industries. Iron and steel industry is also known as heavy industry. India is one of the largest producers of iron and steel in the world.

Question 30.
Explain any two environmental problems created by industries.
Answer:
Air Pollution: The smoke emitted from industries which contain toxic gases such as sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and methane, pollute the atmosphere. This poses a serious threat to nature and human health.

Water Pollution: Waste water discharged from industries and toxins from chemical industries pollute rivers, lakes and other water bodies. It harmfully affects aquatic life and humans.

Question 31.
What is meant by urbanization?
Answer:
Urbanisation is the increase in size and population of cities as a result of migration from rural areas to urban areas and natural population growth in cities. This has led to a massive increase in the size and population of cities and it results in socio-economic and environmental changes.

Question 32.
Compare natural resources and man-made resources. Explain with examples.
Answer:
On the basis of origin, resources can be mainly classified into natural resources and man-made resources.

Natural resources	Man-made resources
Resources obtained from nature.	Resources made by human beings.
The availability and renewability of natural resources varies.	Depending on human needs any object can be turned into a resource with time and technology.
Eg: Air,Minerals	Eg: Road, Machinery

Question 33.
List the characteristics of metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

Metallic Minerals	Non-Metallic Minerals
They are naturally occurring substances in nature that contain traces of metal.	Minerals that do not contain metals are called non – metallic minerals.
The metal extracted from the metallic minerals through the refining process is usually hard and lustrous.	For non-metallic minerals properties such as hardness, lustre and ductility are relatively low.
Metallic minerals are classified into two types based on the presence of iron – Ferrous metals and Non-ferrous metals.	Non-metallic minerals are classified into two groups – organic minerals and inorganic minerals.
Example: Extraction of aluminium from bauxite.	Example: Biominerals such as coal and petroleum contain organic components. Inorganic minerals such as graphite and clay contain inorganic components.

Question 34.
Record the names of the first iron and steel companies in India, along with their founding year and location.
Answer:
Since ancient times, Indians have been well – versed in metallurgy.
Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) – 1907 – Sakchi (Jamshedpur)
Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO) – 1919 – West Bengal
Mysore Iron and Steel Company (Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel) – 1923 – Karnataka

Question 35.
What role do Five-Year Plans play in the industrial growth of a country?
Answer:
A five-year plan is a system designed by the government to achieve set goals for the economic and social progress of a country within a five-year period. After independence, the iron and steel industry in India grew rapidly. During the Second Five-Year Plan, three integrated iron and steel projects were started at Bhilai, Rourkela and Durgapur with the help of the Soviet Union, Germany and Britain respectively. Later, the management and responsibility of these were taken over by the government organisation, Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL). This makes it clear that the five-year plans have a crucial role in the industrial growth of the country to finance, implement and set targets for large-scale industrial projects.

Question 36.
What are the geographical factors influencing the distribution of manufacturing industries?
Answer:

1. Topography
2. Weather
3. Water
4. Energy
5. Raw materials

Question 37.
What are the objectives of resource conservation?
Answer:

• Ensuring their availability by avoiding over-exploitation through judicious use.
• Conserve resources for future generations.
• Maintain the balance of the environment.
• Minimise impacts on nature and human beings.

Question 38.
Explain the reasons for the growth of the iron and steel industry in Odisha.
Answer:
Odisha is the major iron and steel industrial state of India. The reasons for the growth of the iron and steel industry in Odisha compared to other states of India are:

• Favourable geographical location.
• Mineral and water availability.
• High-grade iron ore deposits are found in Keonjhar, Sundargarh and Mayurbhanj districts and coal in the Talcher region.
• An excellent railway network and highways connecting the factories of Rourkela and Kalinganagar with the main markets of India facilitated industrial development.
• long coastline and ports facilitated domestic and international trade, making Odisha the centre of the iron and steel industry.

Question 39.
Explain the various factors influencing the distribution of manufacturing industries at geographical and non-geographical levels.
Answer:
Both geographical and non-geographical factors influence the distribution of manufacturing industries.

Question 40.
How are regional inequality, migration, and urbanisation related to industries?
Answer:

• Regional Inequality: The unbalanced distribution of natural resources and inadequate basic facilities have resulted in a concentration of industrial development in certain regions. Differences can be seen in the income arid living standards of the people in these areas. This causes regional disparity in industrially backward areas.
• Migration: Migration is the permanent or temporary movement of people from one region to another. People migrate from less developed areas to developed industrial areas for employment and better living conditions. As a result of this, population density increases in this area.
• Urbanisation: Urbanisation is the increase in size and population of cities as a result of migration from rural areas to urban areas and natural population growth in cities. This has led to a massive increase in the size and population of cities and it results in socio-economic and environmental changes.

Question 41.
How to classify manufacturing industries on the basis of raw materials? Give examples for each,
Answer:
MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES IN INDIA
Minerals distributed across various states of India, play an important role in the country’s production and industrial sectors. Minerals which are extracted through different refining processes are the main raw materials for industries. On the basis of raw materials, manufacturing industries can be main classified as follows.

• Among the mineral-based industries, the iron and steel industry is the foundation of industrial development.
• The iron and steel industry is called a basic industry as it provides the raw materials and products required for other industries.
• Iron and steel industry is also known as heavy industry. India is one of the largest producers of iron and steel in the world.

Heavy Industry Iron and steel industries are also called heavy industries due to the large amount of raw materials used and the size and weight of the products from them.

 

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Constitution of India: Rights and Duties Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Constitution of India: Rights and Duties Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 5 Kerala Syllabus

Constitution of India: Rights and Duties Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
In which year did the Constituent Assembly come into existence?
Answer:
1946

Question 2.
Who is the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who is the father of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R Ambedkar

Question 4.
Which day is celebrated as Constitution Day?
Answer:
November 26

Question 5.
In which part of the Indian Constitution are Fundamental Rights included?
Answer:
Part 111

Question 6.
Which is the official document declaring that the king and his government are not above the law?
Answer:
Magna Carta

Question 7.
When did education become a fundamental right?
Answer:
2002

Question 8.
Which constitutional amendment made education a fundamental right?
Answer:
86^th constitutional Amendment

Question 9.
In which year did the Right to Education Act come into force?
Answer:
2009

Question 10.
The Right to Education Act has come into force on ………………………
Answer:
April 10

Question 11.
…………………. was written in the world’s first written constitution.
Answer:
Bill of right

Question 12.
Which of the following is prohibited under Article 23 of the Indian Constitution?
a) Right to freedom of religion
b) Forced labour and human trafficking
c) Right to education
d) Equal pay for equal work
Answer:
b) Forced labour and human trafficking

Question 13.
Which Article of the Indian Constitution allows individuals to approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
a) Article 14
b) Article 19
c) Article 32
d) Article 21
Answer:
c) Article 32

Question 14.
What are rights?
Answer:
Rights are legal, social, or moral rules that protect individual freedom and ensure fair treatment. They are the claims or freedoms that every person is entitled to simply because they are human beings.

Question 15.
What are fundamental rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are the basic rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India to all citizens. These rights are essential for the freedom, dignity, and development of every individual.

Question 16.
What is the special feature of the Right to Education Act?
Answer:
Education was declared a fundamental right under Article 21A by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002. In 2009, Parliament passed the Right to Education Act. The Act came into effect in April 2010. This Act ensures free, compulsory and quality education for all children between the age group of six and fourteen.

Question 17.
What are minorities?
Answer:
Minorities are groups of people who are fewer in number compared to the majority of the population and may have different religion, language, or culture.

Question 18.
Define wrtis.
Answer:
Writs are special orders issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to protect the Fundamental Rights of citizens.

Question 19.
What is meant by “Bill of Rights”?
Answer:
The Government take necessary steps for the protection of rights. For this, every country incorporates a list of rights in their constitution. This list is known as the Bill of Rights.

Question 20.
Write a note on Magna Carta.
Answer:
The Magna Carta is the earliest written document of rights in Britain. The term ‘Magna Carta’ means ‘big document.’ It is an official document declaring that the king and his government are not above the law, In 1215, the people forced King John, the then ruler of England, to sign this document. It later became the basis for the British Parliament’s powers and legal principles. England’s Petition of Rights and Bill of Rights were shaped by the influence of Magna Carta.

Question 21.
Define right to equality as a Fundamental Right?
Answer:
The right to equality is the right to ensure equality in our country. According to this right, there is no discrimination on the basis of religion, class, caste, sex or place of birth. It also guarantees equal access to hotels, shops, wells, ponds, bathing ghats and public roads. This right ensures equality of opportunity in public jobs, prohibits untouchability and abolishes titles.

Question 22.
Define the different concepts in the directive principles of national policy.
Answer:

• Liberal ideas
• Socialist ideas
• Gandhian ideas

Question 23.
Match the following.

Writ	Purpose
Habeas Corpus	Order to do a public duty
Mandamus	Challenge illegal occupation of a post
Quo Warranto	Release from illegal detention

Answer:

Writ	Purpose
Habeas Corpus	Release from illegal detention
Mandamus	Order to do a public duty
Quo Warranto	Challenge illegal occupation of a post

Question 24.
List the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution in chronological order.
Answer:

Question 25.
Write the following in chronological order.
a. United nations bill of rights
b. Magna carta
c. US universal declaration of human rights
d. Declaration of human rights after the French Revolution
Answer:
a. Magna Carta – 1215
b. United States Bill of Rights – 1789
c. Declaration of human rights after the French Revolution – 1789
d. United nations universal declaration of Human Rights – 1948

Question 26.
What were the factors that influenced the inclusion of fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

• Denial of rights experienced during colonial rule.
• Existing conditions in the world.
• Values from the war of Independence.
• Ideas from the Indian Renaissance Movement

Question 27.
Define Right to freedom.
Answer:
The rights and freedom mentioned in Article 19 are as follow:

Question 28.
Write about the Directive Principle of State Policy in Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Socio-economic justice has equal importance along with rights and freedoms. Ideas for achieving these are included in the directive principles of state policy. It aims to establish a welfare state by ensuring the welfare and progress of all sections of the people. Unlike fundamental rights, these are not enforceable with the support of the courts. At the same time, governments need to give due consideration to these directive principles while formulating policies and programmes. Articles 36 to 51 of Part IV of the Constitution contain directive principles. These are the recommendations that governments should follow in administration and legislation. The directive principles contain broad concepts that touch on all economic, social, educational, and international issues of the nation. The directive principles of state policy can be classified into three categories, namely, liberal ideas, socialist ideas and Gandhian ideas.

Question 29.
Differentiate between Fundamental rights and Directive principles.
Answer:

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS	DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES
It can be reinstated through the courts.	Cannot go to court for enforcement.
Mainly ensures individual freedom.	Aims at the welfare of all sections of society.
Legally enforceable by law.	Not legally enforceable.
Found in Part III of the Constitution.	Found in Part IV of the Constitution.
Helps in achieving political democracy.	Helps in achieving social and economic democracy.
Amendment is difficult.	Amendment is easier through legislation.
Limits government powers.	Guides government in making policies.

Question 30.
Write a note on various types of writs.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus: A court order that requires the custodian of an unlawfully detained person to bring the person before the court.
Mandamus: An order issued when a court finds that an officer’s failure to perform his statutory duty has prejudiced the rights of another person.
Prohibition: An order of the Supreme Court or High Court-prohibiting lower courts from hearing a case outside their jurisdiction.
Quo Warranto: An order issued by a court restraining an officer from holding a position for which he is not entitled.
Certiorari: An order to transfer a case pending in a lower court to a higher court.

Question 31.
Point out the Liberal, Socialist and Gandhian ideas of Directive Principles of State policy.
Answer:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY (DPSP)

• DPSP: Aim to ensure socio-economic justice and create a welfare state.
• Found in Articles 36 to 51, Part IV of the Constitution.
• Not enforceable by courts, but guides the government in making laws and policies.
• Covers economic, social, educational, and international matters.
• Divided into three types:
  • Liberal ideas
  • Socialist ideas
  • Gandhian ideas

LIBERAL IDEAS	SOCIALIST IDEAS	GANDHIAN IDEAS
Promote international peace and security.	Wage for livelihood for workers.	Organise Gram Panchayats.
Uniform Civil Code for citizens.	Equal pay for equal work for men and women.	Fostering cottage industries.
Equal justice and free legal aid.	Participation of workers in the management of industries.	Agriculture and animal husbandry.
Provision of care and education for children under six years of age.	Right to employment.	Prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health.
Environment, livestock and wildlife conservation.	Ensure regular and humane working conditions and maternity benefits.	Uplift of Scheduled 2 Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.

Question 32.
Write a note on Fundamental Duties.
Answer:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

• Sardhar Vallabhbhai patel (first deputy prime minister and home minister of India) suggested that Indian citizen should have regular responsibility along with rights.
• Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. Our Constitution enshrines certain duties that citizens have to fulfill.
• The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Central Government in 1976 to submit recommendations on the fundamental duties of citizens.
• Taking into consideration the recommendations of the Committee, a new Part (IVA) containing the Fundamental Duties was included in the Constitution as part of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976. Accordingly, the Fundamental Duties became part of the Constitution as Article 51A.
• When citizens enjoy their fundamental rights, they should also be aware of their fundamental duties.

“Every Indian must remember that he is an Indian and he has every; right in his country but with certain duties ” – Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 33.
Describe Cultural and educational rights.
Answer:
India is a country rich in diversity. Religious, linguistic and cultural minorities characterise this diversity. Minorities are groups of people who follow a common language, religion or culture and are fewer in number than other groups in a particular part of the country or the whole country. Cultural and educational rights are the means for minorities to preserve and develop their culture, language and script. Accordingly, all religious, linguistic and cultural minorities have the right to establish and run their own educational institutions. Through that they can protect and nurture their own culture.

Question 34.
Right to constitutional remedies is a fundamental right. Elucidate.
Answer:
The right to constitutional remedies is one of the greatest protections given to the safety and security of the individual. If any of the above fundamental rights is violated, the Supreme Court under Article 32 and the High Courts under Article 226 can be approached for their restoration. The Supreme Court and High Courts restore fundamental rights through writs. Writs are orders and directions issued by the Supreme Court or the High Courts for the protection of fundamental rights. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar describes this right as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 4 Basic Economic Problems and the Economy Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Basic Economic Problems and the Economy Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus

Basic Economic Problems and the Economy Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Who is known as the father of economics?
a) Karl Marx
b) Alfred Marshall
c) J.M. Keynes
d) Adam Smith
Answer:
d) Adam Smith

Question 2.
Who is the economist who argued that government intervention is inevitable in economic activities?
a) Adam Smith
b) David Ricardo
c) Karl Marx
d) J.M. Keynes
Answer:
d) J.M. Keynes

Question 3.
What is the economic policy adopted by India after independence?
a) The capitalist economy
b) Socialist Economy
c) Mixed economy
d) The market economy
Answer:
c) Mixed economy

Question 4.
What is considered to be the fundamental factor of growth and innovation in the knowledge economy?
a) Material resources
b) The labour force
c) Capital Investment
d) Knowledge and Skills
Answer:
d) Knowledge and Skills

Question 5.
What are the main activities in an economy?
Answer:
Production, Consumption, Distribution

Question 6.
What is the main objective of the capitalist economy?
Answer:
Maximum Profit

Question 7.
Which is the concept formulated by J.A. Schumpeter?
Answer:
Creative Destruction

Question 8.
What is the main resource in the knowledge economy?
Answer:
Knowledge

Question 9.
Define Economy.
Answer:
An economy is the way a country organises the production, distribution and consumption of various goods and services.

Question 10.
Who defined economics as the study of the relationship between human wants and limited resources?
Answer:
Lionel Robbins

Question 11.
Differentiate between basic needs and gratifying needs.
Answer:

Basic needs	Gratifying needs
The essential needs for the survival of life such as food, clothing and shelter can be called basic needs.	There are certain needs that make our life more comfortable and happy. These are called gratifying needs.

Question 12.
Explain the basic economic problem of ‘What to produce?
Answer:
Each country has to prioritise what to produce using the available resources. Once it is decided what to produce, the question as how much to produce becomes relevant. A country has to produce many goods and services. If the country decides to produce more of any one commodity or service, it will have to limit the resources that can be used to produce other goods.

Question 13.
Write any two features of the labor intensive technique.
Answer:

1. Production involving more labourers
2. Low level of capital utilisation

Question 14.
What is the role of government in a capitalist economy?
Answer:
It is an economy in which ownership of the factors of production is concentrated in individuals. There is limited government intervention. Active participation of government in economic development can be seen today in many countries that follow capitalist economy.

Question 15.
Define mixed economy and write an example.
Answer:
A mixed economy is one that combines some features of a capitalist economy and a socialist economy. Eg: India

Question 16.
What is the ‘Theory of Surplus Value’ formulated by Karl Marx?
Answer:
German economist and philosopher Karl Marx developed the ‘Theory of Surplus Value’. According to Marx, the basis of production is the labour of the workers. But only a small portion of this is given to the labourer and the majority is kept by the capitalist.

Question 17.
What is the financial contribution of David Ricardo?
Answer:
British economist David Ricardo came up with the theory that trade between two countries can increase the welfare of both countries. His ‘Theory of Rent’ regarding the lease of land is very famous.

Question 18.
What are the differences between Labour Intensive Technique and Capital Intensive Technique?
Answer:

• The method of production using more labour and less capital is called ‘Labour Intensive Technique’.
• The method of production using more capital and less labour is called ‘Capital Intensive Technique’.

Question 19.
Explain the major thoughts of Amartya Kumar Sen on Welfare Economics.
Answer:

• Emphasis should be placed on education, health care and social justice to achieve economic progress.
• Gender equality and women empowerment are essential for the progress of the country.
• Economic development should be evaluated on the basis of its influence on human rights and freedoms.

Question 20.
What are the basic economic problems of a country?
Answer:

1. What to produce?
2. How to produce?
3. For whom to produce?

Question 21.
What does the knowledge economy mean?
Answer:
A knowledge economy refers to an economic system in which knowledge and skills are the conductors of growth and innovation. In this economy, knowledge is considered as a key resource. Its creation, dissemination and application are crucial to economic development.

Question 22.
Write any three characteristics of Capital Intensive Technique.
Answer:

1. Less demand for labourers
2. Utilises more capital investment
3. Ensures productivity

Question 23.
Complete the missed parts.
• Land – Rent
• ………..a)……….. – Wages
• Capital – ……..b)………..
• ……….c)……… – Profit
Answer:
a) Labour
b) Interest
c) Organisation

Question 24.
Explain the important economic thoughts of Mahatma Gandhi.
Answer:

• Gandhiji envisioned an economy based on self-sufficiency and decentralisation.
• Rural industries need to be nurtured to increase employment opportunities locally.
• Expand local markets for marketing locally produced goods.
• Economic inequality should be alleviated to ensure social justice.

Question 25.
Explain the concept of “creative destruction” with an example.
Answer:
J. A. Schumpeter, a native of the Czech Republic, developed the concept of ‘Creative Destruction.
Industries and technologies create new opportunities and growth through innovation. But he also opined that existing industries and technologies are disrupted or destroyed by innovation.
Eg: The rise of the smart phone industries led to the decline of the tape recorder, video player and film camera industries.

Question 26.
Match the following.

Dadabhai Naoroji	Efficient tax system
Chanakya	The Drain Theory
Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee	Self-Sufficiency
Mahatma Gandhi	Poverty Eradication

Answer:

Dadabhai Naoroji	The Drain Theory
Chanakya	Efficient tax system
Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee	Poverty Eradication
Mahatma Gandhi	Self-Sufficiency

Question 27.
Write any four characteristics of Needs.
Answer:

• Human needs are diverse and innumerable
• Some needs can be met alone and others through collective efforts
• A need once fulfilled may be repeated
• Needs vary with time, place and individuals

Question 28.
What are the main characteristics of an economy?
Answer:

• Economy is man-made
• Economy is subject to change
• Economic activities in the economy keep changing
• Production, distribution and consumption are the main activities in the economy

Question 29.
Explain the basic economic problem of ‘For whom to produce?
Answer:
Production should be done to meet the needs of the people. The question for whom to produce means how goods and services produced are distributed among the people. Production activities should be planned in such a way that available resources are utilised to benefit everyone in the society. Goods and services are produced through the combined action of factors of production such as land, labour, capital and organisation. The value of the goods produced has to be distributed on the basis of the factors of production according to their share. Product value must be distributed as rent to land, wages to labour, interest to capital, and profit to organisation. That means, how the income from production distributed is also important.

Question 30.
Compare the ownership and features of the capitalist economy and the socialist economy.
Answer:
Capitalist Economy
It is an economy in which ownership of the factors of production is concentrated in individuals.

Socialist Economy
A socialist economy is one in which the government owns and controls all the factors of production. A centralised planning committee will take decisions on economic activities.

Features
Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
• All persons have the right to own property. • Maximum profit. • Limited government intervention. • Individuals can store resource and use it to produce goods and services as they want. • The consumer has complete freedom in the market (consumer sovereignty). • Competition among industries. • Active participation of government in economic development can be seen today in many countries that follow capitalist economy.	• Ownership of the factors of production is vested in the government. • Social welfare is the main objective. • Government’s control over the market. • The central planning committee utilises resources keeping in view the availability of resources and national objectives. • Reducing inequality in income and wealth. • Intervention of private enterprises is also seen in today’s socialist economy.

Question 31.
Highlight the economic contributions of Indian economists like Chanakya, Dadabhai Naoroji,Mahatma Gandhi and Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee.
Answer:
Indian Economists have given great contribution to the development of economics.

• Chanakya in ancient India, who devised an efficient tax system for the country’s economic development.
• Dadabhai Naoroji, the originator of The Drain Theory, are prominent among them.
• Mahatma Gandhi, Father of our Nation, describes the economic visions in his books Hind Swaraj and India of My Dreams.

Gandhiji’s Economic Thoughts

• Gandhiji envisioned an economy based on self-sufficiency and decentralisation.
• Rural industries need to be nurtured to increase employment opportunities locally.
• Expand local markets for marketing locally produced goods.
• Economic inequality should be alleviated to ensure social justice.

Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee

• Indian-American economist Abhijit Vinayak Banerjee was awarded the 2019 Nobel Prize in Economics for devising an experimental approach to global poverty eradication.
• He shared the Nobel Prize with Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 3 Movements of the Earth: Rotation and Revolution Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Movements of the Earth: Rotation and Revolution Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus

Movements of the Earth: Rotation and Revolution Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
What is the direction of Earth’s rotation?
a. From east to west
b. From west to east
c. From north to south
d. From south to north
Answer:
b. From west to east

Question 2.
What is the name of the imaginary line that separates night and day on Earth?
a. Circle of illumination
b. Line of Latitude
c. Line of Longitude
d. Equator
Answer:
a. Circle of illumination

Question 3.
What is the name of the phenomenon when the Earth comes closest to the Sun?
a. Eclipse
b. Perihelion
c. Solstice
d. Equinox
Answer:
b. perihelion

Question 4.
What is a year with 366 days called?
a. Equinox
b. Common year
c. Leap year
d. Solar year
Answer:
c. Leap year

Question 5.
Ferrel’s law is related to which effect?
a. Gravitational effect
b. Coriolis effect
c. Doppler effect
d. Heating effect
Answer:
b. Coriolis effect

Question 6.
Greenwich Mean Time is calculated based on which longitude?
a. 90° East
b. 180° longitude
c. 0° longitude
d. 23.5° North
Answer:
c. 0° longitude

Question 7.
What is the approximate tilt of the Earth’s axis?
a. 0°
b. 90°
c. 66.5°
d. 23.5°
Answer:
d. 23.5°

Question 8.
On which day is the spring equinox?
a. March 21
b. December 22
c. June 21
d. September 23
Answer:
a. March 21

Question 9.
In which month does perihelion usually occur?
a. June
b. December
c. January
d. July
Answer:
c. January

Question 10.
Which day is the Winter Solstice?
a. March 21
b. June 21
c. September 23
d. December 22
Answer:
d. December 22

Question 11.
How far ahead is Indian Standard Time (IST) from Greenwich Mean Time?
a. 5 hours
b. 5 hours 30 minutes
c. 6 hours
d. 4 hours 30 minutes
Answer:
b. 5 hours 30 minutes

Question 12.
How long does it take for the Earth to rotate 1° in longitude?
a. 1 minute
b. 4 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Answer:
b. 4 minutes

Question 13.
What are the main effects of the Earth’s rotation?
a. Snowfall and drought
b. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
c. Day and night, and the Coriolis effect
d. Seasons and weather changes
Answer:
c. Day and night, and the Coriolis effect

Question 14.
Match the following

Season	Characteristics
1. Spring	a. High ambient temperature.
2. Summer	b. Low ambient temperature.
3. Autumn	c. Plants bloom and bear fruit.
4. Winter	d. Trees shed their leaves.

a. 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
b. 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c
c. 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b
d. 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
Answer:
c. 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – b

Season	Characteristics
1. Spring	c. Plants bloom and bear fruit.
2. Summer	a. High ambient temperature.
3. Autumn	d. Trees shed their leaves.
4. Winter	b. Low ambient temperature.

Question 15.
What are the main effects of the Earth’s rotation?
Answer:
The Earth’s rotation causes day and night. It also causes the Coriolis effect, which causes objects moving freely on the Earth’s surface to deviate in direction due to rotation.

Question 16.
How long does it take the Earth to complete one orbit? How does this cause a leap year?
Answer:
It takes the Earth 365 1/4 days (365 days and 6 hours) to complete one orbit. Every four years, the extra quarter day (6 hours × 4 years = 24 hours or 1 day) is added to make the month of February 29 days. Such years are called leap years.

Question 17.
What is Perihelion? In which month does it occur?
Answer:
Perihelion is the phenomenon when the Earth comes closest to the Sun. At this time, the approximate distance between the Earth and the Sun is 147 million kilometers. It generally occurs in the month of January (specifically January 3).

Question 18.
What are the equinoxes? On which days do they occur?
Answer:
Equinoxes or the days of the equinoxes are the days when the length of night and day is equal in both hemispheres (Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere). This occurs on March 21 (Spring Equinox) and September 23 (Autumn Equinox) when the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the equator.

Question 19.
What is Uttarayanam?
Answer:
Uttarayanam is the phenomenon in which the relative position of the Sun moves from the southern hemisphere to the northern hemisphere due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. It occurs approximately from December 22 to June 21.

Question 20.
What day is the summer solstice? What is an important feature of this day?
Answer:
The summer solstice is on June 21. On this day, the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the equator (23.5° North), so the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night.

Question 21.
What were the two main things used in ancient times to determine local time?
Answer:
In ancient times, two main things were used to determine the local time at a location: the position of the sun, or the time when the sun reaches its zenith, and the length of the shadow.

Question 22.
What is an aurora? Where can it be seen?
Answer:
An aurora is a natural, colourful light in the atmosphere that occurs during the winter months when strong solar winds occur in the polar regions. It is usually seen in the high latitudes of the polar regions.

Question 23.
How many days does it take for the Sun So complete one rotation on its axis?
Answer:
The Sun takes approximately 27 days to complete one rotation on its axis.

Question 24.
What is an aphelion? in which month does it occur?
Answer:
Aphelion is the phenomenon when the distance between the Sun and the Earth is the greatest. It occurs at a distance of about 152 million kilometers, it generally occurs in the month of July (especially July 4)

Question 25.
What is rotation? What are the two main changes that result from it?
Answer:
Rotation is the rotation of the Earth on its axis. This results in day and night. When one side of the Earth receives sunlight, it is day, and when the other side is in darkness, it is night. Another result is the Coriolis effect; the rotation causes winds and ocean currents that move freely on the Earth’s surface to change direction.

Question 26.
What is the Coriolis effect? How does it affect the direction of winds and ocean currents?
Answer:
The Coriolis effect is a phenomenon in which objects moving freely on the Earth’s surface are deflected by the Earth’s rotation. As a result, according to Ferrel’s law, the direction of wind and ocean currents is deflected to the right of their direction of travel in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The force that causes this is called the Coriolis force.

Question 27.
How do leap years occur?
Answer:
It takes the Earth 365 days and about 6 hours (1/4 day) to orbit the Sun once. These extra 6 hours each year are not included in the calendar. Every four years, these extra 6 hours become a full day (6 hours × 4 = 24 hours). This extra day is added to the month of February, and that year is considered a leap year with 366 days.

Question 28.
What is Apparent Movement of the Sun? What is its effect?
Answer:
Apparent Movement of the Sun is the phenomenon in which the relative position of the Sun appears to move northward and southward between the lines of North and South as the Earth’s axial tilt (23.5°) remains constant throughout its orbit. This is not actually the movement of the Sun, but the tilt and rotation of the Earth that cause this relative movement. The main result bf this is the difference in the length of days and nights experienced in each region. In addition, it also causes the seasons.

Question 29.
When is the summer solstice? What is special about this day in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The summer solstice is on June 21. On this day, the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the northern hemisphere (23.5° North). Therefore, the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night on this day. It is generally summer in the Northern Hemisphere at this time.

Question 30.
When is the winter solstice? What is special about this day in the Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The winter solstice is on December 22. On this day, the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the southern hemisphere (23.5° South). Therefore, the Southern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night on this day. During this time, it is generally summer in the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 31.
How is Indian Standard Time (IST) determined?
Answer:
Standard time is determined to avoid time differences within a country and to reduce time confusion. In India, the 82.5° East longitude has been chosen as the Standard Time of India. The local time at this longitude is considered as Indian Standard Time. This longitude is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (82.5° × 4 minutes/degree = 330 minutes = 5 hours and 30 minutes).

Question 32.
What are Time Zones? What is their importance?
Answer:
Time zones are the divisions of the world into 24 time zones with a time difference of approximately one hour. Each time zone has an area of approximately 15° of longitude (15° × 4 minutes/degree = 60 minutes = 1 hour). These time zones help to standardise timekeeping around the world and avoid time confusion in communication and transportation between different countries. Larger countries may have more than one time zone.

Question 33.
What are the traditional seasons in India? How many are there?
Answer:
India traditionally has six major seasons.

• Vasantham – March, April
• Greeshmam – May, June
• Varsham – July, August
• Sarath – September, October
• Hemantham – November, December
• Sisiram – January, February

Question 34.
Explain the main differences between the rotation and revolution of the Earth.
Answer:
Rotation is the spinning of the Earth on its imaginary axis. The direction of rotation of the Earth is from west to east. The two effects of rotation were day and night, and the Coriolis effect. The time taken for the Earth to complete one rotation is 24 hours (23 hours 56 minutes 4 seconds). The Earth receives light from the Sun. During rotation, the part of the Earth facing the Sun has daytime and the other part experiences night. The imaginary line that demarcates day and night on the Earth is called the Circle of Illumination. While rotating on its axis, the Earth revolves around the Sun in a fixed orbit. This is known as Revolution. The time taken to complete one revolution in the elliptical orbit is 365 days. 365 days is considered as one year for practical convenience. The fraction of 14 days is added once in 4 years to February, making it 29 days. Thus, a year with 366 days is called a leap year.

Question 35.
Explain how the relative position of the Sun affects the length of day and night.
Answer:
The Earth is tilted about 23.5° on its axis, which remains constant as the Earth orbits the Sun. Due to this tilt, the Sun’s relative position is felt to move northward and southward between the lines of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. This is called precession. As the Sun’s relative position changes, the amount of sunlight received by each part of the Earth varies. For example, on June 21, the Northern Hemisphere experiences its longest day because the Sun’s rays fall perpendicularly. Similarly, on December 22, the Southern Hemisphere experiences its longest day. On March 21 and September 23, the Sun’s rays fall perpendicularly on the Equator, so the length of day and night is equal all over the world.

Question 36.
Explain the reasons for the occurrence of seasons.
Answer:
There are three main reasons for the occurrence of seasons on Earth:
Revolution: One of the main reasons is that the Earth revolves around the Sun in its elliptical orbit. The Earth revolves around the Sun once in a year.

Fluctuations in solar energy availability: The amount of solar energy received by each region varies during the Earth’s orbit. Areas where the sun’s rays fall vertically are warmer, and areas where they fall obliquely are cooler.

Earth’s axial tilt: The Earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of about 23.5° to its orbit. This tilt remains constant throughout the orbit. Together, these three factors change the relative position of the Sun and cause each region to experience unique weather conditions (seasons).

Question 37.
What is the need to determine standard time in a country?
Answer:
The main requirements for determining standard time in a country are as follows:
Time unification: There may be differences in local time at different places within the country. A unified time is necessary to avoid this confusion.

General activities: Railway timing, radio and television broadcasting, public. examinations, industrial and commercial activities all take place across the country based on a standard time.

To avoid confusion: When there are multiple time zones within a country, there may be time confusion for travellers and communicators. A standard time helps to avoid this.

Efficient administration: A unified time is essential for the efficient implementation of administrative, economic and social matters.

Question 38.
Why has only one standard time been adopted for India in general, despite the difference in local time between the eastern and western parts of India of about two hours?
Answer:
The longitude of the eastern and western parts of India is about 30° (i.e., a time difference of about 2 hours). However, a uniform time is essential to avoid time confusion and ensure efficiency in railway transport, radio broadcasting, public examinations, and day-to-day industrial and commercial activities within the country. If two or more time zones existed, there would have been major problems and confusion in timekeeping among different states. Therefore, to ensure general efficiency and smooth functioning, a single standard time has been adopted by selecting 82.5° East longitude as the standard longitude of India.

Question 39.
What is the Aurora? How does it happen? How is it known in the North and South Poles?
Answer:
The aurora is a natural colourful light show that occurs in the atmosphere of the polar regions, especially in winter, when strong solar winds (energetic particles from the Sun) collide with the Earth’s magnetosphere. It is a beautiful phenomenon that can be seen at high latitudes. When charged particles from the Sun interact with the Earth’s magnetosphere, these particles are attracted to the Earth’s magnetic poles in the polar regions. When these particles collide with gas molecules (oxygen and nitrogen) in the Earth’s atmosphere, they become energised and release that energy as light. Because each gas emits light at its own wavelength, different colored images (green, pink, red, blue, and violet) can be seen in the aurora. Names: In the North Pole, it is called the ‘Aurora Borealis’ or ‘Northern Lights’, and in the South Pole, it is called the ‘Aurora Australis’ or ‘Southern Lights’.

Question 40.
What is the time difference between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time? Explain how it is calculated.
Answer:
Time difference: The time difference between Greenwich Mean Time and Indian Standard Time (IST) is 5 hours and 30 minutes. That is, when it is 12 noon in Greenwich, it is 5:30 pm in India. Greenwich Mean Time: The Greenwich Meridian is the 0° longitude line, which passes through Greenwich, England. It is used as a reference point to determine the time in other places in the world.

Indian Standard Time: The standard longitude of India is the 82.5° east longitude line. It passes through the center of India. Method of calculation: It takes 4 minutes for the Earth to rotate one degree on its axis. For every degree of longitude east of Greenwich Mean Time, 4 minutes are added. Since India’s standard longitude is 82.5° East, to calculate the time difference, we multiply 82.5° by 4 minutes: 82.5 × 4 minutes = 330 minutes. Converting these 330 minutes to hours gives us 5 hours and 30 minutes (330 / 60 = 5.30 hours). Thus, India’s time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 41.
How do the rotation and revolution of the Earth affect human life? Explain with examples.
Answer:
The rotation and revolution of the Earth greatly affect human daily life, culture and economic activities: Rotation – Day and Night: The rotation of the Earth causes day and night. This controls human sleep patterns, working hours and daily activities. For example, human’s are accustomed to working during the day and resting at night. Agriculture, travel, etc., all depend on day and night. Rotation plays an important role in determining local time. Time varies depending on the position of the sun at each location, which serves as the basis for time zones and standard times around the world.

Revolution – Seasons: The Earth’s rotation causes the change of seasons. This affects agriculture, clothing, festivals and lifestyle. For example, farmers plant some crops in summer and other-crops in winter. People wear clothes according to the weather.

Orbit – Length of days and nights: Due to the rotation of the Earth, the length of days and nights varies at different times of the year. This affects human energy consumption and working hours. For example, in summer, the days are longer, so it is possible to work outside for longer.

Socio – cultural influence: Seasonal festivals (for example, Onam, Vishu, Christmas), celebrations, and recreational activities are all shaped by the movements of the Earth. This is an integral part of human social life.

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 Towards the Emergence of the National Movement Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Towards the Emergence of the National Movement Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus

Towards the Emergence of the National Movement Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Who founded the organization Arya Mahila Samaj?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabai

Question 2.
Who published the newspaper Mirat ul-Akbar?
a) Dinabandhu Mitra
b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) Subramania Bharati
Answer:
c) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 3.
Who implemented the Vernacular Press Act?
a) Lord Ripon
b) Lord Wellesley
c) Lord Dalhousie
d) Lord Lytton
Answer:
d) Lord Lytton

Question 4.
In which language was Sambad Kaumudi published?
a) Hindi
b) Marathi
c) Bengali
d) Urdu
Answer:
c) Bengali

Question 5.
In which language is Al Ameen newspaper published?
a) Malayalam
b) Persian
c) Urdu
d) Hindi
Answer:
a) Malayalam

Question 6.
Who is the author of the book “poverty and unbritish rule in India?”
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji

Question 7.
In which year was Raja Ram Mohan Roy born?
Answer:
1772

Question 8.
Which organisation did Jyotirao Phule form for social reformation?
Answer:
Satyashodhak Samaj

Question 9.
In which year was the Indian National Congress formed?
Answer:
1885

Question 10.
What was the aim of the Home Rule League?
Answer:
Home Rule or Self-Government

Question 11.
Define Nationalism.
Answer:
Before independence, India was divided into many princely states. Segregation existed in all spheres like caste, religion, dress, language and culture. But in the second half of the nineteenth century, beyond all such differences, a sense of unity emerged among Indians. A strong anti-British feeling was the basis of this sense of unity of the Indian people. This sense of unity is called Nationalism.

Question 12.
Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian National Congress, and where was it held?
Answer:
W. C. Banerjee presided over the first meeting of the Indian National Congress, which was held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay.

Question 13.
What was the main objective of the first conference of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:
The main objective was to form a general opinion among the social and political activists from different regions of India.

Question 14.
How was Bengal divided during the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
Answer:
Bengal was divided into East Bengal, which was a Muslim-majority region, and West Bengal, which was: a Hindu-majority region.

Question 15.
What was the main concept and method of protest in the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The main concept of the Swadeshi Movement was self-reliance. The primary method of protest was promoting the use of Indian goods and boycotting British goods.

Question 16.
When was the Partition of Bengal implemented, and how did people react to it?
Answer:
The Partition of Bengal was implemented on October 16, 1905. People reacted by observing mourning, organizing hartals in Calcutta, singing patriotic songs like ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’, and participating in massive protests that evolved into the Swadeshi Movement.

Question 17.
Define Swadeshi Samitis and who founded the Swadeshi Bandhab Samiti?
Answer:
Swadeshi Samitis were voluntary organisations that worked to spread the message of the Swadeshi Movement and organise the people. The Swadeshi Bandhab Samiti was formed by Ashwini Kumar Dutt.

Question 18.
Write the objectives of the Swadeshi Bandhab Samiti.
Answer:

• Provide physical training to volunteers.
• Help those who suffer from epidemics and other ailments.
• Establish Swadeshi Vidyalayas.

Question 19.
Explain the difference between moderates and extremists.
Answer:
Moderates: There were differences of opinion among the leaders regarding the working methods of the Indian National Congress. The early leadership was not ready for an open struggle against the British. They were known as moderates. Chief among them were Pherozshah Mehta, Gopalakrishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji. They propagated their ideas through peaceful and bloodless struggles, meetings, speeches and resolutions.

Extremists: A group, dissatisfied with the ideas and activities of the moderates, became strong in the Congress. They were known as extremists. Bal Gangadhara Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal arid Lala Lajpat Rai were prominent among them. Their mode of action was quite different from those of the moderates. They adopted revolutionary methods of action like swadeshi and boycott to argue that freedom could be achieved only through strong open struggle.

Question 20.
How did the economic policies of the British contribute to the emergence of Indian nationalism?
Answer:
India had become a colony for the collection of raw materials for the British industries and also a market for the British products. Economic exploitation was the aim of the British. The policies adopted by them for this led to unemployment and poverty in India. As a result, various categories like farmers, artisans, small traders and tribal communities started fighting against the British.

Question 21.
Examine the contributions of literature to the emergence of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
Literary works played an important role in spreading nationalism in India. The protest against the British had reflections in literature. The sufferings, neglect and exploitation faced by the people in different parts of the country became themes in literary works. The works of prominent writers of that time like Dinabandhu Mitra, Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Rabindranath Tagore, Vallathol Narayana Menon, and Subramania Bharati played an important role in inculcating nationalism among the people.

Question 22.
Who were the leaders of the Extremists?
Answer:

• Bal Gangadhara Tilak
• Bipin Chandra Pal
• Lala Lajpat Rai

Question 23.
Explain the contribution of transport and communication facilities to Indian nationalism.
Answer:
The British expanded transport and communication facilities in India for trade, industry, and military purposes. They started the railways, postal system, and telegraph services. They also improved the road transport system to ease the movement of goods. These facilities helped people to travel to all parts of India, communicate and understand each other. In this way, the idea of nationalism emerged and the national movement strengthened. The implementation of a unified, administrative system, legal system, and currency system also created a sense of unity among the people.

Question 24.
List the early political movements in India.
Answer:

Early political movements	Centre of activity	National leaders who led the movements
Indian Association	Calcutta	Surendranath Baneijee, Ananda Mohan Bose
Madras Mahajan Sabha	Madras	M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, Ananda Charlu
Bombay Presidency Association	Bombay	Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, Badruddin Tyabji

Question 25.
Arrange the given table.

A	B
Dinabandhu Mitra	Satyashodhak Samaj
Raja Ram Mohan Roy	SharadaSadan
Jyotirao Phule	Nil Darpan
Pandita Ramabai	Sambad Kaumudi

Answer:

A	B
Dinabandhu Mitra	Nil Darpan
Raja Ram Mohan Roy	Sambad Kaumudi
Jyotirao Phule	Satyashodhak Samaj
Pandita Ramabai	Sharada Sadan

Question 26.
Evaluate the role of Western education in the growth of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
Modern education spread in India at the beginning of the nineteenth century. English education was propagated by the British to highlight their superiority, to subjugate Indians culturally, and mould a section of Indians who would be sympathetic to them. But the English educated Indians became conscious of democracy, freedom, egalitarianism, equal justice, scientific temper and civil rights. Indians who got acquainted with these new ideas wondered how their country came under the British rule. They constantly talked about the need to end the British rule. English became the common language of exchange of ideas for people coming from different parts of the country. Western education helped Indians to understand about the economic and social weaknesses of the country. This led to the emergence of nationalism.

Question 27.
Complete section ‘b’ by understanding the relationship in section ‘a’ given below.
I. a) Anusheelan Samiti: Sachindra Nath Sanyal
b) Ghadar party: ……………………..
II. a) Vanchi Iyer: Bharat Mata Association
b) Rash Behari Bose: ……………………….
III. a) Altaf Hussain Hali: Urdu
b) Premchand: …………………………
IV. a) Arya Samaj: Swami Dayananda Saraswati
b) Hitakarini Samaj: …………………….
Answer:
I. LalaHardayal
II. Yugantar Party
III. Hindi
IV. Veerasalingam Pantulu

Question 28.
Match the following.

A	B
Pandita Ramabai	Surendranath Banerjee
Ayyankali	Ananda Charlu
Indian Association	Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham
Madras Mahajan Sabha	Mukti Mission

Answer:

A	B
Pandita Ramabai	Mukti Mission
Ayyankali	Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham
Indian Association	Surendranath Banerjee
Madras Mahajan Sabha	Ananda Charlu

Question 29.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
• Partition of Bengal
• Minto Morley reforms
• Formation of the Indian National Congress
• Surat Conference
Answer:
• Formation of the Indian National Congress – 1885
• Partition of Bengal – 1905
• Surat Conference – 1907
• Minto Morley reforms – 1909

Question 30.
Which are the revolutionary organisations that formed in contrast to the Indian National Congress’s method of struggle?
Answer:

Revolutionary organisations	Place	Leadership
Anusheelan Samiti	Bengal	Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Aurobindo Ghosh
Bharat Mata Association	Madras	Neelakanta Brahmachari, Vanchi Iyer, Ajit Singh
Yugantar Party	Bengal	Rash Behari Bose, Khudiram Bose
Ghadar party	America	LalaHardayal

Question 31.
Explain the role of social reform movements in the emergence of Indian nationalism.
Answer:
Through social reform activities, the self-confidence of Indians grew and this led to the growth of nationalism. Early reformers in India and their activities are:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Raja Ram Mohan Roy initiated social reforms in India. Born in Bengal in 1772, he had profound knowledge in Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, and Judaism. Roy was a multilingual scholar, influenced by the ideals of French Revolution.

Jyotirao Phule
Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer who fought for the rights of people who were considered lower caste in Maharastra and for the women. He formed an organisation named Satyashodhak Samaj for social reformation. This organisation made efforts for widow marriage and to provide protection to children of widows. He established many educational institutions for Women and Dalits. The people of Maharashtra respectfully called him ‘Mahatma’. His life partner, Savitribai Phule also accompanied him in all his activities. Savitribai also participated in educational activities by establishing several schools for girls and night schools.

Pandita Ramabai

• Pandita Ramabai was a feminine presence in the field of social reforms.
• A native of Karnataka, Ramabai mastered languages such as Sanskrit, Marathi and Bengali.
• Ramabai was honoured with the title of ‘Pandita’ by the teachers of the University of Calcutta for her Knowledge in Sanskrit literature.

Pandita Ramabai fought against child marriage and started several schools for the education of widows and girls. An organisation called ‘Arya Mahila Samaj’ was established for such activities. A shelter called ‘ Sharada Sadan’ was started for the rehabilitation of widows, and a project called Mukti Mission was started to provide vocational training for women. She participated in the conference of the Indian National Congress held in Bombay in 1889.

Question 32.
Explain the objectives of the Indian National Congress.
Answer:

• To foster friendly relation among political activists in different parts of India.
• To foster and strengthen a sense of national unity irrespective of caste, religion and province.
• Formulate and give shape to common needs and present them to the British Government.
• Form a public opinion and organise people in the country.
• Allow centres in India for All India Competitive Examinations as well.

Question 33.
Prepare a note about the Home Rule League,
Answer:
During the First World War, which started in 1914, political activities were revived. It was led by an organisation called the Home Rule League. The Home Rule League helmed under the leadership of Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhara Tilak gained popular support in the cities and villages. The aim of this organisation was Home Rule or Self-Government. Annie Besant and Bal Ganghadhara Tilak travelled across the country to promote the Home Rule League and set up many branches. Realising that the Home Rule League’s activities were a threat to British supremacy, the government arrested and imprisoned Annie Besant. Later, she was released from jail and was elected the President of the Congress in Calcutta Conference in 1917. Annie Besant is the first woman president of the Indian National Congress.

Question 34.
List out some other important social reform movements of India and their founders.
Answer:

Social Reform Movements	Founders
Prarthana Samaj	Atmaram Pandurang
Arya Samaj	Swami Dayananda Saraswati
Aligarh Movement	Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Theosophical Society	Madame Blavatsky, Colonel Olcott
Ramakrishna Mission	Swami Vivekananda
Hitakarini Samaj	Veeresalingam Pantulu
Swabhimana Prasthanam	E. V. Ramasamy Naicker
Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam	Sree Narayana Guru
Sadhujana Paripalana Sangham	Ayyankali

By reviewing Class 8 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 1 Invasion and Resistance Important Questions, students can improve their conceptual understanding.

Invasion and Resistance Extra Questions and Answers Class 8 Social Science Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus

Invasion and Resistance Class 8 Important Questions

Question 1.
Which was the first European country to reach India through the sea route?
Answer:
Portuguese

Question 2.
Who was the first Portuguese to reach India by sea?
Answer:
Vasco Da Gama

Question 3.
Name the ships of Vaso da Gama.
Answer:
Vasco da Gama and his crew reached India with three ships named Sao Gabriel, Sao Raphael and Berrio

Question 4.
Who was the naval chief of Zamorin?
Answer:
Kunjalli Marakkar

Question 5.
……………………. was the first battle in which a European power lost to an Indian ruler.
Answer:
Battle of Colachel

Question 6.
Which of the following countries was not involved in the war with Buxar?
a. Maratha
b. Mughal Dynasty
c. Awadh
d. Bengal
Answer:
a. Maratha

Question 7.
Tipu Sultan was the ruler of which country?
a. Maratha
b. Punjab
c. Bengal
d. Mysore
Answer:
d. Mysore

Question 8.
Vasco da Gama reached Kappad near Kozhikode in …………………………
Answer:
1498

Question 9.
The greatest contribution of the relationship with the Dutch is the work …………………..
Answer:
Hortus Malabaricus

Question 10.
Who led the Mysore army before Tipu Sultan?.
a) Ranjit Singh
b) Hyder Ali
c) Baji Rao
d) Nana Sahib
Answer:
b) Hyder Ali

Question 11.
Which princely state fought four wars with the East India Company?
a) Maratha
b) Punjab
c) Awadh
d) Mysore
Answer:
d) Mysore

Question 12.
In which year did the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War take place?
a) 1767
b) 1782
c) 1799
d) 1805
Answer:
c) 1799

Question 13.
Which region came under British rule after the Anglo-Sikh Wars?
a) Bengal
b) Mysore
c) Punjab
d) Deccan
Answer:
c) Punjab

Question 14.
Which European powers fought in the Carnatic War?
Answer:
British and French

Question 15.
Which are the Dutch colonies in India?
Answer:
Nagapattanam, Bharuch, Ahmedabad and Chinsura were the major trading center of Dutch in India.

Question 16.
What is the speciality of Battle of Colachel?
Answer:
In 1741, Marthandavarma, who ruled Travancore, clashed with the Dutch at Colachel near Kanyakumari. With the defeat in this war, the Dutch lost their supremacy in India. This was the first battle in which a European power lost to an Indian ruler.

Question 17.
What are the French dominions in India?
Answer:
Pondicherry, Yanam, Karaikal and Mahi.

Question 18.
What is the reason for the increase in commercialisation in agriculture?
Answer:
The British forced farmers to grow cash crops like indigo and cotton, which were needed by the British, instead of food crops. The spread of cash crops led to a decline in food crops and food shortages. This led to increased commercialisation in agriculture.

Question 19.
Explain the causes of the Munda rebellion.
Answer:

• British colonial exploitation and land grabbing
• Financial exploitation by moneylenders and traders.

Question 20.
What is Ulgulan?
Answer:
‘Ulgulan’ was a tribal riot that took place in the last decade of the nineteenth century. It is commonly known as Munda Rebellion. The word ‘ulgulan’ means ‘great uproar’ or ‘great upheaval’. The rebellion was led by Birsa Munda, who sought to break British colonial rule and establish a Munda kingdom (Mundarajya) in the Munda tribal areas of present-day Jharkhand.

Question 21.
Complete Section ‘B’ by understanding the relationship in Section ‘A’.
(i) A) General Bhakta Khan: Delhi
B) Tantiyathopi: …………………………

(ii) A) Lucknow: Begum Hazrat Mahal
B) Jhansi: ………………….
Answer:
(i) Kanpur
(ii) Rani Lakshmibai

Question 22.
Write a note on Attingal Revolt.
Answer:

A British contingent of one hundred and forty led by Gifford arrived to give gifts to the Attingal Rani, despite the opinion that was sufficient to give gifts only through the landlords This move led to a big conflict. The contingent was attacked and killed by the locals without any distinction of class, colour, caste and religion. Moreover, the British fort at Anchuthengu was surrounded and blockaded. The Attingal Revolt is significant as the first organised popular uprising against the British rule in Kerala.

Question 23.
Why did the Santals organise a resistance movement against the British?
Answer:
The Santals were a tribal group that migrated to the Rajmahal Hills of Bengal province in the 18th century. The landowners collected taxes unfairly, the usurers constantly gave loans, and in return, they stole their grain and forest resources. All this was done with the support of the British. The Santals mobilised the tribal people against the injustices they faced and started a struggle against the British in 1855. The British killed Sidhu and Kanhu, who led these rebellions. Although the rebellion was brutally suppressed, the Santal rebellion became an important chapter in the history of the resistance of the tribal people.

Question 24.
Explain Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion.
Answer:
The East India Company made no effort to solve the problem of famine in Bengal. Hence, the poor peasants and labourers fought against the British, and this revolt was supported by the sannyasies. So, these are known as Sannyasi Rebellion. Along with the sannyasies, the Fakirs also joined the revolt against the British, and so, this revolt is also called the Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion. Bhavani Pathak and Majnu Shah led the Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion.

Question 25.
Examine the importance of Hortus Malabaricus.
Answer:

• The greatest contribution of the relationship with the Dutch is the work Hortus Malabaricus.
• Information about seven hundred and forty-two medicinal plants of Kerala is presented in this book.
• Hendrik van Rheed, the then-Dutch governor, was the compiler of this work.
• Itti Achuthan, an indigenous medical practitioner, helped him in this composition.
• Appu Bhat, Ranga Bhat and Vinayaka Bhat also contributed to the composition of this work. Hortus Malabaricus was the first book to be printed with some Malayalam words. This work was translated into Malayalam and English by Dr. K. S. Manilal.

Question 26.
Define the policy the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
If the ruler of a princely state died without male heirs, there was a practice of finding a boy from another family as the heir. However, the king’s power to adopt was abolished under the Doctrine of Lapse enacted by Lord Dalhousie, the British Governor-General. In the absence of an heir, the princely state would fall under the control of the English East India Company. Many princely states were annexed to British India under these two policies. The princely state of Awadh (Oudh) was also annexed to British India on charges of misrule.

Question 27.
Write the following in chronological order.
a. The English East India Company was established
b. The Battle of Kulachal
c. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut.
d. The system of perpetual land tax was implemented.
Answer:
a. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut. (1498)
b. The English East India Company was established. (1600)
c. The Battle of Kulachal. (1741)
d. The system of perpetual land tax was implemented. (1793)

Question 28.
Arrange the following in chronological order.
a. Battle of Buxar
b. Fourth Mysore War
c. Battle of Plassey
d. Death of Hyder Ali
Answer:
a. Battle of Plassey – 1757
b. Battle of Buxar – 1764
c. Death of Hyder Ali – 1782
d. Fourth Mysore War – 1799

Question 29.
Arrange the given list in order.

A	B
Tipu Sultan	Bengal
Siraj ud Daula	Travancore
Marthanda Varma	Mughal
Shah Alam II	Mysore

Answer:

A	B
Tipu Sultan	Mysore
Siraj ud Daula	Bengal
Marthanda Varma	Travancore
Shah Alam II	Mughal

Question 30.
Explain the causes of the Neelam riots in Bengal.
Answer:

• The British planters (indigo planters) forced the farmers to cultivate the indigo plant (Amari plant) for the factories established in the villages.
• Indigo produced from the Amari plant could be sold only to the British.
• The British paid less than the market price for the indigo to the farmers.
• It led to severe food shortages, exploitation and economic hardship.
• With the discovery of artificial dyes, the demand for indigo decreased, and poverty increased. Left with no other option, the peasants turned to the path of agitation against the British.

Question 31.
Arrange the given events in chronological order.
a. Munda Rebellion
b. Attingal Rebellion
c. Neelam Farmers’ Revolt in Bengal
d. Santhal Rebellion
Answer:
a. Attingal Rebellion – 1721
b. Santhal Rebellion – 1855 – 1856
c. Neelam (Indigo) Farmers’ Revolt – 1859 – 1860
d. Munda Rebellion – 1899 – 1900

Question 32.
Examine the significance of Kittoor Chennamma’s rebellion.
Answer:
Kittoor Rani Chennamma was a brave woman who took up arms and fought against the British. Kittur was a princely state in Karnataka that recognised the supremacy of the Maratha rule. When the British won the Third Anglo-Maratha War, the Kittur area came under the control of the English East India Company. The ruler of Kittur was Sivalinga Rudradesai. After his death, Chennamma, his widow, decided to adopt a boy. This was prevented by the English East India Company, which annexed Kittur to British India. Provoked by this, Rani Chennamma of Kittoor declared war against the British. Rani Chennamma died in 1829 while in British custody.

Question 33.
Write the impact of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• The English East India Company’s rule in India ended
• The administration of India came under the direct control of the British Queen
• The position of Governor-General was replaced by Viceroy
• It inspired India’s later national movements

Question 34.
What are the limitations of the revolt of 1857?
Answer:

• The rebellion was confined to a few parts of northern India.
• The rebellion had no organised leadership.
• The Company army had more improvised military and organisational skills than the mutineers.
• The middle class in India generally did not support the rebellion.
• A section of princely rulers abstained from the rebellion.

Question 35.
Write a note on the revolt of 1857.
Answer:
THE DOCTRINE OF LAPSE

• If the ruler of a princely state died without male heirs, there was a practice of finding a boy from another family as the heir.
• However, the king’s power to adopt was abolished under the Doctrine of Lapse enacted by Lord Dalhousie, the British Governor-General.
• In the absence of an heir, the princely state would fall under the control of the English East India Company.
• Many princely states were annexed to British India under these two policies. The princely state of Awadh (Oudh) was also annexed to British India on charges of misrule.

• Another reason for the Revolt of 1857 was the dissatisfaction of the Indian soldiers of the East India Company with the British.

PATRIOTS FOUGHT AGAINST THE BRITISH

Venue of the Rebellion	Persons who led the rebellion	Features
Delhi	Bahadur Shah II	• The rebels declared him the Emperor of India • After the revolution, the British exiled him to Rangoon.
	General Bakht Khan	• Military general of Bahadur Shah II
Jhansi	Rani Lakshmibai	• Ruler of Jhansi
Kanpur	Nana Sahib	• Ruler of Maratha
	Tantia Tope	• Nana Sahib’s army chief • Practised guerilla warfare
Lucknow	Begum Hazrat Mahal	• Ruler of Oudh
Ara in Bihar	Kunwar Singh	• Farmer lord of Jagdishpur

Limitations of the Revolt of 1857

• The rebellion was confined to a few parts of northern India.
• The rebellion had no organised leadership.
• The Company army had more improvised military and organisational skills than the mutineers.
• The middle class in India generally did not support the rebellion.
• A section of princely rulers abstained from the rebellion.

Impact of the Revolt of 1857 in Indian History

• The English East India Company’s rule in India ended.
• The administration of India came under the direct control of the British Queen.
• The position of Governor-General was replaced by Viceroy.
• It inspired India’s later national movements.

Foreigners who came for trade gained political power in India. The subsequent national struggles were fuelled by the resistance and movements of people in various regions of India against this.

Question 36.
Write the major contributions of the Portuguese.
Answer:

• Introduced many words to the Malayalam language.
• Cashew, papaya, guava, pineapple, etc., were introduced.
• The first European Fort in India (Fort Manuel), was established in Kochi.
• The regions of Kochi, Goa, Daman and Diu came under Portuguese rule.
• Art forms like Chavittunadakam and Margam Kali were popularised.
• The European style of building construction was started.
• European weapons and war tactics were taught.
• Christian religious study centres were started.

Question 37.
Explain the tax policies implemented by the British in India.
Answer:
(Refer table on Topic 3: The Tax policies implemented by the British)-

Question 38.
Write the venue and features of the revolt of 1857.
Answer:

Venue of the Rebellion	Persons who led the rebellion	Features
Delhi	Bahadur Shah II	• The rebels declared him the Emperor of India • After the revolution, the British exiled him to Rangoon.
	General Bakht Khan	• Military general of Bahadur Shah II
Jhansi	Rani Lakshmibai	• Ruler of Jhansi
Kanpur	Nana Sahib	• Ruler of Maratha
	Tantia Tope	• Nana Sahib’s army chief • Practised guerilla warfare
Lucknow	Begum Hazrat Mahal	• Ruler of Oudh
Ara in Bihar	Kunwar Singh	• Farmer lord of Jagdishpur